UGC-NET - Page 2 of 3 - Vidhyarthi Darpan

UGC NET 2016 Aug Paper 1 Previous Year Paper

UGC NET 2016 Aug Paper 1

Q. 1 In a Ph.D. thesis which one is the correct sequence for showing scheme of Chapterisation ?

A. Survey of related studies, Introduction, Design of the study, Data-Analysis and interpretation, Conclusions and generalisations, suggested further study, References, Appendix

B. Introduction, Design of study, Data Analysis and Interpretation, Generalizations, Conclusions and Survey of related studies and suggestions for further research, References and Appendix

C. Introduction, Survey of related studies, Design of study, Data-presentation; analysis & Interpretation, Formulation of generalization & Conclusions, Suggestions for further research, References & Appendix

D. Survey of related studies, References, Introduction, Design of study, Data analysis and interpretation, Conclusions and generalizations, Suggestions for further research, Appendix

Q. 2 Which of the following is not the critical feature of qualitative research ?

A. Actual settings are the direct source of data.

B. Data take the forms of words or pictures

C. Seeking to establish relationships among measured social facts.

D. Researcher becomes immersed in the situation, present or past related to the

phenomena.

Q. 3 A detailed description of methodology of research is required in

A. Thesis/Dissertation

B. Symposium/Workshop

C. Seminar paper/Articles

D. Conference and Seminar Papers

Q. 4 Research ethics has a direct connection more often with which stages of research ?

A. Defining and delimiting the scope of research.

B. Problem formulation and reporting of research findings.

C. Defining the population and deciding the sampling technique for research.

D. Deciding about statistical techniques and data analysis.

Questions: 5 – 10

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 5 to 10 :

Many aspects of the motion-picture industry and its constituent companies are dissimilar to those observable in advanced-technology industries and firms. For instance, company longevity does not represent a consistent concern across the two organisational contexts. In the advanced-technology company for example, one new-product innovation – which is expected to generate financial returns to the firm – is insufficient for the company to be successful. Rather, a stream of new product innovations is required. By contrast with the independent production company of this case, each new film – which is expected to generate financial returns to the principals – is sufficient for the company to be successful. Any subsequent new films involving the firm’s participants will be produced by a different independent company. As another instance, people’s learning is expected to have different contributors and beneficiaries across the two organizational contexts. In the advanced-technology company, for example, each new product innovation provides an opportunity for participants on the project team to learn and acquire experience, and this same company intends to retain such participants, hence, benefit from their increased experience on the next project. By contrast with the independent production company, each new film provides an opportunity for participants on the project team to learn and acquire this experience also, but this same company has little or no expectation of retaining such participants, and hence, benefitting from their increased experience in the next project. Experience is paramount in the motion-picture industry. Generally, on film projects, budgets are very tight, and schedules are very demanding. People are hired largely based on their experience and are expected to perform well immediately when called to do so. There is negligible slack time or margin for learning through trial and error, but experienced people learn exactly through trial and error. Because experience is valued so highly and film-production houses have such short time horizons, entry into the industry is very difficult for most people. Further, the role played by schools and colleges is minimal in this industry. Some skills and techniques can be learned and refined through formal education (e.g., acting schools, theatre, film degrees), but the majority come through direct experience. Mentoring plays an important role. True, the film business focuses heavily on exploitation over exploration. Yet success of the industry as a whole is critically dependent upon learning and exploration overtime.

Answer the following questions :

Q. 5 What is not a consistent concern across the two organisational contexts ?

A. Dissimilarity

B. Product package

C. Financial return

D. Company longevity

Q. 6 What will be sufficient for an independent production company to be successful?

A. New product innovations

B. Financial returns from each new film

C. Active role by firm’s participants

D. Organisational context

Q. 7 What does an advanced-technology company expect from the learning experience of its participants ?

A. Benefit for the next project

B. Opportunity for more learning

C. Little expectation of retaining them

D. Help in marketing the previous product

Q. 8 What is not the expectation of an independent production company in the case of its participants ?

A. Absence from the next project

B. Retention for the next project.

C. Participation in the current project.

D. Use of opportunity to acquire experience.

Q. 9 Why do film production houses value experience highly ?

A. Because of the importance of trial and error methods.

B. Because of the margin for learning.

C. Because of short time horizons.

D. Because it allows easy entry to everyone into the film world.

Q. 10 According to the author, what has been the focus of film business ?

A. Formal education

B. Mentoring

C. Exploitation

D. Indirect experience

Q. 11 Internal and external factors that affect message reception by the students in the classroom are referred to as

A. feedback

B. fragmentation

C. channelisation

D. noise

Q. 12 A teacher in a classroom has immediate control over

A. the self, selected methods of communication and the message.

B. the audience, the noise and the reception.

C. the feedback, the technology and the audience experience.

D. the communication channel, other communicators, and external factors.

Q. 13 What do communicated words carry in a classroom situation ?

A. Inspiration, controversy and introspection

B. Diversion, criticism and irrationality

C. Insipidity, irrationality, and non-acceptance

D. Power, structure and tradition

Q. 14 As a good classroom communicator, you are supposed to know your

A. audience emotions

B. silent cues

C. artful pauses

D. counter arguments

Q. 15 Figure out the components of non-verbal communication in a classroom from the following :

A. Facial expression, cultural space and seating arrangement

B. Speed of utterance, feel good factor and acoustics

C. High sound, physical ambience and teacher-learner distance

D. Facial expression, kinesics and personal space

Q. 16 Which of the following are the basic factors of effective listening ?

A. Opinionation, stare and glare and interruptions

B. Aggressive questioning, continuous cues and frequent movement

C. Me-too-ism, glancing sideways, and offering advice

D. Acknowledgement of thoughts, reflection, and asking open-ended questions

Q. 17 In a particular code, HOSPITALS is coded as HSOLSAPTI. The code of BIOLOGICALS will be

A. BLICOALIOSG

B. BOLGICAILOS

C. SBLAOILOBCG

D. BSILOALCOIG

Q. 18 In the series 1, 5, 13, 25, 41, ……. the next term is

A. 59

B. 63

C. 61

D. 68

Q. 19 At present, a mother is 3 times older than her son. After 5 years, the sum of their ages will be 70 years. The age of the mother after 10 years will be

A. 40

B. 55

C. 45

D. 60

Q. 20 In the series AYD, BVF, DRH, GMJ, ? the next term is

A. GLK

B. HLM

C. LHM

D. KGL

Q. 21 C and D are sisters. A and B are brothers. E is son of A and brother of D. B is related to C as

A. brother

B. son

C. uncle

D. father-in law

Q. 22 Anil played 8 cricket matches. The mean (average) of the runs was found to be 80. After playing four more matches, the mean of the runs of all the matches was found to be 70. The total runs made in the last four matches is

A. 400

B. 300

C. 200

D. 100

Q. 23 If two propositions are connected in such a way that they cannot both be false although they may both be true, then their relationship is called

A. Contrary

B. Subcontrary

C. Contradictory

D. Subalternation

Q. 24 Which one among the following is not a characteristic of a deductive type of argument ?

A. The conclusion follows from the premise/premises necessarily.

B. The argument admits degree of complexity.

C. The argument provides us knowledge about matters of fact.

D. The argument must be either valid or invalid.

Q. 25 Select the code which states the condition of an invalid deductive argument :

A. All the premises are true but the conclusion is false.

B. Some of the premises are true but the conclusion is false.

C. All the premises are false and the conclusion is also false.

D. All the premises are true and the conclusion is also true.

Q. 26 Given below are two premises, with four conclusions drawn from them (taking singly or together); which conclusions are validly drawn ? Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Premises : (i) All bats are mammals.

(ii) Birds are not bats.

Conclusions : (a) Birds are not mammals.

(b) Bats are not birds.

(d) Some mammals are bats.

Codes :

A. (a), (b) and (d)

B. (b) and (d)

C. (a) and (c)

D. (b), (c) and (d)

Q. 27 When a definition implies a proposal to use the definiendum to mean what is meant by the definiens it is called

A. Lexical definition

B. Stipulative definition

C. Precising definition

D. Persuasive definition

Q. 28 Select the code which is not correct : An analogical argument is strengthened by

A. increasing the number of entities.

B. increasing the number of similar respects.

C. reducing the claim made earlier stronger.

D. making the conclusion stronger when premises remain unchanged.

Questions: 29 – 31

Consider the following two tables (I and II) that show the percentage of students in each faculty at University and the number of foreign students in the Science faculty. These percentages have been rounded to the nearest whole number. There are a total of 1049 students in the science faculty. Study these tables I and II and answer the questions that follow (Questions 29 – 31) :

Q. 29 Approximately, what percentage of students in the Science faculty is that of foreign students ?

A. 14%

B. 9%

C. 13%

D. 11%

Q. 30 Approximately, how many students belong to the Engineering faculty ?

A. 420

B. 410

C. 390

D. 400

Q. 31 In case, there are 34 European medical students, then approximately, what is their percentage in the medicine faculty ?

A. 13%

B. 18%

C. 12%

D. 15%

Questions: 32 – 34

college has a total of 800 MCA students, 80% of whom are in class MCA-III and remaining are equally divided between class MCA-I and class MCA-II. The proportion of female students and the proportion of vegetarian students in the college are indicated as under through the table. Answer questions 32 to 34 based on this information. For example, in the table above, 0.525 is the total proportion of female students and 0.53 is the total proportion of vegetarian students in the college.

