SSC Exam - Page 32 of 32 - Vidhyarthi Darpan

SSC CGL Tier-I 07 January 2012 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2012 7 Jan Shift 1

Q. 1 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

8 : 12 : : 6 : ?

A. 8

B. 11

C. 5

D. 7

Q. 2 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

13: 19: : 21 : ?

A. 41

B. 81

C. 141

D. 14

Q. 3 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

Eagle : Swoops :: Duck: ?

A. waddles

B. floats

C. swims

D. flits

Q. 4 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

APPLE: 50 : : ORANGE : ?

A. 60

B. 69

C. 61

D. 63

Q. 5 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

Accommodation:Rent:: Journey: ?

A. Freight

B. octrol

C. fare

D. expense

Q. 6 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

Fire : Smoke : : ?

A. children : school

B. cloud : ram

C. Moon : sky

D. shoe : polish

Q. 7 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

Grenade: Gun: : ?

A. Sister: Brother

B. Father: Mother

C. Man : Woman

D. Head : Brain

Q. 8 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

TSH : IRQ : : QPK : ?

A. LNO

B. LON

C. PWK

D. PON

Q. 9 In each of the following questions, select the related letters / word in number from the given alternatives

AEZ: FPY : : BGX : ?

A. HWW

B. IYY

C. HTX

D. HYW

Q. 10 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. SP

B. NL

C. ZW

D. TQ

Q. 11 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. Major

B. colonel

C. Brigadier

D. Admiral

Q. 12 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. Life Insurance Corporation

B. New India Assurance Company Ltd

C. United India Insurance Company Ltd.

D. National Insurance Company Ltd

Q. 13 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. hurdle

B. disease

C. barrier

D. obstacle

Q. 14 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. mar

B. remedy

C. maim

D. mutilate

Q. 15 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. socrates

B. beethoven

C. mozart

D. bach

Q. 16 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. (132, 5)

B. (125, 8)

C. (124, 7)

D. (112, 4)

Q. 17 In each of the following questions, find the odd number /letters/word / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 6246-6296

B. 7137-7267

C. 4344-4684

D. 5235-5465

Q. 18 YX,UTS, ONML, ?

A. FEDCB

B. CFEDC

C. IHGFE

D. IHGFE

Q. 19 DA, HE, LI, ? , TN

A. PI

B. PT

C. PM

D. PK

Q. 20 Choose the correct alternative for

B E I NT ?

A. x

B. Y

C. A

D. Z

Q. 21 AZ, CX, EV, ?

A. HT

B. HU

C. GS

D. GT

Q. 22 D9Y, J27S, P81M, V243G, __?

A. A324B

B. C729B

C. B729A

D. A729B

Q. 23 Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?

__c__bd__cbcda__a__db__a

A. daabbc

B. bdbcba

C. adabcd

D. cdbbca

Q. 24 9,19,40,83, 170,340

A. 83

B. 40

C. 340

D. 170

Q. 25 21,28,33,35.37,36

A. 21

B. 36

C. 33

D. 35

Q. 26 5,13,29,61,120,253

A. 120

B. 253

C. 61

D. 29

Q. 27 . 0,7,28,63, 124,215

A. 28

B. 215

C. 7

D. 63

Q. 28 Some relationships have been expressed through symbols which are explained below:

0 = greater than

Δ = not equal to

× = not less than

+ = equal to

∅ = not greater than

— = less than

a ∇ b ∇ c implies

A. a Δ A b ∅ c

B. a b + c

C. a o b + c

D. a o b x c

Q. 29 What is the value ?

A. 14400

B. 15600

C. 23040

D. 12400

Q. 30 If PEAR is written a GFDN how is REAP written in this code?

A. FDNG

B. NFDG

C. DNGF

D. NDFG

Q. 31 If 54 + 43 = 2, 60 + 51 = 10, then 62 + 72 =?

A. 30

B. 18

C. 20

D. 9

Q. 32 If L denotes x

M denotes ÷

P denotes +

Q denotes –

then 16 P 24 M 8 Q 6 M 2 L 3 = ?

A. 10

B. 9

C. 12

D. 11

Q. 33 In this question, from the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word.

APPROPRIATE

A. PIRATE

B. APPROVE

C. PROPER

D. RAPPORT

Q. 34 If FLATTER is coded as 7238859 and MOTHER is coded as 468159, then how is MAMMOTH coded?

A. 4344681

B. 4344651

C. 4146481

D. 4346481

Q. 35 If l6 – 2= 2,9 – 3 = 0, 81 -1 = 8, then what is 64 – 4 = ?

A. 4

B. 2

C. 6

D. 8

Question:- 36-37

In each of the following questions, select the missing number from the given responses.

Q. 36 What is the number missing

A. 20

B. 10

C. 25

D. 15

Q. 37 What is the missing number ?

A. 21

B. 20

C. 23

D. 22

Q. 38 Four aeroplanes of Air Force viz, A,B,C,D, started for a demonstration flight towards east. Afterflying 50 km planes A and Dflew towards right, planes B and C flew towards left. After 50 km, planes B and C flew towards their left, planes A and D also towards their left. In which directions are the aeroplanes A, B,D, C respectively flying now?

A. North, South” East, West

B. South, North, West, East

C. East, West, West, East

D. West, East, West, East

Q. 39 Satishstartfrom Aand walks 2 kmeastupto B and turns southwards and walks 1 km upto C. At C he turns to east and walks 2 km upto D. He then turns northwards and walks 4 km to E. How far is he from his starting point?

A. 5 km

B. 6 km

C. 3 km

D. 4 km

Q. 40 Statements :

Temple is a place of worship. Church is also a place of worship.

Conclusions:

I. Hindus and Christians use the same place for worship.

II. All churches are temples

A. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

B. Both conclusions I and II follow

C. Only conclusion I follows

D. Only conclusion II follows

Q. 41 Statement:

The human organism grows and develops through stimulation and action.

Concluslons:

I. Inert human organism cannot grow and develop.

II. Human organisms do not react to stimulation and action

A. Neither conclusion I nor II follow

B. Both conclusions I and II follow

C. Only conclusion I follows

D. Only conclusion II follows

Q. 42 . If the first four letters of a term HIPPNOWADIASM are written in reverse order,the next five letters are written without changing their order and then, the remaining letters are again written in reverse order, in the middle of the word?

A. O

B. W

C. A

D. I

Q. 43 In the following letter series how many times do PQR occur in such a way that Q is in the middle of P and R.

Q M P N P Q R R O P N O P P R P

M Q R O P Q R P P R R P Q R P

A. 5

B. 6

C. 4

D. 3

Q. 44 . Volume of a sphere is equal to the volume of a hemisphere. If the radius of the hemisphere is 3√2 cm, then the radius of the sphere is equal to

A. 9√2

B. 6√2

C. 27

D. 3

Q. 45 A sheet of paper has been folded as shown by the question figures. You have to figure out from amongst the four answer figures how it will appear when opened?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 46 Which of the answer figure is exactly the mirror image of the question figure if a mirror is placed on the line MN?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 47 If SEARCH is coded as TFBSDI. how will PENCIL be coded?

A. RGPEN

B. LICNEP

C. QPODJM

D. QUMBHK

Q. 48 Which answer Figure completes the form in question figure?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 49 From the answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/ embedded.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 50 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in anyone of the alternatives.

The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g. ‘A’ can be represented by 10. 33, etc and ‘H’ can be represented by 59. 78. etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word

GUIDE

A. 85, 23, 21, 87, 32

B. 58, 31, 12, 57, 41

C. 77, 13, 42, 99, 32

D. 66, 31, 43, 78, 14

Q. 51 The National Commission for Minorities was constituted in the year

A. 1990

B. 1992

C. 1980

D. 1989

Q. 52 The first Indian who was chosen as the Secretary General of Commonwealth i

A. Rakesh verma

B. Gopalaswami

C. Krishna murthy

D. Kamlesh SHrama

Q. 53 In which of the following systems of government is bicameralism an essential feature?

A. federal system

B. unitary system

C. parliamentary system

D. presidential system

Q. 54 Kuldip Nayer, a journalist, was appointed as a High Commissioner in

A. Sri lanka

B. Australia

C. UK

D. Pakistan

Q. 55 Which king is referred to as Devanampiya Piyadassi (Beloved of the Gods) in the inscriptions?

A. Asoka

B. Harsha

C. Bindusara

D. Chandragupta Maurya

Q. 56 Socialism succeeds in achieving

A. ) higher standard of living of the people

B. equal distribution of income in the society

C. higher individual welfare in the society

D. maximum social welfare in the society

Q. 57 Monopolist resorts to price discrimination depending upon the

A. Elasticity of supply

B. Elasticity of demand

C. Law of demand

D. Law of supply

Q. 58 Economic planning is an essential feature of

A. Socialist economy

B. Capitalist economy

C. Mixed economy

D. Dual economy

Q. 59 The HYV programme in India is also’ called as

A. Traditiona lAgriculture

B. New Agricultural Strategy

C. White Revolution

D. Blue Revolution

Q. 60 The National Policy for Empowerment of Women was adopted in the year

A. 2001

B. 2005

C. 1991

D. 1995

Q. 61 Ballots were first used in

A. Australia

B. USA

C. Ancient Greece

D. England

Q. 62 The Rashtriya Barh Ayog (RBA) is related with

A. Droughts and Floods

B. Poverty Alleviation

C. floods

D. Disaster Management

Q. 63 Which of the following criteria is not used for the classification of human races?

A. nose

B. hair

C. eyes

D. ears

Q. 64 Railway coaches are manufactured at

A. Jamshedpur

B. Chittaranjan

C. Perambur

D. varanasi

Q. 65 Fertilization occurs normally in the

A. cervix

B. vagina

C. Fallopian tube

D. uterus

Q. 66 People consuming alcohol in heavy quantities generally die of

A. liver or stomach cancer

B. weakening of heart muscles leading to cardiac arrest

C. blood cancer

D. Cirrhosis

Q. 67 The organisms at the base of the grazing food-chain are

A. Carnivores

B. Decomposers

C. Producers

D. herbivores

Q. 68 Who among the following was credited with the destruction of Chinalgani, a group of powerful nobles?

A. Balban

B. Qutb-ud-din Aibak

C. IItutmish

D. Razia-sultan

Q. 69 Bombay was given away as dowry to the English King Charles II for marrying the Princess of

A. France

B. Portugal

C. Hlland

D. Denmark

Q. 70 The ‘Grand Trunk Road built by Shershah connected Punjab with

A. Agra

B. East Bengal

C. LAhore

D. Multan

Q. 71 Nam the Maratha Saint who was a contemporary of Shivaji.

A. Saint Eknath

B. Saint Tukaram

C. Saint Dhyaneshwar

D. Namdev

Q. 72 The study of lake is called

A. Topology

B. Hydrology

C. Limnology

D. Potomology

Q. 73 A series of lines connecting places having a quake at the same time are called

A. Homoseismal lines

B. Seismolines

C. Coseisrnal line

D. Isoseismallines

Q. 74 ‘Lumen’ is the unit of

A. Illuminance

B. Brightness

C. Luminous flux

D. Luminous intensity

Q. 75 The transfer of date from a CPU to peripheral devices of computer is achieved through

A. interfaces

B. buffermemory

C. modems

D. computer ports

Q. 76 Which of the following items is not used in Local Area Networks (LANs) ?

A. Interface Card

B. Cable

C. Computer

D. Modem

Q. 77 The mass of 10 moles of water is

A. 90 g

B. 45 g

C. 18 g

D. 180 g

Q. 78 Vitamin A is rich in

A. carrot

B. lime

C. beans

D. rice

Q. 79 The high boiling point of water compared to hydrogen sulphide or hydrogen chloride is due to

A. Dipole insulation

B. Vander Waal’s attraction

C. Polar covalent bonding

D. Hydrogen bonding

Q. 80 Which of the following determines the chemical properties of an element?

A. numb er of electrons

B. number of neutrons

C. number of protons

D. all the above

Q. 81 The Central Drug Research Institute of India is located at

A. Madras

B. Lucknow

C. Delhi

D. Bangalore

Q. 82 Which of the following cereals was among the first to be used by man ?

A. Rye

B. Wheat

C. Rarley

D. Oat

Q. 83 What of the following wheat species are being cultivated in India?

A. Club wheat

B. Durum wheat

C. Emmer wheat

D. Bread wheat

Q. 84 Which one of the following forces is a ‘dissipative force’?

A. Electrostatic force

B. Magnetic force

C. Gravitational force

D. Frictional force

Q. 85 If a resistive wire is elongated, its resistance

A. decreases

B. remains constant

C. increases

D. all of the above

Q. 86 If a magnet has a third pole, then the third pole is called

A. defective pole

B. consequent pole

C. extra pole

D. arbitary pole

Q. 87 How many spokes are there in the Dharmachakra of the National Flag?

A. 14

B. 18

C. 22

D. 24

Q. 88 The latest official language of the U.N. is

A. Russian

B. Arabic

C. Chinese

D. Spanish

Q. 89 Srikrishna Committee Report which was made public in 2011, is related t

A. rejuvenation of higher education

B. demand for a separate Telangana State

C. ragging in educational institutions

D. impeachment of Justice Dinakaran

Q. 90 The latest book “Kurukshetra to Kargil’ is written by

A. Suryanath Singh

B. Kunal Bhardwaj

C. Karan Singh

D. Kuldip Singh

Q. 91 The Educational Development Index (EDI) Report.,released in 2011, is led by

A. Tamil nadu

B. Pondicherry

C. Kerela

D. Lakshadweep

Q. 92 Shunglu Committee, which submitted its report in 2011, is related to

A. Commonwealth Games scandal

B. reforms in the Insurance sector

C. revamp of Defence management

D. management of Co-operative Sector

Q. 93 The 65th National Football Championship (Santosh Trophy 2011) was won by

A. bangal

B. punjab

C. manipur

D. goa

Q. 94 The organisation involved primarily with environmental planning is

A. CIFRI

B. ICAR

C. CSIR

D. NEERI

Q. 95 What would be the impact of on mangrove forests?

A. They will grow more luxurious

B. ) Large areas of mangroves will be submerged

C. Their role as carbon sinks will become more important

D. Both (1) and (3) above

Q. 96 The sweet taste of fruits is due to

A. Lactose

B. Fructose

C. maltose

D. ribose

Q. 97 The most endangered Asiatic top predator on the edge of extinction is

A. Black Bear

B. Asiatic lion

C. Siberian Tiger

D. Dhole

Q. 98 Analects is the sacred book of

A. Confucianism

B. Judaism

C. Shintoism

D. Taoism

Q. 99 The seat of Madhya Pradesh High Court is located at

A. Gwalior

B. Indore

C. Bhopal

D. Jabalpur

Q. 100 The brightest planet is

A. Venus

B. MErcury

C. Jupiter

D. MArs

Q. 101 P and Q are two points observed from the top of a building 10 √3 m high. IF the angles of depression of the points are complementary and PQ = 20 m, then the distance of P from the building is

A. 25 m

B. 45 m

C. 30 m

D. 40 m

Q. 102 If A and are complementary angles, then the value of

Sin A cos B + cos A sin B – tan A tan B + sec²A – cot² B is

A. 2

B. 0

C. 0

D. -1

Q. 103 The least value of 2sin² q + 2cos² q is

A. 3

B. 5

C. 1

D. 2

Q. 104 A,O,B are three points on a line segment and C is a points not lying on ∠AOB. IF ∠AOC = 40° and OX, OYare the internal and external bisectors of ∠AOC respectively, then ∠BOY is

A. 70°

B. 80°

C. 75°

D. 68°

Q. 105 If 4x = sec θ and 4 /x = tan θ then find the value

A. 1/16

B. 1/8

C. 1/2

D. 1/4

Q. 106 If 2 – cos² θ = 3 sin θ cos θ , sin θ≠ cos θ then tan θ is

A. 1/2

B. 0

C. 2/3

D. 1/3

Q. 107 If sin θ + cos θ √2 cos (90 – θ ), then cot θ is

A. √2 + 1

B. 0

C. √2

D. √2 – 1

Q. 108 If x sin² θ + y cos³ θ = sin θ cos θ and x sin θ = y cos θ , sin θ ≠ θ , cos θ 0 , then x²+y³ is

A. 1/√2

B. 1/2

C. 1

D. √2

Q. 109 In the following figure, O is the centre of the circle and XO is perpendicular to OY. If the area of the triangle XOY is 32, then the area of the circle is

A. 64

B. 256

C. 16

D. 32

Q. 110 The side BC of ΔABC is produced to D. If ΔACD = 108° and ∠B =1/2 ∠A then ∠A

A. 36°

B. 72°

C. 108°

D. 59°

Q. 111 Two circles of radii 4 cm and 9 cm respectively touch each a common tangent touches then at the points P and Q respectively. Then the area of a square with one side PQ, is

A. 97 sq.cm

B. 194 sq.cm

C. 72 sq.cm

D. 144 sq.cm

Q. 112 Two tangent are drawn from a point P to a circle at A and B. O is the centre of the circle. If ∠AOP = 60°, then ∠APB is

A. 120°

B. 90°

C. 60°

D. 30°

Q. 113 If each interior angle is double of each exterior angle of a regular polygon with n sides, then the value of n is

A. 8

B. 10

C. 5

D. 6

Q. 114 If the length of the side PQ of the rhombus PQRS is 6cm and ∠PQR = 120°, then the length of QS, in cm, is

A. 4

B. 6

C. 3

D. 5

Q. 115 The angle formed by the hour-hand and the minute-hand of a clock at 2 : 15 p.m. is

A. 27(1/2) °

B. 45 °

C. 22(1/2) °

D. 30 °

Q. 116 Two sides of a triangle are of length 4 cm and 10 cm. If the length of the third side is ‘a’ cm, then

A. a > 5

B. 6 ≤ a ≤ 12

C. a < 6

D. 6 ≤ a ≤ 14

Q. 117 If x = (0.08)² , y = 1/(0.08)² and z = (1 – 0.08)² – 1, then out of the following, the true relation is

A. y < x and x = z

B. x < y and x = z

C. y < x < x

D. z < x < y

Q. 118 In xy plane, P and Q are two points having co-ordinates (2, 0) and (5, 4) respectively. Then the numerical value of the area of the circle with radius PQ, i

A. 16 π

B. 32 π

C. 14 π

D. 25 π

Q. 119 If x⁴ + 1/x⁴ = 23 , then the value of (x- 1/x) ² will be

A. 7

B. -7

C. -3

D. 3

Q. 120 The value of …… is equal to

A. 3

B. 10

C. 8

D. 2

Q. 121 If x+1/x = 3 , the value of x⁵+1/x⁵ is

A. 123

B. 126

C. 113

D. 129

Q. 122 sec⁴ θ – sec²θ is equal to

A. tan² θ – tan⁴θ

B. tan²θ + tan⁴ θ

C. cos⁴ θ – cos²θ

D. cos²θ-cos⁴ θ

Q. 123 In ΔABC , AD is the median and AD =1/2 BC. IF ∠ACD = 30°, then measure of then measure of is

A. 90°

B. 45°

C. 30°

D. 60°

Q. 124 If √6 *√15 = x√10 , then the value of x is

A. 3

B. ± 3

C. √3

D. √6

Q. 125 What is the value of the given equation

A. 0

B. 3/2

C. √5/2

D. √5

Q. 126 If a + b + 1 = 0, then the value of (a³ + b³ + 1– 3ab) is

A. 3

B. 0

C. -1

D. 1

Q. 127 In the xy-coordinate system, if(a, b) and(a + 3, b + k) are two points on the line defined by the equation x = 3y – 7, then k = ?

