Category: CDSE

CDS(I) Exam 2016 

ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS 

Q 1. If the roots of the equation lx² + mx + m = 0 are in the ratio p:q, then

√(p/q) +  √(q/p) +√(m/l)  is equal to 

(a) 0 

(b) 1 

(c) 2 

(d) 3 

 

Q 2. If has α and β as its roots, then the value of αβ is 

(a) -15 

(b) -5 

(c) O 

(d) 5 

 

Q 3. If p/x + q/y = m and q/x + p/y = n, then what is х/у equal to? 

(a) (np + mq)/(mp + nq)

(b) (np + mq)/(mp – nq) 

(c) (np – mq)/(mp – nq) 

(d) (np – mq)/(mp + nq)

 

Q 4. If a² – by – cz = 0, ax – b²+cz = 0 and ax + by – c² = 0, then the value of 

will be 

(a) a+b+c 

(b) 3 

(c) 1 

(d) 0 

 

Q 5. If the equations x² – px + q = 0 and x² + qx – p = 0 have a common root, then which one of the following is correct? 

(a) p-q=0 

(b) p+q-2 = 0 

(c) p+q-1=0 

(d) p-q-1 = 0 

 

Q 6. If x = 2^(⅓)+2^(-⅓), then the value of 2x³ – 6x – 5 is equal to 

(a) 0

(b) 1 

(c) 2 

(d) 3 

 

Q 7. The sum and difference of two expressions are 5x² – x – 4 and x² + 9x – 10 respectively. The HCF of the two expressions will be 

(a) (x + 1) 

(b) (x – 1) 

(c) (3x + 7) 

(d) (2x – 3) 

Q 8. If (s-a) +(s-b)+(s -c) = s, then the value of will be 

(a) 3 

(b) 1 

(c) 0 

(d) -1 

 

Q 9. If the polynomial x⁶ + px⁵ + qx⁴ – x² – x – 3 is divisible by (x⁴ – 1), then the value of p² +q² is 

(a) 1 

(b) 9 

(c) 10 

(d) 13 

 

Q 10. Let p and q be non-zero integers. Consider the polynomial 

A(x) = x² + px +q 

It is given that (x – m) and (x – km) are simple factors of A(x), where m is a non-zero integer and k is a positive integer, k > 2. Which one of the following is correct? 

(a) (k + 1)² p² = kq 

(b) (k + 1)²q = kp² 

(c) k²q = (k + 1)p² 

(d) k²p² = (k + 1)²q 

 

Q 11. Let m be a non-zero integer and n be a positive integer. Let R be the remainder obtained on dividing the polynomial xⁿ + mⁿ by (x-m). Then 

(a) Ris a non-zero even integer 

(b) Ris odd, if m is odd 

(c) R= s² for some integer s, if n is even 

(d) R = t³ for some integer t, if 3 divides n 

 

Q 12. If 4^x2^y = 128 and 3^3x3^2y – 9^xy = 0, then the value of x + y can be equal to 

(a) 7 

(b) 5 

(c) 3 

(d) 1 

 

Q 13. If the linear factors of ax² – (a² +1)x+ a are p and q, then p+q is equal to 

(a) (x – 1)(a + 1) 

(b) (x + 1)(a + 1) 

(c) (x – 1)(a – 1) 

(d) (x + 1)(a – 1)

 

Q 14. If then bx² – ax + b is equal to (given that b ≠ 0) 

(a) o 

(b) 1 

(c) ab 

(d) 2ab

 

Q 15. If a³ = 117 + b³ and a = 3+b, then the value of a+b is (given that a>0 and b>0) (a) 7 

(b) 9 

(c) 11 

(d) 13 

 

Q 16. If the sum of the roots of ax² + bx + c = 0 is equal to the sum of the squares of their reciprocals, then which one of the following relations is correct? 

(a) ab²+ bc² = 2a²c 

(b) ac² + bc² = 2b²a 

(c) ab² + bc² = ac 

(d) a² + b² + c² = 1 

 

Q 17. Consider the following statements in respect of the expression 

where n is an integer : 

1. There are exactly two values of n for which S_n = 861. 

2. S_n = S_-(n+1) and hence for any integer m, we have two values of n for which S_n = m. 

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 18. Consider the following statements in respect of two different non-zero integers p and q: 

1. For (p+q) to be less than (p-q), q must be negative. 

2. For (p+q) to be greater than (P-9), both p and q must be positive. 

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

 

Q 19. If a/b = b/c = c/a then which of the following is/are correct?

1. (b³ + c³ + d³)/(a³ + b³ + c³) = d/a

2. (a² + b² + c²)/(b² + c² + d²) = a/d

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) l only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 20. 7¹⁰ – 5¹⁰ is divisible by 

(a) 5 

(b) 7 

(c) 10 

(d) 11

 

Q 21. Let a two-digit number be k times the sum of its digits. If the number formed by interchanging the digits is m times the sum of the digits, then the value of m is 

(a) 9 – k 

(b) 10 – k 

(c) 11 – k 

(d) k – 1

 

Q 22. A man walking at 5 km/hour noticed that a 225 m long train coming in the opposite direction crossed him in 9 seconds. The speed of the train is 

(a) 75 km/hour 

(b) 80 km/hour 

(c) 85 km/hour 

(d) 90 km/hour 

 

Q 23. (sin 35°/ cos 55°)² – (cos 55°/ sin 35° )² + 2 sin 30° is equal  to

(a) -l 

(b) 0

(c) 1 

(d) 2

 

Q 24. A cyclist moves non-stop from A to B, a distance of 14 km, at a certain average speed. If his average speed reduces by 1 km per hour, he takes 20 minutes more to cover the same distance. The original average speed of the cyclist is 

(a) 5 km/hour 

(b) 6 km/hour 

(c) 7 km/hour 

(d) None of the above

 

Q 25. If a sum of money at a certain rate of simple interest per year doubles in 5 years and at a different rate of simple interest per year becomes three times in 12 years, then the difference in the two rates of simple interest per year is 

(a) 2% 

(b) 3% 

(c) 31% 

(d) 44% 

 

Q 26. Let ABC and A‘B‘C’ be two triangles in which AB > A‘B’, BC> B’C‘ and CA > C’A’. Let D, E and F be the mid points of the sides BC, CA and AB respectively. Let D’, E’ and F be the midpoints of the sides B’C’, C’A’ and A‘B‘ respectively. Consider the following statements : 

Statement I : 

AD > A‘D’, BE > B’E’ and CF > C’F’ are always true. 

Statement II : 

(AB² + BC² + CA²)/(AD² + BE² +CF²) = (A‘B’²+ B’C²+ C’A² )/(A’D²+ B’E ² + C’F ² )

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I 

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I 

(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false 

(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q 27. The annual incomes of two persons are in the ratio of 9:7 and their expenses are in the ratio of 4:3. If each of them saves 2,000 per year, what is the difference in their annual incomes? 

(a) 4,000 

(b) 4,500 

(c) 5,000 

(d) 5,500 

 

Q 28. Let S be a set of first fourteen natural numbers. The possible number of pairs (a, b), where a, b ∊ S and a ≠ b such that ab leaves remainder 1 when divided by 15, is 

(a) 3 

(b) 5 

(c) 6

(d) None of the above 

 

Q 29. A clock strikes once at 1 o’clock, twice at 2 o’clock and thrice at 3 o’clock, and so on. If it takes 8 seconds to strike at 5 o’clock, the time taken by it to strike at 10 o’clock is 

(a) 14 seconds 

(b) 16 seconds 

(c) 18 seconds 

(d) None of the above 

 

Q 30. In a circle of radius 2 units, a diameter AB intersects a chord of length 2 units perpendicularly at P. If AP > BP, then AP is equal to 

(a) (2+√5) units 

(b) (2 +√3) units 

(c) (2+ √2) units 

(d) 3 units 

 

Q 31. Under what condition on p and q, one of the roots of the equation x² + px +q = 0 is the square of the other? 

(a) 1 + q + q² = 3pq 

(b) 1 + p + p² = 3pq 

(c) p³ + q + q² = 3pq 

(d) q³+ p + p² = 3pq

 

Q 32. What is the maximum value of m, if the number N = 90 × 42 × 324 × 55 is divisible by 3^m? 

(a) 8 

(b) 3 

(c) 6 

(d) 5

 

Q 33. A bike consumes 20 mL of petrol per kilometre, if it is driven at a speed in the range of 25-50 km/hour and consumes 40 ml of petrol per kilometre at any other speed. How much petrol is consumed by the bike in travelling a distance of 50 km, if the bike is driven at a speed of 40 km/hour for the first 10 km, at a speed of 60 km/hour for the next 30 km and at a speed of 30 km/hour for the last 10 km? 

(a) 1 L 

(b) 1.2 L 

(c) 1.4 L 

(d) 1.6 L

 

Q 34. Consider the following statements : 

1. Every natural number is a real number. 

2. Every real number is a rational number. 

3. Every integer is a real number. 

4. Every rational number is a real number. 

Which of the above statements are correct? 

(a) 1, 2 and 3 

(b) 1, 3 and 4 

(c) 2 and 3 only 

(d) 3 and 4 only 

 

Q 35. For what value of k is (x + 1) a factor of x³+ kx² – x + 2? 

(a) 4 

(b) 3 

(c) 1 

(d) -2 

 

Q 36. Consider the following statements : 

1. There exists a positive real number m such that cos x = 2^m+1. 

2. mn ≥ m +n for all m, n belonging to a set of natural numbers. 

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 37. The solution of the inequation 1 + 1/x – 1/x² ≥ 0 is (given that x ≠ 0) 

(a) x > 0 

(b) x < 0 

(c) (-1-√5)/2 ≤  x ≤ (-1+√5/2)

(d) x ≤ (-1-√5)/2 or x ≥ (-1+√5/2)

 

Q 38. Which of the points P(5, -1), Q(3, -2) and R(1, 1) lie in the solution of the system of inequalities x + y ≤ 4 and x-y ≥ 2 ? 

(a) Q and R only 

(b) P and R only 

(c) P and Q only 

(d) P, Q and R 

 

Q 39. A passenger train takes 1 hour less for a journey of 120 km, if its speed is increased by 10 km/hour from its usual speed. What is its usual speed? 

(a) 50 km/hour 

(b) 40 km/hour 

(c) 35 km/hour 

(d) 30 km/hour

 

Q 40. The value of k, for which the system of equations 3x – ky – 20 = 0 and 6x – 10y + 40 = 0 has no solution, is 

(a) 10 

(b) 6 

(c) 5 

(d) 3

 

Q 41. Consider the following in respect of natural numbers a, b and c: 

1. LCM (ab, ac) = a LCM(b, c) 

2. HCF(ab, ac) = a HCF(b, c) 

3. HCF(a, b) < LCM(a, b) 

4. HCF(a, b) divides LCM(a, b). 

Which of the above are correct? 

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 3 and 4 only 

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only 

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 

 

Q 42. There are three brothers. The sums of ages of two of them at a time are 4 years, 6 years and 8 years. The age difference between the eldest and the youngest is 

(a) 3 years 

(b) 4 years 

(c) 5 years 

(d) 6 years 

 

Q 43. A person goes to a market between 4 p.m. and 5 p.m. When he comes back, he finds that the hour hand and the minute hand of the clock have interchanged their positions. For how much time (approximately) was he out of his house? 

(a) 55.38 minutes 

(b) 55.48 minutes 

(c) 55.57 minutes 

(d) 55-67 minutes

 

Q 44. In a gathering of 100 people, 70 of them can speak Hindi, 60 can speak English and 30 can speak French. Further, 30 of them can speak both Hindi and English, 20 can speak both Hindi and French. If x is the number of people who can speak both English and French, then which one of the following is correct? (Assume that everyone can speak at least one of the three languages.) 

(a) 9 < x < 30

(b) 0 ≤ x < 8

(c) x = 9 

(d) x = 8

 

Q 45. A cloth merchant buys cloth from a weaver and cheats him by using a scale which is 10 cm longer than a normal metre scale. He claims to sell cloth at the cost price to his customers, but while selling uses a scale which is 10 cm shorter than a normal metre scale. What is his gain? 

(a) 20% 

(b) 21% 

(c) 22²/₉%

(d) 23⅓ % 

 

Q 46. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 60 minutes and 75 minutes respectively. There is also an outlet C. If A, B and C are opened together, the tank is full in 50 minutes. How much time will be taken by C to empty the full tank? 

(a) 100 minutes 

(b) 110 minutes 

(c) 120 minutes 

(d) 125 minutes 

 

Q 47. In a race of 1000 m, A beats B by 100 m or 10 seconds. If they start a race of 1000 m simultaneously from the same point and if B gets injured after running 50 m less than half the race length and due to which his speed gets halved, then by how much time will A beat B? 

(a) 65 seconds 

(b) 60 seconds 

(c) 50 seconds 

(d) 45 seconds

 

Q 48. The salary of a person is increased by 10% of his original salary. But he received the same amount even after the increment. What is the percentage of his salary he did not receive? 

(a) 11% 

(b) 10% 

(c) (100 /11)% 

(d) (90 /11)% 

 

Q 49.  A truck moves along a circular path and describes 100 m when it has traced out 36° at the centre. The radius of the circle is equal to 

(a) 100/π m

(b) 250/π m

(c)500/π m

(d) 600π m

 

Q 50. Two poles are placed at P and on either side of a road such that the line joining P and Q is perpendicular to the length of the road. A person moves x metre away from P parallel to the road and places another pole at R. Then the person moves further x metre in the same direction and turns and moves a distance y metre away from the road perpendicularly, where he finds himself, Q and R on the same line. The distance between P and Q (i.e., the width of the road) in metre is 

(a)  x 

(b) x/2

(c)  Y

(d) 2y 

 

Q 51. Suppose chords AB and CD of a circle intersect at a point P inside the circle. Two right-angled triangles A’P’B‘ and C’O’D’ are formed as shown in the figures below such that A‘P’ = AP, B’P’ = BP, C’Q’ = CP, D’Q’ = DP and LA‘P’B’ = 90° = ZC’O’D’:  Which of the following statements are not correct?

1. A’P’B’ and C’O’D’ are similar triangles, but need not be congruent. 

2 A‘P’B‘ and C’Q’D‘ are congruent triangles. 

3. A‘P’B’ and C’O‘D’ are triangles of the same area. 

4. A‘P’B’ and C‘Q’D’ are triangles of the same perimeter. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 2 and 3 only 

(b) 1 and 3 only 

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only 

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 

 

Q 52. Suppose ABC is a triangle with AB of unit length. D and E are the points lying on AB and AC respectively such that BC and DE are parallel. If the area of triangle ABC is twice the area of triangle ADE, then the length of AD is 

(a) ½ unit 

(b) ⅓ unit

(c) ¹/√2 unit

(d) ¹/√3 unit

 

Q 53. A rhombus is formed by joining midpoints of the sides of a rectangle in the suitable order. If the area of the rhombus is 2 square units, then the area of the rectangle is 

(a) 2√2 square units 

(b) 4 square units 

(c) 4√2 square units 

(d) 8 square units 

 

Q 54. If each interior angle of a regular polygon is 140°, then the number of vertices of the polygon is equal to 

(a)  10

(b)  9

(c)  8

(d) 7

 

Q 55. Let the triangles ABC and DEF be such that ∠ABC = ∠DEF, ∠ACB = ∠DFE and ∠BAC = ∠EDF. Let L be the midpoint of BC and M be the midpoint of EF. Consider the following statements : 

Statement I : 

Triangles ABL and DEM are similar.

Statement II : 

Triangle ALC is congruent to triangle DMF even if AC ≠ DF. 

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I 

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false 

(d) Statement I is true but statement II is true 

 

Q 56. The number of rounds that a wheel of diameter ⁷/₁₁ metre will make in traversing 4 km will be 

(a) 500 

(b) 1000 

(c) 1700 

(d) 2000 

 

Q 57. The base of an isosceles triangle is 300 units and each of its equal sides is 170 units. Then the area of the triangle is 

(a) 9600 square units

(b) 10000 square units 

(c) 12000 square units 

(d) None of the above 

 

Q 58. Four equal discs are placed such that each one touches two others. If the area of empty space enclosed by them is 150/847 square centimetre, then the radius of each disc is equal to

(a) 7/6 cm

(b) 5/6 cm

(c) 1/2 cm 

(d) 5/11 cm 

 

Q 59. ABC and DEF are similar triangles. If the ratio of side AB to side DE is (√2+1): √3, then the ratio of area of triangle ABC to that of triangle DEF is 

(a) (3-2√2):3 

(b) (9-6√2):2

(c) 1:(9-6√2) 

(d) (3+2√2):2 

 

Q 60. A tangent is drawn from an external point o to a circle of radius 3 units at P such that OP = 4 units. If C is the centre of the circle, then the sine of the angle COP is 

(a) ⅘  

(b) ¾  

(c) ⅗ 

(d) ½  

 

Q 61. A square is inscribed in a right-angled triangle with legs p and q, and has a common right angle with the triangle. The diagonal of the square is given by 

(a) pq/(p+2q)

(b) pq/ (2p+q)

(c) √2pq/(p+q) 

(d)2pa /(p+q)

 

Q 62. If x/a – y/b tanθ = 1 and x/a tanθ + y/b = 1, then the value of x²/a² – y²/b²  is 

(a) 2sec²θ 

(b) sec²θ 

(c) cos²θ 

(d) 2cos²θ 

 

Q 63. Consider the following: 

Which of the above is/are identity/ identities? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

 

Q 64. If p = cotθ + tanθ and q = secθ – cosθ, then (p²q)^⅔ – (q²p)^⅔ is equal to

(a) o 

(b) 1 

(c) 2

(d) 3 

 

Q 65. Two observers are stationed due north of a tower (of height x metre) at a distance y metre from each other. The angles of elevation of the tower observed by them are 30° and 45° respectively. Then x/y is equal to 

(a)  (√2 – 1)/ 2

(b)  (√3 – 1)/ 2

(c)  (√3 + 1)/ 2

(d) 1

 

Q 66. If (cos²θ – 3cosθ + 2)/ sin²θ = 1 where 0 < θ < π/2 then which of the following statements is/are correct? 

1. There are two values of θ satisfying the above equation. 

2. θ = 60° is satisfied by the above equation.

 Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

 

Q 67. In a triangle ABC if A-B= π/2 then C+2B is equal to 

(a) 2π/3

(b) 3π/4

(c)  π

(d) π/2

 

Q 68. Which of the following is correct in respect of the equation 3-tan²θ = α(1-3 tan²θ) (Given that a is a real number.) 

(a) α ∊ [⅓ + 1] 

(b) α ∊ [-∞, ⅓]∪[3, ∞] 

(c) α ∊ [∞, ⅓]∪[3, ∞] 

(d) None of the above 

 

Q 69. There are five lines in a plane, no two of which are parallel. The maximum number of points in which they can intersect is 

(a) 4 

(b) 6 

(c) 10 

(d) None of the above 

 

Q 70. Consider a circle with centre at O and radius 7 cm. Let QR be a chord of length 2 cm and let P be the midpoint of QR. Let CD be another chord of this circle passing through P such that ∠CPQ is acute. IfM is the midpoint of CD and MP = √24 cm, then which of the following statements are correct? 

1. ∠OPD = 135° 

2. If CP = m cm and PD = n cm, then m and n are the roots of the quadratic equation x² – 10x + 1 = 0.

3. The ratio of the area of triangle OPR to the area of triangle OMP is 1:2√2. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

 

Q 71. Let ABC be a triangle in which AB = AC. Let L be the locus of points X inside or on the triangle such that BX = CX. 

Which of the following statements are correct? 

1. L is a straight line passing through A and in-centre of triangle ABC is on L. 

2. L is a straight line passing through A and orthocentre of triangle ABC is a point on L. 

3. L is a straight line passing through A and the centroid of triangle ABC is a point on L. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Q 72. Consider a circle with centre at C. Let OP, OQ denote respectively the tangents to the circle drawn from a point o outside the circle. Let R be a point on OP and S be a point on OQ such that OR × SQ = OS × RP. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 

1. If X is the circle with centre at O and radius OR, and Y is the circle with centre at O and radius OS, then X = Y. 

2. ∠ POC+ ∠ QCO = 90° Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 73. If m and n are distinct natural numbers, then which of the following is/are integer/integers? 

1. m/n + п/т 

2. mn(m/n + п/т)(m² +n²)^-1 

3. mn / (m² + n²) 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 and 2 

(b) 2 only 

(c) 2 and 3 

(d) 3 only 

 

Q 74. Outside the meeting room, Madhukar was told by a person that each meeting takes place after 13/4 hours. The last meeting has been over just 45 minutes ago and the next meeting will take place at 2 p.m. At what time did Madhukar receive this information? 

(a) 10:20 a.m. 

(b) 11:30 a.m. 

(c) 11:40 a.m. 

(d) 11:50 a.m.

 

Q 75. The expenditure of a household for a certain month is Rs. 20,000, out of which Rs. 8,000 is spent on education, Rs. 5,900 on food, Rs. 2,800 on shopping and the rest on personal care. What percentage of expenditure is spent on personal care? 

