Category: SSC CGL

SSC CGL 6th March 2020 Shift-3 

Q. 1 Select the letter will replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

K, Q, V, ?, C, E, F 

(A) Y 

(B) A 

(C) X 

(D) Z 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

The series follows pattern as, 

K + 6 = Q 

Q + 5 = V 

V + 4 = Z 

Z + 3 = (C) 

(C) + 2 = E 

E + 1 = F 

∴ The correct answer is option D. 

 

Q. 2 Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

DYKM,GZIN, JAGO, MBEP, ? 

(A) QCCQ 

(B) PDDQ 

(C) PCCQ 

(D) PCDR 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

((D) + 3)(Y + 1)(K – 2)(M + 1) = GZIN 

(G + 3)(Z + 1)(I – 2)(N + 1) = JAGO 

(J + 3)((A) + 1)(G – 2)(O + 1) = MBEP 

(M + 3)((B) + 1)(E – 2)(P + 1) = PCCQ 

∴ The correct answer is option (C) 

 

Q. 3 Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship between the following classes? Spices, Cumin Seeds, Food 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 4 Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order. 

1. Class 

2. Admission 

3. Result 

4, Examination 

5. Marking 

(A) 2,1,5,3,4 

(B) 2,1,4,5,3 

(C) 5,3,4,1,2 

(D) 3,4,2,1,5 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

First of all a student takes admission then he takes class after then he give exam then marking and in the final he gets result. 

Meaningful order of the words, 

Admission, Class, Examination, Marking, Result 

∴ The correct answer is option B. 

 

Q. 5 ‘Size’ is related to ‘Medium’in the same way as ‘Shape’ is related to ‘ ……. 

(A) Object 

(B) Color 

(C) Oval 

(D) Corner 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

‘Size’ is related to ‘Medium’in the same way as ‘Shape’ is related to ‘Oval’. 

∴ The correct answer is option C. 

 

Q. 6 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the statements. Statements: 

1. All helmets are objects. 

2. Some helmets are vehicles. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some objects are helmets. 

II. Some vehicles are helmets. 

III. Some vehicles are objects. 

(A) Only conclusions I and III follow. 

(B) Only conclusions II and ITI follow. 

(C) Only conclusions I and II follow. 

(D) All conclusions I, II and ITI follow. 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

 

From the Venn diagram, 

All conclusions I, II and III follow. 

∴ The correct answer is option D. 

 

Q. 7 Select the numberthat can replace the question mark (?) in the followingseries. 

58, 73, 99, 138, 193, ? , 368 

(A) 260 

(B) 268 

(C) 312 

(D) 329 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

The series follows pattern as, 

58 + 15 = 73 

73 + (15 + 11 = 26) = 99 

99 + (26 + 13 = 39) = 138 

138 + (39 + 16 = 55) = 193 

193 + (55 + 20 = 75) = 268 

268 + (75 + 25 = 100) = 368 

∴ The correct answer is option B. 

Q. 8 Select the figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 9 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when a mirror is placed on the right side of the figure.

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 10 Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number-pair that is different from the rest. 

(A) 41263 : 18 

(B) 85245 : 24 

(C) 77052 : 21 

(D) 26584 : 25 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

4 + 1 + 2 + 6 + 3 = 16 

8 + 5 + 2 + 4 + 5 = 24 

7 + 7 + 0 + 5 + 2 = 21 

2 + 6 + 5 + 8 + 4 = 25 

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

Q. 11 Four words have been given, out of which three are a like in some manner and one is different. Select the odd word 

(A) Computer 

(B) Television 

(C) Geyser 

(D) Machine 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Computer, television and geyser are machine so, 

Option (D) is odd. 

∴ The correct answer is option D. 

Q. 12 Select the option in which the given figure X is embedded(rotation is not allowed). 

Answer: (C) 

Q. 13 Two different positions of the same dice are shown, the six faces of which are numbered from 1 to 6. Select the number that will be on the face opposite to the one having ‘5’. 

(A) 3 

(B) 6 

(C) 4 

(D) 2 

Answer: (C) 

Q. 14 The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded? 

Answer: (C) 

Q. 15 Which two numbers should be interchanged to make the given equation correct? 

28 + 49 − 35 ÷ 7 × 4 = 68 

(A) 28 and 35 

(B) 28 and 49 

(C) 49 and 35 

(D) 4 and 28 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

28 + 49 − 35 ÷ 7 × 4 = 68 

From option A, 

On interchanging, 

35 + 49 − 28 ÷ 7 × 4 = 68 

35 + 49 − 16 = 68 

68 = 68 

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

Q. 16 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 8:576::4:? 

(A) 70 

(B) 120 

(C) 80 

(D) 90 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

(8)² × (8 + 1) = 64 × 9 = 576 

(4)² × (4 + 1) = 16 × 5 = 80 

The correct answer is option C. 

Q. 17 Ina certain code language, ‘NECTAR’ is written as ‘DFOSBU’. How will ‘CARPET’ be written as in that language? 

(A) SBDUFQ 

(B) DBSQGR 

(C) SBDVFR 

(D) BDSSUG 

Answer: (A) 

Q. 18 How many triangles are there in the given figure? 

(A) 23 

(B) 20 

(C) 22 

(D) 24 

Answer: (C) 

Q. 19 Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words. 

Ear : Tinnitus 

(A) Eye : Ophthalmologist 

(B) Nose : Nerve 

(C) Skin : Acne 

(D) Joints : Muscles 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Tinnitus is affected the Ear. 

Similarly, 

Acne is affected the skin. 

∴ The correct answer is option C. 

Q. 20 Fourletter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and oneis different. Select the odd letter-cluster. 

(A) KPT 

(B) BYD

(C) CXE 

(D) UFW 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Only option (A) has the difference of 4 in the letters. 

So, ‘KPT’ is odd letter-cluster. 

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

Q. 21 Among 160 players in a tournament, 57 did not participate in any of the three games,i.e. Cricket, Hockey and Badminton. A total of 37 players participated in only one game,10 players participated in both Cricket and Hockey but not in Badminton, 9 players participated in both Hockey and Badminton but not in Cricket, and 13 players participated in both Cricket and Badminton but not in Hockey. How many students participated in all the three games 

(A) 30 

(B) 32 

(C) 38 

(D) 34 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Total students participate = 160 – 57 = 103 

Participant in 1 game = 37 

Players participated in both Cricket and Hockey but not in Badminton = 10 

Players participated in both Hockey and Badminton but not in Cricket = 9 

Players participated in both Cricket and Badminton but not in Hockey = 13 

Students participated in all the three games = 103 – 37 – 100 – 9 – 13 = 34 

∴ The correct answer is option D. 

Q. 22 Ina certain code language, ‘BLINK’is coded as ’78’ and ‘”PURSE’is coded as ’54’. How will ‘FIRST’be coded asin that language? 

(A) 63 

(B) 71 

(C) 64 

(D) 76 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

B L I N K = (27 – 2) + (27 – 12) +(27 – 9) + (27 – 14) + (27 – 11) = 25 + 15 + 18 + 13 + 16 = 87 

P U R S E = (27 – 16) + (27 – 21) +(27 – 18) + (27 – 19) + (27 – 5) = 11 + 6 + 9 + 8 + 22 = 56 

Similarly, 

F I R S T = (27 – 6) + (27 – 9) +(27 – 18) + (27 – 19) + (27 – 20 )= 21 + 18 + 9 + 8 + 7 = 63

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

Q. 23 Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.

(A) 150 

(B) 145 

(C) 180 

(D) 140 

Answer: (A) 

Q. 24 Select the option in which the numbersare related in the same way as are the numbersin the givenset. (14, 18, 277) 

(A) (20,22, 521) 

(B) (12, 32, 320) 

(C) (18, 16, 485) 

(D) (24, 20, 576) 

Answer: (A) 

Q. 25 A + B means ‘A’ is the husband of B’; 

A − B means ‘A’ is the wife of B’; 

A × B means ‘A’ is the mother of B’: 

A ÷ B)means ‘A’ is the son of B’. 

If, W × R × J − S ÷ V + L . then which of the following statements is NOT correct? 

(A) Wis the maternal grandmother of J. 

(B) L is the wife ofV. 

(C) V is the father-in-law ofJ. 

(D) L is the mother-in-law ofS. 

Answer: (D) 

General Awareness 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 In which of the following states did Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) open its first Silk Processing Plant? 

(A) Gujarat 

(B) Madhya Pradesh 

(C) Goa 

(D) Haryana 

Answer: (A) 

Q. 27 Who is the author of the book ‘Dreams From My Father’? 

(A) Barack Obama 

(B) Charles Darwin 

(C) Olivia Laing 

(D) Navin Chawla 

Answer: (A) 

Q. 28 Who among the following is the head of the standing committee on economic statistics set up by Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI)? 

(A) Krishnamurthy Subramanian 

(B) Manmohan Singh 

(C) Raghuram Rajan 

(D) Pronab Sen 

Answer: (D) 

Q. 29 In which year was the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) founded? 

(A) 1928 

(B) 1929 

(C) 1930 

(D) 1926 

Answer: (A) 

Q. 30 In which of the following Indian airports will the Wings India 2020, international exhibition and conference on the civil aviation sector, be held? 

(A) Chennai International Airport 

(B) Chaudhary Charan Singh Airport 

(C) Begumpet Airport 

(D) Bagdogra Airport 

Answer: (C) 

Q. 31 Which of the following is used to remove the green colour from glass? 

(A) Manganese dioxide 

(B) Sulphur dioxide 

(C) Titanium dioxide 

(D) Silicon dioxide 

Answer: (A) 

Q. 32 In which of the following years were two additional Commissioners appointed to the Election commission of India for the first time? 

(A) 1998 

(B) 1990 

(C) 1989 

(D) 1991 

Answer: (C) 

Q. 33 Who among the following was NOT a minister of Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946? 

(A) Lord Wavell 

(B) Sir Stafford Cripps 

(C) Alexander 

(D) Sir Pethick Lawrence 

Answer: (A) 

Q. 34 Which player of the Indian Women’s Hockey team has been nominated for the ‘World Games Athlete of the Year’ Award, 2019 by the International Hockey Federation (FIH)? 

(A) Rajani Etimarpu 

(B) Bichu Devi Kharibam 

(C) Rani Rampal 

(D) Reena Khokhar 

Answer: (C) 

Q. 35 Which of the following has the lowest melting point? 

(A) Zinc 

(B) Silver 

(C) Lead 

(D) Tin 

Answer: (D) 

Q. 36 Who was the Governor General of Bengal during the 3rd Anglo-Mysore war? 

(A) Warren Hastings 

(B) John Macpherson 

(C) 2nd Earl Cornwallis 

(D) John Shore 

Answer: (C) 

Q. 37 Which of the following players of the Indian cricket team laid the foundation of the Cricket Stadium and Training Centre at ‘Heartfulness Institute’s’ headquarters 

in Hyderabad? 

(A) Sikhar Dhawan 

(B) Virat Kohli 

(C) Yuvraj Singh 

(D) Rohit Sharma 

Answer: (D) 

Q. 38 Which of the following Articles is related to the Ancillary powers of Supreme Court? 

(A) Article 138 

(B) Article 150 

(C) Article 140 

(D) Article 143 

Answer: (C) 

Q. 39 What was National Highway 66 (NH 66) previously known as? 

(A) NH8 

(B) NH2 

(C) NH5 

(D) NH 17 

Answer: (D) 

Q. 40 Who among the following first translated the Bhagvad Gita in to English? 

(A) James Prinsep 

(B) Charles Wilkins 

(C) Sir Alexander Cunningham 

(D) William Jones 

Answer: (B) 

Q. 41 Which of the following countries had the highest number of new born babies on first day of 2020? 

(A) US(A) 

(B) Pakistan 

(C) India 

(D) China 

Answer: (C) 

Q. 42 In which of the following Indian states is the Lai Haraoba festival celebrated? 

(A) Kerala 

(B) Karnataka 

(C) Goa 

(D) Manipur 

Answer: (D) 

Q. 43 Which of the following railway stations has been certified by FSSAI as the country’s first ‘Eat Right Station’? 

(A) Jabalpur 

(B) Allahabad 

(C) Mumbai Central 

(D) Jaipur 

Answer: (C) 

Q. 44 Who among the following scientists invented Kevlar? 

(A) Steve Wozniak 

(B) Marry Anderson 

(C) Stephanie Louise Kwolek 

(D) George Eastman 

Answer: (C) 

Q. 45 According to India State of Forest Report 2019, how much of the total geographical area of the country is covered by forests and trees? 

(A) 21.30% 

(B) 42.56% 

(C) 24.56% 

(D) 34.56% 

Answer: (C) 

Q. 46 How many types of isotopes does Scandium have? 

(A) 9 

(B) 7 

(C) 10 

(D) 13 

Answer: (D) 

Q. 47 In which of the following temples is the Ambubasi Fair celebrated every year? 

(A) Jagnanath temple 

(B) Kamakhya temple 

(C) Kashi Vishwanath temple 

(D) Kedarnath temple 

Answer: (B) 

Q. 48 Which of the following Indian movies was nominated for the 92nd Oscar Awards? 

(A) The Surgical Strike 

(B) Mission Manga 

(C) Gully Boy 

(D) War 

Answer: (C) 

Q. 49 Which of the following states topped among all the states with the highest number of fire alerts according to a 2019 report by the Forest Survey of India? 

(A) Arunachal Pradesh 

(B) Madhya Pradesh 

(C) Odisha 

(D) Mizoram 

Answer: (D) 

Q. 50 What is the atomic mass of Zirconium? 

(A) 91.22 

(B) 89.22 

(C) 88.22 

(D) 90.22 

Answer: (A) 

Quantitative Aptitude 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 If x² − 4x + 4 = 0 , then the value of 16(x⁴ − 1/x )⁴  is 

(A) 127 

(B) 255 

(C) 127/16

(D) 255/16

Answer: (B) 

Q. 52 The following Table gives the details of Five commodities A, B, C, D and E with quantity required and their costs for a family in a month. Study the Table and answer the questions that follow. 

