Chemistry 12th Previous Year Question Paper 2018 (CBSE)

Chemistry

Section-A

Q.1. The analysis shows that FeO has a non-stoichiometric composition with formula Fe0.95O. Give reason. 

Answer: Shows metal defeciency defect / It is a maxture of Fe2+ and Fe3+ / Some Fe2+ ions are replaced by Fe3+ / Some of the ferrousion get oxidised to ferric ions.

 

Q.2. CO(g) and H2(g) react to give different products in the presence of different catalysts. Which ability of the catalyst is shown by these reactions?

Answer: CO(g) and H2(g) react in the presence of different catalysts to give different products, this shows that the action of a catalyst is highly selective in nature.

 

Q.3. Write the coordination number and oxidation state of Platinum in the complex [Pt(en)2Cl2].

Answer: Coordination number: 6;

Oxidation state: +2

 

Q.4. Out of chlorobenzene and benzyl chloride, which one gets easily hydrolysed by aqueous NaOH and why?

Answer: Benzyl chloride would be easily hydrolysed compared to chlorobenzene. In the given reaction conditions, hydrolysis proceeds by nucleophilic substitution mechanism and the benzyl carbonium ion formed after losing the leaving group (-Cl) is better stabilized (through resonating structures) hence reacts easily.

 

Q.5. Write the IUPAC name of the following: 

Answer: The IUPAC name would be 3, 3- Methyl-pentan-2-ol.

 

Section-B

Q.6. Calculate the freezing point of a solution containing 60 g of glucose (Molar mass = 180 g mol-1) in 250 g of water. (Kf of water = 1.86 K kg mol-1

Answer: Molality (m) of a given solution of Glucose:

m = [(60/180) g mol-1/250 g] × 1000 = 1.33 mol kg-1

Now, depression in freezing point is given by, ΔTf = Kfm

Putting the given values,

 ΔTf = Kfm = 1.86 × 1.33 = 2.5

So, the freezing point of the solution would be = 273.15 K – 2.5 K = 270.65 K.

 

Q.7. For the reaction 

2N2O5>(g) → 4NO2(g) + O2(g) the rate of formation of NO2(g) is 2.8 × 10-3 Ms-1

Calculate the rate of disappearance of N2O5(g).

Answer: Rate of reaction for the given reaction can be given as,

Rate = 1/2 {-Δ[N2O5]/Δt} or {-Δ[N2O5]/Δt} = 1/2 {[NO2/ Δt]}

So, the rate of disappearance of N2O5 would be half of the rate of production of NO2 (given 2.8 × 10-3Ms-1).

So, the rate of disappearance of N2O5 is 1.4 × 10-3 Ms-1.

 

Q.8. Among the hydrides of Group-15 elements, which have the 

(a) lowest boiling point?

(b) maximum basic character?

(c) highest bond angle?

(d) maximum reducing character?

Answer : The Hydrides of the group 15 elements are NH3, PH3, AsH3, SbH3, BiH3.

(a) The lowest boiling point is of PH3

(b) Maximum basic character is shown by NH3

(c) Highest bond angle is for NH3

(d) BiH3 has the maximum reducing character.

 

Q.9. How do you convert the following?

(a) Ethanal to Propanone

(b) Toluene to Benzoic acid

OR

Q.9. Account for the following:

(a) Aromatic carboxylic acids do not undergo Friedel- Crafts reaction.

(b) pKa value of 4-nitrobenzoic acid is lower than that of benzoic acid.

Answer: (a) Conversion of ethanol to Propanone:

OR

Answer: (a) Aromatic carboxylic acids do not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction because the carboxyl group is deactivating for electrophilic substitution reaction, secondarily, the catalyst aluminium chloride gets bonded to the carboxyl group.

(b) pKa value of 4-Nitrobenzoic acid is lower than benzoic acid, which means 4-Nitrobenzoic acid is more acidic than benzoic acid. Being an electron-withdrawing group, the -NO2 group withdraws electrons towards itself resulting in ease of carboxylic proton release, hence increasing the acidity.

 

Q.10. Complete and balance the following chemical equations: 

(a) Fe2+ + MnO4 + H+

(b) MnO4 + H2O + I

Answer: (a) 5Fe2+ + MnO4 + 8H+ → Mn2+ + 4H2O + 5Fe3+

(b) 2MnO4 + H2O + I → 2MnO2 + 2OH + IO3.

 

Section-C

Q.11. Give reasons for the following: 

(a) Measurement of osmotic pressure method is preferred for the determination of molar masses of macromolecules such as proteins and polymers.

(b) Aquatic animals are more comfortable in cold water than in warm water.

(c) Elevation of boiling point of 1M KCl solution is nearly double than that of 1M sugar solution.

Answer: (a) Molar masses of macromolecules like polymers and proteins are measured through osmotic pressure method. The osmotic pressure method uses ‘molarity’ of solution (instead of molality) which has a large magnitude even for dilute solutions, given that polymers have poor solubility, osmotic pressure measurement is used for determination of their molar masses. Macromolecules such as proteins are not stable at high temperatures and because measurement of osmotic pressure is done at around room temperature, it is useful for determination of molar masses of proteins.

(b) The solubility of gases in liquids decreases on increasing the temperature. Hence, the availability of dissolved oxygen in water is more at lower temperatures hence, the aquatic animals feel more comfortable at lower temperatures than at higher temperatures.

(c) Elevation of boiling point is a colligative property and hence depends on the number of solute particles in the solution. Now, 1 M KCl would have twice the number of solute particles, as KCl dissociates into K+ and C1 , compared to sugar solution (as sugar does not undergo any dissociation). So, the elevation of boiling point is nearly double for 1M KCl solution compared to 1M sugar solution.

 

Q.12. An element ‘X’ (At. mass = 40 g mol-1) having f.c.c. the structure has a unit cell edge length of 400 pm. Calculate the density of ‘X’ and the number of unit cells in 4 g of ‘X’. (NA = 6.022 × 1023 mol-1).

Answer : 

Given:

Atomic mass of element(m)=40 gmol-1 length of unit cell(a)=400 pm=4× 10-8 cm; Z=4(Fcc).

Now density is given by the formula

Where Z is the number of an atom in the unit cell

M is the molecular mass

NA is the Avogadro number

V is the volume of the unit cell.

V=a3=(4× 10-8)3 cm =64× 10-24 cm3

Putting the values

Density, D=160/38.5=4.1 g cm-3

 

Q.13. A first-order reaction is 50% completed in 40 minutes at 300 K and in 20 minutes at 320 K. Calculate the activation energy of the reaction. (Given: log 2 = 0.3010, log 4 = 0.6021, R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1

Answer: Rate constant for a first-order reaction is given by,

 

Q.14. What happens when 

(a) a freshly prepared precipitate of Fe(OH)3 is shaken with a small amount of FeCl3 solution?

(b) persistent dialysis of a colloidal solution is carried out?

(c) an emulsion is centrifuged?

Answer: (a) When FeCl3 is added to a freshly prepared precipitate of Fe(OH)3, a positively charged sol of hydrated ferric oxide is formed due to adsorption of Fe3+ ions.

(b) When persistent dialysis of the colloidal solution is carried out, traces of electrolytes present in the sol are removed almost completely leaving the colloids unstable and finally, coagulation takes place.

(c) Emulsions are centrifuged to separate them into constituent liquids.

 

Q.15. Write the chemical reactions involved in the process of extraction of Gold. Explain the role of dilute NaCN and Zn in this process. 

Answer: Extraction of gold involves leaching the metal with a dilute solution of NaCN or KCN in the presence of air (for O2) from which the metal is obtained later by replacement method (using Zinc).

The reactions involved are:

4Au(s) + 8CN(aq) + 2H2O(aq) + O2(g) → 4[AU(CN)2] (aq) + 4OH(aq)

2 [AU(CN)2] (aq) + Zn(s) → 2Au (s) + [Zn(CN)4]2- (aq)

 

Q.16. Give reasons:

(a) E0 value for Mn3+/Mn2+ couple is much more positive than that for Fe3+/Fe2+.

(b) Iron has a higher enthalpy of atomization than that of copper.<br> (c) Sc3+ is colourless in aqueous solution whereas Ti3+ is coloured. 

Answer: (a) Mn2+ has a d5 configuration, and the extra stability of half-filled d-orbitals is compromised when another electron is taken out to give Mn3+, On the contrary, Fe3+ attains a half-filled orbital configuration when Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+. Hence, the E0 value for Mn3+/ Mn2+ couple has more positive E0 value.

(b) Fe has a 3d64s2 outer electronic configuration whereas Cu has 3d104s1 configuration. Now, the more the number of impaired electrons in d-orbital, more favourable are interatomic attractions and thus higher atomization enthalpies. Hence, Fe having 4 unpaired d-electrons has more enthalpy of atomization than copper having no unpaired d-electron.

(c) Sc3+ has a 3d0 configuration whereas Ti3+ has a 3d1 configuration. As there are no electrons in the d orbital for Sc3+ ion, there is no transition of electrons by absorption of energy and hence no emission in the visible range imparting colour to the Sc3+ ion.

 

Q.17. (a) Identify the chiral molecule in the following pair:

(b) Write the structure of the product when chlorobenzene is treated with methyl chloride in the presence of sodium metal and dry ether.

(c) Write the structure of the alkene formed by dehydrohalogenation of 1-Bromo-1 methylcyclohexane with alcoholic KOH.

Answer: (a) The molecule (i) is a chiral molecule.

(b) Chlorobenzene reacts with methyl chloride in the presence of sodium metal and dry ether to give toluene. This reaction is known as Wurtz-Fittig reaction.

(c) In the 1-Bromo-1-methylcyclohexane, all β-hydrogen atoms are equivalent. Thus dehydrohalogenation takes place, in the reaction of this compound with KOH.

 

Q.18. (A), (B) and (C) are three non-cyclic functional isomers of a carbonyl compound with molecular formula C4H8O. Isomers (A) and (C) give positive Tollens test whereas isomer (B) does not give Tollen’s test but gives positive Iodoform test. Isomers (A) and (B) on reduction with Zn (Hg)/conc. HCl, give the same product (D).

(a) Write the structures of (A), (B), (C) and (D).

(b) Out of (A), (B) and (C) isomers, which one is least reactive towards the addition of HCN?

Answer: (a) Compound A and C give positive Tollens test which indicates that they are aldehydes. Compound C gives Iodoform test which means it contains a carbonyl group with a methyl group attached to the carbonyl carbon so, with formula C4H8O the structure of compound would be CH3COCH2CH3 (Butanone).

Now upon reduction with Zn(Hg)/conc. HCl, the corresponding alkanes are obtained, so a reduction of B gives Butane (D), so the isomer A has to be a linear chain aldehyde (Butanal), giving Butane (compound D) on reduction. So, the last isomer possible is compound C, 2-Methyl propionaldehyde. The reactions involved are shown below with the structures of compounds:

(b) Out of the three isomers A, B and C, compound B’ (Butanone) would be least reactive towards the addition of HCl as the carbonyl carbon is sterically hindered and most reactive would be compound A (Butanal) towards the addition of HCN.

 

Q.19. Write the structures of the main products in the following reactions: 

Answer: (i) Sodium borohydride doesn’t reduce esters, so the product would be,

 

Q.20. Answer the given questions:

(A)Why is bithional added to soap? 

(B)What is the tincture of iodine? Write its one use.

(C)Among the following, which one acts as a food preservative?

Aspartame, Aspirin, Sodium Benzoate, Paracetamol

Answer: 1. Bithional is added to soaps to impart antiseptic properties to soap.

2. Tincture of iodine is 2-3 per cent mixture of iodine in the alcohol-water mixture. It is used as an antiseptic.

3. Sodium benzoate is used as a food preservative.

 

Q.21. Define the following with an example of each: 

(a) Polysaccharides

(b) Denatured protein

(c) Essential amino acids

OR

Q.21. (a) Write the product when D-glucose reacts with conc. HNO3.

(b) Amino acids show amphoteric behaviour. Why?

(c) Write one difference between α-helix and β-pleated structures of proteins.

Answer: (a) Polysaccharides: Polysaccharides are food storage materials and most commonly found carbohydrates in nature. These are the compound which is formed of a large number of monosaccharide units joined together by glycosidic linkages. Example. Starch, main storage polysaccharide of plants.

(b) Denatured protein: Proteins have a unique three-dimensional structure in their native form. If the native form of protein is subjected to any physical change (such as temperature change) or any chemical change (such as a change in pH), the hydrogen bonds are disturbed. Due to this, globules unfold and helix get uncoiled due to which protein loses its biological activity. This is called denaturation of the protein. During denaturation 2° and 3° structures of proteins are destroyed but 1° structure remains intact. Coagulation of egg white is an example of denaturation of the protein.

(c) Essential amino acids: amino acids which are not synthesized in our body and have to be obtained through diet are known as essential amino acids. Example: Tryptophan

OR

Answer: (a) D-Glucose gets oxidized to give saccharic acid, a dicarboxylic acid on reacting with nitric acid.

(b) Amino acids show amphoteric behaviour due to the presence of both acidic (carboxylic group) and basic (amino group) in the same molecule. So, in the basic medium, the carboxyl group can lose a proton and in acidic medium, the amino group can accept a proton.

(c) In α-helix structure the polypeptide chain forms all possible hydrogen bonds by twisting into a right-handed screw (helix) with the -NH group of each amino acid residue gets hydrogen-bonded to the -C = O of an adjacent turn of the helix (Intramolecular bonding), whereas in β-structure all peptide chains are stretched out to nearly maximum extension and then laid side by side which are held together by intermolecular hydrogen bonds (intermolecular bonding).

 

Q.22. (a) Write the formula of the following coordination compound: Iron (III) hexacyanoferrate (II)

(b) What type of isomerism is exhibited by the complex [Co(NH3)5 Cl]SO4?

(c) Write the hybridisation and number of unpaired electrons in the complex [CoF6]3-.

(Atomic number of Co = 27) 

Answer: (a) The molecular formula of Iron(III) α-cyanoferrate(II) is Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 

(b) [CO(NH3)5Cl]SO4 will show Ionisation isomerism and the possible isomers are [CO(NH3)5Cl]SO4 and [Co (NH3)5SO4]Cl

(c) Electronic configuration of Co3+ ion is,

Electronic configuration of sp3d2 hybridized (as F is a weak field ligand) orbitals of Co3+ , with six pairs of electrons from six F ions.

There are 4 impaired electrons in [CoF6]3.

 

Section-D

Q.23. Shyam went to a grocery shop to purchase some food items. The shopkeeper packed all the items in polythene bags and gave them to Shyam. But Shyam refused to accept the polythene bags and asked the shopkeeper to pack the items in paper bags. He informed the shopkeeper about the heavy penalty imposed by the government for using polythene bags. The shopkeeper promised that he would use paper bags in future in place of polythene bags. 

Answer the following:

(a) Write the values (at least two) shown by Shyam.

(b) Write one structural difference between low-density polythene and high-density polythene.

(c) Why did Shyam refuse to accept the items in polythene bags?

(d) What is a biodegradable polymer? Give an example.

Answer: (b) Low-density polythene has a branched-chain structure, whereas the high-density polythene has a linear chain structure.

(c) Shyam refused to take the items in polythene bags as polythene is non-biodegradable neither recyclable,

(d) Biodegradable polymers contain functional groups similar to functional groups present in biopolymers, so they get degraded in the environment by certain microorganisms and thus are environment-friendly.

For example Poly β -hydroxybutyrate-co-β-hydroxy valerate (PHBV).

 

Section-E

Q.24. (a) Give reasons: 

(i) H3PO3 undergoes disproportionation reaction but H3PO4 does not.

(ii) When Cl2 reacts with an excess of F2, ClF3 is formed and not FCl3.

(iii) Dioxygen is a gas while Sulphur is a solid at room temperature.

(b) Draw the structures of the following:

(i) XeF4

(ii) HClO3

OR

Q.24. (a) When concentrated sulphuric acid was added to an unknown salt present in a test tube a brown gas (A) was evolved. This gas intensified when copper turnings were added to this test tube. On cooling, the gas (A) changed into a colourless solid (B).

(i) Identify (A) and (B).

(ii) Write the structures of (A) and (B).

(iii) Why does gas (A) change to solid on cooling?

(b) Arrange the following in decreasing order of their reducing character: HF, HCl, HBr, HI

(c) Complete the following reaction:

XeF4 + SbF5

Answer: (a) (i) In H3PO3 (orthophosphoric acid) oxidation state of phosphorus is +3 and it contains one P-H bond in addition to P = O and P-OH bonds. These types of oxoacids tend to undergo disproportionation to give orthophosphoric acid (P has +5 state) and phosphine (P has +3 state). Whereas in H3PO4 (orthophosphoric acid), Phosphorus is in +5 state hence no disproportionation takes place in H3PO4.

