SSC CGL - Page 11 of 12 - Vidhyarthi Darpan

SSC CGL Tier-I 08 July 2012 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2012 8 Jul Shift 2

Q. 1 Length: meter :: power :: ?

A. calories

B. degree

C. watt

D. kilometer

Q. 2 Square : Cube :: circle :: ?

A. Ellipse

B. parabola

C. cone

D. sphere

Q. 3 Paper :: Tree :: Glass : ?

A. window

B. sand

C. stone

D. mirror

Q. 4 ACFJ :: ZXUQ :: EGIN :: ??

A. VUSQ

B. VRPM

C. UTRP

D. VTRM

Q. 5 ACEG :: DFHJ :: QSUW :: ??

A. TVXZ

B. TQST

C. MNPR

D. EGIJ

Q. 6 EGIK :: FILO :: FHJL :: ??

A. JGMP

B. JGPM

C. GJPM

D. GJMP

Q. 7 10 :: 91 :: 9 ??

A. 69

B. 72

C. 89

D. 97

Q. 8 7 :: 56 :: 9 ??

A. 63

B. 81

C. 93

D. 99

Q. 9 20 : 50 :100 ?

A. 150

B. 250

C. 200

D. 156

Q. 10 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. Pathelogy

B. geology

C. cardiology

D. radiology

Q. 11 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. Rivulet

B. stream

C. river

D. pond

Q. 12 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. konark

B. madhurai

C. dilmora

D. ellora

Q. 13 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. RTW

B. QOM

C. IKG

D. IKM

Q. 14 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. EFH

B. OPQ

C. BCE

D. IJL

Q. 15 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. DH

B. FJ

C. HK

D. PR

Q. 16 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. 121

B. 324

C. 523

D. 729

Q. 17 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. 704, 11

B. 256 , 4

C. 823, 13

D. 310, 5

Q. 18 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. 24

B. 49

C. 80

D. 15

Q. 19 Arrange the following words in the ascending order in the dictionary :

1. Pick

2.Pith

3.Pile

4.PErk

5. Pour

A. 4,1,2,3 5

B. 4 1 3 2 5

C. 4 3 2 1 5

D. 5 4 3 2 1

Q. 20 Arrange the following words in the ascending order in the dictionary :

1. Millineum

2. diamond jubliee

3.Silver jubliee

4.Century

5.golden jubliee

A. 2 3 5 4 1

B. 2 5 3 1 4

C. 3 5 2 4 1

D. 2 3 5 1 4

Q. 21 Arrange the following words in the ascending order in the dictionary :

1. weekly

2. Bi-anual

3.fortnightly

4. monthly

5.annual

A. 1, 3,4 2, 5

B. 2,5, 4,1,3

C. 4, 1,2, 3, 5

D. 5,2, 4,3,1

Q. 22 Which one of the set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?

a__ cbc __ca __ ab__ bca __ ab

A. b a b c c

B. b c a b b

C. a b c b c

D. b c a b c

Q. 23 BCFG, JKNO , RSVW , … ?

A. ZADE

B. HIKL

C. STUX

D. MNPQ

Q. 24 CNR, HIN, MSW .. ?

A. SXA

B. YUB

C. RXB

D. ZEH

Q. 25 2, ,3 6 , 7, 14, 15 ?

A. 16

B. 30

C. 31

D. 32

Q. 26 3120 , ? , 122 , 23, 4

A. 488

B. 621

C. 610

D. 732

Q. 27 0 , 5 , 60 , 615 ?

A. 6030

B. 6170

C. 6130

D. 6000

Q. 28 Nithya is sam’s sister .Mogan is sam’s father .Selvan is rajan’s son . Rajan is mogan’s brother .How is nithya related to selvan ?

A. daughter

B. sister

C. cousin

D. wife

Q. 29 A boy’s age is one fourth of his father’s age .The sum of boy’s age and his father’s age is 35 what will be father’s age after 8 years ?

A. 15

B. 28

C. 35

D. 36

Q. 30 A man said to a lady ” your mother’s husband’s sister is my aunt “. How is the lady related to aunt ?

A. sister

B. mother

C. daughter

D. granddaughter

Q. 31 If south east becomes north , then what will south east become ?

A. north

B. west

C. east

D. north west

Q. 32 From the given options select the correct option which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word .

CONTENTION

A. tonic

B. note

C. nation

D. notion

Q. 33 In a certain code language ,GRAPE is written as 27354 and FOUR written as 1687 . How is group written in that code ?

A. 27384

B. 27684

C. 27685

D. 27658

Q. 34 WAYIN is written as TXVFK .How LBU be written in that code ?

A. IYRH

B. KATJ

C. JZSI

D. NDWM

Q. 35 In a certain language , if the word PARTNER as OZQSMDQ .What is the code word for SEGMENT ?

A. TFHNFOU

B. RDFLDMS

C. RDELDMS

D. RDFEDNS

Q. 36 IF DOCTOR is written as FQEVQT , how PATIENT can be written in that code ?

A. RVKGPV

B. RCKPGVV

C. RCVKGPV

D. RVCKGVP

Q. 37 Find the missing number ?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 3

D. 5

Q. 38 Find the missing number

A. 9

B. -4

C. 4

D. -8

Q. 39 IF + means ÷ , and – means X , X means + , ÷ means – then

90+18- 6 X 30 ÷ 4 = ?

A. 64

B. 65

C. 56

D. 48

Q. 40 IF 73 +46 = 42 and 95 +87 = 57 then , 62 +80 = ?

A. 32

B. 48

C. 64

D. 36

Q. 41 Based on the given data estimate the number of television buyers for the year 1990 .

A. 611

B. 591

C. 571

D. 601

Q. 42 A man coming from the backdoor of his house which is facing east walked for 1 kilometer turned to his right and walked for another kilometer .Then he turned to his right and walked another kilometer . Where was he from his home at the end ?

A. 1 km away in north

B. 1 km away in south

C. 1 km away in east

D. 1 km away in west

Q. 43 Two squads of soldiers A and B , facing east and west respectively received the following commands -Left turn , about turn , right turn , left turn .Which directions would be squad A and B face at the end ?

A. East ,west

B. West , East

C. North , South

D. South , North

Q. 44 Statements :

(1) Due to contamination of water, large number of people were admitted to hospital.

(2) The symptoms were of Typhoid.

Conclusions : I. Contamination of water may lead to Typhoid.

II. Typhoid is a contagious disease.

A. Only conclusion I is true

B. Only conclusion II is true

C. Both conclusions I and II are true

D. Both conclusions I and II are false

Q. 45 Statements :

(1) 60% of the government employees went on strike.

(2) Mr. Gopal is a government employee. Conclusions : I. Mr. Gopal went on strike.

II. Mr. Gopal did not participate in the strike.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Both conclusions I and II follow

D. Either conclusion I and II follows

Q. 46 In the following question which answer figure will complete the question figure?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 47 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden / embedded

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 48 In the following question a piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figure. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 49 In the following question if a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 50 In the following question a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘R’ can be represented by 13, 22, etc. and ‘P’ can be represented by 67, 76 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word SHRI.

A. 58, 02, 13, 01

B. 85, 42, 31, 14

C. 68, 20, 13, 32

D. 85, 02, 44, 30

Q. 51 A movement along the demand curve of a commodity occurs due to change in

A. income of the consumers

B. its own price

C. taste of consumers

D. expectations of the consumers

Q. 52 GNP calculation through expenditure method does not include

A. gross domestic private investments

B. net foreign investments

C. depreciation expenditures

D. private consumer expenditure

Q. 53 Which one of the following is not a qualitative credit control measure of the RBI?

A. Fixing margin requirements

B. Variable interest rates

C. Open market operations

D. Credit rationing

Q. 54 Find the odd one out of the following

A. Delhi transport corporation

B. Indian Railways

C. kingfisher airlines

D. Reliance industries limited

Q. 55 Monetray policy in India is laid down and executed by

A. union government

B. ASSOCHAM

C. Reserve bank of India

D. FICCI

Q. 56 Which one of the following subjects is not available on the union list ?

A. census

B. banking

C. trade union

D. foreign loans

Q. 57 The term closure in parlimaentary language implies .

A. the end of session of parliament

B. stoppage of debate on a motion

C. end of days proceedings

D. none of the above

Q. 58 Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

A. Article 14 – equality before law

B. Article 16 – equal opportunities

C. Article 17 – abolition of titles

D. Article 18 – permission of military titles

Q. 59 Which of the following presidents held office for 2 consecutive terms?

A. Dr. S.Radha krishnan

B. Dr. Zakir Hussain

C. Dr.Rajendra prasad

D. both a and c

Q. 60 Which of the amendment act reduced the age from 21 to 18 ?

A. 42nd

B. 44th

C. 52nd

D. 61st

Q. 61 Who among the following was the First Viceroy of India?

A. Lord Ripon

B. Lord Curzon

C. Lord Mountbatten

D. Lord Canning

Q. 62 Mahavira was the

A. 21st tirthankara

B. 24th tirthankara

C. 23rd tirthankara

D. 22nd tirthankara

Q. 63 Which one among the following women scholars challenged the invincible yajnavalkya in debate ?

A. Ghosa

B. Apala

C. Maitreyi

D. Gargi

Q. 64 Which one of the following made the crown of england to take over Indian administration ?

A. Battle of plassey

B. Battle of buxar

C. the carnatic wars

D. the sepoy mutiny

Q. 65 Who built the famous dilwara temple at mount abu in rajasthan in the 13th century ?

A. Mahendrapala

B. Mahipala

C. Rajyapala

D. Tejapala

Q. 66 Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

A. Darjeeling – West Bengal

B. Mount Abu – Rajasthan

C. Kodaikanal – Tamil Nadu

D. Simla – Uttar Pradesh

Q. 67 The earth is at its maximum distance from the Sun on

A. January 30th

B. December 22nd

C. September 22nd

D. July 4th

Q. 68 Consider the following pairs:

Tributary Main River

1. Chambal : Yamuna

2. Sone : Narmada

3. Manas : Brahmputra

Which one of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2

C. 2 and 3

D. 3 only

Q. 69 A form of condensation that reduces visibility and causes breathing problems is

A. dew

B. frost

C. smog

D. mist

Q. 70 The total population divided by available arable land area is referred to as

A. Population density

B. Nutritional density

C. Agricultural density

D. Industrial density

Q. 71 Green glands are associated with

A. Reproduction

B. Excretion

C. Respiration

D. Digestion

Q. 72 During the respiration, the gases enter into the blood and leave the same by the process of

A. Active Transport

B. Diffusion

C. Diffusion and active transport

D. Osmosis

Q. 73 Broad spectrum antibiotics are produced by

A. streptomyces

B. aspergillus

C. pencillium

D. basicllus

Q. 74 The pigment that protects plants from harmful effects of ultraviolet rays is

A. chlorophyll

B. caretenoid

C. physcocinain

D. plastid

Q. 75 Glucogen , starch and cellulose are polymers of

A. fructose

B. glucose

C. lactose

D. maltose

Q. 76 Black death is

A. cancer

B. AIDS

C. plague

D. gonorreha

Q. 77 stars appear to move from east to west because of

A. the whole universe is moving from east to west

B. earth is revolving round the sun

C. earth is rotating from east to west

D. earth is rotating from west to east

Q. 78 On the moo the astronaut cannot drink lemonade with the help of stawr because

A. acceleration due to gravity on the moon is less

B. there is no atmosphere on the moon

C. lemonade evaporates instantly on the moon

D. none of the above

Q. 79 A particle moving with uniform speed

A. must have uniform velocity

B. cannot have uniform velocity

C. may have uniform velocity

D. will have no uniform velocity

Q. 80 Device which uses sound waves for detection and ranging is called

A. radar

B. sonar

C. pukar

D. none of these

Q. 81 What is the name of the network topology in which there are bi-directioal links between each possible note ?

A. Ring

B. star

C. tree

D. mesh

Q. 82 LAN stands for

A. Local area nodes

B. Large area network

C. large area nodes

D. local area network

Q. 83 Dry ice is nothing but

A. gaseous carbon diaoxide

B. washing soda

C. soild carbon diaoxide

D. carbon monoxide

Q. 84 Which one is obtained as slag in a blast furnance

A. calcium carbonate

B. calcium sulphate

C. calcium chloride

D. calcium silicate

Q. 85 When H2 gas is allowed to expand from a region of high pressure to aregion of low pressure the temperature of gas

A. decreases to a small extent

B. increases

C. dos not change

D. decreases slowly

Q. 86 In the industrail production of vegetable ghee, the process involved is :

A. dissociation

B. reduction

C. oxidation

D. ionisation

Q. 87 Which one of the followind weeds is found useful to check water pollution in the industrial afluents ?

A. parthenium

B. elephant grass

C. water hyaicnth

D. both a and b

Q. 88 In which year the chernobyl nuclear power plant of the former USSR had accident that caused escape of radio nuclieds into atmosphere ?

A. 1979

B. 1980

C. 1984

D. 1986

Q. 89 certain desert lizards excrete their wastes in dry forms This serves as a means of

A. prootective mechanism against predators

B. limiting factor of the organism

C. adaption of the organsim to the environment

D. counting the problem of food scarcity

Q. 90 Which one is regarded as world Heritage forest ?

A. nandan kanan in odisha

B. kaziranga in assam

C. sunderbans in west bengal

D. Indian botanical garden , west bengal

Q. 91 Kidney can be taken from a dying person who has the

A. cessation of neurological function only

B. cessation of cardiac function only

C. cessation of respirratory function only

D. cessation of kidney function only

Q. 92 One of the following Chief Minister received the highest Civilian Award “BHARAT RATNA”

A. Lalu Prasad yadav of bihar

B. Late M.G. Ramachandran of Tamilnadu

C. Jyothi Basu of West Bengal

D. Late N.T Ramam Rao of Andhra Pradesh

Q. 93 Loosong is a festival celebrated in

A. Tibet

B. Arunachal pradesh

C. Sikkim

D. Kerela

Q. 94 The commodity for which India spends the largest amount of import is

A. food grains

B. crude petroleum

C. fertilisers

D. iron and steel

Q. 95 In which categories did marie curie win her 2 different nobel prizes

A. physics and chemistry

B. chemistry and medicine

C. physics and medicine

D. chemistry and peace

Q. 96 Michail Phelps won _____ gold medals in swimming events in beijing olympics

A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 9

Q. 97 Spot the odd one from the following .

A. Tarapur

B. Trombay

C. kalpakan

D. Narora

Q. 98 Which of the following players has the unique distinction of 50 doubles titles in ATP tour history ?

A. LEander PEas

B. Andy roddick

C. Novak Djockovic

D. roger Fedrer

Q. 99 As per 2011 census , the state with the largest gap in male and female literacy is

A. uttar pradesh

B. madhya pradesh

C. Rajasthan

D. kerela

Q. 100 Whihc among the following is termed as hot money ?

A. FII

B. FDI

C. ADR

D. GDR

Q. 101 What would be the sum of 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 15 + ……. up to 15th term?

A. 250

B. 240

C. 225

D. 265

Q. 102 The least number which when divided by 48, 64, 90, 120 will leave the remainders 38, 54, 80, 110 respectively, is

A. 2870

B. 2860

C. 2890

D. 2880

Q. 103 A, B, C subscribe together ` 50,000 for a business. A subscribes ` 4,000 more than B and B ` 5,000 more than C. Out of a total profit of ` 35,000, A receives

A. rs.` 8,500

B. rs.`11,998

C. rs.12,600

D. rs.14,700

Q. 104 If 1³+ 2³+ ……. + 9³ = 2025 then the approx. value of (0.11)³+ (0.22)³+ ……. + (0.99)³ is

A. 0.2695

B. 0.3695

C. 2.695

D. 3.695

Q. 105 With a two digit prime number, if 18 is added, we get another prime number with digits reversed. How many such numbers are possible?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 0

D. 1

Q. 106 X and Y can do a piece of work in 30 days. They work together for 6 days and then X quits and Y finishes the work in 32 more days. In how many days can Y do the piece of work alone?

A. 30 days

B. 32 days

C. 34 days

D. 40 days

Q. 107 A metal pipe of negligible thickness has radius 21 cm and length 90 cm. The outer curved surface area of the pipe in square cm is

A. 11880

B. 11680

C. 11480

D. 10080

Q. 108 A businessman allows a discount of 10% on the written price. How much above the cost price must he mark his goods to make a profit of 17%?

A. 30%

B. 20%

C. 27%

D. 18%

Q. 109 . 465 coins consists of 1 rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise coins. Their values are in the ratio 5: 3 : 1. The number of each type of coins respectively is

A. 155, 186, 124

B. 154, 187, 124

C. 154, 185, 126

D. 150, 140, 175

Q. 110 A batsman makes a score of 58 runs in the 15th innings and thus increases his average by 3 runs. What is the average after 15th inning?

A. 12

B. 14

C. 16

D. 18

Q. 111 The average of 5 consecutive numbers is n. If the next two numbers are also included, the average of the 7 numbers will

A. increase by 2

B. increase by 1

C. remain the same

D. increase by 1.4

Q. 112 A man sold an article at a loss of 20%. If he sells the article for rs.12 more, he would have gained 10%. The cost price of the article is

A. Rs.60

B. Rs.40

C. Rs.30

D. Rs.22

Q. 113 A trader has a weighing balance that shows 1,200 gm for a kilogram. He further marks up his cost price by 10%. Then the net profit percentage is

A. 32%

B. 23%

C. 31.75%

D. 23.5%

Q. 114 A car covers four successive 6 km stretches at speeds of 25 kmph, 50 kmph, 75 kmph and 150 kmph respectively. Its average speed over this distance is

A. 25 kmph

B. 50 kmph

C. 75 kmph

D. 150 kmph

Q. 115 The difference between C. I. (Compound Interest) and S.I. (Simple Interest) on a sum of Rs. 4,000 for 2 years at 5% p.a. payable yearly is

A. Rs.20

B. Rs.10

C. Rs. 50

D. Rs. 60

Q. 116 If x= 4ab/(a+b) i then the value of

A. a

B. b

C. 0

D. 2

Q. 117 If x = 997, y = 998, z = 999, then the value of x²+ y²+ z² – xy – yz – zx will be

A. 3

B. 9

C. 16

D. 4

Q. 118 The area (in sq. unit) of the triangle formed by the three graphs of the equations x = 4, y = 3, and 3x + 4y = 12, is

A. 12

B. 10

C. 6

D. 8

Q. 119 . If a + b + c = 8, then the value of (a – 4)³+ (b – 3)³+ (c – 1)³ – 3 (a – 4) (b – 3) (c – 1) is

A. 2

B. 4

C. 1

D. 0

Q. 120 If x= √a+1/√a and y= √a-1/√a then the value of x⁴+ y⁴– 2x²2y²

A. 16

B. 20

C. 10

D. 5

Q. 121 Id 5a+(1/3a)= 5 then the value of 9a ² + 1/25a ² is

A. 51/5

B. 29/5

C. 52/5

D. 39/5

Q. 122 If x = +3+ 2√2 then the value of √x-1/√x is

A. ±2√2

B. ±2

C. ±√2

D. ±1/2

Q. 123 . If abc ++= 0 , the value of

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Q. 124 If a, b, c are real and a³+ b³+ c³= 3ab and abc ++¹ 0, then the relation between a, b, c will be

A. a + b = c

B. a + c = b

C. a = c = b

D. b + c = a

Q. 125 The radius of the circumcircle of the triangle made by x-axis, y-axis and 4x + 3y = 12 is

A. 2 unit

B. 2.5 unit

C. 3 unit

D. 4 unit

Q. 126 The length of the circum-radius of a triangle having sides of lengths 12 cm, 16 cm and 20 cm is

A. 15 cm

B. 18 cm

C. 10 cm

D. 16 cm

Q. 127 If D is the mid-point of the side BC of triangle ABC and the area of trainagle ABD is 16 cm , then the area of trianagle ABC is

A. 16 cm^2

B. 24 cm ^2

C. 32 cm ^2

D. 48 cm ^2

Q. 128 ABC is a triangle. The medians CD and BE intersect each other at O. Then triangle ODE : D ABC is

A. 1 :3

B. 1: 4

C. 1: 6

D. 1 :12

Q. 129 If P, R, T are the area of a parallelogram, a rhombus and a triangle standing on the same base and between the same parallels, which of the following is true?

A. R < P < T

B. P > R > T

C. R = P = T

D. R = P = 2T

Q. 130 AB is a diameter of the circumcircle of D APB; N is the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point P on AB. If AP = 8 cm and BP = 6 cm, then the length of BN is

A. 3.6 cm

B. 3 cm

C. 3.4 cm

D. 3.5 cm

Q. 131 Two circles with same radius r intersect each other and one passes through the centre of the other. Then the length of the common chord is

A. r

B. √3r

C. √3/2 r

D. √5 r

Q. 132 The bisector of ÐA of DABC cuts BC at D and the circumcircle of the triangle at E. Then

A. AB : AC = BD : DC

B. AD : AC = AE : AB

C. AB : AD = AC : AE

D. AB : AD = AE : AC

Q. 133 Two circles intersect each other at P and Q. PA and PB are two diameters. Then ∠AQB is

A. 120°

B. 135°

C. 160°

D. 180°

Q. 134 O is the centre of the circle passing through the points A, B and C such that ∠BAO = 30°, ∠BCO = 40° and ∠AOC = x°. What is the value of x ?

A. 70°

B. 140°

C. 210°

D. 280°

Q. 135 A and B are centres of the two circles whose radii are 5 cm and 2 cm respectively. The direct common tangents to the circles meet AB extended at P. Then P divides AB

A. externally in the ratio 5 : 2

B. internally in the ratio 2 : 5

C. internally in the ratio 5 : 2

D. externally in the ratio 7 : 2

Q. 136 A wheel rotates 3.5 times in one second. What time (in seconds) does the wheel take to rotate 55 radian of angle?

A. 1.5

B. 2.5

C. 3.5

D. 4.5

Q. 137 If 2y cosθ = x sinθ and 2x secθ – y cosec θ= 3, then the relation between x and y is

A. 2x²+ y²= 2

B. x²+ 4y²= 4

C. x²+ 4y²= 1

D. 4x²+ y²= 4

Q. 138 if sec θ+ tan θ =√3 then the positive value of sinθ is

A. 0

B. 1/2

C. √3/2

D. 1

Q. 139 The radian measure of 63 °14′ 51″ is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 140 In a triangle ABC, AB = AC, BA is produced to D in such a manner that AC = AD. The circular measure of triangle BCD is

A. π/6

B. π/3

C. 2π/3

D. π/2

Q. 141 Find the value of the given equation

A. 4

B. 0

C. 1/8

D. 1

Q. 142 what is the value of the equation

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 143 The angles of elevation of the top of a tower standing on a horizontal plane from two points on a line passing through the foot of the tower at a distance 9 ft and 16 ft respectively are complementary angles. Then the height of the tower is

A. 9 ft

B. 12 ft

C. 16 ft

D. 144 ft

Q. 144 If sin²a = cos³a, then the value of (cot⁶a – cot²a) is

A. 1

B. 0

C. -1

D. 2

Q. 145 The simplified value of (1 + tanq + secq) (1 + cotq – cosecq) is

A. -2

B. 2

C. 1

D. -1

The Following Pie-Chart represents the profits earned by a certain company in seven sonsecutive years. Study the pie-chart carefully and answer the question.