Q. 32 What is the percentage of female students in class MCA-III

A. 40

B. 45

C. 50

D. 55

Q. 33 What is the percentage of vegetarian students in class MCA-I ?

A. 40

B. 45

C. 50

D. 55

Q. 34 How many total non-vegetarian students are there in class MCA-I and class MCA-II ?

A. 72

B. 88

C. 78

D. 92

Q. 35 Which of the following statements regarding the features of Information and

Communication Technology (ICT) is/are true ?

I. ICT are the main instruments for the creation of computer networks and the applications based on them.

II. ICT support the spread of information and knowledge, separating the content from the place where it belongs physically.

III. The digital and virtual nature of most of ICT products allow the expenditure for them to be maximized

codes:

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II and II

Q. 36 If one GigaByte is equal to 2³⁰ Bytes of data storage, then 1024 TeraBytes is equal to_____ bits of data storage.

A. 2⁵⁰

B. 2⁵³

C. 2⁴⁰

D. 2⁵⁶

Q. 37 The software used to navigate through the web is known as

A. Website

B. Web Browser

C. Internet

D. World Wide Web

Q. 38 With regard to e-mail, what does Bcc : mean ?

A. Blind Computer Communication : – The users specified in the Bcc : field will get the email and see the addresses in the to : and cc : fields.

B. Blind Carbon Copy : – The users specified in the Bcc : field will get the e-mail and see the addresses in the to : and cc : fields.

C. Blind Computer Communication :- The users specified in the Bcc : field will get the email but it will be an audio file because this is how blind people get e-mail.

D. Blind Carbon Copy : The users specified in the Bcc : field will get the e-mail but will not see the addresses in the to : and cc : fields.

Q. 39 Random Access Memory (RAM), a form of computer storage, is a ______ memory.

A. Non-volatile

B. Volatile

C. Permanent

D. Secondary

Q. 40 In Computer Networking, HTTP is referred to as a stateless protocol as servers do not maintain any information about past client requests. HTTP is an acronym for

A. Hyper Text Translation Protocol

B. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol

C. High TeraByte Transfer Protocol

D. Hypervisor Test Translation Protocol

Q. 41 The arsenic pollution in ground water in Bangladesh and parts of India is due to

A. industrial waste

B. thermal power plants

C. natural sources

D. agricultural practices

Q. 42 Among the following air pollutants which directly impacts human health as well as climate ?

A. Soot

B. Sulphur dioxide

C. Oxides of nitrogen

D. Chlorofluoro carbons

Q. 43 Assertion (A) : The problems of environmental sustainability are difficult to resolve.

Reason (R) : Our understanding how environment works and how different human choices affect environment is inadequate.

Choose the correct code :

A. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true and (R) is false.

D. (A) is false and (R) is true.

Q. 44 The percentage share of electrical power from solar energy in the total electric power generation from all renewable energy sources sought to be achieved by Indian government by the year 2022, is

A. ~ 57.1%

B. ~ 65.5%

C. ~ 47.5%

D. ~ 75%

Q. 45 As part of Intended Nationally Determined contributions, Indian government through additional forest and tree cover has resolved to create an additional carbon sink (in terms of carbon dioxide equivalent) by year 2030 to the extent of

A. 3.5 to 4 billion tons

B. 2.5 to 3 billion tons

C. 1.5 to 2 billion tons

D. 1 to 1.5 billion tons

Q. 46 Which of the following is a meteorological hazard ?

A. Avalanche

B. Coastal erosion

C. Landslide

D. Blizzard

Q. 47 Which of the following universities/institutes is ranked first in the India Rankings 2016 ?

A. Jawaharlal Nehru University, New Delhi

B. Central University, Hyderabad

C. Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore

D. Institute of Chemical Technology, Mumbai

Q. 48 Which of the following statements are correct about distance education in India ?

(a) It supplements formal education.

(b) It reduces the cost of education.

(d) It enhances access to education.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

A. (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2)

B. (a), (c) and (d)

C. (a), (b) and (d)

D. (b), (c) and (d)

Q. 49 Which of the following are statutory bodies ?

(a) Election Commission of India

(b) University Grants Commission (UGC)

(d) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

A. (a), (b) and (c)

B. (b), (c) and (d)

C. (b) and (c)

D. (b) and (d)

Q. 50 Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of Rajya Sabha ?

(a) It has same powers as those of Lok Sabha.

(b) It can pass a vote of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.

(d) It can be dissolved during emergency.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

A. (b) and (c)

B. (b), (c) and (d)

C. (a), (b) and (c)

D. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Q. 51 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the powers of the Governor of a State ?

(a) He has the power to dissolve the Legislative Assembly.

(b) He has the power to appoint judges of the State High Court.

(d) He has diplomatic powers.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

A. (a) only

B. (a) and (b)

C. (3) (a), (b) and (d)

D. (a), (b) and (c)

Q. 52 In which of the following cases, the principle of natural justice (Hear the other party) must be followed ?

(a) Dismissal of an employee

(b) Supersession of a municipality

(d) Disciplinary action against a student or an employee

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

A. (a) and (b)

B. (a) and (d)

C. (a), (b) and (d)

D. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Q. 53 Which of the following set of statements reflects the basic characteristics of teaching ?

Select the correct alternative from the codes :

(i) Teaching is the same as training.

(ii) There is no difference between instruction and conditioning when we teach.

(iii) Teaching is related to learning.

(iv) Teaching is a ‘task’ word while learning is an ‘achievement’ word.

(v) Teaching means giving information.

(vi) One may teach without learning taking place.

Codes:

A. (i), (ii) and (iii)

B. (iii), (iv) and (vi)

C. (ii), (iii) and (v)

D. (i), (iv) and (vi)

Q. 54 Which of the following factors affect teaching ?

Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.

(i) Teacher’s internal locus of control.

(ii) Learner-motivation.

(iii) Teacher’s biographical data.

(iv) Teacher’s self efficacy.

(v) Learner’s interest in co-curricular activities.

(vi) Teacher’s skill in managing and monitoring.

(vii) Teacher’s knowledge of the subject including general knowledge.

Codes :

A. (i), (ii), (iv), (vi) and (vii)

B. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

C. (iii), (iv), (v), (vi) and (vii)

D. (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

Q. 55 Which combination of methods of teaching is likely to optimise learning ?

A. Lecturing, discussions and seminar method

B. Interactive discussions, planned lectures and PowerPoint based presentations

C. Interactive lecture sessions followed by buzz sessions, brainstorming and projects

D. Lecturing, demonstrations and PowerPoint based presentations

Q. 56 Assertion (A) : Teaching aids have to be considered as effective supplements to instruction.

Reason (R) : They keep the students in good humour.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Q. 57 The purpose of formative evaluation is to

A. grade students’ learning outcomes.

B. accelerate students’ learning performance.

C. check students’ performance graph.

D. provide feedback to teacher effectiveness.

Q. 58 Which of the following learner characteristics are likely to influence the effectiveness of teaching aids and evaluation systems to ensure positive results ?

A. Learner’s family background, age and habitation.

B. Learner’s parentage, socio-economic background and performance in learning of the concerned subject.

C. Learner’s stage of development, social background and personal interests.

D. Learner’s maturity level, academic performance level and motivational dispositions.

Q. 59 For advancing knowledge, the latest strategy used by mankind is

A. consulting an authority

B. deductive reasoning

C. scientific thinking

D. inductive reasoning

Q. 60 There are two sets given below, Set-I consists of methods of research and Set-II indicates their procedural characteristics. Match the two sets and choose your answer from the codes given below :

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer

UGC Net 2015 June Paper 1 Previous Year Paper

UGC Net 2015 June Paper 1

Q. 1 Which of the following is highest level of cognitive ability ?

A. Knowing

B. Understanding

C. Analysing

D. Evaluationg

Q. 2 Which of the following factors does not impact teaching ?

A. Teachers knowledge

B. Classroom activities that encourage learning

C. Socio -economic background of teachers and learners

D. learning thorugh experinece

Q. 3 Which of the following about learning aids are correct ?

a. They help in reatining concept for longer education

b.They help students learn better

c.They make teaching learning process interesting

d.they enhance rote learning

Select the correct answers from the code given below

A. a , b , c ,d

B. a , c, d

C. b , c, d

D. a ,b ,d

Q. 4 Techniques used the teacher to teach include :

a. lecture

b.interactive lecture

c.group work

d.self study

A. a , b, c

B. a, b, c, d

C. b , c, d

D. a , b, d

Q. 5 Acheivement tests are commonly used for the purpose of

A. making selections of a specific job

B. selecting candidates for a course

C. identifyng strengths and weekness of learners

D. assessing the amount of learning after teaching

Q. 6 A good teacher is one who :

A. gives useful information

B. explanis concepts and principles

C. gives printed notes to studnets

D. inspires students to learn

Q. 7 Which of the following statements regarding the research are correct ?

a. Research refers to a series of systematic activity or activities undertaken to find out the solution of a problem

b.It is a systematic ,logical, unbiased process where in verification of hypothesis ,data

analysis ,interpretation ,and formation of principles can be done

c.it is an intellectual enquiry and quest towards truth

d.it leads to enhancement of knowledge

A. a , b, c

B. b , c, d

C. a c, d

D. a , b, c, d

Q. 8 A good thesis writing should involve

a. reduction of punctuation and grammatical errors to a minimum

b.careful checking of references

c.consistency in the way the theis is written

d.a clear and well written abstract

A. a , b, c, d

B. a , b ,c

C. a , b, d

D. b ,c, d

Q. 9 Jean piaget gave a theory of cognitive development of humans on the basis of his:

A. Fundamental research

B. applied research

C. action research

D. evaluation research

Q. 10 Male and female students perform equally well in a numerical aptitude test -This statement indicates a

A. research hypothesis

B. a null hypothesis

C. directional hypothesis

D. statistical hypothesis

Q. 11 The conclusion/findings of which type of research cannot be generalised to other situations ?

A. Historical research

B. descriptive research

C. experimental research

D. casual comparitive research

Q. 12 Whihc of the folloing steps are required to design a questionaire ?

a. writing a primary and secondary aids of study

b. review of current literature

c.prepare a draft of questionare

c. Revise the draft

A. a , b, c

B. a , c ,d

C. b, ,c ,d

D. a ,b, c,d

Questions: 13 – 18

Story telling is not in our genes . Neither it is an evolutionary history .It is the essence of what makes us human .