(ii) When Cl2 reacts with an excess of F2, ClF3 is formed-and not FCl3 because Fluorine can’t expand its valency and can show only -1 oxidation state, whereas Cl can expand its valency due to the availability of d-orbitals.

(iii) Dioxygen is a gas while sulphur is a solid at room temperature this is because sulphur have S8 molecules and these are packed to give different crystal structure, whereas dioxygen is a diatomic molecule (O2) and it does not have enough intermolecular attraction and thus exists in gaseous form.

(a) (i) The brown gas A is NO2 or nitrogen dioxide. On cooling, it dimerises to N2O4 and solidifies as a colourless solid.

(iii) Compound A, that is, NO2 contains an odd number of valence electrons. It behaves as a typical odd molecule. On dimerization, it is converted to stable N2O4 molecule with an even number of electrons (thus colourless) and have better intermolecular forces to get solidified. Thus, it changes to solid on cooling.

(b) Decreasing order of reducing character: HI > HBr > HCl > HF

(c) XeF4 + SbF5 → [XeF3]+ + [SbF6].

 

Q.25. (a) Write the cell reaction and calculate the e.m.f. of the following cell at 298 K: 

Sn(s) | Sn2+ (0.004 M) || H+> (0.020 M) | H2(g) (1 bar) | Pt(s)

(Given: E° Sn2+/Sn = – 0.14V)

(b) Give reasons:

(i) On the basis of E° values, O2 gas should be liberated at anode but it is Cl2 gas which is liberated in the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl.

(ii) The conductivity of CH3COOH decreases on dilution.

OR

Q.25. (a) For the reaction

2AgCl(s) + H2(g) (1 atm) → 2Ag(s) + 2H+ (0.1M) + 2Cl (0.1M), ΔG° = -43600 J at 25°C.

Calculate the e.m.f. of the cell. [log 10-n> = -n]

(b) Define fuel cell and write its two advantages.

Answer: (a) The half cell reactions can be written as;

The reaction at the anode with a lower value of Ecell is preferred and therefore, water should get oxidized to give O2 but on account of overpotential of oxygen, Cl gets oxidized preferably, liberating Cl2 gas.

(ii) The conductivity of CH3COOH decreases on dilution because the number of ions per unit volume that carry the current in a solution decreases on dilution.

OR

Answer: 

(b) Galvanic cells that are designed to convert the energy of combustion of fuels like hydrogen, methane, methanol etc. directly into electrical energy are called fuel cells.

Advantages of fuel cells are:

  • Fuel cells produce electricity with an efficiency of about 70% compared to thermal plants whose efficiency is about 40%.
  • Fuel cells are pollution-free.

 

Q.26. (a) Write the reactions involved in the following: 

(i) Hofmann bromamide degradation reaction

(ii) Diazotisation

(iii) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis

(b) Give reasons:

(i) (CH3)2NH is more basic than (CH3)3N in an aqueous solution.

(ii) Aromatic diazonium salts are more stable than aliphatic diazonium salts.

OR

Q.26. (a) Write the structures of the main products of the following reactions:

(b) Give a simple chemical test to distinguish between Aniline and N, N-dimethylaniline.

(c) Arrange the following in the increasing order of their pKb values:

C6H5NH2, C2H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3

Answer: (a) (i) Hofmann bromamide degradation reaction: Acetamide can be considered for example. In this reaction, Acetamide (CH3CONH2) undergoes Hofmann degradation in the presence of Bromine and NaOH to give Methanamine.

CH3CONH2 + Br2 + 4NaOH → CH3NH2 + Na2CO3 + 2NaBr + 2H2O.

(ii) Diazotisation: The conversion of primary aromatic amines into diazonium salts is known as diazotization.

(iii) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis: This reaction is used for the preparation of primary amines. Phthalimide on treatment with ethanolic potassium hydroxide forms potassium salt of phthalimide which on heating with alkyl halide followed by alkaline hydrolysis produces the corresponding primary amine.

(b) (i) (CH3)2 NH is more basic than (CH3)3N in aqueous solutions because in (CH3)3N the lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom is responsible for its basicity are quite hindered by the three methyl groups, hence are less available. Due to which it is less basic as compared to (CH3)2NH.

(ii) Aromatic diazonium salts are more stable than aliphatic diazonium salts because the positive charge on the nitrogen atom is stabilized by the resonance with an attached phenyl group.

Answer: 

(b) Aniline can be distinguished from N, N-dimethyl aniline by diazo coupling reaction. Aniline would react with benzene diazonium chloride to give a yellow dye, whereas N, N-dimethyl aniline won’t undergo this reaction.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Chemistry 12th Previous Year Question Paper 2019 (CBSE)

Chemistry

Set-I

Section – A

Q.1.Out of KCl and AgCl, which one shows Schottky defect and why? 

OR

Q.1.Why does ZnO appear yellow on heating?

Answer: KCl shows schottky defect because cation & anions are of similar size. 

OR

Answer: ZnO on heating loses oxygen leaving behind their electrons at that position due to electrons it appears yellow in colour.

 

Q.2. Arrange the following in decreasing order of basic character:

C6H5NH2, (CH3)3N, C2H5NH2

Answer: Decreasing order of basic character:

CH3CH2NH2 > (CH3)3N > C2H5NH2

 

Q.3. What type of colloid is formed when a solid is dispersed in a liquid ? Give an example. 

Answer: Sols are formed when a solid is dispersed in a liquid.

Example – Paints.

 

Q.4. Out of Chlorobenzene and Cyclohexyl chloride, which one is more reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction and why?

Answer: Cyclohexyl chloride is more reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction because the carbon bearing the chlorine atom is deficient in electron and seeks a nucleophile. In Chlorobenzene the carbon bearing the halogen is a part of an aromatic ring and is electron-rich due to the electron density in the ring.

 

Q.5. What is the basic structural difference between starch and cellulose? 

OR

Q.5. Write the products obtained after hydrolysis of DNA.

Answer: Starch consists of two components- amylose and amylopectin. Amylose is a long linear chain of α-D -(+)-glucose units joined by C1, C4 glycosidic linkage (α-link). Amylopectin is a branched-chain polymer of α-D-glucose units, in which the chain is formed by C1-C4 glycosidic linkage and the branching occurs by C1-C6 glycosidic linkage. On the other hand, cellulose is a straight-chain polysaccharide of β-D-glucose units joined by C1-C4 glycosidic linkage (β-link).

OR

Answer: Hydrolysis of DNA yields a pentose sugar (β-D-2deoxyribose), phosphoric acid and nitrogen-containing heterocyclic compounds called bases (Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine and Thymine).

 

Section – B

Q.6. Write balanced chemical equations for the following processes:

(a) Cl2 is passed through slaked lime.

(b) SO2 gas is passed through an aqueous solution of Fe (III) salt. 

OR

Q.6. (a) Write two poisonous gases prepared from chlorine gas.<br> (b) Why does the Cu2+ solution give a blue colour on reaction with ammonia?

Answer: (a) Cl2 is passed through slaked lime to give bleaching powder [Ca(OCl)2]

2Ca(OH)2 + 2Cl2 → Ca(OCl)2 + CaCl2 + 2H2O

(b) When SO2 gas is passed through a Fe(III) aqueous solution, Fe(III) is reduced to Fe(II) ion:

2Fe3+ + SO2 + 2H2O → 2Fe2+ + SO22- + 4H+

OR

Answer: (a) Two poisonous gases prepared from chlorine – Phosgene (COCl2) and tear gas (CCl3NO2).

(b) Nitrogen in ammonia has a lone pair of electrons, which makes it a Lewis base. It donates the electron pair and forms linkage with metal ions-

 

Q.7. Give reasons:

(a) Cooking is faster in a pressure cooker than in cooking pan.

(b) Red Blood Cells (RBC) shrink when placed in saline water but swell in distilled water. 

Answer: (a) Boiling points increase in increasing the pressure in case of liquids. Water used for cooking attains a higher temperature than the usual boiling temperature inside the pressure cooker due to the existing high pressure inside the pressure cooker vessel. This leads to a faster flow of water inside the vegetables or grains etc. resulting in faster cooking of food in a pressure cooker than in the cooking pan.

(b) Red blood cells shrink when placed in saline water because of exosmosis, i.e., water comes out from the cell to surrounding (more concentrated) to equate the concentration. Whereas, when placed in distilled water concentration within the cell becomes more than the surrounding, hence water comes inside and endosmosis takes place to equate the concentrations.

 

Q.8. Define the order of the reaction. Predict the order of reaction in the given graphs:

where [R]0 is the initial concentration of reactant and t1/2is a half-life.

Answer: It is defined as the sum of powers to which the concentration terms are raised in the rate law equation.

(a) In this graph, as t1/2 is independent of initial reactant concentration, it is a first-order reaction.

(b) In this graph, as tin is directly proportional to the initial concentration of reactant hence, it is a zero-order reaction.

 

Q.9. When FeCr2O4 is fused with Na2CO3 in the presence of air it gives a yellow solution of compound (A). Compound (A) on acidification gives compound (B). Compound (B) on reaction with KCl forms an orange coloured compound (C). An acidified solution of compound (C) oxidises Na2O3 to (D). Identify (A), (B), (C) and (D). 

Answer: 

 

Q.10. Write IUPAC name of the complex [Co(en)2(NO2)Cl]+. What type of structural isomerism is shown by this complex? 

OR

Q.10. Using IUPAC norms, write the formula for the following complexes:

(a) Hexaaquachromium (III) chloride

(b) Sodium trioxalatoferrate (III)

Answer: IUPAC name of [Co(en)2(NO2)Cl]+ is Chlorobis(ethane-1, 2-diamine)nitro cobalt(III).

This compound shows geometrical isomerism.

OR

Answer: (a) Hexaaquachromium(III) chloride- [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3

(b) Sodium trioxalatoferrate(III)- Na3[Fe(C2O4)3]

 

Q.11. (a) Although both [NiCl4]2- and [Ni(CO)4] have sp3 hybridisation yet [NiCl4]4 is paramagnetic and [Ni(CO)4] is diamagnetic. Give reason. (Atomic no. of Ni = 28).

(b) Write the electronic configuration of d5 on the basis of crystal field theory when

(i) ∆0 &lt; P and 

(ii) ∆0&nbsp;&gt; P [2]

Answer: (a) [NiCl4]2- is a high spin complex and there are two impaired electrons with 3d8 electronic configuration of a central metal atom, hence it is paramagnetic. Whereas in [Ni(CO)4] Ni is in zero oxidation state and contains no unpaired electrons, hence it is diamagnetic in nature.

(b) (i) Electronic configuration of d5 when ∆o &lt; P is given as t2g3 eg2

(ii) Electronic configuration of d5 when ∆o &gt; P is given as t2g5 eg0.

 

Q.12. Write structures of main compounds A and B in each of the following reactions: 

Answer: 

 

Section – C

Q.13. The following data were obtained for the reaction:

A + 2B → C

(a) Find the order of reaction with respect to A and B.

(b) Write the rate law and overall order of the reaction.

(c) Calculate the rate constant (k).
Answer: The reaction is A + 2B → C

(a) Find the order of reaction with respect to A and B.

(b) Write the rate law and overall order of the reaction.

(c) Calculate the rate constant (k).

Answer: The reaction is A + 2B → C

(a) It can be seen that when the concentration of A is doubled keeping B constant, then the rate increases by a factor of 4 (from 4.2 × 102- to 1.68 × 102-). This indicates that the rate depends on the square of the concentration of the reactant A. Also when the concentration of reactant B is made four times, keeping the concentration of reactant A constant, the reaction rate also becomes 4 times (2.4 × 102- to 6.0 × 103-). This indicates that the rate depends on the concentration of reactant B to the first power.

(b) So, the rate equation will be:

Rate = k[A]2[B]

Overall order of reaction will be 2 + 1 = 3.

(c) Rate constant can be. calculated by putting the values given.

4.2 × 102- M min-1= k (0.2)2(0.3) M

k = 0.0420.0123.5 min-1

 

Q.14. (a) Write the dispersed phase and dispersion medium of dust.

(b) Why is physisorption reversible whereas chemisorption is irreversible?

(c) A colloidal sol is prepared by the method given in the figure.

What is the charge of Agl colloidal particles formed in the test tube?

How is this sol represented? 

Answer: (a) In dust, the dispersed phase is solid particles and the dispersion medium is air (gas).

(b) Physisorption occurs only because of physical attractive forces such as van der Waals forces between molecules of adsorbate and adsorbent, hence that can be reversed on the application of bigger forces but chemisorption occurs due to the chemical reaction between molecules of adsorbate and adsorbent, and hence can’t be reversed.

(c) When KI solution is added to AgNO3 a positively charged sol results due to absorption of Ag+ ions from dispersion medium-AgI/ Ag+(positively charged).

 

Q.15. An element X with an atomic mass of 81 u has density 10.2 g cm3-. If the volume of the unit cell is 27 × 10-23 cm3, identify the type of cubic unit cell. (Given: NA = 6.022 × 10 mol-1.

Answer: 

Q.16. A solution containing 19 g per 1oo mL of K (M = 74.5 g mol-1) is isotonic with a solution containing 3 g per 100 mL of urea (M = 60 g mol-1). Calculate the degree of dissociation of KCl solution. Assume that both the solutions have the same temperature. 

Answer: Two solutions having the same osmotic pressure at a given temperature are called isotonic solution. Now in the given problem, the KCl and urea solutions are given to be isotonic.

Osmotic pressure π is given by the equation

π = (n2/V)RT,       where n2 = moles of solute,

 

                                              V = volume of solution in litres.

                                    Also, n2 = w2/M2,

                                 where W2 = grams of solute  and M2 = molar mass of solute.

The other given information is

The molar mass of KCl = 74.5 g mol-1

Weight of KCl, W2= 1.9 g,  V = 100 mL

So, for KCl

                 n = (w2/M2 × V)RT

                 nRTKCl = 1.9/(74.5 × 100) = 2.55 × 10-4

Now as the solutions are isotonic at the same temperature:

                        πRTKCl = πRTurea

Hence, substituting the values for urea:

          2.55 × 10-4 = 3/M2 × 100

         M2 = 117.6

So, the experimentally determined molecular weight of urea is found to be as 117.6, so the degree of dissociation can be given as:

Osmotic pressure (TT) = Experimentally determined.

So, Urea dimerized in the given experimental solution.

 

Q.17. Write the name and principle of the method used for refining of (a) Zinc, (b) Germanium, (c) Titanium.

Answer: (a) Distillation is used for refining zinc. As zinc is a low boiling metal, the impure metal is evaporated and the pure metal is obtained as a distillate.

(b) Zone refining is used for refining Germanium. This method is based on the principle that the impurities are more soluble in the melt than in the solid-state of the metal.

(c) Titanium is refined by van Arkel method. This method is used for the removal of oxygen and nitrogen present as an impurity. The crude metal is heated in an evacuated vessel with iodine to obtain metal iodide, which volatilizes being covalent. Later this metal iodide is decomposed through electrical heating to obtain the pure metal.

 

Q.18. Give reasons for the following:

(a) Transition metals form complex compounds.

(b) E0 values of (Zn2+/Zn) and (Mn2+/Mn) are more negative than expected.

(c) Actinoids show a wide range of oxidation states.

Answer: (a) Transition elements have partly filled d-orbitals due to which they have variable oxidation states which enables them to bind with a variety of ligands and hence form complex compounds.
(b) Oxidation of Zn to Zn2+ leads to a completely filled d10 configuration in Zn2+, making it more stable. Also, Mn/Mn2+ conversion leads to a half-filled stable d5 configuration of Mn2+ ion. Hence, E0 value for Zn/Zn2+ and Mn/ Mn2+ conversion has negative values.

(c) Actinoids show a wide range of oxidation states due to their partially filled f-orbitals and they have comparable energies as well.

 

Q.19. Write the structures of monomers used for getting the following polymers:

(a) Nylon-6

(b) Terylene

(c) Buna-N 

OR

Q.19. (a) Is [CH2-CH(C6H5)]n homopolymer or copolymer? Give reason.

(b) Write the monomers of the following polymers:

(c) Write the role of benzoyl peroxide in the polymerisation of ethene.

Answer: Structures of monomers

(a) Caprolactam is monomer of Nylon-6

 

Q.20. (a) Pick out the odd one from the following on the basis of their medicinal properties:

Equanil, Seconal, Bithional, Luminal

(b) What types of detergents are used in dishwashing liquids?

(c) Why is the use of aspartame limited to cold foods? 

OR

Q.20. Define the following terms with a suitable example of each:

(a) Antibiotics

(b) Antiseptics

(c) Anionic detergents

Answer: (a) ‘Bithionol’ is the odd one here, as it is an antiseptic whereas others are tranquilisers.

(b) Liquid dishwashing detergents are non-ionic type.

(c) Aspartame is an artificial sweetener which is unstable at cooking temperature hence its use is limited to cold foods.

