SSC Exam - Page 31 of 32 - Vidhyarthi Darpan

SSC CGL Tier-I 01 September 2016 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 1 Sep Shift 2

Q. 1 Find the odd letters from the given alternatives :

A. AEFJ

B. KOPT

C. UYZD

D. EHIL

Q. 2 Find the odd number-pair from the given alternatives :

A. 81 : 243

B. 16 : 64

C. 64 : 192

D. 25 : 75

Q. 3 Find the odd word from the given alternatives

A. Distinguish

B. Scatter

C. Differentiate

D. Classification

Q. 4 Arrange the following words as per the English dictionary and find the last word.

Leaf Less Lean Leave

A. Lean

B. Leave

C. Less

D. Leaf

Q. 5 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

A. 5

B. 7

C. 8

D. 9

Q. 6 In a certain code language, APPROACH is coded as CHOAPRAP. How will RESTRICT be coded?

A. CTRISTER

B. ERTSIRTC

C. CTRISTRE

D. TCIRSTRE

Q. 7 Select the related word from the given alternatives.

Apes : Gibber : : Camels : ?

A. grunt

B. cheep

C. bleat

D. whine

Q. 8 Select the related letters from the given alternatives

TSR : FED : : WVU : ?

A. CAB

B. MLK

C. PQS

D. GFH

Q. 9 Select the related number from the given alternatives.

7: 32:: 28:?

A. 126

B. 136

C. 116

D. 128

Q. 10 John, in the morning, started walking towards North and then turn towards opposite side of the sun. He then turns left again and stops. Which direction is he facing now?

A. north

B. west

C. south

D. east

Q. 11 If 64 + 7 = 460

43+8=?

25 + 8 = 212

A. 360

B. 376

C. 332

D. 356

Q. 12 In a village there are landlords of which some are literates. Which of the following best expresses the relationship between them?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 13 Which one of the Answer figures completes the Question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 14 What is the mirror image of the following figure? Line AB represents the mirror.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 15 If the given words are arranged in descending order, then which of the following be last?

Sapling Tree Plant Seed

A. sapling

B. plant

C. seed

D. tree

Q. 16 Which one is wrong number in the given series?

7 56 44 7 3584 28672

A. 3584

B. 56

C. 7

D. 447

Q. 17 In this question, a statement is followed by two assumptions I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the following assumptions logically follows from the given statement.

Statements : Only good singers are invited in the conference. No one without sweet voice is a good singer.

Assumption I : All invited singers in the conference have sweet voice.

Assumption II : Those singers who do not have sweet voice are not invited in the

conference

A. Only I follows

B. Neither I nor II follows

C. Both i and II follow

D. Only II follows

Q. 18 If’+’ means ‘x’, ‘-‘ means ‘+’, ‘x’ means’-‘ and’+’ means’+’, then find the value of the following equation.

6 + 64 – 8 + 45 x 8

A. 85

B. 76

C. 87

D. 75

Q. 19 Which of the following has the given figμre embedded in it?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 20 Find the missing number from the given alternatives

1 4 2 3 2 ?

A. 2

B. 5

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 21 Find the missing number from the given alternatives

A. 13

B. 15

C. 17

D. 19

Q. 22 Find the missing letters from the given’ alternatives :

AEN MQZ CGP ?

A. OSB

B. PUE

C. MPX

D. OTC

Q. 23 Find the missing number from the given alternatives :

0 4 18 48 ? 180

A. 58

B. 68

C. 84

D. 100

Q. 24 Select the word which cannot be fortune4 using the letters of the given· word?

SEGREGATION

A. EAGER

B. SEA

C. GATE

D. NATION

Q. 25 A word is represented by only one set of rt numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabet by two matrices given below. The columns and row of Matrix l are numbered from O to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column. For example, ‘U’ can be represented by 03, 14, 32 etc. and ‘O’ can be represented by 56, 67, 75 etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word given in the question. PURE

A. 69, 14, 04, 98

B. 34, 76, 31, 79

C. 04, 32, 87, 59

D. 69, 99, 31, 01

Q. 26 A number when divided by 6 leaves remainder 3. When the square of the same number is divided by 6, the remainder is:

A. 0

B. 2

C. 1

D. 3

Q. 27 Find the wrong number in the following number series.

3 7 16 35 70 153

A. 70

B. 16

C. 153

D. 35

Q. 28 The averages of runs scored by a cricket player in 11 innings is 63 and the average of his first six innings is 60 and the av_erage of last six innings is 65. Find the runs scored by him in the sixth innings.

A. 60

B. 54

C. 67

D. 57

Q. 29 In a parade of school students, the number of boys and girls are in the ratio of 9 : 7 respectively and the number of students is 256. Find the number of girls.

A. 102

B. 112

C. 118

D. 128

Q. 30 Two persons ride towards each other from two places 55 km apart, one riding at 12 km hr and the other at 10 km/hr. In what time will they be 11 km apart?

A. 2 hours and 30 minutes

B. 1 hours and 30 minutes

C. 2 hours

D. 2 hours and 45 minutes

Q. 31 A train 150 m long passes a telegraphic post in 12 seconds. Find the speed of the train.(in km/hr)

A. 50

B. 12.5

C. 25

D. 45

Q. 32 In an election, a candidate secures 40% of the votes but is defeated by the only other candidate by a majority of 298 votes, Find the total number of votes recorded

A. 1580

B. 1490

C. 1470

D. 1530

Q. 33 If x-1/x=2, then what is the value of x²+1/x² ?

A. 4

B. 5

C. 3

D. 6

Q. 34 The respective ratio between the height of tower and the point at some distance from its foot is 5√3 :5. What will be the angle of elevation of the top of the tower?

A. 30°

B. 60°

C. 90°

D. 45°

Q. 35 Successive discounts of 20% and 10% are given on an item marked at Rs.700 Find· the selling price

A. Rs. 504

B. Rs. 196

C. Rs. 582

D. Rs. 601

Q. 36 The population of a city is 20000. It increases by 20% during the first year and 30% during the second year. The population after two years will be:

A. 32000

B. 40000

C. 31200

D. 30000

Q. 37 A reduction of 20% in the price of rice enables a buyer to buy 5 kg more for rupees 1200. The reduced price per kg· of rice will be:

A. 36

B. 45

C. 48

D. 60

Q. 38 A man spends 60% of his income on different items. His income is increased by 20% and his expenditure is also increased by 10%. Find the percentage decrease in his savings?

A. 10%

B. 15%

C. 20%

D. 25%

Q. 39 The lengths of side AB and side BC of a scalene triangle ABC are 12 cm and 8cm respectively. The size of angle C is 90° Find the approximate length of side AC.

A. 12

B. 9

C. 14

D. 16

Q. 40 Find the value of (sin27°/cos63°)²+(cos63°/sin27°)²

A. 0

B. 2

C. 3

D. 1

Q. 41 The sum of the ages of mother and her daughter is 60 years. 12 years ago the mother was eight times as old as her daughter. How old is the daughter at present?

A. 20 years

B. 28 years

C. 16 years

D. 12 years

Q. 42 A boat goes at 14 kmph along the stream and 8 kmph against the stream. The speed of the boat (in kmph) in still water is:

A. 12 kmph

B. 11 kmph

C. 10 kmph

D. 8 kmph

Q. 43 A shopkeeper buys 80 articles for Rs. 2400 and sells them for a profit of 16%. Find the selling price of one article

A. Rs. 36.40

B. Rs. 34.80

C. Rs. 35.60

D. Rs. 33.80

Q. 44 Find the amount which Shyam will get on Rs. 4096, if he gives it for 18 months at 12 ½ % per annum, interest being compounded half yearly

A. Rs. 5,813

B. Rs. 4,515

C. Rs. 4,913

D. Rs. 5,713

Q. 45 A works twice as fast as B. If B can complete a piece of work independently in 12 days, then what will be the number of days taken by A and _B together to finish the work?