Human beings progress by telling stories .one event can result in great variety of stories told about it . Sometimes those stories differ greatly. Which stories are picked up and repeated and which are dropped and forgotten often determines how we progress. Our history, knowledge, and understanding are all the collections of the few stories that survive. This includes the stories that we tell each other about the future. And how the future will turn out depends partly, possibly largely, on which stories we collectively chose to believe. Some stories are designed to spread fear and concern. This is because some story-tellers feel that there is a need to raise some tensions. Some stories are frightening, they are like totemic warnings. :”Fail to act now and we are all

doomed”.Then there are stories that indicate that all will be fine so long as we leave everything upto a few especially able adults. Currently this trend is being led by those who call themselves “rational optimists”. They tend to claim that it is human nature, to compete and to succeed and to profit at the expense of others. the rational optimists however do not realise how humanity has progressed over time through social networks and how large groups work in less selfishness and in the process accommodate rich and poor, high and low alike. This aspect in the story-telling is considered by the ‘Practical Possibles’ who sit between those who say all is fine an cheerful, and be individualistic in your approach to a successful future, and those who ordain pessimism and fear that we are doomed. What the future holds for us is which stories we hold on to and how we act on them.

Q. 13 Our knowledge is a collection of

A. all stories that we have heard during our lifetime

B. some stories that we remember

C. a few stories that we survive

D. some important stories

Q. 14 Story telling is

A. an art

B. a science

C. in our genes

D. the essence of what makes us human

Q. 15 How the future will turn out to be depend upon the storie?

A. we collectively choose to believe in

B. which are repeatedly narrated

C. designed to spread fear and tension

D. designed to make prophecy

Q. 16 Rational optimists

a. look for oppurtunities

b.are sensiible and cheerful

c.are selfishly driven

Identify the correct answers from the codes given below

A. a , b , c

B. a only

C. a and b only

D. a and c only

Q. 17 Humans become less selfish when

A. they work in large groups

B. they listen to frighteneing stories

C. they listen to cheerful stories

D. they work in solitude

Q. 18 practical possibiles are ones who

A. follow midway path

B. are doom mongers

C. are self centered

D. are cheerful and carefree

Q. 19 effectiveness of communication can be traced from which the following ?

a.attitude surveys

b.performance records

c.students attendence

d.selection of communication channel

select the correct answer from the codes given below :

A. a, ,b ,c ,d

B. a, ,b ,c

C. b ,c ,d

D. a, ,b ,,d

Q. 20 Assertion (A) ; Formal communication tends to be fast and flexible

Reason (R) : Formal communication is systematic and orderly flow of information

A. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explaination of A

B. Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explaination of A

C. A is correct ,R is false

D. A isfalse ,R is correct

Q. 21 Which of the following are charecterictic features of communication ?

a. communication involves exchange of ideas , facts and opinions

b. communication involves both information and understanding

c. communication is a continous process

d. communication is a circular process

A. a , ,b , c

B. a , ,b ,d

C. b , c, d

D. a ,b ,,c d

Q. 22 The term grapevine is also known as

A. downward communication

B. informal communication

C. upward communication

D. horizontal communication

Q. 23 Which of the following is not a principle of effective communication ?

A. persuasive and convincing dialogue

B. participation of the audience

C. one way transfer of information

D. strategic use of grapevine

Q. 24 In communication , the language is

A. the verbal code

B. interpersonal

C. symbolic code

D. non verbal code

Q. 25 The next term in the series is

2, 5 ,9 , 19 ,37 ?

A. 73

B. 75

C. 78

D. 80

Q. 26 In certain code MATHURA is coded as JXQEROX .The code of HOTELS will be :

A. LEQIBP

B. ELQBIP

C. LEBIQP

D. ELIPQB

Q. 27 One day prakash left home and walked 10 km towards south , turned right and walked 5 km , turned right and walked 10 km ,and turned left and walked 10 km .How many km will have to alk to reach his home straight ?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 15

D. 30

Q. 28 A girl introduced a boy as a son of a daughter of the father of her uncle .the boy is related to thegirl as ?

A. Brother

B. Uncle

C. NEphew

D. Son

Q. 29 In an examination 10,000 students appeared The result revelead the number of studnets who have

Passed in all 5 subjects : 5583

Passed in only 3 subjects : 1400

passed in 2 subjects only : 1200

Passed in 1 subject only : 735

failed in english only :75

failed in physics only : 145

failed in chemistry only :140

failed in mathematics only :200

failed in bio-science only : 157

The number of students passed in last 4 subjects is

A. 6300

B. 6900

C. 7300

D. 7900

Q. 30 A present a person is 4 times older than his son and 3 years older than his wife . After 3 years age of son will be 15 years .The age of persons wife after 5 years will be

A. 42

B. 48

C. 45

D. 50

Q. 31 IF we wank to seek new knowledge about the facts about the world, we must rely on the reason of the type

A. inductive

B. deductive

C. demonstrative

D. physiological

Q. 32 A deductive argument is invalid if :

A. its premises and conclusions are false

B. its premises are true and conclusions are false

C. its premises are false and conclusions are true

D. its premises and conclusions are true

Q. 33 Inductive reasoning is grounded on :

A. Integrity of nature

B. unity of nature

C. uniforminty of nature

D. harmony of nature

Q. 34 Among the following statements 2 are contradictory to each other .Select the correct code that represents them.

a. All poets are philosphers

b. some poets are philosphers

c. some poets are not philosphers

d.no poet is philosphers

A. a and b

B. a and d

C. a and c

D. b and c

Q. 35 Which of the codes given below have the correct statements ?select the code

Statements

a.Venn diagram represents the arguments graphically

b.Venn diagram can enhnace our understanding

c.Venn diagram may be called valid or invalid

d.Venn diagram is a clear method of notion

A. a , b , c

B. a , b ,d

C. b , c, d

D. a , c, d

Q. 36 When the purpose of the defination is to explain the use or to eliminate ambiguity the

definition is called :

A. Stpilative

B. Theoritical

C. Lexical

D. Persuassive

Questions: 37 – 42

Question numbers 37 to 42 are tabulated on the date given below :

A company has 20 employees with their age and salary mentioned against each of them

Q. 37 Classify the age of each employee in class interval of 5 years .Which class interval of 5 years has the maximum average salary ?

A. 35 -40 years

B. 40 -45 years

C. 45- 50 years

D. 50 – 55 years

Q. 38 What is the frequency (%) in the class interval of 30 -35 years ?

A. 20 %

B. 25 %

C. 30%

D. 35 %

Q. 39 What is the average age of employes ?

A. 40. 3 years

B. 38. 6 years

C. 47.2 years

D. 45.3 years

Q. 40 What is the fraction (%) pf employes getting salary above 40,000 per month ?

A. 45%

B. 50 %

C. 35%

D. 32 %

Q. 41 What is the average salary in the age group of 40- 50 years ?

A. 35

B. 42.5

C. 40.5

D. 36.5

Q. 42 What is the fraction of employes getting salary ;less than the average salary of all the employees ?

A. 45%

B. 50 %

C. 55%

D. 47%

Q. 43 Encoding or scrambling data for transmission accross a network is known as :

A. protection

B. detection

C. encryption

D. decryption

Q. 44 Which of the following is not an output device ?

A. Printer

B. speaker

C. mouse

D. keyboard

Q. 45 Which of the following represents one billion chareccterts ?

A. kilobyte

B. megabyte

C. gigabyte

D. terabyte

Q. 46 Which of the following is not open source software ?

A. Internet explorer

B. fedora linux

C. open office

D. apache HTTP server

Q. 47 Which one of the following represents the binaly equilant of the decimal number 25

A. 10101

B. 01101

C. 11001

D. 11011

Q. 48 Which is an instant messenger that is used for chatting ?

A. Atlavista

B. MAC

C. Microsoft office

D. Google talk

Q. 49 In which of the countries per capita use of water is maximum ?

A. USA

B. European Union

C. China

D. India

Q. 50 Indias contribution to total global carbon dioxide emission is about :

A. 3 %

B. 6 %

C. 10%

D. 15 %

Q. 51 Two earthqaukes A and B happen to be a magnitude of 5 aand 6 ritcher scale. The ratio of energies released EB/EA will be apprximately ?

