UGC-NET - Vidhyarthi Darpan

UGC NET 2017 Nov Paper 1 Previous Year Paper

UGC NET 2017 Nov Paper 1

Q. 1 Which of the following set of statements best represents the nature and objective of teaching and learning?

(a) Teaching is like selling and learning is like buying.

(b) Teaching is a social act while learning is a personal act.

(d) Teaching is a kind of delivery of knowledge while learning is lie receiving it.

(e) Teaching is an interaction and is triadic in nature whereas learning is an active

engagement in a subject domain.

A. (a), (d) and (e)

B. (b), (c) and (e)

C. (a), (b) and (c)

D. (a), (b) and (d)

Q. 2 From the list given below identify the learner characteristics which would facilitate teaching-learning system to become effective. Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.

(a) Prior experience of learner

(b) Learner’s family lineage

(d) Learner’s stage of development

(e) Learner’s food habits and hobbies

(f) Learner’s religious affiliation

A. (a), (c) and (d)

B. (d), (e) and (f)

C. (a), (d) and (e)

D. (b), (c) and (f)

Q. 3 Assertion (A) : All teaching implies learning.

Reason (R) : Learning to be useful must be derived from teaching.

Choose the correct answer from the following :

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Q. 4 On the basis of summative tests, a teacher is interpreting his/her students’ performance in terms of their wellness life style evident in behaviour. This will be called :

A. Formative testing

B. Continuous and comprehensive evaluation

C. Norm-referenced testing

D. Criterion-referenced testing

Q. 5 Which one of the following is a key behaviour in effective teaching?

A. Using student ideas and contribution

B. Structuring

C. Instructional variety

D. Questioning

Q. 6 Which of the following research types focuses on ameliorating the prevailing situations?

A. Fundamental Research

B. Applied Research

C. Action Research

D. Experimental Research

Q. 7 A researcher attempts to evaluate the effect of method of feeding on anxiety – proneness of children. Which method of research would be appropriate for this?

A. Case study method

B. Experimental method

C. Ex-post-facto method

D. Survey method

Q. 8 In which of the following arrangements a wider spectrum of ideas and issues may be made possible?

A. Research Article

B. Workshop mode

C. Conference

D. Symposium

Q. 9 In finalizing a thesis writing format which of the following would form part of

supplementary pages?

A. List of tables and figures

B. Table of contents

C. Conclusions of the study

D. Bibliography and Appendices

Q. 10 Which of the following is susceptible to issue of research ethics?

A. Inaccurate application of statistical techniques

B. Faulty research design

C. Choice of sampling techniques

D. Reporting of research findings

Questions: 11 – 15

Read the passage carefully and answer question numbers from 11 to 15.

Climate change is considered to be one of the most serious threats to sustainable development, with adverse impacts on the environment, human health, food security, economic activity, natural resources and physical infrastructure. Global climate varies naturally. According to the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), the effects of climate change have already been observed, and scientific findings indicate that precautionary and prompt action is necessary. Vulnerability to climate change is not just a function of geography or dependence on natural resources; it also has social, economic and political dimensions which influence how climate change affects different groups. Poor people rarely have insurance to cover loss of property due to natural calamities i.e. drought, floods, super cyclones etc. The poor communities are already struggling to cope with the or even survive. It is vital that these communities are helped to adapt to the changing dynamics of nature. Adaptation is a process through which societies make themselves better able to cope with an uncertain future. Adapting to climate change entails taking the right measures to reduce the negative effects of climate change (or exploit the positive ones) by making the appropriate adjustments and changes. These range from technological options such as increased sea defences or flood-proof houses on stilts to behavioural change at the individual level, such as reducing water use in times of drought. Other strategies include early warning systems for extreme events, better water management, improved risk management, various insurance options and biodiversity conservation. Because of the speed at which climate change is happening due to global temperature rise, it is urgent that the vulnerability of developing countries to climate change is reduced and their capacity to adapt is increased and national adaptation plans are implemented. Adapting to climate change will entail adjustments and changes at every level from community to national and international. Communities must build their resilience, including adopting appropriate technologies while making the most of traditional knowledge, and diversifying their livelihoods to cope with current and future climate stress. Local coping strategies and knowledge need to be used in synergy with government and local interventions. The need of adaptation interventions depends on national circumstances. There is a large body of knowledge and experience within local communities on coping with climatic variability and extreme weather events. Local communities have always aimed to adapt to variations in their climate. To do so, they have made preparations based on their resources and their knowledge accumulated through experience of past weather patterns. This includes times when they have also been forced to react to and recover from extreme events, such as floods, drought and hurricanes. Local coping strategies are an important element of planning for adaptation. Climate change is leading communities to experience climatic extremes more frequently, as well as new climate conditions and extremes. Traditional knowledge can help to provide efficient, appropriate and time-tested ways of advising and enabling, adaptation to climate change in communities who are

feeling the effects of climate changes due to global warming.

Q. 11 Given below are the factors of vulnerability of poor people to climate change. Select the code that contains the correct answer.

(a) Their dependence on natural resorces

(b) Geographical attributes

(d) Lack of traditional knowledge

A. (a), (b) and (c)

B. (b), (c) and (d)

C. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

D. (c) only

Q. 12 Adaptation as a process enables societies to cope with :

(a) An uncertain future

(b) Adjustments and changes

(d) Positive impact of climate change

Select the most appropriate answer from the following code :

A. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

B. (a) and (c) only

C. (b), (c) and (d)

D. (c) only

Q. 13 To address the challenge of climate change, developing countries urgently require :

A. Imposition of climate change tax

B. Implementation of national adaptation policy at their level

C. Adoption of short-term plans

D. Adoption of technological solutions

Q. 14 The traditional knowledge should be used through :

A. Its dissemination

B. Improvement in national circumstances

C. Synergy between government and local interventions

D. Modern technology

Q. 15 The main focus of the passage is on :

A. Combining traditional knowledge with appropriate technology

B. Co-ordination between regional and national efforts

C. Adaptation to climate change

D. Social dimensions of climate change

Q. 16 The interaction between a teacher and students creates a zone of proximal :

A. Difference

B. Confusion

C. Development

D. Distortion

Q. 17 The spatial audio reproduction in a classroom can reduce the students’ :

A. Cognitive load in understanding

B. Respect for the teacher

C. Motivation for excellence

D. Interest in technology-orientation

Q. 18 The classroom communication should essentially be :

A. Contrived

B. Empathetic

C. Abstract

D. Non-descriptive

Q. 19 A good communicator begins his/her presentation with a :

A. Complex question

B. Non-sequitur

C. Repetitive phrase

D. Ice-breaker

Q. 20 In a classroom, the probability of message reception can be enhanced by :

A. Establishing a viewpoint

B. Exposing the ignorance of students

C. Increasing the information load

D. Using high decibel audio tools

Q. 21 In the series 1, 6, 15, 28, 45, ….. the next term will be :

A. 66

B. 76

C. 56

D. 84

Q. 22 The next term in the series ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, …. is :

A. NSA

B. SBL

C. PSK

D. RUH

Q. 23 In certain code, “COVALENT” is coded as BWPDUOFM. The code of “ELEPHANT” will be :

A. MFUIQRTW

B. QMUBIADH

C. QFMFUOBI

D. EPHNTEAS

Q. 24 Ajay is a friend of Rakesh. Pointing to an old man Ajay asked Rakesh who is he? Rakesh said, “His son is my son’s uncle”. The old man is related to Rakesh as :

A. Grandfather

B. Father-in-law

C. Father

D. Uncle

Q. 25 A postman walked 20 m straight from his office, turned right and walked 10 m. After turning left he walked 10 m and after turning right walked 20 m. He again turned right and walked 70 m. How far is he from his office?

A. 50 m

B. 40 m

C. 60 m

D. 20 m

Q. 26 Is is Truism to say that no one was there when life first appeared on earth. Any assertion about life’s origin, thus, should be treated as a theory.

The above two statements constitute :

A. A historical explanation

B. A narrative

C. An argument

D. A conjecture

Q. 27 Given below are four statements. Among them two are related in such a way that they can both be true but they cannot both be false. Select the code that indicates those two statements :

Statements :

(a) Honest people never suffer.

(b) Almost all honest people do suffer.

(d) Each and every honest person suffers.

A. (a) and (b)

B. (a) and (c)

C. (a) and (d)

D. (b) and (c)

Q. 28 A deductive argument is invalid if :

A. Its premises and conclusion are all true.

B. Its premises and conclusion are all false.

C. Its premises are all false but its conclusion is true.

D. Its premises are all false but its conclusion is false.

Q. 29 Given below are two premises (a and b). From those two premises four conclusions (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are drawn. Select the code that states the conclusion/conclusions drawn validly (taking the premises singularly or jointly).

Premises :

(a) All bats are mammals.

(b) No birds are bats.

Conclusions :

(i) No birds are mammals.

(ii) Some birds are not mammals.

(iii) No bats are birds.

(iv) All mammals are bats.

A. (i) only

B. (i) and (ii) only

C. (iii) only

D. (iii) and (iv) only

Q. 30 Just as melting ice-cubes do not cause a glass of water to overflow, melting sea-ice does not increase oceanic volume.

What type of argument is it?

A. Analogical

B. Hypothetical

C. Psychological

D. Statistical

Questions: 31 – 35

Answer the following questions based on the data given in the table.

