SSC MTS - Vidhyarthi Darpan

SSC MTS Tier-I 14 October 2017 Shift-III Previous Year Paper

SSC MTS Tier 1 2017 14 Oct Shift 3

Q. 1 In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

A. 20

B. 24

C. 32

D. 28

Q. 2 How many quadrilaterals are there in the given figure?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 1

Q. 3 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.

The set of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘E’ can be represented by 01, 86, etc., and ‘N’ can be represented by 04, 89, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word “FACE”.

A. 31, 32, 02, 56

B. 67, 86, 97, 98

C. 00, 12, 13, 01

D. 23, 89, 68, 23

Q. 4 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 5 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 6 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 7 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 8 By interchanging which two signs the equation will be correct?

43 + 18 ÷ 9 x 4 – 3 = 87

A. + and ÷

B. x and +

C. ÷ and –

D. – and +

Q. 9 If 5 @ 3 @ 1 = 3 and 6 @ 9 @ 1 = 4, then 5 @ 9 @ 11 = ?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 5

Q. 10 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Form

2. Foaming

3. Flower

4. Flame

5. Fog

A. 43251

B. 43215

C. 34251

D. 34215

Q. 11 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

13, 17, 19, 23, ?

A. 27

B. 29

C. 26

D. 24

Q. 12 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

AC,DF, GI, ?

A. JK

B. JL

C. KL

D. KM

Q. 13 In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Cone

B. Cylinder

C. Cube

D. Triangle

Q. 14 In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.

A. 25

B. 144

C. 361

D. 143

Q. 15 In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. MN

B. AB

C. CE

D. XY

Q. 16 Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

Humans, Female, Children

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 17 In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Nile : River : : Atlas : ?

A. Paper

B. Map

C. Mountain

D. Nature

Q. 18 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

3 : 28 : : 4 : ?

A. 62

B. 63

C. 65

D. 64

Q. 19 In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

AD : BE : : MP : ?

A. PR

B. NQ

C. QR

D. NR

Q. 20 In the following question, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

SUSTENANCE

A. TEEN

B. SUN

C. NEST

D. CRUST

Q. 21 Present ages of M and N are in the ratio 7 : 8 respectively. After five years this ratio becomes 8 : 9. What is the present age (in years) of M?

A. 35

B. 40

C. 45

D. 30

Q. 22 N remembers his birthday is before 16th December. N’s brother remembers his birthday is after 14th December. On which date of December is his birthday?

A. 14

B. 16

C. 15

D. 17

Q. 23 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

I. Some plates are cups.

II. All cups are red.

Conclusions:

I. Some plates are red.

II. All plates are red.

A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Only conclusion (II) follows.

C. Both conclusion follow.

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor conclusion (II) follows.

Q. 24 In a certain code language, “GOLD” is written as “IQNF”. How is “DRUM” written in that code language?

A. HSWO

B. FSVP

C. FSWP

D. FTWO

Q. 25 In a certain code language, “MAN” is written as “56” and “WAN” is written as “76”. How is “OPT” written in that code language?

A. 100

B. 101

C. 102

D. 103

Q. 26 How many positive factors of 76 are there?

A. 6

B. 7

C. 5

D. 8

Q. 27 What is the value of [(7.9)³+(2.4)³] ÷ [(7.9)²−7.9×2.4+(2.4)²]?

A. 11.4

B. 13.1

C. 10.3

D. 12.7

Q. 28 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

I. 2⁶⁰⁰>7⁹⁰⁰

II.3⁴⁰⁰>9⁵⁰⁰

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Q. 29 How many numbers are there from 200 to 285 which are divisible by 7?

A. 11

B. 12

C. 22

D. 32

Q. 30 If N = √9 + √7, then what is the value of (1/N)?

A. √9 – √7

B. 2(√9 – √7)

C. (√9 – √7)/2

D. 4(√9-√7)

Q. 31 What is the unit’s digit of 216²¹⁶?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

Q. 32 P, Q and R undertook a work for Rs 52000. Together P and Q complete (2/5)th part of the work. What is the share (in Rs) of R?

A. 30000

B. 31000

C. 31200

D. 30400

Q. 33 Two popes S and T can fill a tank in 3 hours and 6 hours respectively. Pipe U can alone empty the same tank in 4 hours. If all three pipes are opened together, then in how many hours will the tank be filled?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

Q. 34 If the area of an equilateral triangle is 12√3 m², then what is the value (in metres) of its height?

A. 4.5

B. 6.5

C. 6

D. 4√3

Q. 35 A trader gives a discount of 20% on the marked price. To earn profit of 12% , by how much percent should he mark the price of his goods higher than its cost price?

A. 20

B. 40

C. 25

D. 35

Q. 36 An article has marked price of Rs 7200 and is available at a discount of 20%. The shopkeeper gives another discount to the buyer and sells the article for Rs 4896. What is the second discount (in %) offered?

A. 20

B. 12

C. 15

D. 10

Q. 37 If M : N = 2 : 7 and M : O = 4 : 3, then what is (M+N) : (N+O)?

A. 18:17

B. 17:19

C. 17:7

D. 18:3

Q. 38 If the sum of two numbers is equal to five times of their difference, then what is the ratio of the numbers?

A. 3:2

B. 2:1

C. 4:3

D. 2:5

Q. 39 Average of 15 numbers is 20. If a number 4 is also included, then what will be the average of these 16 numbers?

A. 17

B. 18

C. 18.5

D. 19

Q. 40 Sahil sold a fan to Ankit at a profit of 10%. ANkit sold the fan to Pulkit at a profit of 20%. If Pulkit pays Rs 330 for fan, then for how much (in Rs) Sahil bought the fan?

A. 300

B. 280

C. 340

D. 250

Q. 41 On selling an article for Rs 455, a shopkeeper losses 30%. For how much (in Rs) he should sell the article in order to earn a profit of 30%?

A. 750

B. 245

C. 845

D. 680

Q. 42 A man saves 36% of his income in 9 months. If he wants to save the same amount in 6 months, then by how much percentage should he increases his monthly savings?

A. 50

B. 33.33

C. 25

D. 75

Q. 43 Two numbers are 25% and 15% less than the third number respectively. First number is what percent less than the second number?

A. 11.76

B. 13.5

C. 17.8

D. 20.4

Q. 44 A car travels at a speed of 75 m/s for 2 hours. What is the distance (in km) travelled by the car?

A. 500

B. 525

C. 540

D. 550

Q. 45 An 800 metre long train crosses a 450 metre long bridge in 50 seconds. What is speed (in km/hr) of the train?

A. 90

B. 100

C. 80

D. 85

Q. 46 What is the simple interest (in Rs) on a principal of Rs 2000 at the rate of 5% per annum for 2 years?

A. 250

B. 200

C. 150

D. 225

Q. 47 The pie chart given below shows the number of students in 5 sections. The number of students is 7200.

What is the total number of students in section E and section B?

A. 3060

B. 2900

C. 5300

D. 6000

Q. 48 The pie chart given below shows the number of students in 5 sections. The number of students is 7200.

What is the difference between the number of students in section C and section D?

A. 86

B. 180

C. 196

D. 42

Q. 49 The pie chart given below shows the number of students in 5 sections. The number of students is 7200.

The number of students in section A is what percent of that of section B?

A. 90

B. 110

C. 109

D. 111.11

Q. 50 The pie chart given below shows the number of students in 5 sections. The number of students is 7200.

What is the average number of students of the 2 smallest sections?

A. 1860

B. 1170

C. 1600

D. 1730

Q. 51 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Sports other than cricket (1)/ should also be given (2)/ their due importance in India (3)/ No Error(4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 52 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Deeds (1)/ not words (2)/ are what (3)/ really count (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 53 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Risha ______ a salary of Rs 50,000 every month.

A. have earned

B. earning

C. earn

D. earns

Q. 54 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

She ______ her mind after seeing the damaged washing machine.

A. losing

B. lose

C. lost

D. was loses

Q. 55 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Brevity

A. Crispness

B. Greatness

C. Fondness

D. Meekness

Q. 56 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Accord

A. Confer

B. Refusal

C. Dissension

D. Opposition

Q. 57 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Absolute

A. Division

B. Complete

C. Small

D. Half

Q. 58 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Swift

A. Rapid

B. Slow

C. Fast

D. Lonely

Q. 59 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Fragrance

A. Strength

B. Stench

C. Steal

D. Dirt

Q. 60 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Agony

A. Suffering

B. Pain

C. Grief

D. Delight

Q. 61 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of Idiom/Phrase.

Can’t judge a book by its cover

A. We should not buy books without checking the cover

B. We should not judge others

C. We should not judge something primarily on its appearance

D. We should judge something primarily on its appearance

Q. 62 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of Idiom/Phrase.

To keep body and soul together

A. To be in love

B. To be undecided

C. To make hospitable

D. To manage to live

Q. 63 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “no improvement”.

One must (be working in a job) for which one has a natural talent.

A. be taking up a job

B. to prfferring a job

C. take up a job

D. No improvement

Q. 64 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “no improvement”.

Ruby does not like (me coming so late).

A. me come so late

B. my coming so late

C. I coming so late

D. No improvement

Q. 65 In the following question, out of four given alternatives, select the alternative which is best substitute of the phrase.

to run away secretly with a romantic partner

A. Effect

B. Engage

C. Elope

D. Entice

Q. 66 In the following question, out of four given alternatives, select the alternative which is best substitute of the phrase.

to express regret for something that one has done wrong

A. Action

B. Reaction

C. Anxiety

D. Apologize

Q. 67 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Disilusionment

B. Dissillusionment

C. Disillussionment

D. Disillusionment

Q. 68 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Cactuss

B. Cactus

C. Ccttus

D. Kaktus

Q. 69 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

Mehak made

P: a terrible mistake

Q: by not going

R: to the party

A. QRP

B. RPQ

C. PQR

D. QPR

Q. 70 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

The next

P: generation should use

Q: the non-renewable energy

R: wisely and sparingly

A. QRP

B. RPQ

C. PQR

D. QPR

Q. 71 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Character is destiny. Character is that on which the _______ of a nation is built. One cannot have a great nation with men of _______ character. We must have young men and women who look ______ others as the living image of themselves as our Shastras have so often declared. But whether in public life or student ______, we cannot reach great heights, if we are lacking in character. We cannot climb the mountain when the _______ at our feet is crumbling.

Character is that on which the _______ of a nation is built.

A. continuity

B. destiny

C. choice

D. volition

Q. 72 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

One cannot have a great nation with men of _______ character.

A. big

B. huge

C. small

D. large

Q. 73 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives. Character is destiny. Character is that on which the _______ of a nation is built. One cannot have a great nation with men of _______ character. We must have young men and women who look ______ others as the living image of themselves as our Shastras have so often declared. But whether in public life or student ______, we cannot reach great heights, if we are lacking in character. We cannot climb the mountain when the _______ at our feet is crumbling.

en and women who look ______ others as the living image of themselves

A. under

B. upon

C. with

D. No option is correct

Q. 74 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Character is destiny. Character is that on which the _______ of a nation is built. One cannot have a great nation with men of _______ character. We must have young men and women who look ______ others as the living image of themselves as our Shastras have so often declared. But whether in public life or student ______, we cannot reach great he ights, if weare lacking in character. We cannot climb the mountain when the _______ at our fe et is crumbling.

whether in public life or student ______,

A. life

B. thought

C. dilemma

D. apathy

Q. 75 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

We cannot climb the mountain when the _______ at our feet is crumbling.