A. 7/3

B. 1

C. 9

D. 3

Q. 128 The average age of 4 boys, five year age was 9 years. On including a new boy, the present average age of all the five is 15 years. The present age of the new boys is

A. 14 years

B. 6 years

C. 15 years

D. 19 years

Q. 129 If the average of 39, 48, 51, 63, 75, 83, x and 69 is 60, then the value of x is

A. 52

B. 53

C. 50

D. 51

Q. 130 The cost of a piece of diamond varies with the square of its weight. A diamond of Rs. 5,185 value is cut into 3 pieces whose weights are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. Find the loss involved in the cutting

A. Rs. 3,068

B. Rs. 3,008

C. Rs. 3,175

D. Rs. 3,168

Q. 131 A discount of 30% on the marked price of a toy reduces its selling price byRs. 30. What is the new selling price (in Rs.)?

A. 70

B. 21

C. 130

D. 100

Q. 132 The capacities of two hemispherical vessels are 6.4 litres and 21.6 litres. The ratio of their inner radii is

A. 4 : 9

B. 16 : 81

C. √2 : √3

D. 2 : 3

Q. 133 Pipe A alone can fill a tank in 8 hours. Pipe B alone can fill it in 6 hours. If both the pipes are opened and after 2 hours pipe A is closed, then the other pipe will fill the tank in

A. 6 hours

B. 3 (1/2) hours

C. 4 hours

D. 2 (1/2 ) hours

Q. 134 If(a – b)=3, (b– c)= 5 and(c – a)=1, then the value of

A. 17.5

B. 20.5

C. 10.5

D. 15.5

Q. 135 .The population of a town is 15000. If the number of males increases by 8% and that of females by 10%, then the population would increase to 16300. Find the number of females in the town

A. 4000

B. 6000

C. 3000

D. 5000

Q. 136 If Rs. 5,0000 becomes Rs. 5,700 in a year’s time, what will Rs. 7,000 become at the end of 5 years atthe same rate of simple interest?

A. Rs. 10,500

B. Rs. 11,900

C. Rs. 12,700

D. Rs. 7,700

Q. 137 A thief is noticed by a policeman from a distance of 200 m. The thief starts running and the policeman chases him. The thief and the policeman run at the rate of 10 km and 11 km per hour respectively. The distance (in metres) between then after 6 minutes is

A. 190

B. 200

C. 100

D. 150

Q. 138 ‘A’ sells an article to ‘B’ at a profit of 20% and ‘B’ sells it to ‘C’ at a profit of 25%. If ‘C’ pays Rs. 1,200, the cost price of the article originally (in Rs.) is

A. 700

B. 600

C. 1000

D. 800

Q. 139 The number nearest to 75070 which is divisible by 65, is

A. 75070

B. 75075

C. 75010

D. 75065

Q. 140 The number 20% more than 80 in

A. 36

B. 30

C. 90

D. 96

Q. 141 Atree is brokenbythe wind. Ifthe top of the tree struck the ground at an angle of 30° and at a distance of 30m from the root, then the height of the tree is

A. 25 √3 m

B. 30√3 m

C. 15√3 m

D. 20√3 m

Q. 142 If cos A + cos2 A = 1, then sin² A + sin⁴ A is equal to

A. 1

B. 1/2

C. 0

D. -1

Q. 143 A farmer divides his herd of n cows among his four sons, so that the first son gets one half the herd,the second one-fourth,the third son and the fourth son 7 cows. Then the value of n is

A. 240

B. 100

C. 180

D. 140

Q. 144 .By what least number should 675 be multiplied to obtain a number which is a prefectcube?

A. 7

B. 8

C. 5

D. 6

Q. 145 The least number which when divided by 35, 45, 55 leaves the remainder 18, 28, 38 respectively is

A. 3448

B. 3482

C. 2468

D. 3265

The graph shows Income and Expenditure of a Company. Study the graph and answer the questions.

Q. 146 The expenditure from 2002 to 2003 increased by

A. 33 (1/3) %

B. 40 %

C. 10 %

D. 20 %

Q. 147 The income in 2002 was equal to the expenditure in the year

A. 2003

B. 2004

C. 2000

D. 2001

Q. 148 The profit was maximum in the year

A. 2003

B. 2004

C. 2001

D. 2002

Q. 149 The difference in profit between 2001 and 2002 is

A. Rs. 25 lakhs

B. no differnce

C. Rs. 10 lakhs

D. Rs. 20 Lakhs

Q. 150 The number of years in which the income exceeds the average income is

A. 3

B. 4

C. 1

D. 2

Q. 151 You do not (1)/ look as (2)/ your brother. (3)/ No error(4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 152 My elder brother(1)/is six(2)/ foot high.(3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 153 Without no proof of your guilt (1)/ the only course open to me (2)/ is to dismiss the case. (3)/ No error(4

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 154 As we see it (1) / she appears to be unreasonable (2) / Anxious about pleasing her husband (3) / no error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 155 The scissor is (1) / lying on (2) / the table (3) / no error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 156 The Union Budget is likely to be presented on February 26, two days a head of the _____

A. critical

B. conventional

C. suitable

D. convenient

Q. 157 I am sorry _____ the mistake.

A. from

B. with

C. for

D. at

Q. 158 He _______her that she would pass.

A. insured

B. ensured

C. assumed

D. assured

Q. 159 Your father __ worry. I’m a very careful driver

A. needn’t

B. none

C. can’t

D. doesn’t

Q. 160 The __ chosen for construction of the building is in the heart of the city

A. cite

B. slight

C. sight

D. site

Q. 161 choose the one which best expresses the meaning

Nexus

A. connection

B. distance

C. deficit

D. difference

Q. 162 choose the one which best expresses the meaning

Mammoth

A. straight

B. huge

C. wild

D. greedy

Q. 163 choose the one which best expresses the meaning

hyperbole

A. expansion

B. imitation

C. decoration

D. exaggeration

Q. 164 choose the one which best expresses the meaning

Eulogy

A. apology

B. address

C. speech

D. praise

Q. 165 choose the one which best expresses the meaning

Menacingly

A. dangerously

B. threateningly

C. harmfully

D. hideously

Q. 166 choose the word opposite in meaning

Impeccable

A. faulty

B. tedious

C. flashy

D. boring

Q. 167 choose the word opposite in meaning

Amalgamate

A. Seperate

B. Combine

C. assimilate

D. integrate

Q. 168 choose the word opposite in meaning

Zenith

A. climax

B. crisis

C. acne

D. nadir

Q. 169 choose the word opposite in meaning

Influx

A. reflex

B. defelction

C. effluent

D. exodus

Q. 170 choose the word opposite in meaning

Orderly

A. semitic

B. colic

C. democratic

D. chaotic

Q. 171 1. Ram is very calculative and always has an axe to grind

A. has no result

B. works for both sides

C. has a private agenda

D. fails to arouse interest

Q. 172 The police looked all over for him but drew a blank

A. did not find him

B. put him in prison

C. arrested him

D. took him to court

Q. 173 On the issue of marriage, Sarita put her foot down

A. stood up

B. was firm

C. got down

D. walked fast

Q. 174 His investments helped him make a killing in the stock market

A. lose money quickly

B. plan a murder quickly

C. murder someone quickly

D. make money quickly

Q. 175 There is no gainsaying the fact that the country is in difficulties

A. ignoring

B. hiding

C. forgetting

D. denying

Q. 176 Sordid and sensational books tend to vitiate the public taste

A. divide

B. distract

C. distort

D. no improvement

Q. 177 By studying AIDS has engaged many researchers in the last decade

A. Important study

B. Now that the study

C. The study of

D. No improvement

Q. 178 His Master’s thesis was highly estimated and is now being prepared for publication.

A. was highly discussed

B. was highly commended

C. is highly appraised

D. No improvement

Q. 179 No sooner had she realized her blunder than she began to take corrective measures.

A. then she began to take

B. than she began taking

C. when she began to take

D. no improvement

Q. 180 A good scholar must be precise and possess originality.

A. must be precise and original

B. must be possess precision and original

C. must be precision and possess Originality

D. No improvement

Q. 181 Speaking without preparation

A. deliberate

B. fluent

C. loquacious

D. extempore

Q. 182 Special trial of the Head of State by Parliament

A. Impingement

B. Infringement

C. Impeachment

D. Impediment

Q. 183 Someone able to use both hands with equal skill

A. Ambivalent

B. Amphibious

C. Ambiguous

D. Ambidextrous

Q. 184 Cure for all diseases

A. curable

B. pancreas

C. incurable

D. curative

Q. 186 Find the correctly spelt word.

A. pleintive

B. sustein

C. villain

D. allenice

Q. 187 Find the correctly spelt word

A. comissioner

B. commissionar

C. commistoner

D. commissioner

Q. 188 Find the correctly spelt word.

A. suprintendent

B. supirentendent

C. superintendent

D. superentendent

Q. 189 Find the correctly spelt word

A. aprentice

B. advertise

C. treatrce

D. sencitive

Q. 190 Find the correctly spelt word

A. symetry

B. symmitry

C. symatry

D. symmetry

Questions: 191 – 195

Two years later, in November 1895, he signed his final will. He left the bulk of his fortune, amounting to about £ 1,75,00 to a trust fund administered by Swedish and Norwegian trustees. The annual interest shall be awarded as prizes to those persons who during the previous year have rendered the greatest services to mankind. The interest shall ‘be divided into five equal parts – now amounting to about £ 8,000 each – one of which shall be awarded to the person who has made the most important discovery or invention in the- realm of physics, one to the person who has made the most important chemical discovery or improvement, one to the person who has made the most important physiological or medical discovery one to the person who has produced the most outstanding work of literature, idealistic in character, and one to the person who has done the best work for the brotherhood of nations, the abolition or reduction of standing armies, as well as for the formation or popularization of peace congress.

Q. 191 The said prize is awarded

A. once in 5 years

B. every year

C. once in 4 years

D. once in 2 years

Q. 192 Which is the prize that is referred to in the passage?

A. Nobel Prize

B. Magsaysay Award

C. Pulitzer Prize

D. Booker Prize

Q. 193 The number of prizes in the field of scinece are

A. 4

B. 1

C. 3

D. 5

Q. 194 Total annual prize money amount to

A. £ 8,000

B. £ 1.750,000

C. £ 350,000

D. £ 40,000

Q. 195 Prize is awarded for outstanding work in

A. chemistry

B. literature

C. physics

D. all of the above

Questions: 196 – 200

If an opinion contrary to your own makes you angry, that is a sign that you are subconsciously aware of having no good reason for thinking, as you do. If someone maintains that two and two are five that Iceland is on the Equator, you feel pity rather than anger, unless you know so little of arithmetic or geography that his opinion shakes your own contrary conviction.

Q. 196 If someone else’s opinion makes us angry, it means that

A. we are subconsciously aware of having no good reason for becoming angry

B. there may be good reasons for his opinion but we are not consciously aware of them

C. our own opinion is not based on good reason and we know this subconsciously

D. we are not consciously aware of any reason for our own opinion

Q. 197 “Your own contrary conviction” refers to

A. the fact that you feel pity rather than anger

B. The opinion that two and two are five and that Ice-land is one the Equator

C. The opinion that two and two are five and that Ice-land is on the Equator

D. The fact that you know so little about arithmetic or geography

Q. 198 Conviction means

A. persuasion

B. disbelief

C. strong belief

D. ignorance

Q. 199 The writer says if someone maintains that two and two are five you feel pity because you

A. have sympathy

B. don’t agree with him

C. want to help the person

D. feel sorry for his ignorance

Q. 200 The second sentence in the passage

A. builds up the argument of the first sentence by restarting it from the opposite point of view

B. makes the main point which has only been introduced by the first sentence

C. simply adds, a further point to the agreement already stated in the first sentence

D. illustrates the point made in the first sentence

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	A	A	A	C	B	D	B	A	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	A	B	B	A	D	A	B	A	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	C	C	C	D	A	B	A	A	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	A	B	A	A	D	C	C	A	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	B	C	D	B	D	C	B	D	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	D	A	C	A	B	B	A	B	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	C	D	C	C	D	C	A	B	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	C	A	C	A	C	D	A	D	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	B	B	D	C	B	D	B	B	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	A	A	D	D	B	D	A	D	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	C	C	C	D	A	A	D	C	A	B
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	D	C	D	B	C	D	D	D	D	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	A	B	D	A	B	B	B	D	A	D
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	A	D	D	A	D	B	C	D	B	D
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	C	A	D	C	A	A	A	B	C	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	B	C	A	B	A	B	C	D	A	D
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	A	B	D	D	B	A	A	D	D	D
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	C	A	B	D	D	B	C	B	D	A
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	C	C	D	B	B	D	C	B	D
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	B	A	C	A	D	A	A	C	D	D

SSC CGL Tier-I 26 June 2011 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2011 26 Jun Shift 1

Q. 1 6:64::11:?

A. 144

B. 169

C. 121

D. 124

Q. 2 123:4::726:?

A. 23

B. 26

C. 14

D. 12

Q. 3 Fish:Scales::Bear:?

A. Feathers

B. Leaves

C. Fur

D. Skin

Q. 4 Writer:Pen::?

A. Needle:Tailor

B. Artist:Brush

C. Painter:Canvas

D. Teacher:Class

Q. 5 NUMERAL:UEALRMN::ALGEBRA:?

A. LRBAGEA

B. BARLAGE

C. LERAGBA

D. LERABGA

Q. 6 BDAC:FHEG::NPMO:?

A. RQTS

B. QTRC

C. TRQS

D. RTQS

Q. 7 FGHI:OPQR::BCDE:?

A. KLMJ

B. KLMN

C. IUVW

D. STUW

Q. 8 PNLJ:IGEC::VTRP:?

A. OMKI

B. RSTU

C. QSRC

D. QROM

Q. 9 19:60::20:?

A. 57

B. 69

C. 81

D. 93

Q. 10 Find the odd number from the given alternatives

A. 162

B. 405

C. 567

D. 644

Q. 11 Find the odd number from the given alternatives

A. 156

B. 201

C. 273

D. 645

Q. 12 Find the odd word from the given alternatives

A. Flute

B. Violin

C. Guitar

D. Sitar

Q. 13 Find the odd word from the given alternatives

A. Prod

B. Sap

C. Jab

D. Thrust

Q. 14 Find the odd word from the given alternatives

A. JKOP

B. MNST

C. CABD

D. OPWX

Q. 15 Find the odd word from the given alternatives

A. CAFD

B. TSWV

C. IGLJ

D. OMRP

Q. 16 In the following question, number of letters are skipped in between by particular rule. What of the following series observes the rules?

A. ABFGJK

B. ACFJOU

C. MPQSTV

D. ADFHJL

Q. 17 Find out the pair of numbers that does not belong to the group for lack of common property.

A. 11-115

B. 10-90

C. 9-72

D. 8-56

Q. 18 Which one of the following responses would be a meaning full descending order of the following?

1 Major

2 Captain

3 Colonel

4 Brigadier

5 Lt.General

A. 5,4,3,1,2

B. 5,1,4,2,3

C. 4,5,1,3,2

D. 3,4,2,5,1

Q. 19 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary

1 Dissident

2 Dissolve

3 Dissent

4 Dissolute

5 Dissolution

A. 3,1,4,5,2

B. 3,2,1,4,5

C. 3,1,4,2,5

D. 3,2,4,5,1

Q. 20 Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

__cb__cab__baca__cba__ab

A. cabcb

B. abccb

C. bacbc

D. bcaba

Q. 21 Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

4,196,16,169,?,144,64

A. 21

B. 81

C. 36

D. 32

Q. 22 Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

8,15,36,99,288,……?….

A. 368

B. 676

C. 855

D. 908

Q. 23 Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

XYZCBAUVWFE….?…..?….

A. DR

B. RS

C. DS

D. MN

Q. 24 Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

reoc,pgme,nikg,lkii….?….

A. acef

B. jmgk

C. efgh

D. wxyz

Q. 25 Among her children, Ganga’s favourites are Ram and Rekha. Rekha is the mother of sharat, who is loved by his uncle mithun. The head of the family is Ram lal, who is succeeded by his sons Gopal and Mohan, Gopal and Ganga have been married for 35 years and have 3 children. What is the relation between Mithun and Mohan?

A. Uncle

B. Son

C. Brother

D. No relation

Q. 26 Find the wrong number in the series.

6,9,15,22,51,99

A. 99

B. 51

C. 22

D. 15

Q. 27 In a row of girls, Kamla is 9th from the left and Veena is 16th from the right. If they interchange their positions, Kamla becomes 25th from the left. How many girls are there in the row?

A. 34

B. 36

C. 40

D. 41

Q. 28 Ravi has spend a quarter of his life as a boy, one fifth as a youth, one third as a man and 13 years in old age, What is his present age?

A. 70 years

B. 80 years

C. 60 years

D. 65 years

Q. 29 Five boys A,B,C,D,E are sitting in a park in a circle. A is facing south-west, D is facing southeast, B and E are right opposite A and D respectively and C is equidistant between D and B. Which direction is C facing?

A. West

B. South

C. North

D. East

Q. 30 At what time are the hands of clocks together between 6 and 7?

A. 32 8/11 minutes past 6

B. 34 8/11 minutes past 6

C. 30 8/11 minutes past 6

D. 32 5/7 minutes past 6

Q. 31 Out of 100 families in the neighbourhood, 50 have radios, 75 have Tvs and 25 has VCRs. Only 10 families has all 3 and each VCR owner also has a TV. If some families have radio only, how many have TV only?

A. 30

B. 35

C. 40

D. 45

Q. 32 Suresh was born on 4th october 1999. Shashikanth was born 6 days before Suresh. The independence day of that year fell on Sunday. Which day was Shashikanth born?

A. Tuesday

B. Wednesday

C. Monday

D. Sunday

Q. 33 From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:

‘CONCENTRATION’

A. CONCERN

B. NATION

C. TRAIN

D. CENTRE

Q. 34 In a certain office, 1/3 of the workers are women, 1/2 of the mend are married and 1/3 of the married women have children. If 3/4 men are married and 2/3 men have children, then what part of workers is without children?

A. 5/18

B. 4/9

C. 11/18

D. 17/36

Q. 35 If a man on a moped starts from a point and 4 km south, then turns and rides 2 km to turn again to the right to ride 4 km more, towards which direction is he moving?

A. North

B. West

C. East

D. South

Q. 36 Ganesh cycles towards south-west a distance of 8 m, then he moves towards east a distance of 20 m, from there he moves towards north-east a distance of 8 m, then he moves towards west a distance of 6 m. From there he moves towards north-east a distance of 2 m. Then he moves towards west a distance of 4 m and then he moves towards southwest a distance of 2 m and stops at that point. How far is he from the starting point?

A. 12 m

B. 10 m

C. 8 m

D. 6 m

Q. 37 Two statements are given by 4 inferences. Select the alternative which is most appropriate.

Statements:

1 India is becoming industrial.

2 Pollution is a problem associated with industrialization.

Inferences:

1 All industrial centers are polluted.

2 India is polluted

3 Polluted nations are industrialized

4 India may become polluted

A. All are appropriate

B. None is appropriate

C. only 4 is appropriate

D. Only 2 is appropriate

Q. 38 From the given alternative words, select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word:

‘DETERMINATION’

A. DECLARATION

B. NATIONAL

C. TERMINATED

D. DEVIATED

Q. 39 If in a certain code HYDROGEN is written as JCJZYSSD, then how ANTIMONY be written in that code?

A. CPVKOQPA

B. CRZQWABO

C. ERXMQSRC

D. GTZOSUTE

Q. 40 If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662 then how can CALICUT coded?

A. 5279431

B. 5978013

C. 8251896

D. 8543691

Q. 41 Select the missing numbers from the given responses

A. 8

B. 3

C. 6

D. 36

Q. 42 Select the missing numbers from the given responses

A. 60

B. 68

C. 55

D. 65

Q. 43 How many rectangles are there in the given diagram?

A. 4

B. 7

C. 9

D. 18

Q. 44 Which of the following diagrams represents the relationship among Sun , Moon and Star?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 45 Some equations have been solved on the basis of a certain system. Find the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.

If 9*7 = 32, 13*7 = 120, 17*9 = 208, then 19*11 = ?