Q. 31 The maximum decadal growth in population of India is registered in the period :

A. 1961-1971

B. 1991-2001

C. 2001-2011

D. 1981-1991

Q. 32 In which year the decadal growth (%) in number of cars surpassed that of the two wheelers?

A. 1991

B. 2001

C. 1981

D. 2011

Q. 33 What was the average decadal growth in the number of cars during 1961-2011?

A. ~ 131%

B. ~ 68%

C. ~ 217%

D. ~ 157%

Q. 34 In the year 2001, out of total number of vehicles, the number of passenger vehicles (4 wheelers) accounted for :

A. ~ 14%

B. ~ 24%

C. ~ 31%

D. ~ 43%

Q. 35 What was the per capita ownership of two wheelers in India in the year 2011?

A. ~ 0.084%

B. ~ 0.0084%

C. ~ 0.84%

D. ~ 0.068%

Q. 36 What is the name for a webpage address?

A. Domain

B. Directory

C. Protocol

D. URL

Q. 37 The data storage hierarchy consists of :

A. Bytes, bits, fields, records, files and databases

B. Bits, bytes, fields, records, files and databases

C. Bits, bytes, records, fields, files and databases

D. Bits, bytes, fields, files, records and databases

Q. 38 Which of the following domains is used for – profit businesses?

A. .org

B. .net

C. .edu

D. .com

Q. 39 What is the full form of USB as used in computer related activities?

A. Ultra Security Block

B. Universal Security Block

C. Universal Serial Bus

D. United Serial Bus

Q. 40 Which of the following represents billion characters?

A. Terabytes

B. Megabytes

C. Kilobytes

D. Gigabytes

Q. 41 Which of the following pollutants is the major cause of respiratory diseases?

A. Suspended fine particles

B. Nitrogen oxides

C. Carbon monoxide

D. Volatile organic compounds

Q. 42 Assertion (A) : In urban areas, smog episodes occur frequently in winters.

Reason (R) : In winters, a lot of biomass is burnt by people for heating purposes or to keep themselves warm.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C. (A) is true and (R) is false

D. Both (A) and (R) are false

Q. 43 Occurrence of natural hazards is affected by :

(a) Land use changes

(b) Drainage and construction

(d) Climate change

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

A. (a), (c) and (d)

B. (a), (b) and (c)

C. (a), (b) and (d)

D. (b), (c) and (d)

Q. 44 Which of the following pollutant gases is not produced both naturally and as a result of industrial activity?

A. Chlorofluoro carbons

B. Nitrous oxide

C. Methane

D. Carbon dioxide

Q. 45 Among the following fuels of energy, which is the most environment friendly?

A. Ethanol

B. Biogas

C. CNG

D. Hydrogen

Q. 46 Which of the following are the goals of higher education in India?

(a) Access

(b) Equity

(d) Relevance

(e) Value based education

(f) Compulsory and free education

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

A. (a), (b) and (e) only

B. (a), (b), (e) and (f)

C. (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)

D. (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f)

Q. 47 Which of the following has been ranked the best college in the country (2017) as per the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF)?

A. Miranda House, Delhi

B. St. Stephen’s College, Delhi

C. Fergusson College, Pune

D. Maharaja’s College, Mysore

Q. 48 Which of the following universities has received the Visitor’s Award for the best Central University in India in Feb. 2017?

A. Jawaharlal Nehru University

B. Banaras Hindu University

C. Tezpur University

D. University of Hyderabad

Q. 49 Who among the following can be removed by the President without Parliament’s resolution?

A. Judge of a High Court

B. Governor of a State

C. Chief Election Commissioner

D. Comptroller and Auditor-General

Q. 50 Which of the following come(s) within the ambit of the term ‘corruption’?

(a) Misuse of official position

(b) Deviation from rules, laws and norms

(d) Harm to public good

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

A. (a) only

B. (a) and (b) only

C. (a), (b) and (d)

D. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	A	C	D	C	C	C	C	D	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	A	B	C	C	C	A	B	D	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	B	C	C	A	C	D	D	C	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	D	A	A	D	D	B	D	C	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	B	C	A	D	C	A	A	B	D

UGC NET 2017 Nov Economics Paper 2 Previous Year Paper

UGC NET 2017 Nov Economics Paper 2

Q. 1 Consider the following diagram with two parallel demand curves AB and CD:

The price elasticity of demand at :

A. points R and S is equal

B. point R is greater than that at point S

C. point R is less than that at point S

D. points R and S is infinity

Q. 2 In 2016, the Nobel prize in Economics was awarded for

A. analysis of trade pattern and location of economic activity

B. analysis of asset prices

C. analysis of globalization

D. contributions to contract theory

Q. 3 Which of the following is not true for perfect competition ?

A. Price =LAC

B. Market demand curve for a commodity is horizontal to X-axis

C. Firms earn normal profits

D. In the long run firms operate at the minimum point of average cost

Q. 4 Which amongst the following statements is correct ?

A. The minimum point of AVC and MC are at the same level of output

B. Minimum of AVC is at lesser output than the minimum of MC

C. Minimum of AVC is at larger output than the minimum of MC

D. Any of the above is possible depending upon operating of the law of returns

Q. 5 A firm in monopolistic competition advertises in order to :

A. make its product more similar to its competitors’

B. shift the demand curve for its product to the left

C. make the demand for its product less price elastic

D. reduce the industry’s price

Q. 6 For an increase in the effective minimum wage to have less of an impact on employment, which of the following is correct ?

(a) The demand for labour is relatively inelastic

(b) The demand for labour is relatively elastic

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

A. (a) only

B. (c) only

C. (a) and (b)

D. (a) and (c)

Q. 7 Assume that people like onions on their hamburgers. If the supply of hamburgers decreases, the demand for onions will most likely :

A. remain unchanged because hamburgers and onions are different goods

B. increase because hamburgers and onions are substitutes

C. increase because hamburgers and onions are complements

D. decrease because hamburgers and onions are complements

Q. 8 In the shortrun, which of the following costs must continuously decrease as output increases ?

A. Total variable cost

B. Total fixed cost

C. Average variable cost

D. Average fixed cost

Q. 9 If export price increases by 5 percent and import price by 20 percent, the commodity terms of trade is :

A. 0.91

B. 0.87

C. 0.25

D. 4

Q. 10 If economic agents perfectly anticipate policy changes and if all prices, including wages, are completely flexible, which of the following will be true in the long run ?

A. There will be no trade – off between inflation and unemployment

B. The unemployment rate will be less than the natural rate of unemployment

C. The price level will be constant

D. Changes in the money supply will not lead to changes in the price level

Q. 11 Who made the statement, “Inflation is everywhere and always a monetary phenomenon’’ ?

A. Milton Friedman

B. James Tobin

C. T.W. Swan

D. A.W. Phillips

Q. 12 Which amongst the following is not correctly matched on the basis of Concept & Economist ?

A. New Classical Economics – Robert lucas

B. Multiple effects of Balanced Budget – T.H. Haavelmo

C. New Keynssian Economics – Paul Romer

D. Permanent Income hypothesis – M Friedman

Q. 13 Who argued that Keynes’s theory of equilibrium with involuntary unemployment is a special case of the general equilibrium model, augmented to include money ?

A. W. Leontief

B. J.R Hicks

C. M. Friedman

D. D. Patinkin

Q. 14 Adam Smith advocated which of the following ?

(a) laissez faire

(b) the invisible hand

(d) competitive markets

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

A. (a) and (b)

B. (b) and (c)

C. (a), (b) and (c)

D. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Q. 15 Indicate the sequence of the following in terms of their implementation with reference to India :

(a) Income tax

(b) Expenditure tax

(d) Service tax

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

A. (a), (c), (b), (d)

B. (a), (b), (d), (c)

C. (b), (c), (d), (a)

D. (c), (d), (a), (b)

Q. 16 Arrange the following grouping of the nations from lower to higher order of integration.

(a) F.T.A

(b) Economic Union

(d) Custom Union

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

A. (a), (d), (c), (b)

B. (a), (c), (b), (d)

C. (b), (a), (d), (c)

D. b), (c), (d), (a)

Q. 17 A Country can have an increased surplus in its balance of trade as a result of :

A. declining imports and rising exports

B. higher tariffs imposed by its trading partners

C. an increase in domestic inflation

D. an increase in capital inflow

Q. 18 Which of the following statements is/are true for the current account of a country ?

(a) it shows the net income generated in the foreign trade sector

(b) it relates to claims and liabilities of financial nature

Choose the correct answer from the code given below :

A. Only (a) is true

B. Only (b) is true

C. Both (a) and (b) are true

D. Neither (a) nor (b) is true

Q. 19 Which amongst the following economists can be classified as strong advocate of protectionist policy of trade ?

A. F. List and A. Hamilton

B. Adam Smith and David Ricardo

C. J.S. Mill and P. Krugman

D. A. Hamilton and J.S. Mill

Q. 20 An increase in which of the following would be most likely to increase Long – run growth in developing countries ?

A. Tariffs on imported capital goods

B. Subsidies to business for purchases of capital goods

C. Unemployment compensations

D. Pension payments

Q. 21 What is Baran’s explanation for under development in Asia, Africa and Latin America ?

A. Monopolistic business from abroad

B. Conservative ruling coalitions

C. Weak domestic middle class

D. All of the above

Q. 22 The Benefit Theory of allocation of tax burden was given by :

A. Seligman

B. Lindhal

C. Dalton

D. Pigou

Q. 23 Consider the following :

(a) Oligopolistic market structure

(b) Economics of scale

of the above, which are the essential feature of Rosenstein Rodan’s approach to

development ?

Answer from the code below

A. Both (a) and (b) above

B. Neither (a) nor (b) above

C. Only (a)

D. Only (b)

Q. 24 If marginal propensity to consume (m.p.c) = average propensity to consume (a.p.c) for all levels of income (Y) then the corresponding consumption function will be :

A. C=a+bY

B. C=bY

C. C=bY²

D. C=a+bY²

Q. 25 Which of the following goods is covered under GST as on 1st July, 2017 ?

A. Electricity

B. Liquified Petroleum Gas

C. High Speed Diesel

D. Petroleum Crude

Q. 26 The greater the elasticity of supply, the greater is :

A. Incidence of tax on buyers

B. Incidence of tax on sellers

C. Impact of tax on sellers

D. Impact of tax on buyers

Q. 27 The ability – to – pay principle of taxation is logically most consistent with the normative notion of :

A. tax neutrality

B. horizontal equity

C. value – added taxation

D. vertical equity

Q. 28 Principle of maximum social advantage is concerned with :

A. Taxation only

B. Public expenditure only

C. Public debt only

D. Both taxation and public expenditure

Q. 29 Consider the following statements about optimal tariff :

(a) The beneficiary country is a large country in the world market for a particular good.

(b) A deviation from optimal tariff will lead to fall in welfare.

