SSC CGL Tier-I 26 June 2011 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2011 26 Jun Shift 1

 

Q. 1  6:64::11:?

A. 144

B. 169

C. 121

D. 124

 

Q. 2  123:4::726:?

A. 23

B. 26

C. 14

D. 12

 

Q. 3 Fish:Scales::Bear:?

A. Feathers

B. Leaves

C. Fur

D. Skin

 

Q. 4 Writer:Pen::?

A. Needle:Tailor

B. Artist:Brush

C. Painter:Canvas

D. Teacher:Class

 

Q. 5 NUMERAL:UEALRMN::ALGEBRA:?

A. LRBAGEA

B. BARLAGE

C. LERAGBA

D. LERABGA

 

Q. 6 BDAC:FHEG::NPMO:?

A. RQTS

B. QTRC

C. TRQS

D. RTQS

 

Q. 7 FGHI:OPQR::BCDE:?

A. KLMJ

B. KLMN

C. IUVW

D. STUW

 

Q. 8 PNLJ:IGEC::VTRP:?

A. OMKI

B. RSTU

C. QSRC

D. QROM

 

Q. 9 19:60::20:?

A. 57

B. 69

C. 81

D. 93

 

Q. 10 Find the odd number from the given alternatives

A. 162

B. 405

C. 567

D. 644

 

Q. 11 Find the odd number from the given alternatives

A. 156

B. 201

C. 273

D. 645

 

Q. 12 Find the odd word from the given alternatives

A. Flute

B. Violin

C. Guitar

D. Sitar

 

Q. 13 Find the odd word from the given alternatives

A. Prod

B. Sap

C. Jab

D. Thrust

 

Q. 14 Find the odd word from the given alternatives

A. JKOP

B. MNST

C. CABD

D. OPWX

 

Q. 15 Find the odd word from the given alternatives

A. CAFD

B. TSWV

C. IGLJ

D. OMRP

 

Q. 16 In the following question, number of letters are skipped in between by particular rule. What of the following series observes the rules?

A. ABFGJK

B. ACFJOU

C. MPQSTV

D. ADFHJL

 

Q. 17 Find out the pair of numbers that does not belong to the group for lack of common property.

A. 11-115

B. 10-90

C. 9-72

D. 8-56

 

Q. 18 Which one of the following responses would be a meaning full descending order of the following?

1 Major

2 Captain

3 Colonel

4 Brigadier

5 Lt.General

A. 5,4,3,1,2

B. 5,1,4,2,3

C. 4,5,1,3,2

D. 3,4,2,5,1

 

Q. 19 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary

1 Dissident

2 Dissolve

3 Dissent

4 Dissolute

5 Dissolution

A. 3,1,4,5,2

B. 3,2,1,4,5

C. 3,1,4,2,5

D. 3,2,4,5,1

 

Q. 20 Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

__cb__cab__baca__cba__ab

A. cabcb

B. abccb

C. bacbc

D. bcaba

 

Q. 21 Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

4,196,16,169,?,144,64

A. 21

B. 81

C. 36

D. 32

 

Q. 22 Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

8,15,36,99,288,……?….

A. 368

B. 676

C. 855

D. 908

 

Q. 23 Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

XYZCBAUVWFE….?…..?….

A. DR

B. RS

C. DS

D. MN

 

Q. 24 Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

reoc,pgme,nikg,lkii….?….

A. acef

B. jmgk

C. efgh

D. wxyz

 

Q. 25 Among her children, Ganga’s favourites are Ram and Rekha. Rekha is the mother of sharat, who is loved by his uncle mithun. The head of the family is Ram lal, who is succeeded by his sons Gopal and Mohan, Gopal and Ganga have been married for 35 years and have 3 children. What is the relation between Mithun and Mohan?

A. Uncle

B. Son

C. Brother

D. No relation

 

Q. 26 Find the wrong number in the series.

6,9,15,22,51,99

A. 99

B. 51

C. 22

D. 15

 

Q. 27 In a row of girls, Kamla is 9th from the left and Veena is 16th from the right. If they interchange their positions, Kamla becomes 25th from the left. How many girls are there in the row?

A. 34

B. 36

C. 40

D. 41

 

Q. 28 Ravi has spend a quarter of his life as a boy, one fifth as a youth, one third as a man and 13 years in old age, What is his present age?

A. 70 years

B. 80 years

C. 60 years

D. 65 years

 

Q. 29 Five boys A,B,C,D,E are sitting in a park in a circle. A is facing south-west, D is facing southeast, B and E are right opposite A and D respectively and C is equidistant between D and B. Which direction is C facing?

A. West

B. South

C. North

D. East

 

Q. 30 At what time are the hands of clocks together between 6 and 7?

A. 32 8/11 minutes past 6

B. 34 8/11 minutes past 6

C. 30 8/11 minutes past 6

D. 32 5/7 minutes past 6

 

Q. 31 Out of 100 families in the neighbourhood, 50 have radios, 75 have Tvs and 25 has VCRs. Only 10 families has all 3 and each VCR owner also has a TV. If some families have radio only, how many have TV only?

A. 30

B. 35

C. 40

D. 45

 

Q. 32 Suresh was born on 4th october 1999. Shashikanth was born 6 days before Suresh. The independence day of that year fell on Sunday. Which day was Shashikanth born?

A. Tuesday

B. Wednesday

C. Monday

D. Sunday

 

Q. 33 From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:

‘CONCENTRATION’

A. CONCERN

B. NATION

C. TRAIN

D. CENTRE

 

Q. 34 In a certain office, 1/3 of the workers are women, 1/2 of the mend are married and 1/3 of the married women have children. If 3/4 men are married and 2/3 men have children, then what part of workers is without children?

A. 5/18

B. 4/9

C. 11/18

D. 17/36

 

Q. 35 If a man on a moped starts from a point and 4 km south, then turns and rides 2 km to turn again to the right to ride 4 km more, towards which direction is he moving?

A. North

B. West

C. East

D. South

 

Q. 36 Ganesh cycles towards south-west a distance of 8 m, then he moves towards east a distance of 20 m, from there he moves towards north-east a distance of 8 m, then he moves towards west a distance of 6 m. From there he moves towards north-east a distance of 2 m. Then he moves towards west a distance of 4 m and then he moves towards southwest a distance of 2 m and stops at that point. How far is he from the starting point?

A. 12 m

B. 10 m

C. 8 m

D. 6 m

 

Q. 37 Two statements are given by 4 inferences. Select the alternative which is most appropriate.

Statements:

1 India is becoming industrial.

2 Pollution is a problem associated with industrialization.

Inferences:

1 All industrial centers are polluted.

2 India is polluted

3 Polluted nations are industrialized

4 India may become polluted

A. All are appropriate

B. None is appropriate

C. only 4 is appropriate

D. Only 2 is appropriate

 

Q. 38 From the given alternative words, select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word:

‘DETERMINATION’

A. DECLARATION

B. NATIONAL

C. TERMINATED

D. DEVIATED

 

Q. 39 If in a certain code HYDROGEN is written as JCJZYSSD, then how ANTIMONY be written in that code?

A. CPVKOQPA

B. CRZQWABO

C. ERXMQSRC

D. GTZOSUTE

 

Q. 40 If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662 then how can CALICUT coded?

A. 5279431

B. 5978013

C. 8251896

D. 8543691

 

Q. 41 Select the missing numbers from the given responses

A. 8

B. 3

C. 6

D. 36

 

Q. 42 Select the missing numbers from the given responses

A. 60

B. 68

C. 55

D. 65

 

Q. 43 How many rectangles are there in the given diagram?

A. 4

B. 7

C. 9

D. 18

 

Q. 44 Which of the following diagrams represents the relationship among Sun , Moon and Star?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 45 Some equations have been solved on the basis of a certain system. Find the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.

If 9*7 = 32, 13*7 = 120, 17*9 = 208, then 19*11 = ?

A. 150

B. 180

C. 210

D. 240

 

Q. 46 Forecast the growth rate for the year 1995 from the following data:

A. 7.8

B. 8.6

C. 9.7

D. 9.9

 

Q. 47 If ‘-‘ stands for ‘/’ , ‘+’ stand for ‘*’, ‘/’ for ‘-‘ and ‘*’ for ‘+’, which one of the following equation is correct?