A. heavens

B. ground

C. sky

D. roof

Q. 76 Which of the following approves the draft framework of the Five Year Plans?

A. Reserve Bank of India

B. Inter State Council

C. Finance Ministry

D. National Development Council

Q. 77 Mira Seth Committee was related with development of ______.

A. primary education

B. women health

C. handlooms

D. gender equality

Q. 78 Which part of the Indian Constitution has been called its soul?

A. Fundamental Duties

B. Citizenship

C. Preamble

D. Directive Principles

Q. 79 How much time does it take in the creation of Indian Constitution?

A. 2 years 11 month and 17 days

B. 3 years 10 months 28 days

C. 4 years 8 months 10 days

D. 5 years 7 months and 15 days

Q. 80 Where was the capital of Gandhara, one of the sixteen Mahajanpadas?

A. Champa

B. Takshashila

C. Hataka

D. Patali

Q. 81 Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the founder of the ______.

A. Ramakrishna Mission

B. Brahma Samaj

C. Arya Samaj

D. Theosophical society

Q. 82 Between which of the following two planets are the asteroids found?

A. Saturn and Uranus

B. Jupiter and Saturn

C. Mars and Jupiter

D. Earth and Mars

Q. 83 In which of the following states of India bamboo drip irrigation method is prevalent?

A. Rajasthan

B. Meghalaya

C. Karnataka

D. Madhya Pradesh

Q. 84 Which part of the patato is eaten?

A. Stem

B. Root

C. Leaf

D. Flower

Q. 85 Which of the following in NOT a part of the digestive system?

A. Small Intestine

B. Large Intestine

C. Vacuole

D. Pancreas

Q. 86 Which of the following is a group of invertebrate animals?

A. Mammalia

B. Pisces

C. Reptilia

D. Arthropoda

Q. 87 Which one of the following statement is true about the gravitational force between two bodies?

A. It’s always repulsive

B. It’s always attractive

C. It can be attractive or repulsive

D. It’s neutral

Q. 88 Which part of the magnet has the least magnetic power?

A. at north pole

B. at south pole

C. in the middle

D. No option is correct

Q. 89 A standard alphanumeric keyboard of a laptop usually consists of how many keys?

A. 76-80 keys

B. 81-84 keys

C. 100-104 keys

D. 108-12 keys

Q. 90 Which of the following fact is true about alpha particles in an atom?

A. are positively charged particles

B. are negatively charged particles

C. are beam of neutrons

D. emits gamma radiation

Q. 91 A change of state directly from solid to gas without changing into liquid state (or vice versa) is called ______.

A. Evaporation

B. Condensation

C. Sublimation

D. Diffusion

Q. 92 Which of the following is NOT a major component of biotic environment?

A. Plant

B. Animal

C. Dcomposer

D. Water

Q. 93 In which of the following year Sampurn Gramin Rojgar Yojana (SGRY) was launched?

A. 1988

B. 2001

C. 2004

D. 2007

Q. 94 Who among the following scientists invented the Telephone?

A. Alexander Graham Bell

B. James Watt

C. J.L Baird

D. C. Sholes

Q. 95 With which sport is Novak Djokovic associated?

A. Football

B. Golf

C. Tennis

D. Baseball

Q. 96 Which place is originally related to the famous Meenakari named “Theva Kala”?

A. Kerala

B. West Bengal

C. Rajasthan

D. Delhi

Q. 97 In which of the following fields is the B. C. Roy Award given?

A. Music

B. Journalism

C. Environment

D. Medical

Q. 98 Whose biography is the book ‘Anything but Khamosh’?

A. Manoj Bajpai

B. Shatrughan SInha

C. Nana Patekar

D. Sonakshi SInha

Q. 99 India is NOT a member of which of the following organization?

A. SAARC

B. BRICS

C. BIMSTEC

D. NATO

Q. 100 In which of the following countries the river Padma flow?

A. Nepal

B. Bhutan

C. Bangladesh

D. Sri Lanka

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	B	C	A	A	D	C	B	D	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	B	D	D	C	B	B	C	B	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	C	A	D	C	A	C	D	B	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	C	B	C	B	C	A	A	D	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	A	A	C	A	B	A	B	D	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	D	D	C	A	A	B	B	B	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	D	C	D	C	D	D	B	C	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	C	B	A	B	D	C	C	A	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	C	B	A	C	D	B	C	C	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	D	B	A	C	C	D	B	D	C

SSC MTS Tier-I 14 October 2017 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC MTS Tier 1 2017 14 Oct Shift 2

Q. 1 Select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark from options.

A. 32

B. 63

C. 34

D. 20

Q. 2 how many triangles are there in the given figure?

A. 5

B. 4

C. 3

D. 6

Q. 3 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.

The sets of numbers given are represented by two classes of alphabets in given matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix- I are numbered from 0 to 4 and of Matrix-II from 5 to 9. A letter from these can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘K’ can be represented by 01, 65, etc and ‘A’ can be represented by 44, 95, etc. Similarly identify the set for word ‘CAT’.

A. 10,44,11,41

B. 56,97,67,43

C. 58,44,59,87

D. 33,79,97,87

Q. 4 Select the one in which question figure is hidden/ embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 5 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 6 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figure is the right image of given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 7 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below. From the given opitons, indicate hoe it will appear when opened?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 8 If ‘A’ means ‘ +’ , ‘ B ‘ means ‘-‘ and ‘C’ means ‘÷’ and ‘D’ means ‘x’, then

7 A 11 B 13 D 3 C 39 = ?

A. 27

B. 17

C. 19

D. 32

Q. 9 If 13 % 7 ÷ 4 = 16 and 14 % 6 ÷ 3 = 17, then

23 % 7 ÷ 2 = ?

A. 28

B. 32

C. 18

D. 20

Q. 10 Arrange the words in sequence in which they occur in dictionary.

1. PRINT

2. PRAWN

3. PAGER

4. PASTE

5. PAIN

A. 35421

B. 34512

C. 45321

D. 43512

Q. 11 Select the missing number from the given series.

9 , 11, 20 , 31 , 51 ?

A. 91

B. 84

C. 76

D. 82

Q. 12 A series is given with term missing. Find correct option for it.

ACE , HJL , OQS , ?

A. TVX

B. TUV

C. VXZ

D. UWY

Q. 13 Select the odd one.

A. water

B. glass

C. coffee

D. tea

Q. 14 Select the odd pair.

A. 14 – 2744

B. 18 – 5832

C. 10 – 10000

D. 19 – 6859

Q. 15 Select the odd letters.

A. ABC

B. MNO

C. RST

D. PQM

Q. 16 Select the diagram which bests represents relationship among:

currency, dollar, pound1

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 17 Select the related word.

Palette : colours : : report card : ?

A. marks

B. syllabus

C. homework

D. attendance

Q. 18 Select the related number from following.

83 : 9 : : 146 : ?

A. 12

B. 14

C. 10

D. 7

Q. 19 Select the related letters.

PM : LI : : BY : ?

A. WW

B. XU

C. XV

D. WU

Q. 20 Select the word which cannot be formed using letters of given word.

UNEXCITABLE

A. BLADE

B. EXIT

C. BITE

D. TABLE

Q. 21 Weight of W is twice that of X. Weight of X is 1/3 of Y. Weight of Y of 3 times of Z. Weight of Z is 1/4 times of A. Who is the heaviest?

A. A

B. W

C. Y

D. X

Q. 22 W,X,Y,Z and A are sitting in a line facing west. W and X are sitting together. Y is sitting at south end and Z is sitting at north end. A is neighbour of X and Z. Who is sitting in the middle?

A. A

B. Z

C. X

D. W

Q. 23 Below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statemennts to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all conclusions and decide which conclusion logically follows the statements.

STATEMENTS:

1. All kites are red.

2.No red is blue.

CONCLUSION:

1.Some kite are blue.

2.No kite is blue.

A. only conclusion 1 follows.

B. only conclusion 2 follows.

C. both conclusion follows.

D. neither conclusion follows.

Q. 24 In a certain code language, ‘HATCH’ is written as ‘ JXVZJ’. How is ‘SEDAN’ written in that code language?

A. UBFXP

B. CVFYP

C. FXPVB

D. HVWZM

Q. 25 In certain language, ‘VIRGE’ is written as ‘ 19635’ and ‘LOAD’ is written as ‘7480’. How is ‘glove’ written?

A. 37415

B. 34175

C. 56437

D. 96035

Q. 26 If 101 x 102 x 103 is divided by 10, then what will be the remainder?

A. 5

B. 6

C. 4

D. 8

Q. 27 What is the value of 249 x 251?

A. 64599

B. 62099

C. 62499

D. 64499

Q. 28 What is the value of [(5.3)³ – (3.8)³] ÷ [(5.3)² + (3.8)² + (5.3) x (3.8)] ?

A. 2.25

B. 2.7

C. 1.3

D. 1.5

Q. 29 Which of the following statement is true?

1. 4√3 > 3√2

2. 3√2 > 6√5

A. only 1

B. only 2

C. both 1 and 2

D. neither 1 nor 2

Q. 30 If 84B78 is divisble by 11, then what is the value of B?

A. 4

B. 6

C. 3

D. 1

Q. 31 What is the value of 2² + 4² + 6² + ………, 20² ?

A. 1470

B. 1630

C. 1820

D. 1540

Q. 32 A , B and C undertook a work for Rs 26000. Together A and B complete (9/13)th work of the work. What is the share in Rs. of C?

A. 10000

B. 8000

C. 12000

D. 7000

Q. 33 Three taps A , B and C can fill a tank in 90 , 10 and 18 hours respectively. If all the taps are opened together, then in how many hours will the tank be filled?

A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 2

Q. 34 The length of two parallel sides of a trapezium are 40 cm and 50 cm. If the area of the trapezium is 180 cm², then what is the value of its height (in cm) ?

A. 6

B. 4

C. 2

D. 8

Q. 35 The cost price of an article is 81% of the marked price. What is the gain percentage after allowing a discount of 10% o the marked price?

A. 11.11

B. 9.09

C. 12.5

D. 7.5

Q. 36 A trader gives a discount of 15% on the marked price. To earn profit of 19%, by how much percent should he mark the price of his goods higher than its cost price?

A. 25

B. 40

C. 30

D. 35

Q. 37 If M : N = 3 : 5 and M :O = 4 : 6 ,then what is ( M+N) :(N+O) ?

A. 19 : 15

B. 16 : 19

C. 15 : 19

D. 25 : 16

Q. 38 If the sum of the two numbers is equal to two times of their difference, then what is the ratio of the numbers?

A. 4 : 3

B. 1 : 2

C. 3 : 5

D. 3 : 1

Q. 39 Average of 19 numbers is 15. If a number 25 is also included, then what will be the average of these 20 numbers?

A. 14.5

B. 16.5

C. 15.5

D. 17.5

Q. 40 An article was sold at 15% gain. Had it been sold for Rs 195 more, then the gain would have been 30 %. What is the cost price?

A. 1100

B. 2200

C. 1300

D. 1950

Q. 41 A man buys a toy for Rs. 40 and sells it for Rs. 60. What is his gain percent?

A. 30

B. 50

C. 75

D. 25

Q. 42 A man saves 12 % of his income in 6 months. If he wants to save the same amount in 4 months, then by how much percent should he increase his monthly savings?

A. 33.33

B. 50

C. 66.66

D. 25

Q. 43 J is 10 % more than K. K is 10 % less than L. L is 10 % less than M. If M is 2000, then what is the value of J?

A. 1844

B. 1806

C. 1782

D. 1756

Q. 44 A train running with a speed of 3km/hr , crosses a telephone pole. If the length of train is 9000 meters, then what is the time taken by train to cross the pole? (in sec)

A. 1000

B. 1080

C. 1020

D. 900

Q. 45 A 950 meters long train crosses a 850 meters long bridge. If the speed of the train is 60km/hr, then what is the time taken (in sec) to cross the bridge?

A. 120

B. 108

C. 115

D. 102

Q. 46 What is the sum (in Rs ) of money which became Rs 17545 at the rate of 10% per annum at compound interest in two years?

A. 14500

B. 13800

C. 12800

D. 15200

Q. 47 The line chart given below shows the number of tourists (in 000′) in Mumbai and Amritsar. What is the maximum difference (in 000′) between the number of tourists in Mumbai and Amritsar for any year?

A. 68

B. 52

C. 100

D. 80

Q. 48 The line chart given below shows the number of tourists (in 000′) in Mumbai and Amritsar. What is the percentage change in the number of tourists in Mumbai from year 2003 to 2004?

A. 25

B. 20

C. 16

D. 68

Q. 49 The line chart given below shows the number of tourists (in 000′) in Mumbai and Amritsar. The number of tourists in Amritsar in year 2005 is what percent of the number of tourists in Mumbai in year 2001?

A. 75

B. 80

C. 120

D. 70

Q. 50 The line chart given below shows the number of tourists (in 000′) in Mumbai and Amritsar. What is the average number of tourist in Mumbai from year 2000 to 2004? (in 000′)

A. 150

B. 146

C. 168

D. 172

Q. 51 Some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select “no error”. The justice Minister urged lawmakers (1)/ to back the bill and says that the (2)/ government would listen to the concerns (3)/ No error(4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 52 Some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No error’. The opposition Party had called to its (1)/ lawmakers to vote against the bill (2)/ if the government failed to make concessions (3)/ No error(4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 53 Select the correct word to be filled in the sentence given with blank.

Power yoga is ____________ exercise to reduce the belly fat.

A. a best

B. the best

C. one of the best

D. an best

Q. 54 Select the word to be filled in the blank in the sentence.

Megha has an _________ for music.