Of the above, which statement is correct ? Choose the answer from the code below :

A. Both (a) and (b) are correct

B. Neither (a) nor (b) is correct

C. Only (a) is correct

D. Only (b) is correct

Q. 30 Which of the following is a distinctive implication of the New Trade Theory developed by Melitz as different from the New Trade Theory ?

A. Trade increases the average productivity as more productive firms expand

B. Helpful state intervention

C. Trade encourage R & D and lead to new products

D. A country may both export and import the goods from the same industry

Q. 31 The conjecture that inequalities of income first increase with development and then decrease with further development also known as ‘Inverted U’ hypothesis has been:

A. Supported by all empirical studies

B. Supported mainly by cross section studies and not by time series studies

C. Supported by time series and not by cross section studies

D. Generally repudiated by empirical studies

Q. 32 The ultimate effect of the ‘invisible hand’ of Adam Smith is that in a competitive economy everyone :

A. benefits if each acts in his/her own interest

B. will increase their profits in a free market

C. should act to maximise economic growth

D. should act to promote the public interest

Q. 33 Match List – I with List II and select the correct answers from the given figure:

A. (a) – ii, (b) – i, (c) – iv, (d) – iii

B. (a) – iv, (b) – iii, (c) – i, (d) – ii

C. (a) – ii, (b) – iii, (c) – i , (iv) – iv

D. (a) – iii, (b) – ii, (c) – iv, (d) – i

Q. 34 If the central prediction of the growth model of Solow is valid then :

A. Per capita real GDP difference among nations will increase

B. Per capita real GDP difference among the nations will diminish

C. Economic freedom as measured by Heritage Foundation Index will decrease

D. Population growth rate in rich countries will increase

Q. 35 Given the consumption function, C=0.75 Y and the investment function, I=110−0.25 i, then the equation of the IS function will be :

A. Y=110−0.75 i

B. Y=440−i

C. Y=500−0.25 i

D. Y=400−0.75 i

Q. 36 In which of the following sectors, the employment elasticity has been estimated to be greater than one during the period (2004 – 05 to 2009 – 10)

A. Agriculture

B. Construction

C. Manufacturing

D. Mining and Quarrying

Q. 37 Arrange the following in the chronological order :

(a) Mahalnobis model

(b) Introduction of rolling plan

(d) Inclusive growth strategy

Select the answer from the code below :

A. (b), (a), (c), (d)

B. (a), (c), (b), (d)

C. (c), (a), (b), (d)

D. (a), (c), (d), (b)

Q. 38 Which amongst the following statements are true in relation to Indian economy during the period 2014-16 ?

A. Exports have been buoyant

B. Private capital investment happened at brisk pace

C. Both (1) and (2) are true

D. Neither (1) nor (2) is true

Q. 39 The code used under GST for classification of goods is called :

A. NIC

B. HSN

C. GSTN

D. ITC

Q. 40 If CPI based inflation rate in a country is given as :

This trends will be described as :

A. Disinflation

B. Deflation

C. Creeping inflation

D. Stagflation

Q. 41 Which among the following states has the smallest % of urban population as per census 2011 ?

A. Bihar

B. Odisha

C. Himachal Pradesh

D. Meghalaya

Q. 42 If the price data for 1980 and 2000 are given and quantity data are given only for the year 2000 then which type of index number, taking 1980 as the base can be constructed ?

A. Laspeyre’s Index

B. Paasche Index

C. Fisher Index

D. Kelly Index

Q. 43 If two events A and B are mutually exclusive then which one of the following is correct ?

A. P(A+B)=P(A)+P(B)

B. P(AB)=P(A)⋅P(B)

C. P(AB)=P(A)/P(B)

D. P(A/B)=P(A)−P(B)

Q. 44 If a sample of 100 is to be taken from a population of 1,000 farmers consisting of marginal, small and large farmers, which of the following will be the most appropriate sampling method ?

A. Simple random sampling

B. Cluster sampling

C. Stratified random sampling

D. Systematic sampling

Q. 45 The sum of squares of deviations of a set of values is minimum when deviations are taken about :

A. Arithmetic mean

B. Harmonic mean

C. Median

D. Geometric Mean

Q. 46 Match the following in List – I and List – II and answer from the code given below :

List – I List – II

(a) Sampling Distribution (i) Poisson Distribution

(b) Discrete Distribution (ii) Chi- Square (x²) distribution

(d) Purposive Sampling (iV) Mode

A. (a) – i, (b) – ii, (c) – iii, (d) – iv

B. (a) – iii, (b) – i, (c) – ii, (d) – iv

C. (a) – ii, (b) – i, (c) – iv, (D) – iii

D. (a) – iv, (b) – iii, (c) – i, (d) – ii

Questions 47 to 50 are Assertion (A) and Reason (R) type. Key to these questions is as follows :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Q. 47 Assertion (A) : Many developing countries demand that movement of natural persons across countries should be promoted.

Reasons (R) : The developing countries have comparative advantage in labour intensive services.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 48 Assertion (A) : Revealed preference theory excludes the explanation of Giffen good.

Reasons (R) : Revealed preference theory considers only negative income elasticity of demand

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 49 Assertion (A) : Indian agriculture still absorbs a major part of workforce.

Reasons (R) : Employment elasticity in agricultural sector is high.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 50 Assertion (A) : Friedman argues that money demand function is a stable function.

Reasons (R) : Friedman treats money as one type of asset in which wealth holders can keep a part of their wealth

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. d

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	D	B	C	C	D	D	D	B	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	C	D	D	B	A	A	A	A	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	B	A	B	B	A	D	D	A	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	A	C	B	B	B	B	D	B	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	B	A	C	A	C	A	C	C	B

UGC NET 2017 Jan Paper 1 Previous Year Paper

UGC NET 2017 Jan Paper 1

Q. 1 The principal of a school conducts an interview session of teachers and students with a view to explore the possibility of their enhanced participation in school programmes. This endeavour may be related to which type of research?

A. Evaluation Research

B. Fundamental Research

C. Action Research

D. Applied Research

Q. 2 In doing action research what is the usual sequence of steps?

A. Reflect, observe, plan, act

B. Plan, act, observe, reflect

C. Plan, reflect, observe, act

D. Act, observe, plan, reflect

Q. 3 Which sequence of research steps is logical in the list given below?

A. Problem formulation, Analysis, Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Collection of data, Arriving at generalizations and conclusions.

B. Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Problem formulation, Data analysis, Arriving at conclusions and data collection

C. Problem formulation, Hypothesis making, Development of a Research design,

Collection of data, Data analysis and formulation of generalizations and conclusions.

D. Problem formulation, Deciding about the sample and data collection tools,

Formulation of hypothesis, Collection and interpretation of research evidence.

Q. 4 Below are given two sets – research methods (Set-I) and data collection tools (Set-II). Match the two sets and indicate your answer by selecting the correct code :

Set-I (Research Methods) Set-II (Data Collection Tools)

a. Experimental method i. Using primary and secondary sources

b. Ex post-facto method ii. Questionnaire

c. Descriptive survey method iii. Standardized tests

d. Historical method iv. Typical characteristic tests

A. a-ii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

B. a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

C. a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

D. a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i

Q. 5 The issue of ‘research ethics’ may be considered pertinent at which stage of research?

A. At the stage of problem formulation and its definition

B. At the stage of defining the population of research

C. At the stage of data collection and interpretation

D. At the stage of reporting the findings.

Q. 6 In which of the following, reporting format is formally prescribed?

A. Doctoral level thesis

B. Conference of researchers

C. Workshops and seminars

D. Symposia

Questions: 7 – 12

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions.

The last great war, which nearly shook the foundations of the modern world, had little impact on Indian literature beyond aggravating the popular revulsion against violence and adding to the growing disillusionment with the ‘humane pretensions’ of the Western World. This was eloquently voiced in Tagore’s later poems and his last testament, Crisis in Civilisation. The Indian intelligentsia was in a state of moral dilemma. On the one hand, it could not help with their backs to the wall against the ruthless Nazi hordes, and with China groaning under the heel of Japanese militarism; on the other hand, their own country was practically under military occupation of their own soil, and an Indian army under Subhas Bose was trying from the opposite camp to liberate their country. No creative impulse could issue from such confusion of loyalties. One would imagine that the achievement of Indian independence in 1947, which came in the wake of the Allies’ victory and was followed by the collapse of colonialism in the neighbouring countries of South-East Asia, would have released an upsurge of creative energy. No doubt it did, but unfortunately it was soon submerged in the great agony of partition, with its inhuman slaughter of the innocents and the uprooting of millions of people from their homeland, followed by the martyrdom of Mahatma Gandhi. These tragedies, along with Pakistan’s invasion of Kashmir and its later atrocities in Bangladesh, did indeed provoke a poignant writing, particularly in the languages of the regions most affected, Bengali, Hindi, Kashmiri, Punjabi, Sindhi and Urdu. But poignant or passionate writing does not by itself make great literature. What reserves of enthusiasm and confidence survived these disasters have been mainly absorbed in the task of national reconstruction and economic development. Great literature has always emerged out of chains of convulsions. Indian literature is richer today in volume, range and variety than it ever was in the past.