A. 8

B. 16

C. 32

D. 64

Q. 52 Which of the following combinations represent renewable natural resources ?

A. fertile soil, fresh water and natural gas

B. clean air , phosphates and bilogical diversity

C. fishes, fertile soil and fresh water

D. oil, forestest and tides

Q. 53 In the recently launched Air Qaulity in India , which of the following pollutants is not excluded ?

A. Carbon monoxide

B. fine particulate matter

C. ozone

D. chlorofluorocarbon

Q. 54 The factors which are most important in determining the impact of anthrogenic activities on environment are :

A. population, affluence per person , land available per person

B. population, affluence per person and technology used for explointing resources

C. atmospheric conditions ,population and forest cover

D. population forest cover and land available per person

Q. 55 The session of parliament is summoned in :

A. The president

B. The prime minister

C. The speaker of the lok sabha

D. The speaker of the lok sabha and chairman of rajya sabha

Q. 56 Civil service day is celebrated in India on :

A. 21st april

B. 24th april

C. 21st june

D. 7th july

Q. 57 The south aisa university is situated in the city of :

A. colombo

B. dhaka

C. new delhi

D. kathmandu

Q. 58 The university grants commission was established with which of the following aims ?

a. promotion of research and development in higher education

b.indentifying and sustaining institutions of potential learning

c.capacity of building teachers

d. providing automony to each and every higher educational institutions in india

Selecting the correct answer from the codes given below :

A. a ,b , c ,d

B. a , b ,c

C. b , c, d

D. a , b, d

Q. 59 The gross enrollment ratio in instituitons of higher education in India at percent (2015) is about

A. 8 percent

B. 12 percent

C. 19 percent

D. 23 percent

Q. 60 The total number of central universtites in india in april 2015 is

A. 8

B. 14

C. 27

D. 43

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	C	B	B	D	D	D	B	A	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	B	C	D	A	D	A	A	D	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	B	C	A	B	B	D	A	A	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	B	C	B	B	B	D	B	A	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	C	C	D	C	A	C	D	A	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	A	D	A	A	A	C	B	D	D

UGC NET 2015 June Commerce Paper 2 Previous Year Paper

UGC NET 2015 June Commerce Paper 2

Q. 1 The first worlds electronic stock market is

A. KOSPI

B. Nikkie

C. Nas DAQ

D. Dow jones

Q. 2 The human development index (HDI) is introduced by

A. UNDP

B. UNICEF

C. IMF

D. World bank

Q. 3 Examine the following statements and choose the correct code ;

Assertion (A) : American style option , compared to European style provides more freedom to option holders in excersising the options.

Reason(R): American style option can be exercised only at a specific date which is generally the expiration date

A. Both A and R are correct

B. Both A and R are wrong

C. A is correct , but R is wrong

D. A is wrong , but R is correct

Q. 4 From the statements given below identify the correct code ;

I.The key strategy behind acquiring a company is to create share holder’s value

II. Conglmeration is the merger between 2 companies that have common business areas

III. MRTP act gor replaced by competition act ,2002 in India

A. All three statements are correct

B. statements I and II are correct

C. statements I and III are correct

D. statements II is only correct

Q. 5 From the following identify the tools of fiscal policy ;

I. Public expenditures

II. Open market operations

III.Deficit finances

IV.Taxation

V. Reserve requirements

A. I , III , IV and V

B. I , II , IV and V

C. II and V

D. I , III , V

Q. 6 The basic diference between a static budget and a flexible budget is that :

A. A flexible budget considers only variable costs but a static budget considers all costs

B. A flexible budget allows management latitude in meeting goals , where as static

budget is based on fixed standards.

C. A flexible budget is applicable for single department only but static budget is

applicable for the entire facility

D. A flexible budget can be prepared for any production level within a revelant range but static budget is based on specific level of production

Q. 7 A retiring partner continous to be liable for obligations for incurred after his retirement :

A. if unpaid amount is transferred to his loan account

B. If he does not give public notice

C. if he starts similar business elsewhere

D. in all the situations till he survives

Q. 8 In what order the following assets are shown in the balance sheet of a company

I.Trade receivables

II.Cash

III.Furniture fittings

Iv. Investment in shares and debentures

A. II , I , IV ,III

B. I , II , III IV

C. III IV I , II

D. IV ,III,II , I

Q. 9 When opening stock is R. 50,000 and closing stock is rs.60,000 and the cost of goods sold is Rs.2,20,000 the stock turnover ratio is :

A. 2 times

B. 3 times

C. 4 times

D. 5 times

Q. 10 If stock ratio is 6 times

Average stock is Rs.8,000

Seling price = above 25% cost

What is the amount of gross profit ?

A. Rs. 2,000

B. Rs, 4000

C. Rs. 10,000

D. Rs. 12,000

Q. 11 A rectangular hyperbola shaped demand curve on all its points has

A. equal slopes of price demand curve

B. price elasticity equal to unity

C. varying price elasticity

D. both slope and price elasticity equal

Q. 12 In case of short run equilibrium , a perfectly competitive firm while earning abnormal profits operates at an output level where :

A. Marginal cost is minimum

B. Average cost is minimum

C. Both Marginal cost and Average cost are equal

D. Marginal cost is higher than Average cost

Q. 13 Which one of the following statements is false ?

A. Normally a price demand curve slopes downwards from left to right

B. Economies of scale and economies of scope are same

C. For optimization , equaity between marginal cost and marginal curve revenue is

necessary condition but its not a sufficinet one.

D. LAw of variable proportion denotes input- output relationship during short -run

Q. 14 Match the items in List – I with the items in List – II and indicate the correct code

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 15 The following are the demand and supply equations in a perfectly competitive market:

P = 12 + 0.3 Qₛ

P = 40 – 0.4 Q6

The equilibrium market price would be

A. 24

B. 10

C. 40

D. 20

Q. 16 Which of the following is not an accounting software package ?

A. quick books

B. sage one

C. sage M

D. sage 50

Q. 17 Which one of the following formula is used to calculate probable error pf co-relation – coefficient between 2 variables on n pairs of observations ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 18 If the population is heterogenous ,which one of the following is probability sampling methods is more appropriate ?

A. sequential sampling

B. quota sampling

C. double sampling

D. stratified sampling

Q. 19 Which of the following relating to normal distribution are not correct ?

I . coefficient of skewness is three

II. it is mesokuritic

III.Mean deviation for it is 2/3σ

Iv. μ±2σ covers 95.46% area .

V.mean , median and mode are equal

Vi.The standard normal variate Z has mean one and SD zero

A. I , III , IV

B. III , IV ,V

C. I , III , V

D. I , III , VI

Q. 20 Which one of the following statements is false ?

A. Both co-relation and regression coeffiecients have same sign

B. arithematic mean of the regression coefficients is always more than the corelation coeffiecinet

C. regression coeffiecients are independent of both the origin and scale

D. corelation coeffiecinet is the sqaure root of 2 regression coeffiecients

Q. 21 Match the items of List-I with List-II

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 22 Assertion (A) : managemnet is only associated with economic affairs

Reason (R) :Big business houses are the result of effective financial management

A. A is correct and R is the right exlpaination of A

B. A is correct and R is not the right exlpaination of A

C. A is incorrect but R is in isolation

D. Both A and R are incorrect

Q. 23 Areas of establishing objectives under MBO are :

I. market standing

II. innovation

III Industrail relations

IV. Public Accountability

V. Productivity

VI.Industrial policy

A. III , IV , V , VI

B. I, II ,IV ,V

C. I, II ,V ,VI

D. II , III ,Iv, VI

Q. 24 Match the items of List-I with List-II

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 25 Narayan murthy committee revised its recommondatios on corporate governance on 29th oct 2004 which diluted the following areas