(A) ₹5,400 

(B) ₹6,856 

(C) ₹8,122 

(D) ₹7,248 

Answer: (B) 

Q. 53 An article was sold at a gain of 16%. If it had been sold for 36 more, the gain would have been 20%. The cost price of the article is 

(A) ₹862 

(B) ₹900 

(C) ₹810 

(D) ₹720 

Answer: (B) 

Q. 54 In △ ABC,if the ratio of angles is in the proportion 3 : 5 : 4, then the difference between the biggest and the smallest angles (in degrees)is: 

(A) 20^∘ 

(B) 25^∘ 

(C) 30^∘ 

(D) 35^∘ 

Answer: (C) 

Q. 55 A, B and C are three points on a circle such that the angles subtended by the chords AB and AC at the centre O are 80^∘ and 120^∘ , ∠BAC

respectively. The value of is: 

(A) 70^∘ 

(B) 85^∘ 

(C) 75^∘ 

(D) 80^∘ 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

In the $$\triangle OAB, 

O(B) = OA(radius) so, 

∠OBA = ∠BAO 

∠OBA + ∠BAO + ∠AOB = 180° 

∠BAO + ∠BAO + 80° = 180° 

2∠BAO = 180 − 80 = 100° 

∠BAO = 50° 

In the $$\triangle OAC, 

OC = OA(radius) so, 

∠OAC = ∠OCA 

∠OAC + ∠OCA + ∠AOC = 180° 

$\angle OAC+\mathrm{\backslash angleOAC}+120\mathrm{\backslash degree}=180\mathrm{\backslash degree}$ 

$2\angle OAC=180–120=60\mathrm{\backslash degree}$ 

$\angle OAC=30\mathrm{\backslash degree}$ 

$\angle BAC=\angle BAO+\angle OAC$ 

$\angle BAC=50+30=80\mathrm{\backslash degree}$ 

Q. 56 if $0<A,B<45°,\cos (A+B)=\frac{24}{25}$ and $\sin (A–B)=\frac{15}{17}$, then $\tan 2A$ is 

(A) 1 

(B) 0 

(C) $\frac{416}{87}$ 

(D) $\frac{213}{4}$ 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

$\tan 2A$ 

= tan(A + B) + (A – B) 

=$\frac{tan(A+B)+tan(A+B)}{1–tan(A+B)tan(A+B)}$ —(1) 

$(\because tan(a+b)=\frac{tana+tanb}{1–tana.tanb})$ 

tan(A + B) = $\frac{sin\left(\right(A)+B)}{cos\left(\right(A)–B)}$ 

tan(A + B) = $\frac{\sqrt{1–co{s}^2\left(\right(A)+B)}}{cos\left(\right(A)+B)}$ 

tan(A + B) = $\frac{\sqrt{1–(24/25{)}^2}}{(24/25)}$ 

tan(A + B) = $\frac{\sqrt{49/25}}{(24/25)}$ = 7/24 

tan(A – B) = $\frac{sin(A–B)}{cos(A–B)}$ 

tan(A – B)= $\frac{sin(A–B)}{\sqrt{1–si{n}^2(A–B)}}$ 

tan(A – B) = $\frac{15/17}{\sqrt{1–(15/17{)}^2}}$ 

tan(A – B) = $\frac{15/17}{\sqrt{64/17{)}^2}}$ = 15/8 

From eq(1), 

=$\frac{\frac{7}{24}+\frac{15}{8}}{1–\frac{7}{24}.\frac{15}{8}}$ 

=$\frac{416}{87}$ 

Q. 57 The value of $4\left[\frac{(1–\sec A{)}^2+(1+\sec A{)}^2}{1+{\sec }^{2}A}\right]$ is : 

(A) 4 

(B) 1 

(C) 2 

(D) 8 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

$4\left[\frac{(1 – \sec A)^{2} + (1 + \sec A)^{2}}{1 + \sec^{2}A}\right]$ 

= $4\left[\frac{1+{\sec }^2\left(A\right)–2\sec \left(A\right)+1+{\sec }^2\left(A\right)+2\sec A}{1+{\sec }^{2}A}\right]$ = $4\left[\frac{2(1+{\sec }^{2}A)}{1+{\sec }^{2}A}\right]$ = 8 

Q. 58 If $a^3+\frac{1}{a^3}=52$ then the value of $2\left(a+\frac{1}{a}\right)$ is : 

(A) 8 

(B) 2 

(C) 6 

(D) 4 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

$a^{3}+\frac{1}{a^{3}} = 52$ 

$(a+\frac{1}{a}{)}^3–3.a.\frac{1}{a}(a+\frac{1}{a})=52$ 

$(\because a^3+b^3=(a+b{)}^3–3ab(a+b))$ 

$(a+\frac{1}{a}{)}^3–3(a+\frac{1}{a})=52$ 

From the option A) – 

Put the value of $2(a+\frac{1}{a})=8$, 

$(a+\frac{1}{a})=4$ 

L.H.S., 

$4^3–3\times 4$ = 52 

= R.H.S. 

$\therefore$ The value of $2\left(a + \frac{1}{a}\right)$ is 8. 

Q. 59 If $b+c=ax,c+a=by,a+b=cz$, then the value $\frac{1}{9}\left[\frac{1}{x+1}+\frac{1}{y+1}+\frac{1}{z+1}\right]$ is: 

(A) $\frac{1}{9}$ 

(B) 1 

(C) 0 

(D) $\frac{1}{3}$ 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

$b + c = ax, c + a = by, a + b = cz$ 

x =$\frac{b+c}{a}$ 

y =$\frac{c+a}{b}$ 

z =$\frac{a+b}{c}$ 

Now, 

$\frac{1}{9}\left[\frac{1}{x+1}+\frac{1}{y+1}+\frac{1}{z+1}\right]$ 

x + 1 = $\frac{b + c}{a}$ + 1 = $\frac{a+b+c}{a}$ 

y + 1 = $\frac{c + a}{b}$ + 1 = $\frac{a+b+c}{b}$ 

z + 1 = $\frac{a + b}{c}$ + 1 = $\frac{a+b+c}{c}$ 

= $\frac{1}{9}\left[\frac{1}{\frac{a+b+c}{a}}+\frac{1}{\frac{a+b+c}{b}}+\frac{1}{\frac{a+b+c}{c}}\right]$ $\frac{1}{9}\left[\frac{a}{a+b+c}+\frac{b}{a+b+c}+\frac{c}{a+b+c}\right]$ 

$\frac{1}{9}\left[\frac{a+b+c}{a+b+c}\right]$ = 1/9 

Q. 60 The following table gives the details of Five commodities A, B, C, D and E with quantity required and their costs for a family in a month. Study the table and answer the questions that follow. 

The percentage of increase(per kg) in the rate of commodity (D) from 2016 to 2019 is: 

(A) 5% 

(B) 22.17% 

(C) 13.33% 

(D) 38.24% 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Rate of commodity (D) in 2016 = 75 

Rate of commodity (D) in 2019 = 85 

The percentage of increase(per kg) in the rate of commodity (D) from 2016 to 2019 = $\frac{85–75}{75}\times 100=\frac{10}{75}\times 100=13.33\%$ 

Q. 61 In a triangle ABC, DE is parallel to BC; AD = a, DB = a + 4, AE = 2a + 3, EC = 7a. What is the value of ‘a’ if a>0 ? 

(A) 5 

(B) 6 

(C) 3 

(D) 4 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

$$\triangle ADE and \triangle AB(C) are similar triangle. 

($$\because all \angle (A) is common and \angle (B) = \angle (D) & \angle (C) = \angle E$$) 

By the properties, 

$\frac{AB}{AD}=\frac{AC}{AE}$ 

$\frac{AB}{a}=\frac{AC}{2a+3}$ 

$\frac{A\left(D\right)+DB}{a}=\frac{AE+EC}{2a+3}$ 

$\frac{a+a+4}{a}=\frac{2a+3+7a}{2a+3}$ 

$\frac{2a+4}{a}=\frac{9a+3}{2a+3}$ 

{2a + 4}{2a + 3} = {a}{9a + 3} 

$4a^2+14a+12=9a^2+3a$ 

$5a^2–11a–12=0$ 

$5a^2–15a+4a–12=0$ 

$5a(a–3)+4(a–3)=0$ 

(5a + 4)(a – 3) = 0 

a = -4/5 and a = 3 

$\because$ a>0 so, a = 3 

Q. 62 The following table gives the details of Five commodities A, B, C, D and E with quantity required and their costs for a family in a month. Study the table and answer the questions that follow. 

The amount spent extra on commodities B and C in the year 2019 as compared to that in the year 2016,is: 

(A) ₹260 

(B) ₹248 

(C) ₹110 

(D) ₹192 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

The amount spent on commodities B in the year 2016 = quantity $\times$ rate = 20 $\times$ 50 = Rs.1000 The amount spent on commodities C in the year 2016 = 12 $\times$ 35 = Rs.420 

The amount spent on commodities B and C in the year 2016 = 1000 + 420 = Rs.1420 

The amount spent on commodities B in the year 2019 = 20 $\times$ 60 = Rs.1200 

The amount spent on commodities C in the year 2019 = 12 $\times$ 40 = Rs.480 

The amount spent on commodities B and C in the year 2019 = 1200 + 480 = Rs.1680 

The amount spent extra on commodities B and C in the year 2019 as compared to that in the year 2016 = 1680 – 1420 = Rs.260 

Q. 63 A, B and C can individually complete a task in 20 days, 16 days and 30 days, respectively. If A and B started working on the task, and they worked for 4 days and left, then the number of days required by C to finish the remaining task is: 

(A) $16\frac{1}{2}$ days 

(B) 13 days 

(C) 10 days 

(D) $12\frac{1}{2}$ days 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Let the total work be 240 units. 

(LCM of 20, 16 and 30 is 240.) 

Efficiency of A = total work/time taken to complete work = 240/20 = 12 

Efficiency of B = 240/16 = 15 

Efficiency of C = 240/30 = 8 

Work done by A and B in 4 days = 4 $\times (12+15)=4\times$ 27 = 108 units 

Remaining work = 240 -108 = 132 units 

Time taken by C to complete remaining work = 132/8 = 16 $\frac{4}{8}$ = 16 $\frac{1}{2}$ 

Q. 64 A train crosses a platform 180 m long in 60 sec at a speed of 72 km/h. The time taken by the train to cross an electric pole is: 

(A) 51 sec 

(B) 0.51 min 

(C) 5.1 sec 

(D) 5.1 min 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Length of platform = 180 m 

Time = 60 sec 

Speed = 72 km/hr = 72$\times$ 5/18 = 20 m/sec 

Total length = length of platform + length of train = 180 + length of train 

Speed = length/time 

180 + length of train = 20 $\times$ 60 

Length of train =1200 – 180 = 1020 m 

The time taken by the train to cross an electric pole = 1020/20 = 51 sec 

Q. 65 The rate of simple interest on a sum of money is 5% p.a. for the first 4 years, 8% p.a. for the next 3 years and 10% p.a. for the period beyond 7 years. If the simple interest accrued by the sum over a period of 10 years is ₹1,850, then the sum is: 

(A) ₹2,750 

(B) ₹1,650 

(C) ₹2,500 

(D) ₹1,500 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Simple interest = $\frac{prt}{100}$ 

p = principal 

r = rate of interest 

t = time 

Simple interest for 10 years = 1,850 

Simple interest for 4 years at 5% + Simple interest for 3 years at 8% + Simple interest for 3 years at 10% = 1850 $\frac{p\times 5\times 4}{100}+\frac{p\times 8\times 3}{100}+\frac{p\times 10\times 3}{100}$ = 1850 

$p(20+24+30)=185000$ 

p = 185000/74 = 2500 

$\therefore$ The sum is Rs.2500. 

Q. 66 The value of $\frac{[54–(5÷2)\times 8]+13}{48–4÷3\times 8–2}$ 

(A) $\frac{89}{106}$ 

(B) $\frac{141}{127}$ 

(C) $\frac{141}{106}$ 

(D) $\frac{89}{127}$ 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

$\frac{[54-(5 \div 2)\times 8]+13}{48-4 \div 3 \times 8-2}$ 

= $\frac{[54–(2.5)\times 8]+13}{48–4\times \frac{1}{3}\times 8–2}$ 

= $\frac{[54–20]+13}{48–\frac{32}{3}–2}$ 

= $\frac{47}{\frac{106}{3}}$ 

= $\frac{141}{106}$ 

Q. 67 The average of 60 student’s results is 38. If the average of the first 22 students is 36, and that of the last 32 students is 32, then the average result of the remaining students is: 

(A) 81 

(B) 77 

(C) 65 

(D) 52 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Total sum of result of 60 students = average $\times numberofstudents=38\times 60=2280$ 

Sum of result of first 22 students = $36\times 22$ = 792 

Sum of result of last 32 students = $32\times 32$ = 1024 

Sum of result of remaining students = 2280 – 792 – 1024 = 462 

Number of remaining students = 60 – 22 – 32 = 6 

Average result of the remaining students = 462/6 = 77 

Q. 68 The inner and outer radius of a circular track are 23 m and 29 m respectively. The cost of leveling the track at ₹ 7/m$$^{2}$$ is : 

(A) ₹7,215 

(B) ₹3,284 

(C) ₹6,864 

(D) ₹5,300 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Radius of outer circle = 29 m 

Radius of inner circle = 23 m 

Area of the circle = $\pi r^2$ 

Area of the track = area of the outer circle – area of the inner circle 

= $\pi (29{)}^2–\pi (23{)}^2$ = $\pi \left(\right(29{)}^2–\left(23{)}^2\right)$ 

= $\pi (841–529)=\frac{22}{7}\times 312=980.57m^2$ 

Cost = 7/m$$^{2}$$ 

Total cost of leveling track = $980.57\times 7$ = Rs. 6864 

Q. 69 What is the smallest integer that is divisible by 3, 7 and 18? 

(A) 63 

(B) 252 

(C) 72 

(D) 126 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

LCM of of 3, 7 and 18 = 126 

$\therefore$ 126 is the smallest integer that is divisible by 3, 7 and 18. 

Q. 70 A shopkeeper fixes the price of an article in such a way that after allowing 32% discount, he wants again of 14%. If the marked price is ₹342, then the cost price of the article is: 

(A) ₹212 

(B) ₹204 

(C) ₹218 

(D) ₹196 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Marked price = 342 

Selling price = 342 $\times \frac{100–32}{100}=342$\times \frac{68}{100} = 232.56 

Let the cost price of an article be 100%. 

Selling price = 100% + 14% = 114% 

114% = 232.56 

100% = $$\frac{232.56}{114} \times 100 = Rs. 204 

Cost price of an article = Rs. 204 

Q. 71 25 litres of a mixture contains 30%of spirit and rest water. If 5 litres of water be mixed in it, the percentage of spirit in the new mixture is : 

(A) $45\%$ 

(B) $33\frac{1}{3}\%$ 

(C) $25\%$ 

(D) $12\frac{1}{2}\%$ 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Quantity of spirit = $25\times \frac{30}{100}=7.5$ 

Quantity of water = 25 – 7.5 = 17.5 

After mixed up quantity of mixture = 25 + 5 = 30 

Percentage of spirit = $\frac{7.5}{30}\times 100$ = 25% 

Q. 72 Two circles of radii 8 cm and 6 cm touch each other externally. The length of the direct common tangent is: 

(A) 13.86 

(B) 20 

(C) 10.12 

(D) 24 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

The length of the direct common tangent = 2$\sqrt{r1.r2}$ 

r1 = 8 cm 

r2 = 6 cm 

The length of the direct common tangent = 2$\sqrt{8\times 6}$ 

= 2$\sqrt{48}=2\times 6.93=13.86cm$ 

Q. 73 The following table gives the details of Five commodities A, B, C, D and E with quantity required and their costs for a family in a month. Study the table and answer the questions that follow. 

The ratio of the total amount spent on A and D commodities in the year 2019 is: 

(A) 1:1 

(B) 6:17 

(C) 15:17 

(D) 3:8 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Total amount spent on A commodities in the year 2019 = quantity $\times rate=15\times 80$ Total amount spent on D commodities in the year 2019 = $40\times 85$ 

The ratio of the total amount spent on A and D commodities in the year 2019 = $15\times 80:40\times 85=6:17$ 

Q. 74 The sum of the squares of 3 natural numbers is 1029, and they are in the proportion 1 : 2 : 4. The difference between greatest number and smallest number is: 

(A) 15 

(B) 21 

(C) 31 

(D) 18 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Let the smallest number be x. 

Numbers are x, 2x, 4x. 