Q. 7 What was the impact of the last great way on Indian literature?

A. It had no impact.

B. It aggravated the popular revulsion against violence.

C. It shook the foundations of literature.

D. It offered eloquent support to the Western World.

Q. 8 What did Tagore articulate in his last testament?

A. Offered support to Subhas Bose.

B. Exposed the humane pretensions of the Western World.

C. Expressed loyalty to England.

D. Encouraged the liberation of countries.

Q. 9 What was the stance of Indian intelligentsia during the period of great war?

A. Indifference to Russia’s plight.

B. They favoured Japanese militarism.

C. They prompted creativity out of confused loyalties.

D. They expressed sympathy for England’s dogged courage.

Q. 10 Identify the factor responsible for the submergence of creative energy in Indian literature.

A. Military occupation of one’s own soil.

B. Resistance to colonial occupation.

C. Great agony of partition.

D. Victory of Allies.

Q. 11 What was the aftermath that survived tragedies in Kashmir and Bangladesh?

A. Suspicion of other countries

B. Continuance of rivalry

C. Menace of war

D. National reconstruction

Q. 12 The passage has the message that

A. Disasters are inevitable.

B. Great literature emerges out of chains of convulsions.

C. Indian literature does not have a marked landscape.

D. Literature has no relation with war and independence.

Q. 13 Effective communication pre-supposes

A. Non-alignment

B. Domination

C. Passivity

D. Understanding

Q. 14 When verbal and non-verbal messages are contradictory, it is said that most people believe in

A. indeterminate messages

B. verbal messages

C. non-verbal messages

D. aggressive messages

Q. 15 The typical feature of an information-rich classroom lecture is in the nature of being

A. Sedentary

B. Staggered

C. Factual

D. Sectoral

Q. 16 Expressive communication is driven by

A. Passive aggression

B. Encoder’s personality characteristics

C. External clues

D. Encoder-decoder contract

Q. 17 Positive classroom communication leads to

A. Coercion

B. Submission

C. Confrontation

D. Persuasion

Q. 18 Classroom communication is the basis of

A. Social identity

B. External inanities

C. Biased passivity

D. Group aggression

Q. 19 The missing term in the series 1, 4, 27, 16, ?, 36, 343, … is

A. 30

B. 49

C. 125

D. 81

Q. 20 The next term in the following series

YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI, ? will be

A. TLO

B. QOL

C. QLO

D. GQP

Q. 21 If A is coded as C, M as I, N as P, S as O, I as A, P as N, E as M, O as E and C as S, then the code of COMPANIES will be

A. SPEINMOAC

B. NCPSEIOMA

C. SMOPIEACN

D. SEINCPAMO

Q. 22 Among the following, identify the continuous type of data :

A. Number of languages a person speaks

B. Number of children in a household

C. Population of cities

D. Weight of students in a class

Q. 23 Ali buys a glass, a pencil box and a cup and pays Rs. 21 to the shopkeeper. Rakesh buys a cup, two pencil boxes and a glass and pays Rs. 28 to the shopkeeper. Preeti buys two glasses, a cup and two pencil boxes and pays Rs. 35 to the shopkeeper. The cost of 10 cups will be

A. Rs. 40

B. Rs. 60

C. Rs. 80

D. Rs. 70

Q. 24 Out of four cities given below three are alike in some manner while the fourth is different. Identify the odd one

A. Lucknow

B. Rishikesh

C. Allahabad

D. Patna

Q. 25 Given below are some characteristics of reasoning. Select the code that states a characteristic which is not of deductive reasoning :

A. The conclusion must be based on observation and experiment.

B. The conclusion should be supported by the premise/premises.

C. The conclusion must follow from the premise/premises necessarily.

D. The argument may be valid or invalid.

Q. 26 If two standard form categorical propositions with the same subject and predicate are related in such a manner that if one is undetermined the other must be undetermined, what is their relation?

A. Contrary

B. Subcontrary

C. Contradictory

D. Sub-altern

Q. 27 Men and women may have different reproductive strategies but neither can be considered inferior or superior to the other, any more than a bird’s wings can be considered superior or inferior to a fish’s fins. What type of argument it is?

A. Biological

B. Physiological

C. Analogical

D. Hypothetical

Q. 28 Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that they cannot both be true but can both be false. Select the code that states those two propositions. Propositions :

(a) Every student is attentive.

(b) Some students are attentive.

(d) Some students are not attentive.

A. (a) and (b)

B. (a) and (c)

C. (b) and (c)

D. (c) and (d)

Q. 29 Given below are two premises ((a) and (b)). From those two premises four conclusions (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are drawn. Select the code that states the conclusions validly drawn from the premises (taking singly and jointly.)

Premises :

(a) Untouchability is a curse.

(b) All hot pans are untouchable.

Conclusions :

(i) All hot pans are curse.

(ii) Some untouchable things are hot pans.

(iii) All curses are untouchability.

(iv) Some curses are untouchability.

A. (i) and (ii)

B. (ii) and (iii)

C. (iii) and (iv)

D. (ii) and (iv)

Q. 30 If the statement ‘None but the brave wins the race’ is false which of the following statements can be claimed to be true?

Select the correct code :

A. All brave persons win the race.

B. Some persons who win the race are not brave.

C. Some persons who win the race are brave.

D. No person who wins the race is brave.

Questions: 31 – 33

The given table embodies data on the sales revenue (Rs. in lakh) generated by a publishing house during the years 2012-15 while selling books, magazines and journals as three categories of items. Answer the questions based on the data contained in the table.

Q. 31 In 2015, approximately what percent of total revenue came from books?

A. 45%

B. 55%

C. 35%

D. 25%

Q. 32 The number of years in which there was an increase in revenue from at least two categories of items, is

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Q. 33 If the year 2016 were to show the same growth in terms of total sales revenue as the year 2015 over the year 2014, the the revenue in the year 2016 must be approximately :

A. Rs. 194 lakh

B. Rs. 187 lakh

C. Rs. 172 lakh

D. Rs. 177 lakh

Questions: 34 – 36

A University professor maintains data on MCA students tabulated by performance and gender of the students. The data is kept on a computer hard disk, but accidently some of it is lost because of a computer virus. Only the information in the given table could be recovered. Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that the following facts were self evident :

(a) Half the students were either excellent or good.

(b) 40% of the students were females.

Answer questions 34-36 based on the data given above.

Q. 34 How many female students are excellent?

A. 0

B. 8

C. 16

D. 32

Q. 35 What proportion of female students are good?

A. 0

B. 0.25

C. 0.50

D. 0.75

Q. 36 Approximately, what proportion of good students are male?

A. 0

B. 0.73

C. 0.43

D. 0.27

Q. 37 Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?

S1 : The decimal number 11 is larger than the hexadecimal number 11.

S2 : In the binary number 1110.101, the fractional part has the decimal value as 0.625.

A. S1 only

B. S2 only

C. Both S1 and S2

D. Neither S1 nor S2

Q. 38 Read the following two statements :

I : Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is considered a subset of Information Technology (IT).

II : The ‘right to use’ a piece of software is termed as copyright.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are CORRECT?

A. Both I and II

B. Neither I nor II

C. II only

D. I only

Q. 39 Which of the following correctly lists computer memory types from highest to lowest speed?

A. Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM); Cache Memory; CPU Registers

B. CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM)

C. CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage

D. Cache Memory; CPU Registers; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage

Q. 40 Which of the following is a characteristic of Web2.0 applications?

A. Multiple users schedule their time to use Web2.0 applications one by one.

B. Web2.0 applications are focused on the ability for people to collaborate and share information online.

C. Web2.0 applications provide users with content rather than facilitating users to

create it.

D. Web2.0 applications use only static pages.

Q. 41 With regard to a word processing software, the process of combining static information in a publication together with variable information in a data source to create one merged publication is called

A. Electronic mail

B. Data sourcing

C. Mail merge

D. Spam mail

Q. 42 DVD technology uses an optical media to store the digital data. DVD is an acronym for

A. Digital Vector Disc

B. Digital Volume Disc

C. Digital Versatile Disc

D. Digital Visualization Disc

Q. 43 Assertion (A) : Sustainable development is critical to well being of human society.

Reason (R) : Environmentally sound policies do not harm the environment or deplete the natural resources.

Choose the correct code :

A. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true and (R) is false.

D. (A) is false and (R) is true.

Q. 44 The dominant source of pollution due to the oxides of nitrogen in urban areas is

A. road transport

B. commercial sector

C. energy use in industry

D. power plants

Q. 45 Which of the following is not a water-borne disease?

A. Typhoid

B. Hepatitis

C. Cholera

D. Dengue

Q. 46 Indian government’s target for power production from small hydro projects by the year 2022 is

A. 1 Giga-Watt

B. 5 Giga-Watt

C. 10 Giga-Watt

D. 15 Giga-Watt

Q. 47 In which country, the recent international agreement on phasing out Hydro Fluoro Carbons (HFCs) was signed?

A. Rwanda

B. Morocco

C. South Africa

D. Algeria

Q. 48 Which of the following natural hazards is not hydro-meteorological?

A. Snow avalanche

B. Sea erosion

C. Tropical cyclone

D. Tsunami

Q. 49 Which of the following are the demerits of globalisation of higher education?

(a) Exposure to global curriculum

(b) Promotion of elitism in education

(d) Increase in the cost of education

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

A. (a) and (d)

B. (a), (c) and (d)

C. (b), (c) and (d)

D. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Q. 50 Which of the following statements are correct about deemed universities?

(a) The Governor of the State is the chancellor of deemed universities.

(b) They can design their own syllabus and course work.

(d) They can grant degrees.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

A. (a), (b) and (c)

B. (b), (c) and (d)

C. (a), (c) and (d)

D. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Q. 51 The purpose of value education is best served by focussing on

A. Cultural practices prevailing in the society.

B. Norms of conduct laid down by a social group.

C. Concern for human values.

D. Religious and moral practices and instructions.

Q. 52 Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Rajya Sabha is a permanent House which can be dissolved only during nantional

emergency.

(b) Rajya Sabha does not represent the local interests of the States.

(d) No Union territory has a representative in the Rajya Sabha.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

A. (a) and (d)

B. (b) and (c)

C. (b), (c) and (d)

D. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Q. 53 Which of the following are not necessarily the immediate consequences of the proclamation of the President’s Rule in a State?

(a) Dissolution of the State Assembly.

(b) Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State.

(d) Appointment of a new Chief Secretary.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

A. (a) and (d)

B. (a), (b) and (c)

C. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

D. (b) and (c)

Q. 54 Instead of holding the office during the pleasure of the President who among the following hold(s) office during good behaviour?

(a) Governor of a State

(b) Attorney General of India

(d) Administrator of a Union Territory

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

A. (a) only

B. (c) only

C. (a) and (c)

D. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Q. 55 Which of the following set of statements represents acceptable propositions in respect of teaching-learning relationships? Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.

(i) When students fail in a test, it is the teacher who fails.

(ii) Every teaching must aim at ensuring learning.

(iii) There can be teaching without learning taking place.

(iv) There can be no learning without teaching.

(v) A teacher teaches but learns also.