A. 30-6+5*4/2 = 27

B. 30+6-5/4*2 = 30

C. 30*6/5-4+2 = 32

D. 30/6*5+4-2 = 40

 

Q. 48 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the questions figure is hidden/embedded.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 49 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the correct image of the given question figures?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 50 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 51 Judicial review in the indian constitution is based on :

A. Rule of law

B. Due process of law

C. Procedure established by law

D. Precedents and conventions

 

Q. 52 The drafting of the constitution was completed on:

A. 26th jan 1950

B. 26th dec 1949

C. 26th nov 1949

D. 30th nov 1949

 

Q. 53 Who was the president of the constitution assembly?

A. pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru

B. Sardar patel

C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

D. Dr. B.R.Ambedkar

 

Q. 54 Which innovative discussion process is introduced by the Indian parliament to the world parliamentary system?

A. Question hour

B. Zero hour

C. Resolutions

D. Presidential speech

 

Q. 55 The judges of the supreme court retire at the age of:

A. 60 years

B. 65 years

C. 62 years

D. 58 years

 

Q. 56 When there is an official change in the exchange rate of domestic currency, then it is called:

A. Appreciation

B. Depreciation

C. Revalution

D. Deflation

 

Q. 57 Inflation redistributes income and wealth in favour of:

A. Pensioners

B. Poor

C. Middle class

D. rich

 

Q. 58 The fringe benefit tax was introduced in the budget of:

A. 2003-04

B. 2004-05

C. 2005-06

D. 2006-07

 

Q. 59 In the budget estimates for 2011-12, an allocation of: 400 crore has been made to bring in green revolution in the east in the cropping system of:

A. Wheat

B. Rice

C. Jowar

D. Pulses

 

Q. 60 As announced by finance minister in his budget speech on 28-2-2011, the income tax exemption limit for individuals other than senior citizens and women has been raised to

A. Rs. 1,80,000

B. Rs. 1,90,000

C. Rs. 2,00,000

D. Rs. 2,50,000

 

Q. 61 Who among the following british persons, admitted the revolt of 1857 as a national revolt?

A. Lord Dalhousie

B. Lord Canning

C. Lord Ellenborough

D. Lord Disraeli

 

Q. 62 The greek ambassador sent to chandragupta maurya’s court was:

A. Kautilya

B. Seleucus Nicator

C. Megasthenes

D. Justin

 

Q. 63 Identify the European power from whom shivaji obtained cannons and ammunitions

A. The french

B. The Portuguese

C. The dutch

D. The English

 

Q. 64 The call of “Back to vedas” was given by

A. Swami vivekananda

B. swami dayanand saraswati

C. aurobindo ghosh

D. raja ram mohan roy

 

Q. 65 Simon commission was boycotted by the, nationalist leaders of india because

A. they felt it was only an eyewash

B. all the members of the commission were english

C. the members of the commissions were biased against india

D. it did not meet the demands of indians

 

Q. 66 The lowest layer of atmosphere is

A. Stratosphere

B. thermosphere

C. Troposphere

D. Mesosphere

 

Q. 67 The konkan railway connects

A. Goa – mangalore

B. Roha – mangalore

C. Kanyakumari – mangalore

D. Kanyakumari – Mumbai

 

Q. 68 Bark of this tree is used as a condiment

A. Cinnamon

B. Clove

C. Neem

D. Palm

 

Q. 69 How much of the earth’s land surface is desert?

A. 1/10th

B. 1/5th

C. 1/3rd

D. 1/6th

 

Q. 70 Which of the following is called the ‘shrimp capital of India’?

A. Mangalore

B. Nagapatnam

C. Kochi

D. Nellore

 

Q. 71 River indus originates from

A. Hindukush range

B. Himalayan range

C. Karakoram range

D. Kailash range

 

Q. 72 The atmospheric air is held to the earth by

A. gravity

B. winds

C. cloud

D. rotation of earth

 

Q. 73 The function of ball bearings in a ring is

A. to increase friction

B. to convert kinetic friction into rolling friction

C. to convert static friction into kinetic friction

D. just for convenience

 

Q. 74 ‘Shock – absorbers’ are usually made of steel as it

A. is not brittle

B. has lower elasticity

C. has higher elasticity

D. hasno ductile property

 

Q. 75 The first computer made available for commercial use was

A. MANIAC

B. ENIAC

C. UNIVAC

D. EDSAC

 

Q. 76 A communications network which is used by large organisations over regional, national or global area is called

A. LAN

B. WAN

C. MAN

D. VAN

 

Q. 77 Who was the architecture of north and south blocks of the central secretariat in Delhi?

A. Sir edward lutyens

B. Herbert Baker

C. Robert tor Russell

D. Antonin Raymond

 

Q. 78 Saliva helps in the digestion of

A. Fats

B. Starch

C. Proteins

D. Vitamins

 

Q. 79 The longest bone in the human body is

A. Ulna

B. Humerus

C. Femur

D. Tibia

 

Q. 80 Red data book gives information about species which are

A. extinct

B. endangered

C. dangerous

D. rare

 

Q. 81 Which of the following is the smallest bird?

A. pigeon

B. parrot

C. Humming bird

D. Houise sparrow

 

Q. 82 The time period of a pendulum when taken to the moon would

A. remain the same

B. decrease

C. become zero

D. increase

 

Q. 83 Indian army’s operation ‘Saiyam’ was related to

A. Kashmir

B. Indo-China border in central region

C. North-East

D. Indo-pak border in punjab and rajasthan

 

Q. 84 Which of the following can be used as fuel in propellant or rockets?

A. Liquid Hydrogen + Liquid Nitrogen

B. Liquid oxygen + Liquid argon

C. Liquid nitrogen + Liquid oxygen

D. Liquid hydrogen + Liquid oxygen

 

Q. 85 The addition of gypsum of portland cement helps in

A. increasing the strength of cement

B. rapid setting of cement

C. preventing rapid setting of cement

D. reduction in the cost of cement

 

Q. 86 White lung disease is prevalent among the workers of

A. paper industry

B. cement industry

C. Cotton industry

D. pesticide industry

 

Q. 87 Iodoform is used as an

A. antipyretic

B. analgestic

C. antiseptic

D. anaesthetic

 

Q. 88 An artificial ecosystem is represented by

A. pisciculture tank

B. agricultural land

C. zoo

D. aquarium

 

Q. 89 The constituents of automobile exhaust that can cause cancer are

A. Oxides of nitrogen

B. Carbon monoxide

C. Polycyclic hydrocarbon

D. lead

 

Q. 90 The optimum dissolved oxygen level required for survival of aquatic organisms is

A. 4 – 6

B. 2 – 4

C. 8 – 10

D. 12 – 16

 

Q. 91 The world’s only floating national park is situated in

A. Manipur

B. Kuala Lumpur

C. Bilaspur

D. Dispur

 

Q. 92 According to the latest ‘Education development Index’ based on a series of surveys conducted by the national university of education, planning and administration and released in feb 2011, the state with the highest development index is

A. Tamil naidu

B. Kerala

C. Punjab

D. Gujarat

 

Q. 93 The ‘project snow leopard’ to conserve the endangered species, launched by the union ministry of environment and forests covers the states of

A. Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal pradesh only

B. Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal pradesh and uttarakhand only

C. Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal pradesh, uttarakhand and arunachal pradesh only

D. Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal pradesh, uttarakhand and arunachal pradesh and sikkim

 

Q. 94 In the railway budget for 2011-2012, an outlay of Rs.57,630 crore has been announced for adding new lines with length of

A. 1000 km

B. 1200 km

C. 1300 km

D. 1500 km

 

Q. 95 The strong earthquake-cum-tsunami which has moved japan’s main island by a few feet and has caused the earth’s axis to wobble is expected to lead to the shortening of the day by

A. 1.6 microseconds

B. 2.3 microseconds

C. 3.1 microseconds

D. 3.4 microseconds

 

Q. 96 Which of the following folk/tribal dances is associated with uttar pradesh

A. veedhi

B. thora

C. tamasha

D. rauf

 

Q. 97 Which of the following books has been written by atiq rahimi

A. earth and ashes

B. This savage rite

C. The red devil

D. Witness the night

 

Q. 98 Who is the recipient of the sahitya akademi award 2010 in hindi literatur category?

A. uday prakash

B. laxman dubey

C. nanjil nandan

D. mangat badal

 

Q. 99 The 2010 FIFA World cup final was held at

A. Paris

B. Berlin

C. Johannesburg

D. London

 

Q. 100 Who received sangeet natak akademi’s ustad bismillah khan yuva puruskar for 2009 in ‘hindustani vocal music’?

A. Omkar shrikant dadarkar

B. ragini chander shekar

C. abanti chakravorty and sukracharya rabha

D. k. nellai Manikandan

 

Q. 101 The value of given equation is

A. 4

B. 0

C. √2

D. 3√6

 

Q. 102 What is the answer of the given equation

A. 2.3

B. 3

C. 6

D. 6.3

 

Q. 103 What is the square root of the given equation

A. √3 + √2

B. √3 – √2

C. √2 +_ √3

D. √2 – √3

 

Q. 104 The remainder when 3²¹ is divided is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 105 What is the value of the given equation?