A. attitude

B. intuition

C. aptitude

D. imagination

Q. 55 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

PANORAMA

A. scene

B. hide

C. conquer

D. rise

Q. 56 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

PECULIAR

A. NORMAL

B. REGULAR

C. USUAL

D. STRANGE

Q. 57 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

REALM

A. chubby

B. field

C. treason

D. copy

Q. 58 Select the one which best expresses the opposite of the word.

UNFORESEEN

A. surprising

B. accidental

C. expected

D. sudden

Q. 59 Select the one which best expresses the opposite of word.

INCLUDE

A. admit

B. build

C. comprise

D. reject

Q. 60 Select the one which best expresses the opposite of word.

OVERT

A. clear

B. open

C. hidden

D. visible

Q. 61 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of Idiom/Phrase.

over heard and ears.

A. very loud

B. very excited

C. completely trapped

D. very angry

Q. 62 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of idiom/ phrase.

giving a piece of one’s mind.

A. to flatter someone

B. to express oneself

C. to rebuke someone

D. to encourage someone

Q. 63 Improve the bracketed part of sentence.

Residents (says) the firing lasted just around 10 minutes, indicating at a well- planned trap.

A. said

B. tells

C. complains

D. no improvement

Q. 64 Improve bracketed part of the sentence.

“Militant leadership ( are to be) eliminated because they also misguide our children and lure them into this,” said Inspector General of Police.

A. has to be

B. were to be

C. would have be

D. no improvement

Q. 65 Select the one which best substitutes the idiom/phase.

one for whom money is the most important thing.

A. materialsitic

B. divine

C. disciple

D. extravagant

Q. 66 Select the one which best substitutes the idiom/phase.

one who hates reasoning.

A. misologist

B. abortionist

C. destructionalist

D. prohibitionist

Q. 67 Select the correctly spelt word.

A. chocolat

B. choclate

C. chokelate

D. chocolate

Q. 68 Select the correctly spelt word.

A. commentory

B. comentary

C. commentary

D. comenttary

Q. 69 Rearrange the parts of sentence in correct order.

An equitable distribution of

P: for a sustained quality

Q; of life and global peace

R: resources has become essential

A. RPQ

B. QRP

C. PQR

D. RQP

Q. 70 Rearrange the parts of sentence in correct order.

Ploughing along the

P: contour lines can

Q: water down the slopes

R: decelerate ate the flow of

A. PRQ

B. QPR

C. RQP

D. QRP

Q. 71 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

The task is not easy in a country where even now about fifty percent people are _______. But, however difficult, it can be done. It is being done in China. The entire resources of the country must be mobilized to wage a _____ against ignorance and illiteracy. Govern mentsmust spend the maximum amount for this object, as they would have done in a war against an enemy. There should be a ______ for students, and conscription of workers. Nonteaching personnel must be ______ to the utmost. School buildings must be thrown _____ for the illiterate adults in the evening.

where even now about fifty percent people are ______.

A. illiterate

B. educated

C. literate

D. experienced

Q. 72 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

The task is not easy in a country where even now about fifty percent people are _______. But, however difficult, it can be done. It is being done in China. The entire resources of the country must be mobilized to wage a _____ against ignorance and illiteracy. Governments must spend the maximum amount for this object, as they would have done in a war against an enemy. There should be a ______ for students, and conscription of workers. Nonteaching personnel must be ______ to the utmost. School buildings must be thrown _____ for the illiterate adults in the evening. country must be mobilized to wage a ______ against

A. support

B. war

C. ceasefire

D. truce

Q. 73 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

The task is not easy in a country where even now about fifty percent people are _______. But, however difficult, it can be done. It is being done in China. The entire resources of the country must be mobilized to wage a _____ against ignorance and illiteracy. Governments must spend the maximum amount for this object, as they would have done in a war against an enemy. There should be a ______ for students, and conscription of workers. Nonteaching personnel must be ______ to the utmost. School buildings must be thrown _____ for the illiterate adults in the evening.

There should be a _______ for students,

A. optional

B. easy

C. compulsion

D. temporary

Q. 74 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

The task is not easy in a country where even now about fifty percent people are _______. But, however difficult, it can be done. It is being done in China. The entire resources of the country must be mobilized to wage a _____ against ignorance and illiteracy. Governments must spend the maximum amount for this object, as they would have done in a war against an enemy. There should be a ______ for students, and conscription of workers. Nonteaching personnel must be ______ to the utmost. School buildings must be thrown _____ for the illiterate adults in the evening.

personnel must be _______ to the utmost.

A. halt

B. stop

C. demobilize

D. mobilized

Q. 75 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

The task is not easy in a country where even now about fifty percent people are _______. But, however difficult, it can be done. It is being done in China. The entire resources of the country must be mobilized to wage a _____ against ignorance and illiteracy. Governments must spend the maximum amount for this object, as they would have done in a war against an enemy. There should be a ______ for students, and conscription of workers. Nonteaching personnel must be ______ to the utmost. School buildings must be thrown _____ for the illiterate adults in the evening.

be thrown __________ for the illiterate adults.

A. open

B. close

C. shut

D. fold

Q. 76 Generally people engaged in which activity face seasonal and disguised unemployment?

A. service

B. agriculture

C. manufacturing

D. construction

Q. 77 Increase in unemployment indicates which type of economy?

A. healthy

B. depressed

C. developed

D. stagnant

Q. 78 Directive principles of state policy in Indian constitution has been taken from which country’s constitution?

A. Irish constitution

B. US constitution

C. British constitution

D. Australian constitution

Q. 79 Under which article supreme court of India issues writs?

A. Article 20

B. Article 56

C. Article 68

D. Article 32

Q. 80 Which among the following was NOT a chinese pilgrim to India?

A. Al – Biruni

B. Fa – hien

C. Xuan Zang

D. I – Sing

Q. 81 What was Akbar’s age when he became emperor?

A. 9

B. 13

C. 15

D. 17

Q. 82 The Earth rotates by what degree in four minutes?

A. 4°

B. 10°

C. 36°

D. 1°

Q. 83 Which strait connects Arctic ocean with the Pacific ocean?

A. Gibraltor Strait

B. Dover Strait

C. Berring Strait

D. Sunda Strait

Q. 84 Bowman’s capsules are found in __________.

A. kidney of mammals

B. heart of mammals

C. liver of mammals

D. cerebellum of rabbit

Q. 85 The maximum possible volume of air, which can be inhaled by humans is callled as _________.

A. inspirations capacity

B. vital lung capacity

C. residual volume

D. total lung capacity

Q. 86 What is broad , green part of leaf called?

A. base

B. top

C. petiole

D. lamina

Q. 87 The SI unit of density is _______.

A. kg m⁻³

B. g cm⁻³

C. kg ⁻²

D. g m³

Q. 88 When an object is lifted vertically upwards from ground , then its ______________.

A. potential energy decreases

B. potential energy increases

C. potential energy remains same

D. none

Q. 89 What is the process of transferring files from internet to computer memory called?

A. uploading

B. downloading

C. bookmarking

D. hyperlinking

Q. 90 Which of the following are isomers?

A. ethane and propane

B. methane and methene

C. propane and propene

D. butane and isobutane

Q. 91 The substance that looses electrons is called ________.

A. oxidizing agent

B. reducing agent

C. catalyst

D. none

Q. 92 Food web is a system of interlocking and interdependent _________.

A. food cycles

B. food chains

C. food system

D. none

Q. 93 What is the aim of Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay Unnat Krishi Shiksha Scheme?

A. To promote agricultural productivity

B. To promote agricultural health

C. To promote agricultural education

D. None

Q. 94 Which of the following is NOT correctly paired?

A. E. Torricelli – Barometer

B. Neutron – James Chadwick

C. Penicillin – F. Banting

D. Revolver – Samuel Colt

Q. 95 ‘Ring’ is the place where ____ is played.

A. boxing

B. cricket

C. football

D. skating

Q. 96 Alahi Darwaja is a _______ to the enclosure of Quwut -Ul-Islam mosque at Delhi.

A. gateway

B. minaret

C. dome

D. arch

Q. 97 Shankha Ghosh has won which award for the year 2016?

A. Dronacharya

B. Arjun

C. Jnanpith

D. Nobel

Q. 98 Who is the author of the book named “Out of my comfort zone”?

A. Sachin Tendulkar

B. Steve Waugh

C. Harbhajan Singh

D. Sunil Gavaskar

Q. 99 India became the first non-member of the Treaty of non-proliferation of Nuclear weapons (NPT) to have signed civilian nuclear deal with which country?

A. Japan

B. Nepal

C. Pakistan

D. Indonesia

Q. 100 Bagan city, the world’s largest and densest concentration of Buddhist temples, pagodas, stupas and ruins is situated in which country?

A. Myanmar

B. Bangladesh

C. Bhutan

D. Sri Lanka

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	A	D	A	C	A	D	B	A	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	C	B	C	D	B	A	A	B	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	C	B	A	A	B	C	D	A	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	B	B	B	A	B	B	D	C	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	B	C	B	B	A	D	B	B	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	A	B	C	A	D	B	C	D	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	C	A	A	A	A	D	C	A	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	B	C	D	A	B	B	A	D	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	D	C	A	D	D	A	B	B	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	B	C	C	A	A	C	B	A	A

SSC MTS Tier-I 14 October 2017 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC MTS Tier 1 2017 14 Oct Shift 1

Q. 1 Select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark from options.

A. 34

B. 36

C. 38

D. 32

Q. 2 how many triangles are there in the given figure?

A. 9

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

Q. 3 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.

The sets of numbers given are represented by two classes of alphabets in given matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix- I are numbered from 0 to 4 and of Matrix-II from 5 to 9. A letter from these can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘J’ can be represented by 42, 87, etc and ‘N’ can be represented by 04, 89, etc. Similarly identify the set for word ‘BITE’.

A. OO , 12 , 88 , 21

B. 41, 40 , 02, 04

C. 67, 96, 12, 86

D. 23, 58, 68, 01

Q. 4 Select the one in which question figure is hidden/ embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 5 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 6 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figure is the right image of given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 7 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below. From the given opitons, indicate hoe it will appear when opened?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 8 If ‘Q’ means ‘ +’ , ‘ N ‘ means ‘-‘ and ‘L’ means ‘÷’ and ‘T’ means ‘x’, then

44 T 4 L 11 Q 6 = ?

A. 17

B. 14

C. 88/17

D. 22

Q. 9 If 6 x 4 x 1 = 33 and 4 x 2 x 2 = 24, then 2 x 3 x 1 = ?

A. 18

B. 22

C. 20

D. 2

Q. 10 Arrange the words in sequence in which they occur in dictionary.

1. storm

2. string

3. stock

4. stream

5. store

A. 35142

B. 53142

C. 51342

D. 31542

Q. 11 Select the missing number from the given series.

9 , 11, 15, 21, ?

A. 28

B. 29

C. 27

D. 30

Q. 12 A series is given with term missing. Find correct option for it.

X, V, T, R, ?, ?

A. P, M

B. P, N

C. Q, O

D. Q, P

Q. 13 Select the odd one.

A. tongue

B. ear

C. nose

D. sweet

Q. 14 Select the odd number pair.

A. 64 – 512

B. 16 – 64

C. 9 – 27

D. 81 – 243

Q. 15 Select the odd letters from the options.

A. AC

B. DF

C. MO

D. XY

Q. 16 Select the diagram which bests represents relationship among:

WORD , LETTER , PARAGRAPH

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 17 Select the related word.

Wool : Sheep : : Silk : ?

A. plant

B. tree

C. worm

D. animal

Q. 18 Select the related number from following.

9 : 729 : : 11 : ?

A. 121

B. 1331

C. 1221

D. 1100

Q. 19 Select the related letters.

AB : YZ : : BC : ?

A. YX

B. XZ

C. XW

D. XY

Q. 20 Select the word which cannot be formed using letters of given word.

STRATEGIC

A. RAT

B. GREAT

C. CRANE

D. STAR

Q. 21 Shyam starts walking from a point. He walks 10km to the North. He then turns east and walks 12km west and walks 16km. In which direction is Shyam from his starting point?

A. West

B. North

C. north – west

D. south – west

Q. 22 Present age of A and B are in the ratio 3 : 4 respectively. After nine years this ration becomes 4 :5 . What is present age of A?

A. 18

B. 27

C. 36

D. 45

Q. 23 Below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all conclusions and decide which conclusion logically follows the statements.

