Category: SSC CGL

SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 31 Aug Shift 1 

Q. 1 Select the related word from the given alternatives: 

CURE : DISEASE :: HEAL ?

A. Illness

B. Injury

C. Recover

D. Sick

 

Q. 2 Select the related letters from the given alternatives:

DBCE : QOPR :: JLKI : ?

A. YWXU

B. WYXV

C. WXYV

D. WYVX

 

Q. 3 Select the related numbers from the given alternatives:

6 : 42 :: 12 : ?

A. 48

B. 72

C. 60

D. 84

 

Q. 4 Find the odd word pair from the given alternative.

A. High – Up

B. Past – Present

C. Often – Seldom

D. Fresh – Stale

 

Q. 5 Find the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. AOU

B. EOI

C. UIE

D. ALO

 

Q. 6 Find the odd number from the given alternatives.

A. 13

B. 17

C. 29

D. 87

 

Q. 7 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary and choose the one that comes first:

1. Temple

2. Tenant

3. Terminate

4. Temperature

A. Temple

B. Tenant

C. Terminate

D. Temperature

 

Q. 8 A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

NOM, QRP, TUS, ?

A. WAX

B. HUT

C. WXV

D. HTU

 

Q. 9 A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

1, 3, 7, 13, 21, ?

A. 27

B. 29

C. 31

D. 33

 

Q. 10 If it is Saturday on 27th September, what day will it be on 27th October of the same year?

A. Thursday

B. Sunday

C. Friday

D. Monday

 

Q. 11 The ratio of the ages of man and his wife is 4 : 3. After 4 years, the ratio will be 9 : 7. If at the time of marriage, the ratio was 5 : 3, how many years ago were they married?

A. 12

B. 24

C. 5

D. 8

 

Q. 12 From the given words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

ALTERNATIVES

A. ALTER

B. NATIVE

C. TEN

D. NATIONAL

 

Q. 13 If code P is denoted by 7, X by 9, M by 5, Z by 8, L by 2, T by 1, then ZLTPXM WILL BE

A. 812851

B. 821591

C. 812715

D. 821795

 

Q. 14 If 24 x 2 = 84 and 32 x 3 = 69, then 13 x 3 = ?

A. 38

B. 93

C. 16

D. 10

 

Q. 15 If ‘+’ means division, ‘-‘ means multiplication, ‘÷’ means subtraction, ‘x’ means addition and ‘<‘ means less than, then which of the following is false?

A. (10 + 2) ÷ 7 < (10 ÷ 7) + 2

B. (10 – 7) x 2 < (10 x 2) – 7

C. (10 x 7) – 2 < (10 – 2) x 7

D. (10 ÷ 2) + 7 < (10 + 7) x 2

 

Q. 16 Select the missing number in figure (1) from the given responses.

A. 1

B. 4

C. 9

D. 25

 

Q. 17 Ram went 20 metres to the north then turned towards east and walked another 5 metres, then he turned towards right and covered 20 metres. How far is he from the starting point?

A. 3 metre

B. 4 metre

C. 5 metre

D. 6 metre

 

Q. 18 One or two statements are given followed by two or more conclusions/assumptions, I, II, III, IV. You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statements.

Statements:

1. All goats are tiger.

2. All tigers are lions.

Conclusions:

I. All tigers are goats.

II. All lions are tigers.

III. No goat is a lion.

IV. No lion is a goat.

A. Only conclusions III and IV follow

B. Only conclusion I and II follow

C. None of the conclusions follows

D. All conclusions follow

 

Q. 19 In the question figure how many squares are there in all? Select from the given alternatives

A. 12

B. 14

C. 10

D. 11

 

Q. 20 In the following figure, triangle represents teachers, square represents merchants and circle represents social workers. Which number space represents Teachers who are social workers?

A. 3

B. 2

C. 4

D. 5

 

Q. 21 Which answer figures among (1), (2), (3), (4) complete the pattern in the question figure (A)?

 

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 22 From the given answer figures (1), (2), (3), (4), select the one in which the question figure (A) is hidden/embedded.

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown in figure (A). From the given answer figures(1), (2), (3), (4), indicate how many it will appear when opened.

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures (1), (2), (3), (4) is the right image of the given figure (A).

 

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 25 In this question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given in figure (1). The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., D can be represented by 02, 10, etc., and R can be represented by 55, 67, etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word ‘BEAR’.

 

A. 13, 11, 12, 78

B. 31, 22, 23, 97

C. 42, 34, 42, 79

D. 24, 40, 23, 67

 

Q. 26 Money market is a market for

A. Short term fund

B. Long term fund

C. Negotiable instrument

D. Sale of shares

 

Q. 27 India shares longest international boundary with which country?

A. Bangladesh

B. China

C. Nepal

D. Bhutan

 

Q. 28 The Residuary powers of legislation under Indian Constitution rests with

A. President

B. Prime Minister

C. Parliament

D. States

 

Q. 29 Appointments for all India Services are made by

A. UPSC

B. President

C. Prime mInister

D. Parliament

 

Q. 30 The people of the Indus valley civilisation worshipped

A. Vishnu

B. Pashupati

C. Indra

D. Brahma

 

Q. 31 The Upanishads are the

A. Great Epics

B. Story Books

C. Source of Hindu Philosophy

D. Law Books

 

Q. 32 Tsangpo is the other name in Tibet for

A. Kosi

B. Gandak

C. Brahmaputra

D. Ganga

 

Q. 33 The largest herbarium of India is located at

A. Kolkata

B. Lucknow

C. Mumbai

D. Coimbatore

 

Q. 34 Temperature of distant luminous bodies can be determined by

A. Mercury thermometers

B. Gas thermometers

C. Pyrometers

D. Colour thermometers

 

Q. 35 In IT terminology, failure is the kernel is called as

A. Crash

B. Crash dump

C. Dump

D. Kernel error

 

Q. 36 Which of the following institutions was not founded by Mahatma Gandhi?

A. Sabarmati Ashram

B. Sevagram Ashram

C. Vishwa Bharti

D. Phoenix Ashram

 

Q. 37 Which of the following State has become India’s first carbon free State?

A. Himachal Pradesh

B. Madhya Pradesh

C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Maharashtra

 

Q. 38 Energy travels from Sun to Earth through?

A. conduction

B. convection

C. radiation

D. modulation

 

Q. 39 C. K. Naidu Cup is associated with which of the following sporting events?

A. Tennis

B. Cricket

C. Hockey

D. Golf

 

Q. 40 Pump priming should be resorted to at a time of:

A. Inflation

B. Deflation

C. Stagflation

D. Reflation

 

Q. 41 Which is the highest award for gallantry during peacetime?

A. Vir Chakra

B. Param Vir Chakra

C. Ashok Chakra

D. Mahavir Chakra

 

Q. 42 At Barren Island, the only active volcano in India is situated in

A. Andaman Islands

B. Nicobar Islands

C. Lakshadweep

D. Minicoy

 

Q. 43 The transfer of minerals from top soil to subsoil through soil-water is called?

A. Percolation

B. Conduction

C. Leaching

D. Transpiration

 

Q. 44 Heat is transmitted from higher temperature to lower temperature through the actual motion of the molecules in

A. Conduction

B. Convection

C. Radiation

D. Both conduction and convection

 

Q. 45 Polio is caused by

A. Bacteria

B. Virus

C. Fungus

D. Protozoa

 

Q. 46 Which country is in the process of building the largest single Aperture Radio Telescope – FAST?

A. Japan

B. China

C. USA

D. Russia

 

Q. 47 The Kovvada Nuclear Park project is proposed to be set up in which state?

A. Rajasthan

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Karnataka

 

Q. 48 Fixed Foreign Exchange Rate can be changed by

A. RBI

B. SEBI

C. Ministry of Finance

D. FIPB

 

Q. 49 In bio fortification technique plant breeders use breeding to overcome

A. loss due to insect pests

B. Decrease in food production

C. Deficiencies of micronutrients and vitamins

D. Loss due to plant diseases

 

Q. 50 Which Institution has the final authority to interpret the Constitution of India?

A. Parliament

B. Supreme Court of India

C. President

D. Attorney General of India

 

Q. 51 A and B together can do a piece of work in 9 days. If A does thrice the work of B in a given time, the time A alone will take to finish the work is

A. 4 days

B. 6 days

C. 8 days

D. 12 days

 

Q. 52 The diameters of two cylinders are in the ratio 3 : 2 and their volumes are equal. The ratio of their heights is

A. 2 : 3

B. 3 : 2

C. 9 : 4

D. 4 : 9

 

Q. 53 A trader sold a cycle at a loss of 10%. If the selling price had been increased by Rs. 200, there would have been a gain of 6%. The cost price of the cycle is

A. Rs. 1200

B. Rs. 1205

C. Rs. 1250

D. Rs. 1275

 

Q. 54 In a city, 40% of the people are illiterate and 60% are poor. Among the rich, 10% are illiterate. The percentage of the illiterate poor population is

A. 36

B. 60

C. 40

D. 50

 

Q. 55 In which time will a 100 metre long train running with a speed of 50 km/hr cross a pillar?

A. 7.0 seconds

B. 72 seconds

C. 7.2 seconds

D. 70 seconds

 

Q. 56 If 2p/(p^2 – 2p + 1) = 1/4, then the value of p + 1/p will be

A. 8

B. 10

C. 12

D. None of these

 

Q. 57 If l + m + n = 9 and l^2 + m^2 + n^2 = 31, then the value of (lm + mn + nl) will be

A. 22

B. 50

C. 25

D. -25

 

Q. 58 The centroid of a triangle is the point where

A. the medians meet

B. the altitudes meet

C. The right bisectors of the sides of the triangle meet

D. the bisectors of the angles of the triangles meet

 

Q. 59 In a triangle PQR, the side QR is extended to S. ∠QPR = 72° and ∠PRS = 110°, then the value of ∠PQR is:

A. 38°

B. 32°

C. 25°

D. 29°

 

Q. 60 In a trapezium ABCD, AB || CD, AB < CD, CD = 6 cm and distance between the parallel sides is 4 cm. if the area of ABCD is 16 cm^2, then AB is

A. 1 cm

B. 2 cm

C. 3 cm

D. 8 cm

 

Q. 61 If tanθ + cotθ = 5, then the value of tan^2θ + cot^2θ is

A. 22

B. 25

C. 23

D. 27

 

Q. 62 When a number is divided by 56, the remainder will be 29. If the same number is divided by 8, then the remainder will be

A. 6

B. 7

C. 5

D. 3

 

Q. 63 If a shopkeeper marks his goods for a certain amount so as to get 25% gain after allowing a discount of 20%, then marked price is

A. Rs. 156.25

B. Rs. 146.25

C. Rs. 166.25

D. Rs. 150.25

 

Q. 64 The average of marks of 17 students in an examination was calculated as 71. But it was later found that the mark of one student had been wrongly entered as 65 instead of 56 and another as 24 instead of 50. The correct average is

A. 70

B. 71

C. 72

D. 73

 

Q. 65 The simple interest on a sum for 5 years is two-fifth of the sum. The rate of interest per annum is

A. 0.1

B. 0.08

C. 0.06

D. 0.04

 

Q. 66 If (x + 1/x)^2 = 3, then the value of (x^3 + 1/x^3) is

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. -1

 

Q. 67 If (a – b) = 3 and (a^2 + b^2) = 25, then the value of (ab) is

A. 16

B. 8

C. 10

D. 15

 

Q. 68 In ΔABC, ∠B = 70° and ∠C = 60°. The internal bisectors of the two smallest angles of ΔABC meet at O. The angle so formed at O is:

A. 125°

B. 120°

C. 115°

D. 110°

 

Q. 69 If θ be positive acute angle and 5cosθ + 12sinθ = 13, then the value of cosθ is

A. 12/13

B. 5/13

C. 5/12

D. 1/5

 

Q. 70 A cylindrical container of 32 cm height and 18 cm radius is filled with sand. Now all this sand is used to form a conical heap of sand. If the height of the conical heap is 24 cm, what is the radius of its base?

A. 12 cm

B. 24 cm

C. 36 cm

D. 48 cm

 

Q. 71 The angle of elevation of the top of a pillar from the foot and the top of a building 20 m high, are 60° and 30° respectively. The height of the pillar is

A. 10 m

B. 10√3

C. 60 m

D. 30 m

 

Questions: 72 – 75

The pie-chart given in figure (1) shows the percentage of literate and illiterate males and females in a state.

Q. 72 If the total number is 35000, then the difference between the number of literate males and that of literate females is

A. 3500

B. 3700

C. 400

D. 4500

 

Q. 73 The difference of central angles corresponding to illiterate male and illiterate female is:

A. 12.2°

B. 13.4°

C. 11.2°

D. 14.4°

 

Q. 74 If the difference between the two categories of people are represented by 36° in the diagram, then these categories are

A. literate males and literate females

B. literate males and illiterate males

C. illiterate males and literate females

D. illiterate males and illiterate females

 

Q. 75 If two categories together have a central angle of 169.2°, then these categories are 

A. literate females and illiterate females

B. literate males and illiterate females

C. illiterate males and illiterate females

D. illiterate males and literate females

 

Q. 76 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

CONSTRAIN

A. stress

B. contradict

C. restrict

D. obstruct

 

Q. 77 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word.

NONCONFORMIST

A. conventional

B. practical

C. fashionable

D. nomad

 

Q. 78 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word.

A. Erroneous

B. Eronneous

C. Erronous

D. Eroneous

 

Questions: 79 – 81

In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and choose the correct alternative. If the sentence is free from error, choose “No error”. 

