SSC CGL Tier-I 13 June 2019 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL 

(13 June 2019 Shift-II) 

Reasoning 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.1 Select the missing number from the given options. 

A 43 

B 53 

C 49 

D 51 

Answer: C 

 

Q.2 ‘ A + B ’ means ‘A is the sister of B’ 

‘ A − B ’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’ 

‘ A × B ’ means ‘A is the brother of B’ 

‘ A ÷ B ’ means ‘A is the husband of B’ 

If V + U × Q − T ÷ R + P × S , then how is P related to V? 

A Paternal uncle 

B Maternal aunt 

C Maternal uncle 

D Paternal aunt 

Answer: C 

 

Q.3 Two statements are given followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: 

All utensils are spoons. 

All bowls are spoons. 

Conclusions: 

I No utensil is a bowl.

II. Some utensils are bowls. 

III. No spoon is a utensil. 

A Only conclusions I follows 

B Conclusions I and III follow 

C Either conclusion I or II follows 

D Only conclusion III follows 

Answer: C 

 

Q.4 Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.5 Three different positions of the same dice are shown here. Which number is on the face opposite the face showing ‘5’? 

A 1 

B 3 

C 2 

D 6 

Answer: C 

 

Q.6 Given below is a transparent sheet of paper with some patterns drawn on it. How would the transparent sheet look when it is folded on the dotted line ? 

Answer: C 

 

Q.7 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 12 : 192 :: 15 : ? 

A 245 

B 240 

C 225 

D 250 

Answer: B 

 

Q.8 The sum of the current ages of Shipra and Malini is 65 years. After 5 years, Shipra’s age will be 15 years more than Malini’s age. What is Malini’s current age? 

A 25 years 

B 30 years 

C 15 years 

D 20 years 

Answer: A 

 

Q.9 Select the term that will come next in the following series. 114, 127, 153, 192, 244, ? 

A 309 

B 361 

C 344 

D 284 

Answer: A 

 

Q.10 Select the figure in which the given figure is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed) 

Answer: D 

 

Q.11 Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order. 1. Wrist 2. Nails 3. Shoulder 4. Elbow 5. Palm 6. Fingers 

A 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2 

B 3, 4, 1, 5, 6, 2 

C 3, 4, 1, 2, 5, 6 

D 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 6 

Answer: B 

 

Q.12 Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as the two words in the following word-pair. Dirty : Filthy 

A Perfect : Unique 

B Shy : Timid 

C Cute : Child 

D Bright : Sunlight 

Answer: B 

 

Q.13 In a code language, TROPICAL is written as PORTLACI. How will DISTANCEbewritten in that language? 

A ISTSNAEF 

B TSIDECNA 

C TSIDECAN 

D STIDECNA 

Answer: B 

 

Q.14 Select the term that will come next in the following series. DGJ, BDN, ZAR, XXV, ? 

A VUZ 

B UUZ 

C VUY 

D VTZ 

Answer: A 

 

Q.15 Three of the following four number-pairs are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd pair out. 

A 4 : 27 

B 49 : 218 

C 16 : 125 

D 9 : 64 

Answer: B 

 

Q.16 ‘Heart’ is related to ‘Circulation’ in the same way as ‘Kidney’is related to ‘……….’ 

A Reroduction 

B Respiration 

C Energy Production 

D Excretion 

Answer: D 

 

Q.17 Select the term that will come next in the following series. M, E, P, H, S, ?, V, N 

A U 

B K 

C M 

D J 

Answer: B 

 

Q.18 How many triangles are there in the following figure ? 

A 20 

B 18 

C 16 

D 22 

Answer: B 

 

Q.19 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation correct? 

5 + 16 − 4 × 14 ÷ 2 = 59 

A × and + 

B ÷ and × 

C + and − 

D ÷ and − 

Answer: D

 

Q.20 In a code language, if LAMINATE is coded as 121139141205, then how will SYSTEMIC be coded in the same language? 

A 1925192051393 

B 1925192051493 

C 1825182051393 

D 1925192051383 

Answer: A 

 

Q.21 In the Venn diagram shown here, the triangle represents ‘students’, the circle represents ‘diploma holders’ and the quadrilateral represents ‘graduates’. The numbers given in the diagram represents number of persons of that particular category. 

How many students are diploma holders but NOT graduates? 

A 8 

B 11 

C 40 

D 30 

Answer: A 

 

Q.22 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and oneis different. Pick the odd one out. 

A RVZDG 

B DHLPT 

C UYCGK 

D AEIMQ 

Answer: A 

 

Q.23 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the right of the figure. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.24 Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd word out. 

A Indigo 

B Silver 

C Orange 

D Violet 

Answer: B 

 

Q.25 Select the missing number from the given options. 

A 2 

B 1 

C 4 

D 3 

Answer: B 

 

General knowledge 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.26 Chepu is a unique cultural symbol of ______. 

A Bhutan 

B Myanmar (Burma) 

C China 

D Nepal 

Answer: D 

 

Q.27 Who among the following is/was the longest serving governor of an Indian state? 

A Lakshmi Kant Jha 

B Padmaja Naidu 

C N D Tiwari 

D Sarojini Naidu 

Answer: B 

 

Q.28 In which part of the body is blood produced? 

A Bone Marrow 

B Lungs 

C Brain 

D Heart 

Answer: A 

 

Q.29 In which year was the Battle of Saragarhi fought? 

A 1867 

B 1897 

C 1854 

D 1878 

Answer: B 

 

Q.30 As of April 2019 who is longest serving chief minister of an Indian state? 

A Jyoti Basu 

B Sheila Dixit 

C Jayalalitha 

D Pawan Chamling 

Answer: D 

 

Q.31 Byopa is a traditional headgear of tribes belonging to ______. 

A Jharkhand 

B Arunachal Pradesh 

C Kerala 

D Goa 

Answer: B 

 

Q.32 Identify the part of brain that controls the maintenance of posture, balance and equilibrium. 

A Diencephalon 

B Brainstem 

C Cerebrum 

D Cerebellum 

Answer: D

 

Q.33 In December 2018, Havelock Island was renamed as ________. 

A Swaheed Dweep 

B Swaraj Dweep 

C Netaji Subhash Bose Island 

D Veer Savarkar Island 

Answer: B 

 

Q.34 Which of the following is the national sport of Bangladesh? 

A Kabaddi 

B Kho Kho 

C Cricket 

D Boxing 

Answer: A 

 

Q.35 Wind turbines convert ________ energy into mechanical power. 

A chemical 

B nuclear 

C gravitational 

D kinetic 

Answer: D 

 

Q.36 Which of the following is the largest container port of India? 

A Jawaharlal Nehru Port 

B Ennore Port 

C Chhatrapati Shivaji Port 

D Paradip Port 

Answer: A 

 

Q.37 Which theory in economics proposes that countries export what they can most efficiently and plentifully produce? 

A Solow-Swan Model 

B Heckscher-Ohlin Model 

C Input-Output Model 

D Cournot Competition 

Answer: B 

 

Q.38 Who is the author of the book The Buddha and His Dhamma? 

A Jawaharlal Nehru 

B B R Ambedkar 

C Rajmohan Gandhi 

D Sarojini Naidu 

Answer: B 

 

Q.39 Name the comprehensive pension management system developed by the Department of Telecom in December 2018. 

A ACHARAN 

B SAMPANN 

C SAMADHAN 

D VIGYAN 

Answer: B 

 

Q.40 With which sport is the term bleeder associated? 

A Swimming 

B Volleyball 

C Cricket 

D Boxing 

Answer: D 

 

Q.41 What was the theme of World AIDS Day 2018? 

A Check Yourself 

B Save Yourself 

C Know your Status 

D We Shall Overcome 

Answer: C 

 

Q.42 Which theory is used to make long-run predictions about exchange rates in a flexible exchange rate system? 

A Purchasing Power Parity Theory 

B Balance of Payment Theory 

C Interest Rate Approach 

D Portfolio Balance Approach 

Answer: A 

 

Q.43 The study of insects is called ______. 

A Ornithology 

B Anthropology 

C Geology 

D Entomology 

Answer: D 

 

Q.44 In which medical condition is the eye’s optic nerve damaged and the condition worsens over time? 

A Cataract 

B Dry Eye 

C Age-related Macular Degeneration (AMD) 

D Glaucoma 

Answer: D 

 

Q.45 Who was the first Russian prime minister to visit independent India? 

A Nikolai Bulganin 

B Mikhail Gorbachev 

C Boris Yeltsin 

D Vladimir Putin 

Answer: A 

 

Q.46 How many sessions of the Lok Sabha are normally held in a year? 

A 1.7 

B 2.5 

C 3.3 

D 4.2 

Answer: C 

 

Q.47 Which state of India was ruled by the Ahom Dynasty? 

A Karnataka 

B Assam 

C Rajasthan 

D Odisha 

Answer: B 

 

Q.48 Which was the wettest place in India in 2018 as per the India Meteorological Department (IMD)? 

A Cherrapunji 

B Mawsynram 

C Mahabaleshwar 

D Ooty 

Answer: C 

 

Q.49 Which of the following is the highest peak in Sri Lanka? 

A Kirigalpotta 

B Hakgala 

C Mount Pedro 

D Bible Rock 

Answer: C 

 

Q.50 Who among the following was the last Nawab of Awadh? 

A Amjad Ali Khan 

B Muhammad Mukim 

C Wajid Ali Shah 

D Saadat Ali Khan 

Answer: C 

 

Quantitative Aptitude 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.51 In △ABC, P is a point on BC such that BP : PC = 4 : 11. If Q is the midpoint of BP, then ar( △ ABQ) : ar( △ ABC) is equal to: 

A 2:11 

B 2:15 

C 3:13 

D 2:13 

Answer: B 

 

Q.52 If √x + 1/√x= √6 , then x2 + 1/x2is equal to: 

A 18 

B 14 

C 16 

D 12 

Answer: B 

 

Q.53 An article is sold for ₹ 288 after successive discounts of 25% and x%.If the marked price of the article is ₹ 480, what is the value of x? 

A 20 

B 16 

C 15 

D 18 

Answer: A 

 

Q.54 In a class of 50 students, 40% are girls. The average marks of the whole class are 64.4 and the average of the boys’ marks is 62. What is the average marks of the girls? 

A 67 

B 66.8 

C 66.4 

D 68 

Answer: D 

 

Q.55 If 2sinθ = 5cosθ, then (sinθ+cosθ)/(sinθ−cosθ) is equal to: 

A 53

B 95

C 23

D 7 3

Answer: D 

 

Q.56 The efficiencies of A, B and C are in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. Working together, they can complete a task in 21 hours. In how many hours will B alone complete 40% of that task? 

A 28 

B 24 

C 35 

D 21 

Answer: A 

 

Q.57 The value of sin2 32 + sin2 58 − sin30 + sec2 60 ∘ is equal to: 

A 5.5 

B 3.5 

C 4.5 

D 4 

Answer: C 

 

Q.58 If a + b + c = 10 and ab + bc + ca = 32 then a3 + b3 + c3 − 3abc is equal to: 

A 50 

B 40 

C 60 

D 70 

Answer: B 

 

Q.59 If a – b = 5 and ab = 6, then (a3 − b3) is equal to: 

A 225 

B 155 

C 90 

D 215 

Answer: D 

 

Q.60 In a circle with centre O, an are ABC subtends an angle of 110 at the centre of the circle. The chord AB is produced to a point P. Then ∠CBP is equal to: 

A 60

B 55

C 65

D 70

Answer: B

 

Q.61 In a circle of radius 17 cm, a chord is at a distance of 8 cm from the centre of the circle. What is the length of the chord? 

A 20 cm 

B 15 cm 

C 25 cm 

D 30 cm 

Answer: D 

 

Q.62 The Table shows the number of cars sold by three show rooms over a period of six years. 

If the total number of cars sold by all three show rooms over the years is represented as a pie-chart, what is the central angle of the sector representing the total number of cars sold in the year 2013 (to the nearest whole number)? 

A 58

B 62

C 60

D 56

Answer: C 

 

Q.63 The price of sugar is increased by 17%. A person wants to increase his expenditure by 5% only. By approximately what percent should he decrease his consumption? 

A 10.3 

B 10.7 

C 10.9 

D 9.9 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions: The Table shows the number of cars sold by three show rooms over a period of six years. 

Q.64 What is the ratio of the total cars sold by showroom B during the years 2014 and 2016 and the total cars sold by show room C during 2015 and 2016? 

A 86 : 97 

B 88 : 97 

C 85 : 97 

D 88 : 95 

Answer: B 

 

Q.65 By what percent did the total number of cars sold by all three show rooms decrease during the year 2016, as compared to that in the year 2015 (nearest to one decimal place)? 

A 14.6% 

B 14.8% 

C 14.4% 

D 14.9% 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.66 If cosec2θ = sec(3θ − 15), then θ is equal to: 

A 22

B 20 

C 25 

D 21 

Answer: D 

 

Q.67 If (5a – 3b) : (4a – 2b) = 2 : 3, then a : b is equal to: 

A 3 : 4 

B 2 : 3 

C 5 : 8 

D 5 : 7 

Answer: D 

 

Q.68 △ABC ∼ △NLM and ar(△ABC): ar(△LMN) = 4 : 9. If AB = 6 cm, BC = 8 cm and AC =12 cm, then ML is equal to: 

A 18 cm 

B 9 cm 

C 6 cm 

D 12 cm 

Answer: D 

 

Q.69 Two articles are sold for ₹962 each. On one,the seller gains 30% andon the other he loses 26%. What is his overall gain or loss percentage, nearest to one decimal place? 

A 6.0% gain 

B 5.7% loss 

C 5.7% gain 

D 6.0% loss 

Answer: B 

 

Q.70 The Table shows the number of cars sold by three showrooms over a period of six years. 

What is the average number of cars sold by show room A over the given six years (nearest to one decimal place)? 

A 586.7 

B 566.7 

C 594.7 

D 592.7 

Answer: B 

 

Q.71 What is the value of x so that the seven digit number 8439×53 is divisible by 99? 

A 9 

B 4 

C 3 

D 6 

Answer: B 

 

Q.72 The difference between compound interest and simple interest on ₹x at 15% per annum for 2 years is ₹9. What is the value of x? 

A 600 

B 400 

C 450 

D 500 

Answer: B 

 

Q.73 Walking at 7/9 his usual speed, a person reaches his office 10 minutes later than the usual time. His usual time in minutes is: 

A 35 

B 27 

C 42 

D 30 

Answer: A 

 

Q.74 Five cubes, each of edge 3 cm are joined end to end. What is the total surface area of the resulting cuboid, in cm2

A 244 

B 280 

C 270 

D 198 

Answer: D 

 

Q.75 The value of 15.2 + 5.8 ÷ 2.9 × 2 − 3.5 × 2 ÷ 0.5 is equal to: 

A 4.8 

B 3.2 

C 5.2 

D 5.4 

Answer: C

 

English 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.76 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No improvement. How long you are living in this city? 

A are you live 

B are you been living 

C No improvement 

D have you lived 

Answer: D 

 

Q.77 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. They will put away their woollens after the festival of Holi. 

A Their woollens are being put away after the festival of Holi. 

B Their woollens have been put away after the festival of Holi. 

C Their woollens will be put away after the festival of Holi. 

D Their woollens are put away after the festival of Holi. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.78 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. liable to break easily 

A brittle 

B soft 

C bent 

D thin 

Answer: A 

 

Q.79 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. INSULT 

A remove 

B apply 

C offer 

D offend 

Answer: D 

 

Q.80 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. I am quite satisfied that I have not been ________ in doing whatever was needful for building up their character. 

A negligent 

B devoted 

C caring 

D affectionate 

Answer: A 

 

Q.81 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order.

A. He would sit at the edge of her mother’s bed and stare into her crib.

B. Arvind bumbled down the interminable corridor, suddenly reminded of his daughter in the days after she was born.

C. As a proportion to the fragment of life his daughter had seen, an hour was a vast sprawling space.

D. Some days he would imagine the world through her eyes and he would feel in his heart how long an hour actually was. 

A BCDA 

B BADC 

C DACB 

D ABCD 

Answer: B 

 

Q.82 Select the correctly spelt word. 

A mentoin 

B mention 

C mantion 

D mension 

Answer: B 

 

Q.83 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No improvement. The female ostrich guards the nest at night and the male guard it in the day. 

A guard it during the day. 

B guarding it during day. 

C guards it during the day. 

D No improvement 

Answer: C 

 

Q.84 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. PROGRESSIVE 

A conservative 

B repeated 

C aristocratic 

D moving 

Answer: A 

 

Q.85 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. impossible to satisfy 

A satisfactory 

B satisfiable 

C contented 

D insatiable 

Answer: D 

 

Q.86 Select the correct active form of the given sentence. Rudra was laughed at by all his friends when he wore his socks inside- out. 

A If Rudra wears his socks inside-out all his friends will laugh at him. 

B When Rudra wore his socks inside-out all his friends were laughing at him. 

C All his friends will be laughing at Rudra for wearing his socks inside-out. 

D All his friends laughed at Rudra when he wore his socks inside-out. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.87 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Today, _______ society is literally poisoning the earth with acid rain. 

A cosmopolitan 

B developing 

C growing 

D industrialised 

Answer: D 

 

Q.88 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. Let us have all the regulations in black and white. 

A painted in colour 

B printed in coloured ink 

C written on the black- board 

D in writing 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions: In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error. 

Q.89 Although there are more than a hundred known elements, they rarely occur at a pure state. 

A more than a hundred 

B Although there are 

C at a pure state 

D they rarely occur 

Answer: C 

 

Q.90 You may left the class when you have completed the test. 

A the class 

B when you have 

C completed the test 

D You may left 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.91 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order. 

A. It is a popular tourist spot for watching the sunset and sunrise over the ocean. 

B. Kanyakumari is a coastal town in the State of Tamil Nadu on India’s southern tip. 

C. It is also a noted pilgrimage site, thanks to its Bagvathi Amman Temple and Our Lady of Ransom Church, a centre of Indian Catholicism. 

D. Jutting out into the Laccadive sea, the town was known as Cape Comorin during the British rule. 

A ACDB 

B DCAB 

C BDAC 

D BCDA 

Answer: C 

 

Q.92 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. The invigilator did not know that the two boys were exchanging notes under his nose. 

A written in small letters 

B rolled into small pellets 

C wrapped in handkerchiefs 

D right in front of him 

Answer: D 

 

Q.93 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. HOSTILITY 

A enmity 

B sympathy 

C goodwill 

D friendship 

Answer: A 

 

Q.94 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. PUBLIC 

A common 

B ready 

C private 

D resticted 

Answer: C

Q.95 Select the correctly spelt word. 

A sweatter 

B scissors 

C clettering 

D teribble 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 

Comprehension: Marine Conservation Society is hosting the Anjarle Turtle festival 2019, aiming to make more people aware about Olive Ridley turtles. The sea (1) ______ get their names from their olivecoloured (2)______ They grow to about two feet in (3)______ and reportedly mate at around 1000 kilometers from the Anjarle (4)______ These turtles come to the beach to lay (5)______. 

Q.96 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.(1) 

A snakes 

B fish 

C animal 

D turtles 

Answer: D 

 

Q.97 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.(2) 

A wings 

B shells 

C feathers 

D beaks 

Answer: B 

 

Q.98 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.(3) 

A length 

B growth 

C weight 

D depth 

Answer: A 

 

Q.99 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.(4) 

A festival 

B beach 

C sea 

D sand 

Answer: B 

 

Q.100 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.(5) 

A young ones 

B eggs 

C pebbles 

D shells 

Answer: B 

SSC CGL Tier-I 13 June 2019 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL 

(13 June 2019 Shift-I) 

Reasoning 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.1 Select the missing number from the given options. 

A 61 

B 30 

C 29 

D 36 

Answer: D 

 

Q.2 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 1 : 2 :: 5 : ? 

A 120 

B 129 

C 128 

D 130 

Answer: D 

 

Q.3 In a code language, ROUTINE is written as 181521209145. How will VEHICLE be written as in that language? 

A 215893125 

B 225893125 

C 225893115 

D 225793125 

Answer: B 

 

Q.4 Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Which number will be on the face opposite to the one having 4 ? 

A 1 

B 3 

C 6 

D 2 

Answer: C 

 

Q.5 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out. 

A MOQSU 

B PRIWY 

C CEGIK 

D UWYAC 

Answer: B 

 

Q.6 Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? 

116, 128, 146, 170, 200, ? 

A 232 

B 236 

C 264 

D 260 

Answer: B 

 

Q.7 The current age of Savan is four times the age of Akshan. 10 years from now, Savan’s age will be twice the age of Akshan. What is Savan’s current age? 

A 30 years 

B 20 years 

C 10 years 

D 5 years 

Answer: B 

 

Q.8 Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd word out. 

A Humorous 

B Comical 

C Hilarious 

D Gagster 

Answer: D 

 

Q.9 ‘Pencil’ is related to ‘Stationery’ in the same way as ‘Pilates’ is related to ‘ …… ’ 

A Pulses 

B Spices 

C Dry fruits 

D Exercise 

Answer: D 

 

Q.10 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the right of the figure. 

Answer: D 

Q.11 Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.12 Select the missing number from the given options 

A 277 

B 625 

C 361 

D 281 

Answer: A 

 

Q.13 Two statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: 

All fields are farm-houses. 

Some fields are gardens. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some farm-houses are fields. 

II. Some gardens are fields. 

III. Some farm-houses are gardens. 

A All the conclusions, I, II and III, follow 

B Either conclusion I or III follows. 

C Only conclusions I and II follow. 

D Only conclusions I and III follow. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.14 Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order. 1. Accident 2. Ambulance 3. Rash Driving 4. Injury 5. Hospital 6. Treatment 

A 3, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6 

B 3, 4, 1, 2, 5, 6 

C 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 6 

D 3, 1, 4, 2, 6, 5 

Answer: C 

 

Q.15 Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the following word-pair- Resistance : Ohm 

A Time : Clock 

B Temperature : Thermometer 

C Pressure : Barometer 

D Length : Metre 

Answer: D 

 

Q.16 In a code language, ASTRONOMY is written as SARTPONYM. How will FENUGREEK be written as in that language? 

A UNEFGKEER 

B EFUNHKEER 

C EFUNFERKE 

D EFUNHERKE 

Answer: D 

 

Q.17 ‘ A + B ’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’. 

‘ A − B ’ means ‘A is the brother of B’. 

‘ A × B ’ means ‘A is the mother of B’. 

‘ A ÷ B ’ means ‘A is the son of B’. 

If U + C × Q − P ÷ R ÷ S − T, then how is S related to U ? 

A Maternal grandfather 

B Paternal grandfather 

C Mother 

D Paternal grandmother 

Answer: B 

 

Q.18 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation correct? 

40 + 10 ÷ 2 × 8 − 17 = 17

A ÷ and − 

B × and +

C + and −

D ÷ and ×

Answer: C 

 

Q.19 Three of the following four number-pairs are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the number- pair that is different from the rest. 

A 7:46 

B 9:80 

C 6:35 

D 4:15 

Answer: A

 

Q.20 Select the figure in which the given figure is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed). 

Answer: B 

 

Q.21 Which letter will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? 

R, C, T, E, V, ?, X, I 

A Y 

B W 

C G 

D F 

Answer: C 

 

Q.22 How many triangles are there in the following figure ? 

A 26 

B 22 

C 25 

D 24 

Answer: D 

 

Q.23 Select the option that depicts how the given transparent sheet of paper would appear if it is folded at the dotted line. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.24 Which letter-cluster will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? 

PSV, UXA, ZCF, EHK, ? 

A JMO 

B IMP 

C JMP 

D JNP 

Answer: C 

 

Q.25 In the given Venn diagram, the hexagon represents ‘farmers’, the circle represents ‘beneficiaries’ and the square represents ‘land-owners’. The numbers given in the diagram represent the number of persons in that particular category. 

How many farmers are both land-owners and beneficiaries? 

A 21 

B 55 

C 12 

D 52 

Answer: A 

 

General knowledge 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.26 Which player has the record of scoring the most runs in the history of ICC World Cup? 

A Sachin Tendulkar 

B Brian Lara 

C Imran Khan 

D Don Bradman 

Answer: A 


Q.27 When was the ‘Battle of Tukaroi’ fought? 

A 1532 

B 1565 

C 1575 

D 1546 

Answer: C 

 

Q.28 What is the unit of measure of a magnetic field? 

A Cobalt 

B Ohm 

C Tesla 

D Ampere 

Answer: C 

 

Q.29 What is the economic impact of increase in productivity of firms? 