I . Independence of directives

II. Whistle bowler policy

III.Performance evaluation of non -executive directors

IV.mandatory tarining of non -executive directors

A. I , II , III only

B. I and, III only

C. I , II , IV only

D. all of them

Q. 26 The service marketing mix is an extended marketing mix and it includes :

I.People

II. Process

III.Service

IV. Physical evidence

A. II , III IV

B. I, II ,III

C. I , II IV

D. I , III IV

Q. 27 Black box model in marketing relates to :

A. marketing planning

B. marketing mix

C. marketing control

D. consumer behavioir

Q. 28 Items , considered part of augmented product , do not include :

A. guarentee

B. warrantee

C. complementory products

D. channels of distribution

Q. 29 Which one is not a type of direct marketing ?

A. direct mail marketing

B. retail marketing

C. telemarketing

D. email direct marketing

Q. 30 press release is a part of :

A. public relations

B. advertsising

C. sales promotion

D. none of the above

Q. 31 In capital budgeting , the term capital rationing implies :

A. that no retained earnings are avaialble

B. that limited funds are available for investment

C. that no external funds can be raised

D. that no fresh investment is required in current year

Q. 32 In certainly equivalent approach , adjusted cash flows are discounted at :

A. Accounting rate of return

B. internal rate of return

C. hurdle rate

D. risk free rate

Q. 33 Combined levareage is calculated as

A. operating leverage + financial leverage

B. operating leverage – financial leverage

C. operating leverage x financial leverage

D. operating leverage / financial leverage

Q. 34 Which one of the following is not true with respect to the capital budgeting ?

A. capital budgeting is related to asset replacement decisions

B. cost of capital is eqaul to minimum required return

C. existing investment in a project is not treated as sunk cost

D. timing of cash flows is relevant

Q. 35 What is economic quantity order ?

A. cost of order

B. cost of stock

C. recorder level

D. optimum order size

Q. 36 Which of the following is not a basic objective of HRM ?

A. to attract HR into organisation

B. To develop and motivate HR for better performance

C. To have a reward and punishment for HR

D. To integrate and maintain HR in the organisation

Q. 37 What is gare hiring ?

A. to select people who approach on their own for employment in the organisation

B. to select people who are recommended by the employees

C. to select people from public employement exchanges

D. to select people supplied by labour contarctors

Q. 38 Matching essential managers and essential positions is a step inthe process of :

A. career cycle

B. succession planning

C. career planning

D. career stages

Q. 39 The barriers of effective performance appraisal are :

I . psychological blocks of managers

II. faulty assumptions of parties concerned

III. technical pitfalls

IV. faulty written communications

A. All are correct

B. Only II and III are correct

C. Only I and II are correct

D. Only I, II and III are correct

Q. 40 Who has developed the systems approach of industrial relations ?

A. john dunlop

B. garry s. becker

C. michael J.Jucius

D. edwin B. Flippo

Q. 41 In 1992 , the banking sector reforms were introduced as per :

A. C. Rangarajan committee report

B. M . Narasimhan committee report

C. suresh tendulkar committee report

D. sukhamoy chakraborty committee report

Q. 42 For the purpose of extending rural banking and agro finance , the NABARD :

A. Directly lends and monitors and rural borrowers

B. refinances the banks extending rural finance

C. refinances the rural borrowers obtaining credit from banks

D. directly finances the rural borrowers and gets refinances from government

Q. 43 When RBI grants loan to commercial banks and charges interest on it , it is called :

A. rapo rate

B. reverse rapo rate

C. sweep stack rate , basic rate

D. bank rate

Q. 44 E- banking business is essentially regulated by the information technology act 2000 , under which personal signature is replaced by :

A. encrypted signature

B. image signature

C. digital signature

D. online signature

Q. 45 In order to control infaltion and ensure stability in money market :

A. The RBI works under direction of ministry of finance, governmnet of India

B. The RBI works independenly and can refuse the government directive

C. The RBI acts under the board of directors

D. The RBI’s board of govrners shall abide by the goevernment directive

Q. 46 In respect of international business , a project is called a turnkey project because :

A. The license agrees to construct an entire plant in his hoem country and hands over the key

B. The licensor starts the operation and hands over the key of operating plant to the

licensee

C. The licensor starts the operation and then invites the licensee and hands over the key to complete the remaining work

D. The licensor and the licensee jointly carry out the projcet and agree to share profit eqaully

Q. 47 Match the items in List-I with the items in List-II

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 48 Assertion (A) : The member nations consistently finding balance of payments crisis, may approach the world bank seeking financial accomdation to mitigate the crisis.

Reason (R) : The member nations facing balance of payment crisis can appraoch the IMF seeking redressal of the BOP crisis.

A. A is correct and R is the correct explainataion of A

B. A is correct but R is wrong

C. R is correct but A is wrong

D. Both are worng

Q. 49 In computation of balance payments overall payments of balance equals to :

A. Balance of current account + Balance of capital account+ statistical discrepency

B. Export of goods and invisbles – import of goods

C. foreign exchnage inflow -foreign exchnage outflow

D. Export of goods and invisbles +import of goods and invisbles

Q. 50 The instrument choosen for enhancement of international liquidity is :

A. Society for wild wide inter bank financial telecommuninactions

B. special driving balls

C. multilateral nettting

D. netting of payments

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	A	C	C	D	D	B	C	C	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	D	B	C	A	C	A	D	A	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	C	B	D	D	C	D	D	B	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	D	C	C	D	C	A	B	D	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	B	D	C	B	B	C	C	A	B

UGC NET 2015 Dec Paper 1 Previous Year Paper

UGC NET 2015 Dec Paper 1

Q. 1 Greater the handicap of the students coming to the educational institutions greater the demand on the:

A. family

B. society

C. teacher

D. state

Q. 2 What are the characteristics of continuous and comprehensive evaluation ?

(a) It increases the workload on students by taking multiple tests

(b) It replaces marks with grades.

(d) It helps in reducing examination phobia.

select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. (a),(b),(c) and (d)

B. (b) and (d)

C. (a), (b) and (c)

D. (b),(c) and (d)

Q. 3 which of the following attributes denote great strengths of a teacher?

(a)full time active involvement in the institutional management

(b)setting examples

(c)willingness to put assumptions to the test

(d)acknowledging mistakes

select the correct answer from the codes given below

A. (a), (b) and (d)

B. (b), (c) and (d)

C. (a), (c) and (d)

D. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Q. 4 which one of the following statements is correct in the context of multiple-choice type questions?

A. they are more objective than true-false type questions

B. they are less objective than essay type questions

C. they are more subjective than short-answer type questions

D. they are more subjective than true-false type questions

Q. 5 As chairman of an independent commission on education, Jacques Delors report to UNESCO was titles:

A. international commission on education report

B. millenmium development report

C. learning : the treasure within

D. world declaration on education for all

Q. 6 What are required for good teaching?

(a) diagnosis

(b) remedy

(d) feedback

select the correct option from the codes given below:

A. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

B. (a) and (b)

C. (a),(c) and (d)

D. (c) and (d)

Q. 7 which of the following statements is not true in the context of participatory research?

A. it recognizes knowledge as power

B. it emphasizes on people as experts

C. it is a collective process of enquiry

D. its sole purpose is production of knowledge

Q. 8 which of the following statements is true in the context of the testing of a hypothesis?

A. it is only attractive hypothesis that can be tested

B. it is only the null hypothesis, that can be tested

C. both, the alternative and the null hypothesis can be tested

D. both, the alternative and the null hypotheisis cannot be tested

Q. 9 which of the following are the basic rules of APA style of referencing format

(a) italicize titles of shorter works such as journal articles or essays

(b) invert authors names(last name first)

(d) alphabetically index reference list

select the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. (a) and (b)

B. (b),(c) and (d)

C. (c) and (d)

D. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Q. 10 which of the following are the characteristics of a seminar ?

(a) It is a form of academic instruction.

(b) it involves questioning, discussion and debates

(d) it needs involvement of the skilled persons

select the correct answer from the codes given below

A. (b) and (c)

B. (b) and (d)

C. (b), (c) and (d)

D. (a),(b) and (d)

Q. 11 A reseacher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular political party in an urban area. what tool should he prefer for the study?

A. rating scale

B. interviewer

C. questionnaire

D. schedule

Q. 12 Ethical norms in research do not involve guidelines for:

A. thesis format

B. copyright

C. patenting policy

D. data sharing policies

Questions: 13 – 17

I did that recently when you have to sign a big card- which is horror into itself, especially as the keeper of the big card was learning over me at the time. suddenly I was on the spot, a rabbit in the headlights, torn between doing a fun message or some sort of in-joke or a drawing. Instead overwhelming by the myriad options available to me, I decided to just write: “Good luck, best, Joel.” It was then that I realised, to my horror, that I had forgotten how to write. My entire exisistence is “tap letters into computer”. My shopping lists are hidden in the notes function of my phone. If struggling to think. Paper is something I pile beneath my laptop to make it a more comfortable height for me to type on. A poll of 1000 teens by the stationers, Bic found that one in 10 dont own a pen, a third have never written a letter and half of 13 to 19 years-old have never been forced to sit down and write a thank you letter,. more than 80% have nevr written a love letter, 56% dont have letter paper at home. And a quarter have never known unique torture of writing a birthday card. The most a teen ever has to use a pen in on an exam paper. Bic, have you heard of mobile phones ? have you heard of e-mail , face book and snap chatting ? this is the future. pens are dead. handwriting is a relic. “Handwriting is one of the most creative outlets we have and should be given the same importance as other art forms such as sketching, painting or photography.”

Q. 13 when confronted with signing a big card, the author felt like “a rabbit in the headlight .” what does this phrase mean?