Q. 146 If the expenditure in the year 1993 was 30% more than the expenditure in the year 1991, then the income in the year 1993 exceeds the income in the year 1991 by 30% of

A. the income in the year 1991

B. the expenditure in the year 1993

C. the income in the year 1993

D. the expenditure in the year 1991

Q. 147 If x% of the total of profits earned in all the given years is same as the profit earned in the year 1994, then x is

A. 16(2/3)

B. 33(1/3)

C. 12(1/2)

D. 11(2/3)

Q. 148 The ratios of expenditures and incomes in the years 1992, 1994 and 1996 are given to be 6 : 5 : 8 and 2 : 3 : 4 respectively. The ratio of the income in the year 1996 to the total expenditure in the years 1992 and 1994 is

A. 40 :11

B. 10 : 7

C. 20:11

D. 20 : 13

Q. 149 The year in which the profit is nearest to the average of the profits earned in all the given years is

A. 1991

B. 1995

C. 1993

D. 1994

Q. 150 If the income in the year 1997 was 5 times the expenditure made in the same year, then the ratio of the profit earned in the year 1991 to the expenditure in the year 1997 was

A. 11:28

B. 44 : 7

C. 28:11

D. 7 : 44

Q. 151 Air pollution, together with littering(A) are causing many problems(B) in our cities.(C ) No error.(D)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 152 The accused refused (A) to answer to the policeman (B) on duty (C) No error.(D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 153 What is(A) the use of me(B) attending the session?(c) No error(D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 154 We met our prospective employer, (A) for a briefing session(B) n the Taj Hotel(C) nO ERROR (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 155 Because of the severe snow storm and the road blocks,(A) the air force dropped food and(B) medical supplies close to the city(C) nO ERROR (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 156 . ______________ pollution control measures are expensive,many industries hesitate to adopt them

A. although

B. however

C. because

D. despite

Q. 157 It is not ______________ for a man to be confined to the pursuit of wealth.

A. healthy

B. easy

C. possible

D. common

Q. 158 ______________ his being innocent of the crime, the judge sentenced him to one year imprisonment.

A. inspite of

B. incase of

C. on account o f

D. in event of

Q. 159 It is a story of two men and a batch of ______________ armoured cars.

A. deceased

B. diseased

C. decrepit

D. defeated

Q. 160 Although there is ______________ gunfire, there is no stiff resistance to the revolutionary army

A. bitter

B. meagre

C. continuous

D. sporadic

Q. 161 choose the one which best expresses the meaning of Vociferous

A. violent

B. loud

C. secret

D. true

Q. 162 choose the one which best expresses the meaning of Fictional

A. genuine

B. authentic

C. fanciful

D. real

Q. 163 choose the one which best expresses the meaning of Trivial

A. crucial

B. significant

C. vital

D. ordinary

Q. 164 choose the one which best expresses the meaning of Impudent

A. vigilant

B. astute

C. Insolent

D. arrogant

Q. 165 choose the one which best expresses the meaning of Pompous

A. Pretentious

B. Supportive

C. Demanding

D. flashy

Q. 166 choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word Cultivated

A. crude

B. Genteel

C. Suave

D. Refined

Q. 167 choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word Impertinent

A. Insolent

B. Impudent

C. Cheeky

D. Courteous

Q. 168 choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word Divulge

A. Disseminate

B. Dissemble

C. Publicize

D. Transmit

Q. 169 choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word Appreciation

A. Aspersion

B. Admiration

C. Commendation

D. Compliment

Q. 170 choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word Supple

A. Pliant

B. Pliable

C. Rigid

D. Flexible

Q. 171 Once the case reached the court, the police washed their hands off it

A. waited for a response to

B. claimed credit for

C. disassociated themselves from

D. seemed eager to continue

Q. 172 She wanted to go hitch-hiking but her mother put her foot down and now she’s going by bus

A. took a firm stand

B. expressed her displeasure

C. scolded her badly

D. got irritated

Q. 173 Adolescence is a period of halcyon days

A. hard days

B. of mental pressure

C. happy days

D. days of preparation

Q. 174 My sincere advice to my maidservant fell on stony ground

A. was counter productive

B. had a strong impact

C. made on stubborn

D. had little success

Q. 175 He has all his ducks in a row; he is complacent.

A. has everything ready

B. is well organised

C. always scores a zero

D. never gets confused

Q. 176 You “shall have attended” if the court had instructed you to do so.

A. would have had to attend

B. would attend

C. would have to

D. No improvement

Q. 177 The relics of Greece “over which” such a great deal of evidence has been collected should be preserved.

A. from which

B. on which

C. ascent which

D. no improvement

Q. 178 When the beverage was ready, they drank “possibly as much as they could.”

A. as much as they possibly could

B. as much as possibly they could

C. as much as they could possibly

D. No improvement

Q. 179 A citizen is expected to give “allegiance” to his country of origin.

A. homage

B. loyalty

C. obedience

D. no improvement

Q. 180 We were “with” daggers drawn despite attempts to understandeach other.

A. in

B. on

C. at

D. no improvement

Q. 181 A round or cylindrical container used for storing things such as food, chemicals or rolls of film

A. tankard

B. canister

C. vessel

D. casket

Q. 182 A place of permanent residence

A. abode

B. dormitory

C. domicile

D. apartment

Q. 183 That cannot be altered or withdrawn

A. irrevocable

B. irretrievable

C. irrefutable

D. irresistible

Q. 184 Money paid to employees on retirement

A. gratuity

B. gift

C. pension

D. arrears

Q. 185 A place where clothes are kept

A. closet

B. drawer

C. wardrobe

D. cupboard

Q. 186 Find the correctly spelt word

A. garulous

B. garrulous

C. garullous

D. garrullous

Q. 187 Find the correctly spelt word

A. marquee

B. markue

C. marquei

D. marquie

Q. 188 Find the correctly spelt word

A. puissant

B. puiscant

C. puiscent

D. puissent

Q. 189 Find the correctly spelt word

A. disconncerting

B. disconserting

C. discuncerting

D. disconcerting

Q. 190 Find the correctly spelt word

A. exilarate

B. exhilerate

C. exsilarate

D. exhilarate

Questions: 191 – 195

Stuck with the development dilemma? Stay away from management courses. Seriously, one of the biggest complaints that organisations have about management courses is that they fail to impact the participants’ on-the-job behaviour. Some management trainers stress the need for follow-up and reinforcement on the job. Some go so far as briefing the participants’ managers on what behaviour they should be reinforcing back on the job. Other include a follow-up training day to review the progress of the participants. None of this is really going far enough The real problem is that course promoters view development as something which primarily, takes place in a classroom. A course is an event and events are, by definition limited in time. When you talk about follow-up after a course, it is seen as a nice idea, but not as an essential part of the participants’ development programme. Any rational, empowered individual should be able to take what has been learnt in a course and transfer it to the work place – or so the argument goes. Another negative aspect of the course mindset is that, primarily, development is thought to be about skill-acquisition. So, it is felt that the distinction between taking the course and behaving differently in the work place parallels the distinction between skill-acquisition and skill-application. But can such a sharp distinction be maintained? Skills are really acquired only in the context of applying them on the job, finding them effective and, therefore, reinforcing them The problem with courses is that they are events, while development is an ongoing process which, involves, within a complex environment, continual interaction, regular feedback and adjustment. As we tend to equate development with a one-off event, it is difficult to get seriously motivated about the followup. Anyone paying for a course tends to look at follow-up as an unnecessary and rather costly frill.

Q. 191 What is the passage about?

A. personal management

B. development dilemma

C. management courses

D. course promotors’ attitude

Q. 192 Which of the following statements is false?

A. Some management trainers stress the need for followup and reinforcement on the job

B. Some suggest a follow-up training day to review the progress of the participants

C. Some go to the extent of briefing the participants’ managers on what behaviour they should be reinforcing back on the job

D. The real problem is that course promoters view development as something which does not take place during a course

Q. 193 The writer’s attitude, as reflected in the passage, is

A. critical

B. ironic

C. sympathetic

D. philosophical

Q. 194 The course promoters’ attitude is

A. self-righteous

B. ndifferent

C. easy-going

D. unprogressive

Q. 195 The word ‘mindset’ here means

A. a determined mind

B. a (fixed) attitude of mind

C. an open mind

D. mindful

Questions: 196 – 200

One may look at life, events, society, history, in another way. A way which might, at a stretch, be described as the Gandhian way, though it may be from times before Mahatma Gandhi came on the scene. The Gandhian reaction to all grim poverty, squalor and degradation of the human being would approximate to effort at selfchange and self-improvement, to a regime of living regulated by discipline from within. To change society, the individual must first change himself. In this way of looking at life and society, words too begin to mean differently. Revolution, for instance, is a term frequently used, but not always in the sense it has been in thelexicon of the militant. So also with words like peace and struggle. Even society may mean differently, being some kind of organic entity for the militant, and more or less a sum of individuals for the Gandhian. There is yet another way, which might, for want of a better description, be called the mystic. The mystic’s perspective measures these concerns that transcend political ambition and the dynamism of the reformer, whether he be militant or Gandhian. The mystic measures the terror of not knowing the remorseless march of time; he seeks to know what was before birth, what comes after death? The continuous presence of death, of the consciousness of death, sets his priorities and values: militants and Gandhians, kings and prophets, must leave all that they have built; all that they have unbuilt and depart when messengers of the buffaloriding Yama come out of the shadows. Water will to water, dust to dust. Think of impermanence. Everything passes.

Q. 196 The Gandhian reaction of poverty is

A. a total war on poverty

B. self-discipline

C. self-abnegation

D. a regulated distribution of wealth

Q. 197 According to Gandianism, the individual who wants to change society

A. should destroy the existing society

B. must re-form society

C. must change himself

D. may change society without changing himself

Q. 198 Who, according to the passage, finds new meaning for words like revolutions, peace and struggle?

A. A Gandhian who believes in non-violent revolution

B. A militant

C. A mystic

D. A Gandhian who disciplines himself from within

Q. 199 The expression ‘water will to water, dust to dust’ means

A. water and dust can mix well

B. man will become water after death

C. man will one day die and become dust

D. man will become dust and water after death

Q. 200 What does society mean to a Gandhian?

A. a sum of individuals

B. an organic entity

C. a regime of living regulated by discipline from within

D. a disciplined social community

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	D	B	D	A	D	B	C	B	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	D	A	B	C	B	C	D	B	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	A	A	C	B	B	B	C	D	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	C	C	B	A	C	C	B	C	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	A	D	D	D	D	B	D	C	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	B	C	C	B	C	B	A	D	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	B	D	C	B	D	D	C	C	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	C	A	C	B	C	D	C	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	A	C	C	A	B	D	D	D	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	A	A	B	C	B	D	A	C
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	C	A	D	C	A	D	A	A	A	C
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	B	A	B	B	D	A	C	D	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	D	B	B	C	B	B	C	D	D	A
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	B	D	D	B	A	A	B	B	A	D
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	D	A	B	A	B	D	A	C	A	C
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	B	B	B	C	D	C	A	A	C	D
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	B	C	A	D	B	A	D	B	A	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	C	A	C	D	B	A	C	A	B	C
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	B	C	A	A	C	B	A	A	D	D
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	C	D	A	D	B	B	C	D	C	A

SSC CGL Tier-I 31 June 2012 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2012 31 Jun Shift 2

Q. 1 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives

EVFU : TGSH : : IRJQ : _______

A. KWLX

B. PKOL

C. OLPK

D. PKLO

Q. 2 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives

L x M : 12 x 13 : : U x W : _______

A. 21 x 22

B. 24 x 26

C. 9 x 11

D. 21 x 23

Q. 3 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives

CFIL : XURO : : ORUX : _______

A. ROLI

B. RITO

C. LIFC

D. MJFC

Q. 4 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives

CFIL : ABCD : : _______ : WXYZ

A. ZYXW

B. DCBA

C. JHPS

D. XURO

Q. 5 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives

Zoology : Animal : : Psychology : _______

A. Animal

B. Human-being

C. Animal and human-being

D. Plant

Q. 6 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives

Life starts : embryo : : Life ends : _______

A. Old age

B. Dead body

C. Illness

D. Death

Q. 7 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives

Man : Mammal : : _______

A. Hail : Snow

B. Native : Inhabitant

C. Offspring : Family

D. Liberty : Literate

Q. 8 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives

1 : 8 : : 4 : _______

A. 64

B. 512

C. 128

D. 32

Q. 9 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives

6 : 2 : : 8 : _______

A. 1

B. 3

C. 7

D. 5

Q. 10 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 81

B. 93

C. 66

D. 72

Q. 11 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. Frog

B. Tortoise

C. Crab

D. Fish

Q. 12 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 186 – 69

B. 168 – 570

C. 1001 – 100

D. 5270 – 2936

Q. 13 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. (64, 216)

B. (216, 02)

C. (343, 01)

D. (125, 27)

Q. 14 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. Jammu and Kashmir

B. Haryana

C. Himachal Pradesh

D. Arunachal Pradesh

Q. 15 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. IVEF

B. VEENS

C. EINN

D. VEIIDD

Q. 16 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 17

B. 27

C. 37

D. 47

Q. 17 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 6 3 8 5 2

B. 5 2 6 3 8

C. 2 8 7 5 1

D. 8 5 3 6 2

Q. 18 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. Number

B. Form

C. Weight

D. Size

Q. 19 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. Commission

B. Team

C. Agenda

D. Board

Q. 20 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. Addition

B. Subtract

C. Multiplication

D. Division

Q. 21 Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

DF , GJ , KM , NQ , RT, _______

A. UW

B. YZ

C. XZ

D. UX

Q. 22 Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

B I P _______ D

A. W

B. S

C. R

D. U

Q. 23 Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

AAC BBD CCE DDF EEG F_______

A. FG

B. GH

C. FH

D. DG

Q. 24 Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

RAZ SBY TCX UDW VEV _______

A. WFU

B. FWU

C. XGX

D. ZAT

Q. 25 which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?

a_ba_c_aad_aa_ea

A. babbd

B. babbc

C. bacde

D. babbb

Q. 26 which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?

aa_aa bb_b_aa_aa bb_bb

A. bbbba

B. aabbb

C. babba

D. bbbaa

Q. 27 If DEAF is equal to 32, what will be LEAF = _______

A. 48

B. 50

C. 52

D. 56

Q. 28 In a certain code, “CERTAIN” is coded as “XVIGZRM” , “SEQUENCE” is coded as “HVJFVMXV”.

How would “REQUIRED” be coded ?

A. VJIFWTRV

B. WVJRIFVI

C. IVJFRIVW

D. FJIVWVIR

Q. 29 If P denotes ÷ , Q denotes x , R denotes + , and S denotes − , then 18 Q 12 P 4 R 5 S 6 = _______

A. 53

B. 51

C. 57

D. 95

Q. 30 Find the wrong number in the series from the given alternatives.

17 , 36 , 53 , 68 , 83 , 92

A. 53

B. 68

C. 83

D. 92

Q. 31 Select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:

‘CONSTITUTIONAL’

A. LOCATION

B. TUTION

C. TALENT

D. CONSULT

Q. 32 If 25 ÷ 5 = 15, 30 ÷ 6 = 20 , then 35 ÷ 7 = _______

A. 20

B. 50

C. 25

D. 75

Q. 33 If 33 + 45 = 30, 90 + 26 = 40, then 30 + 45 = _______

A. 14

B. 16

C. 18

D. 15

Q. 34 It was Shriram’s and Sreedevi’s 12th Wedding Anniversary. Shriram said “When we got married, Sreedevi was 3/4th of my age, but now she is 5/6th of my age” . what actually are their present ages ?

A. Shriram 36, Sreedevi 30

B. Shriram 30, Sreedevi 24

C. Shriram 40, Sreedevi 34

D. Shriram 38, Sreedevi 32

Q. 35 If 64 ÷ 14 = 5, 92 ÷ 31 = 7, 26 ÷ 11 = 6, then 56 ÷ 22 = _______

A. 39

B. 7

C. 36

D. 11

Q. 36 Select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6

Q. 37 Select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6

Q. 38 Sherly starting from a fixed point goes 15 m towards North and then after turning to his right he goes 15 m. Then he goes 10, 15 and 15 metres after turning to his left each time. How far is he from his starting point ?

A. 5 metres

B. 10 metres

C. 20 metres

D. 15 metres

Q. 39 Ram and Sham start walking in opposite directions. Ram covers 6 kms and Sham 8 kms. Then Ram turns right and walks 8 kms and Sham turns left and walks 6 kms. How far each is from the starting point ?

A. 8 kms

B. 9 kms

C. 10 kms

D. 11 kms

Q. 40 Two statements are followed by 2 conclusions numbered I and II. Which one of the four alternatives is correct ?

Statement I : All teachers are aged.

Statement II : Some women are teachers.

Conclusion I : All aged are women.

Conclusion II : Some women are aged.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

D. Both conclusion I and II follows

Q. 41 Two statements are followed by 2 conclusions numbered I and II. Which one of the four alternatives is correct ?

Statement I : All skaters are good swimmers.

Statement II : All good swimmers are runners.

Conclusion I : Some runners are skaters.

Conclusion II : Some skaters are good swimmers.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Both conclusion I and II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Q. 42 If Alphabets are serially numbered, one of the answers given below has a meaningful word hidden in it. Identify the answer.

A. 5, 1, 3, 5, 20, 8, 18

B. 18, 5, 8, 1, 3, 5, 20

C. 20, 5, 8, 1, 3, 5, 18

D. 5, 18, 5, 8, 1, 3, 5, 20

Q. 43 If LUXOR is coded as 30, then GUILDS will be coded as ?

A. 36

B. 38

C. 24

D. 40

Q. 44 In the following list of English alphabets, one alphabet has not been used. Identify the same.

X N F A P S R W L T M D E X M G B

C X Q J L O P V R C Q J Z O H S G

O D I P T S M R A B E F G N U N E

A. I

B. K

C. J

D. V

Q. 45 How many 9’s are followed by and preceded by numbers divisible by 2 ?

8965359683496526973729413794173

498453976153195742968532957489451

A. 6

B. 8

C. 10

D. 12

Q. 46 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 47 which answer figure will complete the question figure ?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 48 A square sheet of paper has been folded and punched as shown below. You have to figure out from amongst the four response figures, how it will appear when opened?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 49 if a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure ?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 50 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.

The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘T’ can be represented by 31, 76 etc. and ‘S’ can be represented by 14, 99, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word STAR.

A. 23, 76, 33, 98

B. 14, 87, 98, 97

C. 69, 96, 03, 56

D. 99, 31, 86, 98

Q. 51 Who decides the disputes regarding election of President ?

A. The Supreme Court

B. The Election Commission

C. The Parliament

D. Both Supreme Court and High Courts

Q. 52 An apparatus used for locating submerged objects is known as :

A. radar

B. sonar

C. quasar

D. pulsar

Q. 53 Near which one of the following cities, the Palitana Temples are situated ?

A. Bhavnagar

B. Mount Abu

C. Mearke

D. Ujjain

Q. 54 Main cause for agitations for separate states in India is

A. regionalism

B. growing regional imbalances

C. people’s political consciousness

D. social inequalities

Q. 55 Law of ‘Use and disuse’ was proposed by :

A. Hugo De Vries

B. Lederberg

C. Lamarck

D. Darwin

Q. 56 Which revenue earned by Union Government is not distributed among State Governments ?

A. Excise duty

B. Income tax

C. Customs duty

D. None of these

Q. 57 The substance that causes the worst air pollution is

A. smoke

B. sulphur dioxide

C. carbon dioxide

D. carbon monoxide

Q. 58 Two bodies of the same mass are thrown with equal speed from the top of a tower simultaneously . One body (x) is thrown vertically downwards. The other (y) is thrown horizontally.

A. Both X and Y reaches ground simultaneously

B. Both reaches ground with same Kinetic energy

C. x reaches ground with greater Kinetic energy

D. y reaches ground with greater Kinetic energy

Q. 59 The rocket which gives us information about Mars is :

A. Cassini

B. Discovery

C. Insat 4

D. Atlas 5

Q. 60 JDBC stands for

A. Java Database Connectivity

B. Java Developer Conductivity

C. Java Database Conductivity

D. Java Developing Conductivity

Q. 61 Choose the correct one from among the following :

A. Siksha – astrology

B. nirukta – metre

C. jyotisha – phonetics

D. vyakarana – grammar

Q. 62 The famous book” A Better India , A better world” has been written by :

A. Rajiv Sikri

B. Azim Premji

C. N. R. Narayana Murthy

D. Praveen Mahapatra

Q. 63 The world’s fastest growing water plant is

A. Water Chestnut

B. Amazon water lily

C. Water hyacinth

D. Utricularia

Q. 64 The International agreement to reduce greenhouse gases between 2008 – 2012 is known as :

A. Agenda 21

B. Rule of 70

C. Rio Protocol

D. Kyoto Protocol

Q. 65 Which of the following has recently produced the first cloned camel ?

A. U.S.A

B. DUBAI

C. IRAN

D. SYRIA

Q. 66 The Newzealander’s are also known as

A. Sams

B. Kiwis

C. Arabs

D. Orientals

Q. 67 Find the odd one out :

A. EXIM Bank – Financial assistance to exporters and importers

B. IDBI – Financial assistance to large industries

C. SIDBI – Financial assistance to small industries

D. FCI – Financial assistance to food-grains merchants

Q. 68 Who is the first Law Officer of the Government of India ?

A. The Chief Justice of India

B. Law Secretary

C. Union Law Minister

D. Attorney General of India

Q. 69 ‘Milk of magnesia’ is a suspension of

A. Magnesium sulphate

B. Magnesium carbonate

C. Magnesium hydroxide

D. Magnesium chloride

Q. 70 If all the plants of the world dies, all the animals would also die due to shortage of

A. Shelter

B. Cold air

C. Food

D. Oxygen

Q. 71 A person opens his mouth on hearing a thunder in order to

A. overcome fear

B. equalise pressure of air on both sides of the eardrum

C. receive more sound

D. allow air to come out of the mouth

Q. 72 ‘EI Nino effect’ is closely associated with

A. Gulf current

B. Humboldt current

C. Equatorial counter current

D. Canaries current

Q. 73 If a bacterium cell divides in every 20 minutes, how many bacteria will be formed in two hours ?

A. 4

B. 16

C. 8

D. 64

Q. 74 The state of Jhansi was made a part of the British empire in India through the :

A. Doctrine of Lapse

B. Policy of Subsidiary alliance

C. War against Rani Lakshmi Bai

D. None of these

Q. 75 Pila globosa is used as biofilter in cleaning pollution of water by :

A. Algal blooms

B. Mercury

C. Arsenic

D. Cadmium

Q. 76 As per 2011 census, in India the number of females per thousand males is

A. 972

B. 940

C. 934

D. 933

Q. 77 Chemical name of Plaster of Paris is

A. Calcium sulphate

B. Hydrated calcium carbonate

C. Calcium hydrate

D. Calcium sulphate hemihydrate

Q. 78 Who was the first envoy of the East India company to mee Jahangir in 1608 A.D ?

A. William Hawkins

B. William Edwards

C. Sir Thomas Roe

D. Edward Terry

Q. 79 Carbohydrates are compounds of

A. carbon and hydrogen

B. carbon , oxygen and hydrogen

C. carbon , nitrogen and hydrogen

D. carbon , nitrogen

Q. 80 The growth of bacteria is measured by

A. auxanometer

B. hemocytometer

C. spectrophotometer

D. calorimeter

Q. 81 A government is classified as federal or unitary on the basis of

A. relation between the centre and states

B. relation between the executive and legislature

C. relation between three organs of government

D. none of the above

Q. 82 EVM stands for

A. Electric vending machine

B. Electronic vending machine

C. Electronic voting machine

D. none of the above

Q. 83 When the ice is heated from 0 deg to 10 deg C the volume of water

A. increases steadily

B. decreases steadily

C. first increases then decreases

D. first decreases then increases

Q. 84 Mammals form urea in the :

A. Liver

B. Kidney

C. Spleen

D. Bladder

Q. 85 Wanchoo committee dealt with

A. agricultural prices

B. agricultural taxation

C. direct taxes

D. monopolies and trade practices

Q. 86 Which of the following are wrongly matched ?

(i) Tropic of Cancer – 23½° N latitude

(ii) Tropic of Capricorn – 66½° N latitude

(iii) International Date line – 0° longitude

(iv) Antarctic Circle – 66½° S latitude

A. (i)

B. (ii) and (iii)

C. (i), (ii) and (iv)

D. None of these

Q. 87 The tributary of River indus which flows through Himachal Pradesh is

A. Hunza

B. Sutlej

C. Beas

D. Ravi

Q. 88 Which one of the following is an essential ingredient of parliamentary government ?

A. A written constitution

B. A rigid constitution

C. Political parties

D. An independent judiciary

Q. 89 Through which states does the river Chambal flows ?

A. UP,MP ,Rajasthan

B. Mp, Gujarat , U P

C. Rajasthan , MP, Bihar

D. Gujarat , Mp , Chattisgarh

Q. 90 The contents of memory will not be lost when the power goes of f in _____

A. ROM

B. EPROM

C. EEPROM

D. All the above

Q. 91 Simple Goitre is a disease affecting :

A. Gums

B. Tear glands

C. LIver

D. Thyroid glands

Q. 92 The word ‘Secular’ is a part of the Preamble of the Constitution of India :

A. after the 42ⁿᵈ amendment

B. after the 44ᵗʰ amendment

C. after the 73ʳᵈ amendment

D. from the date of implementation

Q. 93 The programme which is being implemented in all the districts of the country is:

A. Navodaya Vidyalaya

B. Rajiv Gandhi GRamin Vidytikaran Yojna

C. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan

D. M. G. N .R.E.G programme

Q. 94 Which one of the following cricketers has been declared by the ICC as cricketers of the twentieth century ?

A. Anil kumble

B. Sachin tendulkar

C. Kapil Dev

D. Rahul Dravid

Q. 95 As per the 2011 population census , the most populous state in the country is

A. Rajasthan

B. Madhya pradesh

C. Uttar pradesh

D. West bengal

Q. 96 Which one of the following is not an internal factor for industrial sickness?

A. Mismanagement

B. Diversion of funds

C. Technological Obsolescence

D. wrong dividend policy

Q. 97 Vikramshila university was found by

A. Chnadragupta Maurya

B. Kanishka

C. Dharampala

D. Pulakesin II

Q. 98 Acidity of rain in measured by

A. Barometer

B. Hygrometer

C. Ammeter

D. pH- meter

Q. 99 For which of the following are honey bees used ?

A. sericulture

B. Apiculture

C. Horticulture

D. Pisciculture

Q. 100 Chlorination is

A. a process of converting chlorides into chlorine

B. adding small amounts of chloride to contaminated water

C. a chemical reaction in which chlorine is formed

D. the formation of a salt containing chlorine

Q. 101 The average temperature of Monday , Tuesday and Wednesday was 30° C and that of Tuesday , Wednesday and Thursday was 33° C. IF the temperature on Monday was 32° C , then the temperature on Thursday was :

A. 30°C

B. 31°C

C. 32°C

D. 33°C

Q. 102 A watch is sold at a profit of 30 % .Had it been sold for Rs. 80 less , there would have been a lo of 10 % .What is the cost price in rupees ?