(a) 12% 

(b) 16.5% 

(c) 18% 

(d) 21.8% 

 

Q 76. If 

where x, y and z are natural numbers, then what is z equal to? 

(a) 1 

(b) 2 

(c) 3 

(d) 4 

 

Q 77. A circular path is made from two concentric circular rings in such a way that the smaller ring when allowed to roll over the circumference of the bigger ring, it takes three full revolutions. If the area of the pathway is equal to n times the area of the smaller ring, then n is equal to 

(a) 4 

(b) 6 

(c) 8 

(d) 10 

 

Q 78. Consider the following statements : 

1. If n ≥ 3 and m ≥ 3 are distinct positive integers, then the sum of the exterior angles of a regular polygon of m sides is different from the sum of the exterior angles of a  regular polygon of n sides. 

2. Let m, n be integers such that m > n > 3. Then the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon of m sides is greater than the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon of n sides, and their sum is (m + n)π/2

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 79. Consider the following statements : 

1. There exists a regular polygon whose exterior angle is 70°. 

2. Let n ≥ 5. Then the exterior angle of any regular polygon of n sides is acute. 

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q 80. In a triangle PQR, point X is on PQ and point Y is on PR such that XP = 1.5 units, XQ = 6 units, PY = 2 units and YR = 8 units. Which of the following are correct? 

1. QR = 5XY 

2. QR is parallel to XY. 

3. Triangle PYX is similar to triangle PRO.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

 

Q 81. If a transversal intersects four parallel straight lines, then the number of distinct values of the angles formed will be

(a) 2 

(b) 4

(c) 8 

(d) 16

 

Q 82. A person travels 7 km eastwards and then turns right and travels 3 km and further turns right and travels 13 km. What is the shortest distance of the present position of the person from his starting point? 

(a) 6 km 

(b) 3√5 km 

(c) 7 km 

(d) 4√5 km 

 

Q 83. ABC is a triangle in which D is the midpoint of BC and E is the midpoint of AD. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 

1. The area of triangle ABC is equal to four times the area of triangle BED. 

2. The area of triangle ADC is twice the area of triangle BED. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

 

Q 84. A circle of 3 m radius is divided into three areas by semicircles of radii 1 m and 2 m as shown in the figure above. The ratio of the three areas A, B and C will be 

(a) 2:3:2 

(b) 1:1:1 

(c) 4:3:4 

(d) 1:2:1 

 

Q 85. If √(x/y) = 10/3 – √(y/x) and x – y = 8, then the value of xy is equal to 

(a) 36 

(b) 24 

(c) 16 

(d) 9

 

Q 86. ABC is an equilateral triangle and X, Y and Z are the points on BC, CA and AB respectively such that BX = CY = AZ. 

Which of the following is/are correct?

(a) AQ² + AB² = BP² + PQ²

(b) AQ² + PQ² = AB² + BP² 

(c) AQ² + BP² = AB² + PQ²

(d) AQ² + AP² = BK² + KQ² 

 

Q 87. In the figure given above, AD = CD = BC. 

What is the value of ∠CDB?

(a) 32° 

(b) 64° 

(c) 78° 

(d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

 

Q 88. ABC is a triangle right angled at C as shown in the figure above. 

Which one of the following is correct? 

1. XYZ is an equilateral triangle. 

2. Triangle XYZ is similar to triangle ABC. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

 

Q 89. In the figure given above, p and q are parallel lines. What are the values of the angles x, y and z? 

(a) x = 800, y = 40°, z = 100° 

(b) x = 80°, y = 50°, z = 105° 

(c) x = 70°, y = 40, z = 110° 

(d) x = 60°, y=20, z = 120° 

 

Q 90. The linear inequations, for which the shaded area in the figure given above is the solution set, are 

(a) 2x+6y ≤ 21, 5x – 2y ≤ 10 

(b) 2x+6y ≤ 21, 5x – 2y ≥ 10 

(c) 2x + 6y ≥ 21, 5x – 2y ≤ 10 

(d) 2x + 6y ≥ 21, 5x – 2y ≥ 10 

 

Q 91. The election result in which six parties contested was depicted by a pie chart. Party A had an angle 135° on this pie chart. If it secured 21960 votes, how many valid votes in total were cast? 

(a) 51240 

(b) 58560 

(c) 78320 

(d) 87840 

 

Q 92. The mean and median of 5 observations are 9 and 8 respectively. If 1 is subtracted from each observation, then the new mean and the new median will respectively be 

(a) 8 and 7 

(b) 9 and 7 

(c) 8 and 9 

(d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data 

 

Q 93. The age distribution of 40 children is as follows :

Age (in years)	5-6	6-7	7-8	8-9	9-10	10-11
No. of Children	4	7	9	12	6	2

Consider the following statements in respect of the above frequency distribution : 

1. The median of the age distribution is 7 years. 

2. 70% of the children are in the age group 6-9 years. 

3. The modal age of the children is 8 years. 

Which of the above statements are correct? 

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only 

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Q 94. Suppose x_i = λⁱ for 0 ≤ i ≤ 10, where λ > 1. 

Which one of the following is correct? 

(a) AM < Median 

(b) GM < Median 

(c) GM = Median 

(d) AM = Median 

 

Q 95. Suppose x_i  =1/ i= for i = 1, 2, 3, …, 11. 

Which one of the following is not correct? 

(a) AM  > 1/6 

(b) GM > 1/6 

(c) HM > 1/6 

(d) Median = HM 

 

Q 96. The value of  ⅕ log₁₀ 3125 – 4 log₁₀ 2 +log₁₀ 32 is 

(a) 0 

(b) 1 

(c) 2 

(d) 3 

 

Q 97. If tanθ + cotθ = 4/√3, where 0 < θ < π/2, then sinθ + cosθ is equal to 

(a) 1 

(b) (√3-1) /2

(c) (√3+1) /2 

(d) √2 

 

Q 98. The value of the expression [(243 +647)² + (243 – 647)² ] / [243 × 243 + 647 × 647] is equal to 

(a) 0 

(b) 1 

(c) 2 

(d) 3 

 

Q 99. If a and b are negative real numbers and c s a positive real number, then which of the following is/are correct? 

1. a-b < a–c 

2. If a < b, then a/c  < b/c

3. 1/b  < 1/c

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 

(b) 2 only 

(c) 3 only 

(d) 2 and 3

 

Q 100. 

AD is the diameter of a circle with area 707 m² and AB = BC = CD as shown in the figure above. All curves inside the circle are semicircles with their diameters on AD. What is the cost of levelling the shaded region at the rate of Rs. 63 per square metre? (a) 29,700 

(b) 22,400 

(c) 14,847 

(d) None of the above

CDS(I) Exam 2016 

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

प्रश्न 1. हृद्वाहिका रोग और अतिरक्तदाब के खतरों का सामना कर रहे व्यक्तियों के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा एक अच्छा कोलेस्टेरॉल’ माना जाता है ? 

(a) उच्च-घनत्व लिपोप्रोटीन (HDL) 

(b) निम्न-घनत्व लिपोप्रोटीन (LDL) – 

(c) ट्राइग्लिसरॉइड 

(d) वसीय-अम्ल है 

 

प्रश्न 2. विटामिन और रोग के निम्नलिखित युग्मों में कौन सा/से सही सुमेलित है/हैं ? 

1. विटामिन A : रिकेट्स 

2. विटामिन B : बेरी-बेरी 

3. विटामिन C : स्कर्वी 

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिये : 

(a) केवल 2 

(b) केवल 2 और 3 

(c) केवल 1 और 3 

(d) 1, 2 और 3 

 

प्रश्न 3. किसी पिण्ड के संवेग परिवर्तन की दर किसके बराबर होती है ? 

(a) परिणामी ऊर्जा 

(b) परिणामी शक्ति 

(c) परिणामी बल 

(d) परिणामी आवेग 

 

प्रश्न 4. किसी गर्म आतप दिवस के पश्चात् लोग छतों पर जल छिड़कते हैं, क्योंकि : 

(a) जल छत के आस-पास की वायु की ऊष्मा को तुरंत अवशोषित करने में सहायक है। 

(b) जल की विशिष्ट ऊष्मा-धारिता निम्नतर होती 

(c) जल आसानी से उपलब्ध है। 

(d) जल की वाष्पीकरण की गुप्त ऊष्मा अधिक होती है। 

 

प्रश्न 5. नीचे दिये गये भारत के मानचित्र पर विचार कीजिये :

ऊपर दिये गये मानचित्र में अंकित क्षेत्र निम्नलिखित में से किस एक नकदी फसल के उत्पादन के लिए जाने जाते हैं ? 

(a) कपास 

(b) मूंगफली 

(c) गन्ना 

(d) तंबाकू 

 

प्रश्न 6. हिमालय की पीर पंजाल पर्वतमाला किसका भाग है ?

(a) शिवालिक 

(b) पार हिमालय 

(c) केन्द्रवर्ती हिमालय 

(d) निम्न हिमालय 

 

प्रश्न 7. भारत की लैटेराइट मृदाओं के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. लैटेराइट मृदाएं सामान्यत: लाल रंग की होती हैं 

2. लैटेराइट मृदाओं में नाइट्रोजन और पोटाश की प्रचुरता होती है। 

3. लैटेराइट मृदाएं राजस्थान और उत्तर प्रदेश में सुविकसित हैं 

4. इस मृदा में टैपियोका और काजू की उपज अच्छी होती है 

ऊपर दिये गये कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं ? 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) 2,3 और 4 

(c) केवल 1 और 4 

(d) 1,2 और 4 

 

प्रश्न 8. भूमध्यसागरीय और मानसून जलवायु के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौनसा/से सही है/ 

1. भूमध्यसागरीय जलवायु में वर्षण शीतकाल में होता है, जबकि मानसून जलवायु में यह अधिकतर ग्रीष्मकाल में होता है । 

2. भूमध्यसागरीय जलवायु में, मानसून जलवायु की अपेक्षा, तापमान का वार्षिक परिसर अधिक होता है 

3. दोनों ही जलवायुओं में वर्षा ऋतु और शुष्क ऋतु होती है नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 और 3 

(c) केवल 1 और 3 

(d) 1, 2 और 3 

 

प्रश्न 9. प्रेशर कुकरों का हैंडल प्लास्टिक का बना होता है, क्योंकि इसको ऊष्मा का कुचालक बनाया जाना चाहिए। इसमें कौनसा प्लास्टिक प्रयुक्त होता है, जो कि प्रथम मानव-निर्मित प्लास्टिक है ? 

(a) पॉलिथीन 

(b) टैरीलीन 

(c) नायलॉन 

(d) बेकेलाइट 

 

प्रश्न 10. मेथिल आइसोसायनेट गैस, जिसके कारण दिसंबर 1984 में भोपाल में आपदा हुई थी, यूनियन कार्बाइड फैक्टरी में किसके उत्पादन के लिए प्रयुक्त होती थी ? 

(a) रंजक (डाई) 

(b) अपमार्जक (डिटर्जेंट)

(c) विस्फोटक 

(d) पीड़कनाशी 

 

प्रश्न 11. पादपों और प्राणियों में प्रवर्धन के लिए जननद्रव्य (जर्मप्लाज्म) की आवश्यकता होती है। जननद्रव्य क्या होता है ? 

1. आनुवंशिक संसाधन 

2. प्रजनन के लिए बीज या तंतु 

3. अंड और शुक्राणु आधान 

4. किसी जनन कोशिका का निर्धारण जोन 

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) 1, 2 और 3 

(c) केवल 2 और 3 

(d) 2 और 4 

 

प्रश्न 12. डेंगू विषाणु किसके द्वारा रोगी के रक्त में पाट्टकाणु गणना को कम करने के लिए जाना जाता है ? 

1. अस्थि मज्जा में पट्टिकाणुओं के उत्पादन की प्रक्रिया में व्यतिकरण कर 

2. एन्डोथीलियल कोशिकाओं में संक्रमण कर 

3. पट्टिकाणुओं के साथ बंधकर 

4. आंत्र में पट्टिकाणुओं का संचय कर नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) केवल 1 और 2 

(b) केवल 1 और 3 

(c) 3 और 4 

(d) 1, 2 और 3 

 

प्रश्न 13. यांत्रिक ऊर्जा की SI इकाई क्या है ? 

(a) जूल 

(b) वाट 

(c) न्यूटन-सेकण्ड 

(d) जूल-सेकण्ड 

 

प्रश्न 14. दो निकाय तापीय साम्य में कहे जाते हैं, यदि और केवल यदि : 

(a) उनके विभिन्न तापमानों पर होने पर भी उनके बीच ऊष्मा प्रवाह हो सकता हो ।

(b) उनके विभिन्न तापमानों पर होने पर भी उनके बीच ऊष्मा प्रवाह नहीं हो सकता हो 

(c) उनके बीच कोई ऊष्मा प्रवाह न हो 

(d) उनके तापमान थोड़े भिन्न हों 

 

प्रश्न 15. ‘जर्मन सिल्वर’ का उपयोग सजावटी वस्तुओं, मुद्रा धातु, आभूषणों आदि के बनाने में होता है। इसको यह नाम देने का कारण क्या है ? . 

(a) यह ताम्र की मिश्र धातु है और इसमें चाँदी एक घटक के रूप में होती है 

(b) चाँदी का उपयोग सर्वप्रथम जर्मनों ने किया 

(c) यह देखने में चाँदी जैसी होती है 

(d) यह चाँदी की मिश्रधातु है 

 

प्रश्न 16. पादपों में स्टिगमैस्टेरॉल, अर्गोस्टेरॉल, साइटोस्टेरॉल आदि जैसे विभिन्न स्टेरॉल होते हैं, जो कॉलेस्टेरॉल से अति निकट सादृश्य रखते हैं। ये पादप स्टेरॉल क्या कहलाते हैं ? 

(a) फाइटोस्टेरॉल 

(b) कैल्सिफेरॉल 

(c) अर्गोकैल्सिफेरॉल 

(d) ल्यूमिस्टेरॉल 

 

प्रश्न 17. ब्रह्मपुत्र और सतलुज नदियों पर अंतर्राष्ट्रीय सहयोग के अंतर्गत निम्नलिखित में से किस एक देश के साथ भारत ने समझौता-ज्ञापन पर हस्ताक्षर किये हैं ? 

(a) पाकिस्तान

(b) चीन 

(c) बांग्लादेश 

(d) नेपाल 

 

प्रश्न 18. भारत में निम्नलिखित रेलवे क्षेत्रों (जोन) में से किस एक का मुख्यालय, माध्य समुद्र तल से अधिकतम । ऊँचाई पर स्थित है ? 

(a) पूर्व-मध्य रेलवे 

(b) दक्षिण-पूर्व रेलवे 

(c) दक्षिण-पश्चिम रेलवे 

(d) पश्चिम-मध्य रेलवे 

 

प्रश्न 19. स्टैलैक्टाइट और स्टैलैग्माइट किसके अभिलक्षण हैं ? । 

(a) हिमनदीय स्थलाकृति 

(b) ज्वालामुखीय स्थलाकृति 

(c) कार्ट स्थलाकृति 

(d) नदीय स्थलाकृति 

 

प्रश्न 20. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक, दिए गए ग्रहों को, उनके आमाप (व्यास) के बढ़ते हुए क्रम में, सही अनुक्रम है ? ” 

(a) मंगल – शुक्र – पृथ्वी – बुध — यूरेनस 

(b) बुध – मंगल – शुक्र – पृथ्वी — यूरेनस 

(c) बुध – मंगल – शुक्र — यूरेनस – पृथ्वी 

(d) शुक्र – बुध – मंगल – पृथ्वी — यूरेनस 

 

प्रश्न 21. कृत्रिम वीर्यसेचन (AI) प्रक्रिया में, निम्नलिखित में से किसको/किसको, स्त्री के गर्भाशय में प्रविष्ट कराया जाता है ? 

(a) केवल अंड 

(b) निषेचित अंड 

(c) केवल शुक्राणु 

(d) अंड और शुक्राणु 

 

प्रश्न 22. आनुवंशिकत: रूपांतरित (GM) फसलों में रूपांतरित आनुवंशिक पदार्थ किसके कारण होते हैं ? 

1. नये DNA का आगमन 

2. विद्यमान DNA का निष्कासन 

3. RNA का आगमन 

4. नए विशेषकों का आगमन 

नीचे दिये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) केवल 1 और 2 

(b) 1, 2 और 3 

(c) 3 और 4 

(d) 1, 2 और 4

 

प्रश्न 23. निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौनसा एक सही है ? ध्वनि का वेग : 

(a) माध्यम की प्रकृति पर निर्भर नहीं करता 

(b) गैसों में अधिकतम और द्रवों में न्यूनतम होता है 

(c) ठोसों में अधिकतम और द्रवों में न्यूनतम होता है 

(d) ठोसों में अधिकतम और गैसों में न्यूनतम होता है 

 

प्रश्न 24. निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौनसा एक सही नहीं है ? 

(a) गैसों में ध्वनि तरंगों की प्रकृति अनुदैर्घ्य होती है। 

(b) 20 Hz से कम आवृत्ति की ध्वनि तरंगें पराश्रव्य तरंगें कहलाती हैं। 

(c) उच्चतर आयामों वाली ध्वनि तरंगें अपेक्षाकृत प्रबल होती हैं। 

(d) उच्च श्रव्य आवृत्तियों वाली ध्वनि तरंगें तीक्ष्ण होती हैं। 

 

प्रश्न 25. निम्नलिखित विटामिनों में से कौनसा एक, रक्त के स्कंदन में कार्य करता है ? 

(a) विटामिन A 

(b) विटामिन B 

(c) विटामिन D 

(d) विटामिन K 

 

प्रश्न 26. विटामिन B₁₂, की कमी प्रणाशी अरक्तता का कारक है। जंतु विटामिन B₁₂ का संश्लेषण नहीं कर सकते। मानवों को अपना सारा विटामिन B₁₂, अपने आहार से ही प्राप्त करना होता है। विटामिन B₁₂ में कौन सा संकलन धातु आयन होता है ? 

(a) Mg²⁺ (मैग्नीशियम आयन) 

(b) Fe²⁺ (लोह आयन) 

(c) Co³⁺ (कोबाल्ट आयन) 

(d) Zn²⁺ (जिंक आयन) 

 

प्रश्न 27. निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : . 

1. भारत में अधिकांश कोयला और फेरस खनिज समूह विंध्य के दक्षिण में प्रायद्वीपीय में मिलते हैं 

2. प्रायद्वीपीय भारत कभी उस अधि-महाद्वीप का अंश था, जिसमें ऑस्ट्रेलिया, अंटार्कटिका, अफ्रीका और दक्षिण अमरीका सम्मिलित थे ऊपर दिए गए कथनों में कौन सा/से सही है/हैं ? 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) 1 और 2 दोनों 

(d) न तो 1, न ही 2 

 

प्रश्न 28. ‘महात्मा गाँधी राष्ट्रीय समुद्री उद्यान’ कहाँ अवस्थित है ? 

(a) पिरोट न द्वीप 

(b) रामेश्वरम 

(c) गंगासागर द्वीप 

(d) पोर्ट ब्लेयर 

 

प्रश्न 29. निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं ? 

1. सामान्यतः 3 जनवरी को होने वाले रविनीच पर पृथ्वी सूर्य के निकटतम होती है 

2. सामान्यतः 4 जुलाई को होने वाले रविनीच पर पृथ्वी सूर्य से सबसे अधिक दूर होती है 

3. सामान्यतः 4 जुलाई को होने वाले सूर्योच्च पर पृथ्वी सूर्य से सबसे अधिक दूर होती है । 

4. सामान्यतः 3 जनवरी को होने वाले सूर्योच्च पर पृथ्वी सूर्य के निकटतम होती है

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) 2 और 4 

(c) 1 और 3 

(d) 1 और 2 

 

प्रश्न 30. निम्नलिखित द्वीपों में से कौनसा एक, ज्वालामुखी मूल का है ? 

(a) रीयूनियन द्वीप 

(b) अंडमान और निकोबार द्वीपसमूह 

(c) लक्षद्वीप द्वीपसमूह 

(d) मालदीव 

 

प्रश्न 31. ग्लूकोस ऊर्जा का एक स्रोत है। ग्लूकोस निम्नलिखित में से किस प्रकार का अणु है ? 

(a) कार्बोहाइड्रेट 

(b) प्रोटीन 

(c) वसा 

(d) न्यूक्लीक अम्ल 

 

प्रश्न 32. कोशिका का जीवित अंश जीवद्रव्य (प्रोटोप्लाज्म) कहलाता है। यह किससे बना होता है ?

(a) केवल कोशिकाद्रव्य (साइटोप्लाज्म) 

(b) कोशिकाद्रव्य और केंद्रकद्रव्य 

(c) केवल केंद्रकद्रव्य 

(d) कोशिकाद्रव्य, केंद्रकद्रव्य और अन्य कोशिकांग 

 

प्रश्न 33. अपने किस योगदान के लिए नॉर्मन बोरलॉग ने नोबेल पुरस्कार जीता ? 