A. 38/109

B. 109/38

C. 1

D. 116/109

 

Q. 106 The last digit of (1001)²⁰⁰⁸ + 1002 is

A. 0

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6

 

Q. 107 The given equation is equal to?

A. 5/9

B. 1-1/7

C. 4/7

D. 1-2/7

 

Q. 108 If the sum of two numbers be multiplied by each number separately, the product so obtained are 247 and 114. The sum of the numbers is

A. 19

B. 20

C. 21

D. 23

 

Q. 109 Find a number, one-seventh of which exceeds its eleventh part by 100

A. 1925

B. 1825

C. 1540

D. 1340

 

Q. 110 If x*y = (x+3)²(y-1) then the value of 5 * 4 is

A. 192

B. 182

C. 180

D. 172

 

Q. 111 Answer of the given equation is

A. 10

B. 100

C. 1000

D. none of these

 

Q. 112 If 9√x = √12 + √147 then x = ?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

 

Q. 113 A and B can complete a piece of work in 8 days, B and C can do it in 12 days, C and A can do it in 8 days.A,B and C together can complete it in

A. 4 days

B. 5 days

C. 6 days

D. 7 days

 

Q. 114 X is 3 times as fast as Y and is able to complete the work in 40 days less then Y. Then the time in which they can complete the work together is

A. 15 days

B. 10 days

C. 7.5 days

D. 5 days

 

Q. 115 A copper wire is bent in the shape of a square of area 81 cm². If the same wire is bent in the form of a semicircle, the radius of the semicircle is (take pie = 22/7)

A. 16

B. 14

C. 10

D. 7

 

Q. 116 The volume (in m³) of rain water that can be collected from 1.5 hectares of ground in a rainfall of 5 cm is

A. 75

B. 750

C. 7500

D. 75000

 

Q. 117 A river 3 m deep and 40 m wide is flowing at the rate of 2 km per hour. How much water (in liters) will fall in the sea in a minute?

A. 4,00,000

B. 40,00,000

C. 40,000

D. 4,000

 

Q. 118 The L.C.M of three different number is 120. Which of the following cannot be their H.C.F?

A. 8

B. 12

C. 24

D. 35

 

Q. 119 A number when divided by 49 leaves 32 as reminder. This number when divided by 7 will have the reminder as

A. 2

B. 3

C. 2

D. 5

 

Q. 120 In an examination a student scores 4 marks for every correct answers and loses 1 mark for every wrong answer. If he attempts all 75 questions and secures 125 marks, the number of questions he attempted correctly is

A. 35

B. 40

C. 42

D. 46

 

Q. 121 The traffic lights at three different road crossings changes after 24 seconds, 36 seconds and 54 seconds respectively. If they all change simultaneously at 10:15:00 am, then at what time will then change again

A. 10:16:54 am

B. 10:18:36 am

C. 10:17:02 am

D. 10:22:12 am

 

Q. 122 A can do a work in 12 days. When he had worked for 3 days, B joined him. If they can complete the work in 3 days, in how many days can B alone finish the work?

A. 6 days

B. 12 days

C. 4 days

D. 8 days

 

Q. 123 Among three numbers, the first is twice the second and thrice the third. If the average of the three numbers is 49.5, then the difference between the first and the third number is

A. 54

B. 28

C. 39.5

D. 41.5

 

Q. 124 The mean of 50 numbers is 30. Later it was discovered that two entries were wrongly entered as 82 and 13 instead of 28 and 31. Find the correct mean.

A. 36.12

B. 30.66

C. 29.28

D. 38.21

 

Q. 125 A bicycle wheel makes 5000 revolutions in moving 11 km. Then the radius of the wheel (in am) is (take pie = 22/7)

A. 70

B. 35

C. 17.5

D. 140

 

Q. 126 The perimeter of a triangle is 40 cm and its area is 60 cm². If the largest side measures 17cm, then the length (in cm ) of the smallest side of the triangle is

A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 15

 

Q. 127 A shopkeeper allows a discount of 10 % to his customers and still gains 20%. Find the market price of the article which costs?

A. Rs 600

B. Rs 540

C. Rs 660

D. 580

 

Q. 128 What single discount is equivalent to two successive discounts of 20 % and 15%?

A. 35%

B. 32%

C. 34%

D. 30%

 

Q. 129 In a business partnership among A,B,C and D the profit is hard as follows:

What is the total profit

A. Rs 21,12,500

B. Rs 1,37,500

C. Rs 90,000

D. Rs 2,70,000

 

Q. 130 A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in ratio 7:5. When 9 liters of mixture are drawn off the can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7:9. Liters of liquid A contained by the can initially was

A. 10

B. 20

C. 21

D. 25

 

Q. 131 What number should be added to or subtracted from each term of the ratio 17 : 24 so that it becomes equal to 1 : 2?

A. 5 is subtracted

B. 10 is added

C. 7 is added

D. 10 is subtracted

 

Q. 132 The ratio of weekly income of A and B is 9 : 7 and the ratio of their expenditures is 4 : 3. If each saves Rs. 200 per week, then the sum of their weekly income is?

A. Rs 3600

B. Rs 4200

C. Rs 4800

D. Rs 5600

 

Q. 133 If 30% of A is added to 40% of B, the answer is 80 % of B. What percent of A is B?

A. 30%

B. 40%

C. 70%

D. 75%

 

Q. 134 A man can row 6 km/h in still water. If the speed of current is 2 km/h , it takes 3 hours more in upstream than in downstream for the same distance. The distance is

A. 30 km

B. 24 km

C. 20 km

D. 32 km

 

Q. 135 If the selling price of 10 articles is equal to the cost price of 11 articles, then the gain percentage is

A. 10

B. 11

C. 15

D. 25

 

Q. 136 While selling a watch, a shopkeeper gives discount of 5%. If he gives discount of 6%, he earns Rs.15 less as profit. What is the marked price of the watch?

A. Rs 1250

B. Rs 1400

C. Rs 1500

D. Rs 750

 

Q. 137 Krishna purchased a number of articles for Rs.10 for each and the same number for Rs.14 each. He mixed them together and sold them for Rs.13 each. Then his gain or loss percent is :

A. Loss 8 1/3 %

B. Gain 8 2/3%

C. Loss 8 2/3%

D. Gain 8 1/3%

 

Q. 138 A trader bought two horses for Rs.19500. He sold one at a loss of 20% and other at a profit of 15%. If the selling price of each horse is the same then the cost price of them respectively are

A. Rs.10000 and Rs.9500

B. Rs.11500 and Rs.8000

C. Rs.12000 and Rs.7500

D. Rs.10500 and Rs.9000

 

Q. 139 The cost price of an article is 40% of the selling price. What percent of the cost price is the selling price?

A. 140%

B. 200%

C. 220%

D. 250%

 

Q. 140 IF 90% of A = 30% of B and B = 2x% of A, then the value of x is

A. 450

B. 400

C. 300

D. 150

 

Q. 141 When the price of sugar decreases by 10%, a man could by 1 kg more for Rs.270. Then the original price of sugar per kg is

A. Rs. 25

B. Rs. 30

C. Rs. 27

D. Rs. 32

 

Q. 142 If the price of sugar is raised by 25%, find by how much percent a householder must reduce his consumption of sugar so as not to increase his expenditure?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 18

D. 25

 

Q. 143 The difference between the compound interest and simple interest on Rs. 10000 for two years is Rs. 25. The rate of interest per annum is

A. 5%

B. 7%

C. 10%

D. 12%

 

Q. 144 A student goes to school at the rate of 2-1/2 km/h and reaches 6 minutes late. If he travels at the speed of 3km/h, he is 10 minutes early. The distance between the school and his house is (in km)

A. 5

B. 4

C. 3

D. 1

 

Q. 145 A sum of money placed at compound interest doubles itself in 4 years. In how many years will it amount to 4 times itself?

A. 12 years

B. 13 years

C. 8 years

D. 16 years

 

Q. 146 The simple interest on a sum for 5 years is one-fourth of the sum. The rate of interest per annum is

A. 5%

B. 6%

C. 4%

D. 8%

 

Q. 147 The following graph shows the demand and production of cotton by 5 companies. Observe it and answer the question

The production of company D is how many times that of the production of company A?