(vi) Real learning implies rote learning.

A. (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

B. (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)

C. (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

D. (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)

Q. 56 Assertion (A) : Learning is a life long process.

Reason (R) : Learning to be useful must be linked with life processes.

Choose the correct answer from the following code :

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Q. 57 Effectiveness of teaching has to be judged in terms of

A. Course coverage

B. Students’ interest

C. Learning outcomes of students

D. Use of teaching aids in the classroom

Q. 58 In which teaching method learner’s participation is made optimal and proactive?

A. Discussion method

B. Buzz session method

C. Brainstorming session method

D. Project method

Q. 59 One of the most powerful factors affecting teaching effectiveness is related to the

A. Social system of the country

B. Economic status of the society

C. Prevailing political system

D. Educational system

Q. 60 Assertion (A) : Formative evaluation tends to accelerate the pace of learning.

Reason (R) : As against summative evaluation, formative evaluation is highly reliable.

Choose the correct answer from the following code :

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	B	C	B	C	A	B	B	D	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	B	D	C	C	B	D	A	C	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	D	D	A	A	C	C	B	D	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	C	D	A	B	B	B	A	C	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	C	B	A	D	B	A	D	C	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	B	A	B	B	A	C	D	D	C

UGC NET 2016 July Paper 1 Previous Year Paper

UGC NET 2016 July Paper 1

Q. 1 Select the alternative which consists of positive factors contributing to effectiveness of teaching :

(a) Teacher’s knowledge of the subject.

(b) Teacher’s socio-economic background.

(d) Teacher’s ability to please the students.

(e) Teacher’s personal contact with students.

(f) Teacher’s competence in managing and monitoring the classroom transactions.

A. (b), (c) and (d)

B. (c), (d) and (f)

C. (b), (d) and (e)

D. (a), (c) and (f)

Q. 2 The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of

A. attracting students’ attention in the classroom.

B. minimising indiscipline problems in the classroom.

C. optimising learning outcomes of students.

D. effective engagement of students in learning tasks.

Q. 3 Assertion (A) : The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and creative thinking abilities among students.

Reason (R) : These abilities ensure job placements.

Choose the correct answer:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false but (R) is true.

Q. 4 Match the items of the first set with that of the second set (Figure) in respect of evaluation system. Choose the correct code :

A. a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

B. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

C. a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

D. a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)

Q. 5 A researcher intends to explore the effect of possible factors for the organization of effective mid-day meal interventions. Which research method will be most appropriate for this study?

A. Historical method

B. Descriptive survey method

C. Experimental method

D. Ex-post-facto method

Q. 6 Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing research?

A. Developing a research design

B. Formulating a research question

C. Deciding about the data analysis procedure

D. Formulating a research hypothesis

Q. 7 The format of thesis writing is the same as in

A. Preparation of a research paper / article

B. Writing of seminar presentation

C. A research dissertation

D. Presenting a workshop / conference paper

Q. 8 In qualitative research paradigm, which of the following features may be considered critical ?

A. Data collection with standardised research tools.

B. Sampling design with probability sample techniques.

C. Data collection with bottom-up empirical evidences.

D. Data gathering to take place with top-down systematic evidences.

Q. 9 From the following list of statements identify the set which has negative implications for ‘research ethics’:

(i) A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.

(ii) Related studies are cited without proper references.

(iii) Research findings are made the basis for policy making.

(iv) Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research evidences.

(v) A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from other researches.

(vi) Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in terms of

preliminary studies

A. (i), (ii) and (iii)

B. (ii), (iii) and (iv)

C. (ii), (iv) and (vi)

D. (i), (iii) and (v)

Q. 10 In a research on the effect of child-rearing practices on stress-proneness of children in completing school projects, the hypothesis formulated is that ‘child rearing practices do influence stress-proneness’. At the data-analysis stage a null hypothesis is advanced to find out the tenability of research hypothesis. On the basis of the evidence available, the null hypothesis is rejected at 0.01 level of significance. What decision may be warranted in respect of the research hypothesis ?

A. The research hypothesis will also be rejected.

B. The research hypothesis will be accepted.

C. Both the research hypothesis and the null hypothesis will be rejected.

D. No decision can be taken in respect of the research hypothesis.

Questions: 11 – 16

Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers:

In terms of labour, for decades the relatively low cost and high quality of Japanese workers conferred considerable competitive advantage across numerous durable goods and consumer-electronics industries (eg. Machinery, automobiles, televisions, radios). Then labour-based advantages shifted to South Korea, then to Malaysia, Mexico and other nations. Today, China appears to be capitalizing best on the basis of labour. Japanese firms still remain competitive in markets for such durable goods, electronics and other products, but the labour force is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over manufacturers in other industrializing nations. Such shifting of labour-based advantage is clearly not limited to manufacturing industries. Today, a huge number of IT and service jobs are moving from Europe and North America to India, Singapore, and like countries with relatively well-educated, low-cost workforces possessing technical skills. However, as educational levels and technical skills continue to rise in other countries, India, Singapore, and like nations enjoying labour-based competitive advantage today are likely to find such advantage cannot be sustained through emergence of new competitors. In terms of capital, for centuries the days of gold coins and later even paper money restricted financial flows. Subsequently regional concentrations were formed where large banks, industries and markets coalesced. But today capital flows internationally at rapid speed. Global commerce no longer requires regional interactions among business players. Regional capital concentrations in places such as New York, London and Tokyo still persist, of course, but the capital concentrated there is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over other capitalists distributed worldwide. Only if an organization is able to combine, integrate and apply its resources (eg. Land, labour capital, IT) in an effective manner that is not readily imitable by competitors can such an organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime. In a knowledge-based theory of the firm, this idea is extended to view organizational knowledge as a resource with atleast the same level of power and importance as the traditional economic inputs. An organization with superior knowledge can achieve competitive advantage in markets that appreciate the application of such knowledge. Semiconductors, genetic engineering, pharmaceuticals, software, military warfare, and like knowledge-intensive competitive arenas provide both time-proven and current examples. Consider semiconductors (e.g. computer chips), which are made principally of sand and common metals. These ubiquitous and powerful electronic devices are designed within common office buildings, using commercially available tools, and fabricated within factories in many industrialized nations. Hence, land is not the key competitive resource in the semiconductor industry.

Q. 11 Which country enjoyed competitive advantages in automobile industry for decades ?

A. South Korea

B. Japan

C. Mexico

D. Malaysia

Q. 12 Why labour-based competitive advantages of India and Singapore cannot be sustained in IT and service sectors ?

A. Due to diminishing levels of skill.

B. Due to capital-intensive technology making inroads.

C. Because of new competitors.

D. Because of shifting of labour-based advantage in manufacturing industries.

Q. 13 How can an organisation enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime ?

A. Through regional capital flows.

B. Through regional interactions among business players.

C. By making large banks, industries and markets coalesced.

D. By effective use of various instrumentalities.

Q. 14 What is required to ensure competitive advantages in specific markets ?

A. Access to capital

B. Common office buildings

C. Superior knowledge

D. Common metals

Q. 15 The passage also mentions about the trend of

A. Global financial flow

B. Absence of competition in manufacturing industry

C. Regionalisation of capitalists

D. Organizational incompatibility

Q. 16 What does the author lay stress on in the passage ?

A. International commerce

B. Labour-Intensive industries

C. Capital resource management

D. Knowledge-driven competitive advantage

Q. 17 Imagine you are working in an educational institution where people are of equal status. Which method of communication is best suited and

normally employed in such a context ?

A. Horizontal communication

B. Vertical communication

C. Corporate communication

D. Cross communication

Q. 18 Identify the important element a teacher has to take cognizance of while addressing students in a classroom.

A. Avoidance of proximity

B. Voice modulation

C. Repetitive pause

D. Fixed posture

Q. 19 What are the barriers to effective communication ?

A. Moralising, being judgemental and comments of consolation.

B. Dialogue, summary and self-review.

C. Use of simple words, cool reaction and defensive attitude.

D. Personal statements, eye contact and simple narration.

Q. 20 The choice of communication partners is influenced by factors of

A. Proximity, utility, loneliness

B. Utility, secrecy, dissonance

C. Secrecy, dissonance, deception

D. Dissimilarity, dissonance, deviance

Q. 21 As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective presence in the classroom.

A. Use of peer command

B. Making aggressive statements

C. Adoption of well-established posture

D. Being authoritarian

Q. 22 Every communicator has to experience

A. Manipulated emotions

B. Anticipatory excitement

C. The issue of homophiles

D. Status dislocation

Q. 23 In certain code, SELECTION is coded as QCJCARGML. The code of AMERICANS will be

A. YKCPGAYLQ

B. BNFSJDBMR

C. QLYAGPCKY

D. YQKLCYPAG

Q. 24 In the series

3, 11, 23, 39, 59, ……….

The next term will be

A. 63

B. 73

C. 83

D. 93

Q. 25 Two railway tickets from city A to B and three tickets from city A to C cost Rs.177. Three tickets from city A to B and two tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 173. The fare for city B from city A will be Rs.

A. 25

B. 27

C. 30

D. 33

Q. 26 A person walks 10 m infront and 10 m to the right. Then every time turning to his left, he walks 5, 15 and 15 m respectively. How far is he now from his starting point ?

A. 20 m

B. 15 m

C. 10 m

D. 5 m

Q. 27 A is sister of B. F is daughter of G. C is mother of B. D is father of C. E is mother of D. A is related to D as

A. Grand daughter

B. Daughter

C. Daughter-in-law

D. Sister

Q. 28 In the series

AB, EDC, FGHI, …….., OPQRST

the missing term is

A. JKLMN

B. JMKNL

C. NMLKJ

D. NMKLJ

Q. 29 Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that one is the denial of the other. Which are those propositions ? Select the correct code :

Propositions:

(a) All women are equal to men

(b) Some women are equal to men

(d) No women are equal to men

A. (a) and (b)

B. (a) and (d)

C. (c) and (d)

D. (a) and (c)

Q. 30 If the proposition ‘All thieves are poor’ is false, which of the following propositions can be claimed certainly to be true ?