A. 150

B. 180

C. 210

D. 240

Q. 46 Forecast the growth rate for the year 1995 from the following data:

A. 7.8

B. 8.6

C. 9.7

D. 9.9

Q. 47 If ‘-‘ stands for ‘/’ , ‘+’ stand for ‘*’, ‘/’ for ‘-‘ and ‘*’ for ‘+’, which one of the following equation is correct?

A. 30-6+5*4/2 = 27

B. 30+6-5/4*2 = 30

C. 30*6/5-4+2 = 32

D. 30/6*5+4-2 = 40

Q. 48 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the questions figure is

hidden/embedded.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 49 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the correct image of the given question figures?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 50 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 51 Judicial review in the indian constitution is based on :

A. Rule of law

B. Due process of law

C. Procedure established by law

D. Precedents and conventions

Q. 52 The drafting of the constitution was completed on:

A. 26th jan 1950

B. 26th dec 1949

C. 26th nov 1949

D. 30th nov 1949

Q. 53 Who was the president of the constitution assembly?

A. pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru

B. Sardar patel

C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

D. Dr. B.R.Ambedkar

Q. 54 Which innovative discussion process is introduced by the Indian parliament to the world parliamentary system?

A. Question hour

B. Zero hour

C. Resolutions

D. Presidential speech

Q. 55 The judges of the supreme court retire at the age of:

A. 60 years

B. 65 years

C. 62 years

D. 58 years

Q. 56 When there is an official change in the exchange rate of domestic currency, then it is called:

A. Appreciation

B. Depreciation

C. Revalution

D. Deflation

Q. 57 Inflation redistributes income and wealth in favour of:

A. Pensioners

B. Poor

C. Middle class

D. rich

Q. 58 The fringe benefit tax was introduced in the budget of:

A. 2003-04

B. 2004-05

C. 2005-06

D. 2006-07

Q. 59 In the budget estimates for 2011-12, an allocation of: 400 crore has been made to bring in green revolution in the east in the cropping system of:

A. Wheat

B. Rice

C. Jowar

D. Pulses

Q. 60 As announced by finance minister in his budget speech on 28-2-2011, the income tax exemption limit for individuals other than senior citizens and women has been raised to

A. Rs. 1,80,000

B. Rs. 1,90,000

C. Rs. 2,00,000

D. Rs. 2,50,000

Q. 61 Who among the following british persons, admitted the revolt of 1857 as a national revolt?

A. Lord Dalhousie

B. Lord Canning

C. Lord Ellenborough

D. Lord Disraeli

Q. 62 The greek ambassador sent to chandragupta maurya’s court was:

A. Kautilya

B. Seleucus Nicator

C. Megasthenes

D. Justin

Q. 63 Identify the European power from whom shivaji obtained cannons and ammunitions

A. The french

B. The Portuguese

C. The dutch

D. The English

Q. 64 The call of “Back to vedas” was given by

A. Swami vivekananda

B. swami dayanand saraswati

C. aurobindo ghosh

D. raja ram mohan roy

Q. 65 Simon commission was boycotted by the, nationalist leaders of india because

A. they felt it was only an eyewash

B. all the members of the commission were english

C. the members of the commissions were biased against india

D. it did not meet the demands of indians

Q. 66 The lowest layer of atmosphere is

A. Stratosphere

B. thermosphere

C. Troposphere

D. Mesosphere

Q. 67 The konkan railway connects

A. Goa – mangalore

B. Roha – mangalore

C. Kanyakumari – mangalore

D. Kanyakumari – Mumbai

Q. 68 Bark of this tree is used as a condiment

A. Cinnamon

B. Clove

C. Neem

D. Palm

Q. 69 How much of the earth’s land surface is desert?

A. 1/10th

B. 1/5th

C. 1/3rd

D. 1/6th

Q. 70 Which of the following is called the ‘shrimp capital of India’?

A. Mangalore

B. Nagapatnam

C. Kochi

D. Nellore

Q. 71 River indus originates from

A. Hindukush range

B. Himalayan range

C. Karakoram range

D. Kailash range

Q. 72 The atmospheric air is held to the earth by

A. gravity

B. winds

C. cloud

D. rotation of earth

Q. 73 The function of ball bearings in a ring is

A. to increase friction

B. to convert kinetic friction into rolling friction

C. to convert static friction into kinetic friction

D. just for convenience

Q. 74 ‘Shock – absorbers’ are usually made of steel as it

A. is not brittle

B. has lower elasticity

C. has higher elasticity

D. hasno ductile property

Q. 75 The first computer made available for commercial use was

A. MANIAC

B. ENIAC

C. UNIVAC

D. EDSAC

Q. 76 A communications network which is used by large organisations over regional, national or global area is called

A. LAN

B. WAN

C. MAN

D. VAN

Q. 77 Who was the architecture of north and south blocks of the central secretariat in Delhi?

A. Sir edward lutyens

B. Herbert Baker

C. Robert tor Russell

D. Antonin Raymond

Q. 78 Saliva helps in the digestion of

A. Fats

B. Starch

C. Proteins

D. Vitamins

Q. 79 The longest bone in the human body is

A. Ulna

B. Humerus

C. Femur

D. Tibia

Q. 80 Red data book gives information about species which are

A. extinct

B. endangered

C. dangerous

D. rare

Q. 81 Which of the following is the smallest bird?

A. pigeon

B. parrot

C. Humming bird

D. Houise sparrow

Q. 82 The time period of a pendulum when taken to the moon would

A. remain the same

B. decrease

C. become zero

D. increase

Q. 83 Indian army’s operation ‘Saiyam’ was related to

A. Kashmir

B. Indo-China border in central region

C. North-East

D. Indo-pak border in punjab and rajasthan

Q. 84 Which of the following can be used as fuel in propellant or rockets?

A. Liquid Hydrogen + Liquid Nitrogen

B. Liquid oxygen + Liquid argon

C. Liquid nitrogen + Liquid oxygen

D. Liquid hydrogen + Liquid oxygen

Q. 85 The addition of gypsum of portland cement helps in

A. increasing the strength of cement

B. rapid setting of cement

C. preventing rapid setting of cement

D. reduction in the cost of cement

Q. 86 White lung disease is prevalent among the workers of

A. paper industry

B. cement industry

C. Cotton industry

D. pesticide industry

Q. 87 Iodoform is used as an

A. antipyretic

B. analgestic

C. antiseptic

D. anaesthetic

Q. 88 An artificial ecosystem is represented by

A. pisciculture tank

B. agricultural land

C. zoo

D. aquarium

Q. 89 The constituents of automobile exhaust that can cause cancer are

A. Oxides of nitrogen

B. Carbon monoxide

C. Polycyclic hydrocarbon

D. lead

Q. 90 The optimum dissolved oxygen level required for survival of aquatic organisms is

A. 4 – 6

B. 2 – 4

C. 8 – 10

D. 12 – 16

Q. 91 The world’s only floating national park is situated in

A. Manipur

B. Kuala Lumpur

C. Bilaspur

D. Dispur

Q. 92 According to the latest ‘Education development Index’ based on a series of surveys conducted by the national university of education, planning and administration and released in feb 2011, the state with the highest development index is

A. Tamil naidu

B. Kerala

C. Punjab

D. Gujarat

Q. 93 The ‘project snow leopard’ to conserve the endangered species, launched by the union ministry of environment and forests covers the states of

A. Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal pradesh only

B. Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal pradesh and uttarakhand only

C. Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal pradesh, uttarakhand and arunachal pradesh only

D. Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal pradesh, uttarakhand and arunachal pradesh and sikkim

Q. 94 In the railway budget for 2011-2012, an outlay of Rs.57,630 crore has been announced for adding new lines with length of

A. 1000 km

B. 1200 km

C. 1300 km

D. 1500 km

Q. 95 The strong earthquake-cum-tsunami which has moved japan’s main island by a few feet and has caused the earth’s axis to wobble is expected to lead to the shortening of the day by

A. 1.6 microseconds

B. 2.3 microseconds

C. 3.1 microseconds

D. 3.4 microseconds

Q. 96 Which of the following folk/tribal dances is associated with uttar pradesh

A. veedhi

B. thora

C. tamasha

D. rauf

Q. 97 Which of the following books has been written by atiq rahimi

A. earth and ashes

B. This savage rite

C. The red devil

D. Witness the night

Q. 98 Who is the recipient of the sahitya akademi award 2010 in hindi literatur category?

A. uday prakash

B. laxman dubey

C. nanjil nandan

D. mangat badal

Q. 99 The 2010 FIFA World cup final was held at

A. Paris

B. Berlin

C. Johannesburg

D. London

Q. 100 Who received sangeet natak akademi’s ustad bismillah khan yuva puruskar for 2009 in ‘hindustani vocal music’?

A. Omkar shrikant dadarkar

B. ragini chander shekar

C. abanti chakravorty and sukracharya rabha

D. k. nellai Manikandan

Q. 101 The value of given equation is

A. 4

B. 0

C. √2

D. 3√6

Q. 102 What is the answer of the given equation

A. 2.3

B. 3

C. 6

D. 6.3

Q. 103 What is the square root of the given equation

A. √3 + √2

B. √3 – √2

C. √2 +_ √3

D. √2 – √3

Q. 104 The remainder when 3²¹ is divided is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 105 What is the value of the given equation?

A. 38/109

B. 109/38

C. 1

D. 116/109

Q. 106 The last digit of (1001)²⁰⁰⁸ + 1002 is

A. 0

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6

Q. 107 The given equation is equal to?

A. 5/9

B. 1-1/7

C. 4/7

D. 1-2/7

Q. 108 If the sum of two numbers be multiplied by each number separately, the product so obtained are 247 and 114. The sum of the numbers is

A. 19

B. 20

C. 21

D. 23

Q. 109 Find a number, one-seventh of which exceeds its eleventh part by 100

A. 1925

B. 1825

C. 1540

D. 1340

Q. 110 If x*y = (x+3)²(y-1) then the value of 5 * 4 is

A. 192

B. 182

C. 180

D. 172

Q. 111 Answer of the given equation is

A. 10

B. 100

C. 1000

D. none of these

Q. 112 If 9√x = √12 + √147 then x = ?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Q. 113 A and B can complete a piece of work in 8 days, B and C can do it in 12 days, C and A can do it in 8 days.A,B and C together can complete it in

A. 4 days

B. 5 days

C. 6 days

D. 7 days

Q. 114 X is 3 times as fast as Y and is able to complete the work in 40 days less then Y. Then the time in which they can complete the work together is

A. 15 days

B. 10 days

C. 7.5 days

D. 5 days

Q. 115 A copper wire is bent in the shape of a square of area 81 cm². If the same wire is bent in the form of a semicircle, the radius of the semicircle is (take pie = 22/7)

A. 16

B. 14

C. 10

D. 7

Q. 116 The volume (in m³) of rain water that can be collected from 1.5 hectares of ground in a rainfall of 5 cm is

A. 75

B. 750

C. 7500

D. 75000

Q. 117 A river 3 m deep and 40 m wide is flowing at the rate of 2 km per hour. How much water (in liters) will fall in the sea in a minute?

A. 4,00,000

B. 40,00,000

C. 40,000

D. 4,000

Q. 118 The L.C.M of three different number is 120. Which of the following cannot be their H.C.F?

A. 8

B. 12

C. 24

D. 35

Q. 119 A number when divided by 49 leaves 32 as reminder. This number when divided by 7 will have the reminder as

A. 2

B. 3

C. 2

D. 5

Q. 120 In an examination a student scores 4 marks for every correct answers and loses 1 mark for every wrong answer. If he attempts all 75 questions and secures 125 marks, the number of questions he attempted correctly is

A. 35

B. 40

C. 42

D. 46

Q. 121 The traffic lights at three different road crossings changes after 24 seconds, 36 seconds and 54 seconds respectively. If they all change simultaneously at 10:15:00 am, then at what time will then change again

A. 10:16:54 am

B. 10:18:36 am

C. 10:17:02 am

D. 10:22:12 am

Q. 122 A can do a work in 12 days. When he had worked for 3 days, B joined him. If they can complete the work in 3 days, in how many days can B alone finish the work?

A. 6 days

B. 12 days

C. 4 days

D. 8 days

Q. 123 Among three numbers, the first is twice the second and thrice the third. If the average of the three numbers is 49.5, then the difference between the first and the third number is

A. 54

B. 28

C. 39.5

D. 41.5

Q. 124 The mean of 50 numbers is 30. Later it was discovered that two entries were wrongly entered as 82 and 13 instead of 28 and 31. Find the correct mean.

A. 36.12

B. 30.66

C. 29.28

D. 38.21

Q. 125 A bicycle wheel makes 5000 revolutions in moving 11 km. Then the radius of the wheel (in am) is (take pie = 22/7)

A. 70

B. 35

C. 17.5

D. 140

Q. 126 The perimeter of a triangle is 40 cm and its area is 60 cm². If the largest side measures 17cm, then the length (in cm ) of the smallest side of the triangle is

A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 15

Q. 127 A shopkeeper allows a discount of 10 % to his customers and still gains 20%. Find the market price of the article which costs?

A. Rs 600

B. Rs 540

C. Rs 660

D. 580

Q. 128 What single discount is equivalent to two successive discounts of 20 % and 15%?

A. 35%

B. 32%

C. 34%

D. 30%

Q. 129 In a business partnership among A,B,C and D the profit is hard as follows:

What is the total profit

A. Rs 21,12,500

B. Rs 1,37,500

C. Rs 90,000

D. Rs 2,70,000

Q. 130 A can contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in ratio 7:5. When 9 liters of mixture are drawn off the can is filled with B, the ratio of A and B becomes 7:9. Liters of liquid A contained by the can initially was

A. 10

B. 20

C. 21

D. 25

Q. 131 What number should be added to or subtracted from each term of the ratio 17 : 24 so that it becomes equal to 1 : 2?

A. 5 is subtracted

B. 10 is added

C. 7 is added

D. 10 is subtracted

Q. 132 The ratio of weekly income of A and B is 9 : 7 and the ratio of their expenditures is 4 : 3. If each saves Rs. 200 per week, then the sum of their weekly income is?

A. Rs 3600

B. Rs 4200

C. Rs 4800

D. Rs 5600

Q. 133 If 30% of A is added to 40% of B, the answer is 80 % of B. What percent of A is B?

A. 30%

B. 40%

C. 70%

D. 75%

Q. 134 A man can row 6 km/h in still water. If the speed of current is 2 km/h , it takes 3 hours more in upstream than in downstream for the same distance. The distance is

A. 30 km

B. 24 km

C. 20 km

D. 32 km

Q. 135 If the selling price of 10 articles is equal to the cost price of 11 articles, then the gain percentage is

A. 10

B. 11

C. 15

D. 25

Q. 136 While selling a watch, a shopkeeper gives discount of 5%. If he gives discount of 6%, he earns Rs.15 less as profit. What is the marked price of the watch?

A. Rs 1250

B. Rs 1400

C. Rs 1500

D. Rs 750

Q. 137 Krishna purchased a number of articles for Rs.10 for each and the same number for Rs.14 each. He mixed them together and sold them for Rs.13 each. Then his gain or loss percent is :

A. Loss 8 1/3 %

B. Gain 8 2/3%

C. Loss 8 2/3%

D. Gain 8 1/3%

Q. 138 A trader bought two horses for Rs.19500. He sold one at a loss of 20% and other at a profit of 15%. If the selling price of each horse is the same then the cost price of them respectively are

A. Rs.10000 and Rs.9500

B. Rs.11500 and Rs.8000

C. Rs.12000 and Rs.7500

D. Rs.10500 and Rs.9000

Q. 139 The cost price of an article is 40% of the selling price. What percent of the cost price is the selling price?

A. 140%

B. 200%

C. 220%

D. 250%

Q. 140 IF 90% of A = 30% of B and B = 2x% of A, then the value of x is

A. 450

B. 400

C. 300

D. 150

Q. 141 When the price of sugar decreases by 10%, a man could by 1 kg more for Rs.270. Then the original price of sugar per kg is

A. Rs. 25

B. Rs. 30

C. Rs. 27

D. Rs. 32

Q. 142 If the price of sugar is raised by 25%, find by how much percent a householder must reduce his consumption of sugar so as not to increase his expenditure?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 18

D. 25

Q. 143 The difference between the compound interest and simple interest on Rs. 10000 for two years is Rs. 25. The rate of interest per annum is

A. 5%

B. 7%

C. 10%

D. 12%

Q. 144 A student goes to school at the rate of 2-1/2 km/h and reaches 6 minutes late. If he travels at the speed of 3km/h, he is 10 minutes early. The distance between the school and his house is (in km)

A. 5

B. 4

C. 3

D. 1

Q. 145 A sum of money placed at compound interest doubles itself in 4 years. In how many years will it amount to 4 times itself?

A. 12 years

B. 13 years

C. 8 years

D. 16 years

Q. 146 The simple interest on a sum for 5 years is one-fourth of the sum. The rate of interest per annum is

A. 5%

B. 6%

C. 4%

D. 8%

Q. 147 The following graph shows the demand and production of cotton by 5 companies. Observe it and answer the question

The production of company D is how many times that of the production of company A?

A. 1.8

B. 1.5

C. 0.5

D. 0.4

Q. 148 The following graph shows the demand and production of cotton by 5 companies. Observe it and answer the question

The demand of company B is what percent of demand for company C?

A. 1.5

B. 2.5

C. 25

D. 30

Q. 149 The following graph shows the demand and production of cotton by 5 companies. Observe it and answer the question

What is the ratio of companies having more demand than production to those having

more production then demand?

A. 2:3

B. 4:1

C. 3:2

D. 1:4

Q. 150 The following graph shows the demand and production of cotton by 5 companies. Observe it and answer the question

What is the difference (in tonnes) between average demand and average production of the five companies taken together?

A. 320

B. 420

C. 2100

D. 1050

Q. 151 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. His son

B. is working

C. very hardly

D. no error

Q. 152 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. Do you know that it was I

B. who has done

C. this piece of beautiful work?

D. no error

Q. 153 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. The company has ordered

B. some

C. new equipments

D. no error

Q. 154 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. The future of food companies

B. seems quite secure

C. owed to ever growing demand

D. no error

Q. 155 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. The vaccine

B. When hit the indian market

C. is dogged by controversy

D. no error

Q. 156 If you had followed the rules, you _______ disqualified.

A. will not be

B. would not be

C. will not have been

D. would not have been

Q. 157 The housewife ____ the cakes burning, and ran to switch off the oven

A. Smell

B. Smells

C. Smelt

D. Smelling

Q. 158 _____ an old legend, King Shirharm lived in India.

A. In the event of

B. Due to

C. According to

D. In reference to

Q. 159 _____ you leave no, you will be late.

A. Until

B. Till

C. Unless

D. Although

Q. 160 The ____ were arrested for illegally hunting the bears.

A. Poachers

B. rangers

C. soldiers

D. villagers

Q. 161 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

GENIAL

A. cordial

B. Unselfish

C. Careful

D. Specific

Q. 162 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

ACCRUE

A. Accumluate

B. Accommodate

C. Grow

D. Suffice

Q. 163 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

LOQUACIOUS

A. Talkative

B. slow

C. Content

D. Unclear

Q. 164 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

VINDICTIVE

A. Imaginative

B. Accusative

C. Spiteful

D. Aggressive

Q. 165 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

INCLEMENT

A. Selfish

B. Active

C. Unfavorable

D. Inactive

Q. 166 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

SYNTHETIC

A. Natural

B. Plastic

C. Cosmetic

D. Apathetic

Q. 167 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

ACCORD

A. Disagreement

B. Welcome

C. Disrespect

D. Confromity

Q. 168 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

INFIRMITY

A. Employment

B. Indisposition

C. Strength

D. Weakness

Q. 169 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

FEASIBLE

A. Useful

B. Impractical

C. Uneven

D. Important

Q. 170 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

METICULOUS

A. Forgetful

B. Destructive

C. Careless

D. Flagrant

Q. 171 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

To be all at sea

A. a family voyage

B. lost and confused

C. in the middle of the ocean

D. a string of islands

Q. 172 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

TO take to one’s heels

A. to walk slowly

B. to run away

C. to march forward

D. to hop and jump

Q. 173 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

To bite the dust

A. cat voraciously

B. have nothing to eat

C. cat roots

D. none of the above

Q. 174 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

A bolt from the blue

A. a delayed event

B. an inexplicable event

C. an unexpected event

D. an unpleasant event

Q. 175 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

Cold comfort

A. absurdity

B. deception

C. slight satisfaction

D. foolish proposal

Q. 176 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

My friend lives in a nearby street WHOSE NAME i have forgotten

A. the name of which

B. which name

C. of which name

D. no improvement

Q. 177 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

HE BOTH WON A MEDAL AND A SCHOLARSHIP

A. He won a medal and a scholarship both

B. Both he won a medal and a scholarship

C. He won both a medal and a scholarship

D. No improvement

Q. 178 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

HE HAS FOR GOOD LEFT INDIA

A. He has left for good

B. He has left india for good

C. Good he has left india

D. No improvement

Q. 179 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

WE ARE CREDIBLY INFORMED THAT THE MURDERER HAS GIVEN HIMSELF UP.