The sum of the squares of 3 natural numbers = 1029 

$x^2+(2x{)}^2+(4x{)}^2=1029$ 

$x^2+4x^2+16x^2=1029$ 

$x^2=1029/21$ 

$x^2=49$ 

$x=7$ 

Smallest number = 7 

Greatest number = 4x = 4 $\times$ 7 = 28 

The difference between greatest number and smallest number = 28 – 7 = 21 

Q. 75 If A lies in third quadrant, and $20\tan A=21$, then the value of $\frac{5\sin A–2\cos A}{4\cos \left(A\right)–\frac{5}{7}\sin A}$ 

(A) $\frac{–65}{29}$ 

(B) $\frac{1}{5}$ 

(C) $\frac{5}{29}$ 

(D) $\frac{13}{12}$ 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

$20\tan \left(A\right)=21$ 

$\tan \left(A\right)=21/20$ 

$\frac{5\sin \left(A\right)–2\cos A}{4\cos \left(A\right)–\frac{5}{7}\sin A}$ 

= $\frac{\cos A(5\frac{\sin A}{\cos A}–2)}{\cos A(4–\frac{5\sin A}{7\cos A})}$ 

= $\frac{5\tan \left(A\right)–2}{4–\frac{5}{7}\tan A}$ 

On put the value of tan A, 

= $\frac{5\times \frac{21}{20}–2}{4–\frac{5}{7}\times \frac{21}{20}}$ 

= $\frac{\frac{13}{20}}{\frac{13}{4}}$ = $$\frac{1}{5} 

English Comprehension 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the correct indirect narration of the given sentence. 

She said, “We visited Uttarakhand in the summer vacation.” 

(A) She said that they had visited Uttarakhand in the summer vacation. 

(B) She said that they will visit to Uttarakhand in the summer vacation 

(C) She said that we visited Uttarakhand in the summer vacation. 

(D) She said that they have visited Uttarakhand in the summer vacation 

Answer: (A) 

Q. 77 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. A person who attracts attention with a flashy style 

(A) Glutton 

(B) Flamboyant 

(C) Vagabond 

(D) Jockey 

Answer: (B) 

Q. 78 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Millionare 

(B) Temprature 

(C) Catalogue 

(D) Agression 

Answer: (C) 

Q. 79 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

A. It provides training for the development of oral and aural skills and is a great supplement to classroom teaching. 

B. Technology is growing very fast day by day and is contributing a lot towards improving communication skills. 

C. Thus, it is the responsibility of a teacher to make the learners understand that their aim is to master the language, not the technology. 

D. However, it cannot be a substitute for the conventional method of language teaching. 

(A) DACB 

(B) BADC

(C) BCDA

(D) ACBD

Answer: (B) 

Q. 80 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No Improvement. 

If he doesn’t score forty percent in all the subjects, he would not be promoted to the next class. 

(A) was not being 

(B) No improvement 

(C) is not being 

(D) will not be 

Answer: (D) 

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

The reckless young man was ______ for the debts incurred by him. 

(A) suspicious 

(B) reliable 

(C) liable 

(D) audacious 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank 

Comprehension: 

Environmental pollution is a global problem and (1)______ threat to human survival. The causes of pollution are quite (2)______, such as contamination of water, cutting of trees and forests, emission of toxic gases etc. Due to (3)______ factors, the flora and fauna are adversely affected. An awareness to protect the environment is everybody’s (4)______ duty and we should collectively come forward for this noble campaign. Government is taking strong (5)______ to check the menace of pollution. 

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate option for blank No.1 

(A) the 

(B) an 

(C) some 

(D) a 

Answer: (D) 

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate option for blank No.2 

(A) enough 

(B) many 

(C) numerous 

(D) plenty 

Answer: (C) 

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate option for blank No.3 

(A) this 

(B) those 

(C) that 

(D) these 

Answer: (D) 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option for blank No.4 

(A) moral 

(B) urgent 

(C) pious 

(D) dubious 

Answer: (A) 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option for blank No.5 

(A) programmes 

(B) measures 

(C) attempts 

(D) enticements 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

The most appropriate word that fits the blank contextually and grammatically is ‘measures’. 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 87 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. A person who preaches religion and is considered to be a messenger of God. 

(A) Scholar 

(B) Volunteer 

(C) Atheist 

(D) Prophet 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

A person who preaches religion and is considered to be a messenger of God is called Prophet. 

Q. 88 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. 

STRINGENT 

(A) Lenient 

(B) Severe 

(C) Stern 

(D) Strict 

Answer: (A) 

Q. 89 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. 

Why do you spend so much money? 

(A) Why is so much money spent by you? 

(B) Why is so much money being spent by you? 

(C) Why was so much money spent by you? 

(D) Why has so much money been spent by you? 

Answer: (A) 

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

Like a dying duck in a thunderstorm 

(A) Dejected 

(B) Daring 

(C) Comfortable 

(D) Confident 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Like a dying duck in a thunderstorm means ‘having a dejected or hopeless expression; or, informal.’ 

Q. 91 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error. 

She behaves in a such a cordial manner that everyone admires her 

(A) admires her 

(B) that everyone 

(C) She behaves in a 

(D) such a cordial manner 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

The grammatically correct sentence of the given sentence is – ‘She behaves in such a cordial manner that everyone admires her.’ So, the error part is option c, i.e, “She behaves in a”, which must be replaced by ‘ she behaves in’. 

Q. 92 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

Repercussion 

(A) Recollection 

(B) Reaction 

(C) Rearrangement 

(D) Reminder 

Answer: (B) 

Q. 93 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Itinarary 

(B) Sovereignty 

(C) Rennaissance 

(D) Greivance 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Sovereignty means supreme power or authority. 

Q. 94 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

A. It was an honor as well as a relief to the family of the deceased. 

B. The district collector announced a gallantry award and financial aid for his family. 

C. A soldier died fighting in the battlefield. 

D. The money was promptly disbursed from the Prime Minister’s Relief Fund. 

(A) BACD 

(B) CDBA

(C) CBDA 

(D) BCAD 

Answer: (C) 

Q. 95 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

Juvenile 

(A) Wise 

(B) Childish 

(C) Insane 

(D) Mature 

Answer: (B) 

Q. 96 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error. 

All employees of the National Sugar Factory differ from their boss on the medical and pension policy. 

(A) differ from their boss 

(B) All employees 

(C) on the medical and pension policy 

(D) of the National Sugar Factory 

Answer: (A) 

Q. 97 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No Improvement 

No soon the Chief Minister step in than the bomb exploded 

(A) No sooner does the Chief Minister 

(B) No Improvemen 

(C) No sooner did the Chief Minister 

(D) No soon had the Chief Minister 

Answer: (C) 

Q. 98 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. 

GROTESQUE 

(A) Distorted 

(B) Ugly 

(C) Attractive 

(D) Monstrous 

Answer: (C) 

Q. 99 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

To paddle one’s own canoe 

(A) Depend on oneself 

(B) To take rest 

(C) To exercise hard 

(D) To act in a childish way 

Answer: (A) 

Q. 100 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

The unruly behaviour of the students ______ their teacher. 

(A) comforted 

(B) irritated 

(C) calmed 

(D) pleased 

Answer: (B) 

SSC CGL 6th March 2020 Shift-II

Q. 1 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. 

Crop : Farmer:: Food : ? 

(A) Vegetables 

(B) Chef 

(C) Utensil 

(D) Kitchen 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Farmers prepare the crop similarly, chef prepare the food. 

∴ The correct answer is option (B) 

 

Q. 2 Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

qDx, nHs, kLn, hPi, ? 

(A) EtD 

(B) fTe 

(C) eTd 

(D) eSd 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

The series follows pattern as, 

(q – 3)((D) + 4)(x – 5) = nHs 

(n – 3)(H + 4)(s – 5) = kLn 

(k – 3)(L + 4)(n – 5) = hPi 

(h – 3)(p + 4)(i – 5) = eTd 

∴ The correct answer is option (C) 

 

Q. 3 If the following words are arranged as per their order in the English dictionary, which word will come fifth in the sequence? 

1. Weekly 

2. Weather 

3. Weird 

4. Weaver 

5. Weight 

6. Wielded 

(A) Weight 

(B) Weird 

(C) Wielded 

(D) Weekly 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Arrangement of the word according to the English dictionary, 

Weather, Weaver, Weekly, Weight, Weird, Wielded 

So, word which comes fifth number = Weird 

∴ The correct answer is option (B) 

 

Q. 4 Select the cube that can be formed by folding the given sheet (unfolded box) along the lines. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 5 Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some mannerandoneis different. Select the number-pair that is different. 

(A) 16, 8 

(B) 36, 2 

(C) 14,8 

(D) 28, 5 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

16 + 8 = 24 

36 + 2 = 38 

14 + 8 = 22 

28 + 5 = 33 

Except option D, in the remaining options have the sum of the number is even. 

∴ The correct answer is option (D) 

 

Q. 6 The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded? 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 7 Which of the following sets is best represented by the given Venn diagram. 

(A) House, Window, Tenant 

(B) Paragraph, Sentence, Pen 

(C) Weeks,Years,Months 

(D) Truck,Ships,Transport 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 8 How many triangles are present in the given figure? 

(A) 18 

(B) 23 

(C) 22 

(D) 20 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 9 The two given expressions on both the side of the ‘=’ sign will have the same value if two numbers from either side or both side are interchanged. Select the correct numbers to be interchanged from the given options. 

4 + 6 × 7 − 27 ÷ 3 = 7 × 8 − 4 + 39 ÷ 3 

(A) 8, 7 

(B) 6, 8 

(C) 3,4 

(D) 6,4 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

4 + 6 × 7 − 27 ÷ 3 = 7 × 8 − 4 + 39 ÷ 3 

After interchanged, 

4 + 8 × 7 − 27 ÷ 3 = 7 × 6 − 4 + 39 ÷ 3 

4 + 8 × 7 − 9 = 7 × 6 − 4 + 13 

4 + 56 − 9 = 42 − 4 + 13 

51 = 51 

∴ The correct answer is option (B) 

 

Q. 10 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the sixth number is related to the fifth number. 

78 : 117 :: 90 : ? :: 108 : 162 

(A) 144 

(B) 126 

(C) 117 

(D) 135 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

78 + 78/2 = 78 + 39 = 117 

108 + 108/2 = 108 + 54 = 162 

Similarly, 

90 + 90/2 = 90 + 45 = 135 

∴ The correct answer is option (D) 

 

Q. 11 In a certain code language, BREATHER is coded as 29512859. How will AVIATION be coded as in that language? 

(A) 14912965 

(B) 14912956 

(C) 12912954 

(D) 12910965 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

B = 2 

R(18) = 1 + 8 = 9 

E = 5 

A = 1 

T(20) = 2 + 0 = 2 

H = 8 

E = 5 

R(18) = 1 + 8 = 9 

Similarly, 

A = 1 

V(22) = 2 + 2 = 4 

I = 9 

A = 1 

T(20) = 2 + 0 = 2 

I = 9 

O(15) = 1 + 5 = 6 

N(14) = 1 + 4 = 5 

‘AVIATION’ is coded as ‘14912965’. 

∴ The correct answer is option (A) 

 

Q. 12 Which of the option figures is the exact mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is held at the right side?

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 13 Select the set of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given letter series will complete the series. 

_m_ln_mlmnk_k_nl 

(A) l,n,k,l,n 

(B) k,n,k,l,m 

(C) k,l,k,l,m 

(D) m,n,k,l,m 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

The series as, kmnl/nkml/mnkl/kmnl 

∴ The correct answer is option (B) 

Q. 14 A + B means ‘A is the father of B’: 

A − B means ‘A is the sister of B’; 

A × B means ‘A is the brother of B’; 

A ÷ B means ‘A is the daughter of B’. 

If, R + S × T − V ÷ U, then how is S related to U? 

(A) Son 

(B) Daughter 

(C) Brother 

(D) Husband 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

In the diagram, Circle shows the female, square shows the male, vertical lines show the generation, single horizontal line shows the brother/sister and double horizontal lines show the couple. 

From the diagram, 

‘S’ is the son of ‘U’. 

∴ The correct answer is option (A) 

 

Q. 15 Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

11, 12, 36, 41, ?, 296 

(A) 205 

(B) 287 

(C) 48 

(D) 123 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

The series follows pattern as, 

11 + 1 = 12 

12×3 = 36 

36 + 5 = 41 

41×7 = 287 

∴ 287 + 9 = 296

∴ The correct answer is option (B) 

 

Q. 16 Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Select the odd word 

(A) Copper 

(B) Iron 

(C) Brass 

(D) Silver 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

All the others are pure metal except brass as we know brass is an alloy of copper and zinc, in proportions which can be varied to achieve varying mechanical and electrical properties. 

 

Q. 17 Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it.

(A) 14 

(B) 16 

(C) 10 

(D) 18 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

(15 – 14)×10 = 1 × 10 = 10 

(8 – 6)×7 = 2 × 7 = 14 

(25 – 12)×5 = 13 × 5 = 65 

Similarly, 

(7 – 3)×4 = 4 × 4 = 16 

∴ The correct answer is option (B) 

Instructions 

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true,even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the statements. 

 

Q. 18 Statements: 

1. All books are magazines. 

2. Some books are novels. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some magazines are books. 

II. No magazine is a book. 

III. No novel is a magazine. 

IV. Some novels are books. 

(A) Only conclusionsI, III and IV follow. 

(B) Only conclusions I and IV follow. 

(C) Only conclusions II and III follow. 

(D) Only conclusions I and II follow. 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

From the Venn diagram, 

Conclusion I and IV are follow. 

∴ The correct answer is option (B) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 19 Select the option figure in which the given figure is embedded(rotation is NOT allowed).

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 20 In a certain code language, ‘VERBAL’ is written as ‘QNMYXK’ and ‘REACH?’is written as ‘MNXZF’. How will ‘BRAVE’ be written as in that language? 

(A) KQNMX 

(B) YNXQM 

(C) YMXQN 

(D) KMQXN 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

V is written as Q, 

E is written as N, 

R is written as M, 

(B) is written as Y, 

(A) is written as X, 

L is written as K, 

And 

R is written as M, 

E is written as N, 

(A) is written as X, 

(C) is written as Z, 

H is written as F, 

Similarly, 

‘BRAVE’ is written as ‘YMXQN’ 

∴ The correct answer is option (C) 

 

Q. 21 A group of three friends, K, L and M, are sitting in a cafe. Their average age is 24 years. Another friend ‘N’ joins the group and the new average age of the group becomes 23 years. If another friend ‘R’, whose age is 2 years more than that of ‘N’, replaces ‘K’, then the average age of L. M, N and R becomes 22.5 years. What is the age of K? 

(A) 15 years 

(B) 10 years 

(C) 12 years 

(D) 14 years 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Average of K, L and M = 24 

Sum of the age of K, L and M = 24×3 = 72 

Average of K, L, M and N = 23 

Sum of the age of K, L, M and N = 23×4 = 92 

Age of N = 92 – 72 = 10 

Age of R = 2 + Age of N = 2 +10 = 12 

Average age of L, M, N and R = 22.5 years 

Sum of age of L, M, N and R = 22.5×4 = 90 

Sum of age of L, M and N = 90 – 12 = 78 

Age of K = sum of the age of K, L, M and N – sum of age of L, M and N = 92 – 78 = 14 

 

Q. 22 Four Letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster. 

(A) SWIK 

(B) VINE 

(C) NOHA 

(D) LAIM 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Except option (A) remaining all have 2 vowels. 