A. Some thieves are poor.

B. Some thieves are not poor.

C. No thief is poor.

D. No poor person is a thief.

Q. 31 Consider the following statement and select the correct code stating the nature of the argument involved in it :

To suppose that the earth is the only populated world in the infinite space is as absurd as to assert that in an entire field of millet only one grain will grow.

A. Astronomical

B. Anthropological

C. Deductive

D. Analogical

Q. 32 Select the code which is not correct about Venn diagram :

A. Venn diagram represents propositions as well as classes.

B. It can provide clear method of notation.

C. It can be either valid or invalid.

D. It can provide the direct method of testing the validity.

Q. 33 Select the code which is not correct in the context of deductive argument with two premises :

A. An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion may be valid.

B. An argument with two true premises and a false conclusion may be valid.

C. An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a true conclusion may be valid.

D. An argument with two false premises and a false conclusion may be valid.

Q. 34 Given below are two premises and four conclusions are drawn from them (taking singly or together). Select the code that states the conclusions validly drawn.

Premises :

(i) All religious persons are emotional.

(ii) Ram is a religious person.

Conclusions :

(a) Ram is emotional.

(b) All emotional persons are religious.

(d) Some religious persons are not emotional.

A. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

B. (a) only

C. (a) and (c) only

D. (b) and (c) only

Questions: 35 – 37

The table (figure) shows the percentage profit (%) earned by two companies A and B during the years 2011-15. Answer the following questions based on the data contained in the table :

(Where, percent (%) Profit = (Income – Expenditure)/Expenditure x 100

Q. 35 If the total expenditure of the two companies was Rs.9 lakh in the year 2012 and the expenditure of A and B were in the ratio 2 : 1, then what was the income of the company A in that year ?

A. Rs. 9.2 Lakh

B. Rs. 8.1 Lakh

C. Rs. 7.2 Lakh

D. Rs. 6.0 Lakh

Q. 36 What is the average percentage profit earned by the company B ?

A. 35%

B. 42%

C. 38%

D. 40%

Q. 37 In which year, the percentage profit earned by the company B is less than that of company A?

A. 2012

B. 2013

C. 2014

D. 2015

Questions: 38 – 40

The table (Figure) shows the number of people in different age groups who responded to a survey about their favourite style of music. Use this information to answer the questions that follow to the nearest whole percentage :

Q. 38 Approximately what percentage of the total sample were aged 21-30 ?

A. 31%

B. 23%

C. 25%

D. 14%

Q. 39 Approximately what percentage of the total sample indicates that Hip-Hop is their favourite style of music ?

A. 6%

B. 8%

C. 14%

D. 12%

Q. 40 What percentage of respondents aged 31+ indicated a favourite style other than classical music ?

A. 64%

B. 60%

C. 75%

D. 50%

Q. 41 The statement “the study, design, development, implementation, support or management of computer-based information systems, particularly software applications and computer Hardware” refers to

A. Information Technology (IT)

B. Information and Collaborative Technology (ICT)

C. Information and Data Technology (IDT)

D. Artificial Intelligence (AI)

Q. 42 If the binary equivalent of the decimal number 48 is 110000, then the binary equivalent of the decimal number 51 is given by

A. 110011

B. 110010

C. 110001

D. 110100

Q. 43 The process of copying files to a CD-ROM is known as

A. Burning

B. Zipping

C. Digitizing

D. Ripping

Q. 44 An unsolicited e-mail message sent to many recipients at once is a

A. Worm

B. Virus

C. Threat

D. Spam

Q. 45 _________ is a type of memory circuitry that holds the computer’s start-up routine.

A. RIM (Read Initial Memory)

B. RAM (Random Access Memory)

C. ROM (Read Only Memory)

D. Cache Memory

Q. 46 An ASCII is a character-encoding scheme that is employed by personal computers in order to represent various characters, numbers and control keys that the computer user selects on the keyboard. ASCII is an acronym for

A. American Standard Code for Information Interchange

B. American Standard Code for Intelligent Information

C. American Standard Code for Information Integrity

D. American Standard Code for Isolated Information

Q. 47 Identify the air pollutant in urban areas which irritates eyes and also respiratory tract of human beings.

A. Particulate matter

B. Oxides of nitrogen

C. Surface ozone

D. Carbon monoxide

Q. 48 Which of the following is the largest source of water pollution in major rivers of India ?

A. Untreated sewage

B. Agriculture run-off

C. Unregulated small scale industries

D. Religious practices

Q. 49 Sustainable development goals have specific targets to be achieved by

A. 2022

B. 2030

C. 2040

D. 2050

Q. 50 Indian government’s target of producing power from biomass by the year 2022, is

A. 50 MW

B. 25 MW

C. 15 MW

D. 10 MW

Q. 51 Assertion (A) : Conserving our soil resources is critical to human survival.

Reason (R) : Soil is home to many micro-organisms and contains minerals.

Choose the correct code :

A. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true and (R) is false.

D. (A) is false and (R) is true.

Q. 52 World Meteorological Organisation’s (WMO) objective has been to reduce the number of deaths due to hydrometeorological disasters over the decade 2010-2019 by (with reference to the decade 1994-2003)

A. 25%

B. 50%

C. 75%

D. 80%

Q. 53 Which of the following core values among the institutions of higher education are promoted by the NAAC (National Assessment and Accreditation Council) ?

(a) Contributing to national development.

(b) Fostering global competencies among the students.

(d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

A. (b), (c) and (d)

B. (a), (b) and (c)

C. (a), (c) and (d)

D. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Q. 54 The best way for providing value education is through

A. discussions on scriptural texts

B. lectures / discourses on values

C. seminars / symposia on values

D. mentoring / reflective sessions on values

Q. 55 The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been declared unconstitutional by

A. The Supreme Court of India

B. The High Court

C. The High Court and the Supreme Court both

D. The President of India

Q. 56 Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct ?

(a) The President is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.

(b) Parliament is Supreme.

(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justiciable.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

A. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

B. (b), (c) and (d)

C. (b) and (c)

D. (c) only

Q. 57 Which of the following are the fundamental duties?

(a) To respect the National Flag.

(b) To protect and improve the natural environment.

(d) To protect monuments and places of national importance.

Select the correct answer from the codes given :

A. (a), (b) and (c)

B. (a), (b) and (d)

C. (a), (c) and (d)

D. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Q. 58 Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti Aayog?

(a) It is a constitutional body.

(b) It is a statutory body.

(d) It is a think-tank.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

A. (a) and (d)

B. (b) and (d)

C. (c) and (d)

D. (b), (c) and (d)

Q. 59 A college level assistant professor has planned his/her lectures with an intent to develop cognitive dimensions of students centered on skills of analysis and synthesis. Given are two sets of items Set-I consisting of levels of cognitive interchange and Set-II comprising basic requirements for promoting them (In the figure). Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing the correct alternative from the code :

A. a(ii), b(iv), c(i)

B. a(iii), b(iv), c(ii)

C. a(ii), b(i), c(iv)

D. a(i), b(ii), c(iii)

Q. 60 Which set of learner characteristics may be considered helpful in designing effective teaching-learning systems? Select the correct alternative from the codes given below :

(i) Prior experience of learners in respect of the subject.

(ii) Interpersonal relationships of learner’s family friends.

(iii) Ability of the learners in respect of the subject.

(iv) Student’s language background.

(v) Interest of students in following the prescribed dress code.

(vi) Motivational-orientation of the students.

A. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

B. (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)

C. (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

D. (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	C	B	A	D	B	C	C	C	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	C	D	C	A	D	A	B	A	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	B	A	C	D	D	A	C	D	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	C	B	C	B	C	B	C	D	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	A	A	D	C	A	C	A	B	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	B	B	D	A	D	A	C	C	B

UGC NET 2016 July Commerce Paper 2 Previous Year Paper

UGC NET 2016 July Commerce Paper 2

Q. 1 For the following statements of Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R) indicate the correct code from the alternatives given :

Assertion (A) : Liberalization means corporatisation of departmental undertakings and public undertakings.

Reasoning (R) : Freedom to public sector undertakings to access capital market.

Codes :

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false but (R) is true.

Q. 2 Match the items of List – I with List – II and indicate the correct code

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 3 Which of the following factor is not directly responsible for slowing down the growth of infrastructure ?

A. High level of perceived political risk.

B. High level of sunk cost

C. High probability of time and cost over-run.

D. Introduction of competition in all sectors.

Q. 4 Out of the following which is not a major component of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) ?

A. Personal Consumption Expenditure

B. Gross Private Domestic Investment

C. Net Personal Income

D. Net Exports

Q. 5 Which of the following is not a forum of Consumer Dispute Redressal System ?

A. Local forum

B. District forum

C. State Forum (State Commission)

D. National Commission

Q. 6 X Ltd. purchased 70 percent of the shares of Y Ltd. at a price of ` 1,00,000. Share capital of Y Ltd. was of Rs 70,000 and its accumulated profits amounted to Rs. 90,000. What would be the amount of Minority Interest in the consolidated Balance Sheet ?

A. Rs.25,000

B. Rs.70,000

C. Rs.1,00,000

D. Rs.40,000

Q. 7 Match the items in Column – I with the items in Column – II and indicate the correct code

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 8 Ram and Shyam are partners in a firm with capital of Rs.4,80,000 and Rs. 3,10,000, respectively. They admitted Ganesh as a partner with 1/4 th share of profit. Ganesh brings Rs.3,00,000 as his capital. Ganesh’s share of goodwill will be

A. Rs. 1,10,000

B. Rs.27,500

C. Rs.17,500

D. Rs.70,000

Q. 9 Which of the following is a deferred revenue expenditure ?

A. Legal expenses incurred on the purchase of land.

B. Expenses on a mega advertisement campaign while launching a new product.

C. Expenses incurred on installation of a new machine

D. Wages paid for construction of an additional room in the building.

Q. 10 The amount of depreciation charged to Profit and Loss Account varies every year under :

A. Fixed instalment method

B. Annuity method

C. Diminishing balance method

D. Insurance policy method

Q. 11 Ordinal utility analysis of the consumer’s behaviour is considered superior to the cardinal utility analysis mainly due to

A. assumption of the rationality of the consumer’s behaviour.

B. possibility of the derivation of the consumer’s demand.

C. bifurcation of price effects into income and substitution effects

D. consideration of the available limited resources for satisfying consumer’s demand.

Q. 12 For the following statements of Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R) indicate the correct code :

Assertion (A) : Price reduction normally leads to an increase in the demand for a

commodity.