A. We are informed that the murderer has credibly given himself up

B. We are informed that the murderer has given credibly himself up

C. We are informed that credibly the murderer has given up himself

D. No improvement

Q. 180 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

We generally select ONE OF THE MOST INTELLIGENT STUDENT OF THE SCHOOL for this award

A. one of the most intelligent student of school

B. one of the intelligent most student of school

C. one of the intelligent most students of the school

D. no improvement

Q. 181 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

Pertaining to cattle

A. Canine

B. Feline

C. Bovine

D. Verminous

Q. 182 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

To look at someone in an angry or threatening way

A. Glower

B. Gnaw

C. Gnash

D. Grind

Q. 183 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

A post with little work but high salary

A. Director

B. Trustee

C. Sinecure

D. Ombudsman

Q. 184 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

Something that causes death

A. Dangerous

B. Fatal

C. Brutal

D. Horrible

Q. 185 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

A person who writes decoratively

A. Calligrapher

B. Collier

C. Choreographer

D. Cartographer

Q. 186 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. malaign

B. arraign

C. asigne

D. degine

Q. 187 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. harrassment

B. embarrasment

C. fulfillment

D. denoument

Q. 188 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. agnostik

B. accomplice

C. advercity

D. acrimonous

Q. 189 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. dysentery

B. momentary

C. cementary

D. comentary

Q. 190 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. ebulient

B. jubilant

C. iminent

D. tolemt

Q. 191 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. problem

B. question

C. matter

D. query

Q. 192 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. around

B. out

C. about

D. on

Q. 193 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. since

B. during

C. around

D. from

Q. 194 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. ideas

B. opinions

C. stories

D. matters

Q. 195 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. solution

B. novel

C. book

D. answer

Q. 196 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. read

B. think

C. open

D. guess

Q. 197 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. now

B. time

C. then

D. ago

Q. 198 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. moon

B. time

C. earth

D. mars

Q. 199 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. part

B. division

C. opening

D. center

Q. 200 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. end

B. begin

C. think

D. work

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	D	C	C	C	D	B	A	B	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	A	B	C	B	B	A	A	A	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	C	A	B	D	C	C	C	D	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	B	D	C	D	B	C	C	A	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	D	D	D	C	A	C	C	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	C	C	C	B	C	D	C	B	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	C	B	B	B	C	B	A	B	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	A	B	C	C	B	B	B	C	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	D	D	D	B	D	C	D	D	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	B	D	C	C	B	A	A	C	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	B	B	A	C	A	B	B	A	A	A
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	B	C	A	D	B	D	D	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	A	A	C	B	C	A	B	C	C
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	D	C	D	B	A	C	D	B	D	D
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	B	B	A	B	C	A	A	C	C	B
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	B	D	C	C	D	C	C	C	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	A	A	A	C	C	A	A	C	B	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	B	B	D	C	C	D	C	B	A	A
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	C	A	C	B	A	B	C	B	A	B
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	C	C	D	B	D	B	D	C	A	C

SSC CGL Tier-I 19 June 2011 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2011 19 Jun Shift 1

Q. 1 CFIL : ORUX: : DGJM : ?

A. HJLN

B. NQST

C. PSVY

D. RTVX

Q. 2 BEHK : YVSP : : DGJM : ?

A. JGDA

B. ROLI

C. WTQUN

D. ZWTQ

Q. 3 24 : 60 : : 120 : ?

A. 160

B. 220

C. 300

D. 108

Q. 4 392 : 28 : : 722 : ?

A. 18

B. 28

C. 38

D. 48

Q. 5 123 : 36 : : 221 : ?

A. 52

B. 69

C. 72

D. 25

Q. 6 Timid :Ass : : Cunning : ?

A. ant

B. fox

C. rabbit

D. horse

Q. 7 Ecstasy : Gloom : : ?

A. Congratulations : Occasion

B. Diligent : Successful

C. Measure : Scale

D. Humiliation : Exaltation

Q. 8 Architect : Building : : Sculptor : ?

A. museum

B. stone

C. chisel

D. statue

Q. 9 MKQO : LNPR: : ? : XVTZ

A. YSUW

B. SVWY

C. VTWY

D. WYTS

Q. 10 Find the odd one

A. PQXZ

B. BCQN

C. ABDF

D. MNPR

Q. 11 Find the odd one

A. ABYZ

B. CDWX

C. EFUV

D. GHTV

Q. 12 Find the odd one

A. 626

B. 841

C. 962

D. 1090

Q. 13 Find the odd one

A. 5720

B. 6710

C. 2640

D. 4270

Q. 14 Find the odd one

A. swimming

B. sailing

C. diving

D. driving

Q. 15 Find the odd one

A. perception

B. discernment

C. penetration

D. insinuation

Q. 16 From among the given alternatives select the one in which the set of numbers is most like the set of number given in the question.

Given Set: (4, 25, 81)

A. (4, 36, 79)

B. (9, 48, 81)

C. (16, 64, 100)

D. (9, 49, 143)

Q. 17 In the following question, number of letters are skipped in between by a particular rule.

Which of the following series observe the rule?

A. BAFHTU

B. ACEGJL

C. ACFJOU

D. ADFHJL

Q. 18 Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following?

1. Ocean 2. Rivulet 3. Sea 4. Glacier 5.River

A. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4

B. 4, 2, 5, 3, 1

C. 5, 2, 3, 4, 1

D. 4, 2, 1, 3, 5

Q. 19 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.

1. Preposition 2. Preparatively 3. Preposterous 4. Preponderate 5. Prepossess

A. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3

B. 1, 5, 2, 4, 3

C. 5, 4, 2, 3, 1

D. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3

Q. 20 Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

ac_cab_baca_aba_aca_

A. acbcc

B. aacbc

C. babbb

D. bcbba

Q. 21 _ ?_ , DREQ, GUHT, JXKW

A. EFRS

B. TGSP

C. JWVI

D. AQBN

Q. 22 56, 90, 132, 184, 218, ___?__

A. 368

B. 316

C. 362

D. 326

Q. 23 0, 4, 8, 24, 64, 176, __?__

A. 180

B. 480

C. 280

D. 300

Q. 24 WTPMIFB ?_ _?__

A. ZV

B. XU

C. YU

D. YV

Q. 25 Mrs. Susheela celebrated her wedding anniversary on Tuesday, 30th September 1997. When will she celebrate her next wedding anniversary on the same day?

A. 30 September 2003

B. 30 September 2004

C. 30 September 2002

D. 30 October 2003

Q. 26 A clock gains five minutes every hour.What will be the angle traversed by the second hand in one minute?

A. 360°

B. 360.5°

C. 390°

D. 380°

Q. 27 Bis twice as old as Abut twice younger than F. C is half the age of A but is twice older than D. Who is the second oldest?

A. B

B. F

C. D

D. C

Q. 28 A two member committee comprising of one male and one female member is to be constituted out of five male and three females. Amongst the females,Ms. A refuses to be a member of the committee in which Mr. B is taken as the member. In how many different way can the committee be constituted?

A. 11

B. 12

C. 13

D. 14

Q. 29 Find the wrong number in the series.

6, 12, 21, 32, 45, 60

A. 6

B. 12

C. 21

D. 32

Q. 30 Ramesh ranks 13th in a class of 33 students. There are 5 students below Suresh rank wise.

How many students are there between Ramesh and Suresh?

A. 12

B. 14

C. 15

D. 16

Q. 31 Naresh’s age is 4 years less than twice the age of his brother. Which of the following represents the equation to find his age?

A. 2x + 4

B. 4x + 2

C. x – 4

D. 2x – 4

Q. 32 Suresh’s sister is the wife of Ram. Ram is Rani’s brother Ram’s father is Madhur. Sheetal is Rams’s grandmother. Reema is Sheetal’s daughter-in-law. Rohit is Rani’s brother’s son. Who is Rohit to Suresh?

A. Brother-in-law

B. Son

C. Brother

D. Nephew

Q. 33 In a survey, 70% of those surveyed owned a car and 75% of those surveyed owned a TV. If 55% owned both a car and a TV. What percent of those surveyed did not own either a car or a TV?

A. 25%

B. 20%

C. 10%

D. 5%

Q. 34 If DANCE is coded as GXQZH, then how will RIGHT be coded?

A. UFJEW

B. SCKFX

C. UEJWE

D. UPWJE

Q. 35 If LOSS is coded as 1357 and GAIN is coded as 2468, what do the figures 84615 stand for?

A. NAILS

B. SNAIL

C. LANES

D. SLAIN

Q. 36 A statement is given followed by four alternative arguments. Select the alternative which is most appropriate.

Statement

Is it necessary that education should be job oriented?

I. Yes, the aim of education is to prepare persons for earning.

II. Yes, educated person should stand on his own feet after completion of education.

III. No, education should be for sake of knowledge only.

IV. No, one may take up agriculture where education is not necessary

A. Only I and II arguments are strong

B. Only III and IV arguments are strong

C. Only I arguments is strong

D. Only I and III arguments are strong

Q. 37 Aman started walking West. He turns right, then right again and finally turns left. Towards which direction was he walks now?

A. North

B. South

C. West

D. East

Q. 38 Sudha travels 8 km to the South. Then 8 km turns to the right and walks 4 km. The again she turns to her right and moves 8 km forward. How many km away is the from alerting point?

A. 7

B. 6

C. 1

D. 8

Q. 39 From the given alternatives words, select the words which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:

‘COMPREHENSION’

A. COMPRISE

B. PENSION

C. ONIOX

D. PREACH

Q. 40 From the given alternatives words, select the word which can be formed using the letter of the given word

‘MULTIPLACATION’

A. MUTUAL

B. LIMITATION

C. APPLICATION

D. NOTION

Directions: In question no. 41 and 42, select the missing number from the given responses.

Q. 41 Select the right option

A. 127

B. 31

C. 217

D. 328

Q. 42 Select the right option

A. 40

B. 48

C. 50

D. 36

Q. 43 If ‘-‘ stands for division, ‘+’ stands for subtraction, ‘÷’ stands for multiplication, ‘×’ stands for addition, then which one of the following equation is correct?

A. 70 ÷ 2 – 4 × 5 + 6 = 44

B. 70 ÷ 2 – 4 × 5 + 6 = 21

C. 70 -2 + 4 ÷ 5 × 6 = 341

D. 70 – 2 + 4 ÷ 5 × 6 = 98

Q. 44 The school result is increasing year after year. Forecast the result of 2012 from the following information.

A. 51.75%

B. 56.75%

C. 48.00%

D. 57.25%

Q. 45 Which diagram correctly represents the relationship between politicians, poets and women?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 46 How many triangles are there in the following figures?

A. 29

B. 27

C. 23

D. 30

Q. 47 Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. Find the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.

If 324 × 289 – 35, 441 × 484 = 43.

625 × 400 = 45, find the value of 256 × 729

A. 33

B. 35

C. 43

D. 34

Q. 48 From the given answer figures select the one in which the question figure hidden/ embedded.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 49 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the correct image of the given question figure?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 50 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 51 In the budget for 2011-12, the fiscal deficit (% of GDP) for 2011-12 has been projected at

A. 5.1

B. 5.0

C. 4.6

D. 3.4

Q. 52 Which was described by Dr. B.R.Ambedkar as the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution?

A. Right to Equality

B. Right against Exploitation

C. Right to Constitutional Remedies

D. Right to Freedom of Religion

Q. 53 Which is not the concern of the local government?

A. Public Health

B. Sanitation

C. Law and Order

D. Public Utility Services

Q. 54 In India, the concept-of single citizenship is adopted rom

A. England

B. U.S.A

C. Canada

D. France

Q. 55 Who had proposed partyless democracy in India?

A. Jaya Prakash Narayan

B. Mahatma Gandhi

C. Vinoda Bhave

D. ) S.A. Dange

Q. 56 Disinvestment in Public Sector is called

A. Liberalization

B. Globalization

C. Industrialization

D. Privatization

Q. 57 Darwin finches refers to a group of

A. Fishes

B. Lizards

C. Birds

D. Amphibians

Q. 58 An individual’s actual landward of living can be assessed by

A. Gross National Income

B. Net National Income

C. Per capita income

D. Disposable Personal Income

Q. 59 As announced by the Finance Minister in his Budget speech on 28th February 2011, with a view to assist State in modernizing their stamp and registration administration, E-stamping is expected to be rolled out in all the districts of different States in a period of

A. one year

B. two years

C. three years

D. five years

Q. 60 Which Sikh Guru called himself the ‘Sacheha Badshah’?

A. Guru Gobind Singh

B. Guru Hargovind

C. Guru Tegh Bahadur

D. Guru Arjan Dev

Q. 61 The Civil Disobedience Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in

A. 1928

B. 1930

C. 1931

D. 1922

Q. 62 What is the maximum strength prescribed for State Legislative Assemblies?

A. 350

B. 600

C. 500

D. 750

Q. 63 Fa-hien visited India during the reign of

A. Chandrahupta II

B. Samudragupta

C. Ramagupta

D. Kumaragupta

Q. 64 At which place in Bengal was the East India Company given permission to trade and build a factory by the Mughals in 1651?

A. Calcutta

B. Cassim Bazar

C. Singpur

D. Burdwan

Q. 65 Diu is an island off

A. Daman

B. Goa

C. Gujarat

D. Maharashtra

Q. 66 Which from the following is a land for sea?

A. Red sea

B. Timor sea

C. North sea

D. Arab sea

Q. 67 Shivasamudram Falls is found in the course river

A. Krishna

B. Gidavari

C. Cauvery

D. Mahanadi

Q. 68 Who gave the slogan “InquilabZindabad”?

A. Chandrashekhar Azad

B. Subhash Chandra Bose

C. Bhagat Singh

D. Iqbal

Q. 69 The position of India Railways network the world is

A. second

B. third

C. fourth

D. fifth

Q. 70 The oldest international airline is

A. Dutch KLM

B. Air Canada

C. Qantas Railways

D. Air Sahara

Q. 71 Neutrons to control the chain reaction during nuclear fission?

A. Boron

B. Heavy water

C. Uranium

D. Plutonium

Q. 72 Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of

A. controlled fission reaction

B. uncontrolled fission reaction

C. uncontrolled fission reaction

D. uncontrolled fusion reaction

Q. 73 Troposphere is the hottest part of the atmosphere because

A. it is closest to the Sun

B. there are charged particles in it

C. it is heated by the Earth’s surface

D. heat is generated in it

Q. 74 The outermost layer of the Sun is called

A. Chromosphere

B. Photosphere

C. Corona

D. Lithosphere

Q. 75 Where was India’s first computer installed?

A. Indian Institute of Technology, Delhi

B. Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore

C. Indian Iron & Steel Co. Ltd. Burnpur

D. Indian Statistical Institute, Calcutta

Q. 76 The dried flower birds are used as a spirit

A. Cardamom

B. Cinnamon

C. Cloves

D. Saffron

Q. 77 The tissue in man where to cell dives occurs after birth is

A. skeletal

B. nerves

C. connective

D. germinal

Q. 78 DNA fingerprinting is used to identify the

A. parents

B. rapist

C. thieves

D. all the above

Q. 79 The normal cholesterol level in human body is

A. 80-120 mg%

B. 120-140 mg%

C. 140-180 mg%

D. 180-200 mg%

Q. 80 Which of the following are warm-blood animals?

A. whales

B. whale sharks

C. alytes

D. draco

Q. 81 Syrinx is the voice box in

A. Amphibians

B. Reptiles

C. Birds

D. Mammals

Q. 82 The largest ecosystem of the Earth is

A. Biome

B. Hydrosphere

C. Lithosphere

D. Biosphere

Q. 83 In a food chain , the solar energy utilized by plants is only

A. 10%

B. 1%

C. 0.1%

D. 0.01%

Q. 84 Supersonic jet causes pollution by thinking of

A. O₃ layer

B. O₂ layer

C. SO₂ layer

D. CO₂ layer

Q. 85 OTEC stand for

A. Ocean Thermal Energy Conservation

B. Oil and Thermal Energy Conservation

C. Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion

D. Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion

Q. 86 As per Railway Budget for 2011-2012 , the senior citizen concession for men has been increased from

A. 25% to 30%

B. 30% to 40%

C. 40% to 50%

D. 30% to 50%

Q. 87 The monster earthquake-cum-tsunami which his Japan on March 11, 2011 has moved the country’s main island , Honshu , by about

A. two feet

B. three feet

C. five feet

D. eight feet

Q. 88 What is the commonly used unit for measuring the speed of data transmission ?

A. Mega Hertz

B. Character per second

C. BIts per second

D. Nano seconds

Q. 89 Which type of reaction produces the most harmful reaction ?

A. Fusion reaction

B. Fission reaction

C. Chemical reaction

D. Photo-Chemical reaction

Q. 90 Which type of glass is used for making glass reinforced plastic ?

A. pyrex glass

B. flint glass

C. quartz glass

D. fibre glass

Q. 91 Which of the following metals causes Itai – Itai disease ?

A. Cadmium

B. Chromium

C. Cobalt

D. Copper

Q. 92 Glycol is added to aviation gasoline because it

A. reduces evaporation of petrol

B. increases efficiency of petrol

C. prevents freezing of petrol

D. reduces consumption of petrol

Q. 93 Who invested penicillin?

A. Alexander Fleming

B. Louis Pasteur

C. Dreser

D. Edward Jenner

Q. 94 2018 FIFA World Cup would be held in

A. Russia

B. Qatar

C. France

D. Netherlands

Q. 95 Who of the following was not the recipient of Nobel Prize in Economics 2010?

A. Peter A. Diamond

B. Christopher Pissarides

C. Luis Xiaobo

D. Dale Mortensen

Q. 96 Which troubled model was recalled recently by the Indian automobile giant Maruti Suzukifor replacement of faulty fuel pump gasket?

A. Maruti 800

B. Maruti A-star

C. Wagon R

D. Baleno

Q. 97 As a part of Human Resource Development Ministry’s ‘brain gain’ policy to attract global talent, 14 world class universities to attract global talent are proposed to be set up in various states. Name the state from the following where no university of the aforesaid type is proposed to be located.

A. Punjab

B. Bihar

C. Rajasthan

D. Uttaranchal

Q. 98 Who discovered South Pole?

A. Robert Peary

B. Amundsen

C. John Cabot

D. Tasman

Q. 99 Which of the following folk dances is associated with Rajasthan?

A. Rauf

B. Jora

C. Veedhi

D. Suisim

Q. 100 Which of the following books is authored by V.S. Naipaul?

A. The Rediscovery of India

B. A House of Mr. Biswas

C. Witness the Night

D. Tender Hookz

Q. 101 If p = 124 , ∛p(p²+3p+3) +1 = ?

A. 5

B. 7

C. 123

D. 125

Q. 102 If √1 -(x³100) = 3/5 , then x equals

A. 2

B. 4

C. 16

D. (136)⅓

Q. 103 If multiplied a natural number by 18 and another by 21 and added the products. Which one of the following could be the sum?