 

Q. 79 Although I have never seen the girl before, (1)/ I recognized her at home (2)/ from her photograph. (3)/ No error (4)

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 80 There was a (1)/ comparison between (2)/ you and he (3)/ No error (4)

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Q. 81 He flowed into a rage (1)/ at the very (2)/ sight of that man. (3)/ No error (4)

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

 

Questions: 82 – 84

In the following questions, the sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative.

 

Q. 82 He is _________________ connected

A. respectively

B. respected

C. respectably

D. respectable

 

Q. 83 After retirement Surti lived ____________ Australia

A. in

B. at

C. over in

D. over at

 

Q. 84 He _________________ the low pay.

A. moan at

B. complain about

C. grumbled at

D. ran after

 

Questions: 85 – 87

In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

 

Q. 85 Pros and Cons

A. Professionals

B. Con artists

C. Professionals and con artists

D. Advantages and disadvantages

 

Q. 86 Once in a blue moon

A. Very rarely

B. Common

C. Predictable

D. Ordinary

 

Q. 87 Fish out of water

A. Dehydrated

B. Comfortable position

C. An uncomfortable position

D. Fish in an aquarium

 

Questions: 88 – 90

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences. 

 

Q. 88 A remedy for all diseases

A. Antiseptic

B. Antibiotic

C. Narcotics

D. Panacea

 

Q. 89 Of the highest quality

A. Productive

B. Reactive

C. Superlative

D. Relative

 

Q. 90 A place of shelter for ships

A. Harbour

B. Helipad

C. Port

D. Barrack

 

Questions: 91 – 95

In each of the following questions, a sentence/a part of the sentence is quoted. Four alternatives are given which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case of no improvement is needed, choose the option of “No improvement”.

 

Q. 91 His wife is “as tall if not”, taller than him

A. as tall as, if not

B. as taller if not

C. not as tall but as

D. No improvement

 

Q. 92 He is a fast bowler of repute, but “his yesterday’s performance” was not up to the mark.

A. performance for yesterday

B. yesterday performance

C. performances for yesterday

D. No improvement

 

Q. 93 Owing to his respiratory problems the doctor has told him “to refrain from” smoking. 

A. to not refrain from

B. to refrain to

C. to refrain not from

D. No improvement

 

Q. 94 He “is suffering” from fever for a week.

A. was suffering

B. had suffering

C. has been suffering

D. No improvement

 

Q. 95 None knows how it “was happened”

A. was happen

B. has happened

C. happened

D. No improvement

 

Questions: 96 – 100

The snowstorm was getting worse. White flakes whirled around us as we fought our way against the wind. I had almost given up hope of sheltering, when we found an abandoned log cabin in front of us. I squeezed through the door of the cabin and stepped cautiously inside with Jane close behind me. It was dark and musty-smelling, but at least it was sheltered and dry. Glad to be out of the storm, we settled down on the dusty floor to wait for a break in the weather. “What’s this?” asked Jane curiously. Her hand closing over something shiny. She held it up to the weak ray of light that pierced the gloom. A gold necklace glittered and shone. Its ruby pendant was a lustrous wine-red in the faint beam. Strangely, there was no dust on the necklace. It was almost as though it had dropped from the throat of its owner moments ago. We gazed at each other speechlessly. What strange mystery had we accidently stumbled upon?

 

Q. 96 What had the writer given up hope?

A. To be able to withstand this snowstorm

B. To be able to fight her way against the wind

C. That the snowstorm would improve

D. To find shelter from the wind

 

Q. 97 What did the two friends find while searching for shelter?

A. A haunted hut

B. A deserted hut

C. A very old hut

D. A very small hut

 

Q. 98 Why did the writer step cautiously inside the cabin?

A. Because she was feeling so cold that her legs had become numb

B. Because she could not see clearly in the dark

C. Because the wind made it difficulty for her to enter quickly

D. Because the cabin was very dusty

 

Q. 99 What did Jane find?

A. A necklace made of gold

B. A necklace made of red ruby

C. A red-coloured necklace

D. A golden necklace with a pendant on it

 

Q. 100 What was the strange thing about the necklace?

A. It was made of marble

B. It was pink in colour

C. There was no dust in it

D. There was a picture on the pendant

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	B	D	A	D	D	D	C	C	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	D	D	B	C	D	C	C	B	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	D	D	A	D	A	A	C	B	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	C	A	C	A	C	A	C	B	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	A	C	B	B	B	C	C	C	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	D	C	B	C	B	C	A	A	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	C	A	C	B	A	B	A	B	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	A	D	A	A	C	A	A	A	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	A	C	A	C	D	A	C	D	C	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	D	D	C	C	D	B	B	D	C

SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 30 Aug Shift 1 

Q. 1 Select the related word from the given alternatives:

Flow : River : : Stagnant : ?

A. Pond

B. Rain

C. Stream

D. Canal

 

Q. 2 Select the related letters from the given alternatives:

AEIM : BFJN : : CGKO : ?

A. DHLP

B. ZVRP

C. BCDK

D. MPQR

 

Q. 3 Select the related number from the given alternatives:

24 : 60 : : 210 : ?

A. 348

B. 336

C. 340

D. 326

 

Q. 4 Find the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Shimla

B. Ooty

C. Darjeeling

D. Agra

 

Q. 5 Find the odd number from the given alternatives

A. 64

B. 900

C. 343

D. 1000

 

Q. 6 Find the odd letters from the given alternatives

A. NSWX

B. KPSU

C. HMQR

D. EJNO

 

Q. 7 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary

1. Maternity

2. Matriarchy

3. Matchbox

4. Matricide

A. 3, 1, 2, 4

B. 4, 3, 1, 2

C. 3, 4, 1, 2

D. 1, 3, 4, 2

 

Q. 8 A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

EDBA, KJHG, QPNM, ?

A. WVTS

B. WXUV

C. WVST

D. WVTX

 

Q. 9 A series is given, with one term missing, Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

463,452,439,424,?

A. 407

B. 413

C. 419

D. 411

 

Q. 10 At present, the ratio between the ages of Arun and Deepak is 4 : 3. After 6 years, Arun’s age will be 26 years. What is the age of Deepak at present?

A. 12 years

B. 15 years

C. 19 1/2 years

D. 25 years

 

Q. 11 X is the husband of Y. W is the daughter of X. Z is the husband of W. N is the daughter of Z. What is the relationship of N to Y?

A. Cousin

B. Niece

C. Daughter

D. Granddaughter

 

Q. 12 From the given words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

DETERMINATION

A. DETENTION

B. DESTINATION

C. TERMINATE

D. DOMINATE

 

Q. 13 If GOODNESS is coded as HNPCODTR then GREATNESS will be coded as

A. HQZFBMFRT

B. HPFZUMERT

C. HQEZUMFTR

D. HQFZUMFRT

 

Q. 14 Complete the third equation on the basis of a certain system followed in the first two equations

5 * 4 * 2 * 1 = 1426

7 * 8 * 1 * 6 = 6817

9 * 3 * 7 * 5 = ?

A. 3795

B. 5397

C. 5973

D. 5379

 

Q. 15 If ‘-‘ stands for division, ‘+’ for multiplication, ‘÷’ for subtraction and ‘x’ for addition, which one of the following equations is correct?

A. 18 ÷ 3 x 2 + 8 – 6 = 10

B. 18 – 3 + 2 x 8 ÷ 6 = 14

C. 18 – 3 ÷ 2 x 8 + 6 = 17

D. 18 x 3 + 2 ÷ 8 – 6 = 15

 

Q. 16 Find missing pair of letters from given responses to replace{?)

A. HR

B. HS

C. HV

D. HU

 

Q. 17 X walked 20-feet from A to B in the East direction. Then X turned to the right and walked 6 feet. Again X turned to the right and walked 28 feet. How far is X from A?

A. 28

B. 9

C. 10

D. 27

 

Q. 18 Consider the given statement(s) to be true and decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the· given statement. Statement:

The situation calls for an immediate action

Conclusions :

I. The situation is serious.

II. Immediate action is possible.

A. Only I is an assumption

B. Only II is an assumption

C. Both I and II are assumptions

D. Neither I or II is an assumption

 

Q. 19 How many cubes are there in the diagram?

A. 10

B. 12

C. 8

D. 6

 

Q. 20 Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among classes given below North America, United States of America, New York

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 21 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 22 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 25 In this question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g. G can be represented by 04, 40, etc., and ‘K’ can be represented by 56, 75 etc. You have to identify the set for the word ‘HILL’

A. 56, 58, 03, 02

B. 55, 77, 69, 85

C. 56, 62, 03, 02

D. 57, 60, 10, 02

 

Q. 26 Who among the following is not a member of the National Development Council?

A. The Prime Minister

B. The Member of NITI Aayog

C. The Chief Ministers of States

D. The President of India

 

Q. 27 The rate of tax increase as the amount of the tax base increases is called

A. Proportional tax

B. Progressive tax

C. Regressive tax

D. Degressive tax

 

Q. 28 The supply-side economics lays greater emphasis on

A. Producer

B. Global economy

C. Consumer

D. Middle Man

 

Q. 29 The founding father of “Theory of·bureaucracy” was

A. F. W. Taylor

B. Max Weber

C. Elton Mayo

D. Herbert Simon

 

Q. 30 The United Nations Organisation came into existence in

A. 1947

B. 1950

C. 1945

D. 1946

 

Q. 31 Abdul Fazal was the son of which Sufi saint?

A. Sheikh Mubarak

B. Hazarat Khwaja

C. Nasiruddin Chirag

D. Baba Qutubuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki

 

Q. 32 French revolution broke out in the year:

A. 1917

B. 1911

C. 1789

D. 1790

 

Q. 33 The song “Vande Mataram” occurs in the book

A. Geetanjali

B. Anandmath

C. Indian People

D. Poverty and UN-British Rule in India

 

Q. 34 Which mosquito is the carrier of Zika virus?

A. Culex

B. Aedes

C. Anopheles

D. Culiseta

 

Q. 35 Geothermal energy is maximum utilised in

A. Iceland

B. New Zealand

C. Russia

D. Japan

 

Q. 36 Root cap is derived from

A. Dermatogen

B. Calyptrogen

C. Protoderm

D. Histogen

 

Q. 37 The blotting technique used to identify the isolated protein is

A. Northern blotting

B. Western blotting

C. Southern blotting

D. Cloning

 

Q. 38 Morphology of Chromosomes can be best studied at

A. lnterphase

B. Prophase

C. Metaphase

D. Zygotene

 

Q. 39 The ‘Choke’ used with a tube light is basically

A. an inductor

B. a capacitor

C. a transformer

D. a resistor

 

Q. 40 Curie s an unit of

A. Radioactivity

B. energy of Gamma rays

C. intensity of Gamma rays

D. work function

 

Q. 41 In Networks, WEP stands for

A. Wireless Equivalent Privacy

B. Wired Extra Privacy

C. Wired Equivalent Privacy

D. Wireless Embedded Privacy

 

Q. 42 For extinguishing fire, we use

A. Hydrogen

B. Carbon Monoxide

C. Carbon Dioxide

D. Marsh gas

 

Q. 43 The chemical name of quartz is

A. Calcium oxide

B. Calcium phosphate

C. Sodium phosphate

D. Sodium silicate

 

Q. 44 Continuous chain of mountains that rise abruptly more or less parallel to the coastline of India is

A. Aravalli

B. Satpura

C. Eastern ghats

D. Western ghats

 

Q. 45 The biggest reserves of Thorium are in

A. China

B. USA

C. India

D. France

 

Q. 46 Which of the following became the first country in the world to legalise euthanasia?

A. Belgium

B. Netherlands

C. Denmark

D. Canada

 

Q. 47 Which of the following countries won Euro Cup 2016 (football)?

A. France

B. Germany

C. Portugal

D. Iceland

 

Q. 48 Shivkumar Sharma is famous for playing the

A. Sitar

B. Flute

C. Santoor

D. Tabla

 

Q. 49 Who among the following is popularly known as ‘Blade Runner’?

A. Usain Bolt

B. Oscar Carl Pistorious

C. Carl Lewis

D. Ben Johnson

 

Q. 50 FORA administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs stands for ________?

A. Foreign Currency Regulation Act

B. Foreign Contribution Regulation Act

C. Foreign Contract Regulation Act

D. Foreign Cartel Restriction Act

 

Q. 51 The product of two positive integers is 2048 and one of them is twice the other. The smaller number is

A. 32

B. 64

C. 16

D. 1024

 

Q. 52 A and B can do a work in 8 days, B and C can do the same work in 12 days. A, B and C together can finish it in 6 days. A and C together will do it in

A. 4 days

B. 6 days

C. 8 days

D. 12 days

 

Q. 53 The diagonal of a cuboid of length 5 cm, width 4 cm and height 3 cm is

A. 5√2 cm

B. 2√5 cm

C. 12 cm

D. 10 cm

 

Q. 54 An article marked at Rs. 540 is sold at Rs. 496.80 in an offseason offer. Then the rate of discount offered (in per cent) is

A. 7

B. 7.5

C. 8

D. 10

 

Q. 55 Three numbers are in the ratio 5:7:12. If the sum of the first and the third numbers is greater than the second number by 50. The sum of the three numbers is

A. 125

B. 120

C. 95

D. 85

 

Q. 56 The average age of 10 children is 9 years 9 months. The average age of 9 children is 8 years 11 months. What is the age of the tenth child?