A. 1.8

B. 1.5

C. 0.5

D. 0.4

 

Q. 148 The following graph shows the demand and production of cotton by 5 companies. Observe it and answer the question

The demand of company B is what percent of demand for company C?

A. 1.5

B. 2.5

C. 25

D. 30

 

Q. 149 The following graph shows the demand and production of cotton by 5 companies. Observe it and answer the question

What is the ratio of companies having more demand than production to those having more production then demand?

A. 2:3

B. 4:1

C. 3:2

D. 1:4

 

Q. 150 The following graph shows the demand and production of cotton by 5 companies. Observe it and answer the question

What is the difference (in tonnes) between average demand and average production of the five companies taken together?

A. 320

B. 420

C. 2100

D. 1050

 

Q. 151 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. His son

B. is working

C. very hardly

D. no error

 

Q. 152 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. Do you know that it was I

B. who has done

C. this piece of beautiful work?

D. no error

 

Q. 153 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. The company has ordered

B. some

C. new equipments

D. no error

 

Q. 154 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. The future of food companies

B. seems quite secure

C. owed to ever growing demand

D. no error

 

Q. 155 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. The vaccine

B. When hit the indian market

C. is dogged by controversy

D. no error

 

Q. 156 If you had followed the rules, you _______ disqualified.

A. will not be

B. would not be

C. will not have been

D. would not have been

 

Q. 157 The housewife ____ the cakes burning, and ran to switch off the oven

A. Smell

B. Smells

C. Smelt

D. Smelling

 

Q. 158 _____ an old legend, King Shirharm lived in India.

A. In the event of

B. Due to

C. According to

D. In reference to

 

Q. 159 _____ you leave no, you will be late.

A. Until

B. Till

C. Unless

D. Although

 

Q. 160 The ____ were arrested for illegally hunting the bears.

A. Poachers

B. rangers

C. soldiers

D. villagers

 

Q. 161 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

GENIAL

A. cordial

B. Unselfish

C. Careful

D. Specific

 

Q. 162 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

ACCRUE

A. Accumluate

B. Accommodate

C. Grow

D. Suffice

 

Q. 163 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

LOQUACIOUS

A. Talkative

B. slow

C. Content

D. Unclear

 

Q. 164 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

VINDICTIVE

A. Imaginative

B. Accusative

C. Spiteful

D. Aggressive

 

Q. 165 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

INCLEMENT

A. Selfish

B. Active

C. Unfavorable

D. Inactive

 

Q. 166 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

SYNTHETIC

A. Natural

B. Plastic

C. Cosmetic

D. Apathetic

 

Q. 167 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

ACCORD

A. Disagreement

B. Welcome

C. Disrespect

D. Confromity

 

Q. 168 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

INFIRMITY

A. Employment

B. Indisposition

C. Strength

D. Weakness

 

Q. 169 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

FEASIBLE

A. Useful

B. Impractical

C. Uneven

D. Important

 

Q. 170 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

METICULOUS

A. Forgetful

B. Destructive

C. Careless

D. Flagrant

 

Q. 171 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

To be all at sea

A. a family voyage

B. lost and confused

C. in the middle of the ocean

D. a string of islands

 

Q. 172 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

TO take to one’s heels

A. to walk slowly

B. to run away

C. to march forward

D. to hop and jump

 

Q. 173 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

To bite the dust

A. cat voraciously

B. have nothing to eat

C. cat roots

D. none of the above

 

Q. 174 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

A bolt from the blue

A. a delayed event

B. an inexplicable event

C. an unexpected event

D. an unpleasant event

 

Q. 175 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

Cold comfort

A. absurdity

B. deception

C. slight satisfaction

D. foolish proposal

 

Q. 176 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

My friend lives in a nearby street WHOSE NAME i have forgotten

A. the name of which

B. which name

C. of which name

D. no improvement

 

Q. 177 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

HE BOTH WON A MEDAL AND A SCHOLARSHIP

A. He won a medal and a scholarship both

B. Both he won a medal and a scholarship

C. He won both a medal and a scholarship

D. No improvement

 

Q. 178 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

HE HAS FOR GOOD LEFT INDIA

A. He has left for good

B. He has left india for good

C. Good he has left india

D. No improvement

 

Q. 179 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

WE ARE CREDIBLY INFORMED THAT THE MURDERER HAS GIVEN HIMSELF UP.

A. We are informed that the murderer has credibly given himself up

B. We are informed that the murderer has given credibly himself up

C. We are informed that credibly the murderer has given up himself

D. No improvement

 

Q. 180 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

We generally select ONE OF THE MOST INTELLIGENT STUDENT OF THE SCHOOL for this award

A. one of the most intelligent student of school

B. one of the intelligent most student of school

C. one of the intelligent most students of the school

D. no improvement

 

Q. 181 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

Pertaining to cattle

A. Canine

B. Feline

C. Bovine

D. Verminous

 

Q. 182 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

To look at someone in an angry or threatening way

A. Glower

B. Gnaw

C. Gnash

D. Grind

 

Q. 183 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

A post with little work but high salary

A. Director

B. Trustee

C. Sinecure

D. Ombudsman

 

Q. 184 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

Something that causes death

A. Dangerous

B. Fatal

C. Brutal

D. Horrible

 

Q. 185 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

A person who writes decoratively

A. Calligrapher

B. Collier

C. Choreographer

D. Cartographer

 

Q. 186 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. malaign

B. arraign

C. asigne

D. degine

 

Q. 187 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. harrassment

B. embarrasment

C. fulfillment

D. denoument

 

Q. 188 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. agnostik

B. accomplice

C. advercity

D. acrimonous

 

Q. 189 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. dysentery

B. momentary

C. cementary

D. comentary

 

Q. 190 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. ebulient

B. jubilant

C. iminent

D. tolemt

 

Q. 191 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. problem

B. question

C. matter

D. query

 

Q. 192 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. around

B. out

C. about

D. on

 

Q. 193 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. since

B. during

C. around

D. from

 

Q. 194 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. ideas

B. opinions

C. stories

D. matters

 

Q. 195 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. solution

B. novel

C. book

D. answer

 

Q. 196 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. read

B. think

C. open

D. guess

 

Q. 197 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. now

B. time

C. then

D. ago

 

Q. 198 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. moon

B. time

C. earth

D. mars

 

Q. 199 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. part

B. division

C. opening

D. center

 

Q. 200 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. end

B. begin

C. think

D. work

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer B D C C C D B A B D
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer A A B C B B A A A C
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer C C A B D C C C D A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer C B D C D B C C A C
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer C D D D D C A C C C
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer C C C C B C D C B A
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer D C B B B C B A B D
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer D A B C C B B B C B
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer C D D D B D C D D A
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer A B D C C B A A C A
Question 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer B B A C A B B A A A
Question 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer B B C A D B D D A
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer B A A C B C A B C C
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer D C D B A C D B D D
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer B B A B C A A C C B
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer C B D C C D C C C A
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer A A A C C A A C B C
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer B B D C C D C B A A
Question 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Answer C A C B A B C B A B
Question 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Answer C C D B D B D C A C

SSC CGL Tier-I 16 May 2010 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2010 16 May Shift 1

Directions (1-8): In each of the following questions, select the related letters/word/number from the given alternatives.

Q. 1 ACEG : SUWY :: BDFH : ?

A. TVZX

B. RTZV

C. TVXZ

D. RTVZ

 

Q. 2 M/AC : N/AD :: O/AE : ?

A. P/AF

B. Q/AB

C. P/AC

D. R/AD

 

Q. 3 5 : 27 :: 9 : ?

A. 83

B. 81

C. 36

D. 18

 

Q. 4 6 : 11 :: 11 : ?

A. 6

B. 17

C. 20

D. 30

 

Q. 5 ABE : 8 :: KLO : ?

A. 37

B. 39

C. 38

D. 36

 

Q. 6 Sty : Pig : : Byre : ?

A. Eagle

B. Cow

C. Tiger

D. Hen

 

Q. 7 Patrol : Security : : Insurance : ?

A. Money

B. Policy

C. Savings

D. Risk

 

Q. 8 ADBC : EHFG :: ILJK : ?

A. MOPN

B. MPNO

C. ORPQ

D. MPON

 

Q. 9 Select the different one.

A. 25 , 36

B. 144 , 169

C. 100 , 121

D. 9 , 64

 

Q. 10 Select the different one.

A. heat

B. light

C. bulb

D. electricity

 

Q. 11 Select the different one.

A. wave

B. current

C. tide

D. storm

 