∴ The correct answer is option (A) 

 

Q. 23 Select the figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 24 Select the option in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers in the given set.

(343, 98, 21) 

(A) (217, 72, 18) 

(B) (1728, 288, 24) 

(C) (1331, 242, 33) 

(D) (512, 126, 27) 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

In (343, 98, 21), 

(7)³ = 343 

(7)² × 2 = 98 

7×3 = 21 

Similarly, 

In (1331, 242, 33), 

(11)³ = 1331 

(11)² × 2 = 242 

11× 3 = 33 

∴ The correct answer is option (C) 

 

Q. 25 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series. _uvwuv_wvtuw_uvwuv_wv_uw 

(A) t t t t t 

(B) t u t u t 

(C) t v w t t 

(D) t t u t v 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Sequence of the letters,  tuvwuvt/wvtuw/tuvwuvt/wvtuw 

∴ The correct answer is option (A) 

General Awareness 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 26 Which of the following states does NOT share its boundary with Bhutan? 

(A) West Bengal 

(B) Meghalaya 

(C) Sikkim 

(D) Arunachal Pradesh 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 27 The first electron shell which is the nearest to the nucleus never holds more than ‘n’ electrons, where ‘n’ is equal to: 

(A) 8 

(B) 4 

(C) 6 

(D) 2 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 28 With which sport is Archana Kamath associated? 

(A) Lawn Tennis 

(B) Squash 

(C) Table Tennis 

(D) Badminton 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 29 In the context of rivers and their tributaries, which of the following pairs is correct? 

(A) Krishna – Manjra 

(B) Godavari – Kabini 

(C) Indus – Subansiri 

(D) Alaknanda – Pindar 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 30 Which of the following is a heritage site of Madhya Pradesh? 

(A) Lepakshi 

(B) Bhimbetka 

(C) Sasaram 

(D) Hampi 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 31 The Arid Forest Research Institute is located in ……. 

(A) Jodhpur 

(B) Jaipur 

(C) Ahmedabad 

(D) Dehradun 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 32 Which female Indian cricketer won the BCCI C.K. Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award for 2019? 

(A) Shantha Rangaswamy 

(B) Diana Edulji 

(C) Anjum Chopra 

(D) Jhulan Goswami 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 33 Which ISO certification pertains to Environmental Management Systems? 

(A) 9001 

(B) 27001 

(C) 14001 

(D) 22000 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 34 Who is the author of the book ‘Hazaar Chaurasi Ki Maa’? 

(A) Krishna Sobti 

(B) Sugathakumari 

(C) Rita Kothari 

(D) Mahasweta Devi 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 35 In January 2020, with which country did India sign a MoU for content exchange programme between All India Radio and Betar? 

(A) Sri Lanka 

(B) Bangladesh 

(C) Bhutan 

(D) Nepal 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 36 The SASTRA – Ramanujan Prize is awarded in the field of: 

(A) Dance 

(B) Chemistry 

(C) Literature 

(D) Mathematics 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 37 Under which Article can the Parliament amend the Constitution? 

(A) Article 269 

(B) Article 74 

(C) Article 374 

(D) Article 368 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 38 The Act that transferred the power from the British East India Company to the British Crown in India was: 

(A) Government of India Act, 1835 

(B) Government of India Act, 1947 

(C) Government of India Act, 1833 

(D) Government of India Act, 1858 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 39 In July 2019, which among the following operations was launched by the BSF to fortify the Pakistan border in Punjab and Jammu? 

(A) Chakravyuh 

(B) Garuda 

(C) Vayuputra 

(D) Sudarshan 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 40 Which of the following pairs is associated with the taxation system of the Marathas? 

(A) Polaj and Parauti 

(B) Iqta and Jagir 

(C) Chauth and Sardeshmukh 

(D) Zat and Sawar 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 41 How many degrees does the Earth rotate about its own axis in one hour? 

(A) 10 

(B) 20 

(C) 15 

(D) 24 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 42 Under which of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India is defection to another party after election made illegal? 

(A) 92nd 

(B) 61st 

(C) 52nd 

(D) 86th 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 43 In which year was NABARD established? 

(A) 1979 

(B) 1978 

(C) 1982 

(D) 1981 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 44 Which among the following is the food tube? 

(A) Thymus 

(B) Aorta 

(C) Larynx 

(D) Oesophagus 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 45 Which of the following monuments is NOT a part of the Qutub Complex? 

(A) Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque 

(B) Qutub Minar 

(C) Buland Darwaza 

(D) Alai Darwaza 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 46 Which of the following statements is correct with reference to the Karachi Session of the Congress (1931)? 

(A) Mahatma Gandhi presided over the session 

(B) The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was ratified 

(C) The Khilafat movement was launched at this event 

(D) The Quit-India Resolution was passed 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 47 Ozone at the higher level of the atmosphere is a product of ______ acting on oxygen molecules. 

(A) IR radiation 

(B) UV radiation 

(C) gamma rays 

(D) x-rays 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 48 The Battle of Chausa was fought between Humayun and ……. 

(A) Nadir Shah 

(B) Krishnadeva Raya 

(C) Hemu 

(D) Sher Shah Suri 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 49 Which of the following is an east flowing river? 

(A) Sabarmati 

(B) Sharavati 

(C) Mahi 

(D) Brahmani 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 50 Which country hosted the 13th South Asian Games? 

(A) Maldives 

(B) Bhutan 

(C) Nepal 

(D) India 

Answer: (C) 

Quantitative Aptitude 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 During a medical check-up, the heights of 40 students in a class were recorded as shown in the following table.

How many students have a height of 165 cm or more? 

(A) 15 

(B) 10 

(C) 25 

(D) 16 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Number of students which have a height of 165 cm or more = total student – less than 165 = 40 – 25 = 15 

 

Q. 52 In the given figure, if ∠APO = 35^∘, then which of the following options is correct?

(A) ∠AP(B) = 60^∘ 

(B) ∠AP(B) = 80^∘ 

(C) ∠AP(B) = 35^∘ 

(D) ∠AP(B) = 55^∘ 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 53 In the given figure, if AB = 10 cm, CD = 7 cm, SD = 4 cm and AS = 5 cm, then BC = ? 

(A) 9 cm 

(B) 7.5 cm 

(C) 6 cm 

(D) 8 cm 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 54 If a + 1/a = 5 then a³ + 1/a³ is: 

(A) 110 

B 10 

(C) 80 

(D) 140 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 55 The following table shows the daily earnings of 45 skilled workers. 

How many workers earn less than ₹1,100 in a day? 

(A) 39 

(B) 10 

(C) 29 

(D) 43 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Number of workers earn less than ₹1,100 in a day = 4 + 15 + 10 + 10 = 39 

 

Q. 56 Amit and Sunil together can complete a work in 9 days, Sunil and Dinesh together can complete the same work in 12 days, and Amit and Dinesh together can complete the same work in 18 days. In how many days will they complete the work if Amit, Sunil and Dinesh work together? 

(A) 12 days 

(B) 8 days 

(C) 14 days 

(D) 16 days 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Let the total work be 36 units. 

∵ ( LCM of 9, 12 and 18 is 36.) 

Efficiency of Amit and Sunil = work/time = 36/9 = 4 units/day Efficiency of Sunil and Dinesh = 36/12 = 3 units/day Efficiency of Amit and Dinesh = 36/18 = 2 units/day 

4+3+2 

Efficiency of Amit, Sunil and Dinesh = = 9/2 2 

36 

9/2 

Time taken by Amit, Sunil and Dinesh to complete the work = = 8 days 

 

Q. 57 Solve the following 

113 × 87 =? 

(A) 9831 

(B) 10026 

(C) 10169 

(D) 10000 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

113 × 87 =? 

(100 + 13) × (100 − 13) =? 

(a + b)(a − b) = a² − b² 

(100)² − (13)² =? 

? = 10000 – 169 = 9831  

 

Q. 58 Amit borrowed a sum of ₹25,000 on simple interest. Bhola borrowed the same amount on compound interest(interest compounded yearly). At the end of 2 years, Bhola had to pay ₹160 more interest than Amit. The rate of interest charged per annum is: 

(A) 16/25 %

(B) 8/25 %

(C) 8%

(D) 3⅛%

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 59 The number of students enrolled in a college is shown in the following table. 

The ratio of the total number of boys to that of girls in the college is: 

(A) 13 : 42 

(B) 1:1 

(C) 23:27 

(D) 27:23 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Total number of boys = 18 + 47 + 40 + 30 = 135 

Total number of girls = 35 + 25 + 45 + 10 = 115 

The ratio of the total number of boys to that of girls in the college = 135 : 115 = 27 : 23 

 

Q. 60 A manufacturer sells cooking gas stoves to shopkeepers at 10% profit, and in turn they sell the cooking gas stoves to customer to earn 15% profit. If a customer gets a cooking gas stove for ₹7,590, then what is its manufacturing cost? 

(A) ₹ 6,500 

(B) ₹5,000 

(C) ₹5,090 

(D) ₹6,000 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 61 A shopkeeper marked a computer table for ₹7,200. He allows a discount of 10% on it and yet makes profit of 8%. What will be his gain percentage if he does NOT allow any discount? 

(A) 20 % 

(B) 9 % 

(C) 18 % 

(D) 2 % 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 62 The value of sin 30^∘ sin 60^∘ / cos 60^∘ cos 30^∘ − tan 45^∘ is: 

(A) 5 

(B) 0 

(C) 

2− 2 2 

(D) 2 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 63 Solve the following. 

4/3 ÷ ⅙ × 2 – 1 = ?

(A) 3 

(B) -2 

(C) 8 

(D) 15 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 64 In a school, 4 % of the students did not appear for the annual exams. 10% of the students who appeared for the exams could not pass the exam. Out of the remaining students, 50% got distinction marks and 432 students passed the exam but could not get distinction marks. The total number of students in the school is: 

(A) 1000 

(B) 1200 

(C) 960 

(D) 878 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 65 24 students collected money for donation. The average contribution was ₹50. Later on, their teacher also contributed some money. Now the average contribution is ₹56. The teacher’s contribution is: 

(A) ₹56 

(B) ₹200 

(C) ₹106 

(D) ₹194 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 66 In the given figure, if A(B) = 8cm, A(C) = 10cm, ∠ABD = 90^∘ and AD = 17cm , then the measure of CD is: 

(A) 8 cm 

(B) 9 cm 

(C) 11 cm 

(D) 10 cm 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 67 If (cos² θ − 1)(1 + tan² θ) + 2 tan² θ = 1, 0^∘ < θ < 90^∘ then θ is: 

(A) 30^∘ 

(B) 90^∘ 

(C) 60^∘ 

(D) 45^∘ 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 68 The largest number which should replace * in the number 2365*4 to make the number divisible by 4 is: 

(A) 9 

(B) 2 

(C) 0 

(D) 8 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

For the divisibility by 4, last 2 digit of the number should be divisible by 4. So, 

For the largest number, 

value of * = 8. 

 

Q. 69 In a triangle, if the measures of two sides are 5 cm and 8 cm,then the third side can be: 

(A) 3 cm 

(B) 14 cm 

(C) 2 cm 

(D) 4 cm 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

For third side of triangle, 

8 – 5 < third side of triangle < 5 + 8 

= 3 < third side of triangle < 13 

Third side should be greater than 3 and less then 13 so, 

By option, correct answer is 4 cm. 

 

Q. 70 Two cyclists X and Y start at the same time from place A and go towards place B at a speed of 6 km/h and 8 km/h,respectively. Despite stopping for 15 minutes during the journey, Y reaches 10 minutes earlier than X. The distance between the places A and B is: 

(A) 6 km 

(B) 16.5 km 

(C) 8 km 

(D) 10km 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 71 Solve the following. 

sin 0^∘ sin 30^∘ sin 45^∘ sin 60^∘ sin 90^∘ =? 

(A) 0 

(B) 4 

(C) √6/8 

(D) 1 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 72 The coefficient of x in (x − 3y)³ is : 

(A) 3y² 

(B) 27y² 

(C) −27y² 

(D) −3y² 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 73 The lengths of the diagonals of a rhombus are 16 cm and 12 cm. Its area is: 

(A) 48 cm²

(B) 28 cm²

(C) 69 cm²

(D) 96 cm²

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Area of a rhombus = (1/2) × multiplication of diagonals 

= (1/2)×16 × 12 = 96 cm² 

 

Q. 74 In wallet, there are notes of the denominations ₹10 and ₹50. The total number of notes is 12. The number of ₹10 and 50 notes are in the ratio of 1 : 2. Total money in the wallet is: 

(A) ₹ 360 

(B) ₹ 280 

(C) ₹ 110 

(D) ₹ 440 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

The ratio of the number of ₹10 and ₹50 notes = 1 : 2 

The total number of notes = 12 

The number of ₹10 notes = $$\frac{1}{1 + 2} \times 12 = 4 

Money from the ₹10 notes = 4×10 = Rs.40 

The number of ₹50 notes = 12 – 4 = 8 

Money from the ₹50 notes = 8×50 = Rs.400 

Total money in the wallet = 40 + 400 = Rs.440 

 

Q. 75 The following table shows the income(in ₹) for a particular month, together with their source, in respect of 5 employees (A, B, C, D and E) 

How many employees got more than a total of ₹10,000 as income other than salary? 

(A) 1 

(B) 4 

(C) 3 

(D) 2 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Salary of A = 52000 

Other income = total – salary 

Other income of A = 66000 – 52000 = 14000 

Salary of B = 48500 

Other income of B = 59000 – 48500 = 10500 

Salary of C = 42000 

Other income of C = 52000 – 42000 = 10000 

Salary of D = 31000 

Other income of D = 40000 – 31000 = 9000 

Salary of E = 25000 

Other income of E = 31700 – 25000 = 6700 

∴ 2 employees(A and B) got more than a total of ₹10,000 as income other than salary. 

English Comprehension 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. 

(A) A child could understand his theory. 

(B) His theory is being understood by a child. 

(C) His theory could be understood by a child. 

(D) His theory was understood by a child. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 77 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

Pull a fast one 

(A) Take quick action 

(B) Believe someone easily 

(C) Progress fast 

(D) Trick someone 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 78 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

The poor man was ______ entry to the restaurant. 

(A) derived 

(B) denied 

(C) devoid 

(D) deluded 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

The word that fits the best is ‘denied’. 

 

Q. 79 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. 

FICKLE 

(A) Flighty 

(B) Subtle 

(C) Stable 

(D) Crafty 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 80 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error. 

We had a long discussion at a cup of coffee. 

(A) We had 

(B) a long discussion 

(C) at a cup 

(D) of coffee 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 81 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

(A) These lotteries organised by State Governments sell dreams. 

(B) Lured by this, millions of poor people waste their hard-earned money. 

(C) Crores of rupees and gold are offered as prizes. 

(D) People buy lotteries hoping to become rich overnight. 

(A) CABD 

(B) CBAD 

(C) DACB 

(D) DBCA 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 

Comprehension: 

Agra’s marble-marvel has such an overwhelming presence (1)______ other monuments in the town have been relegated (2) ______ oblivion. Amongst such 60 odd monuments in (3) ______ town, the Red Taj is the most (4) ______ and relatively well-preserved. The tomb in red sandstone was (5) ______ by Ann Hessing, widow of a Dutch officer, after his death in 1803. 