A. 17 years 3 months

B. 18 years 4 months

C. 17 years 5 months

D. 18 years 3 months

 

Q. 57 Gopi goes from place A to B to buy an article costing 15% less at B, although he spends Rs. 150 on travelling, still he gains Rs. 150. compared to buying it at A. His profit percent is

A. 4.5

B. 6

C. 7.5

D. 8

 

Q. 58 If the income of Mohan is 150% higher than that of Mahesh, then by what percent the income of Mahesh is less than that of Mohan?

A. 40%

B. 50%

C. 60%

D. 45%

 

Q. 59 The lengths of a train and that of a platform are equal. If with a speed of 90 km/hr the train crosses the platform in one minute, then the length of the train (in metres) is

A. 500

B. 600

C. 750

D. 900

 

Q. 60 The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 5% is Rs. 1600. The compound interest at the same rate after 3 years interest compound annually, is

A. Rs.2520

B. Rs.2522

C. Rs.2555

D. Rs.2535

 

Q. 61 If x + 1/x = √3 , then the value of x³ + 1/x³ is equal to

A. 1

B. 3√3

C. 0

D. 3

 

Q. 62 If a/b + b/a = 1, the value of a³ + b³ is equal to

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

 

Q. 63 If p² + q² = 7 pq, then the value of p/q + q/p is equal to

A. 9

B. 5

C. 7

D. 3

 

Q. 64 If x = 99, then the value of 2(x² + 3x + 3 ) is equal to

A. 10101

B. 10000

C. 20202

D. 10102

 

Q. 65 The centroid of a triangle ΔABD is G. If the area of ΔABC is 72 sq. units, then the area of ΔBGC is

A. 16 sq. units

B. 24 sq. units

C. 36 sq. units

D. 48 sq. units

 

Q. 66 In case of an acute angled triangle, its orthocentre lies

A. inside the triangle

B. outside the triangle

C. on the triangle

D. on one of the vertices of the triangle

 

Q. 67 If ΔPQR and ΔLMN are similar and 3PQ = LM and MN = 9 cm, then QR is equal to :

A. 12 cm

B. 6 cm

C. 9 cm

D. 3 cm

 

Q. 68 AB is a chord of a circle with O as centre. C is a point on the circle such that OC ⊥ AB and OC intersects AB at P. If PC= 2 cm and AB= 6 cm then the diameter of the circle is

A. 6 cm

B. 6.5 cm

C. 13 cm

D. 12 cm

 

Q. 69 If x² = sin² 30°+ 4 cot² 45° – sec² 60° , then the value of x (x > 0) is

A. -1/2

B. 1

C. 0

D. 1/2

 

Q. 70 If 7sin²θ + 3cos²θ = 4 then the value of secθ + cosecθ is

A. 2/√3 – 2

B. 2√3 + 2

C. 2/√3

D. None of these

 

Q. 71 An observer on the top of a mountain, 500 m above the sea level, observes the angles of depression of the two boats in his same place of vision to be 45° and 30° respectively. Then the distance between the boats, if the boats are on the same side of the mountain is

A. 456 m

B. 584 m

C. 366 m

D. 699 m

 

Questions: 72 – 75

Study the bar diagram and answer the following· questions.

Q. 72 Average marks obtained in Physics for two terms is

A. 80.5

B. 82.5

C. 72.5

D. 83.5

 

Q. 73 Difference of marks obtained in both the terms by the students is maximum in

A. English

B. Physics

C. Biology

D. Mathematics

 

Q. 74 What is the percentage of marks obtained in Chemistry for both the terms?

A. 76.5

B. 56.7

C. 75.6

D. 67.5

 

Q. 75 The ratio of the average of the marks obtained in Biology for two terms to the average of the marks obtained in English and Mathematics for first term only is

A. 43:92

B. 39:42

C. 29:34

D. 23:94

 

Q. 76 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

VENIAL

A. corrupt

B. superficial

C. respected

D. pardonable

 

Q. 77 In tμe following question, out of the four ·alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word.

DIFFIDENT

A. shy

B. brave

C. confident

D. meek

 

Q. 78 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly, Choose the correctly spelt word.

A. Monolouge

B. Monologue

C. Monologe

D. Monolouge

 

Questions: 79 – 81

Directions (79-81) : In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and choose the alternative corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, choose the “No error” option

 

Q. 79 We must go (1) / and congratulate him for (2)/ his brilliant success. (3) / No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 80 My brother (1) / along with his friends (2) / are going on a tour. (3) / No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 81 You have prepared well (1) / for the examination (2) / isn’t it? (3) / No error (4}

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Questions: 82 – 84

Directions (82-84): In the following questions, the sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative.

 

Q. 82 What good fortune! I found the very thing I was _______ !

A. looking in

B. looking to

C. looking besides

D. looking for

 

Q. 83 The swimmer _______ his clothes. and jumped into the river.

A. took off

B. took of

C. took out

D. took down

 

Q. 84 I will _______ to Singapore next month.

A. be travelling

B. be travel

C. travels

D. am travelled

 

Questions: 85 – 87

Directions (85-87): In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

 

Q. 85 Made light of

A. Did not hear

B. Treated it lightly

C. Blew away

D. Carried with him

 

Q. 86 Every inch a gentleman

A. Somewhat

B. Partly

C. Entirely

D. Calculatively

 

Q. 87 Gall and wormwood

A. A problem

B. Hateful

C. Useless

D. Hard to digest

 

Questions: 88 – 90

Directions (88-90): Out of the four alternatives, find out the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and choose the alternative corresponding to it.

 

Q. 88 A rough, violent, troublesome person

A. Tartar

B. Talker

C. Vagabond

D. Swindler

 

Q. 89 A brave, noble-minded or chivalrous man

A. Handsome

B. Robust

C. Gallant

D. Reckless

 

Q. 90 Obsession with books

A. Bibliomania

B. Megalomania

C. Xenophobia

D. Egomania

 

Questions: 91 – 95

Directions (91-95): In each of the following questions a sentence/ a part of the sentence is printed in bold and in double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the bold part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, choose the alternative corresponding to “No improvement”.

 

Q. 91 The farmers work “at the fields”.

A. on the fields

B. through the fields

C. in the fields

D. No improvement

 

Q. 92 The boss impatiently told him “to get up” with his work

A. to get on

B. to get by

C. to get under

D. No improvement

 

Q. 93 The judges “remarked on” the high standard of entries for the competition

A. remarked of

B. remarked at

C. remarked over

D. No improvement

 

Q. 94 He did not know how to solve the problem and “I did not either”.

A. neither do I

B. neither did I

C. either did I

D. No improvement

 

Q. 95 It is a place “far of here”.

A. far by here

B. far from here

C. far away here

D. No improvement

 

Questions: 96 – 100

Directions (96-100) : A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

Mary Garden, a. noted opera singer, earned a great deal of money during her career, but was constantly bothered by the demand of her father for money and always in large sums. Miss Garden would always give it to him, though often she would often complain that his requests seemed somewhat unreasonable. To this the stock reply was that he needed the money for a very special project. She was not going to refuse her father, was she? During the depression Miss Garden, like many others, lost her money in the stock market crash. Shortly afterward, her father died, and, much to her surprise, she was notified that he had left a large bank account in her name. He had saved for her every cent she had given him. The demands God makes on us may seem hard at times. But all the while. He, is actually helping us to store up an ‘eternal bank account’ in heaven-one which may balance ‘the ‘scales in our favour when we least expect it. Troubles are often the instruments by which God fashions us for better things.

 

Q. 96 Mary’s father made demands for __________

A. a small sum of money

B. large sums of money

C. no money

D. a reasonable sum of money

 

Q. 97 Mary ___ to the demands of her father.

A. could not refuse to pay any attention

B. wanted to refuse to pay any attention

C. finally refused to pay any attention

D. Initially refused to pay any attention

 

Q. 98 Mary’s father had ______ all the money he took from her.

A. gambled

B. wasted

C. invested

D. saved

 

Q. 99 During the depression Mary ________ in the stock market.

A. lost no money at all

B. lost her money

C. lost some money

D. lost lot of money

 

Q. 100 God at times, makes hard demands so that He ________ when we least expect it.

A. can balance the scales against us

B. can balance the scales in our favour

C. can harm us

D. can refuse to assist us

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	A	B	D	B	B	A	A	A	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	B	D	D	B	B	C	C	A	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	B	D	C	B	D	B	A	B	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	C	B	B	A	B	B	C	A	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	C	D	D	C	B	C	C	B	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	C	A	C	B	A	C	C	C	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	A	C	C	B	A	D	B	D	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	C	B	C	D	C	D	C	B	B	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	D	A	A	B	C	B	A	C	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	A	D	B	B	B	A	D	B	B

SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 29 Aug Shift 2 

Q. 1 Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

FUNGI: MYCOLOGY:: TISSUE: ??

A. Haematology

B. Cytology

C. Histology

D. Bacteriology

 

Q. 2 Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

BDFH : YWUS :: JLNP : ?

A. QOMK

B. ACEF

C. ZXUT

D. UVWX

 

Q. 3 Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

18 : 30 : : 36 : ?

A. 78

B. 64

C. 66

D. 68

 

Q. 4 For the following questions

Find out the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives

A. Arithmetic

B. Mathematics

C. Geometry

D. Algebra

 

Q. 5 For the following questions

Find out the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives

A. ACEG

B. BDFG

C. JLNP

D. SUWY

 

Q. 6 For the following questions

Find out the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives

A. 16, 32

B. 20, 40

C. 64, 81

D. 81, 162

 

Q. 7 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary

1. Weather 2. Weasand 3. Wealth 4. Weapon 5. Weekend

A. 3,2,4,1,5

B. 3,2,1,4,5

C. 3,4,2,1,5

D. 3,4,1,2,5

 

Q. 8 Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series

BFK, KOT, UYD,?

A. BFJ

B. ADG

C. FJO

D. PSX

 

Q. 9 Find the missing number in the series

2, 3, 8, ?, 112, 565

A. 565

B. 112

C. 27

D. 8

 

Q. 10 A woman pointing to a man said, “He is the widower of my uncle’s brother’s daughter.”

How is the man related to the woman?

A. Brother-in-law

B. Brother

C. Uncle

D. Nephew

 

Q. 11 P, Q, R and S are four friends. P is shorter than Q but taller than R who is shorter than S. Who is the shortest among all?

A. P

B. Q

C. R

D. S

 

Q. 12 From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letter of the given word.

IMPRACTICABLE

A. CAPABLE

B. PARTICLE

C. PRACTICAL

D. PEACE

 

Q. 13 If BROTHER is coded as GWTYMJW, then SCHOOL is coded as

A. WGLSSP

B. WGLSSQ

C. XHMTTQ

D. XHMTTP

 

Q. 14 If ‘+’ means subtraction, ‘÷’ means addition, ‘<‘ means multiplication and ‘>’ means division, then find the value of the given statement,

The value of 9 ÷ 7 < 8 > (4>2) + 5 will be

A. 32

B. 18

C. 16

D. 11

 

Q. 15 If 5 * 3 = 19 and 8 * 5 = 49, then what should 6 * 4 be?

A. 24

B. 28

C. 18

D. 16

 

Q. 16 Select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 45

B. 65

C. 70

D. 80

 

Q. 17 A man walks 7 km towards south and turns to the left. After walking 5 km, he turns to the right and walks 7 km. In which direction is he now from the starting point?

A. West

B. South

C. South-East

D. North-East

 

Q. 18 Consider the given statement/s to be true and decide which of the given

conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement.

Statement 1: When water is cooled, it turns into ice.

Statement 2: When water is heated, it turns into steam.

Conclusion I: Water is a solid.

Conclusion II: Water is a gas.

A. Only Conclusion I follows

B. Only Conclusion II follows

C. Both I and II follow

D. Neither I nor II follows

 

Q. 19 What is total number of triangles in the given figure?

A. 16

B. 32

C. 40

D. 12

 

 

Q. 20 Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among classes given below Men, Rodents and living beings

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 21 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 22 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the figure is hidden/embedded

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figure is the right image?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 25 In the question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column. e.g. N can be represented by 01, 14 etc. and A can be represented by 55, 69, etc. You have to identify the set for the word ‘GOOD’.

A. 02, 58, 68, 04

B. 44, 99, 76, 20

C. 31, 67, 76, 22

D. 33, 76, 86, 41

 

Q. 26 Among the following States, _________has the lowest birth rate in India.

A. Kerala

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Bihar

D. West Bengal

 

Q. 27 The Secretariat of SAARC is set up at ____________

A. Washington

B. Kathmandu

C. Hague

D. New Delhi

 

Q. 28 The outermost range of Himalayas is called_________

A. Kali

B. Shiwaliks

C. Dehradun

D. Kumaon

 

Q. 29 Who is generally considered to be the father of the Indian Renaissance?

A. Rabindranath Tagore

B. Raja Rammohan Roy

C. Mahatma Phule

D. M.G. Ranade

 

Q. 30 The longest river of peninsular India is__________

A. Narmada

B. Godavari

C. Mahanadi

D. Cauvery

 

Q. 31 ___________gives hardness to stainless steel

A. Zinc

B. Lead

C. Carbon

D. Tin

 

Q. 32 Which of the following is responsible for transport of food and other substances in plants?

A. Xylem

B. Phloem

C. Chloroplast

D. None of these

 

Q. 33 The washing machine works on the principle of ____________

A. Dialysis

B. Diffusion

C. Reverse osmosis

D. Centrifugation

 

Q. 34 Which is not an external storage device?

A. CD-ROM

B. DVD-ROM

C. Pen Drive

D. RAM

 

Q. 35 Which of the following is the correct description of the term sex-ratio as used in the context of the census of population?