STATEMENTS:

1. Some blue are black.

2. Some black are blue.

CONCLUSIONS:

1. No red is black

2. Some black are blue.

A. only conclusion 1 follows.

B. only conclusion 2 follows.

C. both conclusion follows

D. neither conclusion follows.

Q. 24 In a certain code language, ‘FOUR’ is written as ‘ GPVS’. How is ‘NAND’ written in that code language?

A. OBOC

B. OBME

C. MBOE

D. OBOE

Q. 25 In certain language, ‘TEA’ is written as ‘ 26’ and ‘PEA’ is written as ’22’. How is ‘TWO’ written?

A. 57

B. 56

C. 58

D. 59

Q. 26 What is the value of 3² + 4² + ….16² ?

A. 1373

B. 1261

C. 1491

D. 1563

Q. 27 What is the value of [(7.8)³ + (3.4³)] ÷ [(7.8)² – 7.8 x 3.4 + (3.4)²] ?

A. 0.9

B. 11.2

C. 13.4

D. 9.8

Q. 28 What are the positive factors of 54?

A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 5

Q. 29 Which of the following statement is true?

1. (5/9) > (7/11)

2.(6/7) > (8/9)

A. only 1

B. only 2

C. both

D. none

Q. 30 N is number divisible by 17. If (N +3) (N + 5) is divided by 17, then what will be the remainder?

A. 9

B. 11

C. 10

D. 15

Q. 31 If a number is as much as greater than 53 as it is less than 95, then what is that number?

A. 21

B. 76

C. 41

D. 74

Q. 32 Pipe A can fill a tank in 5 hours and B can fill in 6 hours. Pipe C can empty the same full tank in 3 hours. If all the pipes are opened together , then what portion of the tank will be filled after 6 hours?

A. 2/9

B. 1/5

C. 1/3

D. 2/3

Q. 33 Aman and Raman together can do a work in 40days. Aman alonee can do the work in 60 days. In how many days Raman alone can do the work?

A. 90

B. 120

C. 150

D. 105

Q. 34 The ratio of the angles of a triangle is 4 : 3 : 2. What is the measure of the largest angle (in degrees)?

A. 70

B. 80

C. 75

D. 60

Q. 35 A shopkeeper allows two successive discounts of 35% and 15% on selling an article. If he gets Rs 221 for the article, then what is the marked price of the article?

A. 400

B. 420

C. 380

D. 450

Q. 36 A trader gives a discount of 10% on the marked price. To earn profit of 62%, by how much percent should he mark the price of his goods higher than its cost price?

A. 80

B. 50

C. 60

D. 40

Q. 37 The ratio of two numbers is 9 : 2. If the difference is 91, then what is the smallest number?

A. 117

B. 13

C. 65

D. 26

Q. 38 Of three positive numbers, the ratio of first and second is 5 :7, that of second and third is 7 : 9 and the product of first and third is 18000. What is the sum of the three numbers?

A. 450

B. 420

C. 360

D. 340

Q. 39 The average of N numbers is 20. If a number 4 is removed, then average becomes 22.. What is the value of N?

A. 8

B. 10

C. 9

D. 11

Q. 40 By selling an article for Rs 352 there is a loss of 12%. What i s the cost price of the article?

A. 395

B. 450

C. 400

D. 475

Q. 41 A man sold 500 chairs and had a gain equal to selling price of 20 chairs. What is his profit percentage?

A. 12.5

B. 8.33

C. 4.16

D. 10

Q. 42 Sum of two numbers is 140 % of the larger number. If smaller number is 18, then what is the value of the larger number?

A. 27

B. 36

C. 45

D. 54

Q. 43 In a country 25% people are males. If the number of males is 6500, then what is the total population of the country?

A. 28000

B. 26000

C. 31000

D. 33000

Q. 44 The speed of boat in still water is 25 km/hr. It covers a distance of 45km upstream in 3 hours. What is the speed of the stream?

A. 8

B. 10

C. 12

D. 15

Q. 45 Raman goes to a place at a speed of 9km/hr and returns back at 18 km/hr. What is his average speed?

A. 15

B. 12

C. 14

D. 16

Q. 46 The population of a state increases at the rate of 10% per annum. If the present population of state is 439230, then what was the population of state 4 years ago?

A. 30000

B. 300000

C. 350000

D. 400000

Q. 47 The table given shows the number of cars manufactured by company X from year 2009 to 2016. (in lacs)

What is the percentage change in the number of cars manufactured from year 2013 to 2014?

A. 16.66

B. 33.33

C. 83.33

D. 55.88

Q. 48 The table given shows the number of cars manufactured by company X from year 2009 to 2016. (in lacs)

For how many years was the number of cars (in lacs) manufactured by company X more than 220 lacs?

A. 2

B. 5

C. 6

D. 4

Q. 49 The table given shows the number of cars manufactured by company X from year 2009 to 2016. (in lacs)

What was the difference between number of acrs manufactured in 2012 and 2015 (in lacs) ?

A. 75

B. 25

C. 50

D. 100

Q. 50 The table given shows the number of cars manufactured by company X from year 2009 to 2016. (in lacs)

In the year 2016, the number of cars manufactured was more than that of which of the following year?

A. 2013

B. 2015

C. 2014

D. none

Q. 51 Some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select “no error”.

As the country would lacking laws (1)/ and a regulatory framework to (2)/ steer the process. (3) No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 52 Some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select “no error”.

The PM weekend by the loss of her (1)/ majority in June election , now (2)/ faces a battle against politicians(3)/. no error(4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 53 Select the correct word to be filled in the sentence given with blank.

Had I reached earlier, I __________ have caught the bus.

A. will

B. can

C. ought

D. would

Q. 54 Select the correct word to be filled in the sentence given with blank.

Pallavi along with me _____ to Goa.

A. had going

B. is going

C. were going

D. are going

Q. 55 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

GOSPEL

A. THEORY

B. HYPOTHESIS

C. FAITH

D. DISBELIEF

Q. 56 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

HOODWINK

A. CHEAT

B. HONEST

C. LOYAL

D. PERMIT

Q. 57 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

IMBECILE

A. BRAINY

B. SMART

C. INTELLIGENT

D. IDIOT

Q. 58 Select the one which best expresses the opposite of word.

OUTLANDISH

A. alien

B. awkward

C. sensible

D. boorish

Q. 59 Select the one which best expresses the opposite of word.

IMPECCABLE

A. pure

B. clean

C. sinless

D. flawed

Q. 60 Select the one which best expresses the opposite of word.

PINNACLE

A. apex

B. base

C. climax

D. peak

Q. 61 Select the alternative for the idiom/phrase.

In a pickle

A. experiencing a difficult situation

B. earning money at the cost of other

C. taking advantage of a favorable opportunity

D. praising himself and others

Q. 62 Select the alternative for the idiom/phrase.

Trump card

A. that gives someone an advantage

B. fake identity

C. an unusual obstacle

D. an unforeseen liability

Q. 63 Improve the bracketed part of sentence.

The photographer whose camera was used to take the photos (agree to donate) any future revenue from the image.

A. agreement to donate

B. agreeing to donate

C. agreed to donate

D. no improvement

Q. 64 Improve the bracketed part of sentence.

Technologically, it was (one the) most advanced foundries in the world.

A. out of

B. one of the

C. between the

D. no improvement

Q. 65 Select the best substitute for the idiom/phase.

One who cannot make mistake.

A. infallible

B. reversible

C. negligible

D. eligible

Q. 66 Select the best substitute for the idiom/phase.

Murder of infant

A. germicide

B. infanticide

C. bactericide

D. fungicide

Q. 67 Select the correctly spelt word.

A. binoculor

B. binocular

C. byenocular

D. binoculer

Q. 68 Select the correctly spelt word.

A. ambiteous

B. ambitieus

C. ambittious

D. ambitious

Q. 69 Rearrange the parts of sentence in correct order.

Globalisation is the

P: of countries

Q: rapid integration

R: process of

A. PQR

B. RPQ

C. QPR

D. RQP

Q. 70 Rearrange the parts of sentence in correct order.

Producers need to

P: and regulations

Q: required safety rules

R: strictly follow the

A. PQR

B. RQP

C. RPQ

D. QRP

Q. 71 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

Childhood depression is not just a mood swing where a child can plainly snap ___________ of it. This disorder goes beyond the sadness of having a bad day and having to cope with it. It’s worse than dealing _________ a deceased parent or _______ of a friend when the child has to move. This _______ involves the brain, and affects the way the child feels, thinks, and acts. This disease is highly treatable if ____ early on and the child can avoid school failure, thoughts of suicide and the like. where a child can plainly snap ____ of it.

A. out

B. in

C. away

D. forward

Q. 72 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

A. up

B. with

C. off

D. on

Q. 73 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

A. loss

B. slap

C. rebuke

D. fight

Q. 74 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

A. disorder

B. blessing

C. system

D. innovation

Q. 75 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

A. caught

B. detected

C. lost

D. created

Q. 76 Which is the most important aspect of closed economy?

A. import off

B. export off

C. both import export off

D. none is correct

Q. 77 What is full form of NSSO?

A. National Safety and Security Organisation

B. National Statistical Survey Organisation

C. National Sample Survey Organisation

D. None is correct

Q. 78 How many members of Rajya Sabha are nominated by President?

A. 6

B. 9

C. 12

D. 15

Q. 79 Who administers oath of the office and secrecy to the Lok Sabha Speaker?

A. Chief Justice of Supreme Court

B. Vice President

C. President

D. Prime Minister

Q. 80 Which place of Indus Valley civilization is known as the Oasis of Sindh?

A. Dholavira

B. Mohenjodaro

C. Chanhudaro

D. Harappa

Q. 81 ‘One caste one religion, one god for man’ is the teaching of _________.

A. Rajaram Mohan Roy

B. Sree Naryana Guru

C. C. Kesavan

D. Mahatma Gandhi

Q. 82 Which landscape is not formed by volcanic activities?

A. cone

B. dome

C. cirque

D. lava cave

Q. 83 In which state Kakrapar project located?

A. Maharashtra

B. Rajasthan

C. Gujarat

D. Kerala

Q. 84 Which organelles in a cell is considered as a suicide bag?

A. centrosome

B. mesosomes

C. lysosomes

D. chromosome

Q. 85 Husk (outer cover) of a coconut is made of which tissue?

A. parenchyma tissue

B. sclerenchyma tissue

C. collenchyma

D. xylem

Q. 86 Which disease is cause by viral infection?

A. cholera

B. typhoid

C. diphtheria

D. influenza

Q. 87 Which statement is correct about the value of acceleration due to gravity at the poles?

A. it will be more than at the equator

B. it will be same as the equator

C. it will be less than at equator

D. it will be zero

Q. 88 Which is an incorrect pair?

Physical Quantity	SI Unit
1.	Length	Metre
2.	Mass	Kilogram
3.	Time	Hour

A. only 1

B. only II

C. ONLY III

D. both II and III

Q. 89 In which the length of word is measured in computer?

A. millimetre

B. centimeter

C. litre

D. bit

Q. 90 When two liquids in a mixture differ by their boiling points, which is best method to separate liquids?

A. chromatography

B. filtration

C. evaporation

D. distillation

Q. 91 Materials having the properties of both metals and non metals are called ______.

A. alloys

B. metalloids

C. noble metals

D. mixtures

Q. 92 Which is threat to environment?

A. growing plant

B. growing population

C. growing crops

D. frowing flowers

Q. 93 Which is not a Maharatna company of India?

A. NTPC

B. CIL

C. BEL

D. BHEL

Q. 94 Which scientist invented the Zip fastener?

A. W. I. Judson

B. Thomas Edison

C. A. L .Breguet

D. G.S. Ohm

Q. 95 Of Which international game event is “Citius, Altius, Fortius” the motto?

A. football world cup

B. cricket world cup

C. wimbledon

D. olympics

Q. 96 Who build Jama Masjid of Delhi?Qutu

A. Qutubud – din Aibak

B. Akbar

C. Jahangir

D. Shahjahan

Q. 97 Grammy Award is given in which field?

A. music

B. journalism

C. environment

D. medicine

Q. 98 Who is the author of “Final test : Exit Sachin Tendulkar” ?

A. Sachin Tendulkar

B. Dilip D’Souza

C. Yuvraj Singh

D. Kapil Dev

Q. 99 In which year United Nation officially came into existence?

A. 1942

B. 1944

C. 1945

D. 1947

Q. 100 Who was first Prime Minister of Pakistan?

A. Muhammad Ali Jinnah

B. Liaquat Ali Khan

C. Ayub Khan

D. Zulfikar Ali Bhutto

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	D	A	A	A	A	A	D	A	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	B	D	D	D	A	C	B	C	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	B	B	D	C	C	B	C	D	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	B	B	B	A	A	D	B	C	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	C	B	B	B	B	A	D	D	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	A	D	B	C	A	D	C	D	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	A	C	B	A	B	B	D	D	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	B	A	A	B	C	C	C	C	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	C	C	C	B	D	A	C	D	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	B	C	A	D	D	A	B	C	B

SSC MTS Tier-I 13 October 2017 Shift-III Previous Year Paper

SSC MTS Tier 1 2017 13 Oct Shift 3

Q. 1 Select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark from options.

A. 27

B. 28

C. 26

D. 25

Q. 2 how many triangles are there in the given figure?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 7

Q. 3 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.

The sets of numbers given are represented by two classes of alphabets in given matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix- I are numbered from 0 to 4 and of Matrix-II from 5 to 9. A letter from these can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘J’ can be represented by 42, 87, etc and ‘N’ can be represented by 04, 89, etc. Similarly identify the set for word ‘REACT’.

