Q. 1 Let X be the set of all persons living in a city, Persons x, in y in X are said to be related as x < y if y is at least 5 years older than x. Which one of the following is correct?
A. The relation is an equivalence relation on X
B. The relation is transitive but neither reflexive nor symmetric
C. The relation is reflexive but neither transitive nor symmetric
D. The relation is symmetric but neither transitive not reflexive
Q. 2 Which one of the following matrices is an elementary matrix?
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 3 Consider the following statements in respect of the given equation : (x^2 + 2)^2 + 8 x^2 = 6 x ( x^2 + 2) . Given : 1.) All the roots of the equation are complex. 2.) The sum of all the roots of the equation is 6. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. neither 1 nor 2
Q. 4 In solving a problem that reduces to a quadratic equation, one student makes a mistake in the constant term and obtains 8 and 2 for roots. Another student makes a mistake only in the coefficient of first-degree term and finds -9 and -1 for roots. The correct equation is
A. x^2 – 10 x + 9 = 0
B. x^2 + 10 x + 9 = 0
C. x^2 – 10 x + 16 = 0
D. x^2 – 8 x -9 = 0
Q. 5 What is A + 3 A^(-1) equal to?
A. 3I
B. 5I
C. 7I
D. None of the above
Q. 6 In a class of 60 students, 45 students like music, 50 students like dancing, 5 students like neither. Then the number of students in the class who like both music and dancing is
A. 35
B. 40
C. 50
D. 55
Q. 7 If log [base 10]( 2 ), log [base 10]( 2^x – 1 ) and log [base 10]( 2^x + 3 ) are three consecutive terms of an AP, then the value of x is
A. 1
B. log [base 5]( 2 )
C. log [base 2]( 5 )
D. log [base 10] (5)
Q. 8 The Matrix A is
A. symmetric
B. skew – symmetric
C. Hermitian
D. skew – Hermitian
Q. 9 Let Z be the set of integers and aRb, where a, b ∈ Z if and only if ( a – b ) is divisible by 5.
Consider the following statements :
1. The relation R partitions Z into five equivalent classes.
2. Any two equivalent classes are either equal or disjoint
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 not 2
Q. 10 If z = -2( 1 + 2i ) / 3 + i where i = √-1, then the argument θ( -Π < θ ≤ Π ) of z is
A. 3Π/4
B. Π/4
C. 5Π/6
D. -3Π/4
Q. 11 If m and n are the roots of the equation ( x + p )( x + q ) – k = 0, then the roots of the equation ( x – m )( x – n ) + k = 0 are
A. p and q
B. 1/p and 1/q
C. -p and -q
D. p + q and p – q
Q. 12 What is the sum of the series 0.5 + 0.55 + 0.555 + … to n terms?
A. 5/9[ n – ( 2/9)( 1 – 1/(10^n) ) ]
B. 1/9[ 5 – ( 2/9)( 1 – 1/(10^n) ) ]
C. 1/9[ n – ( 5/9)( 1 – 1/(10^n) ) ]
D. 5/9[ n – ( 1/9)( 1 – 1/(10^n) ) ]
Q. 13 If 1, ω, ω^2 are the cube roots of unity, then the value of ( 1 + ω )( 1 + ω^2 )( 1 + ω^4 )( 1 + ω^8 ) is
A. -1
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2
Q. 14 Let A = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 }. Then the number of subsets of A containing exactly two elements is
A. 20
B. 40
C. 45
D. 90
Q. 15 What is the square root of i, where i = √-1
A. ( 1 + i )/2
B. ( 1 – i )/2
C. ( 1 + i )/√2
D. None of the above
Q. 16 The decimal number (127.25)(decimal) , when converted to binary number, takes the form
A. ( 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 . 1 1)(binary)
B. ( 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 . 0 1)(binary)
C. ( 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 . 1 1)(binary)
D. ( 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 .0 1)(binary)
Q. 17 Consider the following in respect of two non-singular matrices A and B of same order :
1. det( A + B ) = det A + det B
2. ( A + B )^(-1) = A^(-1) + B^(-1) . Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 18 If X, A and B satisfy the equation AX = B, then the matrix A is equal to:
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 19 The equation given in figure equals to
A. ⁿ⁺²C₁
B. ⁿ⁺²Cₙ
C. ⁿ⁺³Cₙ
D. ⁿ⁺²Cₙ₋₁
Q. 20 How many words can be formed using all the letters of the word ‘NATION’ so that all the three vowels should never come together?
A. 354
B. 348
C. 288
D. None of the above
Q. 21 ( x^3 – 1 ) can be factorized as : ( where ω is one of the cube roots of unity. )
A. ( x- 1 )( x – ω )( x + ω^2 )
B. ( x- 1 )( x – ω )( x – ω^2 )
C. ( x- 1 )( x + ω )( x + ω^2 )
D. ( x- 1 )( x + ω )( x – ω^2 )
Q. 22 What is { [sin Π/6 + i( 1 – cos Π/6 )] / [sin Π/6 – i( 1 – cos Π/6 )] }^3 where i = √-1, equal to ?
A. 1
B. -1
C. i
D. -i
Q. 23 For given A, B and C matrices. If AB = C, then what is A² equal to?
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 24 The value of A is
A. x + y
B. x – y
C. xy
D. 1 + x + y
Q. 25 If A = { x : x is a multiple of 3 } and B = { x : x is a multiple of 4 } and C = { x : x is multiple of 12 }, then which one of the following is a null set?
A. ( A \ B ) ∪ C
B. ( A \ B ) \ C
C. ( A ∩ B ) ∩ C
D. ( A ∩ B ) \ C
Q. 26 If ( 1 1 1 0 1 0 1 1)(binary) is converted to decimal system, then the resulting number is
A. 235
B. 175
C. 160
D. 126
Q. 27 What is the real part of (sin x + i cos x )^3 where i = √-1?
A. -cos 3x
B. -sin 3x
C. sin 3x
D. cos 3x
Q. 28 then E(α) E(β) is equal to
A. E(αβ)
B. E(α – β)
C. E(α + β)
D. – E(α + β)
Q. 29 Let A = { x, y, z} and B = { p, q, r, s}. What is the number of distinct relations from B to A?
A. 4096
B. 4094
C. 128
D. 126
Q. 30 If 2p + 3q = 18 and 4p² + 4pq – 3q² – 36 = 0. Then what is (2p + q) equal to?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 10
D. 20
Q. 31 Let θ be a positive angle. If the number of degrees in θ is divided by the number of radians in θ, then an irrational number 180 / Π results. If the number of degrees in θ is multiplied by the number of radians in θ, then an irrational number 125π / 9 results. The angle θ must be equal to
A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 50°
D. 60°
Q. 32 In a triangle ABC, a = (1 + √3 ) cm, b = 2 cm and angle C = 60°. Then the other two angles are
A. 45° and 75°
B. 30° and 90°
C. 105° and 15°
D. 100° and 20°
Q. 33 Let α be the root of the equation 25cos² θ + 5cos θ – 12 = C, where Π/2 < α < Π. What is tan α equal to?
A. -3 / 4
B. 3 / 4
C. – 4 / 3
D. – 4 / 5
Q. 34 Let α be the root of the equation 25cos² θ + 5cos θ – 12 = C, where Π/2 < α < Π. What is sin 2α equal to?
A. 24 / 25
B. -24 / 25
C. -5 / 12
D. -21 / 25
Q. 35 The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point of 20 m away from its base is 45°. What is the height of the tower?
A. 10 m
B. 20 m
C. 30 m
D. 40 m
Q. 36 The equation tan^(-1)( 1 + x ) + tan^(-1)( 1 – x ) = Π/2 is satisfied by
A. x = 1
B. x = -1
C. x = 0
D. x = 1/2
Q. 37 The angles of elevation of the top of a tower standing on a horizontal plane from two points on a line passing through the foot of the tower at distances 49 m and 36 m are 43° and 47° respectively. What is the height of the tower?
A. 40 m
B. 43 m
C. 45 m
D. 47 m
Q. 38 ( 1 – sin A + cos A )² is equal to
A. 2( 1 – cos A )( 1 + sin A )
B. 2( 1 – sin A )( 1 + cos A )
C. 2( 1 – cos A )( 1 – sin A )
D. None of the above
Q. 39 What is cos θ/( 1 + tanθ ) + sinθ/( 1 – cotθ ) equal to ?
A. sinθ – cosθ
B. sinθ + cosθ
C. 2sinθ
D. 2cosθ
Q. 40 Consider x = 4 tan^(-1) ( 1 / 5 ), y = tan^(-1) ( 1 / 70 ) and z = tan^(-1) ( 1/99 ). What is x equal to?
A. tan^(-1) ( 60/119 )
B. tan^(-1) ( 120/119 )
C. tan^(-1) ( 90/169 )
D. tan^(-1) ( 170/169 )
Q. 41 Consider x = 4 tan^(-1) ( 1 / 5 ), y = tan^(-1) ( 1 / 70 ) and z = tan^(-1) ( 1/99 ). What is x – y equal to?
A. tan^(-1) ( 828/845 )
B. tan^(-1) ( 8287/8450 )
C. tan^(-1) ( 8281/8450 )
D. tan^(-1) ( 8287/8471 )
Q. 42 Consider x = 4 tan^(-1) ( 1 / 5 ), y = tan^(-1) ( 1 / 70 ) and z = tan^(-1) ( 1/99 ). What is x – y – z equal to ?
A. Π/2
B. Π/3
C. Π/6
D. Π/4
Q. 43 Consider the triangle ABC with vertices A(-2, 3), B(2, 1) and C(1, 2). What is the circumcentre of the triangle ABC?
A. ( -2, -2)
B. ( 2, 2)
C. ( -2, 2)
D. ( 2, -2)
Q. 44 Consider the triangle ABC with vertices A(-2, 3), B(2, 1) and C(1, 2). What is the centroid of the triangle ABC?
A. ( 1/3, 1 )
B. ( 1/3, 2 )
C. ( 1, 2/3 )
D. ( 1/2, 3 )
Q. 45 Consider the triangle ABC with vertices A(-2, 3), B(2, 1) and C(1, 2). What is foot of the altitude from the vertex A of the triangle ABC?
A. ( 1, 4)
B. ( -1, 3)
C. ( -2, 4)
D. ( – 1, 4)
Q. 46 The point on the parabola y^2 = 4ax nearest to the focus has its abscissa
A. x = 0
B. x = a
C. x = a/2
D. x = 2a
Q. 47 A line passes through (2, 2) and is perpendicular to the line 3x + y = 3. Its y-intercept is
A. 3/4
B. 4/3
C. 1/3
D. 3
Q. 48 The hyperbola (x / a)^2 – (y / b)^2 = 1 passes through the point ( 3√5, 1 ) and the length of its latus rectum is 4/3 units. The length of the conjugate axis is
A. 2 units
B. 3 units
C. 4 units
D. 5 units
Q. 49 The perpendicular distance between the straight lines 6x + 8y + 15 = 0 and 3x + 4y + 9 = 0 is
A. 3/2 unit
B. 3/10 unit
C. 3/4 unit
D. 2/7 unit
Q. 50 The area of a triangle, whose vertices are (3, 4), (5, 2) and the point of intersection of the lines x = a and y = 5, is 3 square units. What is the value of a?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Q. 51 The length of perpendicular from the origin to a line is 5 units and the line makes an angle 120° with the positive direction of x-axis. The equation of the line is
A. x + √3y = 5
B. √3 + y = 10
C. √3x – y = 10
D. None of the above
Q. 52 The equation of the line joining the origin to the point of intersection of the lines x/a + y/b = 1 and x/b + y/a = 1 is
A. x – y = 0
B. x + y = 0
C. x = 0
D. y= 0
Q. 53 The projections of a directed line segment on the coordinate axes are 12, 4, 3 respectively. What is the length of the line segment?
A. 19 units
B. 17 units
C. 15 units
D. 13 units
Q. 54 The projections of a directed line segment on the coordinate axes are 12, 4, 3 respectively. What are the direction cosines of the line segment?
A. < 12/13, 4/13, 3/13 >
B. < 12/13, – 4/13, 3/13 >
C. < 12/13, -4/13, -3/13 >
D. < -12/13, -4/13, 3/13 >
Q. 55 From the point P(3, -1, 11), a perpendicular is drawn on the line L given by the equation x/2 = (y – 2)/3 = (z – 3)/4. Let Q be the foot of the perpendicular. What are the direction ratios of the line segment PQ?
A. < 1, 6, 4 >
B. < -1, 6, -4 >
C. < -1, -6, 4 >
D. < 1, -6, 4 >
Q. 56 From the point P(3, -1, 11), a perpendicular is drawn on the line L given by the equation x/2 = (y – 2)/3 = (z – 3)/4. Let Q be the foot of the perpendicular.What is the length of the line segment PQ?
A. √47 units
B. 7 units
C. √53 units
D. 8 units
Q. 57 A triangular plane ABC with the centroid (1, 2, 3) cuts the coordinate axes at A,B,C respectively. What are the intercepts made by the plane ABC on the axes?
A. 3,, 6, 9
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 1, 4, 9
D. 2, 4, 6
Q. 58 A triangular plane ABC with the centroid (1, 2, 3) cuts the coordinate axes at A,B,C respectively. What is the equation of the plane ABC?
A. x + 2y + 3z = 1
B. 3x + 2y + z = 3
C. 2x + 3y + 6z = 18
D. 6x + 3y + 2z = 18
Q. 59 A point P(1, 2, 3) is one vertex of a cuboid formed by the coordinate planes and the planes passing through P and parallel to the coordinate planes. What is the length of one of the diagonals of the cuboid?
A. √10 units
B. √14 units
C. 4 units
D. 5 units
Q. 60 A point P(1, 2, 3) is one vertex of a cuboid formed by the coordinate planes and the planes passing through P and parallel to the coordinate planes. What is the equation of the plane passing through P(1, 2, 3) and parallel to xy-plane?
A. x + y = 3
B. x – y = -1
C. z = 3
D. x + 2y + 3z = 14
Q. 61 If G(x) = √(25 – x²) , then what is lim x→1 (G(x) – G(1)) / (x – 1) equal to?
A. – 1/ 2√6
B. 1 / 5
C. – 1 / √6
D. 1 / √6
Q. 62 Consider the following statements: 1. y = ( e^x + e^(-x))/ 2 is an increasing function on [0, ∞). 2. y = ( e^x – e^(-x))/ 2 is an increasing function on (-∞, ∞). Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. neither 1 nor 2
Q. 63 For each non-zero real number x, let f(x) = x / |x|. The range of f is
A. a null set
B. a set consisting of only one element
C. a set consisting of two elements
D. a set consisting of infinitely many elements
Q. 64 Consider the following statements: 1. f(x) = [ x ], where [.] is the greatest integer function, is discontinuous at x = n, there n ∈ Z. 2. f(x) = cot x is discontinuous at x = n.Π, where n ∈ Z. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 65 What is the derivative of y with respect to tan^(-1)x?
A. 0
B. 1/2
C. 1
D. x
Q. 66 If f(x) = loge( (1 + x)/(1 – x) ), g(x) = (3x + x^3)/(1 + 3x^2) and g∘f(t) = g( f(t) ), then what is g∘f( (e – 1)/(e + 1)) equal to
A. 2
B. 1
C. 0
D. 1/2
Q. 67 Given a function f(x) = -1 if x ≤ 0, ax + b if 0 < x < 1; 1 if x ≥ 1 where a, b are constants. The function is continuous everywhere. What is the value of a?
A. -1
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2
Q. 68 Given a function f(x) = -1 if x ≤ 0, ax + b if 0 < x < 1; 1 if x ≥ 1 where a, b are constants. The function is continuous everywhere. What is the value of b?
A. -1
B. 1
C. 0
D. 2
Q. 69 Consider the following functions : 1. f(x) = x^3, x ∈ ℝ. 2. f(x) = sin x, 0 < x < 2Π. 3. f(x) = e^x , x ∈ ℝ. Which of the above functions have inverse defined on their ranges
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q. 70 The integral ∫( 1 /( acosx + bsinx) )dx is of the form (1 / r) [ tan( x+a/ 2 ) ].. what is r equal to?
A. a^2 + b^2
B. √( a^2 + b^2 )
C. a + b
D. √( a^2 – b^2 )
Q. 71 The integral ∫( 1 /( acosx + bsinx) )dx is of the form (1 / r) [ tan( x+a/ 2 ) ]. What is a equal to?
A. tan^(-1) ( a / b )
B. tan^(-1) ( b / a )
C. tan^(-1) ( a + b / a – b )
D. tan^(-1) ( a – b / a + b )
Q. 72 Consider the function f(x) = ( x^2 – 1)/ ( x^2 + 1 ), where x ∈ ℝ. At what value of x does f(x) attain minimum value?
A. -1
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2
Q. 73 Consider the function f(x) = ( x^2 – 1)/ ( x^2 + 1 ), where x ∈ ℝ. What is the minimum value of f(x)?
A. 0
B. 1/2
C. -1
D. 2
Q. 74 Consider the function, f(x) = { acosx / Π – 2x if x ≠ Π/2; 3 if x = Π/2 } which is continuous at x = Π/2, where ‘a’ is a constant. What is the value of a ?
A. 6
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
Q. 75 Consider the function, f(x) = { acosx / Π – 2x if x ≠ Π/2; 3 if x = Π/2 } which is continuous at x = Π/2, where ‘a’ is a constant. What is lim x→0 f(x) equal to?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 3/Π
D. 6/Π
Q. 76 Consider the line x = √(3y) and the circle x^2 + y^2 = 4. What is the area of the region in the first quadrant enclosed by the x-axis, the line x = √3 and the circle?
A. Π/3 – √3/2
B. Π/2 – √3/2
C. Π/3 – 1/2
D. None of the above
Q. 77 Consider the line x = √(3y) and the circle x^2 + y^2 = 4. What is the area of the region in the first quadrant enclosed by the x-axis, the line x = √3y and the circle?
A. Π/3
B. Π/6
C. Π/3 = √3/2
D. None of the above
Q. 78 Consider the curves y = sin x and y = cos x. What is the area of the region bounded by the above two curves and the lines x = 0 and x = Π/4 ?
A. √2 – 1
B. √2 + 1
C. √2
D. 2
Q. 79 Consider the curves y = sin x and y = cos x. What is the area of the region bounded by the above two curves and the lines x = Π/4 and x = Π/2 ?
A. √2 – 1
B. √2 + 1
C. 2√2
D. 2
Q. 80 Consider the function f( x ) = 0.75 x^4 – x^3 – 9x^2 + 7. What is the maximum value of the function?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 7
D. 9
Q. 81 Consider the function f( x ) = 0.75 x^4 – x^3 – 9x^2 + 7. Consider the following statements : (1) The function attains local minima at x = -2 and x = 3.
(2) The function increases in the interval (-2, 0). Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. neither 1 nor 2
Q. 82 Consider the parametric equation x = a(1 – t²) / (1 – t²), y = 2at / (1 – t²). What does the equation represent?
A. It represents a circle of diameter a
B. It represents a circle of radius a
C. it represents a parabola
D. None of the above
Q. 83 Consider the parametric equation x = a(1 – t²) / (1 – t²), y = 2at / (1 – t²). What is dy/dx equal to?
A. y/x
B. – y/x
C. x/y
D. – x/y
Q. 84 Consider the parametric equation x = a(1 – t²) / (1 – t²), y = 2at / (1 – t²). What is d²y / dx² equal to?
A. (a / y)^2
B. (a / x)^2
C. – (a / y)^2
D. – a^2 / y^3
Q. 85 Consider the following statements : 1. The general solution of dy/dx = f(x) + x is of the form y = g(x) + c, where c is an arbitrary constant. 2. The degree of (fy/dx)^2 = f(x) is 2. Which fo the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 86 What is ∫( 1 / √( x^2 + a^2 ) ) equal to? ( where c is the constant of integration. )
A. ln| ( x + √(x^2 + a^2) )/ a | + c
B. ln| ( x – √(x^2 + a^2) )/ a | + c
C. ln| ( x^2 + √(x^2 + a^2) )/ a | + c
D. None of the above
Q. 87 Consider the integral Im, where m is a positive integer. What is I1 equal to?
A. 0
B. 1/2
C. 1
D. 2
Q. 88 Consider the integral I(m), where m is a positive integer. What is I2 + I3 equal to?
A. 4
B. 2
C. 1
D. 0
Q. 89 Consider the integral I(m), where m is a positive integer. What is Im equal to?
A. 0
B. 1
C. m
D. 2m
Q. 90 Consider the integral I(m), where m is a positive integer. Consider the following : 1.) I( m ) – I( m – 1) is equal to 0. 2.) I(2m) > Im. Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 91 Given that d/dx( ( 1 + x^2 + s^4 )/( 1 + x + x^2 ) ) = Ax + B. What sis the value of A?
A. -1
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Q. 92 Given that d/dx( ( 1 + x² + s⁴ )/( 1 + x + x² ) ) = Ax + B. What is the value of B?
A. -1
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Q. 93 Given that lim x→∞( (2 + x^2)/(1 + x) – Ax – B ) = 3. What is value of A?