1. अत्यधिक उपज वाली फसलों का विकास । 

2. सिंचाई की आधारिक संरचनाओं का आधुनिकीकरण। 

3. संश्लेषित उर्वरकों और पीड़क नाशियों का आरंभ। 

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) केवल 2 और 3 

(d) 1, 2 और 3 

 

प्रश्न 34. किसी निकटदृष्टिता (मायोपिया) से ग्रस्त व्यक्ति को -1.25 डाइऑप्टर पॉवर है। उसके लेंस की फोकस दूरी और स्वरूप क्या है ? 

(a) 50 cm और उत्तल लेंस 

(b) 80 cm और उत्तल लेंस 

(c) 50 cm और अवतल लेंस 

(d) 80 cm और अवतल लेंस 

 

प्रश्न 35. 100g द्रव्यमान का कोई बर्फ का टुकड़ा 0 °C पर रखा गया है। 0 °C पर पिघलने के लिए इसे कितनी ऊष्मा मात्रा आवश्यक होगी ? (बर्फ के पिघलने की गुप्त ऊष्मा का मान 333.6 J/g लीजिए): 

(a) 750.6J 

(b) 83.4 J 

(c) 33360 J 

(d) 3.336J 

 

प्रश्न 36. निम्नलिखित हॉर्मोनों में किस एक में पैप्टाइड शृंखला होती है ? 

(a) ऑक्सीटॉसिन 

(b) कॉर्टिकोट्रॉपिन 

(c) इंसुलिन 

(d) कॉर्टिसोन 

 

प्रश्न 37. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक, रासायनिक परिवर्तन का उदाहरण है ? 

(a) कागज का जलना 

(b) नर्म लोहे का चुंबकित होना 

(c) जल में शक्कर का घुलना 

(d) जल से बर्फ के घनों का बनना 

 

प्रश्न 38. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक, दीर्घकालीन समुद्र तल परिवर्तन का कारण है ? 

(a) वायुमंडलीय विक्षोभ 

(b) समुद्री जल घनत्व में परिवर्तन 

(c) हिमखंडों का पिघलना 

(d) बर्फ-चादरों का पिघलना 

 

प्रश्न 39. ब्रह्मपुत्र नदी की निम्नलिखित सहायक नदियों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. लोहित 

2. तीस्ता 

3. सुबंसिरी 

4. संकोष 

उपर्युक्त नदियों को पश्चिम से पूर्व की ओर क्रमबद्ध 

(a) 2-4-3-1 

(b)  2-3-4-1

(c)  4-2-3-1

(d) 3-1-2-4

 

प्रश्न 40. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक, दक्षिणी गोलार्ध में पवन का अपनी बाई ओर विक्षेपित होने का कारण है ? 

(a) उत्तरी और दक्षिणी गोलार्द्ध की जल मात्राओं में भिन्नता 

(b) ताप और दाब विभिन्नताएं 

(c) पृथ्वी का आनत अक्ष 

(d) पृथ्वी का घूर्णन 

 

प्रश्न 41. किसी चक्रवात-अक्षि पर क्या होता है ? 

(a) अप्रसामान्य उच्च ताप और निम्नतम दाब 

(b) अप्रसामान्य निम्न ताप और दाब 

(c) निर्मल आकाश और न्यूनतम ताप 

(d) घना मेघ-आच्छादन और निम्न दाब 

 

प्रश्न 42. निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं ? 

1. अम्लीय वर्षा चूना-पत्थर से बनी इमारतों से अभिक्रिया करती है। 

2. सल्फर युक्त कोयले का दहन अम्लीय वर्षा में भागी हो सकता है 

3. प्रदूषण के नियंत्रण के लिए सुपोषण एक प्रभावी युक्ति है 

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) केवल 1 और 2 

(b) केवल 2 और 3 

(c) केवल 1 

(d) 1, 2 और 3 

 

प्रश्न 43. दंड चुंबक के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौनसा एक सही है ? 

(a) किसी दंड चुंबक के उत्तरी ध्रुव का ध्रुव-प्राबल्य उसके दक्षिणी ध्रुव के ध्रुव-प्राबल्य की अपेक्षा अधिक होता है 

(b) जब किसी दंड चुंबक को उसके अक्ष के अनुलंब काटा जाता है, तो उसके उत्तरी और दक्षिणी ध्रुव पृथक हो जाते हैं 

(c) जब किसी दंड चुंबक को उसके अक्ष के अनुलंब काटा जाता है, तो दो नए दंड चुंबक बन जाते हैं 

(d) किसी दंड चुंबक के ध्रुव परिमाण में असमान और प्रकृति में विपरीत होते हैं

 

प्रश्न 44. निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौनसा एक सही नहीं है ? 

(a) हाइड्रोजन एक तत्व है 

(b) हाइड्रोजन सबसे हल्का तत्व है 

(c) हाइड्रोजन के कोई समस्थानिक नहीं होते 

(d) हाइड्रोजन और ऑक्सीजन एक विस्फोटक मिश्रण बनाते हैं 

 

प्रश्न 45. निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौनसा एक सही नहीं है ? 

(a) विभिन्न तत्वों के परमाणुओं की द्रव्यमान संख्या समान हो सकती हैं 

(b) किसी तत्व के परमाणुओं की द्रव्यमान संख्या भिन्न-भिन्न हो सकती हैं 

(c) किसी तत्व के सभी परमाणुओं में प्रोटॉनों की संख्या समान होती है। 

(d) किसी तत्व के सभी परमाणुओं में न्यूट्रॉनों की संख्या सदैव समान होगी 

(a) 2-4-3-1 

(b) 2-3-4-1 

(c) 4-2-3-1 

(d) 3-1-2-4 

 

प्रश्न 46. भारत में रासायनिक उद्योग के संदर्भ में निम्नलिखित ___ कथनों में से कौनसा/से सही है/हैं ? – 

1. रासायनिक उद्योग भारत में प्राचीनतम उद्योगों में से एक है 

2. रंजक (द्रव्य) सेक्टर रासायनिक उद्योग का एक महत्वपूर्ण खंड है 

3. वस्त्र उद्योग में रंजक (द्रव्य) की सर्वाधिक खपत होती है नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 और 3 

(c) केवल 1 और 3 

(d) 1, 2 और 3 

 

प्रश्न 47. अंटार्कटिका में भारत के वैज्ञानिक और अनुसंधान मिशन के संबंध में निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं ? 

1. अंटार्कटिका में पहला वैज्ञानिक बेस स्टेशन दक्षिण गंगोत्री था 

2. दक्षिण गंगोत्री का अब पूर्ति बेस और संक्रमण शिविर के रूप में उपयोग होता है 

3. मैत्री स्टेशन, वैज्ञानिक गतिविधियों के लिए पूरे – वर्ष मानव-संचालित रहता है। 

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 और 3 

(c) केवल 1 और 2 

(d) 1,2 और 3 

 

प्रश्न 48. घरेलू और औद्योगिक प्रयोजनों के लिए संश्लिष्ट रबर ने प्राकृतिक रबर का स्थान ले लिया है। इसके पीछे निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक मुख्य कारण है ? 

(a) प्राकृतिक रबर विभिन्न उद्योगों की बढ़ती हुई — माँग की पूर्ति करने में अक्षम है। 

(b) प्राकृतिक रबर केवल उष्णकटिबंधीय देशों में ही उगाया जाता है 

(c) संश्लिष्ट रबर के लिए कच्चा माल आसानी से उपलब्ध है 

(d) प्राकृतिक रबर टिकाऊ नहीं होता 

 

प्रश्न 49. कोई व्यक्ति कंक्रीट की किसी मजबूत दीवार के पास धातु की घंटी बजाता है। वह 0.38 के पश्चात् उसकी प्रतिध्वनि सुनता है। यदि ध्वनि 340 m/s की चाल से गमन करती हो, तो उस व्यक्ति से दीवार की दूरी क्या है ? 

(a) 102 m 

(b) 11 m 

(c) 51 m 

(d) 30 m 

 

प्रश्न 50. भारत के निम्नलिखित लोकप्रिय पर्वतीय स्थानों को माध्य समुद्र तल से इसकी ऊंचाई (उच्चतम से निम्नतम) के आधार पर क्रमबद्ध कीजिये : 

1. मसूरी 

2. शिमला 

3. ऊटी 

4. दार्जिलिंग 

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) 3-2-4-1 

(b) 3-1-4-2 

(c) 2-3-4-1 

(d) 2-4-1-3 

 

प्रश्न 51. निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. ‘हिन्द स्वराज’ में, महात्मा गाँधी ने व्यक्ति और साथ ही समाज के लिए उत्तम जीवन की संकल्पना का निरूपण किया है 

2. ‘हिन्द स्वराज’, भारत में औपनिवेशिक राज के विरुद्ध गाँधी जी के लंबे संघर्ष से प्राप्त अनभव का परिणाम था 

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौनसा/से सही है/हैं ? 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) 1 और 2 दोनों 

(d) न तो 1, न ही 2 

 

प्रश्न 52. निम्नलिखित में से कौन/से संवैधानिक निकाय 

1. राष्ट्रीय अनुसूचित जनजाति आयोग 

2. राष्ट्रीय महिला आयोग 

3. राष्ट्रीय अल्पसंख्यक आयोग 

4. राष्ट्रीय मानव अधिकार आयोग 

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 1, 3 और 4 

(c) केवल 3 और 4 

(d) 1, 2, 3 और 4 

 

प्रश्न 53. अफ्रीकी-एशियाई पुनरुत्थान विषय पर बांदुंग सम्मेलन (1955) के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा कथन सही है ? 

1. बांदुंग सम्मेलन इंडोनेशिया, म्यांमार (बर्मा), सीलोन (श्रीलंका), भारत और पाकिस्तान द्वारा आयोजित किया गया था, जिसमें विश्व की आधी से ज्यादा आबादी का प्रतिनिधित्व करने वाले 29 देशों ने प्रतिनिधि भेजे 

2. इस सम्मेलन ने पाँचों प्रायोजकों के इस असंतोष को प्रतिबिंबित किया कि एशिया को प्रभावित करने वाले निर्णयों के विषय में उनसे परामर्श करने में पश्चिमी शक्तियों की अनिच्छा है। 

3. यह सम्मेलन चीनी जनवादी गणराज्य और संयुक्त राज्य अमरीका के बीच तनाव से चिंतित था नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :

(a) केवल 1 और 2 

(b) केवल 2 और 3 

(c) केवल 1 और 3 

(d) 1, 2 और 3 

 

प्रश्न 54. निम्नलिखित में से किस पुरातत्त्वज्ञ ने पूर्व-हड़प्पा संस्कृति और परिपक्व हड़प्पा संस्कृति के बीच समानताओं को सर्वप्रथम अभिज्ञात किया ? 

(a) अमलानंद घोष । 

(b) राखालदास बनर्जी 

(c) दया राम साहनी 

(d) सर जॉन मार्शल 

 

प्रश्न 55. एलोरा स्थित कैलाश नाथ मंदिर और मामल्लपुरम स्थित शोर मंदिर के बीच निम्नलिखित में से कौनसी एक समानता है ? 

(a) दोनों ही नागर वास्तुकला के उदाहरण हैं 

(b) दोनों ही ठोस चट्टानों में से उत्कीर्ण किए गए हैं 

(c) दोनों ही गुप्त-काल के मंदिर हैं 

(d) दोनों ही पल्लव राजाओं के संरक्षण में निर्मित किए गए थे 

 

प्रश्न 56. निम्नलिखित में से किसका/किंनका राजपूत चित्रकला में चित्रण नहीं किया गया है ? 

1. कृष्ण की कथाएँ 

2. राग और रागिनियाँ 

3. हम्जा के कार्य 

4. बाबर के कार्य 

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) 1, 2 और 3 

(b) 2, 3 और 4 

(c) केवल 3 और 4 

(d) केवल 4 

 

प्रश्न 57. किस एक पंचवर्षीय योजना की उच्च प्राथमिकता, मुद्रा स्फीति को नियंत्रित करने और आर्थिक स्थिति में स्थिरता लाने की थी ? 

(a) चौथी योजना (1969-74) 

(b) पाँचवीं योजना (1974-79) 

(c) छठी योजना (1980-85) 

(d) सातवीं योजना (1985-90) 

 

प्रश्न 58. फिलिप्स वक्र के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा/से कथन सत्य है/हैं ? 

1. यह बेरोजगारी और मुद्रास्फीति के बीच परस्पर प्रतिलोम संबंध (ट्रेड-ऑफ) दर्शाता है 

2. फिलिप्स वक्र का अधोमुखी ढलवाँ वक्र सामान्य: केवल अल्पकाल के लिए ही प्रमाणिक माना जाता है 

3. दीर्घकाल में फिलिप्स वक्र को सामान्य: बेरोजगारी की त्वरण हीन मुद्रास्फीति दर (NAIRU) पर क्षैतिज समझा जाता है 

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 और 3 

(c) केवल 1 और 2 

(d) 1,2 और 3 

 

प्रश्न 59. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक देश, यूरेशियाई आर्थिक संघ का सदस्य नहीं है ? 

(a) बेलारूस 

(b) रूस 

(c) कजाखस्तान 

(d) उज्बेकिस्तान 

 

प्रश्न 60. BRICS नेताओं ने कहाँ पर हुए शिखर सम्मेलन में एक नए विकास बैंक को स्थापित करने के लिए करार पर हस्ताक्षर किए ? . 

(a) नई दिल्ली, भारत (2012). 

(b) डर्बन, दक्षिण अफ्रीका (2013) 

(c) फोटो लीज़ा, ब्राजील (2014) 

(d) ऊफा, रूस (2015) 

 

प्रश्न 61. ‘शिशु’, ‘किशोर’ और ‘तरूण’ किसकी योजनाएं हैं ? 

(a) क्षेत्रीय ग्रामीण बैंकों की। 

(b) माइक्रो यूनिट्स डेवलपमेंट एण्ड रीफाइनेंस एजेंसी लि. (MUDRA) की। 

(c) भारतीय लघु उद्योग विकास बैंक की। 

(d) भारतीय औद्योगिक विकास बैंक की। 

 

प्रश्न 62. निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. भारत के राष्ट्रपति को, लोकसभा के अध्यक्ष को नियुक्त करने और हटाने की शक्ति होगी। 

2. अध्यक्ष को अपने कार्यालय के कृत्यों का निर्वहन अपने पूरे कार्यकाल के दौरान स्वयं करना होता है और वह स्टेशन से अपनी अनुपस्थिति या अपनी बीमारी के दौरान अपने कृत्यों को उपाध्यक्ष को प्रत्यायोजित नहीं कर सकता 

उपर्युक्त में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं ? 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) 1 और 2 दोनों 

(d) न तो 1, न ही 2 

 

प्रश्न 63. द्वितीय प्रशासनिक सुधार आयोग (2005) किससे संबंधित था ? 

(a) उत्तम शासन के लिए सांस्थानिक व्यवस्था में सुधार 

(b) भारतीय दंड संहिता और आपराधिक न्याय प्रणाली में सुधार 

(c) सार्वजनिक जीवन में भ्रष्टाचार को कम करने के लिए लोकपाल तंत्र का सृजन करना 

(d) शहरी शासन और प्रबंधन के नए उपाय निकालना 

 

प्रश्न 64. भारत के संविधान के अनुसार, प्रतिषेध रिट किस आदेश से संबंधित है ? 

1. न्यायिक और न्यायिककल्प प्राधिकारी के खिलाफ दिया गया आदेश 

2. अवर न्यायालय को, किसी विशिष्ट मामले में, जहाँ उसे विचार करने की अधिकारिता नहीं है. कार्यवाही करने से रोकना 

3. किसी व्यक्ति को किसी सार्वजनिक पद को, जिसके लिए वह हकदार नहीं है, धारण करने से रोकना 

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) केवल 1 और 2 

(b) केवल 2 और 3 

(c) केवल 1 

(d) 1, 2 और 3 

 

प्रश्न 65. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक, ‘प्रयाग प्रशस्ति’ में वर्णित समुद्रगुप्त का गुण नहीं था ? (a) तीक्ष्ण और परिष्कृत बुद्धि 

(b) निपुण मूर्तिकार 

(c) उत्कृष्ट संगीत प्रस्तुतियां 

(d) प्रतिभाशाली काव्य-निपुणता 

 

प्रश्न 66. कामंदक के ‘नीतिसार’ का योगदान किस विषय में है ? 

(a) तर्कशास्त्र और दर्शन 

(b) गणित 

(c) राजनीतिक नैतिकता 

(d) व्याकरण 

 

प्रश्न 67. भास्कर का ‘लीलावती’ किस विषय का मानक मूल ग्रंथ है ? 

(a) गणित 

(b) शल्यविज्ञान 

(c) काव्यशास्त्र 

(d) भाषाविज्ञान 

 

प्रश्न 68. मुख्यधारा अर्थशास्त्र में प्रयुक्त होने वाली ‘दक्षता’ की संकल्पना के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौनसे कथन सत्य हैं ? 

1. दक्षता तब पाई जाती है जब उत्पादन के किसी भी संभव पुनर्गठन से किसी अन्य की स्थिति बदतर किए बिना किसी की स्थिति बेहतर न की जा सके 

2. कोई अर्थव्यवस्था स्पष्ट रूप से अदक्ष है यदि यह उत्पादन संभावना फ्रंटियर (PPF) के अन्दर है 

3. न्यूनतम रूप से, दक्ष अर्थव्यवस्था इसके उत्पादन संभावना फ्रंटियर (PPF) पर होती है 

4. ‘परेटो दक्षता’, ‘परेटो इष्टतमता’ और ‘विनियोजी दक्षता’ सभी अनिवार्य रूप से एक ही चीज है जो ‘संसाधन विनिधान में दक्षता’ द्योतित करती है 

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) केवल 1 और 4 

(b) केवल 1 और 3 . 

(c) केवल 2 और 3 

(d) 1, 2, 3 और 4 

 

प्रश्न 69. भारत-प्रशांत द्वीप सहयोग मंच (FIPIC) का प्रथम शिखर-सम्मेलन कहाँ हुआ था ? 

(a) जयपुर 

(b) सूवा 

(c) नई दिल्ली 

(d) पोर्ट मोरस्बी 

 

प्रश्न 70. अगस्त 2015 के मास में निम्नलिखित में से किस एक द्वीप राष्ट्र में संसदीय निर्वाचन हुए ? । 

(a) मालदीव

(b) फिजी 

(c) श्रीलंका 

(d) सिंगापुर 

 

प्रश्न 71. वर्ष 2015 में निम्नलिखित में से किस एक राष्ट्र ने । कठोर आर्थिक संकट का सामना किया जिसके फलस्वरूप उसके IMF के कर्ज के भुगतान में चूक हुई ? 

(a) चीन 

(b) ग्रीस 

(c) आयरलैंड 

(d) बेल्जियम 

 

प्रश्न 72. निम्नलिखित में से भारत के कौन से प्रधानमंत्री अविश्वास मत से पराजित हुए ? 

1. मोरारजी देसाई 

2. विश्वनाथ प्रताप सिंह 

3. एच.डी. देवगौड़ा 

4. अटल बिहारी वाजपेयी 

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) 1, 2, 3 और 4 

(b) केवल 1,2 और 3 

(c) केवल 2, 3 और 4 

(d) केवल 1 और 4 

 

प्रश्न 73. राज्यसभा के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं ? 

1. राज्यसभा की अधिकतम अनुज्ञेय संख्या 250 है 

2. राज्यसभा में, 238 सदस्य राज्यों और संघ राज्य क्षेत्रों से अप्रत्यक्ष रूप से निर्वाचित होते हैं ।

3. अखिल भारतीय सेवाओं के सर्जन जैसे मामलों में इसकी लोकसभा के साथ समान रूप से विधायी शक्तियां हैं 

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) केवल 1 और 2 

(b) 1, 2 और 3 

(c) केवल 2 और 3 

(d) केवल 1 

 

प्रश्न 74. भारत के राष्ट्रपति के पद से संबंधित निम्नलिखित में से कौनसे कथन सही हैं ? 

1. राष्ट्रपति को विशेष मामलों में किसी अपराधी को क्षमादान की शक्ति है । 

2. राष्ट्रपति अध्यादेश प्रख्यापित तब भी कर सकता है जब संसद सत्र में हो . 

3. आपातकाल के दौरान राष्ट्रपति राज्यसभा को भंग कर सकता है 

4. राष्ट्रपति को आंग्ल-भारतीय समुदाय से दो सदस्य लोकसभा में नामनिर्देशित करने की शक्ति है 

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) 1 और 2 

(b) केवल 1 और 4 

(c) केवल 3 और 4 

(d) 1, 3 और 4 

 

प्रश्न 75. गोरखनाथ के अनुयायियों को क्या कहा जाता था ? 

(a) जोगी

(b) नाथ-पंथी । 

(c) तांत्रिक 

(d) सन्यासी 

 

प्रश्न 76. सिख संघ के 12 राज्यों को क्या कहा जाता था ? 