A. 2007

B. 2008

C. 2006

D. 2002

Q. 104 The product of two numbers is 45 and their difference is 4. The sum squares of the two numbers is

A. 135

B. 240

C. 73

D. 106

Q. 105 Solve the following

A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 10

Q. 106 The square of 14 + 6 √5 is

A. 2 √5

B. 3 √5

C. 6 √3

D. 3 2√5

Q. 107 When 2³¹ is divided by 5 the remainder is

A. 4

B. 3

C. 2

D. 1

Q. 108 The value is

A. 21/13

B. 17/3

C. 34/21

D. 8/5

Q. 109 The unit digit in the product (122)¹²³

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

Q. 110 The value of

A. 16 + √3

B. 4 + √3

C. 2 – √3

D. 2 + √3

Q. 111 If a + b –2a + 3b –ab, then the value of (3 – 5 + 5 ÷3) is

A. 10

B. 6

C. 4

D. 2

Q. 112 Simplify

[0.0347 ×0.0347 ×0.0347 ×(0.09653)³ / [(0.0347)²- (0.347)(0.09653) + (0.9653)²

A. 0.9306

B. 1.0009

C. 1.0050

D. 1

Q. 113 A copper wire is bent in the form of and equilateral triangle and has area 123 3 cm². If the same wire is bent into the form of a circle, the area (in cm²) enclosed by the wire is (Take π= 22/7)

A. 364.5

B. 693.5

C. 346.5

D. 639.5

Q. 114 A child reshapes a cone make up of clay of height 24 cm and radius 6 cm into a sphere. The radius (in cm) of the sphere is

A. 6

B. 12

C. 24

D. 48

Q. 115 Water flows into a trank which is 200 m long and 150 m wide, through a pipe of cross section 0.3 m × 0.2 m at 20 km/hour. Then the time (in hours) for the water level in the tank to reach 8 m is

A. 50

B. 120

C. 150

D. 200

Q. 116 The product of two numbers is 2028 and their H.C.F. is 13. The number of such pairs is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 117 Two equal vessels are filled with the mixtures of water and milk in the ratio of 3 : 4 and 5 : 3 respectively. If the mixtures are poured into a third vessel, the ratio of water and milk in the third vessel will be

A. 15 : 12

B. 53 : 59

C. 20 : 9

D. 59 : 53

Q. 118 I am three times as old as my son. 15 years hence, I will be twice as old as my son. The sum of our ages is

A. 48 years

B. 60 years

C. 84 years

D. 72 years

Q. 119 Three bells ring simultaneously at 11 a.m. They ring at regular intervals of 20 minute 30 minutes, 40 minutes respectively. The time when all the three ring together next

A. 2 p.m

B. 1 p.m

C. 1:15 p.m

D. 1:30 p.m

Q. 120 A and B together can do a work in 12 days. B and together do it in 15 days. If A efficiency is twice that of C,then the day required for B alone to finish the work is

A. 50

B. 30

C. 20

D. 15

Q. 121 A and B can do a work in 12 days, B and C can do the same work in 15 days, C and A can do the same work in 20 days. The time taken by A, B and C to do the same work it

A. 5 days

B. 10 days

C. 15 days

D. 20 days

Q. 122 A is 60% as efficient as B.C does half of the work done by A and B together. If C alone does the work in 20 days, then A, B and C together can do the work in

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 123 The ratio of the volumes in water and glycerin in 240 cc of a mixture is 1 : 3. The quantity of water(in cc)that should be added to the mixture so that the new ratio of the volumes of water and glycerin becomes 2 : 3 is

A. 55

B. 60

C. 62.5

D. 64

Q. 124 At present,the ratio of the ages of Maya and Chaya is 6 : 5 and fifteen years from now, the ratio will get changed to 9 : 8, Maya’s present age is

A. 21 years

B. 24 years

C. 30 years

D. 40 years

Q. 125 The ratio of the income to the expenditure of a family is 10 : 7. If the family expenses are Rs. 10,500, then the savings of the family is

A. Rs. 4,500

B. Rs. 10,000

C. Rs. 4,000

D. Rs. 5,000

Q. 126 The average mathematics marks of two Sections A and B of Class IX in the annual examination is 74. The average marks of Section A is 77.5 and that of Section B is 70. The ratio of the number of students of Sections A and B is

A. 7 : 8

B. 7 : 5

C. 8 : 7

D. 8 : 5

Q. 127 The average weight of a group of 20 boys was calculated to be 89.4 kg and it was later discovered that one weight was misread as 78 kg instead of 87 kg. The correct average weight is

A. 88.95 kg

B. 89.25 kg

C. 89.55 kg

D. 89.85 kg

Q. 128 The diameter of a wheel is 98 cm dominor of revolutions in which it will to cover a distance of 1540 m is

A. 500

B. 600

C. 700

D. 800

Q. 129 In an equilateral triangle ABC of side to the side BC is trisected at D. Then length(incm) of AD is

A. 3√7

B. 7√3

C. 10√7 / 3

D. 7√10 / 3

Q. 130 The cost price of an article of Rs. 800. At allowing a discount of 10%, a gain of 12 was made. Them the market price of article is

A. Rs. 1000

B. Rs. 1100

C. Rs. 1200

D. Rs. 1300

Q. 131 A man bought an article listed at Rs. 1500 with a discount of 20% offered on the listed price. What additional discount must offered to the man to bring the net price Rs. 1,104?

A. 8%

B. 10%

C. 12%

D. 15%

Q. 132 Solve the following

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 9

Q. 133 The part of a room is of size 4 m×3 m and its height is 3 m. The walls and ceiling of the room require painting.The area to be painted is

A. 66 m²

B. 54 m²

C. 43 m²

D. 33 m²

Q. 134 When the price of an article was reduced by 20% its sale increased by 80%. What was the net effect on the sale?

A. 44% increase

B. 44% decrease

C. 66% decrease

D. 75% decrease

Q. 135 The price of sugar goes up by 20%. If a housewife wants the expenses on sugar to remain the same, she should reduce the consumption by

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 136 In a factory 60% of the workers are above 30 years and of these 75% are males and the rest are females. If there are 1350 male workers above 30 years, the total number of workers is the factory is

A. 3000

B. 2000

C. 1800

D. 1500

Q. 137 Refer to the image and answer the question

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 138 The selling price of 10 oranges in the price of 13 oranges. Then the price percentage is

A. 30%

B. 10%

C. 13%

D. 3%

Q. 139 The marked price of a radio is Rs. 480, shopkeeper allows a discount of 10% gains 8%. If no discount is allowed, his percent would be

A. 18%

B. 18.5%

C. 20.5%

D. 20%

Q. 140 A man sold 20 apples for Rs. 100 gained 20%. How many apples did he buy Rs. 100?

A. 20

B. 22

C. 24

D. 25

Q. 141 A rectangular sheet of metal is 40 cm, 15 cm. Equal squares of side 4 cm are cut at the corners and the remainder is fold up to form an open rectangular box. The volume of the box is

A. 896 cm³

B. 986 cm³

C. 600 cm³

D. 916 cm³

Q. 142 If 78 is divided into three parts which are the ratio 1 : 1/3 : 1/6 , the middle part is

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 143 The simple interest on a sum of money is 1/9 of the principal and the number of years is equal to rate percent are annum. The rate per annum is

A. 3%

B. 1/3 %

C. 3 1/3 %

D. 3/10 %

Q. 144 The difference between simple interest and compound interest of a certain sum of money at 20% per annum for 2 years is Rs. 48. Then the sum is

A. Rs. 1000

B. Rs. 1200

C. Rs. 1500

D. Rs. 2000

Q. 145 Shri X goes to his office by scooter at a speed of 30 km/h and reaches 6 minutes earlier. If he goes at a speed of 24 km/h, he reaches 5 minutes late. The distance to his office is

A. 20 km

B. 21 km

C. 22 km

D. 24 km

Q. 146 A sum of money becomes eight times in 3 years, if the rate is compounded annually. In low much time will the same amount at the same compound rate become sixteen times?

A. 6 years

B. 4 years

C. 8 years

D. 5 years

The pie chart given below shows the spending of a family on various heads during a month. Study the graph and answer question 147 to 150.

Q. 147 If the total income of the family is Rs. 25,000, then the amount spent of Rent and Food together is

A. Rs. 17,250

B. Rs. 14,750

C. Rs. 11,250

D. Rs. 8,500

Q. 148 What is the ratio of the expenses of Education to the expenses on Food?

A. 1 : 3

B. 3 : 1

C. 3 : 5

D. 5 : 3

Q. 149 Expenditure of Rent is what percent of expenditure of Fuel?

A. 135 %

B. 156 %

C. 167 %

D. 172 %

Q. 150 Which three expenditures together have a central angle of 108° ?

A. Fuel, Clothing and Others

B. Fuel, Education and Others

C. Clothing, Rent and Others

D. Education, Rent and Others

Q. 151 A senior doctor expressed concern about physicians recommended the vaccine. No error.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 152 We have discussing all the known mechanisms of physical growth. No error.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 153 Children enjoy listening to ghost stories especially on Halloween night. No error.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 154 I have many works to do. No error

(A) (B) (C) (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 155 There are so many filths all around the place. No error.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 156 The building is not safe and must be _______ down

A. pull

B. pulling

C. pulled

D. pulls

Q. 157 There is something wonderful _____ him.

A. of

B. about

C. for

D. inside

Q. 158 The song is the play cannot be deleted as it is _______ to the story.

A. intervened

B. innate

C. exacting

D. integral

Q. 159 She remained a ______ all her life.

A. spinster

B. bachelor

C. unmarried

D. single

Q. 160 Do not stay in the grasslands after dark, as some animals become ______ when they see humans

A. provoked

B. alerted

C. aggresive

D. threatened

Q. 161 Choose the best word

LUCIDITY

A. Fluidity

B. Politeness

C. Clarity

D. Fluency

Q. 162 Choose the best word

INDICT

A. Implicate

B. Elude

C. Charge

D. Manifest

Q. 163 Choose the best word

APPRAISE

A. Accuse

B. Praise

C. Appreciate

D. Judge

Q. 164 Choose the best word

DELUGE

A. Confusion

B. Deception

C. Flood

D. Weapon

Q. 165 Choose the best word

PREPONDERANCE

A. Pre-eminence

B. Dominance

C. Domineering

D. Preoccupation

Q. 166 Choose the best word

INVINCIBLE

A. small

B. invisible

C. vulnerable

D. reachable

Q. 167 Choose the best word

INOFFENSIVE

A. sensitive

B. organic

C. sensible

D. rude

Q. 168 Choose the best word

DIVULGE

A. conceal

B. disguise

C. oppress

D. reveal

Q. 169 Choose the best word

DISCORD

A. harmony

B. serenity

C. acceptance

D. placidity

Q. 170 Choose the best word

MOMMOTII

A. quiet

B. significant

C. huge

D. small

Q. 171 To take the heart

A. to be encouraged

B. to grieve over

C. to like

D. to hate

Q. 172 Yeoman’s service

A. medical help

B. excellent work

C. social work

D. hard work

Q. 173 To face the music

A. to enjoy a musical recital

B. to bear the consequences

C. to live in a pleasant atmosphere

D. to have a difficult time

Q. 174 To put up with

A. to accommodate

B. to adjust

C. to understand

D. to tolerate

Q. 175 To call it a day

A. to conclude proceedings

B. to initiate proceedings

C. to work through the day

D. None of the above

Q. 176 The man whom I thought was thoroughly honest proved to be a swindler.

A. The man whom I thought was thoroughly honest proved a swindler

B. The man who I through was thoroughly honest proved to be a swindler

C. The man to whom I thought was thoroughly honest proved to be a swindler

D. No improvement

Q. 177 No sooner had the dividend been declared, the notices were sent out.

A. The company had hardly declared the dividend till the notices were sent for mailing.

B. They had no sooner declared the dividend then the notices were sent out

C. Hardly had the dividend been declared than the notices were sent-out.

D. No improvement.

Q. 178 Riding upon his horse, the tiger jumped at him

A. Riding upon the tiger,this horse jumped at him

B. The tiger jumped at him while he was riding upon his horse.

C. The tiger rode at him while he was jumping upon his horse.

D. No improvement

Q. 179 I in black and white must have been your terms down.

A. I must have in black and white your terms down.

B. I must have your terms in black and white down.

C. I must have your terms down in black and white.

D. No improvement

Q. 180 When we came out of the restaurant it half past eleven.

A. When we had come out of the restaurant.

B. After we came out of the restaurant.

C. When we have come out of restaurant

D. No improvement.

Q. 181 Code of diplomatic etiquette and precedence

A. statesmanship

B. diplomacy

C. hierarchy

D. protocol

Q. 182 To renounce a high position of authority control

A. abduct

B. abandon

C. abort

D. abdicate

Q. 183 Not to be moved by entreaty

A. rigorous

B. negligent

C. inexorable

D. despotic

Q. 184 An object or portion serving as a sample

A. specification

B. spectre

C. spectacle

D. specimen

Q. 185 The practice of submitting a proposal a popular vote

A. election

B. reference

C. popularity

D. referendum

Q. 186 Find the right word.

A. mandatary

B. circulatary

C. temporary

D. regulatory

Q. 187 Find the right word.

A. convinience

B. initative

C. concesional

D. exxagerate

Q. 188 Find the right word.

A. diologue

B. giraffe

C. scissors

D. humourous

Q. 189 Find the right word.

A. asidvous

B. nefarious

C. macaber

D. loquacious

Q. 190 Find the right word.

A. cortege

B. damege

C. milege

D. plumege

First read the passage over and try to understand what is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given Mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

Science means knowledge, but not all knowledge is science. I know from my own eyesight that our dog Chippy like papaya: I know from a book that Akbar was the (191) of Babar, and (192) in 1605; and I know (193) the radio that India did not do well in the (194) Test matches. We can call these (195)of knowledge (196) , but they are not science. Science (197) with facts, but not with facts which have (198) to do with each other, like the facts about our dog, cricket and the Mughul ruler; those facts are not related (199) , and so have nothing (200) with science. Science starts with observation.

Q. 191 Choose the word

A. grandson

B. grand father

C. grand nephew

D. son

Q. 192 Choose the word

A. gone

B. died

C. disappeared

D. absented

Q. 193 Choose the word

A. on

B. in

C. since

D. from

Q. 194 Choose the word

A. old

B. ordinary

C. latest

D. outdated

Q. 195 Choose the word

A. pieces

B. peace

C. whole

D. block

Q. 196 Choose the word

A. lies

B. charges

C. facts

D. blame

Q. 197 Choose the word

A. starts

B. stops

C. passes

D. drives

Q. 198 Choose the word

A. no

B. neither

C. nor

D. nothing

Q. 199 Choose the word

A. by that way

B. in any way

C. from the side

D. in addition to

Q. 200 Choose the word

A. to llie

B. to speak

C. to sleep

D. to do

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	C	C	C	D	B	D	D	A	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	B	D	D	D	C	C	B	A	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	D	D	C	A	B	A	D	A	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	D	C	A	A	A	A	A	C	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	C	B	B	D	B	C	D	B	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	C	C	A	A	D	C	D	C	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	C	A	B	C	D	C	C	C	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	D	C	C	D	C	B	D	D	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	A	C	A	D	B	D	C	B	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	C	A	A	C	B	D	B	D	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	D	B	A	D	A	B	B	C	B	A
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	A	D	C	A	D	B	D	B	B	C
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	B	B	C	A	C	D	A	C	A
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	A	D	B	A	B	A	A	A	D	C
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	A	C	C	B	C	B	B	A	B	B
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	A	C	C	A	C	B	D	A	C
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	C	C	D	C	B	C	D	A	A	D
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	B	A	B	D	D	D	A	B	C	D
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	D	D	D	D	D	C	D	C	B	A
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	A	B	A	C	A	C	A	D	B	D

SSC CGL Tier-I 26 June 2011 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2011 26 Jun Shift 1

Q. 1 6:64::11:?

A. 144

B. 169

C. 121

D. 124

Q. 2 123:4::726:?

A. 23

B. 26

C. 14

D. 12

Q. 3 Fish:Scales::Bear:?

A. Feathers

B. Leaves

C. Fur

D. Skin

Q. 4 Writer:Pen::?

A. Needle:Tailor

B. Artist:Brush

C. Painter:Canvas

D. Teacher:Class

Q. 5 NUMERAL:UEALRMN::ALGEBRA:?

A. LRBAGEA

B. BARLAGE

C. LERAGBA

D. LERABGA

Q. 6 BDAC:FHEG::NPMO:?

A. RQTS

B. QTRC

C. TRQS

D. RTQS

Q. 7 FGHI:OPQR::BCDE:?

A. KLMJ

B. KLMN

C. IUVW

D. STUW

Q. 8 PNLJ:IGEC::VTRP:?

A. OMKI

B. RSTU

C. QSRC

D. QROM

Q. 9 19:60::20:?

A. 57

B. 69

C. 81

D. 93

Q. 10 Find the odd number from the given alternatives

A. 162

B. 405

C. 567

D. 644

Q. 11 Find the odd number from the given alternatives

A. 156

B. 201

C. 273

D. 645

Q. 12 Find the odd word from the given alternatives

A. Flute

B. Violin

C. Guitar

D. Sitar

Q. 13 Find the odd word from the given alternatives

A. Prod

B. Sap

C. Jab

D. Thrust

Q. 14 Find the odd word from the given alternatives

A. JKOP

B. MNST

C. CABD

D. OPWX

Q. 15 Find the odd word from the given alternatives

A. CAFD

B. TSWV

C. IGLJ

D. OMRP

Q. 16 In the following question, number of letters are skipped in between by particular rule. What of the following series observes the rules?

A. ABFGJK

B. ACFJOU

C. MPQSTV

D. ADFHJL

Q. 17 Find out the pair of numbers that does not belong to the group for lack of common property.

A. 11-115

B. 10-90

C. 9-72

D. 8-56

Q. 18 Which one of the following responses would be a meaning full descending order of the following?

1 Major

2 Captain

3 Colonel

4 Brigadier

5 Lt.General

A. 5,4,3,1,2

B. 5,1,4,2,3

C. 4,5,1,3,2

D. 3,4,2,5,1

Q. 19 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary

1 Dissident

2 Dissolve

3 Dissent

4 Dissolute

5 Dissolution

A. 3,1,4,5,2

B. 3,2,1,4,5

C. 3,1,4,2,5

D. 3,2,4,5,1

Q. 20 Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

__cb__cab__baca__cba__ab

A. cabcb

B. abccb

C. bacbc

D. bcaba

Q. 21 Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

4,196,16,169,?,144,64

A. 21

B. 81

C. 36

D. 32

Q. 22 Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

8,15,36,99,288,……?….

A. 368

B. 676

C. 855

D. 908

Q. 23 Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

XYZCBAUVWFE….?…..?….

A. DR

B. RS

C. DS

D. MN

Q. 24 Choose the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

reoc,pgme,nikg,lkii….?….

A. acef

B. jmgk

C. efgh

D. wxyz

A. Uncle

B. Son

C. Brother

D. No relation

Q. 26 Find the wrong number in the series.

6,9,15,22,51,99

A. 99

B. 51

C. 22

D. 15

Q. 27 In a row of girls, Kamla is 9th from the left and Veena is 16th from the right. If they interchange their positions, Kamla becomes 25th from the left. How many girls are there in the row?

A. 34

B. 36

C. 40

D. 41

Q. 28 Ravi has spend a quarter of his life as a boy, one fifth as a youth, one third as a man and 13 years in old age, What is his present age?

A. 70 years

B. 80 years

C. 60 years

D. 65 years

A. West

B. South

C. North

D. East

Q. 30 At what time are the hands of clocks together between 6 and 7?

A. 32 8/11 minutes past 6

B. 34 8/11 minutes past 6

C. 30 8/11 minutes past 6

D. 32 5/7 minutes past 6

A. 30

B. 35

C. 40

D. 45

Q. 32 Suresh was born on 4th october 1999. Shashikanth was born 6 days before Suresh. The independence day of that year fell on Sunday. Which day was Shashikanth born?