A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 18

Q. 46 The foreign exchange reserve in 2012 was how many times that in 2009?

A. 0.7

B. 1.2

C. 1.4

D. 1.5

Q. 47 What was the percentage increase in the foreign reserves in 2012 over 2008?

A. 100

B. 150

C. 200

D. 620

Q. 48 The ratio of the number of years, in which the foreign exchange reserves are above the average reserves, to those in which reserves are below the average reserves, is

A. 2:6

B. 3:4

C. 3:5

D. 1:1

Q. 49 A well of diameter 3m is dug 14m deep. The earth taken out of it has beens read evenly all around it in the shape of a circular ring of width 4m to form an embankment. Find the height of the embankment

A. 4.25m

B. 2.25m

C. 1.125m

D. 1. 75m

Q. 50 If x³+1/x³ =110, then find the value of x+1/x

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Question :- 51-54

In each of the following questions, choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the given word.

Q. 51 DISHEVELLED

A. tidy

B. clean

C. neat

D. untidy

Q. 52 choose the correct option

VENERATE

A. despise

B. disobey

C. disregard

D. reverse

Question:- 53-54

In each of the following questions, choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the given word.

Q. 53 choose the correct option

CONGENIAL

A. accord

B. snug

C. engaging

D. unpleasant

Q. 54 choose the correct option

ABJURE

A. renounce

B. relinquish

C. abnegate

D. acquire

Question :- 55-57

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

Q. 55 highly skilled

A. consummate

B. inveterate

C. notorious

D. maladroit

Q. 56 identification with the feelings of another

A. sympathy

B. empathy

C. apathy

D. compassion

Q. 57 insatiable desire for wealth

A. selfish

B. avarice

C. egoist

D. generosity

Question:- 58-60

In these questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/ phrase given in bold. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase given in bold

Q. 58 cut the mustard

A. to get under expectations

B. to score average

C. to perform well

D. to underperform

Q. 59 a chip off the old block

A. reminds them of one’s father

B. to remind of one’s son

C. reminds them of one’s son

D. reminds of previous memories

Q. 60 to fish in troubled waters

A. to indulge in evil conspiracies

B. to make a profit out of disturbance

C. to aggravate the situation

D. to make the most of bad bargain

Question:- 61-62

In these questions, a sentence or a part of sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part which may. improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, mark· ‘No improvement’

as your answer.

Q. 61 What you have been doing since the workshop last month?

A. have you done

B. you have done

C. have you been doing

D. No improvement

Q. 62 Corruption is the most serious problem in India.

A. the more serious

B. very serious

C. serious

D. No improvement

Question:- 63-67

In the following questions, fill in the blank(s) with suitable word(s) out of the four alternatives.

Q. 63 Sid and Harsh are ___ unable to complete the task .

A. neither

B. either

C. each

D. both

Q. 64 The examinee could guess ___ the answer correctly

A. at

B. about

C. through

D. to

Q. 65 Be ___ and always look to the comfort of others.

A. considerate

B. cautious·

C. considerable

D. consider

Q. 66 As usual, a lot of people were ___ in the king’s darbar.

A. their

B. possess

C. past

D. present

Q. 67 In this question, four words are given out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

A. Ommineous

B. Omineous

C. Ominous

D. Omenous

Question:- 68-71

In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If a sentence is free from errors, your answer is No error.

Q. 68 He ought not (1)/ have done such a (2)/ filthy thing. (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 69 The reason for (1)/ his failure is because (2)/ he did not work hard. (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 70 I have reached (1)/ the office before (2)/ the rain started. (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 71 A large (1)/ consignment of books (2)/ are expected. (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Question:- 72-100

Every profession or trade, every art and every science has its technical vocabulary, the function of which is partly to designate things or processes which have no names in ordinary English and partly to secure greater exactness in nomenclature. Such special dialects or jargons are necessary in technical discussion of any kind. Being universally understood by the devotees of the particular science or art, they have the precision of a mathematical formula. Besides, they save time, for it is much more economical to name a process than to describe it. Thousands of these technical terms are very properly included in every large dictionary, yet, as a whole, they are rather on the outskirts of the English language than actually within its borders Different occupations, however, differ widely in the character of their special vocabularies. In trades and handicrafts and other vocations like farming and fishing that have occupied great numbers of men from remote times, the technical vocabulary is very old. An average man now uses these in his own vocabulary. The special dialects of law, medicine divinity and philosophy have become familiar to cultivated persons.

Q. 72 Special words used in technical discussion

A. may become part of common speech

B. never last long

C. should resemble mathematical formula

D. should be confined to scientific fields

Q. 73 The writer of this article is:

A. a scientist

B. a politician

C. a linguist

D. a businessman

Q. 74 This passage is primarily concerned with ______

A. various occupations and professions

B. technical terminology

C. scientific undertakings

D. a new language

Q. 75 It is. true that ____

A. various occupations and professions often interchange words

B. there is always a nontechnical word that may · be substituted for the technical word.

C. the average man often uses in his own vocabulary what was once technical language not meant for him.

D. everyone is interested in scientific findings

Q. 76 Which of the following is known as the Manchester of South India?

A. Kochi

B. Vishakhapatanam

C. Coimbatore

D. Bangalore

Q. 77 Who was the flag bearer of india at Rio Olympics 2016?

A. P.V. Sindhu

B. Jwala Gutta

C. Yogeshwar Dutt

D. Abhinav Bindra

Q. 78 Which of the following is the first cricketer to score 1000 runs in an innings?

A. Sachin Tendulkar

B. Vinod Kamble

C. Pranav Dhanawade

D. Virat Kohli

Q. 79 Which of the following is the largest irrigation plant in India?

A. Buckingham Canal

B. Indira Gandhi Canal

C. Upper Ganges Canal

D. Tajewala Canal

Q. 80 The soil of Kerala is rich in which of the following soils?

A. Alluvial Soil

B. Laterite Soil

C. Sandy Soil

D. Loamy Soil

Q. 81 Which of the process is known as nitrification?

A. Reaction of Nitrogen Monoxide with oxygen to form nitric acid

B. Reaction of nitrogen dioxide with water to form nitric acid

C. Conversion of ammonia to nitrites

D. Conversion of nitrite to nitric oxide

Q. 82 Conversion of nitrite to nitric oxide

A. Australia

B. Canada

C. Africa

D. Russia

Q. 83 Which country announces the imposition of a three-month state emergency after failed coup?

A. Turkey

B. Syria

C. Sudan

D. Iran

Q. 84 Beighton Cup is related to which of the following sport?

A. Football

B. Hockey

C. Badminton

D. Cricket

Q. 85 Sun temple is situated in which of the following states?

A. Odisha

B. Gujarat

C. Karnataka

D. Tamil Nadu

Q. 86 The growth of bacteria is measured by

A. hemocytometer

B. spectrophotometer

C. calorimeter

D. auxanometer

Q. 87 The sideways erosion which widens the river valley called?

A. Lateral Corrosion

B. Vertical Corrosion

C. Side Corrosion

D. Mean Corrosion

Q. 88 The Constitution ____

A. is silent on the President’s re-election to the office

B. allows re-election of a per§on to the President’s post

C. restricts a person to remain President for only two terms.

D. has .been amended to ·a1 .. low a person only one term as President

Q. 89 Smooth muscles are likely to be found in

A. muscles of legs

B. muscles of arms

C. stomach

D. heart

Q. 90 Synagogue is the place of worship of

A. Zoroastrianism

B. Taoism

C. Judaism

D. Shintoism

Q. 91 The civilian airport of highest altitude is in

A. Tibet

B. Nepal

C. India

D. China

Q. 92 The branch of biology which deals with extinct organisms is called

A. Palynology

B. Phylogeny

C. Palaeobotany

D. Paleontology

Q. 93 The least distance of distinct vision is

A. 35 cm

B. 25 cm

C. 45 cm

D. 15 cm

Q. 94 When will demand become a grant?

A. When a demand is proposed

B. After the discussion on demand is over

C. After the demand is granted

D. When the budget session is closed

Q. 95 Summer rains in Australia broadly. decreases from

A. east to west

B. west to east

C. north to south

D. south to north

Q. 96 The blue revolution is related with

A. Fish production

B. Food grain production

C. Oil seed production

D. Milk production

Q. 97 Which is post-harvest folk dance in Assam

A. Ankia Nat

B. Bihu

C. Raut Nacha

D. Namgen

Q. 98 The substrate of photo respiration is

A. Fructose

B. Pyruvic acid

C. Glycolate

D. Glucose

Q. 99 The UNIX operating system is suitable for

A. Multi user

B. Real-Time Processing

C. Distributed Processing

D. Single ·user

Q. 100 Sinkhole is a phenomenon of

A. Plain

B. Desert

C. Tundra

D. Karst

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	B	B	C	A	C	A	B	C	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	C	D	B	C	D	C	A	B	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	A	D	D	B	D	A	D	B	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	B	D	B	A	C	C	A	B	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	B	B	C	A	D	A	C	C	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	D	D	D	A	B	B	C	A	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	D	D	A	A	D	C	B	B	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	C	A	C	B	C	C	D	C	B	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	D	A	B	A	B	A	B	C	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	D	B	C	C	A	B	C	A	D

SSC CGL Tier-I 01 September 2016 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 1 Sep Shift 1

Q. 1 Select the related word from the given alternatives.

Psychology : Human Being :: Ornithology : ?