A. 200

B. 400

C. 800

D. 150

Q. 103 The mean of 19 observations is 24 .If the mean of the first 10 observations is 17 and that of the last 10 observations is 24 , find the 10ᵗʰ observation .

A. 37

B. 46

C. 53

D. 65

Q. 104 R and r are the radius of 2 circle (R > r) .If the distance between the centre of the 2 circles bed , then the length of common tangent of 2 circles is

A. √d²- (R²-r²)

B. √(R²-r²)-d²

C. √R²-d²

D. √r²- d²

Q. 105 O is the circumcentre of the triangle ABC with circumradius 13 cm .Let BC= 24 cm and OD is perpendicular to Bc.then the lenght of OD is

A. 3 cm

B. 4 cm

C. 5 cm

D. 7 cm

Q. 106 IF a commission of 10 % is given on the marked price of a work , the publisher gains 20 %.If the commission is increased to 15 % the gain percent is

A. 16⅔%

B. 13⅓%

C. 15⅙%

D. 15 %

Q. 107 If (5x² – 3y²) : xy = 11 : 2, then the positive value of x/y is :

A. 5/2

B. 3/2

C. 5/3

D. 7/2

Q. 108 A boy standing in the middle of a field, observes a flying bird in the north at an angle of elevation fo 30 degree. and after 2 min, he observes the same bird in the south at an angle of elevation of 60 degree. If the bird flies all along in a straight line at a height of 50√3 then its speed in km/h is.

A. 3

B. 9

C. 6

D. 4.5

Q. 109 By selling 9 articles for a rupee, a man incurred a loss of 4%. To make a gain of 44%, the number of articles to be sold for a rupee is :

A. 3

B. 4

C. 6

D. 5

Q. 110 By decreasing 15° of each angle of a triangle, the ratios of their angles are 2 : 3 : 5. The radian measure of greatest angle is :

A. π/12

B. π/24

C. 5π/24

D. 11π/24

Q. 111 AB is a diameter of a circle with centre O. CD is a chord equal to the radius of the circle. AC and BD are produced to meet at P. Then the measure of ∠APB is :

A. 30°

B. 60°

C. 90°

D. 120°

Q. 112 The least value of 4 cosec²α = 9 sin²α is :

A. 10

B. 11

C. 12

D. 14

Q. 113 The perimeter of an isosceles right-angled triangle is 2p unit. The area of the same triangle is :

A. (2 + √2) p² sq.unit

B. (2 – √2) p² sq.unit

C. (3 – √2) p² sq.unit

D. (3 – 2√2) p² sq.unit

Q. 114 If G is the centroid of ΔABC and AG = BC, then ∠BGC is :

A. 45°

B. 90°

C. 60°

D. 75°

Q. 115 Prabhat took a certain amount as a loan from a bank at the rate of 8% p.a simple inters and gave the same amount to Ashih as a loan at the rate of 12 % p.a .IF at the end of 12 years , he made a profit of Rs.960 in the deal , then the original amount was :

A. Rs.1000

B. Rs.2000

C. Rs.3000

D. Rs. 3356

Q. 116 In a right-angled triangle ABC, ∠B is the right angle and AC = 2√5 cm. If AB – BC = 2 cm, then the value of (cos²A – cos²C) is :

A. 3/5

B. 6/5

C. 3/10

D. 2/5

Q. 117 then the value of x is :

A. 30

B. √15

C. 15

D. 6

Q. 118 If tan(x+y) tan (x-y) = 1, then the value of tan x is :

A. 1

B. 1/2

C. 1/√3

D. √3

Q. 119 If ax + by = 6, bx – ay = 2 and x² + y² = 4, then the value of (a² + b²) would be :

A. 2

B. 4

C. 5

D. 10

Q. 120 The perimeters of two similar triangles ΔABC and ΔPQR are 36 cm and 24 cm respectively. If PQ = 10 cm, then AB is :

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 25

Q. 121 P is a point outside a circle and is 13 cm away from its centre. A secant drawn from the point P intersects the circle at points A and B in such a way thet PA = 9 cm and AB = 7 cm.

The radius of the circle is :

A. 5 cm

B. 4 cm

C. 4,5 cm

D. 5.5 cm

Q. 122 The next term of the series -1, 6, 25, 62, 123, 214, ______ is :

A. 143

B. 341

C. 343

D. 345

Q. 123 1 + 876542 × 876544 / 876543 × 876543 is equal to

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Q. 124 The greatest no. that will divide 19, 35 and 59 to leave the same remainder in each case is :

A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 9

Q. 125 If cotA + cosecA = 3 and A is an acute angle, then the value of cosA is :

A. 1

B. 1/2

C. 3/4

D. 4/5

Q. 126 The area of the largest triangle that can be inscribed in a semi circle of radius x in square unit is :

A. x²

B. 2x²

C. 3x²

D. 4x²

Q. 127 If a = √3 – √2 / √3 + √2 , b = √3 + √2 / √3 – √2 , then the value of a²/b + b²/a is :

A. 970

B. 1030

C. 930

D. 900

Q. 128 If a + 1/a + 2 = 0, then the value of (a + 2)³ + 1/(a + 2)³ is :

A. 6

B. 4

C. 3

D. 2

Q. 129 The simplied value of

A. 0

B. 1

C. sin A

D. cos A

Q. 130 If x = 2 + √3 , then the value of √x + 1/√x is :

A. √6

B. 2√6

C. 6

D. √3

Q. 131 A jar contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in the ratio 4 : 1. When 10 lt of the mixture is replaced with liquid B, the ratio becomes 2 : 3. The volume of liquid A present in the jar earlier was :

A. 10 lt

B. 16 lt

C. 15 lt

D. 20 lt

Q. 132 Area of the traingle formed by the graph of the line 2x – 3y + 6 = 0 along with the coordinate axes is :

A. 3/2 sq. units

B. 3 sq. units

C. 6 sq. units

D. 1/2 sq. units

Q. 133 If α is a positive acute angle and 2 sinα + 15 cos²α = 7, then the value of cotα is :

A. 4/3

B. √5/2

C. 2/√5

D. 3/4

Q. 134 A three-digit number 4a3 is added to another three-digit number 984 to give the four digit number 13b7 which is divisble by 11.

Then the value of (a + b) is :

A. 12

B. 9

C. 10

D. 11

Q. 135 In a partnership business, A invests 1/6th of the capital for 1/6 of the total time, B invests 1/4 of the capital for 1/4 of the total time and C, the rest of the capital for the whole time. Out of a profit of Rs 19,400, B’s share is :

A. 1200

B. 1600

C. 1800

D. 2000

Q. 136 Area of the trapezium formed by x-axis; y-axis and the lines 3x + 4y =12 and 6x + 8y = 60 is :

A. 31.5 sq. unit

B. 48 sq. unit

C. 36.5 sq. unit

D. 37.5 sq. unit

Q. 137 A train overtakes two persons who are walking in the same direction in which the train is running, at the rate of 2 kmph and 4 kmph and passes them completely in 9 and 10 seconds respectively. The length of the trian ( in metres) is :

A. 45

B. 54

C. 50

D. 72

Q. 138 ΔABC and ΔDEF are similar and their areas be respectively 64 cm² and 121 cm². If = 15.4 cm, BC is :

A. 11.2 cm

B. 12.1 cm

C. 11.0 cm

D. 12.3 cm

Q. 139 If 12 men or 18 women can reap a field in 14 days, then working at the same rate, 8 men and 16 women can reap the same field in :

A. 5 days

B. 7 days

C. 8 days

D. 9 days

Q. 140 If a³ – b³ = 56 and a – b = 2, then the value of (a² + b²) is :

A. -12

B. 20

C. 18

D. -10

Q. 141 If tanθ – cotθ and cosθ – sinθ = b, then the value of (a² + 4 ) ( b² – 1)² is :

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 142 If a + 1/a = 1, then the value of a³ is :

A. 2

B. -1

C. 4

D. -2

Q. 143 D and E are the mid-points of AB and AC of ΔABC; BC is produced to any point P; DE; DP and EP are joined. Then,

A. ΔPED = ΔBEC

B. ΔADE = ΔBEC

C. ΔBDE = ΔBEC

D. ΔPED = 1/4ΔABC

Q. 144 The length of the common chord of two circles of radii 15 cm and 20 cm whose centres are 25 cm apart is (in cm) :

A. 24

B. 25

C. 15

D. 20

Q. 145 If (a² – b²) sinθ + 2 ab cosθ = a² + b², then the value of tan is

A. 1/2 (a² – b²)

B. 1/2ab (a² – b²)

C. 1/2 (a² + b²)

D. 1/2ab (a² + b²)

Q. 146 The range of BSNL simcard sold in the 4states in lakhs is:

A. 15

B. 14

C. 13

D. 12

Q. 147 In Assam, the ratio of Aircell simcard and Airtel simcard sold is :

A. 2 : 5

B. 5 : 2

C. 2 : 3

D. 3 : 2

Q. 148 In which state are there the largest number of owners of Airtel simcard ?

A. Gujarat

B. Kerala

C. Assam

D. Tamilnadu

Q. 149 Average of simcard sold in the four states in lakhs is

A. 40.5

B. 35

C. 33.75

D. 30.25

Q. 150 Of all the simcards sold in all the four states, the number of simcards sold in Gujarat is (approx)

A. 38%

B. 35%

C. 42%

D. 40%

Q. 151 some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none .Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C ). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to (D) in the Answer sheet.

Indian scinetists are in no way (A) / inferior than (B) / any other scientist in the world (C) / no error

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 152 some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none .Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C ). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to (D) in the Answer sheet.

Belgiun chocolate is considered (A) / by many to be finer (B) / than any others in the World (C) / no error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 153 some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none .Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C ). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to (D) in the Answer sheet.

My grandfather owns (A) / fifty acre (B) / of wet land (C) / no error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 154 some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none .Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C ). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to (D) in the Answer sheet.

Our history can be seen as a long evolutionary dialectical development (A) / in which there have been (B) / a painstaking forging of rational and moral self (C) / No error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 155 some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none .Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C ). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to (D) in the Answer sheet.

Our knowledge of history does not come to (A) / Our help and some times we even fail to (B) / remember who invented America (C) / No error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

In questions 156 to 160 senstences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate words . Choose the correct alternative out of the four

Q. 156 Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle in the Anwser sheet.

We didn’t _______ the programme to be such a huge success .

A. accept

B. except

C. expect

D. access

Q. 157 Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle in the Anwser sheet.

I suffer from no ___________ about my cpabilities.

A. illusions

B. doubts

C. hallucinations

D. imaginations

Q. 158 The government, in a bid to make Bihar, a preferred investment destination, has ________________ major schemes to create infrastructure at different stages.

A. launched

B. opposed

C. opened

D. pushed

Q. 159 The student’s aren’t prepared _________ the examination.

A. to give

B. to listen

C. to work

D. to take

Q. 160 We should _________ opportunities as they arise.

A. seize

B. cease

C. size

D. sneeze

Q. 161 Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word mark it in the Answer sheet.

Duplicity

A. repetition

B. artlessness

C. deceit

D. cleverness

Q. 162 Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word mark it in the Answer sheet.

Vanguard

A. Race driver

B. Officer

C. Flag bearer

D. Pioneer

Q. 163 Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word mark it in the Answer sheet.

Fortitude

A. Similarity

B. Courage

C. Protection

D. Safety

Q. 164 Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word mark it in the Answer sheet.

Inadvertent

A. Ignorant

B. Unexpected

C. Unintentional

D. Undisturbed

Q. 165 Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word mark it in the Answer sheet.

Fidelity

A. Faithfulness

B. Resourcefulness

C. Strength

D. Weakness

Q. 166 Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.

Amicable

A. hostile

B. friendly

C. haughty

D. unpleasant

Q. 167 Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.

Aversion

A. avoidance

B. awareness

C. hatred

D. liking

Q. 168 Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.

Taciturn

A. judge

B. silent

C. talkative

D. immense

Q. 169 Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.

Mitigate

A. abate

B. aggravate

C. allay

D. alleviate

Q. 170 Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.

Artisan

A. unskilled labour

B. skilled labour

C. learned person

D. ignorant villager

Q. 171 Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

At first, there was a show of resistance to the new rule issued by the Government, but the movement had no backbone and speedily collapsed.

A. support

B. justification

C. impact

D. strength

Q. 172 Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

The cops were on their toes throughout the day.

A. quick

B. eager

C. alert

D. harried

Q. 173 Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

When the family in the next house packed off at midnight, I began to smell a rat.

A. to smell a bad smell

B. to suspect a trick

C. to misunderstand

D. to see hidden meaning

Q. 174 Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

He was out of spirits for a few days after his defeat.

A. uninvolved

B. gloomy

C. sober

D. lifeless

Q. 175 Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

The minister assured the agitating employees that he would look into their demands

sympathetically.

A. examine

B. discuss

C. watch

D. grant

Q. 176 Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D).

Those plucking flowers are liable for punishable.

A. are liable for punishable

B. are liable for punishing

C. are liable to be punished

D. are viable for punishment

Q. 177 Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D).

When we see black smoke near the wing of the plane, we were certain that disaster was imminent.

A. When we were seeing

B. When we saw

C. When we had seen

D. No improvement

Q. 178 Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D).

The prolific writer’s work is published every year.

A. exquisite

B. didactic

C. great

D. no improvement

Q. 179 Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D).

His lust for power brought about his downfall.

A. Intense desire

B. Desire for power

C. Desire for sex

D. No improvement

Q. 180 Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D).

I’II meet the raging of the skies, but not an angry father.

A. sunshine

B. rain

C. anger

D. no improvement

Q. 181 choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

One indifferent to art and literature is

A. aromantic

B. critic

C. philistine

D. scholar

Q. 182 choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

“Open to injury or Criticism”.

A. Invincible

B. Vulnerable

C. Naive

D. Sensitive

Q. 183 choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

Government by a small group of all powerful persons.

A. Oligarchy

B. Monarchy

C. democracy

D. Anarchy

Q. 184 choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

A narrow piece of land connecting two large masses of land.

A. peninsula

B. isthmus

C. continent

D. gulf

Q. 185 choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

One who collects coins as a hobby.

A. philatelist

B. ornithologist

C. statistician

D. numismatist

Q. 186 There are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.

A. benificial

B. beneficil

C. beneficial

D. benifical

Q. 187 There are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.

A. uniquely

B. internaly

C. coldly

D. fortunetely

Q. 188 There are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.

A. apprehenson

B. apprehension

C. apprihension

D. aprihension

Q. 189 There are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.

A. affactionately

B. affectionately

C. afectionately

D. affectionnality

Q. 190 There are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.

A. averisious

B. avericious

C. avaricious

D. avarisious

You have two brief passage with 5 questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it in the Answer sheet. If this is so, if to read a book as it should be read calls for the rarest Qualities of imagination, insight and judgement. You may perhaps conclude that literature is a very complex art and a life time of reading, to make any valuable contribution to its criticism. We must remain readers, we shall not put on the further glory that belongs to those rare beings who are also critics.

Q. 191 What are the Qualities required for reading a book ?

A. proper judgement

B. imagination

C. imagination , insight and judgement

D. none of the above

Q. 192 According to the author

A. Most of the people can contribute to criticism of literature

B. It is not possible for most of us to contribute anything for criticism

C. It is possible to do something

D. It is not even easy to understand literature

Q. 193 What is the opinion of most of the people about literature ?

A. That it is very easy to understand

B. That it is not an easy one to contribute anything

C. That it is to some extent difficult to understand

D. That no contribution is necessary for literature

Q. 194 The antonym of conclude is

A. include

B. commence

C. exclude

D. end

Q. 195 The author feels that we cannot have the greatness of

A. readers

B. writers

C. critics

D. publishers

These days not even many politicians deny that the oceans are ill. Protecting the health of coastal waters is now a matter of national policy in dozens of countries including the U.S., and world leaders are beginning to prescribe a revolutionary remedy that conservationists have been promoting for years : marine planning and zoning. The idea is a natural extension of management policies that have guided the development of cities and landscapes for nearly a century. Zoning advocates envision a mosaic of regional. Drilling and mining would be allowed only in certain parts of the ocean; fishing in others. The most critically threatened areas would be virtually off-limits. Whereas people can easily find maps telling them what they can do where on land , the marine – realm is a hodge – podge of rules emanating from an army of agencies, each one managing a single use or symptom.

Q. 196 Seazoning is all about __________.

A. dividing watery space for specific purposes

B. drilling and sea mining

C. conserving the environment

D. banning fishing in the sea

Q. 197 Marine planning and zoning is a __________ to protect the coastal waters.

A. national policy of the US

B. conservationists discovery

C. marine project

D. revolutionary remedy

Q. 198 Marine realm is a hodge-podge of rules means __________.

A. coastal areas are not being looked after properly

B. seas need to be cleaned

C. there are no uniform laws governing the seas.

D. there is total anarchy

Q. 199 These days _________ that the oceans are not in good health.

A. everybody agrees

B. most of the politicians agree

C. all politicians agree

D. nobody agrees

Q. 200 ‘Conservationist’ means ____________.

A. a proficient speaker

B. a marine engineer

C. one who looks after others

D. one who prevents something from destruction

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	D	C	D	C	B	C	B	B	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	B	B	A	D	B	C	B	C	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	A	C	A	C	C	A	C	A	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	C	D	A	B	D	A	B	C	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	B	C	B	A	B	C	D	A	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	A	A	B	C	C	D	B	D	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	C	C	D	B	B	D	D	C	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	B	D	A	D	B	D	A	B	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	A	C	D	A	C	B	B	C	A	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	D	A	C	C	C	C	C	D	B	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	B	B	B	A	C	B	B	B	C	D
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	C	D	B	B	A	C	A	D	B
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	A	B	B	C	D	A	A	D	D	A
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	B	B	D	C	C	A	C	A	D	B
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	D	B	D	A	B	C	A	D	D	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	B	C	B	B	C	C	A	A	A	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	C	D	A	C	A	A	D	C	B	A
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	D	C	B	B	A	D	B	D	B	D
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	C	B	A	B	D	C	A	B	B	C
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	C	B	B	B	C	A	D	C	B	D

SSC CGL Tier-I 26 June 2012 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2012 26 Jun Shift 2

Q. 1 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :

8:9: :56:?

A. 90

B. 73

C. 72

D. 89

Q. 2 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :

ACEG : ZXVT : : BDFH: ?

A. YVSP

B. IKMO

C. YUQM

D. YWUS

Q. 3 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :

BCFG:HILM: :NORQ:?

A. TXUW

B. TUXW

C. TVWX

D. TXWU

Q. 4 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :

Affluent : Opulent : : Flourish : ?

A. Prosper

B. Flatter

C. Comprise

D. Outfolow

Q. 5 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :

25:37: :49: ?

A. 56

B. 60

C. 65

D. 41

Q. 6 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :

ABCD : ZYXW : : EFGH : ?

A. VUTS

B. EUTS

C. POTS

D. UOTS

Q. 7 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :

7:32 : :28: ?

A. 128

B. 126

C. 136

D. 116

Q. 8 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :

Gulp : Drink : : Rush: ?

A. Jump

B. Hop

C. Go

D. Run

Q. 9 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :

Joy : Delight : : Gloomy : ?

A. Silent

B. Dull

C. Vague

D. Plain

Q. 10 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :

A. JQ

B. AT

C. HK

D. CF

Q. 11 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :

A. Mumbai

B. New Delhi

C. Kolkata

D. Chennai

Q. 12 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :

A. Tiger

B. Cheetah

C. Lion

D. Wolf

Q. 13 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :

A. OUT

B. FED

C. DIN

D. JOT

Q. 14 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :

A. 26

B. 82

C. 15

D. 65

Q. 15 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :

A. 27

B. 37

C. 47

D. 17

Q. 16 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :

A. CFI

B. DGJ

C. EHL

D. BEH

Q. 17 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :

A. 5 – 35

B. 4 – 44

C. 6 – 64

D. 3 – 30

Q. 18 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :

A. Disk

B. SIM

C. USB

D. Modem

Q. 19 Directions: Which of the following word will appear last in the dictionary?

A. rhapsody

B. revolve

C. rheumatism

D. reward

Q. 20 Directions: Which of the following word will appear last in the dictionary?

A. heart string

B. heavy

C. health

D. heathen

Q. 21 Directions: Which of the following word will appear last in the dictionary?

A. prize

B. prosecute

C. prompt

D. prostate

Q. 22 Directions: A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the

given ones that will complete the series:

2 6 12 20 30 ? 56

A. 38 B. 46

C. 56

D. 42

Q. 23 Directions: A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series:

JkL AbC MnO DeF PqE Gh ?

A. I

B. i

C. S

D. s

Q. 24 Directions: A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series:

1,4,10,19,31,?

A. 43

B. 46

C. 50

D. 55

Q. 25 Directions: A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series:

RQOLH?

A. B

B. C

C. D

D. A

Q. 26 Directions: A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series:

YXHGWVFEUTDCSRB?

A. D

B. C

C. I

D. A

Q. 27 Directions: A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series:

0,6,24,60,120,210,…..

A. 336

B. 504

C. 338

D. 420

Q. 28 A husband and a wife had five married sons and each of them had four children. How many members are there in the family?

A. 32

B. 36

C. 30

D. 40

Q. 29 In a certain code, if DEMOCRACY is written as YCARCOMED, how will the word PRESIDENT be coded as?

A. EIETPRSDN

B. NDSRPTEIE

C. TNEDISERP

D. RSDNPEIET

Q. 30 From the given alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

‘Distribution’

A. tribute

B. riot

C. dust

D. disturb

Q. 31 If ‘MOTHER’ is coded as ‘NPUIFS’, select the appropriate code from the answer choices, for the word in capital letters:- ZENITH

A. AFOGHJ

B. BGPKVJ

C. AFOJUI

D. AFOGHI

Q. 32 If AEIOU is written as BCJMV, how XCKYB can be written in that code?

A. YALWC

B. ADNZE

C. YELAC

D. YBLXC

Q. 33 Five persons (R,S,T,U and V) are in a queue facing a reservation counter. Immediately behind S is U. T is standing between R and V. In between R and U, no one is there. Then, where is S standing in the queue?

A. Last but one

B. First

C. Second

D. Last

Q. 34 In the year 2003, some months have 31 days . How many months have 28 days.

A. 12 month

B. Alternative months

C. 6 month

D. 1 month

Q. 35 In a team of five players, Vani is older than Rani. Sita is younger than Vani but older than Rani. Nita is younger than Mary and Rani. Rani is older than Mary. Whose age is middle of all the five in this team?

A. Mary

B. Vani

C. Rani

D. Sita

Q. 36 In a certain code, SURFER is written as RUSREF.

How is KNIGHT written in that code?

A. THGINK

B. GHTINK

C. INKTHG

D. THINKG

Q. 37 Directions: Some equations are solved on the basis of certain system. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on the basis:

4 6 8

5 8 3

266 398 ?

A. 544

B. 445

C. 515

D. 454

Q. 38 Directions: Some equations are solved on the basis of certain system. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on the basis:

4x6x9=649, 9x8x4=894, 3x7x2=?

A. 272

B. 294

C. 732

D. 813

Q. 39 Based on the given details, find out the number of postgraduates enrolled in a college for the year 1970.

1968 1969 1970 1971 1972

113 88 ? 63 59

A. 63

B. 79

C. 72

D. 84

Q. 40 Two squads of soldiers A and B facing North and South respectively revived the following commands – Right Turn, Left Turn, Left Turn, Left Turn. Which squads A and B face at the end?

A. South, North

B. West, East

C. North, South

D. East, West

Q. 41 In a square-shaped hostel, there are 8 rooms on each side in every floor. Room No. 101 is the first room facing north in the first floor. The room numbers are continued clockwise.

Which direction does Room No. 125 face?