OR

Answer: (a) Antibiotics: These are the compounds (produced by microorganisms or synthetically) which either inhibit the growth of bacteria or kill bacteria. Example: Penicillin.

(b) Antiseptics: These are the chemicals used to kill or prevent the growth of microorganisms when applied to the living tissues.

Example: Soframycin.

(c) Anionic detergents: These are sodium salts of sulfonated long-chain alcohols or hydrocarbons. In these, the anionic part of the molecule is involved in the cleansing action.

Example: Sodium lauryl sulphate.

 

Q.21. Among all the isomers of molecular formula C4H8Br, identify:

(a) the one isomer which is optically active.

(b) the one isomer which is highly reactive towards SN2.

(c) the two isomers which give the same product on dehydrohalogenation with alcoholic KOH. 

Answer:

(a) 2- Bromobutane is optically active as C-2 is a chiral carbon here having all the four different groups attached to it.

(b) 1-Bromobutane being primary alkyl halide is highly reactive towards SN2 reaction.

(c) 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane and 1-Bromo-2-methylpropane would give the same product after dehydrohalogenation.

 

Q.22. Complete the following reactions:

OR

Q.22. How do you convert the following:

(a) N-phenylethylamine to p-bromoaniline

(b) Benzene diazonium chloride to nitro-benzene

(c) Benzoic acid to aniline

Answer:

Answer: 

 

Q.23. (a) Give reasons:

(i) Benzoic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid.

(ii) Methanal is more reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction than ethanal.

(b) Give a simple chemical test to distinguish between propanal and propanone.

Answer (a) (i) Benzoic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid because the benzoate anion (the conjugate base of benzoic acid) formed after loss of H+ is stabilized by resonance, whereas acetate ion (CH3COO) has no such extra stability. Hence, Benzoic acid has more tendency of losing proton compared to acetic acid hence more acidic.

(ii) Methanal is more reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction than ethanal because in ethanal there is a methyl group attached to the carbonyl carbon (centre for nucleophilic attack) and +1 effect of the methyl group decreases the nucleophilicity of carbonyl carbon by increasing the electron density at carbonyl carbon.

(b) Propanal and propanone can be distinguished using Tollen’s reagent by silver mirror test. Propanal being an aldehyde reacts with Tollen’s reagent to give silver deposition whereas propanone being a ketone does not give the reaction.

 

Q.24. (a) What is the product of hydrolysis of maltose?

(b) What type of bonding provides stability to the α-helix structure of a protein?

(c) Name the vitamin whose deficiency causes pernicious anaemia. 

OR

Q.24. Define the following terms:

(a) Invert sugar

(b) Native protein

(c) Nucleotide

Answer: (a) On hydrolysis maltose gives two molecules of α-D-glucose.

(b) α-Helix structure of proteins is stabilized by hydrogen bonds between -NH group of each amino acid and -COOH group of amino acid at adjacent turn.

(c) Deficiency of Vitamin B12 causes pernicious anaemia.

OR

Answer: (a) Invert sugar: It is a mixture of glucose and fructose obtained after hydrolysis of sucrose. Sucrose is dextrorotatory, but after hydrolysis gives a mixture of dextrorotatory glucose and levorotatory fructose which outweighs in magnitude and hence the whole mixture becomes levorotatory hence the mixture obtained is called invert sugar.

(b) Native protein: a Protein found in a biological system with a unique three-dimensional structure and biological activity is called a native protein.

(c) Nucleotide: They are building blocks of DNA/RNA. These consist of a pentose sugar moiety attached to a nitrogenous base at V position and a phosphoric acid molecule at 5′ position.

Example: 

Section – D

Q.25. (a) The conductivity of 0.001 mol L-1 acetic acid is 4.95 × 10-5 S cm-1. Calculate the dissociation constant if ∧0m for acetic acid is 390.5 S cm2 mol-1.
(b) Write Nest equation for the reaction at 25°C:

2Al(s) + 3Cu2+ (aq) → 2 Al3+ (aq) + 3Cu (s) (c)

What are secondary batteries? Give an example. 

OR

Q.25. (a) Represent the cell in which the following reaction takes place:

2Al (s) + 3 Ni2+ (0.1M) → 2Al3+ (0.01M) + 3 Ni (s)

Calculate its emf if E0cell = 1.41 V.

(b) How does molar conductivity vary with increase in concentration for strong electrolytes and weak electrolytes? How can you obtain limiting molar conductivity (∧m0) for weak electrolyte?

Answer: (a) Conductivity ∧m of a solution is given by the following equation:

m = K/C

where k is the dissociation constant and c is the concentration of the solution.<br> Here, given.

Conductivity, k = 4.95 × 10-5 S cm-1<br> Limiting molar conductivity,<br> ∧0m = 390.5 S cm2 mol-1

Concentration,

c = 0.001 mol L-1 = 1 × 10-3mol L-1

Substituting the given values in above equation

Molar conductivity,

(b) Nernst equation for the given reaction can be written as

(c) A secondary battery can be recharged after use, bypassing current through it in the opposite direction so that it can be used again.

Example: The most important secondary cell is lead storage cell. It consists of a lead anode and a grid of lead packed with lead dioxide as a cathode. A 38% solution of sulphuric acid is used as an electrolyte.

OR

Answer: (a) The cell can be represented as

(b) For strong electrolytes, the molar conductivity is increased only slightly on dilution. A strong electrolyte is completely dissociated in solution and thus, furnishes all ions for conductance. However, at higher concentrations, the dissociated ions are close to each other and thus, the interionic attractions are greater. These forces retard the motion of the ions and thus, conductivity is low. With a decrease in concentration (dilution), the ions move away from each other thereby feeling less attractive forces from the counterions. This results in an increase in molar conductivity with dilution. The molar conductivity approaches a maximum limiting value at infinite dilution designated as ∧m0.

In the case of weak electrolytes as the solution of a weak electrolyte is diluted, its ionization is increased. This results in more number of ions in solution and thus, there is an increase in molar conductivity, also there is a large increase in the value of molar conductivity with dilution, especially near-infinite dilution. However, the conductance of a weak electrolyte never approaches a limiting value. Or in other words, it is not possible to find conductance at infinite dilution (zero concentration).

So, limiting molar conductivity for weak electrolytes are obtained by using Kohlrausch law, from the limiting molar conductivities of individual ions (λ0).

Kohlrausch law of independent migration of ions states that limiting molar conductivity of an electrolyte can be represented as the sum of the individual contributions of the anion and the cation of the electrolyte.

m0 = λ0+ + λ0

Q.26. (a) Give the equation of the following reactions:

(i) Phenol is treated with cone. HNO3.

(ii) Propene is treated with B2H6 followed by H2O2/OH-.

(iii) Sodium t-butoxide is treated with CH3Cl.

(b) How will you distinguish between butan-l-ol and butan-2-ol?

(c) Arrange the following in increasing order of acidity: Phenol, ethanol, water.

OR

Q.26. (a) How can you obtain Phenol from (i) Cumene, (ii) Benzene sulphonic acid, (iii) Benzene diazonium chloride?

(b) Write the structure of the major product obtained from the denitration of 3-methyl phenol.

(c) Write the reaction involved in Kolbe’s reaction.

Answer: (a) (i) Phenol is treated with conc. HNO3 to obtain 2,4,6-trinitrophenol picric acid.

(ii) Propene undergoes hydroboration-oxidation when treated with B2H6 followed by hydrogen peroxide in basic medium to give propan-1-ol.

(iii) Methyl tert-butyl ether is produced when sodium tert-butoxide is treated with methyl chloride.

(b) Butan-l-ol and Butan-2-ol can be distinguished using Lucas reagent (ZnCl2+HCl), where butan-2-ol would react with Lucas reagent in around 5 minutes to give a white precipitate of 2-chlorobutane, whereas butan-l-ol won’t give any reaction at room temperature.

(c) Increasing order of acidity can be given as Ethanol < water < phenol

OR

Answer: (a) (i) Phenol from cumene

(ii) Phenol from benzene sulphonic acid

(iii) Phenol from benzene diazonium chloride

(b) The combined influence of -OH and -CH3 groups determine the position of the entering groups, also the sterically hindered positions are not substituted.

(c) In Kolbe’s reaction phenol is reacted with CO2 in the presence of sodium hydroxide, followed by acidification, to give a carboxylic acid group on 2-position of phenol-

 

Q.27. (a) Account for the following:

(i) The tendency to show – 3 oxidation state decreases from N to Bi in group 15.

(ii) Acidic character increases from H2O to H2Te.

(iii) F2 is more reactive than CIF3, whereas ClF3 is more reactive than Cl2.

(b) Draw the structure of (i) XeF2 (ii) H4P2O7

OR

Q.27. (a) Give one example to show the anomalous reaction of fluorine.

(b) What is the structural difference between white phosphorous and red phosphorous?

(c) What happens when XeF6 reacts with NaF?

(d) Why is H2S a better reducing agent than H2O?

(e) Arrange the following acids in the increasing order of their acidic character: HF, HCl, HBr and HI

Answer: (a) (ii) Acidic character increases from H2O to H2Te due to decrease in E—H bond dissociation enthalpy down the group. Thus it becomes easy to lose proton going down the group.

(iii) F2 is more reactive than ClF3 because of the small size of fluorine atom F—F bond, bond dissociation enthalpy is low (thus is reactive).

Whereas ClF3 is more reactive than Cl2 because ClF3 is an interhalogen compound with weak Cl—F bond (compared to Cl—Cl bond) due to the difference in atomic sizes (hence ineffective overlap of orbitals).

(b) (i) Structure of XeF2 is linear.

(ii) Structure of H4P2O7.

OR

Answer: (a) Fluorine reacts with cold sodium hydroxide solution to give OF2.

2F2 (g) + 2NaOH (aq) → 2NaF (aq) + OF2 (g) + H2O(l)

(c) XeFg reacts with NaF as follows:

XeF6 + NaF → Na+[XeF7]

(d) Ability to reduce is judged by the ease with which an atom can donate its electrons to the species which is getting reduced. Now, the size of oxygen atom in H2O is smaller than that of Sulphur atom in H2S, due to which the lone pair of electrons on oxygen are more attracted by the oxygen nucleus, making it difficult to donate electrons (by oxygen compared to Sulphur, while in H2S the influence of the nucleus is less on lone pair of electrons of sulphur and hence, it can give away its electrons, easily compared to oxygen, and thus acts as a better reducing agent.

(e) The increasing order of acidic character can be written as

HF < HCl < HBr < HI


 

Chemistry 

Set-II

Section – A

Q.2. Arrange the following in increasing order of pKb values:

C6H5CH2NH2, C6H5NHCH3, C6H6NH2 

Answer: These can be arranged in increasing order of pKb values as follows:

C6H5CH2NH2 < C6H5NHCH3 < C6H5NH2

 

Q.3. What type of colloid is formed when a liquid is dispersed in a solid? Give an example. 

Answer: When a liquid is dispersed in a solid, a ‘gel’ is formed.

Example: Butter.

 

Q.4. Out of chlorobenzene and p-nitrochloro-benzene, which one is more reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction and why? 

Answer: p-Nitro chlorobenzene would be more reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction compared to chlorobenzene. In chlorobenzene the carbon bearing the halogen is a part of the aromatic ring and is electron-rich due to the electron density in the ring so it does not attract the nucleophile. The -NO2 substitution lessens the electron density on the benzene ring due to its electron-withdrawing nature, making the electron density on ringless compared to chlorobenzene, hence p-nitro chlorobenzene attracts nucleophiles better.

 

Section -B

Q.7. Give reasons:

(a) A decrease in temperature is observed in mixing ethanol and acetone.

(b) Potassium chloride solution freezes at a lower temperature than water. 

Answer: (a) Upon mixing molecules of ethanol and acetone have strong intermolecular attractions due to which heat is evolved from the reaction system and hence cooling of mixture is observed.

(b) Potassium chloride solution is a solution of non-volatile solute KCl and water solution. We know that, at the freezing point of a substance, the solid phase (here ice) is in dynamic equilibrium with the liquid phase. A solution freezes when its vapour pressure equals the vapour pressure of the pure solid solvent. Now, according to Raoult’s law when a non-volatile solid is added to the solvent (in this case it is KCl), its vapour pressure decreases and now it would become equal to that of solid solvent at a lower temperature. Thus, the freezing point of the solvent decreases.

 

Q.10. Define the following terms with a suitable example of each:

(a) Chelate complex

(b) Ambidentate ligand

OR

Q.10. Using IUPAC norms, write the formula for the following complexes:

(a) Tetraamminedichlorocobalt (III) chloride

 (b) Dibromobis (ethane-1,2-diamine) platinum (IV) nitrate

Answer: (a) Chelate complex: Chelate complexes are coordination or complex compound consisting of a central metal atom attached to a large molecule, called a ligand, in a cyclic or ring structure. The ligands are bi or polydentate i.e., they can attach to metal atom through two or more than two binding sites. An example of a chelate ring occurs in the ethylenediamine-nickel complex.

(b) Ambidentate ligand: Ligands which can ligate (attach to the metal atom) through two different atoms is called ambidentate ligand. One example of such ligand is NO2 , this can bind through both the atoms, nitrogen and oxygen.

OR

Answer: IUPAC names

Tetraamine Diaqua Cobalt(III)chloride- [Co(NH3)4(H2O)2]Cl3

(b) Dibromobis(ethane-1,2-diamine) platinum(IV) nitrate -[PtBr2(en)2](NO3)2.

 

Section – C

Q.13. (a) Write the dispersed phase and dispersion medium of milk.

(b) Why is adsorption exothermic in nature?

(c) Write Freundlich adsorption isotherm for gases at high pressure.

Answer: (a) Dispersed phase of milk is liquid and the dispersion medium of milk is liquid.

(b) During the process of adsorption molecules of adsorbate and adsorbent come closer to form physical or chemical bonds hence getting stabilized, in this process heat is evolved leading the overall process to be exothermic.

(c) Freundlich adsorption isotherm for gases at high pressure.

It is an empirical relationship between the quantity of gas adsorbed by a unit mass of solid adsorbent and pressure at a particular temperature:         x/m = kp1/2(n > 1)


Where x is the mass of the gas adsorbed on mass m of the adsorbent at pressure p, k and n are constants which depend on the nature of the adsorbent and the gas at a particular temperature.

The relationship is generally represented in the form of a curve x/m is plotted against the pressure. This curve always approaches saturation towards high pressure, thus indicating that at adsorption through increases with increase in pressure till a limit and at high pressures, no further adsorption is observed.

 

Q.15. Write the name and principle of the method used for the refining of

(a) Tin,

(b) Copper,

(c) Nickel. 

Answer: (a) Tin: It is refined through liquidation. In this method, a low melting metal like tin is made to flow on a sloping surface, where the higher melting impurities are left behind and the lower melting metal is collected at the sloping end.

(b) Copper: It is refined through electrolytic refining. Anode is made of impure copper and pure copper stripes are taken as the cathode. They are dipped in acidified solution of copper sulphate, as an electrolyte. The net result of electrolysis is the transfer of copper in pure form from the anode to the cathode and the impurities get deposited as anode mud.

(c) Nickel: It is refined through Mond’s process. In this process, Nickel is heated in a stream of carbon monoxide forming a volatile complex, nickel tetracarbonyl.

The carbonyl is subjected to a higher temperature so that it is decomposed giving the pure metal.

 

Q.16. Give a reason for the following:

(a) Transition metals show variable oxidation states.

(b) E0 value of (Zn2+/Zn) is negative while that of (Cu2+/Cu) is positive.

(c) Higher oxidation state of Mn with fluorine is +4 whereas with oxygen is +7. 

Answer: (a) Transition metals show variable oxidation states because their d-orbitals are incompletely filled and different arrangements of electrons are possible according to the chemical environment of metal ions. hence, the ions can occupy variable oxidation states.

(b) E° value for Zn/Zn2+ is negative because the conversion of Zn to Zn2+ gives it a completely filled d5 configuration and extra stability gained by Zn2+. Whereas conversion of Cu to Cu2+ does not give any extra stability, hence it has a positive E0 value.

(c) Mn has the highest oxidation state of +4 with fluorine but with oxygen, it is +7. This is due to the ability of oxygen to form multiple bonds with the metal ion, whereas fluorine being of small size and devoid of d-orbitals can’t form multiple bonds.

 

Q.19. Write the structures of monomers used for getting the following polymers:

(a) Nylon-6, 6

(b) Bakelite

(c) Buna-S 

OR

Q.19. (a) Write one example each of:

(i) Thermoplastic polymer

(ii) Elastomers

(b) Arrange the following polymers in the increasing order of their intermolecular forces:

Polythene, Nylon-6, 6, Buna-S

(c) Which factor provides crystalline nature to a polymer like Nylon?