A. -1
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Q. 94 Given that lim x→∞( (2 + x^2)/(1 + x) – Ax – B ) = 3. What is the value of B?
A. -1
B. 3
C. -4
D. -3
Q. 95 What is the solution of the differential equation ydx – xdy / y^2 = 0? ( where c is an arbitrary constant )
A. xy = c
B. y = cx
C. x + y = c
D. x – y = c
Q. 96 What is the solution of the differential equation sin(dy/dx) – a = 0 ? ( where c is an arbitrary constant )
A. y = x sin^(-1) a + c
B. x = y sin^(-1) a + c
C. y = x + x sin^(-1) a + c
D. y = sin^(-1) a + c
Q. 97 What is the solution of the differential equation dx/dy + x/y – y^2 = 0? ( where c is an arbitrary constant )
A. xy = x^4 + c
B. xy = y^4 + c
C. 4 xy = y^4 + c
D. 3xy = y^3 + c
Q. 98 What is ∫( (x e^x)/(x + 1)^2 )dx equal to? ( where c is the constant of integration. )
A. (x + 1)^2 e^x + c
B. (x + 1) e^x + c
C. e^x/(x + 1) + c
D. e^x/(x + 1)^2 + c
Q. 99 The adjacent sides AB and Ac of a triangle ABC are represented by the vectors -2 i^ + 3j^ + 2k^ and -4i^ + 5j^ +2k^ respectively. The area of the triangle ABC is
A. 6 square units
B. 5 square units
C. 4 square units
D. 3 square units
Q. 100 A force F ⃗ = 3i^ + 4 j^ – 3k^ is applied at the point P, whose position vector is r ⃗ = 2i^ – 2j^ – 3k^. What is the magnitude of the moment of the force about the origin?
A. 23 units
B. 19 units
C. 18 units
D. 21 units
Q. 101 Given that the vectors α ⃗ and β ⃗ are non-collinear. The values of x and y for which u ⃗ – v ⃗ = w ⃗ holds true if u ⃗ = 2xα ⃗ + yβ ⃗, v ⃗ = 2yα ⃗ + 3xβ ⃗ and w ⃗ = 2α ⃗ – 5β ⃗, are
A. x = 2, y = 1
B. x = 1, y = 2
C. x = -2, y = 1
D. x = -2, y = -1
Q. 102 If |a ⃗| = 7, |b ⃗| = 11 and | a ⃗ + b ⃗ | = 10√3, then | a ⃗ + b ⃗ | is equal to
A. 40
B. 10
C. 4√10
D. 2√10
Q. 103 Let α, β, γ be distinct real numbers. The points with position vectors αi^ + βj^ + γk^, βi^ + γj^ + αk^ and γi^ + αj^ + βk^
A. are collinear
B. form an equilateral triangle
C. form a scalene triangle
D. form a right-angled triangle
Q. 104 If a ⃗ + b ⃗ + c ⃗ = 0 ⃗, then which of the following is/are correct? 1. a ⃗,b ⃗,c ⃗ are coplanar 2. a ⃗ × b ⃗ = b ⃗ × c ⃗ = c ⃗ × a ⃗. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 105 If |a ⃗ + b ⃗ | = |a ⃗ – b ⃗ |, then which one of the following is correct?
A. a ⃗ = λb ⃗ for some scalar λ
B. a ⃗ is parallel to b ⃗
C. a ⃗ is perpendicular to b ⃗
D. a ⃗ = b ⃗ = 0 ⃗
Q. 106 The mean and the variance of 10 observations are given to be 4 and 2 respectively. If every observation is multiplied by 2, the mean and the variance of the new series will be respectively
A. 8 and 20
B. 8 and 4
C. 8 and 8
D. 80 and 40
Q. 107 Which one of the following measure of central tendency is used in construction of index numbers?
A. Harmonic mean
B. Geometric mean
C. Median
D. Mode
Q. 108 The correlation coefficient between two variables X and Y is found to be 0.6. All the observations on X and Y are transformed using the transformations U = 2 – 3X and V = 4Y + 1. The correlation coefficient between the transformed variables U and V will be
A. -0.5
B. +0.5
C. -0.6
D. +0.6
Q. 109 Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of regression coefficients?
1.) It measures the degree of linear relationship between two variables.
2.) It gives the value by which one variable changes for a unit change in the other variable. Select the correct answer using the code given below
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 110 A set of annual numerical data, comparable over the years, is given for the last 12 years. Consider the following statements: 1.The data is best represented by a broken line graph, each corner ( turning point ) representing the data of one year. 2. Such a graph depicts the chronological change and also enables one to make a short-term forecast/ Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 111 Two men hit a target with probabilities 1/2 and 1/3 respectively. What is the probability that exactly one of them hits the target?
A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 1/6
D. 2/3
Q. 112 Two similar boxes B(i) where ( i= 1, 2) contain ( i + 1) red and ( 5 – i -1) black balls. One box is chosen at random and two balls are drawn randomly. What is the probability that both the balls are of different colours?
A. 1/2
B. 3/10
C. 2/5
D. 3/5
Q. 113 In an examination. The probability of a candidate solving a question is 1/2. Out of given 5 question in the examination, that is the probability that the candidate was able to solve at least 2 questions?
A. 1/64
B. 3/16
C. 1/2
D. 13/16
Q. 114 If A ⊆B, then which one of the following is not correct?
A. P( A ∩ B’ ) = 0
B. P( A | B ) = P(A)/P(B)
C. P( B | A ) = P(B)/P(A)
D. P( A | (A ∪ B) ) = P(A)/P(B)
Q. 115 The mean and the variance in a binomial distribution are found to be 2 and 1 respectively. The probability P( X = 0) is
A. 1/2
B. 1/4
C. 1/8
D. 1/16
Q. 116 The mean of five numbers is 30. If one number is excluded, their mean becomes 28. The excluded number is
A. 28
B. 30
C. 35
D. 38
Q. 117 If A and B are two events such that P(A∪B) = 3/4, P(A∩B) = 1/4 and P(A’) = 2/3, then what is P(B) equal to?
A. 1/3
B. 2/3
C. 1/8
D. 2/9
Q. 118 The ‘less than’ ogive curve and the ‘more than’ ogive curve intersect at
A. median
B. mode
C. arithmetic mean
D. None of the above
Q. 119 In throwing of two dice, the number of exhaustive events that ‘5’ will never appear on any one of the dice is
A. 5
B. 18
C. 25
D. 36
Q. 120 Two cards are drawn successively without replacement from a well-shuffled pack of 52 cards. The probability of drawing two aces is
Look at the quoted part in each sentence. Select the most appropriate option from the three possible substitution for the quoted part. If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, select the ‘No improvement’.
Q. 1 “Had she been hungry”, she would have devoured the whole lot of it
A. Unless she had been hungry
B. However she had been hungry
C. As if she had been hungry
D. No improvement
Q. 2 “Until you don’t finish”the work, you won’t be given leave.
A. Until you must finish
B. Until finishing
C. Until you finish
D. No improvement
Q. 3 The names of the defaulters have been “cut off” the register.
A. cut out
B. struck out
C. struck off
D. No improvement
Q. 4 This is a matter “I’d rather not talk about”.
A. of which I’d rather not talk about
B. I rather not talk about
C. than I’d rather not talk about
D. No improvement
Q. 5 Only when you left “I did sleep”.
A. I slept
B. did I sleep
C. had I sleep
D. No improvement
Q. 6 I will be happy if you “will buy” me apples.
A. buy
B. bought
C. will be buying
D. No improvement
Q. 7 After I “saved” some money, I shall go abroad.
A. shall save
B. should have saved
C. have saved
D. No improvement
Q. 8 Can you “arrange the car” to be ready this evening?
A. arrange with the car
B. arrange for the car
C. arrange that the car
D. No improvement
Q. 9 Hardly “had he reached” home when the telephone rang.
A. he had reached
B. did he reach
C. he reached
D. No improvement
Q. 10 He is likely to win the elections “by the sweeping majority”.
A. with the sweeping majority
B. in a sweeping majority
C. by a sweeping majority
D. No improvement
Questions: 11 – 16
Each of the following items consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the correct sequence.
Q. 11 His uncle
P. for success in life.
Q. always advised his son,
R. who was a self-made man
S. to depend on his own efforts
The proper sequence should be:
A. SQPR
B. RQSP
C. PRSQ
D. QPSR
Q. 12 The doctor
P. did not like the behavior of the patients
Q. who was very competent in his profession
R. when they talked at length
S. about their problems
The proper sequence should be:
A. RPSQ
B. SRPQ
C. QPRS
D. PRQS
Q. 13 P. from leadership in culture
Q. in military situations and in face-to-face small groups
R. leadership has wide range of expressions
S. to leadership in politics
The proper sequence should be:
A. RSQP
B. PQRS
C. RPSQ
D. SQRP
Q. 14 He sat
P. glancing occasionally
Q. peering through the window
R. at the figure of the old woman
S. until he was chilled with the cold.
The proper sequence should be:
A. PSRQ
B. QRPS
C. SPRQ
D. PRSQ
Q. 15 After the earthquake tremors, the TV showed a haggard man
P. shaking his fist at the sky
Q. clambering over the ruins
R. and collapsing with a howl of revolt
S. of his house and factory
The proper sequence should be:
A. SRQP
B. QSPR
C. PQRS
D. RPSQ
Q. 16 Everyone
P. acknowledges
Q. when he considers the case calmly
R. who knows you
S. that you have been wronged
The proper sequence should be:
A. RSQP
B. RPQS
C. PQRS
D. QRPS
Questions: 17 – 21
Each sentence has a quoted part followed by four words. Select the word that is nearest in meaning to the quotes word.
Q. 17 Many of his acquaintances avoid him because he is so “garrulous”.
A. unreasonable
B. talkative
C. quarrelsome
D. proud
Q. 18 He bore the pain with great “fortitude”.
A. resignation
B. defiance
C. indifference
D. forbearance
Q. 19 He gave his “tacit” approval to the proposition.
A. full
B. loud
C. clean
D. implied
Q. 20 In spite of hard work, the farmers could only get a “meagre” yield.
A. satisfactory
B. scanty
C. plenty
D. normal
Q. 21 He was “exhilarated” at the outcome of the election results.
A. satisfied
B. surprised
C. disappointed
D. overjoyed
Questions: 22 – 26
Each sentence has a quoted word followed by four word. Select the word that is opposite in meaning to the quoted word.
Q. 22 He “concealed” his thoughts very cleverly.
A. emphasized
B. expressed
C. affirmed
D. revealed
Q. 23 The proposal was “denounced” by one and all.
A. renounced
B. recommended
C. announced
D. commended
Q. 24 She was “skeptical” about the safety of the new drug.
A. doubtful
B. certain
C. hopeful
D. sanguine
Q. 25 The answers to the question were “coherent”.
A. relaxed
B. loose
C. consistent
D. disconnected
Q. 26 It was no “altruistic” motive that prompted him to help her.
A. selfish
B. inhuman
C. brutal
D. wicked
Questions: 27 – 41
Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group or words given after the sentence. Select the most appropriate word or groups of words.
Q. 27 Man has won his dominant position on this planet by his ____________ of technology
A. command
B. emphasis
C. belief
D. stress
Q. 28 The day was extremely hot and, in no time, my back was drenched with _____.
A. prickly heat
B. perspiration
C. sores
D. fatigue
Q. 29 The Government is encouraging village uplifting __________ in the country.
A. programmes
B. designs
C. talks
D. propaganda
Q. 30 Satish was endowed ____________ a natural talent for music.
A. in
B. by
C. for
D. with
Q. 31 Mr. Ghosh is very happy ______________ his son’s excellent result.
A. for seeing
B. to see
C. by seeing
D. see
Q. 32 Sunlight filtering __________ the stained glass window created a mosaic of colours on the floor.
A. in
B. through
C. at
D. into
Q. 33 Are you feeling doubtful _____________ your decision?
A. about
B. upon
C. at
D. for
Q. 34 I want to study Geology now for I _________ Zoology for the last three years.
A. am studying
B. have been studying
C. had studied
D. had been studying
Q. 35 Increase in storage facilities has made it possible to store goods at places _____
to people all over the country.
A. safe
B. easy
C. proper
D. convenient
Q. 36 To say that we were surprised at the cleverness of the child is an understatement; we were really ___________.
A. annoyed
B. astounded
C. flattered
D. confused
Q. 37 In spite of the old woman’s repeated entreaties, he remained ____________.
A. ashamed
B. docile
C. indifferent
D. lethargic
Q. 38 There was __________ competition for electoral seats.
A. diligent
B. rapid
C. cut-throat
D. sparse
Q. 39 The cricket team _______________ mainly of State players.
A. composed
B. consist
C. made with
D. comprises
Q. 40 His love for money is the only __________ that drives him to work so hard.
A. programme
B. plan
C. reason
D. greed
Q. 41 According to ________ sources, the Chief Minister did not consult his Cabinet Members on this issue.
A. intelligent
B. simple
C. reliable
D. fundamental
Questions: 42 – 50
Each sentence has been divided into 3 parts – (a), (b) and (c). There is an error in any of the three part. Select the correct part. If there is no error, select “no error” .
Q. 42 (a) I am told / (b) John is ill / (c) since Monday. / (d) No error.
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 43 (a) I shall leave school / (b) as soon as / (c) I shall find a job. / (d) No error.
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 44 (a) He is a rich man / (b) he is owning / (c) a number of buildings in Bombay. / (d) No error.
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 45 (a) We were able to make it / (b) in spite of / (c) a bad weather. / (d) No error.
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 46 (a) Neither of the two letters of credit / (b) were useful / (c) when he needed it. / (d) No error.
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 47 (a) Little he realized / (b) that he wouldn’t live / (c) to see his grandson married. (d) No error.
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 48 (a) A difficult syllabus / (b) is supposed to hurt / (c) juvenile mind. / (d) No error.
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 49 (a) The voice of sanity and patriotism / (b) are important to dispel / (c) the prevailing confusion. / (d) No error.
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 50 (a) You were going to explain / (b) your late arrival, / (c) isn’t it? / (d) No error.
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 51 A brass ball is tied to a thin wire and swung so as to move uniformly in a horizontal circle.
Which of the following statements in this regard is/are true?
1. The ball moves with constant velocity.
2. The ball moves with constant speed.
3. The ball moves with constant acceleration.
4. The magnitude of the acceleration of the ball is constant.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. 2 and 4 only
Q. 52 Two long wires each carrying a d.c. current in the same direction are placed close to each other. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. The wires will attract each other.
B. The wires will repel each other.
C. There will be no force between the wires.
D. There will be a force between the wires only at the moment when the current is switched ON or OFF.
Q. 53 The first Indian Satellite, Aryabhatt, was launched in the year:
A. 1972
B. 1975
C. 1976
D. 1979
Q. 54 Which one of the following sea routes is the shortest from point to point?
A. Kolkata to Yangoon
B. Kolkata to Chennai
C. Chennai to Port Blair
D. Mumbai to Colombo
Q. 55 Which one of the following is not a Green House Gas?
A. Water vapours
B. Methane
C. Ozone
D. Carbon Monoxide
Q. 56 Muscle fatigue is due to the accumulation of:
A. Cholesterol
B. Lactic acid
C. Lipoic acid
D. Triglycerides
Q. 57 The absolute zero, i.e., temperature below which is not achievable, is about:
A. 0°C
B. -273 K
C. -273° C
D. -300° C
Q. 58 Lightning conductors are used to protect building from lightning strikes. Which of the following statements is /are are true about lightning conductors?
1. Lightning conductors create an electric field at its top so that lightning strikes it
preferentially.
2. Lightning conductors reduce the effect of the strike by uniformly distributing the charge (current) over the surface of the building.
3. Lightning conductors take all charge (current) to deep down in the earth.
4. Lightning conductors must be installed at a place taller than the building.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 4 only
Q. 59 Match List I with List II (given in figure and select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. A(1), B(4), C(3), D(2)
B. A(2), B(3), C(4), D(1)
C. A(2), B(4), C(3), D(1)
D. A(1), B(3), C(4), D(2)
Q. 60 Which one of the following is not a sea port?
A. Paradeep
B. Haldia
C. Diamond Harbour
D. Dhamra
Q. 61 Consider the following reaction:
CH₄(g) + H₂O(g) →(1270 K) CO(g) + 3H₂(g)
In this reaction given above, the mixture of CO and H₂ is:
A. natural gas
B. water gas
C. producer gas
D. industrial gas
Q. 62 Living things are grouped into subgroups like plant kingdom/ animal kingdom. Which one of the following is not correct for animal kingdom?
A. Cannot make their own food
B. Body contains cellulose
C. Do not have chlorophyll
D. Migrate from one place to another
Q. 63 The silvering in thermos flasks is done to avoid heat transfer by:
A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Radiation
D. Both convection and conduction
Q. 64 The Manas National Park is situated in the State of:
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Jharkhand
C. Assam
D. West Bengal
Q. 65 Addition of gypsum to cement:
A. reduces setting time of cement
B. produces very light colour cement
C. increases setting time of cement
D. shining surface is formed
Q. 66 In case of a compound microscope which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The focal length of the eye piece is larger than the focal length of the objective.
2. The focal length of the eye piece is smaller than the focal length of the objective.
3. The image produced in a normal optical microscope is real.
4. The image produced in a normal optical microscope is virtual.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
Q. 67 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. The radius of curvature of a concave mirror is twice its focal length
B. Power of a convex lens is negative and that of a concave lens is positive
C. The radius of curvature of a plane mirror is infinity
D. When a ray of light passes from an optically denser medium to an optically rarer medium, the angle of refraction is greater than the corresponding angle of incidence
Q. 68 Identify the place that is not an oil field:
A. Naharkatiya
B. Kalol
C. Ledo
D. Ankleshwar
Q. 69 Ammonia (NH₃) obtained from different sources always has same proportion of Nitrogen and Hydrogen . It proves the validity of law of:
A. Reciprocal proportion
B. Constant proportion
C. Multiple proportion
D. None of the above
Q. 70 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. If the velocity and acceleration have opposite sign, the object is slowing down
B. If the velocity is zero at as instant, the acceleration should also be zero at that instant
C. If the velocity is zero for a time interval; the acceleration is zero at any instant within the time interval
D. If the position and velocity have opposite sign, the object is moving towards the origin
Q. 71 The IST meridian 821/2°E passes through a number of States in India. Which one of the following sets of States is correct in this respect?
A. Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Chattisgarh and Andhra Pradesh
B. Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chattisgarh and Odisha
C. Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Chattisgarh
D. Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, Chattisgarh and Andhra Pradesh
Q. 72 Boric acid is ab acid because its molecule:
A. accepts OH⁻ from water releasing proton
B. combine with proton from water molecules
C. contains replaceable H^+ ion
D. gives up a proton
Q. 73 Who among the following discovered the antibiotic producing fungus from Penicillium genus?
A. Louis Pasteur
B. Sir Alexander Fleming
C. Stanley Prusiner
D. Robert Hooke
Q. 74 Three equal resistances when combined in series are equivalent to 90 ohm. Their equivalent resistance when combined in parallel will be:
A. 10 ohm
B. 30 ohm
C. 270 ohm
D. 810 ojm
Q. 75 The following figure represents the velocity-time graph of a moving car on a road. Which segment of the graph represents the retardation?