A. 34, 01, 00, 88, 02

B. 13, 21, 31, 02, 44

C. 34, 86, 69, 13, 68

D. 34, 23, 21, 43, 88

Q. 4 Select the one in which question figure is hidden/ embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 5 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 6 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figure is the right image of given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 7 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below. From the given opitons, indicate hoe it will appear when opened?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 8 By interchanging given two signs and two numbers which equation will be correct?

x and + , 2 and 6

A. 2 + 3 ÷ 6 x 4 =13

B. 2 ÷ 6 + 3 x 4 =10

C. 4 x 3 + 2 – 6 =11

D. 3 + 4 ÷ 6 x 2 = 9

Q. 9 If 8 @ 4 @ 2 = 1 and 27 @ 9 @ 3 = 1, then

49 @ 7 @ 7 = ?

A. 2

B. -1

C. 3

D. 1

Q. 10 Arrange the words in sequence in which they occur in dictionary.

1. Monday

2. Murder

3. Muggot

4. Monkey

5. Monster

A. 15432

B. 14532

C. 15423

D. 14523

Q. 11 Select the missing number from the given series.

5 ,8, 14, 23, ? , 50

A. 34

B. 35

C. 36

D. 37

Q. 12 A series is given with term missing. Find correct option for it.

pam , qcn , reo , ? , tiq

A. sfq

B. sgp

C. shq

D. sfp

Q. 13 Select the odd one.

A. shirt

B. socks

C. pant

D. sweater

Q. 14 Select the odd number.

A. 83

B. 93

C. 65

D. 35

Q. 15 Select the odd letters from the options.

A. mark

B. shell

C. mall

D. bark

Q. 16 Select the diagram which bests represents relationship among:

guava, apple, banana

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 17 Select the related word.

Time : seconds : : ? : ?

A. distance : kilometre

B. speed : time

C. pressure : seconds

D. temperature : metre

Q. 18 Select the related number.

288 : 72 : : 576 : ?

A. 500

B. 144

C. 140

D. 134

Q. 19 Select the related letters.

mate : ncug : : goat : ?

A. iqbv

B. hpbu

C. ipcv

D. hqbv

Q. 20 Select the word which cannot be formed using letters of given word.

IMPATIENCE

A. TIME

B. CRATE

C. TAPE

D. MATE

Q. 21 In a row of 67 students, B is 24th from left end. What is his place from the right end?

A. 43

B. 44

C. 42

D. 45

Q. 22 P is brother of Q. Q is sister of R. R is is son of S. T is sister of S. How is T related to Q?

A. aunty

B. mother

C. sister

D. grandmother

STATEMENTS:

I. Some W are V.

II. All V are T.

CONCLUSIONS:

I. Some T are W.

II. Some V are not W.

A. only I follows.

B. only II follows.

C. both follows

D. none follows

Q. 24 In a certain code language, ‘ACID’ is written as ‘ BELH’. How is ‘LETS’ written in that code language?

A. MGWW

B. MFWW

C. MGWV

D. NGYW

Q. 25 In a certain code language, ‘CUP’ is written as ‘ 45’ and ‘CUM’ is written as ’42’. How is ‘ICE’ written in that code language?

A. 22

B. 23

C. 20

D. 17

Q. 26 Irfan bought a chair for Rs 517 with a discount of 6% on the marked price. Find the marked price of the chair.

A. 580

B. 520

C. 550

D. 540

Q. 27 The sum of all odd whole numbers between 8 and 32 is _____.

A. 240

B. 320

C. 360

D. 260

Q. 28 How many whole numbers are there between 52 and 356 which are exactly divisible by 6?

A. 49

B. 51

C. 53

D. 55

Q. 29 What is the sum of all 3 digit natural numbers divisible by 17?

A. 28736

B. 28632

C. 28832

D. 28732

Q. 30 When a manufacturer allows 10 % commission on the wholesale price of Rs 5000 for a particular item, he earns a profit of 25%. How much profit does the manufacturer earn on that item?

A. 1000

B. 800

C. 500

D. 900

Q. 31 A bus runs at an average speed of 32km/hr. If it completes 304km long journey with a break of 30 minutes, what is the total time taken during the journey?

A. 12 hrs

B. 11 hrs

C. 10 hrs

D. 9 hrs

Q. 32 Find value of (62% of 650) + (45% of 340).

A. 556

B. 506

C. 553

D. 453

Q. 33 A can do a piece of work in 4 days. B and C together can do it in 3 days, while A and C together can do it in 2 days. How many days will B take to do the work alone?

A. 8 days

B. 12 days

C. 10 days

D. 16 days

Q. 34 The average of 5 , 7, 12, 15 and X is 10. What will be the value of Y if the average of 9, 12, 13, 17, X and Y is 14.

A. 12

B. 13

C. 20

D. 22

Q. 35 A shopkeeper offers 23% discount on a bag with marked price of Rs4500.. If he stil earns profit of Rs 600, what is the cost price of bag?

A. 3900

B. 2865

C. 2965

D. 3465

Q. 36 The total surface area of a cube is 726 cm². What is the volume of this cube?

A. 1231 cm³

B. 1331cm³

C. 1431cm³

D. 1531cm³

Q. 37 What least number must be added to 748 so that the sum is completely divisible by 59?

A. 21

B. 13

C. 19

D. 7

Q. 38 What will be the annual simple interest rate if a principal amount of Rs 88,000 become Rs 1,61,920 in 6 years?

A. 11%

B. 12%

C. 13%

D. 14%

Q. 39 The monthly salaries of A and B are in the ratio 5 : 6. If both of them get a salary increment of Rs2000 per month, the new ration becomes 11 : 13. What is the new monthly salary of A?

A. Rs 20000

B. Rs 24000

C. Rs 26000

D. Rs 22000

Q. 40 A bullock cart covers a distance of 10 kms in 4 hours. What is the average speed of the bullock cart?

A. 8 km

B. 2.5 km/hr

C. 2 km/hr

D. 10 km/hr

Q. 41 How many of the following numbers are divisible by 232?

192, 1008, 832, 656, 1264, 1822

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Q. 42 A shopkeeper buys a dozen umbrella for Rs1200. Two of the umbrellas were damaged during transportation. Find his profit percentage, if he sells rest of the umbrellas at Rs 150 each?

A. 5%

B. 8%

C. 3.5%

D. 4.5%

Q. 43 A shopkeeper buys a dozen umbrella for Rs 1200. Two of the umbrellas were damaged during transportation. Find his profit percentage, if he sells rest of the umbrella at Rs 150 each?

A. 20%

B. 15%

C. 25%

D. 10%

Q. 44 Rahul does complete a work in 25 hours. If Rajesh is 25% more efficient than Rahul then how much hours will Rajesh take to complete the same work?

A. 20hrs

B. 30hrs

C. 21hrs

D. 22hrs

Q. 45 If Rs 1638 is divided in the ration of 8 : 7 : 11 among A, B ,C respectively, what will be the share of C?

A. Rs 693

B. Rs 504

C. Rs 593

D. Rs 441

Q. 46 The largest 5- digit number divisible by 21 is ______.

A. 99981

B. 9988

C. 9991

D. 9993

Q. 47 A household spend 20% of their monthly food expenses on fruits. If the monthly food expense of the family is Rs 7500, answer the following questions on the basis of pie chart showing the share of expenses on different fruits in a particular month. What is the amount spent on apple in the particular month?

A. Rs 345

B. Rs 360

C. Rs 375

D. Rs 355

Q. 48 A household spend 20% of their monthly food expenses on fruits. If the monthly food expense of the family is Rs 7500, answer the following questions on the basis of pie chart showing the share of expenses on different fruits in a particular month. How much more amount is spent on banana than orange?

A. rs 120

B. rs 90

C. rs 300

D. rs 900

Q. 49 A household spend 20% of their monthly food expenses on fruits. If the monthly food expense of the family is Rs 7500, answer the following questions on the basis of pie chart showing the share of expenses on different fruits in a particular month.

What is the ratio of amount spent on orange and grapes?

A. 4/3

B. 7/3

C. 15/4

D. 20/3

Q. 50 A household spend 20% of their monthly food expenses on fruits. If the monthly food expense of the family is Rs 7500, answer the following questions on the basis of pie chart showing the share of expenses on different fruits in a particular month. The amount spent on Pomegranate is how much less than spent on Orange?

A. rs 80

B. rs 75

C. rs 20

D. rs 60

Q. 51 Some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select “no error”. A pretty dispute between a police constable (1)/ and a motorcycle- borne couple late lead (2)/ to clashes between the locals and the police (3)/ nO error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 52 Some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select “no error”.

Residents from nearby areas came out to (1)/ protest against the police and a verbal spat turned into a (2)/ full – fledged clash amongst cops and the protesters (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 53 Select the correct word to be filled in the sentence given with blank.

Rohan stood ____ the crowd quite amazed.

A. in

B. from

C. for

D. into

Q. 54 Select the correct word to be filled in the sentence given with blank.

This is Ritika’s lunchbox, _______ is the empty one.

A. yours

B. your

C. you

D. yourselves

Q. 55 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

ALLURE

A. ATTRACT

B. PREVENT

C. WARN

D. DETER

Q. 56 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

COLLOQUIAL

A. CORRECT

B. FORMAL

C. FAMILIAR

D. STANDARD

Q. 57 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

CONTEMPLATE

A. DESIGN

B. NEGLECT

C. DESIGN

D. FORGET

Q. 58 Select the one which best expresses the OPPOSITE of word.

JUDICIOUS

A. ACUTE

B. RASH

C. CAREFUL

D. WISE

Q. 59 Select the one which best expresses the OPPOSITE of word.

CITE

A. PRESENT

B. OFFER

C. FORGET

D. ALLEGE

Q. 60 Select the one which best expresses the OPPOSITE of word.

CLASH

A. BATTLE

B. ARGUMENT

C. BRUSH

D. HARMONY

Q. 61 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of idiom/phase.

kick the bucket

A. to abuse someone

B. to emphasize

C. to die

D. to turn pale

Q. 62 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of idiom/phase.

bear the palm

A. to win

B. emotionless

C. in disgrace

D. with a heavy heart

Q. 63 Improve the bracketed part of sentence.

As Ministers, their mandate ( was to be) single – mindedly focus on results without having to worry about reporting a career politician.

A. will be to

B. willing be to

C. must to

D. no improvement

Q. 64 Improve the bracketed part of sentence.

But the choices (is also an) indication of the small talent pool before Mr. Modi.

A. might also an

B. are also an

C. can also an

D. no improvement

Q. 65 Select the best substitute for the idiom/phase.

Gold and silver before using for manufacturing ornaments.

A. stones

B. bullion

C. currency

D. money

Q. 66 Select the best substitute for the idiom/phase.

Anything tending to move away from center.

A. centrifugal

B. centripetal

C. centripede

D. circumcentre

Q. 67 Select the correctly spelt word.

A. accorate

B. accuearate

C. acurrate

D. accurate

Q. 68 Select the correctly splet word.

A. adequate

B. adecute

C. adecuate

D. edequate

Q. 69 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

Activities in the

P: guided by the motive

Q: private sector are

R: to earn profits

A. QRP

B. RPQ

C. PQR

D. QPR

Q. 70 Rearrange the parts of sentence in correct order.

Rohan and Ranjan

P: about the terms

Q: had finished reading

R: of credit in class

A. PQR

B. QPR

C. RPQ

D. PRQ

Q. 71 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

The history of the development of religion shows that as mankind moves from the _______ isolated village towards large, complex, ____ , industrialized society the character of the influence of religion on a man and his life changes. In the earlier phases of religion the _____ needs of mankind, those concerned with the necessities of life, played a dominant part. As man’s knowledge of natural forces _______, he learns to control them by natural methods, that is, by a detailed scrutiny of their causes and _____. mankind moves from the ______ isolated.