A. South

B. North

C. West

D. East

Q. 42 Select the missing number from the given responses.

9 6 7

8 ? 3

3 5 8

216 900 168

A. 30

B. 55

C. 60

D. 70

Q. 43 If x stands for +, ÷ stands for – and + stands for ÷, which one of the following is correct?

A. 11-6÷4+2=64

B. 10-5 x 6÷2=54

C. 15+3×4÷3=12

D. 12+4÷2-7=8

Q. 44 Direction: Two statements are given, followed by two conclusion I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions if any, follow from the given statements.

Statements: 1. All scholars are eccentric.

Statements: 2. No women is eccentric.

Conclusion:I No women is scholar.

Conclusion:II All eccentric are men.

A. Only conclusion II follows

B. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

C. Both conclusions I and II follows

D. Only conclusion I follows

Q. 45 Direction: Two statements are given, followed by two conclusion I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions if any, follow from the given statements.

Statements: 1. All students are girls.

Statements: 2. No girl is dull.

Conclusion:I. There are no boys in the class

Conclusion:II. No student is dull.

A. Only conclusion II follows

B. Both conclusions I and II follow

C. Neither conclusion I nor II follow

D. Only conclusion I follows

Q. 46 Direction: From the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters given in the word.

POWERHOUSE

A. USER

B. HORSE

C. PERUSE

D. sweeper

Q. 47 Find the odd word from the given alternative.

A. Cowdung

B. Mustard oil

C. Petrol

D. Coal

Q. 48 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and fill in the blank space.

1,6,11,18,27,?

A. 38

B. 48

C. 49

D. 35

Q. 49 Sunday is Friday as Wednesday is to

A. Tuesday

B. Sunday

C. Friday

D. Monday

Q. 50 Five boys are sitting in the first bench on the right hand side of their classroom. Kumar has two boys on his left and two on his right. Abdul is sitting next to kumar, but he(Abdul) is not adjacent to John or Dev. Sid is not sitting next to John. Sid is not sitting next to John. Then, who is/ are sitting next to him(Sid)?

A. Kumar

B. Kumar and Dev

C. Dev

D. Abdul

Q. 51 Which of the following has recently produced the first cloned camel?

A. DUBAI

B. IRAN

C. SYRIA

D. U.S.A

Q. 52 If all the plants of the world dies, all the animals would also die due to shortage of

A. Cold air

B. Food

C. Oxygen

D. Shelter

Q. 53 Chlorination is

A. adding small amount of chlorine to contaminated water

B. a chemical reaction in which chlorine is formed

C. the formation of a salt containing chlorine

D. a process of converting chlorides into chlorine

Q. 54 Who decides the disputes regarding election of President?

A. The Supreme Court

B. The Election Commission

C. The Parliament

D. Both Supreme Court and High Court

Q. 55 The growth of bacteria is measured by

A. hemacytometer

B. spectrophotometer

C. calorimeter

D. auxanometer

Q. 56 For which one of the following, are honey bees used?

A. Apiculture

B. Horticulture

C. Pisciculture

D. Sericulture

Q. 57 Which one of the following is not an internal factor for industrial sickness?

A. Diversion of funds

B. Technological obsolescence

C. Wrong dividend policy

D. Mismanagement

Q. 58 Who is the first law officer of the government of India?

A. Law secretary

B. Union law minister

C. Attorney General of India

D. The chief justice of India

Q. 59 The substance that causes the worst air pollution is

A. Sulphur dioxide

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Carbon monoxide

D. Smoke

Q. 60 Mammals form urea in the

A. Kidney

B. Spleen

C. Bladder

D. Liver

Q. 61 Main cause for agitations for separate states in India is

A. Growing regional imbalances

B. People’s political consciousness

C. Social inequalities

D. Regionalism

Q. 62 Vikramshila University was founded by

A. Kanishka

B. Dharampala

C. Pulakesin II

D. Chandra Gupta Maurya

Q. 63 A government is classified as federal or unitary on the basis of

A. Relations between the centre and states

B. Relations between the executive and the legislature

C. Relations between three organs of government

D. None of the above

Q. 64 Choose the correct one from among the following –

A. Nirukta – metre

B. Jyotisha – phonetics

C. Vyakarana – grammar

D. Siksha – astrology

Q. 65 The Newzealander’s are also known as

A. Kiwis

B. Arabs

C. Orientals

D. Sams

Q. 66 Near which one of the following cities, the Palitana Temples are situated?

A. Mount Abu

B. Mearke

C. Ujjain

D. Bhavnagar

Q. 67 Which one of the following is an essential ingredient of parliamentary government?

A. A rigid constitution

B. Political parties

C. An independent judiciary

D. A written constitution

Q. 68 ‘El Nino effect’ is closely associated with

A. Humboldt current

B. Equatorial counter current

C. Canaries current

D. Gulf current

Q. 69 ‘EVM’ stands

A. Electric Vending Machine

B. Electronic Vending Machine

C. Electronic Voting Machine

D. None of the above

Q. 70 JDBC stands for

A. Java Developer Connectivity

B. Java Database Connectivity

C. Java Developing Connectivity

D. Java Database Conductivity

Q. 71 ‘Milk of Magnesia’ is a suspension of

A. Magnesium carbonate

B. Magnesium hydroxide

C. Magnesium chloride

D. Magnesium sulphate

Q. 72 Pila globosa is used as biofilter in cleaning pollution of water by

A. Mercury

B. Arsenic

C. Cadmium

D. Algal blooms

Q. 73 Find the odd one out

A. IDBI – Financial assistance to large industries

B. SIDBI – Financial assistance to small industries

C. FCI – Financial assistance to food – grains merchants

D. EXIM Bank – Financial assistance to exporters and importers

Q. 74 The word ‘Secular’ is a part of the Preamble of the Constitution of India –

A. After the 44th amendment

B. After the 73rd amendment

C. From the date of implementation

D. After the 42nd amendment

Q. 75 Chemical name of a Plaster of Paris is

A. Hydrated calcium carbonate

B. Calcium hydrate

C. Calcium sulphate hemihydrate

D. Calcium sulphate

Q. 76 The tributary of River Indus which flows through Himachal Pradesh is

A. Sutlej

B. Beas

C. Ravi

D. Hunza

Q. 77 Acidity of rain is measured by

A. Hygrometer

B. Ammeter

C. pH – meter

D. Barometer

Q. 78 Which revenue earned by Union Government is not distributed among State

Governments?

A. Excise duty

B. Income tax

C. Customs duty

D. None of these

Q. 79 The world’s fastest growing water plant is

A. Amazon water lily

B. Water hyacinth

C. Utricularia

D. Water Chestnut

Q. 80 The contents of memory will not be lost, when the power goes off in

A. ROM

B. EPROM

C. EEPROM

D. All the above

Q. 81 The Programme which is being implemented in all the districts of the country is

A. Rajiv Gandhi Gramin Vidyutikaran Yojna

B. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan

C. M.G.N.R.E.G. Programme

D. Navodaya Vidyalaya

Q. 82 Who was the first envoy of the East India Company to meet Jahangir in 1608 A.D?

A. William Edwards

B. Sir Thomas Roe

C. Edward Terry

D. William Hawkins

Q. 83 As per 2011 census, in India the number of females per thousand males is

A. 940

B. 934

C. 933

D. 972

Q. 84 Law of ‘Use and disuse’ was proposed by

A. Lederberg

B. Lamarck

C. Darwin

D. Hugo De Vries

Q. 85 Which one of the following Cricketers has been declared by the ICC as ‘Cricketer of the Twentieth Century’?

A. Sachin Tendulkar

B. Kapil Dev

C. Rahul Dravid

D. Anil Kumble

Q. 86 The rocket which gives us information about Mars is

A. Discovery

B. Insat 4

C. Atlas 5

D. Cassini

Q. 87 Wanchoo Committee dealt with

A. Agricultural taxation

B. Direct taxes

C. Monopolies and trade practices

D. Agricultural prices

Q. 88 Carbohydrates are compounds of

A. Carbon, oxygen and hydrogen

B. Carbon, nitrogen and hydrogen

C. Carbon and nitrogen

D. Carbon and hydrogen

Q. 89 If a bacterium cell divides in every 20 minutes, how many bacteria will be formed in 2 hours?

A. 16

B. 8

C. 64

D. 4

Q. 90 The International agreement to reduce greenhouse gases between 2008-2012 is known as

A. Rule of 70

B. Rio protocol

C. Kyoto protocol

D. Agenda 21

Q. 91 A person opens his mouth on hearing a thunder in order to

A. Equalise pressure of air on both sides of the eardrum

B. Receive more sound

C. Allow air to come out of the mouth

D. Overcome fear

Q. 92 When ice is heated from 0°C to 10°C, the volume of water

A. Decreases steadily

B. First increases then decreases

C. First decreases then increases

D. Increases steadily

Q. 93 Through which states does the river Chambal flows?

A. M.P., Gujarat, U.P

B. Rajasthan, M.P., Bihar

C. Gujarat, M.P., Chattisgarh

D. U.P., M.P., Rajasthan

Q. 94 As per the 2011 population census, the most populous state in the country is

A. Madhya Pradesh

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. West Bengal

D. Rajasthan

Q. 95 The state of Jhansi was made a part of the British empire in India through the

A. Doctrine of Lapse

B. Policy of Subsidiary alliance

C. War against Rani Lakshmi Bai

D. None of these

Q. 96 The famous book “A Better India, A better world” has been written by

A. Azim Premji

B. N.R. Narayana Murthy

C. Praveen Mahapatra

D. Rajiv Sikri

Q. 97 Simple Goitre is disease affecting

A. Tear glands

B. Liver

C. Thyroid glands

D. Gums

Q. 98 Two bodies of the same mass are thrown with equal speed from the top of a tower simultaneously. One body (x) is thrown vertically downwards. The other (y) is thrown horizontally

A. Both reaches ground with same Kinetic energy

B. x reaches ground with greater Kinetic energy

C. y reaches ground with greater Kinetic energy

D. Both x and y reaches ground simultaneously

Q. 99 An apparatus used for locating submerged object is known as

A. Sonar

B. Quasar

C. Pulsar

D. Radar

Q. 100 Which of the following are wrongly matched?

(i) Tropic of Cancer – 23+1/2°N latitude

(ii) Tropic of Capricorn – 66+1/2°N latitude

(iii) International Date line – 0° longitude

(iv) Antarctic circle – 66+1/2°S latitude

A. (i)

B. (ii) and (iii)

C. (i), (ii) and (iv)

D. None of these

Q. 101 The average of 1², 2², 3², 4², 5², 6², 7², 8², 9², 10² is

A. 42.5

B. 46.5

C. 50.5

D. 38.5

Q. 102 The distance between the points (0, 0) and the intersecting point of the graphs of x=3 and y=4 is

A. 4 unit

B. 3 unit

C. 2 unit

D. 5 unit

Q. 103 A certain number when divided by 899 leaves the remainder 65. When the same number is divided by 31, the remainder is

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 1

Q. 104 If G is the centroid and AD, BE, CF are three medians of ABC with area 72 cm², then the area of ΔBDG is

A. 12 cm²

B. 16 cm²

C. 24 cm²

D. 8 cm²

Q. 105 If a+b=6, a-b=2, then the value of 2(a²+b²) is

A. 20

B. 30

C. 40

D. 10

Q. 106 The odd element in the sequence

3, 7, 13, 21, 33, 43, 57, __________ is

A. 21

B. 33

C. 43

D. 7

Q. 107 The tangents drawn at the points A and B of a circle centred at O meet at P. If ∠AOB=120° then ∠APB : ∠APO is

A. 2 : 5

B. 3 : 2

C. 4 : 1

D. 2 : 1

Q. 108 From the top of a cliff 90 m high, the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a tower are observed to be 30° and 60° respectively. The height of the tower is

A. 45 m

B. 60 m

C. 75 m

D. 30 m

Q. 109 The least positive integer which is a perfect square and also divisible by each of 21, 36 and 66 is

A. 186624

B. 213444

C. 254016

D. 156816

Q. 110 The value of x when 5% of √2x is 0.01 will be

A. 0.03

B. 0.02

C. 0.01

D. 0.05

Q. 111 If √x-a/√x-b + a/x = √x-b/√x-a + b/x, b≠a, then the value of x is

A. b/a+b

B. ab/a+b

C. 1

D. a/a+b

Q. 112 If x=2√24/√3+√2, then the value of x+√8/x-√8 + x+√12/x-√12 is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 0

D. -2

Q. 113 If a=2+√3/2-√3 and b=2-√3/2+√3 then the value of (a²+b²+ab) is

A. 185

B. 195

C. 200

D. 175

Q. 114 If secθ- cosecθ= 0, then the value of (secθ+cosecθ) is

A. √3/2

B. 2/√3

C. 0

D. 2√2

Q. 115 A and B can separately do a piece of work in 20 and 15 days respectively. They worked together for 6 days after which B was replaced by C. The work was finished in next 4 days. The number of days in which C alone could do the work is

A. 35 days

B. 30 days

C. 45 days

D. 40 days

Q. 116 If x=2√6/√3+√2 then the value of x+√2/x-√2 + x+√3/x-√3 is

A. √2

B. √3

C. √6

D. 2

Q. 117 Side AB of rectangle ABCD is divided into four equal parts by points x, y, z. The ratio of

A. 1/7

B. 1/6

C. 1/9

D. 1/8

Q. 118 If the length of a chord of a circle, which makes 45° with the tangent drawn at one end point of the chord, is 6 cm, then the radius of the circle is

A. 6√2 cm

B. 5 cm

C. 3√2 cm

D. 6 cm

Q. 119 A man buys one table and one chair for ₹500. He sells the table at a loss of 10% and the chair at a gain of 10%. He still gains ₹10 on the whole. The cost price of the chair is

A. ₹250

B. ₹300

C. ₹350

D. ₹200

Q. 120 The three medians AD, BE and CF of ΔABC intersect at point G. If the area of ΔABC is 60 sq. cm, then the area of the quadrilateral BDGF is

A. 10 sq. cm

B. 15 sq. cm

C. 20 sq. cm

D. 30 sq. cm

Q. 121 The rate of simple interest at which a sum of money becomes three times in 25 years is

A. 6%

B. 8%

C. 5%

D. 4%

Q. 122 If Psinθ=3 and Pcosθ=1, then the value of P is

A. 1/2

B. 2/√3

C. -1/√3

D. 2

Q. 123 ABCD is a trapezium, such that AB = CD and AD||BC AD=5 cm, BC=9 cm. If area of ABCD is 35 sq. cm, then CD is

A. √29 cm

B. 5 cm

C. 6 cm

D. √21 cm

Q. 124 If xsin³θ+ycos³θ=sinθ cosθ and xsinθ-ycosθ=0, then value of x²+y² is

A. 1

B. sinθ-cosθ

C. sinθ+cosθ

D. 0

Q. 125 If √4x-9 + √4x+9= 5+√7 then the value of x is

A. 4

B. 5

C. 7

D. 3

Q. 126 If uᵥ=cosⁿα+sinⁿα then the value of 2u₆-3u₄+1 is

A. 1

B. 4

C. 6

D. 0

Q. 127 The value of the following is:

sqrt(-sqrt(3) + sqrt(3 + 8 * sqrt(7 + 4 sqrt(3))))

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 1

Q. 128 P and Q are the middle points of two chords (not diameters) AB and AC respectively of a circle with centre at a point O. The lines OP and OQ are produced to meet the circle respectively at the points R and S. T is any point on the major arc between the points R and S of the circle. If ∠BAC =32°, ∠RTS=

A. 32°

B. 74°

C. 106°

D. 64°

Q. 129 A container has 80 L of milk. From this container 8L of milk was taken out and replaced by water. The process was further repeated twice. The volume of milk in the container after that is

A. 85.32 L

B. 58.23 L

C. 85.23 L

D. 58.32 L

Q. 130 The radius of a circle is 13 cm and xy is a chord which is at a distance of 12 cm from the centre. The length of the chord is

A. 15 cm

B. 12 cm

C. 10 cm

D. 20 cm

Q. 131 Two angles of a triangle are 1/2 radian and 1/3 radian. The measure of the third angle is degree (taking π=22/7) is

A. 132+1°/11

B. 132+2°/11

C. 132+3°/11

D. 132°

Q. 132 Two equal circles pass through each other’s centre. If the radius of each circle is 5 cm, what is the length of the chord?

A. 5

B. 5√3

C. 10√3

D. 5√3/2

Q. 133 A grain dealer cheats to the extent of 10% while buying as well as selling by using false weights. His total profit percentage is

A. 20%

B. 21%

C. 23%

D. 25%

Q. 134 Consider ΔABD such that ∠ABD=20° and C is a point on BD such that AB=AC and CD=CA. Then the measure of ∠ABC is

A. 40°

B. 45°

C. 60°

D. 30°

Q. 135 If sin(x+y) =cos[3(x+y)], then the value of tan[2(x+y)] is

A. 3

B. 1

C. 0

D. 1/√3

Q. 136 The diameter of a garden roller is 1.4 m and it is 2m long. The area covered by the roller in 5 revolution is

A. 8.8 m²

B. 4.4 m²

C. 44 m²

D. 16.8 m²

Q. 137 A person travels 285 km in 6 hr. In the first part of the journey, he travels at 40 km/hr by bus. In the second part, he travels at 55 km/hr by train. The distance travelled by train is

A. 156 km

B. 165 km

C. 615 km

D. 561 km

Q. 138 The average of the runs made by Raju, Shyam and Hari is 7 less than that made by Shyam, Hari and Kishore. If the number of Kishore’s run is 35, what is Raju’s run?

A. 14

B. 21

C. 35

D. 7

Q. 139 The value of (1+sec20°+cot70°)(1-cosec20°+tan70°) is

A. 0

B. -1

C. 2

D. 1

Q. 140 If 0≤α≤ π/2 and 2 sinα+15cos²α=7, then the value of cotα is

A. 1/2

B. 5/4

C. 3/4

D. 1/4

Q. 141 The marked price of a shopkeeper for an article is 30% higher than the cost price. If he sells the article allowing 10% discount to customers, then the gain percent will be

A. 17%

B. 16+2/3%

C. 12+1/2%

D. 15%

Q. 142 If sin2θ=1/2, then the value of cos(75°-θ) is

A. 1

B. 1/2

C. √3/2

D. 1/√2

Q. 143 A triangle is formed by the x-axis and the lines 2x+y=4 and x-y+1=0 as three sides. Taking the side along x-axis as its base, the corresponding altitude of the triangle is

A. 2 unit

B. 3 unit

C. √5 unit

D. 1 unit

Q. 144 If x=1/2+√3, y=1/2-√3 then the value of 1/x+1 + 1/y+1 is

A. 1/2

B. √3

C. 1

D. 1/√3

Q. 145 A starts a business with ₹7000 and after 5 months, B joined as a partner. After a year the profit is divided in the ratios 2:3. The capital of B is

A. ₹9000

B. ₹10000

C. ₹6500

D. ₹18000

The following bar diagram shows the percentage of 7 coloured balls sold in 5 shops A, B, C, D and E. Study the graph and answer the following

Q. 146 In shop A, the ratio of percentage of violet balls and yellow balls is

A. 2:7

B. 7:4

C. 6:1

D. 2:4

Q. 147 The shops having equal percentage of white balls are

A. A and C

B. C and E

C. B and C

D. A and B

Q. 148 What fraction of the total percentage of colour balls is to the percentage of total yellow balls

A. 7/50

B. 3/20

C. 4/25

D. 13/100

Q. 149 The difference between total number of % of violet balls and total number of % of blue balls is

A. 10

B. 15

C. 25

D. 40

Q. 150 The ratio of total percentage of Red balls and total percentage of orange balls is

A. 1:1

B. 4:5

C. 9:11

D. 7:9

Directions for Questions 151-155 –

Some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and choose the option corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If a sentence is free from error, then select the option D for ‘No error’.

Q. 151 The sentence is –

A. “Our history can be seen as a long evolutionary dialectical development”

B. “in which there have been”

C. “a painstaking forging of rational and moral self”

D. No error

Q. 152 The sentence is –

A. Our knowledge of history does not “come to”

B. our help and sometimes we “even fail to”

C. remember who “invented” America

D. No error

Q. 153 The sentence is –

A. “My grandfather owns”

B. “fifty acre”

C. “of wetland”

D. No error

Q. 154 The sentence is –

A. “Belgium chocolate is considered”

B. “by many to be finer”

C. “than any others in the world”

D. No error

Q. 155 The sentence is –

A. “Indian scientist are in no way“

B. “inferior than”

C. “any other scientist in the world”

D. No error

Directions for Questions 156 to 160 –

Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word. Choose the correct alternative out of the four given options –

Q. 156 We didn’t __________ the programme to be such a huge success.

A. except

B. expect

C. access

D. accept

Q. 157 We should __________ opportunities as they arise.

A. cease

B. size

C. sneeze

D. seize

Q. 158 The students aren’t prepared __________ the examination.

A. to listen

B. to work

C. to take

D. to give

Q. 159 The government, in bid to make Bihar, a preferred investment destination, has __________ major schemes to create infrastructure at different stages.

A. opposed

B. opened

C. pushed

D. launched

Q. 160 I suffer from no __________ about my capabilities.

A. doubts

B. hallucinations

C. imaginations

D. illusions

Directions for Questions 161 to 165 –

Out of the four options, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Q. 161 Inadvertent –

A. Unexpected

B. Unintentional

C. Undisturbed

D. Ignorant

Q. 162 Fortitude –

A. Courage

B. Protection

C. Safety

D. Similarity

Q. 163 Duplicity –

A. Artlessness

B. Deceit

C. Cleverness

D. Repetition

Q. 164 Fidelity –

A. Resourcefulness

B. Strength

C. Weakness

D. Faithfulness

Q. 165 Vanguard –

A. Officer

B. Flag bearer

C. Pioneer

D. Race driver

Directions for Questions 166 to 170 –

Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

Q. 166 Taciturn –

A. silent

B. talkative

C. immense

D. judge

Q. 167 Artisan –

A. skilled sculptor

B. learned person

C. ignorant villager

D. unskilled labour

Q. 168 Amicable –

A. friendly

B. haughty

C. unpleasant

D. hostile

Q. 169 Mitigate –

A. aggravate

B. allay

C. alleviate

D. abate

Q. 170 Aversion –

A. awareness

B. hatred

C. liking

D. avoidance

Directions for Questions 171 to 175 –

Four options are given for the idiom/phrase quoted in the sentence. Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Q. 171 He was “out of spirits” for a few days after his defeat.

A. gloomy

B. sober

C. lifeless

D. uninvolved

Q. 172 When the family in the next house packed off at midnight, I began to “smell a rat”.

A. to suspect a trick

B. to misunderstand

C. to see hidden meaning

D. to smell a bad smell

Q. 173 At first, there was a show of resistance to be rule issued by the Government, but the movement had “no backbone” and speedily collapsed.

A. justification

B. impact

C. strength

D. support

Q. 174 The cops were “on their toes” throughout the day

A. eager

B. alert

C. harried

D. quick

Q. 175 The minister assured the agitating employees that he would “look into” their demands sympathetically.

A. discuss

B. watch

C. grant

D. examine

Directions for Questions 176 to 180 –

Below are given 4 choices to the quoted part at A, B and C which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct option. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is D.

Q. 176 The “prolific” writer’s work is published every year.

A. exquisite

B. didactic

C. great

D. no improvement

Q. 177 Those plucking flowers are “liable for punishable.”

A. are liable for punishable

B. are liable for punishing

C. are liable to be punished

D. are viable for punishment

Q. 178 His “lust for power” brought down his downfall.

A. intense desire

B. desire for power

C. desire for sex

D. no improvement

Q. 179 I’ll meet the “raging” of the skies, but not an angry father.

A. sunshine

B. rain

C. anger

D. no improvement

Q. 180 “When we see black smoke” near the wing of the plane, we were certain that disaster was imminent.

A. When we were seeing

B. When we saw

C. When we had seen

D. No improvement

Directions for Questions 181 to 185 –

Out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.

Q. 181 Government by a small group of all powerful persons

A. Monarchy

B. Democracy

C. Anarchy

D. Oligarchy

Q. 182 One indifferent to art and literature is

A. Critic

B. Philistine

C. Scholar

D. Aromatic

Q. 183 “Open to injury for Criticism”

A. Vulnerable

B. Naive

C. Sensitive

D. Invincible

Q. 184 One who collects coins as a hobby

A. Ornithologist

B. Statistician

C. Numismatist

D. Philatelist

Q. 185 A narrow piece of land connecting two large masses of land

A. Isthmus

B. Continent

C. Gulf

D. Peninsula

Directions for Questions 186 to 190 –

There are four different words out of which one is spelt correctly. Find the correctly spelt word.