A. AB
B. BC
C. CD
D. None
Q. 76 Which one among the following places is not an iron-ore mining area?
A. Badampahar
B. Zawar
C. Bailadila
D. Anantpur
Q. 77 Match List I with List II (given in figure (1)) and select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. (A)2, (B)3, (C)4, (D)1
B. (A)1, (B)4, (C)3, (D)2
C. (A)2, (B)4, (C)3, (D)1
D. (A)1, (B)3, (C)4, (D)2
Q. 78 The main constituent of Vinegar is:
A. Acetic acid
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Citric acid
D. Tartaric acid
Q. 79 White Phosphorous glows in the dark due to:
A. amorphous character
B. slow oxidation
C. high ignition temperature
D. good conducting property of electricity
Q. 80 Which one of the following is not an example of eukaryotes organism?
A. Yeast
B. Bacteria
C. Plant
D. Human being
Q. 81 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. The Kelvin scale of temperature is called the Absolute scale
B. Visible light radiation has wavelength range of 400 – 700 nm
C. The capacity to do work is called power
D. The wavelength of Gamma rays is less than that of X-rays
Q. 82 A man is sitting in a train which is moving with a velocity of 60 km/hour. His speed with respect to the train is:
A. 10/3 m/s
B. 60 m/s
C. infinite
D. zero
Q. 83 Match List I with List II in figure and select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. (A)2, (B)3, (C)4, (D)1
B. (A)1, (B)4, (C)3, (D)2
C. (A)2, (B)4, (C)3, (D)1
D. (A)1, (B)3, (C)4, (D)2
Q. 84 The term ‘Regur’ is used to mean:
A. Laterite soil
B. Deltaic soil
C. Red soil
D. Black cotton soil
Q. 85 Graphite is a much better conductor of heat and electricity than diamond. This is due to the fact that each carbon atom is graphite:
A. undergoes sp² hybridisation and forms three sigma bonds with three neighbouring
carbon atoms
B. undergoes sp³ hybridisation
C. is tetrahedrally bonded
D. is free from van der Waals force
Q. 86 Which one of the following vitamins is synthesized in our own skin?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
Q. 87 Which one of the following is the SI unit of the thermal conductivity of a material?
A. Wm⁻¹K⁻¹
B. Wm/K
C. Wm⁻¹/K⁻¹
D. Js⁻¹m⁻¹K
Q. 88 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. Conduction can occur easily in solids less easily in liquids but hardly at all in gases
B. Heat energy is carried by moving particles in a convection current
C. Heat energy is carried by electromagnetic waves in radiation
D. The temperature at which a solid changes into a liquid is called the boiling point
Q. 89 Which one of the following combinations of stalactites and stalagmites occurrences is correct?
A. Stalactites hang as icicles of different diameters and stalagmites hang from the floor of the caves
B. Stalactites hang as icicles of different diameters and stalagmites rise up from the floor of the caves
C. Stalactites rise up from the floor of the caves and stalagmites hang as icicles of
different diameters
D. Stalactites hang as icicles of different diameters and stalagmites also hang as icicles of different diameters
Q. 90 Which one of the following is the correct sequence about various levels of organisation of Biosphere?
A. Ecosystem – Biosphere – Community – Population
B. Population – Organism – Ecosystem – Biosphere
C. Organism – Community – Population – Biosphere
D. Organism – Population – Ecosystem – Biosphere
Q. 91 Which of the following are the properties of an electron?
1. Electron is a constituent of cathode ray.
2. Electron is a negatively charged particle.
3. The mass of the electron is equal to the mass of the proton.
4. Electron is deflected by the electric field but not by magnetic field.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
Q. 92 Carbon and energy requirements of autotrophic organisms are fulfilled by:
A. Photosynthesis
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. Glycogenesis
D. External sources
Q. 93 The resistance of a wire of length l and area of cross-section α is x ohm. If the wire is stretched to double its length, its resistance would become:
A. 2 x ohm
B. 0.5 x ohm
C. 4 x ohm
D. 6 x ohm
Q. 94 Which one of the following describes the Lithosphere?
A. Upper and lower mantle
B. Crust and upper mantle
C. Crust and core
D. Mantle and core
Q. 95 Which of the following statements regarding heavy water are correct?
1. It is extensively used as a moderator in nuclear reactors
2. It cannot be used in exchange reaction to study reaction mechanism
3. Viscosity of heavy water is relatively smaller than that of ordinary water
4. The dielectric constant of heavy water is smaller than that of ordinary water
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
Q. 96 Conservation of momentum in a collision between particles can be understood on the basis of:
A. Newton’s first law of motion
B. Newton’s second law of motion only
C. Both Newton’s second law of motion and Newton’s third law of motion
D. Conservation of energy
Q. 97 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. Temperatures decrease from the equator to poles
B. Temperatures in equatorial regions change substantially from January to July
C. Large land masses located in the subarctic and arctic zones develop centres of
extremely low temperatures in winter
D. Highlands are always colder than surrounding low lands
Q. 98 To weld metals together, high temperature is required. Such a high temperature is obtained by burning:
A. Acetylene in oxygen
B. LPG in oxygen
C. Methane in oxygen
D. Acetylene in nitrogen
Q. 99 Two forces, one of 3 newton and another of 4 newton are applied on a standard 1 kg body, placed on a horizontal and frictionless surface, simultaneously along the x-axis and the yaxis, respectively, as shown in figure. The magnitude of the resultant acceleration
A. 7 m/s²
B. 1 m/s²
C. 5 m/s²
D. √7 m/s²
Q. 100 Magnetic meridian is an imaginary:
A. line along north-south
B. point
C. vertical plane
D. horizontal plane
Q. 101 An up fold in rock is:
A. graben
B. horse
C. anticline
D. syncline
Q. 102 Which one of the following gases is found in highest quantity in Exosphere?
A. Hydrogen
B. Helium
C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen
Q. 103 In blood, platelets are required for:
A. transporting oxygen
B. transporting carbon dioxide
C. initiating blood clotting
D. initiating degradation of urea
Q. 104 In SI unit of ‘Newton’ (N) is given by (where m stands for metre and s stands for seconds):
A. 1 N = 1kg/ms²
B. 1 N = 1kgm/s²
C. 1 N = 1kgs²/m
D. 1 N = 1kgms²
Q. 105 The acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ for objects on or near the surface of earth is related to the universal gravitational constant ‘G’ as (‘M’ is the mass of the earth and ‘R’ is its radius):
A. G = g(M/R²)
B. g = G(M/R²)
C. M = gG/R²
D. R = gG/M²
Q. 106 Match List I with List II (given in figure) and select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. (A)2, (B)3, (C)4, (D)1
B. (A)1, (B)2, (C)3, (D)4
C. (A)2, (B)4, (C)3, (D)1
D. (A)1, (B)3, (C)2, (D)4
Q. 107 Match List I with List II (given in figure) and select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. (A)2, (B)3, (C)4, (D)1
B. (A)1, (B)2, (C)3, (D)4
C. (A)2, (B)4, (C)3, (D)1
D. (A)1, (B)3, (C)2, (D)4
Q. 108 Which one of the following is not a site of action in human body for the malarial parasite plasmodium?
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Red blood cell
D. Brain
Q. 109 The loudness of sound is related to:
A. its frequency
B. its amplitude
C. its speed
D. its pitch
Q. 110 X-ray are electromagnetic radiation whose wavelengths are of the order of:
A. 1 metre
B. 10⁻¹ metre
C. 10⁻⁵ metre
D. 10⁻¹⁰ metre
Q. 111 Which one of the following pairs of properties of typical air masses (given in figure ) is correct?
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 112 The symbol of the element ‘Tungsten’ is
A. Ta
B. W
C. Tl
D. Tc
Q. 113 In Egypt, ancient mummies can be found to have their arteries intact due to well preserved:
A. mineralised blood
B. fibroblasts fibre
C. elastic fibre
D. brown fat
Q. 114 Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. The image formed by a concave mirror for an object lying at infinity is at the principal focus, highly diminished, real and inverted.
B. A ray of light parallel to the principal axis after reflection from a concave mirror
appears to diverge from the principal focus of the mirror.
C. The focal length of a spherical mirror is double of its radius of curvature
D. A ray of light traveling from a rarer medium to a denser medium bends away from the normal.
Q. 115 Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment led to the discovery of electron
B. J J Thomson suggested that the nucleus of an atom contains protons
C. The atomic number of an element is the same as the number of protons in the nucleus of its atom
D. The mass number of an atom is equal to the number of electrons in its shells
Q. 116 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. Application of lime makes the soil acidic
B. High acidity in soil is typical of humid climate
C. Increasing soil acidity results in decline soil fertility
D. Arid climate is characterised by alkaline soil
Q. 117 The alkali metals have relatively low melting point. Which one of the following alkali metals is expected to have the highest melting point?
A. Li
B. Na
C. K
D. Rb
Q. 118 Which one of the following is useful in paper manufacturing industry?
A. Fibrous plants
B. Orchids
C. Non-flowering plants
D. Plants growing in high altitude
Q. 119 Which of the following statements is not correct?
A. In steady flow of a liquid, the velocity of liquid particles reaching at a particular point is the same at all points
B. Steady flow is also called streamlined flow
C. In steady flow, each particle may not follow the same path as taken by a previous
particle passing through that point
D. Two streamlines cannot intersect each other
Q. 120 According to the Geo-Scientists, the shape of the earth is:
1. round
2. spherical
3. close to that of a sphere
4. an oblate ellipsoid
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 3 and 4 only
Q. 121 The word ‘Secular’ was inserted into the Constitution of India by
A. 44th Amendment Act
B. 52ndAmendment Act
C. 42nd Amendment Act
D. 34th Amendment Act
Q. 122 Which one of the following is not correct in the context of balance of payments of India during 2013-2014?
A. India’s exports were less than its imports
B. Trade balance was negative
C. Net invisibles were positive
D. Capital account balance was negative
Q. 123 Which one of the following continents accounts for the maximum share in exports from India?
A. Asia
B. Europe
C. Africa
D. North America
Q. 124 The two provisions of the Constitution of India that most clearly express the power of judicial review are:
A. Article 21 and Article 446
B. Article 32 and Article 226
C. Article 44 and Article 152
D. Article 17 and Article 143
Q. 125 Which one of the following statements about Subsidiary Alliance devised by Lord Wellesley in the year 1798 is not correct?
A. The territories entering into a subsidiary alliance with the British were responsible for their own internal and external protection
B. In the territory of the ally, a British armed contingent would be stationed
C. The ally would have to provide the resources for maintaining the British contingent in the territory
D. The permission of the British was needed for the ally to enter into agreements with other rulers
Q. 126 Who among the following was associated with the Mughal Court as a Physician to Prince Dara Shukoh?
A. Hakim Afzal Khan
B. Ibn Battuta
C. Francois Bernier
D. Duarte Barbosa
Q. 127 During the Eleventh Five Year Plan (FYP), agriculture sector in India witnessed a growth rate of 3.3 per cent per annum which is higher than 2.4 per cent per annum in the previous FYP. This is largely due to better performance of:
A. Crops and Livestock
B. Oilseeds and Fibres
C. Fishing and Oilseeds
D. Fibres and Fishing
Q. 128 An emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India can be declared only during:
A. War, external aggression or internal disturbance.
B. War, external aggression or armed rebellion.
C. Failure of Constitutional Machinery in the State.
D. Financial instability in the country.
Q. 129 Which of the following statements about the Livestock sector in India is/are correct?
1. Livestock contributed about 25 percent of gross value added in agriculture.
2. It provides self employment to a large segment of population.
3. Rapid growth of livestock sector can be egalitarian and inclusive.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q. 130 Which one of the following statements about Khilafat Movement is not correct?
A. The Khilafat Movement demanded that the Khalifa must retain control over Muslim holy places
B. The radical trend in the Khilafat Movement was represented by younger leaders like Muhammad Ali, Shaukat Ali and Maulana Azad.
C. Indian Muslim leaders used Khilafat as a symbol that could unite the Indian Muslim community
D. The Delhi conference of the Central Khilafat Committee in 1920 decided to launch a massive Non-Cooperation Movement
Q. 131 Which one of the following is not correct in the current Indian scenario?
A. Life expectancy is on the increase and is about 67 years as of now
B. Infant mortality rate is on the decline and has reached 47 per thousand
C. Maternal mortality rate (MMR) is on the rise due to lack of medical facilities
D. Percentage of women giving birth in health institutions is on the rise
Q. 132 The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution of India deals with:
A. provisions related to the administration of tribal areas
B. allocation of seats in the Council of States
C. the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List
D. Recognised languages of the Union of India
Q. 133 The British officer who was a representative of the Governor General and who lived in a State was not under direct British rule was called:
A. Collector
B. Viceroy
C. Resident
D. Agent
Q. 134 Which of the following features of the Permanent Settlement of 1793 is/are correct?
1. The Permanent Settlement vested Land ownership rights in the peasants.
2. The Permanent Settlement vested land ownership rights in the Zamindars.
3. The Zamindars had to pay a fixed amount of rent by a particular date.
4. The Zamindars benefited hugely from the Permanent Settlement while the peasants
suffered.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q. 135 The Vijaynagara Empire received its death blow at the battle of:
A. Talikota in 1565
B. Panipat in 1661
C. Talikota in 1665
D. Raichur in 1510
Q. 136 The ‘basic Structure Doctrine’ was enunciated by the Supreme Court during the:
A. Golak Nath case
B. Maneka Gandhi case
C. Kesavananda Bharati case
D. S R Bommai case
Q. 137 Consider the following statements about the travellers who visited India:
1. Abdur Razzaq Samarqandi from Herat visited Delhi and Daulatabad.
2. Ibn Battuta provides detailed accounts of both Delhi and Daulatabad.
3. According to Francois Bernier there was no private property in land in Mughal India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Q. 138 Which of the following statements about hill stations of colonial India is/are correct?
1. The architecture of hill stations sought to recreate the European style.
2. Hill stations were developed as sanitariums where soldiers were treated for illness.
3. Shimla became the official residence of the Commander in Chief of the Indian Army.
4. In 1864, Shimla had to be evacuated because of a Typhoid epidemic.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 2 and 3 only
Q. 139 Match List I with List II (figure 1) and select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. (A)1, (B)3, (C)2, (D)4
B. (A)1, (B)2, (C)3, (D)4
C. (A)2, (B)4, (C)3, (D)1
D. (A)2, (B)3, (C)4, (D)1
Q. 140 The Senia tradition is:
A. musical tradition that emerged from the colonial
B. dance drama written by Keshab Chandra Sen
C. textile tradition of eastern UP
D. musical tradition that invoked the name of Tansen, the celebrated musician of Akbar’s court
Q. 141 Who among the following founded the Rajamundri Social Reform Association in 1878 in support of widow remarriage?
A. Vishanshastra Pandit
B. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
C. Pandita Ramabai
D. Veerasalingam Pantulu
Q. 142 The SAARC Secretariat is located at:
A. New Delhi
B. Colombo
C. Kathmandu
D. Karachi
Q. 143 The 19th Century Faraizi Movement in eastern Bengal developed under the leadership of:
A. Titu Rai
B. Haji Shariatullah
C. Shah Sayyid Ahmad
D. Dudu Miyan
Q. 144 The Indian States Committee was formed in 1928 under?
A. The Raja of Junagadh
B. Ian Copland
C. Sir Harcourt Butler
D. Motilal Nehru
Q. 145 The Panchayati Raj system under Part – IX of the Constitution of India does not apply to the States of:
A. Assam, Mizoram and Nagaland
B. Nagaland, Meghalaya and Tripura
C. Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram
D. Sikkim, Tripura and Meghalaya
Q. 146 The First Five Year Plan (1951 – 1956) was drafted by:
A. P C Mahalanobis
B. KN Raj
C. K C Kumarappa
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
Q. 147 Who among the following is the author of the book, “Pakistan Paradox : Instability and Resilience”?
A. Christophe Jaffrelot
B. G Parthasarthy
C. Imran Khan
D. Mamnoon Hussain
Q. 148 Which one of the following was the theme of the ‘International Day of United Nations Peacekeepers’ for the year 2015?
A. Peacekeeping is a Global Partnership
B. UN 70 and UN Peacekeeping: Pat, Present and Future
C. Women in Peacekeeping
D. A Force for the Future
Q. 149 Indian athlete Vikas Gowda is associated with:
A. Wrestling
B. Sprint
C. Discus throw
D. Archery
Q. 150 The 19th Federation Cup National Senior Athletic Championships (2015) was held in:
Q. 1 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
Unless you stop making noise at once, I will have no option but to bring the matter to the attention of the police.
A. Unless you stop to make noise at once,
B. I will have no option but to
C. bring the matter to the attention of the police.
D. No error
Q. 2 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
He couldn’t but help shed tears at the plight of the villagers rendered homeless by a
devastating cyclone.
A. He couldn’t but help
B. shed tears at the plight of the villagers
C. rendered homeless by a devastating cyclone.
D. No error
Q. 3 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
Since it was his first election campaign, the candidate was confused; none could clearly understand either the principles he stood for or the benefits he promised.
A. Since it was his first election campaign, the candidate was confused;
B. none could clearly understand
C. either the principles he stood for or the benefits he promised.
D. No error
Q. 4 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
It is an established fact that the transcendental American poets and philosophers, who
lived in the latter half of the nineteenth century, were more influenced by Indian philosophy, in particular by Upanishadic Philosophy.
A. It is an established fact that the transcendental American poets and philosophers,
B. who lived in the latter half of the nineteenth century,
C. were more influenced by Indian philosophy, in particular by Upanishadic Philosophy.
D. No error
Q. 5 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
No sooner did I open the door when the rain, heavy and stormy, rushed in making us shiver from head to foot.
A. No sooner did I open the door
B. when the rain, heavy and stormy, rushed in
C. making us shiver from head to foot.
D. No error
Q. 6 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
After opening the door we entered into the room next to the kitchen.
A. After opening the door
B. we entered into the room
C. next to the kitchen.
D. No error
Q. 7 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
When the dentist came in my tooth was stopped aching out of feat that I might lose my tooth.
A. When the dentist came in
B. my tooth was stopped aching
C. out of fear that I might lose my tooth.
D. No error
Q. 8 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
Emphasis on equality of life ensures for the health and happiness of every individual.
A. Emphasis on equality of life ensures
B. for the health and happiness
C. of every individual.
D. No error
Q. 9 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
The students were awaiting for the arrival of the chief guest.
A. The students were
B. awaiting for
C. the arrival of the chief guest.
D. No error
Q. 10 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
You will come to my party tomorrow, isn’t it?
A. You will come
B. to my party tomorrow,
C. isn’t it?
D. No error
Q. 11 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
Having read a number of stories about space travel his dream now is about to visit the
Moon.
A. Having read a number of stories
B. about space travel
C. his dream now is about to visit the moon.
D. No error
Q. 12 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
The meeting adjourned abruptly by the Chairman after about three hours of deliberation.
A. The meeting adjourned abruptly
B. by the Chairman after
C. about three hours of deliberation.
D. No error
Q. 13 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
Not one of the hundreds of striking workers were allowed o go near the factory.
A. Not one of the hundreds
B. of striking workers
C. were allowed to go near the factory.
D. No error
Q. 14 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
If I had known this earlier I will have helped him.
A. If I had known
B. this earlier
C. I will have helped him.
D. No error
Q. 15 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
Mr. Smith was accused for murder but the court found him not guilty and acquitted him.
A. Mr. Smith was accused for murder
B. but the court found him not guilty
C. and acquitted him.
D. No error
Q. 16 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
Although India is still ‘by far’ a poor country, it can become rich if its natural and human resources are fully utilized.
A. few and far between
B. by and large
C. by and by
D. No improvement
Q. 17 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d). ‘The more they earn, more they spend.’
A. More they earn, more they spend
B. More they earn, the more they spend
C. The more they earn, the more they spend
D. No improvement
Q. 18 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
But in all these cases conversion from one scale to another is easy because scales ‘have well-formulated.’
A. can be well-formulated
B. are well-formulated
C. well-formulated
D. No improvement
Q. 19 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
Five years ago on this date, I ‘am sitting’ in a small Japanese car, driving across Poland towards Berlin.
A. was sitting
B. sat
C. have been sitting
D. No improvement
Q. 20 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
The old man felled some trees in the garden with ‘hardly no effort’ at all.
A. hard effort
B. hardly any effort
C. a hardly any effort
D. No improvement
Q. 21 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
She says she’s already paid me back, but I can’t remember, so I’ll have ‘to take her word.’
A. to take her word true
B. to take her at word
C. to take her for word it
D. No improvement
Q. 22 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
The workers are ‘hell burnt at getting’ what is due to them.
A. hell burnt on getting
B. hell burnt for getting
C. hell burnt to getting
D. No improvement
Q. 23 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
You are warned ‘against committing’ the same mistake again.
A. to commit
B. for committing
C. against to commit
D. No improvement
Q. 24 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
While we would like ‘that all Indian children’ to go to school, we need to ponder why they do not.
A. that all the Indian children
B. if all the children of India
C. all Indian children
D. No improvement
Q. 25 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
‘Due to these reasons’ we are all in favor of universal compulsory education.
A. Out of these reasons
B. For these reasons
C. By these reasons
D. No improvement
Q. 26 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
When it was feared that the serfs might go too far and gain their freedom from serfdom, the Protestant leaders joined the princes ‘at crushing’ them.
A. into crushing
B. in crushing
C. without crushing
D. No improvement
Q. 27 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
In India, today many of our intellectuals still talk in terms of the French revolution and the Rights of Man, not appreciating that ‘much has happened’ since then.
A. much has been happening
B. much had happened
C. much might happen
D. No improvement
Q. 28 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
Taxpayers ‘are to’ be conscious of their privileges.
A. have to
B. need
C. ought to
D. No improvement
Q. 29 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
I would have waited for you at the station if ‘I knew’ that you would come
A. had known
B. was knowing
C. have known
D. No improvement
Q. 30 Look at the quoted part of the sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the quoted part. If one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet.
Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
No one could explain how a calm and balanced person like him could ‘penetrate’ such a mindless act on his friends.
A. perpetuate
B. perpetrate
C. precipitate
D. No improvement
Q. 31 The given passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
S1: At the roadside the driver will be asked to blow through a small glass tube into a plastic bag.
S6: The driver will be asked to go to the police station.
P: And if the color change does not reach the line the diver cannot be punished under the new law.
Q: Inside the tube are chemically treated crystals which change color if the driver has
alcohol on his breath.
R: But if the color change does reach the line then the test has proved positive.
S: If the color change goes beyond a certain line marked on the tube this indicates that the driver is probably over the specified limit.
The proper sequence should be
A. PSQR
B. SQRP
C. RPSQ
D. QSPR
Q. 32 The given passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
S1: Hope springs eternally in the heart of man.
S6: This is the central idea of the poem.
P: But hope is everlasting.
Q: Love, friendship and youth perish.
R: It is nursed by the glorious elements of nature.
S: Man derives hope from nature in his gallant struggle after some noble ideal.