A. Tuesday

B. Wednesday

C. Monday

D. Sunday

Q. 33 From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:

‘CONCENTRATION’

A. CONCERN

B. NATION

C. TRAIN

D. CENTRE

A. 5/18

B. 4/9

C. 11/18

D. 17/36

Q. 35 If a man on a moped starts from a point and 4 km south, then turns and rides 2 km to turn again to the right to ride 4 km more, towards which direction is he moving?

A. North

B. West

C. East

D. South

A. 12 m

B. 10 m

C. 8 m

D. 6 m

Q. 37 Two statements are given by 4 inferences. Select the alternative which is most appropriate.

Statements:

1 India is becoming industrial.

2 Pollution is a problem associated with industrialization.

Inferences:

1 All industrial centers are polluted.

2 India is polluted

3 Polluted nations are industrialized

4 India may become polluted

A. All are appropriate

B. None is appropriate

C. only 4 is appropriate

D. Only 2 is appropriate

Q. 38 From the given alternative words, select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word:

‘DETERMINATION’

A. DECLARATION

B. NATIONAL

C. TERMINATED

D. DEVIATED

Q. 39 If in a certain code HYDROGEN is written as JCJZYSSD, then how ANTIMONY be written in that code?

A. CPVKOQPA

B. CRZQWABO

C. ERXMQSRC

D. GTZOSUTE

Q. 40 If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662 then how can CALICUT coded?

A. 5279431

B. 5978013

C. 8251896

D. 8543691

Q. 41 Select the missing numbers from the given responses

A. 8

B. 3

C. 6

D. 36

Q. 42 Select the missing numbers from the given responses

A. 60

B. 68

C. 55

D. 65

Q. 43 How many rectangles are there in the given diagram?

A. 4

B. 7

C. 9

D. 18

Q. 44 Which of the following diagrams represents the relationship among Sun , Moon and Star?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 45 Some equations have been solved on the basis of a certain system. Find the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.

If 9*7 = 32, 13*7 = 120, 17*9 = 208, then 19*11 = ?

A. 150

B. 180

C. 210

D. 240

Q. 46 Forecast the growth rate for the year 1995 from the following data:

A. 7.8

B. 8.6

C. 9.7

D. 9.9

Q. 47 If ‘-‘ stands for ‘/’ , ‘+’ stand for ‘*’, ‘/’ for ‘-‘ and ‘*’ for ‘+’, which one of the following equation is correct?

A. 30-6+5*4/2 = 27

B. 30+6-5/4*2 = 30

C. 30*6/5-4+2 = 32

D. 30/6*5+4-2 = 40

Q. 48 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the questions figure is hidden/embedded.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 49 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the correct image of the given question figures?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 50 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 51 Judicial review in the indian constitution is based on :

A. Rule of law

B. Due process of law

C. Procedure established by law

D. Precedents and conventions

Q. 52 The drafting of the constitution was completed on:

A. 26th jan 1950

B. 26th dec 1949

C. 26th nov 1949

D. 30th nov 1949

Q. 53 Who was the president of the constitution assembly?

A. pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru

B. Sardar patel

C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

D. Dr. B.R.Ambedkar

Q. 54 Which innovative discussion process is introduced by the Indian parliament to the world parliamentary system?

A. Question hour

B. Zero hour

C. Resolutions

D. Presidential speech

Q. 55 The judges of the supreme court retire at the age of:

A. 60 years

B. 65 years

C. 62 years

D. 58 years

Q. 56 When there is an official change in the exchange rate of domestic currency, then it is called:

A. Appreciation

B. Depreciation

C. Revalution

D. Deflation

Q. 57 Inflation redistributes income and wealth in favour of:

A. Pensioners

B. Poor

C. Middle class

D. rich

Q. 58 The fringe benefit tax was introduced in the budget of:

A. 2003-04

B. 2004-05

C. 2005-06

D. 2006-07

Q. 59 In the budget estimates for 2011-12, an allocation of: 400 crore has been made to bring in green revolution in the east in the cropping system of:

A. Wheat

B. Rice

C. Jowar

D. Pulses

Q. 60 As announced by finance minister in his budget speech on 28-2-2011, the income tax exemption limit for individuals other than senior citizens and women has been raised to

A. Rs. 1,80,000

B. Rs. 1,90,000

C. Rs. 2,00,000

D. Rs. 2,50,000

Q. 61 Who among the following british persons, admitted the revolt of 1857 as a national revolt?

A. Lord Dalhousie

B. Lord Canning

C. Lord Ellenborough

D. Lord Disraeli

Q. 62 The greek ambassador sent to chandragupta maurya’s court was:

A. Kautilya

B. Seleucus Nicator

C. Megasthenes

D. Justin

Q. 63 Identify the European power from whom shivaji obtained cannons and ammunitions

A. The french

B. The Portuguese

C. The dutch

D. The English

Q. 64 The call of “Back to vedas” was given by

A. Swami vivekananda

B. swami dayanand saraswati

C. aurobindo ghosh

D. raja ram mohan roy

Q. 65 Simon commission was boycotted by the, nationalist leaders of india because

A. they felt it was only an eyewash

B. all the members of the commission were english

C. the members of the commissions were biased against india

D. it did not meet the demands of indians

Q. 66 The lowest layer of atmosphere is

A. Stratosphere

B. thermosphere

C. Troposphere

D. Mesosphere

Q. 67 The konkan railway connects

A. Goa – mangalore

B. Roha – mangalore

C. Kanyakumari – mangalore

D. Kanyakumari – Mumbai

Q. 68 Bark of this tree is used as a condiment

A. Cinnamon

B. Clove

C. Neem

D. Palm

Q. 69 How much of the earth’s land surface is desert?

A. 1/10th

B. 1/5th

C. 1/3rd

D. 1/6th

Q. 70 Which of the following is called the ‘shrimp capital of India’?

A. Mangalore

B. Nagapatnam

C. Kochi

D. Nellore

Q. 71 River indus originates from

A. Hindukush range

B. Himalayan range

C. Karakoram range

D. Kailash range

Q. 72 The atmospheric air is held to the earth by

A. gravity

B. winds

C. cloud

D. rotation of earth

Q. 73 The function of ball bearings in a ring is

A. to increase friction

B. to convert kinetic friction into rolling friction

C. to convert static friction into kinetic friction

D. just for convenience

Q. 74 ‘Shock – absorbers’ are usually made of steel as it

A. is not brittle

B. has lower elasticity

C. has higher elasticity

D. hasno ductile property

Q. 75 The first computer made available for commercial use was

A. MANIAC

B. ENIAC

C. UNIVAC

D. EDSAC

Q. 76 A communications network which is used by large organisations over regional, national or global area is called

A. LAN

B. WAN

C. MAN

D. VAN

Q. 77 Who was the architecture of north and south blocks of the central secretariat in Delhi?

A. Sir edward lutyens

B. Herbert Baker

C. Robert tor Russell

D. Antonin Raymond

Q. 78 Saliva helps in the digestion of

A. Fats

B. Starch

C. Proteins

D. Vitamins

Q. 79 The longest bone in the human body is

A. Ulna

B. Humerus

C. Femur

D. Tibia

Q. 80 Red data book gives information about species which are

A. extinct

B. endangered

C. dangerous

D. rare

Q. 81 Which of the following is the smallest bird?

A. pigeon

B. parrot

C. Humming bird

D. Houise sparrow

Q. 82 The time period of a pendulum when taken to the moon would

A. remain the same

B. decrease

C. become zero

D. increase

Q. 83 Indian army’s operation ‘Saiyam’ was related to

A. Kashmir

B. Indo-China border in central region

C. North-East

D. Indo-pak border in punjab and rajasthan

Q. 84 Which of the following can be used as fuel in propellant or rockets?

A. Liquid Hydrogen + Liquid Nitrogen

B. Liquid oxygen + Liquid argon

C. Liquid nitrogen + Liquid oxygen

D. Liquid hydrogen + Liquid oxygen

Q. 85 The addition of gypsum of portland cement helps in

A. increasing the strength of cement

B. rapid setting of cement

C. preventing rapid setting of cement

D. reduction in the cost of cement

Q. 86 White lung disease is prevalent among the workers of

A. paper industry

B. cement industry

C. Cotton industry

D. pesticide industry

Q. 87 Iodoform is used as an

A. antipyretic

B. analgestic

C. antiseptic

D. anaesthetic

Q. 88 An artificial ecosystem is represented by

A. pisciculture tank

B. agricultural land

C. zoo

D. aquarium

Q. 89 The constituents of automobile exhaust that can cause cancer are

A. Oxides of nitrogen

B. Carbon monoxide

C. Polycyclic hydrocarbon

D. lead

Q. 90 The optimum dissolved oxygen level required for survival of aquatic organisms is

A. 4 – 6

B. 2 – 4

C. 8 – 10

D. 12 – 16

Q. 91 The world’s only floating national park is situated in

A. Manipur

B. Kuala Lumpur

C. Bilaspur

D. Dispur

A. Tamil naidu

B. Kerala

C. Punjab

D. Gujarat

Q. 93 The ‘project snow leopard’ to conserve the endangered species, launched by the union ministry of environment and forests covers the states of

A. Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal pradesh only

B. Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal pradesh and uttarakhand only

C. Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal pradesh, uttarakhand and arunachal pradesh only

D. Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal pradesh, uttarakhand and arunachal pradesh and sikkim

Q. 94 In the railway budget for 2011-2012, an outlay of Rs.57,630 crore has been announced for adding new lines with length of

A. 1000 km

B. 1200 km

C. 1300 km

D. 1500 km

Q. 95 The strong earthquake-cum-tsunami which has moved japan’s main island by a few feet and has caused the earth’s axis to wobble is expected to lead to the shortening of the day by

A. 1.6 microseconds

B. 2.3 microseconds

C. 3.1 microseconds

D. 3.4 microseconds

Q. 96 Which of the following folk/tribal dances is associated with uttar pradesh

A. veedhi

B. thora

C. tamasha

D. rauf

Q. 97 Which of the following books has been written by atiq rahimi

A. earth and ashes

B. This savage rite

C. The red devil

D. Witness the night

Q. 98 Who is the recipient of the sahitya akademi award 2010 in hindi literatur category?

A. uday prakash

B. laxman dubey

C. nanjil nandan

D. mangat badal

Q. 99 The 2010 FIFA World cup final was held at

A. Paris

B. Berlin

C. Johannesburg

D. London

Q. 100 Who received sangeet natak akademi’s ustad bismillah khan yuva puruskar for 2009 in ‘hindustani vocal music’?

A. Omkar shrikant dadarkar

B. ragini chander shekar

C. abanti chakravorty and sukracharya rabha

D. k. nellai Manikandan

Q. 101 The value of given equation is

A. 4

B. 0

C. √2

D. 3√6

Q. 102 What is the answer of the given equation

A. 2.3

B. 3

C. 6

D. 6.3

Q. 103 What is the square root of the given equation

A. √3 + √2

B. √3 – √2

C. √2 +_ √3

D. √2 – √3

Q. 104 The remainder when 3²¹ is divided is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 105 What is the value of the given equation?

A. 38/109

B. 109/38

C. 1

D. 116/109

Q. 106 The last digit of (1001)²⁰⁰⁸ + 1002 is

A. 0

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6

Q. 107 The given equation is equal to?

A. 5/9

B. 1-1/7

C. 4/7

D. 1-2/7

Q. 108 If the sum of two numbers be multiplied by each number separately, the product so obtained are 247 and 114. The sum of the numbers is

A. 19

B. 20

C. 21

D. 23

Q. 109 Find a number, one-seventh of which exceeds its eleventh part by 100

A. 1925

B. 1825

C. 1540

D. 1340

Q. 110 If x*y = (x+3)²(y-1) then the value of 5 * 4 is

A. 192

B. 182

C. 180

D. 172

Q. 111 Answer of the given equation is

A. 10

B. 100

C. 1000

D. none of these

Q. 112 If 9√x = √12 + √147 then x = ?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Q. 113 A and B can complete a piece of work in 8 days, B and C can do it in 12 days, C and A can do it in 8 days.A,B and C together can complete it in

A. 4 days

B. 5 days

C. 6 days

D. 7 days

Q. 114 X is 3 times as fast as Y and is able to complete the work in 40 days less then Y. Then the time in which they can complete the work together is

A. 15 days

B. 10 days

C. 7.5 days

D. 5 days

Q. 115 A copper wire is bent in the shape of a square of area 81 cm². If the same wire is bent in the form of a semicircle, the radius of the semicircle is (take pie = 22/7)

A. 16

B. 14

C. 10

D. 7

Q. 116 The volume (in m³) of rain water that can be collected from 1.5 hectares of ground in a rainfall of 5 cm is

A. 75

B. 750

C. 7500

D. 75000

Q. 117 A river 3 m deep and 40 m wide is flowing at the rate of 2 km per hour. How much water (in liters) will fall in the sea in a minute?

A. 4,00,000

B. 40,00,000

C. 40,000

D. 4,000

Q. 118 The L.C.M of three different number is 120. Which of the following cannot be their H.C.F?

A. 8

B. 12

C. 24

D. 35

Q. 119 A number when divided by 49 leaves 32 as reminder. This number when divided by 7 will have the reminder as

A. 2

B. 3

C. 2

D. 5

A. 35

B. 40

C. 42

D. 46

A. 10:16:54 am

B. 10:18:36 am

C. 10:17:02 am

D. 10:22:12 am

Q. 122 A can do a work in 12 days. When he had worked for 3 days, B joined him. If they can complete the work in 3 days, in how many days can B alone finish the work?

A. 6 days

B. 12 days

C. 4 days

D. 8 days

Q. 123 Among three numbers, the first is twice the second and thrice the third. If the average of the three numbers is 49.5, then the difference between the first and the third number is

A. 54

B. 28

C. 39.5

D. 41.5

Q. 124 The mean of 50 numbers is 30. Later it was discovered that two entries were wrongly entered as 82 and 13 instead of 28 and 31. Find the correct mean.

A. 36.12

B. 30.66

C. 29.28

D. 38.21

Q. 125 A bicycle wheel makes 5000 revolutions in moving 11 km. Then the radius of the wheel (in am) is (take pie = 22/7)

A. 70

B. 35

C. 17.5

D. 140

Q. 126 The perimeter of a triangle is 40 cm and its area is 60 cm². If the largest side measures 17cm, then the length (in cm ) of the smallest side of the triangle is

A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 15

Q. 127 A shopkeeper allows a discount of 10 % to his customers and still gains 20%. Find the market price of the article which costs?

A. Rs 600

B. Rs 540

C. Rs 660

D. 580

Q. 128 What single discount is equivalent to two successive discounts of 20 % and 15%?

A. 35%

B. 32%

C. 34%

D. 30%

Q. 129 In a business partnership among A,B,C and D the profit is hard as follows:

What is the total profit

A. Rs 21,12,500

B. Rs 1,37,500

C. Rs 90,000

D. Rs 2,70,000

A. 10

B. 20

C. 21

D. 25

Q. 131 What number should be added to or subtracted from each term of the ratio 17 : 24 so that it becomes equal to 1 : 2?

A. 5 is subtracted

B. 10 is added

C. 7 is added

D. 10 is subtracted

Q. 132 The ratio of weekly income of A and B is 9 : 7 and the ratio of their expenditures is 4 : 3. If each saves Rs. 200 per week, then the sum of their weekly income is?

A. Rs 3600

B. Rs 4200

C. Rs 4800

D. Rs 5600

Q. 133 If 30% of A is added to 40% of B, the answer is 80 % of B. What percent of A is B?

A. 30%

B. 40%

C. 70%

D. 75%

Q. 134 A man can row 6 km/h in still water. If the speed of current is 2 km/h , it takes 3 hours more in upstream than in downstream for the same distance. The distance is

A. 30 km

B. 24 km

C. 20 km

D. 32 km

Q. 135 If the selling price of 10 articles is equal to the cost price of 11 articles, then the gain percentage is

A. 10

B. 11

C. 15

D. 25

Q. 136 While selling a watch, a shopkeeper gives discount of 5%. If he gives discount of 6%, he earns Rs.15 less as profit. What is the marked price of the watch?

A. Rs 1250

B. Rs 1400

C. Rs 1500

D. Rs 750

Q. 137 Krishna purchased a number of articles for Rs.10 for each and the same number for Rs.14 each. He mixed them together and sold them for Rs.13 each. Then his gain or loss percent is :

A. Loss 8 1/3 %

B. Gain 8 2/3%

C. Loss 8 2/3%

D. Gain 8 1/3%

Q. 138 A trader bought two horses for Rs.19500. He sold one at a loss of 20% and other at a profit of 15%. If the selling price of each horse is the same then the cost price of them respectively are

A. Rs.10000 and Rs.9500

B. Rs.11500 and Rs.8000

C. Rs.12000 and Rs.7500

D. Rs.10500 and Rs.9000

Q. 139 The cost price of an article is 40% of the selling price. What percent of the cost price is the selling price?

A. 140%

B. 200%

C. 220%

D. 250%

Q. 140 IF 90% of A = 30% of B and B = 2x% of A, then the value of x is

A. 450

B. 400

C. 300

D. 150

Q. 141 When the price of sugar decreases by 10%, a man could by 1 kg more for Rs.270. Then the original price of sugar per kg is

A. Rs. 25

B. Rs. 30

C. Rs. 27

D. Rs. 32

Q. 142 If the price of sugar is raised by 25%, find by how much percent a householder must reduce his consumption of sugar so as not to increase his expenditure?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 18

D. 25

Q. 143 The difference between the compound interest and simple interest on Rs. 10000 for two years is Rs. 25. The rate of interest per annum is

A. 5%

B. 7%

C. 10%

D. 12%

A. 5

B. 4

C. 3

D. 1

Q. 145 A sum of money placed at compound interest doubles itself in 4 years. In how many years will it amount to 4 times itself?

A. 12 years

B. 13 years

C. 8 years

D. 16 years

Q. 146 The simple interest on a sum for 5 years is one-fourth of the sum. The rate of interest per annum is

A. 5%

B. 6%

C. 4%

D. 8%

Q. 147 The following graph shows the demand and production of cotton by 5 companies. Observe it and answer the question

The production of company D is how many times that of the production of company A?

A. 1.8

B. 1.5

C. 0.5

D. 0.4

Q. 148 The following graph shows the demand and production of cotton by 5 companies. Observe it and answer the question

The demand of company B is what percent of demand for company C?

A. 1.5

B. 2.5

C. 25

D. 30

Q. 149 The following graph shows the demand and production of cotton by 5 companies. Observe it and answer the question

What is the ratio of companies having more demand than production to those having more production then demand?

A. 2:3

B. 4:1

C. 3:2

D. 1:4

Q. 150 The following graph shows the demand and production of cotton by 5 companies. Observe it and answer the question

What is the difference (in tonnes) between average demand and average production of the five companies taken together?