A. small

B. large

C. immense

D. big

Q. 72 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

The history of the development of religion shows that as mankind moves from the _______ isolated village towards large, complex, ____ , industrialized society the character of the influence of religion on a man and his life changes. In the earlier phases of religion the _____ needs of mankind, those concerned with the necessities of life, played a dominant part. As man’s knowledge of natural forces _______, he learns to control them by natural m ethods,that is, by a detailed scrutiny of their causes and _____. , complex, ________, industrialised

A. rural

B. urban

C. uncivilised

D. destitute

Q. 73 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

A. secondary

B. collateral

C. primary

D. higher

Q. 74 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

The history of the development of religion shows that as mankind moves from the _______ isolated village towards large, complex, ____ , industrialized society the character of the influence of religion on a man and his life changes. In the earlier phases of religion the _____ needs of mankind, those concerned with the necessities of life, played a domin ant part. Asman’s knowledge of natural forces _______, he learns to control them by natural m ethods, that is, by a detailed scrutiny of their causes and _____. natural forces _____,

A. shrinks

B. deteorates

C. drops

D. grows

Q. 75 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

A. symposiums

B. origins

C. summons

D. destructions

Q. 76 To grow more than one crop on a piece of land during the year is known as _____.

A. inter cropping

B. multiple cropping

C. mixed cropping

D. none

Q. 77 In India, what is the accepted average calories requirement per person per day in rural areas?

A. 2100

B. 2200

C. 2300

D. 2400

Q. 78 Who appoints the Judges of the Supreme Court of India?

A. Prime Minister

B. Chief Justice of Supreme Court

C. Vice President

D. President

Q. 79 For whom are the Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Indian Constitution?

A. For government employees

B. for all citizens

C. for all the senior citizens

D. none

Q. 80 Which places of Indus Valley was situated on the bank of Luni river?

A. dholavia

B. mohenjodaro

C. chanhudaro

D. harappa

Q. 81 Who has written ‘Satyarth Prakash’ ?

A. Lala Lajpat Rai

B. Dayanand Saraswati

C. Raja Ram Mohan Roy

D. Lokmanya Tilak

Q. 82 Which landscape is not formed by the sea- water?

A. lagoon

B. kayal

C. cirque

D. beach

Q. 83 To which project is Narmada Bachao Andolan related?

A. Sardar Sarovar

B. Bhakla Nangal

C. Rihand

D. Tehri

Q. 84 What is a fundamental function of Centriole in a cell?

A. protien synthesis

B. nucleolus formation

C. cell – wall formation

D. cell division initiation

Q. 85 Bone in most of big animals is an example of which tissues?

A. muscular tissues

B. connective tissues

C. epithelial tissues

D. nervous tissues

Q. 86 Ascaris, a kind of worm, lives in which part of the human body?

A. small intestine

B. large intestine

C. kidneys

D. liver

Q. 87 What is the value of acceleration due to gravity of the surface of Earth?

A. 2 m/s²

B. 4.9 m/s²

C. 9.8 m/s²

D. 8 m/s²

Q. 88 Speed of the sound is maximum in which medium?

A. air

B. water

C. steel

D. kerosene

Q. 89 One TB approximately comprises which data or space size?

A. 1000KB

B. 1024 MB

C. 1024 GB

D. 1000 GB

Q. 90 Which is heterogeneous mixture?

A. air

B. brass

C. vinegar

D. lime water

Q. 91 Which metal is found in liquid form at room temperature?

A. potassium

B. sodium

C. mercury

D. aluminium

Q. 92 Where are mangroves forests mainly found in India?

A. Kaziranga National Park

B. Western Ghats

C. Sunderban Delta

D. Bhakhra Nangal Dam

Q. 93 In which year, “Vande Mataram Scheme” was launched?

A. 2002

B. 2004

C. 2006

D. 2008

Q. 94 Which scientist invented Stainless Steel?

A. Alexander Graham Bell

B. Mendeleev

C. Max Plank

D. Harry Brearley

Q. 95 Which sport is Tour de France associated with?

A. football

B. golf

C. tennis

D. bicycle race

Q. 96 Which classical dance form relates to Tamil Nadu?

A. Kathakali

B. Bharatnatyam

C. Kuchipudi

D. none

Q. 97 Which state confers ‘Mewar Award’?

A. Haryana

B. Punjab

C. Rajasthan

D. Delhi

Q. 98 Who wrote the book “We The People” ?

A. Khushwant Singh

B. Nani A. Palkhivala

C. T. N. Kaul

D. J.R.D Tata

Q. 99 Which country is a permanent member of UN Security Council?

A. Brazil

B. China

C. japan

D. India

Q. 100 What is official language of Bhutan?

A. Dzongkkha

B. Gorkha

C. Bhutanese

D. Assamese

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	C	C	B	C	D	D	A	D	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	B	C	A	B	A	A	B	D	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	A	A	A	A	C	A	B	C	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	A	B	D	B	B	C	D	D	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	C	C	A	A	A	A	B	A	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	C	A	A	A	C	A	B	C	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	A	A	B	B	A	D	A	D	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	B	C	D	B	B	D	D	B	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	C	A	D	B	A	C	C	D	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	C	B	D	D	B	C	B	B	A

SSC MTS Tier-I 13 October 2017 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC MTS Tier 1 2017 13 Oct Shift 2

Q. 1 Select the number at place of question mark.

A. 6

B. 9

C. 8

D. 7

Q. 2 how many triangles are there in the given figure?

A. 5

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8

Q. 3 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given are represented by two classes of alphabets in given matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix- I are numbered from 0 to 4 and of Matrix-II from 5 to 9. A letter from these can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘F’ can be represented by 31, 67, etc and ‘L’ can be represented by 33, 75, etc. Similarly identify the set for word ‘ENACT’.

A. 01, 04, 14, 13, 97

B. 56, 32, 02, 03, 44

C. 97, 89, 86, 95, 98

D. 01, 89, 03, 68, 23

Q. 4 Select the one in which question figure is hidden/ embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 5 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 6 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figure is the right image of given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 7 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below. From the given opitons, indicate hoe it will appear when opened?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 8 By interchanging given two signs and two numbers which equation will be correct?

÷ and x, 10 and 5

A. 10 x 5 ÷ 3 + 1 = 7/2

B. 5 + 4 x 10 ÷ 1 = 29/2

C. 10 x 5 ÷ 4 ÷ 1 = 3

D. 5 ÷ 4 + 10 x 1 = -6

Q. 9 If 11 H 14 H 3 = 28 and 9 H 4 H 17 = 30 then 5 H 6 H 19 = ?

A. 30

B. 26

C. 28

D. 40

Q. 10 Arrange the words in sequence in which they occur in dictionary.

1.Inking

2.Innings

3.India

4.Indica

5.Inglot

A. 34512

B. 34521

C. 43512

D. 43521

Q. 11 Select the missing number from the given series.

2, 5, 9, 14, ?, 27

A. 22

B. 20

C. 21

D. 19

Q. 12 A series is given with term missing. Find correct option for it.

A, CD, FGH, JKLM, ?

A. NOPQR

B. OPQRS

C. OPQR

D. PQ

Q. 13 Select the odd one.

A. coffee

B. cup

C. tea

D. water

Q. 14 Select the odd one.

A. 1

B. 64

C. 216

D. 256

Q. 15 Select the odd letters.

A. PRT

B. ACE

C. MNO

D. MOQ

Q. 16 Select the diagram which bests represents relationship among:

Director, Actor, Book

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 17 Select the related word.

MONEY : BANK : : EDUCATION : ?

A. TEACHER

B. SCHOOL

C. BUILDING

D. STUDENT

Q. 18 Select the related number.

18 : 289 : : 15 : ?

A. 256

B. 225

C. 196

D. 144

Q. 19 Select the related letters.

AM : NZ : : BC : ?

A. YZ

B. XZ

C. XY

D. DO

Q. 20 Select the word which cannot be formed using letters of given word.

NOURISHMENT

A. TRIM

B. NOURISH

C. TRAUMA

D. SOUR

Q. 21 If the ratio of the present ages of P and Q is 3 : 4 and the sum of their ages 3 years ago was 36, then what is the ratio of their ages 3 years ago?

A. 5 : 7

B. 3 : 5

C. 4 : 7

D. 6 : 7

Q. 22 Present ages of R and S are in ratio 3 : 5 respectively. After 6 years this ration becomes 2: 3. What is the present age?

A. 18

B. 24

C. 30

D. 36

STATEMENTS:

I. Some X and Y.

II. All Y are Z.

CONCLUSIONS:

I.All Z are Y.

II. Some Z are X.

A. only I follows.

B. only II follows

C. both follows

D. none follows

Q. 24 In a certain code language, ‘RUST’ is written as ‘ PSQR’. How is ‘KENT’ written in that code language?

A. ICLR

B. ICMS

C. IDMR

D. JCLS

Q. 25 In a certain code language, ‘BUZ’ is written as ’59’ and ‘BIZ’ is written as ’47’. How is ‘FOG’ written in that code language?

A. 37

B. 38

C. 39

D. 40

Q. 26 What is the value of 76 + 77 + 78 …………….. 100?

A. 2100

B. 2120

C. 2200

D. 2380

Q. 27 If 2347X is completely divisible by 4, then what is the value of X?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 2 or 6

Q. 28 Which number is divisible by 6 ?

A. 354324

B. 533212

C. 93242

D. 85232

Q. 29 Which of the following statement is true?

I. is even.

II. is odd.

A. only I

B. only II

C. both I and II

D. none

Q. 30 What is the value of 25 ÷5 – 2 x 4 + 10 ?

A. 5

B. 7

C. 8

D. 17

Q. 31 If 439 x 441 x 443 is divisible by 6, then what will be the remainder?

A. 5

B. 1

C. 3

D. 2

Q. 32 Two pipes A and B can fill tank in 60 minute and 75 minutes respectively. Pipe C can alone empty the same tank in 100 minutes. If all three pipes are opened together , then in how much minutes tank will fill?

A. 100

B. 50

C. 75

D. 80

Q. 33 A pipe can fill a tank in 140 hours. Due to the leak in its bottom, the tank is filled in 160 hours. If the tank is full, then that leak can empty the tank in how many hours?

A. 1000

B. 1500

C. 1120

D. 1200

Q. 34 What is the area (in cm²) of an equilateral triangle whose side is 14 cm?

A. 28√3

B. 50√3

C. 49√3

D. 51√3

Q. 35 A merchant purchases a watch for Rs 600 and fixes its marked price in such a way that after allowing a discount of 20%, he earns a profit of 10%. What is the marked price (in Rs) of the watch?

A. 850

B. 725

C. 750

D. 825

Q. 36 The cost price of an article is 70% of the marked price. What is the gain percentage after allowing a discount of 16% ?

A. 15

B. 30

C. 10

D. 20

Q. 37 The ratio os two positive numbers is 3 : 4. Their product is 588. What is the smallest number?

A. 21

B. 28

C. 14

D. 35

Q. 38 B starts a business by investing Rs60000. After 5 months, D joins business by investing Rs 75000. At the end of year, in what ratio will they share the profit?

A. 169 : 144

B. 48 : 35

C. 14 : 11

D. 12 : 15

Q. 39 The average of N numbers is 16. If a number 10 is removed, then average becomes 17. What is the value of N?

A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 9

Q. 40 By selling 5 articles for 1Rupee, a man loses 20 %. If he sells 3 srticles per rupee, then what will be the profit percentage?75

A. 75

B. 66.67

C. 30

D. 33.33

Q. 41 By selling an article for Rs 510, there is a loss of 15%. What is the cost price in Rs?

A. 600

B. 580

C. 400

D. 450

Q. 42 A number is multiplied by 2/9 instead of 3/7. New value is what percent of expected value?

A. 62.66

B. 51.85

C. 57.21

D. 68.76

Q. 43 Total cost of 60 tablets is Rs 30000. If cost of each is increased by 20% and number of tables decrease by 20% , then what will be the total cost?

A. 28800

B. 27500

C. 30000

D. 25500

Q. 44 The speed of a boat in still water is 10km/hr. I t covers a distance of 50km upstream in 6 hours. What is the speed of the stream?

A. 1.2

B. 1.5

C. 1.6

D. 2

Q. 45 A 600m long train crosses a bridge 600m long in 60seconds. What is speed of the train?

A. 70

B. 72

C. 75

D. 65

Q. 46 What is the compound interest on a sum of Rs12000 for 2 years at rate of 10% per annum compounded anually?

A. 2520

B. 2400

C. 2620

D. 2340

Q. 47 The table given belows shows the sales of 2 companies Audi and BMW from year 2000 to 2005. In how many years was the sale of Audi more than that of BMW?