The proper sequence should be
A. QPRS
B. SRQP
C. RSQP
D. QPSR
Q. 33 The given passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
S1: Mr. Sherlock Holmes and Doctor Watson were spending a weekend in a University town.
S6: It was clear that something very unusual happened.
P: One evening they received a visit from an acquaintance, Mr. Hilton Soames.
Q: On that occasion he was in a state of great agitation.
R: They were staying in furnished rooms, close to the library.
S: Mr. Soames was a tall, thin man of a nervous and excitable nature.
The proper sequence should be
A. PRSQ
B. RPSQ
C. PQRS
D. RPQS
Q. 34 The given passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
S1: The machines that drive modern civilization derive their power from coal and oil.
S6: Nuclear energy may also be effectively used in this respect.
P: But they are not inexhaustible.
Q: These sources may not be exhausted very soon.
R: A time may come when some other sources have to be tapped and utilized.
S: Power may, of course, be obtained in future from forests, water, wind and withered
vegetables.
The proper sequence should be
A. PQRS
B. QPRS
C. SRQP
D. SPQR
Q. 35 The given passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
S1: The body can never stop.
S6: It comes from food.
P: To support this endless activity, the body needs all the fuel for action.
Q: Sometimes it is more active than at other times, but it is always moving.
R: Even in the deepest sleep we must breathe.
S: The fuel must come from somewhere.
The proper sequence should be
A. PQRS
B. PRQS
C. QRPS
D. SRQP
Q. 36 The given passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
S1: American idealism is essentially a belief in the idea of progress.
S6: This sense they have inherited from the English.
P: Therefore, he believes that, because of human effort, the future will be better than the past.
Q: But if Americans are usually optimistic, they are not wholly unrealistic.
R: The American tends to view history as a record of human achievement.
S: They have some common sense practicality.
The proper sequence should be
A. PQRS
B. PQSR
C. RPQS
D. PRQS
Questions: 37 – 42
After having slept for an hour, Bond Decided to go out into the city and try to find his contact . After changing his suit, he carefully locked his room and steeped out of the hotel . No one was around. But he had walked only for a few minutes when it suddenly (37)” ” that he was being (38) ” ” by someone. There was really no (39)” ” for it except a very slight (40) ” ” of footsteps. He was ow walking (41) ” ” the main street , which was crowded (42) ” ” with people. He became extremely aware of the danger of people threatening him.
Q. 37 Choose the word which best suits the space quoted in (37)
A. felt
B. occured
C. happened
Q. 38 Choose the word which best suits the space quoted in (38)
A. Followed
B. Shot
C. Looked
Q. 39 Choose the word which best suits the space quoted in (39)
A. reason
B. cause
C. evidence
Q. 40 Choose the word which best suits the space quoted in (40)
A. weight
B. Sound
C. Hurting
Q. 41 Choose the word which best suits the space quoted in (41)
A. from
B. down
C. over
Q. 42 Choose the word which best suits the space quoted in (42)
A. with
B. by
C. in
Q. 43 The given sentence consists of a quoted word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the quoted word.
He was ‘fired’ for negligence on duty.
A. relieved of his job
B. scolded
C. rebuked
D. attacked
Q. 44 The given sentence consists of a quoted word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the quoted word. Democracy is not the standardizing of everyone so as to ‘obliterate’ all peculiarity.
A. demolish
B. extinguish
C. erase
D. change
Q. 45 The given sentence consists of a quoted word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the quoted word. Divine grace is truly ‘ineffable.’
A. that which cannot be rubbed out
B. incapable of being understood
C. that which is too great to be expressed in words
D. too powerful to be defeated
Q. 46 The given sentence consists of a quoted word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the quoted word.
The convocation address was very ‘edifying.’
A. tedious
B. in need of editing
C. instructive
D. exciting
Q. 47 The given sentence consists of a quoted word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the quoted word.
John is always ‘shabbily’ dressed.
A. decently
B. beautifully
C. extravagently
D. scantily
Q. 48 The given sentence consists of a quoted word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the quoted word.
The new manager of the Bank is ‘urbane’ in his manners.
A. civilized
B. slow
C. rude
D. foolish
Q. 49 The given sentence consists of a quoted word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the quoted word.
It is necessary to develop ‘thrifty’ habits to be able to lead a comfortable life.
A. expensive
B. extravagant
C. economical
D. good
Q. 50 The given sentence consists of a quoted word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the quoted word.
Many people suffer because of ‘pride.’
A. lowliness
B. submission
C. humility
D. obedience
Q. 51 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: Growth of plants is smooth with a complete fertilizer.
Statement II: A complete fertilizer always contains N, P, K.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 52 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: The granules of modern gunpowder (also called black powder) are typically coated with Graphite.
Statement II: Graphite prevents the build-up of electrostatic charge.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 53 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: Color of nitrogen dioxide changes to colorless at low temperature.
Statement II: At low-temperature Nitrogen tetroxide (N2O4) is formed which is colorless.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 54 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: Diamond is very bright
Statement II: Diamond has very low refractive index.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 55 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: Oxygen gas is easily produced at a faster rate by heating a mixture of
potassium chlorate and manganese dioxide than heating potassium chlorate alone.
Statement II: Manganese dioxide acts as a negative catalyst.
A. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is the correct explanation
of Statement I
B. Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 56 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: A body weighs less on a hilltop than on earth’s surface even though its mass remains unchanged.
Statement II: The acceleration due to gravity of the earth decreases with height.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 57 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: While putting clothes for drying up, we spread them out.
Statement II: The rate of evaporation increases with an increase in surface area.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 58 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: Due to diffused or irregular reflection of light, a closed room gets light even if no direct sunlight falls inside the room.
Statement II: Irregular reflection, where the reflected rays are not parallel, does not follow the laws of reflection.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 59 Ultrasonic waves of frequency 3 x 10⁵ Hz are passed through a medium where the speed of sound is 10 times that in the air (speed of sound in air is 300m/s). The wavelength of this wave in that medium will be of the order or
A. 1cm
B. 10cm
C. 100cm
D. 0.1cm
Q. 60 If radius of the earth were to shrink by 1%, its mass remaining the same, g would decrease by nearly
A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 3%
D. 4%
Q. 61 The displacement-time graph of a particle acted upon by a constant force is
A. a straight line
B. a circle
C. a parabola
D. any curve depending upon initial conditions
Q. 62 Which one of the following is not a result of surface tension?
A. nearly spherical drop of rain
B. capillary rise
C. removal of dirt by soap or detergent
D. flow of a liquid
Q. 63 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Compound) (Nature)
A. Sodium hydroxide 1. Strong acid
B. Calcium oxide 2. Alkali
C. Acetic acid 3. Weak acid
D. Hydrochloric acid 4. Base
Code:
A. A(2), B(3), C(4), D(1)
B. A(2), B(4), C(3), D(1)
C. A(1), B(4), C(3), D(2)
D. A(1), B(3), C(4), D(2)
Q. 64 Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. Kerala is the largest producer of natural rubber in India
B. Neyveli is an important thermal power generating area of Tamil Nadu
C. Ratnagiri Bauxite mining area is located in Karnataka
D. Assam is the largest tea producing state in India
Q. 65 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Paper industry center) (State)
A. Kamptee 1. Karnataka
B. Rajahmundry 2. Maharashtra
C. Shahdol 3. Andhra Pradesh
D. Belagola 4. Madhya Pradesh
A. A(1), B(4), C(3), D(2)
B. A(2), B(3), C(4), D(1)
C. A(1), B(3), C(4), D(2)
D. A(2), B(4), C(3), D(1)
Q. 66 The newly formed state of Telangana is surrounded by
A. 5 states
B. 4 states
C. 6 states
D. 3 states
Q. 67 Energy is required for maintenance of life. It is obtained by a process called
A. Metabolism
B. Phagocytosis
C. Photorespiration
D. Decomposition
Q. 68 All life forms contain “molecules of life”. These are
A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C. Nucleic acids
D. All of the above
Q. 69 If a charged particle (+q) is projected with certain velocity parallel to the magnetic field, then it will
A. trace helical path
B. trace circular path
C. continue its motion without any change
D. come to rest instantly
Q. 70 Optical fibers, through heat bent in any manner, allows light to pass through. What is the inference that one can draw from it?
A. The concept that light travels in straight path is wrong
B. Light can flow through the optical fibers
C. Light can travel through the fibers because of their ductility
D. Light can travel through the fibers due to multiple total internal reflections
Q. 71 Which one among the following happens when a swing rises to a certain height from its resting position?
A. Its potential energy decreases while kinetic energy increases
B. Its kinetic energy decreases while potential energy increases
C. Both potential and kinetic energy decrease
D. Both potential and kinetic energy increase
Q. 72 Which one among the following is used in making gunpowder?
A. Magnesium sulphate
B. Potassium nitrate
C. Sodium stearate
D. Calcium sulphate
Q. 73 The cleaning action of soap and detergent in water is due to the formation of
A. Micelle
B. salt
C. Base
D. Acid
Q. 74 The chemical used as a fixer/developer in photography is
A. Sodium sulphate
B. Sodium sulphide
C. Sodium thiosulphate
D. Sodium sulphite
Q. 75 Rainshadow effect is associated with
A. Cyclonic rainfall
B. Orographic rainfall
C. Convectional rainfall
D. Frontal rainfall
Q. 76 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Place) (Industry)
A. Jabalpur 1. Petro-chemical industry
B. Bengaluru 2. IT Industry
C. Mathura 3. Paper Industry
D. Ballarpur 4. Automobile Industry
Code:
A. A(4), B(1), C(2), D(3)
B. A(3), B(2), C(1), D(4)
C. A(4), B(2), C(1), D(3)
D. A(3), B(1), C(2), D(4)
Q. 77 Which one of the following irrigation canals is the most important in terms of area coverage in Haryana?
A. Bhakra canal
B. The Western Yamuna canal
C. Jawaharlal Nehru canal
D. Gurgaon canal
Q. 78 Which one of the following is the smallest unit showing the properties of life such as the capacity for metabolism, response to the environment, growth, and reproduction?
A. Gene
B. Chromosome
C. Nucleus
D. Cell
Q. 79 In plants, which one of the following gases is released during Photosynthesis?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Oxygen
C. Hydrogen
D. Methane
Q. 80 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Physical quantity) (Unit)
A. Distance 1. Mole
B. Amount of material 2. Coulomb
C. Amount of electrical charge 3. Lightyear
D. Energy 4. Watt-hour
Code:
A. A(3), B(1), C(2), D(4)
B. A(3), B(2), C(1), D(4)
C. A(4), B(2), C(1), D(3)
D. A(4), B(1), C(2), D(3)
Q. 81 A ray of light when refracted suffers a change in velocity. In this context, which one among the following statements is correct?
A. Velocity increases as the ray passes from a rarer to a denser medium
B. Velocity decreases as the ray passes from a denser to a rarer medium
C. Velocity decreases as the ray passes from a rarer to a denser medium
D. Change of velocity does not depend on the nature of medium
Q. 82 An object is placed 10 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. The image produced will be
A. Real and magnified
B. Virtual and magnified
C. Virtual and reduced in size
D. Real and reduced in size
Q. 83 Why is Graphite used in electrolytic cells?
A. Graphite is soft and can be easily moulded into electrodes
B. Graphite is made of layers of carbon atoms which can slide
C. Graphite is inert to most of the chemicals and remains intact in electrolytic cells
D. Graphite is a good conductor of electricity
Q. 84 Washing Soda is the common name for
A. Calcium Carbonate
B. Magnesium Carbonate
C. Sodium Carbonate
D. Potassium Carbonate
Q. 85 Which one of the following Indian states has the highest proportion of area under forest cover?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Sikkim
C. Meghalaya
D. Mizoram
Q. 86 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(National Park/ (State)
Wildlife Sanctuary)
A. Chandra Prabha 1. Uttarakhand
B. Silent Valley 2. Chhattisgarh
C. Valley of flowers 3. Uttar Pradesh
D. Indravati 4. Kerala
Code:
A. A(2), B(1), C(4), D(3)
B. A(3), B(4), C(1), D(2)
C. A(2), B(4), C(1), D(3)
D. A(3), B(1), C(4), D(2)
Q. 87 To a perpendicular to the plane of the ecliptic, Earth’s axis of rotation makes an angle of 23½ degrees. Had this angle been zero degrees, which one among the following would result?
A. There would have been no season
B. The length of day and night would have been the same throughout the year
C. The length of the day and night would have been the same all over the earth
D. All of the above
Q. 88 Gametophytes of sexually reproducing flowering plants are
A. Haploid
B. Diploid
C. Tetraploid
D. Polyploid
Q. 89 The seeds of flowering plants are made up of
A. ovary and ovary wall
B. embryo, food reserves and coat
C. cotyledons
D. zygotes
Q. 90 A person stands on his two feet over a surface and experiences a pressure P. Now the person stands on only one foot. He would experience a pressure of magnitude
A. 4P
B. P
C. ½P
D. 2P
Q. 91 A solid is melted and allowed to cool and solidify again. The temperature is measured at equal intervals of time. The graph in the figure shows the change of temperature with time.
The part of the curve that is practically horizontal is due to
A. latent heat given away by liquid
B. specific heat given away by liquid
C. thermal capacity increases with time keeping temperature constant
D. change in density during transformation
Q. 92 A deep sea driver may hurt his eardrum during diving because of
A. lack of oxygen
B. high atmospheric pressure
C. high water pressure
D. all of the above
Q. 93 When you walk on a woolen carpet and bring your finger near the metallic handle of a door, an electric shock is produced.
This is because
A. charge is transferred from your body to the handle
B. a chemical reaction occurs when you touch the handle
C. the temperature of the human body is higher than that of the handle
D. the human body and the handle arrive at thermal equilibrium by the process
Q. 94 Which among the following does not wet the walls of the glass vessel in which it is kept?
A. water
B. alcohol
C. mercury
D. phenol
Q. 95 Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of
A. sulphates of sodium and potassium
B. sulphates of magnesium and calcium
C. carbonates of sodium and magnesium
D. bicarbonates of magnesium and calcium
Q. 96 In the reaction ZnO + C→Zn + CO, ‘C’ acts as
A. an acid
B. a base
C. an oxidizing agent
D. a reducing agent
Q. 97 Which of the following are the characteristics of organic farming?
1. Use of chemical fertilizers to improve soil fertility.
2. Frequent decomposing and fallowing.
3. Use of herbs to control pests.
4. Higher productivity per hectare.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4
Q. 98 ‘Yakuts’ are the nomadic herders of
A. Gobi
B. Sahara
C. Tundra
D. Kalahari
Q. 99 A farmer in a semi-arid area claims that his farming practice is very environment-friendly. Which of the following practices on his farm can justify his claim?
1. Planting a tree belt.
2. Practising crop rotation.
3. Carrying out a large scale irrigation system.
4. Using organic fertilizers.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 1 and 2 only
Q. 100 The luxuriant growth of natural vegetation in tropical rainforest is due to
1. fertile soil
2. hot and wet climate throughout the year
3. intense sunlight for photosynthesis
4. seasonal change to facilitate nutrient absorption
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q. 101 Which endocrine gland requires iodine to synthesize a particular hormone whose deficiency may cause goitre disease?
A. Hypothalamus
B. Pancreas
C. Thymus
D. Thyroid gland
Q. 102 Which one of the following is not a part of nerves?
A. Axons
B. Connective tissues
C. Schwann cells
D. Smooth muscles
Q. 103 The product of conductivity and resistivity of a conductor
A. depends on pressure applied
B. depends on current flowing through conductor
C. is the same for all conductors
D. varies from conductor to conductor
Q. 104 We use CFL to save electrical energy and to provide sufficient light. The full form of CFL is
A. Condensed filament light
B. Compact filament lamp
C. Condensed fluorescent lamp
D. Compact fluorescent lamp
Q. 105 When the sun is 30° above the horizon, the shadow of one tree is 17.3m long. What is the height of this tree?
A. 20m
B. 17.30m
C. 10m
D. 1.73m
Q. 106 When heat rays are reflected from Earth, gases like Carbon dioxide, Nitrous oxide do not allow them to escape back to space causing our planet to heat up. These gases are known as
A. noble gas
B. green-house gas
C. hot gas
D. blue gas
Q. 107 A spring can be used to determine the mass m of an object in two ways: (i) by measuring the extension in the spring due to the object; and (ii) by measuring the oscillation period for the given mass. Which of these methods can be used in a space-station orbiting Earth?
A. Both
B. Only the extension method
C. Only the oscillation method
D. Neither
Q. 108 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Region) (Vegetation)
A. Selvas 1. Conifers
B. Savannas 2. Mosses and Lichens
C. Taiga 3. Epiphytes
D. Tundra 4. Grasses and trees
Code:
A. A(4), B(1), C(2), D(3)
B. A(3), B(2), C(1), D(4)
C. A(3), B(4), C(1), D(2)
D. A(4), B(2), C(1), D(3)
Q. 109 Which of the following statements with regard to the western coastal plain of India are correct?
1. It is a narrow belt
2. It is an example of submerged coastal plain
3. It provides natural conditions for development of ports
4. It has well-developed deltas
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 3 and 4 only
Q. 110 Which one of the following weather conditions indicates a sudden fall in barometer reading?
A. stormy weather
B. calm weather
C. cold and dry weather
D. hot and sunny weather
Q. 111 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Island) (Location)
A. Continental island 1. Mauritius
B. Coral island 2. Madagascar
C. Volcanic island 3. Andaman & Nicobar Islands
D. Mountain island 4. Maldives
Code:
A. A(2), B(4), C(1), D(3)
B. A(2), B(1), C(4), D(3)
C. A(3), B(1), C(4), D(2)
D. A(3), B(4), C(1), D(2)
Q. 112 Consider the following diagram
In which one among the following lettered areas of diagram would erosion most likely change the shape of riverbed ?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 113 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List II
(Cloud) (Characteristic)
A. Cirrus 1. Rain giving
B. Stratus 2. Feathery appearance
C. Nimbus 3. Vertically growing
D. Cumulus 4. Horizontally spreading
Code:
A. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I List II (Island) (Location) A. Continental island 1. Mauritius B. Coral island 2. Madagascar C. Volcanic island 3. Andaman & Nicobar Islands D. Mountain island 4. Maldives A(3), B(1), C(4), D(2)
B. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I List II (Island) (Location) A. Continental island 1. Mauritius B. Coral island 2. Madagascar C. Volcanic island 3. Andaman & Nicobar Islands D. Mountain island 4. Maldives A(3), B(4), C(1), D(2)
C. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I List II (Island) (Location) A. Continental island 1. Mauritius B. Coral island 2. Madagascar C. Volcanic island 3. Andaman & Nicobar Islands D. Mountain island 4. Maldives A(2), B(4), C(1), D(3)
D. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I List II (Island) (Location) A. Continental island 1. Mauritius B. Coral island 2. Madagascar C. Volcanic island 3. Andaman & Nicobar Islands D. Mountain island 4. Maldives A(2), B(1), C(4), D(3)
Q. 114 The concept of demographic transition provides a model for
A. analyzing government responses to changing pattern of population growth
B. explaining major patterns of global population movement throughout the history
C. analyzing spatial variations in the distribution, growth and movement of population
over time
D. examining the relationship between economic development and natural population
change.
Q. 115 The precursor of which one of the following vitamins comes from β-carotene?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K
Q. 116 ‘Lub-dup’ sound is produced due to action of
A. large intestine
B. lungs
C. heart
D. oesophagus
Q. 117 The Sun is observed to be reddish when it is near the horizon, i.e., in the morning and the evening. This is because
A. red light is least scattered by atmosphere
B. red light is most scattered by atmosphere
C. it is the color of the Sun in the morning and evening
D. Earth’s atmosphere emits red light
Q. 118 Thermal conductivity of aluminum, copper, and stainless steel increases in the order
A. Copper<Aluminium<Stainless steel
B. Stainless steel<aluminium<copper
C. Aluminium<Copper<Stainless steel
D. Copper<Stainless steel<Aluminium
Q. 119 Perspiration cools the body because
A. presence of water on the skin is cooling
B. evaporation requires latent heat
C. water has a high specific heat
D. water is a poor conductor of heat
Q. 120 The radius of the Moon is about one-fourth that of the Earth and acceleration due to gravity on the Moon is about one-sixth that on the Earth. From this, we can conclude that the ratio of the mass of Earth to the mass of the Moon is about
A. 10
B. 100
C. 1,000
D. 10,000
Q. 121 Which of the following country/countries successfully inserted a spacecraft into Mars’ orbit by maiden attempt?
A. USA
B. USA and Russia
C. India
D. China
Q. 122 The European Space Agency (ESA) successfully landed a spacecraft on a speeding comet that lies 310 million miles away from the Earth. As a result, the scientists may find out
A. the age of the Sun
B. the age of the Universe
C. new fundamental atomic particles
D. the role of the comets in bringing organic matter and water to Earth
Q. 123 Who among the following Nobel laureates has recently announced to put his Nobel Medal under auction?
A. Kailash Satyarthi
B. J D Watson
C. Mikhail Gorbachev
D. Jody Williams
Q. 124 Which one among the following statements with regard to a climate deal adopted between USA and China in November 2014 is not correct?