A. a state of confusion

B. a state of pleasure

C. a state of anxiety

D. a state of pain

Q. 14 According to the author, which one is not the most creative outlet of pursuit ?

A. hand writing

B. photography

C. sketching

D. reading

Q. 15 the entire existence of the author revolves round:

(a) computer

(b) mobile phone

identify the correct answer from the codes given below:

A. (b) only

B. (a) and (b) only

C. (a),(b) and (c)

D. (b) and (c) only

Q. 16 how many teens, as per the BIc survey, do not own a pen?

A. 800

B. 560

C. 500

D. 100

Q. 17 what is the main concern of the author?

A. that the teens use social networks for communication

B. that the teens use mobile phones

C. that the teens use computer

D. that the teens have forgotten the art of handwriting

Q. 18 The main objectives student evaluation of teachers are:

(a) to gather information about student weakness

(b) to make teachers take teaching seriously

(d) to identify the areas of further improvement in teacher trails

identify the correct answer from the codes given below

A. (a) and (b) only

B. (b),(c) and (d) only

C. (a),(b) and (c) only

D. (a) only

Q. 19 using the central point of the class room communication as the beginning of a dynamic pattern of ideas is referred to as:

A. systemisation

B. problem-orientation

C. idea protocol

D. mind mapping

Q. 20 aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as :

A. physical language

B. personal language

C. para language

D. delivery language

Q. 21 every type of communication is affected by its:

A. reception

B. transmission

C. non regulation

D. delivery language

Q. 22 attitudes, action and appearances in the context of classroom communication are considered as:

A. verbal

B. non-verbal

C. impersonal

D. irrational

Q. 23 most often the teacher-student communication is :

A. spurious

B. critical

C. utilitarian

D. confrontational

Q. 24 In a classroom a communicators trust level is determined by :

A. the use of hyperbole

B. the change of voice level

C. the use of abstract concepts

D. eye contact

Q. 25 The next term in the series 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, ?

A. 50

B. 57

C. 62

D. 72

Q. 26 A group of 210 students appeared in some test. the mean of 1/3rd of students is found to be 60. the mean of the remaining students is found to be 78. the mean of the whole group will be :

A. 80

B. 76

C. 74

D. 72

Q. 27 anil after travelling 6 km towards east from his house realized that he has travelled in a wrong direction. He turned and travelled 12 km towards west, turned right and travelled 8 km to reach his office. The straight distance of the office from his house is

A. 20 km

B. 14 km

C. 12 km

D. 10 km

Q. 28 The next term in the series

B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N, ?

A. J561

B. 162Q

C. Q62J

D. J58Q

Q. 29 A party was held in which a grand mother, father, mother, four sons, their wives and one son and two daughters to each of the sons were present. The number of females present in the party is:

A. 12

B. 14

C. 18

D. 24

Q. 30 P and Q are brothers. R and S are sisters. The son of P is brother of S , Q is related to R as:

A. son

B. brother

C. uncle

D. father

Q. 31 consider the argument given below:

‘pre-employment testing of teachers is quite fair because doctors, architects and engineers who are now employed had to face such testing ‘

what type of argument it is?

A. deductive

B. analogical

C. psychological

D. biological

Q. 32 among the following propositions two are related in such a way that they can both be true although they cannot both be false. Which are those propositions ? select the correct code.

propositions:

(a) some priests are cunning

(b) no priest is cunning

(d) some priests are not cunning.

codes:

A. (a) and (b)

B. (c) and (d)

C. (a) and (c)

D. (a) and (d)

Q. 33 A cluster of propositions with a structure that exhibits some inference is called:

A. an inference

B. an argument

C. an explanation

D. a valid argument

Q. 34 consider the following assertion (A) and reason (R) and select the correct code given below:

(A) : No man is perfect

(R) : some men are not perfect.

A. both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A)

B. both (A) and (R) provides sufficient reason for (A)

C. (A) is true but (R) is false

D. (A) is false but (R) is true

Q. 35 A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some symbol is called:

A. lexical

B. precising

C. stipulative

D. persuasive

Q. 36 If the propositions ‘No men are honest’ is taken to be false which of the following proposition/prepositions :

A. all men are honest

B. some men are honest

C. some men are not honest

D. no honest person is man

Questions: 37 – 42

given below in the table is the decadal data of population and electrical power production of a country. based on the above table, answer the questions from Sl. No. 37 to 42

Q. 37 which decade registered the maximum growth rate (%) of population ?

A. 1961-71

B. 1971-81

C. 1991-2001

D. 2001-2011

Q. 38 average decadal growth rate (%) of population is:

A. -12.21%

B. -9.82%

C. -6.73%

D. -5%

Q. 39 based on the average decadal growth rate, what will be the population in the year 2021 ?

A. 40.34 million

B. 38. 49 million

C. 37.28 million

D. 36.62 million

Q. 40 In the year 1951, what was the power availability per person ?

A. 100 W

B. 200 W

C. 400 W

D. 500 W

Q. 41 In which decade, the average power availability per person was maximum ?

A. 1981-1991

B. 1991-2001

C. 2001-2011

D. 1971-1981

Q. 42 By what percentage (%) the power production increased from 1951to 2011 ?

A. 100%

B. 300%

C. 600%

D. 900%

Q. 43 NMEICT stands for :

A. national mission on educational through ICT

B. national mission on e-governance through ICT

C. national mission on e-commerce through ICT

D. national mission on e-learning through ICT

Q. 44 which of the following is an instant messaging application ?

(a) whatsapp

(b) google talk

select the correct option form the codes given below:

A. (a) and (b) only

B. (b) and (c) only

C. (a) only

D. (a),(b) and (c)

Q. 45 In a computer a byte generally consists of :

A. 4 bits

B. 8 bits

C. 16 bits

D. 10 bits

Q. 46 Which of the following is not an input device?

A. microphone

B. keyboard

C. joystick

D. monitor

Q. 47 which of the following in an open source software?

A. MS word

B. windows

C. mozilla firefox

D. acrobat reader

Q. 48 which of the following enables us to send the same letter to different persons in MS word?

A. Mail join

B. mail copy

C. mail insert

D. mail merge

Q. 49 inside the rural homes, the source/ sources of nitrogen oxide pollution may be:

(a) unvented gas stoves

(b) wood stoves

choose the correct option

A. (a) and (b only)

B. (b) and (c) only

C. (b) only

D. (a),(b) and (c)

Q. 50 which of the following pollutants can cause cancer in humans?

A. pesticides

B. mercury

C. lead

D. ozone

Q. 51 Assertion : people population control measures do not necessarily help in checking environmental degradation.

reason : the relationship between population growth and environmental degradation is rather complex

A. both (A) and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B. both (A) and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C. (A) is true but (R) is false

D. (A) is false but (R) is true

Q. 52 which of the following phenomena is not a natural hazard

A. wild fire

B. lightning

C. landslide

D. chemical contamination

Q. 53 as part of national climate change policy, Indian government is planning to raise the installed capacity of renewable energy by the year 2030 to :

A. 175 GW

B. 200 GW

C. 250 GW

D. 350 GW

Q. 54 at present, in terms of per capita energy consumption(kWh/ year), identify the correct sequence.

A. brazil > russia > china > india

B. russia > china > india > brazil

C. russia > china > brazil > india

D. china > russia > brazil > india

Q. 55 which of the following are the objectives of rashritya uchchatar shiksha abhiyan (RUSA)?

(a) to improve the oevrall quality of state instituions

(b) to ensure adequate availability of quality factor

(d) to downgradeuniversities with poor infrastructure into autonomous colleges

select the answer from the codes given below

A. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

B. (a), (b) and (c)

C. (a),(c) and (d)

D. (a),(b) and (d)

Q. 56 the grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational institutions is

constitutionally prohibited are:

(a) religion

(b) sex

(d) nationality

select the correct answer from the codes given below

A. (b), (c) and (d)

B. (a), (b) and (c)

C. (a), (b) and (d)

D. (a),(b),(c) and (d)

Q. 57 which of the following statements are correct about lok sabha

(a) the constitution puts a limit on the size of the lok sabha

(b) the size and shape of the parliamentry constituents is determined by the election

commision

(d) the speaker of lok sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes

select the correct option from the codes given below:

A. (a) and (c)

B. (a),(b) and (c)

C. (a),(b) and (d)

D. (a),(b), (c) and (d)

Q. 58 public order as an item in the constitution figures in

A. the union list

B. the state list

C. the concurrent list

D. the residuary list

Q. 59 the term office of the advocate general of a state is

A. 4 years

B. 5 years

C. 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier

D. not fixed

Q. 60 Which among the following states has the highest number of seats in the lok sabha?

A. maharastra

B. rajasthan

C. tamil nadu

D. west bengal

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	D	B	A	C	A	D	B	B	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	A	A	D	B	D	D	B	D	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	B	C	D	A	D	D	D	B	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	D	B	A	C	B	A	B	B	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	A	D	B	D	C	D	D	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	D	D	C	B	B	A	B	D	A

UGC NET 2015 Dec Economics Paper 2 Previous Year Paper

UGC NET 2015 Dec Economics Paper 2

Q. 1 Consider the following statements

I.According to the keynes , as income rises ,lower proportion of income is spent on

consumption

II.According to Kunzels, as income rises average propensity to save remains fairly stable and constant

Of the above which statements are correct ?

A. Both I and II are true

B. Neither I and II are true

C. Only I is correct

D. Only II is correct

Q. 2 The marginal Propensity to consume (MPC) is eqaul to Average Propensity to consume (APC) for all levels of income (Y),the correct corresponding consumption (C) function will be:

A. C=a+bY

B. C=a +b/Y

C. C=bY

D. C=bY²

Q. 3 Transfer payments by the government are not included in the net domestic product because :

A. These are gifts from government to the recepients

B. They are not counted as commodities

C. No corresponding production of goods and services has taken place to match such

payments

D. There maybe leakages in payments

Q. 4 Philips curve sets up relation between :

A. Taxes and inflation

B. inflation and employment

C. money supply and aggregate demand

D. price and cost of production

Q. 5 If economy is operating at potential GDP ,an increase in money supply will lead to

A. Stragflation

B. Stuctural inflation

C. Demand pull inflation

D. Cost push inflation

Q. 6 In the long sum , the transitory consumption will :

A. Be infinity

B. Remain unchnaged

C. Decline but will remain positive

D. Be Zero

Q. 7 According to keynes ,investment demand depends on which of the following two factors ?

a.Rate of interest

b. income of consumer

c.marginal efficiency of capital

d.marginal propensity to consume

A. a and d

B. b and d

C. a and c

D. c and d

Q. 8 For the demand function D= P(p) and supply function S=S(p) , the excess demand brings about market eqiulibrium in which of the following situations ?