A Decrease in Gross Domestic Product 

B No change in Gross Domestic Product 

C The impact may vary among nations and their economic conditions 

D Increase in Gross Domestic Product 

Answer: D 

 

Q.30 Who is the author of the book ‘The Bird of Time: Songs of Life, Death and the Spring’? 

A Sarojini Naidu 

B Vikram Seth 

C Rabindranath Tagore 

D Kamala Suraiyya 

Answer: A 

 

Q.31 What is the other name for ‘Orion’ Constellation? 

A Piper 

B Fighter 

C Predator 

D Hunter 

Answer: D 

 

Q.32 The process of change from liquid to gas is called ……….. 

A Precipitation 

B Vaporisation 

C Decantation 

D Condensation 

Answer: B

 

Q.33 The Special Olympics 2019 were held in _____. 

A Barcelona 

B Qatar 

C Abu Dhabi 

D Istanbul 

Answer: C 

 

Q.34 In which of the following states is the ‘Lusei’ dialect spoken? 

A Mizoram 

B Goa 

C Manipur 

D Kerala 

Answer: A 

 

Q.35 In Parliament, who takes the final decision on whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not? 

A Vice President 

B Speaker 

C Finance Minister 

D Prime Minister 

Answer: B 

 

Q.36 Rehuke khim’ or ‘cowrie shawl’ are traditional textiles of ______. 

A Assam 

B Jharkhand 

C Odisha 

D Nagaland 

Answer: D 

 

Q.37 In the context of Indian parliament what is ‘Zero Hour’? 

A Time immediately after Q.Hour 

B Time in the last half of the parliamentary proceeding 

C Time before Q.Hour 

D Time in the first half of the parliamentary proceeding 

Answer: A 

 

Q.38 Which of the following is called the ‘Grand Canyon of India’? 

A Gangani Grand Canyon 

B Laitlum Canyon 

C Chambal River Canyon 

D Great Canyon of Gandikota 

Answer: D 

 

Q.39 When was the ‘Battle of Kanauj’ fought? 

A 1540 

B 1524 

C 1556 

D 1536 

Answer: A 

 

Q.40 Which documentary based on Indian society won an Academy Award in 2019? 

A End Game 

B Lifeboat 

C Period. End of Sentence 

D Black Sheep 

Answer: C 

 

Q.41 What would happen to the demand curve when there is an increase in the price of substitute products? 

A Outward shift 

B Remains constant 

C Initially inward and then after a period outward shift 

D Inward shift 

Answer: A 

 

Q.42 The easternmost point of India is _____. 

A Kibithu 

B Wokha 

C Mokokchung 

D Doulchara 

Answer: A 

 

Q.43 Identify the element that is most prolific in the crust of the earth. 

A Iron 

B Silicon 

C Oxygen 

D Hydrogen 

Answer: C 

 

Q.44 The Sahyadri Mountains run from _____ to Kanyakumari, the southernmost part of India. 

A Uttar Pradesh 

B Madhya Pradesh 

C Gujarat 

D Rajasthan 

Answer: C 

 

Q.45 The Aligarh Movement was started by ______. 

A Dr Maghfoor Ahmad Ajazi 

B Muhammad Ali Jinnah 

C Maulana Manzoor Ahsan 

D Syed Ahmed Khan 

Answer: D 

 

Q.46 The phrase ‘Bend your back’ is used in which sport? 

A Hockey 

B Football 

C Volleyball 

D Cricket 

Answer: D 

 

Q.47 Which of the following Indians was one of the founders of Dartington Hall School in Japan? 

A Subhash Chandra Bose 

B Dadabhai Naoroji 

C Swami Vivekananda 

D Rabindranath Tagore 

Answer: D 

 

Q.48 Where is the National War Memorial of India located? 

A Andaman 

B Rajkot 

C New Delhi 

D Kochi 

Answer: C 

 

Q.49 Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose founded ____________ in Bengal in 1876. 

A Bengal Association 

B Indian Association 

C Tathagat Association 

D Oriental Association 

Answer: B 

 

Q.50 Which one of the following is the largest recognised constellation? 

A Hydra 

B Dorado 

C Antila 

D Crux 

Answer: A 

 

Quantitative Aptitude 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.51 An article is sold for ₹ 288 after successive discounts of 20% and 25%. What is the marked price of the article? 

A ₹ 520 

B ₹ 480 

C ₹ 460 

D ₹ 500 

Answer: B 

 

Q.52 If (a – b) = 4 and ab = 2, then (a3 − b3) is equal to: 

A 92 

B 88 

C 84 

D 80 

Answer: B 

 

Q.53 In a circle of radius 17 cm, a chord is at a distance of 15 cm from the centre of the circle. What is the length of the chord? 

A 15 cm 

B 12 cm 

C 8 cm 

D 16 cm 

Answer: D 

 

Q.54 If a : b = 5 : 7, then (5a – 3b) : (4a – 2b) is equal to: 

A 2 : 3 

B 5 : 4 

C 4 : 3 

D 3 : 2 

Answer: A 

 

Q.55 The value of sin2 42 + sin2 48 + tan2 60 − cosec30 is equal to: 

A 5 

B 3 

C 4 

D 2 

Answer: D 

 

Q.56 21.6 ÷ 3.6 × 2 + 0.25 × 16 ÷ 4 − 6 is equal to: 

A 6 

B 5 

C 8 

D 7 

Answer: D 

 

Q.57 If sin3θ = cos(20 − θ) , then θ is equal to: 

A 25 

B 35 

C 28 

D 30 

Answer: B 

Q.58 The efficiencies of A, B, and C are in the ratio 2 : 5 : 3. Working together, they can complete a task in 12 days. In how many days can A alone complete 30% of that task? 

A 15 

B 16 

C 20 

D 18 

Answer: D 

 

Q.59 The price of petrol is increased by 28%. A person wants to increase his expenditure by 22% only. By approximately what percent should he decrease his consumption? 

A 5.3% 

B 4.7% 

C 4.9% 

D 5.1% 

Answer: B 

 

Q.60 In a class of 50 students, 60% are boys. The average of marks of the boys is 62, and that of the girls is 68. What is the average marks of the whole class? 

A 64.8 

B 64.4 

C 65.2 

D 64.6 

Answer: B

 

Q.61 The Table shows the number of students from different schools playing different games. 

What is the average of the number of students who play cricket in all five schools? 

A 180 

B 200 

C 190 

D 185 

Answer: E 

 

Q.62 △ABC ∼ △EDF and ar(△ABC): ar(△DEF) = 1 : 4. If AB = 7cm, BC = 8 cm and CA = 9 cm, then DF is equal to: 

A 8 cm 

B 16 cm 

C 18 cm 

D 14 cm 

Answer: B 

 

Q.63 Six cubes, each of edge 2 cm, are joined end to end. What is the total surface area of the resulting cuboid in cm 2 ? 

A 96 

B 144 

C 104 

D 128 

Answer: C 

 

Q.64 The difference between the compound interest and simple interest on ₹ x at 11% per annum for 2 years is ₹ 60.50. What is the value of x? 

A 4800 

B 4000 

C 5000 

D 4500 

Answer: C 

 

Q.65 Two articles are sold for ₹ 4,752 each. On one, the seller gains 32% and on the other he loses 28%. What is his overall gain or loss percentage, correct to one decimal place? 

A 7.3% gain 

B 7.3% loss 

C 6.8% loss 

D 6.8% gain 

Answer: C 

 

Q.66 If 3sinθ = 2cosθ, then(4sinθ−cosθ) / (4cosθ+sinθ) is equal to: 

A 57

B 58

C 514

D 511

Answer: C 

 

Q.67 If √x − 1/√x= √5 , then x2 + 1/x2 is equal to: 

A 45 

B 49 

C 47 

D 51 

Answer: C 

 

Q.68 The Table shows the number of students from different schools playing different games. 

What is the ratio of the total students who play cricket in schools A and B together to the total students who play hockey in schools D and E ? 

A 15 : 13 

B 15 : 11 

C 16 : 11 

D 16 : 13 

Answer: E 

 

Q.69 In △ABC, P is a point on BC such that BP : PC = 4 : 5 and is the mid-point of BP. Then ar( △ ABQ) : ar( △ ABC) is equal to: 

A 1 : 3 

B 1 : 9 

C 2 : 9 

D 2 : 5 

Answer: C 

 

Q.70 In a circle with centre O, an arcABC subtends an angle of 136 at the centre of the circle. The chord AB is produced to a point P. Then ∠ CBP is equal to: 

A 72 

B 44 

C 68 

D 66 

Answer: C 

 

Q.71 If a + b + c = 8 and ab + bc + ca = 20, then a3 + b3 + c3 − 3abc is equal to: 

A 30 

B 24 

C 32 

D 36 

Answer: C 

 

Q.72 The Table shows the number of students from different schools playing different games. 

The number of students who play football in school A is approximately what percent of the football playing students from all schools? 

A 19.4 

B 19.7 

C 19.9 

D 19.1 

Answer: E 

 

Q.73 Walking ⁵/₇ of his usual speed, a person reaches his office 10 minutes later than the usual time. His usual time in minutes is: 

A 28 

B 30 

C 25 

D 35 

Answer: C 

 

Q.74 What is the value of x so that the seven digit number 55350×2 is divisible by 72? 

A 1 

B 8 

C 7 

D 3 

Answer: C 

 

Q.75 The Table shows the number of students from different schools playing different games. 

If the data about the number of students who play hockey from different schools is represented by a pie- chart, what is the central angle of the sector representing students who play hockey from school C to the nearest whole number? 

A 80 

B 107 

C 102 

D 95 

Answer: E 

 

English 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.76 Select the correct active form of the given sentence. He was given a book for his birthday. 

A She has gave him a book for his birthday. 

B She give a book to him for his birthday. 

C She gave him a book for his birthday. 

D She will be giving him a book for his birthday. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.77 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error. The cost of fruits and vegetables have risen abnormally this month. 

A abnormally 

B The cost of 

C have risen 

D this month. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.78 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No improvement. Meera has a friend who parents live in Dubai. 

A has a friend which parents live 

B have a friend whom parents live 

C has a friend whose parents live 

D No improvement. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.79 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. Too unimportant to consider 

A trivial 

B noticeable 

C nothing 

D dimunitive 

Answer: A 

 

Q.80 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order.

A. Its value is linked to what it is being used for.

B. Such questions often baffle you.

C. How emotional should one get about money and its value?

D. Money on its own has no value, until you have some use for it. 

A CABD 

B DBAC 

C CBDA 

D ACDB 

Answer: C 

 

Q.81 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No improvement. Applications are to be sent to the Principal before 30th May. 

A will be send to 

B are sending to 

C No improvement 

D were being send to 

Answer: C 

 

Q.82 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. It is hard to conceive of a more______ route than the one that this determined traveller chose to follow. 

A stimulating 

B dashing 

C daunting 

D provoking 

Answer: C 

 

Q.83 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. The artist played the violin. 

A The violin had been played by the artist. 

B The violin will be played by the artist. 

C The violin is being played by the artist. 

D The violin was played by the artist. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.84 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. That which can be drawn into a thin wire 

A ductile 

B smooth 

C flexible 

D brittle 

Answer: A 

 

Q.85 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Select the option that gives their correct order.

A. Only natural dyes are used in Kalamkari and it involves several steps.

B. There are two distinctive styles of Kalamkari in India.

C. They are the Sri Kalahasti style and the Machlipatnam style.

D. Kalamkari is a type of hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile, produced in the Indian States of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. 

A CBDA 

B DABC 

C ACDB 

D DCBA 

Answer: B 

 

Q.86 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. OBSTACLE 

A benefit 

B clearance 

C accessory 

D barrier 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions  

Q.87 Select the correctly spelt word.

A fourtyeth 

B fortieth 

C fortyth 

D fourtieth 

Answer: B 

 

Q.88 Select the correctly spelt word.

A taelant 

B centiment 

C serenity 

D cleaver 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.89 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error. Cows are amongst the gentlest of animals; none shows more passionate tenderness towards their young. 

A none shows more 

B towards their young 

C the gentlest of animals 

D Cows are amongst 

Answer: A 

 

Q.90 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Charlie Chaplin’s rise to fame paralleled the ______ growth of Hollywood movies in the first decades of the century. 

A sluggish 

B explosive 

C progressing 

D delayed 

Answer: B 

 

Q.91 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word . ENDEAVOUR 

A success 

B result 

C achievement 

D attempt 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. 

Q.92 The idea of making a children’s park has been nipped in the bud by the local council. 

A encouraged strongly 

B changed completely 

C dropped at an early stage 

D included somewhere else 

Answer: C 

 

Q.93 We now have an ex-Minister in the running from our constituency for the post of Member of Parliament. 

A contesting the seat 

B teaching yoga 

C giving speeches 

D jogging everyday 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. 

Q.94 WEAKNESS 

A illness 

B strength 

C bravery 

D disability 

Answer: B

 

Q.95 TYRANT 

A patron 

B benefactor 

C champion 

D rival 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 

Comprehension: M. Ananda Kumar, scientist, Nature Conservation Foundation says that elephants are “engineers of the eco-system. He explains : they are seed (1)_____ . Forests without (2)_____ have been observed to not have young (3)_____ at all. This is because (4)_____ species disperse seeds only through elephants.” The animals are phenomenal at (5)_____ themselves to new ecological conditions and negotiating a problem. 

Q.96 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.(1) 

A collectors 

B makers 

C eaters 

D dispersers 

Answer: D 

 

Q.97 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.(2) 

A engineers 

B elephants 

C conservation 

D seeds 

Answer: B 

 

Q.98 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.(3) 

A saplings 

B species 

C seeds 

D elephants 

Answer: A 

 

Q.99 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.(4) 

A all 

B certain 

C no 

D every 

Answer: B 

 

Q.100 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.(5) 

A explaining 

B adapting 

C expanding 

D structuring 

Answer: B 

SSC CGL Tier-II 11 September 2019 English Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL  ENGLISH

 Tier-II (11 Sept 2019)  

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.1 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. causing great damage or suffering 

A Catastrophic 

B Spasmodic 

C Catatonic 

D Chasm 

Answer: A 

 

Q.2 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. They also believe that one must not hold on to things if one doesn’t use them and love them anymore. 

B. Finally it’s a very good idea to give the things to someone who can and will use them.

C. They further advise that one can begin the process of decluttering by first checking if the things one wishes to give away are still usable and valuable. 

D. Minimalists believe that clutter causes a lot of stress and wastes precious space. 

A DCBA 

B ABDC 

C DACB 

D CADB 

Answer: C 

 

Q.3 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. Why should always we have to wait for her to join us? 

A for her to join her 

B Why should 

C always we 

D have to wait 

Answer: C 

 

Q.4 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. The priest said to me, “You have committed a cardinal sin.” 

A The priest told me that I had committed a cardinal sin. 

B The priest is saying I have committed a cardinal sin. 

C The priest said if I will be committing a cardinal sin. 

D The priest told me I am committing a cardinal sin. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.5 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. Two children were shot dead by a psychopath during the California music festival. 

A Two children were being shot dead by a psychopath during the California music festival. 

B Two children are shot dead by a psychopath during the California music festival. 

C A psychopath during the California music festival was shooting dead two children. 

D A psychopath shot dead two children during the California music festival. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.6 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Her mother said, “We must have a party to celebrate your promotion.” 

A Her mother said that they must have a party to celebrate her promotion. 

B Her mother said she had been planning a party for celebrating her promotion. 

C Her mother says that they should plan a party to celebrate her promotion. 

D Her mother told that they would be having a party to celebrate her promotion. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.7 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. Somebody feeds the stray dog daily. 

A Daily somebody has fed the stray dog. 

B The stray dog was fed daily. 

C The stray dog is fed daily by somebody. 

D The stray dog will be fed daily. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.8 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. As soon as she was given the slippers, she broke into a dance strutting around in her first ever pair of slippers. 

B. This story may seem strange but it is a fact that, in many villages of India, people don’t have anything to put on their feet. 

C. Goonj , a leading NGO of India, runs a Cloth for Work Scheme and gives clothes and useful items in exchange for work done. 

D. Recently, as part of the scheme, an old lady in a Madhya Pradesh village was given a pair of slippers. 

A DACB 

B CABD 

C CDAB 

D DBAC 

Answer: C 

 

Q.9 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. She is a very good sprinter. I can’t run as fast as she does. 

A no improvement 

B like she is doing 

C as she doing 

D as she do 

Answer: A 

 

Q.10 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. The home then was a bungalow, single storied and bounded by walls. 

B. He states that in the early 1950’s houses in most cities relied on the bungalow model. 

C. According to Gautam Bhatia ,a leading architect we need to bring about a radical change in our model of housing. 

D. Sadly ,nearly 70years later after a 100-fold increase in city population, density and land value we still persist on the same outmoded model 

A CBAD 

B CDAB 

C DBAC 

D CDBA 

Answer: A 


Q.11 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. But today adults as well as a growing number of young parents are cutting down on intake of sugar. 

B. Until about two decades ago, becoming careful about sugar was only for diabetics. 

C. Thus going zero on sugar is fast becoming a popular trend for all. 

D. Before joining this trend doctors advise that we all need to find out whether all sugars are harmful. 

A BACD 

B CDAB 

C ABDC 

D DBAC 

Answer: A 

 

Q.12 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. Unfortunately this resulted in his going to jail. 

B. As a child he always landed in trouble. 

C. Louis Armstrong was a famous jazz musician. 

D. Once he found a pistol and fired it in the street. 

A CBAD 

B CBDA 

C BCAD 

D DABC 

Answer: B 

 

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The car cleaner expressed his inability to continue cleaning my car from 1st July due to his ______ . 

A ill feeling 

B ill health 

C disease 

D disorder 

Answer: B 

 

Q.14 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. A strong feeling of dislike towards someone or something. 

A sympathy 

B telepathy 

C antipathy 

D empathy 

Answer: C 

 

Q.15 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. She is a great cook, has her own blog on YouTube and was followed by one lakh viewers. 

A She is 

B a great cook 

C has her own blog 

D was followed 

Answer: D 

 

Q.16 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. My uncle said, “Just my luck! I’ve missed the bus again.” 

A My uncle exclaimed that he was unlucky as he had missed the bus again. 

B My uncle said he was lucky as he had missed the bus again. 

C My uncle exclaimed that he is once again lucky to miss the bus. 

D My uncle says that he is unlucky as he has missed the bus again. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.17 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Kiran said, “I will reach Patna tomorrow morning.” 

A Kiran said that she will reach Patna tomorrow morning. 

B Kiran says that she will reach Patna tomorrow morning. 

C Kiran said that I will reach Patna the next morning. 

D Kiran said that she would reach Patna the next morning. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.18 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. The Prime Minister holding is the important meeting to review the security and safety of doctors working in government hospitals. 

A of doctors 

B working in 

C to review 

D holding is the 

Answer: D 

 

Q.19 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in the context) to fill in the sentence. Making the final paper was a really difficult task but by the end of the week, I was able to ______ . 

A bark up the wrong tree 

B wrap my head around it 

C cry my eyes out 

D run out of steam 

Answer: B 


Q.20 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. His death was a cause of great speculation. 

B. Edgar Allan Poe was a famous American author. 

C. Within a few days of being found, he died mysteriously on Oct 7, 1849. 

D. He had gone missing on October 3, 1849 and was found a few days later. 

A CDBA 

B BADC 

C BCDA 

D DBCA 

Answer: B 

 

Q.21 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. To express in an unclear way 

A eloquent 

B garbled 

C lucid 

D Intelligible 

Answer: B 

 

Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The sky is quite overcast. We’re ______ to have rain today. 

A likely 

B mostly 

C surely 

D probably 

Answer: A 

 

Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. When my friend suggested going to the mall for lunch, I agreed ______ . 

A at once 

B at large 

C at most 

D at ease 

Answer: A 

 

Q.24 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. This record of migration is one of the greatest natural events on earth. 

B. Each Autumn, millions of Monarch butterflies leave their breeding grounds in US and Canada. 

C. The migration of the Monarch butterfly is an amazing phenomenon. 

D. They travel over 3000 miles to reach their winter habitat in Mexico. 

A ADBC 

B CBDA 

C DCBA 

D ABDC 

Answer: B 

 

Q.25 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. Next, step by step from the shallow waters you are gradually guided to dive in safe areas. 

B. This ‘dry’ lesson is followed by wearing the gear and then entering shallow waters to practice basic scuba diving skills. 

C. The Discover Scuba Diving tour starts with a 30 minute lesson on teaching basic skills outside water. 

D. Finally, what is most reassuring about the whole tour is that your instructor is always by your side to monitor you ill the end of the session. 

A CABD 

B ABDC 

C ABCD 

D CBAD 

Answer: D 


Q.26 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. The airline official said, “We are extremely sorry that the flight has been delayed due to heavy floods.” 

A The airline official announced the airline is extremely sorry that the flight will be delayed due to heavy floods. 

B The airline official announces they are extremely sorry that the flight has been delayed due to heavy floods. 

C The airline official announced that they were extremely sorry that the flight had been delayed due to heavy floods. 

D The airline official announced that we are extremely sorry that the flight has been delayed due to heavy floods. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.27 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. If you wishes to participating at the National level games you’ll have to start getting coaching immediately. 

A wish to participating 

B wished for participating 

C wish to participate 

D no improvement 

Answer: C 

 

Q.28 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. Popular monuments will be kept open till 9 p.m. 

A They had kept popular monuments open till 9 p.m. 

B They are keeping popular monuments open till 9 p.m. 

C They will keep popular monuments open till 9 p.m. 

D They will be keeping popular monuments open till 9 p.m. 

Answer: C

 

Q.29 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. Last evening my friend tells me the funny joke that I have ever heard. 

A that I have 

B ever heard 

C tells me the funny joke 

D Last evening my friend 

Answer: C 

 

Q.30 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. You have been so unwell! How you feeling now? 

A you is feeling 

B you are feeling 

C No improvement 

D are you feeling 

Answer: D 

 

Q.31 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. something happening by chance in a happy and beneficial way 

A serenity 

B serendipity 

C misadventure 

D fortitude 

Answer: B 

 

Q.32 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. Despite this, he was very good at delegating work. 

B. No wonder his films were universally acclaimed. 

C. A Satyajit Ray film was solely his film. 

D. Even after delegation, he was involved in every aspect of the film. 

A DACB 

B CDBA 

C CADB 

D ABDC 

Answer: C 

 

Q.33 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given lacking in variety and interest 

A monotonous 

B fresh 

C exclamatory 

D vibrant 

Answer: A 

 

Q.34 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. I am going to see a play tomorrow evening. 

A seeing 

B no improvement 

C to saw 

D to seeing 

Answer: B 

 

Q.35 Pick a word opposite in meaning to optimistic. 

A energetic 

B pessimistic 

C idealistic 

D realistic 

Answer: B 

 

Q.36 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Rita said, “I’m not feeling well.” 

A Rita said that she was not feeling well. 

B Rita said she will not be feeling well. 

C Rita said she is not feeling well. 

D Rita says that I’m not feeling well. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.37 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in the context) to fill in the sentence. Suman really has ______. She moved to a new house just a month back but already has a lovely garden. 

A a heart of gold 

B a bad hair day 

C a foot in the door 

D green fingers 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions Read the following passage and fill in each blank with words chosen from options given. 

Comprehension: As he started his speech, Harsh was aware that people were listening to him quite (1) ______ . Things seemed to be going quite well. (2) ______ , halfway through the talk, he saw his friend, Ravi look ( 3) ______ his pal Sunil, roll his eyes and whisper in his ear. Harsh (4) ______ understood that Ravi ,who had been upset ever since his promotion, was now (5) ______ disturbance intentionally. 

Q.38 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1. 

A intently 

B smoothly 

C evenly 00

D clearly 

Answer: A 

 

Q.39 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2. 

A Wherever 

B Whenever 

C Moreover 

D However 

Answer: D 

 

Q.40 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3. 

A at 

B opposite 

C through 

D in 

Answer: A 

 

Q.41 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4 

A immediately 

B keenly 

C urgently 

D cleverly 

Answer: A 

 

Q.42 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5. 

A created 

B create 

C creates 

D creating 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.43 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. When I was a child I do not like going out to play in the park. 

A did not like 

B don’t likes 

C no improvement 

D did not liked 

Answer: A 

 

Q.44 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. Something causing shock or dismay 

A frivolous 

B appalling 

C mischievous 

D remarkable 

Answer: B 

 

Q.45 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. My guests doesn’t wanted to eat anything since they weren’t hungry after the party. 

A didn’t want to eat 

B didn’t wanted to eat 

C don’t wants to eat 

D no improvement 

Answer: A 

 

Q.46 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. Please switch on all the lights in the room as it’s getting very dark now. 