A. China committed to cap its output of carbon pollution by the year 2030 or earlier
B. China committed to increase its use of zero emission energy to 20% by the year 2030
C. USA agreed to reduce its emissions by 26%-28% below its year 2005 levels in the year 2025
D. Both the countries agreed to completely phase out coal technologies by the year 2020
Q. 125 Which one among the following books is centered around ‘environment’?
A. The Late, Great Planet Earth
B. Silent Spring
C. Here I Stand
D. And Then One Day
Q. 126 Who among the following cricket players has not died while playing a match?
A. Wasim Raja
B. Phillip Hughes
C. Raman Lamba
D. Vijay Hazare
Q. 127 Which one among the following films was conferred the ‘Golden Peacock’ award in the 45th International Film Festival of India (2014)?
A. Ek Hazarachi Note
B. A Short Story
C. Leviathan
D. Ajeyo
Q. 128 Which one among the following films was awarded the best motion picture (Drama) at the 72nd Golden Globe Awards?
A. The Theory of Everything
B. Boyhood
C. Still Alice
D. Birdman
Q. 129 East Zone won the prestigious Deodhar Trophy cricket tournament 2014-15 by defeating
A. South Zone
B. Central Zone
C. West Zone
D. North Zone
Q. 130 Which one among the following books won the Man Booker Prize 2014?
A. History of the Rain
B. The Lives of Others
C. The Narrow Road to the Deep North
D. How to be Both
Q. 131 The Second Five Year Plan that called for the establishment of Socialist pattern of society was commonly referred to as the
A. Harrod-Domar Plan
B. Mahalanobis Plan
C. Nehru Plan
D. Peoples Plan
Q. 132 Harappan crafts display an amazing degree of standardization. According to Kenoyer, what was the possible reason for such an achievement?
A. availability of raw materials at local level
B. centralized markets for crafts
C. specialized training centers for craftsmen
D. state control
Q. 133 Consider the following statements about Ashokan rock edicts:
1. Major Rock Edict XIII records Ashoka’s remorse at the sufferings caused by his Kalinga campaign.
2. Major Rock Edict X records Ashoka’s visit to Lumbini.
3. Major Rock Edict XII refers to Dhamma Mahamattas as a new category of officers
instituted by Ashoka.
4. Major Rock Edict XII speaks about showing tolerance towards all sects.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4
Q. 134 Which one of the following is the common element among Rajagriha, Vaishali, and Pataliputra?
A. Pali canon of the Sthaviravadins was compiled there
B. Ashokan Major Rock Edicts were found there
C. Places where Buddhist Councils were held
D. Places associated with the compilation of Buddhist canons of the Mahasanghikas
Q. 135 Which one among the following sects was associated with Gosala Maskariputra?
A. Vajrayana
B. Ajivikas
C. Sthaviravadins
D. Mahasanghikas
Q. 136 Consider the following statements about the early modern technology in India:
1. The Portuguese brought European movable metal types to Goa in 1550.
2. The first Indian script of which types were prepared was Tamil.
3. The English Company’s first experiment with printing press was at Calcutta.
4. The English Company imported printing press to India in 1674-75 at the request of Bhimji Parak.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1, 2 and 4
Q. 137 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for Olympe de Gouges?
1. She was one of the most important politically active women in revolutionary France.
2. She was one of the members of the Committee that drafted the Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen.
3. She wrote the Declaration of the Rights of Woman and Citizen.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2
D. 1 and 3
Q. 138 Arrange the following inventions in the field of cotton industry in chronological order (starting with the earliest):
1. James Hargreave’s Spinning Jenny
2. John Kay’s Lying Shuttle
3. Samuel Crompton’s Mule
4. Richard Arkwright’s Water Frame
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 3, 4, 2
B. 2, 1, 4, 3
C. 4, 1, 3, 2
D. 2, 4, 1, 3
Q. 139 While opposing the Public Safety Bill 1928 who among the following said that it was ‘a direct attack on Indian Nationalism, on the Indian National Congress’ and as ‘the Slavery of India, Bill No. 1’?
A. Motilal Nehru
B. Lala Lajpat Rai
C. T Prakasam
D. Diwan Chaman Lal
Q. 140 Soon after the formation of the Indian National Congress, the British became suspicious of nationalists. Who among the following called Congress representing only the elite-‘a microscopic minority’?
A. Lord Napier
B. Lord Dufferin
C. Lord Ripon
D. Lord Lytton
Q. 141 What is the common element among Ram Prasad Bismil, Roshan Singh, and Rajendra Lahiri?
A. They threw a bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly on 8 April 1929
B. They were the founder members of Swaraj Party
C. They were the founders of Hindustan Republican Association
D. They were associated with Kakori Conspiracy case
Q. 142 Which among the following is/are not fundamental right(s) under the Constitution of India?
1. right to education
2. right to work
3. right to form associations
4. rights to practice any profession
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3
Q. 143 Mahatma Gandhi’s Hind Swaraj is essentially
A. a critique o Western modernity
B. an outline of his philosophy of Satyagraha
C. an innovation to Indians to free themselves from the British
D. a blueprint of Gram Swaraj
Q. 144 The Seventeenth Schedule of the Constitution of India contains
A. provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
B. the Union list, the State list, and the Concurrent list
C. a list of recognized languages
D. provisions about the disqualification of Members of Legislatures on grounds of
defection
Q. 145 Pochampally in Nalgonda district of Telangana became famous in April 1951 because
A. the Bhoodan movement was launched there by Vinoba Bhave
B. the landless peasants rose up in arms against the landlords
C. it witnessed violent anti-Hindi agitation
D. Silk weavers’ cooperative was formed for the first time in India
Q. 146 Who among the following was not associated with the Sarvodaya movement?
A. Jaya Prakash Narayan
B. Acharya Vinoba Bhave
C. Dhirendra Mazumdar
D. GV Apparao
Q. 147 Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with
A. the powers of the Parliament of India to amend the Constitution
B. financial emergency
C. reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha
D. Official language of the Union of India
Q. 148 Which among the following is not a basic feature of the Constitution of India?
A. fundamental rights
B. independence of judiciary
C. federalism
D. the unquestioned right of the parliament to amend any part of the constitution
Q. 149 Which among the following is not a fundamental duty?
A. to abide by the Constitution of India and respect the national flag and national
anthem
B. to safeguard public property
C. to protect the Sovereignty, Unity, and Integrity of India
D. to render compulsory military service
Q. 150 Which of the following are the basic features of the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act?
1. Provides for a three-tier structure of panchayats in the village, intermediary, and district levels.
2. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and women in all the tiers of panchayats.
3. Election to panchayats under the supervision of the State Election Commission.
4. Introduction of the 11th Schedule to the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q. 1 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
It was nearly thirty years ago, since this magazine was first published.
A. It was nearly thirty years ago,
B. since this magazine
C. was first published.
D. No error
Q. 2 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
Ten years ago he was having an income of over ten thousand rupees a month; he must
indeed be a wealthy man by now.
A. Ten years ago he was having an income
B. of over ten thousand rupees a month;
C. he must indeed be a wealthy man by now.
D. No error
Q. 3 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
In spite of the fact that the meeting was about to end, he insisted to ask several questions.
A. In spite of the fact
B. that the meeting was about to end,
C. he insisted to ask several questions.
D. No error
Q. 4 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
Hardly had he entered into the room and taken his seat, when the girls began to giggle.
A. Hardly had he entered into the room
B. and taken his seat,
C. when the girls began to giggle.
D. No error
Q. 5 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
I was disappointed when I came for seeing you last evening but could not find you at home.
A. I was disappointed
B. when I came for seeing you last evening
C. but could not find you at home.
D. No error
Q. 6 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
The number of jobs that would be satisfactory in all respects are small.
A. The number of jobs
B. that would be satisfactory in all respects
C. are small.
D. No error
Q. 7 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
I have found the man who I know is the thief.
A. I have found the man
B. whom I know
C. is the thief
D. No error
Q. 8 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
There is no reason why he should not come since he is in town and is free.
A. There is no reason
B. why he should not come
C. since he is in town and is free.
D. No error
Q. 9 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
It is high time we cried a half to the existing corrupt practices followed in the educational sphere.
A. It is high time
B. we cried a halt to the existing corrupt practices
C. followed in the educational sphere.
D. No error
Q. 10 The sentence given below has three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c). Read it to find out whether there is an error in any of the labeled parts and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter, i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find ‘No error’, your response should be indicated as (d).
The situation is perilous but if we are prepared promptly to act, there is still one chance of escape.
A. The situation is perilous
B. but if we are prepared promptly to act,
C. there is still one chance of escape.
D. No error
Q. 11 Given below is a sentence comprising of a quoted part. For each part, there are four words listed. Choose the nearest in meaning to the quoted part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
We should always try to maintain and promote communal ‘amity’.
A. bondage
B. contention
C. friendship
D. understanding
Q. 12 Given below is a sentence comprising of a quoted part. For each part, there are four words listed. Choose the nearest in meaning to the quoted part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
Many species of animals have become ‘extinct’ during the last hundred years.
A. aggressive
B. non-existent
C. scattered
D. feeble
Q. 13 Given below is a sentence comprising of a quoted part. For each part, there are four words listed. Choose the nearest in meaning to the quoted part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
True religion does not require one to ‘proselytize’ through guile or force.
A. translate
B. hypnotize
C. attack
D. convert
Q. 14 Given below is a sentence comprising of a quoted part. For each part, there are four words listed. Choose the nearest in meaning to the quoted part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
That the plan is both inhuman and ‘preposterous’ needs no further proof.
A. heartless
B. impractical
C. absurd
D. abnormal
Q. 15 Given below is a sentence comprising of a quoted part. For each part, there are four words listed. Choose the nearest in meaning to the quoted part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
The attitude of the Western countries towards the third-world countries is rather ‘callous’ to say the least.
A. passive
B. unkind
C. cursed
D. unfeeling
Q. 16 Given below is a sentence comprising of a quoted part. For each part, there are four words listed. Choose the nearest in meaning to the quoted part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
Whatever the ‘verdict’ of history may be, Chaplin will occupy a unique place in its pages.
A. judgement
B. voice
C. outcome
D. prediction
Q. 17 Given below is a sentence comprising of a quoted part. For each part, there are four words listed. Choose the nearest in meaning to the quoted part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
He ‘corroborated’ the statement of his brother.
A. confirmed
B. disproved
C. condemned
D. seconded
Q. 18 Given below is a sentence comprising of a quoted part. For each part, there are four words listed. Choose the nearest in meaning to the quoted part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
Whatever opinion he gives is ‘sane.’
A. rational
B. obscure
C. wild
D. arrogant
Q. 19 Given below is a sentence comprising of a quoted part. For each part, there are four words listed. Choose the nearest in meaning to the quoted part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
The story is too fantastic to be ‘credible.’
A. believable
B. false
C. readable
D. praiseworthy
Q. 20 Given below is a sentence comprising of a quoted part. For each part, there are four words listed. Choose the nearest in meaning to the quoted part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
Catching snakes can be ‘hazardous’ for people untrained in the art.
A. tricky
B. harmful
C. difficult
D. dangerous
Q. 21 Read the given sentence with a quoted word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the quoted word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
His short but pointed speech was ‘applauded’ by all sections of the audience.
A. disapproved
B. misunderstood
C. praised
D. welcomed
Q. 22 Read the given sentence with a quoted word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the quoted word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
In ancient India, scholars had no interest in political power or ‘material’ growth.
A. internal
B. spiritual
C. psychic
D. celestial
Q. 23 Read the given sentence with a quoted word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the quoted word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
A ‘friendly’ dog met us at the farm gate.
A. helpful
B. understanding
C. quiet
D. hostile
Q. 24 Read the given sentence with a quoted word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the quoted word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
He is extremely ‘intelligent’ but proud.
A. dull
B. weak
C. ignorant
D. arrogant
Q. 25 Read the given sentence with a quoted word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the quoted word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
The young leader was ‘reluctant’ to shoulder the responsibilities of the ministerial office.
A. wanting
B. willing
C. anxious
D. eager
Q. 26 Read the given sentence with a quoted word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the quoted word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
He ‘abandoned’ his family.
A. supported
B. encouraged
C. pleased
D. saved
Q. 27 Read the given sentence with a quoted word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the quoted word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
History ‘abounds’ in instances of courage.
A. shines
B. lacks
C. suffices
D. fails
Q. 28 Read the given sentence with a quoted word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the quoted word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
‘Adversity’ teaches man to be humble and self-reliant.
A. Sincerity
B. Animosity
C. Curiosity
D. Prosperity
Q. 29 Read the given sentence with a quoted word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the quoted word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
Life poverty, ‘affluence’ can sometimes create its own problems.
A. indigence
B. opulence
C. sorrow
D. exuberance
Q. 30 Read the given sentence with a quoted word. It is followed by four words, one of which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the quoted word. Choose the word and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet.
The habit of ‘squandering’ money should not be encouraged.
A. discarding
B. hoarding
C. donating
D. stealing
Q. 31 The given sentence has a blank space and four words given after it. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
You haven’t had your lunch yet, ________ you?
A. are
B. aren’t
C. have
D. haven’t
Q. 32 The given sentence has a blank space and four words given after it. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
Life is to death as pleasure is to ____________.
A. poverty
B. suffering
C. anguish
D. pain
Q. 33 The given sentence has a blank space and four words given after it. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
The French _________ reputed to have a very good sense of humour.
A. is
B. was
C. are
D. will be
Q. 34 The given sentence has a blank space and four words given after it. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
‘Please’ and ‘Thank you’ are the little courtesies by which we keep the ________ of life oiled and running smoothly.
A. path
B. machine
C. garden
D. river
Q. 35 The given sentence has a blank space and four words given after it. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
Many of the advances of civilization have been conceived by young people just on the
_________ of adulthood.
A. boundary
B. threshold
C. peak
D. horizon
Q. 36 The given sentence has a blank space and four words given after it. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
The more your action and thought are allied and ________, the happier you grow.
A. divergent
B. unraveled
C. integrated
D. invincible
Q. 37 The given sentence has a blank space and four words given after it. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
He ________ in wearing the old-fashioned coat in spite of his wife’s disapproval.
A. insists
B. persists
C. desists
D. resists
Q. 38 The given sentence has a blank space and four words given after it. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
It is not what you say that ________, but what you do.
A. matches
B. implies
C. matters
D. moves
Q. 39 The given sentence has a blank space and four words given after it. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
Physically we are now all neighbors, but psychologically we are ________ to each other.
A. primitives
B. complementary
C. strangers
D. cowards
Q. 40 The given sentence has a blank space and four words given after it. Select whichever word you consider the most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
The old ‘Nature’ versus _______ debate regarding crime continues even today.
A. ‘Man’
B. ‘Universe’
C. ‘Culture’
D. ‘Nurture’
Q. 41 The given sentence has a quoted part. Below the sentence are given three possible substitutions for the part. If one of them. i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c).
If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the
Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d). As the parties failed to reach any agreement, the meeting ‘broke through.’
A. broke out
B. broke away
C. broke up
D. No improvement
Q. 42 The given sentence has a quoted part. Below the sentence are given three possible substitutions for the part. If one of them. i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c).
If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d). If I ‘have reached’ there by this time tomorrow, I will write to you immediately.
A. reached
B. reach
C. am reaching
D. No improvement
Q. 43 The given sentence has a quoted part. Below the sentence are given three possible substitutions for the part. If one of them. i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c).
If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d). My friend met me, unexpectedly, when I ‘looked’ for a taxi, desperately.
A. had looked
B. was looking
C. had been looking
D. No improvement
Q. 44 The given sentence has a quoted part. Below the sentence are given three possible substitutions for the part. If one of them. i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
Her learning makes up ‘towards’ her want of beauty.
A. for
B. to
C. against
D. No improvement
Q. 45 The given sentence has a quoted part. Below the sentence are given three possible substitutions for the part. If one of them. i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
If he ‘got’ his enemy in his hand, he would have crushed him to death.
A. has got
B. was getting
C. had got
D. No improvement
Q. 46 The given sentence has a quoted part. Below the sentence are given three possible substitutions for the part. If one of them. i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d). Please ask your son to turn ‘off’ the radio so that is is not quite so loud.
A. in
B. back
C. down
D. No improvement
Q. 47 The given sentence has a quoted part. Below the sentence are given three possible substitutions for the part. If one of them. i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c).
If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the
Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d). He said that when I ‘have worked’ for him for six months I would get a pay rise.
A. had worked
B. have had worked
C. did work
D. No improvement
Q. 48 The given sentence has a quoted part. Below the sentence are given three possible substitutions for the part. If one of them. i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d).
I am looking forward to ‘joining’ your organization.
A. join
B. join in
C. having joined
D. No improvement
Q. 49 The given sentence has a quoted part. Below the sentence are given three possible substitutions for the part. If one of them. i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c).
If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d). I am not sure why ‘she is wanting’ to see him.
A. she wants
B. is she wanting
C. she want
D. No improvement
Q. 50 The given sentence has a quoted part. Below the sentence are given three possible substitutions for the part. If one of them. i.e., (a), (b) or (c) is better than the quoted part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b), or (c).
If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the
Answer Sheet. Thus, a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter (d). Everbody who ‘finished’ writing can go home.
A. had finished
B. have finished
C. has finished
D. No improvement
Q. 51 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: Grand banks are one of the major fishing grounds of the world due to the
presence of a vast continental shelf.
Statement II: Planktons grow in the shallow waters.
A. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation
of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is the true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 52 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: Amoeba is a unicellular organism and the single cell performs all functions of a living organism.
Statement II: Cell is the fundamental unit of a living organism.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 53 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: The first coins to bear the names and images of rulers were issued by the
Kushanas.
Statement II: The first gold coins were issued by the Kushanas.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 54 Consider the following two statements & answer below.
Statement I: Jahandar Sah’s reign came to an early end in January 1713
Statement II: He was defeated at Agra by Farrukhsiyar, his nephew.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 55 Consider the following two statements and answer below.
Statement 1: The defects of the Regulating Act and the exigencies of British politics
necessitated the passing of the Pitt’s India Act.
Statement II: The Pitt’s India Act gave the British Government supreme control over the Company’s affairs and its administration in India.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 56 Consider the following two statements and answer below.
Statement I: It is not necessary that every bar magnet has one North Pole and one South Pole.
Statement II: Magnetic poles occur in pair.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 57 Consider the following two statements and answer below.
Statement I: A body moving in a circular path is acted upon by the centripetal force.
Statement II: Centripetal force acting on the body is doing work to keep it rotating in the circular path.
A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Q. 58 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The tropical cyclones of China Sea are called typhoons.
2. The tropical cyclones of the West Indies are called tornadoes.
3. The tropical cyclones of Australia are called willy-willies.
4. Formation of an anticyclone results in stormy weather condition.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Q. 59 Which one of the following is not an ASEAN member?
A. Cambodia
B. Laos
C. Myanmar
D. Taiwan
Q. 60 Heat given to a body which raises its temperature by 1°C is known as
A. water equivalent
B. thermal capacity
C. specific heat
D. temperature gradient
Q. 61 Consider the following reaction :
xAs₂S₃+yO₂→zAs₂O₃+wSO₂
What is y(the coefficient for O₂) when the equation is balanced using whole number
coefficients?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 11
Q. 62 Growth and repair of damaged tissue involve
A. mitotic cell division only
B. both mitotic and meiotic cell divisions
C. meiotic cell division only
D. amitotic cell division only
Q. 63 Rotterdam of Netherlands is largely famous for
A. textiles
B. dairying
C. shipbuilding
D. paper industry
Q. 64 If the motion of an object is represented by a straight line parallel to the time axis in a distance-time graph, then the object undergoes
A. an accelerated motion
B. a decelerated motion
C. a uniform non-zero velocity motion
D. a zero velocity motion
Q. 65 How many grams of MgCO₃ contain 24.00 g of oxygen? (The molar mass of MgCO₃ is 84.30 g mo⁻¹)
A. 42.15 g
B. 84.30 g
C. 126.00 g
D. 154.00 g
Q. 66 Which one of the following is not a function of the liver?
A. Conversion of glucose into glycogen
B. Production of urea
C. Destruction of dead and worn-out red blood cells
D. Absorption of food and excess water from the undigested food
Q. 67 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of economic sectors in terms of their contribution to the GDP of India in decreasing order?
A. Service-Industry-Agriculture
B. Agriculture-Industry-Service
C. Industry-Service-Agriculture
D. Agriculture-Service-Industry
Q. 68 A force F⃗, acting on an electric charge q, in presence of an electromagnetic field, moves the charge parallel to the magnetic field with velocity v⃗. Then F⃗ is equal to *where E⃗ and B⃗ are electric field and magnetic field respectively)
A. qE⃗
B. q(v⃗xB⃗)
C. q(v⃗xE⃗)
D. qB⃗
Q. 69 What is the oxidizing agent in the following equation?
HAsO₂(aq)+Sn²⁺(aq)+H⁺(aq)→As(s)+Sn⁴⁺(aq)+H₂O(l)
A. HAsO₂(aq)
B. Sn²⁺(aq)
C. H¬⁺(aq)
D. Sn⁴⁺(aq)
Q. 70 Which one of the following is not a part of the female reproductive system?
A. Fallopian tube
B. Cervix
C. Urethra
D. Vagina
Q. 71 If a news is broadcast from London at 1:45 pm on Monday, at what time and on what day will it be heard at Dhaka (90°E)?