A. 320

B. 420

C. 2100

D. 1050

Q. 151 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. His son

B. is working

C. very hardly

D. no error

Q. 152 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. Do you know that it was I

B. who has done

C. this piece of beautiful work?

D. no error

Q. 153 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. The company has ordered

B. some

C. new equipments

D. no error

Q. 154 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. The future of food companies

B. seems quite secure

C. owed to ever growing demand

D. no error

Q. 155 Mark the option which has error, if not then mark the option d

A. The vaccine

B. When hit the indian market

C. is dogged by controversy

D. no error

Q. 156 If you had followed the rules, you _______ disqualified.

A. will not be

B. would not be

C. will not have been

D. would not have been

Q. 157 The housewife ____ the cakes burning, and ran to switch off the oven

A. Smell

B. Smells

C. Smelt

D. Smelling

Q. 158 _____ an old legend, King Shirharm lived in India.

A. In the event of

B. Due to

C. According to

D. In reference to

Q. 159 _____ you leave no, you will be late.

A. Until

B. Till

C. Unless

D. Although

Q. 160 The ____ were arrested for illegally hunting the bears.

A. Poachers

B. rangers

C. soldiers

D. villagers

Q. 161 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

GENIAL

A. cordial

B. Unselfish

C. Careful

D. Specific

Q. 162 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

ACCRUE

A. Accumluate

B. Accommodate

C. Grow

D. Suffice

Q. 163 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

LOQUACIOUS

A. Talkative

B. slow

C. Content

D. Unclear

Q. 164 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

VINDICTIVE

A. Imaginative

B. Accusative

C. Spiteful

D. Aggressive

Q. 165 Choose the word which give the correct meaning of the given word

INCLEMENT

A. Selfish

B. Active

C. Unfavorable

D. Inactive

Q. 166 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

SYNTHETIC

A. Natural

B. Plastic

C. Cosmetic

D. Apathetic

Q. 167 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

ACCORD

A. Disagreement

B. Welcome

C. Disrespect

D. Confromity

Q. 168 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

INFIRMITY

A. Employment

B. Indisposition

C. Strength

D. Weakness

Q. 169 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

FEASIBLE

A. Useful

B. Impractical

C. Uneven

D. Important

Q. 170 Choose the opposite of the given word from the given options

METICULOUS

A. Forgetful

B. Destructive

C. Careless

D. Flagrant

Q. 171 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

To be all at sea

A. a family voyage

B. lost and confused

C. in the middle of the ocean

D. a string of islands

Q. 172 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

TO take to one’s heels

A. to walk slowly

B. to run away

C. to march forward

D. to hop and jump

Q. 173 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

To bite the dust

A. cat voraciously

B. have nothing to eat

C. cat roots

D. none of the above

Q. 174 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

A bolt from the blue

A. a delayed event

B. an inexplicable event

C. an unexpected event

D. an unpleasant event

Q. 175 Choose the alternative which gives the meaning for the given phrase

Cold comfort

A. absurdity

B. deception

C. slight satisfaction

D. foolish proposal

Q. 176 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

My friend lives in a nearby street WHOSE NAME i have forgotten

A. the name of which

B. which name

C. of which name

D. no improvement

Q. 177 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

HE BOTH WON A MEDAL AND A SCHOLARSHIP

A. He won a medal and a scholarship both

B. Both he won a medal and a scholarship

C. He won both a medal and a scholarship

D. No improvement

Q. 178 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

HE HAS FOR GOOD LEFT INDIA

A. He has left for good

B. He has left india for good

C. Good he has left india

D. No improvement

Q. 179 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

WE ARE CREDIBLY INFORMED THAT THE MURDERER HAS GIVEN HIMSELF UP.

A. We are informed that the murderer has credibly given himself up

B. We are informed that the murderer has given credibly himself up

C. We are informed that credibly the murderer has given up himself

D. No improvement

Q. 180 Select the proper replacement of the part written in capital.

We generally select ONE OF THE MOST INTELLIGENT STUDENT OF THE SCHOOL for this award

A. one of the most intelligent student of school

B. one of the intelligent most student of school

C. one of the intelligent most students of the school

D. no improvement

Q. 181 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

Pertaining to cattle

A. Canine

B. Feline

C. Bovine

D. Verminous

Q. 182 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

To look at someone in an angry or threatening way

A. Glower

B. Gnaw

C. Gnash

D. Grind

Q. 183 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

A post with little work but high salary

A. Director

B. Trustee

C. Sinecure

D. Ombudsman

Q. 184 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

Something that causes death

A. Dangerous

B. Fatal

C. Brutal

D. Horrible

Q. 185 Choose the word which can be substituted for given sentence

A person who writes decoratively

A. Calligrapher

B. Collier

C. Choreographer

D. Cartographer

Q. 186 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. malaign

B. arraign

C. asigne

D. degine

Q. 187 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. harrassment

B. embarrasment

C. fulfillment

D. denoument

Q. 188 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. agnostik

B. accomplice

C. advercity

D. acrimonous

Q. 189 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. dysentery

B. momentary

C. cementary

D. comentary

Q. 190 From the given words in the options, choose the one with correct spelling

A. ebulient

B. jubilant

C. iminent

D. tolemt

Q. 191 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. problem

B. question

C. matter

D. query

Q. 192 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. around

B. out

C. about

D. on

Q. 193 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. since

B. during

C. around

D. from

Q. 194 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. ideas

B. opinions

C. stories

D. matters

Q. 195 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. solution

B. novel

C. book

D. answer

Q. 196 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. read

B. think

C. open

D. guess

Q. 197 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. now

B. time

C. then

D. ago

Q. 198 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. moon

B. time

C. earth

D. mars

Q. 199 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. part

B. division

C. opening

D. center

Q. 200 Some words have been left in the passage, fill in the blanks with the help of alternatives given

A. end

B. begin

C. think

D. work

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	D	C	C	C	D	B	A	B	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	A	B	C	B	B	A	A	A	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	C	A	B	D	C	C	C	D	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	B	D	C	D	B	C	C	A	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	D	D	D	C	A	C	C	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	C	C	C	B	C	D	C	B	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	C	B	B	B	C	B	A	B	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	A	B	C	C	B	B	B	C	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	D	D	D	B	D	C	D	D	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	B	D	C	C	B	A	A	C	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	B	B	A	C	A	B	B	A	A	A
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	B	C	A	D	B	D	D	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	A	A	C	B	C	A	B	C	C
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	D	C	D	B	A	C	D	B	D	D
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	B	B	A	B	C	A	A	C	C	B
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	B	D	C	C	D	C	C	C	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	A	A	A	C	C	A	A	C	B	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	B	B	D	C	C	D	C	B	A	A
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	C	A	C	B	A	B	C	B	A	B
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	C	C	D	B	D	B	D	C	A	C

SSC CGL Tier-I 16 May 2010 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2010 16 May Shift 1

Directions (1-8): In each of the following questions, select the related letters/word/number from the given alternatives.

Q. 1 ACEG : SUWY :: BDFH : ?

A. TVZX

B. RTZV

C. TVXZ

D. RTVZ

Q. 2 M/AC : N/AD :: O/AE : ?

A. P/AF

B. Q/AB

C. P/AC

D. R/AD

Q. 3 5 : 27 :: 9 : ?

A. 83

B. 81

C. 36

D. 18

Q. 4 6 : 11 :: 11 : ?

A. 6

B. 17

C. 20

D. 30

Q. 5 ABE : 8 :: KLO : ?

A. 37

B. 39

C. 38

D. 36

Q. 6 Sty : Pig : : Byre : ?

A. Eagle

B. Cow

C. Tiger

D. Hen

Q. 7 Patrol : Security : : Insurance : ?

A. Money

B. Policy

C. Savings

D. Risk

Q. 8 ADBC : EHFG :: ILJK : ?

A. MOPN

B. MPNO

C. ORPQ

D. MPON

Q. 9 Select the different one.

A. 25 , 36

B. 144 , 169

C. 100 , 121

D. 9 , 64

Q. 10 Select the different one.

A. heat

B. light

C. bulb

D. electricity

Q. 11 Select the different one.

A. wave

B. current

C. tide

D. storm

Q. 12 Select the different one.

A. X

B. Y

C. H

D. D

Q. 13 Select the different one.

A. ZKXJ

B. CMAL

C. TGRF

D. FRTK

Q. 14 Select the different one.

A. ABJNM

B. QRTUZ

C. IXYOQ

D. WFGOP

Q. 15 Arrange the following words according to the dictionary ?

1. Inventory

2. Involuntary

3. Invisible

4. Invariable

5. Investigate

A. 4 , 2 , 5 , 3 , 1

B. 4 , 5 , 1 , 3 , 2

C. 2 , 5 , 4 , 1 , 3

D. 4 , 1 , 5 , 3 , 2

Q. 16 Find the next two letters in the given series. B C E H L ?

A. XY

B. MN

C. QW

D. OP

Q. 17 Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?

a_ b_ a_ _n_bb_abbn

A. abnabb

B. bnbban

C. bnbbna

D. babban

Q. 18 Find out a set of numbers amongst the four sets of numbers given in the alternatives, which is the most similar to the numbers given in the question. Given : (6, 30, 90)

A. 6 , 42 , 86

B. 7 , 42 , 218

C. 6 , 24 , 70

D. 8 , 48 , 192

Q. 19 Which one number is wrong in the given series?

126, 98, 70, 41, 14

A. 98

B. 70

C. 126

D. 41

Q. 20 Arrange the following in the meaningful/logical order

1. Exhaust

2. Night

3. Day

4. Sleep

5. Work

A. 1 , 3 , 5 , 2 , 4

B. 3 , 5 , 1 , 4 , 2

C. 3 , 5 , 1 , 2 , 4

D. 3 , 5 , 2 , 1 , 4

Q. 21 3, 4, 7, 11, 18, 29,…?…

A. 31

B. 39

C. 43

D. 47

Q. 22 AGMSY, CIOUA, EKQWC,…?… IOUAG, KQWCI

A. GMSYE

B. FMSYE

C. GNSYD

D. FMYES

Q. 23 975, 864, 753, 642,…?…

A. 431

B. 314

C. 531

D. 532

Q. 24 8, 24, 12,…?…18,54

A. 28

B. 36

C. 46

D. 38

Q. 25 Ashok’s mother was 3 times as old as Ashok 5 years ago. After 5 years she will be twice as old as Ashok. How old is Ashok today ?

A. 10 years

B. 15 years

C. 20 years

D. 25 years

Q. 26 M is the son of P. Q is the grand daughter of 0 who is the husband of P. How is M related to O?

A. son

B. daughter

C. mother

D. father

Q. 27 In a row of boys, Srinath is 7th from the left and Venkat is 12th from the right. If they interchange their positions, Srinath becomes 22nd from the left. How many boys are there in the row ?

A. 19

B. 31

C. 33

D. 34

Q. 28 From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word Given :

IMPASSIONABLE

A. IMPASSABLE

B. IMPOSSIBLE

C. IMPASSIVE

D. IMPASSION

Q. 29 Only one meaningful word can be formed by rearranging the letter of the given jumbled word. Find out that word.

Given : MUSPOPAPOTIH

A. METAMORPHIC

B. PHILANTHROPIST

C. HIPPOCAMPUS

D. HIPPOPOTAMUS

Q. 30 Which number is wrong in the given series ?

1, 9, 25, 50, 81

A. 1

B. 25

C. 50

D. 81

Q. 31 A bus leaves Delhi with half the number of women as men. A Meerut, ten men get down and live women get in. Now there are equa number of men and women. Ho many passengers boarded the bus initially at Delhi ?

A. 36

B. 45

C. 15

D. 30

Q. 32 If the day before yesterday wa Sunday, what day will it be thre days after the day after tomorrow

A. Sunday

B. Monday

C. Wednesday

D. Saturday

Q. 33 Directions (33): In the following question, one statement is given followed by two assumptions I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given

assumptions, if any, follow from the given statement.

Statement: Politicians become rich by the votes of the people.

Assumptions: I. People vote to make politician rich.

II. Politicians become rich by their virtue.

A. Only I is implicit

B. Only II is implicit

C. Both I and II are implicit

D. Both I and II are not implicit

Q. 34 Directions (34): In the following question, two statements P and Q are given followed by four conclusions I II, III and IV. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if the seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide whit of the given conclusions, if any, folio the given statements.

Statements:

P. All men are women.

Q. All women are crazy.

Conclusions :

I. All men are crazy.

II. All the crazy are men.

III. Some of the crazy are men.

IV. Some of the crazy are women

A. None of the conclusions follow

B. All the conclusions follow

C. Only I, III and IV follow

D. Only II and III follow

Q. 35 If HOSPITAL is written as 32574618 in a certain code, how would POSTAL be written in that code?

A. 752618

B. 725618

C. 725168

D. 725681

Q. 36 Find the missing number from the given responses.

173 (24) 526

431 (18) 325

253 (?) 471

A. 22

B. 42

C. 30

D. 6

Q. 37 After interchanging ÷ and +, 12 and 18, which one of the following equations becomes correct?

A. (90 x 18) + 18 = 60

B. (18 +6) ÷ 12 = 2

C. (72 =18) x 18 = 72

D. (12 + 6) x 18 = 36

Q. 38 If SPARK is coded as TQBSL, what will be the code for FLAME ?

A. GMBNF

B. GNBNF

C. GMCND

D. GMBMF

Q. 39 Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on the basis of the given equations. If 6*5 = 91

8 * 7 = 169

10*7 = 211

then 11 * 10 = ?

A. 331

B. 993

C. 678

D. 845

Q. 40 A child is looking for his father. He went 90 metres in the east before turning to his right. He went 20 metres before turning to his right again to look for his father at his uncle’s place 30 metres from this point. His father was not here. From here he went 100 metres to his north before meeting his father in a street. How far did the son meet his father from the starting point?

A. 90 m

B. 100 m

C. 260 m

D. 140 m

Q. 41 In the following question, A stands for any of the mathematical signs at different places, which are given as choices under each question. Select the choice with the correct sequence of signs which when substituted makes the question as a correct equation.

24 D 4 D 5 D 4

A. x + =

B. = x +

C. + x =

D. = + x

Q. 42 What is the number missing from the third target?

5 9 15

16 29 ?

49 89 147

A. 45

B. 48

C. 51

D. 54

Q. 43 In a classroom, there are 5 rows, and 5 children A, B, C, D and E are seated one behind the other in 5 separate rows as follows: A is sitting behind C, but in front of B. C is sitting behind E. D is sitting in front of E. The order in which they are sitting from the first row to the last is

A. DECAB

B. BACED

C. ACBDE

D. ABEDC

Q. 44 Little wooden cubes each with a side of one inch are put together to form a solid cube with a side of three inches. This big cube is then painted red all over on the outside. When the big cube is broken up into the original little ones, how any cubes will have paint on two sides ?

A. 4

B. 8

C. 12

D. 0

Q. 45 K is a place which is located 2 km away in the north-west direction from the capital P. R is another place that is located 2 km away in the south-west direction from K. M is another place and that is located 2 km away in the north-west direction from R. T is yet another place that is located 2 km away in the south-west direction from M. In which direction is T located in relation to P ?

A. south-west

B. north-west

C. west

D. north

Q. 46 Find out which of the diagrams given in the alternatives correctly represents the

relationship stated in the question. Sharks, Whales, Turtles.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 47 Refer the figure and choose appropriately.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 48 How many triangles are there in the following figure ?

A. 11

B. 13

C. 9

D. 15

Q. 49 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded in the same direction.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 50 Which answer figure is the exact mirror image of the given question figure when the mirror is held from the right at PQ ?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 51 A concave lens always forms an image which is

A. real and erect

B. virtual and erect

C. real and inverted

D. virtual and inverted

Q. 52 A vitamin requires cobalt for its activity. The vitamin is

A. vitamin B12

B. Vitamin D

C. Vitamin B2

D. Vitamin A

Q. 53 One of the constituents of tear gas is

A. ethane

B. ethanol

C. ether

D. chloropicrin

Q. 54 The modulus of rigidity is the ratio of

A. longitudinal stress to longitudinal strain

B. Volume stress to volume strain

C. shearing stress to shearing strain

D. tensile stress to tensile strain

Q. 55 The propagation of sound waves in a gas involves

A. adiabatic compression and rarefaction

B. isothermal compression and rarefaction

C. isochoric compression and rarefaction

D. isobaric compression and rarefaction

Q. 56 An atomic clock is based on transitions in

A. sodium

B. caesium

C. magnesium

D. aluminium

Q. 57 Plasma membrane in eukaryotic cells is made up of

A. phospholipid

B. lipoprotein

C. phospholipo-protein

D. phospho-protein

Q. 58 Which one of the following is also called the ‘power plants’ of the cell ?

A. golgi body

B. mitochondrion

C. ribosome

D. lysosome

Q. 59 What is the chemical name of vinegar ?

A. citric acid

B. acetic acid

C. pyruvic acid

D. malic acid

Q. 60 Which of the following is not a property of heavy water’?

A. Boiling point of heavy water is lower than that or ordinary water

B. Density of heavy water is higher than that of ordinary water

C. Freezing point of heavy water is higher than that of ordinary water

D. It produces corrosion

Q. 61 In which of the following processes is energy released ?

A. Respiration

B. Photosynthesis

C. Ingestion

D. Absorption

Q. 62 Animals living in the three trunks are known as

A. arboreal

B. volant

C. amphibious

D. aquatic

Q. 63 Arrange the following in chronological order:

1. Tughlaqs

2. Lodis

3. Saiyids

4. Ilbari Turks

5. Khiljis

A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

B. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1

C. 2, 4, 5, 3, 1

D. 4, 5, 1, 3, 2

Q. 64 The book titled ‘The Indian War of Independence’ was written by

A. Krishna verma

B. Madame carna

C. B.G. Tilak

D. V.D. Savarkar

Q. 65 Who was the founder of the ‘Servants of India Society’?

A. G.K. Gokhale

B. M.G. Ranade

C. B.G. Tilak

D. Bipin Chandra Pal

Q. 66 The term ‘Caste’ was derived from

A. Portuguese

B. Dutch

C. German

D. English

Q. 67 The term “Greater India” denotes

A. Political unity

B. Cultural unity

C. Religious unity

D. Social unity

Q. 68 Formalised system of trading agreements with groups of countries is known as

A. trading blocks

B. trade ventures

C. trade partners

D. trade organizations

Q. 69 Mahatma Gandhi was profoundly influenced by the writings of

A. Bernard Shaw

B. Karl Marx

C. Lenin

D. Leo Tolstoy

Q. 70 Seismic sea waves which approach the coasts at greater force are known as:

A. tides

B. tsunami

C. current

D. cyclone

Q. 71 Depression formed due to deflating action of winds are called:

A. Playas

B. Yardang

C. Ventifacts

D. Sand Dunes

Q. 72 The land of maximum biodiversity is

A. tropical

B. temperate

C. monsoonal

D. equatorial

Q. 73 If input frequency of a full wave rectifier be n, then output frequency would be:

A. n/2

B. n

C. 3n/2

D. 2n

Q. 74 Heat transfer horizontally within the atmosphere is called

A. conduction

B. convection

C. absorption

D. advection

Q. 75 Indian Standard Time relates to

A. 75.5° E longitude

B. 82.5° E longitude

C. 90.5° E longitude

D. 0° longitude

Q. 76 Who is rightly called the “Father of Local Self Government” in India ?

A. Lord Mayo

B. Lord Ripon

C. Lord Curzon

D. Lord Clive

Q. 77 The Directive Principles of State Policy was adopted from the

A. British Constitution

B. Swiss Constitution

C. U.S. Constitution

D. Irish Constitution

Q. 78 Which is the second nearest star to the Earth after the Sun ?

A. vega

B. sirius

C. proxima centaur

D. alpha centauri

Q. 79 The two forms of democracy are

A. Parliamentary and Presidential

B. Direct and Indirect

C. Monarchical and Republican

D. Parliamentary and King

Q. 80 Which is an extra-Constitutional body ?

A. Language Commission

B. Planning Commission

C. Election Commission

D. Finance Commission

Q. 81 The Prime Minister of India is

A. elected

B. appointed

C. nominated

D. selected

Q. 82 Which is not an All India Service?

A. Indian Administration Service

B. Indian Police Service

C. Indian Foreign Service

D. Indian Forest Service

Q. 83 The forest in Sunderban is called

A. Scrub jungle

B. Mangrove

C. Deciduous forest

D. Tundra

Q. 84 Noise is measured in

A. watt

B. REM

C. Centrigrade

D. Decibel

Q. 85 Who among the following captured his third consecutive National Billiards title in the year 2009

A. Pankaj Advani

B. Devendra Joshi

C. Geet Sethi

D. Dhruv Sitawala

Q. 86 The Messenger Satellite launched by NASA is to study

A. mercury

B. venus

C. saturn

D. jupiter

Q. 87 What was the name of the ship that sank near the Paradip Port in September, 2009 causingan oil spill?

A. red rose

B. black rose

C. white rose

D. green rose

Q. 88 Who among the following has been honoured with the prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2007?

A. YashChopra

B. Ustsad Amjad Ali Khan

C. Manna Dey

D. A. Nageshwara Rao

Q. 89 An Intelligent terminal

A. has a microprocessor, but cannot be programmed by the user

B. can process small data processing jobs, with the use of a large CPU

C. interacts with the user in English

D. cannot take data from the user

Q. 90 Which one of the following is not a method of estimating National Income ?

A. Expenditure method

B. Product method

C. Matrix method

D. Income method

Q. 91 The monetary policy is India is formulated by

A. Central Government

B. Industrial Financial Corporation of India

C. Reserve Bank of India

D. Industrial Development Bank of India

Q. 92 A short-term government security paper is called

A. share

B. debenture

C. mutual fund

D. treasury bill

Q. 93 WTO basically promotes

A. Financial support

B. Global peace

C. Unilateral trade

D. Multilateral trade

Q. 94 Under which market condition do firms have excess capacity ?

A. Perfect competition

B. Monopolistic competition

C. Duopoly

D. Oligopoly

Q. 95 Price theory is also known as

A. Macro Economics

B. Development Economics

C. Public Economics

D. Micro Economics

Q. 96 At present, India is following

A. Fixed exchange rate

B. Floating exchange rate

C. Pegged up exchange rate

D. Pegged down exchange rate

Q. 97 Who among the following won the ‘ICC Cricketer of the Year Award’ for the year 2009 ?

A. M.S. Dhoni

B. Gautam Gambhir

C. Mitchell Johnson

D. Tillakaratne Dilshan

Q. 98 The bats can fly in the dark because

A. they can see the objects in darkness

B. they have weak legs and are likely to be attacked by predators

C. they generate flashes of light

D. they generate ultrasonic sound waves

Q. 99 What changes will happen to a bowl of ice and water kept at exactly zero degree Celsius ?

A. All ice will melt

B. All water will become ice

C. No change will happen

D. Only some ice will melt

Q. 100 National Income is the

A. Net National Product at market price

B. Net National Product at factor cost

C. Net Domestic Product at market price

D. Net domestic Product at factor cost

Q. 101 The H.C.F. and L.C.M. of, two numbers are 8 and 48 respectively. If one of the numbers is 24, then the other number is