A as it were getting 

B no improvement 

C as it was getting 

D when it will get 

Answer: B 

 

Q.47 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. One of the crocodiles was four feet long and almost six years old. 

B. Post this announcement a video of a crocodile attacking a dog has gone viral causing people to panic further. 

C. The authorities have announced that more crocodiles would be sighted once the waters recede. 

D. After the monsoon deluge the Forest Department of Vadodara has so far rescued three crocodiles which had swum into residential areas. 

A BDAC 

B ADBC 

C DACB 

D DCAB 

Answer: C 

 

Q.48 Identify the word that is mis-spelt. 

A Immediate 

B iliterate 

C implement 

D illogical 

Answer: B 

 

Q.49 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in the context) to fill in the sentence. Pallavi worked really hard for the examination and ______ to gain success. 

A struck a sour note 

B hit the bull’s eye 

C beat about the bush 

D left no stone unturned 

Answer: D 

 

Q.50 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. By how many people were you helped in your time of difficulty? 

A How many people helped you in your time of difficulty? 

B How many people were you helping in time of difficulty? 

C How many people are you helped by in your time of difficulty? 

D In your time of difficulty how many people were you helped by? 

Answer: A 

 

Q.51 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. Nobody told me Vanita was unwell. 

A I wasn’t being told by anybody that Vanita was unwell. 

B I wasn’t told by anybody that Vanita was unwell. 

C Nobody told me Vanita was being unwell. 

D Nobody tells me that Vanita was unwell. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.52 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. When Veena returned to India she had to get use driving on the left. 

A to get used to drives 

B to get used to driving 

C No improvement 

D to getting use to 

Answer: B 

 

Q.53 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. The birth of a girl bring great joy to Neha’s family. 

A The birth 

B of a girl 

C to Neha’s family 

D bring great joy 

Answer: D 

 

Q.54 Identify the word that is misspelt. 

A aesthetic 

B equivocal 

C catastrophy 

D ingenious 

Answer: C 

 

Q.55 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in the context) to fill in the sentence. Listen, you need to prioritize. You can’t have your ______! 

A Achilles’heel 

B heebie-jeebies 

C paint the town red 

D finger in every pie 

Answer: D 

 

Q.56 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. This summer, I’ve met down a lot of interesting people. 

A interesting people 

B I’ve met down 

C a lot of 

D This summer 

Answer: B 

 

Q.57 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The business prospect seemed quite ______ so I convinced my friend to partner with me to start the venture. 

A lucrative 

B dubious 

C flourishing 

D prosperous 

Answer: A 

 

Q.58 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. Do not take the coastal road during monsoons. 

A You are not taking the coastal road during monsoons. 

B You will not take the coastal road during monsoons. 

C Coastal road is not being taken during monsoons. 

D Coastal roads should not be taken during monsoons. 

Answer: D

 

Q.59 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. The team manager is examining the documents of all the players. 

A Examination of the documents of all the players was done by the team manager. 

B The documents of all the players are being examined by the team manager. 

C The documents of all the players the team manager is examining. 

D The team manager has been examining the documents of all the players. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.60 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. He asked me if I would like to take that apartment on rent from the next day. 

A “Would you had taken this apartment on rent from tomorrow?” he said to me. 

B “Would you have taken this apartment on rent from the next day?” he said to me. 

C “Would you like to take this apartment on rent from tomorrow?” he said to me. 

D “Would you be liking to take this apartment on rent from tomorrow?” he said to me. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.61 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in the context) to fill in the sentence. Initially I thought I could participate in the international Scholars Contest but when I saw the preparatory material I ______ . 

A missed the boat 

B hit the bull’s eye 

C got cold feet 

D made a scene 

Answer: C 

 

Q.62 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The company gave in to the demands of the employees as it found them ______ . 

A illegal 

B irrational 

C legitimate 

D formidable 

Answer: C 

 

Q.63 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. continuing for a very long time 

A laconic 

B interim 

C concise 

D interminable 

Answer: D 

 

Q.64 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. I won’t be here next week as I’m going to Mumbai to a conference. 

A I won’t 

B be here 

C to a conference 

D as I’m going 

Answer: C 

 

Q.65 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. My daughter fell asleep while she been reading. 

A while she is reading 

B no improvement 

C while she was reading 

D whenever she has reading 

Answer: C 

 

Q.66 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. Teenagers don’t like being told what to do. 

A Being told what to do was not being liked by teenagers. 

B Teenagers should not be told what to do. 

C Being told what to do is not liked by teenagers. 

D Teenagers are not liking being told what to do. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.67 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. Its chief feature is that the reader is given the opportunity to play along and engage in the process of deduction. 

B. A whodunit is a kind of detective story made famous by Agatha Christie. 

C. Thus, along with the protagonist the reader is also involved in solving the case. 

D. As the reader goes along he/she takes note of the clues, deduces and tries to identify the criminal before the climax. 

A ABCD 

B BDAC 

C DABC 

D BADC 

Answer: D 

 

Q.68 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. The metro service is so good that one doesn’t have to wait since a few minutes. 

A beyond a few minutes 

B No improvement 

C for some few minutes 

D up to a few minutes 

Answer: A 

 

Q.69 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- Have you any idea where is Anya? 

A where Anya were? 

B No improvement 

C where was Anya? 

D where Anya is? 

Answer: D 

 

Q.70 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. I am really bored of this movie! When was it end? 

A it end? 

B I am really bored 

C of this movie 

D When was 

Answer: D 

 

Q.71 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. I’m going to the airport to receives my friend. 

A my friend 

B to the airport 

C to receives 

D I’m going 

Answer: C 

 

Q.72 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. People are reading the articles on using plastic waste innovatively with interest. 

A The articles on innovative use of plastic waste are read with interest. 

B The articles on using plastic waste innovatively are being read with interest. 

C People have been reading the articles on using plastic waste innovatively with interest. 

D People were reading the articles on using plastic waste innovatively with interest. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.73 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “You speak such good English!” said Mary. 

A Mary exclaimed that I speak so much good English. 

B Mary told me I was speaking much good English. 

C Mary exclaimed that I spoke very good English. 

D Mary exclaimed that I was speaking very good English. 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. 

Comprehension: The four-year tiger census report, Status of Tigers in India, 2018, released by Prime Minister Narendra Modi shows numbers of the cat have increased across all landscapes. 

The Global Tiger Forum, an international collaboration of tiger-bearing countries, has set a goal of doubling the count of wild tigers by 2022. More than 80% of the world’s wild tigers are in India, and it’s crucial to keep track of their numbers. 

The total count in 2018 has risen to 2,967 from 2,226 in 2014 — an increase of 741 individuals an increase of 33%, in four years. 

This is by far the biggest increase in terms of both numbers and percentage since the four?yearly census using camera traps and the capture-mark-recapture method began in 2006. The 2018 figure has a great degree of credibility because, according to the report, as many as 2,461 individual tigers (83% of the total) have actually been photographed by trap cameras. In 2014, only 1,540 individuals (69%) were photographed. 

The tiger census is needed because the tiger sits at the peak of the food chain, and its conservation is important to ensure the well-being of the forest ecosystem. The tiger estimation exercise includes habitat assessment and prey estimation. The numbers reflect the success or failure of conservation efforts. This is an especially important indicator in a fast-growing economy like India where the pressures of development often run counter to the demands of conservation. 

Where has the tiger population increased the most? The biggest increase has been in Madhya Pradesh — a massive 218 individuals (71%) from 308 in 2014 to 526. 

However, since tigers keep moving between states, conservationists prefer to talk about tiger numbers in terms of landscapes. 

So, why have the numbers gone up? The success owes a lot to increased vigilance and conservation efforts by the Forest Department. From 28 in 2006, the number of tiger reserves went up to 50 in 2018, extending protection to larger numbers of tigers over the years. Healthy increases in core area populations eventually lead to migrations to areas outside the core; this is why the 2018 census has found tigers in newer areas. Over the years, there has been increased focus on tigers even in the areas under the territorial and commercial forestry arms of Forest Departments. 

The other important reason is increased vigilance, and the fact that organized poaching rackets have been all but crushed. According to Nitin Desai of Wildlife Protection Society of India, there has been no organized poaching by traditional gangs in Central Indian landscapes since 2013. 

The increased protection has encouraged the tiger to breed. Tigers are fast breeders when conditions are conducive. 

The rehabilitation of villages outside core areas in many parts of the country has led to the availability of more inviolate space for tigers. 

Also, because estimation exercises have become increasingly more accurate over the years, it is possible that many tigers that eluded enumerators in earlier exercises were counted this time. 

 

Q.74 The Global Tiger Forum comprises – 

A countries which have tigers. 

B National Geographic and World Wildlife Fund. 

C all countries of the United Nations. 

D America and the European Union. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.75 The biggest increase in tiger population has been between the years 

A 2014-2018 

B 2002-2006 

C 2006-2010 

D 2010-2014 

Answer: A 

 

Q.76 The year 2022 marks the target date for – 

A tripling the world tiger population. 

B tripling India’s tiger population. 

C doubling the count of world tiger population. 

D doubling the count of India’s tiger population. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.77 2018 census on the big cat has been the most reliable because? 

A it photographed 1540 tigers. 

B it photographed 83% of the tigers. 

C it photographed all living tigers of India. 

D it only uses the capture-mark-recapture method. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.78 The survival of the tiger is vital today because? 

A it is no longer a threat to the villagers’ safety. 

B it is central to the food chain and the eco system. 

C it promotes tourism in India and increases revenue. 

D it is now on the verge of extinction. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.79 Researchers refer to places where tigers are found not by states but by the term? 

A green belts 

B deep forests 

C landscapes 

D ecosystems 

Answer: C 

 

Q.80 What is the tiger population of Madhya Pradesh? 

A 28 

B 741 

C 50 

D 526 

Answer: D 

 

Q.81 Which of the following statements is not true as per the passage? 

A There are more reliable ways of data collection 

B Forest departments have become more watchful 

C The tiger reserves have increased to 100 in 2018 

D Poaching gangs have been reduced drastically 

Answer: C 

 

Q.82 What has been the impact of providing inviolate spaces for tigers? 

A The poachers have been caught in these spaces very easily. 

B The number of villagers killed by man eater tigers has increased. 

C Tiger numbers have increased due to safe breeding places. 

D Tigers have moved from Uttar Pradesh to Madhya Pradesh. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.83 Pick out a word that is similar in meaning to: CONDUCIVE 

A reclusive 

B helpful 

C unfavorable 

D hindering 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.84 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. Does an English examination begin at 10 o’clock? 

A 10 o’clock? 

B English examination 

C begin at 

D Does an 

Answer: D 

 

Q.85 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. Please give me some more time to complete the assignments. 

A You may please give me some more time to complete the assignments. 

B I am requesting you to give me some more time to complete the assignments. 

C Some more time will be given to me to complete the assignments. 

D I may please be given some more time to complete the assignments. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.86 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Rohan smiled and said that he thought Jojo liked him. 

A Rohan smiled and said he thought, “Jojo likes me!” 

B Rohan smiled and said, “I think Jojo likes me!” 

C Rohan smiled and said, “They think Jojo likes me!” 

D Rohan smiled and asked, “Do you think Jojo likes me?” 

Answer: B 

 

Q.87 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. The Inspector stopped the boy and asked where he went. 

A he had going 

B No improvement 

C he has gone 

D he was going 

Answer: D 

 

Q.88 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. I use to going for a morning walk when I was living in Dehradun. 

A living in Dehradun 

B for a morning walk 

C when I was 

D use to going 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. 

Q.89 The commander ordered his battalion to march on. 

A The commander says to his battalion, “Please march on.” 

B “March on!” the commander said to his battalion. 

C The commander says to his battalion, “March on!” 

D The commander gives his battalion order, “March on!” 

Answer: B 

 

Q.90 The lawyer says, “My client is innocent.” 

A The lawyer said that his client is innocent. 

B The lawyer says that his client is innocent. 

C The lawyer says my client was innocent. 

D The lawyer said that my client is innocent. 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions Read the following passage and fill in each blank with words chosen from options given? 

Comprehension: I was friends with the artist Bhupen Khakar. He was one of the (1) ______ human beings I have ever met. I learnt (2) ______ from him. When we were in Baroda we (3) ______ meals together all the time. I _____ (4) ______ remember how his caretaker (5) ______ family to him and he would often (6) ______ his children to school and taught _______(7) ______ mathematics. His studio was in the (8) ______ of the house and (9) ______ for anyone to come in (10) ______ at his work. 

Q.91 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1 

A Finer 

B finest 

C few 

D fine 

Answer: B 

 

Q.92 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2 

A a lot 

B the more 

C a lots 

D the less 

Answer: A 

 

Q.93 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3 

A would had 

B having had 

C has had 

D would have 

Answer: D 

 

Q.94 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4 

A still 

B until 

C never 

D alone 

Answer: A 

 

Q.95 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5 

A is 

B was 

C be 

D were 

Answer: B 

 

Q.96 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.6 

A to drop 

B dropping 

C dropped 

D drop 

Answer: D 

 

Q.97 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.7 

A those 

B their 

C they 

D them 

Answer: D 

 

Q.98 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.8 

A centering 

B centralized 

C centre 

D central 

Answer: C 

 

Q.99 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.9 

A open 

B was opening 

C opens 

D opening 

Answer: A 

 

Q.100 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.10 

A to look 

B to watch 

C looking upon 

D for looking 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.101 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. What shall we do on ourselves this evening? 

A this evening 

B on ourselves 

C What shall 

D we do 

Answer: B 

 

Q.102 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “Let’s go out for dinner. I’ve been home this whole week,” said Anna. 

A Anna said to me that we must go out for dinner as she has been home that whole week. 

B Anna told me she was wanting to go out for dinner and had been home this whole week. 

C Anna told me she is at home the whole week and would like to go out for dinner. 

D Anna suggested we go out for dinner as she had been home that whole week. 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. 

Q.103 They sealed all unauthorized farms on the highway. 

A All unauthorized farms on the highway were sealed. 

B They are sealing all unauthorized farms on the highway. 

C All unauthorized farms on the highway have sealed the authorities. 

D The authorities were sealing all unauthorized farms on the highway. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.104 Do you think that the government will accept our demands? 

A Do you think we will accept the government demands? 

B Do you think that our demands will be accepted by the government? 

C Do you think that the government is going to accept our demands? 

D Do you think that our demands have been accepted by the government? 

Answer: B 

 

Q.105 How many languages are spoken in India? 

A How many languages did the Indians speak? 

B How many languages are Indians speaking? 

C How many languages do people in India speak? 

D People have been speaking how many languages in India? 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.106 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in the context) to fill in the sentence. In my parents’ time, we mostly ate at home and family outings happened ______ . 

A once in a blue moon 

B behind the back 

C in fine feather 

D shoulder to shoulder 

Answer: A 

 

Q.107 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “Go on, apply for the job,” said my best friend. 

A My best friend says I should go off and apply for the job. 

B My best friend had said to me to go on and apply for the job. 

C My best friend encouraged me to apply for the job. 

D You should apply for the job my best friend said. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.108 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. These tribes believe that they can communicate with dead ancestors only through this language. 

B. Today, linguists call such a language an “isolated” language. 

C. Zuni is a language spoken only by the Zuni tribes. 

D. It is remarkable that these tribes have been able to preserve their language. 

A BCDA 

B ADCB 

C CADB 

D DABC 

Answer: C 

 

Q.109 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. High interest rates are alarming automobile dealers. 

A Automobile dealers is being alarmed by high interest rates. 

B High interest rates has been alarmed by automobile dealers. 

C High interest rates have alarmed automobile dealers. 

D Automobile dealers are being alarmed by high interest rates. 

Answer: D

 

Q.110 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “You should lock your car as there have been some instances of theft,” said Anil. 

A There have been instances of theft so I should lock my car was told to me by Anil. 

B Anil advised me that I should lock my car as there had been some instances of theft. 

C There have been some instances of theft so I should have locked my car said Anil. 

D Anil said he must lock his car because there were some instances of theft. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.111 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. Instead of studying in home I went to my friend’s house. 

A in home 

B I went 

C Instead of studying 

D to my friend’s house. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.112 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given Impossible to satisfy 

A palatable 

B insatiable 

C insane 

D magnanimous 

Answer: B 

 

Q.113 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “I’m so sorry! I totally forgot about the meeting,” he said. 

A He is being sorry for having totally forgotten about the meeting. 

B He apologized and said he had totally forgotten about the meeting. 

C He was so sorry that he had forgot totally about the meeting. 

D Having forgotten totally about the meeting he is very sorry. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.114 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. I couldn’t visit my aunt as there were the traffic jam due to an accident. 

A no improvement 

B are a traffic jam 

C were a traffic jam 

D was a traffic jam 

Answer: D 

 

Q.115 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. We have written all the library rules on the notice-board. 

A All the library rules have been written on the notice-board. 

B All the library rules were written on the notice-board. 

C All the library rules are being written on the notice-board. 

D We are writing all the library rules on the notice-board. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.116 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. The Queen said to the ministers, “Cut off the prisoner’s head!” 

A The Queen ordered the ministers to cut off the prisoner’s head. 

B Screaming at the ministers the Queen is ordering to cut off the prisoner’s head. 

C The prisoner’s head would be cut off screamed the queen to the ministers. 

D The Queen told the ministers that to cut off the prisoner’s head. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.117 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. We waited till 10 pm for our guests but they never turned up. 

A was waiting 

B no improvement 

C have been waited 

D are waiting 

Answer: B 

 

Q.118 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in the context) to fill in the sentence. That student of yours has such sound values. She’s indeed a ______ . 

A rare bird 

B barrel of laughs 

C pain in the neck 

D pot calling the kettle black 

Answer: A 

 

Q.119 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. 

Mother said, “Sonam, don’t throw tantrums.” 

A Mother warns Sonam not to throw tantrums. 

B Mother said that Sonam is not to throw tantrums. 

C Mother told Sonam not to throw tantrums. 

D Mother says to Sonam not to throw tantrums. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.120 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. The most helpful thing you can do is to hold someone’s hand when they most need it.

B. Also, jotting down notes for your seniors on ward rounds is probably not the most important thing. 

C. My first year as a doctor in U.K. is over and this is what I have learnt. 

D. No matter what anyone tells you, writing that urgent discharge summary is not the most important thing you will do today. 

A DBAC 

B CDBA 

C ABDC 

D CBAD 

Answer: B 

 

Q.121 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. He likes to put all the garbage ino a black small bag . 

A into a 

B all the garbage 

C He like to put 

D black small bag 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions Read the following passage and fill in each blank with words chosen from options given: 

Comprehension: One can soon feast (1) ______ eyes on Humayun’s Tomb (2) ______ Safdarjung Tomb at night, with the government deciding to keep 10 heritage (3) ______ open to the (4) ______ from sunrise (5) ______ 9 p.m. The announcement was made (6) ______ morning by the Union Minister for Culture and (7) ______ . Currently, most monuments (8) ______ for visitors at 6pm.The change in timings (9) ______ effective for a period (10) ______ 3 years. 

Q.122 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1 

A her’s 

B ours 

C one’s 

D theirs 

Answer: C 

 

Q.123 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2 

A therefore 

B both 

C by 

D and 

Answer: D 

 

Q.124 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 3 

A building 

B monument 

C apartments 

D monuments 

Answer: D 

 

Q.125 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4 

A peoples 

B mob 

C public 

D residents 

Answer: C 

 

Q.126 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5 

A in 

B by 

C for 

D till 

Answer: D 

 

Q.127 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.6. 

A this 

B then 

C those 

D that 

Answer: A 

 

Q.128 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.7 

A Tour 

B Tourist 

C Tourists 

D Tourism 

Answer: D 

 

Q.129 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 8 

A close 

B was closed 

C having closed 

D was being closed 

Answer: A 

 

Q.130 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 9 

A will be 

B has been 

C will have been 

D would have been 

Answer: A 

 

Q.131 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 10 

A about 

B into 

C through 

D of 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow: 

Comprehension: A few years ago it seemed as if the moment for stand-up comedy had arrived. By the end of 2017, stand-up comedians were on the cover of a magazine, signaling the coming of age of the industry. 

The stand-up game attracted investors in the right places: on platforms like Netflix and Amazon Prime, apart from increasing open mic schedules in venues across cities. Two major companies Comedy Store and Canvas Laugh Club arrived on the scene and were game changers. 

But despite a heady start, the comic landscape has changed drastically today with stand- up comedians feeling the brunt of faltering payments and cancelled shows. Despite a good start, the Indian stand-up industry is still unorganized and uncertain for comics. 

If you ask viral comic Kunal Kamra about the scene, he says that the audience isn’t really ‘invested’ in the art form at the moment and that only ten or twenty tickets would sell if comics weren’t on the internet promoting themselves. And this is despite the surge in open mics and more stand-ups coming in. 

Last year, new-age Indian comedy’s reputation came under strain when allegations under the #MeToo movement exposed a darker side of the circuit. Since then, the big three comedy groups: All India Bakchod, SNG Comedy and East India Comedy, have either disbanded or had founding members quit. 

Jeeya Sethi, a leading comedian says, “It’s a good thing that these -collectives have died because they mostly had men with no women being showcased.” 

Sethi adds saying that it isn’t as easy as it sounds. “In a fledgling industry, a viral YouTube video isn’t a sign that you’ve made it”. Craft takes time. Every comic who does two open mics calls himself a comedian. In my opinion, you have to do comedy for more than 20 years to be a comic. It takes at least five years to find your voice.” 

 

Q.132 By saying ‘the audience has not invested in the stand-up comedy art form’ the author means that? 

A the audience prefers to watch only women comedians. 

B it is a new art form and it will take time to build an audience. 

C the audience don’t wish to develop a sense of humour. 

D there are faltering payments and cancelled shows. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.133 The stand-up comedy show had a wonderful start because- 

1. Open mic shows were held in venues across cities. 

2. Leading companies came forward to support artists. 

3. Payments to artists were prompt and good. 

4. Some Bollywood directors offered them roles. 

5. Comedians were given good media coverage. 

A 3, 4 & 5 

B 1, 2 & 5 

C 2, 4 & 5 

D 2, 3 & 4 

Answer: B 

 

Q.134 Select the word which means the same as ‘fledgling’ in the given context. 

A a nervous person who frets a lot 

B a fairly new company or industry 

C a mature person who performs well 

D a successful and established venture 

Answer: B 

 

Q.135 How has the situation been reversed from the early success of stand-up comedy? 

A SNG Comedy and East India Comedy support the comedians. 

B Comedians are being offered double the price asked by them. 

C Comedy Store and Canvas Laugh Club are offering bigger platforms to comedians. 

D Comedy groups are packing up and founders are resigning. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.136 Sethi believes that- 

1. The road to success is only through YouTube. 

2. A a viral YouTube video is a sign of success. 

3. Comedy is an art form and takes hard work and patience. 

4. The true comic artist takes years to find one’s voice. 

A 1 & 3 

B 2 & 4 

C 1 & 2 

D 3 & 4 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.137 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. Ravi can’t come to the meeting as he was not well. 

A couldn’t came 

B could come 

C couldn’t come 

D no improvement 

Answer: C 

 

Q.138 Find a word that is the synonym of Philanthropist. 

A humanitarian 

B philosopher 

C humanist 

D misant 

Answer: A 

 

Q.139 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. These houses which were built 20 years ago are now in need of repairs. 

A which can built 

B no improvement 

C which was build 

D who was built 

Answer: B

 

Q.140 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. Splendid and expensive-looking 

A sumptuous 

B peculiar 

C curious 

D malicious 

Answer: A 

 

Q.141 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence.If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. Don’t stay in school after 2 p.m. All the teachers have been leaving by then. 

A are leave 

B will have left 

C must left 

D No improvement 

Answer: B 

 

Q.142 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. I have an invite from a friend to visit the Canada and United States next month. 

A no improvement 

B to Canada or the united states 

C to the Canada and United States 

D Canada and the United States 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. 

Q.143 Reena said, “What a lovely scene! I wish I could stay here forever!” 

A Reena said with happiness that was a lovely scene. She wishes to stay there forever. 

B Reena exclaimed that it was a lovely scene. She further wished that she could stay there forever. 

C Reena says this is a lovely scene. I wish I could stay there forever. 

D Reena said what a lovely scene! She wished she could stay here forever. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.144 My grandfather wished that God should give me success in my new venture. He further said that his prayers would always be with me. 

A My grandfather says to me, “God might give you success in your new venture! My prayers are always going to be with you.” 

B My grandfather said to me, “Maybe God will give you success in your new venture! My prayers would always be with you.” 

C My grandfather wished to me, “May God give to you success in your new venture! My prayers are always with you.” 