A. 7:45 pm on Monday
B. 7:45 am on Monday
C. 7:45 pm on Tuesday
D. 7:45 am on Sunday
Q. 72 Which of the following are the correct parameters for the common domestic power supply in India?
A. 220 V, 110 Hz
B. 220 V, 50 Hz
C. 110 V, 220 Hz
D. 110 V, 50 Hz
Q. 73 Which one o the following substances is most likely to be used as soap?
A. CH₃(CH₂)₁₂COOCH₃
B. CH₃(CH₂)₅O(CH₂)₅CH₃
C. CH₃(CH₂)₁₂COONa
D. CH₃(CH₂)₁₂CHCl₂
Q. 74 Which one of the following animals is cold-blooded?
A. Dolphin
B. Shark
C. Whale
D. Porpoise
Q. 75 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Geographical Feature) (Type of Geographical process)
A. Cirque 1. Erosional feature of wind
B. Yardang 2. Depositional feature of glacier
C. Barkhan 3. Depositional feature of wind
D. Drumlin 4. Erosional feature of glacier
Code:
A. A(4), B(1), C(3), D(2)
B. A(4), B(3), C(1), D(2)
C. A(2), B(3), C(1), D(4)
D. A(2), B(1), C(3), D(4)
Q. 76 A ray of light travels from a medium refractive index n₁ to a medium refractive index n₂. If angle of incidence is i and angle of refraction is r, then sin i/sin r is equal to
A. n₁
B. n₂
C. n₂/n₁
D. n₁/n₂
Q. 77 A sample of gas is to be identified by means of its behaviour in the presence of a glowing splint. Which of the following gases will neither itself burn not cause the splint to burn?
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Hydrogen
D. Methane
Q. 78 Leprosy is caused by
A. virus
B. bacteria
C. protozoa
D. retrovirus
Q. 79 A topographical map with scale 1:50000 indicates 1 cm to
A. 50 km
B. 500 m
C. 50 m
D. 5 km
Q. 80 Light waves projected on oil surface show even colours due to the phenomenon of
A. polarization
B. refraction
C. reflection
D. interference
Q. 81 A monatomic species that has 18 electrons and a net charge of 2⁻ has
A. The same number of electrons as a neutral argon atom
B. More protons than electrons
C. 2 unpaired electrons
D. 20 protons
Q. 82 Which among the following is a plant hormone?
A. Insulin
B. Thyroxin
C. Gibberellin
D. Estrogen
Q. 83 Quartzite is metamorphosed from
A. limestone
B. plutonic rock
C. sandstone
D. shale
Q. 84 Which one of the following processes explains the splitting of a beam of white light into its constituent colours?
A. Dispersion
B. Reflection
C. Diffraction
D. Polarization
Q. 85 The very high heat of vaporization of water is mainly a result of
A. van der Waals forces
B. covalent bonds
C. interionic attraction
D. hydrogen bonding
Q. 86 Which of the following groups of plants can be used as indicators of SO2 pollution of air?
A. Ferns
B. Mentha
C. Lichens
D. Hornworts
Q. 87 The permanent wind that blows from the horse latitude to the equatorial region is known as
A. westerly
B. trade wind
C. doldrum
D. easterly
Q. 88 Two bodies A and B having masses m and 4 m respectively are moving with equal linear momentum. The ratio of kinetic energies between A and B is
A. 1:4
B. 4:1
C. 1:1
D. 1:2
Q. 89 Optical glass used in the construction of spectacles is made by
A. flint glass
B. crookes glass
C. quartz glass
D. hard glass
Q. 90 Which one of the following cell organelles is absent in animal cell?
A. cell membrane
B. endoplasmic reticulum
C. cell wall
D. mitochondria
Q. 91 Which one of the following is a warm ocean current?
A. labrador current
B. kuroshio current
C. peru current
D. benguela current
Q. 92 A force applied on a body is represented as –
F⃗ = 6î-8ĵ+10k̂
and accelerates it at 1 m/s². The mass of the body is
A. 10 kg
B. 10√2 kg
C. 2√10 kg
D. 8 kg
Q. 93 The burning sensation of a bee sting can be stopped by rubbing the affected area with soap. This is because
A. a bee sting is acidic and soap, an alkali, neutralizes it
B. a bee sting is alkaline and soap, an acid, neutralizes it
C. soap cleans the affected area and removes the sting
D. soap acts as an anesthetic and dulls the sensation
Q. 94 Consider the following statements:
1. Carbohydrates are the only source of energy to humans.
2. Fats give maximum energy on oxidation as compared to other foods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 95 The place located at the confluence of Alaknanda and Bhagirathi rivers is
A. Badrinath
B. Rishikesh
C. Rudraprayag
D. Devprayag
Q. 96 Light waves are
A. electro-mechanical waves
B. electro-magnetic waves
C. electro-optical waves
D. magneto-optical waves
Q. 97 A sample of carbon dioxide that undergoes a transformation from solid to liquid and then to gas would undergo
A. a change in mass
B. a change in density
C. a change in composition
D. no change in physical properties
Q. 98 Which one of the following pairs of power projects is not correctly matched?
A. Papanasam-Hydropower
B. Neyveli-Hydropower
C. Ukai-Thermal power
D. Rana Pratap Sagar-Hydropower
Q. 99 A particle is moving in a circular path of radius r at a constant speed v. Which one of the following graphs correctly represents its acceleration a?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Q. 100 Which of the following element combinations will form ionic compounds?
1. Ca (Z=20) and Ti (Z=22)
2. Si (Z=14) and Br (Z=35)
3. Mg (Z=12) and Cl (Z=17)
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q. 101 In the term GIS, ‘G’ stands for
A. Global
B. Geographic
C. Goodness
D. Geological
Q. 102 A thermodynamic process where no heat is exchanged with the surroundings is
A. isothermal
B. adiabatic
C. isobaric
D. isotropic
Q. 103 A compound of X₂O₃ contains 31.58% oxygen by weight. The atomic mass of X is
A. 34.66 g mol⁻¹
B. 45.01 g mol⁻¹
C. 52.00 g mol⁻¹
D. 104.00 g mol⁻¹
Q. 104 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of oil refineries in India in respect of their time of establishment (starting from the earliest)?
A. Barauni-Haldia-Guwahati-Mathura
B. Barauni-Mathura-Guwahati-Haldia
C. Guwahati-Haldia-Mathura-Barauni
D. Guwahati-Barauni-Haldia-Mathura
Q. 105 Which one of the following circuit elements is an active component?
A. Resistor
B. Transistor
C. Inductor
D. Capacitor
Q. 106 Which one among the following contains the most neutrons?
A. ⁵⁹₂₆Fe
B. ⁶¹₂₉Cu
C. ⁶¹₃₀Zn
D. ⁶⁰₃₀Zn²⁺
Q. 107 Movements of tides are mostly determined by
A. albedo effect
B. wind velocity
C. rotation of the Earth
D. revolution of the Earth
Q. 108 Fahrenheit and Celsius are the two scales used for measuring temperature. It the numerical value of a temperature recorded in both the scales is found to be same, what is the temperature?
A. -40°
B. +40°
C. +72°
D. -72°
Q. 109 Turpentine oil in paints is used as a
A. pigment
B. film-forming material
C. thinner
D. drier
Q. 110 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Textile industry) (Place)
A. Woolen textile 1. Sualkuchi
B. Cotton textile 2. Rishra
C. Silk textile 3. Ludhiana
D. Jute textile 4. Devangere
Code:
A. A(3), B(4), C(1), D(2)
B. A(2), B(1), C(4), D(3)
C. A(2), B(4), C(1), D(3)
D. A(3), B(1), C(4), D(2)
Q. 111 Kerosene oil rises in a wick of lantern because of
A. buoyancy of air
B. diffusion of the oil through the wick
C. capillary action in the wick
D. gravitational pull of the wick
Q. 112 If the reaction of 1.0 mol NH₃(g) and 1.0 mol O₂(g)
4NH₃(g)+5O₂(g)→4NO(g)+6H₂O(l)
is carried to completion, then
A. all the O₂(g) is consumed
B. 4.0 mol NO(g) is produced
C. 1.5 mol H₂O(l) is produced
D. All the NH₃(g) is consumed
Q. 113 Which of the following sequences is correct for rainfall?
A. Slow ascent of air-slow condensation-heavy downpour
B. Rapid ascent of air-large raindrops-heavy downpour
C. Pressure decreased-air compressed-heavy downpour
D. Descent of air-air warmed-heavy downpour
Q. 114 The working of a microwave oven involves
A. absorption of microwaves by matter
B. reception of microwaves by optical fibre
C. microwave amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
D. transmission of microwaves through a metal
Q. 115 What would be the total population at the end of the year if the population at the beginning of the year is 5000 and population changed during the year is-birth 250, death 60, immigration 30 and emigration 15?
A. 5205
B. 5235
C. 5310
D. 5180
Q. 116 Two cars A and B have masses mA and mB respectively, with mA>mB. Both the cars are moving in the same direction with equal kinetic energy. If equal braking force is applied on both, then before coming to rest
A. A will cover a greater distance
B. B will cover a greater distance
C. Both will cover the same distance
D. Distance covered by them will depend on their respective velocities
Q. 117 If the length of the Equator is about 40000 km and the velocity of rotation is about 1700 km per hour, what would be the velocity of rotation at the Pole?
A. Zero
B. 850 km/hr
C. 1700 km/hr
D. 3400 km/hr
Q. 118 A bullet is fired vertically up from a 400m tall tower with a speed 80m/s. If g is taken as 10m/s², the time taken by the bullet to reach the ground will be
A. 8s
B. 16s
C. 20s
D. 24s
Q. 119 A cyclotron accelerates particles of mass m and chage q. The energy of particles emerging is proportional to
A. q²/m
B. q/m²
C. q²/m²
D. q
Q. 120 The electric field inside a perfectly conducting hollow object is
A. 4π
B. infinite
C. zero
D. dependent upon the shape of the object
Q. 121 The densities of three liquids are D, 2D and 3D. What will be the density of the resulting mixture if equal volumes of the three liquids are mixed?
A. 6D
B. 1.4D
C. 2D
D. 3D
Q. 122 A particle is moving with uniform acceleration along a straight line ABC, where AB=BC. The average velocity of the particle from A to B is 10m/s and from B to C is 15m/s. The average velocity for the whole journey from A to C in m/s is
A. 12
B. 12.5
C. 13
D. 13.5
Q. 123 The dimension of ‘impulse’ is the same as that of
A. pressure
B. angular momentum
C. work
D. linear momentum
Q. 124 Consider the following statements:
1. China won both Thomas Cup and Uber Cup Badminton Tournaments 2014.
2. The Uber Cup is the World Team Championship for women and the Thomas Cup is for men.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 125 Consider the following statements about Drishti system:
1. It is a sophisticated instrument to assess the runway visual range.
2. This system is developed by Airports Authority of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 126 Which of the following about Malavath Poorna is correct?
A. First Indian swimmer to cross Suez Canal
B. Youngest woman to scale Everest
C. First Indian to win FIDE World Junior Championship
D. Winner of Young Scientist Award, 2014
Q. 127 Which one among the following countries was the top contributor to India’s FDI for the year 2013-14?
A. Mauritius
B. Singapore
C. USA
D. Japan
Q. 128 Which of the following statements about SIMBEX 14 is/are correct?
1. It was a bilateral naval exercise between Indian Navy and Sri Lankan Navy.
2. It was the 21st in the series.
3. It was conducted in the Andaman Sea.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Q. 129 Consider the following statements:
1. Mobile Seva, the National Mobile Governance Initiative of Department of Electronics and Information Technology of India, has won the United Nations Public Service Award, 2014.
2. The innovative initiative is aimed at mainstreaming mobile governance in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 130 Consider the following statements about Prithvi-II Missile:
1. It is a nuclear-capable ballistic missile.
2. It has a maximum range of 100km.
3. It is India’s first native made the ballistic missile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Q. 131 Consider the following statements about Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS):
1. IRNSS is a constellation of five satellites, which were launched by PSLV.
2. It is an independent regional navigation satellite system designed to provide position information in the Indian region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 132 The National Defence Academy has foreign cadets from which of the following countries?
1. Bhutan
2. Bangladesh
3. Nepal
4. Afghanistan
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Q. 133 From which one among the following countries has India recently (May 2014) recalled its troops, who went for a joint combat exercise in the country?
A. Malaysia
B. Thailand
C. Egypt
D. Singapore
Q. 134 Who among the following was associated with the formulation of the basic ideas of the Mahayana Buddhism?
A. Nagarjuna
B. Kashyapa Matanga
C. Menander
D. Kanishka
Q. 135 Consider the following statements about Harappan Culture:
1. The Harappan Culture matured in Sindh and Punjab.
2. It spread from there to Southwards and Eastwards.
3. The area, where it spread, was bigger than Egypt and Mesopotamia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q. 136 Megasthenes was a
A. Greek ambassador to the court of Chandragupta Maurya
B. Greek trader during Ashoka’s time
C. Greek trader in the Gupta period
D. Chinese pilgrim during Harsha’s time
Q. 137 By the late 19th century, India was one of the largest producers and exporters of
A. cotton yard and wheat
B. sugar and rice
C. sugar and alcohol
D. iron and steel
Q. 138 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of appearance of the poet-saints of the Bhakti-Sufi tradition?
A. Basavanna-Appar-Mira Bai-Lal Ded
B. Appar-Mira Bai-Lal Ded-Basavanna
C. Appar-Basavanna-Lal Ded-Mira Bai
D. Basavanna-Mira Bai-Lal Ded-Appar
Q. 139 Who among the following did not bring trading ships to the port of Surat in pre-British times?
A. Portuguese and English
B. Russian and German
C. English and Arab
D. French and Arab
Q. 140 The Factory Act of 1891 in India was enacted to
A. improve the condition of labor in India
B. ensure greater governmental control over industry in India
C. provide a level playing field for English manufacturers
D. enable greater political control over Indian industry
Q. 141 Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha is elected every year
B. The Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha is elected for a term of 5 years
C. The Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha is elected for a term of 6 years
D. The Vice President of India is the Ex Officio Presiding Officer of the Rajya Sabha
Q. 142 Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution of India?
A. B.R.Ambedkar
B. K.M.Munshi
C. Krishnaswamy Iyer
D. M.K.Gandhi
Q. 143 Who among the following was not a member of the ‘Big Four’ in the Congress of Vienna (1815)?
A. Great Britain
B. Russia
C. Austria
D. France
Q. 144 The Stamp Act Congress consisting of delegates from nine of the thirteen colonies met in 1765 at
A. Philadelphia
B. New York City
C. Boston
D. Providence
Q. 145 Which of the following American colonies did not attend the first Continental Congress held in Philadelphia?
A. Rhode Island
B. Connecticut
C. Georgia
D. Maryland
Q. 146 The Bolshevik Revolution started in Russia during the reign of
A. Czar Alexander I
B. Czar Alexander II
C. Czar Alexander III
D. Czar Nicholas II
Q. 147 Which of the following is/are not related to fundamental duties?
1. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
2. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
3. To promote the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, especially the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
4. To protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 4 only
Q. 148 Joint sittings of the two Houses of Indian Parliament are held to
A. elect the President of India
B. elect the Vice President of India
C. adopt a Constitution Amendment Bill
D. consider and pass a Bill on which the two Houses disagree
Q. 149 The President of India can issue proclamation of Emergency
A. on the advice of the Prime Minister
B. on the advice of the Council of Ministers
C. in his own discretion
D. when the decision of the Union Cabinet for the issue of such proclamation has been communicated to him in writing
Q. 150 Which of the following statements is/are correct about the working of the Permanent Settlement in Bengal?
1. The traditional Zamindars lost their lands.
2. The reason for the Zamindars’ inability to pay up land revenues was that the Ryots
defaulted on payment of revenue.
3. A new group of farmers-the Jotedars-became influential.
4. The Collector replaced the Zamindars as the alternative focus of authority.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Q. 1 Every quadratic equation ax²+bx+ c=0 where a,b,c ∈ ℝ and a ≠ 0
A. exactly one real root
B. at least one real root
C. at least two real roots
D. at most two real roots
Q. 2 the relation S is defined for a set of integers Z as xSy if integer x divides integer y. Then
A. S is an equivalence relation
B. S is only reflexive and symmetric
C. S is only reflexive and transitive
D. S is only symmetric and transitive
Q. 3 If a not equal to b not equal to c are all positive, then the value of determinant is
A. non -negative
B. non-positive
C. negative
D. positive
Q. 4 let A and B be two matrices such that AB=A and BA=B. Which of the following statements are correct
1) A²=A
2) B²=B
3) (AB)²= AB
Select the answer using the code given below .
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2and 3
Q. 5 What is (1001)₂ equal to ?
A. (5)₁₀
B. (9)₁₀
C. (17)₁₀
D. (11)₁₀
Q. 6 What is{(√3 + i) / (√3 – i)}⁶ equal to if i= √-1
A. 1
B. 1/6
C. 6
D. 2
Q. 7 Let z be a complex number such that ∣z∣ =4 and arg z=5π/6.What is Z equal to ?
A. 2√3+2i
B. 2√3-2i
C. -2√3+2i
D. -√3+i
Q. 8 If given value in the figure, where i =√-1 then what is x equal to?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 0
Q. 9 If α and β are the roots of ax²+bx+c=0 and α+h and β+h are the roots of px²+qx+r=0 , then what is the value of h?
A. (b/a – q/p)/2
B. (-b/a + q/p)/2
C. (b/p + q/a)/2
D. (-b/p + q/a)/2
Q. 10 If the matrix A is shown in figure. What is A equal to ?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 11 Consider the following statements
1) The determinant is the square matrix
2) The determinant is the number associated with a square matrix
Which of the above statements is correct
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. both 1 and 2
D. neither 1 nor 2
Q. 12 If A is an invertible matrix .then what is det (A⁻¹) eqaul to ?
A. det A
B. 1/det A
C. 1
D. none of the above
Q. 13 From the matrix equation AB=BC, where A,B,C are are the square matrices of same order, we can conclude B=C Provided .
A. A is nonsingular
B. A is singular
C. A is symmetric
D. A is skew symmetric
Q. 14 If the given value is symmetric ,then what is X eqaul to ?
A. 2
B. 3
C. -1
D. 5
Q. 15 If the given value is , then which one of the following statements is correct ?
A. a/b is one of he cube roots of unity
B. a/b is one of he cube roots of -1
C. a is one of he cube roots of unity
D. b is one of he cube roots of unity
Q. 16 If function f:N –> N , N being the set of natural numbers defined by f(x)=2x+3 is :
A. Injective and surjective
B. Injective but not surjective
C. not Injective but surjective
D. neither Injective nor surjective
Q. 17 What is the value of the given equation , where n is the natural number and i =√-1 ?
A. 2
B. 2i
C. -2i
D. i
Q. 18 What is the number of ways in which one can post 5 letters in 7 letter boxes?
A. 7⁵
B. 3⁵
C. 5⁷
D. 2520
Q. 19 What is the number of ways that a cricket team of 11 players can be made out of 15 players?
A. 364
B. 1001
C. 1365
D. 32760
Q. 20 A and B are two sets having 3 elements in common. If n(A) = 5, n(B) = 4, then what is n( A x B) equal to ?
A. 0
B. 9
C. 15
D. 20
Q. 21 If f(x)=ax+b and g(x)= cx+d such that f(g(x)) and g(f(x)), then which of the following is correct ?
A. f(c)=g(a)
B. f(a)=g(c)
C. f(c)=g(d)
D. f(d)=g(b)
Q. 22 If A and B are square matrices of second order such that ∣A∣ = – 1 and ∣B∣ = 3, then what is ∣3AB∣ equal to?
A. 3
B. -9
C. -27
D. none of the above
Questions: 23 – 25
Consider the function
Q. 23 What is f(x) + 1/f(x) -1 = x equal to ?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2x
D. 4x
Q. 24 What is f(2x) equal to ?
A. f(x) + 1/f(x) + 3
B. f(x) + 1/3 f(x) + 1
C. 3 f(x) + 1/ f(x) + 3
D. f(x) + 3/3 f(x) +1
Q. 25 What is f(f(x)) equal to ?
A. x
B. -x
C. -1/x
D. None of the above
Questions: 26 – 30
For the next 5 questions that follow
Consider the expansion (x²+1/x)¹⁵
Q. 26 what is the independent term in the given equation ?
A. 2103
B. 3003
C. 4503
D. none of the above
Q. 27 What is the coefficient of x¹⁵ to the term independent of x in the given expansion ?
A. 1
B. 1/2
C. 2/3
D. 3/4
Q. 28 Consider the following statements :
1 .There are 15 terms in the given expansion
2. the coefficinet x¹²of is equal to that of x³
Which of the above statements is correct
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. both 1 and 2
D. neither 1 nor 2
Q. 29 Consider the following statements :
1. The term containing x² does not exist in the given expansion
2.The sum of the coefficients of all the given terms in the given expansion 2¹⁵
which of the above sentences is correct ?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. both 1 and 2
D. neither 1 nor 2
Q. 30 What is the sum of coeffcieents of the middle terms in the given expansion ?
A. C ( 15 , 9 )
B. C ( 16 , 9 )
C. C ( 16 , 8 )
D. None of the above
Q. 31 What is √1+sin2θ equal to ?
A. Cos θ – Sin θ
B. Cos θ + Sin θ
C. 2 Cos θ + Sin θ
D. Cos θ + 2 Sin θ
Q. 32 A lamp post stands on a horizontal plane .From a point situated at a distance 150 m from its foot , the angle of elevation at the top is 30 deg .what is the height of the lamp post ?