(a) मिस्ल 

(b) गुरमत 

(c) सरदारी 

(d) राखी 

 

प्रश्न 77. निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौन सा/से सही है/हैं ? – 

1. समान (कॉमन) सिविल संहिता का आदर्श भारत के संविधान के अनुच्छेद 44 में उपवर्णित किया गया है 

2. कुछ विषयों में, भारत में उच्च न्यायालयों को उच्चतम न्यायालय से अधिक विस्तृत शक्तियां दी गई है 

3. भारत का उच्चतम न्यायालय, देश के लिए – प्रथम पूर्ण रूप से स्वतंत्र न्यायालय, भारत के संविधान के अधीन 1950 में स्थापित किया गया 

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) 1, 2 और 3 

(b) केवल 2 और 3 

(c) केवल 1 

(d) केवल 3 

 

प्रश्न 78. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा/से अंतरण भुगतान के उदाहरण हैं ? 

1. बेरोजगारी भत्ता 

2. वेतन का भुगतान 

3. सामाजिक सुरक्षा भुगतान 

4. वृद्धावस्था पेन्शन 

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) केवल 1 और 3 

(b) केवल 1, 2 और 3 

(c) केवल 1, 3 और 4 

(d) उपर्युक्त में से कोई नहीं 

 

प्रश्न 79. एरावन देव मंदिर, जहां अगस्त 2015 में एक बड़ा बम विस्फोट हुआ था, कहाँ पर स्थित है ?

(a) सिंगापुर 

(b) बैंकॉक 

(c) कुआलालम्पुर 

(d) काबुल 

 

प्रश्न 80. निम्नलिखित में से कौन, वह प्रथम भारतीय खिलाड़ी है, जो 2015 की विश्व बैडमिंटन चैम्पियनशिप (महिला) में फाइनल में पहुँची ? 

(a) ज्वाला गुट्टा 

(b) साइना नेहवाल 

(c) पी.वी. सिन्धु 

(d) मधुमिता बिष्ट 

 

प्रश्न 81. निम्नलिखित में से भारत के संविधान के किस एक अनुच्छेद/अनुसूची का संबंध स्वशासी जिला परिषदों से हैं-

(a) आठवीं अनुसूची 

(b) अनुच्छेद 370 

(c) छठी अनुसूची 

(d) अनुच्छेद 250  

 

प्रश्न 82. UID / आधार कार्ड के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौन से कथन सही हैं ? 

1. यह भारत के सभी निवासियों के लिए पहचान का 12 अंकों का एक अनन्य रूप है 

2. यह व्यक्तियों की जैवमितीय सूचना के साथ एक पहचान संख्या है 

3. यह एक राष्ट्रीय पहचान और नागरिकता कार्ड है 

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) केवल 2 और 3 

(b) केवल 1 और 2 

(c) केवल 1 और 3 

(d) 1, 2 और 3 

 

प्रश्न 83. भारत के नियंत्रक-महालेखापरीक्षक (CAG) के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौनसे कथन सही हैं ? 

1. CAG पद ग्रहण करने की तिथि से 6 वर्ष तक पद धारण करेगा। वह 65 वर्ष की आयु पूरी कर लेने पर, यदि ऐसा 6 वर्ष की अवधि समाप्त होने से पहले हो, पद रिक्त कर देगा 

2. CAG की शक्तियां भारत के संविधान से व्युत्पन्न होती हैं 

3. CAG प्रधानमंत्री और मंत्रिपरिषद् की सलाह पर भारत के राष्ट्रपति द्वारा नियुक्त एक बहु-सदस्य निकाय है 

4. CAG को, सिद्ध कदाचार या अक्षमता के आधार पर, संसद के दोनों सदनों द्वारा समावेदन किए जाने पर ही, राष्ट्रपति द्वारा हटाया जा सकता है 

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) 1, 2 और 4 

(b) 1, 2 और 3 

(c) 3 और 4 

(d) केवल 1 और 2 

 

प्रश्न 84. विश्व स्तर पर प्रत्येक वर्ष की मानव विकास रिपोर्ट किसके द्वारा प्रकाशित की जाती है ?

(a) WTO 

(b) विश्व बैंक 

(c) UNDP 

(d) IMF 

 

प्रश्न 85. गुप्त शासकों के सिक्कों के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक कथन सही है ? 

(a) मुखभाग और पृष्ठभाग दोनों पर केवल राजा का चित्र और तिथि होती थी 

(b) मुखभाग और पृष्ठभाग दोनों पर केवल किसी देवता की प्रतिमा और तिथि होती थी 

(c) मुखभाग पर सामान्यत: राजा का चित्र और पृष्ठभाग पर किसी देवता की प्रतिमा या कोई 

कथानक रूढ़ि होती थी 

(d) मुखभाग पर सामान्यत: राजा का चित्र और पृष्ठभाग पर हमेशा तिथि होती थी 

प्रश्न 86. प्रारम्भिक भारत में अग्रहार क्या था ? 

(a) ब्राह्मणों को अनुदत्त गाँव या भूमि का नाम 

(b) अगर के फूलों की माला 

(c) अधिकारियों और सैनिकों को भूमि अनुदान 

(d) वैश्य कृषकों द्वारा बसाया हुआ गाँव या भूमि 

 

प्रश्न 87. अनुसूचित जनजाति और अन्य पारम्परिक वनवासी (वन अधिकारों की मान्यता) अधिनियम, 2006 के संबंध में निम्नलिखित में से कौनसे कथन सही हैं ? 

1. यह अधिनियम, वनवासी अनुसूचित जनजातियों के, जिनका 25 अक्टूबर, 1980 के पूर्व से वन भूमि पर दखल है, वन अधिकारों को मान्यता प्रदान करता है 

2. इस अधिनियम को कार्यान्वित करने का भार राज्य/संघ राज्यक्षेत्र सरकारों के स्तर पर होता 

3. यह अधिनियम वनवासी अनुसूचित जनजातियों और अन्य पारंपरिक वनवासियों को कुछ वन अधिकारों की मान्यता देता है और उनमें निहित करता है 

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) केवल 1 और 2 

(b) केवल 2 और 3 

(c) केवल 1 और 3 

(d) 1, 2 और 3 

 

प्रश्न 88. लिएंडर पेस ने US ओपन मिक्स्ड डबल टेनिस टाइटल (2015) किसकी साझेदारी में जीता ? 

(a) क्रिस्टीना म्लादेनोविच 

(b) फ्लेविया पेन्नेटा 

(c) मार्टिना हिंगिस 

(d) सानिया मिर्जा 

 

प्रश्न 89. निम्नलिखित में से कौन, विश्व खाद्य पुरस्कार (वर्ष 2015) का विजेता है ? 

(a) संजय राजाराम 

(b) बलदेव सिंह ढिल्लों 

(c) सर फज़ल हसन आबेद 

(d) राजेन्द्र सिंह परोडा 

 

प्रश्न 90. भारत के उच्चतम न्यायालय की सांविधानिक न्यायपीठ के निम्नलिखित में से किस एक निर्णय में मृत्युदंड अधिनिर्णीत करने के लिए विरलों में विरलतम’ सिद्धांत को पहली बार अधिकथित किया गया ? 

(a) बचन सिंह बनाम पंजाब राज्य (1980) 

(b) गोपालनचारी बनाम केरल राज्य (1980) 

(c) डा. उपेन्द्र बख्शी बनाम उत्तर प्रदेश राज्य (1983) 

(d) तुकाराम बनाम महाराष्ट्र राज्य (1979) 

 

प्रश्न 91. भारत के राष्ट्रपति के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. राष्ट्रपति को विशिष्ट जानकारी पाने के लिए मंत्रिपरिषद को संबोधित करने का और संदेश भेजने का अधिकार है । 

2. राष्ट्रपति विधान विषयक प्रस्थापनाओं से संबंधित जानकारी मांग सकता है 

3. संघ के प्रशासन संबंधी मंत्रिपरिषद के सभी _ विनिश्चय राष्ट्रपति को संसूचित किए जाने चाहिए उपर्युक्त में से कौनसे कथन सही हैं ? 

(a) केवल 1 और 3 

(b) केवल 2 और 3 

(c) केवल 1 और 2 

(d) 1,2 और 3 

 

प्रश्न 92. निम्नलिखित में से किस एक मामले में, भारत के उच्चतम न्यायालय द्वारा, मुस्लिम स्त्री (विवाह-विच्छेद पर अधिकार संरक्षण) अधिनियम 1986 की सांविधानिक वैधता को अनुमोदित किया गया ? 

(a) मुहम्मद अहमद खान बनाम शाह बानो बेगम 

(b) दानियाल लतीफी बनाम भारत संघ 

(c) मेरी रॉय बनाम केरल राज्य 

(d) शंकरी प्रसाद बनाम भारत संघ 

 

प्रश्न 93. विजयनगर साम्राज्य के बारे में निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा/से कथन सत्य है/हैं ? 

1. राजाओं ने भगवान विरूपाक्ष की ओर से शासन करने का दावा किया 

2. शासकों ने देवताओं के साथ अपनी घनिष्ठ संलग्नता इंगित करने के लिए “हिंदू सुरत्राण” उपाधि का प्रयोग किया। 

3. सभी राजसी आदेशों पर कन्नड़, संस्कृत और तमिल में हस्ताक्षर किए जाते थे 

4. राजसी आकृति मूर्ति अब मंदिरों में प्रदर्शित की जाती थी नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) केवल 4 

(b) केवल 1 और 2 

(c) 1, 2 और 3 

(d) 1, 2 और 4

 

प्रश्न 94. मध्यकालीन भारत में ‘इक्ता’ का क्या अर्थ था ? 

(a) आध्यात्मिक प्रयोजन के लिए धार्मिक कार्मिकों _को सौंपी गई भूमि 

(b) सैन्य अधिकारियों को समनुदेशित विभिन्न प्रादेशिक इकाइयों से प्राप्त भू-राजस्व । 

(c) शैक्षिक और सांस्कृतिक क्रियाकलापों के लिए दान 

(d) जमींदार के अधिकार

 

प्रश्न 95. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसी एक पुस्तक अकबर के दरबार के चित्रों से सज्जित नहीं थी ?

(a) हम्ज़ानामा 

(b) रज्मनामा 

(c) बाबरनामा 

(d) तारीख-ए-अल्फ़ी 

 

प्रश्न 96. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसी सार्वजनिक वस्त’ नहीं है ? 

(a) बिजली 

(b) राष्ट्रीय रक्षा 

(c) प्रकाश स्तंभ 

(d) सार्वजनिक उद्यान 

 

प्रश्न 97. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक, द्वितीय पंचवर्षीय योजना (1956-57 से 1960-61) के उद्देश्यों में से नहीं है ? 

(a) बुनियादी और भारी उद्योगों के विकास पर _ विशेष बल के साथ तेजी से औद्योगीकरण

(b) रोजगार के अवसरों का व्यापक विस्तार 

(c) खाद्यान्नों में आत्मनिर्भरता प्राप्त करना तथा उद्योग और निर्यात की जरूरतों को पूरा करने के लिए कृषि उत्पादन को बढ़ाना 

(d) आय और संपत्ति में असमानताओं को घटाना और आर्थिक शक्ति का अपेक्षाकृत अधिक समरूप वितरण 

 

प्रश्न 98. राष्टीय बाल नीति. 2013. कितनी आय से नीचे के प्रत्येक व्यक्ति को बालक मानती है ?

(a) 12 वर्ष 

(b) 14 वर्ष 

(c) 16 वर्ष 

(d) 18 वर्ष 

 

प्रश्न 99. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक, ‘बेटी बचाओ बेटी पढ़ाओ अभियान’ का मॉनीटर किया जाने वाला लक्ष्य नहीं है ? 

(a) वर्ष 2017 तक 100 बाल लिंग अनुपात (CSR) वाले जिलों में प्रत्येक विद्यालय में बालिकाओं के लिए शौचालय उपलब्ध कराना 

(b) वर्ष 2020 तक माध्यमिक शिक्षा में 100 प्रतिशत बालिकाओं का नामांकन । 

(c) बाल यौन अपराध संरक्षण (POCSO) अधिनियम, 2012 के कार्यान्वयन द्वारा बालिकाओं के लिए संरक्षण के परिवेश का संवर्धन 

(d) निर्वाचित प्रतिनिधियों/आधारिक कार्यकर्ताओं को समुदाय के हितैषियों (कम्यूनिटी चैंपियन) के रूप में प्रशिक्षित करना ताकि वे समदायों को CSR बेहतर बनाने तथा बालिकाओं के शिक्षा के संवर्धन के लिए संघटित करें 

 

प्रश्न 100. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक, ‘राष्ट्रीय उच्चतर शिक्षा अभियान (RUSA)’ का उद्देश्य नहीं है ? 

(a) निजी शिक्षा संस्थानों की समग्र गुणवत्ता को बेहतर बनाना 

(b) संबंधन, शैक्षिक और परीक्षा व्यवस्थाओं में सुधार सुनिश्चित करना 

(c) उच्चतर शिक्षा तक पहुँच में क्षेत्रीय असंतुलन को सुधारना 

(d) शोध और नवप्रवर्तनों हेतु स्वयं को समर्पित करने के लिए उच्चतर शिक्षा संस्थानों में सामर्थ्यकारी माहौल निर्मित करना 

 

प्रश्न 101. भारत में निवारक निरोध के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौनसा/से सही है/हैं ? 

1. निरुद्ध व्यक्ति को, भारत के संविधान के अनुच्छेद 22 के खंड (4) और (5) में उल्लिखित अधिकारों के सिवाय कोई अधिकार नहीं है । 

2. निरुद्ध व्यक्ति को निरोधादेश को इस आधार पर चुनौती देने का अधिकार है कि जब निरोधादेश पारित किया गया था, वह उससे पहले से ही जेल में था 

3. निरुद्ध व्यक्ति इस आधार पर जमानत का दावा कर सकता है कि वह मैजिस्ट्रेट के किसी आदेश के बिना ही चौबीस घंटों से अधिक कारागार में रह चुका है नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) केवल 1 और 2 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) केवल 3 

(d) 1, 2 और 3 

 

प्रश्न 102. लोकसभा का कोई सदस्य सदन का सदस्य बने रहने से निरहित नहीं हो जाता, यदि वह सदस्य : 

(a) जिस राजनीतिक दल से निर्वाचित होकर आया था/आयी थी, उससे स्वैच्छिक रूप से अपनी सदस्यता छोड़ देता/देती है 

(b) जिस राजनीतिक दल से सदन में निर्वाचित हुआ था/हुई थी, उससे निष्कासित कर दिया गया/दी गई हो 

(c) एक स्वतंत्र उम्मीदवार के रूप में निर्वाचित __ होने के पश्चात् किसी राजनीतिक दल में सम्मिलित हो जाता है 

(d) अपने राजनीतिक दल द्वारा दिए गए निदेश के विपरीत मतदान से प्रविरत रहता हो 

 

प्रश्न 103. निम्नलिखित भाषाओं में से किस एक को, भारत के संविधान की आठवीं अनुसूची में मान्यता नहीं दी गई 

(a) अंग्रेजी 

(b) संस्कृत 

(c) उर्दू 

(d) नेपाली 

 

प्रश्न 104. हज़ारा राम मंदिर किस राज्य में था ? 

(a) अवध

 (b) त्रावणकोर 

(c) विजयनगर 

(d) अहोम 

 

प्रश्न 105. दूसरी शताब्दी BC में संकल्पित लेखों के बारे में निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :

1. इसमें धार्मिक संस्थाओं को दिए गए उपहारों का अभिलेख है 

2. वे एक व्यक्ति के कार्य के सराहनीय परिणामों का अन्य व्यक्ति में अन्यारोपण होने के विचार के बारे में बताते हैं उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौनसा/से सही है/हैं ? 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) 1 और 2 दोनों 

(d) न तो 1, न ही 2 

 

प्रश्न 106. निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. अभिनवगुप्त ने ‘तंत्रलोक’ नामक एक व्यापक प्रबंध लिखा जो ‘कुल’ और ‘त्रिक’ तंत्रों की शिक्षाओं को व्यवस्थित रूप से प्रस्तुत करता है 

2. आठवीं शताब्दी के आसपास गुजरात में हरिभद्र सूरि द्वारा लिखित ‘समरैच्चकहा’ तकनीकी रूप से कोई तांत्रिक कृति नहीं है परन्तु तांत्रिक । विचारों और प्रथाओं से शराबोर है 

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौनसा/से सही है/हैं ? 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) 1 और 2 दोनों 

(d) न तो 1, न ही 2 

 

प्रश्न 107. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा/से ‘द्रव्यवत् प्रपत्र’ का/के उदाहरण है/हैं ? 

1. कोष पत्र 

2. क्रेडिट कार्ड 

3. बचत खाते तथा अल्पावधि जमाएँ 

4. खुदरा मुद्रा बाजार के म्यूचुअल फंड 

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) 1, 2 और 3 

(d) 1,3 और 4 

 

प्रश्न 108. निम्नलिखित शब्दों में से कौनसा एक, अर्थशास्त्र में प्रतिरोधी संव्यवहार द्वारा जोखिम के परिहार की तकनीक के लिए प्रयुक्त होता है ? 

(a) बाजार पाटना 

(b) हेजिंग करना 

(c) बट्टेदारी (डिस्काउन्टिंग) करना 

(d) अवस्फीति करना 

 

प्रश्न 109. वृत्त रूपक की श्रेणी में 87वाँ अकादमी अवार्ड जीतनेवाला, ‘सिटिज़नफोर’ किसके जीवन पर आधारित है ? 

(a) अब्राहम लिंकन 

(b) अलबर्ट आइन्सटाइन 

(c) एडवर्ड स्नोडेन 

(d) लॉरा प्वात्रा 

 

प्रश्न 110. निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा एक क्षेत्र उनमें से नहीं है जिन पर 2015-16 के रेल बजट में अधिक बल दिया गया है ? 

(a) डिस्पोजेबल बिस्तरों की ऑनलाइन बुकिंग 

(b) अधिपत्रों के निरसन हेतु रक्षा यात्रा प्रणाली 

(c) यात्रियों के लिए 180 दिन पहले टिकट बुकिंग की सुविधा 

(d) जैव-शौचालय

 

प्रश्न 111. इंडिया पोस्ट की निम्नलिखित सेवाओं में से किस एक को स्थायी रूप से बंद कर दिया गया है ? 

(a) मनी-आर्डर 

(b) तार 

(c) डाक जीवन बीमा 

(d) अंतर्देशीय पत्र 

 

प्रश्न 112. ‘भारत के प्रवासी नागरिक’ की श्रेणी भारत के नागरिकता अधिनियम में संशोधन द्वारा किस वर्ष में प्रविष्ट की गई ? 

(a) 1986 

(b) 1992 

(c) 1996 

(d) 2003 

 

प्रश्न 113. शिक्षा का अधिकार, भारत के संविधान में मूल अधिकारों में किस संशोधन द्वारा जोड़ा गया ? 

(a) संविधान (86वाँ संशोधन) अधिनियम, 2002 

(b) संविधान (93वाँ संशोधन) अधिनियम, 2005 

(c) संविधान (87वाँ संशोधन) अधिनियम, 2003 

(d) संविधान (97वाँ संशोधन) अधिनियम, 2011 

 

प्रश्न 114. निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. रुम्मिनदेई के स्तंभ पर उत्कीर्ण लेख अशोक के _ ‘धम्म’ का सुस्पष्ट विवरण देते हैं। 

2. निगलिसागर शिलालेख अशोक द्वारा कोणगमन स्तूप की यात्रा किए जाने के तथ्य का अभिलेख करता है 

उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौनसा/से सही है/हैं ?

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) 1 और 2 दोनों 

(d) न तो 1, न ही 2 

 

प्रश्न 115. निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए : 

1. असम प्रांत वर्ष 1911 में सृजित किया गया था 

2. वर्ष 1874 में, असम के अंतर्गत के 11 जिले बंगाल की लेफ्टिनेंट गवर्नरी में से पृथक कर दिए गए और एक चीफ कमिश्नर के अधीन स्वतंत्र प्रशासन के रूप में स्थापित किए गए उपर्युक्त कथनों में से कौनसा/से सही है/हैं ? 

(a) केवल 1 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) 1 और 2 दोनों 

(d) न तो 1, न ही 2 . 

 

प्रश्न 116. निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौनसा/से सत्य है/हैं ? 

1. फाहियान का ‘गाओसेंग फाहियान झुआन’ भारत में बौद्ध स्थलों और प्रथाओं का आद्यतम आँखों देखा चीनी विवरण था 

2. यह ग्रंथ लिखते समय फाहियान सिर्फ 25 वर्ष का था 

3. फाहियान के भारत आने का प्रमुख उद्देश्य उन . ग्रंथों को प्राप्त करना और वापस ले जाना था जिनमें मठ के नियम अंतर्विष्ट थे 

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) 1, 2 और 3. 

(b) केवल 2 

(c) केवल 1 और 3 

(d) केवल 3

 

प्रश्न 117. निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौनसे सही हैं ? 