Q. 186 The word is –

A. Beneficil

B. Beneficial

C. Benifical

D. Benificial

Q. 187 The word is –

A. Avericious

B. Avaricious

C. Avarisious

D. Averisious

Q. 188 The word is –

A. Internaly

B. Coldly

C. Fortunetely

D. Uniquely

Q. 189 The word is –

A. Affectionately

B. Afectionately

C. Affectionnality

D. Affactionately

Q. 190 The word is –

A. Apprehension

B. Apprihension

C. Aprihension

D. Apprehenson

Directions for Questions 191 to 195 –

Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question.

If this is so, if to read a book as it should be read calls for the rarest Qualities of imagination, insight and judgement. You may perhaps conclude that literature is a very complex art and that it is unlikely that we shall be able, even after a lifetime of reading, to make any valuable contribution to its criticism. We must remain readers, we shall not put on the further glory that belongs to those rare beings who are also critics.

Q. 191 What is the opinion of most of the people about literature?

A. That it is not an easy one to contribute anything

B. That it is to some extent difficult to understand

C. That no contribution is necessary for literature

D. That it is very easy to understand

Q. 192 The antonym of conclude is

A. Commence

B. Exclude

C. End

D. Include

Q. 193 According to the author

A. It is not possible for most of us to contribute anything for criticism

B. It is possible to do something

C. It is not even easy to understand literature

D. Most of the people can contribute to criticism of literature

Q. 194 The author feels that we cannot have the greatness of

A. Writers

B. Critics

C. Publishers

D. Readers

Q. 195 What are the qualities required for reading a book?

A. Proper judgement

B. Imagination

C. Imagination, insight and judgement

D. None of the above

Directions for Questions 196 to 200 –

Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question.

These days not even many politicians deny that the oceans are ill. Protecting the health of coastal waters is now a matter of national policy in dozens of countries including the U.S., and world leaders are beginning to prescribe a revolutionary remedy that conservationists have been promoting for years : marine planning and zoning. The idea is a natural extension of management policies that have guided the development of cities and landscapes for nearly a century. Zoning advocates envision a mosaic of regional maps in which every watery space on the planet is designated for a particular purpose. Drilling and mining would be allowed only in certain parts of the ocean; fishing in others. The most critically threatened areas would be virtually off-limits. Whereas people can easily find maps telling them what they can do where on land, the marine realm is a hodge-podge of rules emanating from an army of agencies, each one managing a single use or symptom.

Q. 196 Marine planning and zoning is a __________ to protect the coastal waters.

A. Conservationists’ discovery

B. Marine project

C. Revolutionary remedy

D. National policy of the US

Q. 197 These days __________ that the oceans are not in good health.

A. Most of the politicians agree

B. All politicians agree

C. Nobody agrees

D. Everybody agrees

Q. 198 ‘Marine realm’ is a hodge-podge of rules means __________.

A. Seas need to be cleaned

B. There are no uniform laws governing the seas

C. There is total anarchy

D. Coastal areas are not being looked after properly

Q. 199 Sea zoning is all about __________.

A. Drilling and sea mining

B. Conserving the environment

C. Banning fishing in the sea

D. Dividing watery space for specific purposes

Q. 200 ‘Conservationist’ means __________.

A. A marine engineer

B. One who looks after others

C. One who prevents something from destruction

D. A proficient speaker

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	D	B	A	C	A	A	C	B	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	D	A	C	A	C	C	B	C	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	D	A	B	B	D	A	A	C	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	A	B	A	C	C	B	C	C	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	A	B	D	C	D	D	B	B	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	C	A	A	A	A	B	C	C	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	B	A	C	A	D	B	B	C	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	C	C	D	C	A	C	C	B	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	D	A	B	B	C	B	A	C	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	C	D	B	A	B	C	A	D	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	D	D	B	A	C	B	D	B	B	B
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	B	B	D	D	D	D	C	B	C
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	D	A	A	A	D	A	B	D	C
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	C	B	B	A	B	C	B	A	C	C
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	A	B	A	C	D	B	C	A	B	D
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	B	C	B	C	B	A	D	D	D	D
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	B	D	B	D	C	B	D	D	A	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	A	A	C	B	D	D	D	B	D	B
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	D	B	A	C	A	B	B	D	A	A
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	A	A	A	B	C	C	A	B	D	C

SSC CGL Tier-I 07 January 2012 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2012 7 Jan Shift 1

Q. 1 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

8 : 12 : : 6 : ?

A. 8

B. 11

C. 5

D. 7

Q. 2 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

13: 19: : 21 : ?

A. 41

B. 81

C. 141

D. 14

Q. 3 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

Eagle : Swoops :: Duck: ?

A. waddles

B. floats

C. swims

D. flits

Q. 4 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

APPLE: 50 : : ORANGE : ?

A. 60

B. 69

C. 61

D. 63

Q. 5 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

Accommodation:Rent:: Journey: ?

A. Freight

B. octrol

C. fare

D. expense

Q. 6 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

Fire : Smoke : : ?

A. children : school

B. cloud : ram

C. Moon : sky

D. shoe : polish

Q. 7 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

Grenade: Gun: : ?

A. Sister: Brother

B. Father: Mother

C. Man : Woman

D. Head : Brain

Q. 8 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

TSH : IRQ : : QPK : ?

A. LNO

B. LON

C. PWK

D. PON

Q. 9 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

AEZ: FPY : : BGX : ?

A. HWW

B. IYY

C. HTX

D. HYW

Q. 10 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. SP

B. NL

C. ZW

D. TQ

Q. 11 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. Major

B. colonel

C. Brigadier

D. Admiral

Q. 12 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. Life Insurance Corporation

B. New India Assurance Company Ltd

C. United India Insurance Company Ltd.

D. National Insurance Company Ltd

Q. 13 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. hurdle

B. disease

C. barrier

D. obstacle

Q. 14 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. mar

B. remedy

C. maim

D. mutilate

Q. 15 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. socrates

B. beethoven

C. mozart

D. bach

Q. 16 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. (132, 5)

B. (125, 8)

C. (124, 7)

D. (112, 4)

Q. 17 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 6246-6296

B. 7137-7267

C. 4344-4684

D. 5235-5465

Q. 18 YX,UTS, ONML, ?

A. FEDCB

B. CFEDC

C. IHGFE

D. IHGFE

Q. 19 DA, HE, LI, ? , TN

A. PI

B. PT

C. PM

D. PK

Q. 20 Choose the correct alternative for

B E I NT ?

A. x

B. Y

C. A

D. Z

Q. 21 AZ, CX, EV, ?

A. HT

B. HU

C. GS

D. GT

Q. 22 D9Y, J27S, P81M, V243G, __?

A. A324B

B. C729B

C. B729A

D. A729B

Q. 23 Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?

__c__bd__cbcda__a__db__a

A. daabbc

B. bdbcba

C. adabcd

D. cdbbca

Q. 24 9,19,40,83, 170,340

A. 83

B. 40

C. 340

D. 170

Q. 25 21,28,33,35.37,36

A. 21

B. 36

C. 33

D. 35

Q. 26 5,13,29,61,120,253

A. 120

B. 253

C. 61

D. 29

Q. 27 . 0,7,28,63, 124,215

A. 28

B. 215

C. 7

D. 63

Q. 28 Some relationships have been expressed through symbols which are explained below:

0 = greater than

Δ = not equal to

× = not less than

+ = equal to

∅ = not greater than

— = less than

a ∇ b ∇ c implies

A. a Δ A b ∅ c

B. a b + c

C. a o b + c

D. a o b x c

Q. 29 What is the value ?

A. 14400

B. 15600

C. 23040

D. 12400

Q. 30 If PEAR is written a GFDN how is REAP written in this code?

A. FDNG

B. NFDG

C. DNGF

D. NDFG

Q. 31 If 54 + 43 = 2, 60 + 51 = 10, then 62 + 72 =?

A. 30

B. 18

C. 20

D. 9

Q. 32 If L denotes x

M denotes ÷

P denotes +

Q denotes –

then 16 P 24 M 8 Q 6 M 2 L 3 = ?

A. 10

B. 9

C. 12

D. 11

Q. 33 In this question, from the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word.

APPROPRIATE

A. PIRATE

B. APPROVE

C. PROPER

D. RAPPORT

Q. 34 If FLATTER is coded as 7238859 and MOTHER is coded as 468159, then how is MAMMOTH coded?

A. 4344681

B. 4344651

C. 4146481

D. 4346481

Q. 35 If l6 – 2= 2,9 – 3 = 0, 81 -1 = 8, then what is 64 – 4 = ?

A. 4

B. 2

C. 6

D. 8

Question:- 36-37

In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

Q. 36 What is the number missing

A. 20

B. 10

C. 25

D. 15

Q. 37 What is the missing number ?

A. 21

B. 20

C. 23

D. 22

Q. 38 Four aeroplanes of Air Force viz, A,B,C,D, started for a demonstration flight towards east. Afterflying 50 km planes A and Dflew towards right, planes B and C flew towards left. After 50 km, planes B and C flew towards their left, planes A and D also towards their left. In which directions are the aeroplanes A, B,D, C respectively flying now?

A. North, South” East, West

B. South, North, West, East

C. East, West, West, East

D. West, East, West, East

Q. 39 Satishstartfrom Aand walks 2 kmeastupto B and turns southwards and walks 1 km upto C. At C he turns to east and walks 2 km upto D. He then turns northwards and walks 4 km to E. How far is he from his starting point?

A. 5 km

B. 6 km

C. 3 km

D. 4 km

Q. 40 Statements :

Temple is a place of worship. Church is also a place of worship.

Conclusions:

I. Hindus and Christians use the same place for worship.

II. All churches are temples

A. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

B. Both conclusions I and II follow

C. Only conclusion I follows

D. Only conclusion II follows

Q. 41 Statement:

The human organism grows and develops through stimulation and action.

Concluslons:

I. Inert human organism cannot grow and develop.

II. Human organisms do not react to stimulation and action

A. Neither conclusion I nor II follow

B. Both conclusions I and II follow

C. Only conclusion I follows

D. Only conclusion II follows

Q. 42 . If the first four letters of a term HIPPNOWADIASM are written in reverse order,the next five letters are written without changing their order and then, the remaining letters are again written in reverse order, in the middle of the word?

A. O

B. W

C. A

D. I

Q. 43 In the following letter series how many times do PQR occur in such a way that Q is in the middle of P and R.

Q M P N P Q R R O P N O P P R P

M Q R O P Q R P P R R P Q R P

A. 5

B. 6

C. 4

D. 3

Q. 44 . Volume of a sphere is equal to the volume of a hemisphere. If the radius of the hemisphere is 3√2 cm, then the radius of the sphere is equal to

A. 9√2

B. 6√2

C. 27

D. 3

Q. 45 A sheet of paper has been folded as shown by the question figures. You have to figure out from amongst the four answer figures how it will appear when opened?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 46 Which of the answer figure is exactly the mirror image of the question figure if a mirror is placed on the line MN?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 47 If SEARCH is coded as TFBSDI. how will PENCIL be coded?

A. RGPEN

B. LICNEP

C. QPODJM

D. QUMBHK

Q. 48 Which answer Figure completes the form in question figure?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 49 From the answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/ embedded.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 50 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in anyone of the alternatives.

The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g. ‘A’ can be represented by 10. 33, etc and ‘H’ can be represented by 59. 78. etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word

GUIDE

A. 85, 23, 21, 87, 32

B. 58, 31, 12, 57, 41

C. 77, 13, 42, 99, 32

D. 66, 31, 43, 78, 14

Q. 51 The National Commission for Minorities was constituted in the year

A. 1990

B. 1992

C. 1980

D. 1989

Q. 52 The first Indian who was chosen as the Secretary General of Commonwealth i

A. Rakesh verma

B. Gopalaswami

C. Krishna murthy

D. Kamlesh SHrama

Q. 53 In which of the following systems of government is bicameralism an essential feature?

A. federal system

B. unitary system

C. parliamentary system

D. presidential system

Q. 54 Kuldip Nayer, a journalist, was appointed as a High Commissioner in

A. Sri lanka

B. Australia

C. UK

D. Pakistan

Q. 55 Which king is referred to as Devanampiya Piyadassi (Beloved of the Gods) in the inscriptions?

A. Asoka

B. Harsha

C. Bindusara

D. Chandragupta Maurya

Q. 56 Socialism succeeds in achieving

A. ) higher standard of living of the people

B. equal distribution of income in the society

C. higher individual welfare in the society

D. maximum social welfare in the society

Q. 57 Monopolist resorts to price discrimination depending upon the

A. Elasticity of supply

B. Elasticity of demand

C. Law of demand

D. Law of supply

Q. 58 Economic planning is an essential feature of

A. Socialist economy

B. Capitalist economy

C. Mixed economy

D. Dual economy

Q. 59 The HYV programme in India is also’ called as

A. Traditiona lAgriculture

B. New Agricultural Strategy

C. White Revolution

D. Blue Revolution

Q. 60 The National Policy for Empowerment of Women was adopted in the year

A. 2001

B. 2005

C. 1991

D. 1995

Q. 61 Ballots were first used in

A. Australia

B. USA

C. Ancient Greece

D. England

Q. 62 The Rashtriya Barh Ayog (RBA) is related with

A. Droughts and Floods

B. Poverty Alleviation

C. floods

D. Disaster Management

Q. 63 Which of the following criteria is not used for the classification of human races?

A. nose

B. hair

C. eyes

D. ears

Q. 64 Railway coaches are manufactured at

A. Jamshedpur

B. Chittaranjan

C. Perambur

D. varanasi

Q. 65 Fertilization occurs normally in the

A. cervix

B. vagina

C. Fallopian tube

D. uterus

Q. 66 People consuming alcohol in heavy quantities generally die of

A. liver or stomach cancer

B. weakening of heart muscles leading to cardiac arrest

C. blood cancer

D. Cirrhosis

Q. 67 The organisms at the base of the grazing food-chain are

A. Carnivores

B. Decomposers

C. Producers

D. herbivores

Q. 68 Who among the following was credited with the destruction of Chinalgani, a group of powerful nobles?

A. Balban

B. Qutb-ud-din Aibak

C. IItutmish

D. Razia-sultan

Q. 69 Bombay was given away as dowry to the English King Charles II for marrying the Princess of

A. France

B. Portugal

C. Hlland

D. Denmark

Q. 70 The ‘Grand Trunk Road built by Shershah connected Punjab with

A. Agra

B. East Bengal

C. LAhore

D. Multan

Q. 71 Nam the Maratha Saint who was a contemporary of Shivaji.

A. Saint Eknath

B. Saint Tukaram

C. Saint Dhyaneshwar

D. Namdev

Q. 72 The study of lake is called

A. Topology

B. Hydrology

C. Limnology

D. Potomology

Q. 73 A series of lines connecting places having a quake at the same time are called

A. Homoseismal lines

B. Seismolines

C. Coseisrnal line

D. Isoseismallines

Q. 74 ‘Lumen’ is the unit of

A. Illuminance

B. Brightness

C. Luminous flux

D. Luminous intensity

Q. 75 The transfer of date from a CPU to peripheral devices of computer is achieved through

A. interfaces

B. buffermemory

C. modems

D. computer ports

Q. 76 Which of the following items is not used in Local Area Networks (LANs) ?

A. Interface Card

B. Cable

C. Computer

D. Modem

Q. 77 The mass of 10 moles of water is

A. 90 g

B. 45 g

C. 18 g

D. 180 g

Q. 78 Vitamin A is rich in

A. carrot

B. lime

C. beans

D. rice

Q. 79 The high boiling point of water compared to hydrogen sulphide or hydrogen chloride is due to

A. Dipole insulation

B. Vander Waal’s attraction

C. Polar covalent bonding

D. Hydrogen bonding

Q. 80 Which of the following determines the chemical properties of an element?

A. numb er of electrons

B. number of neutrons

C. number of protons

D. all the above

Q. 81 The Central Drug Research Institute of India is located at

A. Madras

B. Lucknow

C. Delhi

D. Bangalore

Q. 82 Which of the following cereals was among the first to be used by man ?

A. Rye

B. Wheat

C. Rarley

D. Oat

Q. 83 What of the following wheat species are being cultivated in India?

A. Club wheat

B. Durum wheat

C. Emmer wheat

D. Bread wheat

Q. 84 Which one of the following forces is a ‘dissipative force’?

A. Electrostatic force

B. Magnetic force

C. Gravitational force

D. Frictional force

Q. 85 If a resistive wire is elongated, its resistance

A. decreases

B. remains constant

C. increases

D. all of the above

Q. 86 If a magnet has a third pole, then the third pole is called

A. defective pole

B. consequent pole

C. extra pole

D. arbitary pole

Q. 87 How many spokes are there in the Dharmachakra of the National Flag?

A. 14

B. 18

C. 22

D. 24

Q. 88 The latest official language of the U.N. is

A. Russian

B. Arabic

C. Chinese

D. Spanish

Q. 89 Srikrishna Committee Report which was made public in 2011, is related t

A. rejuvenation of higher education

B. demand for a separate Telangana State

C. ragging in educational institutions

D. impeachment of Justice Dinakaran

Q. 90 The latest book “Kurukshetra to Kargil’ is written by

A. Suryanath Singh

B. Kunal Bhardwaj

C. Karan Singh

D. Kuldip Singh

Q. 91 The Educational Development Index (EDI) Report.,released in 2011, is led by

A. Tamil nadu

B. Pondicherry

C. Kerela

D. Lakshadweep

Q. 92 Shunglu Committee, which submitted its report in 2011, is related to

A. Commonwealth Games scandal

B. reforms in the Insurance sector

C. revamp of Defence management

D. management of Co-operative Sector

Q. 93 The 65th National Football Championship (Santosh Trophy 2011) was won by

A. bangal

B. punjab

C. manipur

D. goa

Q. 94 The organisation involved primarily with environmental planning is

A. CIFRI

B. ICAR

C. CSIR

D. NEERI

Q. 95 What would be the impact of on mangrove forests?

A. They will grow more luxurious

B. ) Large areas of mangroves will be submerged

C. Their role as carbon sinks will become more important

D. Both (1) and (3) above

Q. 96 The sweet taste of fruits is due to

A. Lactose

B. Fructose

C. maltose

D. ribose

Q. 97 The most endangered Asiatic top predator on the edge of extinction is

A. Black Bear

B. Asiatic lion

C. Siberian Tiger

D. Dhole

Q. 98 Analects is the sacred book of

A. Confucianism

B. Judaism

C. Shintoism

D. Taoism

Q. 99 The seat of Madhya Pradesh High Court is located at

A. Gwalior

B. Indore

C. Bhopal

D. Jabalpur

Q. 100 The brightest planet is

A. Venus

B. MErcury

C. Jupiter

D. MArs

Q. 101 P and Q are two points observed from the top of a building 10 √3 m high. IF the angles of depression of the points are complementary and PQ = 20 m, then the distance of P from the building is

A. 25 m

B. 45 m

C. 30 m

D. 40 m

Q. 102 If A and are complementary angles, then the value of

Sin A cos B + cos A sin B – tan A tan B + sec²A – cot² B is

A. 2

B. 0

C. 0

D. -1

Q. 103 The least value of 2sin² q + 2cos² q is

A. 3

B. 5

C. 1

D. 2

Q. 104 A,O,B are three points on a line segment and C is a points not lying on ∠AOB. IF ∠AOC = 40° and OX, OYare the internal and external bisectors of ∠AOC respectively, then ∠BOY is

A. 70°

B. 80°

C. 75°

D. 68°

Q. 105 If 4x = sec θ and 4 /x = tan θ then find the value

A. 1/16

B. 1/8

C. 1/2

D. 1/4

Q. 106 If 2 – cos² θ = 3 sin θ cos θ , sin θ≠ cos θ then tan θ is

A. 1/2

B. 0

C. 2/3

D. 1/3

Q. 107 If sin θ + cos θ √2 cos (90 – θ ), then cot θ is

A. √2 + 1

B. 0

C. √2

D. √2 – 1

Q. 108 If x sin² θ + y cos³ θ = sin θ cos θ and x sin θ = y cos θ , sin θ ≠ θ , cos θ 0 , then x²+y³ is

A. 1/√2

B. 1/2

C. 1

D. √2

Q. 109 In the following figure, O is the centre of the circle and XO is perpendicular to OY. If the area of the triangle XOY is 32, then the area of the circle is

A. 64

B. 256

C. 16

D. 32

Q. 110 The side BC of ΔABC is produced to D. If ΔACD = 108° and ∠B =1/2 ∠A then ∠A

A. 36°

B. 72°

C. 108°

D. 59°

Q. 111 Two circles of radii 4 cm and 9 cm respectively touch each a common tangent touches then at the points P and Q respectively. Then the area of a square with one side PQ, is

A. 97 sq.cm

B. 194 sq.cm

C. 72 sq.cm

D. 144 sq.cm

Q. 112 Two tangent are drawn from a point P to a circle at A and B. O is the centre of the circle. If ∠AOP = 60°, then ∠APB is

A. 120°

B. 90°

C. 60°

D. 30°

Q. 113 If each interior angle is double of each exterior angle of a regular polygon with n sides, then the value of n is

A. 8

B. 10

C. 5

D. 6

Q. 114 If the length of the side PQ of the rhombus PQRS is 6cm and ∠PQR = 120°, then the length of QS, in cm, is

A. 4

B. 6

C. 3

D. 5

Q. 115 The angle formed by the hour-hand and the minute-hand of a clock at 2 : 15 p.m. is

A. 27(1/2) °

B. 45 °

C. 22(1/2) °

D. 30 °

Q. 116 Two sides of a triangle are of length 4 cm and 10 cm. If the length of the third side is ‘a’ cm, then

A. a > 5

B. 6 ≤ a ≤ 12

C. a < 6

D. 6 ≤ a ≤ 14

Q. 117 If x = (0.08)² , y = 1/(0.08)² and z = (1 – 0.08)² – 1, then out of the following, the true relation is

A. y < x and x = z

B. x < y and x = z

C. y < x < x

D. z < x < y

Q. 118 In xy plane, P and Q are two points having co-ordinates (2, 0) and (5, 4) respectively. Then the numerical value of the area of the circle with radius PQ, i

A. 16 π

B. 32 π

C. 14 π

D. 25 π

Q. 119 If x⁴ + 1/x⁴ = 23 , then the value of (x- 1/x) ² will be

A. 7

B. -7

C. -3

D. 3

Q. 120 The value of …… is equal to

A. 3

B. 10

C. 8

D. 2

Q. 121 If x+1/x = 3 , the value of x⁵+1/x⁵ is

A. 123

B. 126

C. 113

D. 129

Q. 122 sec⁴ θ – sec²θ is equal to

A. tan² θ – tan⁴θ

B. tan²θ + tan⁴ θ

C. cos⁴ θ – cos²θ

D. cos²θ-cos⁴ θ

Q. 123 In ΔABC , AD is the median and AD =1/2 BC. IF ∠ACD = 30°, then measure of then measure of is

A. 90°

B. 45°

C. 30°

D. 60°

Q. 124 If √6 *√15 = x√10 , then the value of x is

A. 3

B. ± 3

C. √3

D. √6

Q. 125 What is the value of the given equation

A. 0

B. 3/2

C. √5/2

D. √5

Q. 126 If a + b + 1 = 0, then the value of (a³ + b³ + 1– 3ab) is

A. 3

B. 0

C. -1

D. 1

Q. 127 In the xy-coordinate system, if(a, b) and(a + 3, b + k) are two points on the line defined by the equation x = 3y – 7, then k = ?

A. 7/3

B. 1

C. 9

D. 3

Q. 128 The average age of 4 boys, five year age was 9 years. On including a new boy, the present average age of all the five is 15 years. The present age of the new boys is

A. 14 years

B. 6 years

C. 15 years

D. 19 years

Q. 129 If the average of 39, 48, 51, 63, 75, 83, x and 69 is 60, then the value of x is

A. 52

B. 53

C. 50

D. 51

Q. 130 The cost of a piece of diamond varies with the square of its weight. A diamond of Rs. 5,185 value is cut into 3 pieces whose weights are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. Find the loss involved in the cutting

A. Rs. 3,068

B. Rs. 3,008

C. Rs. 3,175

D. Rs. 3,168

Q. 131 A discount of 30% on the marked price of a toy reduces its selling price byRs. 30. What is the new selling price (in Rs.)?

A. 70

B. 21

C. 130

D. 100

Q. 132 The capacities of two hemispherical vessels are 6.4 litres and 21.6 litres. The ratio of their inner radii is

A. 4 : 9

B. 16 : 81

C. √2 : √3

D. 2 : 3

Q. 133 Pipe A alone can fill a tank in 8 hours. Pipe B alone can fill it in 6 hours. If both the pipes are opened and after 2 hours pipe A is closed, then the other pipe will fill the tank in

A. 6 hours

B. 3 (1/2) hours

C. 4 hours

D. 2 (1/2 ) hours

Q. 134 If(a – b)=3, (b– c)= 5 and(c – a)=1, then the value of

A. 17.5

B. 20.5

C. 10.5

D. 15.5

Q. 135 .The population of a town is 15000. If the number of males increases by 8% and that of females by 10%, then the population would increase to 16300. Find the number of females in the town

A. 4000

B. 6000

C. 3000

D. 5000

Q. 136 If Rs. 5,0000 becomes Rs. 5,700 in a year’s time, what will Rs. 7,000 become at the end of 5 years atthe same rate of simple interest?