Q. 12 Select the different one.

A. X

B. Y

C. H

D. D

 

Q. 13 Select the different one.

A. ZKXJ

B. CMAL

C. TGRF

D. FRTK

 

Q. 14 Select the different one.

A. ABJNM

B. QRTUZ

C. IXYOQ

D. WFGOP

 

Q. 15 Arrange the following words according to the dictionary ?

1. Inventory

2. Involuntary

3. Invisible

4. Invariable

5. Investigate

A. 4 , 2 , 5 , 3 , 1

B. 4 , 5 , 1 , 3 , 2

C. 2 , 5 , 4 , 1 , 3

D. 4 , 1 , 5 , 3 , 2

 

Q. 16 Find the next two letters in the given series. B C E H L ?

A. XY

B. MN

C. QW

D. OP

 

Q. 17 Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?

a_ b_ a_ _n_bb_abbn

A. abnabb

B. bnbban

C. bnbbna

D. babban

 

Q. 18 Find out a set of numbers amongst the four sets of numbers given in the alternatives, which is the most similar to the numbers given in the question. Given : (6, 30, 90)

A. 6 , 42 , 86

B. 7 , 42 , 218

C. 6 , 24 , 70

D. 8 , 48 , 192

 

Q. 19 Which one number is wrong in the given series?

126, 98, 70, 41, 14

A. 98

B. 70

C. 126

D. 41

 

Q. 20 Arrange the following in the meaningful/logical order

1. Exhaust

2. Night

3. Day

4. Sleep

5. Work

A. 1 , 3 , 5 , 2 , 4

B. 3 , 5 , 1 , 4 , 2

C. 3 , 5 , 1 , 2 , 4

D. 3 , 5 , 2 , 1 , 4

 

Q. 21   3, 4, 7, 11, 18, 29,…?…

A. 31

B. 39

C. 43

D. 47

 

Q. 22 AGMSY, CIOUA, EKQWC,…?… IOUAG, KQWCI

A. GMSYE

B. FMSYE

C. GNSYD

D. FMYES

 

Q. 23   975, 864, 753, 642,…?…

A. 431

B. 314

C. 531

D. 532

 

Q. 24   8, 24, 12,…?…18,54

A. 28

B. 36

C. 46

D. 38

 

Q. 25 Ashok’s mother was 3 times as old as Ashok 5 years ago. After 5 years she will be twice as old as Ashok. How old is Ashok today ?

A. 10 years

B. 15 years

C. 20 years

D. 25 years

 

Q. 26 M is the son of P. Q is the grand daughter of 0 who is the husband of P. How is M related to O?

A. son

B. daughter

C. mother

D. father

 

Q. 27 In a row of boys, Srinath is 7th from the left and Venkat is 12th from the right. If they interchange their positions, Srinath becomes 22nd from the left. How many boys are there in the row ?

A. 19

B. 31

C. 33

D. 34

 

Q. 28 From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word Given :

IMPASSIONABLE

A. IMPASSABLE

B. IMPOSSIBLE

C. IMPASSIVE

D. IMPASSION

 

Q. 29 Only one meaningful word can be formed by rearranging the letter of the given jumbled word. Find out that word.

Given : MUSPOPAPOTIH

A. METAMORPHIC

B. PHILANTHROPIST

C. HIPPOCAMPUS

D. HIPPOPOTAMUS

 

Q. 30 Which number is wrong in the given series ?

1, 9, 25, 50, 81

A. 1

B. 25

C. 50

D. 81

 

Q. 31 A bus leaves Delhi with half the number of women as men. A Meerut, ten men get down and live women get in. Now there are equa number of men and women. Ho many passengers boarded the bus initially at Delhi ?

A. 36

B. 45

C. 15

D. 30

 

Q. 32 If the day before yesterday wa Sunday, what day will it be thre days after the day after tomorrow

A. Sunday

B. Monday

C. Wednesday

D. Saturday

 

Q. 33 Directions (33): In the following question, one statement is given followed by two assumptions I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given

assumptions, if any, follow from the given statement.

Statement: Politicians become rich by the votes of the people.

Assumptions: I. People vote to make politician rich.

II. Politicians become rich by their virtue.

A. Only I is implicit

B. Only II is implicit

C. Both I and II are implicit

D. Both I and II are not implicit

 

Q. 34 Directions (34): In the following question, two statements P and Q are given followed by four conclusions I II, III and IV. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if the seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide whit of the given conclusions, if any, folio the given statements.

Statements:

P. All men are women.

Q. All women are crazy.

Conclusions :

I. All men are crazy.

II. All the crazy are men.

III. Some of the crazy are men.

IV. Some of the crazy are women

A. None of the conclusions follow

B. All the conclusions follow

C. Only I, III and IV follow

D. Only II and III follow

 

Q. 35 If HOSPITAL is written as 32574618 in a certain code, how would POSTAL be written in that code?

A. 752618

B. 725618

C. 725168

D. 725681

 

Q. 36 Find the missing number from the given responses.

173 (24) 526

431 (18) 325

253 (?) 471

A. 22

B. 42

C. 30

D. 6

 

Q. 37 After interchanging ÷ and +, 12 and 18, which one of the following equations becomes correct?

A. (90 x 18) + 18 = 60

B. (18 +6) ÷ 12 = 2

C. (72 =18) x 18 = 72

D. (12 + 6) x 18 = 36

 

Q. 38 If SPARK is coded as TQBSL, what will be the code for FLAME ?

A. GMBNF

B. GNBNF

C. GMCND

D. GMBMF

 

Q. 39 Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on the basis of the given equations. If 6*5 = 91

8 * 7 = 169

10*7 = 211

then 11 * 10 = ?

A. 331

B. 993

C. 678

D. 845

 

Q. 40 A child is looking for his father. He went 90 metres in the east before turning to his right. He went 20 metres before turning to his right again to look for his father at his uncle’s place 30 metres from this point. His father was not here. From here he went 100 metres to his north before meeting his father in a street. How far did the son meet his father from the starting point?

A. 90 m

B. 100 m

C. 260 m

D. 140 m

 

Q. 41 In the following question, A stands for any of the mathematical signs at different places, which are given as choices under each question. Select the choice with the correct sequence of signs which when substituted makes the question as a correct equation.

24 D 4 D 5 D 4

A. x + =

B. = x +

C. + x =

D. = + x

 

Q. 42 What is the number missing from the third target?

5 9 15

16 29 ?

49 89 147

A. 45

B. 48

C. 51

D. 54

 

Q. 43 In a classroom, there are 5 rows, and 5 children A, B, C, D and E are seated one behind the other in 5 separate rows as follows: A is sitting behind C, but in front of B. C is sitting behind E. D is sitting in front of E. The order in which they are sitting from the first row to the last is

A. DECAB

B. BACED

C. ACBDE

D. ABEDC

 

Q. 44 Little wooden cubes each with a side of one inch are put together to form a solid cube with a side of three inches. This big cube is then painted red all over on the outside. When the big cube is broken up into the original little ones, how any cubes will have paint on two sides ?

A. 4

B. 8

C. 12

D. 0

 

Q. 45 K is a place which is located 2 km away in the north-west direction from the capital P. R is another place that is located 2 km away in the south-west direction from K. M is another place and that is located 2 km away in the north-west direction from R. T is yet another place that is located 2 km away in the south-west direction from M. In which direction is T located in relation to P ?

A. south-west

B. north-west

C. west

D. north

 

Q. 46 Find out which of the diagrams given in the alternatives correctly represents the

relationship stated in the question. Sharks, Whales, Turtles.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 47 Refer the figure and choose appropriately.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 48 How many triangles are there in the following figure ?