D My grandfather said to me, “May God give you success in your new venture! My prayers will always be with you.” 

Answer: D 

 

Q.145 The salesman said to me, “All the gift items are new. We received this consignment yesterday.” 

A The salesman informed me that all the gift items were new. He further said they had received that consignment the day before. 

B The salesman informed to me about all the gift items that they were new. They received that consignment the day before. 

C The salesman told me that all the gift items are new. He further said we received this consignment yesterday. 

D The salesman said to me that all the gift items are new. We received that consignment yesterday. 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.146 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. Seeming reasonable 

A plausible 

B permeable 

C versatile 

D volatile 

Answer: A 

 

Q.147 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. Whenever we go out we spend a lot money on food. 

A much of 

B most of 

C a lot of 

D no improvement 

Answer: C 

 

Q.148 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A In those allotted minutes the directors have the freedom to interpret the segments in their own unique way. 

B The play has been divided into segments of 10 minutes each by the directors. 

C Eight young directors, over 50 actors and one landmark play-Hayavadana. 

D This unique collaboration is a tribute to the playwright Girish Karnad. 

A BACD 

B CDBA 

C ADBC 

D CABD 

Answer: B 

 

Q.149 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. An apple carries about 100 million useful bacteria. 

A About 100 million useful bacteria are being carried by an apple. 

B An apple will carry about 100 million useful bacteria. 

C The useful bacteria to be carried in an apple is about 100 million. 

D About 100 million useful bacteria are carried by an apple. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.150 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. High level security arrangements were made for the forthcoming visit to a Japanese Prime Minister. 

A security arrangements 

B were made 

C for the forthcoming 

D visit to a 

Answer: D 

 

Q.151 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. Preparations are being made for our Annual fest. 

A We are making preparations for our Annual fest. 

B We have made preparations for our Annual fest. 

C Preparations were being made for our Annual fest. 

D Our Annual fest preparations are made. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.152 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. My student,a doctor by profession, preferring to walk to the hospital everyday. 

A preferring walking 

B no improvement 

C prefers to walk 

D prefer to walking 

Answer: C 

 

Q.153 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. The teacher said to Rana, “Have you completed the project?” 

A The teacher asked Rana that if Rana has completed the project. 

B The teacher asks Rana have you completed the project. 

C The teacher asked Rana whether he had completed the project. 

D The teacher asks Rana will you complete the project. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.154 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Sonia says, “I love the monsoons.” 

A Sonia said that she loved the monsoons. 

B Sonia says that she loves the monsoons. 

C Sonia says that she is loving the monsoons. 

D Sonia said that she was loving the monsoons. 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. 

Comprehension: According to a new American study headed by Dr. Willis, it has been found that people who exercise in the morning seem to lose more weight than people completing the same workouts later in the day. 

These findings help shed light on the vexing issue of why some people shed considerable weight with exercise and others almost none. The study adds to the growing body of science suggesting that the timing of various activities, including exercise, could affect how those activities affect us. 

The relationship between exercise and body weight is somewhat befuddling. Multiple past studies show that a majority of people who take up exercise to lose weight drop fewer pounds than would be expected, given how many calories they are burning during their workouts. Some gain weight. But a few respond quite well, shedding pound after pound with the same exercise regimen that prompts others to add inches. 

The Midwest Trial 2, was conducted in the University of Kansas, U.S. on how regular, supervised exercise influences body weight. The trial involved 100 overweight, previously inactive young men and women who were made to work out five times a week at a physiology lab, jogging or otherwise sweating until they had burned up to 600 calories per session. 

After 10 months of this regimen, almost everyone had dropped pounds. But the extent of their losses fluctuated wildly, even though everyone was doing the same, supervised workout. A team of researchers started brainstorming what could be responsible for the enormous variability in the weight loss. 

They hit upon activity timing. They decided to do a Follow -up study of the Mid West Trial 2. In this new study,the Mid West Trial 2 Follow up study the researchers now studied a team of participants who could visit the gym whenever they wished between 7 a.m. and 7 p.m. They also tracked everyone’s calorie intakes and daily movement habits throughout the 10 months. They knew, too, whether and by how much people’s weights had changed. Now, they checked weight change against exercise schedules and quickly noticed a consistent pattern. 

Those people who usually worked out before noon had lost more weight, on average, than the men and women who typically exercised after 3 p.m. The researchers uncovered a few other, possibly relevant differences between the morning and late-day exercisers. The early-exercise group tended to be slightly more active throughout the day, taking more steps in total than those who worked out later. They also ate less. These factors may cumulatively have contributed to the striking differences in how many pounds people lost, Dr. Willis says. 

Thus it seems that people who worked out before noon lost more weight, on average, than those who typically exercised after 3 p.m. But Dr. Willis also points out that most of those who worked out later in the day did lose weight, even if not as much as the larkish exercisers, and almost certainly became healthier. “I would not want anyone to think that it’s not worth exercising if you can’t do it first thing in the morning,” he says. “Any exercise, at any time of day, is going to be better than none.” 

Q.155 The Mid West Trail 2 was a 

A A European study on 100 participants who exercised 7 times a week and burnt 800 calories. 

B Canadian study on 500 participants who exercised 6 times a week and burnt 600 calories. 

C U.S based study on 100 participants who exercised 5 times a week and burnt 600 calories 

D U.S based study on 100 participants who exercised 3 times a week and burnt 300 calories. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.156 The Mid West Trial 2 duration was – 

A 12 months 

B 6 months 

C 18 months 

D 10 months 

Answer: D 

 

Q.157 Select the option that is not true as per the passage. Several studies show that as a result of the workout- 

A the majority lost a little weight. 

B a few had the desired weight loss. 

C some gained some weight. 

D most gained a lot of weight. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.158 What was the difference between the Mid West Trial 2 study and the Mid West Trial 2 Follow-up study that was taken up later? 

A The duration of the follow up study was longer. 

B The calorie intake and the time of exercise were examined. 

C Participants of the study stayed in the premises. 

D Face to face interviews were conducted. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.159 The finding of the Mid West Trial 2 Follow- up study was that the best time for exercise was- 

A noon to 3 p.m. 

B between 3-7 p.m. 

C before noon. 

D 7 p.m. onwards. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.160 Select the option which is not true. The successful weight losers in the Mid West Trial 2 Follow-up study ____________ 

A remained active. 

B slept more. 

C walked more. 

D ate less. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.161 Select the correct option. By ‘larkish exercisers’ the writer refers to people who- 

A love to see the lark in the morning. 

B like to exercise late with the larks. 

C like to sing in the morning. 

D exercise in the morning. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.162 Find one word which means the same as the following. a set of rules about food and diet that someone follows 

A catalogue 

B regiment 

C regimen 

D fundamental 

Answer: C 

 

Q.163 Find one word in the passage which means the same as ‘confusing’. 

A brainstorming 

B vexing 

C befuddling 

D striking 

Answer: C 

 

Q.164 What would Dr. Willis say to someone who has given up exercising because they cannot do so in the morning? 

A Exercise is good only in the morning. 

B Exercise only with a trainer. 

C Any exercise is better than none. 

D Evening is the worst time to exercise. 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.165 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in the context) to fill in the sentence. Colleges cannot ______ to ragging because of the Anti Ragging Act. 

A turn a blind eye 

B add fuel to the fire 

C look forward 

D look someone in the eye 

Answer: A 

 

Q.166 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. I had a hard time paying the driver as I had only hundreds rupee note. 

A paying the driver 

B only hundreds rupee note 

C I had a hard time 

D as I had 

Answer: B 

 

Q.167 Identify the word that is misspelt. 

A Miscellaneous 

B Umbilical 

C Prophesy 

D Accomodation 

Answer: D 

 

Q.168 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in the context) to fill in the sentence. During the staff meeting there was a lot of ruckus since many didn’t ______ with the authorities. 

A see eye to eye 

B put their best foot forward 

C put their foot down 

D move up in the world 

Answer: A 

 

Q.169 Pick a word opposite in meaning to Predecessor. 

A processor 

B lessor 

C oppressor 

D successor 

Answer: D 

 

Q.170 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. Furthermore, make sure that you give some vivid details of the city making it as real as you can. 

B. For example, if it begins in a city, give details about the city. 

C. First of all make it as specific as possible. 

D. While writing a story or a novel the setting is very important. 

A DCBA 

B CABD 

C ACBD 

D DABC 

Answer: A 

 

Q.171 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in the context) to fill in the sentence. I could make out that the conversation was leading to a fight so I ______ . 

A nipped it in the bud 

B cut corners 

C killed two birds with a stone 

D made a song and a dance 

Answer: A 

 

Q.172 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. Therefore, I firmly believe that this curriculum be extended to all schools. 

B. I believe that India as a country needs the happiness curriculum. 

C. They are a dejected lot and will definitely benefit from this curriculum. 

D. It is really needed for the younger generation. 

A ABDC 

B BCAD 

C BDCA 

D CDAB 

Answer: C 

 

Q.173 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. I had to go to the doctor because I was not bear the pain in my tooth. 

A had to go 

B in my tooth 

C to the doctor 

D was not bear 

Answer: D 

 

Q.174 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. The fear of water 

A claustrophobia 

B autophobia 

C hydrophobia 

D pyrophobia 

Answer: C 

 

Q.175 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. My boss said, “Do you think you can complete the report within five days?” 

A My boss said to me do you think I can complete the report within five days? 

B My boss asked me whether I thought I could complete the report within five days. 

C My boss said to me if I think I can complete the report within five days. 

D My boss says do you think you can complete the report within five days? 

Answer: B 

 

Q.176 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. To write a poem I need a pen, a diary and also the quiet place. 

A a diary 

B To write 

C and also the 

D I need 

Answer: C 

 

Q.177 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. I think that capitalism is not a better economic system for our country. 

A was not the good 

B is not better 

C no improvement 

D is not a good 

Answer: D 

 

Q.178 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. The play on environment issues was performed with great professionalism by our students. 

A Our students performed the play on environment issues with great professionalism. 

B Our students were to perform with great professionalism the play on environment issue. 

C Our students have been performing the play on environment issues with great professionalism. 

D The play on environment issues was being performed with great professionalism by our students. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.179 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “Don’t overspeed at night,” I said to Irina. 

A I warned Irina not to overspeed at night. 

B Over speeding at night is not good, I said to Irina. 

C I warn to Irina not to overspeed at night. 

D I had been warning Irina not to overspeed at night. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.180 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. Therefore an advanced ambulance needs to reach the patient immediately. 

B. A cardiac arrest, as is well known, needs revival within 4 minutes. 

C. A question often asked by us in India is whether we will get timely health care in an emergency. 

D. But even in Delhi, the capital city, a patient does not get emergency care. 

A ABDC 

B BCAD 

C CDAB 

D CBAD 

Answer: D 

 

Q.181 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. My friend told me I could stay at his place in Dehradun whenever I wished. 

A My friend said, “You will be coming to stay at my place in Dehradun whenever you wish.” 

B My friend said, “If you are wishing to come to Dehradun come and stay in my place.” 

C My friend said, “You can stay at my place in Dehradun whenever you wish.’’ 

D My friend said, “You will come and be staying in my place in Dehradun whenever you wish.” 

Answer: C 

 

Q.182 Find a word that is the synonym of impoverished. 

A spendthrift 

B generous 

C wealthy 

D penniless 

Answer: D 

 

Q.183 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. I don’t like movies who has an unhappy ending. 

A who has 

B I don’t 

C like movies 

D an unhappy ending 

Answer: A 

 

Q.184 Find a word that is the synonym of Stoical. 

A ruffled 

B apathetic 

C panicky 

D equivocal 

Answer: B 

 

Q.185 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. Our home was built in 1990 by my father. 

A Our home was being built in 1990 by my father. 

B My father had built our home in 1990. 

C My father was building our home in 1990.

D My father built our home in 1990. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.186 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Mary said, “I have to be there by 10 am tomorrow.” 

A Mary says to me that she has to be there by 10 am. 

B Mary tells me she has to be there by 10 am tomorrow. 

C Mary told me that she had to be there by 10 am the next day. 

D Mary is telling me that she has to be there by 10 am tomorrow. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.187 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. But a sprig was taken and planted in one of the hills of Sri Lanka. 

B. The original tree is no longer there. 

C. That sprig grew into a tree and is called Maha Bodhi tree. 

D. Gautam Buddha attained enlightenment under a peepal tree in Bodhgaya in Bihar. 

A CABD 

B BCAD 

C ACBD 

D DBAC 

Answer: D 

 

Q.188 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. It takes me one hour to get to work in the morning in week day. 

A in week day 

B in the morning 

C takes me 

D to get to work 

Answer: A 

 

Q.189 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. Some of the Vitamin A rich sources of foods are carrots, broccoli, spinach, fish and meat. 

B. An American research study has found that Vitamin A intake can lower risk of skin cancer. 

C. It suggests that we should consume a diet with fruits and vegetables. 

D. This study has been published in JAMA Dermatology. 

A ABDC 

B BDCA 

C BADC 

D CABD 

Answer: B 

 

Q.190 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. It has been two years that I have see Meena. 

A since I have seen 

B No improvement 

C since I didn’t saw 

D that I saw 

Answer: A

 

Q.191 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. This lovable big cat is all ready to charm kids in a film version. 

B. ‘The Tiger who Came to Tea’ is Judith Kerr’s bestselling book,having sold 5million copies. 

C. He ends up making a delightful nuisance of himself. 

D. The story is about a tiger who pops by for tea. 

A BCAD 

B BDCA 

C CDBA 

D ACDB 

Answer: B 

 

Q.192 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. I am writing a story after a long time. 

A A story after a long time was written by me. 

B A story is being written by me after a long time. 

C I have written a story after a long time. 

D A story had been written by me after a long time. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.193 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. A distinguished conductor or performer of classical music 

A maestro 

B layman 

C amateur 

D novice 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. 

Comprehension: The United Kingdom’s Social Mobility Commission study reports that disadvantaged children in England are being priced out of a cultural hinterland. Children aged 10-15 from low-income families are three times less likely than wealthier peers to engage in out-of-school musical activities, such as learning an instrument etc. There were also differences according to race – 4% of British Pakistani children took part in music classes, compared with 28% of Indian children and 20% of white children – and regional divides: 9% of children in north-east England played a musical instrument, compared with 22% in the south-east. 

Disadvantaged children are also more likely to miss out on extracurricular sports (football, boxing, cricket) and drama, dance and art. The commission set out recommendations, including bursaries, better funding and support for schools – let’s hope they’re taken on board. As well as the activities themselves, children are missing out on other crucial gains including confidence-building, team spirit and social skill, and are less likely to go on to higher education. 

Extracurricular activities tend to cost money, but there are also problems with a lack of availability and access, such as schools being unable to afford to run after-school clubs or stay open during holidays. Another barrier is the kids’ “fear of not fitting in”. In this sense, certain children are self-excluding from, say, learning an instrument, singing in a choir, playing cricket or acting. They decide by themselves that they’re “undeserving” of music, sport, art and drama. Unbelievably, in 2019, children as young as 10 are already hard-wired with the selflimiting poverty notion of “not for the likes of us”. 

This is heartbreaking. It’s hardly news that life is tougher for poorer children, but it’s an outrage if all sense of curiosity, artistry and playfulness is knocked out of them so early. Something is wrong if better-off children feel entitled to explore and participate in areas that interest and excite them, while the disadvantaged are cast from the start as cultural wallflowers – doomed to sit out every dance. 

This isn’t about every child learning the piano or violin (but why not?), it’s about sowing the seeds for a cultural hinterland that will sustain and enrich them for life. It’s about people exploring their passions and refusing to have their horizons artificially limited. Regardless of circumstances, all children should know that their faces “fit” – automatically and forever. Culture belongs to everyone. 

 

Q.194 The probability of a child in United Kingdom getting opportunities to engage in cultural and sports activities depends on- 

1-parental economic background 

2-whether one parent is British 

3-whether parents have a university education 

4-kind of school and funding available Of the above points which are correct 

A 1 & 4 

B 2 & 4 

C 1 & 2 

D 3 & 4 

Answer: A 

 

Q.195 According to the passage which of the following is not the correct reason- Exposure to cultural activities and sports at a young age is very important for children because it- 

A brings about differences among children. 

B leads children to explore their talents. 

C builds team spirit and social skills. 

D helps in confidence building. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.196 Pick out a phrase or a word which means the same as a group of people considered to be superior to others because of their social standing or wealth 

A disadvantaged 

B cultural wallflowers 

C hard-wired 

D elitist 

Answer: D 

 

Q.197 How will a wholesome education including arts and sports not benefit the disadvantaged? 

A Children will get exposure to arts and sports. 

B Children will no longer have the fear of not fitting in. 

C Children will have feelings of low self-esteem and self-exclusion. 

D Children will explore play and learning outside of class. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.198 According to the author, what is truly heart- breaking and damaging for the kids is that – 

A parents don’t have money to pay for any additional classes for their children. 

B teachers are told not to offer these opportunities as they are not tested. 

C schools wish to offer activities but don’t have funds. 

D children themselves feel that the activities are not fit for the likes of them. 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.199 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Sumit said, “I will be leaving for London this summer so I can meet you only when I return.” 

A Sumit said he will be leaving for London this summer and he could meet him only when he returned. 

B Sumit said he will go to London this summer and he would meet me only when he will be returning. 

C Sumit said that he would be leaving for London that summer and he could meet me only when he returned. 

D Sumit said he will have gone to London that summer and could meet me only when he returned. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.200 Pick a word opposite in meaning to Lackadaisical. 

A indifferent 

B jocular 

C enthusiastic 

D lukewarm 

Answer: C 

SSC CGL Tier-II 11 September 2019 Maths Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL MATHS

Tier-II (11 Sept 2019)

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.1 The value of is: 

A 7.8 

B 4.6 

C 8.7 

D 6.4 

Answer: D 

 

Q.2 The bar graph shows the exports of Cars of Type A and B (in ₹ millions). 

In which year, the exports of cars of type A was 10% more than the average exports (per year) of cars of type A over the five years? 

A 2015 

B 2017 

C 2014 

D 2016 

Answer: C 

 

Q.3 If sinθ = √3 cosθ,0 < θ < 90 , then the value of 2sin2 θ + sec2 θ + sinθsecθ + cosecθ is: 

A (33-10√3) /6 

B(19-10√3) /6 

C (33-10√3) /3 

D (19-10√3) /3 

Answer: A 

 

Q.4 To do a certain work, the ratio of efficiency of A to that of B is 3 : 7. Working together, they can complete the work in 10½ days. They work together for 8 days. 60% of the remaining work will be completed by A alone in 

A 5½ days 

B 5 days 

C 6½ days 

D 4 days 

Answer: B 

 

Q.5 The average of thirteen numbers is 47. The average of the tirst three numbers is 39 and that of next seven numbers is 49. The 11th number is two times the 12th number and 12th number is 3 less then the 13th number. What is the average of 11th and 13th numbers? 

A 54.5 

B 57 

C 56 

D 55.5 

Answer: B 

 

Q.6 The bar graph shows the exports of Cars of Type A and B (in ₹ millions).

What is the ratio of the total exports of cars of type A in 2014 and 2018 to the total exports of cars of type B in 2015 and 2016? 

A 11 : 10 

B 10 : 9 

C 5 : 4 

D 3 : 2 

Answer: B 

 

Q.7 If x8 − 1442x4 + 1 = 0 , then possible value of x − 1/xis: 

A 5 

B 8 

C 4 

D 6 

Answer: D 

 

Q.8 The graphs of the equations 3x + y − 5 = 0 and 2x y − 5 = 0 intersect at the point P(α,β). What is the value of (3α + β) ? 

A 4 

B -4 

C 3 

D 5

Answer: D 

 

Q.9 If √(86 − 60√2) = a b√2, then what will be the value of √(a2 + b2), correct to one decimal place? 

A 8.4 

B 8.2 

C 7.8 

D 7.2 

Answer: C 

 

Q.10 The sides AB and AC of △ABC are produced to P and Q respectively. The bisectors of ∠CBP and ∠BCQ meet at R. If the measure of ∠A is 44, then what is the measure of, ½∠BOC ? 

A  33

B  38

C  34

D  32

Answer: C 

 

Q.11 In △ABC, D is a point on side BC such that ∠ADC = ∠BAC. If CA = 12 cm, CB = 8 cm, then CD is equal to: 

A 12 cm 

B 15 cm 

C 18 cm 

D 16 cm 

Answer: C 

 

Q.12 A person marks his goods x% above the cost price and allows a discount of 30% on the marked price.If his profit is 5%. then the value of x will be: 

A 50 

B 60 

C 45 

D 35 

Answer: A 

 

Q.13 If a2 + b2 + c2 + 96 = 8(a + b − 2c) , then √(ab bc + ca) is equal to: 

A 6 

B 2√2 

C 4 

D 2√3 

Answer: C 

Q.14 A right circular cylinder of maximum volume is cut out from a solid wooden cube. The material left is what percent of the volume (nearest to an integer) of the original cube? 

A 19 

B 28 

C 23 

D 21 

Answer: D 

 

Q.15 The ratio of the volumes of two cylinders is x : y and the ratio of their diameters is a : b, What is the ratio of their heights? 

A xb : ya 

B xa : yb 

C xb2 : ya2 

D xa2 : yb2 

Answer: C 

 

Q.16 The value of the expression (cos6 θ + sin6 θ − 1)(tan2 θ + cot2 θ + 2) is: 

A 0 

B -1 

C -3 

D 1 

Answer: C 

 

Q.17 If A is 28% more than B and C is 25% less than the sum of A and B. Then by what percent will C be more than A (correct to one decimal place)? 

A 32.2% 

B 28% 

C 43% 

D 33.6% 

Answer: D 

 

Q.18 A shopkeeper bought 120 quintals of wheat. 20% of it was sold al 25% less. Al what percent gain should he sell the rest to gain 25% on the whole transaction? 

A 36½ 

B 40 

C 37½

D 35 

Answer: C 

Q.19 The value of is: 

Answer: D 

Q.20 Anu sold an article for ₹480 at some profit. Had she sold it for ₹400, then there would have been a loss equal to onethird of the initial profit. What was the cost price of the article ? 

A ₹450 

B ₹430 

C ₹425 

D ₹420 

Answer: D 

 

Q.21 In a school, ⁴/₉ of the numberof students are girls and the rest are boys. ³/₅of the number of boys are below 12 years of age and ⁵/₁₂of the number of girls are 12 years or above 12 years of age. If the number of students below 12 years of age is 480, then ⁵/₁₈of the total number of students in the school will be equal to: 

A 270 

B 315 

C 225 

D 240 

Answer: C 

 

Q.22 (2sinA)(1+sinA)/(1+sinA+cosA)is equal to: 

A 1 + sinA − cosA

B 1 − sinAcosA

C 1 + cosA − sinA

D 1 + sinAcosA

Answer: A 

 

Q.23 A and B can do a piece of work in 6 days and 8 days, respectively. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days and earned ₹1,848. What was the share of C ? 

A ₹231 

B ₹924 

C ₹462 

D ₹693 

Answer: A 

 

Q.24 If x + y + z = 11,x2 + y2 + z2 = 133 and x3 + y3 + z3 = 881, then the value of 3xyz is: 

A -6 

B 6

C -8 

D 8 

Answer: A 

 

Q.25 The given pie chart shows the breakup of total number of the employees of a company working in different offices (A, B, C, D and E). 

Total No. of employees = 2400.

What is the number of offices in which the number of employees of the company is between 350 and 650? 

A 1 

B 4 

C 2 

D 3 

Answer: D 

 

Q.26 Pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 30 h, 40 h and 60 h respectively. Pipes A, B and C are opened at 7 a.m., 8 a.m., and 10 a.m., respectively on the same day. When will the tank be full? 

A 10.00 p.m. 

B 10.20 p.m. 

C 9.20 p.m. 

D 9.40 p.m. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.27 If the radius of a right circular cylinder is decreased by 20% while its height is increased by 40%, then the percentage change in its volume will be: 

A 1.04% increase 

B 10.4% decrease 

C No increase or decrease 

D 10.4% increase 

Answer: B 

 

Q.28 The number of students in a class is 75, out of which 33⅓% are boys and the rest are girls. The average score in mathematics of the boys 66⅔% is more than that of the girls. If the average score of all the students is 66, then the average score of the girls is: 

A 52 

B 55 

C 54 

D 58 

Answer: C

 

Q.29 A shopkeeper allows 28% discount on the marked price of an article and still makes a profit of 20%. If he gains ₹30.80 on the sale of one article, then what will be the cost price of the article? 