Answer: (a) Monomers of Nylon-6,6 are adipic acid and hexamethylenediamine.

(b) Monomers of bakelite are phenol and formaldehyde:

(c) Monomers of Buna-S are 1,3-Butadiene and Styrene

OR

Answer: (a) (i) Example of thermoplastic polymer – polythene, polystyrene.

(ii) Example of elastomer – Neoprene.

(b) In increasing order of their intermolecular force, they can be arranged as:

Buna-S < Polythene < Nylon-6,6

(c) Strong intermolecular forces between the polymer molecules, such as hydrogen bonding lead to closed packed structure, thus imparting crystalline nature to the polymers.


 

Chemistry

Set-III

Section – A

Q.1. Out of Chlorobenzene and Cyclohexyl chloride, which one is more reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction and why? 

Answer: Cyclohexyl chloride is more reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction because the carbon bearing the chlorine atom is deficient in electron and seeks a nucleophile. In Chlorobenzene the carbon bearing the halogen is a part of an aromatic ring and is electron-rich due to the electron density in the ring.

 

Q.2. Arrange the following in decreasing order of solubility in water:

(C2H5)2NH, C2H5NH2, C6H5NH2 

Answer: Decreasing order of solubility in water is:

C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)2NH2 > C6H5NH2.

 

Q.3. What type of colloid is formed when a solid is dispersed in a gas? Give an example.

Answer: An aerosol is the type of colloid formed when solid is dispersed in gas.

Example: smoke and dust.

 

Q.5. What is the difference between amylose and amylopectin? 

OR

Q.5. Write the products obtained after hydrolysis of lactose.

Answer: Amylose is a long linear chain of α-D-(+)-glucose units joined by C1-C4 glycosidic linkage (α-link), whereas Amylopectin is a branched-chain polymer of α-D-glucose units, in which the chain is formed by C1-C4 glycosidic linkage and the branching occurs by C1-C6 glycosidic linkage.

OR

Answer: Galactose and Glucose are the products obtained after hydrolysis of lactose.

 

Section – B

Q.7. Give reasons: 

(a) An increase in temperature is observed on mixing chloroform and acetone.

(b) Aquatic animals are more comfortable in cold water than in warm water.

Answer: (a) A mixture of chloroform and acetone forms a solution with a negative deviation from Raoult’s law. This is because chloroform molecule is able to form a hydrogen bond with acetone molecule as shown by the following figure:

This decreases the escaping tendency of molecules for each component, and consequently, the vapour pressure decreases and the temperature of the solution is increased because of stability attained by the molecule by associating and releasing energy.

(b) The solubility of gases in liquids increases on decreasing temperature, hence cold water has more dissolved oxygen because of which aquatic species find themselves more comfortable in cold water as compared to hot water.

 

Q.10. Define the following terms with a suitable example of each:

(a) Polydentate ligand

(b) Homoleptic complex

OR

Q.10. Using IUPAC norms, write the formula for the following complexes:

(a) Potassium tri (oxalato) chromate (III)

(b) Hexaaquamanganese (II) sulphate.

Answer: (a) Polydentate ligands: Ligands with several donor atoms are called polydentate ligands. These can bond with the metal ion in a complex with the different donor atoms present in them.

Example: N(CH2CH2NH2)3.

(b) Homoleptic complex: Complexes in which a metal atom is bound to only one kind of donor groups, e.g., [Co(NH3)6]2+ are known as homoleptic complex.

OR

Answer: (a) K3[Cr(C2O4)3]

(b) [Mn (H2O)6] SO4.

 

Q.12. Write structures of main compounds A and B in each of the following reactions:

Answer:

 

Section -C

Q.14. (a) Write the dispersed phase and dispersion medium of butter.

(b) Why does physisorption decrease with increase in temperature?

(c) A colloidal sol is prepared by the method given in the figure. What is the charge on AgI colloidal particles formed in the test tube? How is this sol represented? 

Answer: (a) Butter is an example of ‘Gel’ type of colloid. Here the dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion medium is solid.

(b) Physisorption occurs because of physical attractive forces, like Vander Waals forces between molecules of adsorbate and adsorbent, hence that can be reversed on the application of bigger forces. Hence, when the temperature is increased, the movement of adsorbed molecules increases, resulting in disturbed attractive forces, detachment of adsorbed molecules from the adsorbent surface hence physisorption decreases.

(c) When the AgNO3 solution is added to KI, silver iodide, AgI, is precipitated. The precipitated silver iodide adsorbs iodide ions from dispersion medium and negatively charged colloidal sol results. It can be shown as AgI/I (negatively charged).

 

Q.17. Write the principle of the following:

(a) Hydraulic washing

(b) Chromatography

(c) Froth-floatation process 

Answer: (a) Hydraulic washing: This method of concentration of ores is based on the differences in gravity of the ore and gangue particles. It is a type of gravity separation. An upward stream of running water is used to wash the powdered ore. The lighter gangue particles are washed away and the heavier ores are left behind.

(b) Chromatography: Chromatography is a physical method of separation of a mixture in which the components to be separated are distributed between two phases, stationary and mobile phase. The stationary phase may be a solid or a liquid supported on a solid or a gel. The mobile phase may be either a liquid or a gas.

(c) Froth floatation process: Froth floatation is a physicochemical method of concentrating fine minerals. This process utilizes the difference in surface properties of valuable minerals and gangue (impurity) particles. For example, removal of gangue from sulphide ores.

 

Q.18. Give reasons for the following:

(a) Transition metals have high enthalpies of atomization.

(b) Manganese has a lower melting point even though it has a higher number of unpaired electrons for bonding.

(c) Ce4+ is a strong oxidising agent. 

Answer: (a) Transition element has high effective nuclear charge and a large number of valence electrons ((n-1) d electrons). So, as a result of the greater number of electrons participating, very strong metallic bonds are formed. As a result of the strong inter-atomic metallic bonding, the transition metals have high enthalpies of atomization.

(b) Manganese has a lower melting point even though it has a higher number of impaired electrons for bonding. Melting point depends on the intermolecular or interatomic forces. Stronger the forces, the higher the melting point. In Mn there is half-filled 3d subshell (3d5 configuration) which makes it stable and hence, it does not make additional covalent bonds with nearby atoms hence, it has less melting point.

(c) Ce4+ is a strong oxidising agent because Ce4+ oxidizes others and itself gets reduced to the common and preferred 3+ oxidation state of lanthanide elements.

 

Q.19. Write the structures of monomers used for getting the following polymers:

(a) Novolac

(b) Neoprene

(c) Buna-S 

OR

Q.19. (a) Write on example each of

(i) Cross-linked polymer

(ii) Natural polymer

(b) Arrange the following in the increasing order of their intermolecular forces:<br> Terylene, Buna-N, Polystyrene

(c) Define biodegradable polymers with an example.

Answer: (a) Novolac is the polymer of 2-hydroxymethyl phenol which is obtained by reaction of phenol and formaldehyde.

Answer: 

(b) Increasing order of their molecular forces:

 Buna-N < Polystyrene < Terylene

(c) Biodegradable polymer: These are synthetic polymers designed so as to contain functional groups similar to ones present in biopolymers. These are thus easily degraded by environmental degradation process hence, known as Biodegradable polymers.

Example: Poly (β-hydroxybutyrate-co-β-hydroxy valerate (PHBV).

 

Q.23. (a) Write the product when D-glucose reacts with Br2aq.

Answer: 

Biology 12th Previous Year Question Paper 2017 (CBSE)

Biology

SECTION – A 

(Q. Nos. 1 – 5 are of one marks each) 

Q.1. Name the type of cross that would help to find the genotype of a pea plant bearing violet flowers. 

Answer: Test cross 

 

Q.2. State two postulates of Oparin and Haldane with reference to the origin of life. 

Answer: (i) First form of life could have come from pre-existing non-living organic molecules / RNA & Protein

(ii) Formation of life was preceded by chemical evolution / formation of diverse organic molecules from inorganic constituents.

 

Q.2. Bt -toxins are released as inactive crystals in the bacterial body. What happens to it in

the cotton boll worm body that it kills the boll worm.(SET-III)

Ans: It is converted into an active protein (due to alkaline pH of the gut of the boll worm) , the toxin binds to midgut cells / create pores / causes cell swelling and lysis that kills the bollworm. 

 

Q.3. A herd of cattle is showing reduced fertility and productivity. Provide one reason and one suggestion to overcome this problem. 

Answer: Reason: Inbreeding depression / continuous inbreeding.

Suggestion: Should be mated with unrelated superior cattle of the same breed / out – breeding / out – crossing.

 

Q.3. Name the specific type of gene that is incorporated in a cotton plant to protect the plant against cotton bollworm infestation. (SET-II)

Answer: cry I Ac / cry II Ab

 

Q.4. What are Cry genes ? In which organisms are they present ? 

Ans. The genes which code for Bt toxin / Cry proteins / toxic proteins , Bacillus thuringiensis.

 

Q.5. An electrostatic precipitator in a thermal power plant is not able to generate high voltage of several thousands. Write the ecological implication because of it. 

Answer: Air Pollution // particulate matter / dust particles released in the air.

 

SECTION – B 

(Q Nos. 6-10 are of two marks each) 

Q.6. A pollen grain in angiosperm at the time of dehiscence from an anther could be 2-celled or 3-celled. Explain. How are the cells placed within the pollen grain when shed at a 2-celled stage ? 

Answer: • In 2-celled stage the mature pollen grain contains a generative and vegetative cell, whereas in 3- celled stage one vegetative cell and two male gametes are present.

• The generative cell floats in the cytoplasm of vegetative cell

 

Q.7. Differentiate between the genetic codes given below : 

(a) Unambiguous and Universal 

(b) Degenerate and Initiator 

Answer:  

(a) Unambiguous: One codon codes for only one amino acid. Universal: Genetic code/codons are (nearly) the same for all organisms from bacteria to humans.
(b)Degenerate: More than one codon coding for the same amino acid. Initiator: Start codon / AUG.

 

Q.8. Mention one application for each of the following : 

(a) Passive immunization 

(b) Antihistamine 

(c) Colostrum 

(d) Cytokinin-barrier 

Answer: (a) Provide preformed antibodies / antitoxins for quick response in case of infection by deadly microbes(tetanus) or snake bite.

(b) Reduces symptoms of allergy 

(c) Provides passive immunity / antibodies / Ig A to new born.

(d) Protection of non-infected cells from further viral infection.

 

Q.9. Name the microbes that help production of the following products commercially: 

(a) Statin 

(b) Citric acid 

(c) Penicillin 

(d) Butyric acid 

Answer: (a) Monascus purpureus 

(b) Aspergillus niger 

(c) Penicillium notatum 

(d) Clostridium butylicum 

 

Q.10. List four benefits to human life by eliminating the use of CFCs. 

Answer: (i) Delay in aging of skin 

(ii) Prevent damage to skin cells 

(iii) Prevent skin cancer 

(iv) Prevent snow blindness / inflammation of cornea 

(v) Prevent cataract (a) Unambiguous: 

(vi) Prevents ozone depletion 

(vii) Prevents global warming 

(viii) Reduces greenhouse effect 

(ix) Reduces odd climatic changes or El Nino effect 

OR 

Q.10. Suggest two practices giving one example of each, that help protect rare or threatened species. 

Ans: (1) In situ conservation , biodiversity hotspot / biosphere reserve / national parks /sanctuaries / Ramsar sites / sacred groves (Any one).

(2) Ex situ conservation , Zoological parks / botanical garden / wildlife safari parks / 

cryopreservation techniques / Tissue culture / seed bank / pollen banks.

 

Q.6. Name the type of immunity the colostrum provides to a newborn baby. Write giving an example where this type of immunity should be provided to a person.

Answer: Passive Immunity.

In case of infection by deadly microbes(tetanus) / snake bite where quick immune response is required =1

 

Q.8. Write the binomials of two fungi and mention the products/bioactive molecules they help to produce.

Answer: Trichoderma polysporum , cyclosporin A

Aspergillus niger,citric acid

Monascus purpureus , statin

Saccharomyces cerevisiae, ethanol / alcohol

Penicillium notatum , Penicillin

 

Q.7. Give the binomials of two types of yeast and the commercial bioactive products they help to produce.

Ans: Saccharomyces cerevisiae- ethanol / alcohol Monascus purpureus- statin 

 

Q.9. How many cells are present in the pollen grains at the time of their release from another ? Name the cells.

Ans. Pollen grain may be released at

        2-celled stage , one vegetative and one generative cell ,

        3-celled stage , one vegetative cell and two male gametes 

 

Q.10. Name the group of cells the HIV enters after getting into the human body. What happens in these cells and what are these cells subsequently referred to as ? Name the next group of cells the HIV attacks from here.

Ans. Macrophages , Reverse transcription , HIV Factory , helper T-lymphocytes (TH)

 

SECTION – C 

(Q Nos. 11-22 are of three marks each) 

Q.11. (a) Can a plant flowering in Mumbai be pollinated by pollen grains of the same species growing in New Delhi ? Provide explanations to your answer. 

(b) Draw the diagram of a pistil where pollination has successfully occurred. Label the  parts involved in reaching the male gametes to its desired destination. 

Answer: (a) Yes, By artificial means ( any relevant explanation). 

(b) Diagram with following labellings Stigma , Pollen tube , Synergid / Filiform Apparatus , Micropyle.

 

Q.12. Both Haemophilia and Thalassemia are blood related disorders in humans. Write their causes and the difference between the two. Name the category of genetic disorder they both come under. 

Answer: 

Haemophilia Thalassemia
Single protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected Defects in the synthesis of globin leading to formation of abnormal haemoglobin.
Sex linked reccessive disorder. Autosomal recessive disorder.
Blood does not clot. Results in anaemia.

 

Q.13. (a) List the two methodologies which were involved in human genome project. Mention how they were used. 

(b) Expand ‘YAC’ and mention what was it used for. 

Answer: (a) Expressed Sequence Tags , Identifying all the genes that are expressed as RNA Sequence Annotation , sequencing the whole set of genome coding or non coding sequences and later assigning different region with functions.

(b) Yeast Artificial Chromosome , used as cloning vectors (cloning / amplification ).

 

Q.14. Write the characteristics of Ramapithecus , Dryopithecus and Neanderthal man. 

Answer: Ramapithecus: hairy/ walked like gorillas and chimpanzees , more man like. 

Dryopithecus: hairy/ walked like gorillas and chimpanzees , more ape- like. 

Neanderthal man: brain size is 1400cc , used hides to protect their body / buried their dead.

 

Q.15. Name a human disease, its causal organism, symptoms (any three) and vector, spread by intake of water and food contaminated by human faecal- matter. 

Answer: Amoebiasis (Amoebic dysentery) , Entamoeba histolytica , constipation / abdominal pain / cramps / stools with excess mucus / blood clots (Any three symptoms) , Housefly.

Ascariasis, Ascaris , internal bleeding / muscular pain / fever / anaemia / blockage of intestinal passage (Any three symptoms), Housefly.

Typhoid, Salmonella typhi, high fever / weakness / stomach pain / constipation / headache / loss of appetite (Any three symptoms), Housefly.

OR 

Q.15. (a) Why is there a fear amongst the guardians that their adolescent wards may get 

trapped in drug/alcohol abuse ? 

(b) Explain ‘addiction’ and ‘dependence’ in respect of drug/alcohol abuse in youth. 

Defects in the synthesis of globin leading to formation of abnormal haemeoglobin Sex linked recessive disorder.

Autosomal recessive disorder  Blood does not clot Results in anaemia 

Answer: (a) Adolescents are easily affected by ( vulnerable to) peer pressure /adventure /curiosity / excitement / experimentation / media . 

(b) Addiction -Psychological attachment to certain effects such as Euphoria / temporary feeling of well-being. Dependence-Tendency of the body to show withdrawal syndrome / symptoms if regular doses of drug / alcohol is abruptly discontinued. 

 

Q.16. (a) Write the desirable characters a farmer looks for in his sugarcane crop. 

(b) How did plant breeding techniques help north Indian farmers to develop cane with 

desired characters ? 

Answer: (a) High yield , thick stem,high sugar content , ability to grow in their areas. 

(b) By crossing Saccharum officinarum / south Indian variety having desired characteristics with Saccharum barberi / north Indian low yield variety.

 

Q.17. Secondary treatment of the sewage is also called Biological treatment. Justify this statement and explain the process. 

Answer: Involves biological organism such as aerobic and anaerobic microbes / bacteria and fungi to digest / consume organic waste. 

Primary effluent is passed into aeration tank where vigorous growth of aerobic microbes (flocs) take place, BOD reduced (microbes consume major part of organic matter), effluent is passed to settling tank where flocs sediment to produce activated sludge , sludge is pumped to anaerobic sludge digester to digest bacteria and fungi.

 

Q.18. (a) Explain the significance of ‘palindromic nucleotide sequence’ in the formation of recombinant DNA. 