A. 11

B. 13

C. 9

D. 15

 

Q. 49 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded in the same direction.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 50 Which answer figure is the exact mirror image of the given question figure when the mirror is held from the right at PQ ?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 51 A concave lens always forms an image which is

A. real and erect

B. virtual and erect

C. real and inverted

D. virtual and inverted

 

Q. 52 A vitamin requires cobalt for its activity. The vitamin is

A. vitamin B12

B. Vitamin D

C. Vitamin B2

D. Vitamin A

 

Q. 53 One of the constituents of tear gas is

A. ethane

B. ethanol

C. ether

D. chloropicrin

 

Q. 54 The modulus of rigidity is the ratio of

A. longitudinal stress to longitudinal strain

B. Volume stress to volume strain

C. shearing stress to shearing strain

D. tensile stress to tensile strain

 

Q. 55 The propagation of sound waves in a gas involves

A. adiabatic compression and rarefaction

B. isothermal compression and rarefaction

C. isochoric compression and rarefaction

D. isobaric compression and rarefaction

 

Q. 56 An atomic clock is based on transitions in

A. sodium

B. caesium

C. magnesium

D. aluminium

 

Q. 57 Plasma membrane in eukaryotic cells is made up of

A. phospholipid

B. lipoprotein

C. phospholipo-protein

D. phospho-protein

 

Q. 58 Which one of the following is also called the ‘power plants’ of the cell ?

A. golgi body

B. mitochondrion

C. ribosome

D. lysosome

 

Q. 59 What is the chemical name of vinegar ?

A. citric acid

B. acetic acid

C. pyruvic acid

D. malic acid

 

Q. 60 Which of the following is not a property of heavy water’?

A. Boiling point of heavy water is lower than that or ordinary water

B. Density of heavy water is higher than that of ordinary water

C. Freezing point of heavy water is higher than that of ordinary water

D. It produces corrosion

 

Q. 61 In which of the following processes is energy released ?

A. Respiration

B. Photosynthesis

C. Ingestion

D. Absorption

 

Q. 62 Animals living in the three trunks are known as

A. arboreal

B. volant

C. amphibious

D. aquatic

 

Q. 63 Arrange the following in chronological order:

1. Tughlaqs

2. Lodis

3. Saiyids

4. Ilbari Turks

5. Khiljis

A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

B. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1

C. 2, 4, 5, 3, 1

D. 4, 5, 1, 3, 2

 

Q. 64 The book titled ‘The Indian War of Independence’ was written by

A. Krishna verma

B. Madame carna

C. B.G. Tilak

D. V.D. Savarkar

 

Q. 65 Who was the founder of the ‘Servants of India Society’?

A. G.K. Gokhale

B. M.G. Ranade

C. B.G. Tilak

D. Bipin Chandra Pal

 

Q. 66 The term ‘Caste’ was derived from

A. Portuguese

B. Dutch

C. German

D. English

 

Q. 67 The term “Greater India” denotes

A. Political unity

B. Cultural unity

C. Religious unity

D. Social unity

 

Q. 68 Formalised system of trading agreements with groups of countries is known as

A. trading blocks

B. trade ventures

C. trade partners

D. trade organizations

 

Q. 69 Mahatma Gandhi was profoundly influenced by the writings of

A. Bernard Shaw

B. Karl Marx

C. Lenin

D. Leo Tolstoy

 

Q. 70 Seismic sea waves which approach the coasts at greater force are known as:

A. tides

B. tsunami

C. current

D. cyclone

 

Q. 71 Depression formed due to deflating action of winds are called:

A. Playas

B. Yardang

C. Ventifacts

D. Sand Dunes

 

Q. 72 The land of maximum biodiversity is

A. tropical

B. temperate

C. monsoonal

D. equatorial

 

Q. 73 If input frequency of a full wave rectifier be n, then output frequency would be:

A. n/2

B. n

C. 3n/2

D. 2n

 

Q. 74 Heat transfer horizontally within the atmosphere is called

A. conduction

B. convection

C. absorption

D. advection

 

Q. 75 Indian Standard Time relates to

A. 75.5° E longitude

B. 82.5° E longitude

C. 90.5° E longitude

D. 0° longitude

 

Q. 76 Who is rightly called the “Father of Local Self Government” in India ?

A. Lord Mayo

B. Lord Ripon

C. Lord Curzon

D. Lord Clive

 

Q. 77 The Directive Principles of State Policy was adopted from the

A. British Constitution

B. Swiss Constitution

C. U.S. Constitution

D. Irish Constitution

 

Q. 78 Which is the second nearest star to the Earth after the Sun ?

A. vega

B. sirius

C. proxima centaur

D. alpha centauri

 

Q. 79 The two forms of democracy are

A. Parliamentary and Presidential

B. Direct and Indirect

C. Monarchical and Republican

D. Parliamentary and King

 

Q. 80 Which is an extra-Constitutional body ?

A. Language Commission

B. Planning Commission

C. Election Commission

D. Finance Commission

 

Q. 81 The Prime Minister of India is

A. elected

B. appointed

C. nominated

D. selected

 

Q. 82 Which is not an All India Service?

A. Indian Administration Service

B. Indian Police Service

C. Indian Foreign Service

D. Indian Forest Service

 

Q. 83 The forest in Sunderban is called

A. Scrub jungle

B. Mangrove

C. Deciduous forest

D. Tundra

 

Q. 84 Noise is measured in

A. watt

B. REM

C. Centrigrade

D. Decibel

 

Q. 85 Who among the following captured his third consecutive National Billiards title in the year 2009

A. Pankaj Advani

B. Devendra Joshi

C. Geet Sethi

D. Dhruv Sitawala

 

Q. 86 The Messenger Satellite launched by NASA is to study

A. mercury

B. venus

C. saturn

D. jupiter

 

Q. 87 What was the name of the ship that sank near the Paradip Port in September, 2009 causingan oil spill?

A. red rose

B. black rose

C. white rose

D. green rose

 

Q. 88 Who among the following has been honoured with the prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2007?

A. YashChopra

B. Ustsad Amjad Ali Khan

C. Manna Dey

D. A. Nageshwara Rao

 

Q. 89 An Intelligent terminal

A. has a microprocessor, but cannot be programmed by the user

B. can process small data processing jobs, with the use of a large CPU

C. interacts with the user in English

D. cannot take data from the user

 

Q. 90 Which one of the following is not a method of estimating National Income ?

A. Expenditure method

B. Product method

C. Matrix method

D. Income method

 

Q. 91 The monetary policy is India is formulated by

A. Central Government

B. Industrial Financial Corporation of India

C. Reserve Bank of India

D. Industrial Development Bank of India

 

Q. 92 A short-term government security paper is called

A. share

B. debenture

C. mutual fund

D. treasury bill

 

Q. 93 WTO basically promotes

A. Financial support

B. Global peace

C. Unilateral trade

D. Multilateral trade

 

Q. 94 Under which market condition do firms have excess capacity ?

A. Perfect competition

B. Monopolistic competition

C. Duopoly

D. Oligopoly

 

Q. 95 Price theory is also known as

A. Macro Economics

B. Development Economics

C. Public Economics

D. Micro Economics

 

Q. 96 At present, India is following

A. Fixed exchange rate

B. Floating exchange rate

C. Pegged up exchange rate

D. Pegged down exchange rate

 

Q. 97 Who among the following won the ‘ICC Cricketer of the Year Award’ for the year 2009 ?

A. M.S. Dhoni

B. Gautam Gambhir

C. Mitchell Johnson

D. Tillakaratne Dilshan

 

Q. 98 The bats can fly in the dark because

A. they can see the objects in darkness

B. they have weak legs and are likely to be attacked by predators

C. they generate flashes of light

D. they generate ultrasonic sound waves

 

Q. 99 What changes will happen to a bowl of ice and water kept at exactly zero degree Celsius ?

A. All ice will melt

B. All water will become ice

C. No change will happen

D. Only some ice will melt

 

Q. 100 National Income is the

A. Net National Product at market price

B. Net National Product at factor cost

C. Net Domestic Product at market price

D. Net domestic Product at factor cost

 

Q. 101 The H.C.F. and L.C.M. of, two numbers are 8 and 48 respectively. If one of the numbers is 24, then the other number is

A. 48

B. 36

C. 24

D. 16

 

Q. 102 The greatest number, which when subtracted from 5834, gives a number exactly divisible by each of 20, 28, 32 and 35, is

A. 1120

B. 174714

C. 5200

D. 5600

 

Q. 103 The ninth term of the sequence 0, 3, 8, 15, 24, 35…is

A. 63

B. 70

C. 80

D. 99

 

Q. 104 (0.125 + 0.027) / (0.25 – 0.15 + 0.09) is equal to

A. 0.3

B. 0.5

C. 0.8

D. 0.9

 

Q. 105 The sum of the series (1 + 0.6 + 0.06 + 0.006 + 0.0006 + ….) is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 106 (figure) is equal to

A. 34

B. 36

C. 38

D. 39

 

Q. 107 A number, when divided by 114, leaves remainder 21. If the same number is divided by 19, then the remainder will be

A. 1

B. 2

C. 7

D. 17

 

Q. 108 The square root of 0.09 is

A. 0.30

B. 0.03

C. 0.81

D. 0.081

 

Q. 109 The number 0. 121212…. in the P form p/q is equal to

A. 4/11

B. 2/11

C. 4/33

D. 2/33

 