A. Rs. 10,500

B. Rs. 11,900

C. Rs. 12,700

D. Rs. 7,700

Q. 137 A thief is noticed by a policeman from a distance of 200 m. The thief starts running and the policeman chases him. The thief and the policeman run at the rate of 10 km and 11 km per hour respectively. The distance (in metres) between then after 6 minutes is

A. 190

B. 200

C. 100

D. 150

Q. 138 ‘A’ sells an article to ‘B’ at a profit of 20% and ‘B’ sells it to ‘C’ at a profit of 25%. If ‘C’ pays Rs. 1,200, the cost price of the article originally (in Rs.) is

A. 700

B. 600

C. 1000

D. 800

Q. 139 The number nearest to 75070 which is divisible by 65, is

A. 75070

B. 75075

C. 75010

D. 75065

Q. 140 The number 20% more than 80 in

A. 36

B. 30

C. 90

D. 96

Q. 141 Atree is brokenbythe wind. Ifthe top of the tree struck the ground at an angle of 30° and at a distance of 30m from the root, then the height of the tree is

A. 25 √3 m

B. 30√3 m

C. 15√3 m

D. 20√3 m

Q. 142 If cos A + cos2 A = 1, then sin² A + sin⁴ A is equal to

A. 1

B. 1/2

C. 0

D. -1

Q. 143 A farmer divides his herd of n cows among his four sons, so that the first son gets one half the herd,the second one-fourth,the third son and the fourth son 7 cows. Then the value of n is

A. 240

B. 100

C. 180

D. 140

Q. 144 .By what least number should 675 be multiplied to obtain a number which is a prefectcube?

A. 7

B. 8

C. 5

D. 6

Q. 145 The least number which when divided by 35, 45, 55 leaves the remainder 18, 28, 38 respectively is

A. 3448

B. 3482

C. 2468

D. 3265

The graph shows Income and Expenditure of a Company. Study the graph and answer the questions.

Q. 146 The expenditure from 2002 to 2003 increased by

A. 33 (1/3) %

B. 40 %

C. 10 %

D. 20 %

Q. 147 The income in 2002 was equal to the expenditure in the year

A. 2003

B. 2004

C. 2000

D. 2001

Q. 148 The profit was maximum in the year

A. 2003

B. 2004

C. 2001

D. 2002

Q. 149 The difference in profit between 2001 and 2002 is

A. Rs. 25 lakhs

B. no differnce

C. Rs. 10 lakhs

D. Rs. 20 Lakhs

Q. 150 The number of years in which the income exceeds the average income is

A. 3

B. 4

C. 1

D. 2

Q. 151 You do not (1)/ look as (2)/ your brother. (3)/ No error(4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 152 My elder brother(1)/is six(2)/ foot high.(3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 153 Without no proof of your guilt (1)/ the only course open to me (2)/ is to dismiss the case. (3)/ No error(4

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 154 As we see it (1) / she appears to be unreasonable (2) / Anxious about pleasing her husband (3) / no error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 155 The scissor is (1) / lying on (2) / the table (3) / no error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 156 The Union Budget is likely to be presented on February 26, two days a head of the _____

A. critical

B. conventional

C. suitable

D. convenient

Q. 157 I am sorry _____ the mistake.

A. from

B. with

C. for

D. at

Q. 158 He _______her that she would pass.

A. insured

B. ensured

C. assumed

D. assured

Q. 159 Your father __ worry. I’m a very careful driver

A. needn’t

B. none

C. can’t

D. doesn’t

Q. 160 The __ chosen for construction of the building is in the heart of the city

A. cite

B. slight

C. sight

D. site

Q. 161 choose the one which best expresses the meaning

Nexus

A. connection

B. distance

C. deficit

D. difference

Q. 162 choose the one which best expresses the meaning

Mammoth

A. straight

B. huge

C. wild

D. greedy

Q. 163 choose the one which best expresses the meaning

hyperbole

A. expansion

B. imitation

C. decoration

D. exaggeration

Q. 164 choose the one which best expresses the meaning

Eulogy

A. apology

B. address

C. speech

D. praise

Q. 165 choose the one which best expresses the meaning

Menacingly

A. dangerously

B. threateningly

C. harmfully

D. hideously

Q. 166 choose the word opposite in meaning

Impeccable

A. faulty

B. tedious

C. flashy

D. boring

Q. 167 choose the word opposite in meaning

Amalgamate

A. Seperate

B. Combine

C. assimilate

D. integrate

Q. 168 choose the word opposite in meaning

Zenith

A. climax

B. crisis

C. acne

D. nadir

Q. 169 choose the word opposite in meaning

Influx

A. reflex

B. defelction

C. effluent

D. exodus

Q. 170 choose the word opposite in meaning

Orderly

A. semitic

B. colic

C. democratic

D. chaotic

Q. 171 1. Ram is very calculative and always has an axe to grind

A. has no result

B. works for both sides

C. has a private agenda

D. fails to arouse interest

Q. 172 The police looked all over for him but drew a blank

A. did not find him

B. put him in prison

C. arrested him

D. took him to court

Q. 173 On the issue of marriage, Sarita put her foot down

A. stood up

B. was firm

C. got down

D. walked fast

Q. 174 His investments helped him make a killing in the stock market

A. lose money quickly

B. plan a murder quickly

C. murder someone quickly

D. make money quickly

Q. 175 There is no gainsaying the fact that the country is in difficulties

A. ignoring

B. hiding

C. forgetting

D. denying

Q. 176 Sordid and sensational books tend to vitiate the public taste

A. divide

B. distract

C. distort

D. no improvement

Q. 177 By studying AIDS has engaged many researchers in the last decade

A. Important study

B. Now that the study

C. The study of

D. No improvement

Q. 178 His Master’s thesis was highly estimated and is now being prepared for publication.

A. was highly discussed

B. was highly commended

C. is highly appraised

D. No improvement

Q. 179 No sooner had she realized her blunder than she began to take corrective measures.

A. then she began to take

B. than she began taking

C. when she began to take

D. no improvement

Q. 180 A good scholar must be precise and possess originality.

A. must be precise and original

B. must be possess precision and original

C. must be precision and possess Originality

D. No improvement

Q. 181 Speaking without preparation

A. deliberate

B. fluent

C. loquacious

D. extempore

Q. 182 Special trial of the Head of State by Parliament

A. Impingement

B. Infringement

C. Impeachment

D. Impediment

Q. 183 Someone able to use both hands with equal skill

A. Ambivalent

B. Amphibious

C. Ambiguous

D. Ambidextrous

Q. 184 Cure for all diseases

A. curable

B. pancreas

C. incurable

D. curative

Q. 186 Find the correctly spelt word.

A. pleintive

B. sustein

C. villain

D. allenice

Q. 187 Find the correctly spelt word

A. comissioner

B. commissionar

C. commistoner

D. commissioner

Q. 188 Find the correctly spelt word.

A. suprintendent

B. supirentendent

C. superintendent

D. superentendent

Q. 189 Find the correctly spelt word

A. aprentice

B. advertise

C. treatrce

D. sencitive

Q. 190 Find the correctly spelt word

A. symetry

B. symmitry

C. symatry

D. symmetry

Questions: 191 – 195

Two years later, in November 1895, he signed his final will. He left the bulk of his fortune, amounting to about £ 1,75,00 to a trust fund administered by Swedish and Norwegian trustees. The annual interest shall be awarded as prizes to those persons who during the previous year have rendered the greatest services to mankind. The interest shall ‘be divided into five equal parts – now amounting to about £ 8,000 each – one of which shall be awarded to the person who has made the most important discovery or invention in the- realm of physics, one to the person who has made the most important chemical discovery or improvement, one to the person who has made the most important physiological or medical discovery one to the person who has produced the most outstanding work of literature, idealistic in character, and one to the person who has done the best work for the brotherhood of nations, the abolition or reduction of standing armies, as well as for the formation or popularization of peace congress.

Q. 191 The said prize is awarded

A. once in 5 years

B. every year

C. once in 4 years

D. once in 2 years

Q. 192 Which is the prize that is referred to in the passage?

A. Nobel Prize

B. Magsaysay Award

C. Pulitzer Prize

D. Booker Prize

Q. 193 The number of prizes in the field of scinece are

A. 4

B. 1

C. 3

D. 5

Q. 194 Total annual prize money amount to

A. £ 8,000

B. £ 1.750,000

C. £ 350,000

D. £ 40,000

Q. 195 Prize is awarded for outstanding work in

A. chemistry

B. literature

C. physics

D. all of the above

Questions: 196 – 200

If an opinion contrary to your own makes you angry, that is a sign that you are subconsciously aware of having no good reason for thinking, as you do. If someone maintains that two and two are five that Iceland is on the Equator, you feel pity rather than anger, unless you know so little of arithmetic or geography that his opinion shakes your own contrary conviction.

Q. 196 If someone else’s opinion makes us angry, it means that

A. we are subconsciously aware of having no good reason for becoming angry

B. there may be good reasons for his opinion but we are not consciously aware of them

C. our own opinion is not based on good reason and we know this subconsciously

D. we are not consciously aware of any reason for our own opinion

Q. 197 “Your own contrary conviction” refers to

A. the fact that you feel pity rather than anger

B. The opinion that two and two are five and that Ice-land is one the Equator

C. The opinion that two and two are five and that Ice-land is on the Equator

D. The fact that you know so little about arithmetic or geography

Q. 198 Conviction means

A. persuasion

B. disbelief

C. strong belief

D. ignorance

Q. 199 The writer says if someone maintains that two and two are five you feel pity because you

A. have sympathy

B. don’t agree with him

C. want to help the person

D. feel sorry for his ignorance

Q. 200 The second sentence in the passage

A. builds up the argument of the first sentence by restarting it from the opposite point of view

B. makes the main point which has only been introduced by the first sentence

C. simply adds, a further point to the agreement already stated in the first sentence

D. illustrates the point made in the first sentence

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	A	A	A	C	B	D	B	A	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	A	B	B	A	D	A	B	A	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	C	C	C	D	A	B	A	A	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	A	B	A	A	D	C	C	A	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	B	C	D	B	D	C	B	D	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	D	A	C	A	B	B	A	B	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	C	D	C	C	D	C	A	B	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	C	A	C	A	C	D	A	D	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	B	B	D	C	B	D	B	B	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	A	A	D	D	B	D	A	D	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	C	C	C	D	A	A	D	C	A	B
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	D	C	D	B	C	D	D	D	D	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	A	B	D	A	B	B	B	D	A	D
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	A	D	D	A	D	B	C	D	B	D
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	C	A	D	C	A	A	A	B	C	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	B	C	A	B	A	B	C	D	A	D
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	A	B	D	D	B	A	A	D	D	D
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	C	A	B	D	D	B	C	B	D	A
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	C	C	D	B	B	D	C	B	D
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	B	A	C	A	D	A	A	C	D	D

SSC CGL Tier-I 26 June 2011 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2011 26 Jun Shift 1

Q. 1 6:64::11:?

A. 144

B. 169

C. 121

D. 124

Q. 2 123:4::726:?

A. 23

B. 26

C. 14

D. 12

Q. 3 Fish:Scales::Bear:?

A. Feathers

B. Leaves

C. Fur

D. Skin

Q. 4 Writer:Pen::?

A. Needle:Tailor

B. Artist:Brush

C. Painter:Canvas

D. Teacher:Class

Q. 5 NUMERAL:UEALRMN::ALGEBRA:?

A. LRBAGEA

B. BARLAGE

C. LERAGBA

D. LERABGA

Q. 6 BDAC:FHEG::NPMO:?

A. RQTS

B. QTRC

C. TRQS

D. RTQS

Q. 7 FGHI:OPQR::BCDE:?

A. KLMJ

B. KLMN

C. IUVW

D. STUW

Q. 8 PNLJ:IGEC::VTRP:?

A. OMKI

B. RSTU

C. QSRC

D. QROM

Q. 9 19:60::20:?

A. 57

B. 69

C. 81

D. 93

Q. 10 Find the odd number from the given alternatives

A. 162

B. 405

C. 567

D. 644

Q. 11 Find the odd number from the given alternatives

A. 156

B. 201

C. 273

D. 645

Q. 12 Find the odd word from the given alternatives

A. Flute

B. Violin

C. Guitar

D. Sitar

Q. 13 Find the odd word from the given alternatives

A. Prod

B. Sap

C. Jab

D. Thrust

Q. 14 Find the odd word from the given alternatives

A. JKOP

B. MNST

C. CABD

D. OPWX

Q. 15 Find the odd word from the given alternatives

A. CAFD

B. TSWV

C. IGLJ

D. OMRP

Q. 16 In the following question, number of letters are skipped in between by particular rule. What of the following series observes the rules?

A. ABFGJK

B. ACFJOU

C. MPQSTV

D. ADFHJL

Q. 17 Find out the pair of numbers that does not belong to the group for lack of common property.

A. 11-115

B. 10-90

C. 9-72

D. 8-56

Q. 18 Which one of the following responses would be a meaning full descending order of the following?

1 Major

2 Captain

3 Colonel

4 Brigadier

5 Lt.General

A. 5,4,3,1,2

B. 5,1,4,2,3

C. 4,5,1,3,2

D. 3,4,2,5,1

Q. 19 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary

1 Dissident

2 Dissolve

3 Dissent

4 Dissolute

5 Dissolution

A. 3,1,4,5,2

B. 3,2,1,4,5

C. 3,1,4,2,5

D. 3,2,4,5,1

Q. 20 Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

__cb__cab__baca__cba__ab

A. cabcb

B. abccb

C. bacbc

D. bcaba

Q. 21 Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

4,196,16,169,?,144,64

A. 21

B. 81

C. 36

D. 32

Q. 22 Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

8,15,36,99,288,……?….

A. 368

B. 676

C. 855

D. 908

Q. 23 Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

XYZCBAUVWFE….?…..?….

A. DR

B. RS

C. DS

D. MN

Q. 24 Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

reoc,pgme,nikg,lkii….?….

A. acef

B. jmgk

C. efgh

D. wxyz

Q. 25 Among her children, Ganga’s favourites are Ram and Rekha. Rekha is the mother of sharat, who is loved by his uncle mithun. The head of the family is Ram lal, who is succeeded by his sons Gopal and Mohan, Gopal and Ganga have been married for 35 years and have 3 children. What is the relation between Mithun and Mohan?

A. Uncle

B. Son

C. Brother

D. No relation

Q. 26 Find the wrong number in the series.

6,9,15,22,51,99

A. 99

B. 51

C. 22

D. 15

Q. 27 In a row of girls, Kamla is 9th from the left and Veena is 16th from the right. If they interchange their positions, Kamla becomes 25th from the left. How many girls are there in the row?

A. 34

B. 36

C. 40

D. 41

Q. 28 Ravi has spend a quarter of his life as a boy, one fifth as a youth, one third as a man and 13 years in old age, What is his present age?

A. 70 years

B. 80 years

C. 60 years

D. 65 years

Q. 29 Five boys A,B,C,D,E are sitting in a park in a circle. A is facing south-west, D is facing southeast, B and E are right opposite A and D respectively and C is equidistant between D and B. Which direction is C facing?

A. West

B. South

C. North

D. East

Q. 30 At what time are the hands of clocks together between 6 and 7?

A. 32 8/11 minutes past 6

B. 34 8/11 minutes past 6

C. 30 8/11 minutes past 6

D. 32 5/7 minutes past 6

Q. 31 Out of 100 families in the neighbourhood, 50 have radios, 75 have Tvs and 25 has VCRs. Only 10 families has all 3 and each VCR owner also has a TV. If some families have radio only, how many have TV only?

A. 30

B. 35

C. 40

D. 45

Q. 32 Suresh was born on 4th october 1999. Shashikanth was born 6 days before Suresh. The independence day of that year fell on Sunday. Which day was Shashikanth born?

A. Tuesday

B. Wednesday

C. Monday

D. Sunday

Q. 33 From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:

‘CONCENTRATION’

A. CONCERN

B. NATION

C. TRAIN

D. CENTRE

Q. 34 In a certain office, 1/3 of the workers are women, 1/2 of the mend are married and 1/3 of the married women have children. If 3/4 men are married and 2/3 men have children, then what part of workers is without children?

A. 5/18

B. 4/9

C. 11/18

D. 17/36

Q. 35 If a man on a moped starts from a point and 4 km south, then turns and rides 2 km to turn again to the right to ride 4 km more, towards which direction is he moving?

A. North

B. West

C. East

D. South

Q. 36 Ganesh cycles towards south-west a distance of 8 m, then he moves towards east a distance of 20 m, from there he moves towards north-east a distance of 8 m, then he moves towards west a distance of 6 m. From there he moves towards north-east a distance of 2 m. Then he moves towards west a distance of 4 m and then he moves towards southwest a distance of 2 m and stops at that point. How far is he from the starting point?

A. 12 m

B. 10 m

C. 8 m

D. 6 m

Q. 37 Two statements are given by 4 inferences. Select the alternative which is most appropriate.

Statements:

1 India is becoming industrial.

2 Pollution is a problem associated with industrialization.

Inferences:

1 All industrial centers are polluted.

2 India is polluted

3 Polluted nations are industrialized

4 India may become polluted

A. All are appropriate

B. None is appropriate

C. only 4 is appropriate

D. Only 2 is appropriate

Q. 38 From the given alternative words, select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word:

‘DETERMINATION’

A. DECLARATION

B. NATIONAL

C. TERMINATED

D. DEVIATED

Q. 39 If in a certain code HYDROGEN is written as JCJZYSSD, then how ANTIMONY be written in that code?

A. CPVKOQPA

B. CRZQWABO

C. ERXMQSRC

D. GTZOSUTE

Q. 40 If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662 then how can CALICUT coded?

A. 5279431

B. 5978013

C. 8251896

D. 8543691

Q. 41 Select the missing numbers from the given responses

A. 8

B. 3

C. 6

D. 36

Q. 42 Select the missing numbers from the given responses

A. 60

B. 68

C. 55

D. 65

Q. 43 How many rectangles are there in the given diagram?

A. 4

B. 7

C. 9

D. 18

Q. 44 Which of the following diagrams represents the relationship among Sun , Moon and Star?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 45 Some equations have been solved on the basis of a certain system. Find the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.

If 9*7 = 32, 13*7 = 120, 17*9 = 208, then 19*11 = ?

A. 150

B. 180

C. 210

D. 240

Q. 46 Forecast the growth rate for the year 1995 from the following data:

A. 7.8

B. 8.6

C. 9.7

D. 9.9

Q. 47 If ‘-‘ stands for ‘/’ , ‘+’ stand for ‘*’, ‘/’ for ‘-‘ and ‘*’ for ‘+’, which one of the following equation is correct?

A. 30-6+5*4/2 = 27

B. 30+6-5/4*2 = 30

C. 30*6/5-4+2 = 32

D. 30/6*5+4-2 = 40

Q. 48 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the questions figure is

hidden/embedded.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 49 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the correct image of the given question figures?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 50 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 51 Judicial review in the indian constitution is based on :

A. Rule of law

B. Due process of law

C. Procedure established by law

D. Precedents and conventions

Q. 52 The drafting of the constitution was completed on:

A. 26th jan 1950

B. 26th dec 1949

C. 26th nov 1949

D. 30th nov 1949

Q. 53 Who was the president of the constitution assembly?

A. pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru

B. Sardar patel

C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

D. Dr. B.R.Ambedkar

Q. 54 Which innovative discussion process is introduced by the Indian parliament to the world parliamentary system?

A. Question hour

B. Zero hour

C. Resolutions

D. Presidential speech

Q. 55 The judges of the supreme court retire at the age of:

A. 60 years

B. 65 years

C. 62 years

D. 58 years

Q. 56 When there is an official change in the exchange rate of domestic currency, then it is called:

A. Appreciation

B. Depreciation

C. Revalution

D. Deflation

Q. 57 Inflation redistributes income and wealth in favour of:

A. Pensioners

B. Poor

C. Middle class

D. rich

Q. 58 The fringe benefit tax was introduced in the budget of:

A. 2003-04

B. 2004-05

C. 2005-06

D. 2006-07

Q. 59 In the budget estimates for 2011-12, an allocation of: 400 crore has been made to bring in green revolution in the east in the cropping system of:

A. Wheat

B. Rice

C. Jowar

D. Pulses

Q. 60 As announced by finance minister in his budget speech on 28-2-2011, the income tax exemption limit for individuals other than senior citizens and women has been raised to

A. Rs. 1,80,000

B. Rs. 1,90,000

C. Rs. 2,00,000

D. Rs. 2,50,000

Q. 61 Who among the following british persons, admitted the revolt of 1857 as a national revolt?

A. Lord Dalhousie

B. Lord Canning

C. Lord Ellenborough

D. Lord Disraeli

Q. 62 The greek ambassador sent to chandragupta maurya’s court was:

A. Kautilya

B. Seleucus Nicator

C. Megasthenes

D. Justin

Q. 63 Identify the European power from whom shivaji obtained cannons and ammunitions

A. The french

B. The Portuguese

C. The dutch

D. The English

Q. 64 The call of “Back to vedas” was given by

A. Swami vivekananda

B. swami dayanand saraswati

C. aurobindo ghosh

D. raja ram mohan roy

Q. 65 Simon commission was boycotted by the, nationalist leaders of india because

A. they felt it was only an eyewash

B. all the members of the commission were english

C. the members of the commissions were biased against india

D. it did not meet the demands of indians

Q. 66 The lowest layer of atmosphere is

A. Stratosphere

B. thermosphere

C. Troposphere

D. Mesosphere

Q. 67 The konkan railway connects

A. Goa – mangalore

B. Roha – mangalore

C. Kanyakumari – mangalore

D. Kanyakumari – Mumbai

Q. 68 Bark of this tree is used as a condiment

A. Cinnamon

B. Clove

C. Neem

D. Palm

Q. 69 How much of the earth’s land surface is desert?

A. 1/10th

B. 1/5th

C. 1/3rd

D. 1/6th

Q. 70 Which of the following is called the ‘shrimp capital of India’?

A. Mangalore

B. Nagapatnam

C. Kochi

D. Nellore

Q. 71 River indus originates from

A. Hindukush range

B. Himalayan range

C. Karakoram range

D. Kailash range

Q. 72 The atmospheric air is held to the earth by

A. gravity

B. winds

C. cloud

D. rotation of earth

Q. 73 The function of ball bearings in a ring is

A. to increase friction

B. to convert kinetic friction into rolling friction

C. to convert static friction into kinetic friction

D. just for convenience

Q. 74 ‘Shock – absorbers’ are usually made of steel as it

A. is not brittle

B. has lower elasticity

C. has higher elasticity

D. hasno ductile property

Q. 75 The first computer made available for commercial use was

A. MANIAC

B. ENIAC

C. UNIVAC

D. EDSAC

Q. 76 A communications network which is used by large organisations over regional, national or global area is called

A. LAN

B. WAN

C. MAN

D. VAN

Q. 77 Who was the architecture of north and south blocks of the central secretariat in Delhi?

A. Sir edward lutyens

B. Herbert Baker

C. Robert tor Russell

D. Antonin Raymond

Q. 78 Saliva helps in the digestion of

A. Fats

B. Starch

C. Proteins

D. Vitamins

Q. 79 The longest bone in the human body is

A. Ulna

B. Humerus

C. Femur

D. Tibia

Q. 80 Red data book gives information about species which are

A. extinct

B. endangered

C. dangerous

D. rare

Q. 81 Which of the following is the smallest bird?

A. pigeon

B. parrot

C. Humming bird

D. Houise sparrow

Q. 82 The time period of a pendulum when taken to the moon would

A. remain the same

B. decrease

C. become zero

D. increase

Q. 83 Indian army’s operation ‘Saiyam’ was related to

A. Kashmir

B. Indo-China border in central region

C. North-East

D. Indo-pak border in punjab and rajasthan

Q. 84 Which of the following can be used as fuel in propellant or rockets?

A. Liquid Hydrogen + Liquid Nitrogen

B. Liquid oxygen + Liquid argon

C. Liquid nitrogen + Liquid oxygen

D. Liquid hydrogen + Liquid oxygen

Q. 85 The addition of gypsum of portland cement helps in

A. increasing the strength of cement

B. rapid setting of cement

C. preventing rapid setting of cement

D. reduction in the cost of cement

Q. 86 White lung disease is prevalent among the workers of

A. paper industry

B. cement industry

C. Cotton industry

D. pesticide industry

Q. 87 Iodoform is used as an

A. antipyretic

B. analgestic

C. antiseptic

D. anaesthetic

Q. 88 An artificial ecosystem is represented by

A. pisciculture tank

B. agricultural land

C. zoo

D. aquarium

Q. 89 The constituents of automobile exhaust that can cause cancer are

A. Oxides of nitrogen

B. Carbon monoxide

C. Polycyclic hydrocarbon

D. lead

Q. 90 The optimum dissolved oxygen level required for survival of aquatic organisms is

A. 4 – 6

B. 2 – 4

C. 8 – 10

D. 12 – 16

Q. 91 The world’s only floating national park is situated in

A. Manipur

B. Kuala Lumpur

C. Bilaspur

D. Dispur

Q. 92 According to the latest ‘Education development Index’ based on a series of surveys conducted by the national university of education, planning and administration and released in feb 2011, the state with the highest development index is

A. Tamil naidu

B. Kerala

C. Punjab

D. Gujarat

Q. 93 The ‘project snow leopard’ to conserve the endangered species, launched by the union ministry of environment and forests covers the states of

A. Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal pradesh only

B. Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal pradesh and uttarakhand only

C. Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal pradesh, uttarakhand and arunachal pradesh only

D. Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal pradesh, uttarakhand and arunachal pradesh and sikkim

Q. 94 In the railway budget for 2011-2012, an outlay of Rs.57,630 crore has been announced for adding new lines with length of

A. 1000 km

B. 1200 km

C. 1300 km

D. 1500 km

Q. 95 The strong earthquake-cum-tsunami which has moved japan’s main island by a few feet and has caused the earth’s axis to wobble is expected to lead to the shortening of the day by

A. 1.6 microseconds

B. 2.3 microseconds

C. 3.1 microseconds

D. 3.4 microseconds

Q. 96 Which of the following folk/tribal dances is associated with uttar pradesh

A. veedhi

B. thora

C. tamasha

D. rauf

Q. 97 Which of the following books has been written by atiq rahimi

A. earth and ashes

B. This savage rite

C. The red devil

D. Witness the night

Q. 98 Who is the recipient of the sahitya akademi award 2010 in hindi literatur category?

A. uday prakash

B. laxman dubey

C. nanjil nandan

D. mangat badal

Q. 99 The 2010 FIFA World cup final was held at

A. Paris

B. Berlin

C. Johannesburg

D. London

Q. 100 Who received sangeet natak akademi’s ustad bismillah khan yuva puruskar for 2009 in ‘hindustani vocal music’?

A. Omkar shrikant dadarkar

B. ragini chander shekar

C. abanti chakravorty and sukracharya rabha

D. k. nellai Manikandan

Q. 101 The value of given equation is

A. 4

B. 0

C. √2

D. 3√6

Q. 102 What is the answer of the given equation

A. 2.3

B. 3

C. 6

D. 6.3

Q. 103 What is the square root of the given equation

A. √3 + √2

B. √3 – √2

C. √2 +_ √3

D. √2 – √3

Q. 104 The remainder when 3²¹ is divided is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 105 What is the value of the given equation?