 

Q. 82 Select the correct option to fill in blank 1. 

(A) but 

(B) that 

(C) if 

(D) than 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

The word that fits the blank appropriately is “that”. 

 

Q. 83 Select the correct option to fill in blank 2. 

(A) with 

(B) to 

(C) on 

(D) by 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 84 Select the correct option to fill in blank 3. 

(A) their 

(B) a 

(C) the 

(D) an 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 85 Select the correct option to fill in blank 4. 

(A) active 

(B) elegant 

(C) efficient 

(D) adequate 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 86 Select the correct option to fill in blank 5. 

(A) build 

(B) building 

(C) to build 

(D) bulit 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 87 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word 

(A) Delegait 

(B) Rebel 

(C) Edible 

(D) Monarch 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 88 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

(A) These are generated by a violent undersea disturbance or ocean activity. 

(B) Once generated, they travel outward on the ocean surface in all directions. 

(C) A tsunami is made up of a series of very long waves. 

(D) Spreading thus, they look like ripples caused by throwing a rock in a pond. 

(A) BADC 

(B) BDCA 

(C) CBDA 

(D) CABD 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 89 Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence. 

Mahesh said to Rita, “Don’t play in the sun.” 

(A) Mahesh advised Rita not to play in the sun 

(B) Mahesh told to Rita to not play in the sun. 

(C) Mahesh ordered Rita that not play in the sun 

(D) Mahesh requested Rita that don’t play in the sun 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

DISHEARTENE(D) 

(A) depressed 

(B) disgraced 

(C) disgusted 

(D) disliked 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 91 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

They stopped to laugh as soon as the teacher entered the classroom. 

(A) No improvement 

(B) stop laughing 

(C) stopped laughing 

(D) stopped laugh 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 92 Select the most appropriate one word substitution for the given group of words. 

Pertaining to an individual from birth 

(A) Congenital 

(B) Anomaly 

(C) Chronic 

(D) Habitual 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 93 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

Have you ______ for a job in this company? 

(A) appointed 

(B) supplied 

(C) approved 

(D) applied 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 94 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error. 

The both children go to the same school. 

(A) to the 

(B) The both 

(C) children go 

(D) same school 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 95 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

See eye to eye 

(A) Stare at someone 

(B) See clearly 

(C) Be suspicious 

(D) Agree with someone 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 96 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

CORDIAL 

(A) cold 

(B) warm 

(C) hard 

(D) rude 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 97 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

If they will get married, they will probably settle in Mumbai. 

(A) If they get married 

(B) No improvement 

(C) If they had got married 

(D) If they will be getting married 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 98 Select the most appropriate one word substitution for the given group of words. 

To increase the speed 

(A) Assimilate 

(B) Exhilarate 

(C) Activate 

(D) Accelerate 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 99 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word. 

(A) Obscure 

(B) Omision 

(C) Opportunity 

(D) Obsolete 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 100 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. 

HASTE 

(A) Rush 

(B) Lose 

(C) Dash 

(D) Delay 

Answer: D 

SSC CGL 6th March 2020 Shift-1 

Q. 1 Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the number-pair that is different from the rest. 

(A) 11:121 

(B) 13: 169 

(C) 17:289 

(D) 15:250 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

(11)² = 121 

(13)² = 169 

(17)² = 289 

(15)² = 225 

∴ The correct answer is option (D) 

 

Q. 2 Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it 

(A) 92 

(B) 98 

(C) 88 

(D) 82 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 3 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: 

1. Some machines are kites. 

2. No machine is a pigeon. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some machines are pigeons. 

IL. All kites are pigeons. 

Ill. Some kites are not pigeons. 

(A) Only conclusions I and III follow. 

(B) Only conclusion II follows. 

(C) Only conclusions I and II follow. 

(D) Only conclusion ITI follows. 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Only conclusion III follows. 

∴ The correct answer is option (D) 

 

Q. 4 Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the followingseries. 

5, 10, 26, ?, 122, 170 

(A) 82 

(B) 50 

(C) 65 

(D) 77 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

(2)² + 1 

= 4 + 1 = 5 

(3)² + 1 

= 9 + 1 = 10 

(5)² + 1 

= 25 + 1 = 26 

(7)² + 1 

= 49 + 1 = 50 

(11)² + 1 

= 121 + 1 = 122 

(13)² + 1 

= 169 + 1 = 170 

∴ The correct answer is option (B) 

 

Q. 5 Select the letter that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

A, E, I, ?, Q, U 

(A) M 

(B) N 

(C) K 

(D) O 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

The series follows pattern as, 

(A) + 4 = E 

E + 4 = I 

I + 4 = M 

M + 4 = Q 

Q + 4 = U 

∴ The correct answer is option (A) 

 

Q. 6 Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. ADG, CGK, EJO, ? , IPW 

(A) GMZ 

(B) GNS 

(C) GNZ 

(D) GMS 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

((A) + 2)((D) + 3)(G + 4) = CGK 

((C) + 2)(G + 3)(K + 4) = EJO 

(E + 2)(J + 3)(0 + 4) = GMS 

(G + 2)(M + 3)(S + 4) = IPW 

∴ The correct answer is option (D) 

 

Q. 7 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when a mirror is placed on the right of the figure. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 8 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded (rotation is not allowed) 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 9 How many triangles are there in the given figure? 

(A) 25 

(B) 22 

(C) 16 

(D) 28 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 10 Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of words.

North : South 

(A) Frown : Smile 

(B) Whole : Total 

(C) Ductile : Bendable 

(D) Integrity : Honesty 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Opposite of North is South. 

Similarly, 

Opposite of the frown is smile. 

∴ The correct answer is option (A) 

 

Q. 11 In a certain a group of men and horses, the total number of legs is 14 more than twice the number of heads. How many horses are there in the group? 

(A) 11 

(B) 7 

(C) 9 

(D) 5 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

The total number of legs is 14 more than twice the number of heads. 

A horse have 2 more legs than man so, 

Number of horse = 14/2 = 7 

∴ The correct answer is option (B) 

 

Q. 12 Select the option that depicts how the given transparent sheet of paper  would appear if it is folded at the dotted line. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 13 Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Select the symbol that will be on the face opposite to the one showing ‘ +’. 

(A) # 

(B) * 

(C) @ 

(D) $ 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 14 In a certain code language, ‘PAGE’ is coded as ‘161495’. How will ‘PART’ be coded as in that language? 

(A) 16125020 

(B) 16132420 

(C) 16128620 

(D) 16136220 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

P = 16 

(A) = 1 

 G =(7)² = 49 

E = 5 

Similarly, 

P = 16 

(A) = 1 

R =(18)² = 324 

T = 20 

So, ‘PART’ is coded as ‘16132420’. 

∴ The correct answer is option (B) 

 

Q. 15 ‘Astronomy’ is related to ‘Stars’ in the same way as ‘Agronomy’ is related to ‘…….’ 

(A) Mines 

(B) Crops 

(C) Planets 

(D) Emotions 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

‘Astronomy’ is related to ‘Stars’ in the same way as ‘Agronomy’ is related to ‘crops’ 

∴ The correct answer is option (B) 

 

Q. 16 Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd letter-cluster. 

(A) BJT 

(B) GCV 

(C) DDP 

(D) FBL 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

 B = 2, J = 10, 2× 10 = 20(T) 

G = 7, C = 3, 7×  3 = 21(U) 

D = 4, D= 4, 4 ×4 = 16(P) 

 F = 6, (B) = 2, 6 ×2 = 12(L) 

∴ The correct answer is option (B) 

 

Q. 17 Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odd word. 

(A) Clarinet 

(B) Trumpet 

(C) Xylophone 

(D) Saxophone 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Except option C, remaining all are play by the mouth. 

∴ The correct answer is option (C) 

 

Q. 18 A+B means ‘A is the husband of B’; 

A-B means ‘B is the sister of A’; 

(A)× (B) means ‘(A) is the mother of B’; 

(A) ÷ (B) means ‘(B) is the son of A’. 

P + R × T − Q ÷ S + U, 

If, then how is P related to S? 

(A) Maternal grandfather 

(B) Father-in-law 

(C) Paternal grandfather 

(D) Uncle 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

In the diagram, square shows the males, circle shows the females, vertical lines shows the generation, single horizontal lines shows the brother/sister and double horizontal lines shows the couples. 

From the diagram, 

P is the maternal grandfather of S. 

 

Q. 19 In the given Venn diagram, the ‘rectangle’ represents ‘travellers who like to travel by plane’, the ‘circle’ represents ‘travellers who like to travel by bus’, and the ‘triangle’ ‘represents travellers who like to travel by train’. The numbers given in the diagram represent the number of travellers in that particular category. 

How many travellers like to travel either by train or plane but NOT by bus? 

(A) 36 

(B) 27 

(C) 30 

(D) 29 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 20 Select the figure that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 21 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct? 

12 + 81 − 27 × 9 ÷ 3 =36

(A) −and÷

(B) ÷and×

(C) ×and−

(D) +and

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

12 + 81 − 27 × 9 ÷ 3 = 36 

From the option A, 

On changing the sign, 

12 + 81 ÷ 27 × 9 − 3 = 36 

12 + 27 – 3 = 36 

36 =36 

∴ The correct answer is option (A) 

 

Q. 22 In a certain code language, ‘DKQX’ is written as ‘WPJC’. How will ‘AFKP’ be written as in that language? 

(A) ZTOK 

(B) ZUQI 

(C) ZUPK 

(D) ZVQL 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

D = (27 – 4 = 23) = W 

K = (27 – 11 = 16) = P 

Q = (27 – 17 = 10) = J 

X = (27 – 24 = 3) = C)

Similarly, 

A = (27 – 1 = 26) = Z 

F = (27 – 6 = 21) = U 

K = (27 – 11 = 16) = P 

P = (27 – 16 = 11) = K 

‘AFKP’ is written as ‘ZUPK’. 

∴ The correct answer is option (C) 

 

Q. 23 Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in it. 

(A) 111 

(B) 113 

(C) 95 

(D) 77 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 24 Select the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series. 62, 66, 74, 90, ? 

(A) 106 

(B) 120 

(C) 116 

(D) 122 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 25 Arrange the following words in a logical and meaningful order. 

1. Quadrillion 

2. Quintillion 

3. Million 

4. Octillion 

5. Trillion 

(A) 3-5-1-4-2 

(B) 4-3-5-1-2 

(C) 2-3-5-1-4 

(D) 3-5-1-2-4 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Arrangement of the words, 

Million, Trillion, Quadrillion, Quintillion, Octillion 

∴ The correct answer is option (D) 

General Awareness 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 Name the Indian wrestler who has been named the Junior Freestyle Wrestler of the year (2019) by United World Wrestling (UWW) 

(A) Kamareddy 

(B) Deepak Punia 

(C) B.P. Raju 

(D) Amita Bagchi 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 27 Which International organisation released the ‘World Energy Outlook 2019’ Report? 

(A) UNESCO 

(B) United Nations 

(C) World Trade Organisation 

(D) International Energy Agency 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 28 The Supreme Court has declared access to the internet a fundamental right under Article ______ of the Indian Constitution 

(A) 21 

(B) 14 

(C) 17 

(D) 19 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 29 Mehrunnisa who was known as Nur Jahan was the wife of ……. 

(A) Aurangzeb 

(B) Shah Jahan 

(C) Jahangir 

(D) Akbar 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Nur Jahan was the twentieth (and last) wife of the Mughal emperor Jahangir. 

 

Q. 30 Alyssa Healy who created a world record by becoming the highest scorer in women’s T20I, belongs to ______. 

(A) India 

(B) Canada 

(C) Japan 

(D) Australia 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 31 If the inflation in an economy is rising steadily, the Central Bank might ______. 

(A) decrease the repo rate 

(B) decrease the reverse repo rate 

(C) increase the repo rate 

(D) keep the repo rate unchanged 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 32 Merchant discount rate refers to ______ 

(A) the total discount a bank offers to the merchant for promoting online transactions 

(B) the total discount a merchant offers on online transactions 

(C) the rate charged to a merchant for payment processing services on debit and credit card transactions 

(D) only taxes that a digital payment entails 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 33 Which Indian journalist was honoured with India’s Most Powerful Woman in Media Award during the prestigious Confluence Excellence Award ceremony held in the British parliament on 27 September 2019? 

(A) Sunetra Chaudhary 

(B) Anubha Bhonsle 

(C) Kalli Puri 

(D) Sona Choudhary 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 34 In which year did D.C Sircar publish Indian Epigraphy and Indian Epigraphical Glossary? 

(A) 1965-66 

(B) 1967-68 

(C) 1966-67 

(D) 1964-65 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 35 To which of the following Indian states does Mardani Khel, one of the famous martial art forms in India belong? 

(A) Uttar Pradesh 

(B) Madhya Pradesh 

(C) Maharashtra 

(D) Rajasthan 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 36 Which of the following diseases is NOT transmitted from one person to another? 

(A) Syphilis 

(B) Hepatitis B 

(C) AIDS 

(D) Cirrhosis 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 37 When did the Vikrama Era begin? 

(A) 47 BC 

(B) 55 BC

(C) 57 BC 

(D) 50 BC 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 38 Who is the first General of the Indian Army, whose retirement day is celebrated as the ‘Armed Forces Veterans Day’ every year? 

(A) General K.S. Thimayya 

(B) General S.M. Srinagesh 

(C) General K. M. Cariappa 

(D) General Maharaj Rajendra Sinhji 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 39 The SDG India index is developed by …… 

(A) Ministry of Environmental, Forests and Climate Change 

(B) Ministry of Home Affairs 

(C) NITI Aayog 

(D) World Bank 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 40 Which of the following is the first South Asian country to call match-fixing a crime? 

(A) India 

(B) Sri Lanka 

(C) Nepal 

(D) Pakistan 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 41 Who performs the task of capturing oxygen in the blood? 

(A) White blood cells 

(B) Red blood cells 

(C) Chlorophyll 

(D) Haemoglobin 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 42 On which river and in which state is the Jayakwadi dam situated? 

(A) Godavari river – Maharashtra 

(B) Banas river – Rajasthan 

(C) Periyar river – Kerala 

(D) Ravi river – Punjab 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 43 Which leader gave us the C R Formula? 

(A) C R. Das 

(B) C Rajagopalachari 

(C) Tilak 

(D) Mahatma Gandhi 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 44 Name the only metal that is antibacterial. 

(A) Iron 

(B) Sodium 

(C) Aluminium 

(D) Copper 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 45 Madhavpur Mela takes place in ……. 

(A) Maharashtra 

(B) Madhya Pradesh 

(C) Uttar Pradesh 

(D) Gujarat 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 46 Which of the following is a natural flame retardant? 

(A) Flowers 

(B) Skin 

(C) DNA 

(D) RNA

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 47 In the sequence of planets in the Solar system, which planet comes in between Mercury and Earth? 

(A) Mars 

(B) Venus 

(C) Jupiter 

(D) Uranus 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 48 Which of the following gases is consistently seen to be most abundant in a volcanic eruption? 

(A) Sulphur Dioxide 

(B) Carbon Dioxide 

(C) Water vapour 

(D) Hydrogen Sulphide 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 49 Which of the following is the primary sex organ in females? 