A ₹164 

B ₹145 

C ₹160 

D ₹154 

Answer: D 

 

Q.30 In △ABC,∠A = 52 and O is the orthocenter of the triangle (BO and CO meet AC and AB at E and F respectively when produced). If the bisectors ∠OBC of ∠OCB and meet at P, then the measure of ∠BPC is:

A 124

B 132

C 138 

D 154

Answer: D 

 

Q.31 Let a,b and c be the fractions such that a < b < c. If c is divided by a, the result is ⁵/₇, Which exceeds b by ⁷/₄. If a + b + c = 1¹¹/₂, then (c a) will be equal to: 

A ⅓

B ⅔

C ⅙

D ½

Answer: D 

Q.32 The value of is 50×10k, where the value of k is: 

A 3 

B 4 

C 2 

D -3 

Answer: A 

 

Q.33 Travelling at 60 km/h, a person reaches his destination in a certain time. He covers 60% of his journey in ⅖th of the time. At what speed (in km/h) should he travel to cover the remaining journey so that he reaches the destination right on time? 

A 40 

B 48 

C 42 

D 36 

Answer: A 

 

Q.34 Study the graph and answer the question that follows.

What is the ratio of the total number of workers whose daily wages are less than $500 to the total number of workers whose daily wages are ₹600 and above? 

A 5 : 6

B 6 : 7

C 3 : 4

D 15 : 11

Answer: A 

Q.35 The value of is: 

A 4 

B ½

C 2 

D ¼

Answer: C 

 

Q.36 If ( √2 + √5 −√3) × k = −12 k then what will be the value of ? 

A ( √2 +√5 + √3)

B ( √2 + √5 + √3)( 2 − √10)

C ( √2 + √5 − √3)( 2 + √5)

D ( √2 + √5 + √3)( 2 − √5)

Answer: B 

 

Q.37 If θ lies in the first quadrant and cos2 θ − sin2 θ = ½ , then the value of tan22θ + sin23θis: 

A ⁷/₂

B 3 

C 4 

D ⁴/₃

Answer: C 

 

Q.38 A sum of ₹18,000 is lent at 10% p.a. compound interest. compounded annually. What is the difference between the compound interest for 3rd year and  4th year? 

A ₹220.60 

B ₹217.80 

C ₹221.80 

D ₹215.40 

Answer: B 

 

Q.39 What is the value of cosec(65 + θ) − sec(25θ) + tan2 20 − cosec2 70

A 0 

B 1 

C 2 

D -1 

Answer: D 

 

Q.40 The ratio of the income of A to that of B is 5 : 7. A and B save ₹4,000 and ₹5,000 respectively. If the expenditure of A is equal to 66⅔ % of the expenditure of B, then the total income of A and B is: 

A ₹25,200 

B ₹24,000 

C ₹26,400

D ₹28,800 

Answer: B 

 

Q.41 In △ABC, AB = 6cm,AC = 8cm, and BC = 9cm. The length of median AD is: 

A √317/2cm 

B √119/2cm 

C √313/2cm 

D √115/2cm 

Answer: B 

 

Q.42 If a nine-digit number 389 × 6378 y is divisible by 72, then the value of √(6x+7y) will be: 

A 6 

B √13

C √46

D 8 

Answer: D 

 

Q.43 [(1+cos2θ)+sin2θ]/(cosec2θ−1)sin2θ =?

A cosθ (1 + sinθ )

B 2cosθ (1 + secθ )

C secθ (1 + sinθ )

D 2secθ (1 + secθ)

Answer: D 

 

Q.44 When 12, 16, 18, 20 and 25 divide the least number x, the remainder in each case is 4 but x is divisible by 7. What is the digit at the thousands’ place in x ? 

A 5

B 8 

C 4 

D 3 

Answer: B 

 

Q.45 If (a + b) : (b + c) : (c + a) = 7 : 6 : 5 and a + b + c = 27 , then what will be the value of 1/a: 1/b: 1/c

A 3 : 6 : 4 

B 3 : 2 : 4 

C 4 : 3 : 6 

D 3 : 4 : 2 

Answer: C 

 

Q.46 PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral in which PQ = 14.4 cm, QR = 12.8 cm and SR = 9.6 cm. If PR bisects QS, whatis the length of PS? 

A 15.8 cm 

B 16.4 cm 

C 13.6 cm 

D 19.2 cm 

Answer: D 

 

Q.47 In what ratio, sugar costing ₹60 per kg be mixed with sugar costing ₹42 per kg such that byselling the mixture at ₹56 per kg there is a gain of 12%? 

A 5 : 6 

B 8 : 9 

C 4 : 5 

D 5 : 7 

Answer: C 

 

Q.48 When an article is sold for ₹355, there is a loss of 29%. To gain 21%,it should be sold for ₹: 

A 629.20 

B 580.80 

C 605 

D 635 

Answer: C 

 

Q.49 [(1−tanθ)/(1−cotθ )]2 + 1 =?

A cosec2θ 

B sec2θ 

C sin2θ 

D cos2θ

Answer: B 

 

Q.50 √[(cotθ+cosθ)/(cotθ−cosθ)] is equal to: 

A secθ + tanθ

B 1 + secθtanθ 

C 1 − secθtanθ

D secθ − tanθ

Answer: A 

 

Q.51 If 5sinθ − 4cosθ = 0,0 < θ < 90, then the value of (5sinθ−2cosθ)/(5sinθ+3 cosθ)is: 

A ⅜

B ⅞

C ²/₇

D ⅝

Answer: C 

 

Q.52 If the radius of the base of a cone is doubled, and the volume of the new cone is three times the volume of the original cone, then what will be the ratio of the height of the original cone to that of the new cone? 

A 1 : 3 

B 4 : 3 

C 2 : 9 

D 9 : 4 

Answer: B 

 

Q.53 Abhi rows upstream a distance of 28 km in 4 h and rows downstream a distance of 50 km in 2 h. To row a distance of 44.8 km in still water, he will take: 

A 2.8 h 

B 3.2 h 

C 2.4 h 

D 2.2 h 

Answer: A 

 

Q.54 A sum of ₹8,400 amounts to ₹11,046 at 8.75% p.a. simple interest in certain time. What is the simple interest on the sum of ₹9,600 at the same rate for the same time? 

A ₹2,990 

B ₹3,012 

C ₹2,686 

D ₹3,024 

Answer: D 

 

Q.55 If the diameter of the base of a cone is 42 cm and its curved surface area is 2310 cm2, then what will be its volume (in cm3) ? 

A 25872 

B 19404 

C 12936 

D 38808 

Answer: C 

 

Q.56 If a cuboid of dimensions 32cm×12cm× 9cm is cut into two cubes of same size, what will be the ratio of the surface area of the cuboid to the total surface area of the two cubes? 

A 65 : 72 

B 37 : 48 

C 24 : 35 

D 32 : 39 

Answer: A 

 

Q.57 When x is added to each of 2, 3, 30 and 35, then the numbers obtained in this order, are in proportion. What is the mean proportional between (x + 7) and (x – 2)? 

A 7 

B 4 

C 6 

D 5 

Answer: C 

 

Q.58 The ratio of investment by A to that by B in a business is 14 : 15 and the ratio of their respective profits at the end of a year is 2 : 5. IfA invested the money for 3 months, then for how much time (in months) B invested his money? 

A 7 

B 6 

C 5 

D 9 

Answer: A

 

Q.59 In △ABC,AB = 7cm,BC = 10cm, and AC = 8cm . If AD is the angle bisector of ∠BAC , where D is a point on BC , then BD is equal to: 

A ¹⁶/₃cm 

B ¹⁵/₄cm 

C ⁴/₃cm 

D ¹⁷/₄cm 

Answer: C 

 

Q.60 The base of right prism is a trapezium whose parallel sides are 11 cm and 15 cm and the distance between them is 9 cm. If the volume of the prism is 1731.6 cm3 , then the height(in cm) of the prism will be: 

A 15.6 

B 15.2 

C 14.8 

D 14.2 

Answer: C 

 

Q.61 Raghav spends 80% of his income. If his income increases by 12% and the savings decrease by 10%, then what will be the percentage increase in his expenditure? 

A 20.5 

B 16 

C 17.5 

D 22 

Answer: C 

 

Q.62 The lateral surface area of a cylinder is 352cm2. If its height is 7cm, then its volume(in cm3 ) is: (Take π = ²²/₇) 

A 1408 

B 1078 

C 1243 

D 891 

Answer: A 

 

Q.63 What will be the compound interest on a sum of ₹31,250 for 2 years at 12% p.a., if the interest is compounded 8-monthly? 

A ₹8,106 

B ₹8,116 

C ₹8,016 

D ₹8,156 

Answer: B 

 

Q.64 When 7897, 8110 and 8536 are divided by the greatest number x, then the remainder in each case is the same. The sum of the digits of x is: 

A 14 

B 5 

C 9 

D 6 

Answer: D 

 

Q.65 The ratios of copper to zinc in alloys A and B are 3 : 4 and 5 : 9, respectively. A and B are taken in the ratio 2 : 3 and melted to form a new alloy C. What is the ratio of copper to zinc in C? 

A 8 : 13 

B 3 : 5 

C 9 : 11 

D 27 : 43 

Answer: D 

 

Q.66 In △ ABC, D and E are the points on sides AB and BC respectively such that DE ∥ AC. If AD : DB = 5 : 3, then what is the ratio of the area of △ BDE to that of the trapezium ACED? 

A 4 : 25 

B 9 : 55 

C 9 : 64 

D 1 : 6 

Answer: B 

 

Q.67 One year ago, the ratio of the age (in years) of A to that of B was 4 : 3. The ratio of their respective ages, 3 years from now,will be 6 : 5. What will be the ratio of respective ages of A and B, 9 years from now? 

A 7 : 6 

B 10 : 9 

C 9 : 8 

D 8 : 7 

Answer: C 

 

Q.68 The sides of a triangle are 11 cm, 60 cm and 61 cm. What is the radius of the circle circumscribing the triangle? 

A 31.5 cm 

B 31 cm 

C 30 cm 

D 30.5 cm 

Answer: D 

 

Q.69 A sum of ₹5,000 is divided into two parts such that the simple interest on the first part for 4¹/₅years at 6⅔% p.a is double the simple interest on the second part for 2¾ years at 4% p.a. What is the difference between the two parts? 

A ₹680 

B ₹600 

C ₹560 

D ₹620 

Answer: B 

 

Q.70 If x = √(1 + √3 /2) − √(1 − √3 /2) , then the value of (√2−x)/(√2 +x)will be closest to: 

A 0.17 

B 0.12 

C 1.4 

D 1.2 

Answer: A 

 

Q.71 The given pie chart shows the breakup of total number of the employees of a company working in different offices (A, B, C, D and E). 

Total No. of employees = 2400 

If the percentage of male employees in office C is 20% and that of female employees in E is 40%, then what is the ratio of the number of female employees in C to that of female employees in E? 

A 3 : 2 

B 5 : 4 

C 2 : 3 

D 3 : 8 

Answer: A 

 

Q.72 In a trapezium ABCD, DC∥AB, AB = 12 cm and DC = 7.2 cm. What is the length of the line segment joining the midpoints of its diagonals? 

A 2.6 cm 

B 4.8 cm 

C 2.4 cm 

D 3.6 cm 

Answer: C 

 

Q.73 A number is first increased by 16% and then increased by 14%. The number, so obtained, is now decreased by 30%. What is the net increase or decrease percent in the original number(nearest to an integer)? 

A 6% increase 

B 7% decrease 

C No increase or decrease 

D 9% decrease 

Answer: B 

 

Q.74 Radha marks her goods 25% above the cost price. She sells 35% of goods at the marked price, 40% at 15% discount and the remaining at 20% discount. What is her overall percentage gain? 

A 11.25 

B 10 

C 11.75 

D 12.75 

Answer: A 

 

Q.75 Chord AB of a circle is produced to a point P, and is a point onthe circle such that PC is a tangent to the circle. If PC = 18 cm, and BP = 15 cm, then AB is equal to: 

A 5.8 cm 

B 6.2 cm 

C 6.6 cm 

D 8.5 cm 

Answer: C 

 

Q.76 One of the factors of (82k + 52k), where k is an odd number, is: 

A 86 

B 88 

C 84 

D 89 

Answer: D 

 

Q.77 The internal and external radii of a hollow hemispherical vessel are 6 cm and 7 cm respectively. What is the total surface area (in cm2 ) of the vessel? 

A 183π 

B 189π 

C 177π 

D 174π 

Answer: A 

 

Q.78 When the price of an item was reduced by 25%, then its sale was increased by x% . If there is an increase of 20% in the receipt of the revenue, then the value of x will be: 

A 50 

B 60 

C 45 

D 75 

Answer: B 

 

Q.79 In a constituency, 55% of the total number of voters are males and the rest are females. If 40% of the males are illiterate and 40% of the females are literate, then by what percent is the number of literate males more than that of illiterate females? 

A 22⁸/₁₁

B 18²/₉

C 22²/₉

D 18⁸/₁₁

Answer: C 

 

Q.80 From the top of a tower, the angles of depression of two objects on the ground on the same side of it, are observed to be 60 and 30respectively and the distance between the objects is 400√3m. The height (in m) of the tower is: 

A 800 

B 800√3

C 600 

D 600√3 

Answer: C 

 

Q.81 A train travelling at the speed of x km/h crossed a 200 m long platform in 30 seconds and overtook a man walking in the same direction at the speed of 6 km/h in 20 seconds. What is the value of x ? 

A 50

B 54 

C 56 

D 60 

Answer: D 

 

Q.82 Let (633)24 − (277)38 + (266)54. What is the units digit of x ? 

A 7 

B 6 

C 4 

D 8 

Answer: D 

 

Q.83 Three solid metallic spheres whose radii are 1 cm, X cm and 8 cm, are melted and recast into a single solid sphere of diameter 18 cm. The surface area (in cm2 ) of the sphere with radius x cm is: 

A 144π 

B 72π 

C 64π 

D 100π 

Answer: A 

 

Q.84 The value of (2⁶/₇ of 4⅕ ÷ ⅔)×1⅑ ÷ (¾×2⅔ of ½ ÷¼ )is: 

A 5 

B 8 

C ⅟₈

D ⅟₅ 

Answer: A 

 

Q.85 An article is sold at a certain price. If it is sold at of 33⅓% this price, there is a loss of 33⅓%. What is the percentage profit when it is sold at 60% of the original selling price? 

A 20 

B 30 

C 33⅓

D 17⅓ 

Answer: A 

 

Q.86 If a3 + b3 = 218 and a + b = 2 , then the value of ab is: 

A 34 

B -35 

C -31 

D 32 

Answer: B 

 

Q.87 In △ABC,∠A = 58 . If I is the in center of the triangle, then the measure of ∠BIC is: 

A 109 

B 123 

C 112 

D 119 

Answer: D 

 

Q.88 If 2√2x3 − 3√3y3 = ( √2x − √3y )( Ax2 + By2 + Cxy ) , then the value of A2 + B2C2 is: 

A 11 

B 7 

C 19 

D 10 

Answer: B 

 

Q.89 A circle is inscribed in △ABC , touching AB, BC and AC at the points P, Q and respectively. If AB – BC = 4 cm, AB – AC = 2 cm and the perimeter of △ABC = 32 cm, then PB + AR is equal to: 

A 12 cm 

B 13 cm 

C ³³/₅cm 

D ³⁸/₅cm 

Answer: D 

 

Q.90 Of each interior angle of a regular polygon is ( 128⁴/₇) , then what is the sum of the number of its diagonals and the number of its sides? 

A 15 

B 19 

C 17 

D 21 

Answer: D 

 

Q.91 If the radius of a sphere is increased by 4 cm, its surface area is increased by 464πcm2. What is the volume(in cm3) of the original sphere? 

A ¹⁵⁶²⁵/₆ π 

B ³⁵⁹³⁷/₈ π 

C ¹¹⁹⁷⁹/₂ π 

D ¹⁵⁶²⁵/₈ π 

Answer: A 

 

Q.92 The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is ⅐ of the number. The units digit is 4 less than the tens digit. If the number obtained on reversing its digits is divided by 7, the remainder will be: 

A 4 

B 5 

C 1 

D 6 

Answer: D 

 

Q.93 The graph of the equation x – 7y = -42, intersects the y-axis at P(α,β) and the graph of 6x + y – 15 = 0, intersects the x-axis at Q(γ,δ), What is the value of α + β + γ + δ?

A ¹⁷/₂

B 6 

C ⁹/₂

D 5 

Answer: A 

 

Q.94 In quadrilateral ABCD, the bisectors of ∠A and ∠B meet at O and ∠AOB = 64 ∘ .∠C + ∠D is equal to: 

A 136 

B 128 

C 116 

D 148

Answer: B 

 

Q.95 ‘A’ started a business with a capital of ₹54,000 and admitted ‘B’ and ‘C’ after 4 months and 6 months, respectively. At the end of the year, the profit was divided in the ratio 1 : 4 : 5. What is the difference between the capitals invested by ‘B’ and ‘C’? 

A ₹1,08,000 

B ₹1,62,000 

C ₹2,16,000 

D ₹3,24,000 

Answer: C 

 

Q.96 A and B started their journeys from X to Y and Y to X, respectively. After crossing each other, A and B completed the remaining parts of their journeys in 6⅛h and 8 h respectively. If the speed of B is 28 km/h, then the speed (in km/h) of A is: 

A 40 

B 42 

C 32 

D 36 

Answer: C 

 

Q.97 The given pie chart shows the breakup of total number of the employees of a company working in different offices (A,B, C, D and E). 

Total No. of employees = 2400 

If 40% of the number of employees in office A are shifted equally to office B and E, then what is the difference between the number of employees in B and that in C? 

A 72 

B 120 

C 82 

D 130 

Answer: A 

 

Q.98 The volume of a right pyramid is 45√3cm3 and its base is an equilateral triangle with side 6 cm. What is the height(in cm)of the pyramid? 

A 15 

B 18 

C 12 

D 20 

Answer: A 

 

Q.99 A certain number of persons can complete a work in 34 days working 9 h a day. If the number of persons is decreased by 40%, then how many hours a day should the remaining persons work to complete the work in 51 days? 

A 9 

B 8 

C 12 

D 10 

Answer: D 

 

Q.100 The bar graph shows the exports of Cars of Type A and B (in ₹ millions).

The total exports of cars of type A in 2014 to 2017 is approximately what percentage less than the total exports of cars of type B in 2015 to 2018? 

A 31.3 

B 30.4 

C 14.3 

D 23.8 

Answer: D 

SSC CGL Tier-II 12 September 2019 English Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL ENGLISH

 Tier-II (12 Sept 2019) 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.1 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

A. She was a tall woman and she carried a large purse. 

B. Suddenly a boy ran up behind her and tried to snatch her purse. 

C. It was 11 o’clock at night and a woman was walking alone. 

D. It had a long strap, and she carried it slung across her shoulder. 

A CADB 

B DCBA 

C ACDB 

D DBCA 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number. 

Comprehension: In a rare show of honesty, a gardener of the irrigation department has handed (1)______ to the police 57 tolas of gold (2)______ by him while working in the (3)______ of the superintending engineer’s bungalow in Raipur. The (4)______in turn has handed over the (5)______ to the Central Excise and Customs Department (6)______investigation. It was in June this year (7)______ Ramdayal found a tiny plastic box, meticulously (8)______ with polythene, buried six inches (9)______ under a Banyan tree, while digging the garden. He (10)______ the box and took it to his house behind the bungalow and was dazzled to find that it contained biscuits, bangles and coins all of gold. 

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1. 

A over 

B out 

C up 

D down 

Answer: A 

 

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2. 

A recovered 

B recovers 

C recovering 

D recover 

Answer: A 

 

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3. 

A garden 

B orchard 

C park 

D field 

Answer: A 


Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4. 

A engineer 

B gardener 

C custom officer 

D police 

Answer: D 

 

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5. 

A coins 

B bangles 

C biscuits 

D gold 

Answer: D 

 

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.6. 

A by 

B about 

C for 

D to 

Answer: C 

 

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.7. 

A after 

B until 

C that 

D while 

Answer: C 

 

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.8. 

A sheltered 

B topped 

C enclosed 

D covered 

Answer: D 

 

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.9. 

A deep 

B deepen 

C deeply 

D depth 

Answer: A 

 

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.10. 

A picked on 

B picked in 

C picked over 

D picked up 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.12 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. ALLURING 

A interesting 

B charming 

C repulsive 

D glamorous 

Answer: C 

 

Q.13 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. The authorities are planning to lift restrictions on the movement of people in the Valley from the coming week. 

A It has been planned to lift restrictions on the movement of people in the Valley from the coming week. 

B Restrictions on the movement of people in the Valley from the coming week are planning to lift the authorities in 

the Valley. 

C It is being planned by the authorities to lift restrictions on the movement of people in the Valley from the coming week. 

D Lifting restrictions on the movement of people in the Valley is planned from the coming week. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.14 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. Mother said to Kavya, “Turn on the light.” 

A Mother told Kavya to turn on the light. 

B Mother asked Kavya if the light was on. 

C Kavya told mother to turn on the light. 

D Mother requested Kavya to please on the light. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.15 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. If there is no error, select No error. No one informed me that you would be absent. 

A No one inform me 

B would be absent. 

C No error 

D that you 

Answer: A 

 

Q.16 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

A. Security cameras captured the whole incident. 

B. Commuters in Virginia, USA got a shock when a deer entered a metro station. 

C. However, it eventually backed out and ran away unharmed. 

D. Nobody knows how it made it into the station. 

A DCBA 

B BADC 

C BDCA 

D ADCB 

Answer: C 

 

Q.17 Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. The little girl asked her mother if she could visit her friend’s house. 

A The little girl said to her mother, “Why can’t I visit my friend’s house?” 

B The little girl said to her mother, “Should she visit her friend’s house?” 

C The little girl said to her mother, “Can I visit my friend’s house?” 

D The little girl said to her mother, “I could visit my friend’s house.” 

Answer: C 

 

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. He was surprised at me refusing to accept his offer. 

A No improvement 

B at me to refusing 

C at my refusing 

D on me refusing 

Answer: C 

 

Q.19 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. Pushpa said, “I arrived at the workshop an hour ago but nothing much is happening here.” 

A Pushpa observed that though she had arrived at the workshop an hour ago but nothing much was happening there. 

B Pushpa said that she had arrived at the workshop an hour earlier but nothing much is happening here. 

C Pushpa asked why she had to arrive at the workshop an hour before when nothing much was happening there. 

D Pushpa said that she had arrived at the workshop an hour before but nothing much was happening there. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.20 Select the correct active form of the given sentence. When we arrived at his house, we were welcomed by his parents. 

A When his parents arrived at his house, we welcomed them. 

B When we arrived at his house, his parents welcomed us. 

C When we arrived at his house, we welcomed his parents. 

D After we arrived at his house, his parents had welcomed us. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.21 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. TURBULENT 

A raging 

B peaceful 

C forceful 

D swirling 

Answer: B 

 

Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. For most people a six figure salary was unimaginable two decades ago. 

A For most of people 

B To much people 

C For a many people 

D No improvement 

Answer: D 

 

Q.23 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. A brick falling from the rooftop broke the front glass of my car. 

A The front glass of my car has broken a brick falling from the rooftop. 

B The front glass of my car was broken by a brick falling from the rooftop. 

C The front glass of my car had been broken by a brick falling from the rooftop. 

D The front glass of my car has been broken by a brick falling from the rooftop 

Answer: B 

 

Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. I have visited several places in India, but I ______ the Andaman and Nicobar Islands yet. 

A haven’t been visiting 

B didn’t visit 

C haven’t visited 

D don’t visit 

Answer: C 

 

Q.25 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. A dome-shaped shelter built from blocks of solid snow used by Eskimos 

A wigwam 

B yurt 

C tepee 

D igloo 

Answer: D 

 

Q.26 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. The trouble makers took to their heels when they saw the police coming. 

A hid themselves 

B ran away 

C faced them boldly 

D prepared to fight 

Answer: B 

 

Q.27 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

A medieval 

B measure 

C magazine 

D machenic 

Answer: D 

 

Q.28 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. Having been a student activist once, a politician never forgets those days. 

A a politician 

B never forget 

C Having been 

D those days 

Answer: B

 

Instructions: Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. 

Q.29 Your behavior annoys me greatly. 

A I was greatly annoyed by your behavior. 

B I have been greatly annoyed by your behavior. 

C I am greatly annoyed by your behavior. 

D Your behavior has been greatly annoyed by me. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.30 The Indian army has inducted several women officers in Infantry and Armoured Corps. 

A Several female officers will be inducted by the Indian Army in the Infantry and Armoured Corps. 