A. Birds

B. Volcanoes

C. Insects

D. Reptiles

Q. 2 Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

EGIK : FHJL :: MOQS : ?

A. LNOQ

B. NPRT

C. KMOQ

D. NRPT

Q. 3 Select the related number from the given alternatives.

147 : 741 :: 869 : ?

A. 896

B. 968

C. 689

D. 986

Q. 4 For the following questions

Find the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Herb

B. Flower

C. Tree

D. Shrub

Q. 5 For the following questions

Find the odd letters pair from the given alternatives.

A. JKLM

B. NOPQ

C. RSTU

D. VWXZ

Q. 6 For the following questions

Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

A. (85, 136)

B. (34, 85)

C. (102, 153)

D. (63, 162)

Q. 7 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary

1. Organ

2. Origin

3. Orient

4. Organic

5. Organise

A. 1, 5, 3, 4, 2

B. 1, 5, 4, 2, 3

C. 1, 4, 5, 3, 2

D. 1, 4, 5, 2, 3

Q. 8 Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

_sr_tr_srs_r_srst_

A. ttssrr

B. tsrtsr

C. strtrs

D. tstttr

Q. 9 Find the missing number in the following series:

43, 172, 86, 344, ?

A. 172

B. 258

C. 129

D. 430

Q. 10 ‘A’ is the sister of ‘B’. ‘B’ is married to ‘D’. ‘B’ and ‘D’ have a daughter ‘G’. How is ‘G’ related to ‘A’?

A. Sister

B. Daughter

C. Niece

D. Cousin

Q. 11 Anil is as much younger to Vivek as he is older to Tarun. If the total of the ages of Vivek and Tarun is 48 years, how old is Anil?

A. 26

B. 33

C. 24

D. 18

Q. 12 From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:

CHRONOLOGICAL

A. CALL

B. LOGIC

C. CALICO

D. ANALOGY

Q. 13 If HOUSE is written as FQSUC , then how can CHAIR be written in that code?

A. DIBJS

B. SBJID

C. SHBGD

D. AJYKP

Q. 14 If P denotes ÷ , Q denotes x, R denotes + and S denotes – then what is the value of 18Q12P4R5S6

A. 64

B. 53

C. 81

D. 24

Q. 15 If 4 + 3 = 25, and 8 + 4 = 80, then, 3 + 2 = ?

A. 15

B. 10

C. 13

D. 12

Q. 16 Select the missing numbers from the given alternatives

A. 30

B. 35

C. 20

D. 25

Q. 17 Ramesh starts his journey by walking 2 kilometres towards North. Then he takes a right turn and walks 1 kilometre. Again takes a right turn and walks 2 kilometre. Now which direction is he facing?

A. East

B. West

C. South

D. North

Q. 18 Consider the given statement/s to be true and decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement.

Statement: Irregularity is a cause for failure in exams. Some regular students fail in the examinations.

Conclusions:

I. All failed students are regular.

II. All successful students are not regular

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follow

D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Q. 19 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

A. 18

B. 19

C. 20

D. 21

Q. 20 Which one of the following figures represents the following relationship:

Birds, Parrots, Bats

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 21 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 22 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 25 In the question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘B’ can be represented by 00, 13 etc., and ‘A’ can be represented by 55, 69 etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word ‘GIRL’

A. 02, 56, 97, 24

B. 31, 79, 68, 42

C. 23, 97, 77, 11

D. 11, 88, 95, 23

Q. 26 The minimum short-term natural hazard is __________ .

A. blizzard

B. earthquake

C. volcanic eruption

D. bolt of lightning

Q. 27 DOTS is a treatment given to patients suffering from _________ .

A. Polio

B. AIDS

C. Hepatitis

D. Tuberculosis

Q. 28 Which dynasty was ruling in Vijaynagar empire at the time of the Battle of Talikota?

A. Sangam

B. Aniridu

C. Tuluva

D. Saluva

Q. 29 Which of the following Sultans died while playing Polo or Chaugan?

A. Qutb-ud-din Aibak

B. Balban

C. Iltutmish

D. Nasiruddin Muhammad

Q. 30 Molten rock below the surface of the earth is called __________ .

A. Basalt

B. Laccolith

C. Lava

D. Magma

Q. 31 Magnesium is a constituent metal of __________ .

A. Chlorophyll molecule

B. DNA

C. Mitochondria

D. Ribosomes

Q. 32 Which one among the following components is used as an amplifying device?

A. Transformer

B. Diode

C. Capacitor

D. Transistor

Q. 33 A __________ is an agreement between the communicating parties on how communication is to proceed.

A. Path

B. SLA

C. Bond

D. Protocol

Q. 34 Name the gas used in preparation of bleaching powder

A. Oxygen

B. Hydrogen

C. Nitrogen

D. Chlorine

Q. 35 The depletion in Ozone layer is caused by ___________ .

A. Nitrous oxide

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Chlorofluorocarbons

D. Methane

Q. 36 Sariska and Ranthambore are the reserves for which of the following

A. Lion

B. Deer

C. Tiger

D. Bear

Q. 37 The prestigious ‘Jawaharlal Nehru Award for International Understanding’ is instituted by

A. National Centre for Art and Culture

B. department of Youth and Sports

C. Nehru Memorial Museum

D. Indian Council for Cultural Relations

Q. 38 Phosphorus is kept in water because

A. its ignition temperature is very high

B. its ignition temperature is very low

C. its critical temperature is high

D. its critical temperature is low

Q. 39 The famous Dilwara temples of Mount Abu are a sacred pilgrimage place for the

A. Buddhists

B. Jains

C. Sikhs

D. Parsis

Q. 40 The unit of measurement of noise is

A. Decibel

B. Hertz

C. Amplifier

D. Acoustics

Q. 41 The commonly used coolant in refrigerators is

A. Ammonia

B. Nitrogen

C. Freon

D. Oxygen

Q. 42 The complete form of ‘IC’ in electronics is

A. Internal circuit

B. Independent circuit

C. Integrated circuit

D. Inbuilt circuit

Q.43 Who among the following did Gandhiji regard as his political Guru?

A. Mahadev Desai

B. Dayanand Saraswati

C. Acharya Narendra Dev

D. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Q. 44 Which of the following constitutional Amendment Act, deals with the Elementary Education as a Fundamental Right?

A. 84th Amendment Act

B. 85th Amendment Act

C. 86th Amendment Act

D. 87th Amendment Act

Q. 45 The World’s largest island is

A. Greenland

B. Iceland

C. New Guinea

D. Madagascar

Q. 46 Sea water is saltier than rain water because

A. Sea animals are salt producing

B. The air around the sea is saltish

C. Rivers wash away salts from earth and pour them into the sea

D. Sea beds have salt producing mines

Q. 47 Pannalal Ghosh played which of the following musical instruments?

A. Flute

B. Sitar

C. Violin

D. Santoor

Q. 48 Rio Summit is associated with

A. Convention on Biological Diversity

B. Green house gases

C. Ozone depletion

D. Wetlands

Q. 49 Polyploidy arises due to change in the

A. number of chromatids

B. structure of genes

C. number of chromosomes

D. structure of chromosomes

Q. 50 Which South Korean author in May 2016 won the 2016 Man Booker International Prize for her novel ‘The Vegetarian’?

A. Han Kang

B. Yiyun Li

C. Tami Hoag

D. Taya Zinkin

Q. 51 A and B together can finish a work in 30 days. They worked for it for 20 days and then B left the work. The remaining work was done by A alone in 20 days more. In how many days can A alone finish the work?