A. dE(p)/dp>0

B. dE(p)/dp<0

C. dE(p)/dp=0

D. dE(p)/dp=∞

Q. 9 Consider the following statements :

a.Profit maximization by the producer

b.Cournouts deploy equilibrium

Which of these appropriate examples of Nash Equilibrium ?Answer from the code below

A. only a

B. only b

C. both a and b

D. neither a nor b

Q. 10 In which of the following market situations /forms, firms are able to maximise profits ?

A. price leardership

B. cartel

C. at the kink point

D. monopolistic competition

Q. 11 Consider the following factors in determine of wage :

a. Demand for supply and labour

b.MRP of labour = marginal wage

c.MRP of labour =Average productivity of labour

d.MRP= average wage

Which of the above codes is true ?

A. a and b

B. c and d

C. a and c

D. a and d

Q. 12 In the context of a staright line demand curve touching both the axes , which one of the following is correct ? the demand is elastic :

A. below the mid -point

B. above the mid -point

C. at the mid -point of curve

D. throughtout the length of the demand curve

Q. 13 Slutsky equation deals with decomposition of

A. price effect in substitution and income effects

B. goods into superior and inferior goods

C. goods into necessities and luxuries

D. consumer and producer supplies

Q. 14 A discriminitating monopolist will charge a higher price in the market in which the price elasticity of :

A. demand is greater

B. supply is smaller

C. supply is greater

D. demand is smaller

Q. 15 Inclusive growth of objectives was given for the first time in which plan of india ?

A. 9th five year plan

B. 10th five year plan

C. 11th five year plan

D. 12th five year plan

Q. 16 Match the following

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 17 Which of the following variables factors are used in constructing human development index of india ?

a. life expectency at birth

b.Real GDP per capita

c.morbidity

A. All the three above

B. Both a and b

C. both b and c

D. both a and c

Q. 18 Which of the following is credited with introduction of LPG model of economic development in India ?

A. Dr.C .Rangarajan

B. Dr. Montek singh alhuwalia

C. Dr. Amartya sen

D. Dr.Manmohan singh

Q. 19 Which one of the following models explains the paradox pertaining to rural – urban migration in the context of rising urban employment ?

A. solow model

B. lewis model

C. vakil and brhmanand model

D. todaro model

Q. 20 In Harrod model of growth ,if warranted rate of growth ,if warranted rate of growth is below the natural rate of growth then it is possible to maintain steady growth with :

A. continously increasing unemployment

B. a constant rate of unemployemnt

C. continously decreasing unemployement

D. none of the above

Q. 21 Report of the task force on the implementation of fiscal responisbility and budget management act,headed by kelkar committee suggests some points given below

I.Fiscal deficit to be abolished by 2008-09

II.Revenue deficit should be 3% of GDP

which of the above statements is correct ?

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Q. 22 Tobin tax is a tax on :

A. transactions in the share market

B. transactions in the money market

C. transactions in the commodity market

D. transactions in the foriegn exchange market

Q. 23 Budget incidence refers to :

A. the effect of both government expenditure and tax policies on the distribution of

economies

B. the effect government expenditure on the allocation of taxes

C. the tax policies on the distribution on income and wealth in the private sector

D. none of the above

Q. 24 In case of deficit of budget , when the deficits are covered through taxes ,that budget is called :

A. unbalanced budget

B. surplus budget

C. balanced budget

D. none of these

Q. 25 Match the following

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 26 Efficinecy reequires that the production of pure public goods be undertaken to the point where ?

A. the sum of marginal private benefits is exactly equal to the marginal social cost of

production

B. the marginal private benefit is exactly equal to the marginal social cost of production

C. the marginal social cost exceeds the sum of the marginal private benefits

D. none of the above

Q. 27 Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched

A. Rekhi committee : simplification of export and import procedures

B. Namjundappa committee :Railway fare

C. Rangarajan committee :Balance of payments

D. Goiporia committee : Banking service improvements

Q. 28 Consider the following statements :

I. The repo rate is the rate at which other banks borrow from the reserve bank of India

II.A value of 1 for gini coeffiecient in a country implies that there is perfectly equality in income distribution

Which of the following is correct ?

A. II only

B. I only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I and II

Q. 29 Retail banking is to provide banking services :

A. only to individual customers in an integrated manner

B. entirely to agricultural sector only

C. only to self help group for their survival

D. none of the above

Q. 30 Labour market reforms aim at :

A. job security

B. minimum wage

C. labour market flexibillity

D. employment insurance

Q. 31 Jan -Dhan yojna concerns :

A. credit

B. tax payment

C. bank deposit

D. insurance premium

Q. 32 Which of the following does not does not represent the features of Indian labour market ?

A. Disguised unemployement ;lack of skills ;lack of mobility

B. Disguised unemployement; perfect mobility ; lack of skills

C. Disguised unemployement; perfect mobility ;migrative labour

D. poverty; illiteracy ;homogenity

Q. 33 The Geometric mean of four numbers 2,X,16,32 is 8 .What is the value of x?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

Q. 34 If mean = 28 and mode = 25 the value of median will be :

A. 27

B. 29

C. 24

D. 25

Q. 35 If the probability of solving a statistical problem by A is 1/4 and B is 1/3 , when a problem is given to them ,probability that the problm will be solved is ?

A. 1/2

B. 7/12

C. 1/12

D. 2/3

Q. 36 Type -I error is defined as

A. Reject null-hypothesis when it is false

B. Reject null-hypothesis when it is true

C. Accept null-hypothesis when it is true

D. Accept null-hypothesis when it is false

Q. 37 Given that √xy =0.6, σᵧ = 50, σₓ = 10, x̅ = 30 and ȳ = 140, the correct regression of Y on X is given by

A. Y = 50 + 3X

B. Y = 110 + 0.6X

C. Y = 140 + 3X

D. Y = 140 – 3X

Q. 38 Which one of the following is not a method of sampling?

A. systematic sampling

B. Quota sampling

C. Snowball sampling

D. large sampling

Q. 39 Growth in software in industry in india can be best explained by:

A. Porter’s approach

B. Recordo’s approach

C. Vernon;s approach

D. Bella Balassa’s approach39

Q. 40 The form of commodity terms of trade is most closely related to:

A. Laspeyre’s index number

B. Paasche;s index number

C. edgworth marshall index number

D. fisher’s index number

Q. 41 If the foreign offer curve has the unitary elasticity ,then the optimum tariff will be

A. unity

B. infinity

C. zero

D. -1

Q. 42 An over valued indian rupee in the foreign exchange market will have which one of the following consequences ?

A. Make imports cheaper and exports costiler

B. Make imports costlier and exports cheaper

C. give protection to domestic industry against foreign competency

D. will improve balance of payments

Q. 43 Which of the following were not addressed in urugvay round?

A. migration

B. IPRs

C. services

D. tariff

Q. 44 The terms of trade refers to :

A. the export of import expenditure over export earnings

B. trade argument between 2 nations

C. the ratio between export and import prices

D. the terms and conditions on which a country is offered loan in the event of BOP

difficulties

Q. 45 Plan holiday in Indian planning is identified with the period :

A. 1966- 69

B. 1979-81

C. 1985-87

D. 1991- 93

Questions: 46 – 50

In questions 46- 50 2 statments are labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) .In the context of 2 statements which one of the following is correct ?

1 .Both A and R are true , R is the correct explaination of A.

2. Both A and R are true , R is not the correct explaination of A.

3. A is true , R is false

4. A is false , R is true

Q. 46 Assertion :Pareto optimality criterion cannot be used alone to measure welfare level of the people

Reason :The concept Pareto optimality fails in externalities , public goods and missing markets

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 47 Assertion : APC can never be zero while it can be 1.