(b) Write the use of restriction endonuclease in the above process. 

Answer: (a) Palindromic nucleotide sequence is the recognition (specific) sequence present both on the vector and on a desired / alien DNA for the action of the same(specific) restriction endonuclease to act upon.

(b) Same restriction endonuclease binds to both the vector and the foreign DNA , cut each of the two strands of the double helix at specific points in their sugar phosphate backbone of recognition sequence for restriction endonucleases / palindromic sequence of vector and foreign DNA , to cut strand a little away from the centre of the palindrome sites, creates overhanging stretches /sticky ends . 

(b) If depict diagrammatically showing the above mentioned value points it can be accepted. 

 

Q.19. Describe the roles of heat, primers and the bacterium Thermus aquaticus in the process of PCR. 

Answer: Heat – Denaturation / separation of DNA into two strands.

Primer- Enzyme DNA Polymerase extend the primers using the nucleotides provided in the reaction and the genomic DNA as template. 

Thermus aquaticus – source of thermostable DNA polymerase / Taq polymerase. 

 

Q.20. Explain the various steps involved in the production of artificial insulin. 

Answer: Two DNA sequences corresponding to A and B polypeptide chains of human insulin were prepared , these were introduced into E.coli to produce A and B chains separately , these chains were extracted and combined by creating disulphide bonds.

 

Q.21. (a) “Organisms may be conformers or regulators.” Explain this statement and give one example of each. 

(b) Why are there more conformers than regulators in the animal world ? 

Answer: (a) Conformers- organisms which cannot maintain a constant internal environment under varying external environmental conditions / change body temperature and osmotic concentration with change in external environment eg. all plants / fishes / amphibians / reptiles.

Regulators – organisms which can maintain homeostasis (by physiological means or behavioural means ) // maintain constant body temperature and osmotic concentration eg. birds /mammals.

(b) Thermoregulation is energetically expensive for animals.

 

Q.22. Describe the inter-relationship between productivity, gross primary productivity and net productivity. 

Answer: Productivity is the rate of biomass production per unit area over a period of time , 

Gross primary productivity is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem , Net productivity is the gross primary productivity minus respiration losses ®.

 

Q.13. Explain the process of pollination in Vallisneria. How is it different in water-lily, which is also an aquatic plant ?

Answe: In Vallisneria pollination takes place through water , the female flower reach the surface of water by long stalk , male flowers / pollen grain released on to the surface of water , carried passively by water current reaching the female flowers / stigma.

In Water lily pollination takes place through wind or insect , female flower emerges above the surface of water and gets pollinated 

 

Q.15. What is disturbance in Hardy-Weinberg genetic equilibrium indicative of ? Explain how it is caused.

Answer: Disturbance in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is an indicator of change of frequency of alleles in a population , resulting in evolution.

It is caused by genetic drift / gene flow or gene migration / mutation / genetic recombination /natural selection. 

 

Q.18. Different animals respond to changes in their surroundings in different ways. Taking one example each, explain “some animals undergo aestivation while some others hiberna

tion”. How do fungi respond to adverse climatic conditions ?

Answer: Some animals go into aestivation to avoid summer related problems ( heat and desiccation) , eg. snails / fish ( any other suitable eg.) 

Some animals go into hibernation to avoid winter related problem ( extreme cold) eg. bear ( any other suitable eg.).

Fungi form thick walled spores and suspend their activities to respond to adverse climatic condition.

 

Q.11. Rearrange Ramapithecus, Australopithecus and Homo habilis in the order of thein evolution on the Earth. Comment on their evolutionary characteristics.

Answer: Ramapithecus Australopithecus Homo habilis.

Ramapithecus – hairy / walked like gorilla and chimpanzees / more man like.

Australopithecus – Hunted with stone weapons / ate fruit.

Homo habilis -Brain capacity 650- 800 cc / probably did not eat meat.

 

Q.16. (a) Trace the development of an endosperm after fertilisation with reference to coconut. Mention the importance of endosperm development.

(b) Write the importance of ‘pollen bank’.

Answer: (a) In coconut Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN-3n) undergoes successive nuclear divisions , give rise to free- nuclear endosperm known as coconut water , white kernel is the cellular endosperm , provides nourishment to the growing embryo.

(b) Storage / cryopreservation ( storage in liquid nitrogen at – 196 o C) , to use in crop breeding programmes.

 

Q.20. Describe the inter-relationship , between productivity, gross primary productivity and net productivity.

Answer: Productivity is the rate of biomass production per unit area over a period of time ,

Gross primary productivity is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem ,Net productivity is the gross primary productivity minus respiration losses ®.

 

Q.22. How do kangaroo rats and desert plants adapt themselves to survive in their extreme habitat ? Explain.

Answer:  Kangaroo rats- internal fat oxidation where water is a byproduct , excretes concentrated urine.

Desert Plants -thick cuticle / sunken stomata / leaves reduced to spines / deep roots /

Special photosynthetic pathway / CAM.

 

SECTION – D 

(Q No. 23 is of four mark) 

Q.23 . It is commonly observed that parents feel embarrassed to discuss freely with their adoles- cent children about sexuality and reproduction. The result of this parental inhibition is that the children go astray sometimes. 

(a) Explain the reasons that you feel are behind such embarrassment amongst some 

parents to freely discuss such issues with their growing children. 

(b) By taking one example of a local plant and animal, how would you help these parents 

to overcome such inhibitions about reproduction and sexuality ? 

Ans: (a) Illiteracy / conservative attitude / misconceptions / social myths / any other relevant point (Any two).

(b) If a student gives the clarity of the concept of reproduction and sexuality by taking any example of a plant and an animal with respect to reproductive organs, gamete formation, fertilization, sexual behaviour etc.

 

SECTION – E 

(Q Nos. 24-26 are of five marks each) 

Q.24. (a) When a seed of an orange is squeezed, many embryos, instead of one are observed. 

Explain how it is possible. 

(b) Are these embryos genetically similar or different ? Comment. 

Ans: (a) Polyembryony , nucellar cells surrounding embryo sac start dividing , protrude into the embryo 

sac and develop into many embryos. 

(b) These embryos are genetically similar, as produced from nucellar cells by mitotic division / formed without fertilisation (but different from the embryo formed by fertilization). 

OR 

Q.24. (a) Explain the following phases in the menstrual cycle of a human female: 

(i) Menstrual phase 

(ii) Follicular phase 

(iii) Luteal phase 

(b) A proper understanding of menstrual cycle can help immensely in family planning. 

Do you agree with the statement ? Provide reasons for your answer. 

Ans: (a) (i) Menstrual phase – first 3-5 days of the cycle where menstrual flow occurs due to break down of endometrial lining of the uterus, if the released ovum is not fertilised.

(ii) Follicular phase – from 5th to 14th day of the cycle where the primary follicles grow to become a fully mature Graafian follicle , endometrium of uterus regenerates , Graafian follicle ruptures to release ova (ovulation on 14th day). 

(iii) Luteal Phase – During 15th to 28th day remaining parts of graafian follicle transforms into the corpus luteum , secretion of progesterone (essential for maintenance of endometrium).

All these phases are under the influence of varying concentrations of pituitary and ovarian Hormone.

(b) Yes , can take appropriate precautions between 10th to 17th day of the menstrual cycle when the chances of fertilisation are high. 

 

Q.25. (a) Compare, giving reasons, the J-shaped and S-shaped models of population growth of a species.

               (b) Explain “fitness of a species” as mentioned by Darwin. 

Answer: 

J shaped – growth curve  S shaped- growth curve 
Resources are unlimited  Resources are limited 
Growth is exponential  Logistic Growth 
As resources are unlimited all individuals survive and reproduce  Fittest individual will survive and reproduce 
Growth Equation dN/dt=Rn (If explained) Growth Equation dN/dt=rN (k-N/K) (If explained)

Note – Marks to be awarded only if the corresponding difference is written. 

(b) When resources are limited , Competition occurs between individuals , the fittest will survive, 

who reproduce to leave more progeny. 

OR 

Q.25. (a) What is an ecological pyramid ? Compare the pyramids of energy, biomass and numbers. 

(b) Write any two limitations of ecological pyramids. 

Ans: (a) Graphical representation of the relationships among organisms at different trophic levels.

(b) It does not accommodate the food web / does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels , Saprophytes are not given any place.

 

Q.26. (a) Describe the structure and function of a t-RNA molecule. Why is it referred to as an adapter molecule? 

(b) Explain the process of splicing of hn-RNA in a eukaryotic cell. 

Ans: (a) Clover-leaf shaped / inverted L shaped molecules has an anticodon loop with bases complementary to specific codon , has an amino acid acceptor end = 1+1 

As it reads the code on one hand and binds with the specific amino acid on the other hand.

(b) Introns are removed and exons are joined in a definite order. 

Process of splicing shown diagramatically. 

OR 

Q.26. Growth Equation dN/dt=rN (k-N/K) (If explained) Pyramid of Energy Pyramid of BioMass Pyramid of Numbers  Pyramid of Numbers Shows transfer of Energy from shows numbers of one trophic level to another 

organisms at each trophic level. Always upright Mostly upright but can be inverted Mostly upright can be 

inverted Shows transfer of amount of food/ biomass from one trophic level to another. Write the different components of a lac-operon in E.coli. Explain its expression while in an ‘open’ state. 

Ans: It consists of one regulatory gene(i) , promoter gene , operator gene , and three structural genes(z,y,a).

Lactose/ inducer binds to the repressor protein , makes it inactive so it cannot bind with operator, allows RNA Polymerase access to the promoter and transcription proceeds ,β -galactosidase , permease , transacetylase formed (by translation process for Lactose metabolism).

Q.25. (a) Explain Polygenic inheritance and Multiple allelism with the help of suitable examples.

(b) “Phenylketonuria is a good example that explains Pleiotropy.” Justify.

Answer: (a) Traits that are generally controlled by three or more genes , the phenotype reflects the contribution of each allele / effect of each allele is additive.

eg. Human skin colour , controlled by three genes (A , B, C).

In multiple allelism more than two alleles , govern the same character / phenotype.

eg . Human blood group (ABO system) , controlled by three different alleles (IA, IB, i). 

(b) In pleiotropy a single gene can exhibit multiple phenotypic expressions , in phenylketonuria single mutated gene express mental retardation and reduction in hair and skin pigmentation

OR

Q.25. (a) What is an operon ?

(b) Explain how a polycistronic structural gene is regulated by a common promoter and a

combination of regulatory genes in a lac-operon.

Answer: (a) An operon is a polycistronic structural gene which is regulated by a common promoter and regulator

gene / transcriptionally regulated system in which polycistronic structural gene is controlled by a common promoter and regulator gene.

(b) 

  • Lac operon consist of one regulatory gene i which codes for the repressor protein , promoter (P) and operator (o) are adjacent to gene i.
  • Structural genes z, y, a code for enzymes (â-galactosidase , permease and transacetylase respectively).
  • The regulator gene i synthesizes the repressor protein (all the time) , in the absence of inducer , the repressor protein binds to the operator region of the operon , prevents transcription (by RNA polymerase).
  • The repressor is inactivated in the presence of an inducer (lactose) that binds with it , this allows RNA polymerase access to promoter and transcription proceeds.

 

Q.24. (a) A pea plant bearing axial flowers is crossed with a pea plant bearing terminal flowers. The cross is carried out to find the genotype of the pea plant bearing axial flowers. Work out the cross to show the conclusions you arrive at.

(b) State the Mendel’s law of inheritance that is universally acceptable.

Answer: (i) If the plants is homozygous for the dominant trait

(ii) If the plants is heterozygous for the dominant trait A A a a (All plants with Axial Flower) A a a (50 % plants are with Axial ?ower and 50% plants with terminal ?ower) a

Conclusion : If all progeny show axial flowers ( dominant) the plant is homozygous (AA) ,

If 50 % of Progeny show Axial flower ( Dominant) and 50% Terminal flower ( Recessive) the plant is heterozygous.

(b) Law of Segregation , allelic pair segregate (separates) during gamete formation ( do not loose their identity ).

OR

Q.24. (a) Absence of lactose in the culture medium affects the expression of a Lac-operon in E. coli. Why and how ? Explain.

(b) Write any two ways in which the gene expression is regulated in eukaryotes.

Answer: (a) • Lactose acts as inducer thus absence of lactose switches off the operon.

• Repressor protein produced by regulatory gene ( i-gene ) is free ( in the absence of inducer ) ,

• Repressor protein binds with the operator gene ( o-gene ) ,

• Preventing RNA polymerase to transcribe the structural gene and operon is switched off.

If the above mentioned points are properly represented with help of schematic diagram.

(b) • Transcriptional level ( formation of primary transcripts )

• Processing level ( regulation of splicing )

• Transport of messengar RNA from nucleus to the cytoplasm

• Translational level 

 

Q.25. (a) When a seed of an orange is squeezed, many embryos, instead of one are observed. Explain how it is possible.

(b) Are these embryos genetically similar or different ? Comment.

Ans: (a) Polyembryony , nucellar cells surrounding embryosac start dividing , protrude into the embryosac and develop into many embryos = 1+ 1+ 1

(b) These embryos are genetically similar, as produced from nucellar cells by mitotic division / formed without fertilisation (but different from the embryo formed by fertilization)

OR

Q.25. (a) Explain the following phases in the menstrual cycle of” a human female:

(i) Menstrual phase

(ii) Follicular phase

(iii) Luteal phase

(b) A proper understanding of menstrual cycle can help immensely in family planning.

Do you agree with the statement ? Provide reasons for your answer.

Ans: (a) (i) Menstrual phase – first 3-5 days of the cycle where menstrual flow occurs due to break down of endometrial lining of uterus, if the released ovum is not fertilised.

(ii) Follicular phase – from 5th to 14th day of the cycle where the primary follicles grow to become a fully mature Graafian follicle , endometrium of uterus regenerates , Graafian follicle ruptures to release ova (ovulation on 14th day)

(iii) Luteal Phase – During 15th to 28th day remaining parts of graafian follicle transform into corpus luteum , secretion of progesterone (essential for maintenance of endometrium)

All these phases are under the influence of varying concentrations of pituitary and ovarian hormone.

(b) Yes , can take appropriate precautions between 10th to 17th day of the menstrual cycle when the chances of fertilisation are high.

Biology 12th Previous Year Question Paper 2018 (CBSE)

Biology

SECTION-A 

(Q. Nos. 1 – 5 are of one mark each) 

Q.1. Write the dual purpose served by Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates in polymerisation. 

Ans. Acts as a substrate , provide energy (from the terminal two phosphates).

 

Q.2. Name two diseases whose spread can be controlled by the eradication of Aedes 

mosquitoes. 

Ans. Dengue , Chikungunya // Yellow Fever / Eastern Equine Encephalitis / West Nile Fever / Zika / Zika Virus Disease (Any two)..

 

Q.3. How do cytokine barriers provide innate immunity in humans ? 

Ans. Interferon (proteins) , secreted by virus infected cells (protect non – infected cells from further viral infection).

 

Q.4. Write the names of the following : 

(a) A 15 mya primate that was ape-like 

(b) A 2 mya primate that lived in East African grasslands 

Ans. (a) Dryopithecus. 

(b) Australopithecines / Australopithecus / Homo habilis. 

 

Q.5. Mention the chemical change that proinsulin undergoes, to be able to act as mature 

insulin. 

Ans. Removal of C – peptide (from proinsulin) 

 

SECTION-B 

(Q. Nos. 2 – 10 are of two marks each) 

Q.6. Your advice is sought to improve the nitrogen content of the soil to be used for the cultivation of a non-leguminous terrestrial crop. 

(a) Recommend two microbes that can enrich the soil with nitrogen. 

(b) Why do leguminous crops not require such enrichment of the soil ? 

Ans. (a) Azospirillum / Azotobacter / Anabaena / Nostoc / Oscillatoria / Frankia (Any 

two correct names of microbes)..

(If cyanobacteria mentioned. , but if along with cyanobacteria Anabaena / Nostoc / Oscillatoria mentioned then No mark on cyanobacteria) 

(b) They can fix atmospheric nitrogen , due to the presence of Rhizobium / N2 fixing bacteria 

in their root nodules..

 

Q.7. With the help of an algebraic equation, how did Hardy-Weinberg explain that in a given population the frequency of occurrence of alleles of a gene is supposed to remain the same through generations ? 

Ans. In a population of diploid organisms 

If the frequency of allele A = p and frequency of allele a = q. 

Expected genotype frequency under random mating are 

AA = p2 (for the AA homozygotes)

aa = q2 (for the aa homozygotes) 

Aa = 2pq (for the Aa heterozygotes). 

(In absence of selection , mutation , genetic drift or other forces allelic frequency p and q are constant through generations) 

Therefore p2 + 2pq +q2 = 1 = 1 

OR 

Q.7. Although a prokaryotic cell has no defined nucleus , yet DNA is not scattered throughout the cell. Explain. 