A. 48

B. 36

C. 24

D. 16

Q. 102 The greatest number, which when subtracted from 5834, gives a number exactly divisible by each of 20, 28, 32 and 35, is

A. 1120

B. 174714

C. 5200

D. 5600

Q. 103 The ninth term of the sequence 0, 3, 8, 15, 24, 35…is

A. 63

B. 70

C. 80

D. 99

Q. 104 (0.125 + 0.027) / (0.25 – 0.15 + 0.09) is equal to

A. 0.3

B. 0.5

C. 0.8

D. 0.9

Q. 105 The sum of the series (1 + 0.6 + 0.06 + 0.006 + 0.0006 + ….) is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 106 (figure) is equal to

A. 34

B. 36

C. 38

D. 39

Q. 107 A number, when divided by 114, leaves remainder 21. If the same number is divided by 19, then the remainder will be

A. 1

B. 2

C. 7

D. 17

Q. 108 The square root of 0.09 is

A. 0.30

B. 0.03

C. 0.81

D. 0.081

Q. 109 The number 0. 121212…. in the P form p/q is equal to

A. 4/11

B. 2/11

C. 4/33

D. 2/33

Q. 110 If (3/5)³ (3/5)⁻⁶ = (3/5)²ˣ⁻¹ then x is equal to

A. -2

B. 2

C. -1

D. 1

Q. 111 Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4. Their L.C.M. is 84. The greater number is

A. 21

B. 24

C. 28

D. 84

Q. 112 A drum of kerosene is 3/4 full. When 30 litres of kerosene is 7 drawn from it, it remains 12 full. The capacity of the drum is

A. 120 l

B. 135 l

C. 150 l

D. 180 l

Q. 113 By what least number should 675 be multiplied so as to obtain a perfect cube number ?

A. 3

B. 5

C. 24

D. 40

Q. 114 (figure) is equal to

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 115 (figure) is equal to

A. 1/1000

B. 1/999

C. 1/99

D. 1/9

Q. 116 (4.41 x 0.16) / (2.1 x 1.6 x 0.21) is simplified to

A. 1

B. 0.1

C. 0.01

D. 10

Q. 117 If a and b are two odd positive integers, by which of the following integers is (a 4 – b 4) always divisible ?

A. 3

B. 6

C. 8

D. 12

Q. 118 If a = 1 and b = 9 , then the value of (a² + b² + ab) / (a³ – b³) is

A. 2

B. -2

C. 20

D. -20

Q. 119 (256 x 256 – 144 x 144) / 112 equals to

A. 420

B. 400

C. 360

D. 320

Q. 120 If a and b be positive integers such that a² – b² = 19, then the value of a is

A. 19

B. 20

C. 9

D. 10

Q. 121 If the ratio of cost price and selling price of an article be as 10 : 11, the percentage of profit is

A. 8

B. 10

C. 11

D. 15

Q. 122 A manufacturer marked an article at Rs. 50 and sold it allowing 20% discount. If his profit was 25%, then the cost price of the article was

A. Rs. 40

B. Rs. 35

C. Rs. 32

D. Rs. 30

Q. 123 A shopkeeper earns a profit of 12% on selling a book at 10% discount on the printed price. The ratio of the cost price and the printed price of the book is

A. 45 : 56

B. 45 : 51

C. 47 : 56

D. 47 : 51

Q. 124 By selling a bicycle for Rs. 2,850, a shopkeeper gains 14%. If the profit is reduced to 8%, then the selling price will be

A. Rs. 2600

B. Rs. 2700

C. Rs. 2800

D. Rs. 3000

Q. 125 By selling an article, a man makes a profit of 25% of its selling price. His profit per cent is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 126 If A’s income is 50% less than that of B’s, then B’s income is what per cent more than that of A?

A. 125

B. 100

C. 75

D. 50

Q. 127 1.14 expressed as a per cent of 1.9 is

A. 6%

B. 10%

C. 60%

D. 90%

Q. 128 Two natural numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5 and their product is 2160. The smaller of the numbers is

A. 36

B. 24

C. 18

D. 12

Q. 129 If 60% of A = 4 of B, then A is

A. 9 : 20

B. 20 : 9

C. 4 : 5

D. 5 : 4

Q. 130 Two successive price increase of 10% and 10% of an article are equivalent to a single price increase of

A. 19%

B. 20%

C. 21%

D. 22%

Q. 131 (Refer the image)

A. 5/12

B. 12/5

C. 5/7

D. 7/5

Q. 132 An equilateral triangle of side cm has its corners cut off to form a regular hexagon. Area (in cm2 of this regular hexagon will be

A. 3√3

B. 3√6

C. 6√3

D. 5√3/2

Q. 133 The length (in metres) of the longest rod that can he put in a room of dimensions 10 m x 10 m 5m is

A. 15√3

B. 15

C. 10√2

D. 5√3/2

Q. 134 If Rs. 1000 is divided between A and B in the ratio 3 : 2, then A will receive

A. Rs. 400

B. Rs. 500

C. Rs. 600

D. Rs. 800

Q. 135 What must be added to each term of the ratio 7 : 11, so as to make it equal to 3 : 4 ?

A. 8

B. 7.5

C. 6.5

D. 5

Q. 136 A sum of money at compound interest doubles itself in 15 years. It will become eight times of it self in

A. 45 years

B. 48 years

C. 54 years

D. 60 years

Q. 137 Buses start from a bus terminal with a speed of 20 km/hr at in tervals tervals of 10 minutes.

What is the speed of a man coming from the opposite direction towards the bus terminal if he meets the buses at intervals of 8 minutes ?

A. 3 km/hr

B. 4 km/hr

C. 5 km/hr

D. 7 km/hr

Q. 138 If the circumference of a circle is decreased by 50% then the per centage of decrease in its area is:

A. 25

B. 50

C. 60

D. 75

Q. 139 At what rate per cent per annum will a sum of Rs. 1,000 amount to Rs. 1,102.50 in 2 years at compound interest ?

A. 5

B. 5.5

C. 6

D. 6.5

Q. 140 What annual payment will discharge a debt of Rs. 6,450 due in 4 years at 5% per annum simple interest ?

A. Rs. 1400

B. Rs. 1500

C. Rs. 1550

D. Rs. 1600

Q. 141 The average of the first 100 positive integers is

A. 100

B. 51

C. 50.5

D. 49.5

Q. 142 In a family, the average age of a father and a mother is 35 years. The average age of the father, mother and their only son is 27 years. What is the age of the son?

A. 12 years

B. 11 years

C. 10.5 years

D. 10 years

Q. 143 If 5 men or 7 women can earn Rs. 5,250 per day, how much would 7 men and 13 women earn per day ?

A. Rs. 11600

B. Rs. 11700

C. Rs. 16100

D. Rs. 17100

Q. 144 If A and B together can complete a piece of work in 15 days and B alone in 20 days, in how many days can A alone complete the work ?

A. 60

B. 45

C. 40

D. 30

Q. 145 By walking at 3/4 of his usual speed, a man reaches his office 20 minutes later than his usual time. The usual time taken by him to reach his office is

A. 75 minutes

B. 60 minutes

C. 40 minutes

D. 30 minutes

Q. 146 A can complete a piece of work in 18 days, B in 20 days and C in 30 days. B and C together start the work and are forced to leave after 2 days. The time taken by A alone to complete the remaining work is

A. 10 days

B. 12 days

C. 15 days

D. 16 years

Q. 147 A train, 300 m long, passed a man, walking along the line in the same direction at the rate of 3 km/hr in 33 seconds. The speed of the train is

A. 30 km/hr

B. 32 km/hr

C. 328 km/hr

D. 358 km/hr

The pie chart, given here, represents the number of valid votes obtained by four students who contested election for school leadership. The total number of valid votes polled was 720.

Observe the chart and answer the questions based on it.

Q. 148 What was the minimum number of votes obtained by any candidate ?

A. 100

B. 110

C. 120

D. 130

Q. 149 What was the winner ?

A. Shivaram

B. Paramjeet

C. Yasin

D. Vishwanath

Q. 150 By how many votes did the winner defeat his nearest rival ?

A. 40

B. 45

C. 48

D. 50

Q. 151 He is a university professor (a)/ but of his three sons (b)/ neither has any merit. (c)/ No error (d).

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 152 After knowing truth,(a)/ they took the right decision (b)/ in the matter. (c)/ No error (d).

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 153 It is time you (a)/ decide on your next (b)/ course of action. (c)/ No error (d).

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 154 He who has suffered most (a)/ for the cause, (b)/ let him speak (c)/ No error (d).

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 155 A cup of coffee (a)/ is an excellent complement (b)/ to smoked salmon. (c)/ No error (d).

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 156 The hotel was not too expensive

A. was it ?

B. wasn’t it ?

C. is it ?

D. isn’t it ?

Q. 157 Like humans, zoo animals must have a dentist their teeth

A. fill

B. filled

C. filling

D. to be filled

Q. 158 It was very kind of you to do the washing-up, but you _ it.

B. hadn’t to do

C. mightn’t have done

D. mustn’t have done

Q. 159 He went sea alone.

A. in

B. to

C. into

D. on

Q. 160 The……of our civilization from an agricultural society to today’s complex industrial world was accompanied by war.

A. adjustement

B. migration

C. route

D. metamorphosis

Q. 161 Choose the opposite word

FLORID

A. weak

B. pale

C. monotonous

D. ugly

Q. 162 Choose the opposite word

VERITY

A. sanctity

B. reverence

C. falsehood

D. rarity

Q. 163 Choose the opposite word

PERSPICUITY

A. vagueness

B. dullness

C. unfairness

D. unwillingness

Q. 164 Choose the opposite word

FERVENT

A. inexcitable

B. enduring

C. dispassionate

D. subdued

Q. 165 Choose the opposite word

MEANDERING

A. sliding

B. sloping

C. strained

D. straight

Q. 166 Choose the best word

LUXURIANT

A. luxury-loving

B. lovely

C. rich

D. abundant

Q. 167 Choose the best word

CANTANKEROUS

A. cancerous

B. ferocious

C. quarrelsome

D. fissiparous

Q. 168 Choose the best word

ONUS

A. sadness

B. happiness

C. responsibility

D. criticism

Q. 169 Choose the best word

DERISION

A. humiliation

B. embarrassment

C. ridicule

D. condemnation

Q. 170 Choose the best word

TRITE

A. commonplace

B. clever

C. brief

D. impudent

Q. 171 Obviously he isn’t cut up to be. good teacher.

A. cut out

B. cut in

C. cur for

D. no improvement

Q. 172 Power got with money is the most craved for today.

A. sought after

B. wished for

C. welcomed for

D. no improvement

Q. 173 The brown shirt wants washing.

A. has to wash

B. is in need of a wash

C. requires wash

D. no improvement

Q. 174 You are asked to copy this letter word by word

A. word for word

B. word with word

C. word to word

D. no improvement

Q. 175 The weak man is a slave to his sensuous pleasures.

A. sensory

B. sensual

C. secondary

D. no improvement

Q. 176 An underhand device resorted to in order to justify misconduct

A. subterfuge

B. man-oeuvre

C. stratagem

D. complicity

Q. 177 Impossible to describe

A. miraculous

B. ineffable

C. stupendous

D. appalling

Q. 178 One who criticizes popular beliefs which he thinks is mistaken or unwise

A. philistine

B. iconoclast

C. imposter

D. cannibal

Q. 179 Detaining and confining someone

A. interruption

B. interrogation

C. interment

D. internment

Q. 180 Science of the races of mankind

A. genealogy

B. epistemology

C. ethnology

D. sociology

Q. 181 Find the correct word

A. collaborate

B. comemorate

C. colate

D. choclate

Q. 182 Find the correct word

A. circuiteous

B. clairvoyant

C. chivelery

D. cavalcade

Q. 183 Find the correct word

A. severety

B. sovereignity

C. superiorty

D. serenity

Q. 184 Find the correct word

A. cummulative

B. comemmorative

C. accummulative

D. accommodative

Q. 185 Find the correct word

A. benidiction

B. besmerch

C. beneficient

D. benevolence

Q. 186 1. Education in India had a glorious beginning.

P. But after the British rule, it faced many changes.

Q. It went on for centuries with the same glory.

R. English as the medium of instruction had a very great response.

S. One of the changes was the introduction of English as the medium of instruction.

6. As the Britishers left we had a complexity of opinions regarding English

A. PQRS

B. QPSR

C. PQSR

D. SRPQ

Q. 187 1. It is easy to criticize the people at the helm, for the slow progress in every field.

P. We are well aware that the intellectuals are leaving our country for better employment opportunities.

Q. Then question remains unanswered because our country cannot show opportunities to the intellectuals.

R. Then, what about their obligation to the Motherland ?

S. First, we should ask ourselves as to what is happening to the young intellectuals in India.

6. This situation of ‘Brain-Drain leads to a variety of problems.

A. PSQR

B. RPSQ

C. PSRQ

D. SPRQ

Q. 188 1. It is the responsibility of parents to teach the young moral values in life.

P. Many children take advantage of their parents’ busy schedule.

Q. This results in children’s ignorance of social values.

R. The reason behind it is that parents are quite busy nowadays.

S. Nowadays parents spend very meagre time with children.

6. As such, the society is going away from the value system.

A. SRPQ

B. PQRS

C. SQRP

D. SPQR

Q. 189 1. The man who does his duty without any selfish desire for fruit may be called a sanyasi as well as yogi.

P. The man who has achieved much evenness of temper will be serene, because his mere thoughts are changed with the strength of action.

Q. He would practise yoga, i.e., evenness of temper, and cannot but perform action.

R. The root of the matter is that one should not allow his mind to flit from object of desire to another and from that to a third.

S. But he who abstains from action altogether is only an idler.

6. A yogi is one who is not attached to his objects of sense or to action and whose mind has ceased to roam restlessly.

A. SRQP

B. RQPS

C. QRSP

D. PRSQ

Q. 190 1. This was an important day for at took.

P. It was a cold day, but Alatook would be warm.

Q. For the first time he was going to hunt seals alone.

R. First he put on his fur-lined jacket.

S. Then he put on mittens and boots of deerskin to protect his hands and feet from the cold.

6. Finally he picked up the gun he had cleaned so carefully the day before.

A. PQRS

B. QPRS

C. PRSQ

D. QRPS

Q. 191 They have made a film based on this novel.

A. A film was based on. this novel and made.

B. A film have been made based . on, this novel.

C. A film, based on this novel, has been made

D. A film has been based and made on this novel.

Q. 192 The people couldn’t move me to the hospital and the doctor operated on me at home.

A. I couldn’t be moved to the hospital and was operated on at home by the doctor.

B. I couldn’t be moved to the hospital and I had to be operated on at home.

C. I couldn’t be moved to the hospital and I was operated at home by the doctor.

D. I couldn’t be moved to the hospital by the people and operated on at home.

Q. 193 Why did he deprive you of the membership ?

A. Why you were deprived of the membership?

B. Why were you deprived of his membership by him ?

C. Why was he deprived of his membership

D. Why were you deprived of your membership by him ?

Q. 194 The news has been brought to us by him.

A. He brought us the news.

B. He has brought us the news.

C. He was brought the news to us.

D. We brought the news to him.

Q. 195 Not a word was spoken by the criminal in self-defence.

A. The criminal spoke not a word in self-defence.

B. The criminal in self-defence spoke no word.

C. The criminal did not speak a word in self-defence.

D. The criminal spoke in self defence not a word.

PASSAGE

Every profession or, trade, every art and every science has its technical vocabulary, the function of which is partly to designate things or processes which have no names in ordinary English and partly to secure greater exactness in nomenclature. Such special dialects or jargons are necessary in technical discussion of any kind. Being universally understood by the devotees of the particular science or art, they have the precision of a mathematical formula. Besides, they save time, for it is much more economical to name a process than to describe it. Thousands of these technical terms are very properly included in every large dictionary, yet, as a whole, they are rather on the outskirts of the English language than actually within its borders. Different occupations, however, differ widely in the character of their special vocabularies. In trades and handicrafts and other vocations like farming and fishing that have occupied great numbers of men from remote times, the technical vocabulary is very old. An average man now uses these in his own vocabulary. The special dialects of law, medicine, divinity and philosophy have become familiar to cultivated persons.

Q. 196 Special words used in technical discussion

A. may become part of common speech

B. never last long

C. should resemble mathematical formula

D. should be confined to scientific fields

Q. 197 The writer of this article is

A. a scientist

B. a politician

C. a linguist

D. a businessman

Q. 198 This passage is primarily concerned with

A. various occupations and professions

B. technical terminology

C. scientific undertakings

D. a new language

Q. 199 It is true that

A. various professions and occupations often interchange words

B. there is always a non-technical word that may be substituted for the technical word

C. the average man often uses in his own vocabulary what was once technical language not meant for him

D. everyone is interested in scientific findings

Q. 200 In recent years, there has been a marked increase in the number of technical terms in the nomenclature of

A. Farming

B. Fishing

C. Sports

D. Government

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	A	A	C	C	B	D	B	D	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	B	D	C	D	C	B	D	D	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	A	C	B	B	A	C	C	D	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	A	D	C	B	A	B	A	A	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	B	A	B	C	C	C	B	D	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	A	D	B	A	B	A	B	B	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	A	D	D	A	A	B	A	D	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	A	D	B	B	B	D	C	A	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	C	B	D	A	A	A	C	A	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	D	D	B	D	B	C	D	C	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	D	B	C	C	A	B	B	A	C	C
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	C	D	B	A	B	A	C	A	B	D
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	C	A	B	D	B	C	A	D	C
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	B	C	B	C	D	A	C	B	A	B
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	C	B	D	A	B	C	D	C	A	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	A	B	C	D	A	A	D	B	D
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	B	C	A	C	D	D	C	C	C	A
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	A	D	C	A	B	B	B	B	D	C
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	A	B	D	D	D	B	D	A	A	B
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	C	A	D	B	C	C	C	B	C	D