A. 48 days

B. 50 days

C. 54 days

D. 60 days

Q. 52 The centroid of an equilateral triangle ABC is G. If AB is 6 cms, the length of AG is

A. √3 cm

B. 2√3 cm

C. 3√2 cm

D. 2√2 cm

Q. 53 A merchant changed his trade discount from 25% to 15%. This would increase selling price by

A. 3⅓%

B. 6⅙%

C. 13⅓%

D. 16⅓%

Q. 54 If 177 is divided into 3 parts in the ratio 1/2 : 2/3: 4/5, then the second part is

A. 75

B. 45

C. 72

D. 60

Q. 55 If percentage of profit made,when an article is sold for Rs.78, is twice as when it is sold for Rs.69, the cost price of the article is

A. Rs. 49

B. Rs. 51

C. Rs. 57

D. Rs. 60

Q. 56 The ratio between Ram’s age and Rahim’s age is 10:11. What is the age of Rahim in percentage of Ram’s age

A. 109(1/11)%

B. 110%

C. 111(1/9)%

D. 111%

Q. 57 Gautam travels 160 kms at 32 kmph and returns at 40 kmph. Then average speed

A. 72 kmph

B. 71.11 kmph

C. 36 kmph

D. 35.55 kmph

Q. 58 If x=3/2, then the value of 27×3-54×2+36x-11 is

A. 11⅜

B. 11⅝

C. 12⅜

D. 12⅝

Q. 59 If a+b+c = 6 and ab+bc+ca = 1, then the value of bc(b+c) + ca(c+a) +ab(a+b) +3abc is

A. 33

B. 66

C. 55

D. 23

Q. 60 If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 2:3:4, then the difference of the measure of greatest angle and smallest angle is

A. 20°

B. 30°

C. 40°

D. 50°

Q. 61 In ΔABC, ∠A = 90°, AD ┴ BC and AD = BD = 2 cm. The length of CD

A. 3 cm

B. 3.5 cm

C. 3.2 cm

D. 2 cm

Q. 62 If tan 45° = cot θ , then the value of θ , in radians is

A. Π

B. Π/9

C. Π/2

D. Π/12

Q. 63 (2^51 + 2^52+2^53+2^4+2^55) is divisible by

A. 23

B. 58

C. 124

D. 127

Q. 64 The average of 12 numbers is 9. If each number is multiplied by 2 and added to 3, the average of the new set of numbers is

A. 9

B. 18

C. 21

D. 27

Q. 65 Choose the correct option

A. 1

B. 3

C. 0

D. 2

Q. 66 Choose the correct option

A. 4/5

B. 3/5

C. 8/5

D. 1/5

Q. 67 The perimeter of two similar triangles ABC and PQR are 36 cms and 24 cms respectively. If PQ = 10 cm then the length of AB is

A. 18 cm

B. 12 cm

C. 15 cm

D. 30 cm

Q. 68 n a triangle ABC, AB = 8 cm, AC = 10 cm and ∠B = 90°, then the area of ΔABC is

A. 49 sq.cm

B. 36 sq.cm

C. 25 sq.cm

D. 24 sq.cm

Q. 69 Choose the correct option

A. 1/√2

B. 0

C. 1/2

D. √3/2

Q. 70 The compound interest on Rs. 64,000 for 3 years, compounded annually at 7.5% p.a. is

A. Rs. 14,400

B. Rs. 15,705

C. Rs. 15,507

D. Rs. 15,075

Q. 71 The angles of elevation of the top of a temple, from the foot and the top of a building 30 m high, are 60° and 30° respectively. Then height of the temple is

A. 50 m

B. 43 m

C. 40 m

D. 45 m

Question:- 72-75

Study the pie-chart given and answer the following questions.

Q. 72 If the miscellaneous charges are Rs. 6000, then the advertisement charges are

A. Rs.12000

B. Rs.27000

C. Rs.90000

D. Rs.25000

Q. 73 The central angle of printing charge is x more than that of advertisement charge. Then the value of x is

A. 72°

B. 61.2°

C. 60°

D. 54.8°

Q. 74 What should be the central angle of the sector ‘cost of paper’?

A. 22.5°

B. 54.8°

C. 36°

D. 16°

Q. 75 The ratio between royalty and binder’s charges is

A. 5:6

B. 5:8

C. 6:5

D. 8:13

Q. 76 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

RECEPTACLE

A. COMPARTMENT

B. HOLE

C. CONTAINER

D. FUNNEL

Q. 77 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

VANITY

A. PRIDE

B. LOVE

C. COURAGE

D. HUMILITY

Q. 78 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word and click the button corresponding to it.

A. Acquisision

B. Acqiusition

C. Acquisition

D. Acquisetion

Q. 79 In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the “No error” option.

If you permit me to speak the truth (A) / I shall state without hesitation (B) / that you have done a mistake (C) / No Error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 80 In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the “No error” option.

I succeeded persuading him (A) / to come with me (B) / only after hours of argument (C) / No Error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 81 In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the “No error” option.

Vermin (A) / does much harm (B) / to crops (C) / No Error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 82 The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

Light is _____ than sound.

A. faster

B. more faster

C. sounder

D. lighter

Q. 83 The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

The man _____ for the purpose never did what was expected of him.

A. supplied

B. favoured

C. employed

D. cited

Q. 84 The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

There was a serious _____ between the two brothers.

A. altercation

B. alteration

C. aberration

D. altieration

Q. 85 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it.

To give oneself airs

A. Space to breathe

B. Time

C. Acting strange

D. Behaving arrogantly

Q. 86 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it.

At a stone’s throw

A. At a short distance

B. At a place where quarrels take place

C. At a great distance

D. A quarry

Q. 87 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it.

Bone of contention

A. A delicious non-vegetarian item

B. An item which made them content

C. Cause for quarrel

D. A link between them

Q. 88 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it.

A person who has lost the protection of the law

A. Outlaw

B. Immigrant

C. Outcast

D. Orphan

Q. 89 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it.

Falsification of documents etc

A. Xeroxing

B. Forgery

C. Laminating

D. Copying

Q. 90 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it.

To make atonement for one’s sins

A. Expiate

B. Renounce

C. Remonstrate

D. Recant

Q. 91 A sentence/a part of the sentence is under double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to “No improvement”.

The boys “absented themselves” for two days.

A. were absented

B. absented

C. had absented

D. No improvement

Q. 92 A sentence/a part of the sentence is under double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to “No improvement”.

My mother insists on setting “up” something everyday for charity.

A. on

B. in

C. aside

D. No improvement

Q. 93 A sentence/a part of the sentence is under double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to “No improvement”.

He “began” on a new business venture.

A. embarked

B. begun

C. opened

D. No improvement

Q. 94 A sentence/a part of the sentence is under double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to “No improvement”.

I have to “say” them the truth

A. tell

B. state

C. speak

D. No improvement

Q. 95 A sentence/a part of the sentence is under double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to “No improvement”.

The SSB will interview the candidate between “11 a.m. and 3.00 p.m.”

A. 11.00 am to 3 pm

B. 11.00 from 3 pm

C. 11.am by 3.00 pm

D. No improvement

Questions: 96 – 100

A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it.