Ans. DNA is negatively charged , positively charged proteins , hold it in places , in large loops (in a region termed as nucleoid). × 4 

 

Q.8. How did a citizen group called Friends of the Arcata Marsh, Arcata, California, USA, help to improve water quality of the marshland using Integrated Waste Water Treatment ? Explain in four steps. 

Ans.- Water is treated by conventional method / sedimentation / filtration / chlorination 

– Water flows to six connected marshes 

– The water in marshes is seeded with appropriate plants / algae / fungi / 

bacteria 

– Which helps to neutralise the pollutants / assimilate the pollutants / absorb pollutants / Remove heavy metals. × 4 

 

Q.9. You have obtained a high yielding variety of tomatoes. Name and explain the procedure that ensures retention of the desired characteristics repeatedly in large populations of future generations of the tomato crop. 

Ans. – Tissue culture / micropropagation / somaclonal propagation / apomixis. 

– Explant / any part of plant taken out and grown (in a test tube / vessel) , 

– under sterile conditions , 

– in special nutrient medium (containing carbon source / sucrose , inorganic salt 

vitamins / amino acids and growth regulator). × 3 

 

Q.10. (a) Name the source plant of heroin drug. How is it obtained from the plant ? 

(b) Write the effects of heroin on the human body. 

Ans. (a) – Papaver somniferum / Poppy plant. 

– Extracted from latex of the plant / acetylation of morphine (obtained from the 

latex of plant). 

(b) Depressant , slows down body function..

 

SECTION-C 

(Q. Nos. 11 – 22 are of three marks each) 

Q.11. Draw a diagram of a mature human sperm. Label any three parts and write their 

functions. 

(Any three labelling).

Plasma membrane – Envelope of the sperm 

Acrosome – Filled with enzyme that help fertilization of ovum 

Mitochondria – Energy source for swimming 

Middle Piece – Possess mitochondria which is the energy source for swimming 

Tail – For movement of sperm 

Nucleus – Containing chromosomal material 

(Functions of the parts labelled ). × 3 

 

Q.12. (a) Expand VNTR and describe its role in DNA fingerprinting. 

(b) List any two applications of DNA fingerprinting technique. 

Ans. (a) VNTR – Variable Number of Tandem Repeat(s). 

– used as a probe (because of its high degree of polymorphism). 

(b) Forensic science / criminal investigation (any point related to forensic science) / determine population and genetic diversities / paternity testing / maternity testing / study of evolutionary biology (Any two).

 

Q.13. Differentiate between Parthenocarpy and Parthenogenesis. Give one example of each. 

Ans. 

Parthenocarpy Parthenogenesis 
– Formation of fruit without fertilization  – New organism develops without fertilization 
– e.g. banana / grapes / any other correct example. – e.g. Drones /male honey bee / turkey / rotifers / some lizards / any other correct example. 

 

Q.14. Medically it is advised to all young mothers that breastfeeding is the best for their 

newborn babies. Do you agree ? Give reasons in support of your answer. 

Ans.Yes, 

provides nutrition (calcium , fats , lactose ) / provides (passive) immunity / provides antibodies / Ig A. 

 

Q.15. Explain the mechanism of ‘sex determination’ in birds. How does it differ from that of 

human beings ? 

Ans. In birds ; 

Birds : female heterogamety / female produces (Z) type and (W) type of gametes. 

Humans : male heterogamety / male produces (X) and (Y) type of gametes. 

 

Q.16. (a) How has the development of bioreactor helped in biotechnology ? 

(b) Name the most commonly used bioreactor and describe its working. 

Ans. (a) Larger biomass / large volume of culture can be processed leading to higher yields of desired specific products (protein / enzymes) , under controlled conditions..

(b) Stirring type. 

– Mixing of reactor contents evenly (with agitator system or a stirrer). 

– Facilitates oxygen availability. 

– Temperature / pH / foam control // under optimum conditions. 

 

Q.17. Explain the roles of the following with the help of an example each in recombinant 

DNA technology: 

(a) Restriction Enzymes 

(b) Plasmids 

Ans. (a) It recognises a specific sequence of base pairs / palindromes, and cuts the DNA 

strand at a specific site..

eg. EcoRI / Hindiii or any other correct example. 

(b) Act as vectors / cloning of desired alien gene / foreign gene = 1 

eg. pBR322 / plasmid of Salmonella / plasmid of Agrobacterium / Ti Plasmid / Tumour inducing Plasmid. 

 

Q.18. Explain out-breeding, out-crossing and crossbreeding practices in animal husbandry. 

Out breeding – Breeding of unrelated animals (which may be between individual of 

same breed or between individuals of different species) = 1 

Outcrossing – (a kind of out breeding) Mating of animals within the same breed but having no common ancestors on either side of their pedigree upto 4 – 6 generations = 1 

Cross breeding – (another type of out breeding) Superior males of one breed are mated 

with superior females of another breed = 1 

 

Q.19. (a) Organic farmers prefer biological control of diseases and pests to the use of 

chemicals for the same purpose. Justify. 

(b) Give an example of a bacterium, a fungus and an insect that are used as 

biocontrol agents. 

Ans. (a) – Reduces dependence on toxic chemicals 

– Protects our ecosystem or environment 

– Protects and conserves non-target organisms / they are species – specific 

– These chemicals being non-biodegradable may pollute the environment 

permanently 

– These chemicals being non-biodegradable may cause biomagnification 

(b) Bacteria – Bacillus thuringiensis. 

Fungus – Trichoderma. 

Insect – Ladybird / Dragonfly / Moth or any other correct example. 

 

Q.20. (a) Differentiate between analogous and homologous structures. 

(b) Select and write analogous structures from the list given below : 

(i) Wings of butterflies and birds 

(ii) Vertebrate hearts 

(iii) Tendrils of bougainvillea and cucurbita 

(iv) Tubers of sweet potato and potato 

Ans. (a) Analogous – Anatomically not similar though perform similar functions / are a 

result of convergent evolution = 1 

Homologous – Anatomically similar (but perform different functions) / are a result 

of divergent evolution = 1 

(b) Option (i) Wings of butterflies and birds / (iv) Tubers of sweet potato and potato 

 

Q.21. (a) “India has greater ecosystem diversity than Norway.” Do you agree with the 

statement ? Give reasons in support of your answer. 

(b) Write the difference between genetic biodiversity and species biodiversity 

that exists at all levels of biological organisation. 

Ans. (a) Yes. 

India / tropical region Norway / temperate region 

– are less seasonal – more seasonal / 

/ more constant / more predictable / less constant / less predictable 

– promote niche specialisation – do not promote niche specialisation 

leading to greater biodiversity leading to low biodiversity 

– Species diversity increases as we – Species diversity decreases as we 

move towards equator move away from equator 

– More number of species exist – Less number of species exist 

(b) Genetic diversity – Diversity / variation within a species over its distributional range / same explained with the help of a correct example = 1 

Species diversity – Diversity / variation at a species level / same explained with 

the help of a correct example = 1 

OR 

Q.21. Explain the effect on the characteristics of a river when urban sewage is discharged into it. 

Ans. – Rise in organic matter , leads to increased microbial activity / growth of microbes.

– It results in a decrease in dissolved oxygen / rise in BOD / rise in Biochemical Oxygen 

Demand = 1 

– Leads to fish mortality / algal bloom / colour change / foul odour / increase in 

toxicity.

 

Q.22. How has the use of Agrobacterium as vectors helped in controlling Meloidogyne 

incognitia infestation in tobacco plants ? Explain in correct sequence. 

Ans. – Using Agrobacterium vector nematode specific genes introduced into host plant 

– Sense and antisense strands of mRNA are produced 

– ds RNA is formed 

– ds RNA initiates RNAi 

– Prevents translation of mRNA / silencing of mRNA of parasite / nematode 

– Parasite will not survive 

 

SECTION-D 

(Q. Nos. 23 is of four marks) 

Q.23. Looking at the deteriorating air quality because of air pollution in many cities of the country, the citizens are very much worried and concerned about their health. The doctors have declared health emergency in the cities where the air quality is very severely poor. 

(a) Mention any two major causes of air pollution. 

(b) Write any two harmful effects of air pollution to plants and humans. 

(c) As a captain of your school Eco-club, suggest any two programmes you would plan to organise in the school so as to bring awareness among the students on how to check air pollution in and around the school. 

Ans. (a) Vehicular discharge / smoke from industries / burning of agricultural wastes / smoke from incinerator / dust / smoke from thermal plants or any other correct cause 

(b) Reduces growth of plants / reduces yields of crops / premature death of plants / respiratory problems / acid rain / any other relevant point (Any two – one from plant and one from human)

(c) Plantation drive / awareness programmes through posters / nukkad natak / film show 

/ rallies / debates or any other 

 

SECTION-E 

(Q. Nos. 24 – 26 are of five marks each) 

Q.24. (a) Describe any two devices in a flowering plant which prevent both autogamy and 

geitonogamy. 

(b) Explain the events upto double fertilisation after the pollen tube enters one of 

the synergids in an ovule of an angiosperm. 

Ans. (a) – Dioecy / production of unisexual flowers (in different plants) 

– Self incompatibility. 

(b) – Pollen tube releases 2 male gametes in the cytoplasm of synergid 

– One male gamete fuses with egg cell / syngamy , resulting in diploid zygote 

– Other male gamete fuses with polar nuclei / triple fusion , to form triploid PEN (Primary Endosperm Nucleus) / PEC (Primary Endosperm Cell). 

OR 

Q.24. (a) Explain menstrual cycle in human females. 

(b) How can the scientific understanding of the menstrual cycle of human females 

help as a contraceptive measure ? 

Ans. (a) – Menstrual Phase – Menstrual flow occurs / due to breakdown of endometrial 

lining of uterus , when fertilization does not occur 

– Follicular Phase – Primary follicles grow into mature graafian follicles and endometrium regenerates through proliferation , changes induced by pituitary and ovarian hormones 

– Ovulatory Phase – LH surge , induces rupture of graafian follicle and release 

of secondary oocyte / ovum during middle of cycle (i.e. 14th day) 

– Luteal phase – Ruptured graafian follicle transforms into the corpus luteum which secrete large amounts of progesterone , essential for maintaining endometrium.

(b) Because ovulation occurs during mid cycle chances of fertilisation are very high 

so , couples should abstain from coitus between day 10 – 17.

 

Q.25. (a) Write the scientific name of the organism Thomas Hunt Morgan and his colleagues worked with for their experiments. Explain the correlation between linkage and recombination with respect to genes as studied by them. 

(b) How did Sturtevant explain gene mapping while working with Morgan ? 

Ans. (a) Drosophila melanogaster. 

They observed that two genes (located closely on a chromosome) did not segregate independently of each other (F2 ratio deviated significantly from 9 : 3 : 3 : 1). 

Tightly linked genes tend to show fewer (less) recombinant frequency of parental traits / show higher (more) frequency of parental type. 

Loosely linked genes show higher percentage (more) of recombinant frequency of parental traits / lower frequency percentage of parental type. 

Genes present on the same chromosome are said to be linked and the recombinant frequency depends on their relative distance on the chromosome. 

(b) He used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome , as a measure of the distance between genes and mapped their position on the chromosome 

OR 

 

Q.25. (a) State the ‘Central dogma’ as proposed by Francis Crick. Are there any 

exceptions to it ? Support your answer with a reason and an example. 

(b) Explain how the biochemical characterisation (nature) of ‘Transforming Principle’ was determined, which was not defined from Griffith’s experiments. 

Ans. (a)

Yes, in some viruses flow of information is in reverse direction/reverse transcription.

(b) Protein and DNA and RNA were purified from heat killed S strain / smooth 

Streptococcus / Diplococcus pneumoniae. 

Protein + Protease → transformation occurred (R cell to S type). 

RNA + RNA base → transformation occurred (R cell to S type). 

DNA + DNAse → transformation inhibited. 

Hence DNA alone is the transforming material. 

 

Q.26. (a) Following are the responses of different animals to various abiotic factors. 

Describe each one with the help of an example. 

(i) Regulate 

(ii) Conform 

(iii) Migrate 

(iv) Suspend 

(b) If 8 individuals in a population of 80 butterflies die in a week, calculate the death rate of population of butterflies during that period. 

Ans.

(a) (i) Regulate – Maintain constant internal temperature / osmotic concentration /homeostasis. e.g. birds / mammals. 
(ii) Conform – Do not maintain constant internal temperature / osmotic concentration / No homeostasis. e.g. any one example of animals other than birds and mammals. 
(iii) Migrate – Temporary movement of organisms from the stressful of habitats to hospitable areas and return when stressful period is over. e.g. birds from Siberia / or any other correct example. 
(iv) Suspend – Reducing / minimising the metabolic activities during unfavourable conditions. e.g. Polar bear / amphibian / snails / fish / any other examples of animals. 

(b) Death rate = 8/80 = 0.1, individuals per butterfly per week.

OR 

 

Q.26. (a) What is a trophic level in an ecosystem ? What is ‘standing crop’ with reference to it ? 

(b) Explain the role of the ‘first trophic level’ in an ecosystem. 

(c) How is the detritus food chain connected with the grazing food chain in a 

natural ecosystem ? 

Ans. (a) Specific place of an organism in a food chain , mass of living material (biomass) at each trophic level at a particular time.

(b) First trophic level has producers / autotrophs , which trap solar energy / to produce 

food (photosynthesis). 

(c) Organisms of the Detritus food chain (DFC) are the prey to the Grazing food chain (GFC) organism , the dead remains of GFC are decomposed into simple inorganic materials which are absorbed by DFC organisms. 

Economics 12th Previous Year Question Paper 2018 (CBSE)

Economics

Section -A

Q.1. When the total fixed cost of producing 100 units is ₹ 30 and the average variable cost ₹ 3, total cost is : (Choose the correct alternative)

(a) ₹ 3

(b) ₹ 30

(c) ₹ 270

(d) ₹ 330

Answer: (d) ₹ 330.

 

Q.2. When the Average Product (AP) is maximum, the Marginal Product (MP) is : (Choose the correct alternative)

(a) Equal to AP

(b) Less than AP

(c) More than AP

(d) Can be any one of the above

Answer: (a) Equal to AP

 

Q.3. State one example of positive economics.

Answer: Increasing the interest rate to encourage people to save is an example of positive economics.

 

Q.4. Define fixed cost. 

Answer: Fixed costs are those costs which do not vary with the level of output. For e.g. Rent of factory.

 

Q.5. Explain the central problem of “choice of technique”.

OR

Q.5. Explain the central problem of “for whom to produce”. 

Answer: The problem of “choice of technique” is the second major central problem faced by the economy ever. Basically, there are two choices of techniques i.e.,

  • Capital-intensive technique: This is the technique, in which capital is required more than the labour.
  • Labour-intensive technique: This is a technique in which labour is required more than the capital.

OR

Answer: An economy faces a major central problem

i. e., for whom the production is to be done? Production/Income is distributed either on the basis of the purchasing powers of the consumers or on the basis of requirements of the individuals.

Two types of distribution are:

  • Functional Distribution
  • Personal Distribution.

 

Q.6. What is meant by inelastic demand ? Compare it with perfectly inelastic demand.

Answer: Elasticity is a measure of the responsiveness of the quantity demanded to a change in its price. Inelastic demand means that the demand for a product does not increase or decrease corresponding to the fall or rise in its price. In this case elasticity is less than 1, as the percentage change in quantity demanded is less than the percentage change in price.

For Ex.—Percentage change in quantity demanded is 10%

whereas percentage change in price = 20%

So, Elasticity (Ed &lt; 1) = 0.5

On the other hand, when an increase or decrease in price does not affect the quantity demanded, it is known as perfectly inelastic demand.

For Ex.—Price is changed by 10% but quantity demanded remains the same i.e.,

Percentage change in quantity demand = 0

Percentage change in price = 20%

So, elasticity is 0.

 

Q.7. When the price of a commodity changes from ? 4 per unit to ? 5 per unit, its market supply rises from 100 units to 120 units. Calculate the price elasticity of supply. Give reason.

Answer:

It is inelastic, as elasticity is less than one.

 

Q.8. What is meant by price ceiling? Explain its implications.

Answer: Price ceiling is a situation when the price charged is more than or less than the equilibrium price determined by market forces of demand and supply. It has been found that higher price ceilings are ineffective. Price ceiling has been found to be of great importance in the house rent market.

Implications of Trice Ceiling’

  • Price ceiling enables the availability of basic goods at reasonable price to the poor. This enables to increase the welfare of the people.
  • When there is a fall in the price level, the demand for a good increases more than the supply of the good. Hence, it creates an excess demand for the good.

 

Q.9. Given the price of a good, how will a consumer decide as to how much quantity to buy of that good ? Explain.