Reason : Consumption expenditure will always be positive even if income is zero

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 48 Assertion :the indegenous growth theory examines production function that shows increasing returns

Reason: There is specialization and investment in knowledge capital

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 49 Assertion : on a bell shaped curve the value of mean , mode , median would be identical

Reason :There is no skewness in such a curve

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 50 Assertion : competition act of 2002 came into a force and MRTP act was repealed

Reason : MRTP act was too restructive and curtailed fair competition in the market

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	C	C	B	C	D	C	B	B	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	C	A	D	C	C	B	D	D	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	D	A	C	B	A	A	B	A	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	B	B	A	A	B	D	D	A	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	A	A	C	A	B	A	A	B	A

UGC NET 2015 Dec Commerce Paper 2 Previous Year Paper

UGC NET 2015 Dec Commerce Paper 2

Q. 1 environmental degeneration does not consist of:

A. land degeneration and soil erodion

B. problem of over grazing and ecological degeneration

C. floods

D. none of the above

Q. 2 which of the following is not the main objective of “fiscal policy of India”?

A. to increase liquidity in economy

B. to promote price stability

C. to minimize the in equality in income and wealth

D. to promote employment opportunities

Q. 3 liberalization means:

A. reducing number of reserved industries from 17 to 8

B. liberating the industry, trade and economy from unwanted restriction

C. opening up economy to the world by attaining international competetiveness

D. free determination of interest rate

Q. 4 Assertion(A): Industrilization of an economy is considered synonymous with growth.

Reason(R): the transfer of resources from agrarian to industrial may be capital or labour or both

A. both (A) and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

B. both (A) and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

C. (A) is true but (R) is false

D. (A) is false but (R) is true

Q. 5 globalization is the term used to describe process of removal of restriction on which one of the following?

A. foreign trade

B. investment

C. both (1) and (2)

D. none of the above

Q. 6 interest on loan for the purchase of fixed assets is a:

A. revenue expenditure

B. capital expenditure

C. deferred revenue expenditure

D. capital loss

Q. 7 dual aspect concept results in the following accounting equation:

A. revenue = expenses

B. capital + profits = assets + expenses

C. capital + liabilities = assets

D. capital + drawings = owners equity

Q. 8 match the following items in column -I with the items in column – II

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 9 ‘X’ Ltd. has a liquid ratio of 2:1. If its stock is Rs. 40,000 and its current liabilities are of Rs. 1 lac , its current ratio will be :

A. 1.4 times

B. 2.4 times

C. 1.2 times

D. 3.4 times

Q. 10 The marshallian utility analysis is based on a less valid assumption of :

A. cardinal measurability of the utility

B. given marginal utility of money

C. diminishing marginal utility of the goods

D. additivity of the utility

Q. 11 match the items of the list-I with those of the list-II and indicate the correct code

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 12 firms producing and selling a large variety of goods will generally follow:

A. cost plus pricing

B. marginal pricing

C. skimming pricing

D. product line pricing

Q. 13 for the following two statements of assertion(A) and reasoning (R) indicate the correct code assertion(A): all firms under perfect competition in long run earn only run earn only normal profit.

Reasoning(R): all firms under perfect competition in long run operate at the minimum average cost level.

A. (A) and (R) both are correct

B. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

C. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

D. (A) and (R) both are incorrect

Q. 14 match the items list-I with those of list-II and indicate the correct code

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 15 match the items of list-I with those of list-II and indicate the correct code:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 16 which of the following is not a method of studying association of attributes?

A. concurrent division method

B. proportion method

C. yule’s method

D. coefficient of contingency

Q. 17 identify which of the following steps would be included in hypothesis testing:

(a) state the null and alternative hypothesis

(b) set the significance level before the research study

(d) obtain the probability value using a computer program such as SPSS

(e) compare the probability value to the significance level and make the statistical desicions

A. (a),(c) and (d)

B. (c),(d) and (e)

C. (a),(b),(d) and (e)

D. (b),(c),(d) and (e)

Q. 18 select the methods of finding out correlation from the following

(a) karl pearsons method

(b) spearmans rank method

(d) concurrent deviation method

A. (a), (b) and (c)

B. (a),(b),(c) and (d)

C. (a),(b) and (e)

D. (c),(d) and (e)

Q. 19 A set of data can be distinguished from other set of data by means of :

A. central value and dispersion

B. central value, dispersion and skewness

C. central value, dispersion, skewness and kurtosis

D. none of the above

Q. 20 the advent of computers in research has led to:

A. limitations of options in analysis

B. tremendous amount of flexibility with marginal increase in cost

C. myopic exposure of statistics to the researcher

D. none of the above

Q. 21 who among the following is not related to the planing function given by Taylor?

A. route clerk

B. time and cost clerk

C. inspector

D. disciplinarian

Q. 22 match the following

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 23 The classical organisation theory treats organisation as a/an

A. open system

B. closed system

C. technical system

D. macro system

Q. 24 which of the following is a systematic interactive forecasting method that relies on a panel of experts ?

A. pay-off matrix

B. game theory

C. queing theory

D. delphi technique

Q. 25 according to hersey and blanchards situational approach to leadership, the participation style of leadership has:

A. high task and low relationship orientation

B. high task and high relationship orientation

C. low task and high relationship orientation

D. low task and low relationship orientation

Q. 26 which of the following is not a reason for the failure of new products?

A. good idea but overestimated market size

B. correctly positioned new product, not promoted effectively or overpriced.

C. development costs are lower than or equal to estimated or expected

D. competitors fight back harder than expected

Q. 27 which of the following is true for the calculation of overall market share?

A. (customer penetration) x (customer loyalty) x(price selectivity)

B. (customer selectivity) x (customer loyalty) x(price selectivity)

C. (customer selectivity) x (price selectivity) x (customer penetration)

D. (customer selectivity) x (price selectivity) x (customer penetration)x (customer loyalty)

Q. 28 ________is widely by a manufacturer that threatens to with draw a resource aor terminate a relationship if intermediaries fail to cooperate

A. coercive power

B. legitimate power

C. expert power

D. reference power

Q. 29 when the consumers favour those products which offer the most quality, performance or innovative features, then it is called as:

A. production concept

B. product concept

C. sales concept

D. marketing concept

Q. 30 match the items of list-I with list-II where the PLC curve patterns are given for different categories:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 31 the term capital structure implies:

A. share capital + reserves + long term debts

B. share capital + long and short terms debts

C. share capital + long term debts

D. equity and preference share capital

Q. 32 a company has issued 10 percent percapital debt of Rs.1 lac at 5 percent premium. If tax rate is 30 percent, then the cost of the debt will be:

A. 10 percent

B. 15 percent

C. 6.66 percent

D. 8.21 percent

Q. 33 dividend is not relevant in determining the value of the company. who among the following held this opinion

A. j.E. Walter

B. ezra soloman

C. modigliani-miller

D. M.J.Gordon

Q. 34 The formula Q/2 is used to compute the

A. total ordering cost

B. total carrying cost

C. opportunity cost

D. re-order cost

Q. 35 financial leverage is measured by:

A. EBIT/EAT

B. EBIT/EBT

C. EAIT/EBT

D. C/EBIT

Q. 36 which of the following is a key role of HR manager as defined by Ulrich et al(2009)?

A. personal administor

B. business ally

C. payroll advisor

D. organisational geographer

Q. 37 which of the following is the most serious problem that might arise due to excessive reliance on internal recruitment?

A. reduced job performance

B. high labour turnover

C. lack of motivation

D. internal resistance

Q. 38 match the methods of performance appraisal given in list-I with the explanations given in the list-II

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 39 the internal factors affecting the wage mix include:

(a) relative worth of the job

(b) area wage rates

(d) manpower market conditions

A. (a),(b) and (c)

B. (a) and (c)

C. (b),(c) and (d)

D. all of the above

Q. 40 match the items list-I with the items of list-II

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 41 Assertion(A): taking of deposits and granting of loans single out banks.

Reasoning(R): banks acts as intermediates when they mobilize savings from surplus units to shortage units in order to finance productive activities.

A. (A) is correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

B. both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C. (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect

D. (R) is the correct but (A) is incorrect

Q. 42 skimming in e-banking refers to

A. identifying the fraudsters copying vital information from credit cards

B. multiple transactions by one credit card

C. conversion of a debit card into credit card

D. none of the above

Q. 43 match the items of list-I and with list-II in terms of functions of a bank.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 44 which among the following is not a subsidiary of reserve bank of India?

(a) deposit insurance and credit gaurantee corporation of India.

(b) bharatiya reserve bank note mudran private limited

A. only (a)

B. only (b)

C. both (a) and (b)

D. neither (a) nor (b)

Q. 45 which among the following is not associated with NABARD?

A. (a) only

B. (b) only

C. (b) and (c) only

D. none of the above

Q. 46 examine the following statements and choose the correct code

statement I : companies with low cash reserves normally prefer licensing mode rather than foreign direct investment.

statement II: cash rich firms normally prefer foreign direct investment

A. both I and II are correct

B. both I and II are wrong

C. I is correct but II is wrong

D. I is not correct but II is correct

Q. 47 which one of the following is not a feature of business process outsourcing (BPO)?

A. it enables executives to concentrate on strategy

B. it improves process and saves money

C. it decreases organisational capabilities

D. none of the above

Q. 48 the major outcome of the bretton woods conference was

A. establishment of IMF and IFC

B. establishment of IBRD and IFC

C. establishment of IBRD and ADB

D. establishment of IMF and IBRD

Q. 49 which one of the following is an important activity of the world bank borrowings?

A. it borrows in the international capital market

B. it borrows on currency on swap agreements

C. it borrows under the discount net programme

D. all of the above

Q. 50 which one of the following statements is false?

A. IFC was established in july 1956

B. IFC encourages the growth and developement of public sector enterprises in member countries

C. IFC is an affiliate of the world bank

D. IFC encourages the growth of productive private enterprises in member countries

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	A	B	B	C	B	C	A	B	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	B	D	A	B	A	C	C	C	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	B	B	D	C	C	D	A	B	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	C	C	B	B	B	D	C	B	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	A	C	D	D	A	C	D	D	B