Settled life and cultivation gave man leisure; he had no longer to always think of getting food. During spare time he could make stone tools, hoes or pots and weave cloth. Some people spared from producing their own food could even devote themselves to other activities all the time. This resulted in a division of labour. The division of labour made it possible for various groups to specialize, that is, to acquire greater skill and learn better techniques in doing one kind of work. The settled community life needed rules to regulate the behaviour of the members of the community. It is not possible to know exactly how regulations were established. It appears that the decisions regarding the community were taken by the people as a whole, or by a council of elders, as is in the practice in tribal societies. There were perhaps no kings or any organized government. Most likely, there were chiefs elected by the community for their qualities of leadership. But, these chiefs could not pass their positions on to their sons and they enjoyed few special privileges. Archaeological excavations have not revealed anything which would indicate the prevalence of a higher status for some members of the community. This is also supported by the study of life in many tribes in modern times. Thus, social inequalities do not seem to have emerged even in Neolithic times.

Q. 96 What did man do in his spare time?

A. Made stone tools

B. Made hoes or pots

C. Weave cloth

D. All of the above

Q. 97 In the passage, “division of labour” means?

A. Specialization to acquire greater skills

B. Learning arithmetic

C. Working in groups

D. Working from home

Q. 98 To which period do the Neolithic times refer:

A. Later part of the Stone Age

B. Early part of the Stone Age

C. Later part of the Ice Age

D. Medieval times

Q. 99 Chiefs were elected by the community for their

A. age

B. qualities of leadership

C. responsibility and courage

D. trust and loyalty

Q. 100 The meaning of ‘privilege’ is

A. allowance

B. favour

C. benefit

D. interest

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	D	B	B	D	D	C	D	A	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	D	D	B	C	B	C	D	A	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	C	D	A	C	D	D	C	A	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	D	D	D	C	C	D	B	B	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	C	D	C	A	C	A	A	C	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	B	C	D	D	B	D	D	B	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	C	C	C	C	C	C	D	C	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	B	B	C	A	C	D	C	C	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	A	C	A	D	A	C	A	B	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	D	C	A	A	D	D	A	A	B	C

SSC CGL Tier-I 19 August 2014 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2014 19 Aug shift 1

Q. 1 Voyage : Sea sickness : : Heights : ?

A. Ship
B. Travel
C. Giddiness
D. Motion

Q. 2 Waitress : Restaurant : : ?

A. Doctor : Nurse
B. Driver : Truck
C. Teacher : School
D. Actor : Role

Q. 3 AROUND : RAUODN : : GROUND : ?

A. RGUODN
B. NDOOGR
C. OUNDGR
D. DNUURG

Q. 4 APPROACHED : ROACHEDAPP : : BARGAINED : ?

A. AINEDBARG
B. GAINEDBAR
C. GAINEDRAB
D. RABGAINED

Q. 5 8 : 256 : : ?

A. 7 : 343
B. 9 : 243
C. 10 : 500
D. 5 : 75

Q. 6 21 : 3 : : 574 : ?

A. 23
B. 82
C. 97
D. 113

Q. 7 Choose the correct option:

A. Obstetrician
B. Podiatrist
C. Pulmonologist
D. Prosthetist

Q. 8 Choose the correct option:

A. Century
B. Decadent
C. Year
D. Month

Q. 9 Choose the correct option:

A. FEDC
B. STUV
C. LKJI
D. RQPO

Q. 10 Choose the correct option:

A. LPXOY
B. RQST
C. FBDLX
D. MPONL

Q. 11 Choose the correct option:

A. 14 – 16
B. 56 – 64
C. 77 – 88
D. 80 – 93

Q. 12 Choose the correct option:

A. 13 – 21
B. 19 – 27
C. 15 – 23
D. 16 – 24

Q. 13 Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following ?
1. apartment 2. town 3. street 4. building 5. complex

A. 1, 5, 4, 3, 2
B. 4, 5, 3, 2, 1
C. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
D. 1, 4, 5, 3, 2

Q. 14 If the following words are arranged in reverse dictionary order, which word comes second ?

A. Explosion
B. Express
C. Exploit
D. Expulse

Q. 15 Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?
ac__c_cb_acbcacbca_bc

A. abbb
B. bacc
C. babc
D. bbcc

Q. 16 AZ, CX, FU, ?

A. IR
B. IV
C. JQ
D. KP

Q. 17 1, 2, 6, 24, ? ,720

A. 3
B. 5
C. 120
D. 8

Q. 18 156, 506, ?, 1806

A. 1056
B. 856
C. 1456
D. 1506

Q. 19 Suket has three daughters and each daughter has a brother. How many male members are there in the family ?

A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1

Q. 20 Dinesh and Ramesh start together from a certain point in the opposite direction on motorcycles. The speed of Dinesh is 60 km per hour and Ramesh 44 km per hour. What will be the distance between them after 15 minutes ?

A. 20 km
B. 24 km
C. 26 km
D. 30 km

Q. 21 An insect is walking in a straight line. It covers a distance of 15 cm per minute. It comes back 2.5 cm after every 15 cm. How long will it take to cover a distance of 1 metre ?

A. 6.5 min
B. 8 min
C. 10 min
D. 12 min

Q. 22 A group of alphabets are given with each being assigned a number. These have to be unscrambled into a meaningful word and correct order of letters may be indicated from the given responses.
T M H R E O
5 4 3 2 1 0

A. 025314
B. 315402
C. 405312
D. 504231

Q. 23 From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word :
TRIVANDRUM

A. RAIN
B. DRUM
C. TRAIN
D. DRUK

Q. 24 How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ‘ OEHM ‘ using each letter only once in each word ?

A. FOUR
B. THREE
C. TWO
D. ONE

Q. 25 A shopkeeper quotes the rate on the price tag by replacing numbers with letters as follows :
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
B R O W N S T I C K
If a customer purchases two items whose price tags read ₹IIT and ₹NICK, what is the total amount he has to Pay?

A. ₹ 4776
B. ₹ 4765
C. ₹ 5565
D. ₹ 5665

Q. 26 If CASUAL is coded as SACLAU, then what would be the code of MATRIC ?

A. CIRTAM
B. TMAICR
C. TAMCIR
D. ATMCIR

Q. 27 If ‘S’ is written as ‘H’ ‘R’ as ‘@’ ‘A’ as ‘∇’ ‘M’ as ‘#’ , ‘T’ as ‘$’ and ‘E’ as ‘%’ then how is ‘MASTER’ written in that code ?

A. #∇H$%@
B. #H∇$%@
C. #∇$H%@
D. #∇H%@$

Q. 28 If 1 candle in box number 1 is placed in box number 2, then box-2 has twice the number of candles that box 1 has. If 1 candle from box-2 is placed in box-1, the box-2 and box-1 have the same number of candles. How many candles were there in box-1 and box-2 ?

A. 5 : 3
B. 7 : 5
C. 6 : 4
D. 5 : 7

Q. 29 Which of the following interchange of signs would make the equation correct ?
6 × 4 + 2 = 16

A. + and ×, 2 & 4
B. + and ×, 4 & 6
C. + and ×, 2 & 6
D. + and ×, 3 & 4

Q. 30 Select the correct combination of mathematical sings to replace the * signs and to balance the following equation :
45 * 3 * 6 * 2 * 54

A. + × ÷ =
B. + ÷ × =
C. + × – =
D. + + – =

Q. 31 Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the following equation :
8 * 5 * 10 * 2 * 25

A. + × ÷ =
B. + ÷ – =
C. × + = ×
D. × – = ×

Q. 32

7 6 6
8 6 ?
3 4 5
168 144 120

A. 8
B. 10
C. 5
D. 4

Q. 33

8 5 6
3 7 5
1 4 2
74 90 ?

A. 65
B. 85
C. 52
D. 76

Q. 34
22 46 24
27 58 31
32 68 ?

A. 46
B. 36
C. 32

Q. 35 On one side of a street are even numbers and on the other side are odd numbers. No. 1 is exactly in front of No. 2. My House is No. 9. From my house , a man comes up from No. 2 and knocks at the door, five doors beyond the house in front of me. What is the No. of that house ?

A. 18
B. 20
C. 22
D. 26

Q. 36 Four players P, Q, R and S are standing a play field in such a way that Q is to East of P, R is to the South of P and S is to the North of P. In which direction of Q is S Standing ?

A. North
B. South
C. North-West
D. South-East

Q. 37 Statement : The rich must live more simply. All poor people are simple.
Conclusions :
I. Rich people waste money.
II. Poor people save money.