Q. 110 If (3/5)³ (3/5)⁻⁶ = (3/5)²ˣ⁻¹ then x is equal to

A. -2

B. 2

C. -1

D. 1

 

Q. 111 Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4. Their L.C.M. is 84. The greater number is

A. 21

B. 24

C. 28

D. 84

 

Q. 112 A drum of kerosene is 3/4 full. When 30 litres of kerosene is 7 drawn from it, it remains 12 full. The capacity of the drum is

A. 120 l

B. 135 l

C. 150 l

D. 180 l

 

Q. 113 By what least number should 675 be multiplied so as to obtain a perfect cube number ?

A. 3

B. 5

C. 24

D. 40

 

Q. 114 (figure) is equal to

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 115 (figure) is equal to

A. 1/1000

B. 1/999

C. 1/99

D. 1/9

 

Q. 116 (4.41 x 0.16) / (2.1 x 1.6 x 0.21) is simplified to

A. 1

B. 0.1

C. 0.01

D. 10

 

Q. 117 If a and b are two odd positive integers, by which of the following integers is (a 4 – b 4)  always divisible ?

A. 3

B. 6

C. 8

D. 12

 

Q. 118 If a = 1 and b = 9 , then the value of (a² + b² + ab) / (a³ – b³) is

A. 2

B. -2

C. 20

D. -20

 

Q. 119 (256 x 256 – 144 x 144) / 112 equals to

A. 420

B. 400

C. 360

D. 320

 

Q. 120 If a and b be positive integers such that a² – b² = 19, then the value of a is

A. 19

B. 20

C. 9

D. 10

 

Q. 121 If the ratio of cost price and selling price of an article be as 10 : 11, the percentage of profit is

A. 8

B. 10

C. 11

D. 15

 

Q. 122 A manufacturer marked an article at Rs. 50 and sold it allowing 20% discount. If his profit was 25%, then the cost price of the article was

A. Rs. 40

B. Rs. 35

C. Rs. 32

D. Rs. 30

 

Q. 123 A shopkeeper earns a profit of 12% on selling a book at 10% discount on the printed price. The ratio of the cost price and the printed price of the book is

A. 45 : 56

B. 45 : 51

C. 47 : 56

D. 47 : 51

 

Q. 124 By selling a bicycle for Rs. 2,850, a shopkeeper gains 14%. If the profit is reduced to 8%, then the selling price will be

A. Rs. 2600

B. Rs. 2700

C. Rs. 2800

D. Rs. 3000

 

Q. 125 By selling an article, a man makes a profit of 25% of its selling price. His profit per cent is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 126 If A’s income is 50% less than that of B’s, then B’s income is what per cent more than that of A?

A. 125

B. 100

C. 75

D. 50

 

Q. 127   1.14 expressed as a per cent of 1.9 is

A. 6%

B. 10%

C. 60%

D. 90%

 

Q. 128 Two natural numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5 and their product is 2160. The smaller of the numbers is

A. 36

B. 24

C. 18

D. 12

 

Q. 129 If 60% of A = 4 of B, then A is

A. 9 : 20

B. 20 : 9

C. 4 : 5

D. 5 : 4

 

Q. 130 Two successive price increase of 10% and 10% of an article are equivalent to a single price increase of

A. 19%

B. 20%

C. 21%

D. 22%

 

Q. 131 (Refer the image)

A. 5/12

B. 12/5

C. 5/7

D. 7/5

 

Q. 132 An equilateral triangle of side cm has its corners cut off to form a regular hexagon. Area (in cm2 of this regular hexagon will be

A. 3√3

B. 3√6

C. 6√3

D. 5√3/2

 

Q. 133 The length (in metres) of the longest rod that can he put in a room of dimensions 10 m x 10 m 5m is

A. 15√3

B. 15

C. 10√2

D. 5√3/2

 

Q. 134 If Rs. 1000 is divided between A and B in the ratio 3 : 2, then A will receive

A. Rs. 400

B. Rs. 500

C. Rs. 600

D. Rs. 800

 

Q. 135 What must be added to each term of the ratio 7 : 11, so as to make it equal to 3 : 4 ?

A. 8

B. 7.5

C. 6.5

D. 5

 

Q. 136 A sum of money at compound interest doubles itself in 15 years. It will become eight times of it self in

A. 45 years

B. 48 years

C. 54 years

D. 60 years

 

Q. 137 Buses start from a bus terminal with a speed of 20 km/hr at in tervals tervals of 10 minutes.

What is the speed of a man coming from the opposite direction towards the bus terminal if he meets the buses at intervals of 8 minutes ?

A. 3 km/hr

B. 4 km/hr

C. 5 km/hr

D. 7 km/hr


Q. 138 If the circumference of a circle is decreased by 50% then the per centage of decrease in its area is:

A. 25

B. 50

C. 60

D. 75

 

Q. 139 At what rate per cent per annum will a sum of Rs. 1,000 amount to Rs. 1,102.50 in 2 years at compound interest ?

A. 5

B. 5.5

C. 6

D. 6.5

 

Q. 140 What annual payment will discharge a debt of Rs. 6,450 due in 4 years at 5% per annum simple interest ?

A. Rs. 1400

B. Rs. 1500

C. Rs. 1550

D. Rs. 1600

 

Q. 141 The average of the first 100 positive integers is

A. 100

B. 51

C. 50.5

D. 49.5

 

Q. 142 In a family, the average age of a father and a mother is 35 years. The average age of the father, mother and their only son is 27 years. What is the age of the son?

A. 12 years

B. 11 years

C. 10.5 years

D. 10 years

 

Q. 143 If 5 men or 7 women can earn Rs. 5,250 per day, how much would 7 men and 13 women earn per day ?

A. Rs. 11600

B. Rs. 11700

C. Rs. 16100

D. Rs. 17100

 

Q. 144 If A and B together can complete a piece of work in 15 days and B alone in 20 days, in how many days can A alone complete the work ?

A. 60

B. 45

C. 40

D. 30

 

Q. 145 By walking at 3/4 of his usual speed, a man reaches his office 20 minutes later than his usual time. The usual time taken by him to reach his office is

A. 75 minutes

B. 60 minutes

C. 40 minutes

D. 30 minutes

 

Q. 146 A can complete a piece of work in 18 days, B in 20 days and C in 30 days. B and C together start the work and are forced to leave after 2 days. The time taken by A alone to complete the remaining work is

A. 10 days

B. 12 days

C. 15 days

D. 16 years

 

Q. 147 A train, 300 m long, passed a man, walking along the line in the same direction at the rate of 3 km/hr in 33 seconds. The speed of the train is

A. 30 km/hr

B. 32 km/hr

C. 328 km/hr

D. 358 km/hr

 

The pie chart, given here, represents the number of valid votes obtained by four students who contested election for school leadership. The total number of valid votes polled was 720.

Observe the chart and answer the questions based on it.

 

 

Q. 148 What was the minimum number of votes obtained by any candidate ?

A. 100

B. 110

C. 120

D. 130

 

Q. 149 What was the winner ?

A. Shivaram

B. Paramjeet

C. Yasin

D. Vishwanath

 

Q. 150 By how many votes did the winner defeat his nearest rival ?

A. 40

B. 45

C. 48

D. 50

 

Q. 151 He is a university professor (a)/ but of his three sons (b)/ neither has any merit. (c)/ No error (d).

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 152 After knowing truth,(a)/ they took the right decision (b)/ in the matter. (c)/ No error (d).

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 153 It is time you (a)/ decide on your next (b)/ course of action. (c)/ No error (d).

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 154 He who has suffered most (a)/ for the cause, (b)/ let him speak (c)/ No error (d).

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 155 A cup of coffee (a)/ is an excellent complement (b)/ to smoked salmon. (c)/ No error (d).