A. Number of males per 1000 females.

B. Number of females per 1000 males.

C. Number of females per 100 males

D. Number of females in a sample of 1000 persons.

 

Q. 36 The atomic power station in Rajasthan is situated at:

A. Pokhran

B. Suratgarh

C. Rawatbhata

D. Chittorgarh

 

Q. 37 The Sahitya Akademi Awards are given for best writings in how many Indian languages?

A. 12

B. 15

C. 20

D. 24

 

Q. 38 Right to Privacy comes under______________

A. Article 19

B. Article 20

C. Article 21

D. Article 18

 

Q. 39 The foreign traveller who visited India during the reign of Shahjahan was______________

A. Thomas Roe

B. William Hawkins

C. Ibn Batuta

D. Manucci

 

Q. 40 The GST (Goods and Services Tax), recently passed by Government will be levied on which of the following products?

A. Petroleum Crude

B. Tobacco

C. Natural Gas

D. Aviation Turbine Fuel

 

Q. 41 Who was elected the Prime Minister of Nepal recently?

A. Keshav Kumar Budhathoki

B. Khadga Prasad Sharma Koli

C. Sushil Koirala

D. Pushpakamal Dahal ‘Prachanda’

 

Q. 42 Which lobe of human brain is associated with hearing?

A. Frontal lobe

B. Parietal lobe

C. Temporal lobe

D. Occipital lobe

 

Q. 43 Which of the following is not soluble in water?

A. Lead sulphate

B. Zinc sulphate

C. Potassium sulphate

D. Sodium sulphate

 

Q. 44 Activated Charcoal is used to remove colouring matter from pure substances by_______

A. Bleaching

B. Oxidation

C. Adsorption

D. Reduction

 

Q. 45 Chernobyl disaster is the result of pollution by_____________

A. Oil spill

B. Acid rain

C. Carbon dioxide

D. Radioactive waste

 

Q. 46 Which of the following caused radioactive pollution along the coast of Kerala?

A. Plutonium

B. Zinc

C. Thorium

D. Radium

 

Q. 47 In mammals, an important role of excretion is played by________

A. Large intestine

B. Kidneys

C. Lungs

D. Liver

 

Q. 48 The second Green Revolution aims at increasing agricultural output to promote

A. Availability of easy credit to big farmers

B. Co-operative farming

C. Inclusive growth

D. Development of rural sector

 

Q. 49 Which of the following causes rainfall during winters in the north-western part of India?

A. Western disturbances

B. Cyclonic depression

C. Southwest monsoon

D. Retreating monsoon

 

Q. 50 The ‘Blue Water Policy’ was introduced by the Portuguese leader_________

A. Francisco-de-Almeida

B. Alfonso de Albuquerque

C. Francis Caron

D. Francis Martin

 

Q. 51 If the sum of a number and its reciprocal be 2, then the number is

A. 0

B. 1

C. -1

D. 2

 

Q. 52 The area of a rectangle in 60 cm2 and its perimeter is 34 cm, then the length of the diagonal is

A. 17cm

B. 11cm

C. 15cm

D. 13cm

 

Q. 53 A cloth merchant has announced 25% rebate in prices. If one needs to have a rebate of ₹ 40, then how many metres of cloth costing ₹ 32 per metre he should purchase.

A. 6m

B. 5m

C. 10m

D. 7m

 

Q. 54 A profit of Rs. 960 is divided between A and B in the ratio 1/3:1/2. The difference of their profit is :

A. Rs.120

B. Rs.160

C. Rs.180

D. Rs.240

 

Q. 55 The average monthly salary of 19 members of a group is Rs. 16000. If one more members whose monthly salary is Rs. 20000 has joined the group, then the average salary of the group is

A. Rs.18250

B. Rs.16200

C. Rs.18000

D. Rs.16250

 

Q. 56 A T.V was sold at a profit of 5% If it had been sold at a profit of 10% , the profit would have been Rs. 1000 more. What is its cost price ?

A. Rs.20000

B. Rs.5000

C. Rs.10000

D. Rs.15000

 

Q. 57 The price of an article is decreased by 10%. To restore it to its former value, the new price must be increased by :

A. 9(1/11)%

B. 10%

C. 11%

D. 11(1/9)%

 

Q. 58 A moving train passes a platform 50m long in 14 seconds and a lamp post in 10 seconds. The speed of the train (in km/h) is :

A. 24

B. 36

C. 40

D. 45

 

Q. 59 If x² + 1/x² = 2, then the value of x – 1/x is

A. -2

B. 0

C. 1

D. -1

 

Q. 60 Choose the correct option

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 61 A chord of length 16 cm is drawn in a circle of radius 10 cm. The distance of the chord from the centre of the circle is

A. 8cm

B. 6cm

C. 4cm

D. 12cm

 

Q. 62 An angle in a semicircle is

A. 45°

B. 60°

C. 90°

D. 120°

 

Q. 63 If x = a cosθ+ b sinθ and y = b cosθ- a sinθ, then x2 + y2 is equal to

A. ab

B. a2+b2

C. a2-b2

D. 1

 

Q. 64 A can do a work in 12 days while B can do it in 15 days. They undertake to complete it together for Rs. 450. what will be the share of A in this amount of money ?

A. Rs.200

B. Rs.240

C. Rs.250

D. Rs.300

 

Q. 65 If x = √2+1, then the value of x4-1/x4 is

A. 8√2

B. 18√2

C. 6√2

D. 24√2

 

Q. 66 If 9x + 16y² = 60 and 3x + 4y = 6, then the value of xy is

A. -1

B. 1

C. -2

D. 2

 

Q. 67 If in ΔABC, DE ||BC, AB = 7.5cm, BD = 6cm and DE = 2 cm, then the length of BC in cm is :

A. 6

B. 8

C. 10

D. 10.5

 

Q. 68 Suppose that the medians BD, CE and AF of a triangle ABC meet at G. Then AG: GF is

A. 1:2

B. 2:1

C. 1:3

D. 2:3

 

Q. 69 Choose the correct option

A. 60°

B. 45°

C. 30°

D. 35°

 

Q. 70 A sum of Rs. 2000 amounts to Rs. 4000 in two years at compound interest. In how many years does the same amount becomes Rs. 8000.

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

 

Q. 71 Two ships are sailing in the sea on the two sides of a lighthouse. The angle of elevation of the top of the light house as observed from the two ships are 30° and 45° respectively. If the lighthouse is 100m high, the distance between the two ships is :(take √3=1.73)

A. 173m

B. 200m

C. 273m

D. 300m

 

Questions: 72 – 75

The following figure shows the number of students (in thousands) admitted and passed out per year in a college during years 2000 to 2004. study the figure and answer the questions.

 

Q. 72 The percent increase in the number of students admitted in the year 2003 over that in 2001 is

A. 133.3

B. 33.3

C. 40.3

D. 66.7

 

Q. 73 During 2000 to 2003, the ratio of the total number of the students passed out to the total number of students admitted is

A. 17/23

B. 17/6

C. 11/23

D. 5/7

 

Q. 74 In which of the two years, the pass percentage of students was between 60 to 70 ?

A. 2000 and 2001

B. 2003 and 2004

C. 2001 and 2002

D. none of these

 

Q. 75 The ratio of the number of students admitted in the year 2002 to the average of the number of students passed out in the years 2003 and 2004. is

A. 7:8

B. 8:9

C. 9:8

D. 8:7

 

Q. 76 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

REVILE

A. REVIVE

B. REVIEW

C. ABUSE

D. REVEAL

 

Q. 77 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

A. SPEND

B. REDUCE

C. SLANDER

D. SKIMP

 

Q. 78 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word and click the button corresponding to it.

A. Sanctaries

B. Sanctauries

C. Santuaries

D. Sanctuaries

 

Q. 79 In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the “No error” option.

He had already sent me message (A) / that his arrival (B) / was scheduled for Thursday (C) / No error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 80 .In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the “No error” option.

Science and technology and (A) / their fallouts do not (B) / complete human culture (C) / No error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 81 In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the “No error” option.

The angry bird flap (A) / her wings, flies a short (B) / distance and returns. (C) / No error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 82 The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

The clock has __________ for want of winding.

A. run down

B. run short

C. run past

D. run up

 

Q. 83 The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

Few people know that flowers use textures to __________ different kinds of insects.

A. signal

B. feel

C. attract

D. distract

 

Q. 84 The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

They abandoned their comrades __________ the wolves.

A. BY

B. between

C. on

D. among

 

Q. 85 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it.

For keeps

A. Himself

B. Away

C. Forever

D. Hid

 

Q. 86 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it.

Pale into insignificance

A. Seemed less important

B. Was less exciting

C. Was less hectic

D. Was dull and pale

 

Q. 87 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it.

With one voice

A. By one man

B. By one community

C. Unanimously

D. In disharmony

 

Q. 88 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it.

Drug which causes people to sleep easily

A. Poppy

B. Soporific

C. Beguile

D. Pedant

 

Q. 89 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it.

The branch of philosophy concerned with the study of the principles of beauty, especially in art

A. Artistic

B. Aesthetics

C. Ethics

D. Metaphysics

 

Q. 90 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it.

The study of skin

A. Dermatology

B. Dermatoglyphics

C. Stratigraphy

D. Oncology

 

Q. 91 A sentence/a part of the sentence is under double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to “No improvement”.

She has that “rare character” – the ability to listen to people.

A. rare ear

B. rare characteristic

C. rare sense

D. No improvement

 

Q. 92 A sentence/a part of the sentence is under double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to “No improvement”.

“Both of them have” not apologized yet.

A. Neither of them has

B. Any of them have

C. None of the two

D. No improvement

 

Q. 93 A sentence/a part of the sentence is under double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to “No improvement”.

The greater the demand, “higher” the price.

A. the high

B. a higher

C. the higher

D. No improvement

 

Q. 94 A sentence/a part of the sentence is under double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to “No improvement”.

His appointment as coach is yet another” feather in his wing.”

A. feather in his hat

B. badge in his hat

C. feather in his cap

D. No improvement

 

Q. 95 A sentence/a part of the sentence is under double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to “No improvement”.

The majority of the rain-fed Indian rivers, either dry up, or become “trickle” after the monsoon.

A. the trickle

B. a trickle

C. an trickle

D. No improvement

 

Questions: 96 – 100

A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it. It’s nothing short of a revolution in how we eat, and it’s getting closer every day. Yes, a lot of people are obese, and yes, the definition of “healthy eating” seems to change all the time. But in labs and research centres around the world, scientists are racing to match our genes and our taste buds, creating the perfect diet for each of us, a diet that will fight disease, increase longevity, boost physical and mental performance, and taste great to boot. As food scientist J.Bruce German says, “The foods we like the most will be the most healthy for us.” Is that going to be a great day, or what? All this will come to pass, thanks to genomics, the science that maps and describes an individual’s genetic code. In the future, personalized DNA chips will allow us to assess our own inherited predispositions for certain diseases, then adjust our diets accordingly. So, if you’re at risk for heart disease, you won’t just go on a generic low-fat diet. You’ll eat foods with just the right amount and type of fat that’s best for you. You’ll even be able to track your metabolism day-to-day to determine what foods you should eat at any given time, for any given activity. “Since people differ in their genetics and metabolism, one diet won’t fit all,” says German. As complex as all this sounds, it could turn out to be relatively simple.

 

Q. 96 What are scientists doing?

A. Racing in labs and research centres around the world

B. Asking us to start dieting

C. Creating the perfect diet for us

D. Try and make us taller

 

Q. 97 What does J. Bruce German say?

A. The food we like is not healthy for us

B. The food we like is the healthiest one for us

C. The most healthy food should be liked by us

D. Food scientists like healthy food

 

Q. 98 What is genomics?

A. The science which describes about maps

B. The science which describes an individual

C. The science which deals with years

D. The science that maps and describes an individual’s genetic code

 

Q. 99 Why won’t a common diet fit everybody?

A. Because different people eat different food

B. Because their genes are different

C. Since they differ in genetics and metabolism

D. Because of their different moods

 

Q. 100 What will be possible in the future?

A. Personalised DNA chips for people to assess their own inherited predispositions

B. You are at great risk for heart disease

C. You will not be able to determine what food you should eat

D. You will be unable to adjust your diet

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	A	C	B	B	C	C	C	C	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	D	C	A	B	B	C	D	A	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	A	B	D	B	A	B	B	B	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	B	D	D	B	C	D	C	D	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	D	C	A	C	D	C	B	C	A	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	D	B	D	B	A	D	D	B	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	C	B	C	D	A	C	B	A	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	C	B	D	A	B	C	D	D	A	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	A	A	C	D	C	A	C	B	B	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	D	A	C	C	B	C	B	D	C	A

SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 28 Aug Shift 2

Q. 1 Select the related letters from the given alternatives.

PZQW: NXOU :: FISK:?

A. EFPJ

B. FERI

C. DGQI

D. HKVM

 

Q. 2 Select the related word pair from the given alternatives.

Head : Human Body :: ?

A. Arc : Circle

B. Cube : Circle

C. Square : Circle

D. Triangle : Circle

 

Q. 3 Select the related number from the given alternatives.

7: 19 :: 10:?