OR

Q.9. What is Indifference Curve? State three properties of indifference curves. 

Answer: Consumer equilibrium refers to the situation when consumer gets maximum satisfaction/utility from the goods it consumes. It is the situation through which a consumer decides how many units of the goods to consume.

Price remains constant when MU of goods is more than its price, and in that case, consumer will decide not to purchase that good.

Also, when MU is less than its price, then also consumer will give up its consumption. As a consumer will consume only when, MU is equal to price.

MUx = Px

In the figure,

X-axis = Consumption

Y-axis = Price

E = Consumer Equilibrium

OR

Answer: A curve on a graph (the axis of which represent quantities of two commodities) linking those combinations of quantities which the consumer regards as of equal value.

IC—Indifference Curve

X-axis = Goodx

Y-axis’= Goody

Properties:

  • Higher IC gives higher level of satisfaction.
  • Two Indifference curves never intersect each other.
  • Indifference curve is convex to the origin.

 

Q.10. State three characteristics of monopolistic competition. Which of the characteristics that separates it from perfect competition and why ?

OR

Q.10. Explain the implications of the following :

(a) Freedom of entry and exit of firms under perfect competition.

(b) Non-price competition under oligopoly.

Answer: The main features of monopolistic competition are as under:

(1) Large Number of Buyers and Sellers : There are large numbers of firms but not as large as under perfect competition. That means each firm can control its price- output policy to some extent. It is assumed that any price-output policy of a firm will not get reaction from other firms so each firm follows the independent price policy.

(2) Less Mobility : Under monopolistic competition, both the factors of production as well as goods and services are not perfectly mobile.

(3) More Elastic Demand: Under monopolistic competition, demand curve is more elastic. In order to sell more, the firms must reduce its price.

The characteristics which separates monopolistic competition from perfect competition are :

(1) Nature of Firms: Under perfect competition, an industry consists of a large number of firms. Each firm in the industry has a very little share in the total output. The firms have to accept the price determined by the industry. On the other hand, under monopolistic competition the number of firms is limited. The firms can influence the market price by their individual actions.

(2) Nature of Price and Output: Under perfect competition, price is equal to marginal cost as well as marginal revenue whereas under imperfect competition it is not so. Although, under monopolistic competition marginal cost and marginal revenue are equal yet not equalising the price.

(3) Nature of Product: Under perfect competition, firms produce homogeneous products. The cross elasticity of demand among the goods is infinite. Under imperfect competition, all firms produce differentiated products and the cross elasticity of demand among them is very small.

OR

Answer: (a) Freedom of entry and exit of firms under perfect competition : There is freedom of entry and exit of firms in perfect competition. This implies that under perfect competition, in the long-run, firms earn only normal profits, so new firms does not enter or exit the market in the long-run. The firms in this competition do not earn supernormal profits or losses in the long-run. It is only in the short-run that the firms enter or exit the market.

(b) Non-price competition under oligopoly: In an oligopoly market, firms do not compete with each other for changes in the price. If the firm increases the price, rival firms may not increase it, so it will lead to a loss of the market. Consumers will shift to rival firms. On the other hand, if the firm decreases the price, the rival firms may decrease it, so it will lead to a loss of total revenue. There will not be an increase in the demand for the product. They take into consideration the decisions of rival firms, and hence, the price does not move freely and it leads to non-price competition. High selling cost prevails in the market, resources are not fully used and welfare is not maximised.

 

Q.11. Explain the conditions of consumer’s equilibrium using Indifference Curve Analysis.

Answer: According to indifference curve analysis, a consumer attains equilibrium at a point where budget line is tangent to an indifference curve. Consumer equilibrium is achieved where slope of indifference curve (MRS) = slope of the budget line (Px/Py).

MRS = Px ÷ Py (Ratio of prices of two goods) Given the indifference map (preference schedule) of the consumer and budget or price line, we can find out the combination which gives the consumer maximum satisfaction. The aim of the consumer is to obtain highest combination on his indifference map and for this, he tries to go to the highest indifference curve with his given budget line. He would be in equilibrium only at such point which is common between a budget line and the highest attainable indifference curve. A consumer is in equilibrium at a point where budget line is tangent to indifference curve. At this point, slope of indifference curve (called MRS) is equal to the slope of the budget line.

In the above fig, P is the equilibrium point at which budget line M just touches the highest attainable indifference curve IC2 within consumer budget. Combinations on IC3 are not affordable because his income does not permit whereas combinations on IC1 gives lower satisfaction than IC2. Hence, the best combination is at point P where budget line is tangent to the indifference curve IC2. It is at this point that consumer attains the maximum satisfaction at the state of equilibrium.

For consumer’s equilibrium, two conditions are necessary:

(a) Budget line should be tangent to indifference curve (MRS = Px/Py).

(b) Indifference curve should be convex to the point of origin (i.e., MRS should be diminishing at a point of equilibrium.)

 

Q.12. Explain the conditions of producer’s equilibrium in terms of marginal revenue and marginal cost. 

Answer: Producer’s equilibrium refers to the state in which a producer earns his maximum profit or minimizes its losses. According to MR- MC approach, the producer is at equilibrium, when the Marginal Revenue (MR) is equal to the Marginal Cost (MC) and Marginal Cost curve cuts the Marginal Revenue curve from below.<br> Two conditions under this approach are :

(i) MR = MC

(ii) MC curve should cut the MR curve from below, or MC should be rising.

MR is the addition to TR from the sale of one more unit of output and MC is the addition to TC for increasing the production by one unit. In order to maximise profits, firms compare its MR with its MC.

As long as the addition to revenue is greater than the addition to cost, it is profitable for a firm to continue producing more units of output. In the diagram, output is shown on the X-axis, revenue and cost on the Y-axis. The Marginal Cost (MC) curve is U-shaped and P = MR = AR, is a horizontal line parallel to X-axis.

MC = MR at two points R and K in the diagram, but profits are maximised at point K, corresponding to OQ level of output. Between OQ and Q1 levels of output, MR exceeds MC. Therefore, firm will not stop at point R but will continue to produce to take advantage of additional profit. Thus, equilibrium will be at point K, where both the conditions are satisfied.

Situation beyond OQ1 level:

MR &lt; MC when output level is more than OQ1MR &lt; MC, which implies that firm is making a loss on its last unit of output. Hence, in order to maximise profit a rational producer decreases output as long as MC &gt; MR. Thus, the firm moves towards producing OQ units of output.

 

Section – B

Q.13. Define money supply.

Answer: Money supply is the total amount of money in circulation or in existence in a country at a specific time.

 

Q.14. Which of the following affects national income? (Choose the correct alternative) 

(a) Goods and Services tax

(b) Corporation tax

(c) Subsidies

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) Subsides

 

Q.15. Why does the consumption curve not start from the origin? 

Answer: As consumption includes autonomous consumption and autonomous consumption can never be zero.

 

Q.16. The central bank can increase the availability of credit by: (Choose the correct alternative).

(a) Raising the repo rate

(b) Raising reverse repo rate

(c) Buying government securities

(d) Selling government securities

Answer: (c) Buying government securities.

 

Q.17. Given nominal income, how can we find real income? Explain.

OR

Q.17. Which among the following are final goods and which are intermediate goods ? Give reasons. 

(a) Milk purchased by a tea stall

(b) Bus purchased by a school

(c) Juice purchased by a student from the school canteen

Answer: Real income can be calculated by applying the following formula: 

Real Income = Normal IncomePrice Index of current Year× Price Index of base year

Consider price index of base year as 100 When nominal income is given, we can convert it into real income with the help of GDP deflator.

∴ Real Income = Nominal IncomeGDP deflator100

OR

Answer: (a) It is an intermediate good because it is used by producer during production process of making tea and not for final consumption.

(b) It is a final good as, it is purchased by school for final consumption.

(c) It is a final good as, it is purchased by a student for final consumption.

 

Q.18. Define multiplier. What is the relation between marginal propensity to consume and multiplier ? Calculate the marginal propensity to consume if the value of the multiplier is 4. 

Answer: In economics, a multiplier is the factor by which gains in total output is greater than the change in spending that caused it. It is usually used in reference to the relationship between investment and total national income.

Relationship between marginal propensity to consume and multiplier

There is a direct relationship between MPC and Multiplier as, the higher the MPC, the higher the multiplier and vice versa.

 

Q.19. What is meant by inflationary gap? State three measures to reduce this gap.

OR

Q.19. What is meant by aggregate demand ? State its components.

Answer: An inflationary gap is the amount by which the actual gross domestic product exceeds the potential full-employment GDP. Three measures to reduce this gap are:

1. Fiscal Policy: Fiscal policy is the expenditure and revenue (taxation) policy of the government to accomplish the desired objectives.

In case of excess demand (when current demand is more than aggregate supply at full employment), the objective of fiscal policy is to reduce aggregate demand.

2. Monetary Policy: Monetary policy of the central bank of a country is to control the money supply and credit in the economy. Therefore, it is also called Central Bank’s Credit Control Policy. Money broadly refers to currency notes and coins whereas credit generally means loans, i.e., finance provided to others at a certain rate of interest. Monetary measures (instruments) affect the cost of credit (i.e., rate of interest) and availability of credit. Thus, it helps in checking excess demand when credit availability is restricted and credit is made costlier.

3. Miscellaneous: Other anti-inflationary measures are import promotion, wage freeze, control and blocking of liquid assets, compulsory savings scheme for households, increase in production by utilising idle capacities, etc.

OR

Answer: Aggregate demand (AD) or Domestic Final demand (DFD) is the total demand for final goods and services in an economy at a given time. It specifies the amount of goods and services that will be purchased at all possible price levels.

Components of aggregate demand are:

AD = C + I + G + (x + m)

Where

C = Consumption

I = Investment

G = Government Spending

X – M = Net Exports

1. Consumption: This is made by households, and sometimes consumption accounts for the larger portion of aggregate demand. An increase in consumption shifts the AD curve to the right.

2. Investment: Investment, second of the four components of aggregate demand, refers to the spending by firms not households. However, investment is also the most volatile component of AD. An increase in investment shifts AD to the right in the short rim and helps to improve the quality and quantity of factors of production in the long run.

3. Government: Government spending forms a large total of aggregate demand, and an increase in government spending shifts aggregate demand to the right. This spending is categorized into transfer payments and capital spending. Transfer payments include pensions and unemployment benefits and capital spending is on things like roads, schools and hospitals. Government spends to increase the consumption of health services, education and to redistribute income. They may also spend to increase aggregate demand.

4. Net Exports: Imports are foreign goods bought by consumers domestically, and exports are domestic goods bought abroad. Net exports is the difference between exports and imports, and this component can be net imports too if imports are greater than exports. An increase in net exports shifts aggregate demand to the right. The exchange rate and trade policy affects net exports.

 

Q.20. The value of marginal propensity to consume is 0.6 and initial income in the economy is ₹ 100 crores. Prepare a schedule showing Income, Consumption and Saving. Also show the equilibrium level of income by assuming autonomous investment of ₹ 80 crores.

Answer: Given that, Marginal propensity to consume (MPC) = 0.6

Initial income = ₹ 100 crores

Autonomous investment = ₹ 80 crores

C = C + c(Y)

C = 0 + 0.6(Y)

Income (₹) Consumption  Savin (₹) (1-MPC = MPS) MPS = 0.40 Investment 
100 60 40 80
200 120 80 80
300 180 120 80
400 240 160 80
500 300 200 80

 

Aggregate Demand (AD) = Aggregate Supply (AS)

AD = C + I and AS = C + S

Therefore, the equilibrium level of income is ₹ 200 crores.

 

Q.21. Explain the role of the Reserve Bank of India as the “lender of last resort”. 

Answer: A person or organisation which is ready to help the individual or organisation who is in need of immediate financial help to come out of the financial struggles is the lender of last resort. It means that if a commercial bank fails to get financial accommodation from anywhere, it approaches the Reserve Bank as a last resort. Reserve Bank advances loan to such banks against approved securities. By offering loan to the commercial bank in situations of emergency, the Reserve Bank ensures that:

  • The banking system of the country does not suffer from any setback.
  • Money market remains stable.

It preserves the stability of the banking and financial system by protecting individual’s deposited funds and preventing panic-ridden withdrawals from banks with temporary limited liquidity. For more than a century and a half, central banks have been trying to avoid great depression by acting as a lender of last resort in times of financial crisis.

 

Q.22. (a) Explain the impact of rise in exchange rate on national income.

(b) Explain the concept of ‘deficit’ in balance of payments. 

Answer: (a) If the exchange rate of a country falls with respect to the other country then its exports become cheap while imports become expensive. For example : If earlier, the exchange rate was US$1 = INR 60, and if the exchange rate decreased to US$1 = INR 70, then businesses that are selling their products in the US will receive more money. So, if my product was priced at US$5, earlier I was receiving 5*60 = INR 3Q0, now the exchange rate depreciated to INR 70, so for the same priced product in the US that is priced at US$5, I will be receiving 5*70 = INR 350. Similarly, for imports, as the ‘ exchange rate depreciated to INR 70 and if I want to purchase a Smartphone worth US$200; earlier I had to pay 200*60 = INR 12,000. Now I will pay, 200*70 = INR 14,000.

Exactly the opposite will happen when exchange rate will appreciate. For example : when US$1 = INR 60 will become US$1 = INR 50.

(b) The deficit in the Balance of Payment (BOP) is governed by the balance of autonomous transactions in the BOP. The BOP would show a deficit if the autonomous receipts are lesser than the autonomous payments. As autonomous receipt implies a receipt of foreign exchange and autonomous payment implies a payment of foreign exchange, so, it can be said that BOP would show a deficit when the foreign exchange receipts are less than foreign exchange payment which also means that the BOP deficit would reflect depletion of foreign exchange reserves of the country.

 

Q.23. Calculate (a) Net National Product at market price, and

(b) Gross Domestic Product at factor cost: 

Answer:> NDPFC = Wages and salaries + SSC by employers + Rent and interest + Dividend + Corporation tax + Undistributed profit + Mixed income

NDPFC = 1800 + 200 + 6000 + 80 +120 + 400 + 1000

NDPFC = ₹ 9600 Crores

(a) NNPMP = NDPFC + NFIA + NIT

NNPMP = ₹ 9600 + (- 70) + 100

NNPMP = ₹ 9630 Crores

 

Q.24. Explain the meaning of the following : 

(a) Revenue deficit

(b) Fiscal deficit

(c) Primary deficit

OR

Q.24. Explain the following objectives of government budget:

(a) Allocation of resources

(b) Reducing income inequalities.

Answer: (a) Revenue Deficit: A revenue deficit occurs when the net income generated (revenues less expenditures), falls short of the projected net income. This happens when the actual amount of revenue received and/ or the actual amount of expenditures do not correspond with budgeted revenue and expenditure figure.

(b) Fiscal Deficit: A fiscal deficit occurs when a government’s total expenditures exceed the revenue that it generates, excluding money from borrowings. Deficit differs from debt, which is an accumulation of yearly deficits.

(c) Primary Deficit: The deficit can be measured with or without including the interest paid on the debt as expenditures. The primary deficit is defined as the difference between the current government’s spending on goods and services and total current revenue from all types of taxes.

OR

(a) Allocation of Resources: It is one of the important objectives of government budget. In a mixed economy, the private producers aim towards profit maximisation, while the government aims towards welfare maximisation. The private sector always tend to divert resources towards areas of high profit, while ignoring areas of social welfare. In such a situation, the government through the budgetary policy aims to reallocate resources in accordance with the economic and social priorities of the country.

(b) Reducing Income inequalities: Government through budget makes every possible effort to reduce income inequalities. Income inequalities are so much prevalent in an economy like India. To achieve this objective, the government uses fiscal instruments of taxation and subsidies. By imposing taxes on rich and giving subsidies to the poor, the government redistributes income in favour of poorer sections of the society. Distribution of food grain through ‘fair = price shops’ to BPL (below the poverty line) population is an important step in this direction. Equitable distribution of income and wealth is a sign of social justice.

Thus, government budget reduces income inequalities.

Economics 12th Previous Year Question Paper 2019 SET-III (CBSE)

Economics

Section -A

MICRO-ECONOMIC

Q.1. The Total Revenue earned by selling 20 units is ₹ 700. Marginal Revenue earned by selling 21st unit is ₹ 70. The value of Total Revenue earned by selling total 21 units will be (Choose the correct alternative) 

(a) ₹ 721

(b) ₹ 630

(c) ₹ 770

(d) ₹ 720

Answer:(c) ₹ 770

 

Q.2. In the given figure X1Y1 and X2Y2 are Production Possibility Curves in two different periods T1 and T2 respectively for Good X and Good Y. A1 and A2 represent actual outputs and P1 and P2 represent potential outputs respectively in the two time periods. 