(A) Uterus 

(B) Fallopian tube 

(C) Ovary 

(D) Vagina 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 50 UN Women propose to partner with ______ gender park with an aim to secure gender parity in South Asia 

(A) Punjab’s 

(B) Haryana’s 

(C) Rajasthan’s 

(D) Kerala’s 

Answer: (D) 

Quantitative Aptitude 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 Two tangents PA and PBare drawn to a circle with centre O from an external point P. If ∠OAB = 30^∘ , then ∠APB is: 

(A) 120^∘ 

(B) 30^∘ 

(C) 15^∘ 

(D) 60^∘ 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 52 ABC is an equilateral triangle. P,Q and R are the midpoints of sides AB,BC and CA, respectively. If the length of the side of the triangle △ PQR 

ABC is 8 cm, then the area of is: 

(A) √3/3 cm² 

(B) √3/4 cm² 

(C) 4√3 cm² 

(D) 8√3 cm² 

Answer: (C) 

Q. 53 Solve the following. 

(A) 2 

(B) -2 

(C) -1 

(D) 1 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 54 The average of the marks of 30 boys is 88, and when the top two scores were excluded, the average marks reduced to 87.5. If the top two scores differ by 2, then the highest mark is: 

(A) 92 

(B) 96 

(C) 94 

(D) 90 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Total marks of 30 boys = 88 $$\times 30 = 2640 

( ∵ Average = sum of all term/number of terms) 

when the top two scores were excluded, the average marks reduced to 87.5 

Total marks of 28 boys = 87.5 $$\times 28 = 2450 

Sum of the top two score = 2640 – 2450 = 190 —(1) 

difference of two score = 2 

Let the top score be x so 2nd top score = x – 2 

From eq(1), 

x + x – 2 = 190 

x = 192/2 = 96 

 

Q. 55 If x cos A − y sin A = 1 and x sin A + y cos A = 4, then the value of 17x² + 17y² is: 

(A) 0 

(B) 7 

(C) 49 

(D) 289 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 56 A circular disc of area 0.64πm² rolls down a length of 1.408 km. The number of revolutions it makes is: (Taken π = 22/7). 

(A) 280 

(B) 360 

(C) 140 

(D) 180 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 57 An article was sold at a gain of 18%. If it had been sold for ₹ 49 more, then the gain would have been 25%. The cost price of the article is: 

(A) ₹ 700 

(B) ₹ 570 

(C) ₹ 650 

(D) ₹ 890 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 58 If 3a = 27b = 81c and abc = 144, then the value of 12(1/a + 1/2b + 1/5c) is: 

(A) 18/120

(B) 18/10

(C) 33/10

(D) 17/120

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 59 If a + b + c = 9 and ab + bc + ca = −22, then the value of a³ + b³ + c³ − 3abc is: 

(A) 783 

(B) 1323 

(C) 1571 

(D) 487 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

a + b + c = 9 

ab + bc + ca = -22 

We need to find the value of a³ + b³ + c³- 3abc 

We know, 

a³ + b³ + c³- 3abc = ( a + b + c ) ( a² + b² + c² – ab – bc – ca ) 

Now we need to find the value of a² + b² + c² 

We also know, 

( a + b + c )² = a² + b² + c² + 2 ( ab + bc + ca ) 

Putting the value of a + b + c = 9 and ab + bc + ca = -22 

( 9 )² = a² + b² + c² + 2 ( -22 ) 

81 = a² + b² + c² -44 

a² + b² + c² = 81 + 44 

a² + b² + c² = 125 

Now, 

Substituting value in the formula for a³ + b³ + c³- 3abc 

a³ + b³ + c³- 3abc = ( a + b + c ) ( a² + b² + c² – ab – bc – ca ) 

a³ + b³ + c³- 3abc = ( a + b + c ) ( a² + b² + c² – ( ab + bc + ca ) ) 

a³ + b³ + c³- 3abc = ( 9 ) ( 125 – ( =22) ) 

a³ + b³ + c³- 3abc = ( 9 ) ( 147 ) 

a³ + b³ + c³- 3abc = 1323 

 

Q. 60 A shopkeeper marks the price of an article in such a way that after allowing a discount of 22%, he gets a gain of 11%.If the marked price is Rs.888, then the cost price of the article is: 

(A) ₹ 624 

(B) ₹ 782 

(C) ₹ 550 

(D) ₹ 895 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 61 In the following table, the production of various crops (in tonnes) is given from 2015 to 2019. Study the table and answer the questions that follow. 

The percentage growth of maize in the year 2019 over the year 2015 is: 

(correct to two decimal places) 

(A) 65.12% 

(B) 71.43% 

(C) 77.77% 

(D) 60.28% 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Production of maize in the year 2019 = 840 

Production of maize in the year 2015 = 490 

The percentage growth of maize in the year 2019 over the year 2015 = $$\frac{840 – 490}{490} \times 100 = \frac{350}{490} \times 100 = 71.43% 

 

Q. 62 If the area of an equilateral triangle is 36√3cm² , then the perimeter of the triangle is: 

(A) 36√3 cm 

(B) 36 cm 

(C) 18√3 cm 

(D) 12 cm 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 63 If the value of(a + b − 2)² + (b + c − 5)² + (c + a − 5)² = 0 , then the value of √(b + c)^a + (c + a)^b − 1 is: 

(A) 1 

(B) 2 

(C) 3 

(D) 0 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 64 If (2 sin (A) + cosec A) = 2√2 0^∘ < A < 90^∘ , then the value of 2(sin⁴ A + cos⁴ A)  is: 

(A) 2 

(B) 1 

(C) 4 

(D) 0 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 65 In the following table, the production of various crops (in tonnes) is given from 2015 to 2019. Study the table and answer the questions that follow. 

The average production of wheat(in tonnes) in the period given in the table is: 

(A) 3600 

(B) 3482 

(C) 3300 

(D) 4218 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Total production of wheat(in tonnes) = 2500 + 4218 + 3482 + 4500 + 3300 = 18000 

Average = sum of all terms/number of terms 

Average production of wheat(in tonnes) = 18000/5 = 3600 

 

Q. 66 A, B and C can individually complete a task in 24 days, 20 days and 18 days, respectively. B and C start the task, and they work for 6 days and leave. The number of days required by A alone to finish the remaining task, is: 

(A) 15 ⅔ days 

(B) 12 ½ days 

(C) 8 ⅘ days 

(D) days 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 67 What will be the difference in compound interest on a sum of ₹ 7,800 at 8% for 1 year, when the interest is paid yearly and half yearly? 

(A) ₹ 29.18 

(B) ₹ 12.48 

(C) ₹ 24.72 

(D) ₹ 19.46 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 68 In the following table, the production of various crops(in tonnes) is given from 2015 to 2019. Study the table and answer the questions that follow. 

The difference (in tonnes) between the average production of barley and average production of rice is: 

(A) 231 

(B) 780 

(C) 549 

(D) 471 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Total production of barley = 975 + 825 + 700 + 625 + 775 = 3900 

Average = sum of the terms/total number of terms 

Average production of barley = 3900/5 = 780 

Total production of rice = 415 + 520 + 585 + 625 + 600 = 2745 

Average production of rice = 2745/5 = 549 

The difference (in tonnes) between the average production of barley and average production of rice = 780 – 549 = 231 

 

Q. 69 If ‘+’ means ‘-’,‘-’ means ‘+’, ‘x’ means ‘ ’ and ‘ ’ means ‘x’, then the value of 305+84652318–42is: 

(A) -2 

(B) 2 

(C) -1 

(D) 1 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 70  A student takes 1.25 hours to travel from home to school at a speed of 4 km/h. By what percentage should he increase his speed to reduce the time by 25% to cover the same distance from school to home? 

(A) 33 ⅓ % 

(B) 50 % 

(C) 45 % 

(D) 25 % 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 71 If a sum of ₹1,180 is to be divided among A, B and C,such that 2 times A’s share, 5 times B’s share and 7 times C’s share, are equal, then A’s share is: 

(A) ₹ 500 

(B) ₹ 750 

(C) ₹ 650 

(D) ₹ 700 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 72 If the number 687×29 is divisible by 9, then the value of 2x is: 

(A) 8 

(B) 3 

(C) 2 

(D) 4 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 73 The population of a city increased by 30%in the first year and decreased by 15% in the next year. If the present population is 11.050 then the population 2 years ago was: 

(A) 10,000 

(B) 99,500 

(C) 99,000 

(D) 10,050 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 74 In the following table, the production of various crops(in tonnes) is given from 2015 to 2019. Study the table and answer the questions that follow. 

The highest growth of sugarcane production over its previous year is recorded in the year: 

(A) 2018 

(B) 2016 

(C) 2019 

(D) 2017 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Growth in 2016 = 1120 – 1000 = 120 

Growth in 2017 = 1250 – 1120 = 130 

Growth in 2018 = 1325 – 1250 = 75 

Growth in 2019 = 1450 – 1325 = 125 

The highest growth of sugarcane production over its previous year is recorded in the year 2017. 

 

Q. 75 A metallic sphere of diameter 40 cm is melted into smaller spheres of radius 0.5 cm. How many such small balls can be made? 

(A) 32,000 

(B) 3,200 

(C) 64,000 

(D) 6,400 

Answer: (C) 

English Comprehension 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 76 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. 

Persist 

(A) Insist 

(B) Cease 

(C) Remain 

(D) Continue 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 77 Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence. 

“What a rare flower!” she said. 

(A) She exclaimed what a rare flower it is. 

(B) She asked if it was a rare flower 

(C) She told that what a rare flower it was. 

(D) She exclaimed that it was a very rare flower. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 78 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words/phrase. Having two opposing feelings at the same time 

(A) Equivalent 

(B) Coinciding 

(C) Ambivalent 

(D) Contemporary 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 79 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. 

The farmer is ploughing the fields 

(A) The fields were ploughed by the farmer. 

(B) The fields are ploughed by the farmer. 

(C) The fields have been ploughed by the farmer 

(D) The fields are being ploughed by the farmer 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 80 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

We came back because we had ran out of money. 

(A) we have ran 

(B) we had run 

(C) No improvement 

(D) we run 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 81 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’ 

Those who are late will not be allowed inside the classroom. 

(A) they will not be allowed 

(B) No error 

(C) Those who are late 

(D) inside the classroom 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 

Atlas was made to hold the sky up on his shoulders as a punishment. Once, Hercules (1)______ to hold it for Atlas while the latter went looking (2)______ golden apples. When Atlas returned, he saw Hercules (3)______ hard to hold the sky. The weight of the sky (4)______ Hercules sweat and groan. Now Atlas did not want to (5)______ a job as arduous as that! 

 

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 1. 

(A) offered 

(B) ordered 

(C) afforded 

(D) extended 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 2 

(A) at 

(B) for 

(C) on 

(D) after 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 3 

(A) tackling 

(B) coping 

(C) struggling 

(D) seeking 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 4 

(A) were making 

(B) was making 

(C) has made 

(D) make 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank 5. 

(A) take out 

(B) take away 

(C) take in 

(D) take back 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 87 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word. 

Glee 

(A) Joy 

(B) Bliss 

(C) Woe 

(D) Fun 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 88 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’ Everyone except she have travelled by air 

(A) travelled by air 

(B) No error 

(C) Everyone except 

(D) she have 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 89 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

The roof of the old building ______ during the storm. 

(A) destroyed 

(B) scratched 

(C) demolished 

(D) collapsed 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

Chicken-hearted 

(A) Generous 

(B) Cowardly 

(C) Miserly 

(D) Selfish 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 91 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

Preferred 

(A) Adored 

(B) Feared 

(C) Compared 

(D) Favoured 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 92 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

Ovation 

(A) Creation 

(B) Preparation 

(C) Applause 

(D) Censure 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 93 Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word. 

(A) Alliance 

(B) Acquisition 

(C) Acquaintence 

(D) Abandon 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 94 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

(A) Much of this war had taken place along the Western Front. 

(B) Both sides had dug in deep and each lost many men over little ground. 

(C) This front was a line of trenches across which the two sides faced each other. 

(D) Andre Maginot had fought a war with the French against the Germans. 

(A) DACB 

(B) DBCA 

(C) ACDB 

(D) BCDA 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 95 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

She ______ how the magician had performed the rope trick 

(A) bewildered 

(B) wondered 

(C) suspected 

(D) puzzled 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 96 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

(A) Fierce 

(B) Sieze 

(C) Grief 

(D) Piece 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 97 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

By and by 

(A) Gradually 

(B) By any means 

(C) Suddenly 

(D) On the whole 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 98 Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words/phrase 

a group of ships 

(A) squad 

(B) colony 

(C) swarm 

(D) fleet 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 99 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

When it started raining, I ran to the nearer house for shelter 

(A) the near house 

(B) a near house 

(C) the nearest house 

(D) No improvement 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 100 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

(A) The mountain range was covered with snow. 

(B) Napoleon had to cross the Alps in winter. 

(C) Napoleon replied that the word ‘impossible’ did not exist for him. 

(D) So, someone told Napoleon that the task was impossible. 

(A) BADC 

(B) DBCA 

(C) BDCA 

(D) ADBC 

Answer: A

SSC CGL 5th March 2020 Shift-3

 

Q. 1 A + B means ‘A. is the mother of B’; 

A − B means ‘A is the brother of B’; 

A × B means ‘A is the father of B’; 

A ÷ B means ‘A is the daughter of B’; 

If P − K × Y − J ÷ S + R , then which of the following statements is NOT correct? 

A. J is daughter of P. 

B. P is paternal uncle of R. 

C. K is husband of S. 

D. Y is son of S. 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

In the diagram, Circle shows the female, square shows the male, vertical lines show the generation, single horizontal line shows the brother/sister and  double horizontal lines show the couple. 

From the diagram, 

Option A is correct. 

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

 

Q. 2 Select the letter-cluster that can replace the Question mark (?) in the following series. 

TULG, WRPC, ZOTY, CLXU,? 

A. FJCQ 

B. FIBQ 

C. FICR 

D. GIAQ 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

The series follows pattern as, 

(T + 3)(U – 3)(L + 4)(G – 4) = WRPC. 

(W + 3)(R – 3)(P + 4)(C. – 4) = ZOTY 

(Z + 3)(O – 3)(T + 4)(Y – 4) = CLXU 

(C + 3)(L – 3)(X + 4)(U – 4) = FIBQ 

∴ The correct answer is option B. 

 

Q. 3 Fourletter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the odD. letter-cluster. 

A. PSVX 

B. ZCFI 

C. JMPS 

D. ORUX 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

Except option A, remaining all words have difference of 2 letters between in each latter in the word. 

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

 

Q. 4 Select the option that is relateD. to the thirD. number in the same way as the seconD. numberis relateD. to the first number. 13 : 109 :: 24 : ? 

A. 194 

B. 201 

C. 197 

D. 216 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

In 13 : 109, 

13×8 + 5 = 104 + 5 = 109 

similarly, 

24×8 + 5 = 192 + 5 = 197 

∴ The correct answer is option C. 

 

Q. 5 Select the number that can replace the Question mark (?) in the following series. 

45, 47, 53, 65, 85, ? 