A. 25

B. 21

C. 30

D. 23

 

Q. 4 Find the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Bigger

B. Faster

C. Greater

D. Taller

 

Q. 5 Find the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. AEIM

B. BFJN

C. CGKO

D. FDKN

 

Q. 6 Find the odd number pair from the given alternatives

A. 140 → 45

B. 110 → 35

C. 100 → 30

D. 80 → 25

 

Q. 7 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary

1. Forest

2. Fascinating ·

3. Fantastic

4. Fabulous

A. 2, 4, 3, 1

B. 4, 2, 3, 1

C. 4, 3, 2, 1

D. 2, 3, 4, 1

 

Q. 8 Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?

a_ ca_ c _de_ d _ad_

A. ddacdc

B. daadca

C. dadaac

D. ddaacc

 

Q. 9 Which number comes next in the series?

1, 5, 2, 6, 3, 7, ?

A. 6

B. 5

C. 4

D. 3

 

Q. 10 P and Q are sisters. R and S are brothers. P’s daughter to R’s sister. What is Q’s relation to S?

A. Mother

B. Grandmother

C. Sister

D. Aunt

 

Q. 11 A man was 32 years of age when he had his first son. His wife was 35 years of age when his son attained the age of 7 years. The difference between the age of the father and the mother is ________.

A. 7 years

B. 3 years

C. 5 years

D. 4 years

 

Q. 12 From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word :

ANNOUNCEMENTS

A. CEMENT

B. NOUN

C. COUNTER

D. TENSE

 

Q. 13 If RATION is written as OXQFLK then LUMBER may be written as __________.

A. KTLADQ

B. ITJABQ

C. OXPEHU

D. IRJYBO

 

Q. 14 A * B means multiply A by B; A @ B means divide A by B, A? B means add B to A and A=B means subtract B from A. Then find the value of 10 * 10 = 5 * 10? 50@10

A. 100

B. 45

C. 1000

D. 55

 

Q. 15 If 37 * 14 = 17,

69 * 33 = 34,

91 “* 125 = 72

then what should be 28 * 56 = ?

A. 26

B. 42

C. 34

D. 28

 

Q. 16 Select the missing number from the given responses

A. 110

B. 120

C. 130

D. 140

 

Q. 17 P started walking from North to South. She turned right at right angle and then again right at right angle. In which direction was she ultimately walking?

A. North

B. East

C. South

D. West

 

Q. 18 Consider the given statements to be true and decide which of the given

conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement.

Statements :

All states having dams face no water problem. One of the states has no dam.

Conclusions :

I. It may be facing water problem.

IL Dams solve water problem.

A. Only Conclusion I follows

B. Only Conclusion II follows

C. Both Conclusion I and Conclusion II follow

D. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows

 

Q. 19 How many triangles are there in this figure?

A. 10

B. 12

C. 14

D. 16

 

Q. 20  Which of the answer figures illustrates the relationship between:

Delhi, Sri Lanka, Asia

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 21 Which, answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 22 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 25 In this. question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below the columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from O to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘A’ can be represented by 03, 55, etc., and ‘P’ can be represented by 10, 99, etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word ‘VENU’

A. 69, 87, 32, 41

B. 85, 02, 20, 57

C. 11, 95, 89, 57

D. 69, 95, 22, 04

 

Q. 26 What is the phenomenon which established the transverse nature of light?

A. Reflection

B. Interference

C. Diffraction

D. Polarisation

 

Q. 27 What is the name of a memory buffer used to accommodate a speed differential?

A. Cache

B. Stack Pointer

C. Accumulator

D. Disc

 

Q. 28 What is contained in Chlorophyll?

A. Sodium

B. Potassium

C. Manganese

D. Magnesium

 

Q. 29 Epigraphy is the study of which of 1he following?

A. Coins

B. Inscriptions

C. Temples

D. Birds

 

Q. 30 Who won 1he Women’s Singles Wimbledon Championship 2016?

A. Angilique Kuber

B. Serena Williams

C. Venus Williams

D. Steffi Graff

 

Q. 31 In which field is B.C. Roy Award given?

A. Music

B. Journalism

C. Medicine

D. Environment

 

Q. 32 What is Damodar Valley Corporation?

A. Statutory body

B. Municipal Corporation looking after Damodar Valley

C. A private enterprise located in Bihar

D. A non-government organisation

 

Q. 33 Which is the highest gallantry Award in India?

A. Vir Chakra

B. Param Vishist Seva Medal

C. Kirti Chakra

D. Param Vir Chakra

 

Q. 34 Who was recently appointed as the first woman President of Nepal?

A. Sita Subedi

B. Pampha Bhusal

C. Unnila Rana

D. Bidhya Devi Bhandari

 

Q. 35 In which field is Pulitzer Prize awarded for outstanding work?

A. Environment Study

B. Science and Technology

C. Literature and Journalism

D. Intematlonal Understanding

 

Q. 36 Why is Carbon Monoxide a pollutant?

A. Reacts with haemoglobin

B. Makes nervous system inactive

C. It reacts with Oxygen

D. It inhibits glycolysis

 

Q. 37 Why is Rann of Kutch of India famous for?

A. Tidal and flats

B. Fertile soil

C. Dense Vegetation

D. All are correct

 

Q. 38 Commercial banks lend to which of the following priority sectors?

A. Heavy Industries

B. Agriculture, Small scale industries

C. Foreign Companies

D. State Government in emergency situation

 

Q. 39 What is the accounting year of the Reserve Bank of India?

A. April-March

B. July-June

C. October-September

D. January-December

 

Q. 40 What is the position of the Earth when it is at the greatest distance from the sun?

A. Aphelion

B. Antipode

C. Perihelion

D. Aldiate

 

Q. 41 The biogas used for cooking is a mixture of which of the following?

A. Carbon dioxide and oxygen

B. isobutane and propane

C. Methane and carbon monoxide

D. Methane and carbon dioxide

 

Q. 42 From the following, who was the first woman speaker of Lok Sabha?

A. Sushma Swaraj

B. Margret Alva

C. Meera Kumar

D. Sarojini Naidu

 

Q. 43 Which of the following wind is blowing from the Mediterranean sea to the North Western parts of India ?

A. Western disturbances

B. Norwesters

C. Loo

D. Mango showers

 

Q. 44 Azolla increases soil fertility for

A. maize cultivation

B. wheat cultivation

C. barley cultivation

D. rice cultivation

 

Q. 45 Which of the following is not provided in the constitution?

A. Election Commission

B. Finance Commission

C. Public Service Commission

D. Planning Commission

 

Q. 46 What is the popular name of Monolithic rock shrines at Mahabalipuram?

A. Rathas

B. Prasad

C. Mathika

D. Gandhakuti

 

Q. 47 What is the name of the device used to convert alternating current into direct current?

A. Ammeter

B. Galvanometer

C. Rectifier

D. Transformer

 

Q. 48 Why does ice covered in sawdust not melt quickly?

A. Sawdust does not allow the air to touch the ice

B. The water is absorbed by sawdust

C. Sawdust is. a bad conductor of heat

D. Sawdust is good conductor of heat

 

Q. 49 Which layer of the earth’s atmosphere contains the ozone layer?

A. Troposphere

B. Mesosphere

C. Ionosphere

D. Stratosphere

 

Q. 50 Where is the Great Barrier Reef located?

A. Pacific Ocean

B. Indian Ocean

C. Atlantic Ocean

D. Arctic Ocean

 

Q. 51 The sum of three consecutive natural numbers each divisible by 5, is 225. The largest among them is

A. 85

B. 75

C. 70

D. 80

 

Q. 52 A can do a piece of work in 18 days. He worked at it for 12 days and B finished the remaining work in 8 days. B alone can do the whole work in

A. 16 days

B. 24 days

C. 28 days

D. 29 days

 

Q. 53 The list price of an article is Rs. 900. It is available at two successive discounts of 20% and 10%. The selling price of the article is :

A. Rs. 640

B. Rs. 648

C. Rs. 540

D. Rs. 548

 

Q. 54 A man spends a part of his monthly income and saves the rest. The ratio of his expenditure to the savings is 61 : 6. If his monthly income is Rs. 8710, the amount of his monthly savings is

A. Rs. 870

B. Rs. 690

C. Rs. 980

D. Rs. 780

 

Q. 55 An article was sold at Rs. 950 allowing 5% discount on the marked price. The marked price of the article is

A. Rs. 960

B. Rs. 1000

C. Rs. 955

D. Rs. 945

 

Q. 56 A person loses 75% of his money in the first bet, 75% of the remaining in the second and 75% of the· remaining in the third bet and returns home with Rs. 2 only. His initial money was

A. Rs. 64

B. Rs. 128

C. Rs. 256

D. Rs. 512

 

Q. 57 The time taken by a train 160 m long, running at 72 km/hr, in crossing an electric pole is 

A. 8 seconds

B. 9 seconds

C. 6 seconds

D. 4 seconds

 

Q. 58 If x + 1/9x = 4, then the value 9x² + 1/9x² is

A. 140

B. 142

C. 144

D. 146

 

Q. 59 If a= 2, b = -3 then the value of 27a³ – 54a²b + 36 ab² – 8b³ is

A. 1562

B. 1616

C. 1676

D. 1728

 

Q. 60 Possible lengths of the three sides of a triangle are

A. 2 cm, 3 cm and 6 cm

B. 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm

C. 2.5 cm, 3.5 cm and 6 cm

D. 4 cm, 4 cm and 9 cm

 

Q. 61 AD is the median of ti ABC. If O is the centroid and AO = 10 cm, then OD is

A. 5 cm

B. 20 cm

C. 10 cm

D. 30 cm

 

Q. 62 If in a triangle ABC, sin A = cos B, then the value of cos C is

A. √3/2

B. 0

C. 1

D. 1/√2

 

Q. 63 Incentre of ΔABC is I. ∠ABC = 90° and ∠ACB = 70° . ∠AIC is

A. 115°

B. 135°

C. 110°

D. 105°

 

Q. 64 The length of the two adjacent sides of a rectangle inscribed in a circle are 5 cm and 12 cm respectively. Then the radius of the circle will be

A. 6 cm

B. 6.5 cm

C. 8 cm

D. 8.5 cm

 

Q. 65 If sinθ x cosθ = 1/2 . The value of sinθ – cosθ is where 0° < θ < 90°

A. 0

B. √2

C. 2

D. 1

 

Q. 66 The mean of 100 observations was calculated as 40. It was found later on that one of the observations was misread as 83 instead of 53. The correct mean is:

A. 39

B. 39.7

C. 40.3

D. 42.7

 

Q. 67 If a³ + 1/a³ = 2, then value of (a² + 1)/a is (a is a positive number)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 68 If x(3 – 2/x) = 3/x , then the value of x² + 1/x² will be

A. 3 (1/9)

B. 3 (2/9)

C. 2(1/9)

D. 2 (4/9)

 

Q. 69 A sphere of radius 5 cm is melted to form a cone with base of same radius. The height (in cm) of the cone is

A. 5

B. 10

C. 20

D. 22

 

Q. 70 The difference between compound interest and simple interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 5% per annum is Rs. 41. What is the sum of money?

A. Rs. 7200

B. Rs. 9600

C. Rs. 16400

D. Rs. 8400

 

Q. 71 A man standing on the bank of river observes that the angle subtended by a tree on the opposite bank is 60°. When he retires 36 m from the bank, he finds that the angle is 30°. The breadth of the river is

A. 15 metre

B. 18 metre

C. 16 metre

D. 11 metre

 

Questions: 72 – 75

Directions (Q.72-76): Study the bar-graph given below which shows the percent distribution of total expenditures of a company under various expenses and answer the questions.

 

Q. 72 The expenditure on the interest on loans is more than the expenditure on transport by

 

A. 5%

B. 10%

C. 40%

D. 30%

 

Q. 73 If the interest on loans amounted to Rs. 2.45 crores, then the total amount of expenditure on advertisement, taxes and research and development is:

A. Rs. 7 crores

B. Rs. 4.2 crores

C. Rs. 5.4 crores

D. Rs. 3 crores

 

Q. 74 The ratio of the total expenditure on infrastructure and transport to the total expenditure on taxes and interest on loans is:

A. 5 : 4

B. 8 : 7

C. 9 : 7

D. 13 : 11

 

Q. 75 If the total expenditure of the company is Rs. 20 crores, then the ratio of expenditure on transport to that on salary is

A. 5 : 4

B. 4 : 5

C. 5 : 8

D. 8 : 5

 

Q. 76 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

ENIGMA

A. Attractive

B. Riddle

C. Flare-up

D. Dream

 

Q. 77 In the following question, out of the four alternatives; choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word.

INERTIA

A. Stupor

B. Vigour

C. Languor

D. Inertness

 

Q. 78 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word.

A. Pious

B. Pios

C. Pieos

D. Piuos

 

Questions: 79 – 81

Directions (79 ·- 81) : In the following questions, one part of the sentence.may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and choose the option corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, choose the “No error”option.

 

Q. 79 Each child (1)/ was given a (2)/ red beautiful balloon. (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 80 She has had the best medical facilities available (1)/ but she will not be cured (2) / unless she does not have a strong desire to live. (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 81 She has had the best medical facilities available (1)/ but she will not be cured (2) / unless she does not have a strong desire to live. (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Questions: 82 – 84

Directions (82–84): The sentences given with blanks are to be filled With an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative

 

Q. 82 The passengers were afraid but the captain ______ them that there was no danger.

A. suggested

B. pleaded

C. advise

D. assured

 

Q. 83 I insisted _______ his leaving the place.

A. on

B. about

C. in

D. with

 

Q. 84 Please don’t _______ me when I’m speaking

A. interrupted

B. interrupts

C. interrupt

D. interrupting

 

Questions: 85 – 87

Directions (85 – 87): In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/ Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/ Phrase.