A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
C. Neither I nor II follow
D. Both I and II follow

Q. 38

(1) All roses in Sita’s garden are red.
(2) All marigold flowers in Sita’s garden are orange.
(3) All flowers in Sita’s garden are either red or orange.
If 1st two statements are true, the third is

A. True
B. False
C. Uncertain
D. Vague

Q. 39 Find out which answer figure will exactly make up the question figure.

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 40 How many triangles are there in the given figure ?

A. 48
B. 60
C. 56
D. 52

Q. 41 Choose the cube that will be formed by folding the sheet of paper shown in the problem figure.

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 42 In a group of persons, 11 persons speak Kannada, 20 persons speak Tamil and 11 persons speak Telugu. In that group, if two persons speak two languages and one person speak all the languages, then how many persons are there in the group ?

A. 40
B. 41
C. 42
D. 43

Q. 43 Which one of the following diagrams best depicts the relationship among Human Society – Youth Club, Political Party and Youths ?

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 44 Which one of the following diagrams represent correct relationship among pigeon, birds, dogs ?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Q. 45 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure ?

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 46 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure ?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Q. 47 From the given answer figures, select the figure which is hidden/embedded in the question figure.

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 48 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 49 If a mirror is place on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure ?

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 50 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘F’ can be represented by 30, 22, etc. and ‘N’ can be represented by 97, 89, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the given word.
“DAKU”

A. 95, 40, 04, 42
B. 24, 95, 20, 27
C. 88, 24, 10, 34
D. 57, 13, 23, 21

Q. 51 Prof. Milton Friedman was the leader of

A. Ohio school
B. Chicago school
C. Cambridge school
D. London school

Q. 52 Which one of the following is not a qualitative control of credit by the Central Bank of a country?

A. Rationing of credit
B. Regulation of consumer credit
C. Variation of the reserve ratio
D. Regulation of margin requirements

Q. 53 The market in which loans of money can be obtained is called

A. Reserve market
B. Institutional market
C. Money market
D. Exchange market

Q. 54 If the marginal return increases at a diminishing rate, the total return

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. becomes zero

Q. 55 The law of Increasing Returns means

A. increasing cost
B. decreasing cost
C. increasing production
D. increasing income

Q. 56 The most important feature of Cabinet system of Government is

A. Individual responsibility
B. Collective responsibility
C. Responsibility to none
D. Non-responsibility

Q. 57 Direct legislation in Switzerland has

A. a natural growth
B. a haphazard growth
C. an artificial growth
D. None of the above

Q. 58 Who gave the idea of “Cabinet Dictatorship”?

A. Muir
B. Lowell
C. Marriot
D. Laski

Q. 59 In which of the following countries are the judges of the federal court elected by the two Houses of the Federal Legislature?

A. Switzerland
B. Germany
C. Canada
D. Both (a) and (b)

Q. 60 The President of the USA appoints Supreme Court Judges

A. with Senate’s consent
B. at his discretion
C. with consent of the House of Representatives
D. None of these

Q. 61 Multan was named by the Arabs as

A. City of beauty
B. City of wealth
C. City of gold
D. Pink city

Q. 62 Which one of the following was the book written by Amoghvarsha, the Rashtrakuta King?

A. Adipurana
B. Ganitasara Samgraha
C. Saktayana
D. Kavirajamarga

Q. 63 Who built the Kailasanatha Temple at Ellora?

A. Rajendra I
B. Mahendra Varman I
C. Krishna I
D. Govinda I

Q. 64 The land measures of the Second Pandyan Empire was mentioned in

A. Thalavaipuram Copper Plates
B. Uttirameru Inscription
C. Kudumiyammalai Inscription
D. Kasakudi Copper Plates

Q. 65 Who was the greatest ruler of the Satavahanas?

A. Satkarni I
B. Gautamiputra Satkarni
C. Simuka
D. Hala

Q. 66 Cactus is referred to as

A. Hydrophyte
B. Mesophyte
C. Xerophyte
D. Epiphyte

Q. 67 Which of the following is not a renewable resource?

A. Thorium
B. Geothermal heat
C. Tidal power
D. Radiant energy

Q. 68 Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Mahadeo hills are in the west of Maikala hills
B. Mahadeo hills are the part of Karnataka Plateau
C. Mahadeo hills are in the east of Chotanagpur Plateau
D. Mahadeo hills are the part of Aravalli ranges

Q. 69 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

A. Hevea Tree—Brazil
B. Sumatra Storm—Malaysia
C. Kajan River—Borneo
D. Dekke Toba fish—Brazil

Q. 70 Which of the following resources is renewable one?

A. Uranium
B. Coal
C. Timber
D. Natural Gas

Q. 71 How many neck canal cells are found in the archegonium of a fern?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

Q. 72 Which angiosperm is vesselless?

A. Hydrilla
B. Trochodendron
C. Maize
D. Wheat

Q. 73 Who was the first child born after operative procedure?

A. Caesar
B. Huxley
C. William
D. Pasteur

Q. 74 Myrmecology is study of

A. Insects
B. Ants
C. Crustaceans
D. Arthropods

Q. 75 NIN (National Institute of Nutrition) Central Office is located at

A. Hyderabad
B. Mumbai
C. Bengaluru
D. Kolkata

Q. 76 HIV often changes is shapes due to the presence of an enzyme called

A. Reverse Transcriptase
B. Enterokinase
C. Nucleotidase
D. Nucleoditase

Q. 77 Fleming’s right hand rule is used to find the direction of the

A. Alternate current
B. Direct current
C. Induced current
D. Actual current

Q. 78 The unit of electrical power is

A. Volt
B. Watt
C. Kilowatt hour
D. Ampere

Q. 79 The resistance of the human body (dry condition) is of the order of

A. 10¹ ohm
B. 10² ohm
C. 10³ ohm
D. 10⁴ ohm

Q. 80 Certain substances lose their electrical resistance completely at super low temperature. Such substances are called

A. super conductors
B. semi conductors
C. dielectrics
D. perfect conductors

Q. 81 The section of the CPU that selects, interprets and monitors the execution of program instructions is

A. Memory
B. Register unit
C. Control unit
D. ALU

Q. 82 Who among the following introduced the world’s first laptop computer in the market?

A. Hewlett-Packard
B. Epson
C. Laplink travelling software Inc
D. Microsoft

Q. 83 Brass contains

A. Copper and Zinc
B. Copper and Tin
C. Copper and Silver
D. Copper and Nickel

Q. 84 Which is the purest commercial form of iron?

A. Pig iron
B. Steel
C. Stainless steel
D. Wrought iron

Q. 85 In galvanization, iron is coated with

A. Copper
B. Zinc
C. Tin
D. Nickel

Q. 86 Which one of the following is also known as solution?

A. A compound
B. A homogeneous mixture
C. A heterogeneous mixture
D. A suspension

Q. 87 The cells which are closely associated and interacting with guard cells are

A. Transfusion tissue
B. Complementary cells
C. Subsidiary cells
D. Hypodermal cells

Q. 88 Conversion of starch to sugar is essential for

A. Stomatal opening
B. Stomatal closing
C. Stomatal formation
D. Stomatal growth

Q. 89 Soil erosion can be prevented by

A. Increasing bird population
B. Afforestation
C. Removal of vegetation
D. Overgrazing

Q. 90 Natural sources of air pollution are

A. Forest fires
B. Volcanic eruptions
C. Dust storm
D. Smoke from burning dry leaves

Q. 91 Which of the following Genetically Modified vegetable is recently being made available in Indian market?

A. Carrot
B. Radish
C. Brinjal
D. Potato

Q. 92 “Bull’s eye” is used in the game of

A. Boxing
B. Basketball
C. Polo
D. Shooting

Q. 93 As per newspapers report what percent of Government stake will be disinvested in Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd. (RINL)?