Year	Sales (In lacs)
	Audi	BMW
2000	20	22
2001	25	24
2002	15	20
2003	25	28
2004	14	20
2005	20	15

A. 2

B. 5

C. 1

D. 3

Q. 48 The table given belows shows the sales of 2 companies Audi and BMW from year 2000 to 2005. What was the percentage change in the sale of Audi from year 2000 to 2004?

Year	Sales (In lacs)
	Audi	BMW
2000	20	22
2001	25	24
2002	15	20
2003	25	28
2004	14	20
2005	20	15

A. 30

B. 80

C. 50

D. 60

Q. 49 The table given belows shows the sales of 2 companies Audi and BMW from year 2000 to 2005.What was the average sale in lacs of BMW from 2001 to 2005?

Year	Sales (In lacs)
	Audi	BMW
2000	20	22
2001	25	24
2002	15	20
2003	25	28
2004	14	20
2005	20	15

A. 22

B. 23.2

C. 27.2

D. 21.4

Q. 50 The table given belows shows the sales of 2 companies Audi and BMW from year 2000 to 2005. The sale of BMW in 2004 is what percent of the sale of Audi in 2000?

Year	Sales (In lacs)
	Audi	BMW
2000	20	22
2001	25	24
2002	15	20
2003	25	28
2004	14	20
2005	20	15

A. 120

B. 100

C. 135

D. 300

Q. 51 Some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select “no error”. Although he get to (1)/ visit a lot of places and (2)/ meet interesting people. (3)/ No error(4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 52 Some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select “no error”. What if you could get all the (1)/ benefits of readings without (2)/ giving up your other interests (3)/. no error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 53 Select the correct word to be filled in the sentence given with blank.

The moment _________ is lost is lost forever.

A. where

B. which

C. whom

D. who

Q. 54 Select the correct word to be filled in the sentence given with blank.

Rajesh called his cousin a _________.

A. layer

B. liar

C. mair

D. care

Q. 55 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

Jettison

A. Space bound

B. splessness

C. conjure

D. hurl

Q. 56 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

Laconic

A. Verbose

B. wordy

C. crisp

D. health

Q. 57 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of word.

MORBID

A. happy

B. outgoing

C. ranger

D. depressed

Q. 58 Select the one which best expresses the opposite of word.

ENRICH

A. adorn

B. better

C. reduce

D. build

Q. 59 Select the one which best expresses the opposite of word.

INSERT

A. active

B. asleep

C. dull

D. idle

Q. 60 Select the one which best expresses the opposite of word.

SECURE

A. safe

B. endangered

C. immune

D. protected

Q. 61 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of idiom/phase.

be on the square

A. to be away from home

B. to make someone fool

C. to squander money

D. to act and speak honestly

Q. 62 Select the one which best expresses the meaning of phase.

let the cat out of the bag

A. reveal a secret carelessly or by mistake

B. talking ignorantly

C. to destroy at the end

D. to make use of time

Q. 63 Improve the bracketed part of sentence.

They have been hesitant to form ( ourselves) as a breakaway group for fear of being

disqualified for defection.

A. themself

B. themselves

C. itselves

D. none

Q. 64 Improve the bracketed part of sentence.

Reconciliation is (closed) to impossible now, although he has not been expelled from the group.

A. imposed

B. closing

C. close

D. none

Q. 65 Select the best substitute for the phase.

Speed of an object in one direction.

A. ferocity

B. capacity

C. velocity

D. felicity

Q. 66 Select the best substitute for the phase.

full of criticism and mockery

A. admire

B. affaire

C. satire

D. allure

Q. 67 Select the correctly spelt word.

A. familear

B. familiar

C. familar

D. famelear

Q. 68 Select the correctly spelt word.

A. envelope

B. envelop

C. envelap

D. enwelope

Q. 69 Rearrange the parts in correct order.

We had been told to

P; we can put our hands and feet

Q: and identify places where

R: first observe the rock carefully

A. PQR

B. RQP

C. QPR

D. RPQ

Q. 70 Rearrange the parts of sentence in correct order.

I tried to explain

P: them could understand it

Q: in Hindi but

R: but neither of

A. PQR

B. QRP

C. QPR

D. RPQ

Q. 71 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

Life In urban India is marked by wide – ranging disparity. There are residents who have ____ means of enjoyment but ______ people are so poor that they have to live in slums. Economic inequality, pollution and garbage are the _______ of urban existence. People also have to face lack of adequate water supply. Yet people want to live in cities because they get facilities for good education, healthcare, transport and so many modes of comforts and entertainment. There are also _____ opportunities for employment in cities ______ villages where very few people are gainfully employed. residents who have ____ means

A. unlimited

B. fair

C. pragmatic

D. circular

Q. 72 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

Life In urban India is marked by wide – ranging disparity. There are residents who have _____ means of enjoyment but ______ people are so poor that they have to live in slums. Economic inequality, pollution and garbage are the _______ of urban existence. People also have to face lack of adequate water supply. Yet people want to live in cities because they get facilities for good education, healthcare, transport and so many modes of comforts and entertainment. There are also _____ opportunities for employment in cities ______ villages where very few people are gainfully employed. but _____ people are so poor

A. long

B. some

C. least

D. good

Q. 73 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

A. boon

B. blessing

C. bane

D. resource

Q. 74 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

A. bad

B. worst

C. least

D. good

Q. 75 Read the passage carefully and select correct option to fill the blank.

A. unlike

B. similar

C. alike

D. example

Q. 76 The economic activities are divided into three sectors – primary, secondary and tertiary on the basis of ______.

A. employment conditions

B. nature of economic activity

C. ownership of enterprises

D. number of workers employed in enterprise

Q. 77 Which among the following result in connecting the market or integration of markets in different countries?

A. mass production

B. urban trade

C. foreign trade

D. tourism

Q. 78 Who is head of government?

A. president

B. prime minister

C. finance minister

D. foreign secretary

Q. 79 Fundamental rights in Indian constitution has been taken from which country’s

constitution?

A. U.S.

B. Irish

C. Australian

D. British

Q. 80 At which place did Gautam Buddha passed away?

A. Bodh Gaya

B. Kushinagar

C. Lumbini

D. Sarnath

Q. 81 The demand for separate electorate for muslims was conceded in which year?

A. 1906

B. 1909

C. 1919

D. 1922

Q. 82 What are the small pieces of rock which move around the sun is called?

A. asteroids

B. meteoroids

C. stars

D. satellites

Q. 83 What is the shape of Indian Ocean?

A. almost circular

B. S’ shaped

C. almost triangular

D. none

Q. 84 Who is ‘Father of zoology’?

A. Huxley

B. Aristotle

C. Lamarck

D. Cuvier

Q. 85 Curdling of milk in the stomach is due to action of_____

A. myosin

B. rennin

C. HCL

D. PEPSIN

Q. 86 Amount of O₂ normally carried by 100ml of pure blood is_______.

A. 50ml

B. 2 ml

C. 20ml

D. 5ml

Q. 87 Newton used the phrase quantity of motion for______.

A. momentum

B. force

C. speed

D. mass

Q. 88 When salt is properly mixed with ice. the melting point of ice _______.

A. decrease

B. increase

C. remains same

D. becomes infinite

Q. 89 Which is not example of extension used in computer?

A. doc

B. xls

C. fat32

D. htm

Q. 90 Metals are ___.

A. malleable and ductile

B. non-malleable and ductile

C. brittle and ductile

D. non malleable and non ductile

Q. 91 White phosphorous is stored in _____.

A. ether

B. water

C. mercury

D. petro;

Q. 92 The herbivore are called ______.

A. primary consumers

B. secondary consumers

C. tertiary consumers

D. none

Q. 93 Vittiya Sakshatarata Abhiyan was launched to make people aware about ______.

A. mutual funds

B. cashless economic system

C. financial inclusion

D. investment

Q. 94 James watt is famous for __

A. diesel engine

B. steam engine

C. electric motor

D. thermometer

Q. 95 Who was the winner of first ever formula 1 Grand Prix held in India?

A. Sebastian Vettel

B. Nico Rosberg

C. Lewis Hamilton

D. Michael Schumacher

Q. 96 Garba is famous dance of which state?

A. punjab

B. gujarat

C. madhya pradesh

D. west bengal

Q. 97 Who has won Dhyan Chand Award 2017 for hockey?

A. P.A. Raphel

B. Mariyappan

C. Sumarai Tete

D. Cheteswar Pujara

Q. 98 Who is author of ‘Dynasties of India and beyond’?

A. Inder Malhotra

B. HP Nanda

C. Amrita Pritam

D. Anita Desai

Q. 99 APTTA is transit trade agreement between AFGHANISTAN and ______.

A. Pakistan

B. Iran

C. Kazakhstan

D. Vietnam

Q. 100 India has signed an agreement to join global terror database maintained by the Terrorist Screening Centre of which country?

A. Pakistan

B. Britain

C. Russia

D. United States of America

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	C	A	A	D	C	C	C	A	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	B	B	D	C	B	B	C	C	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	A	B	A	B	C	D	A	C	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	B	C	C	D	D	A	B	B	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	B	A	C	B	A	A	A	D	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	B	B	B	D	C	D	C	A	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	A	B	C	C	C	B	A	B	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	B	C	D	A	B	C	B	A	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	B	D	B	B	C	A	A	C	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	A	B	B	A	B	C	A	A	D

SSC MTS Tier-I 13 October 2017 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC MTS Tier 1 2017 13 Oct Shift 1

Q. 1 In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

A. 20

B. 19

C. 21

D. 30

Q. 2 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Q. 3 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix- I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix – II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘J’ can be represented by 20, 96, etc, and ‘T’ can be represented by 12, 34, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word “FILL”.

A. 42, 02, 10, 56

B. 56, 65, 97, 59

C. 23, 02, 13, 77

D. 75, 99, 59, 10

Q. 4 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 5 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 6 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 7 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 8 If ‘B’ means ‘x’, ‘F’ means ‘÷’, ‘A’ means ‘-‘ and ‘L’ means ‘+’, then

12 L 18 B 3 F 6 A 1 = ?

A. 16

B. 21

C. 20

D. 24

Q. 9 If 9 @ 3 @ 2 = 28 and 11 @ 2 @ 1 = 28, then 5 @ 4 @ 5 = ?

A. 24

B. 35

C. 28

D. 20

Q. 10 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Rigid

2. Ripe

3. River

4. Ringer

5. Rip

A. 15243

B. 14253

C. 15423

D. 14523

Q. 11 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

1, 2, 3, 5, 8, ?

A. 15

B. 13

C. 14

D. 16

Q. 12 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

A, C, F, J, ?

A. K

B. M

C. Z

D. O

Q. 13 In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Cement

B. Floor

C. Wall

D. Roof

Q. 14 In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.

A. 362

B. 442

C. 26

D. 23

Q. 15 In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

A. MN

B. NM

C. AZ

D. BD

Q. 16 Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

Humans, Male, Teacher

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 17 In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Wall clock : Wall : : Carpet : ?

A. Woven

B. Warm

C. Wool

D. Floor

Q. 18 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

14 : 225 : : 16 : ?

A. 288

B. 289

C. 361

D. 256

Q. 19 In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

AD : BE : : MP : ?

A. NO

B. NP

C. NQ

D. MN

Q. 20 In the following question, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

SUPERSEDE

A. SURE

B. PRUDE

C. RUDE

D. DOSE

Q. 21 Paul starts walking from a point. He walks 12 km to the north. Then he turns east and walks 14 km. In which direction is Paul from his starting point?

A. North

B. South

C. North-West

D. South-West

Q. 22 A remembers his birthday is before 19th January. A’s mother remembers his birthday is after 17th January. On which date of January is his birthday?

A. 17

B. 18

C. 19

D. 20

Statements:

I. All blue are plates.

II. Some plates are red.

Conclusions:

I. No red is plate

II. Some blues are plates.

A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Only conclusion (II) follows.

C. Both conclusion follow

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor conclusion (II) follows

Q. 24 In a certain code language, “DARK” is written as “CZQJ”. How is “HORN” written in that code language?

A. GNQM

B. GNQO

C. GPQM

D. INQO

Q. 25 In a certain code language, “HIT” is written as “38” and “BIT” is written as “32”. How is “ION” written in that code language?

A. 38

B. 39

C. 40

D. 37

Q. 26 Rohit scored 44, 42, 62, 74, 40, and 26 runs in a six-match one day cricket series. What is his average score for the series?