 

Q. 85 Beat around the bush.

Choose the correct meaning.

A. Walk around the forest

B. Clean the bushy areas

C. Avoiding the main topic

D. Play around the forest

 

Q. 86 Make room

Choose the correct meaning.

A. Clean the room

B. Make space

C. Attain the room

D. Make a clean sweep

 

Q. 87 Mend your ways.

Choose the correct meaning.

A. Happy with one’s behaviour

B. Sad with one’s behaviour

C. Destroy one’s behaviour

D. Improve one’s behaviour

 

Questions: 88 – 90 

Directions (88-90): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives; choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/ sentences.

 

Q. 88 A record of one’s own life written by oneself

A. History

B. Biography

C. Bibliography

D. Autobiography

 

Q. 89 Belong to the same period

A. Comrades

B. Contemporaries

C. Compromises

D. Renegades

 

Q. 90 One who listens secretly to private conversation.

A. Eavesdropper

B. Encroacher

C. Eaves bearer

D. Listener

 

Questions: 91 – 95 

Directions (91 – 95): In each of the following questions, a. sentence/a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Four alternatives are given to fill the bold part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, choose the option corresponding to “No improvement”.

 

Q. 91 Choose the correct option: 

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 92 Choose the correct option:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 93 Choose the correct option:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 94 Choose the correct option:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 95 Choose the correct option:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Questions: 96 – 100

Directions (96-100): A passage is given with 5 questions, following it, Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

Crude mineral oil comes out of the earth as a thick brown or black liquid with a strong smell. It is a complex mixture of many different substances, each with its own individual qualities. Most of them are combinations of hydrogen and carbon in varying proportions. Such hydrocarbons are also found in other forms such as bitumen, asphalt and natural gas. Mineral oil originates from the carcasses of tiny animals and from plants that live in the sea; Over millions of years these dead creatures form large deposits under sea-bed and ocean currents cover them with a blanket of sand and silt. As this material hardens, it becomes sedimentary rock and effectively shuts out the oxygen thus preventing the: complete decomposition of the marine deposits its underneath. The layers of sedimentary rocks become thicker and heavier. Their pressure produces heat, which transforms the tiny carcasses into crude oil in a process that is still going on today.

 

Q. 96 How does crude oil come out of the earth ?

A. Thick brown or black liquid with mild smell

B. Thick red-brown liquid with strong smell

C. Mixture of different colours

D. Thick brown or black liquid with a strong smell

 

Q. 97 What is crude mineral oil?

A. Complex mixture of many different substances

B. Simple mixture of natural gas

C. Plain white oil

D. It is bitumen

 

Q. 98 From where does mineral oil originate?

A. Complex mixture of pure substances

B. Carcasses of tiny animals and plants that live in the sea

C. From lakes

D. Only from plants

 

Q. 99 The time- taken for the marine deposits to harden into rocks is

A. a few centuries

B. millions of years

C. a few decades

D. thousands of years

 

Q. 100 Sedimentary rocks Lead to the formation of oil deposits because

A. their pressure produces heat and turns deposits of animal carcasses and plants into oil

B. it turns heavy and shuts out the oxygen

C. it becomes hard and forms into rocks to squeeze oil

D. it becomes light and soft and applies pressure to produce oil

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	A	A	B	D	C	C	D	C	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	C	D	D	D	C	A	C	C	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	D	C	A	B	D	A	D	B	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	A	D	D	C	A	A	B	B	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	D	C	A	D	D	A	C	C	D	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	B	B	D	B	B	D	B	D	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	B	B	B	A	B	B	D	C	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	C	B	D	C	B	B	A	C	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	D	A	C	C	B	D	D	B	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	A	A	A	C	D	A	B	B	A

 

SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 27 Aug Shift 2

Q. 1 If BLACKSMITH is coded as CNBELUNKUJ, then CHILDREN will be coded as ?

A. DJINETEP

B. DJJNETFP

C. DIJMESFO

D. DIJMEYEP

 

Q. 2 If 17 + 17 = 2895

18 + 18 = 3245

19 + 19 = 3615

then 23 + 23 = ?

A. 5765

B. 5295

C. 2565

D. 4005

 

Q. 3 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary

A. Dyke

B. Dwindle

C. Dwell

D. Dye

A. B, C, D, A

B. C, B, A, D

C. B, C, A, D

D. C, B, D, A

 

Q. 4 Select the missing number (In figure (1)) from the given responses.

A. 432

B. 501

C. 512

D. 332

 

Q. 5 Select the related letters from the given alternatives.

DHL : PTX : : BFJ : ?

A. KOS

B. NRV

C. NRU

D. NPS

 

Q. 6 Select the related word from the given alternatives.

Donkey : Brays : : Monkey : ?

A. Trumpets

B. Bellows

C. Chatters

D. Grunts

 

Q. 7 Select the related letters from the given alternatives.

ABDE : FGIJ : : IJLM : ?

A. NMOP

B. NOPQ

C. NOQR

D. NPQR

 

Q. 8 Select the related number from the given alternatives.

1 : 8 : : ? : 64

A. 36

B. 27

C. 30

D. 25

 

Q. 9 Find the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Diving

B. Swimming

C. Driving

D. Sailing

 

Q. 10 Find the odd letters from the given alternatives.  

A. CTES

B. VDZC

C. MKOJ

D. RGTF

 

Q. 11 Find the odd number from the given alternatives.

A. 245

B. 443

C. 633

D. 843

 

Q. 12 Find the wrong number in the series:

28 33 31 36 34 29

A. 29

B. 36

C. 30

D. 34

 

Q. 13 How many squares are there in the square figure ABCD?

A. 16

B. 17

C. 30

D. 26

 

Q. 14 Which answer figure (among (1), (2), (3), (4) will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 15 Find the word that cannot be formed from the letters in the given word.

SEGREGATION

A. NATION

B. GREAT

C. GREETINGS

D. SEATING

 

Q. 16 Asha is taller than Pratima. Prabhas is shorter than Pratima. Alka is shorter than Asha. Alka is taller than Prabhas. Who among the following is the shortest?

A. Pratima

B. Alka

C. Prabhas

D. Asha

 

Q. 17 Below some statements are given , followed by some conclusions. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.

Statement: All intelligent people are creative.

Conclusion I: Some creative people are intelligent.

Conclusion II: All intelligent people are creative.

A. only conclusion I follows

B. only conclusion II follows

C. Either conclusion I or II follows

D. Both conclusions I and II follow

 

Q. 18 Shama, during the time of sunset, started walking towards the opposite side of sun and then she turns right and right again. What direction is she facing?

A. South

B. West

C. East

D. North

 

Q. 19 What is the mirror image (among (1), (2), (3), (4)) of the following figure? The mirror may be represented by a line XY.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 20 Find the missing term in the given series:

2 7 10 22 18 37 26 ?

A. 42

B. 52

C. 46

D. 62

 

Q. 21 Find the missing term in the given series:

4 12 48 240 1440 ?

A. 7620

B. 10080

C. 6200

D. 10020

 

Q. 22 Find the missing term of the following series?

GEFH ZXYZ SQRT ?

A. LJKM

B. KILN

C. JGIO

D. NLMO

 

Q. 23 In the question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The set of numbers given in the alternatives is represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., S can be represented by 14, 23, etc., and ‘E’ can be represented by 56, 68, etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word ‘CURE’

A. 10

B. 19

C. 20

D. 9

 

Q. 25 In which of the following figures (among (1), (2), (3), (4)), the given figure is embedded?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 26 The Kakori conspiracy was a train robbery that took place between Kakori and Lucknow in 

A. 1931

B. 1919

C. 1925

D. 1929

 

Q. 27 Who was the first lady Governor of an Indian State?

A. Vijaylakshmi Pandit

B. Sharda Mukherjee

C. Fathima Beevi

D. Sarojini Naidu

 

Q. 28 Which cell organelle is the site of photosynthesis and also contains chlorophyll?

A. Chloroplasts

B. Vacuole

C. Cytoplasm

D. Nucleolus

 

Q. 29 What are the components responsible for acid rain?

A. Nitrogen monoxide (NO) and Carbon monoxide (CO)

B. Sulphur dioxide (SO2) and Nitrogen oxides (NOx)

C. Carbon dioxide (CO2) and Carbon monoxide (CO)

D. Oxides of carbon (COx) and Oxides of nitrogen (NOx)

 

Q. 30 The headquarters of FIFA is in

A. Berlin

B. Vienna

C. France

D. Zurich

 

Q. 31 Which of the following is an insulator?

A. Mercury

B. Carbon

C. Germanium

D. Glass

 

Q. 32 Which of the following states has the highest literacy rate?

A. Goa

B. Karnataka

C. Mizoram

D. Himachal Pradesh

 

Q. 33 Which monument is known as the ‘Dream in Stones’?

A. Char Minar

B. Ajanta Caves

C. Sanchi Stupa

D. Panch Mahal

 

Q. 34 Name the process by which bubbles from liquid are formed?

A. Effervescence

B. Surface Tension

C. Surface Energy

D. Degasification

 

Q. 35 Zeolite is

A. hydrated aluminosilicate

B. hydrated calcium sulphate

C. dehydrated aluminosilicate

D. dehydrated calcium sulphate

 

Q. 36 Highest source of air pollution in the world is

A. Automobile

B. Industries

C. Household wastes

D. Aircraft

 

Q. 37 Who wrote the famous line: ‘A thing of beauty is a joy forever’

A. William Shakespeare

B. J. K. Rowling

C. John Keats

D. George Eliot

 

Q. 38 The boiling point of water depends upon the

A. atmospheric pressure

B. volume

C. density

D. mass

 

Q. 39 Which of the following deserts has the highest gold deposits?

A. Kyzyl – Kum desert

B. Gobi desert

C. Mojave desert

D. Tanami desert

 

Q. 40 The Himalayas are also known by the name

A. ancient mountains

B. fold mountains

C. valley mountains

D. Indus mountains

 

Q. 41 The amount of insolation received at a place on the surface of the earth depends upon:

A. its climate

B. the longitude of the place

C. its latitude

D. the altitude of the place

 

Q. 42 Alluvial soils are rich soil for crop cultivation but are poor in

A. humus

B. nitrogen and humus

C. organic material

D. inorganic material

 

Q. 43 By which Amendment were ‘Fundamental Duties’ added to the Constitution?

A. 42nd

B. 46th

C. 61st

D. 88th

 

Q. 44 Bamboo is classified as

A. Tree

B. Grass

C. Shrub

D. Herb

 

Q. 45 Which apparatus is used to measure the intensity of light?

A. Lux meter

B. Calorimeter

C. Anemometer

D. Altimeter

 

Q. 46 L.P.G. is mostly liquified

A. hydrogen

B. oxygen

C. butane

D. methane

 

Q. 47 What is used in storage batteries?

A. Copper

B. Tin

C. Lead

D. Zinc

 

Q. 48 The first computer made available for commercial use was

A. MANIAC

B. ENIAC

C. UNIVAS

D. EDSAC

 

Q. 49 Which river originates from the Amarkantak plateau?

A. Narmada River

B. Son River

C. Betwa River

D. Godavari River

 

Q. 50 Thomas Cup is associated with

A. Billiards

B. Table Tennis

C. Lawn Tennis

D. Badminton

 

Q. 51 In ΔABC, AB = a – b, AC = √(a² + b²) and BC = √2ab, then find angle B.

A. 60°

B. 30°

C. 90°

D. 45°

 

Q. 52 If 10% of x is 3 times 15% of y, then find x : y.

A. 7 : 2

B. 9 : 2

C. 8 : 3

D. 11 : 4

 

Q. 53 Find the value of 1/(1 + tan²θ) + 1/(1 + cot²θ)

A. 1/4

B. 1

C. 1/2

D. 2

 

Q. 54 Find the value of the equation given in the figure

A. 6

B. 10

C. 8

D. 4

 

Q. 55 Two rifles are fired from the same place at a difference of 11 min 45 seconds. But a man who is coming towards the same place in a train hears the second sound after 11 minutes. Find the speed of the train (Assuming speed of sound = 330 m/s)

A. 72 km/h

B. 36 km/h

C. 81 km/h

D. 108 km/h

 

Q. 56 If a + 1/(a – 2) = 4, then the value of (a – 2)² + (1/(a – 2))² is:

A. 0

B. 2

C. -2

D. 4

 

Q. 57 The average of runs of a cricket player of 20 innings was 32. How many runs must he make in his next innings so as to increase his average of runs by 4?

A. 116

B. 114

C. 170

D. 76

 

Q. 58 If x = 6pq/(p + q), then the value of (x + 3p)/(x – 3p) + (x + 3q)/(x – 3q) is

A. 6

B. 8

C. 2

D. 3

 

Q. 59 12 men and 16 boys can do a piece of work in 5 days; 13 men and 24 boys can do it in 4 days, then the ratio of the daily work done by a man to that of a boy is

A. 2 : 1

B. 3 : 1

C. 1 : 3

D. 5 : 4

 

Q. 60 If x = 1 + √2 + √3, then find the value of x² – 2x + 4

A. 2(7 + √6)

B. 2(4 + √6)

C. 2(3 + √7)

D. (4 + √6)

 

Q. 61 A is faster than B. A and B each walk 24 km. The sum of their speeds is 7 km/hr and the sum of times taken by them is 14 hours. Then A’s speed is equal to:

A. 3 km/hr

B. 4 km/hr

C. 5 km/hr

D. 7 km/hr

 

Q. 62 A man gains 20% by selling an article for a certain price. If he sells it at double the price, the percentage of profit will be

A. 40%

B. 100%

C. 120%

D. 140%

 

Q. 63 A man buys a watch for Rs. 1950 in cash and sells it for Rs. 2200 at a credit of 1 year. If the rate of interest be 10% per annum, then how much profit or loss will he have?