1. कराधान का भुगतान के सामर्थ्य का सिद्धांत यह मानता है कि लोग करों की जिस राशि का भुगतान करते हैं, वह उनके आय या संपत्ति के सापेक्ष होनी चाहिए 

2. कराधान का हित-लाभ सिद्धांत यह बताता है कि व्यक्तियों पर कर, सरकारी कार्यक्रमों से उन्हें मिलने वाले हित-लाभ के अनुपात में लगाया जाना चाहिए 

3. वर्धमान कर धनी परिवारों से कर का जितना भाग लेता है, निर्धन परिवारों से उसकी अपेक्षा अधिक भाग प्राप्त करता है 

4. अप्रत्यक्ष करों का लाभ यह है कि वे अपेक्षाकृत सस्ते होते हैं और आसानी से उगाहे जाते हैं नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) केवल 1 और 3 

(b) केवल 2 और 4 

(c) केवल 1, 2 और 4 

(d) 1, 2, 3 और 4 

 

प्रश्न 118. निम्नलिखित कथनों में से कौनसा/से असत्य है/हैं ? 

1. मजदूरी बोर्ड त्रिपक्षीय स्वरूप के होते हैं, जिनमें कामगारों, नियोक्ताओं और स्वतंत्र सदस्यों में से प्रतिनिधि होते हैं। पत्रकारों और गैर-पत्रकारों के मजदूरी बोर्डों के सिवाय अन्य सभी मजदूरी बोर्ड सांविधिक स्वरूप के होते हैं 

3. द्वितीय राष्ट्रीय श्रम आयोग ने मजदूरी बोर्डो की उपयोगिता के विरुद्ध अनुशंसा दी है 

नीचे दिये गये कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए : 

(a) केवल 1

(b) केवल 2 

(c) केवल 1 और 2 

(d) 1, 2 और 3 

 

प्रश्न 119. भारतीय सेना में मेजर जनरल का रैक किसके समतुल्य है ? 

(a) भारतीय वायु सेना में एयर मार्शल 

(b) भारतीय नौसेना में रियर एडमिरल 

(c) भारतीय वायु सेना में एयर कमोडोर 

(d) भारतीय नौसेना में कमोडोर 

 

प्रश्न 120. वर्तमान में प्रचलित भारतीय उपग्रहों में कोई भी : 

(a) संचार उपग्रह नहीं है 

(b) संचालन उपग्रह नहीं है 

(c) पृथ्वी प्रेक्षण उपग्रह नहीं है 

(d) बृहस्पति कक्षीय उपग्रह नहीं है 

CDS(I) 2016 English

SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT 

Directions for the following 20 (twenty) items : 

Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or (c) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a “No improvement” response will be signified by the letter (d). 

Q 1. The police accused him for theft. 

(a) with 

(b) in 

(c) of 

(d) No improvement  

 

Q 2. He wanted that I left immediately. 

(a) I may leave 

(b) me to leave 

(c) I leave 

(d) No improvement

 

Q 3. This is to certify that I know Mr. J. Mathews since 1970. 

(a) am knowing 

(b) had known 

(c) have known 

(d) No improvement

 

Q 4. They took away everything that belonged to him. 

(a) that had been belonging 

(b) that belong 

(c) that has been belonging 

(d) No improvement

 

Q 5. It was the mother of the girl of whose voice I had recognised. 

(a) whose voice 

(b) the voice of who 

(c) voice whose 

(d) No improvement

 

Q 6. The Executive Council is consisted of ten members

(a) consists of 

(b) comprises of 

(c) constituted of 

(d) No improvement.

 

Q 7.The maid was laying the table for dinner. 

(a) setting up

(b) lying 

(c) sorting out 

(d) No improvement 

 

Q 8. We have so arranged the matters and one of us is always on duty. 

(a) that one of us 

(b) so that one of us 

(c) such that one of us 

(d) No improvement 

 

Q 9. Hardly have we got into the forest when it began to rain. 

(a) Hardly we got 

(b) We had hardly got 

(c) We had got hard 

(d) No improvement

 

Q 10. Each time he felt tired he lied down. 

(a) lies 

(b) lays 

(c) lay 

(d) No improvement

 

Q 11. Though it was raining, but I went out. 

(a) but yet I 

(b) 1 

(c) however I 

(d) No improvement

 

Q 12. There is no chance of success unless you do not work hard. 

(a) unless you work 

(b) until your working 

(c) until you do not work 

(d) No improvement

 

Q 13. She has grown too old to do little work. 

(a) some 

(b) any 

(c) a little 

(d) No improvement

 

Q 14. No one enjoys to deceive his family. 

 (a) deceiving 

(b) for deceiving 

(c) deceive 

(d) No improvement 

 

Q 15. Have you ever saw the flower of a pumpkin plant? 

(a) see 

(b) seeing 

(c) seen 

(d) No improvement 

 

Q 16. It is an ancient, historical place and it once belongs to the Pandavas. 

(a) belonged 

(b) belonging 

(c) belong 

(d) No improvement 

 

Q 17. Since we were knowing the correct route, we did not worry at all. 

(a) knew 

(b) have known 

(c) know 

(d) No improvement 

 

Q 18. Our country can progress when only people work hard. 

(a) when people only work hard 

(b) when people work hard only 

(c) only when people work hard 

(d) No improvement 

 

Q 19. Wake me up when father will come. 

(a) comes 

(b) will have come 

(c) came 

(d) No improvement

 

Q 20. Do take an umbrella with you lest you do not get wet. 

(a) lest you should get wet 

(b) lest you should not get wet 

(c) lest you might not get wet 

(d) No improvement 

 

ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE 

Directions for the following 15 (fifteen) items : 

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. 

Q 21. that it would affect the investigation process (P) / they refused (Q)/ of these raids saying (R)/ to divulge the venues(S) 

The proper sequence should be 

(a) PQRS 

(b) SRPQ 

(c) QSRP

(d) RPQS 

 

Q 22. that he already has (P) / buying things (Q) / that rich man (R) / goes on (S)   

The proper sequence should be 

(a) PSQR 

(b) RSQP 

(c) SQRP 

(d) RPQS 

 

Q 23. the police commissioner rushed (P) / the crowd (Q) / to control (R) / the police force (S) 

The proper sequence should be 

(a) QRSP 

(b) PQRS 

(c) PSRQ 

(d) RSPQ 

 

Q 24. my brother (P) / to attend his friend’s wedding (Q) / is going to Chennai (R) /  tomorrow (S)

The proper sequence should be 

(a) PSQR 

(b) QPSR 

(c) ROPS 

(d) PRSQ 

 

Q 25. quickly (P) / he gave orders (Q) / to catch the thief (R) / to his men (S) 

The proper sequence should be 

(a) SPRQ 

(b) QSRP 

(c) PSRQ

(d) RSPP 

 

Q 26. to give a definition(P) /  if I were (Q) / I would begin (R) /  like this (S)  

The proper sequence should be 

(a) QPRS 

(b) PQRS 

(c) SRQP 

(d) RSPQ 

 

Q 27. deserve all honour in society (P) / in doing their job well (Q) / men of conscience who take pride (R) /  whatever its nature (S) 

The proper sequence should be 

(a) RQSP 

(b) QRPS 

(c) PRSQ 

(d) SPQR 

 

Q 28. while some live (P) / to eat and drink (Q) / many do not have enough (R) /  in luxury (S) 

The proper sequence should be 

(a) PSRQ 

(b) PRSQ 

(c) SPOR 

(d) RISP 

 

Q 29. I believed then /  that no matter (P) / one should always find some time for exercise (Q) / and I believe even now (R) / the amount of work one has (S) 

The proper sequence should be 

(a) PROS 

(b) PSRQ 

(c) RPQS 

(d) RPSQ 

 

Q 30. I wonder (P) / whenever I decide to go to the cinema  (Q) / with my scooter  (R) / why I always have trouble (S)  

The proper sequence should be 

(a) QSPR 

(b) QRSP 

(c) PSRQ

(d) PRSO 

 

Q 31. The bird-catcher / by means of snares  (P) / knew all the birds of the forest (Q) / by the hundred  (R) / and was accustomed to capturing the winged creatures (S)

The proper sequence should be 

(a) QPSR 

(b) QSRP 

(C) PQSR 

(d) PROS 

 

Q 32. Man is / a biological being (P) /  his physical and material needs  (Q) /  confined to  (R) / not merely 

 

The proper sequence should be 

(a) RSPQ 

(b) SRP 

(c) RPSQ 

(d) SPRQ 

 

Q 33. A gang of robbers / while they were fast asleep  (P) / entered the village (Q) /  and stole the property of the villagers (R) /  at night (S) 

 

The proper sequence should be 

(a) QSRP 

(b) SQPR 

(c) SPOR 

(d) QPSR 

 

Q 34. The opposition members  (P) / the ruling of the Speaker (Q) / to protest against  (R) /of the Parliament. (S) / walked out 

The proper sequence should be 

(a) SPQR

 (b) QRPS

 (c) RSPQ 

(d) SRQP 

 

Q 35. When /  (P) / a boy saved her  (P) / by a speeding car (R) / at the risk of his life (S) /a little girl was about to be run over 

 

 The proper sequence should be 

(a) SPRO 

(b) RSQP 

(c) SQPR 

(d) QPSR 

 

ORDERING OF SENTENCES 

Directions for the following 10 (ten) items : 

In the following items each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentence are given in the beginning as Sl and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet. 

Q 36. S1 : Once upon a time there was a king who had a wonderfully nice garden. 

S6: In the trees lived a nightingale that sang so sweetly that all who passed by stood still and listened. 

P : In the middle of the garden there was a lovely forest with tall trees and deep lakes. 

Q : In this garden were to be seen the most wonderful flowers with silver bells tied to them. 

R: The garden was so large that even the gardener himself did not know where it began and where it ended. 

S: These bells always sounded so that nobody should pass by without noticing the flowers. 

The proper sequence should be 

(a) QPRS

(b) SPQR 

(c) QSRP

 (d) QPSR 

 

Q 37. S1 : One of the first things the learning of a new language teaches you is that language comes from the region of the unconscious. 

S6: The test of how much you know is : how much can you say without having to think how you are going . : to say it ? 

P: What is often meant by “thinking in a language” is really the ability to use it without thinking about it. 

Q: We grown-up people have to filter it through our minds – a much more laborious process. 

R: That is why children learn a new language so effortlessly: it comes straight from their instincts. 

S : But we cannot say that we know a language, or know what we have studied of it, until we can use it instinctively. 

The proper sequence should be 

(a) SQRP 

(b) RPSQ 

(c) PQSR 

(d) RQSP

 

Q 38. S1 : For seventeen years she led a sheltered life in the convent. 

S6: Two years later she left the Loreto Convent where she had spent many happy and useful years. 

P: Her heart went out to the people living there. 

Q : In 1946 she asked for permission to work in the slums.

R: Then one day, while she was returning from an errand, she saw the slums of Calcutta. 

S : She felt she had found her second vocation, her real calling. 

The proper sequence should be

(a) PRSQ 

(b) RPSQ

(c) RPQS 

(d) QRPS

 

Q 39. SI : Good memory is so common that we regard a man who does not possess it as eccentric.

S6: She wheeled away the perambu lator, picturing to herself his terror when he would come out and find the baby gone. 

P:I have heard of a father who, having offered to take the baby out in a perambulator, was tempted by the sunny morning to pause on his journey and slip into a public house for a glass of beer. 

Q: A little later, his wife had to do some shopping which took her past the public house where to her horror, she discovered her sleeping baby. 

R: Leaving the perambulator outside, he disappeared into the drink shop. 

S : Indignant at her husband’s behaviour, she decided to teach him a lesson. 

The proper sequence should be 

(a) PQRS 

(b) PRQS 

(c) PSQR 

(d) PQSR

 

Q 40. Sl : Human ways of life have steadily changed. 

S6: Even if we try to do nothing, we cannot prevent change. 

P: Ancient Egypt – Greece – the Roman Empire – the Dark Ages and the Middle Ages – the Renaissance – the age of modern science and of modern nations one has succeeded the other; the history has never stood still.

Q : About ten thousand years ago, man I lived entirely by hunting

R: A settled civilized life only began when agriculture was discovered.

S : From that time to this, civilization has always been changing. 

The proper sequence should be 

(a) QRSP 

(b) QPSR 

(c) QSRP 

(d) PRSQ

 

Q 41. Sl : In our youth we are apt to think that applause and publicity constitute success. 

 

S6: So let us be initiated into the mysteries of maturity and be taught how to resist and spurn the lure of hollow shows. 

P : The man who values the applause more than his own effort has not outgrown his youth. 

Q : It is our achievement or work which wins lasting rewards. 

R : But these are only the trappings, the ephemeral illusions. 

S : One should concentrate on one’s work knowing that applause will come unsought. 

The proper sequence should be

(a) SRQP 

(b) PSRQ 

(c) QPSR 

(d) RQPS

 

Q 42. S1: My office sent an urgent email asking me to return. 

S6: It was evening before I could sit and write to my parents that I would be joining them soon. 

P: I immediately replied requesting a few days of grace as I had to book the return passage, pack and attend sundry matters before winding up my establishment here. 

Q : On the way, I went to the laundry and made sure I would get my clothes in time. 

R : Then I rushed to the bank, collected all my money and made reserva tions for my return journey. 

S : From the shop next to it, I bought a couple of trunks to dump my books and other odd articles so that I could send them away in advance.

The proper sequence should be

(a) PQRS 

(b) PRQS 

(C) PRSQ 

(d) PSRQ

 

Q 43. S1: Wordsworth knew the behaviour of owls in the night better than most of us know the ways of black birds in day time. 

S6: His great poetry owes much to the night. 

P : Out of school there were no restrictions on the hours he kept. 

Q : No poet ever had happier school days. 

R : He would skate by the light of the stars, snare woodcocks at dead of night, watch the sunrise after a long ramble.

S: Throughout life he was an inveterate walker by night.

The proper sequence should be 

(a) Q P R S 

(b) P SQR 

(c) QRPS 

(d) SQPR

 

Q 44. Sl : Science has already conferred an immense boon on mankind by the growth of medicine.

S6: The general death rate in 1948 (10.8) was the lowest ever recorded up to that date. 

P : It has continued ever since and is still continuing 

Q : In the eighteenth century people expected most of their children to die before they were grown up. 

R : In 1920 the infant mortality rate in England and Wales was 80 per thousand; in 1948 it was 34 per thousand. 

S : Improvement began at the start of the nineteenth century, chiefly owing to vaccination. 

The proper sequence should be 

(a) PQRS 

(b) RPQS 

(c) QPRS 

(d) PRQS

 

Q 45. SI : The young traveller gazed out into the dismal country with a face of mingled repulsion and interest. 

S6: He quickly restored it to his secret pocket. 

P: At intervals he drew from his pocket a bulky letter to which he referred, and on the margins of which he scribbled some notes.

R : From the back of his waist he produced something which one would hardly have expected to find in the possession of so mild mannered a man. 

Q : It was a navy revolver of the largest size. 

S : As he turned it slantwise to the light, the glint upon the rims of the copper shells within the drum showed that it was fully loaded.

The proper sequence should be 

(a) RPQS 

(b) QSPR 

(c) SQRP 

(d) PQSR

 

FILL IN THE BLANK 

Directions for the following 10 (ten) items : 

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words are given after each sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. 

Q 46. The mounting pressure was so over whelming that he ultimately to her _________ wish. 

(a) yielded in 

(b) gave in

(c) cowed in

(d) agreed in

 

Q 47. Authority _________ when it is not supported by the moral purity of its user. 

(a) prevails

(b) entails

(c) crumbles

(d) waits

 

Q 48. In a developing country like India some industries will have to be brought within public_________ and control, for other wise rapid growth of the economy may be impossible. 

(a) perspective

(b) hegemony

(c) observation

(d) ownership

 

Q 49. Gandhiji conceived of the idea of channelizing the powerful currents of the united mass movement so as to give the utmost impetus to the national for independence. 

(a) struggle 

(b) conflict 

(c) onslaught 

(d) march 

 

Q 50. Because of his _________habits, he could not save much money. 

(a) extravagant 

(b) frugal 

(c) unsavoury 

(d) bad 

 

Q 51. Socrates was _________  of spreading discontent among young men of Athens and of trying to destroy their faith in the old gods. 

(a) rebuked 

(b) disparaged 

(c) accused 

(d) demonised 

 

Q 52. The robbers fell _________  amongst themselves over the sharing of the loot. 

(a) out

(b) through

(c) off

(d) across

 

Q 54. Speeding and blocking are traffic offences which lead to _________  accidents. 

(a) troublesome 

(b) final 

(c) great 

(d) gruesome 

 

Q 53. A really sophisticated person would never be  _________  enough to think that he is always right.

(a) reverent

(b) naive

(c) articulate

(d) humble

 

Q 55. Creative people are often  _________  with their own uniqueness. 

(a) obsessed 

(b) deranged 

(c) unbalanced 

(d) dissatisfied 

 

SELECTING WORDS 

Directions for the following 20 (twenty) items : 

In the following passage at certain points you are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage. Choose the best word out of the three. Mark the letter, viz., (a), (b) or (c), relating to this word on your Answer Sheet. Examples K and L have been solved for you. 

The K was in the school in Simla. L was home sick. 

K. (a) boy (b) horse (c) dog

L. (a) She (b) It (c) He

Explanation : Out of the list given in item K, only, ‘boy’ is the correct answer because usually, a boy, and not a horse or a dog, attends school. So ‘(a)’ is to be marked on the Answer Sheet for item K. A boy is usually referred to as “he’, so for item L, (c)’ is the correct answer. Notice that to solve the first item K you have to read the rest of the sentence and then see what fits best. 

I was engaged in many activities and I wanted a proper reconciliation between my activity and thought. Thought without  (56)  is undeveloped thought. Action action without (57) is folly. Of course we (58) act on some impulse or (59) urge. If suddenly you throw (60) no brick at me and my (61) goes up in front to (62) myself, it is an automatic, (63) action and not a result (64) deliberate thought. Our living is (65) by a series of automatic (66) from morning till night. Anything (67) do outside that common range of (68) however, has to be (69) by some measure of thinking. (70) more action and thought are (71) and integrated, the more effective (72) become and the happier you (73). There will then be no (74) between a wish to do something and (75) to act. 

Q 56. (a) wish  (b) action (c) idea

Q 57. (a) thought (b) wish (c) idea

Q 58. (a) never (b) belatedly (c) sometimes

Q 59. (a) peaceful (b) uncontrollable (c) indisputable

Q 60. (a) no (b) an  (c) a

Q 61. (a) hand (b) wrist (c) finger

Q 62. (a)stimulate myself it is an automatic (b)rescue (c)protect

Q 63. (a)uncontrollable action (b) instinctive(c)impulsive

Q 64. (a)to deliberate thought our living is  (b) in (c)of 

Q 65. (a)made by a series  (b)conditioned (c)developed

Q 66. (a)thoughts from morning till night anything (b)actions (c)wishes

Q 67. (a)we do outside that  (b) I (c) they 

Q 68. (a)thoughts however has to be  (b)ideas (c)actions

Q 69. (a)proceeded by some measure  (b) preceded (c)followed 

Q 70. (a)some more action and thought are  (b) If (c)  The 

Q 71. (a)developed and integrated the  (b) allied (c) hostile 

Q 72. (a) they become and the happier you (b)thoughts  (c)we

Q 73. (a)appear There will then  (b) develop (c)grow 

Q 74. (a) reconciliation become and the happier you (b) conflict (c)inflict 

Q 75. (a)inability to act  (b) probability (c)plausibility 

 

SPOTTING ERRORS 

Directions for the following 15 (fifteen) items : 

Each question in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d). 

Q 76. (a) This hardly won freedom /(b) should not be lost /(c)  so soon/(d) No error. 

Q 77.(a) I tried to meet the person /(b) whom you said /(c) was looking for me  /(d) No error. 

 

Q 78.(a) We looked after the thief, /(b) but he was nowhere /(c) to be found /(d) No error. 

Q 79. (a) I hoped that the train  /(b) will arrive on time, /(c) but it did not. /(d) No error. 

Q 80.(a) Their all belongings  /(b) were lost  /(c)in the fire. /(d)No error. 

Q 81.(a)He was in the temper /(b) and refused /(c)to discuss the matter again. /(d) No error. 

Q 82.(a) The decorations in your house  /(b)are similar /(c) to his house./(d) No error. 

Q 83.(a) Despite of the increase in air fares, /(b) most people still prefer /(c) to travel by plane./(d) No error. 

Q 84 .(a) He told the boys that /(b) bif they worked hard, /(c)they will surely passs. /(d) Noerror. 

Q 85. (a) I shall write /(b) to you  /(c) when I shall reach Chennai./(d)No error. 

Q 86. (a) Neither of these two documents /(b)support your claim /(c)on the property./(d) No error. 

Q 87.(a) He is school teacher,  /(b)but all his sons /(c) are doctors. /(d)No error. 

Q 88.(a) His grandfather /(b)had told to smoke /(c) was a bad habit. /(d) No error.

Q 89.(a)  My book, which /(b)I gave it to you yesterday,/(c)is very interesting./(d) Noerror. 

Q 90.(a) I am entirely agreeing with you, /(b)but I regret ,/(c) I can’t help you. /(d)No error.   

 

COMPREHENSION 

Directions for the 21 (twenty one) items which follow : 

In this section you have six short passages. After each passage, you will find some questions based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only. 

Passage 1 

To avoid the various foolish opinions to which mankind is prone, no superhuman brain is required. A few simple rules will keep you, not from all errors, but from silly errors. 