A. 115 

B. 130 

C. 145 

D. 105 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

The series follows pattern as, 

45 + 2 = 47 

47 + (2 + 4 = 6) = 53 

53 + (6 + 6 = 12) = 65 

65 + (12 + 8 = 20) = 85 

85 + (20 + 10 = 30) = 115 

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

 

Q. 6 Select the letter that can replace the Question mark (?) in the following series. 

A, T, E, U, I, V, O, W, ?, X 

A. R 

B. M 

C. U 

D. Z 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

There are 2 series, 

A, E, I, O, ? 

and  T, U, V, W, X 

The first series has the the group of vowels. 

So, next letter is u. 

∴ The correct answer is option C. 

 

Q. 7 Select the option in which the given figure X is embeddeD. (rotation is not allowed). 

Answer: C. 

 

Q. 8 Select the option in which the numbersare relateD. in the same way as are the numbers in the givenset. 

(8, 7, 407) 

A. (12, 8, 555) 

B. (10, 8, 576) 

C. (11, 12, 450) 

D. (9, 6, 303) 

Answer: D. 

Explanation: 

In (8, 7, 407), 

8 × 7² + 8 + 7 = 8×49 + 15 

= 392 + 15 = 407 

Similarly, 

In (9, 6, 297), 

9 × 6² + 9 + 6 = 8×36 + 15 

= 288 + 15 = 303 

∴ The correct answer is option D. 

 

Q. 9 Which two signs and two numbers shoulD. be interchangeD. to make the given equation correct? 

28 − 32 ÷ 2 × 8 + 34 = 132 

A. ×and−; 32 and 34 

B. +and−; 28 and  32 

C. +and−; 32 and  34 

D. ×and−; 8 and  2 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

28 − 32 ÷ 2 × 8 + 34 = 132 

From the option C, 

28 + 34 ÷ 2 × 8 − 32 = 132 

28 + 17 × 8 − 32 = 132 

136 – 4 = 132 

132 = 132 

∴ The correct answer is option C. 

 

Q. 10 ‘Criticise’ is relateD. to ‘Condemmn’ in the same way as ‘Solidarity’ is relateD. to ‘………….’ 

A. Unity 

B. Actrocious 

C. Guilty 

D. Prosperity 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

‘Criticise’ is relateD. to ‘Condemmn’ in the same ways ‘Solidarity’ is relateD. to ‘unity’. 

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

 

Q. 11 Read the given statements and  conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: 

1. No bottle is A pen. 

2. All jugs are bottles. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some jugs are pens. 

II. No jug is pen. 

III. Some bottles are jugs. 

A. All conclusions I, II and  III follow. 

B. Only conclusions II and  III follow. 

C. Conclusion III and  either conclusion I or II follow. 

D. Either conclusion I or II follows. 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

From the Venn diagram, 

Only conclusion II and  III follow. 

∴ The correct answer is option B. 

 

Q. 12 Arrange the following words in A logical and  meaningful order. 

1. Colonel 

2. Field Marshal 

3. Brigadier 

4. Lieutenant 

5. General 

A. 2, 5, 3, 1, 4 

B. 3, 5, 2, 4, 1 

C. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4 

D. 2, 5, 1, 4, 3 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

Arrangement of the post according to the rank, 

Field Marshal, General, Brigadier, Colonel, Lieutenant 

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

 

Q. 13 Three different positions of the same dice are shown, the six faces of which are numbered from 1 to 6. Select the number that will be on the face opposite to the one showing ‘6’. 

A. 3 

B. 2 

C. 4 

D. 5 

Answer: A. 

 

Q. 14 In A certain code language, ‘FASTER’ is written as ‘CdQHO’. How will ‘VIOLIN’ be written as in that language? 

A. SLIRLM 

B. SKIRKO 

C. SLRILK 

D. RLTILK 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

F – 3 = C 

A + 3 = D 

S + 3 = V 

T – 3 = Q 

E + 3 = H 

R – 3 = O 

Similarly, 

V – 3 = S 

I + 3= L 

O + 3 = R 

L – 3 = I 

I + 3 = L 

N – 3= K 

‘VIOLIN’ is written as ‘SLRILK’. 

∴ The correct answer is option C. 

 

Q. 15 Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and  one is different. Select the odd word. 

A. Kidney 

B. Pancreas 

C. Renin 

D. Liver 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

Except ‘renin’ remaining all are parts of human body. 

∴ The correct answer is option C. 

Q. 16 Select the option in which the words share the same relationship as that shareD. by the given pair of words. 

Player : Team 

A. Flower : Bouquet 

B. Ant : Bee 

C. Student : Teacher 

D. Purpose : Crowd 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

A group of players is called team. 

Similarly, 

A group of flowers is called bouquet. 

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

Q. 17 In A class of 100 students, every student has passed in one or more of the three subjects, i.e. History, Economics and  English. Among all the students, 24 students have passed in English only, 14 students have passed in History only, 11 students have passed in both English and  Economics only, and  12 students have passed in both English and  History only. A total of 50 students have passed in History. If only 5 students have passed in all three subjects, then how many students have passed in Economics only? 

A. 15 

B. 18 

C. 20 

D. 10 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

Students have passed in English only = 24 

Students have passed in History only = 14 

Students have passed in both English and  Economics only = 11 

Students have passed in both English and  History only = 12 

Students have passed in History = 50 

Students have passed in all three subjects = 5 

Students have passed in Economics only = 100 – students have passed in History – students have passed in English only – students have passed in both English and  Economics only = 100 -50 – 24 – 11 = 15 

∴ The correct answer is option A. 

Q. 18 Select the figure that can replace the Question mark (?) in the following series. 

Answer: D. 

Q. 19 How many triangles are there in the given figure? 

A. 25 

B. 24 

C. 27 

D. 26 

Answer: A. 

Q. 20 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when A vertical mirror is placed on the right side of the figure.

Answer: B. 

Q. 21 

Study the given pattern carefully and  select the number that can replace the Q. mark (?) in it.

A. 45 

B. 55 

C. 40 

D. 50 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

(252 × 3) ÷ 18 = 756/18 = 42 

(296 × 3) ÷ 24 = 888/24 = 37 

(540 ×3) ÷ 36 = 1620/36 = 45

∴The correct answer is option A. 

Q. 22 Which of the following Venn diagramsbest represents the relationship between the following classes? 

Cricketers, Players, Human beings 

Answer: C. 

Q. 23 Four number-pairs have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and  one is different. Select the number-pair that is different from the rest. 

A. 4209 : 15 

B. 5121 : 12 

C. 8101 : 10 

D. 7456 : 22 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

In 4209 : 15 

4 + 2 + 0 + 9 = 15 

In 5121 : 12 

5 + 1 + 2 + 1 = 9 

In 8101 : 10, 

8 + 1 + 0 + 1 = 10 

In 7456 : 22, 

7 + 4 + 5 + 6 = 22 

∴ The correct answer is option B. 

Q. 24 The sequence of folding A piece of paper and  the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded? 

Answer: B. 

Q. 25 In A certain code language, ‘AUSTERE’ is coded as ‘13102595’. How will ‘SETTING’ be coded as in that language? 

A. 11544957 

B. 10522948 

C. 10522957 

D. 11522867 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

A. = 1 

U(21) = 2 + 1 = 3 

S(19) = 1 + 9 = 10 

T(20) = 2 + 0 = 2 

E = 5 

R(18) = 1 + 8 = 9 

E = 5 

Similarly, 

S(19) = 1 + 9 = 10 

E = 5 

T(20) = 2 + 0 = 2 

T(20) = 2 + 0 = 2 

I = 9 

N(14) = 1 + 4 = 5 

G = 7 

‘SETTING’ is codeD. as ‘10522957’. 

∴ The correct answer is option C. 

General Awareness 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 Which of the following companies has roped in cricketer Harbhajan Singh as its brand  ambassador in 2019? 

A. Reebok 

B. TAFE 

C. PUMA 

D. Brune & Bareskin 

Answer: D. 

Q. 27 Berach River, A southern-side tributary of Banas River, originates from the hills in which of the following districts of Rajasthan? 

A. Bharatpur 

B. Jaisalmer 

C. Udaipur 

D. Bikaner 

Answer: C. 

Q. 28 Who was honoured with the 1st recipient of the Muppavarapu National Award for Social Service at Hyderabad on 9th January 2020? 

A. D Mankombu Sambasivan Swaminathan 

B. Chandra Pal Singh Yadav 

C. D Gutta Muniratnam 

D. Uttam Prakash Agarwal 

Answer: A. 

Q. 29 Who among the following conceived the Kakori train robbery in 1925? 

A. Ubaidullah Sindhi 

B. Manmath Nath Gupta and  Matangini Hazra 

C. Baikuntha Shukla 

D. Ram Prasad Bismil and  Ashfaqullah Khan 

Answer: D. 

Q. 30 What is the ranking of India in the World Economic Forums (WEF)’s World Travel, Tourism Competitive ness Index for the year 2019? 

A. 31 

B. 34 

C. 37 

D. 39 

Answer: B. 

Q. 31Who among the following scientists invented the Cotton Gin? 

A. Sonny Perdue 

B. Eli Whitney 

C. Norman Borlaugh 

D. George Washington Carver 

Answer: B. 

Q. 32 Which of the following is also known as Epsom salt? 

A. Calcium Sulphate 

B. Magnesium Sulphate 

C. Sodium Sulphate 

D. Ferrous Sulphate 

Answer: B. 

Q. 33 Which of the following is used to control pest fish? 

A. Ovicides 

B. Predacides 

C. Herbicides 

D. Piscicides 

Answer: D. 

Q. 34 In which of the following cities is the tomb of Rani of Jhansi situated? 

A. Indore 

B. Gwalior 

C. Jabalpur 

D. Ujjain 

Answer: B. 

Q. 35 The International Naval event ‘Milan’ is scheduled to be held in ______ in March 2020. 

A. Kochi 

B. Mumbai 

C. Kolkata 

D. Visakhapatnam 

Answer: D. 

Q. 36 Which of the following authorities launched PPRTMS (Political Parties Registration Tracking Management System)? 

A. National Human Rights Commission 

B. The Supreme Court 

C. Election Commission of India 

D. The Union Public Service Commission 

Answer: C. 

Q. 37 Which of the following Viceroys of India addressed the Bengal famine of 1943 by ordering the army to distribute relief supplies to the starving rural Bengalis? 

A. Lord Linlithgow 

B. Lord Mountbatten 

C. Lord Wavell 

D. Lord Willington 

Answer: A. 

Q. 38 Which of the following acids is NOT present in grapes? 

A. Acetic acid 

B. Malic acid 

C. Tartaric acid

D. Citric acid

Answer: A. 

Q. 39 In memory of whom is the Madhavpur Mela of Gujarat celebrated? 

A. Lord Krishna and  Radha 

B. Lord Krishna and  Rukmini 

C. Lord Krishna and  daupadi 

D. Lord Shiva and  Parvati 

Answer: B. 

Q. 40 In which of the following years was the Congress Socialist Party (CSP) founded? 

A. 1924 

B. 1943 

C. 1914 

D. 1934 

Answer: D. 

Q. 41 According to data available as of 2019, how many national parks are situated in India? 

A. 104 

B. 115 

C. 140 

D. 131 

Answer: A. 

Q. 42 Who among the following is the chairman of the 15th Finance Commission of India? 

A. Ramesh Chand  

B. Subhash Chandra Garg 

C. NK Singh 

D. Arvind Mehta 

Answer: C. 

Q. 43 Who among the following founded the Bombay Stock Exchange? 

A. Vikramjit Sen 

B. Roychand  depchand  

C. Premchand  Roychand  

D. Ashiskumar Chauhan 

Answer: C. 

Q. 44 Who among the following Indian weight lifters has been banned for four years by NAD after being found guilty of A doping violation during the 34th Women Senior National Weight lifting Championship held at Vishakhapatnam? 

A. Sanamacha Thingbaijani Chanu 

B. Seema

C. Satheesha Rai 

D. Sarbjeet Kaur 

Answer: D. 

Q. 45 Who among the following has been appointed as director of National Book Trust on 11th January 2020? 

A. Gobinde Prashad Sharma 

B. Lt Col Yuvraj Malik 

C. Leela Samson 

D. RitA. Chowdhury 

Answer: B. 

Q. 46 Which of the following academies organise the Tansen Sangeet Samaroh in Gwalior? 

A. Renuka Sangeet Academy 

B. Muntirama Sangeet Academy 

C. Ravindra Jain Sangeet Academy 

D. Ustad Alauddin Khan Kala Evam Sangeet Academy 

Answer: D. 

Q. 47 In which of the following states was the 12th naval exercise ‘Naseem-Al-Bahr’ between Indid and  Oman held? 

A. Kerala 

B. Gujarat 

C. Goa 

D. Tamilnadu 

Answer: C. 

Q. 48 Which of the following is used as a substitute of mercury in thermometers? 

A. Selenium 

B. Arsenic 

C. Galinstan 

D. Bromine 

Answer: C. 

Q. 49 

How many national highways were merged to form National Highway 44 (NH 44)? 

A. 7 

B. 4 

C. 5 

D. 6 

Answer: A. 

Q. 50 Under which Article of the Indian Constitution are special provisions provided to language spoken in a section of the population? 

A. Article 347 

B. Article 374 

C. Article 357 

D. Article 337 

Answer: A. 

Quantitative Aptitude 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 (a + b + c − d)² − (a − b − c + d)² =? 

A. 2a(b + c − d)

B. 4a(b + c − d)

C. 2a(b + c + d)

D. 4a(b + c + d)

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

(a + b + c − d)² − (a − b − c + d)² 

[(a + b + c − d)+(a − b − c + d)][(a + b +c − d) – (a − b − c + d)] 

( ∵ a² − b² = (a + b)(a − b)) 

= (2a)(2a + 2c – 2d) 

= 4a(a + c – d) 

Q. 52 In the given figure, if DE ∥ BC, AD = 2.5 cm, D = 3.5 cm and  EC = 4.2 cm, then the measure of AC is:

A. 3 cm 

B. 7.2 cm 

C. 7.4 cm 

D. 3.2 

Answer: B. 

Q. 53 The perimeter of Asquare is 64 cm. Its area will be: 

A. 256 cm²

B. 8 cm²

C. 32 cm²

D. 128 cm²

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

The perimeter of A square = 64 cm 

4× side = 64 

Side = 64/4 = 16 cm 

Area = (side)² = (16)² = 256 cm²

Q. 54 The price of sugar is increaseD. by 20%. By what percentage must one cut down on the consumption of sugar, so that no extra amount has to be incurreD. on sugar? 

A. 16⅔ %

B. 20%

C. 80%

D. 80⅓ %

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

Percentage decrements in the consumption of sugar = rate /(100+rate) × 100 

20 /(100+20) × 100

20 /(120) × 100 = 16⅔ %

Q. 55 A furniture shopkeeper allows a discount of 16% on the marked price on the goods to his customers and  still gains 20%. What is the marked price of a dining-table, which costs the shopkeeper ₹11,900? 

A. ₹15,000 

B. ₹12,376 

C. ₹17,000 

D. ₹16,000 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

Cost price of dining table = Rs.11900 

Profit = 20% 

Selling price = 11900 × 120/100= Rs.14280 

discount = 16% 

Let the marked price 100%. 