A. Rs. 55 gain

B. Rs. 30 profit

C. Rs. 30 loss

D. Rs. 30 profit

 

Q. 64 A sum of money invested at a compound interest amounts to Rs. 800 in 3 years and to Rs. 840 in 4 years. The rate of interest per annum is :

A. 2 1/2 %

B. 4%

C. 5%

D. 6 2/3%

 

Q. 65 If D, E and F are the mid-points of the sides of an equilateral triangle ABC (given in the figure), then the ratio of the area of triangle DEF and DCF is:

A. 1.1 : 1

B. 1 : 1.1

C. 0.9 : 1

D. 1 : 1

 

Q. 66 How many common tangents can be drawn on two circles touching each other externally?

A. Infinity

B. 0

C. 2

D. 3

 

Q. 67 If tanθ + 1/tanθ = 2, then the value of tan²θ + 1/tan²θ is equal to:

A. 6

B. 4

C. 2

D. 3

 

Q. 68 From 40 m apart from the foot of a tower, the angle of elevation of its top is 60°. What is the height of the tower?

A. 120/√3 m

B. 60/√3 m

C. 50/√3 m

D. 130√7 m

 

Q. 69 If the price of sugar increases by 20%, one can buy 2 kg less for Rs. 50. What is the amount of sugar that could be bought before price hike?

A. 10 kg

B. 12 kg

C. 14 kg

D. 16 kg

 

Q. 70 In how many years will a sum of Rs. 800 at 10% per annum compounded semi-annually become Rs. 926.10?

A. 2 1/2 years

B. 3 years

C. 2 years

D. 1 1/2 years

 

Q. 71 The number of coins of radius 0.75 cm and thickness 0.2 cm required to be melted to make a right circular cylinder of height 8 cm and base radius 3 cm is:

A. 500

B. 600

C. 460

D. 640

 

Q. 72 Pushpa is twice as old as Rita was 2 years ago. If difference between their ages is 2 years, how old is Pushpa today?

A. 6 years

B. 8 years

C. 10 years

D. 12 years

 

Questions: 73 – 75

Study the following bar graph (Given in figure) carefully to answer the questions:

 

Q. 73 The yield per acre of India is what percent more than that of Pakistan?

A. 25%

B. 50%

C. 75%

D. 100%

 

Q. 74 If the yield per acre is arranged in ascending order, then what is the difference between the yield per acre of first three countries and last three countries

A. 168 quintals

B. 172 quintals

C. 182 quintals

D. 190 quintals

 

Q. 75 The yield per acre produced by Bangladesh is what percent of the total yield  per acre produced by all countries?

A. 14%

B. 13.5%

C. 14.8%

D. 16%

 

Questions: 76 – 77

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been quoted to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. The villager has customarily been very conservative in his attitude and approach. He is reluctant to change his traditional way of thinking and doing things. His attitude, in many aspects, is: “homemade is best”. For instance, most cattle farmers in the villages, prefer to feed their cows and buffaloes with a home-mix comprising local oilseeds like mustard or cottonseed, pulses, jaggery, salt, etc. It takes numerous visits, hard-convincing, daily trials and experience to convince the rural cattle farmer that compound feeds, scientifically formulated, improve the yields of milk, without any incremental costs. The age-old values and attitude towards caste, creed, woman, time and money take time to change. The villager has traditionally been a believer in the philosophy of ‘karma’ or ‘fate’. He has found it more convenient to blame his economic destitution, poor living conditions and straitened social status on ‘bhagya’, ‘karma’ or ‘fate’. The security that the villagers find in the ‘status quo’, acts as a disincentive to change and experiment, in his short run. Many of these antiquated attitudes, value-system and outlooks are changing, due to improved levels of awareness and education. However, the rate of change is sluggish. Attitudes have fossilised over the centuries, do take time to change.

Q. 76 When will you call a person conservative in his attitude and approach?

 

A. when he likes to try out every new idea before accepting it.

B. when he sticks to old ways of thinking and doing.

C. when he solves his problems through tried out methods.

D. when he imputes motives to change-agents.

 

Q. 77 What does the phrase “home made is best” imply?

A. The best should not be discarded.

B. Change for the sake of change is not good.

C. People should go in for swadeshi because it is home-made

D. Whatever is being practised is better than what is new.

 

Q. 78 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

DEVASTATION

A. DESTRUCTION

B. CONSTRUCTION

C. SEPARATION

D. FRUSTRATION

 

Q. 79 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word and click the button corresponding to it.

A. Connaisseur

B. Conoisseur

C. Connossieur

D. Connoiseur

 

Q. 80 In the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

Fit like a glove

A. to fit snugly

B. something tight and sticky

C. soft and easy to ware

D. difficult to hold

 

Q. 81 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

To pull a long face

A. to make fun

B. to look sad

C. to irritate someone

D. to pull someone’s face

 

Q. 82 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

Cat nap

A. …

B. …

C. make a snoring sound while sleeping

D. to sleep briefly

 

Q. 83 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

To flog a dead horse

A. to act in a foolish way

B. To waste one’s efforts

C. To revive interest in an old effort

D. None of these

 

Q. 84 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

Money given to agents on sales.

A. help

B. Commission

C. assignment

D. endeavour

 

Q. 85 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

Person believing in one marriage

A. polygamist

B. misogynist

C. monogamist

D. philanthropist

 

Q. 86 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

A system of government in which only one political party is allowed to function.

A. Oligarchy

B. Dictatorship

C. Totalitarianism

D. Theocracy

 

Q. 87 In this question, a sentence or a part of sentence is quoted. Below are given alternatives to the quoted part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, answer is (4)

She “cut a sad figure” in her first performance on the stage.

A. made a sorry figure

B. cut a sorry face

C. cut a sorry figure

D. no improvement

 

Q. 88 In each of these questions, choose the word which expresses the meaning of the word given in CAPITALS.

A. ….

B. Gloomy

C. Dying

D. Superfluous

 

Q. 89 In each of these questions, choose the word which expresses the meaning of the word given in CAPITALS.

SOOTHE

A. Agitate

B. Perturb

C. Fluster

D. Mollify 

 

Q. 90 In each of these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the word opposite in meaning to the word given in CAPITALS.

EPITOME

A. quintessence

B. paragon

C. enlargement

D. incarnation

 

Q. 91 In each of these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the word opposite in meaning to the word given in CAPITALS.

GUMPTION

A. ingenuity

B. stupidity

C. sagacity

D. acumen

 

Q. 92 In each of these questions, a sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriated word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four alternatives.

The waiter hasn’t brought the coffee _________________ I’ve been here for ________________ an hour.

A. still

B. yet

C. up

D. till

 

Q. 93 In each of these questions, a sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriated word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four alternatives.

I always fall __________ old friends in times of need.

A. over

B. through

C. back on

D. off

 

Q. 94 In each of these questions, a sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriated word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four alternatives.

A person came in with a baby who, she said ______________________ a safety pin

A. swallowed

B. just swallowed

C. had just swallowed

D. …

 

Q. 95 In each of these questions, a sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriated word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four alternatives.

the monsoon did not arrive _________________ time.

A. at

B. by

C. on

D. after

 

Q. 96 Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Choose the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’ as thee answer.

He is (1) / capable to do this work (2) / within the stipulated period. (3) / No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 97 Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Choose the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’ as thee answer.

I used (1) / a pair of trousers (2) / for a week (3) / No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 98 Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Choose the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’ as thee answer.

He has made a (1) / mistake of (2) / which I am certain. (3) / No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 99 Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Choose the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’ as thee answer.

Good heavens! (1) / How was she (2) / grown! (3) No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 100 Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Choose the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’ as thee answer.

The weather (1) / of the new place (2) / did not suit Ravi. (3) / No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	B	D	C	B	C	C	B	C	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	A	C	B	A	C	D	B	C	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	A	C	C	D	C	D	A	B	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	C	D	A	A	A	C	A	C	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	B	A	B	A	C	C	C	A	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	B	B	D	C	B	A	C	A	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	D	A	C	D	D	C	A	B	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	B	A	A	C	B	D	A	C	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	D	B	C	C	B	B	C	D	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	B	C	C	C	B	A	D	B	A

SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 27 Aug Shift 1

Q. 1 Select the related weird from the given alternatives :

College : Student : : Hospital : ?

A. Doctor

B. Treatment

C. Nurse

D. Patient

 

Q. 2 Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives:

DHL : PTX :: BFJ : ?

A. NRV

B. RVZ

C. CGK

D. KOS

 

Q. 3 Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives: 

5 : 124 :: 7 : ?

A. 125

B. 248

C. 342

D. 343

 

Q. 4 Find the odd word pair from the given alternatives

A. Hard:Soft

B. Hot:Cold

C. Right:Wrong

D. Come:Arrive

 

Q. 5 Find the odd letter from the given alternatives

A. AG

B. WA

C. ET

D. IQ

 

Q. 6 Find the odd number pair from the given alternatives

A. 14, 12

B. 24, 7

C. 42, 4

D. 37, 4

 

Q. 7 Arrange the following words as per the order in the dictionary

1. RESIGN

2. REPAIR

3. RESIDUE

4. RESEARCH

5. RESCUE

A. 4 5 3 1 2

B. 2 5 4 3 1

C. 2 5 4 1 3

D. 5 4 3 1 2

 

Q. 8 A series is given with one term missing, Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

JAZ, LEX, NIV, PMT, ?

A. QUR

B. RQR

C. SUR

D. RUS

 

Q. 9 A series is given with one term missing, Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

19, 28, 39, 52, ?, 84

A. 39

B. 52

C. 67

D. 84

 

Q. 10 X and Y are brothers. R is the father of Y. T is the sister of S who is maternal uncle of X. How is T related to R?

A. Mother

B. Wife

C. Sister

D. Brother

 

Q. 11 A is taller than B. C is taller than A. D is taller than E but shorter than B. Who is the tallest?

A. C

B. A

C. D

D. B

 

Q. 12 From the given alternative words, select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word.

SOMNAMBULISM

A. NAMES

B. BASALT

C. SOUL

D. BIOME

 

Q. 13 If D = 4, DOG = 26, then find the value of ANIMAL= ?

A. 47

B. 49

C. 48

D. 50

 

Q. 14 If ‘+’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘-‘ stands for ‘=’, ‘x’ stands for ‘+’, ‘÷’stands for greater than, ‘=’ stands for less than, ‘>’ stands for multiplication and ‘<‘ stands for subtraction, then which of the following alternatives is correct?

A. 5÷2×1=3+4>1

B. 5>2×1-3>4<1

C. 5×2<1-3<4×1

D. 5<2×1÷3>4×1

 

Q. 15 In this question, some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. On the same basis find out the correct answer from amongst the four alternatives for the unsolved equation.

3X4X5 = 435

4X3X2 = 342

2X3X4= ?

A. 324

B. 342

C. 432

D. 243

 

Q. 16 In the question, selection the missing number from the given alternatives.

A. 56

B. 120

C. 151

D. 154

 

Q. 17 Ram walks 3 km towards East and takes a left turn and walks for one km before he turns left and walks 2 km to take another left turn to walk for another one km. How many km is he away from his starting point?

A. 1km

B. 2 kms

C. 3 kms

D. 4 kms

 

Q. 18 Consider the given· statement/(s) to be true an decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement.

Statements :

All fruits are leaves.

Some fruits are grapes.

Conclusions :

I. Some leaves are grapes.

II. All grapes are fruits.

A. Only Conclusion I follows

B. Only Conclusion II follows

C. Both Conclusions I and II follow

D. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

 

Q. 19 Find out the number of triangles in the figure given.

A. 6

B. 8

C. 10

D. 12

 

Q. 20 Which one of the following diagrams represent the correct relationship between DOCTORS, SURGEONS and NURSES

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 21 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 22 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded?

 

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 23A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 25 In the question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its toe and next by its column. e.g. ‘A’ can be represented by 22, 10 etc and ‘P’ can be represented by 55, 67, 79 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word “NEAT”.