A. 5%
B. 50%
C. 10%
D. 12%

Q. 94 Pablo Picasso, the famous painter was

A. French
B. Italian
C. Flemish
D. Spanish

Q. 95 Which of the following is the Regulator of the credit rating agencies in India?

A. RBI
B. SBI
C. SIDBI
D. SEBI

Q. 96 Which is the first Indian Company to be listed in NASDAQ?

A. Reliance
B. TCS
C. HCL
D. Infosys

Q. 97 RRBs are owned by

A. Central Government
B. State Government
C. Sponsor Bank
D. Jointly by all of the above

Q. 98 The Monetary and Credit Policy is announced by which of the following?

A. Ministry of Finance of Centre
B. Reserve Bank of India
C. State Bank of India
D. Planning Commission of India

Q. 99 Which of the following method is not used in determining National Income of a country?

A. Income Method
B. Output Method
C. Input Method
D. Investment Method

Q. 100 What does the letter ‘e’ denotes in the term ‘e-banking’?

A. Essential Banking
B. Economic Banking
C. Electronic Banking
D. Expansion Banking

Q. 101 Arrange the following in ascending order
3³⁴, 2⁵¹, 7¹⁷, we get

A. 3³⁴ > 2⁵¹ > 7¹⁷
B. 7¹⁷ > 2⁵¹ > 3³⁴
C. 3³⁴ > 7¹⁷ > 2⁵¹
D. 2⁵¹ > 3³⁴ > 7¹⁷

Q. 102 If the product of first fifty positive consecutive integers be divisible by 7^n, where n is an integer, then the largest possible value of n is

A. 7
B. 8
C. 10
D. 5

Q. 103 A, B and C together can do a piece of work in 40 days. After working with B and C for 16 days, A leaves and then B and C complete the remaining work in 40 days more. A alone could do the work in

A. 80 days
B. 90 days
C. 100 days
D. 120 days

Q. 104 Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 6 hours. After working it together for 2 hours, C is closed and A and B can fill the remaining part in 7 hours. The number of hours taken by C alone to fill the tank is

A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16

Q. 105 Pratibha is thrice as efficient as Sonia and is therefore able to finish a piece of work in 60 days less than Sonia. Pratibha and Sonia can individually complete the work respectively in

A. 30, 60 days
B. 60, 90 days
C. 30, 90 days
D. 40, 120 days

Q. 106 The base of a right pyramid is an equilateral triangle of side 4 cm each. Each slant edge is 5 cm long. The volume of the pyramid is

A. 4√8/3 cm³
B. 4√60/3 cm³
C. 4√59/3 cm³
D. 4√61/3 cm³

Q. 107 There are two cones. The curved surface area of one is twice that of the other. The slant height of the latter is twice that of the former. The ratio of their radii is

A. 4 : 1
B. 4 : 3
C. 3 : 4
D. 1 : 4

Q. 108 A wire is bent into the form of a circle, whose area is 154 cm². If the same wire is bent into the form of an equilateral triangle, the approximate area of the equilateral triangle is

A. 93.14 cm²
B. 90.14 cm²
C. 83.14 cm²
D. 39.14 cm²

Q. 109 A shopkeeper allows 10% discount on goods when he sells without credit. Cost price of his goods is 80% of his selling price. If he sells his goods by cash, then his profit is

A. 50%
B. 70%
C. 25%
D. 40%

Q. 110 A dealer of scientific instruments allows 20% discount on the marked price of the instruments and still makes a profit of 25%. If his gain over the sale of an instrument is ₹150, find the marked price of the instrument

A. ₹ 938.50
B. ₹ 940
C. ₹ 938
D. ₹ 937.50

Q. 111 Ram bought a T.V. with 20% discount on the labelled price. Had he bought it with 30% discount he would have saved ₹ 800. The value of the T.V. set that he bought is

A. ₹ 5,000
B. ₹ 8,000
C. ₹ 9,000
D. ₹ 10,000

Q. 112 A vessel full of pure acid contains 10 litres of it, of which 2 litres are withdrawn. The vessel is then filled with water. Next 2 litres of the mixture are withdrawn, and again the vessel is filled up with water. The ratio of the acid left in the vessel with that of the original quantity is

A. 1 : 5
B. 4 : 5
C. 4 : 25
D. 16 : 25

Q. 113 Gold is 19 times as heavy as water and copper is 9 times as heavy as water. In what ratio should these be mixed to get an alloy 15 times as heavy as water?

A. 1 : 1
B. 1 : 2
C. 2 : 3
D. 3 : 2

Q. 114 The average age of boys in the class is twice the number of girls in the class. The ratio of boys and girls in the class of 50 is 4 : 1. The total of the ages (in years) of the boys in the class is

A. 2000
B. 2500
C. 800
D. 400

Q. 115 There are 100 students in 3 sections A, B and C of a class. The average marks of all the 3 sections was 84. The average of B and C was 87.5 and the average marks of A is 70. The number of students in A was

A. 30
B. 35
C. 20
D. 25

Q. 116 A sold an article to B at 20% profit and B sold it to C at 15% loss. If A sold it to C at the selling price of B, then A would make

A. 5% profit
B. 2% profit
C. 2% profit
D. 5% loss

Q. 117 The monthly salaries of A and B together amount to ₹40,000. A spends 85% of his salary and B, 95% of his salary. If now their savings are the same, then the salary (in ₹) of A is

A. 10,000
B. 12,000
C. 16,000
D. 18,000

Q. 118 It takes 8 hours for a 600 km journey, if 120 km is done by train and the rest by car. It takes 20 minutes more if 200 km is down by train and the rest by car. The ratio of the speed of the train to that of the car is

A. 2 : 3
B. 3 : 2
C. 3 : 4
D. 4 : 3

Q. 119 If a train runs at 70 km/hour, it reaches its destination late by 12 minutes. But if it runs at 80 km/hour, it is late by 3 minutes. The correct time to cover the journey is

A. 58 minutes
B. 2 hours
C. 1 hour
D. 59 minutes

Q. 120 A man borrowed some money from a private organisation at 5% simple interest per annum. He lended 50% of this money to another person at 10% compound interest per annum and thereby the man made a profit of ` 13,205 in 4 years. The man borrowed

A. ₹ 80,000
B. ₹ 1,00,000
C. ₹ 1,20,000
D. ₹ 1,50,000

Q. 121 If a² + b² + c² = 2a – 2b – 2, then the value of 3a – 2b + c is

A. 0
B. 3
C. 5
D. 2

Q. 122 If a + b + c = 3, a²+ b² + c² = 6 and 1/a + 1/b + 1/c = 1, where a, b, c are all non-zero, then ‘abc’ is equal to

A. 2/3
B. 3/2
C. 1/2
D. 1/3

Q. 123 If a² – 4a – 1 = 0, a ≠ 0, then the value of a² + 3a + 1/a² – 3/a is

A. 24
B. 26
C. 28
D. 30

Q. 124 The total area (in sq. unit) of the triangles formed by the graph of 4x + 5y = 40, x-axis, y-axis and x = 5 and y = 4 is

A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40

Q. 125 For what value of k, the system of equations kx + 2y = 2 and 3x + y = 1 will be coincident?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6

Q. 126 If x = 2 + √3 , then x² + 1/x² is equal to

A. 10
B. 12
C. -12
D. 14

Q. 127 If a = 4.965, b = 2.343 and c = 2.622, then the value of a³ – b³ – c³ – 3abc is

A. -2
B. -1
C. 0
D. 9.93²

Q. 128 If x + y + z = 0, then the value of x² + y² + z²/(x² – yz) is

A. -1
B. 0
C. 1
D. 2

Q. 129 The value of sin²1° + sin²2° + sin²3° + …. + sin²89° is

A. 22
B. 44
C. 22 1/2
D. 44 1/2

Q. 130 The value of (cos³θ + sin³θ/(cos θ + sin θ)) + (cos³θ – sin³θ/(cos θ – sin θ)) is equal to

A. -1
B. 1
C. 2
D. 0

Q. 131 The shadow of a tower standing on a level plane is found to be 30 m longer when the Sun’s altitude changes from 60° to 45°. The height of the tower is

A. 15(3 + √3) m
B. 15(3 + √1) m
C. 15(3 – √1) m
D. 15(3 – √3) m

Q. 132 If sin 17° = x/y then sec 17° – sin 73° is equal to

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 133 If θ is a positive acute angle and cosec θ + cot θ = √3 , then the value of cosec θ is