If the matter is one that can be settled by observation, make the observation yourself. Aristotle could have avoided the mistake of thinking that women have fewer teeth than men, by the simple device of asking Mrs. Aristotle to keep her mouth open while he counted. Thinking that you know, when in fact you do not, is a bad mistake to which we are all prone. I believe myself that hedgehogs eat black beetles, because I have been told that they do; but if I were writing a book on the habits of hedgehogs, I should not commit myself until I had seen one enjoying this diet. Aristotle, however, was less cautious. Ancient and medieval writers knew all about unicorns and salamanders; not one of them thought it necessary to avoid dogmatic statements about them because he had never seen one of them. 

Q 91. The writer believes that 

(a) most people could avoid making foolish mistakes if they were clever 

(b) through observation we could avoid making many mistakes

(c) Aristotle made many mistakes because he was not observant

(d) All errors are caused by our own error in thinking 

 

Q 92. With reference to the passage, which one of the following is the correct statement ? 

(a) Aristotle was able to avoid the mistake of thinking that women have fewer teeth than men 

(b) Aristotle thought women have fewer teeth than men 

(c) Aristotle proved that women have fewer teeth by counting his wife’s teeth 

(d) Aristotle may have thought that women have fewer teeth because he never had a wife

 

Q 93. The writer says that if he was writing a book on hedgehogs 

(a) he would maintain that they eat black beetles because he had been told so 

(b) he would first observe their eating habits 

(c) he would think it unnecessary to verify that they ate black beetles

(d) he would make the statement that they ate black beetles and later verify it

 

Q 94. The writer is of the opinion that 

(a) unicorns and salamanders were observed by ancient and medieval writers but were unknown to modern writers 

(b) ancient and medieval writers wrote authoritatively about unicorns and salamanders though they had never seen them 

(c) unicorns and salamanders do not exist 

(d) only those who had observed the habits of unicorns and salamanders wrote about them 

 

Q 95. A ‘dogmatic statement’ in the context means a statement which is 

(a) convincing 

(b) proved 

(c) unquestionable 

(d) doubtful 

 

Passage 2 

Since I had nothing better to do, I decided to go to the market to buy a few handkerchiefs, the old ones had done vanishing trick. On the way I met an old friend of mine and I took him to a nearby restaurant for tea and snacks. Afterwards I went to the shop and selected a dozen handkerchiefs. I pulled out my purse to make the payment, and discovered that it was empty; I then realized that it was not my purse, it was a different purse altogether. How that happened is still a source of wonder to me and I refuse to believe that it was the work of my good old friend, for it was his purse that I held in my hand. 

Q 96. The man could not buy the handkerchiefs because 

(a) he did not like the handkerchiefs 

(b) his friend did not allow him to buy them 

(c) the shop did not have any handkerchiefs 

(d) he had no money in the purse 

 

Q 97. When he tried to take out the purse, he discovered that 

(a) it was not there 

(b) it was lost 

(c) it was a new purse 

(d) it was his friend’s purse

 

Passage 3 

A profound terror, increased still by the darkness, the silence and his waking images, froze his heart within him. He almost felt his hair stand on end, when by straining his eyes to their utmost, he perceived through the shadows two faint yellow lights. At first he attributed these lights to the reflection of his own pupils, but soon the vivid brilliance of the night aided him gradually to distinguish the objects around him in the cave, and he beheld a huge animal lying but two steps from him. 

Q 98. The opening of the passage suggests that 

(a) darkness, silence and waking images added to his already being in pro found terror 

(b) a profound terror increased the waking images in his frozen heart

(c) the person was frightened by darkness and silence

(d) a profound terror was caused in him by the silence and darkness of the night

 

Q 99. When he perceived through the shadows two faint lights, 

(a) he experienced a great strain

(b) he felt his hair stand upright

(c) his eyes felt strained to their utmost 

(d) his pupils dilated

 

Q 100. The person in the story the person was frightened by darkness and silence 

(a) imagined that he saw an animal 

(b) could not recognize the animal 

(c) saw the animal by chance

(d) expected to see the animal

 

Passage 4 

We are tempted to assume that technological progress is real progress and that material success is the criterion of civilization. If the Eastern people become fascinated by machines and techniques and use them, as Western nations do, to build huge industrial organizations and large military establishments, they will get involved in power politics and drift into the danger of death. Scientific and technological civilization brings great opportunities and great rewards but also great risks and temptations. Science and technology are neither good nor bad. They are not to be tabooed but tamed and assigned their proper place. They become dangerous only if they become idols. 

Q 101. According to the author, people think that real progress lies in 

(a) material success and technological growth 

(b) imitating Western nations 

(c) having large industries and political power 

(d) taking risks and facing temptations

 

Q 102. According to the author, science and technology should be 

(a) tabooed and eliminated from life

(b) used in a controlled and careful manner 

(c) encouraged and liberally used 

(d) made compulsory in education

 

Q 103. From the passage one gathers that the Eastern people must 

(a) appreciate scientific achievements 

(b) build huge industrial organizations 

(c) avoid being controlled by machines and techniques of industrial produc tion 

(d) be fascinated by machines

 

Q 104. According to the author, science and technology are 

(a) totally harmless 

(b) extremely dangerous

(c) to be treated as idols

(d) useful, if they are not worshipped blindly 

 

Passage 5 

It is not luck but labour that makes men. Luck, says an American writer, is ever waiting for something to turn up; labour with keen eyes and strong will always turns up something. Luck lies in bed and wishes the postman would bring him news of a legacy; labour turns out at six and with busy pen and ringing hammer lays the foundation of competence. Luck whines, labour watches. Luck relies on chance; labour on character. Luck slips downwards to self-indulgence; labour strides upwards and aspires to independence. The conviction, therefore, is extending that diligence is the mother of good luck; in other words, that a man’s success in life will be proportionate to his efforts, to his industry, to his attention to small things. 

Q 105. Which one of the following statements sums up the meaning of the passage ? 

(a) Luck waits without exertion but labour exerts without waiting

(b) Luck waits and complains without working while labour achieves success although it complains

(c) Luck often ends in defeat but labour produces luck

(d) Luck is self-indulgent but labour is selfless

 

Q 106. Which one of the following statements is true about the passage ?

(a) Luck is necessary for success

(b) Success depends on hard work and attention to details

(c) Expectation of good luck always meets with disappointment

(d) Success is exactly proportionate to hard work only

 

Q 107.“ ___________labour turns out at six and with busy pen and ringing hammer lays the foundation of competence.” This statement means 

(a) hard work of all kinds makes people efficient and skilled

(b) the labour lays the foundation of the building 

(c) the writer and the labourer are the true eyes of the society 

(d) there is no worker who works so hard as the labourer who begins his day at six in the morning 

 

Passage 6 

The avowed purpose of the exact sciences is to establish complete intellectual control over experience in terms of precise rules which can be formally set out and empirically tested. Could that ideal be fully achieved, all truth and all error could henceforth be ascribed to an exact theory of the universe, while we who accept this theory would be relieved of any occasion for exercising our personal judgement. We should only have to follow the rules faithfully. Classical mechanics approaches this ideal so closely that it is often thought to have achieved it. But this leaves out of account the element of personal judgement involved in applying the formulae of mechanics to the facts of experience. 

Q 108. The purpose of the exact sciences is to 

(a) form opinions about our experience

(b) formulate principles which will help us to exercise our personal judgement

(c) assert our intellectual superiority 

(d) make formal and testable rules which can help verify experience

 

Q 109. An exact theory of the universe is 

(a) not desirable 

(b) improbable 

(c) possible 

(d) yet to be made

 

Q 110. In exact sciences 

(a) personal judgements are set aside in favour of a mechanical theory 

(b) one does not find answers to all questions and problems 

(c) one reposes faith in actual experience 

(d) one interprets the universe according to one’s wish 

 

Q 111. Classical mechanics 

(a) has formulated precise rules based on experience Cape

(b) has gained intellectual control over the world

(c) has formulated an exact theory of the universe

(d) just falls short of achieving intel lectual control over experience

 

SYNONYMS 

Directions for the following 9 (nine) items : 

Each item in this section consists of a word in capital letters followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or groups of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters. 

Q 112. AMBIGUOUS

(a) contrasting 

(b) connivance

 (c) vague 

(d) wilful

 

Q 113. ELUCIDATE 

(a) clarify 

(b) calculate 

(c) summarise 

(d) update

 

Q 114. MONOTONOUS 

(a) dreary

(b) dreadful 

(c) single-minded 

(d) monologue

 

Q 115. KINDLE 

(a) make fun of 

(b) excite 

(c) very kind

(d) kind-hearted

 

Q 116. PALATIAL 

(a) very clean 

(b) very special 

(c) sense of taste 

(d) magnificent 

 

Q 117. TACTFUL 

(a) diplomatic 

(b) indifferent 

(c) intelligent 

(d) deceitful 

 

Q 118. VORACIOUS 

(a) very bad 

(b) insatiable 

(c) stingy 

(d) malicious 

 

Q 119. STRICTURE 

(a) strictness 

(b) stinging 

(c) discipline 

(d) censure 

 

Q 120. OBEISANCE 

(a) homage 

(b) pilgrimage 

(c) subjugation 

(d) obligation 

CDSE 1 2018 Mathematics

Q. 1 5¹⁷ + 5¹⁸ + 5¹⁹ + 5²⁰ is divisible by

A. 7

B. 9

C. 11

D. 13

 

Q. 2 If a + b = 2c, then what is the value of {a / (a – c)} + {c / (b – c)} ?

A. -1

B. 0

C. 1

D. 2

 

Q. 3 If x = y¹/ᵃ, y = z ¹/ᵇ and z = x ¹/ᶜ where x ≠ 1, y ≠ 1, z ≠ 1, then what is the value of abc?

A. -1

B. 1

C. 0

D. 3

 

Q. 4 If 2b = a + c and y² = xz, then what is the x⁽ᵇ⁻ᶜ⁾ y⁽ᶜ⁻ᵃ⁾ z⁽ᵃ⁻ᵇ⁾ equal to?

A. 3

B. 2

C. 1

D. -1

 

Q. 5 Which one of the following is correct?

A. Decimal expansion of a rational number is terminating.

B. Decimal expansion of a rational number is non-terminating.

C. Decimal expansion of an irrational number is terminating.

D. Decimal expansion of an irrational number is non-terminating and non-repeating.

 

Q. 6 If the roots of equation px² + x + r = 0 are reciprocal to each other, then which of the following is correct?

A. p = 2r

B. p = r

C. 2p = r

D. p = 4r

 

Q. 7 If 65x – 33y = 97 and 33x – 65y = 1, then what is xy equal to?

A. 2

B. 3

C. -2

D. -3

 

Q. 8 If b/y + z/c = 1 and c/z + x/a = 1, then what is (ab + xy) / bx equal to?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 0

D. -1

 

Q. 9 If (a² – 1) / a = 5, then what is the value of (a⁶ – 1) / a³ ?

A. 125

B. -125

C. 140

D. -140

 

Q. 10 If x + y + z = 0, then what is (y + z – x)³ + (z + x – y)³ + (x + y – z)³ equal to? 

A. (x + y + z)³

B. 3 (x + y) (y + z) (z + x)

C. 24xyz

D. -24xyz

 

Q. 11 If (x + 3) is a factor of x³ + 3x² + 4x + k, the what is the value of k?

A. 12

B. 24

C. 36

D. 72

 

Q. 12 The smaller integer with 4 digits which is a perfect square is

A. 1000

B. 1024

C. 1089

D. None of the above

 

Q. 13 Which one of the following is a zero of the polynomial 3x³ + 4x² – 7 ?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. -1

 

Q. 14 There are two numbers which are greater than 21 and their LCM and HCF are 3003 and 21 respectively. What is the sum of these numbers?

A. 504

B. 508

C. 514

D. 528

 

Q. 15 If α and β are the roots of the equation ax² + bx + c = 0, then what is the value of the expression (α + 1) (β + 1) ?

A. (a + b + c) / a

B. (b + c – a) / a

C. (a – b + c) / a

D. (a + b – c) /a

 

Q. 16 The remainder when 3x³ + kx² + 5x – 6 is divided by (x + 1) is -7. What is the value of k? 

A. -14

B. 14

C. -7

D. 7

 

Q. 17 If f(x) and g(x) are polynomials of degree p and q respectively, then the degree of {f(x) ± g(x)} (if it is non-zero) is

A. Greater than min(p,q)

B. Greater than max(p,q)

C. Less than or equal to max(p,q)

D. Equal to min(p,q)

 

Q. 18 What is the value of [ {(√5 – √3) / (√5 + √3)} – {(√5 + √3) / (√5 – √3)} ] ?

A. -2√15

B. 2√15

C. √15

D. -√15

 

Q. 19 What is the value of [ { 1 / (1 + x⁽ᵇ⁻ᵃ⁾ + x⁽ᶜ⁻ᵃ⁾) } + { 1 / (1 + x⁽ᵃ⁻ᵇ⁾ + x⁽ᶜ⁻ᵇ⁾) } + { 1 / (1 + x⁽ᵃ⁻ᶜ⁾ + x⁽ᵇ⁻ᶜ⁾) } ] , where x ≠ 0 ?

A. -1

B. 0

C. 1

D. 3

 

Q. 20 The sum of a number and its square is 20. Then the number is

A. -5 or 4

B. 2 or 3

C. -5 only

D. 5 or -4

 

Q. 21 If the price of wheat rises by 25%, then by how much percent must a man reduce his consumption in order to keep his budget the same as before?

A. 15%

B. 20%

C. 25%

D. 30%

 

Q. 22 1 / 25 of the students who registered did not appear for the examination, 11 / 20 of those who appeared passed. If the number of registered students is 2000, the number who passed is

A. 1920

B. 1056

C. 1020

D. 864

 

Q. 23 What is the difference between 0.9̅ and 0.9?

A. 0

B. 0.099

C. 0.1

D. 0.09

 

Q. 24 If A : B = 1 : 2, B : C = 3 : 4, C : D = 2 : 3 and D : E = 3 : 4, then what is B : E equal to ? 

A. 3 : 2

B. 1 : 8

C. 3 : 8

D. 4 : 1

 

Q. 25 A work when done by 10 women is completed in 12 days. The same work can be completed in 8 days when done by 5 men. How many days will it take to complete when 6 women and 3 men are employed to perform the same job?

A. 12

B. 10

C. 8

D. 5

 

Q. 26 A man undertakes to do a certain work in 150 days. He employs 200 men. He finds that only a quarter of the work is done in 50 days. How many additional men should he employ so that the whole work is finished in time?

A. 75

B. 85

C. 100

D. 120

 

Q. 27 A train moving with a speed of 60 km per hour crosses an electric pole in 30 seconds. What is the length of the train in meters?

A. 300

B. 400

C. 500

D. 600

 

Q. 28 ₹ 120 is distributed among A, B and C so that A’s share is ₹ 20 more than B’s and ₹ 20 less than C’s. What is B’s share?

A. ₹ 10

B. ₹ 15

C. ₹ 20

D. ₹ 25

 

Q. 29 In the given table of inverse variation, what are the values of A, B, and C respectively? 

A. 10, -30, -1

B. 10, -1, 30

C. -30, 10, -1

D. -1, -30, 10

 

Q. 30 A person borrowed ₹ 5,000 at 5% rate of interest per annum and immediately lent it at 5.5%. After two years he collected the amount and settled his loan. What is the amount gained by him in this transaction?

A. ₹ 25

B. ₹ 50

C. ₹ 100

D. ₹ 200

 

Q. 31 At present, the average of the ages of a father and a son is 25 years. After seven years the son will be 17 years old. What will be the age of the father after 10 years?

A. 44 years

B. 45 years

C. 50 years

D. 52 years

 

Q. 32 If 5 tractors can plough 5 hectares of land in 5 days, then what is the number of tractors required to plough 100 hectares in 50 days?

A. 100

B. 20

C. 10

D. 5

 

Q. 33 A merchant commences with a certain capital and gains annually at the rate of 25%. At the end of 3 years, he has ₹ 10,000. What is the original amount that the merchant invested? 

A. ₹ 5,120

B. ₹ 5,210

C. ₹ 5,350

D. ₹ 5,500

 

Q. 34 Which one of the following decimal numbers is a rational number with denominator 37? 

A. 0.459459459 . . .

B. 0.459459459

C. 0.0459459459 . ..

D. 0.00459459 . . .

 

Q. 35 The annual income of a person decreases by ₹ 64 if the annual rate of interest decreases from 4% to 3.75%. What is his original annual income?

A. ₹ 24,000

B. ₹ 25,000

C. ₹ 25,600

D. ₹ 24,600

 

Q. 36 For 0 < m < 1, which one of the following is correct?

A. log₁₀ m < m² < m < m⁻¹

B. m < m⁻¹ < m² < log₁₀ m

C. log₁₀ m < m < m⁻¹ < m²

D. log₁₀ m < m⁻¹ < m < m²

 

Q. 37 A gentleman left a sum of ₹ 39,000 to be distributed after his death among his widow, five sons, and four daughters. If each son receives 3 times as much as a daughter receives, and each daughter receives twice as much as their mother receives, then what is the widow’s share?

A. ₹ 1,000

B. ₹ 1,200

C. ₹ 1,500

D. None of the above

 

Q. 38 Three numbers which are co-prime to each other, are such that the product of the first two is 286 and that of the last two is 770. What is the sum of the three numbers?

A. 85

B. 80

C. 75

D. 70

 

Q. 39 The age of a woman is a two-digit integer. On reversing this integer, the new integer is the age of her husband who is elder to her. The difference between their ages is one-eleventh of their sum. What is the difference between their ages?

A. 8 years

B. 9 years

C. 10 years

D. 11 years

 

Q. 40 A passenger train and goods train are running in the same direction on parallel railway tracks. If the passenger train now takes three times as long to pass the goods train, as when they are running in the opposite directions, then what is the ratio of the speed of the passenger train to that of the goods train? (Assume that the trains nm at uniform speeds) 

A. 2 : 1

B. 3 : 2

C. 4 : 3

D. 1 : 1

 

Q. 41 All odd prime numbers up to 110 are multiplied together. What is the unit digit in this product?

A. 0

B. 3

C. 5

D. None of the above

 

Q. 42 An alloy A contains two elements, copper, and tin in the ratio of 2 : 3, whereas an alloy B contains the same elements in the ratio of 3 : 4. If 20 kg of alloy A, 28 kg of alloy B and some more pure copper are mixed to form a third alloy C which now contains copper and tin in the ratio of 6 : 7, then what is the quantity of pure copper mixed in the alloy C?

A. 3 kg

B. 4 kg

C. 5 kg

D. 7 kg

 

Q. 43 A quadratic polynomial ax² + bx + c is such that when it is divided by x, (x – 1) and (x + 1), the remainders are 3, 6 and 4 respectively. What is the value of (a + b)?

A. 3

B. 2

C. 1

D. -1

 

Q. 44 If the average of 9 consecutive positive integers is 55, then what is the largest integer? 

A. 57

B. 58

C. 59

D. 60

 

Q. 45 The average of the ages of 15 students in a class is 19 years. When 5 new students are admitted to the class, the average age of the class becomes 18-5 years. What is the average age of the 5 newly admitted students?

A. 17 years

B. 17.5 years

C. 18 years

D. 18.5 years

 

Q. 46 A man can row at a speed of x km/hr in still water. If in a stream which is flowing at a speed of y km/hr it takes him z hours to row to a place and back, then what is the distance between the two places?

A. [z(x²-y²)] / 2y

B. [z(x²-y²)] / 2x

C. [(x²-y²)] / 2zx

D. [z(x²-y²)] / x

 

Q. 47 A water tank has been fitted with two taps P and Q and a drain pipe R. Taps P and Q fill at the rate of 12 liters per minute and 10 liters per minute respectively. Consider the following statements S1, S2 and S3 :

S1: Pipe R drains out at the rate of 6 liters per minute.

S2: If both the taps and the drain pipe are opened simultaneously, then the tank is filled in 5 hours 45 minutes.

S3: Pipe R drains out (fully) the filled tank in 15 hours 20 minutes.

To know what is the capacity of the tank, which one of the following is correct?

 

A. S2 is only sufficient.

B. S1, S2 ad S3 are necessary.

C. Any two out of S1, S2 and S3 are sufficient.

D. None of the above

 

Q. 48 A car has an average speed of 60 km per hour while going from Delhi to Agra and has an average speed of y km per hour while returning to Delhi from Agra (by traveling the same distance). If the average speed of the car for the whole journey is 48 km per hour, then what is the value of y?

A. 30 km per hour

B. 35 km per hour

C. 40 km per hour

D. 45 km per hour

 

Q. 49 An article is sold at a profit of 32%. If the cost price is increased by 20% and the sale price remains the same, then the profit percentage becomes

A. 10%

B. 12%

C. 15%

D. 20%

 

Q. 50 A, B, C, D and E start a partnership firm. Capital contributed by A is three times that contributed by D. E contributes half of A’s contribution, B contributes one-third of E’s contribution and C contributes two-thirds of A’s contribution. If the difference between the combined shares of A, D and E and the combined shares of B and C in the total profit of the firm is ₹ 13,500, what is the combined share of B, C and E? (The shares are supposed to be proportional to the contributions)

A. ₹ 13,500

B. ₹ 18,000

C. ₹ 19,750

D. ₹ 20,250

 

Q. 51 A pie chart is shown here. What is the angle (approximately) subtended by the Social Services Sector at the center of the circle?