A. 38/109

B. 109/38

C. 1

D. 116/109

Q. 106 The last digit of (1001)²⁰⁰⁸ + 1002 is

A. 0

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6

Q. 107 The given equation is equal to?

A. 5/9

B. 1-1/7

C. 4/7

D. 1-2/7

Q. 108 If the sum of two numbers be multiplied by each number separately, the product so obtained are 247 and 114. The sum of the numbers is

A. 19

B. 20

C. 21

D. 23

Q. 109 Find a number, one-seventh of which exceeds its eleventh part by 100

A. 1925

B. 1825

C. 1540

D. 1340

Q. 110 If x*y = (x+3)²(y-1) then the value of 5 * 4 is

A. 192

B. 182

C. 180

D. 172

Q. 111 Answer of the given equation is

A. 10

B. 100

C. 1000

D. none of these

Q. 112 If 9√x = √12 + √147 then x = ?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Q. 113 A and B can complete a piece of work in 8 days, B and C can do it in 12 days, C and A can do it in 8 days.A,B and C together can complete it in

A. 4 days

B. 5 days

C. 6 days

D. 7 days

Q. 114 X is 3 times as fast as Y and is able to complete the work in 40 days less then Y. Then the time in which they can complete the work together is

A. 15 days

B. 10 days

C. 7.5 days

D. 5 days

Q. 115 A copper wire is bent in the shape of a square of area 81 cm². If the same wire is bent in the form of a semicircle, the radius of the semicircle is (take pie = 22/7)

A. 16

B. 14

C. 10

D. 7

Q. 116 The volume (in m³) of rain water that can be collected from 1.5 hectares of ground in a rainfall of 5 cm is

A. 75

B. 750

C. 7500

D. 75000

Q. 117 A river 3 m deep and 40 m wide is flowing at the rate of 2 km per hour. How much water (in liters) will fall in the sea in a minute?

A. 4,00,000

B. 40,00,000

C. 40,000

D. 4,000

Q. 118 The L.C.M of three different number is 120. Which of the following cannot be their H.C.F?

A. 8

B. 12

C. 24

D. 35

Q. 119 A number when divided by 49 leaves 32 as reminder. This number when divided by 7 will have the reminder as

A. 2

B. 3

C. 2

D. 5

Q. 120 In an examination a student scores 4 marks for every correct answers and loses 1 mark for every wrong answer. If he attempts all 75 questions and secures 125 marks, the number of questions he attempted correctly is

A. 35

B. 40

C. 42

D. 46

Q. 121 The traffic lights at three different road crossings changes after 24 seconds, 36 seconds and 54 seconds respectively. If they all change simultaneously at 10:15:00 am, then at what time will then change again

A. 10:16:54 am

B. 10:18:36 am

C. 10:17:02 am

D. 10:22:12 am

Q. 122 A can do a work in 12 days. When he had worked for 3 days, B joined him. If they can complete the work in 3 days, in how many days can B alone finish the work?

A. 6 days

B. 12 days

C. 4 days

D. 8 days

Q. 123 Among three numbers, the first is twice the second and thrice the third. If the average of the three numbers is 49.5, then the difference between the first and the third number is

A. 54

B. 28

C. 39.5

D. 41.5

Q. 124 The mean of 50 numbers is 30. Later it was discovered that two entries were wrongly entered as 82 and 13 instead of 28 and 31. Find the correct mean.

A. 36.12

B. 30.66

C. 29.28

D. 38.21

Q. 125 A bicycle wheel makes 5000 revolutions in moving 11 km. Then the radius of the wheel (in am) is (take pie = 22/7)

A. 70

B. 35

C. 17.5

D. 140

Q. 126 The perimeter of a triangle is 40 cm and its area is 60 cm². If the largest side measures 17cm, then the length (in cm ) of the smallest side of the triangle is

A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 15

Q. 127 A shopkeeper allows a discount of 10 % to his customers and still gains 20%. Find the market price of the article which costs?

A. Rs 600

B. Rs 540

C. Rs 660

D. 580

Q. 128 What single discount is equivalent to two successive discounts of 20 % and 15%?

A. 35%

B. 32%

C. 34%

D. 30%

Q. 129 In a business partnership among A,B,C and D the profit is hard as follows:

What is the total profit

A. Rs 21,12,500

B. Rs 1,37,500

C. Rs 90,000

D. Rs 2,70,000

Q. 130 A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in ratio 7:5. When 9 liters of mixture are drawn off the can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7:9. Liters of liquid A contained by the can initially was

A. 10

B. 20

C. 21

D. 25

Q. 131 What number should be added to or subtracted from each term of the ratio 17 : 24 so that it becomes equal to 1 : 2?

A. 5 is subtracted

B. 10 is added

C. 7 is added

D. 10 is subtracted

Q. 132 The ratio of weekly income of A and B is 9 : 7 and the ratio of their expenditures is 4 : 3. If each saves Rs. 200 per week, then the sum of their weekly income is?

A. Rs 3600

B. Rs 4200

C. Rs 4800

D. Rs 5600

Q. 133 If 30% of A is added to 40% of B, the answer is 80 % of B. What percent of A is B?

A. 30%

B. 40%

C. 70%

D. 75%

Q. 134 A man can row 6 km/h in still water. If the speed of current is 2 km/h , it takes 3 hours more in upstream than in downstream for the same distance. The distance is

A. 30 km

B. 24 km

C. 20 km

D. 32 km

Q. 135 If the selling price of 10 articles is equal to the cost price of 11 articles, then the gain percentage is

A. 10

B. 11

C. 15

D. 25

Q. 136 While selling a watch, a shopkeeper gives discount of 5%. If he gives discount of 6%, he earns Rs.15 less as profit. What is the marked price of the watch?

A. Rs 1250

B. Rs 1400

C. Rs 1500

D. Rs 750

Q. 137 Krishna purchased a number of articles for Rs.10 for each and the same number for Rs.14 each. He mixed them together and sold them for Rs.13 each. Then his gain or loss percent is :

A. Loss 8 1/3 %

B. Gain 8 2/3%

C. Loss 8 2/3%

D. Gain 8 1/3%

Q. 138 A trader bought two horses for Rs.19500. He sold one at a loss of 20% and other at a profit of 15%. If the selling price of each horse is the same then the cost price of them respectively are

A. Rs.10000 and Rs.9500

B. Rs.11500 and Rs.8000

C. Rs.12000 and Rs.7500

D. Rs.10500 and Rs.9000

Q. 139 The cost price of an article is 40% of the selling price. What percent of the cost price is the selling price?

A. 140%

B. 200%

C. 220%

D. 250%

Q. 140 IF 90% of A = 30% of B and B = 2x% of A, then the value of x is

A. 450

B. 400

C. 300

D. 150

Q. 141 When the price of sugar decreases by 10%, a man could by 1 kg more for Rs.270. Then the original price of sugar per kg is

A. Rs. 25

B. Rs. 30

C. Rs. 27

D. Rs. 32

Q. 142 If the price of sugar is raised by 25%, find by how much percent a householder must reduce his consumption of sugar so as not to increase his expenditure?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 18

D. 25

Q. 143 The difference between the compound interest and simple interest on Rs. 10000 for two years is Rs. 25. The rate of interest per annum is

A. 5%

B. 7%

C. 10%

D. 12%

Q. 144 A student goes to school at the rate of 2-1/2 km/h and reaches 6 minutes late. If he travels at the speed of 3km/h, he is 10 minutes early. The distance between the school and his house is (in km)

A. 5

B. 4

C. 3

D. 1

Q. 145 A sum of money placed at compound interest doubles itself in 4 years. In how many years will it amount to 4 times itself?

A. 12 years

B. 13 years

C. 8 years

D. 16 years

Q. 146 The simple interest on a sum for 5 years is one-fourth of the sum. The rate of interest per annum is

A. 5%

B. 6%

C. 4%

D. 8%

Q. 147 The following graph shows the demand and production of cotton by 5 companies. Observe it and answer the question

The production of company D is how many times that of the production of company A?

A. 1.8

B. 1.5

C. 0.5

D. 0.4

Q. 148 The following graph shows the demand and production of cotton by 5 companies. Observe it and answer the question

The demand of company B is what percent of demand for company C?

A. 1.5

B. 2.5

C. 25

D. 30

Q. 149 The following graph shows the demand and production of cotton by 5 companies. Observe it and answer the question

What is the ratio of companies having more demand than production to those having

more production then demand?

A. 2:3

B. 4:1

C. 3:2

D. 1:4

Q. 150 The following graph shows the demand and production of cotton by 5 companies. Observe it and answer the question

What is the difference (in tonnes) between average demand and average production of the five companies taken together?

A. 320

B. 420

C. 2100

D. 1050

Q. 151 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. His son

B. is working

C. very hardly

D. no error

Q. 152 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. Do you know that it was I

B. who has done

C. this piece of beautiful work?

D. no error

Q. 153 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. The company has ordered

B. some

C. new equipments

D. no error

Q. 154 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. The future of food companies

B. seems quite secure

C. owed to ever growing demand

D. no error

Q. 155 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. The vaccine

B. When hit the indian market

C. is dogged by controversy

D. no error

Q. 156 If you had followed the rules, you _______ disqualified.

A. will not be

B. would not be

C. will not have been

D. would not have been

Q. 157 The housewife ____ the cakes burning, and ran to switch off the oven

A. Smell

B. Smells

C. Smelt

D. Smelling

Q. 158 _____ an old legend, King Shirharm lived in India.

A. In the event of

B. Due to

C. According to

D. In reference to

Q. 159 _____ you leave no, you will be late.

A. Until

B. Till

C. Unless

D. Although

Q. 160 The ____ were arrested for illegally hunting the bears.

A. Poachers

B. rangers

C. soldiers

D. villagers

Q. 161 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

GENIAL

A. cordial

B. Unselfish

C. Careful

D. Specific

Q. 162 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

ACCRUE

A. Accumluate

B. Accommodate

C. Grow

D. Suffice

Q. 163 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

LOQUACIOUS

A. Talkative

B. slow

C. Content

D. Unclear

Q. 164 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

VINDICTIVE

A. Imaginative

B. Accusative

C. Spiteful

D. Aggressive

Q. 165 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

INCLEMENT

A. Selfish

B. Active

C. Unfavorable

D. Inactive

Q. 166 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

SYNTHETIC

A. Natural

B. Plastic

C. Cosmetic

D. Apathetic

Q. 167 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

ACCORD

A. Disagreement

B. Welcome

C. Disrespect

D. Confromity

Q. 168 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

INFIRMITY

A. Employment

B. Indisposition

C. Strength

D. Weakness

Q. 169 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

FEASIBLE

A. Useful

B. Impractical

C. Uneven

D. Important

Q. 170 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

METICULOUS

A. Forgetful

B. Destructive

C. Careless

D. Flagrant

Q. 171 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

To be all at sea

A. a family voyage

B. lost and confused

C. in the middle of the ocean

D. a string of islands

Q. 172 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

TO take to one’s heels

A. to walk slowly

B. to run away

C. to march forward

D. to hop and jump

Q. 173 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

To bite the dust

A. cat voraciously

B. have nothing to eat

C. cat roots

D. none of the above

Q. 174 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

A bolt from the blue

A. a delayed event

B. an inexplicable event

C. an unexpected event

D. an unpleasant event

Q. 175 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

Cold comfort

A. absurdity

B. deception

C. slight satisfaction

D. foolish proposal

Q. 176 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

My friend lives in a nearby street WHOSE NAME i have forgotten

A. the name of which

B. which name

C. of which name

D. no improvement

Q. 177 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

HE BOTH WON A MEDAL AND A SCHOLARSHIP

A. He won a medal and a scholarship both

B. Both he won a medal and a scholarship

C. He won both a medal and a scholarship

D. No improvement

Q. 178 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

HE HAS FOR GOOD LEFT INDIA

A. He has left for good

B. He has left india for good

C. Good he has left india

D. No improvement

Q. 179 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

WE ARE CREDIBLY INFORMED THAT THE MURDERER HAS GIVEN HIMSELF UP.

A. We are informed that the murderer has credibly given himself up

B. We are informed that the murderer has given credibly himself up

C. We are informed that credibly the murderer has given up himself

D. No improvement

Q. 180 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

We generally select ONE OF THE MOST INTELLIGENT STUDENT OF THE SCHOOL for this award

A. one of the most intelligent student of school

B. one of the intelligent most student of school

C. one of the intelligent most students of the school

D. no improvement

Q. 181 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

Pertaining to cattle

A. Canine

B. Feline

C. Bovine

D. Verminous

Q. 182 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

To look at someone in an angry or threatening way

A. Glower

B. Gnaw

C. Gnash

D. Grind

Q. 183 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

A post with little work but high salary

A. Director

B. Trustee

C. Sinecure

D. Ombudsman

Q. 184 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

Something that causes death

A. Dangerous

B. Fatal

C. Brutal

D. Horrible

Q. 185 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

A person who writes decoratively

A. Calligrapher

B. Collier

C. Choreographer

D. Cartographer

Q. 186 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. malaign

B. arraign

C. asigne

D. degine

Q. 187 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. harrassment

B. embarrasment

C. fulfillment

D. denoument

Q. 188 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. agnostik

B. accomplice

C. advercity

D. acrimonous

Q. 189 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. dysentery

B. momentary

C. cementary

D. comentary

Q. 190 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. ebulient

B. jubilant

C. iminent

D. tolemt

Q. 191 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. problem

B. question

C. matter

D. query

Q. 192 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. around

B. out

C. about

D. on

Q. 193 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. since

B. during

C. around

D. from

Q. 194 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. ideas

B. opinions

C. stories

D. matters

Q. 195 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. solution

B. novel

C. book

D. answer

Q. 196 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. read

B. think

C. open

D. guess

Q. 197 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. now

B. time

C. then

D. ago

Q. 198 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. moon

B. time

C. earth

D. mars

Q. 199 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. part

B. division

C. opening

D. center

Q. 200 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. end

B. begin

C. think

D. work

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	D	C	C	C	D	B	A	B	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	A	B	C	B	B	A	A	A	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	C	A	B	D	C	C	C	D	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	B	D	C	D	B	C	C	A	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	D	D	D	C	A	C	C	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	C	C	C	B	C	D	C	B	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	C	B	B	B	C	B	A	B	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	A	B	C	C	B	B	B	C	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	D	D	D	B	D	C	D	D	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	B	D	C	C	B	A	A	C	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	B	B	A	C	A	B	B	A	A	A
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	B	C	A	D	B	D	D	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	A	A	C	B	C	A	B	C	C
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	D	C	D	B	A	C	D	B	D	D
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	B	B	A	B	C	A	A	C	C	B
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	B	D	C	C	D	C	C	C	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	A	A	A	C	C	A	A	C	B	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	B	B	D	C	C	D	C	B	A	A
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	C	A	C	B	A	B	C	B	A	B
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	C	C	D	B	D	B	D	C	A	C

SSC CGL Tier-I 19 June 2011 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2011 19 Jun Shift 1

Q. 1 CFIL : ORUX: : DGJM : ?

A. HJLN

B. NQST

C. PSVY

D. RTVX

Q. 2 BEHK : YVSP : : DGJM : ?

A. JGDA

B. ROLI

C. WTQUN

D. ZWTQ

Q. 3 24 : 60 : : 120 : ?

A. 160

B. 220

C. 300

D. 108

Q. 4 392 : 28 : : 722 : ?

A. 18

B. 28

C. 38

D. 48

Q. 5 123 : 36 : : 221 : ?

A. 52

B. 69

C. 72

D. 25

Q. 6 Timid :Ass : : Cunning : ?

A. ant

B. fox

C. rabbit

D. horse

Q. 7 Ecstasy : Gloom : : ?

A. Congratulations : Occasion

B. Diligent : Successful

C. Measure : Scale

D. Humiliation : Exaltation

Q. 8 Architect : Building : : Sculptor : ?

A. museum

B. stone

C. chisel

D. statue

Q. 9 MKQO : LNPR: : ? : XVTZ

A. YSUW

B. SVWY

C. VTWY

D. WYTS

Q. 10 Find the odd one

A. PQXZ

B. BCQN

C. ABDF

D. MNPR

Q. 11 Find the odd one

A. ABYZ

B. CDWX

C. EFUV

D. GHTV

Q. 12 Find the odd one

A. 626

B. 841

C. 962

D. 1090

Q. 13 Find the odd one

A. 5720

B. 6710

C. 2640

D. 4270

Q. 14 Find the odd one

A. swimming

B. sailing

C. diving

D. driving

Q. 15 Find the odd one

A. perception

B. discernment

C. penetration

D. insinuation

Q. 16 From among the given alternatives select the one in which the set of numbers is most like the set of number given in the question.

Given Set: (4, 25, 81)

A. (4, 36, 79)

B. (9, 48, 81)

C. (16, 64, 100)

D. (9, 49, 143)

Q. 17 In the following question, number of letters are skipped in between by a particular rule.

Which of the following series observe the rule?

A. BAFHTU

B. ACEGJL

C. ACFJOU

D. ADFHJL

Q. 18 Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?

1. Ocean 2. Rivulet 3. Sea 4. Glacier 5.River

A. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4

B. 4, 2, 5, 3, 1

C. 5, 2, 3, 4, 1

D. 4, 2, 1, 3, 5

Q. 19 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.

1. Preposition 2. Preparatively 3. Preposterous 4. Preponderate 5. Prepossess

A. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3

B. 1, 5, 2, 4, 3

C. 5, 4, 2, 3, 1

D. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3

Q. 20 Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

ac_cab_baca_aba_aca_

A. acbcc

B. aacbc

C. babbb

D. bcbba

Q. 21 _ ?_ , DREQ, GUHT, JXKW

A. EFRS

B. TGSP

C. JWVI

D. AQBN

Q. 22 56, 90, 132, 184, 218, ___?__

A. 368

B. 316

C. 362

D. 326

Q. 23 0, 4, 8, 24, 64, 176, __?__

A. 180

B. 480

C. 280

D. 300

Q. 24 WTPMIFB ?_ _?__

A. ZV

B. XU

C. YU

D. YV

Q. 25 Mrs. Susheela celebrated her wedding anniversary on Tuesday, 30th September 1997. When will she celebrate her next wedding anniversary on the same day?

A. 30 September 2003

B. 30 September 2004

C. 30 September 2002

D. 30 October 2003

Q. 26 A clock gains five minutes every hour.What will be the angle traversed by the second hand in one minute?

A. 360°

B. 360.5°

C. 390°

D. 380°

Q. 27 Bis twice as old as Abut twice younger than F. C is half the age of A but is twice older than D. Who is the second oldest?

A. B

B. F

C. D

D. C

Q. 28 A two member committee comprising of one male and one female member is to be constituted out of five male and three females. Amongst the females,Ms. A refuses to be a member of the committee in which Mr. B is taken as the member. In how many different way can the committee be constituted?

A. 11

B. 12

C. 13

D. 14

Q. 29 Find the wrong number in the series.

6, 12, 21, 32, 45, 60

A. 6

B. 12

C. 21

D. 32

Q. 30 Ramesh ranks 13th in a class of 33 students. There are 5 students below Suresh rank wise.

How many students are there between Ramesh and Suresh?

A. 12

B. 14

C. 15

D. 16

Q. 31 Naresh’s age is 4 years less than twice the age of his brother. Which of the following represents the equation to find his age?

A. 2x + 4

B. 4x + 2

C. x – 4

D. 2x – 4

Q. 32 Suresh’s sister is the wife of Ram. Ram is Rani’s brother Ram’s father is Madhur. Sheetal is Rams’s grandmother. Reema is Sheetal’s daughter-in-law. Rohit is Rani’s brother’s son. Who is Rohit to Suresh?

A. Brother-in-law

B. Son

C. Brother

D. Nephew

Q. 33 In a survey, 70% of those surveyed owned a car and 75% of those surveyed owned a TV. If 55% owned both a car and a TV. What percent of those surveyed did not own either a car or a TV?

A. 25%

B. 20%

C. 10%

D. 5%

Q. 34 If DANCE is coded as GXQZH, then how will RIGHT be coded?

A. UFJEW

B. SCKFX

C. UEJWE

D. UPWJE

Q. 35 If LOSS is coded as 1357 and GAIN is coded as 2468, what do the figures 84615 stand for?

A. NAILS

B. SNAIL

C. LANES

D. SLAIN

Q. 36 A statement is given followed by four alternative arguments. Select the alternative which is most appropriate.

Statement

Is it necessary that education should be job oriented?

I. Yes, the aim of education is to prepare persons for earning.

II. Yes, educated person should stand on his own feet after completion of education.

III. No, education should be for sake of knowledge only.

IV. No, one may take up agriculture where education is not necessary

A. Only I and II arguments are strong

B. Only III and IV arguments are strong

C. Only I arguments is strong

D. Only I and III arguments are strong

Q. 37 Aman started walking West. He turns right, then right again and finally turns left. Towards which direction was he walks now?

A. North

B. South

C. West

D. East

Q. 38 Sudha travels 8 km to the South. Then 8 km turns to the right and walks 4 km. The again she turns to her right and moves 8 km forward. How many km away is the from alerting point?

A. 7

B. 6

C. 1

D. 8

Q. 39 From the given alternatives words, select the words which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:

‘COMPREHENSION’

A. COMPRISE

B. PENSION

C. ONIOX

D. PREACH

Q. 40 From the given alternatives words, select the word which can be formed using the letter of the given word

‘MULTIPLACATION’

A. MUTUAL

B. LIMITATION

C. APPLICATION

D. NOTION

Directions: In question no. 41 and 42, select the missing number from the given responses.