B Several women officers were inducted by the Indian Army in Infantry and Armoured Corps. 

C Several women officers are being inducted by the Indian Army in Infantry and Armoured Corps. 

D Several women officers have been inducted by the Indian Army in Infantry and Armoured Corps. 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.31 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. Prasad recalled that meeting people has been a part of his life as a student activist. 

A meeting people have been 

B Prasad recalled that 

C a part of his life 

D as a student activist. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.32 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. The teacher said to Mohit, “Go to your seat and sit quietly” 

A The teacher requested Mohit to go to his seat and sit quietly. 

B The teacher instructed Mohit to go to his seat and sit quietly. 

C The teacher instructed Mohit that he must go to his seat and sit quietly. 

D The teacher told Mohit to go to your seat and sit quietly. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.33 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The rescue team dug out a soldier from the snow ______ how he could have survived for seven days buried under it. 

A wondering 

B wondered 

C to wonder 

D wonder 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions: Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

Q.34 A. It is because nowadays people have no time for recreation. B. But this pastime is getting out of favour now. C. It is really a thrilling exercise. D. Flying kites is my favourite pastime. 

A DCBA 

B CDAB 

C DBAC 

D BCDA 

Answer: A 

 

Q.35 A. If we drove 10 kilometers along the road that branched off to the right, we would reach Barhampur. 

B. Aditya and I were returning from the site of our new factory. 

C. We had reached a point where the road bifurcated. 

D. We were driving along National Highway 40. 

A CDBA 

B BDAC 

C BDCA 

D ACBD 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number. 

Comprehension: Hunter-gatherer culture was the way of life for early humans until around 11,000 to 12,000 years ago. The lifestyle of hunter-gatherers was (1) ______ on hunting animals and foraging for food. Anthropologists (2)______ discovered evidence for the practice of hunter-gatherer culture (3)______ modern humans (Homo sapiens) and their distant ancestors dating as (4)______ back as two million years ago. Before the (5)______ of hunter-gatherer culture, earlier groups relied on (6)______practice of scavenging animal remains that predators left (7)______. Because hunter-gatherers did not rely on agriculture, (8)______ used mobility as a survival strategy. Indeed, (9)______ lifestyle required access to large areas of (10)______ to find the food they needed for survival. 

Q.36 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1. 

A based 

B basing 

C base 

D bases 

Answer: A 

 

Q.37 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2. 

A have 

B has 

C had 

D having 

Answer: A 

 

Q.38 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3. 

A with 

B from 

C by 

D to 

Answer: C 

 

Q.39 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4. 

A far 

B distant 

C near 

D farther 

Answer: A 

 

Q.40 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5. 

A dependence 

B experience 

C emergence 

D departure 

Answer: C 

 

Q.41 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.6. 

A an 

B one 

C the 

D a 

Answer: C 

 

Q.42 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.7. 

A before 

B beyond 

C beneath 

D behind 

Answer: D 

 

Q.43 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.8. 

A them 

B he 

C they 

D we 

Answer: C 

 

Q.44 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.9. 

A their 

B our 

C theirs 

D its 

Answer: A 

 

Q.45 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.10. 

A towns 

B valleys 

C land 

D villages 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions: For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.46 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. The old man lifted the heavy bundle with hardly any effort at all. 

A with hardly any effort 

B No improvement 

C with hard an effort 

D without hardly no effort 

Answer: A 

 

Q.47 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. Did you receive my letter? 

A Did my letter be received by you? 

B Have you been received by my letter? 

C Was my letter received by you? 

D Has my letter been received by you? 

Answer: C 

 

Q.48 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. Many companies prefer that the new employees have not only a degree but also two years’ work experience . 

A but also two years’ work experience 

B No improvement 

C but more two year work experience 

D but two year work experience 

Answer: A 

 

Q.49 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom in the given sentence. When Anshul told everyone that he had resigned his job, all the members in the family were at their wits’ end . 

A very serious 

B quite angry 

C quite perplexed 

D absolutely satisfied 

Answer: C 

 

Q.50 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. I was surprised to see that Avika could write such good poems in Hindi. 

A to see as Avika 

B I was surprised 

C such good poems in Hindi 

D could write 

Answer: A 

 

Q.51 Select the correct active form of the given sentence. Has the car been cleaned by the driver? 

A How has the driver cleaned the car? 

B Does the driver clean the car? 

C Has the driver cleaned the car? 

D Did the driver clean the car? 

Answer: C 

 

Q.52 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. The Science which studies the crust of the earth 

A zoology 

B etymology 

C biology 

D geology 

Answer: D 

 

Q.53 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. Frost occurs in the northern part of the state as frequently as in the central part. 

A more frequently than 

B No improvement 

C more frequently as 

D as frequent than 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions: Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

Q.54 A. They appeared to be posing for ‘selfies’. 

B. An expeditioner had left it sitting on the ice while he visited a rookery. 

C. In Antarctica, two penguins found a video camera. 

D. The penguins curiously stared down at the camera. 

A CBDA 

B CADB 

C DACB 

D BCDA 

Answer: A 

 

Q.55 A. Mr Adams was very proud of it and insisted on an inspection by everyone. 

B. The vault was a small one but it had a new patented door. 

C. It fastened three solid steel bolts thrown simultaneously with a single handle, and had a time lock. 

D. The Elmore Bank had just put in a new safe and vault. 

A BCAD 

B ADBC 

C ABCD 

D DABC 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.56 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. full of beans 

A being upset 

B lively and energetic 

C full of crazy ideas 

D in good health 

Answer: B 

 

Q.57 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. We have sufficient food and clothing for the flood victims in Kerala. 

A We have sufficient 

B in Kerala 

C about the flood victims 

D food and clothing 

Answer: C 

 

Q.58 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. EMPATHY 

A appreciation 

B warmth 

C sympathy 

D apathy 

Answer: D

 

Q.59 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. Who was the first to declare that the earth is round ? 

A an earth was round 

B the earth were round 

C an earth is round 

D No improvement 

Answer: D 

 

Q.60 Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. The officer ordered the fellow to be arrested. 

A The officer said, “Why don’t we arrest the fellow?” 

B The officer said, “Arrest the fellow.” 

C The officer requested, “The fellow may be arrested.” 

D The officer said to the fellow, “Arrest him.” 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions: Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Q.61 If the bus hadn’t broken down, we will be at home now. 

A will have been 

B had been 

C No improvement 

D would have been 

Answer: D 

 

Q.62 By my opinion it is better to cancel the trip during this monsoon. 

A No improvement 

B In my opinion 

C From my opinion 

D By mine opinion 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions: For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.63 Select the correct active form of the given sentence. Preparations were being made for the sports meet at the school. 

A They have been making preparations for the sports meet at the school. 

B They were making preparations for the sports meet at the school. 

C They have started making preparations for the sports meet at the school. 

D They have made preparations for the sports meet at the school. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.64 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Bhanu made a working model of an airplane ______ when he was sixteen. 

A itself 

B himself 

C oneself 

D herself 

Answer: B 


Q.65 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

A. I caught a snake once. 

B. That well is full of snakes. 

C. I caught it by its tail and dropped it in the old well. 

D. Whenever we catch one, instead of killing it, we drop it in the well. 

A BCAD 

B CBDA 

C ACBD 

D BACD 

Answer: C 

 

Q.66 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate idiom. This is strictly ______ but some changes are going to happen in the company in the near future. 

A off the rails 

B off the key 

C off the mark 

D off the record 

Answer: D 

 

Q.67 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

A. There were some mangoes lying beside him. 

B. She looked at the mangoes longingly. 

C. Romi was growing fast and was nearly always hungry. 

D. Just as he was about to eat one, Kamla came along. 

A ABCD 

B BCAD 

C CBDA 

D CADB 

Answer: D 

 

Q.68 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. Please share your class notes with me. 

A Your class notes have been shared with me. 

B You are requested to share your class notes with me. 

C Why don’t you share your class notes with me? 

D You can share your class notes with me. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.69 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. Rahul said, “I can speak French.” 

A Rahul said that he should speak French. 

B Rahul said that he can speak French. 

C Rahul said that he could speak French. 

D Rahul said that I can speak French. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.70 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. For a long time he kept his wife in the dark about the true nature of his job. 

A in high position 

B in a dark place 

C in ignorance 

D in a locked room 

Answer: C 

 

Q.71 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. If there is no error, select No error. Everything has become very expensive these days. 

A No error 

B Everything has became 

C very expensive 

D these days 

Answer: B 

 

Q.72 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. the cultivation of grapevines. 

A agriculture 

B horticulture 

C viticulture 

D sericulture 

Answer: C 

 

Q.73 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. EVIDENCE 

A indication 

B refutation 

C denial 

D concealment 

Answer: A 


Q.74 Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. She told the villagers that she would not rest till she had solved their water problem. 

A She said to the villagers, “She would not rest till she has solved their water problem.” 

B She said to the villagers, “She will not rest till she has solved my water problem.” 

C She said to the villagers, “I will not rest till I have solved your water problem.” 

D She said to the villagers, “I would not rest till I am solving our water problem.” 

Answer: C 

 

Q.75 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

A. It was tossed high on the waves. 

B. A violent storm rocked the sea. 

C. The helpless people aboard the ship plunged into the sea. 

D. Fierce winds struck a sailing ship. 

A DCBA 

B DABC 

C BDCA 

D BDAC 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions: Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Q.76 Bhanu promised that he would have come today but he hasn’t arrived yet. 

A would have came 

B would come 

C No improvement 

D will came 

Answer: B 

 

Q.77 If he is more careful , he wouldn’t have had an accident. 

A had been more careful 

B No improvement 

C has been more careful 

D being more careful 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions: For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.78 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. Doctors are constantly monitoring the condition of the patient. 

A The condition of the patient has been constantly monitored by the doctors. 

B The condition of the patient is being constantly monitored by the doctors. 

C The condition of the doctors is being constantly monitored by the patient. 

D The condition of the patient is constantly monitored by the doctors. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.79 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. PERSIST 

A continue 

B cease 

C halt 

D forget 

Answer: A 

 

Q.80 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

A lathargy 

B latter 

C lateral 

D latitude 

Answer: A 

 

Q.81 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. Organizing World Cup matches in England imply that rains can be a constant threat. 

A be a constant threat. 

B in England imply 

C that rains can be 

D Organizing World Cup matches 

Answer: B 

 

Q.82 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. Who can help me with Mathematics? 

A By whom was I helped in Mathematics? 

B By whom can I be helped in Mathematics? 

C Could I be helped in Mathematics by somebody? 

D Whom did I help in Mathematics? 

Answer: B 

 

Q.83 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. The royal family hid their internal discord and presented a united front on its country . 

A on their country 

B No improvement 

C to their country 

D to its country 

Answer: C 

 

Q.84 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. a room where medicines are prepared and provided 

A infirmary 

B dispensary 

C surgery 

D hospital 

Answer: B 

 

Q.85 Select the correct active form of the given sentence. By whom was this window pane broken? 

A Who breaks this window pane? 

B Who broke this window pane? 

C Who has broken this window pane? 

D Who will break this window pane? 

Answer: B 

 

Q.86 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. COGENT 

A convincing 

B weak 

C ineffective 

D pathetic 

Answer: A 

 

Q.87 Select the correct active form of the given sentence. A poster on Independence Day was being made by Avika. 

A A poster was making Avika on Independence Day. 

B Avika was making a poster on Independence Day. 

C Avika is making a poster on Independence Day. 

D Independence Day was making a poster on Avika. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.88 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. My friend has started a restaurant in a wooden big building in Manali. 

A in Manali 

B in a wooden big building 

C My friend has started 

D a restaurant 

Answer: B 

 

Q.89 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. The lady said to the plumber, “Why didn’t you come last week? The RO machine has been making some noise for the last ten days.” 

A The lady asked the plumber why he hadn’t come the previous week and told him that the RO machine had been making some noise for the last ten days.

B The lady asked the plumber why he didn’t come last week and told him that the RO machine has been making some noise for the last ten days. 

C The lady asked the plumber if he had come the previous week and told him that the RO machine had been making some noise for the last ten days. 

D The lady scolded the plumber for not coming last week and told him that the RO machine was making some noise for the last ten days. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.90 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. Why was he angry with the guard? 

A Why was he angry 

B Why he were angry 

C Why did he angry 

D No improvement 

Answer: A 

 

Q.91 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. the science dealing with X-rays and other high-energy radiation, especially for the diagnosis and treatment of disease. 

A nephrology 

B neurology 

C pathology 

D radiology 

Answer: D 

 

Q.92 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. The patient waited in dread for the trolley it would take him to the operation theatre. 

A that would taken 

B it would take 

C that would take 

D No improvement 

Answer: C 

 

Q.93 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. India and Bhutan signed ten MOUs in the field of space research, aviation, power and education. 

A Ten MOUs in the field of space research, aviation, power and education have been signed by India and Bhutan. 

B Ten MOUs in the field of space research, aviation, power and education will be signed by India and Bhutan. 

C Ten MOUs in the field of space research, aviation, power and education were signed by India and Bhutan. 

D Ten MOUs in the field of space research, aviation, power and education are being signed by India and Bhutan. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.94 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. Wealth creators are essential for money to be distributed in the economy. 

A for money to distributed 

B are essential 

C in the economy 

D Wealth creators 

Answer: A 

 

Q.95 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. fear of heights 

A autophobia 

B zoophobia 

C xenophobia 

D acrophobia 

Answer: D 

 

Q.96 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. When Rohit saw Saurabh, he said, “Oh, how tall you have grown!” 

A When Rohit saw Saurabh, he exclaimed that he (Saurabh) had grown very tall. 

B When Rohit saw Saurabh, he exclaimed how tall he (Saurabh) was grown. 

C When Rohit saw Saurabh, he observed that you have grown very tall. 

D When Rohit saw Saurabh, he commented that he (Saurabh) has grown very tall. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.97 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. This is one of the best books that I have read. 

A one of a best book 

B one of the best books 

C one in the best book 

D No improvement 

Answer: B 

 

Q.98 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. Most of the work of this NGO is of little benefit to the disadvantaged. 

A Most of the work 

B of this NGO 

C to the disadvantaged 

D are of little benefit 

Answer: D 

 

Q.99 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. Addressing a public meeting, Rajnath Singh said, “Whatever talks take place they will be on the issue of Pakistan occupied Kashmir.” 

A Addressing a public meeting, Rajnath Singh asked whatever talks took place, why they were not on the issue of Pakistan occupied Kashmir. 

B Addressing a public meeting, Rajnath Singh said that whatever talks take place, they will be on the issue of Pakistan occupied Kashmir. 

C Addressing a public meeting, Rajnath Singh announced that whatever talks took place, they would be on the issue of Pakistan occupied Kashmir. 

D Addressing a public meeting, Rajnath Singh said that if there were talks, that had to be on the issue of Pakistan occupied Kashmir. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.100 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. We urgently need well qualified teachers for our school . 

A No improvement 

B for ours school 

C to ours school 

D to our school 

Answer: A 

 

Q.101 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

A. I learnt to push Lily’s wheelchair. 

B. I stopped the chair in front of the pond and watched Lily roll her eyes to see the ducks. C. All of a sudden, the wheelchair shook violently. 

D. One afternoon, I wheeled her to the park. 

A DACB 

B DBAC 

C ABCD 

D ADBC 

Answer: D 

 

Q.102 Select the correct active form of the given sentence. More roles for women will be opened up in the ranks of soldiers by the Indian army. 

A The Indian army has opened up more roles for women in the ranks of soldiers. 

B More roles will open up for the Indian army in the ranks of women soldiers. 

C The Indian army will open up more roles for women in the ranks of soldiers. 

D Women will open up more roles for the Indian army in the ranks of soldiers. 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions: Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. 

Q.103 The teacher asked Avika what had happened to her and why her nose was bleeding. 

A The teacher said to Avika, “What happened to her? Why was her nose bleeding?” 

B The teacher said to Avika, “What happened to you? Why is your nose bleeding?” 

C The teacher said to Avika, “What had happened to you? Why was your nose bleeding?” 

D The teacher said to Avika, “What is happening to you? Why is your nose bleeding?” 

Answer: B 

 

Q.104 The saint prayed that God might pour all his blessings on the newly married couple. 

A The saint said to the newly married couple, “God must pour all his blessings on you.” 

B The saint said to the newly married couple, “May God pour all his blessings on you.” 

C The saint requested God, “Pour all your blessings on the newly married couple.” 

D The saint blessed the newly married couple, “God will pour all his blessings on you.” 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions: For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.105 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. the quality of being honest and having strong moral principles. 

A insatiability 

B integrity 

C insidiousness 

D intellect 

Answer: B 

 

Q.106 Select the correct active form of the given sentence. The film Jurassic Park was directed by Steven Spielberg. 

A The film Jurassic Park directed Steven Spielberg. 

B Steven Spielberg is the director of the film Jurassic Park. 

C Steven Spielberg has been directing the film Jurassic Park. 

D Steven Spielberg directed the film Jurassic Park. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.107 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. He spends a good deal of money on clothing. 

A a good deal of 

B the good deal of 

C No improvement 

D good dealing of 

Answer: A 

 

Q.108 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. Rani said, “We are organizing a cleaning programme in the colony tomorrow.” 

A Rani said that they were organizing a cleaning programme in the colony the next day. 

B Rani asked why they were organizing a cleaning programme in the colony the next day. 

C Rani said that we are organizing a cleaning programme in the colony tomorrow. 

D Rani said that we were organizing a cleaning programme in the colony that day. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.109 Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. I will tell him that I don’t want to join the art classes. 

A I will tell him, “I don’t want to join the art classes.” 

B I said to him, “I couldn’t join the art classes.” 

C I want to tell him, “I don’t like to join the art classes.” 

D I will tell him, “I didn’t want to join the art classes.” 

Answer: A

 

Q.110 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. My cousin has been ill for three days. 

A for three days. 

B No improvement 

C from three days. 

D by three days. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.111 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. In order for him to attend the meeting, he needs to prepare exhaustive notes. 

A to attend the meeting 

B he needs to prepare 

C exhaustive notes 

D In order for he 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions: Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. 

Comprehension: Nothing, not even the angry, red eruptions on her face and body, will stop Sneha from aiming for her “dream job”. “I love the Indian Army,” says the 18-year-old, as she sits by herself under one of the canopies at the Chhatrapati Shivaji Stadium of the Maratha Light Infantry Regimental Centre in Belagavi, Karnataka. Outside the enclosure, around 35 women run on the 400-m track. 

A day earlier, Sneha had cleared her ground tests — a 1.6-km race that had to be completed in eight minutes or less, high jump and long jump — and physical fitness tests, when she was diagnosed with chickenpox. Now on medication for the pox, she is back at the stadium for a medical examination as part of the recruitment process. As she waits for her turn, isolated from the other women, Sneha, says, “I had no fever when I left home in Kerala. Even when I reached Belagavi and got these pimples, I did not think much of it. So I came for my physical and ground tests.” 

Accompanied by her mother and uncle, Sneha, who is pursuing a computer course in her hometown Iritty, about 41 km from Kannur, made the 611-km journey from home to Belagavi spending eight hours in a bus and three hours on a train. She is among the 850-odd women, many of whom have travelled several hundred kilometers, to turn up at the first-ever recruitment rally for women to the Indian Army’s Corps of Military Police. 

The recruitment of women as Soldier General Duty (Women Military Police) marks the first time that women will be taken in not only as officers, but as soldiers, giving them an opportunity to be involved in active military duties. As personnel of the military police, the women soldiers will be responsible for investigating offences such as molestation, theft, and rape; “assisting in the maintenance of good order and discipline”; and in custody and handling of prisoners of war — essentially combat-support operations. 

The move is part of a slow opening up of avenues for women in the armed forces. In his Independence Day speech last year, Prime Minister Narendra Modi had said women officers recruited into the armed forces under the Short Service Commission would be given the option of taking up permanent commission — a “gift” to India’s “brave daughters”. Following a notification issued by the Army on April 25, around 15,000 women registered for the recruitment rally at Belagavi, the first of five such to be held across India to fill 100 positions in the Military Police. The Belagavi centre catered to candidates from the southern states of Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana and the Union Territories of Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicobar and Puducherry. Of the 15,000 aspirants, about 3,000 were short- listed on the basis of their Class 10 marks, with the cut-off set at 86 per cent. Of the shortlisted candidates, only about one-third turned up at the Belagavi centre between August 1 and 5 at the date and time assigned to them. Just then, outside the enclosure where Sneha is sitting, a shrill whistle pierces the air and another batch of girls takes off — feet on the wet ground, mostly bare, making a dash for their place in history. “Does everybody understand English?” asks Major Chaudhry and the group of 30 women, sitting on red carpets on the ground, bellows: “Yes”. 

Q.112 What is the occasion being talked about in the passage? 

A Recruitment of women in the Indian Army 

B Medical examination of the women soldiers of the Indian Army 

C Sports event for the women working in the Indian Army 

D An assembly of the women personnel of the Indian Army 

Answer: A 

 

Q.113 Which city does Sneha come from? 

A Kannur, Kerala 

B Kozhikode, Kerala 

C Iritty, Kerala 

D Belagavi, Karnataka 

Answer: C 

 

Q.114 Why are there eruptions on Sneha’s face? 

A She is tired and hot after 400 meters. 

B She has pimples on her face. 

C She has got the chicken pox. 

D She is angry over the long wait. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.115 How many women are participating at the recruitment rally at Belagavi? 

A 100 

B 850 

C 3000 

D 15000 

Answer: B 

 

Q.116 What gift was announced by the PM in his Independence Day speech last year for the brave daughters of the country? 

A woman will be recruited in the armed forces. 

B Women will be recruited as soldiers in the Military police. 

C Women officers will be able to opt for permanent commission in the armed forces. 

D Women will have an opportunity to be involved in active military duties. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.117 In what way is ‘history’ being made in Belagavi? 

A Women have travelled from far-off places to turn up at the recruitment rally. 

B This rally marks the first time that women will be taken in as soldiers. 

C Belagavi rally is the first of the five to be held across India. 

D The rally is a result of the PM’s Independence Day speech last year. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.118 Which of the following duties will be borne by women soldiers? 1. Investigating offences involving molestation, theft and rape. 2. Assisting in maintaining order and discipline. 3.Administrative jobs 4. Handling prisoners of war in custody. 

A 1, 2 and 3 

B 2, 3 and 4 

C 1, 2 and 4 

D 1, 2, 3 and 4 

Answer: C 

 

Q.119 Which of the following is NOT necessary to qualify for the recruitment in the armed forces? 

A long jump and high jump 

B 1.6 meter race to be completed within 8 minutes 

C to speak English 

D physical fitness tests 

Answer: C 

 

Q.120 Which of the following states were not covered by the Belagavi centre? 

A Karnataka and Kerala 

B UTs of Puducherry, Lakshadweep and AN Islands 

C Telangana and Andhra Pradesh 

D Maharashtra and Goa 

Answer: D 

 

Q.121 Which statement is NOT true according to the passage? 

A About one third of the shortlisted candidates turned up at the Belagavi centre. 

B Women were called on the basis of their class 10 marks 

C There are only 100 positions to be filled up. 

D 3000 women registered for the recruitment rally at Belagavi. 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.122 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. Major Chaudhry said to the aspirants, “Does everyone understand English?” 

A Major Chaudhry informed the aspirants that everyone understood English. 

B Major Chaudhry asked the aspirants whether everyone understood English. 

C Major Chaudhry told the aspirants that everyone should understand English. 

D Major Chaudhry asked the aspirants whether everyone understands English. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.123 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. A. Flying kites is an old world sport. B. This sport involves a lot of risk. C. So, one has to be very cautious and skillful. D. It was quite popular during the days of the Nawabs. 

A BDCA 

B BACD 

C ABDC 

D ADBC 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Q.124 The soldiers carried around the orders of their commander without question. 

A No improvement 

B carried out 

C carried away 

D carried 

Answer: B 

 

Q.125 In an examination, it is more important to answer accurately than a quick finish. 

A to quick finishing 

B No improvement 

C to finish quickly 

D finish quickly 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.126 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. The Finance Minister said, “The Government will trim the corporate tax gradually to 25 percent for all companies.” 

A The Finance Minister said that the Government would trim the corporate tax gradually to 25 percent for all companies. 

B The Finance Minister asked the Government if it would trim the corporate tax gradually to 25 percent for all companies. 

C The Finance Minister ordered the Government to trim the corporate tax gradually to 25 percent for all companies 

D The Finance Minister told that the Government will trim the corporate tax gradually to 25 percent for all companies 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number. 