The change in actual output of Goods X and Y over the two periods would be represented by movement from (Fill up the blank)

(a) A2 to P2

(b) A1to P2

(c) P1 to A2

(d) A1 to A2

OR

Q.2. The Marginal Rate of Transformation (MRT) is constant. The Production Possibility Curve, so formed would be ………… to the origin.

(Fill up the blank)

Answer: (d) A1 to A2

OR

Answer: Straight line

 

Q.3. Under imperfect competition, Average Revenue (AR) remains ………… Marginal Revenue (MR). (Fill up the blank) 

OR

Q.3. For a firm to be in equilibrium, Marginal Revenue (MR) and Marginal Cost (MC) must be …………… and beyond that level of output Marginal Cost must be …………. ” (Fill up the blank)

Answer: Greater than

OR

Answer: Equal, rising

 

Q.4. If the supply curve is a straight line parallel to the vertical axis (Y-axis), supply of the good is called as ……………. (Fill up the blank) 

(a) Unitary Elastic Supply

(b) Perfectly Elastic Supply

(c) Perfectly Inelastic Supply

(d) Perfectly Elastic Demand

Answer: (c) Perfectly Inelastic Supply

 

Q.5. Discuss briefly the concept of normative economics, with suitable example.

Answer: Normative economics focuses on the ideological, opinion-oriented, prescriptive value of judgements and “what should be” statement aimed towards economic development, investment project, and scenarios. Its goal is to summarize people’s desirability (or the lack thereof) to various economic developments, situations, and programs by asking or quoting what should happen or what ought to be. ‘ Normative economics is subjective and value -based, originating from personal perspectives, feelings, or opinions involved in the decision making process. Normative economics statements are rigid and prescriptive in nature. They often sound political or authoritarian, which is why this economic branch is also called “what should be” or “what ought to be” economics.

An example of a normative economic statement is : “The government should provide basic healthcare to all citizens.” As you can deduce from this statement, it is value-based, rooted in personal perspective, and satisfies the requirement of what “should” be.

 

Q.6. Explain the law of diminishing marginal utility, with the help of a hypothetical schedule. 

OR

Q.6. Elaborate the law of demand, with the help of a hypothetical schedule.

Answer: According to the law of diminishing utility, as more and more units of commodity are consumed, the extra utility that we derive from it goes on declining. Total utility will continue to rise till the point of consumption when the marginal utility becomes zero. After this point, MU becomes negative which means now the good begins to harm consumers.

Assumption of Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility

  • Utility can be measured in numeric terms.
  • The consumption takes place in the stipulated time period (in continuation).
  • All the consumers are assumed to be rational.
  • Marginal utility of rupee is assumed to be constant.

The schedule indicates that as more and more units of commodity are consumed, the marginal utility derived from the consumption of each additional unit of the commodity tends to fall. With the consumption of successive units the marginal utility becomes zero and consequently become negative. The MU become zero at the consumption of 4th unit and become negative at the consumption of 5th unit.

OR

Answer: The law of demand explains the inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded of a commodity. According to this law, ‘other things remaining constant’ (ceteris paribus), price and quantity demanded of a commodity move in the opposite direction. When the price of the commodity increases, the quantity demanded falls and when the price decreases, the quantity demanded increases, provided factors other than price remain constant. More units of a commodity are purchased at a lower price because of a substitution effect and income effect.

Following are the assumptions of law of demand :

(a) No change in consumer’s income.

(b) No change in the price of related goods.

(c) No change in the consumer’s taste, preferences and fashion.

(d) No expectation of change in the future prices of the goods.

(e) No change in the population.

Demand schedule

Price of Sugar (₹ per kg) 20 40 50 70
Quantity 100 75 60 40


The demand schedule shows that the consumer will demand more sugar at a lower price, other things being constant. When the price of sugar is ₹ 20 per kg the quantity demanded will be 100 kg but when price increase to ₹ 40 the demand decreases to 75 kg and 50 Kg so on. This shows that the price and demand are inversely related

 

Q.7. The market for a good is in equilibrium. How would an increase in an input price affect the equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity, keeping other factors constant ? Explain using a diagram.

Answer: Input price refers to the money paid to the factors of production in return for their productive services. As the input price rises, the cost of production also rises and produc-tion levels falls. This leads to a leftward shift in the supply curve.

This leads to excess demand in the market. It leads to competition among buyers. Due to this, the price starts rising. As the price rises, demand contracts and supply expands. This will continue until there is no more excess demand.

Finally equilibrium prices rises from P1 to P2 and equilibrium quantity falls from Q1 to Q2.

 

Q.8. (a) The coefficient of price elasticity of demand for Good X is (-) 0-2 . If there is a 5% increase in the price of the good, by what percentage will the quantity demanded for the good fall?

(b) Arrange the following coefficient of price elasticity of demand in ascending order : (-) 3.1, (-) 0.2, (-) 1.1 

OR

Q.8. How would the demand for a commodity be affected by a change in “tastes and preferences” of the consumers in favour of the commodity? Explain using a diagram. Answer:  (a) 

Percentage change in Quantity demanded = -1% Elasticity of demand is unitary elastic and the percentage fall in quantity demanded is 1%.

(b) Ascending order (-) 0.2, (-)1.1, (-)3.1.

OR

Answer:  Taste and preference is one of the factors affecting individual demand. If the consumers in the market have started liking a particular commodity, the demand for that commodity will increase. On the other hand, if there is a disliking for a particular commodity or preference for a commodity is falling, demand will decrease.

So change in taste and preference of the commodity in favour of the other commodity, will shift the demand curve towards right from DD to D1 D1.

 

Q.9. The market for a good is in equilibrium. Explain, using a diagram, how an improvement in technology for producing the goods would affect the equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity, keeping other factors constant. 

Answer: Updated technology helps to increase production in less time and cost. Due to this, the expected profit margin of a producer increases and he produces more output. 

Hence, the supply of the commodity rises and the supply curve shifts towards the right.

This leads to an excess supply in the market. It increases the competition among the sellers. Due to this, the prices starts falling. As the price falls, demand expands and supply contracts. This continues till there is more excess supply in the market.<br> Finally, equilibrium prices falls from P1 to P2 and equilibrium quantity rises from Q1 to Q2.

 

Q.10. Explain the meaning of the following features of the Oligopoly Market : 

(a) Non-Price Competition

(b) Few Sellers

Answer: (a) Non-price Competition: Oligopoly firm not only competes through price but also on the basis of non-price competition. Product variation and advertisement are the two main forms of non price competition as they fear price war. Normally, the oligopoly firms do not respond to a rise in price by the rivals. However/they have to respond if a rival firm reduces the price of the product.

Implication : This results in price rigidity in the market.

(b) Few Sellers: Under Oligopoly, there are only a few firms, producing a commodity. The product can be homogeneous or differentiated. These firms can influence the price and output by their actions.

Each firm produces significant portion of total output. There exists competition among different firms and each firm try to manipulate both price and volume of production. The number of buyers are large.

Implications: The number of firms is so small that an action by any firm is likely to affect the other firm. So every firm keeps a close watch on the actions of each other.

 

Q.11. (a) “A firm under perfect competition is a price taker, whereas a firm under monopoly is a price maker”. Defend or refute the given statement with valid reasons.

(b) What is meant by “product differentiation”? Explain with example.

Answer: (a)Thegivenstatmentis true.Equilibrium price in a perfect market is determined by the industry not by an individual firm. The price is determined by the intersection of demand and supply of an industry which is accepted by all the firms, thus, an individual firm is a price taker while industry is a price maker in this case. Price-Determination under Perfect Competition.

On the other hand, in monopoly market, the firm is a price maker as it has full control over the supply of its commodity because :

  • There is no competition in the market
  • There are barriers in the entry of new firms in a monopoly market.

Therefore, monopolist can influence the market price by varying its supply. It can increase the price by supplying less and reduce the price by supplying more.

(b) Product Differentiation: Under this market products of different firms are not homogeneous but are close substitutes of each other. Products are differentiated from one another in terms of brand name, colour, shape, quality, type, etc. Due to product differentiation, firms here enjoy control over prices and have its own price policy.

For example, there are a number of toothpastes available in the market like Colgate, Closeup, Pepsodent etc.

Implications: Buyers of the products differentiate between the same kind of products produced by different firms. Therefore, they are also ready to pay different prices for the same product produced by different firms. This gives power to the firm to influence the price of the product.

 

Q.12. Explain the following conditions : 

(a) Movement along the same indifference curve.

(b) Shift from a lower to a higher indifference curve.

OR

Q.12. Explain the law of Equi-Marginal Utility.

Answer: (a) Movement along the same indifference curve : All the points along with the same indifference curve represents all those combinations of two commodities which provides the same level of satisfaction to the consumer. Level of satisfaction remains constant whether we move upward or downward along the same indifference curve. In order to increase the consumption of one commodity the consumer has to sacrifice the consumption of the other “and he moves up and down on the same indifference curve.

In the present diagram, combination A (OX + OY) provides the satisfaction equal to combination B (OX1 + OY1).

(b) Shift from lower to a higher indifference curve : Curves nearer to origin represent lower level of satisfaction and curves which are away from origin represent higher level of satisfaction. It means as we move away from origin, level of satisfaction continuously increases.

In the present diagram IC2 represent higher level of satisfaction in comparison to IC1 and in the same way IC3 represent satisfaction more than IC1 and IC2 .

So if there are three indifferent curves in a single diagram then they will represent three different levels of satisfaction.

OR

Answer: Law of Equi-marginal utility states that a consumer allocates his expenditure on various commodities in such a manner that the utility derived from each additional unit of the rupee spent on each of the commodities is equal.

The ratio of the MU to price of X must be equal to the ratio of MU and price of Y.

MUx/Px = MUy/Py…………… = MUn/Pn

This is known as a law of equi-marginal utility. It means the equality of the MU of the last rupee spent on each good. If Mux /Px is greater than My/Py, it means that MU from the last rupee spent on good X is greater than MU of the last rupee spent on good Y. This induces the consumer to transfer the expenditure from Y to X. The consumption of X rises and MUx falls, and MU of Y rises. This act continues till MUx/Px and MUy/Py are equal.

Assumptions of Law of Equi Marginal Utility

1. Utility can be measured in numeric terms.

2. The consumption takes place in the stipulated time period (in continuation).

3. All the consumers are assumed to be rational.

4. Marginal utility of rupee is assumed to be constant.

For e.g.: A consumer consumers 2 commodities X and Y for ₹ 3/unit and ₹ 2/unit respectively. It is assumed that MUR = ₹ 2

Section-B

MACRO-ECONOMICS

Q.13. Primary deficit in a government budget will be zero, when ………….. (Choose the correct alternative).

(a) Revenue deficit is zero

(b) Net interest payments are zero

(c) Fiscal deficit is zero

(d) Fiscal deficit is equal to interest payment.

Answer:

(d) Fiscal deficit is equal to interest payment.

 

Q.14. In order to encourage investment in the economy, the Central Bank may …………… (Choose the correct alternative).

(a) Reduce Cash Reserve Ratio

(b) Increase Cash Reserve Ratio

(c) Sell Government securities in open market

(d) Increase Bank Rate

Answer: (a) Reduce Cash Reserve ratio.

 

Q.15. What do you mean by a direct tax?

OR

Q.15. What do you mean by an indirect tax?

Answer: Direct tax refers to a compulsory payment to the government whose impact and incidence falls on the same person. It is progressive in nature. Example-Income tax and Property tax.

OR

Answer: Indirect tax refers to a compulsory payment to the government whose impact and incidence falls on different persons. It is regressive in nature. Example- VAT, custom duty.

 

Q.16. Define ‘money multiplier’. 

Answer: When the primary cash deposits in the banking system leads to multiple expansion in the total deposits, it is called as money multiplier. It is inversely related to legal reserve ratio.

 

Q.17. Calculate change in final income, if the Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is 0 8 and change in initial investment is ₹ 1,000 crores.

Answer: MPC = 0.8 and change in initial investment = ₹ 1000 crores

Change in income = ₹ 5000 crores.

 

Q.18. Estimate the change in final income if Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is 0-75 and change in initial investment is ₹ 2,000 crores. 

Answer: MPC = 0.75

Change in investment = ₹ 2000

Change in income = ₹ 8000 crore.

 

Q.19. Classify the following statement as revenue receipts or capital receipts. Give valid reasons in support of your answer. 

(a) Financial help from a multinational corporation for victims in a food affected area.

(b) Sale of shares of a Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) to a private company, Y Ltd.

(c) Dividends paid to the Government by the State Bank of India.

(d) Borrowings from International Monetary Fund (IMF).

Answer: (a) Financial help from a multinational company is an aid to the government so it is a revenue receipt as it does not create any liability and reduction in assets.

 (b) It is a capital receipt. As sale of shares will reduce the assets of the PSU.

(c) Dividends paid to the government is a revenue receipt as it neither creates any liability nor reduces the assets.

(d) It is a capital receipt. It increases the liability of the government.

 

Q.20. Discuss briefly the “credit controller” function of Central Bank.

Answer: Central Bank as a credit controller:

It is the most important function of Central Bank. By controlling the credit effectively, Central Bank establishes stability not only in the internal price level but also in the foreign exchange rate and full employment.

This function helps to meet some definite objectives such as price stability, economic growth, exchange rate stability etc. These objectives are achieved by regulating money supply. It includes two types of measures :

(a) Quantitative measures: It includes Bank rate, Repo rate, Open Market Operations (OMO), CRR, SLR etc.

(b) Qualitative measures: It includes moral suasion, margin requirements, direct actions etc.

 

Q.21. Distinguish between ‘Qualitative and Quantitative tools’ of credit control as may be used by a Central Bank. 

Answer:

 

Q.22. (a) Define “Trade Surplus” and “Trade Deficit”.

(b) Discuss briefly the concept of managed floating system of foreign exchange rate determination. 

Answer: (a) Trade surplus refers to the excess of exports of goods over the imports of goods. Trade deficit refers to the excess of import of goods over the export of goods.

(b) Managed floating exchange rate system- It is a system in which the foreign exchange rate is determined by the market forces and central bank influences the exchange rate through intervention in the foreign exchange market. Central bank interferes to restrict the fluctuations in the exchange rate within limits. For this central bank maintains the reserve of foreign exchange to ensure that the exchange rate stays within the targeted value. It is also known as “Dirty floating”.

 

Q.23. Discuss the adjustment mechanism in the following situations :

(a) Aggregate demand is lesser than Aggregate Supply.

(b) Ex-Ante Investments are greater than Ex- Ante Savings.

Answer: (a) At the income level above the equilibrium, the planned aggregate demand (AD) is less than the aggregate supply (AS). This implies that there is an excess availability of goods and services in an economy. This surplus in goods is added to the inventory stock of goods. The rise in the inventories above a desired level reduces the production which leads to the decrease in income and employment in the economy. This process continues till AD gets equal to AS.

(b) Adjustment Mechanism when planned in-vestment is greater than planned savings :

(i) When planned (ex-ante) saving is greater than planned investment. Suppose firms plan to invest ₹ 20,000 crores but households plan to save ₹ 25,000 crores, it shows consumption expenditure has decreased. Consequently, AD falls short of AS. Due to excess supply there will be stockpiling of unsold goods, i.e., unintended unplanned inventories will accumulate. At this, the producers will cut down employment and produce less. National income will fall and as a result planned saving will start falling until it becomes equal to planned investment. It is at this point equilibrium level of income is determined.

(ii) When planned (ex-ante) saving is less than planned investment. Suppose producers plan to invest ₹ 20,000 crores but households plan to save ₹ 15,000 crores, then AD (or consumption expenditure) is more than AS. Production will have to be increased to meet the excess demand. Consequently national income will increase leading to rise in saving until saving becomes equal to investment. It is here that equilibrium level of income is established because what the savers intend to save becomes equal to what the investors intend to invest. If planned saving and planned investment are equal, then output, income, employment and the price level will be constant.

 

Q.24. (a) Distinguish between ‘Trade Deficit” and ‘Current Account Deficit’. 

(b) Discuss briefly the concept of flexible exchange rate system of foreign exchange rate determination.

Answer: (a)

Trade Deficit Current Account Deficit
1. Trade deficit refers to the excess of import of goods over the export of goods. Current account deficit refers to the excess of current account,
Payments over current account receipts.
2. It is a narrower term. It is broader them.
3. It does not include services and unilateral transfers. It includes services and unilateral transfers.

 

(b) Flexible exchange rate is a system where the value of one currency in terms of another is free to fluctuate and establish the equilibrium level through the forces of demand and supply. It can be better understood with the following merits and demerits of the flexible exchange rate :

(i) Merits :

  • No need to maintain reserves of foreign currency.
  • Automatic adjustment in balance of payments (BOP) is possible.
  • No dependence on external sources.

(ii) Demerits :

  • It creates unstable conditions and uncertainty.
  • Increased speculation with a destabilizing effect.
  • Gives rise to inflation in the economy.
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