A. 50 m
B. 50√3 m
C. 50/√3 m
D. 100 m
Q. 33 IF cot A =2 and cot B= 3, then what is the value of A+B?
A. π/6
B. π
C. π/2
D. π/4
Q. 34 what is the value of Sin² 133/2° – Sin² 47/2° ?
A. Sin 47°
B. Co[s 47°
C. 2 Sin 47°
D. 2 Cos 47°
Q. 35 What is the value of Sin⁻¹ 3/5 + sin⁻¹ 4/5 ?
A. π/2
B. π/3
C. π/4
D. π/6
Q. 36 What is the value of (cos 7x – cos3x) / (sin 7x – 2 sin5x + sin 3x)?
A. tan x
B. cot x
C. tan 2x
D. cot 2x
Q. 37 In a triangle ABC, c= 2, A = 45° , a = 2√2 , then what is c equal to ?
A. 30°
B. 15°
C. 45°
D. None of the above
Q. 38 In a triangle sinA – cos B = cos C then what is B equal to?
A. π
B. π/3
C. π/2
D. π/4
Q. 39 what is the value of tanx/tany if given ?
A. b/a
B. a/b
C. ab
D. 1
Q. 40 If sin A sin(60 – A) sin (60 + A) = K sin 3A, then what is k equal to ?
A. 1/4
B. 1/2
C. 1
D. 4
Q. 41 The line y =√3 meets the graph y =tan x where x ε(0,π/2), in k points , what is k equal to ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. infinity
Q. 42 Which one of the following is one of the solutions of the equations tan 2θ.tanθ=1?
A. π/12
B. π/6
C. π/4
D. π/3
Q. 43 Given that 16sin⁵x = p sin5x+qsin3x+rsinx
What is the value of p?
A. 1
B. 2
C. -1
D. -2
Q. 44 Given that 16sin⁵x = p sin5x+qsin3x+rsinx
What is the value of q?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 10
D. -5
Q. 45 Given that 16sin⁵x = p sin5x+qsin3x+rsinx
What is the value of r?
A. 5
B. 8
C. 10
D. -10
Questions: 46 – 48
Let Sn denote the sum of first n terms of an AP and 3Sn=S₂n
Q. 46 What is S₃n:Sn is equal to ?
A. 4:1
B. 6:1
C. 8:1
D. 10:1
Q. 47 What is S₃n:S₂n is equal to ?
A. 2:1
B. 3:1
C. 4:1
D. 5:1
Q. 48 What is the length of the lactus rectum of the eclipse 25x²+16y²=400
A. 25/2
B. 25/4
C. 16/5
D. 32/5
Questions: 49 – 50
Consider the circlels x²+y²+2ax +c =0 and x²+y²+2by +c=0
Q. 49 What is the differnece between the centre of the 2 circles ?
A. √(a²+b²)
B. a²+b²
C. a+b
D. 2(a+b)
Q. 50 Two circles touch each other
A. c= √(a²+b²)
B. 1/c = 1/a² + 1/b²
C. c = 1/a² + 1/b²
D. c = 1/a²+b²
Q. 51 A(3,4) and B(5,-2) are 2 points and P is a point such that PA=PB.If the area of triangle PABis 10 square unit.What are the co -ordinates of P?
A. (1,0 )only
B. (7,2 ) only
C. (1,0 ) and (7,2 )
D. neither (1,0) nor (7,2)
Q. 52 What is the product of the perpendiculars drawn from the points (±√(a² – b²), 0) upon the line bx cos α + ay sin α = ab?
A. a²
B. b²
C. a² + b²
D. a + b
Q. 53 Which of the following sentences is right in respect of the equations (x-1)/2 = (y-2)/3 and 2x+3y=5?
A. They reresent 2 lines which are parallel
B. They reresent 2 lines which are Perpendicular
C. They reresent 2 lines which are neither parallel nor perpendicular
D. The first equation does not represnt line
Questions: 54 – 56
For the following next 3 questions Consider a sphere passing through the origin and the points (2,1,-1) (1,5,-4) and (-2,4 ,-6)
Q. 54 What is the radius of the sphere ?
A. √12
B. √14
C. 12
D. 14
Q. 55 What is the centre of the sphere ?
A. (-1,2,-3)
B. (1,-2,3)
C. (1,2,-3)
D. (-1,-2,-3)
Q. 56 Consider the following statements
1 ) The sphere passes through the point (0,4,0)
2)The point (1,1,1) is at a distance of 1 unit from the centre of the plane .
Which one of the above statements is correct ?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Questions: 57 – 58
The line joining the points (2,1,3) and (4,-2,5) cuts the plane at 2x + y – z = 3
Q. 57 Where does the line cut the plane ?
A. (0,-4,-1)
B. (0,-4,1)
C. (1,4,0)
D. (0,4,1)
Q. 58 What is the ratio in which plane divides the line ?
A. 1:1
B. 2:3
C. 3:4
D. none of the above
Questions: 59 – 60
Compare the plane passing through the points
A(2,2,1), B(3,4,2) and C(7,0,6)
Q. 59 Which of the following points lies in the plane ?
A. (1,0,0)
B. (1,0,1)
C. (0,0,1)
D. None of the above
Q. 60 What are the direction ratios of the normal to the plane?
A. < 1, 0, 1 >
B. < 0, 1, 0 >
C. < 1, 0, -1 >
D. None of the above
Questions: 61 – 63
consider the function f(x) = { x²-5, x ≤3 √(x+13), x>3
Q. 61 what is the value of the limit (x-> 3) f(x) ?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 13
Q. 62 Consider the following statements :
1. The function is continuous for x = 3
2. The function is not differentiable at x=0
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. both 1 and 2
D. neither 1 nor 2
Q. 63 What is the differential coefficient of f(x) at x = 12?
A. 5/2
B. 5
C. 1/5
D. 1/10
Questions: 64 – 66
For the next three items that follow.
The line 2y = 3x + 12 cuts the parabola by 4y = 3x²
Q. 64 where does the line cut the parabola?
A. At (-2,3) only
B. At (4,12) only
C. At both (-2,3) and (4,12)
D. neither (-2,3) nor (4,12)
Q. 65 What is the area enclosed by the parabola and the line?
A. 27 square unit
B. 36 square unit
C. 48 square unit
D. 54 square unit
Q. 66 What is the area enclosed by the parabola, the line and the y-axis in the first quardrant ?
A. 7 square unit
B. 14 square unit
C. 20 square unit
D. 21 square unit
Q. 67 Consider the function is given in the figure. What is the non-zero value of k for which the function is continuous at x = 0?
A. 1/4
B. 1/2
C. 1
D. 2
Q. 68 consider the following statements:
1. The function f(x) = [x], where [.] is the greatest integer function defined as R is continuous at all points except at x =0.
2. The function f(x) = sin IxI is continuous at all x ∈ R
which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. both 1 and 2
D. neither 1 nor 2
Questions: 69 – 70
for the next two items that follow:
consider the curve x = a (cos θ + θ sin θ) and y = a(sin θ – θ cos θ).
Q. 69 what is dy/dx equal to?
A. tan θ
B. cot θ
C. sin 2θ
D. cos 2θ
Q. 70 What is d²y/dx² equal to?
A. sec² θ
B. -cosec² θ
C. sec³ θ/aθ
D. none of the above
Q. 71 What is the area of the parabola y² = 4bx bounded by its latus rectum?
A. 2b²/3 square unit
B. 4b²/3 square unit
C. b² square unit
D. 8b²/3 square unit
Q. 72 If y= n ln n + neⁿ, then what is the value of dy/dn at n = 1?
A. 1+e
B. 1-e
C. 1+2e
D. none of the above
Q. 73 What is the value of the limit (x->0) log₅(1+x)/x equal to ?
A. 1
B. logₑ5
C. log₅e
D. 5
Q. 74 What is it equal to ?
A. logₑ5
B. log₅e
C. 5
D. 1
Q. 75 what is the value of ?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 1
D. 0
Q. 76 Consider K = ⁱ ₀∫ xdx/(1 + sinx)
i = π
What is K equal to ?
A. -π
B. 0
C. π
D. 2π
Q. 77 Consider K = ⁱ ₀∫ xdx/(1 + sinx)
i = π
The value of the ⁱ ₀∫ (π-x)dx/(1 + sinx) is?
A. π
B. π/2
C. 0
D. 2π
Q. 78 Consider K = ⁱ ₀∫ xdx/(1 + sinx)
i = π
what is the value of the ⁱ ₀∫ dx/(1 + sinx)?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. -2
Questions: 79 – 80
If ∫x tan⁻¹ x dx = A(x²+1)tan⁻¹ x+Bx+C, where C is the constant of integration.
Q. 79 What is the value of A?
A. 1
B. 1/2
C. -1/2
D. 1/4
Q. 80 what is the value of B?
A. 1
B. 1/2
C. -1/2
D. 1/4
Q. 81 Consider the integral K = ₀²ⁱ ∫ ln(sinx) dx
i = π
what is the value of the integral ₀ⁱ∫ ln(sinx) dx ?
A. 4K
B. 2K
C. K
D. K/2
Q. 82 Consider the integral K = ₀²ⁱ ∫ ln(sinx) dx
i = π
what is the value of integral ₀ⁱ∫ ln(Cos x) dx?
A. K/2
B. K
C. 2K
D. 4K
Questions: 83 – 84
A rectangular box is to be made from a sheet of 24-inch length and 9-inch width cutting out identical squares of side length x from the four corners and turning up the sides.
Q. 83 what is the value of x for which the volume id maximum?
A. 1 inch
B. 1.5 inch
C. 2 inch
D. 2.5 inch
Q. 84 what is the maximum volume of the box?
A. 200 cubic inch
B. 400 cubic inch
C. 100 cubic inch
D. none of the above
Q. 85 What is the degree of the differential equation (d³y/dx³)^(3/2) = (d²y/dx²)² ?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 86 what is the solution of the equation ln (dy/dn) + n = 0?
A. y + eⁿ = c
B. y – e⁻ⁿ = c
C. y + e⁻ⁿ = c
D. y – eⁿ = c
Q. 87 Eliminating the arbitrary constants B and C in the expression y = 2/3C(Cx-1)^3/2 + B , we get
A. x[1+(dy/dx)²] = d²y/dx²
B. 2x(dy/dx)d²y/dx² = 1+ (dy/dx)²
C. (dy/dx)d²y/dx² = 1
D. (dy/dx)² + 1 = d²y/dx²
Questions: 88 – 90
Let f(x) = ax²+bx+c such that f(1) = f(-1) and a,b,c are in arithmetic progression?
Q. 88 what is the value of b?
A. -1
B. 0
C. 1
D. cannot be determined due to insufficient data
Q. 89 f'(a),f'(b),f'(c) are in
A. A.P
B. G.P
C. H.P
D. arithmetico-geometric progression
Q. 90 f”(a),f”(b),f”(c) are
A. in A.P only
B. in G.P only
C. in both A.P and G.P
D. neither in A.P nor in G.P
Q. 91 if |a̅| = 2, |b̅| = 5 and |a̅ x b̅| = 8, then what is a̅ . b̅ equal to ?
a̅ = a is vector
b̅ = b is vector
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
Q. 92 If | a̅ + b̅ | = | a̅ – b̅ |, then which one of the following is correct ?
a̅ = a is vector
b̅ = b is vector
A. | a̅ | = | b̅ |
B. a̅ is parallel to b̅
C. a̅ is perpendicular to b̅
D. a̅ is a unit vector
Q. 93 what is the area of the triangle OAB where O̅A̅ = 3î – ĵ + k̂ and O̅B̅ = 2î + ĵ – 3k̂ ?
O̅A̅ is a vector
O̅B̅ is a vector
A. 5√6
B. 5√6/2
C. √6
D. √30
Q. 94 Which of the following is the unit vector perpendicular to both a̅ = î + ĵ + k̂ and b̅ = î – ĵ + k̂
A. (î + ĵ) / √2
B. k̂
C. (î + ĵ)/ √2
D. (î – ĵ)/ √2
Q. 95 what is the interior acute angle of the parallelogram whose sides are represented by the vectors 1/√2 1̂ + 1/√2 ĵ + k̂ ?
A. 60°
B. 45°
C. 30°
D. 15°
Q. 96 For what value of λ are the vectors λ î + (1 + λ) ĵ + (1 + 2λ) k̂ and (1 – λ) 1̂ + λ ĵ + 2 k̂ perpendicular ?
A. -1//3
B. 1/3
C. 2/3
D. 1
Questions: 97 – 100
a̅ + b̅ + c̅ = 0̅ such that |a̅| = 3, |b̅| = 5 and |c̅| = 7
a̅ is a vector
b̅ is a vector
c̅ is a vector
Q. 97 What is the angle between a̅ and b̅ ?
A. π/6
B. π/4
C. π/3
D. π/2
Q. 98 what is a̅ . b̅ + b̅ . c̅ + c̅ . a̅ equal to ?
A. -83
B. -83/2
C. 75
D. -75/2
Q. 99 What is the cosine of angle between b̅ and c̅ ?
A. 11/12
B. 13/14
C. -11/12
D. -13/14
Q. 100 What is | a̅ + b̅ | equal to ?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 10
D. 11
Q. 101 what is the value of the integral?
A. 2ab
B. 2πab
C. π/2ab
D. π/ab
Q. 102 A cylindrical is inscribed in a sphere of radius r.
what is the height of the cylinder of maximum volume?
A. 2r/√3
B. r/√3
C. 2r
D. √3 r
Q. 103 A cylindrical is inscribed in a sphere of radius r.
what is the radius of the cylinder of maximum volume?
A. 2r/√3
B. √2r/√3
C. r
D. √3 r
Questions: 104 – 105
for the next two items that follow
consider the function f”(x) = sec⁴ x + 4 with f(0) = 0 and f'(0) = 0
Q. 104 what is f'(x) equal to?
A. tan x-(tan³ x/4)+4x
B. tan x +(tan³ x/4) +4x
C. tan x +(sec³ x/3)+4x
D. -tan x-(tan³ x/3)+4x
Q. 105 what is f(x) equal to?
A. (2 ln sec x/3) +(tan² x/6)+2x²
B. (3 ln sec x/2)+(cot² x/6)+2x²
C. (4 ln sec x/3)+(sec² x/6)+2x²
D. ln sec x+(tan⁴ x/12)+2x²
Q. 106 suppose A and B are two events. Events B has occurred and it is known that P(B)<1.What is P(A I Bⁱ ) equal to?
i = compliment
A. [P(A)-P(B)]/(1-P(B))
B. [P(A)-P(B)]/(1-P(B))
C. [P(A)+P(B)]/(1-P(Bⁱ ))
D. none of the above
Questions: 107 – 110
consider events A,B,C,D,E of the sample space S = {n : n is an integer such that 10≤ n ≤20}given by :
A is the set of all even number.
B is the set of all prime numbers C={15}
D is the set of all integers ≤ 16
E is the set of all double digit numbers expressible as a power of 2.
Q. 107 A,B and D are
A. mutually exclusive events but not exhaustive events.
B. exhaustive events but not mutually exclusive events
C. mutually exclusive and exhaustive events
D. elementary events
Q. 108 A,B and C are
A. mutually exclusive events but not exhaustive events
B. exhaustive events but not mutually exclusive events
C. mutually exclusive and exhaustive events
D. elementary events
Q. 109 B and C are
A. mutually exclusive events but not exhaustive events
B. compound events
C. mutually exclusive and exhaustive events
D. elementary events
Q. 110 C and E are
A. mutually exclusive events but not elementary events
B. exhaustive events but not mutually exclusive events
C. mutually exclusive and exhaustive evnts
D. elementary and mutually exclusive events
Q. 111 consider the following statements in respect of histogram:
1. The histogram is a suitable representation of a frequency distribution of a continuous variable.
2. The area included under the whole histogram is the total frequency.
which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. both 1 and 2
D. neither 1 nor 2
Q. 112 The regression lines will be perpendicular to each other if the coefficient of correlation r is equal to
A. 1 only
B. 1 or -1
C. -1 only
D. 0
Q. 113 For any two events A and B, which one of the following holds?
A. P(A⋂B) ≤ P(A) ≤ P(A⋃B) ≤ P(A)+P(B)
B. P(A⋃B) ≤ P(A) ≤ P(A⋂B) ≤ P(A)+P(B)
C. P(A⋃B) ≤ P(B) ≤ P(A⋂B) ≤ P(A)+P(B)
D. P(A⋂B) ≤ P(B) ≤ P(A) ≤ P(B) ≤ P(A⋃B)
Q. 114 The probability that in a random arrangement of the letters of the word ‘UNIVERSITY’, the two I’s do not come together is
A. 4/5
B. 1/5
C. 1/10
D. 9/10
Q. 115 There are 4 white and 3 black balls in a box. In another box, there are three white and four black balls. An unbiased dices is rolled. If it shows a number less than or equal to 3, then a ball is drawn from the second box, otherwise from the first box. If the ball drawn is black, then the probability that the ball was drawn from the first box is
A. 1/2
B. 6/7
C. 4/7
D. 3/7
Q. 116 If x̅ and y̅ are the means of two distributions such that x̅ < y̅ and z̅ is the mean of the combines distribution, then which one of the following statements is correct?
A. x̅ < y̅ < z̅
B. x̅ > y̅ > z̅
C. z̅ = (x̅ + y̅)/2
D. x̅ < z̅ < y̅
Q. 117 What is the mean deviation about the mean for the data 4,7,8,9,10,12,13,17?
A. 2.5
B. 3
C. 3.5
D. 4
Q. 118 The variance of 20 observations is 5. If each observation is multiplied by 2, then what is the new variance of the resulting observations?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 40
Q. 119 Two students X and Y appeared in an examination. The probability that X will qualify the examination is 0.05 and Y will be qualify the examination is 0.10. The probability that both will qualify the examination is 0.02. What is the probability that only one of them will qualify the examination?
A. 0.15
B. 0.14
C. 0.12
D. 0.11
Q. 120 A fair coin is tossed four times. What is the probability that at most three tails occur?
Q. 1 Let x be the set of all citizens of India . Elements x, y in X are said to be related if the difference of their age is 5 years. Which one of the following is correct?
A. The relation is an equivalence relation on x
B. The relation is symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive
C. The relation is reflexive but neither symmetric nor transitive
D. None of above
Q. 2 Consider the following relation from A to B where A = {u, v, w, x, y, z} and B = {p, q, r, s}
1. {(u,p), (v,p) (w,p) (x,q), (y,q), (z,q)}
2. {(u,p), (v,q), (w,r), (z,s)}
3. {(u,s), (v,r), (w,q), (u,p), (v,q), (z,q)}
4. {(u,q), (v,p), (w,s), (x,r), (y,q), (z,s)}
Which of the above relation are not function?
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4
Q. 3 If α and β are the roots of the equation ax² + bx + c = 0, where a ≠ 0, then (aα + b)(aβ + b) is equal to :
A. ab
B. bc
C. ca
D. abc
Q. 4 Let S denote set of all integers. Define a relation R on S as ‘aRb if ab ≥ where a, b ∈ S’. Then R is:
A. Reflexive but neither symmetric nor transitive relation
B. Reflexive, symmetric but not transitive relation
C. An equivalence relation
D. Symmetric but reflexive nor transitive relation
Q. 5 The roots of the equation 2a²x² – 2abx + b² = 0 when a < 0 and b > 0 are:
A. Sometimes complex
B. Always irrational
C. Always complex
D. Always real
Q. 6 What is the sum of the two numbers (11110)₂ and (1010)₂?
A. (101000)₂
B. (110000)₂
C. (100100)₂
D. (101100)₂
Q. 7 Let N denote the set of all non-negative integers and Z denote the set of all integers. The function f : Z → N given by f(x) = |x| is:
A. One – one but not onto
B. Onto but not one – one
C. Both one – one and onto
D. Neither one – one nor onto
Q. 8 If P and Q are two complex numbers, then the modulus of the quotient of P and Q is:
A. Greater than the quotient of their moduli
B. Less than the quotient of their moduli
C. Less than or equal to the quotient of their moduli
D. Equal to the quotient of their moduli
Q. 9 Let z = x + iy where x, y are real variables and i = √- 1. If |2z – 1| = |z – 2|, then the point z describes:
A. A circle
B. An ellipse
C. A hyperbola
D. A parabola
Q. 10 The sum of an infinite GP is x and the common ratio r is such that |r| < 1. If the first term of the GP is 2, then which one of the following is correct?