A. 45⁰

B. 46⁰

C. 58⁰

D. 98⁰

 

Q. 52 The arithmetic mean of two numbers is 10 and their geometric mean is 8. What are the two numbers?

A. 15, 5

B. 12, 8

C. 16, 4

D. 18, 2

 

Q. 53 The arithmetic mean of 11 observations is 11. The arithmetic mean of the first 6 observations is 10.5 and the arithmetic mean of the last 6 observations is 11.5. What is the sixth observation?

A. 10

B. 10.5

C. 11

D. 11.5

 

Q. 54 What is sin⁴ θ – cos⁴ θ equal to for any real number θ?

A. 1

B. 1 – 2 sin² θ

C. 2 cos² θ + 1

D. 1 – 2 cos² θ

 

Q. 55 What is cot 1⁰ cot 23⁰ cot 45⁰ cot 67⁰ cot 89⁰ equal to?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 1/2

D. 1/3

 

Q. 56 What angle does the hour hand, of a clock describe in 10 minutes of time?

A. 1⁰

B. 5⁰

C. 6⁰

D. 10⁰

 

Q. 57 Consider the following statements :

1. (sec² θ – 1) (1 – cosec² θ) = 1

2. sin θ (1 + cos θ)⁻¹ + (1 + cos θ) (sin θ)⁻¹ = 2 cosec θ

Which of the above is / are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 58 Each side of a square subtends an angle of 60° at the tip of a tower of height h meters standing at the center of the square. If L is the length of each side of the square, then what is h² equal to?

A. 2L²

B. L² / 2

C. 3L² / 2

D. 2L² / 3

 

Q. 59 From a height of h units, a man observes the angle of elevation as α and angle of depression as β of the top and the bottom respectively of a tower of height H (> 4h). To what further height should he climb so that the values of angle of elevation and angle of depression get interchanged for the top and bottom of the tower?

A. H – h units

B. H – 2h units

C. H – 3h units

D. H – 4h units

 

Q. 60 If sec x cosec x = 2, then what is tanⁿ x + cotⁿ x equal to?

A. 2

B. 2ⁿ⁺¹

C. 2ⁿ

D. 2ⁿ⁻¹

 

Q. 61 If cos x + cos² x = 1, then what is sin² x + sin⁴ x equal to?

A. 1

B. 1.5

C. 2

D. 3

 

Q. 62 If sin A + cos A = p and sin³ A + cos³ A = q, then which one of the following is correct? 

A. p³ – 3p + q = 0

B. q³ – 3q + 2p = 0

C. p³ – 3p + 2q = 0

D. p³ + 3p +2q = 0

 

Q. 63 If x = [ (sec² θ – tan θ) / (sec² θ + tan θ) ], the which one of the following is correct? 

A. 1/3 < x < 3

B. x ∉ [1/3, 3]

C. -3 < x < -1/3

D. 1/3 ≤ x ≤ 3

 

Q. 64 ABC is a right-angled triangle with base BC and height AB. The hypotenuse AC is four times the length of the perpendicular drawn to it from the opposite vertex. What is tan C equal to?

A. 2 – √3

B. √3 – 1

C. 2 + √3

D. √3 + 1

 

Q. 65 ABC is a triangle right angled at C with BC = a and AC = b. If p is the length of the perpendicular from C on AB, then which one of the following is correct?

A. a²b² = p² (a² + b²)

B. a²b² = p² (b² – a²)

C. 2a²b² = p² (a² + b²)

D. a²b² = 2p² (a² + b²)

 

Q. 66 The radius and slant height of a right circular cone are 5 cm and 13 cm respectively. What is the volume of the cone?

A. 100π cm³

B. 50π cm³

C. 65π cm³

D. 169π cm³

 

Q. 67 Two equal circular regions of a greatest possible area are cut off from a given circular sheet of area A. What is the remaining area of the sheet?

A. A / 2

B. A / 3

C. 3A / 5

D. 2A / 5

 

Q. 68 If the ratio of the radius of the base of a right circular cone to its slant height is 1 : 3, what is the ratio of the total surface area to the curved surface area?

A. 5 : 3

B. 3 : 1

C. 4 : 1

D. 4 : 3

 

Q. 69 A right circular cone is sliced into a smaller cone and a frustum of a cone by a plane perpendicular to its axis. The volume of the smaller cone and the frustum of the cone are in the ratio 64 : 61. Then their curved surface areas are in the ratio

A. 4 : 1

B. 16 : 9

C. 64 : 61

D. 81 : 64

 

Q. 70 In a room whose floor is a square of side 10 m, an equilateral triangular table of side 2 m is placed. Four book-shelves of size 4 m x 1 m x 9 m are also placed in the room. If half of the rest of the area in the room is to be carpeted at the rate of ₹ 100 per square metre, what is the cost of carpeting (approximately)?

A. ₹ 7,600

B. ₹ 5,635

C. ₹ 4,113

D. ₹ 3,200

 

Q. 71 A region of area A bounded by a circle C is divided into n regions, each of area A/n, by drawing circles of radii r₁, r₂, r₃ … rₙ₋₁ such that r₁ < r₂ < r₃ < … rₙ₋₁ concentric with the circle C. If pₘ = (rₘ + 1) / rₘ where m = 1, 2, 3, …(n – 2), then which one of the following is correct?

A. p increases as m increases

B. p decreases as m decreases

C. p remains constant as m increases

D. p increases for some values of m as m increases and then decreases thereafter

 

Q. 72 What is the volume of a cone of maximum volume cut out from a cube of edge 2a such that their bases are on the same plane?

A. πa³

B. πa³ / 3

C. 2πa³ / 3

D. 3πa³ / 4

 

Q. 73 The radii of two circles are 4.5 cm and 3.5 cm respectively. The distance between the centers of the circles is 10 cm. What is the length of the transverse common tangent? 

A. 4 cm

B. 5 cm

C. 6 cm

D. 7 cm

 

Q. 74 There are as many square centimeters in the surface area of a sphere as there are cubic centimetres in its volume. What is the radius of the sphere?

A. 4 cm

B. 3 cm

C. 2 cm

D. 1 cm

 

Q. 75 The length of a line segment AB is 2 cm. It is divided into two parts at a point C such that AC² = AB X CB. What is the length of CB?

A. 3√5 cm

B. 3 – √5 cm

C. 5√3 cm

D. √5 – 1 cm

 

Q. 76 The locus of the mid-points of the radii of length 16 cm of a circle is

A. A concentric circle of radius 8 cm

B. A concentric circle of radius 16 cm

C. The diameter of the circle

D. A straight line passing through the centre of the circle

 

Q. 77 The curved surface area of a right circular cone is 1.76 m² and its base diameter is 140 cm. What is the height of the cone?

A. 10 cm

B. 10 √2 cm

C. 20 √2 cm

D. 10√15 cm

 

Q. 78 Consider the following statements :

1. The orthocentre of a triangle always lies inside the triangle.

2. The centroid of a triangle always lies inside the triangle.

3. The orthocentre of a right angled triangle lies on the triangle.

4. The centroid of a right-angled triangle lies on the triangle.

Which of the above statements are correct?

 

A. 1 and 2

B. 1 and 4

C. 2 and 3

D. 2 and 4

 

Q. 79 The locus of a point equidistant from two intersecting lines is

A. A straight line

B. A circle

C. A pair of straight lines

D. None of the above

 

Q. 80 Consider the following statements :

Two triangles are said to be congruent, if

1. Three angles of one triangle are equal to the corresponding three angles of the other triangle.

2. Three sides of one triangle are equal to the corresponding three sides of the other triangle,

3. Two sides and the included angle of one triangle are equal to the corresponding two sides and the included angle of the other triangle.

4. Two angles and the included side of one triangle are equal to the corresponding two angles and the included side of the other triangle.

Which of the above statements are correct?

 

 A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1, 3 and 4

C. 1, 2 and 4

D. 2, 3 and 4

 

Q. 81 Given that the angles of a polygon are all equal and each angle is a right angle.

Statement 1: The polygon has exactly four sides.

Statement 2: The sum of the angles of a polygon having n sides is (3n – 8) right angles.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1

B. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1

C. Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false

D. Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true

 

Q. 82 If the length of a side of a square is increased by 8 cm, its area increases by 120 square cm. What is the length of a side of the square?

A. 2.5 cm

B. 3.5 cm

C. 4.5 cm

D. 5.5 cm

 

Q. 83 What is the largest power of 10 that divides the product 1 x 2 x 3 x 4 . . . x 23 x 24 x 25? 

A. 2

B. 4

C. 5

D. None of the above

 

Q. 84 Walls (excluding their roofs and floors) of 5 identical rooms having length, breadth and height 6 m, 4 m, and 2.5 m respectively are to be painted. Paints are available only in cans of 1 L and one liter of paint can be used for painting 20 square meters. What is the number of cans required for painting?

A. 10

B. 12

C. 13

D. 14

 

Q. 85 A rectangular pathway having width 4.5 m and length 10 m will have to be tiled using square tiles of side 50 cm. Each packet of such tiles contains 20 pieces and costs ₹ 100. What will be the total cost of tiles for the pathway?

A. ₹ 1,200

B. ₹ 1,100

C. ₹ 1,000

D. ₹ 900

 

Q. 86 A cube of maximum volume (each corner touching the surface from inside) is cut from a sphere. What is the ratio of the volume of the cube to that of the sphere?

A. 3 : 4π

B. √3 : 2π

C. 2 : √3π

D. 4 : 3π

 

Q. 87 If the ratio of the circumference of the base of a right circular cone of radius r to its height is 3 : 1, then what is the area of the curved surface of the cone?

A. 3πr²

B. [ 2πr²√(4π²+9) ] / 3

C. [ πr²√(π²+1) ] / 3

D. [ πr²√(4π²+9) ] / 3

 

Q. 88 A wire is in the form of a circle of radius 98 cm. A square is formed out of the wire. What is the length of a side of the square? (Use π = 22/7)

A. 146 cm

B. 152 cm

C. 154 cm

D. 156 cm

 

Q. 89 In a triangle ABC, a, b and c are the lengths of the sides and p, q and r are the lengths of its medians. Which one of the following is correct?

A. 2 (p + q + r) = (a + b + c)

B. 2 (p + q + r) > 3 (a + b + c)

C. 2 (p + q + r) < 3 (a + b + c)

D. 11 (p + q + r) > 10 (a + b + c)

 

Q. 90 In a triangle ABC, a, b and c are the lengths of the sides and p, q and r are the lengths of its medians. Which one of the following is correct?

A. (a + b + c) < (p + q + r)

B. 3 (a + b + c) < 4 (p + q + r)

C. 2 (a + b + c) > 3 (p + q + r)

D. 3 (a + b + c) > 4 (p + q + r)

 

Q. 91 What is the area of the largest circular disc cut from a square of side 2 / √π units ?

A. π square units

B. 1 square units

C. π² square units

D. 2 square units

 

Q. 92 The product of the lengths of the diagonals of a square is 50 square units. What is the length of a side of the square?

A. 5√2 units

B. 5 units

C. 10 units

D. 2√5 units

 

Q. 93 The surface area of a closed cylindrical box is 352 square cm. If its height is 10 cm, then what is its diameter? (Use π = 22 / 7 )

A. 4 cm

B. 8 cm

C. 9.12 cm

D. 19.26 cm

 

Q. 94 A square and an equilateral triangle have the same perimeter. If the diagonal of the square is 6√2 cm, then what is the area of the triangle?

A. 12√2 cm²

B. 12√3 cm²

C. 16√2 cm²

D. 16√3 cm²

 

Q. 95 What is the area of the region bounded internally by a square of side of length ‘a’ and externally by a circle passing through the four comers of the square?

A. (π – 1) a² square units

B. (π – 1) a² / 2 square units

C. (π – 2) a² square units

D. (π – 2) a² / 2 square units

 

Q. 96 In the figure given, XA and XB are two tangents to a circle. If ∠ AXB = 50° and AC is parallel to XB, then what is ∠ ACB equal to?

A. 70⁰

B. 65⁰

C. 60⁰

D. 55⁰

 

Q. 97 In the figure given, p, q, r are parallel lines; I and m are two transversals. Consider the following:

1. AB : AC = DE : DF

2. AB X EF = BC X DE

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 98 In the equilateral triangle ABC given in the figure, AD = DB and AE = EC. If I is the length of a side of the triangle, then what is the area of the shaded region?

A. 3√3 l² / 16

B. 3 l² / 16

C. 3√3 l² / 32

D. 3 l² / 32

 

Q. 99 In the figure given, SPT is a tangent to the circle at P and O is the center of the circle. If ∠ QPT = α, then what is ∠ POQ equal to?

A. α

B. 2α

C. 90⁰ – α

D. 180⁰ – 2α

 

Q. 100 In the figure given, two equal chords cut at point P. If AB = CD = 10 cm, OC = 13 cm (O is the center of the circle) and PB = 3 cm, then what is the length of OP?

A. 5 cm

B. 6 cm

C. 2√29 cm

D. 2√37 cm

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	C	B	C	A	B	A	A	C	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	B	B	A	C	D	A	A	C	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	B	B	C	C	C	C	C	A	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	C	D	A	C	A	D	B	A	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	B	A	C	A	B	C	C	A	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	C	C	D	B	B	B	B	C	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	C	D	A	A	A	A	D	D	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	C	C	D	B	A	D	C	C	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	B	D	C	D	C	B	C	C	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	B	B	D	D	B	C	A	C	D

CDSE 1 2018 General Knowledge

Q. 1 Which one of the following elements is used as a timekeeper in atomic clocks?

A. Potassium

B. Caesium

C. Calcium

D. Magnesium

 

Q. 2 Which one of the following elements is involved in the control of water content of the blood?

A. Potassium

B. Lithium

C. Rubidium

D. Caesium

 

Q. 3 Which one of the following gases dissolves in water to give acidic solution?

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Oxygen

C. Nitrogen

D. Hydrogen

 

Q. 4 Which one of the following elements is essential for the formation of chlorophyll in green plants?

A. Calcium

B. Iron

C. Magnesium

D. Potassium

 

Q. 5 Consider the following chemical reaction :

aFe₂O₃ (s) + bCO(g) —> cFe (s) + dC0₂

In the balanced chemical equation of the above, which of the following will be the values of the coefficients a, b, c and d respectively?

A. 3, 2, 3, 1

B. 1, 3, 2, 3

C. 2, 3, 3, 1

D. 3, 3, 2, 1

 

Q. 6 Why is argon gas used along with tungsten wire in an electric bulb?

A. To increase the life of the bulb

B. To reduce the consumption of electricity

C. To make the emitted light colored

D. To reduce the cost of the bulb

 

Q. 7 Which one of the following is the correct relation between the Kelvin temperature (T) and the Celsius temperature (t꜀)?

A. These are two independent temperature scales

B. T = t꜀

C. T = t꜀ -273.15

D. T = t꜀ + 273-.15

 

Q. 8 Sound waves cannot travel through a

A. copper wire placed in air

B. silver slab placed in air

C. glass prism placed in water

D. wooden hollow pipe placed in vacuum

 

Q. 9 Which one of the following is the value of one nanometer?

A. 10⁻⁷ cm

B. 10⁻⁶ cm

C. 10⁻⁴ cm

D. 10⁻³ cm

 

Q. 10 Consider the following statements :

1. There is no net moment on a body which is in equilibrium.

2. The momentum of a body is always conserved.

3. The kinetic energy of an object is always conserved.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1 only

 

Q. 11 Working of safety fuses depends upon

1. magnetic effect of the current

2 . chemical effect of the current

3. magnitude of the current

4. heating effect of the current

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 4 only

 

Q. 12 Consider the following statements :

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I : By far the most common topographic form in a Karst terrain is the sinkhole.

Statement II : Topographically, a sinkhole is a depression that varies in depth from less than a meter to few hundred meters.

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q. 13 Consider the following statements :

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I : Incised meanders are formed in the mature stage of a river.

Statement II : Incised meanders are characterized by rejuvenation and upliftment of land.

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q. 14 Consider the following statements :

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I : Portions of glacial troughs may exhibit remarkably flat floors.

Statement II : The flat floor in a glacial trough is produced by uniform glacial erosion.

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q. 15 Consider the following statements :

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I: In Tundra climate, biodiversity is comparatively less.

Statement II : Tundra climate has less reproductive warm period.

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q. 16 Consider the following statements :

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I : Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and the Sun and the rotation of the Earth.

Statement II : The Earth rotates from west to east.

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q. 17 Consider the following statements :

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I : A person may suffer from tuberculosis if she/he frequently visits crowded place.

Statement II : Bacteria of tuberculosis spread through droplets by sneezing or coughing.

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q. 18 Consider the following statements :

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statement I : Bioaccumulation is a process of progressive accumulation of heavy metals and pesticides in an organism.

Statement II : Large fishes of the pond are found to have higher concentration of pesticides than planktons of the same pond.

A. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

B. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

C. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

 

Q. 19 Which one of the following is a true fish as per the biological system of classification?

A. Silverfish

B. Jellyfish

C. Cuttlefish

D. Flying fish

 

Q. 20 In which one of the following types of connective tissues in animals does fat get stored? 

A. Adipocyte

B. Chondrocyte

C. Osteocyte

D. Reticulocyte

 

Q. 21 Which one of the following pairs about organ/part that helps in locomotion is not correctly matched?

A. Euglena : Flagellum

B. Paramecium : Cilia

C. Nereis : Pseudopodia

D. Starfish : Tubefeet

 

Q. 22 Lysosome is formed from which of the following cell organelles?

A. Nucleus

B. Endoplasmic reticulum

C. Golgi bodies

D. Ribosomes

 

Q. 23 A protein is synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum bound ribosomes and it targets to the inner thylakoid space of chloroplast. How many double-layered membrane layers it has to pass to reach its destination?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

 

Q. 24 Which of the following causes adiabatic temperature changes in atmosphere?

A. Deflection and advection

B. Latent heat of condensation

C. Expansion and compression of the air

D. Partial absorption of solar radiation by the atmosphere

 

Q. 25 Which one of the following is applicable to collision-coalescence. process of precipitation? 

A. Clouds which do not extend beyond the freezing level

B. Clouds which extend beyond the freezing level

C. All types of clouds

D. Cirrocumulus cloud

 

Q. 26 Which one of the following places of India experiences highest atmospheric pressure during winter?

A. Jaisalmer

B. Leh

C. Chennai

D. Guwahati

 

Q. 27 Match List-1 with List-ll and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : 

List-I List-II

(Hypothesis/ Theory) (Propounder)

A. Planetesimal hypothesis 1. Kober

B. Thermal contraction theory 2. Chamberlin

C. Geosynclinal Orogen theory 3. Daly

D. Hypothesis of sliding continent 4. Jeffreys

A. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 

B. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

C. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

D. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

 

Q. 28 Bright light is found to emit from photographer’s flashgun. This brightness is due to the presence of which one of the following noble gases?

A. Argon

B. Xenon

C. Neon

D. Helium

 

Q. 29 Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a compound?

A. Composition is variable.

B. All particles of compound are of only one type.

C. Particles of compound have two or more elements.

D. Its constituents cannot be separated by simple physical methods.

 

Q. 30 Which of the following substances cause temporary hardness in water?

1. Mg(HC0₃)₂

2. Ca(HC0₃)₂

3. CaCl₂

4. MgS0₄

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 3 and 4

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 4

D. 1 and 2

 

Q. 31 Which one of the following elements will be an isobar of calcium if the atomic number of calcium is 20 and its mass number is 40?

A. Element with 20 protons and 18 neutrons

B. Element with 18 protons and 19 neutrons

C. Element with 20 protons and 19 neutrons

D. Element with 18 protons and 22 neutrons

 

Q. 32 Which of the following represents a relation for ‘heat lost = heat gained’?

A. Principle of thermal equilibrium

B. Principle of colors

C. Principle of calorimetry

D. Principle of vaporization

 

Q. 33 Two metallic wires made from copper have same length but the radius of wire 1 is half of that of wire 2. The resistance of wire 1 is R. If both the wires are joined together in series, the total resistance becomes

A. 2R

B. R/2

C. 5/4R

D. 3/4R

 

Q. 34 When the Sun is near the horizon during the morning or evening, it appears reddish. The phenomenon that is responsible for this observation is

A. reflection of light

B. refraction of light

C. dispersion of light

D. scattering of light

 

Q. 35 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : 

List-I List-II

(Cloud) (Characteristic)

A. Cirrus 1. Rain-giving

B. Stratus 2. Featheiy appearance

C. Nimbus 3. Vertically growing

D. Cumulus 4. Horizontally spreading

 

A. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 

B. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

C. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

D. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

 

Q. 36 Which one of the following is not an exclusive right of the concerned coastal nations over Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)?

A. Survey and exploitation of mineral resources of ocean deposits

B. Exploitation of marine water energy and marine organisms including fishing

C. Conservation and management of marine resources

D. Navigation of ships and laying down submarine cables

 

Q. 37 In which one of the following groups of States in India is the Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) Project being implemented as a pilot investment?