A. 42

B. 46

C. 54

D. 48

Q. 27 Radha bought a dress for Rs 374 with a discount of 15% on the marked price. Find the marked price of the dress.

A. Rs 440

B. Rs 450

C. Rs 460

D. Rs 480

Q. 28 A shopkeeper offers 13% discount on a car tyre with a marked price of Rs 8800. If he still earns a profit of Rs 1200, what is the cost price of the tyre?

A. Rs 6450

B. Rs 6456

C. Rs 6654

D. Rs 6546

Q. 29 The sum of all even whole numbers between 13 and 43 is ______.

A. 440

B. 460

C. 288

D. 420

Q. 30 A house priced Rs 500000 is insured 70%. The house gets completely damaged in an accident and the insurance company pays 80% of the insurance. What is the amount paid by the insurance company?

A. 250000

B. 240000

C. 320000

D. 280000

Q. 31 A cloth seller sells his complete stock of an item and incurs a loss of 10 percent. What is his cost price for the stock if the total loss is Rs 3000?

A. Rs 30000

B. Rs 33000

C. Rs 27000

D. Rs 10000

Q. 32 Manoj does a work in 20 days and Sahil does the same work in 30 days. In how many days they together will do the same work?

A. 10 days

B. 14 days

C. 12 days

D. 16 days

Q. 33 A truck covers a distance of 1200 km in 40 hours. What is the average speed of the truck?

A. 30 km/hr

B. 40 km/hr

C. 60 km/hr

D. 45 km/hr

Q. 34 Find the simple interest on a capital of Rs 90,000 at a rate of 16.5% per annum for 3 years.

A. Rs 44550

B. Rs 42500

C. Rs 43550

D. Rs 44500

Q. 35 The total surface area of a cube is 1176 cm² . What is the volume of this cube?

A. 2744 cm³

B. 2644 cm³

C. 2544 cm³

D. 2844 cm³

Q. 36 A number when divided by 6 leaves a remainder 4. When the square of the number is divided by 6 the remainder is _______.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 37 What is the units digit in the product (813 x 986 x 471 x 603)?

A. 6

B. 4

C. 2

D. 3

Q. 38 The monthly salaries of A and B are in the ratio 9:10. If both of them get a salary increment of Rs 6000 per month, the new ration becomes 21:23. What is the new monthly salary of A?

A. Rs 38000

B. Rs 40000

C. Rs 46000

D. Rs 42000

Q. 39 The sum of 10 consecutive integers is 5. What is the lowest integer?

A. -1

B. -5

C. -4

D. -3

Q. 40 What least number must be added to 2535 so that the sum is completely divisible by 27?

A. 3

B. 26

C. 10

D. 12

Q. 41 A cyclist covers a distance of 8 kms in 30 minutes. What is his average speed?

A. 16 km/hr

B. 8 km/hr

C. 24 km/hr

D. 4 km/hr

Q. 42 Manjeet’s annual salary was reduced by 30% and subsequent year increased by 45%. What is the overall percentage change over his original salary?

A. 3%

B. 3.5%

C. 1.5%

D. 2.5%

Q. 43 A fruit vendor buys 5 dozen bananas for Rs 240. What should be price per pair of the banana so that the vendor can earn 25% profit?

A. Rs 10

B. Rs 8

C. Rs 6

D. Rs 12

Q. 44 Rakesh can do a piece of work in 20 hours. After he works at it for 8 hours, how much part of the work would be left?

A. 3/5

B. 5/3

C. 2/3

D. 1/5

Q. 45 How many whole numbers are there between 48 and 352 which are exactly divisible by 7?

A. 42

B. 43

C. 44

D. 45

Q. 46 If Rs 3870 is divided in the ratio of 14:12:15:4 among A, B, C and D respectively, what will be the share of B?

A. Rs 1132

B. Rs 1290

C. Rs 1032

D. Rs 1204

Q. 47 The pie chart below shows the distribution on land under various food crops in a village for a cultivation area of 3000 acres. Answer the question below based on the share of different crops as shown in the chart below.

What is the cultivation area for Maize?

A. 540 Acre

B. 510 Acre

C. 480 Acre

D. 490 Acre

Q. 48 The pie chart below shows the distribution on land under various food crops in a village for a cultivation area of 3000 acres. Answer the question below based on the share of different crops as shown in the chart below.

What is the total cultivation area under the food crops of Rice and Barley?

A. 1650 Acre

B. 1830 Acre

C. 1800 Acre

D. 1860 Acre

Q. 49 The pie chart below shows the distribution on land under various food crops in a village for a cultivation area of 3000 acres. Answer the question below based on the share of different crops as shown in the chart below.

Jowar, Maize and Wheat together account for how much cultivation area of the village?

A. 930 Acre

B. 990 Acre

C. 950 Acre

D. 960 Acre

Q. 50 The pie chart below shows the distribution on land under various food crops in a village for a cultivation area of 3000 acres. Answer the question below based on the share of different crops as shown in the chart below.

How much cultivation area is covered under Bajra and Maize?

A. 840 Acre

B. 870 Acre

C. 810 Acre

D. 960 Acre

Q. 51 In the following question, some part of sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Seeing a rainbow (1)/ is a sight (2)/ to behold (3)/ No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 52 In the following question, some part of sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

The poor girl slept in the attic, upon a hard straw mattress, (1)/ whilst the bed-chambers of the sisters (2)/ were furnishing with every luxury and elegance (3)/ No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

My family has always ______ me.

A. support

B. supported

C. supporting

D. supportive

Life is a jigsaw puzzle that is hard to _______.

A. solve

B. solved

C. solves

D. solving

Q. 55 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Longevity

A. Affinity

B. Broadness

C. Durability

D. Movement

Q. 56 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Aggravate

A. Decline

B. Acquire

C. Excited

D. Irritate

Q. 57 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Yearn

A. Strong desire

B. Extra

C. Unwanted

D. Muted

Q. 58 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Duplicate

A. Copy

B. Original

C. Alternative

D. Replicate

Q. 59 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Prior

A. Sufficient

B. Subsequent

C. Satire

D. Seductive

Q. 60 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Amiable

A. Crabby

B. Affable

C. Amicable

D. Cheerful

Q. 61 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of Idiom/Phrase.

Don’t put all your eggs in one basket

A. To put all your resources in one place

B. Don’t put all your resources in one place

C. To manage expenditure wisely

D. To be unwise about expenses

Q. 62 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of Idiom/Phrase.

Bite the bullet

A. To get someone drunk

B. Talking nonsense

C. Fight with others

D. Face unpleasant situation

There are many (kind) of people in this world

A. variety

B. sizes

C. lengths

D. No improvement

When we saw her last time, (she ran) to catch a bus.

A. was running

B. has run

C. had run

D. No improvement

Q. 65 In the following question, out of four given alternatives, select the alternative which is best substitute of the phrase.

a strong feeling that something is about to happen, especially something unpleasant

A. Experience

B. Premonition

C. Perform

D. Effective

Q. 66 In the following question, out of four given alternatives, select the alternative which is best substitute of the phrase.

A public officer appointed to decide cases in law court

A. Teacher

B. Judge

C. Doctor

D. Lawyer

Q. 67 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Glamor

B. Glamer

C. Glamour

D. Glamore

Q. 68 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Presure

B. Pressure

C. Precure

D. Pressur

Q. 69 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. Select the most logical order of sentences from among the options

The country

P: due to the

Q: new Prime Minister

R: is in dire straits

A. QRP

B. RPQ

C. PQR

D. QPR

Q. 70 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. These sentences, when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. Select the most logical order of sentences from among the options

There is

P: gap between

Q: a huge financial

R: the two families

A. QRP

B. RPQ

C. PQR

D. QPR

Q. 71 In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Inhabitants of the Earth have cleared ______ forests to make fields for growing crops. They have moved mountains to make ______ for roads and cities. They have built huge dams ______ rivers to turn valleys into lakes and they have built dykes to push back the sea and create more dry land to live on. Once everyone cheered at the progress that man made in changing his ______ like this, but now many people are worried by the ______ that such changes can bring. Inhabitants of the Earth have cleared ______ forests to make fields for growing crops.

A. beyond

B. away

C. absent

D. over

Q. 72 In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

They have moved mountains to make ______ for roads

A. room

B. margin

C. vacuum

D. sweep

Q. 73 In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

They have built huge dams ______ rivers

A. beyond

B. cross

C. across

D. opposite

Q. 74 In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Once everyone cheered at the progress that man made in changing his _______

A. environment

B. atmosphere

C. ambiance

D. ecology

Q. 75 In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

many people are worried by the ______ that such changes can bring.

A. benefits

B. advantages

C. agreements

D. problems

Q. 76 Which among the following is a characteristic of organized sector of economy?

A. Jobs are low-paid and often not regular

B. Employment is secure

C. Consist of small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the

government

D. There is no provision for overtime, paid leave, holidays etc.

Q. 77 What are loan from banks and cooperatives is called?

A. Formal sector loans

B. Informal sector loans

C. General loans

D. Commercial loans

Q. 78 The constitution of India recognises the right to water as being a part of the Right to life under

A. Article 15

B. Article 32

C. Article 21

D. Article 30

Q. 79 Who among the following is an example of Permanent executive?

A. Prime Minister

B. Finance Minister

C. Defence Minister

D. District collector

Q. 80 In which language did Gautama Buddha taught?

A. Hindi

B. Tamil

C. Sanskrit

D. Prakrit

Q. 81 Where did Bahadur Shah Zafar died in November 1862?

A. Delhi

B. Agra

C. Rangoon

D. Lucknow

Q. 82 What is the period of rotation of Earth around its axis is called?

A. Day time

B. Rotation period

C. Daily motion

D. None of these

Q. 83 Which among the following is NOT a type of mountain?

A. Fold Mountain

B. Block Mountain

C. Hidden Mountain

D. Volcanic Mountain

Q. 84 Antiscurvy vitamin is ______.

A. K

B. B₁₂

C. B₂

D. C

Q. 85 Choose an animal which possesses an open circulatory system.

A. Rabbit

B. Cockroach

C. Lion

D. Whale

Q. 86 The advantage of RBC’s being biconcave is

A. They increase surface area

B. They look good

C. They decrease the surface area

D. None of these

Q. 87 External forces _______.

A. are always balanced

B. are never balanced

C. may or may not be balanced

D. are always in equal

Q. 88 SONAR is based on the principle of _______>

A. echo

B. resonance

C. mass

D. velocity

Q. 89 What is the process of finding and removing errors in the program is called?

A. Assembling

B. Rectifying

C. Debugging

D. Encoding

Q. 90 Sodium bicarbonate is also known as ______.

A. Washing soda

B. Baking soda

C. Glauber’s salt

D. Lime soda

Q. 91 Water gas is a mixture of ______.

A. CO and N₂

B. CO₂ and H₂O

C. CO and H₂

D. CO₂ and N₂o

Q. 92 Which of the following shows unidirectional flow in an ecosystem?

A. Carbon

B. Oxygen

C. Nitrogen

D. Energy

Q. 93 From which state was the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana launched?

A. Bihar

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. West Bengal

D. Jharkhand

Q. 94 Who gave the theory of Atom?

A. Galileo

B. John Dalton

C. Euclid

D. Gay Lussac

Q. 95 Nitin Tomar’ is associated to which sports?

A. Kabaddi

B. Football

C. Hockey

D. Cricket

Q. 96 What is the typical style of temple architecture of South India developed by the Cholas called?

A. Nagara Style

B. Dravida Style

C. Cave Style

D. Greek Style

Q. 97 Who has been awarded the prestigious Mother Teresa International Award 2016?

A. Shaikh Abdullah

B. Zakir Naik

C. Dalai Lama

D. Malala Yousufzai

Q. 98 Who is the author of the book named “Meghdoot”?

A. Kalidas

B. Manu

C. Abul-Fazl

D. Tulsidas

Q. 99 With which country India has signed an open skies agreement, the first after the finalisation of the civil aviation policy?

A. France

B. Germany

C. Cuba

D. Greece

Q. 100 India and Pakistan have agreed on redesigning which Hydroelectric project?

A. Kishanganga

B. Miyar

C. Lower Kalni

D. Ratle

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	C	D	D	A	A	A	C	C	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	D	A	D	D	A	D	B	C	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	B	B	A	B	D	A	B	D	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	C	A	A	A	D	B	D	C	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	C	A	A	C	C	B	A	D	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	C	B	A	C	D	A	B	B	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	D	D	A	B	B	C	B	B	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	A	C	A	D	B	A	C	D	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	B	C	D	B	A	C	A	C	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	D	B	B	A	B	A	A	D	B