Comprehension: The other day there was a heavy downpour in our town. The roads looked (1) ______ small rivulets. There was a house (2) ______ our locality which was in a (3)______ condition. All of a sudden it collapsed. (4) ______ news spread in the whole (5) ______ like wildfire. 

Q.127 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1. 

A same 

B so as 

C as 

D like 

Answer: D 

 

Q.128 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2. 

A in 

B to 

C at 

D on 

Answer: A 

 

Q.129 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3. 

A destroyed 

B dilapidated 

C dejected 

D declined 

Answer: B 

 

Q.130 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4. 

A A 

B Few 

C One 

D The 

Answer: D 

 

Q.131 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5. 

A house 

B village 

C valley 

D town 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.132 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. If there is no error, select No error. What is the function of the kidney in the body? 

A in the body 

B the function of the kidney 

C What is 

D No error 

Answer: D 

 

Q.133 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

A. And I was earning barely enough money to keep body and soul together. 

B. It was twenty years ago. 

C. At that time I was living in Paris. 

D. I had a tiny apartment in the Latin Quarter overlooking a cemetery. 

A ADBC 

B BCDA 

C ABCD 

D BDCA 

Answer: B 

 

Q.134 Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. Her mother advised her not to go too fast while reciting her poem. 

A Her mother said, “Why are you going so fast while reciting your poem?” 

B Her mother said, “Don’t go too fast while reciting your poem.” 

C Her mother said, “You needn’t go too fast while reciting your poem.” 

D Her mother said, “Don’t go too fast while reciting her poem.” 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

Q.135 A. The other day we entered the city’s only Jewish cemetery. 

B. But then, it should not be a surprise. 

C. We were astonished to discover how tiny it was. 

D. Although Jewish people have lived in India for generations, they are one of the nation’s tiniest minorities. 

A BCAD 

B DCBA 

C ADBC 

D ACBD 

Answer: D 

 

Q.136 A. The officers are looking to reunite the dog with his owner. 

B. Eventually, the police caught the Chihuahua. 

C. A police officer on a motorcycle chased the dog. 

D. A Chihuahua ran across California’s San Francisco-Oakland Bay Bridge. 

A DCBA 

B CDAB 

C ABCD 

D DBCA 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. 

Comprehension: At a number of places in the Kashmir Valley, security forces have put coils of razor wire on roads to enforce restrictions on movement. Concertina wire or razor wire fences are used along territorial borders and in areas of conflict around the world, to keep out combatants, terrorists, or refugees. 

The expandable spools of barbed or razor wire get their name from concertina, a hand-held musical instrument similar to the accordion, with bellows that expand and contract. Concertina wire coils were an improvisation on the barbed wire obstacles used during World War I. The flat, collapsible coils with intermittent barbs or blades were designed to be carried along by infantry, and deployed on battlefields to prevent or slow down enemy movement. 

The Englishman Richard Newton is credited with creating the first barbed wire around 1845; the first patent for “a double wire clipped with diamond shaped barbs” was given to Louis François Janin of France. In the United States, the first patent was registered by Lucien B Smith on June 25, 1867, for a prairie fence made of fireproof iron wire. Michael Kelly twisted razor wires together to form a cable of wires. The American businessman Joseph F Glidden is considered to be the father of the modern barbed wire. He designed the wire with two intertwined strands held by sharp prongs at regular intervals. 

Barbed wire was initially an agrarian fencing invention intended to confine cattle and sheep, which unlike lumber, was largely resistant to fire and bad weather. An advertorial published in the US in 1885 under the title ‘Why Barb Fencing Is Better Than Any Other’, argued that “it does not decay; boys cannot crawl through or over it; nor dogs; nor cats; nor any other animal; it watches with Argus eyes the inside and outside, up, down and lengthwise; it prevents the ‘ins’ from being ‘outs’, and the ‘outs’ from being ‘ins’, watches at day-break, at noontide, at . 

sunset and all night long…” Barbed wire was put to military use in the Siege of Santiago in 1898 during the Spanish- American War, and by the British in the Second Boer War of 1899-1902 to confine the families of the Afrikaans- speaking Boer fighters. 

World War I saw extensive use of barbed wire — and German military engineers are credited with improvising the earliest concertina coils on the battlefield. They spun the barbed wire into circles and simply spread it on the battlefield. Without using any support infrastructure like poles etc. this was more effective against the infantry charge by Allied soldiers. 

The fence erected by India along the Line of Control to keep out terrorist infiltrators consists of rows of concertina wire coils held by iron angles. They are now commonly seen and are used to secure private properties as well. 

Q.137 What is the main theme of the above passage? 

A How barbed wire was patented 

B The use of barbed wire in Jammu and Kashmir 

C The use of barbed wire in agriculture 

D The evolution and use of barbed wire 

Answer: D 

 

Q.138 Who is credited with creating the modern barbed wire? 

A Louise Francoise Janin 

B Joseph F Glidden 

C Lucien B Smith 

D Richard Newton 

Answer: B 

 

Q.139 What was the initial purpose of inventing the barbed wire? 

A to secure the borders of a country 

B to keep the dogs and boys out of gardens 

C to restrict the movement of trouble makers 

D to confine cattle and sheep within an area 

Answer: D

 

Q.140 Who first spread the barbed wires on the field without using the poles or any other support system? 

A German military engineers 

B British army 

C American military 

D Allied soldiers 

Answer: A 

 

Q.141 Which statement is NOT true according to the passage? 

A The fence along the Indian Line of Control consists of rows of concertina wire coils held by iron angles. 

B In the United States, the first patent was registered by Louis François Janin. 

C It was Richard Newton, an Englishman, who invented the barbed wire around 1845. 

D Barbed wire was first put to military use in the Siege of Santiago in 1898 during the Spanish-American War. 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.142 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. A. There had already been abundant rainfall in Delhi. B. It was the fag end of summer. C. A strong wind began to blow and the rain came causing havoc all around. D. One day, however, we had a cyclonic storm. 

A BADC 

B CADB 

C BACD 

D CBAD 

Answer: A 

 

Q.143 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. I said to Taru, “The tyre of my car is punctured.” 

A I told Taru that the tyre of my car is punctured. 

B Taru told me that the tyre of my car was punctured. 

C I told Taru that the tyre of my car was punctured. 

D I told Taru that the tyre of her car is punctured. 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. 

Q.144 Rohit did not come to the office because he got held up due to the heavy rains. 

A to the office 

B due to the heavy rains 

C Rohit did not came 

D because he got held up 

Answer: C 

 

Q.145 Despite incessant rains, she is the only one who plans to attend the meeting at the ministry. 

A Despite incessant rains 

B who plan to attend 

C the meeting at the ministry. 

D she is the only one 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.146 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. pie in the sky 

A something very small 

B something not possible 

C difficult to find 

D an easy situation 

Answer: B 

 

Q.147 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. A. Due to the movie, tourists started coming to the beach there. B. Maya Bay in Thailand was in the media in 1999 when Hollywood arrived there to film ‘The Beach’. C. One of the film’s actors was Leonardo Di Caprio. D. As many as 4,000 visitors would arrive on boats every day. 

A BCAD 

B CBDA 

C ABCD 

D CABD 

Answer: A 

 

Q.148 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. In view of the excessive heat, schools in Delhi remained closed ______a week in July. 

A for 

B about 

C in 

D to 

Answer: A 

 

Q.149 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. Everybody is waiting to see whether the new leadership has effect some changes soon in the party. 

A Everybody is waiting to see 

B soon in the party 

C has effect some changes 

D whether the new leadership 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. 

Comprehension: LAST WEEK, scientists from all corners of India descended on Ahmedabad to remember the architect of India’s space programme, a man whom the late president, APJ Abdul Kalam, had famously termed “Mahatma Gandhi of Indian Science”. 

They were there to launch celebrations on the birth centenary of Vikram Sarabhai, 47 years after his death at the age of 52, by when he had founded 38 institutions that are now leaders in space research, physics, management and performing arts. 

Former director of the Space Applications Centre Pramod Kale was a 19-year old science graduate from MS University of Baroda, besotted by space technology, when he first met Sarabhai. “In May 1960, I went to Ahmedabad to meet Dr. Sarabhai. “I met him and ended up talking for two hours,” Kale says. 

By June that year, Kale had done exactly as Sarabhai had advised him and taken up a master’s course at Gujarat University. In 1962, when Sarabhai was looking at studying the magnetic equator, Kale went on to be among the first few to go to NASA to learn radar tracking. The room resounded with many such memories. Former ISRO chairman K Kasturirangan remembered how they ran into some trouble at the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL), founded in 1947 by Sarabhai, in their attempts to fly a balloon at 4 am, when in sailed Sarabhai. “He told us had the flight been successful, you would not have learnt even half of what you learnt because of that initial problem,” said Kasturirangan. Many of those who had collected in Ahmedabad in Sarabhai’s memory were teenagers when they first met him. Gandhinagar-based entrepreneur K Subramanian was 19 and a student of National Institute of Technology, Tiruchirappalli, working on a summer project at PRL, when a man in a kurta-pyjama walked in and began turning all the waste paper bins upside down, inspecting their contents and putting them back again. “I asked a colleague who that was and was told it is Dr Vikram Sarabhai. He had come to check how much waste the lab was generating,” laughs Subramanian. 

Born to Ambalal and Sarla Devi, Ahmedabad’s leading textile-mill owners, Vikram Sarabhai showed creative promise early. He was 15 when he built a working model of a train engine with the help of two engineers, which is now housed at the Community Science Centre (CSC) in Ahmedabad. The CSC was Vikram’s way of providing other children the privileges he had, of experimental research, says his son Kartikeya, 71, adding how his father wished to work with children at the science centre after he retired. 

“He was essentially a researcher, and believed that people, especially children, should be allowed to think freely and come up with solutions on their own,” recalls Kartikeya, who founded the Centre for Environment Education in 1984. Kartikeya is carefully piecing together all the dog-eared notes he is discovering in the recesses of their three grand homes — Shanti Sadan, The Retreat and Chidambaram. To inspire the young to dream like Sarabhai, Kartikeya is building a permanent exhibition gallery on the Sabarmati Riverfront, expected to open this November. 

 

Q.150 What was the occasion for the gathering at Ahmedabad? 

A Foundation Day of Community Science Centre 

B Launch of the celebrations of the Birth Centenary of Vikram Sarabhai 

C Foundation Day of ISRO 

D Birth Anniversary of India’s Space Programme 

Answer: B 

 

Q.151 What is Vikram Sarabhai mainly known for? 

A for being an entrepreneur in Ahmedabad 

B for pioneering India’s space programme 

C for founding 38 different institutions 

D for establishing Community Science Centre 

Answer: B 

 

Q.152 Among the people who had gathered at Ahmedabad, who was the former chairman of ISRO? 

A Kartikeya 

B K Subramanian 

C K Kasturirangan 

D Pramod Kale 

Answer: C 

 

Q.153 Which statement shows that Vikram Sarabhai had a creative mind at an early age? 

A He built a working model of a train engine at the age of 15. 

B He founded the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL). 

C He told the scientists that they learnt much more from problems than from success. 

D He checked how much waste the lab was generating. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.154 How did Vikram Sarabhai provide under-privileged children the experience of experimental research? 

A By initiating space research at PRL 

B By founding Community Science Centre at Ahmedabad. 

C By founding Physical Research Laboratory 

D By providing them with scholarships in science 

Answer: B 

 

Q.155 APJ Abdul Kalam called Vikram Sarabhai “Mahatma Gandhi of Indian Science”. What does ‘Mahatma Gandhi’ mean here? 

A Father 

B Social reformer 

C Revolutionary 

D Architect 

Answer: A 

 

Q.156 Which statement is NOT true according to the passage? 

A The Sarabhai family owns three grand homes in Mumbai. 

B Vikram Sarabhai’s son, Kartikeya, is now 71 years old. 

C The names of Vikram Sarabhai’s parents were Ambalal and Sarla Devi. 

D Vikram Sarabhai’s father was a textile mill owner. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.157 ‘He was a 19-year old science graduate besotted by space technology, when he first met Sarabhai.’ ‘besotted’ here means 

A frantic 

B wasted 

C obsessed 

D greedy 

Answer: C 

 

Q.158 Who among the following went to NASA to study radar tracking? 

A Pramod Kale 

B K Subramanian 

C K Kasturirangan 

D Kartikeya 

Answer: A 

 

Q.159 Where did K Subramanian come from to work at PRL? 

A Bangalore 

B Baroda 

C Ahmedabad 

D Tiruchirappalli 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.160 Select the correct active form of the given sentence. Pruning of trees in my colony has been started by the horticulture department. 

A Pruning of trees in my colony has started the horticulture department. 

B The horticulture department has been starting pruning of trees in my colony. 

C The horticulture department has started pruning trees in my colony. 

D The horticulture department will start pruning trees in my colony. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.161 Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. The officer told me that I needed to work harder to meet my targets otherwise I would have to leave the company. 

A The officer said to me, “I need to work harder to meet my targets otherwise I will have to leave the company.” 

B The officer said to me, “Work harder to meet your targets otherwise be ready to leave the company.” 

C The officer said to me, “You have to work harder to meet our targets otherwise I will have to leave the company.” 

D The officer said to me, “You need to work harder to meet your targets otherwise you will have to leave the company.” 

Answer: D 

 

Q.162 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. I am going on a holiday to Pachmarhi tomorrow. 

A tomorrow 

B to Pachmarhi 

C to a holiday 

D I am going 

Answer: C 

 

Q.163 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

A naucea 

B naughty 

C naturalistic 

D nautical 

Answer: A 

 

Q.164 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. Avika said to her mother, “You are very late today.” 

A Avika asked her mother why she was late today. 

B Avika told her mother that she was very late that day. 

C Avika told her mother that she was very late that day. 

D Avika told her mother that you were very late that day. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.165 Select the correct active form of the given sentence. Being a space scientist, you are advised not to take your work lightly. 

A Being a space scientist, you do not take your work lightly. 

B Being a space scientist, you could not take your work lightly. 

C Being a space scientist, you should not take your work lightly. 

D Being a space scientist, you will not take your work lightly. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.166 Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. Mr. Lucas told his wife not to wait for him as he would be late at the studio that night. 

A His wife said to Mr Lucas, “Don’t wait for him as he will be late at the studio that night.” 

B Mr Lucas said to his wife, “Not to wait for him as I would be late at the studio tonight.” 

C Mr Lucas said to his wife, “Don’t wait for me as I will be late at the studio tonight.” 

D Mr Lucas said to his wife, “Don’t wait for him as he will be late at the studio that night.” 

Answer: C 

 

Q.167 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. I came across some words which meant I did not know. 

A the meanings of which 

B No improvement 

C that meanings which 

D which means that 

Answer: A 

 

Q.168 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. sell like hot cakes 

A to face hardship 

B to sell quickly 

C to agree fully 

D to deal with a problem 

Answer: B 

 

Q.169 Select the correct active form of the given sentence. Mobile toilets were placed by the district administration behind the area where people assembled for army recruitment. 

A The district administration has placed mobile toilets behind the area where people assembled for army recruitment. 

B The district administration is planning to place mobile toilets behind the area where people will assemble for army recruitment. 

C The district administration placed mobile toilets behind the area where people assembled for army recruitment. 

D The mobile toilets placed district administration behind the area where people assembled for army recruitment. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.170 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. A. All day I seem to remember, I played on the sands with strange exciting children. B. Then watched the incoming tide destroy them. C. My parents took me by car to a place by the sea. D. We made sandcastles with huge walls. 

A ACDB 

B CADB 

C CDAB 

D ABCD 

Answer: B 

 

Q.171 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. The height of an object or point in relation to sea level or ground level 

A rectitude 

B longitude 

C latitude 

D altitude 

Answer: D 

 

Q.172 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. I am sure he will give me some advice about admission to the University of Delhi. 

A I am sure he will be given some advice by me about admission to the University of Delhi. 

B I am sure I will be given some advice by him about admission to the University of Delhi. 

C I am sure I was given some advice by him about admission to the University of Delhi. 

D I am sure I can be given some advice by him about admission to the University of Delhi. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.173 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. Anshul said, “Should we go to the Zoo today?” 

A Anshul said that they should go to the zoo that day. 

B Anshul wondered if they should go to the zoo that day. 

C Anshul asked if we should go to the zoo today. 

D Anshul announced that they would go to the zoo that day. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.174 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. causing no harm 

A insolvent 

B inorganic 

C integral 

D innocuous 

Answer: D 

 

Q.175 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. My sister said, “What time will the train reach Bhopal?” 

A My sister asked what time the train reaches Bhopal. 

B My sister asked what time the train will reach Bhopal. 

C My sister asked what time the train reached Bhopal. 

D My sister asked what time the train would reach Bhopal. 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. 

Comprehension: A great water scarcity looms over India; by 2025 Indians will get just over half the water they get today. This grave problem has a simple solution. Catch the rain as it falls, and the water crisis will disappear. However, about 80 per cent of India’s rainfall buckets down during the three months of the monsoons. As yet, no government programmer has discovered how to store this water. 

‘Dying Wisdom’, a seven-year countryside study by Delhi’s Centre for Science and Environment, reveals that ruins of amazing ancient technologies survive in every corner of India. Drip-irrigation systems of bamboo pipes in Meghalaya; ‘kunds’, underground tanks in Rajasthan; ‘pynes’, water channels built by tribals in Bihar; and thousands of open- water bodies down south are all superb examples of rainwater harvesting systems. Even today, tanks called ‘eris’ in Tamil Nadu water one-third of the state’s irrigated area. Unfortunately, governmental planners mostly refuse to acknowledge the potential of these low-cost systems, concentrating on costly dams and canals. 

Few cities have lost touch with their ecological traditions as fast-and with as damaging results-as Bangalore. Only 17 of its water bodies struggle to survive in a city where once 200 lakes, ponds and wetlands cooled the city and recharged its ground water. The threats continue unabated as the relentless march of urbanization shows no sign of stopping. 

Q.176 ‘This grave problem’ in the passage refers to 

A short monsoon span 

B rainfall 

C storage of water 

D water crisis 

Answer: D 

 

Q.177 What, according to the passage, is the primary reason for the water shortage? 

A Lack of means to store rainwater 

B Government’s ignorance of the situation 

C Less rainfall in the country 

D Carelessness of people in using water 

Answer: A 

 

Q.178 Which State uses bamboo pipes for the drip irrigation system? 

A Bihar 

B Rajasthan 

C Meghalaya 

D Tamil Nadu 

Answer: C 

 

Q.179 Which of the following is not a low cost technology in water usage? 

A water channels 

B drip-irrigation 

C underground tanks 

D dams and canals 

Answer: D 

 

Q.180 The people in ancient India had amazing technology to harvest water. This shows that 

A they understood the significance of water. 

B it used to rain heavily. 

C they did not know how to build dams. 

D water was scarce at that time. 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.181 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. the feeling of being upset or annoyed as a result of being unable to change or achieve something. 

A astonishment 

B fascination 

C frustration 

D anticipation 

Answer: C 

 

Q.182 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

A. On Saturday the 10th, Typhoon Lekima made landfall in China’s Zhejiang province. 

B. This province is often hit with typhoons, but this storm was its strongest ever. 

C. The typhoon brought winds of up to 116mph, and floods affected almost 5 million people. 

D. More than 1 million people were evacuated from their homes. 

A ABCD 

B BDCA 

C ADBC 

D CBAD 

Answer: A 

 

Q.183 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. I request you to not to crack jokes in the class. 

A not to crack 

B No improvement 

C to not to cracking 

D not cracking 

Answer: A 

 

Q.184 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. In the same boat 

A at the centre of attention 

B in a superior position 

C in the same situation 

D in disgrace 

Answer: C 

 

Q.185 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. The Social Media Department is headless at the moment and many are vying to the post. 

A is headless at the moment 

B The Social Media Department 

C to the post. 

D and many are vying 

Answer: C 

 

Q.186 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Right from the beginning ______ government’s focus has been on ______ development of the country. 

A the, the 

B a, the 

C the, a 

D a, no word required 

Answer: A 

 

Q.187 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

A. And taking this village lad into their midst was terribly upsetting. 

B. She was by no means pleased with this unnecessary addition to her family. 

C. When he reached Calcutta, Phatik met his aunt for the first time. 

D. She found her own three boys quite enough to manage without taking in anyone else. 

A CBDA 

B BCDA 

C BCAD 

D CADB 

Answer: A 

 

Q.188 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. He switched on the TV to listen to the speech of the PM on the Independence Day. 

A He switched on the TV 

B of the PM 

C to listening to the speech 

D on Independence Day. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.189 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. They started playing badminton at a young age of nine years old . 

A the young age of nine 

B the young age of nine years old 

C a young age of nine years 

D No improvement 

Answer: A 

 

Q.190 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. the customary code of polite behaviour in society 

A norm 

B majesty 

C estimation 

D etiquette 

Answer: D

 

Instructions: Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. 

Q.191 The traveller said that he had come a long way off. 

A The traveller said, “He had come a long way off.” 

B The traveller said, “I am coming a long way off.” 

C The traveller said, “He has come a long way off.” 

D The traveller said, “I have come a long way off.” 

Answer: D 

 

Q.192 I told Vinod that the plumber had forgotten his mobile there. 

A I said to Vinod, “The plumber is forgetting his mobile here.” 

B I said to Vinod, “The plumber had forgotten his mobile there.” 

C Vinod said to me, “The plumber has forgotten his mobile here.” 

D I said to Vinod, “The plumber has forgotten his mobile here.” 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.193 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate idiom. Now that Mr. Krishna Murthy has retired from the company, his daughter is ______. 

A in the doghouse 

B in the driver’s seat 

C in the lap of luxury 

D in the pink 

Answer: B 

 

Q.194 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

A. After around 20 minutes of the crash, the tanker caught fire and exploded. 

B. On Saturday, an oil tanker in Tanzania lost control and overturned on a busy road. 

C. Around 150 people gathered near the tanker and some of them tried to siphon away some fuel. 

D. At least 61 people died and 70 more were injured. 

A DCAB 

B BCAD 

C DBAC 

D BACD 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions: Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. 

Q.195 I asked my friend if he had seen the launch of the Chandrayaan2 from Sriharikota. 

A I said to my friend, “How did you see the launch of the Chandrayaan2 from Sriharikota?” 

B I said to my friend, “I had seen the launch of the Chandrayaan2 from Sriharikota?” 

C I said to my friend, “Did you see the launch of the Chandrayaan2 from Sriharikota?” 

D I said to my friend, “He has seen the launch of the Chandrayaan2 from Sriharikota.” 

Answer: C 

 

Q.196 She says that Rani is a talented actress. 

A She said, “Rani was a talented actress.” 

B She said, “Rani is a talented actress.” 

C She says, “Rani is a talented actress.” 

D She asks, “Is Rani a talented actress?” 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.197 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. a decision on which one cannot go back 

A intractable 

B invincible 

C invulnerable 

D irrevocable 

Answer: D 

 

Q.198 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom in the given sentence. They talked over the matter of his leaving the job and going for further studies. 

A discussed 

B fought against 

C surveyed 

D explained 

Answer: A 

 

Q.199 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. If there is no error, select No error. They made her the Chairperson of their bank. 

A No error 

B as the Chairperson 

C of their bank. 

D They made her 

Answer: B 

 

Q.200 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. They can’t hardly believe that Article 370 is no longer valid in Jammu and Kashmir. 

A is no longer valid 

B in Jammu and Kashmir. 

C that Article 370 

D They can’t hardly believe 

Answer: D 

SSC CGL Tier-II 12 September 2019 Maths Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL MATHS

 Tier-II (12 Sept 2019)  

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.1 Two-third of the number of employees of a company are males and the rest are females. If ⅜ of the male employees and ⅖ female employees are temporary employees and the total number of permanent employees is 740. Then ⁷/₁₅ the total number of employees exceeds the number of temporary female employees by: 

A 400 

B 340 

C 308 

D 320 

Answer: A 

 

Q.2 Three fractions x,у and z are such that x > y > z.When small of them divided by the greatest, the result is ⁹/₁₆ , which exceeds y by 0.0625.If  x+y+z=1¹³/₂₄,then the value of x+z is 

A ⁷/₈

B 1 

C ²⁵/₂₄

D ⁷/₆

Answer: C 

 

Q.3 If the 11-digit number 5678x43267y is divisible by 72, then the value of √(5x+8y) is: 

A 6 

B 4 

C 7 

D 8 

Answer: A 

 

Q.4 What is the ratio of the third proportionalto 0.4 and 0.8, to the mean proportional between 13.5 and 0.24? 