A. Gujarat, Kerala and Goa

B. Kerala, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh

C. Gujarat, Odisha and West Bengal

D. Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

 

Q. 38 Which of the following statements about the National Water Academy (NWA) is/are correct?

1. The primary objective of the NWA is to function as Centre of Excellence in training for inservice engineers from Central and State organizations on various aspects of water resource planning.

2. The NWA is located in New Delhi.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 39 A wire of copper having length I and area of cross-section A is taken and a current / is flown through it. The power dissipated in the wire is P. If we take an aluminium wire having same dimensions and pass the same current through it, the power dissipated will be

A. P

B. < P

C. > P

D. 2P

 

Q. 40 The pressure of a fluid varies with depth h as P = Pₒ+pgh, where p is the fluid density. This expression is associated with

A. Pascal’s law

B. Newton’s law

C. Bernoulli’s principle

D. Archimedes’ principle

 

Q. 41 Consider the following constituent gases of the atmosphere :

1. Argon

2. Neon

3. Helium

4. Carbon dioxide

Which one of the following is the correct ascending sequence of the above gases in terms of the volume percentage?

 

A. 1-3-2-4

B. 1-4-2-3

C. 4-2-3-1

D. 2-4-1-3

 

Q. 42 Which one of the following Indian States has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population to its total population?

A. Mizoram

B. Nagaland

C. Meghalaya

D. Arunachal Pradesh

 

Q. 43 Extrusive volcanoes are not found in which one of the following mountains?

A. Alaska

B. Rocky

C. Andes

D. Himalayas

 

Q. 44 Which one of the following crops is not cultivated in Karewas, the lacustrine deposit’s of sand, clay, loam, silt and boulders?

A. Saffron

B. Almond

C. Walnut

D. Ling nut

 

Q. 45 Consider the following tributaries of river Ganga :

1. Gandak

2. Kosi

3. Ghaghara

4. Gomti

Which one of the following is the correct order of the above rivers from east to west?

 

A. 3-4-1-2

B. 2-1-3-4

C. 2-3-1-4

D. 1-2-4-3

 

Q. 46 Which of the following National Parks of India are declared as World Heritage by UNESCO? 

1. Keoladeo National Park

2. Sundarbans National Park

3. Kaziranga National Park

4. Ranthambore National Park

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q. 47 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I List-II

(Railway Zone) (Headquarters)

A. North Central 1. Secunderabad

B. North Eastern 2. Jabalpur

C. West Central 3. Gorakhpur

D. South Central 4. Allahabad

 

A. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

B. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

C. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

D. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

 

Q. 48 Which one of the following statements about lymph is correct?

A. Lymph is formed due to leakage of blood through capillaries.

B. Lymph contains blood cells such as RBC.

C. Lymph is also circulated by the blood circulating heart.

D. Lymph only transports hormones

 

Q. 49 Which of the following classes of animals has/have three-chambered heart?

A. Pisces and Amphibia

B. Amphibia and Reptilia

C. Reptilia only

D. Amphibia only

 

Q. 50 Accumulation of which one of the following in the muscles of sprinters leads to cramp?

A. Lactic acid

B. Ethanol

C. Pyruvic acid

D. Glucose

 

Q. 51 Which one of the following statements about Exchange-Traded Fund (ETF) is not correct?

A. It is a marketable security.

B. It experiences price changes throughout the day.

C. It typically has lower daily liquidity and higher fees than mutual fund shares.

D. An ETF does not have its net asset value calculated once at the end of every day.

 

Q. 52 Which one of the following is the maximum age of joining National Pension System (NPS) under the NPS-Private Sector?

A. 55 years

B. 60 years

C. 65 years

D. 70 years

 

Q. 53 The Reserve Bank of India has recently constituted a high-level task force on Public Credit Registry (PCR) to suggest a road map for developing a transparent, comprehensive and near-real-time PCR for India. The task force is headed by

A. Sekar Kamam

B. Vishakha Mulye

C. Sriram Kalyanaraman

D. Y. M. Deosthalee

 

Q. 54 In October 2017, India sent its first shipment of wheat to Afghanistan as a part of commitment made by the Government of India to supply 1.1 million tonnes of wheat to that country on grant basis. The shipment was sent through

A. Iran

B. Pakistan

C. Tajikistan

D. China

 

Q. 55 Which of the following statements about the India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) is/are correct?

1. It has been incorporated as a Public Limited Company.

2. It started its operation by establishing two pilot branches at Hyderabad and Varanasi.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 56 Which of the following are the functions of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)?

1. Inquiry at its own initiative on the violation of human rights

2. Inquiry on a petition presented to it by a victim

3. Visit to jails to study the condition of the inmates

4. Undertaking and promoting research in the field of human rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Q. 57 A person is disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a Member of either House of the Parliament if the person

1. holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State other than an office declared by the Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder

2 . is an undischarged insolvent

3. is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India

4. is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent Court

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1, 2, 3 and 4

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

 

Q. 58 According to the Election Commission of India, in order to be recognized as a ‘National Party’, a political party must be treated as a recognized political party in how many States?

A. At least two States

B. At least three States

C. At least four States

D. At least five States

 

Q. 59 Which one of the following statements with regard to Antrix Corporation Limited is correct? 

A. It is a commercial arm of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion.

B. It is under the administrative control of the Department of Space.

C. It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

D. It is a commercial arm of the Department of Science and Technology.

 

Q. 60 Verses ascribed to poet-saint Kabir have been compiled in which of the following traditions?

1. Bijak in Varanasi

2. Kabir Granthavali in Rajasthan

3. Adi Granth Sahib

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 3 only

 

Q. 61 Around twelfth century, Sufi Silsilas began to crystallize in different parts of the Islamic world to signify

1. continuous link between the master and disciple

2 . unbroken spiritual genealogy to the Prophet Muhammad

3. the transmission of spiritual power and blessings to devotees

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Q. 62 In the 10th Mandala of the Rigveda, which one of the following hymns reflects upon the marriage ceremonies?

A. Surya Sukta

B. Purusha Sukta

C. Dana Stutis

D. Urna Sutra

 

Q. 63 Which of the following statements about the Non-Cooperation Movement is/are correct? 

1. It was marked by significant participation of peasants from Karnataka.

2. It was marked by non-Brahmin lower caste participation in Madras and Maharashtra.

3 . It was marked by the lack of labour unrest in places like Assam, Bengal and Madras.

4. It was badly shaken by the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922 after which Gandhiji decided to continue with the movement on a much smaller scale.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 only

B. 1, 2 and 4

C. 2 and 3

D. 2 only

 

Q. 64 Which one of the following was a focus country of the World Food India’, a mega food event held in November 2017 in New Delhi?

A. Germany

B. Japan

C. Denmark

D. Italy

 

Q. 65 Which one of the following States will host the Nobel Prize Series—India 2018 (Science Impacts Life) Exhibition?

A. Gujarat

B. Rajasthan

C. Goa

D. Madhya Pradesh

 

Q. 66 The Ministry of Communication has recently launched a Pan India scholarship programme for school children called Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana’. The objective of the scheme is to increase the reach of

A. sports

B. philately

C. music

D. web designing

 

Q. 67 Which one of the following temples of India has won the ‘UNESCO Asia Pacific Award of Merit, 2017’ for cultural heritage conservation?

A. Kamakhya Temple, Guwahati

B. Sri Ranganathaswami Temple, Srirangam

C. Meenakshi Temple, Madurai

D. Kedarnath Temple, Kedarnath

 

Q. 68 Which one of the following teams was defeated by India to win the Women’s Hockey Asia Cup title, 2017?

A. Japan

B. China

C. South Korea

D. Pakistan

 

Q. 69 Which one of the following statements about India is not correct?

A. India has 12 major ports and about 200 non-major ports.

B. 95 percent of India’s trade by volume and 68 percent by value are moved through maritime transport.

C. India has a coastline of about 7500 km.

D. In the Maritime Agenda, 2010-2020, a target of 300 MT port capacity has been set for the year 2020 .

 

Q. 70 Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. India joined MTCR in 2016

B. India submitted a formal application for membership of the NSG in 2016.

C. India proposed the Comprehensive Convention on International Terrorism in 1996.

D. The Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM) was held in 2016 at Malta.

 

Q. 71 Which one of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India has prescribed that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of total number of members of the House of the People or Legislative Assembly in the States?

A. 91st Amendment

B. 87th Amendment

C. 97th Amendment

D. 90th Amendment

 

Q. 72 Which of the following about the role of Indian Coast Guard is/are correct?

1. Indian Coast Guard has been entrusted with the offshore security coordination authority

2. Lead intelligence agency for coastal and sea border

3. Coastal security in territorial waters

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 3 only

 

Q. 73 Which one of the following is India’s first indigenously designed and developed long-range subsonic cruise missile which can be deployed from multiple platforms?

A. Astra

B. Akash

C. Nirbhay

D. Shankhnaad

 

Q. 74 The Ministry of Power, Government of India has recently constituted a Committee to investigate the causes of the accident that occurred on 1st November, 2017 at Feroze Gandhi Thermal Power Plant Ltd., Unchahar, in Uttar Pradesh. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Committee?

A. Dr. L. D. Papney

B. Shri Dhawal Prakash Antapurkar

C. Shri Subir Chakraborty

D. Shri P. D. Siwal

 

Q. 75 In November 2017, an Indian short film. The School Bag won the Best Short Film Award at the South Asian Film Festival held at Montreal. Who among the following is the director of the film.

A. Anurag Kashyap

B. Dheeraj Jindal

C. Sujoy Ghosh

D. Samvida Nanda

 

Q. 76 In November 2017, India’s MC Mary Kom won the gold medal at the Asian Boxing Championship, 2017 held at Ho Chi Minh City in Vietnam. In which one of the following categories was she declared winner?

A. 48 kg

B. 51 kg

C. 54 kg

D. 57 kg

 

Q. 77 Which one of the following is the theme of the World Soil Day, 2017?

A. Soils and pulses, a symbol for life

B. Caring for the Planet starts from the Ground

C. Soils, a solid ground for life

D. Soils, foundation for family farming

 

Q. 78 Who among the following is the winner of the National Badminton Championship (Men), 2017?

A. Kidambi Srikanth

B. H. S. Prannoy

C. Ajay Jayaram

D. Sai Praneeth

 

Q. 79 Which of the following statements about the usage of the term ‘barbarian’ is/are correct?

1. It is derived from the Greek word ‘barbaros’ which means a non-Greek.

2. Romans used the term for the Germanic tribes, the Gauls and the Huns.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 80 Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. Al-Biruni identifies the Sufi doctrine of divine love as self-annihilation with parallel passages from Bhagavad Gita

B. According to Al-Biruni, Sufi theories of Soul were similar to those in Patanjali’s Yoga Sutra.

C. The Hatha Yogic treatise Amrita Kunda had lasting impact on Sufism.

D. Hujwiri’s conversation with the Yogis shows that he was impressed with their theory of the division of the human body.

 

Q. 81 Consider the following statement :

“So much is wrung from the peasants, that even dry bread is scarcely left to fill their stomachs.”

Who among the following European travellers had made the above statement about the condition of peasantry in the Mughal Empire?

A. Francisco Pelsaert

B. Francois Bernier

C. Jean-Baptiste Tavernier

D. Niccolao Manucci

 

Q. 82 What is the name of the literary genre developed by the Khojas who are a branch of the Ismaili sect?

A. Ginan

B. Ziyarat

C. Raag

D. Shahada

 

Q. 83 Who was/were the 10th century composer(s) of the Nalayira Divya Prabandham? 

A. Alvars

B. Nayanars

C. Appar

D. Sambandar

 

Q. 84 Which one of the following is not a correct ascending order of commissioned ranks in the defence forces of India?

A. Lieutenant, Captain, Major, Lieutenant Colonel, Colonel, Brigadier, Major General, Lieutenant General, General

B. Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Wing Commander, Group Captain, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal

C. Flying Officer, Flight Lieutenant, Squadron Leader, Group Captain, Wing Commander, Air Commodore, Air Vice Marshal, Air Marshal, Air Chief Marshal

D. Sub Lieutenant, Lieutenant, Lieutenant ‘ Commander, Commander, Captain, Commodore, Rear Admiral, Vice Admiral, Admiral

 

Q. 85 Which of the following statements about Attorney General of India is/are not correct?

1. He is the first Law Officer of the Government of India.

2. He is entitled to the privileges of a Member of the Parliament.

3. He is a whole-time counsel for the Government.

4. He must have the same qualifications as are required to be a judge of the Supreme Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

 

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2 and 4

C. 3 only

D. 1 only

 

Q. 86 Under which one of the following Amendment Acts was Sikkim admitted into the Union of India?

A. 35th

B. 36th

C. 37th

D. 38th

 

Q. 87 Which one of the following became a part of China in 1997 following the principle of ‘one country, two systems’?

A. Tibet

B. Hong Kong

C. Xinjiang

D. Inner Mongolia

 

Q. 88 Which one of the following statements in respect of the States of India is not correct?

A. States in India cannot have their own Constitutions.

B. The State of Jammu and Kashmir has its own Constitution.

C. States in India do not have the right to secede from the Union of India.

D. The maximum number of members in the Council of Ministers of Delhi can be 15 percent of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly.

 

Q. 89 Consider the following statements about National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) of India for 2017-2031 :

1. This is the Third National Wildlife Action Plan.

2. The NWAP is unique as this is the first time India has recognized the concerns relating to climate change impact on wildlife.

3. The NWAP has ten components.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Q. 90 Growth in production (in percent) of which one of the following core industries in India during the period 2015-2016 was negative?

A. Natural gas

B. Refinery products

C. Fertilizer

D. Coal

 

Q. 91 eBiz is one of the integrated services projects and part of the 31 Mission Mode Projects (MMPs) under the National e-Govemance Plan of the Government of India. eBiz is being implemented under the guidance and aegis of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, Ministry of Commerce and Industry by

A. Tata Consultancy Services

B. Infosys Technologies Limited

C. Wipro

D. HCL Technologies

 

Q. 92 Which of the following statements about the olive ridley turtles is/are correct?

1. They are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.

2. They live in warm waters of Pacific, Atlantic and Indian Oceans.

3. The Coromandel Coast in India is the largest mass nesting site for the olive ridley turtles.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 only

 

Q. 93 Consider the following statement :

“A sound body means one which bends itself to the spirit and is always a ready instrument at its service.”

The above statement is attributed to

A. Sardar Patel

B. Winston Churchill

C. Mahatma Gandhi

D. Baden-Powell

 

Q. 94 Who among the following was the founder of Phoenix Settlement?

A. Mahatma Gandhi

B. B. R. Ambedkar

C. Rabindranath Tagore

D. Swami Vivekananda

 

Q. 95 Name the platform used for ritual purposes by the kings of the Vijayanagara Empire. 

A. Mahanavami Dibba

B. Lotus Mahal

C. Hazara Rama

D. Virupaksha

 

Q. 96 The idea of ‘Farr-i Izadi’, on which the Mughal kingship was based, was first developed by which one of the following Sufi saints?

A. Shihabuddin Suhrawardi

B. Nizamuddin Auliya

C. Ibn al-Arabi

D. Bayazid Bistami

 

Q. 97 Which Buddhist text contains an account of the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka?

A. Vinaya Pitaka

B. Sutta Pitaka

C. Abhidhamma Pitaka

D. Mahavamsa

 

Q. 98 Which one of the following statements about Buddhist Stupas in India is not correct?

A. Ashoka played an important role in popularizing the Stupa cult.

B. They were repositories of relics of Buddha and other monks.

C. They were located in rural areas.

D. They were located close to trade routes.

 

Q. 99 Which one among the following States of India has the largest number of seats in its Legislative Assembly?

A. West Bengal

B. Bihar

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Tamil Nadu

 

Q. 100 Which of the following statements about the Ordinance-making power of the Governor is/are correct?

1. It is a discretionary power.

2. The Governor himself is not competent to withdraw the Ordinance at any time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 101 Which one of the following events is not correctly matched with the year in which it happened?

A. Inauguration of the SWIFT system of electronic interbank fund transfers worldwide—1985

B. Conclusion of the Uruguay Round of GATT— 1994

C. Inauguration of the World Trade Organization— 1995

D. Establishment of the first wholly electronic stock exchange (Nasdaq)— 1971

 

Q. 102 Consider the following statements about Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) :

1. ITBP was raised in 1962.

2. ITBP is basically a mountain trained force.

3. ITBP replaced Assam Rifles in Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh in 2004-2005 for border guarding duty.

4. ITBP presently has 52 service battalions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

 

A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

 

Q. 103 Which one of the following is not an International Human Rights Treaty?

A. International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights

B. Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women

C. Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities

D. Declaration on the Right to Development

 

Q. 104 In the context of elections in India, which one of the following is the correct full form of VVPAT?

A. Voter Verifiable Poll Audit Trail

B. Voter Verifying Paper Audit Trail

C. Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail

D. Voter Verifiable Paper Account Trail

 

Q. 105 Which one of the following is not an objective of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)?

A. To achieve convergence of investment in irrigation at the field level

B. To expand cultivable area under irrigation

C. To improve on-farm water use efficiency to reduce wastage of water

D. To protect farmers against crop failure due to natural calamities

 

Q. 106 Which one of the following statements about ‘Niryat Bandhu Scheme’ is correct?

A. It is a scheme for mentoring first generation entrepreneurs.

B. It is a scheme for crop protection.

C. It is a scheme for the vulnerable section of the society.

D. It is a scheme for monitoring rural poor.

 

Q. 107 Which one of the following statements about the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is not correct?

A. It is a placement-linked skill training programme exclusively for rural girls

B. It aims to convert India’s demographic surplus into a demographic dividend.

C. The scheme aims to benefit more than 55 million poor rural folk.

D. It is a generational poverty alleviation programme.

 

Q. 108 Where is Hambantota Port located?

A. Iran

B. Sri Lanka

C. Japan

D. Pakistan

 

Q. 109 The projects under Coastal Berth Scheme of the flagship Sagarmala Programme are distributed over how many States?

A. Eight

B. Ten

C. Twelve

D. Fourteen

 

Q. 110 Which one of the following statements about the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change is not correct?

A. The fund is meant to assist national and State level activities to meet the cost of adaptation measures.

B. This scheme has been taken as a Central Sector Scheme.

C. The Indian Council of Agricultural Research is the national implementing entity for the fund.

D. The scheme has been in force since 2015-2016.

 

Q. 111 ‘SAMPRITI-2017’ is a joint military exercise between armed forces of India and 

A. Bhutan

B. Bangladesh

C. Pakistan

D. Myanmar

 

Q. 112 The judgement of the Supreme Court of India in the Vishakha Case pertains to

A. sexual harassment in the work -place

B. Sati

C. dowry death

D. rape

 

Q. 113 The first BRICS Summit, after the inclusion of South Africa, was held at

A. Brasilia

B. Sanya

C. Yekaterinburg

D. Durban

 

Q. 114 Who deciphered the Brahmi and Kharoshthi scripts?

A. Piyadassi

B. Colin Mackenzie

C. Alexander Cunningham

D. James Prinsep

 

Q. 115 Which of the following is/are the feature(s) of the Brahmadeya Grants during c 600-1200 AD?

1. Their creation meant a renunciation of actual or potential sources of revenue by the State.

2. These grants could vary from a small plot to several villages.

3. Most grants were made in unsettled areas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Q. 116 Who is the author of Manimekalai?

A. Kovalan

B. Sathanar

C. Ilango Adigal

D. Tirutakkatevar

 

Q. 117 Which one of the following statements about the Elephanta Island is correct?

A. It was given its name by the British after a large elephant structure located there.

B. It contains one large cave.

C. It is well-known for a spectacular carving of Vishnu described in the Vishnudharmottara Purana.

D. It is associated with the Pashupata sect.

 

Q. 118 Which of the following statements about Sir Syed Ahmad Khan is/are correct?

1. He argued that India was a federation of ethnic communities based on common descent.

2. His philosophy was very similar to that of the Indian National Congress.

3. He imagined India as a Nation State based on individual citizen’s rights.

4. The curriculum at the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College blended Muslim theology and European empiricism.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

 

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 only

D. 1 and 4

 

Q. 119 Consider the following statements about impact of tax :

1. A tax is shifted forward to consumers if the demand is inelastic relative to supply.

2. A tax is shifted backward to producers if the supply is relatively more inelastic than

demand.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

 

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Q. 120 According to the law of diminishing marginal utility, as the amount of a good consumed increases, the marginal utility of that good tends to

A. improve

B. diminish

C. remain constant

D. first diminish and then improve

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	A	A	C	B	A	C	D	A	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	B	D	A	A	B	A	B	D	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	B	A	C	A	B	A	B	B	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	C	C	D	C	D	C	A	C	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	A	D	D	B	B	A	C	B	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	C	D	A	A	D	B	B	B	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	A	A	D	C	B	B	B	B	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	B	C	D	B	A	B	B	C	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	A	A	C	C	B	B	A	B	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	B	C	A	A	A	D	D	A	C
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	A	D	D	C	D	A	B	A	A	C
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	A	B	D	A	A	B	D	C	B