Reason (R) : Price reduction leads to the entry of new buyers of the commodity inthe

market.

Codes :

A. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

B. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

C. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) offers full explanation of (A).

D. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not offer full explanation of (A)

Q. 13 The minimum Long Run Average Cost (LAC) can be determined on a

I. LAC curve for a normal production function

II. LAC curve for a linear production function

III. Planning curve

IV. Envelope curve

A. I II III

B. II III IV

C. I III IV

D. I II IV

Q. 14 Monopoly is not considered desirable from the point of view of the society mainly because the monopolist endeavours to

A. earn net revenue on sale of all goods including those involving no cost of production.

B. earn net revenue on sale of goods in short run as well as long run

C. charge different prices for the same product from the different categories of buyers.

D. produce below economic capacity level when he exhibits satisfaction with normal

profit only.

Q. 15 Product-line pricing strategy includes which combination of the following ?

I. Public utility pricing

II. Complementary goods pricing

III. Spare parts pricing

IV. Load factor pricing

A. I II III

B. II III IV

C. I II IV

D. I III IV

Q. 16 When the data are classified only on the basis of descriptive characteristics which cannot be quantified is known as

A. Geographical classification

B. Chronological classification

C. Qualitative classification

D. Quantitative classification

Q. 17 Which one of the following is a false description ?

A. In a moderately asymmetrical distribution, the empirical relationship between Mean, Mode and Median suggested by Karl Pearson is Mean – Mode = 3 (Mean – Median)

B. Coefficient of variation is an absolute measure of dispersion.

C. Measure of skewness indicates the direction and extent of skewness in the

distribution of numerical values in the data set.

D. Kurtosis refers to the degree of flatness or peakedness in the region around the mode of a frequency curve.

Q. 18 Match the items of List – I with the items of List – II and indicate the code of correct matching

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 19 Statement – I : When the null hypothesis is true but as per the hypothesis-testing, it is rejected, it is known as beta type error in hypothesis testing.

Statement – II : Chi-square test is exclusively a non-parametric test.

Codes :

A. Both the statements are true.

B. Both the statements are false.

C. Statement – I is true while Statement – II is false.

D. Statement – I is false while Statement – II is true.

Q. 20 Computers that recognize data as discrete signals are called ?

A. Analog computers

B. digital computers

C. Hybrid computers

D. super computers

Q. 21 Herbert Simon’s concept of administrative man assumes that

(a) He has satisfying approach in decision making rather than the maximising approach.

(b) He can make decisions without determining all possible alternatives.

A. (a) only

B. (b) only

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. (a), (b) and (c)

Q. 22 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about scalar chain principle as given by Fayol ?

(a) Each communication, going up or down, must flow through each position in the line authority.

(b) Chain of communication cannot be broken under any circumstances

A. Only (a) is correct.

B. Only (b) is correct.

C. Neither (a) nor (b) is correct.

D. Both (a) and (b) are correct.

Q. 23 A mission statement should be

(a) Self-explanatory

(b) Elaborate

(d) Feasible

A. (a) only

B. (a) and (b)

C. (a), (b) and (c)

D. (a), (c) and (d)

Q. 24 Match List – I and List – II and indicate the correct code

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 25 Assertion (A) : ‘Grapevine’ tends to be more active during periods of change,

excitement, anxiety and sagging economic conditions.

Reason (R) : Employees use this communication to fill in important information

gaps and clarify management decisions.

Codes :

A. (A) is right and (R) is wrong.

B. (A) is wrong and (R) is right.

C. Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) explains (A)

D. Both (A) and (R) are right but (R) does not explain (A).

Q. 26 Which type of differentiation is used to gain competitive advantage through the way a firm designs its distribution coverage, expertise and performance ?

A. Channel differentiation

B. Services differentiation

C. People differentiation

D. Product differentiation

Q. 27 Which one of the following is the most likely result of a marketing strategy that attempts to serve all potential customers ?

A. All customers will be delighted.

B. Customer-perceived value will be increased.

C. The company will need to follow up with a demarketing campaign.

D. Not all customers will be satisfied.

Q. 28 Which of the following is not a primary activity in Michael Porter’s value chain ?

A. Inbound logistics

B. Operations

C. Outbound logistics

D. Procurement

Q. 29 Which of the following represents consistency of results when the test instrument is used repeatedly ?

A. Validity

B. Reliability

C. Relativity

D. Sensitivity

Q. 30 Assertion (A) : Too many stimuli make a person accommodated to those sensations.

Sensory adaptation is a problem that concerns many advertisers, which is why they try to change their advertising campaigns regularly.

Reason (R) : To cut through advertising clutter and to ensure that consumers perceive advertisement, marketers try to increase sensory input.

A. (A) is right and (R) is wrong.

B. (A) is wrong and (R) is right.

C. Both (A) and (R) are right but (R) does not explain (A)

D. Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) explains (A).

Q. 31 Which of the following is not a feature of payback period method ?

A. It is simply a method of cost recovery and not of profitability.

B. It does not consider the time value of money.

C. It does not consider the risk associated with the projects.

D. It is very difficult to calculate.

Q. 32 Which of the following is not a source of credit information of prospective customers ?

A. Letter of credit

B. Bank Reference

C. Trade Enquiry

D. Credit Bureau

Q. 33 The portion of earnings which is distributed among shareholders in the form of dividend is called

A. Proprietary Ratio

B. Earnings-yield Ratio

C. Payout Ratio

D. Retention Ratio

Q. 34 Select the correct code regarding motives for holding inventories by firms :

(a) Transaction motive

(b) Environmental motive

(d) Speculative motive

(e) Competitive motive

A. (a), (b), (c), (d)

B. (a), (b), (d), (e)

C. (a), (d), (e)

D. (a), (c), (d)

Q. 35 Which of the following formulae is related to operating leverage ?

A. Contribution / Operating Profit

B. Sales – Variable Cost / Earnings before Interest and tax

C. Percentage change in EBIT / Percentage change in sales

D. All of the above

Q. 36 Which of the following is not true in case of HRM ?

A. Employees are seen as an investment to be nurtured as well as a cost to be controlled

B. Conflicts are dealt with by team members within their teams.

C. Preference is for collective bargaining of pay and working conditions.

D. Emphasis is on competitive pay and conditions to stay ahead of competitors

Q. 37 Which one of the following is an advantage of Magazines as a source of recruitment ?

A. Less expensive

B. Long lead time for advertisement placement

C. Reach a diverse audience

D. Many unmotivated applicants

Q. 38 Examine the following statements and choose the correct code :

Assertion (A) : Human Resource planning must always be seen within the strategy making context.

Reason (R) : Human Resource planning process removed from the realities of the business will be a waste of time.

Codes :

A. Both (A) and (R) are correct.

B. Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

C. (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.

D. (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.

Q. 39 Match the items of List – I with the items of List – II and select the correct code

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 40 Which one of the following is not a function of plant council ?

A. Recommend and improve safety, health and welfare measures.

B. Determination of productivity schemes taking into consideration the local conditions.

C. Planning, implementation and review of monthly targets and schedules.

D. Review of working of shop level bodies.

Q. 41 Assertion (A) : “Banks globally are facing more challenges now, and Macro sustainability is a necessity but not sufficient for sustainable economic growth.”

Reason (R) : “Putting regulations in place is only one part and their implementation is equally important for achieving growth and sustainability.”

Codes :

A. (A) and (R) both are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

B. (A) and (R) both are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true and (R) is false.

D. (A) is false and (R) is true.

Q. 42 Banking on telephone service includes :

(i) Automatic balance voice out

(ii) Inquiry all term deposit account

(iii) Direct cash withdrawl

(iv) Utility bill payment

(v) Voice out last five transactions

A. (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)

B. (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)

C. (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

D. All (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

Q. 43 Which one of the following banks currently ranks number one in India in terms of market capitalization ?

A. State Bank of India

B. I.C.I.C.I. Bank

C. U.T.I. Bank

D. I.D.B.I. Bank

Q. 44 Match the items of Column – I with the items in Column – II and suggest the correct code

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 45 Match the items of List – I with List – II with regard to the BASEL III norms and select the correct code

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 46 Assertion (A) : Comparative cost theory is static in character.

Reason (R) : Comparative cost theory is based on fixed supplies of factors of production.

A. (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

B. (R) is correct, but (A) is incorrect.

C. (A) and (R) both are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

D. (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Q. 47 Match the items of List – I with List – II with regard to Balance of Payments equilibrium

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 48 Which among the following is closely associated with intellectual property rights ?

A. GATS

B. TRIMS

C. TRIPS

D. MFN

Q. 49 What is not correct about International Development Association (IDA) ?

(a) Following earthquake in 2015, IDA has helped Nepal rebuild and recover.

(b) IDA ranks as the highest performing multilateral development bank in 2016.

(d) India has procured highest amount of international loan from IDA.

A. a and b

B. c

C. d

D. a and c

Q. 50 As per the Foreign Trade Policy 2015-2020, a three star export house should have :

A. Export performance (FOB/FOR) of US $ 100 million during current and previous two years.

B. Export performance (FOB/FOR) of US $ 500 million during current and previous two years.

C. Export performance (FOB/FOR) of US $ 1000 million during current and previous two years.

D. Export performance (FOB/FOR) of US $ 2000 million during current and previous two years.

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	B	D	C	A	C	B	B	B	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	D	C	D	B	C	B	B	B	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	A	D	A	C	A	D	D	B	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	A	C	D	D	C	C	A	D	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	B	A	B	D	D	A	C	C	A

UGC NET 2016 July Economics Paper 2 Previous Year Paper

UGC NET 2016 July Economics Paper 2

Q. 1 In the standard adjoining diagram, the measure of consumer surplus is

A. PA

B. OB

C. AO

D. AB

Q. 2 A cartel aims at maximising

A. individual profits

B. industry profits

C. share of output of members

D. goodwill of the members

Q. 3 The statement that, “no one can be made better off without making someone worse off” describes which of the following ?