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 156 The hotel was not too expensive

A. was it ?

B. wasn’t it ?

C. is it ?

D. isn’t it ?

 

Q. 157 Like humans, zoo animals must have a dentist their teeth

A. fill

B. filled

C. filling

D. to be filled

 

Q. 158 It was very kind of you to do the washing-up, but you _ it.

B. hadn’t to do

C. mightn’t have done

D. mustn’t have done

 

Q. 159 He went sea alone.

A. in

B. to

C. into

D. on

 

Q. 160 The……of our civilization from an agricultural society to today’s complex industrial world was accompanied by war.

A. adjustement

B. migration

C. route

D. metamorphosis

 

Q. 161 Choose the opposite word

FLORID

A. weak

B. pale

C. monotonous

D. ugly

 

Q. 162 Choose the opposite word

VERITY

A. sanctity

B. reverence

C. falsehood

D. rarity

 

Q. 163 Choose the opposite word

PERSPICUITY

A. vagueness

B. dullness

C. unfairness

D. unwillingness

 

Q. 164 Choose the opposite word

FERVENT

A. inexcitable

B. enduring

C. dispassionate

D. subdued

 

Q. 165 Choose the opposite word

MEANDERING

A. sliding

B. sloping

C. strained

D. straight

 

Q. 166 Choose the best word

LUXURIANT

A. luxury-loving

B. lovely

C. rich

D. abundant

 

Q. 167 Choose the best word

CANTANKEROUS

A. cancerous

B. ferocious

C. quarrelsome

D. fissiparous

 

Q. 168 Choose the best word

ONUS

A. sadness

B. happiness

C. responsibility

D. criticism

 

Q. 169 Choose the best word

DERISION

A. humiliation

B. embarrassment

C. ridicule

D. condemnation

 

Q. 170 Choose the best word

TRITE

A. commonplace

B. clever

C. brief

D. impudent

 

Q. 171 Obviously he isn’t cut up to be. good teacher.

A. cut out

B. cut in

C. cur for

D. no improvement

 

Q. 172 Power got with money is the most craved for today.

A. sought after

B. wished for

C. welcomed for

D. no improvement

 

Q. 173 The brown shirt wants washing.

A. has to wash

B. is in need of a wash

C. requires wash

D. no improvement

 

Q. 174 You are asked to copy this letter word by word

A. word for word

B. word with word

C. word to word

D. no improvement

 

Q. 175 The weak man is a slave to his sensuous pleasures.

A. sensory

B. sensual

C. secondary

D. no improvement

 

Q. 176 An underhand device resorted to in order to justify misconduct

A. subterfuge

B. man-oeuvre

C. stratagem

D. complicity

 

Q. 177 Impossible to describe

A. miraculous

B. ineffable

C. stupendous

D. appalling

 

Q. 178 One who criticizes popular beliefs which he thinks is mistaken or unwise

A. philistine

B. iconoclast

C. imposter

D. cannibal

 

Q. 179 Detaining and confining someone

A. interruption

B. interrogation

C. interment

D. internment

 

Q. 180 Science of the races of mankind

A. genealogy

B. epistemology

C. ethnology

D. sociology

 

Q. 181 Find the correct word

A. collaborate

B. comemorate

C. colate

D. choclate

 

Q. 182 Find the correct word

A. circuiteous

B. clairvoyant

C. chivelery

D. cavalcade

 

Q. 183 Find the correct word

A. severety

B. sovereignity

C. superiorty

D. serenity

 

Q. 184 Find the correct word

A. cummulative

B. comemmorative

C. accummulative

D. accommodative

 

Q. 185 Find the correct word

A. benidiction

B. besmerch

C. beneficient

D. benevolence

 

Q. 186 1. Education in India had a glorious beginning.

P. But after the British rule, it faced many changes.

Q. It went on for centuries with the same glory.

R. English as the medium of instruction had a very great response.

S. One of the changes was the introduction of English as the medium of instruction.

6. As the Britishers left we had a complexity of opinions regarding English

A. PQRS

B. QPSR

C. PQSR

D. SRPQ

 

Q. 187 1. It is easy to criticize the people at the helm, for the slow progress in every field.

P. We are well aware that the intellectuals are leaving our country for better employment opportunities.

Q. Then question remains unanswered because our country cannot show opportunities to the intellectuals.

R. Then, what about their obligation to the Motherland ?

S. First, we should ask ourselves as to what is happening to the young intellectuals in India.

6. This situation of ‘Brain-Drain leads to a variety of problems.

A. PSQR

B. RPSQ

C. PSRQ

D. SPRQ

 

Q. 188 1. It is the responsibility of parents to teach the young moral values in life.

P. Many children take advantage of their parents’ busy schedule.

Q. This results in children’s ignorance of social values.

R. The reason behind it is that parents are quite busy nowadays.

S. Nowadays parents spend very meagre time with children.

6. As such, the society is going away from the value system.

A. SRPQ

B. PQRS

C. SQRP

D. SPQR

 

Q. 189 1. The man who does his duty without any selfish desire for fruit may be called a sanyasi as well as yogi.

P. The man who has achieved much evenness of temper will be serene, because his mere thoughts are changed with the strength of action.

Q. He would practise yoga, i.e., evenness of temper, and cannot but perform action.

R. The root of the matter is that one should not allow his mind to flit from object of desire to another and from that to a third.

S. But he who abstains from action altogether is only an idler.

6. A yogi is one who is not attached to his objects of sense or to action and whose mind has ceased to roam restlessly.

A. SRQP

B. RQPS

C. QRSP

D. PRSQ

 

Q. 190  1. This was an important day for at took.

P. It was a cold day, but Alatook would be warm.

Q. For the first time he was going to hunt seals alone.

R. First he put on his fur-lined jacket.

S. Then he put on mittens and boots of deerskin to protect his hands and feet from the cold.

6. Finally he picked up the gun he had cleaned so carefully the day before.

A. PQRS

B. QPRS

C. PRSQ

D. QRPS

 

Q. 191 They have made a film based on this novel.

A. A film was based on. this novel and made.

B. A film have been made based . on, this novel.

C. A film, based on this novel, has been made

D. A film has been based and made on this novel.

 

Q. 192 The people couldn’t move me to the hospital and the doctor operated on me at home.

A. I couldn’t be moved to the hospital and was operated on at home by the doctor.

B. I couldn’t be moved to the hospital and I had to be operated on at home.

C. I couldn’t be moved to the hospital and I was operated at home by the doctor.

D. I couldn’t be moved to the hospital by the people and operated on at home.

 

Q. 193 Why did he deprive you of the membership ?

A. Why you were deprived of the membership?

B. Why were you deprived of his membership by him ?

C. Why was he deprived of his membership

D. Why were you deprived of your membership by him ?

 

Q. 194 The news has been brought to us by him.

A. He brought us the news.

B. He has brought us the news.

C. He was brought the news to us.

D. We brought the news to him.

 

Q. 195 Not a word was spoken by the criminal in self-defence.

A. The criminal spoke not a word in self-defence.

B. The criminal in self-defence spoke no word.

C. The criminal did not speak a word in self-defence.

D. The criminal spoke in self defence not a word.

 

PASSAGE

Every profession or, trade, every art and every science has its technical vocabulary, the function of which is partly to designate things or processes which have no names in ordinary English and partly to secure greater exactness in nomenclature. Such special dialects or jargons are necessary in technical discussion of any kind. Being universally understood by the devotees of the particular science or art, they have the precision of a mathematical formula. Besides, they save time, for it is much more economical to name a process than to describe it. Thousands of these technical terms are very properly included in every large dictionary, yet, as a whole, they are rather on the outskirts of the English language than actually within its borders. Different occupations, however, differ widely in the character of their special vocabularies. In trades and handicrafts and other vocations like farming and fishing that have occupied great numbers of men from remote times, the technical vocabulary is very old. An average man now uses these in his own vocabulary. The special dialects of law, medicine, divinity and philosophy have become familiar to cultivated persons.

 

Q. 196 Special words used in technical discussion

A. may become part of common speech

B. never last long

C. should resemble mathematical formula

D. should be confined to scientific fields

 

Q. 197 The writer of this article is

A. a scientist

B. a politician

C. a linguist

D. a businessman

 

Q. 198 This passage is primarily concerned with

A. various occupations and professions

B. technical terminology

C. scientific undertakings

D. a new language

 

Q. 199 It is true that

A. various professions and occupations often interchange words

B. there is always a non-technical word that may be substituted for the technical word

C. the average man often uses in his own vocabulary what was once technical language not meant for him

D. everyone is interested in scientific findings

 

Q. 200 In recent years, there has been a marked increase in the number of technical terms in the nomenclature of

A. Farming

B. Fishing

C. Sports

D. Government

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer C A A C C B D B D C
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer C B D C D C B D D C
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer D A C B B A C C D C
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer B A D C B A B A A B
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer B B A B C C C B D C
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer B A D B A B A B B A
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer A A D D A A B A D B
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer B A D B B B D C A B
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer B C B D A A A C A C
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer C D D B D B C D C B
Question 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer D B C C A B B A C C
Question 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer C D B A B A C A B D
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer B C A B D B C A D C
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer B C B C D A C B A B
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer C B D A B C D C A A
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer C A B C D A A D B D
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer B C A C D D C C C A
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer A D C A B B B B D C
Question 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Answer A B D D D B D A A B
Question 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Answer C A D B C C C B C D
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