Q. 41 Select the right option

A. 127

B. 31

C. 217

D. 328

Q. 42 Select the right option

A. 40

B. 48

C. 50

D. 36

Q. 43 If ‘-‘ stands for division, ‘+’ stands for subtraction, ‘÷’ stands for multiplication, ‘×’ stands for addition, then which one of the following equation is correct?

A. 70 ÷ 2 – 4 × 5 + 6 = 44

B. 70 ÷ 2 – 4 × 5 + 6 = 21

C. 70 -2 + 4 ÷ 5 × 6 = 341

D. 70 – 2 + 4 ÷ 5 × 6 = 98

Q. 44 The school result is increasing year after year. Forecast the result of 2012 from the following information.

A. 51.75%

B. 56.75%

C. 48.00%

D. 57.25%

Q. 45 Which diagram correctly represents the relationship between politicians, poets and women?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 46 How many triangles are there in the following figures?

A. 29

B. 27

C. 23

D. 30

Q. 47 Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. Find the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.

If 324 × 289 – 35, 441 × 484 = 43.

625 × 400 = 45, find the value of 256 × 729

A. 33

B. 35

C. 43

D. 34

Q. 48 From the given answer figures select the one in which the question figure hidden/ embedded.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 49 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the correct image of the given question figure?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 50 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 51 In the budget for 2011-12, the fiscal deficit (% of GDP) for 2011-12 has been projected at

A. 5.1

B. 5.0

C. 4.6

D. 3.4

Q. 52 Which was described by Dr. B.R.Ambedkar as the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution?

A. Right to Equality

B. Right against Exploitation

C. Right to Constitutional Remedies

D. Right to Freedom of Religion

Q. 53 Which is not the concern of the local government?

A. Public Health

B. Sanitation

C. Law and Order

D. Public Utility Services

Q. 54 In India, the concept-of single citizenship is adopted rom

A. England

B. U.S.A

C. Canada

D. France

Q. 55 Who had proposed partyless democracy in India?

A. Jaya Prakash Narayan

B. Mahatma Gandhi

C. Vinoda Bhave

D. ) S.A. Dange

Q. 56 Disinvestment in Public Sector is called

A. Liberalization

B. Globalization

C. Industrialization

D. Privatization

Q. 57 Darwin finches refers to a group of

A. Fishes

B. Lizards

C. Birds

D. Amphibians

Q. 58 An individual’s actual landward of living can be assessed by

A. Gross National Income

B. Net National Income

C. Per capita income

D. Disposable Personal Income

Q. 59 As announced by the Finance Minister in his Budget speech on 28th February 2011, with a view to assist State in modernizing their stamp and registration administration, E-stamping is expected to be rolled out in all the districts of different States in a period of

A. one year

B. two years

C. three years

D. five years

Q. 60 Which Sikh Guru called himself the ‘Sacheha Badshah’?

A. Guru Gobind Singh

B. Guru Hargovind

C. Guru Tegh Bahadur

D. Guru Arjan Dev

Q. 61 The Civil Disobedience Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in

A. 1928

B. 1930

C. 1931

D. 1922

Q. 62 What is the maximum strength prescribed for State Legislative Assemblies?

A. 350

B. 600

C. 500

D. 750

Q. 63 Fa-hien visited India during the reign of

A. Chandrahupta II

B. Samudragupta

C. Ramagupta

D. Kumaragupta

Q. 64 At which place in Bengal was the East India Company given permission to trade and build a factory by the Mughals in 1651?

A. Calcutta

B. Cassim Bazar

C. Singpur

D. Burdwan

Q. 65 Diu is an island off

A. Daman

B. Goa

C. Gujarat

D. Maharashtra

Q. 66 Which from the following is a land for sea?

A. Red sea

B. Timor sea

C. North sea

D. Arab sea

Q. 67 Shivasamudram Falls is found in the course river

A. Krishna

B. Gidavari

C. Cauvery

D. Mahanadi

Q. 68 Who gave the slogan “InquilabZindabad”?

A. Chandrashekhar Azad

B. Subhash Chandra Bose

C. Bhagat Singh

D. Iqbal

Q. 69 The position of India Railways network the world is

A. second

B. third

C. fourth

D. fifth

Q. 70 The oldest international airline is

A. Dutch KLM

B. Air Canada

C. Qantas Railways

D. Air Sahara

Q. 71 Neutrons to control the chain reaction during nuclear fission?

A. Boron

B. Heavy water

C. Uranium

D. Plutonium

Q. 72 Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of

A. controlled fission reaction

B. uncontrolled fission reaction

C. uncontrolled fission reaction

D. uncontrolled fusion reaction

Q. 73 Troposphere is the hottest part of the atmosphere because

A. it is closest to the Sun

B. there are charged particles in it

C. it is heated by the Earth’s surface

D. heat is generated in it

Q. 74 The outermost layer of the Sun is called

A. Chromosphere

B. Photosphere

C. Corona

D. Lithosphere

Q. 75 Where was India’s first computer installed?

A. Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi

B. Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore

C. Indian Iron & Steel Co. Ltd. Burnpur

D. Indian Statistical Institute, Calcutta

Q. 76 The dried flower birds are used as a spirit

A. Cardamom

B. Cinnamon

C. Cloves

D. Saffron

Q. 77 The tissue in man where to cell dives occurs after birth is

A. skeletal

B. nerves

C. connective

D. germinal

Q. 78 DNA fingerprinting is used to identify the

A. parents

B. rapist

C. thieves

D. all the above

Q. 79 The normal cholesterol level in human body is

A. 80-120 mg%

B. 120-140 mg%

C. 140-180 mg%

D. 180-200 mg%

Q. 80 Which of the following are warm-blood animals?

A. whales

B. whale sharks

C. alytes

D. draco

Q. 81 Syrinx is the voice box in

A. Amphibians

B. Reptiles

C. Birds

D. Mammals

Q. 82 The largest ecosystem of the Earth is

A. Biome

B. Hydrosphere

C. Lithosphere

D. Biosphere

Q. 83 In a food chain , the solar energy utilized by plants is only

A. 10%

B. 1%

C. 0.1%

D. 0.01%

Q. 84 Supersonic jet causes pollution by thinking of

A. O₃ layer

B. O₂ layer

C. SO₂ layer

D. CO₂ layer

Q. 85 OTEC stand for

A. Ocean Thermal Energy Conservation

B. Oil and Thermal Energy Conservation

C. Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion

D. Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion

Q. 86 As per Railway Budget for 2011-2012 , the senior citizen concession for men has been increased from

A. 25% to 30%

B. 30% to 40%

C. 40% to 50%

D. 30% to 50%

Q. 87 The monster earthquake-cum-tsunami which his Japan on March 11, 2011 has moved the country’s main island , Honshu , by about

A. two feet

B. three feet

C. five feet

D. eight feet

Q. 88 What is the commonly used unit for measuring the speed of data transmission ?

A. Mega Hertz

B. Character per second

C. BIts per second

D. Nano seconds

Q. 89 Which type of reaction produces the most harmful reaction ?

A. Fusion reaction

B. Fission reaction

C. Chemical reaction

D. Photo-Chemical reaction

Q. 90 Which type of glass is used for making glass reinforced plastic ?

A. pyrex glass

B. flint glass

C. quartz glass

D. fibre glass

Q. 91 Which of the following metals causes Itai – Itai disease ?

A. Cadmium

B. Chromium

C. Cobalt

D. Copper

Q. 92 Glycol is added to aviation gasoline because it

A. reduces evaporation of petrol

B. increases efficiency of petrol

C. prevents freezing of petrol

D. reduces consumption of petrol

Q. 93 Who invested penicillin?

A. Alexander Fleming

B. Louis Pasteur

C. Dreser

D. Edward Jenner

Q. 94 2018 FIFA World Cup would be held in

A. Russia

B. Qatar

C. France

D. Netherlands

Q. 95 Who of the following was not the recipient of Nobel Prize in Economics 2010?

A. Peter A. Diamond

B. Christopher Pissarides

C. Luis Xiaobo

D. Dale Mortensen

Q. 96 Which troubled model was recalled recently by the Indian automobile giant Maruti Suzukifor replacement of faulty fuel pump gasket?

A. Maruti 800

B. Maruti A-star

C. Wagon R

D. Baleno

Q. 97 As a part of Human Resource Development Ministry’s ‘brain gain’ policy to attract global talent, 14 world class universities to attract global talent are proposed to be set up in various states. Name the state from the following where no university of the aforesaid type is proposed to be located.

A. Punjab

B. Bihar

C. Rajasthan

D. Uttaranchal

Q. 98 Who discovered South Pole?

A. Robert Peary

B. Amundsen

C. John Cabot

D. Tasman

Q. 99 Which of the following folk dances is associated with Rajasthan?

A. Rauf

B. Jora

C. Veedhi

D. Suisim

Q. 100 Which of the following books is authored by V.S. Naipaul?

A. The Rediscovery of India

B. A House of Mr. Biswas

C. Witness the Night

D. Tender Hookz

Q. 101 If p = 124 , ∛p(p²+3p+3) +1 = ?

A. 5

B. 7

C. 123

D. 125

Q. 102 If √1 -(x³100) = 3/5 , then x equals

A. 2

B. 4

C. 16

D. (136)⅓

Q. 103 If multiplied a natural number by 18 and another by 21 and added the products. Which one of the following could be the sum?

A. 2007

B. 2008

C. 2006

D. 2002

Q. 104 The product of two numbers is 45 and their difference is 4. The sum squares of the two numbers is

A. 135

B. 240

C. 73

D. 106

Q. 105 Solve the following

A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 10

Q. 106 The square of 14 + 6 √5 is

A. 2 √5

B. 3 √5

C. 6 √3

D. 3 2√5

Q. 107 When 2³¹ is divided by 5 the remainder is

A. 4

B. 3

C. 2

D. 1

Q. 108 The value is

A. 21/13

B. 17/3

C. 34/21

D. 8/5

Q. 109 The unit digit in the product (122)¹²³

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

Q. 110 The value of

A. 16 + √3

B. 4 + √3

C. 2 – √3

D. 2 + √3

Q. 111 If a + b –2a + 3b –ab, then the value of (3 – 5 + 5 ÷3) is

A. 10

B. 6

C. 4

D. 2

Q. 112 Simplify

[0.0347 ×0.0347 ×0.0347 ×(0.09653)³ / [(0.0347)²- (0.347)(0.09653) + (0.9653)²

A. 0.9306

B. 1.0009

C. 1.0050

D. 1

Q. 113 A copper wire is bent in the form of and equilateral triangle and has area 123 3 cm². If the same wire is bent into the form of a circle, the area (in cm²) enclosed by the wire is (Take π= 22/7)

A. 364.5

B. 693.5

C. 346.5

D. 639.5

Q. 114 A child reshapes a cone make up of clay of height 24 cm and radius 6 cm into a sphere. The radius (in cm) of the sphere is

A. 6

B. 12

C. 24

D. 48

Q. 115 Water flows into a trank which is 200 m long and 150 m wide, through a pipe of cross section 0.3 m × 0.2 m at 20 km/hour. Then the time (in hours) for the water level in the tank to reach 8 m is

A. 50

B. 120

C. 150

D. 200

Q. 116 The product of two numbers is 2028 and their H.C.F. is 13. The number of such pairs is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 117 Two equal vessels are filled with the mixtures of water and milk in the ratio of 3 : 4 and 5 : 3 respectively. If the mixtures are poured into a third vessel, the ratio of water and milk in the third vessel will be

A. 15 : 12

B. 53 : 59

C. 20 : 9

D. 59 : 53

Q. 118 I am three times as old as my son. 15 years hence, I will be twice as old as my son. The sum of our ages is

A. 48 years

B. 60 years

C. 84 years

D. 72 years

Q. 119 Three bells ring simultaneously at 11 a.m. They ring at regular intervals of 20 minute 30 minutes, 40 minutes respectively. The time when all the three ring together next

A. 2 p.m

B. 1 p.m

C. 1:15 p.m

D. 1:30 p.m

Q. 120 A and B together can do a work in 12 days. B and together do it in 15 days. If A efficiency is twice that of C,then the day required for B alone to finish the work is

A. 50

B. 30

C. 20

D. 15

Q. 121 A and B can do a work in 12 days, B and C can do the same work in 15 days, C and A can do the same work in 20 days. The time taken by A, B and C to do the same work it

A. 5 days

B. 10 days

C. 15 days

D. 20 days

Q. 122 A is 60% as efficient as B.C does half of the work done by A and B together. If C alone does the work in 20 days, then A, B and C together can do the work in

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 123 The ratio of the volumes in water and glycerin in 240 cc of a mixture is 1 : 3. The quantity of water(in cc)that should be added to the mixture so that the new ratio of the volumes of water and glycerin becomes 2 : 3 is

A. 55

B. 60

C. 62.5

D. 64

Q. 124 At present,the ratio of the ages of Maya and Chaya is 6 : 5 and fifteen years from now, the ratio will get changed to 9 : 8, Maya’s present age is

A. 21 years

B. 24 years

C. 30 years

D. 40 years

Q. 125 The ratio of the income to the expenditure of a family is 10 : 7. If the family expenses are Rs. 10,500, then the savings of the family is

A. Rs. 4,500

B. Rs. 10,000

C. Rs. 4,000

D. Rs. 5,000

Q. 126 The average mathematics marks of two Sections A and B of Class IX in the annual examination is 74. The average marks of Section A is 77.5 and that of Section B is 70. The ratio of the number of students of Sections A and B is

A. 7 : 8

B. 7 : 5

C. 8 : 7

D. 8 : 5

Q. 127 The average weight of a group of 20 boys was calculated to be 89.4 kg and it was later discovered that one weight was misread as 78 kg instead of 87 kg. The correct average weight is

A. 88.95 kg

B. 89.25 kg

C. 89.55 kg

D. 89.85 kg

Q. 128 The diameter of a wheel is 98 cm dominor of revolutions in which it will to cover a distance of 1540 m is

A. 500

B. 600

C. 700

D. 800

Q. 129 In an equilateral triangle ABC of side to the side BC is trisected at D. Then length(incm) of AD is

A. 3√7

B. 7√3

C. 10√7 / 3

D. 7√10 / 3

Q. 130 The cost price of an article of Rs. 800. At allowing a discount of 10%, a gain of 12 was made. Them the market price of article is

A. Rs. 1000

B. Rs. 1100

C. Rs. 1200

D. Rs. 1300

Q. 131 A man bought an article listed at Rs. 1500 with a discount of 20% offered on the listed price. What additional discount must offered to the man to bring the net price Rs. 1,104?

A. 8%

B. 10%

C. 12%

D. 15%

Q. 132 Solve the following

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 9

Q. 133 The part of a room is of size 4 m×3 m and its height is 3 m. The walls and ceiling of the room require painting.The area to be painted is

A. 66 m²

B. 54 m²

C. 43 m²

D. 33 m²

Q. 134 When the price of an article was reduced by 20% its sale increased by 80%. What was the net effect on the sale?

A. 44% increase

B. 44% decrease

C. 66% decrease

D. 75% decrease

Q. 135 The price of sugar goes up by 20%. If a housewife wants the expenses on sugar to remain the same, she should reduce the consumption by

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 136 In a factory 60% of the workers are above 30 years and of these 75% are males and the rest are females. If there are 1350 male workers above 30 years, the total number of workers is the factory is

A. 3000

B. 2000

C. 1800

D. 1500

Q. 137 Refer to the image and answer the question

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 138 The selling price of 10 oranges in the price of 13 oranges. Then the price percentage is

A. 30%

B. 10%

C. 13%

D. 3%

Q. 139 The marked price of a radio is Rs. 480, shopkeeper allows a discount of 10% gains 8%. If no discount is allowed, his percent would be

A. 18%

B. 18.5%

C. 20.5%

D. 20%

Q. 140 A man sold 20 apples for Rs. 100 gained 20%. How many apples did he buy Rs. 100?

A. 20

B. 22

C. 24

D. 25

Q. 141 A rectangular sheet of metal is 40 cm, 15 cm. Equal squares of side 4 cm are cut at the corners and the remainder is fold up to form an open rectangular box. The volume of the box is

A. 896 cm³

B. 986 cm³

C. 600 cm³

D. 916 cm³

Q. 142 If 78 is divided into three parts which are the ratio 1 : 1/3 : 1/6 , the middle part is

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 143 The simple interest on a sum of money is 1/9 of the principal and the number of years is equal to rate percent are annum. The rate per annum is

A. 3%

B. 1/3 %

C. 3 1/3 %

D. 3/10 %

Q. 144 The difference between simple interest and compound interest of a certain sum of money at 20% per annum for 2 years is Rs. 48. Then the sum is

A. Rs. 1000

B. Rs. 1200

C. Rs. 1500

D. Rs. 2000

Q. 145 Shri X goes to his office by scooter at a speed of 30 km/h and reaches 6 minutes earlier. If he goes at a speed of 24 km/h, he reaches 5 minutes late. The distance to his office is

A. 20 km

B. 21 km

C. 22 km

D. 24 km

Q. 146 A sum of money becomes eight times in 3 years, if the rate is compounded annually. In low much time will the same amount at the same compound rate become sixteen times?

A. 6 years

B. 4 years

C. 8 years

D. 5 years

The pie chart given below shows the spending of a family on various heads during a month. Study the graph and answer question 147 to 150.

Q. 147 If the total income of the family is Rs. 25,000, then the amount spent of Rent and Food together is

A. Rs. 17,250

B. Rs. 14,750

C. Rs. 11,250

D. Rs. 8,500

Q. 148 What is the ratio of the expenses of Education to the expenses on Food?

A. 1 : 3

B. 3 : 1

C. 3 : 5

D. 5 : 3

Q. 149 Expenditure of Rent is what percent of expenditure of Fuel?

A. 135 %

B. 156 %

C. 167 %

D. 172 %

Q. 150 Which three expenditures together have a central angle of 108° ?

A. Fuel, Clothing and Others

B. Fuel, Education and Others

C. Clothing, Rent and Others

D. Education, Rent and Others

Q. 151 A senior doctor expressed concern about physicians recommended the vaccine. No error.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 152 We have discussing all the known mechanisms of physical growth. No error.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 153 Children enjoy listening to ghost stories especially on Halloween night. No error.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 154 I have many works to do. No error

(A) (B) (C) (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 155 There are so many filths all around the place. No error.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 156 The building is not safe and must be _______ down

A. pull

B. pulling

C. pulled

D. pulls

Q. 157 There is something wonderful _____ him.

A. of

B. about

C. for

D. inside

Q. 158 The song is the play cannot be deleted as it is _______ to the story.

A. intervened

B. innate

C. exacting

D. integral

Q. 159 She remained a ______ all her life.

A. spinster

B. bachelor

C. unmarried

D. single

Q. 160 Do not stay in the grasslands after dark, as some animals become ______ when they see humans

A. provoked

B. alerted

C. aggresive

D. threatened

Q. 161 Choose the best word

LUCIDITY

A. Fluidity

B. Politeness

C. Clarity

D. Fluency

Q. 162 Choose the best word

INDICT

A. Implicate

B. Elude

C. Charge

D. Manifest

Q. 163 Choose the best word

APPRAISE

A. Accuse

B. Praise

C. Appreciate

D. Judge

Q. 164 Choose the best word

DELUGE

A. Confusion

B. Deception

C. Flood

D. Weapon

Q. 165 Choose the best word

PREPONDERANCE

A. Pre-eminence

B. Dominance

C. Domineering

D. Preoccupation

Q. 166 Choose the best word

INVINCIBLE

A. small

B. invisible

C. vulnerable

D. reachable

Q. 167 Choose the best word

INOFFENSIVE

A. sensitive

B. organic

C. sensible

D. rude

Q. 168 Choose the best word

DIVULGE

A. conceal

B. disguise

C. oppress

D. reveal

Q. 169 Choose the best word

DISCORD

A. harmony

B. serenity

C. acceptance

D. placidity

Q. 170 Choose the best word

MOMMOTII

A. quiet

B. significant

C. huge

D. small

Q. 171 To take the heart

A. to be encouraged

B. to grieve over

C. to like

D. to hate

Q. 172 Yeoman’s service

A. medical help

B. excellent work

C. social work

D. hard work

Q. 173 To face the music

A. to enjoy a musical recital

B. to bear the consequences

C. to live in a pleasant atmosphere

D. to have a difficult time

Q. 174 To put up with

A. to accommodate

B. to adjust

C. to understand

D. to tolerate

Q. 175 To call it a day

A. to conclude proceedings

B. to initiate proceedings

C. to work through the day

D. None of the above

Q. 176 The man whom I thought was thoroughly honest proved to be a swindler.

A. The man whom I thought was thoroughly honest proved a swindler

B. The man who I through was thoroughly honest proved to be a swindler

C. The man to whom I thought was thoroughly honest proved to be a swindler

D. No improvement

Q. 177 No sooner had the dividend been declared, the notices were sent out.

A. The company had hardly declared the dividend till the notices were sent for mailing.

B. They had no sooner declared the dividend then the notices were sent out

C. Hardly had the dividend been declared than the notices were sent-out.

D. No improvement.

Q. 178 Riding upon his horse, the tiger jumped at him

A. Riding upon the tiger,this horse jumped at him

B. The tiger jumped at him while he was riding upon his horse.

C. The tiger rode at him while he was jumping upon his horse.

D. No improvement

Q. 179 I in black and white must have been your terms down.

A. I must have in black and white your terms down.

B. I must have your terms in black and white down.

C. I must have your terms down in black and white.

D. No improvement

Q. 180 When we came out of the restaurant it half past eleven.

A. When we had come out of the restaurant.

B. After we came out of the restaurant.

C. When we have come out of restaurant

D. No improvement.

Q. 181 Code of diplomatic etiquette and precedence

A. statesmanship

B. diplomacy

C. hierarchy

D. protocol

Q. 182 To renounce a high position of authority control

A. abduct

B. abandon

C. abort

D. abdicate

Q. 183 Not to be moved by entreaty

A. rigorous

B. negligent

C. inexorable

D. despotic

Q. 184 An object or portion serving as a sample

A. specification

B. spectre

C. spectacle

D. specimen

Q. 185 The practice of submitting a proposal a popular vote

A. election

B. reference

C. popularity

D. referendum

Q. 186 Find the right word.

A. mandatary

B. circulatary

C. temporary

D. regulatory

Q. 187 Find the right word.

A. convinience

B. initative

C. concesional

D. exxagerate

Q. 188 Find the right word.

A. diologue

B. giraffe

C. scissors

D. humourous

Q. 189 Find the right word.

A. asidvous

B. nefarious

C. macaber

D. loquacious

Q. 190 Find the right word.

A. cortege

B. damege

C. milege

D. plumege

First read the passage over and try to understand what is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given Mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

Science means knowledge, but not all knowledge is science. I know from my own eyesight that our dog Chippy like papaya: I know from a book that Akbar was the (191) of Babar, and (192) in 1605; and I know (193) the radio that India did not do well in the (194) Test matches. We can call these (195)of knowledge (196) , but they are not science. Science (197) with facts, but not with facts which have (198) to do with each other, like the facts about our dog, cricket and the Mughul ruler; those facts are not related (199) , and so have nothing (200) with science. Science starts with observation.

Q. 191 Choose the word

A. grandson

B. grand father

C. grand nephew

D. son

Q. 192 Choose the word

A. gone

B. died

C. disappeared

D. absented

Q. 193 Choose the word

A. on

B. in

C. since

D. from

Q. 194 Choose the word

A. old

B. ordinary

C. latest

D. outdated

Q. 195 Choose the word

A. pieces

B. peace

C. whole

D. block

Q. 196 Choose the word

A. lies

B. charges

C. facts

D. blame

Q. 197 Choose the word

A. starts

B. stops

C. passes

D. drives

Q. 198 Choose the word

A. no

B. neither

C. nor

D. nothing

Q. 199 Choose the word

A. by that way

B. in any way

C. from the side

D. in addition to

Q. 200 Choose the word

A. to llie

B. to speak

C. to sleep

D. to do

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	C	C	C	D	B	D	D	A	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	B	D	D	D	C	C	B	A	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	D	D	C	A	B	A	D	A	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	D	C	A	A	A	A	A	C	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	C	B	B	D	B	C	D	B	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	C	C	A	A	D	C	D	C	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	C	A	B	C	D	C	C	C	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	D	C	C	D	C	B	D	D	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	A	C	A	D	B	D	C	B	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	C	A	A	C	B	D	B	D	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	D	B	A	D	A	B	B	C	B	A
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	A	D	C	A	D	B	D	B	B	C
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	B	B	C	A	C	D	A	C	A
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	A	D	B	A	B	A	A	A	D	C
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	A	C	C	B	C	B	B	A	B	B
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	A	C	C	A	C	B	D	A	C
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	C	C	D	C	B	C	D	A	A	D
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	B	A	B	D	D	D	A	B	C	D
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	D	D	D	D	D	C	D	C	B	A
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	A	B	A	C	A	C	A	D	B	D