A. Pareto Optimum

B. Nash Equilibrium

C. Low level Equilibrium Trap

D. Cournot’s Equilibrium

Q. 4 Slutsky equation explains the

A. Demand for durable goods.

B. Supply of durable goods.

C. Split between price, income and substitution effects.

D. Demand for rare or non-reproducible goods

Q. 5 L shaped average cost curve is witnessed in the large firms because

A. Only the law of increasing returns operates.

B. The law of constant returns to scale operates.

C. Only the law of constant return operates.

D. The operation of law of decreasing returns is continuously postponed.

Q. 6 Consider the following statements regarding the long run equilibrium in the monopolistic market.

I. Firms are in no profit no loss situation.

II. There is no entry or exit of the firms.

Which among the above statements are true ? Answer from the code below :

Code :

A. Only I is true

B. Only II is true.

C. Both I and II are true.

D. Neither I nor II are true.

Q. 7 Which of the following is not a problem of Insurance Markets ?

A. Adverse selection

B. Moral Hazard

C. Asymmetric Information

D. Principal-agent problem

Q. 8 In consumption, inferior goods have

A. Negative income effect

B. positive income effect

C. Zero income effect

D. Infinite income effect

Q. 9 Consider the following statements :

I. Inflation is advantageous to debtors.

II. Inflation is advantageous to the bond-holders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Codes :

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Q. 10 ‘Near money’ is correctly defined as an

A. asset which has 100% liquidity.

B. asset which has no store of value function.

C. asset which is a medium of exchange.

D. asset which fulfils the store of value function and can be converted into a medium of

exchange at a short notice.

Q. 11 Select the correct answer from the codes given below

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 12 In the context of steady state growth in Solow’s model, the output growth rate overtime will be

A. increasing

B. decreasing

C. constant

D. fluctuating

Q. 13 Who among the following economists assume dualism in the economy ?

I. Ranis and Fei II. D. Ricardo

III. Robert Solow IV. R. Harrod

Answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

A. All the four above

B. Only I and II

C. Only IV

D. I, II and III

Q. 14 Who among the following, originally, formulated the ‘Turnpike Theorem’ ?

A. Dorfman, Samuelson and Solow

B. Radner

C. Koopmans

D. von Neumann and Morgenstern

Q. 15 Backward and forward linkages are relevant for which kind of growth strategy ?

A. Unbalanced growth

B. Trickle down growth

C. Balanced growth

D. Equilibrium growth

Q. 16 ‘Reserve Army of labour’ term was used by who among the following economists ?

A. J. Schumpeter

B. J.R. Hicks

C. Karl Marx

D. T.R. Malthus

Q. 17 Which production function admits both Harrod-neutral and Hicks-neutral technical progress ?

A. Cobb-Douglas

B. C.E.S.

C. V.E.S.

D. None of the above

Q. 18 Match the following :

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 19 Which among the following is not a criterion for declaring special category state ?

A. Over population

B. Poor infrastructure

C. Hilly and difficult terrain

D. Non-viable state finances

Q. 20 For the testing of consistency and viability of a planning project, which of the prices are used ?

A. Market Price

B. Shadow Price

C. administered Price

D. Controlled Price

Q. 21 In which of the Five Year Plans in India, for the first time an extensive input-output model was used ?

A. First Plan

B. Second Plan

C. Third Plan

D. Seventh Plan

Q. 22 Who among the following economists developed the Reinvestment-Criterion?

A. Walter Galenson and Harvey Leibenstein

B. A. K. Sen

C. Maurice Dobb

D. None of the above

Q. 23 Area approach to decentralised planning in India was advocated by who among the following ?

A. D.R. Gadgil

B. K.N. Raj

C. Raj Krishna

D. Pranav Mukherjee

Q. 24 Which amongst the following is included in the Capital account of the Balance of payments ?

I. Foreign loans

II. Foreign Direct Investment

III. Private Remittances

Choose the correct answer from the codes below :

Codes :

A. All the three

B. I and III

C. II and III

D. I and II

Q. 25 Which amongst the following options is correct for a teaser loan ?

A. It is an introductory rate of interest.

B. This rate is permanent in nature.

C. Both (1) and (2) are correct.

D. Neither (1) nor (2) are correct.

Q. 26 The movement of free international trade is most likely to generate short-term

unemployment in which of the following industries ?

A. Industries in which there are neither imports nor exports.

B. Import competing industries.

C. Industries that sell to domestic and foreign buyers.

D. Industries that sell to only foreign buyers.

Q. 27 Which among the following will be classified as non-tariff barrier ?

I. Phyto-sanitary measures. II. Import and export licensing.

III. Countervailing duty IV. Environmental standards

Select the answer from the code given below.

Codes :

A. All the four above.

B. I and II

C. I and IV

D. III and IV

Q. 28 Who developed the use of trade indifference curves in the analysis of trade theory ?

A. J.E. Meade

B. A. Marshall

C. A.P. Lerner

D. B. Ohlin

Q. 29 Which among the following is not the main areas of BASEL III norms ?

A. Risk Coverage

B. Bank branch expansion

C. Adequate capital provision

D. Adequate liquidity

Q. 30 Which among the following is most volatile flow of foreign exchange ?

A. Foreign Direct Investment

B. External Commercial borrowings

C. Foreign Portfolio investment

D. Foreign aid by IMF and World Bank

Q. 31 State Governments in India finance their Gross fiscal deficit by

I. Loans from the Central Government.

II. Market Borrowings.

III. External Borrowings.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

A. I and II

B. II and III

C. II only

D. I only

Q. 32 ‘Make in India’ campaign aimed at attracting industrialists to make India a Global Manufacturing Hub was launched is

A. September 25, 2014

B. March 20, 2015

C. February 25, 2016

D. December 30, 2015

Q. 33 The Second Green Revolution in India is necessiated by

I. Productivity in agriculture is stagnating.

II. Diversification of agriculture has not progressed much.

III. Exports of agricultural commodities have declined.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

A. I and II

B. II and III

C. I and III

D. I only

Q. 34 Which among the following is not included in the Small Savings Scheme ?

A. Unit Trust of India

B. National Savings Certificate

C. Kisan Vikas Patra

D. sukanya Samridhi Accounts Yojana

Q. 35 In which of the following year, all tax revenues of Centre have become shareable among the Centre and States ?

A. 2000 AD

B. 2003 AD

C. 2007 AD

D. 1998 AD

Q. 36 Which arrangement of following would show the correct sequence of demorgraphic transition as typically associated with economic development ?

I. High birth rate with high death rate.

II. High birth rate with low death rate.

III. Low birth rate with low death rate.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

A. I, II & III

B. II, I & III

C. III, II & I

D. I, III & II

Q. 37 If with the increase in income, the percentage of income collected as tax remains constant, tax will be called as

A. regressive

B. progressive

C. proportional

D. neutral

Q. 38 Consider the following liquid assets :

I. Demand deposits with the banks.

II. Time deposits with the banks.

III. Saving deposits with the banks.

IV. Currency

The correct sequence of these in the ascending order of liquidity is

Codes :

A. IV, III, II, I

B. I, IV, III, II

C. II, III, I, IV

D. IV, I, III, II

Q. 39 Given the budgetary parameters including public expenditure remaining the same, then as a result of imposition of a tax, if the pattern of distribution of income changes, then such an incidence is called

A. Effective incidence

B. Monetary incidence

C. Relative incidence

D. Specific tax incidence

Q. 40 Assertion (A) : The sale of T-bills is conducted through an auction.

Reason (R) : The method helps in price discovery.

Select the answer from the code below :

Codes :

A. (A) is true, but (R) is false. (2)

B. Both (A) and (R) are true.

C. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

D. Both (A) and (R) are false.

Q. 41 The social cost curve lies above the private cost curve for the producer in case of which of the following ?

A. Positive externalities

B. Negative externalities

C. Public goods

D. Near-public goods

Q. 42 Which one of the following is true in case of Performance and Programme Budgeting System ?

A. Its emphasis is on outcome only.

B. Its emphasis is more on outcome and less on expenditure allocation.

C. Its emphasis is on expenditure allocation only.

D. Its emphasis is more on expenditure allocation and less on outcome.

Q. 43 Who among the following has developed the concept of ‘Effective incidence’ of a tax ?

A. Ursula K. Hicks

B. J.R. Hicks

C. H. Dalton

D. A.C. Pigou

Q. 44 Voting fails to generate the efficient quantity of a public good because

A. Lobbying groups use bribes to change people’s votes.

B. Public goods are not depleted by consumption.

C. Public goods cannot be withheld from consumption.

D. Voting does not accurately reflect the magnitude of benefits from public goods.

Q. 45 Which of the following item of expenditure is not a part of the plan expenditure ?

A. Agriculture

B. Defence

C. Industry

D. Social Services

Q. 46 The Time Series of production yielded following Trend equation :

Y = 136 e⁰⋅⁰²¹ T.

Where Y = Production, T – Time. From this equation it can be inferred that growth rate of Y in percent terms is

A. 0.021

B. 2.1

C. 21

D. 0.21

Q. 47 Which is not a sampling distribution?

A. Student’s ‘t’ distribution

B. Fisher’s ‘F’ distribution

C. Poisson distribution

D. χ² (chi square) distribution

Q. 48 Co-efficient of correlation is independent of which of the following ?

A. Change of origin only

B. Change of scale only

C. Change of origin and scale

D. None of these

Q. 49 Which of the following is not satisfied for independence of two events A and B ?

A. P (A/B) = P(A)

B. P (B/A) = P(B)

C. P (A, B) = P(A) P(B)

D. P (A, B) = P(A) + P(B)

Q. 50 Match the items in List-I and List-II and answer from the codes given below :

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	C	A	C	D	B	A	B	B	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	B	C	C	B	C	C	A	D	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	A	B	C	B	B	A	A	B	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	C	A	A	B	A	C	D	D	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	B	A	C	D	C	A	D	A	A