A. -1 < x < 1
B. -∞ < x < 1
C. 1 < x < ∞
D. None of the above
Q. 11 A box contains 3 white and 2 black balls. Two balls are drawn at random one after the other. If the balls are not replaced, what is the probability that both the balls are black?
A. 2/5
B. 1/5
C. 1/10
D. None of the above
Q. 12 For two variables x and y, the two regression coefficients are bᵧₓ = -3/2 and bₓᵧ = -1/6. The correlation coefficient between x and y is:
A. -1/4
B. 1/4
C. -1/2
D. 1/2
Q. 13 The variance of numbers x₁, x₂, x₃……..xᵤ is V. Consider the following statements :
1. If every x₁ is increased by 2, the variance of the new set of numbers is V.
2. If the number x₁ is squared, the variance of the new set is V².
Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 and 2
Q. 14 What is the mean of the squares of the first 20 natural numbers?
A. 151.5
B. 143.5
C. 65
D. 72
Q. 15 p, q , r, s, t are five numbers such that the average of p, q and r is 5 and that of s and t is 10. What is the average of all five numbers?
A. 7.75
B. 7.5
C. 7
D. 5
Q. 16 The cumulative frequency of the largest observed value must always be:
A. Less than the total number of observations
B. Greater than the total number of observation
C. Equal to total number of observations
D. Equal to mid point of the last class interval
Q. 17 It has been found that if A and B play a game 12 times, A wins 6 times, B wins 4 times and they draw twice. A and B take part in a series of 3 games. The probability that they win alternatively, is:
A. 5/12
B. 5/36
C. 19/27
D. 5/27
Q. 18 Out of the 7 consonants and 4 vowels, words are to be formed by involving 3 consonants and 2 vowels. The number of such words formed is:
A. 25200
B. 22500
C. 10080
D. 5040
Q. 19 Let X denote the number of scores which exceed 4 in 18 tosses of a symmetrical die. Consider the following statements:
1. The arithmetic mean of X is 6.
2. The standard deviation of X is 2.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 20 How many different words can be formed by taking four letters out of the letters of the word ‘AGAIN’ if each word has to be start with A?
A. 6
B. 12
C. 24
D. None of the above
Q. 21 The sum of the series formed by the sequence 3, √3, ….. upto infinity is:
A. 3√3(√3 + 1)/2
B. 3√3(√3 – 1)/2
C. 3(√3 + 1)/2
D. 3(√3 – 1)/2
Q. 22 If |z + z̅| = |z – z̅|, then the locus of z is:
A. A part of straight lines
B. A lines
C. A set of four straight lines
D. A circles
Q. 23 The number 251 in decimal system is expressed in binary system by:
A. 11110111
B. 11111011
C. 11111101
D. 11111110
Q. 24 What is the argument of the complex number (1 + i)(2 + i)/(3 – i) where i = √-1?
A. 0
B. π/4
C. -π/4
D. π/2
Q. 25 Consider the following statements in respect of the matrix A given in figure
1. The matrix A is skew-symmetric.
2. The matrix A is symmetric.
3. The matrix A is invertible.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 3
Q. 26 Consider two matrices A and B given in the figure. Which one of the following is correct?
A. B is the right inverse of A
B. B is the left inverse of A
C. B is the both sided inverse of A
D. None of the above
Q. 27 One of the roots of the matrix shown in figure
A. abc
B. a + b + c
C. -(a + b + c)
D. -abc
Q. 28 If A is any matrix , then the product AA is defined only when AA is defined only when A is a matrix of order m x n where:
A. m > n
B. m < n
C. m = n
D. m ≤ n
Q. 29 The determinant of an odd order skew symmetric matrix is always:
A. Zero
B. One
C. Negative
D. Depends on the matrix.
Q. 30 If any two adjacent rows or columns of a determinant are interchanged in position, the value of the determinant:
A. Becomes zero
B. Remains the same
C. Changed its sign
D. Is doubled
Questions: 31 – 33
In a survey of 25 students, it was found that 15 had taken Mathematics, 12 had taken Physics and 11 had taken Chemistry, 5 had taken Mathematics and Chemistry, 9 had taken Mathematics and Physics, 4 had taken Physics and Chemistry and 3 had taken all the three subjects.
Q. 31 The number of students who had taken only Physics is:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6
Q. 32 The number of students who had taken only two subjects is:
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
Q. 33 Consider the following statements:
1. The number of students who had taken only one subject is equal to the number of students who had taken only two subjects.
2. The number of students who had taken at least two subjects is four times the number of students who had taken all the three subjects.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Questions: 34 – 36
In the expansion of (x³ – 1/x²)ⁿ where n is a positive integer, the sum of the coefficients of x⁵ and x¹⁰ is 0.
Q. 34 What is n equal to?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. None of the above
Q. 35 What is the value of the independent term?
A. 5005
B. 7200
C. -5005
D. -7200
Q. 36 What is the sum of the coefficients of the two middle terms?
A. 0
B. 1
C. -1
D. None of the above
Questions: 37 – 39
Given that C(n, r) : C(n, r + 1) = 1 : 2 and C(n, r + 1) : C(n, r + 2) = 2 : 3.
Q. 37 What is n equal to?
A. 11
B. 12
C. 13
D. 14
Q. 38 What is r equal to?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Q. 39 What is P(n, r) : C(n, r) equal to?
A. 6
B. 24
C. 120
D. 720
Q. 40 The complete solution of 3 tan²x = 1 is given by :
n ⋳ Z
A. x = nπ ± π/3
B. x = nπ ± π/3 only
C. x = nπ ± π/6
D. x = nπ ± π/3 only
Q. 41 What is the value of cos 36°?
A. (√5 – 1)/4
B. (√5 + 1)/4
C. √(10 + 2√5)/4
D. √(10 – 2√5)/4
Q. 42 Consider the following statements:
1. Value of sin θ oscillates between -1 and 1.
2. Value of cos θ oscillates between 0 and 1.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 43 If x and y are positive and xy > 1, then what is tan⁻¹ x + tan⁻¹ y equal to?
A. tan⁻¹ (x + y)/(1 – xy)
B. π + tan⁻¹ (x + y)/(1 – xy)
C. π – tan⁻¹ (x + y)/(1 – xy)
D. tan⁻¹ (x – y)/(1 + xy)
Q. 44 Consider the following statements:
1. n(sin² 67(1/2)° – sin²22(1/2)°) > 1 for all positive integers n ≥2.
2. If x is any positive real number, then nx > 1 for all positive integers n ≥ 2.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 45 Consider the following statements:
1. If 3θ is an acute angle such that sin 3θ = cos 2θ, then the measurement of θ in radian equals to π/10.
2. One radian is the angle subtended at the centre of a circle by an arc of the same circle whose length is equal to the diameter of that circle.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 46 From an aeroplane above a straight road the angles of depression of two positions at a distance 20 m apart on the road are observed to be 30° and 45°. The height of the aeroplane above the ground is:
A. 10√3 m
B. 10(√3 – 1) m
C. 10(√3 + 1) m
D. 20 m
Q. 47 Consider the following statements:
1. There exists no triangle ABC for which sin A + sin B = sin C.
2. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3, then its sides will be in the ratio 1 : √3 : 2. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 48 Consider the following statements:
1. sin |x| + cos |x| is always positive.
2. sin(x²) + cos(x²) is always positive.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 49 What is (1 + sin A)/(1 – sin A) – (1 – sin A)/(1 + sin A) equal to?
A. sec A – tan A
B. 2 sec A . tan A
C. 4 sec A . tan A
D. 4 cosec A . cot A
Q. 50 What is (cot 224° – cot 134°)/(cot 226° + cot 316°) equal to?
A. -cosec 88°
B. -cosec 2°
C. -cosec 44°
D. -cosec 46°
Q. 51 Consider the following statements:
1. tan⁻¹ 1 + tan⁻¹ (0.5) = π/2
2. sin⁻¹ (1/3) + cos⁻¹ (1/3) = π/2
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 52 If A + B + C = π, then what is cos(A + B) + cos C equal to?
A. 0
B. 2 cos C
C. cos C – sin C
D. 2 sin C
Q. 53 What is cos 20° + cos 100° + cos 140° equal to?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 1/2
D. 0
Q. 54 What is sin⁻¹ sin 3π/5 equal to?
A. 3π/5
B. 2π/5
C. π/5
D. None of the above
Q. 55 What is sin²(3π) + cos²(4π) + tan²(5π) equal to?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Q. 56 Consider the following points:
1. (0, 5)
2. (2, -1)
3. (3, -4)
Which of the above lie on the line 3x + y = 5 and at a distance √10 from (1, 2)?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Q. 57 What is the equation of the line through (1, 2) so that the segment of the line intercepted between the axes is bisected at this point?
A. 2x – y = 4
B. 2x – y + 4 = 0
C. 2x + y = 4
D. 2x + y + 4 = 0
Q. 58 What is the equation of straight line passing through the point (4, 3) and making equal intercepts on the coordinate axes?
A. x + y = 7
B. 3x + 4y = 7
C. x – y = 1
D. None of the above
Q. 59 What is the equation of the line midway between the lines 3x – 4y + 12 = 0 and 3x – 4y = 6
A. 3x – 4y – 9 = 0
B. 3x – 4y + 9 = 0
C. 3x – 4y – 3 = 0
D. 3x – 4y + 3 = 0
Q. 60 What is the sum of the major and minor axes of the ellipse whose eccentricity is 4/5 and length of latus rectum is 14.4 unit?
A. 32 unit
B. 48 unit
C. 64 unit
D. None of the above
Questions: 61 – 63
A straight line passes through (1, -2, 3) and perpendicular to the plane 2x + 3y – z = 7.
Q. 61 What are the direction ratios of normal to plane?
A. ⟨2, 3, -1⟩
B. ⟨2, 3, 1⟩
C. ⟨-1, 2, 3⟩
D. None of the above
Q. 62 Where does the line meet the plane?
A. (2, 3, -1)
B. (1, 2, 3)
C. (2, 1, 3)
D. (3, 1, 2)
Q. 63 What is the image of the point (1, -2, 3) in the plane?
Q. 64 What is the distance between the centres of the two spheres?
A. 5 units
B. 4 units
C. 3 units
D. 2 units
Q. 65 Consider the following statements:
1. The two spheres intersect each other.
2. The radius of first sphere is less than that of second sphere.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Questions: 66 – 68
The vertices of a triangle ABC are A(2, 3, 1), B(-2, 2, 0) and C(0, 1, -1)
Q. 66 What is the cosine of angle ABC?
A. 1/√3
B. 1/√2
C. 2/√6
D. None of the above
Q. 67 What is the area of the triangle?
A. 6√2 square unit
B. 3√2 square unit
C. 10√3 square unit
D. None of the above
Q. 68 What is the magnitude of the line joining mid points of the sides AC and BC?
A. 1/√2 unit
B. 1 unit
C. 3/√2 unit
D. 2 unit
Q. 69 Consider the vectors a̅ = î – 2ĵ + k̂ and b̅ = 4î – 4ĵ + 7k̂.
What is the scaler projection of a̅ on b̅?
A. 1
B. 19/9
C. 17/9
D. 23/9
Q. 70 Consider the vectors a̅ = î – 2ĵ + k̂ and b̅ = 4î – 4ĵ + 7k̂.
What is the vector perpendicular to both the vectors?
A. -10î – 3ĵ + 4k̂
B. -10î + 3ĵ + 4k̂
C. 10î – 3ĵ + 4k̂
D. None of the above
Q. 71 Let a vector r makes angles 60°, 30° with x and y-axes respectively.
What angle does r vector make with z – axis?
A. 30°
B. 60°
C. 90°
D. 120°
Q. 72 Let a vector r makes angles 60°, 30° with x and y-axes respectively.
What are the direction cosines of r vector ?
A. ⟨1/2, √3/2, 0⟩
B. ⟨1/2, -√3/2, 0⟩
C. ⟨1/√2, 1/√2, 0⟩
D. ⟨-1/2, √3/2, 0⟩
Q. 73 Let |a̅ | = 7, |b̅| = 11, |a̅ + b̅| = 10√3, where ̅ denotes to vector
What is |a̅ – b̅| equal to?
A. 2√2
B. 2√10
C. 5
D. 10
Q. 74 Let |a̅ | = 7, |b̅| = 11, |a̅ + b̅| = 10√3, where ̅ denotes to vector
What is the angle between (a̅ + b̅) and (a̅ – b̅) ?
A. π/2
B. π/3
C. π/6
D. None of the above
Q. 75 A line passes through the points (6, -7, -1) and (2, -3, 1). What are the direction ratios of the line?
A. ⟨4, -4, 2⟩
B. ⟨4, 4, 2⟩
C. ⟨-4, 4, 2⟩
D. ⟨2, 1, 1⟩
Q. 76 What is lim(x → 0) {(1 +x)ⁿ – 1}/x equal to?
A. 0
B. 1
C. n
D. n – 1
Q. 77 What is lim(x → 0) x/√(1 – cos x) equal to?
A. √2
B. -√2
C. -1/√2
D. Limit does not exist
Q. 78 What is the derivative of √(1 + cos x)/(1 – cos x)?
A. 1/2 sec² x/2
B. -1/2 cosec² x/2
C. -cosec² x/2
D. None of the above
Q. 79 What is the value of the equation given in figure ?
A. eπ/⁴ – 1
B. eπ/⁴ + 1
C. e – 1
D. e
Q. 80 What is the slope of the tangent to the curve y = sin⁻¹(sin²ˣ) at x = 0?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. None of the above
Q. 81 The solution of dy/dx = |x| is, where c is an arbitrary constant.
A. y = x|x|/2 + c
B. y = |x|/2 + c
C. y = x²/2 + c
D. y = x³/2 + c
Q. 82 What is the solution of dy/dx + 2y = 1 satisfying y(0) = 0?
A. y = (1 – e⁻²ˣ)/2
B. y = (1 + e⁻²ˣ)/2
C. y = 1 + eˣ
D. y = (1 + eˣ)/2
Q. 83 Consider the curve y = e²ˣ
What is the slope of the tangent to the curve at (0, 1)?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
Q. 84 Consider the curve y = e²ˣ
Where does the tangent to the curve at (0, 1) meet the x – axis?
A. (1, 0)
B. (2, 0)
C. (-1/2, 0)
D. (1/2, 0)
Q. 85 Consider an ellipse x²/a² + y²/b² = 1.
What is the area of the greatest rectangle that can be inscribed in the ellipse?
A. ab
B. 2 ab
C. ab/2
D. √ab
Q. 86 Consider an ellipse x²/a² + y²/b² = 1.
What is the area included between the ellipse and the greatest rectangle inscribed in the ellipse?
A. ab(π – 1)
B. 2ab(π – 1)
C. ab(π – 1)
D. None of the above
Questions: 87 – 88
Consider the integrals as shown in figure
Q. 87 What is I₁ – I₂ equal to ?
A. 0
B. 2I₁
C. π
D. None of the above
Q. 88 what is I₁ equal to ?
A. π/24
B. π/18
C. π/12
D. π/6
Questions: 89 – 90
Consider the function f(x) = (1 – sin x)/(π – 2x)² where x ≠ π/2 and f(π/2) = λ
Q. 89 What is lim(x → π/2) equals to?
A. 1
B. 1/2
C. 1/4
D. 1/8
Q. 90 What is the value of if the function is continuous at x = π/2?
A. 1/8
B. 1/4
C. 1/2
D. 1
Q. 91 If f(9) = 9 and f′(9) = 4 then what is the value of the expression shown in figure
A. 36
B. 9
C. 4
D. None of the above
Q. 92 What is ∫(π/2 → -π/2) x sin x dx equal to?
A. 0
B. 2
C. -2
D. π
Q. 93 What is the general solution of the differential equation x dy – y dx = y² ?
(where c is an arbitrary constant)
A. x = cy
B. y² = cx
C. x + xy – cy = 0
D. None of the above
Q. 94 Consider the following statements :
1. The function f(x) = ∛x is continuous at all x except at x = 0
2. The function f(x) = [x] is continuous at x=2.99 where [.] is the bracket function
Which of the above statement is are correct ?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 95 Consider the following statements :
1. The function f(i) = |i| is not differentiable at i = 0
2. the function f(i) = eⁱ is differentiable at i = 0
Which of the above statement is are correct ?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 96 If z= f o f(x) where f(x) = x², then what is dz/dx equal to?
A. x³
B. 2x³
C. 4x³
D. 4x²
Q. 97 Consider the function f(x) = (x² – x + 1)/(x² + x + 1)
What is the maximum value of the function?
A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 2
D. 3
Q. 98 Consider the function f(x) = (x² – x + 1)/(x² + x + 1)
What is the minimum value of the function?
A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 2
D. 3
Questions: 99 – 101
Let f(x) be a function defined in 1 ≤ x < ∞ by f(x) given in figure (1).
Q. 99 Consider the following statements:
1. The function is continuous at every point in the interval [1, ∞).
2. The function is differentiable at x = 1.5.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 100 What is the differentiable coefficient of f(x) at x = 3?
A. 1
B. 2
C. -1
D. -3
Q. 101 Consider the following statements:
1. f(2 + 0) does not exist.
2. f(2 – 0) does not exist.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor
Q. 102 What is ∫(π/2 → 0) ln (tan x) dx equal to?
A. ln 2
B. -ln 2
C. 0
D. None of the above
Questions: 103 – 105
The general solution pf the differential equation (x² + x + 1)dy + (y² + y + 1)dx = 0 is (x + y + 1) = A(1 + Bx + Cy + Dxy) where B, C and D are constants and A is parameter.
Q. 103 What is B equal to?
A. -1
B. 1
C. 2
D. None of the above
Q. 104 What is C equal to?
A. 1
B. -1
C. 2
D. None of the above
Q. 105 What is D equal to?
A. -1
B. 1
C. -2
D. None of the above
Q. 106 Consider the following statements:
1. The functional f(x) = sin x decreases on the interval (0, π/2).
2. The function f(x) = cos x increases on the interval (0, π/2)
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 107 What is the number of arbitrary constants in the particular solution of differential equation of third order?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Q. 108 What is the equation of a curve passing through (0, 1) and whose differential equation is given by dy = y tan x dx?
A. y = cos x
B. y = sin x
C. y = sec x
D. y = cosec x
Q. 109 Consider the following statements in respect of the differential equation d²y/dx² + cos(dy/dx) = 0:
1. The degree of the differential equation is not defined.
2. The order of the differential equation is 2.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Q. 110 What is the equation of parabola whose vertex is at (0, 0) and focus is at (0, -2)?
A. y² + 8x = 0
B. y2 – 8x = 0
C. x² + 8y = 0
D. x² – 8y = 0
Questions: 111 – 114
Number X is randomly selected from the set of odd numbers and Y is randomly
selected from the set of even numbers of the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}. Let Z = (X + Y).
Q. 111 What is P(Z = 5) equal to ?
A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 1/4
D. 1/6
Q. 112 What is P(Z = 10) equal to?
A. 0
B. 1/2
C. 1/3
D. 1/5
Q. 113 What is P(Z > 11) equal to ?
A. 0
B. 1/4
C. 1/6
D. 1/12
Q. 114 What is P(Z is the product of two prime numbers) equal to ?
A. 0
B. 1/2
C. 1/4
D. None of the above
Questions: 115 – 117
The number of telephone calls received in 245 successive one minute intervals at an exchange is given below in the frequency distribution given in figure
Q. 115 What is the mean of the distribution?
A. 3.76
B. 3.84
C. 3.96
D. 4.05
Q. 116 What is the median of the distribution?
A. 3.5
B. 4
C. 4.5
D. 5
Q. 117 What is the mode of the distribution?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Questions: 118 – 120
The mean and standard deviation of all 100 items are 50, 5 and that of 150 items are 40, 6 respectively.
Q. 118 What is the combined mean of the 250 items?
A. 43
B. 44
C. 45
D. 46
Q. 119 What is the combined standard deviation of all 250 items?
A. 7.1
B. 7.3
C. 7.5
D. 7.7
Q. 120 What is the variance of all the 250 items?
A. 50.6
B. 53.3
C. 55.6
D. 59.3
Answer Sheet
Question
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Answer
B
C
C
B
C
A
B
D
A
C
Question
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
Answer
C
C
A
B
C
C
B
A
C
C
Question
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
Answer
A
A
B
D
A
B
C
C
A
C
Question
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
Answer
A
C
B
C
C
A
D
C
B
C
Question
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
Answer
B
B
B
A
A
C
C
D
C
B
Question
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
Answer
B
A
D
B
B
C
C
A
D
C
Question
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
Answer
A
D
C
C
C
A
B
C
B
A
Question
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80
Answer
C
A
B
D
C
C
D
B
A
A
Question
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
Answer
A
A
C
C
B
C
A
C
D
A
Question
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100
Answer
C
B
ABCD
B
B
C
D
B
B
D
Question
101
102
103
104
105
106
107
108
109
110
Answer
A
C
A
B
C
D
D
C
C
C
Question
111
112
113
114
115
116
117
118
119
120
Answer
D
A
D
C
A
B
B
B
C
C
×
Hello!
Click one of our representatives below to chat on WhatsApp or send us an email to info@vidhyarthidarpan.com
NDA/NA(I) Exam 2015 Mathematics