Selling price = 100 – 16 = 84% 

84% = 14280 

100% = 14280 / 84 × 100 = 17000 

MarkeD. price of dining table = Rs.17000 

Q. 56 The coefficient of x² in (2x + y)³ is: 

A. 8

B. 12y²

C. 12y

D. 12

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

(2x + y)³ 

= (2x)³ + y³ + 3.2x.y(2x + y) 

(∵ (a + b)³ = a³ + b³ + 3ab(a + b) ) 

= 8x³ + y³ + 6xy(2x + y)

= 8x³ + y³ + 12x²y + 6xy²² 

The coefficient x² of = 12y 

Q. 57 If tan θ − cot θ = cosec θ, 0^∘ < θ < 90^∘, then what is the value of (2 tan θ−cos θ )/(√3 cot θ+sec θ) ? 

A. (3√3−1)/ 6

B. (4√3−1)/ 6

C. (2√3−1)/ 3

D. 2(2√3−1)/ 3

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

tan θ − cot θ = cosec θ 

tan θ − ¹/tanθ = cosec θ 

tan² θ − 1 = cosec θ tan θ 

sec² θ − 1 − 1 = sec θ 

sec² θ − sec θ − 2 = 0 

sec² θ − 2 sec θ + sec θ − 2 = 0 

sec θ(sec θ − 2) + 1(sec θ − 2) = 0 

(sec θ + 1)(sec θ − 2) = 0 

0^∘ < θ < 90^∘ 

For , 

sec θ = 2 

cos θ = 1/2 

θ = 60° 

Now, 

(2 tan θ−cos θ )/(√3 cot θ+sec θ)

Put the value of θ,

(2 tan 60°−cos 60° )/(√3 cot 60°+sec 60°)

(2√3− ½ )/(√3×(¹/√3)+2)

(4√3−1)/ 6

Q. 58 The value of −1 + 1/4  ÷ ¹/2 × 2 + 5  is: 

A. 17/ 4

B. 5

C. 2

D. −7/ 2

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

−1 + 1/4  ÷ ¹/2 × 2 +5

= −1 + 1/4 × 2 × 2 +5

= −1 + 1 +5 = 5

Q. 59 The value of cos 0^∘ cos 30^∘ cos 45^∘ cos 60^∘ cos 90^∘ is: 

A. 5 

B. 3 

C. 0 

D. √6 / 8

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

cos 0^∘ cos 30^∘ cos 45^∘ cos 60^∘ cos 90^∘ = 0

(∵ cos 0^∘ = 0 ) 

Q. 60 The heights of some girls in a school were noted and  the data obtained are as shown in the table.

How many girls have a height of 135 cm or more but less than 150 cm? 

A. 88 

B. 35 

C. 80 

D. 64 

Answer: D. 

Explanation: 

Number of girls have A. height of 135 cm or more but less than 150 cm = 20 + 29 + 15 = 64 

Q. 61 Sudhir purchased a laptop for ₹42,000 and  a scanner-cum-printer for ₹8,000. He sold the laptop for a 10% profit and  the scanner cum-printer for a 5% profit. What is his profit percentage? 

A. 9⅖ % 

B. 9⅕ %

C. 15 %

D. 7½ % 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

Cost price of laptop = Rs.42000 

Profit = 10% 

Selling price = 42000 ×110 /100= Rs.46200 Cost price of printer = Rs.8000 

Profit = 5%

Selling price = 8000 ×105 /100 = Rs.8400 Total selling price = 46200 + 8400 = Rs.54600 Total cost price = 42000 + 8000 = Rs.50000 Total profit = 54600 – 50000 = Rs.4600 

Total profit% = 4600/50000 × 100 = 9⅕ %

Q. 62 The following table shows the income(in rupees) for a particular month, together with their source, in respect of 5 employees (A, B, C, D and  E). 

How many employees got more arrears than the average arrears received by all the employees? 

A. 4 

B. 1 

C. 3 

D. 2 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

The average arrears received by all the employees = sum of terms/number of terms =(5500+4500+4000+3000+1500)/5 

= 18500/5 = 3700 

Required number = 3 

∴ 3 employees(A, B and C) got more arrears than the average arrears received by all the employees. 

Q. 63 In the figure, Two circles with centres P and  Q touch externally at R. Tangents AT and  BT meet the common tangent TR at T. If AP = 6 cm and  PT = 10 cm, then BT = ? 

A. 6 cm 

B. 8 cm 

C. 10 cm 

D. 12 cm 

Answer: B. 

Q. 64 If x − ¹/x = 11, then x³ − ¹/x³ = ? is: 

A. 1474 

B. 1364 

C. 1188 

D. 1298 

Answer: D. 

Explanation: 

x − ¹/x = 11

x³ − ¹/x³ = (x − ¹/x)³ -3(x − ¹/x)

∵ (a − b)³ = a³ − b³ − 3ab(a − b) 

= (11)³-3(11)

= 1331 – 33 = 1298 

Q. 65 The following table shows the monthly salaries (in ₹) of 50 families.

How many families have a monthly salary less than ₹40,000? 

A. 46 

B. 9 

C. 27 

D. 18 

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

Number of families which have monthly salary less than ₹40,000 = 6 + 12 + 9 = 27 

Q. 66 The greatest number which should be replace ‘*’ in the number 146*48 to make it divisible by 8 is: 

A. 8 

B. 9 

C. 2 

D. 0 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

For the divisible by 8, last 3 digits of the number shoulD. be divisible by 8 so, *48 divisible by 8. 

From the option A), 

Put the value of x = 8, 

Last 3 digit = 848 

It is divisible by 8 so, greatest value of * will be 8. 

Q. 67 The following table shows the number of students enrolled in different faculties in a college.

The percentage of students studying in faculties other than Science is: 

A. 60% 

B. 80% 

C. 75% 

D. 20% 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

Total number of student = 32 + 18 + 28 + 45 + 42 + 42 + 13 + 30 = 250 

Total number of student in Arts, commerce, vocational = 28 + 45 + 42 + 42 + 13 + 30 = 200 

Required percentage =200/250 × 100 = 80% 

Q. 68 The distance between two stations, A and  B, is 428 km. A train starts from station ‘A’ at 6:00 a.m. and  moves towards station ‘B’ at an average speed of 48 km/h. Another train starts from station ‘B’ at 6:20 a.m. and  moves towards station ‘A’ at an average speed of 55 km/h. At what time will the trains meet? 

A. 10 : 20 a.m. 

B. 9 : 40 a.m. 

C. 10 : 40 a.m. 

D. 10:00 a.m. 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

distance from A to B = 428 km 

Speed of train A = 48 km/hr 

Speed of train B = 55 km/hr 

Train A starts at 6:00 am and  B start at 6:20 so, 

distance covered by by train A in 20 min(20/60 hr) = speed × (20/60) = 48 × (1/3) = 16 km Remaining distance = 428 – 16 = 412 km 

Trains run in opposite direction so relative speed = 48 + 55 = 103 km/hr 

Time taken to meet = 412/103 = 4 hr 

Time when trains meet = 6:20 + 4 = 10:20 am 

Q. 69 A certain amount of money at compound interest grows to ₹66,550 in 3 years and  ₹73,205 in 4 years. The rate per cent per annum is: 

A. 9% 

B. 5% 

C. 11% 

D. 10% 

Answer: D. 

Explanation: 

difference in the interest in 4 years and  3 years = 73205 – 66550 = Rs.6655 

Rate percentage =6655 / 66550 × 100 = 10% 

Q. 70 The average height of 5 boys is 175 cm. a sixth boy joined the group and  the average height of all the boys in the group now increased by 1 cm. The height of the sixth boy is: 

A. 180 cm 

B. 181 cm 

C. 175 cm 

D. 179 cm 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

The average height of 5 boys = 175 cm 

Average = sum of all terms/number of terms 

Sum of the height of 5 boys = 175×5 = 875 

Average height after joining of 6th boys = 175 + 1 = 176 

Sum of the height of 6 boys = 176×6 = 1056 

Height of 6th boy = 1056 – 875 = 181 cm 

Q. 71 If angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4, then the measure of the smallest angle is: 

A. 50^∘

B. 30^∘

C. 40^∘

D. 20^∘

Answer: C. 

Explanation: 

Ratio of angles = 2 : 3 : 4 

Let the angles be 2x, 3x and  4x.  

We know the sum of the angles of a triangle is 180^∘ 

2x + 3x + 4x = 180^∘ 

x = 180^∘/9 = 20^∘

Smallest angle = 2x = 2 ×20 = 40^∘

Q. 72 Sixteen men can finish a work in 8 days. Eight men and  nine women working together can finish the same work in 10 days. In how many days will twenty women finish the same work? 

A. 9 

B. 12 

C. 11 

D. 13 

Answer: B. 

Explanation: 

Total work = man/woman × time 

Work is same so, 

16m × 8 = (8m + 9w) \times 10 

⇒ 128m = 80m + 90w 

⇒ 48m = 90w 

⇒ 8m = 15w 

Let the 20 women complete work in days so, 

Total work = 20w d 

⇒ (8m + 9w) × 10 = 20w d 

⇒ (15w + 9w) × 10 = 20w d 

⇒ 24w × 10 = 20w d 

⇒ d = 12 days 

∴ Twenty women finish the same work in 12 days. 

Q. 73 In the given figure, if ∠KLN = 58^∘, then ∠KMN =?

A. 26^∘ 

B. 42^∘ 

C. 58^∘

D. 32^∘ 

Answer: C. 

Q. 74 The value of √(tan 60^∘ + sin 90^∘) − 2 tan 45^∘ is: 

A. 0 

B. 2 

C. 4 

D. 1 

Answer: A. 

Explanation: 

√(tan 60^∘ + sin 90^∘) − 2 tan 45^∘ 

On putting the values, 

√{√3)² + 1} − 2 × 1 

= 2 – 2 = 0 

Q. 75 A certain amount is divided among Sunita, Amit and  Vibha in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4. If Vibha gets ₹14,416, then the total amount is: 

A. ₹16,219 

B. ₹3,604 

C. ₹43,248 

D. ₹32,436 

Answer: D. 

Explanation: 

Ratio of the amount of Sunita, Amit and  Vibha = 2 : 3 : 4 

Let the amount of Sunita, Amit and  Vibha be 2x, 3x and  4x. 

Amount of Vibha = 14416 

4x = 14416 

x = 14416/4 = 3604 

Total amount = 2x + 3x + 4x = 9x 

= 9 × 3604 

= Rs.32436 

English Comprehension 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No improvement. 

I wish if I was the Principal of my school. 

A. If I haD. been 

B. I were 

C. No improvement 

D. that I am 

Answer: B. 

Q. 77 Select the passive form of the given sentence. 

People claim to have seen the wild and  mad elephant in several cities. 

A. The wild and  mad elephant has been claimed to be seen by the people in several cities. 

B. The wild and  mad elephant is being claimed to be seen in several cities. 

C. The wild and  mad elephant is claimed to have been seen in several cities. 

D. The wild and  mad elephant was claimed to be seen by people in several cities. 

Answer: C. 

Q. 78 In the sentence identify the segment which contains the grammatical error. 

Lucy has already cut the cake when we reached the party hall. 

A. the party hall 

B. Lucy has already 

C. when we reached 

D. cut the cake 

Answer: D. 

Q. 79 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

A. There are many gadgets that are operated by a remote control and  contain a silicon chip. 

B. This produces an infra-red beam, made up of electromagnetic waves. 

C. When a button is pressed on the remote control, the chip sets off an electronic vibration. 

D. The beam carries a coded signal for operating the systems. 

A. ADdB 

B. ACD 

C. ACBD 

D. BACD 

Answer: C. 

Instructions 

Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Q. 80 Health should be our first priority and  should never be ______. 

A. neglected 

B. suspended 

C. discarded 

D. declined 

Answer: A. 

Q. 81 A colour blind person is not able to ______ between colours. 

A. glance 

B. distinguish 

C. define 

D. observe 

Answer: B. 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 

Comprehension: 

Corruption is one of the (1)______ problems of our country. It is an act done with (2)______ to gain some undue advantages, inconsistent with official duty. Government has (3)______ many schemes for the welfare of the people but corruption seems impossible to be (4)______ IndiA. can become A. corruption-free nation only when all the citizens (5)______ rules and  regulations with A. strong will power and  cooperate whole heartedly. 

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 1. 

A. powerful 

B. minor 

C. major 

D. strong 

Answer: C. 

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 2. 

A. compulsion 

B. intention 

C. intuition 

D. passion 

Answer: B. 

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 3. 

A. denounced 

B. written 

C. announced

D. concealed 

Answer: C. 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 4. 

A. eliminated 

B. permitted 

C. initiated 

D. created 

Answer: A. 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 5. 

A. reject 

B. disobey 

C. break 

D. follow 

Answer: D. 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 87 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. 

Hostile 

A. Amiable 

B. Violent 

C. Unfavourable 

D. Adverse 

Answer: A. 

Q. 88 Select the correctly spelt word. 

A. dfinite 

B. dfinete 

C. dfiniet 

D. dfinate 

Answer: A. 

Q. 89 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. 

Sluggish 

A. Active 

B. dll 

C. Sedentary 

D. Weak 

Answer: A. 

Q. 90 Identify the part of the sentence that contains the grammatical error. 

One of the greatest responsibilities of a scientist is that his discoveries and  inventions are utilized to the overall development of the nation. 

A. is that his discoveries and  inventions 

B. are utilized to the overall 

C. One of the greatest responsibilities of a scientist 

D. development of the nation 

Answer: B. 

Q. 91 Select the indirect narration of the given sentence. 

He said to me,” What time do the banks open and  close?” 

A. He asked me what time do the banks open and  close. 

B. He said me what time did the banks open and  close. 

C. He wanted to know what time the banks open and  close. 

D. He asked me what time the banks opened and  closed. 

Answer: D. 

Q. 92 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

deficiency 

A. Abundance 

B. Sufficiency 

C. Inadequacy 

D. Efficiency 

Answer: C. 

Q. 93 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

A. It is called the atmosphere. 

B. All parts of the earth are surrounded by air. 

C. Living beings breathe in and  breathe out the air all the time. 

D. This process is called respiration. 

A. DCB

B. BACD 

C. CBAD 

D. ACD 

Answer: B. 

Q. 94 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given Idiom. 

To add fuel to the fire. 

A. Exploit someone 

B. Simplify the problem 

C. To make A bad situation worse 

D. Calm down the situation 

Answer: C. 

Q. 95 Select the correctly spelt word. 

A. Commemorate 

B. Commemmorate 

C. Comemorate 

D. Comemmorate 

Answer: A. 

Q. 96 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given Idiom. 

Hobson’s Choice 

A. To be in an aggressive mood when facing A challenge 

B. To challenge an unworthy opponent 

C. An apparently free choice where there is no real alternative 

D. To exercise the choice to surrender before the enemy 

Answer: C. 

Instructions 

Select the most appropriate word that means the same as the group of words given. 

Q. 97 A short story with A moral, usually with animals as characters. 

A. Hymn 

B. Fable 

C. Parody 

D. Ode 

Answer: B. 

Q. 98 Enclosed area where aircraft are kept and  repaired 

A. Hangar 

B. Harbinger 

C. Hose 

D. Hanger 

Answer: A. 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 99 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If no substitution is required, select No improvement. 

Amit has the good command  on English as he was born and  brought up in England  

A. A better command  of 

B. the best command  in 

C. A good command over 

D. No improvement 

Answer: C. 

Q. 100 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

Catastrophic 

A. dsastrous 

B. Mysterious 

C. Tough 

D. dlicate 

Answer: A.