A. 44,14,34,56

B. 20,33,78,75

C. 13,40,67,99

D. 32,21,41,68

 

Q. 26 Which one of the following is not a scheme/project of the present Government?

A. AMRUT

B. Swachh Bharat

C. AYUSH

D. Jan Dhan Yojana

 

Q. 27 Which of the following was India’s first interplanetary mission?

A. Chandrayaan Mission

B. Mangalyaan Mission

C. Aryabhatta Mission

D. Philae Mission

 

Q. 28 Why the Earth is having its own atmosphere ?

A. Winds

B. Clouds

C. Gravity

D. Rotation of the Earth

 

Q. 29 Motor skills are associated with which part of the brain?

A. Frontal lobe

B. Parietal Lobe

C. Temporal lobe

D. Occipital Lobe

 

Q. 30 Which enzyme is present in all members of the animal kingdom except Protozoa?

A. Insulin

B. Pepsin

C. Renin

D. Amylase

 

Q. 31 At boiling point of liquids , its

A. Temperature increases

B. Atmospheric pressure increases

C. Temperature remains constant

D. Vapour pressure decreases

 

Q. 32 A level of atmosphere which is composed partly of electrons and positive ions is called 

A. Troposphere

B. Ionosphere

C. Stratosphere

D. Mesosphere

 

Q. 33 In India which of the following taxes is levied by the State governments?

A. Excise duty on liquor

B. Capital gains tax

C. Customs tax

D. Corporation tax

 

Q. 34 After question hour, a motion moved by a Member of Parliament to draw the attention of Executive for discussing a definite matter of public importance is

A. Privilege motion

B. Calling attention Motion

C. Adjournment motion

D. No- confidence motion

 

Q. 35 The major objective of monetary policy is to

A. increase government’s tax revenue

B. revamp the Public Distribution System

C. Promote economic growth with price stability

D. weed out corruption in the economy

 

Q. 36 The only Viceroy to be assassinated in India was

A. Lord Harding

B. Lord Northbrook

C. Lord Ellenborough

D. Lord Mayo

 

Q. 37 Which one is not the main objective of fiscal policy in India?

A. To increase liquidity in the economy

B. To promote price stability

C. To minimize the inequalities of income & wealth

D. To promote employment opportunity

 

Q. 38 Who was the founder of the Theosophical Society?

A. Justice Ranade

B. Madam Blavatsky

C. Annie Besant

D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

 

Q. 39 India recently signed land boundary agreement with which country?

A. China

B. Nepal

C. Bhutan

D. Bangladesh

 

Q. 40 Who among the following Indians is one who has been selected on July 27,for the Ramon Magsaysay Award, 2016?

A. Bezwada Wilson

B. Kailash Satyarthi

C. Kiran Bedi

D. Mahasweta Devi

 

Q. 41 The first Field Marshall of India was

A. A. S. Vaidya

B. K.M. Cariappa

C. Sunderji

D. S.H.F.J. Manekshaw

 

Q. 42 “Earth provides enough to satisfy everyman’s need but not everyman’s greed”. Who said this?

A. Guru Nanak Dev

B. Mahatma Gandhi

C. Pope Paul VI

D. Smt. Indira Gandhi

 

Q. 43 Who won the first medal for India at the Rio Olympics?

A. Babita Kumari

B. Narsingh Yadav

C. P. V. Sindhu

D. Sakshi Malik

 

Q. 44 The most serious air pollutant causing health hazard is

A. Sulphur dioxide

B. Carbon monoxide

C. Ozone

D. Nitrogen oxide

 

Q. 45 Helium is added to the oxygen supply of deep sea divers because it is

A. less poisonous than nitrogen

B. Lighter than nitrogen

C. Readily miscible with oxygen

D. less soluble in blood than nitrogen at high pressure

 

Q. 46 Terylene is a condensation polymer of ethylene glycol and which acid?

A. Benzoic Acid

B. Salicylic acid

C. Phthalic acid

D. Terephthalic acid

 

Q. 47 In IT, means that the data available in the database is both accurate and consistent.

A. Data Security

B. Data Availability

C. Data Binding

D. Data Integrity

 

Q. 48 On a clean glass plate a drop of water spreads to form a thin layer whereas a drop of mercury remains almost spherical because

A. Mercury is a metal

B. Density of mercury is greater than that of water

C. Cohesion of mercury is greater than its adhesion with glass

D. Cohesion of water is greater than its adhesion with glass

 

Q. 49 The smallest island country in the Indian Ocean is

A. Maldives

B. Sri Lanka

C. Mauritius

D. Madagascar

 

Q. 50 The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by the 

A. President of India

B. Prime Minister of India

C. Speaker of Lok Sabha

D. Chairman of Rajya Sabha

 

Q. 51 A and B can together do a piece of work in 6 days and A alone can do it in 9 days. The number of days B will take to do it alone is

A. 18 days

B. 24 days

C. 9 days

D. 12 days

 

Q. 52 The length of the two parallel sides of a trapezium are 16 m and 20 m respectively. If its height is 10 m, its area in square metres is

A. 360

B. 260

C. 240

D. 180

 

Q. 53 A discount series of 15%, 20% and 25% is equal to the single discount of?

A. 48%

B. 49%

C. 50%

D. 51%

 

Q. 54 Rs. 490 is divided among A, B and C such that A’s share is half that of B’s and thrice that of C’s. What is C’s share?

A. Rs.49

B. Rs.147

C. Rs.294

D. Rs.245

 

Q. 55 A dealer sold an article at 6% loss. Had he sold it for Rs. 64 more, he would have made a profit of 10%. Then the cost of the article is

A. Rs.400

B. Rs.200

C. Rs.164

D. Rs.464

 

Q. 56 There are 1400 students in a school, 25% of those wear spectacles and 2/7 of those wearing spectacles are boys. How many girls in the school wear spectacles?

A. 250

B. 100

C. 200

D. 300

 

Q. 57 A man can row upstream at 12 km/hr and downstream at 18 km/hr. The man’s rowing speed in stillwater is

A. 15 km/hr

B. 5 km/hr

C. 3 km/hr

D. 10 km/hr

 

Q. 58 If ab = 21 and (a + b)²/(a – b)² = 25/4 , then the value of a² + b² + 3ab is

A. 115

B. 121

C. 125

D. 127

 

Q. 59 The value of (d^(s + t) ÷ d^s) ÷ d^t would be

A. d ^(2(s + t))

B. 1

C. 0

D. d^(s – t)

 

Q. 60 Possible measures of three angles of a triangle are

A. 33°, 42°, 115°

B. 40°, 70°, 80°

C. 30°, 60°, 100°

D. 50°, 60°, 70°

 

Q. 61 BD and CE are two medians of the triangle ABC. If EO = 7 cm, then the length of CE is  

A. 28 cm

B. 14 cm

C. 21 cm

D. 35 cm

 

Q. 62 If sec²θ + tan²θ = √3 , then the value of sec⁴θ – tan⁴θ is

A. 1/√3

B. 1

C. √3

D. 0

 

Q. 63 The greatest perfect square number of 6 digits is

A. 999001

B. 998001

C. 998009

D. 998101

 

Q. 64 The average height of 30 boys out of a class of 50 is 160 cm. If the average height of the remaining boys is 165 cm, the average height of the whole class (in cm) is:

A. 161

B. 162

C. 163

D. 164

 

Q. 65 Given a – b = 2 , a³ – b³ = 26 , then the value of (a + b)² is

A. 9

B. 4

C. 16

D. 12

 

Q. 66 If X + Y + Z = 9, then the value of (X – 4)³ + (Y – 2)³ + (Z – 3)³ – 3(X – 4)(Y -Z)(Z – 3) is 

A. 6

B. 9

C. 0

D. 1

 

Q. 67 Three medians AD, BE and CF of ΔABC intersect at G; Area of ΔABC is 36 sq cm. Then the area of ΔCGE is

A. 12 sq cm

B. 6 sq cm

C. 9 sq cm

D. 18 sq cm

 

Q. 68 A chord of a circle is equal to its radius. A tangent is drawn to the circle at an extremity of the chord. The angle between the tangent and the chord is

A. 30°

B. 45°

C. 60°

D. 75°

 

Q. 69 If π sinθ = 1, π cosθ = 1, then the value of {√3 tan(⅔θ) + 1} is

A. 1

B. √3

C. 2

D. 1/√3

 

Q. 70 The difference between simple and compound interest (compounded annually) on a sum of money for 3 years at 10% per annum is Rs. 93. The sum (in Rs.) is:

A. 30000

B. 30300

C. 3000

D. 3030

 

Q. 71 The angles of elevation of top and bottom of a flag kept on a flag post from 30 metres distance, are 45° and 30° respectively. Height of the flag is [taking √3 = 1.732]

A. 12 √3 m

B. 15 m

C. 14.32 m

D. 12.68 m

 

Questions: 72 – 75

Study the following bar-diagram carefully and answer the questions. The bar

graph given below shows the foreign exchange reserves of a country (in million

US $) from 1991 – 1992 to 1998 – 1999.

 

Q. 72 The ratio of the number of years, in which the foreign exchange reserves are above the average reserves, to those in which the reserves are below the average reserves is

A. 2:6

B. 3:4

C. 3:5

D. 4:4

 

Q. 73 The foreign exchange reserves in 1996-97 were approximately what percent of the average foreign exchange reserves over the period under review?

A. 95%

B. 110%

C. 115%

D. 124%

 

Q. 74 The percentage increase in the foreign exchange reserves in 1997-98 over 1993-94 is

A. 100

B. 150

C. 200

D. 120

 

Q. 75 Ratio of the sum of foreign exchange reserves during the years 1991-92, 1992-93, 1993- 94 to that during the years 1995-96, 1996-97, 1997-98 is

A. 31 : 35

B. 35 : 31

C. 37 : 52

D. 52 : 37

 

Q. 76 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

PANACEA

A. PRAISE

B. CURE-ALL

C. POISON

D. AMBROSIA

 

Q. 77 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

DETEST

A. DENOUNCE

B. IGNORE

C. ADORE

D. CASTIGATE

 

Q. 78 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word and click the button corresponding to it.

A. Debilitate

B. Impecable

C. Inkulcate

D. Harrass

 

Questions: 79 – 81

The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative.

 

Q. 79 What a ________________ holiday!

A. momentous

B. memorable

C. momentary

D. immortal

 

Q. 80 Many important projects have reached the final stage of.

A. accomplishment

B. initiation

C. resolution

D. implementation

 

Q. 81 ________________ you live long!

A. Might

B. May

C. Shall

D. Should

 

Questions: 82 – 84

In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If a sentence is free from errors, your answer is No error.

 

Q. 82 Each of the girls (1) / have come (2) / with her books. (3) / No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 83 Me and my wife (1) / were at home (2) / last night. (3) / No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 84 Essay writing is an art (1) / that requires many planning (2) / on the part of the writer. (3) / No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Questions: 85 – 87

In these questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/ phrase printed in quotes. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase given in quotes.

 

Q. 85 “Caught red-handed”

A. Caught by mistake

B. Caught with a red-handkerchief

C. Found wounded

D. Discovered in the act of doing

 

Q. 86 “Gate crasher”

A. Invader

B. Thief

C. Uninvited guest

D. Children

 

Q. 87 “To angle”

A. To measure the river breadth

B. To fish with a net

C. To fish

D. To sit and watch the river

 

Questions: 88 – 90

In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

 

Q. 88 Favouritism shown by a person in power to his relatives

A. Formalism

B. Red-tapism

C. Nepotism

D. Bureaucracy

 

Q. 89 A round-about way of expression

A. Verbosity

B. Talkativeness

C. Circumlocution

D. Locquacious

 

Q. 90 Suitable or intended for only young persons

A. Youthful

B. Puerile

C. Adolescent

D. Juvenile

 

Questions: 91 – 95

In each of the following questions, a sentence/part of the sentence is printed in quotes. Four alternatives are given to the quoted part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, select option corresponding to ”No improvement”.

 

Q. 91 Each self is unique, and therefore cannot be compared.

A. incomparable

B. Non comparable

C. Incomparably

D. No improvement

 

Q. 92 Shall I sit between you at the concert?

A. beside

B. besides

C. next

D. No Improvement

Q. 93 No one other reason than poverty is hampering India’s progress.

A. No other

B. None other

C. No another

D. No improvement

 

Q. 94 The custom has took root in the society.

A. taken root

B. take root

C. takes root

D. No improvement

 

Q. 95 We will take care of your children when you are away at Mumbai.

A. be looking for

B. look after

C. take care after

D. No improvement

 

Questions: 96 – 100

A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives My brother, David, was always close to our grandmother. Both of them shared a love of Mother Nature and of food that they had grown themselves. Whenever his schedule permitted, he would drop in for a short visit and a cup of coffee. One day, when he found no one home, he left a chunk of dirt on her porch. This started what was later to be known as his “calling card”. Grandmother would come home occasionally and instantly know that Dave had been by when she spotted the chunk of dirt on her porch. Although Grandmother had a poor upbringing in Italy, she managed to do well in the United States. She was always healthy and independent and enjoyed a fulfilling life. Recently she had a stroke and died. Everyone was saddened by her death. David was disconsolate. His life-long friend was now gone.

 

Q. 96 What is the opposite of the word ‘disconsolate’

A. Devastated

B. Hilarious

C. Exuberant

D. Sombre

 

Q. 97 David would drop in for a short visit and leave a ______________ as a sign on grandma’s porch if she was not at home.

A. schedule

B. chunk of dirt

C. calling card

D. cup of coffee

 

Q. 98 Grandmother used to be

A. rich in Italy but poor in the United States

B. in the United States but is now in Italy

C. poor earlier but became rich later on

D. rich earlier but now poor

 

Q. 99 Grandmother enjoyed a _______________ life.

A. healthy but sickly

B. good and healthy

C. rich but sickly

D. poor and healthy

 

Q. 100 Grandmother’s death made everyone

A. sad including David

B. disconsolate excluding David

C. happy and disconsolate

D. sad excluding David

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	A	C	D	C	D	B	B	C	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	C	D	B	A	B	A	A	D	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	D	C	B	A	B	B	C	A	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	B	A	C	C	D	A	B	D	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	D	B	D	A	D	D	D	C	A	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	D	B	A	A	A	A	B	B	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	C	B	B	C	C	B	A	C	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	C	D	A	C	B	C	A	B	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	B	A	B	D	C	C	C	C	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	A	A	A	B	C	B	C	B	A