A 5 : 4 

B 7: 8 

C 8 : 9 

D 9 : 10 

Answer: C 

 

Q.5 If x + ⅟₁₆x = 3 then the value of 16x3 + ⅟₂₅₆x3 is: 

A 423 

B 441 

C 432 

D 414 

Answer: A 

 

Q.6 If 60% of a number is 120 more than 20% of the number, then 28% of the number is less than 33⅓% of the number by: 

A 14 

B 12 

C 16 

D 15 

Answer: C 

 

Q.7 A sum lent out at simple interest amounts to ₹6076 in 1 year and ₹7504 in 4 years. The sum and the rate of interest p.a. are respectively: 

A ₹5,600 and 9% 

B ₹5,600 and 8.5% 

C ₹5,400 and 9% 

D ₹5,400 and 10% 

Answer: B 

 

Q.8 In △ABC , the medians AD, BE and CF meet at O. What is the ratio of the area of △ABD tothe area of △AOE

A 2 : 1 

B 3 : 1 

C 5 : 2 

D 3 : 2 

Answer: B 

 

Q.9 If x + y + z = 2, xy + yz + zx = −11 and xyz = −12 , then what is the value of √(x3 + y3 + z 3 − 2) ? 

A 6 

B 12 

C 9 

D 8 

Answer: A 

 

Q.10 The value of ( 1⅓÷ 2⁶/₇ of 5⅗)÷( 6⅖÷ 4½ of 5⅓) × ( ¾× 2⅔÷ ⁵/₉ of 1⅕) = 1 + k ,where k lies between 

A -0.07 and -0.06 

B -0.08 and -0.07 

C -0.06 and -0.05 

D -0.05 and -0.04 

Answer: A 

 

Q.11 5 years ago, the ratio of the age of A to that of B was 4 : 5. Five years hence, the ratio of the age of A to that of B will be 6 : 7. If, at present, C is 10 years younger than B, then what will be the ratio of the present age of A to that of C? 

A 3 : 2 

B 5 : 4 

C 4 : 3 

D 5 : 3 

Answer: B 

 

Q.12 The area of the base of a right circular cone is 400π andits height is 15 cm. The curved surface area of the cone (in cm2 ) is: 

A 480π

B 500π

C 450π

D 560π

Answer: B 

 

Q.13 The given pie chart shows the quantity wise sales distribution of five products (A, B, C, D and E) of a company in 2016.  Quantity wise sales distribution of five products (A, B, C, D and E) 

If 1500 units of product D were sold in 2016 and the total number of units sold by the company in 2017 was 18% more than that sold in 2016, then the total units sold by the company in 2017 is: 

A 6336 

B 6390 

C 6372 

D 6354 

Answer: C 

 

Q.14 The given bar graph shows the imports and exports (in ₹ crores) of steel by a country from 2013 to 2017. 

What is the ratio of the total imports in 2015 and 2017 to the total exports in 2013 and 2016? 

A 11 : 4 

B 9 : 8 

C 25 : 21 

D 9 : 11 

Answer: C 

 

Q.15 An article is sold at a certain price. If it is sold at 80% of this price, then there will be a loss of 10%. What is the percentage profit when the article is sold at the original selling price? 

A 15½ 

B 12½ 

C 15 

D 12 

Answer: B 

 

Q.16 In a circle, AB and DC are two chords. When AB and DC are produced, they meet at P. If PC = 5.6 cm, PB = 6.3 cm and AB = 7.7 cm, then the length of CD is: 

A 8.35 cm 

B 9 cm 

C 10.15 cm 

D 9.25 cm 

Answer: C 

 

Q.17 The value of  is:

A ³/₂

B ½

C 1 

D 2 

Answer: D 

 

Q.18 A is 25% more than B and B is 40% less than C. If C is 30% more than D, then by what percent is A less than D? 

A 1.5 

B 2.5 

C 4 

D 5 

Answer: B 

 

Q.19 In a class, 83⅓%of the number of studentsare girls and the rest are boys. If 60% of the number of boys and 80% of the number of girls are present, then what percentage of the total number of students in the class is absent? 

A 26⅔

B 22⅔ 

C 23⅓ 

D 12⅓

Answer: C 

 

Q.20 A spends 65% of his income. His income is increased by 20.1% and his expenditure is increased by 25%. His savings: 

A Increase by 11% 

B Increase by 5% 

C Decrease by 5% 

D Decrease by 11% 

Answer: A 

 

Q.21 The average weight of a certain numberofstudents in a group is 72 kg. If 10 students having an average weight of 78 kg leave and 4 students having an average weightof 80 kg join the group, the average weight of the students in the group decreases by 0.7 kg, The number of students initially in the group is: 

A 56 

B 46 

C 44 

D 54 

Answer: B 

 

Q.22 If (1+sinφ)/ (1-sinφ) =p2/q2, then secφ is equal to 

A 2P2Q2/p2+q2

B ½(q/p+p/q)

C ⅟p2+⅟q2

D P2q2/p2-q2

Answer: B 

 

Q.23 The marked price of an article is ₹800 and it is sold at a discount of 19%. If there is a gain of 8%, then by what percent above the cost price was the article marked? 

A 33⅓

B 35 

C 27 

D 36⅔

Answer: A 


Q.24 The base of a right prism is a triangle with sides 20cm, 21cm and 29cm. If its volume is 7560cm3, then its lateral surface area (in cm2 ) is: 

A 2484 

B 2556 

C 2520 

D 2448 

Answer: C 

 

Q.25 The expression √[10 + 2 ( √6 − √15 − √10)] is equal to: 

A √3 + √2 − √5 

B √3 − √2 − √5 

C √3 − √2 + √5 

D√2 − √3 −√5 

Answer: A 

 

Q.26 A cylindrical vessel of radius 3.5 m is full of water. If 15400 litres of water is taken out from it, then the drop in the water level in the vessel will be: 

A 72 cm 

B 40 cm 

C 35 cm 

D 60 cm 

Answer: B 

Q.27 The value of  is equal to:

A 2cosφ

B cosecφ secφ

C 2sinφ

D sinφ cosφ

Answer: D 

 

Q.28 A, B and C start a business. A invests 33⅓%of the total capital, B invests 25%of the remaining and C invests the rest. If the total profit at the end of a year is ₹1,62,000, then A’s share in profit is: 

A ₹81,000 

B ₹60,000 

C ₹54,000 

D ₹90,000 

Answer: C

 

Q.29 A solid metallic sphere of radius 8 cm is melted and drawn into a wire of uniform cross-section. If the length of the wire is 24 m, then its radius (in mm) is: 

A 6 

B 5 

C 5⅓

D 6 ⅔

Answer: C 

 

Q.30 The sides of a triangle are 56 cm, 90 cm and 106 cm. The circumference of its circumcircle is: 

A 106π 

B 109π 

C 108π 

D 112π 

Answer: A 

 

Q.31 The speed of a boat in still water is 18 km/h and the speed of the current is 6 km/h. In how much time (in hours) will the boat travel a distance of 90 km upstream and the same distance downstream? 

A 9½

B 11¼

C 12 

D 10 

Answer: B 

 

Q.32 The HCF of two numbers is 21 and their LCM is 221 times the HCF. If one of the numbers lies between 200 and 300, then the sum of the digits of the other number is: 

A 14 

B 17 

C 18 

D 15 

Answer: D 

 

Q.33 △ABC and △DBC are on the same BC but on opposite sides of it. AD and BC intersect each other at O.If AO = a cm, DO = b cm and the area of △ABC = xcm2 , then what is the area(in cm2 ) of △DBC 

A (a/b)x 

B (ab/2)

C bx /a

D (a+b)/2 

Answer: C 

 

Q.34 The value of tan2 φ + cot2 φ sec2 φcosec2 φ is equal to 

A -2 

B 1 

C 0 

D -1 

Answer: A 

 

Q.35 The point of intersection of the graphs of the equations 3x – 5y = 19 and 3y -7x + 1 =0 is P ( α,β ). Whatis the value of ( 3α β ) ? 

A -2 

B -1 

C 1 

D 0 

Answer: B 

 

Q.36 ( secφ − tanφ )2 ( 1 + sinφ )2 ÷ sin2 φ= ? 

A cosφ 

B cot2 φ 

C secφ 

D cos2 φ

Answer: B 

 

Q.37 By selling two articles for ₹800, a person gains the cost price of three articles. The profit percent is: 

A 125 

B 140 

C 120 

D 150 

Answer: D 

 

Q.38 What is the compound interest on a sum of ₹7200 for 2⅖ years at 20% p.a., interest compounded yearly (nearest to an integer)? 

A ₹4,290 

B ₹3,960 

C ₹4,205 

D ₹3,997 

Answer: D 

Q.39 The value of is: 

A -1 

B 1 

C 3 

D -3 

Answer: A 

 

Q.40 The base of a right pyramid is an equilateral triangle with side 8 cm, and the height of the pyramid is 24√3 cm3. The volume (in cm3) of the pyramid is: 

A 1152 

B 480 

C 576 

D 384 

Answer: D 

 

Q.41 The sum of the interior angles of a regular polygonis 1260⁰, What is the difference between an exterior angle and an interior angle of the polygon? 

A 105⁰

B 100⁰

C 120⁰

D 90⁰

Answer: B 

 

Q.42 In circle with centre O. AC and BD are two chords. AC and BD meet at E when produced. If AB is the diameter and ∠AEB=68⁰ , then the measure of ∠DOC is 

A 32⁰

B 30⁰

C 22⁰

D 44⁰

Answer: D 

 

Q.43 In ΔABC, the perpendiculars drawn fromA,B and C meet the opposite sides at D,E and F, respectively.AD, BE and CF intersect at point P. If ∠EPD=116⁰ and the bisectors of ∠A and ∠B meet at Q, then the measure of ∠AQBis: 

A 96⁰

B 122⁰

C 124⁰

D 64⁰

Answer: B 

 

Q.44 The perimeters of two similar triangles ABC and PQR are 78 cm and 46.8 cm, respectively. If PQ = 11.7, then the length of AB is: 

A 19.5 cm 

B 23.4 cm 

C 24 cm 

D 20 cm 

Answer: A 

 

Q.45 If the diameter of the base of a right circular cylinder is reduced by 33⅓% and its height is doubled, then the volume of the cylinder will: 

A increase by 1⅟₉%

B remain unchanged 

C increase by 11⅟₉%

D decrease by 11⅟₉%

Answer: D 

 

Q.46 A right circular solid cone of radius 3.2 cm and height 7.2 cm is melted and recast into a right circular cylinder of height 9.6 cm. What is the diameter of the base of the cylinder? 

A 4.2 cm 

B 4.5 cm 

C 3.5 cm 

D 3.2 cm 

Answer: D 

 

Q.47 40 litres of 60% concentration of acid solution is added to 35 litres of 80% concentration of acid solution. What is the concentration of acid in the new solution? 

A 66%

B 66⅔%

C 69⅓%

D 69%

Answer: C 

 

Q.48 In △PQR, I is the incentre of the triangle. If ∠QIR = 107∘, then what is the measure of ∠P

A 37⁰

B 43⁰ 

C 73⁰

D 34⁰

Answer: D 

 

Q.49 If x4− 83x2 + 1 = 0, then a value of x3x−3can be: 

A 758 

B 756 

C 739 

D 737 

Answer: B 

 

Q.50 Sujata marks an article 36% above the cost price and allows a 40% discount on the marked price. The loss percentage is: 

A 15 

B 16.8 

C 18.4 

D 4 

Answer: C 

 

Q.51 If 3(cot2 φ −cosφ) = cos2φ, 0⁰ < φ < 90⁰ 2, then the value of (tan2 φ + cosec2 φ +sin2 φ) is: 

A ¹³/₃

B ⁶¹/₁₂

C ²⁵/₁₂

D ¹⁵/₄

Answer: B 

 

Q.52 A hemispherical bowl of internal diameter 36 cm is full of a liquid. This liquid is to be filled into cylindrical bottles each of radius 3 cm and height 12 cm. How many such bottles are required to empty the bowl? 

A 72 

B 54 

C 36 

D 27 

Answer: C 

 

Q.53 If (5x + 1)3 + (x − 3)3 + 8(3x − 4)3 = 6(5x + 1)(x − 3)(3x − 4) , then x is equal to: 

A ⁵/₆

B ⅓

C ⅔

D ¾

Answer: A 

 

Q.54 The average of 33 numbers is 74. The average of the first 17 numbers is 72.8 and that of the last 17 numbers is 77.2. If the 17th number is excluded, then what will be the average of the remaining numbers (correct to one decimal place)? 

A 72.9 

B 73.4 

C 71.6 

D 70.8 

Answer: A 

 

Q.55 A solid cube is cut into three cuboids of same volumes. Whatis the ratio of the surface area of the cube to the sum of the surface areas of any two of the cuboids so formed? 

A 9 : 10 

B 27 : 16 

C 20 : 10 

D 9 : 8 

Answer: A 

 

Q.56 (sin2 φ − 3sinφ + 2)/cos2 φ = 1 where 0⁰ < φ < 90⁰ , then what is the value of (cos2φ + sin3φ + cosec2φ) ? 

A (2- √3)/ 3 

B (3- 4√3)/ 6 

C (9- 4√3)/ 6 

D (3- 2√3)/ 3 

Answer: C 

 

Q.57 A loan has to be returned in two equal yearly instalments each of ₹44,100. If the rate of interest is 5% p.a.. compounded annually, then the total interest paid is: 

A ₹5,840 

B ₹6,000 

C ₹6,200 

D ₹6,280 

Answer: C 

 

Q.58 A sum of ₹x is divided among A, B and C such that the ratio of the shares of A and B is 6 : 7 and that of B and is 3 : 2. If the difference between the shares of A and C is ₹540, then the value of x is: 

A 7425 

B 7020 

C 7155 

D 7290 

Answer: C

 

Q.59 The sides PQ and PR of △PQR are produced to points S and T , respectively. The bisectors of ∠SQR and ∠TRQ meet at U . If ∠QUR = 79∘ , then the measure of ∠P is: 

A 41⁰ 

B 49⁰ 

C 22⁰ 

D 23⁰ 

Answer: C 

Q.60 The value of  is:

A 2 

B -1 

C -2 

D 0 

Answer: B 

 

Q.61 Alloy A contains copper and zine in the ratio of 4 : 3 and alloy B contains copper and zine in the ratio of 5: 2. A and B are taken in the ratio of 5 : 6 and melted to form a new alloy. The percentage of zinc in the new alloy is closest to: 

A 54 

B 34.2 

C 36.8 

D 35 

Answer: D 

 

Q.62 If the price of petrol increases by 19%, and Sunitha intends to spend only an additional 12% on petrol, by what percent should she reduce the quantity of petrol purchased (nearest to an integer)? 

A 7 

B 6 

C 5 

D 8 

Answer: B 

Q.63 The value of is equal to: 

A cosecφ

B ½

C secφ

D 1

Answer: D 

 

Q.64 A, B and C invested their capital in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5. The ratio of months for which A, B and C invested is 4 : 2 : 3. If C gets a share of profit which is ₹1,47,000 more than that of A, then B’s share of profit is: 

A ₹1,26,000 

B ₹1,68,000 

C ₹1,05,000 

D ₹1,89,000 

Answer: A 

 

Q.65 In a quadrilateral ABCD, the bisectors of ∠A and ∠D meet at E. If ∠CED=560 and ∠A=490, then the measure of ∠B is: 

A 710

B 540

C 630

D 670

Answer: C 

 

Q.66 If 8x3 − 27y3 = (Ax + By)(Cx2Dy2 + 6xy),then (A + B + C D) is equal to: 

A -12 

B 12 

C 15 

D 9 

Answer: B 

 

Q.67 The number of factors of 3600 is: 

A 45 

B 44 

C 43 

D 42 

Answer: A 

 

Q.68 The given pie chart shows the quantity wise sales distribution of five products (A, B, C, D and E) of a company in 2016. Quantity wise sales distribution of five products (A, B, C, D and E) 

If 320 units of product A were sold by the company, then how many units of products B and E together were sold by the company? 

A 567 

B 576 

C 512 

D 640 

Answer: B 

 

Q.69 4 men and 5 women can complete a work in 15 days, whereas 9 men and 6 women can do it in 10 days. To complete the same work in 7 days, how many women should assist 4 men? 

A 11 

B 14 

C 12 

D 13 

Answer: D 

 

Q.70 If x = (164)169 + (333)337 − (727)726 , then what is the units digit of x? 

A 5 

B 7 

C 8 

D 9 

Answer: C 

 

Q.71 Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 16 hours and 24 hours, respectively. and pipe C alone can empty the full tank in x hours. All the pipes were opened together at 10:30 a.m., but C was closed at 2:30 p.m. If the tank was full at 8:30 p.m. on the same day, then what is the value of x? 

A 64 

B 48 

C 45 

D 96 

Answer: D 

 

Q.72 Let x be the least number which when divided by 15, 18, 20 and 27, the remainder in each case is 10 and x is a multiple of 31. What least number should be added to x to make it a perfect square? 

A 39 

B 37 

C 43 

D 36 

Answer: A 

 

Q.73 The given bar graph shows the imports and exports (in ₹ crores) of steel by a country from 2013 to 2017. 

The total imports of steel in 2014, 2016 and 2017 is what percent less than the total exports in 2013, 2015 and 2017 (correct to one decimal place)? 

A 13.4 

B 15.8 

C 16.2 

D 14.5 

Answer: D 

 

Q.74 A person sells an article at 16% below its cost price. Had he sold it for ₹33 more, he would have gained 14%. To gain 25%, he should sell the article for: 

A ₹128 

B ₹137.5 

C ₹135 

D ₹130.5 

Answer: B 

 

Q.75 The given bar graph shows the imports and exports (in ₹ crores) of steel by a country from 2013 to 2017. 

In how many years were the imports more than 80% of the average exports (per year) of the country during the given 5 years? 

A 4 

B 2 

C 1 

D 3 

Answer: D 

 

Q.76 Renu was sitting inside train A, which was travelling at 50 km/h. Another train, B, whose length was three times the length of A crossedher in the opposite direction in 15 seconds. If the speed of train B was 58 km/h, then the length of train A (in m) is: 

A 210 

B 180 

C 160 

D 150 

Answer: D 

 

Q.77 The given graph shows the marks obtained by students in an examination.

The number of students who obtained less than 300 marks is what percent more than the number of students who obtained 350 or more marks? 

A 80% 

B 28% 

C 44.4% 

D 22.7% 

Answer: A 

 

Q.78 In △ABC , AB = ACand is a point on BC. If BD = 5 cm, AB = 12 cm and AD = 8 cm, then the length of CD is: 

A 14.8 cm 

B 16.2 cm 

C 16 cm 

D 14 cm 

Answer: C 

 

Q.79 The ratio of the incomes of A and last year was 4 : 3, respectively. The ratios of their individual incomes of the last year and the present year are 3 : 4 and 5 : 6, respectively. If their total income for the present year is ₹8.04 lakh, then the income of B last year was: 

A ₹2.7 lakh 

B ₹3.6 lakh 

C ₹2.4 lakh 

D ₹2.8 lakh 

Answer: A 

 

Q.80 When a two-digit numberis multiplied by the sum of its digits, the product is 424. When the number obtained by interchanging its digits is multiplied by the sum of the digits, the result is 280. The sum ofthe digits of the given number is: 

A 6 

B 9 

C 8 

D 7 

Answer: C 

 

Q.81 To do a certain work,the ratio of the efficiencies of X and Y is 5 : 4. Working together, they can complete the same work in 10 days. Y alone starts the work and leaves after 5 days. The remaining work will be completed by X alone in: 

A 14 days 

B 12 days 

C 15 days 

D 10 days 

Answer: A 

 

Q.82 The bisector of ∠B in  ABC meets AC at D. If AB =10cm, BC = 11cm and  AC = 14cm, then the length of AD is: 

A 6cm

B ²²/₃cm

C 7cm

D ²⁰/₃cm

Answer: D 

 

Q.83 The value of  is:

Answer: A 

 

Q.84 A circle is inscribed in a quadrilateral ABCD touching AB, BC, CD and AD at the points P, Q, R and S, respectively, and ∠B = 90∘ . If AD = 24 cm, AB = 27 cm and DR = 6 cm, then what is the circumference of the circle? 

A 20 π 

B 18 π 

C 15 π 

D 12 π 

Answer: B 

 

Q.85 Places A and B are 396 km apart. Train X leaves from A for B and train Y leaves from B for A at the same time on the same day onparallel tracks. Both trains meet after 5½ hours. The speed of Y is 10 km/h more than that of X. What is the speed (in km/h) of Y? 

A 41 

B 54 

C 31 

D 56 

Answer: A 

 

Q.86 If the curved surface area of a solid cylinder is one-third of its total surface area, then what is the ratio of its diameter to its height? 

A 5 : 2 

B 1 : 1 

C 2 : 1 

D 4 : 1 

Answer: D 

 

Q.87 A sum amounts to ₹14,395.20 at 9.25 % p.a. simple interest in 5.4 years. What will be the simple interest on the same sum at 8.6 % p.a. in 4.5 years? 

A ₹3,715.20 

B ₹3,627 

C ₹3,797.76 

D ₹3,672 

Answer: A 

 

Q.88 When an article is sold at its marked price, it gives a profit of 25%. If a discount of 9.6% is allowed on the marked price, then the profit percent will be: 

A 13 

B 15.4 

C 15 

D 16.6 

Answer: A 

 

Q.89 A man sells his goods at a certain price, 20% of which is his profit. If the price at which he buys the goods increases by 10% and he sells them at an 8% higher price, then what will be his profit percent (correct to one decimal place)? 

A 21.8 

B 23.4 

C 21.4 

D 22.7 

Answer: D 

 

Q.90 The given pie chart shows the quantity wise sales distribution of five products (A, B, C, D and E) of a company in 2016. Quantity wise sales distribution of five products (A. B, C, D and E)

In 2016,if a total of 14616 units were sold, then the number of units of products D sold was: 

A 4263 

B 4872 

C 4060 

D 4096 

Answer: C 

 

Q.91 The value of 9 × 6 ÷ 24 + 8 ÷ 2 of 5 − 30 ÷ 4 of 4 + 27 × 5 ÷ 9 is: 

A ⁶⁴⁷/₄₀

B ²⁴³/₈

C ⁴⁹³/₈

D ²⁵⁹/₈

Answer: A 

 

Q.92 A field roller, in the shape of a cylinder, has a diameter of 1 m and length of 1¼m. If the speed at which the roller rolls is 14 revolutions per minute, then the maximum area (in m2 ) that it can roll in 1 hour is: (Take π = ²²/₇) 

A 3960 

B 3600 

C 3300 

D 3560 

Answer: C 

 

Q.93 If the volume of a sphere is 4851cm3 , then its surface area (in cm2) is: (Take π = ²²/₇) 

A 1386 

B 2772 

C 1323 

D 1337 

Answer: A 

 

Q.94 From a point exactly midway between the foot of two towers P and Q,the angles of elevation of their tops are 30∘ and 60∘ , respectively. The ratio of the height of P to that of Q is: 

A 1 : 3 

B 1 : 2 

C 1 : 2√3 

D 2 : 3√3 

Answer: A 

 

Q.95 The graphs of the equations 2x + 3y = 11 and x − 2y + 12 = 0 intersects at P(x1,y1 ) and the graph of the equations x − 2y + 12 = 0 intersects the x-axis at Q(x2,y2 ) . What is the value of (x1x2 + y1 + y2 ) ? 

A 13 

B -11 

C 15 

D -9 

Answer: C 

 

Q.96 If x = (√5-√3)/(√5+√3) and y is the reciprocal of x , then what is the value of (x3 + y3 )? 

A 488 

B 504 

C 472 

D 476 

Answer: A 

 

Q.97 A man starts from his house and travelling at 30 km/h, he reacheshis office late by 10 minutes, and travelling at 24 km/h, he reachesh is office late by 18 minutes. The distance (in km) from his house to his office is: 

A 18 

B 16 

C 12 

D 20 

Answer: B 

 

Q.98 The value of (tan29 cot61 − cosec2 61 ) + cot2 54sec2 36 + (sin2 1 + sin2 3 + sin2 5 + − − − + sin2 89 ) is: 

A 20½ 

B 21

C 22½

D 22 

Answer: A 

 

Q.99 If √(10 − 2√21) + √(8 + 2√15) = √a + √b , where a and b are positive integers, then the value of √(ab) is closest to: 

A 4.6 

B 5.9 

C 6.8 

D 7.2 

Answer: B 

 

Q.100 A can do 40% of a work in 12 days, whereas B can do 60% of the same work in 15 days. Both work together for 10 days. C completes the remaining work alone in 4 days. A, B and C together will complete 28% of the same work in: 

A 2½days 

B 3days 

C 1½days 

D 2 days 

Answer: D 

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