A. 1/√3
B. √3
C. 2/√3
D. 1

Q. 134 If cos α + sec α = √3 , then the value of cos³ α + sec³ α is

A. 2
B. 1
C. 0
D. 4

Q. 135 If sin θ + cos θ = √2 cos θ, then the value of cot θ is

A. √2 + 1
B. √2 – 1
C. √3 – 1
D. √3 + 1

Q. 136 In a quadrilateral ABCD, the bisectors of ∠A and ∠B meet at O. If ∠C = 70° and ∠D = 130°, then measure of ∠AOB is

A. 40°
B. 60°
C. 80°
D. 100°

Q. 137 In ΔABC, E and D are points on sides AB and AC respectively such that ∠ABC = ∠ADE. If AE = 3 cm, AD = 2 cm and EB = 2 cm, then length of DC is

A. 4 cm
B. 4.5 cm
C. 5.0 cm
D. 5.5 cm

Q. 138 In a circle with centre O, AB is a chord, and AP is a tangent to the circle. If ∠AOB = 140°, then the measure of ∠PAB is

A. 35°
B. 55°
C. 70°
D. 75°

Q. 139 In DABC, ∠A < ∠B. The altitude to the base divides vertex angle C into two parts C1 and C2, with C2 adjacent to BC. Then

A. C1 + C2 = A + B
B. C1 – C2 = A – B
C. C1 – C2 = B – A
D. C1 + C2 = B -A

Q. 140 If O is the in-centre of ΔABC; if ∠BOC = 120°, then the measure of ∠BAC is

A. 30°
B. 60°
C. 150°
D. 75°

Q. 141 Two parallel chords of a circle of diameter 20 cm are 12 cm and 16 cm long. If the chords are in the same side of the centre, then the distance between them is

A. 28 cm
B. 2 cm
C. 4 cm
D. 8 cm

Q. 142 The interior angle of a regular polygon is 140°. The number of sides of that polygon is

A. 9
B. 8
C. 7
D. 6

Q. 143 If two circles of radii 9 cm and 4 cm touch externally, then the length of a common tangent is

A. 5 cm
B. 7 cm
C. 8 cm
D. 12 cm

Q. 144 The ratio of the total number of students scoring marks less than 50% to that of scoring marks exactly 50% is

A. 50 : 3
B. 25 : 2
C. 25 : 4
D. 35 : 2

Q. 145 Which school has the highest number of students scoring exactly 50% marks?

A. D
B. E
C. B
D. A

Q. 146 The total number of students scoring 50% or more marks is

A. 1250
B. 875
C. 775
D. 675

Study the following graph which shows income and expenditure of a company over the years 2005-2009 and answer question 147 to 150.

Q. 147 The difference in profit (₹ in crores) of the company during 2006 and 2007 is

A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25

Q. 148 In how many years was the income of the company less than the average income of the given years?

A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1

Q. 149 The percentage increase in expenditure to the company from 2007 to 2008 is

A. 20
B. 25
C. 30
D. 35

Q. 150 Profit of the company was maximum in the year

A. 2009
B. 2008
C. 2006
D. 2005

In question Nos. 151 to 155, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the ovel [.] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A.B.C). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the ovel corresponding to (D) in the answer sheet.

Q. 151 Choose the correct option:

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 152 Choose the correct option:

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 153 Choose the correct option:

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 154 Choose the correct option:

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 155 Choose the correct option:

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Directions: In Question Nos. 156 to 160, sentences are given with blanks to be field in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval [•] in the Answer Sheet.

Q. 156 The student was punished for his _____.

A. impudence
B. prudence
C. modesty
D. elemency

Q. 157 My father was too _____ to push the heavy door.

A. faint
B. feeble
C. fragile
D. faltering

Q. 158 The flood damaged the books so much that it was impossible to _____ them.

A. retrieve
B. retrace
C. retract
D. retreat

Q. 159 His bungalow went through a make _____.

A. up
B. out
C. over
D. for

Q. 160 This auspicious beginning _____ well for a successful completion of our project.

A. attunes
B. argues
C. augurs
D. answers

Q. 161 choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet
Persist

A. Resist
B. Leave
C. Quit
D. Insist

Q. 162 choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
Eventually

A. previously
B. briefly
C. finally
D. successfully

Q. 163 choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet
Impeccable

A. remarkable
B. unbelievable
C. flawless
D. displeasing

Q. 164 choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
Predilection

A. Predicament
B. Afterthought
C. Aversion
D. Postponement

Q. 165 choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
Pompous

A. Uppish
B. Humble
C. Meek
D. Grandiose

Q. 166 choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
Serene

A. Calm
B. Angry
C. Ruffled
D. Bitter

Directions: In Question Nos. 167 to 171, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined in the sentense. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom\Phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

Q. 167 With great difficulty, he was able to carve out a niche for himself.

A. became a sculptor
B. did the best he could do
C. destroyed his career
D. developed a specific position for himself

Q. 168 You will succeed if you follow my advice to the letter.

A. about writing letters
B. written in the letter
C. in every detail
D. very thoughtfully

Q. 169 A critic’s work is to read between the lines.

A. to comprehend the meaning
B. to appreciate the inner beauty
C. to understand the inner meaning
D. to read carefully

Q. 170 Where discipline is concerned I put my foot down.

A. take a firm stand
B. take a light stand
C. take a heavy stand
D. take a shaky stand

Q. 171 The convict claimed innocence and stood his ground in spite of the repeated accusations.

A. knelt
B. surrendered
C. kept standing
D. refused to yield

Directions: In Question Nos. 172 to 181, a sentence/a part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (a), (b), (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (d). Mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

Q. 172 Choose the correct option:

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 173 Choose the correct option:

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 174 Choose the correct option:

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 175 Choose the correct option:

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 176 Choose the correct option:

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 177 Choose the correct option:

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 178 Choose the correct option:

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 179 Choose the correct option:

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 180 Choose the correct option:

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Q. 181 Choose the correct option:

A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d

Directions: In Question Nos. 182 to 188, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and indicate it by blackening the appropriate oval [•] in the Answer Sheet.

Q. 182 Belief in many gods

A. pantheism
B. monotheism
C. polytheism
D. atheism

Q. 183 A cluster of flowers on a branch

A. bouquet
B. inflorescence
C. wreath
D. incandescence

Q. 184 A person who believes that only selfishness motivates human actions

A. agnostic
B. cynic
C. sceptic
D. misogynist

Q. 185 A highly skilled musician

A. artiste
B. virtuoso
C. performer
D. diva

Q. 186 A method of boiling briefly to cook food slightly

A. steam
B. bake
C. saute
D. parboil

Q. 187 The group, especially in the arts, regarded as being the most experimental

A. avant-garde
B. iconoclast
C. revolutionary
D. nerd

Q. 188 One who helps people by giving them money or other aid

A. benefactor
B. beneficiary
C. tycoon
D. patriot

Directions: In Question Nos. 189 to 190, four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

Q. 189 Choose the correct option:

A. Plebeian
B. Plibeian
C. Plebian
D. Plebiean

Q. 190 Choose the correct option:

A. Suroundings
B. Surroundings
C. Sarroundings
D. Surondings

PASSAGE – I (Q. NOS. 191-195)
As I stepped out of the train I felt unusually solitary since I was the only passenger to alight. I was accustomed to arriving in the summer, when holidaymakers throng coastal resorts and this was my first visit when the season was over. My destination was a little village which was eight miles by road. It took only a few minutes for me to come to the foot of the cliff path. When I reached the top I had left all signs of habitation behind me. I was surprised to notice that the sky was already a flame with the sunset. It seemed to be getting dark amazingly quickly. I was at a loss to account
for the exceptionally early end of daylight since I did not think I had walked unduly slowly. Then I recollected that on previous visits I had walked in high summer and how it was October. All at once it was night. The track was grassy and even in daylight showed up hardly at all. I was terrified of hurtling over the edge of the cliff to the rocks below. I felt my feet squelching and sticking in something soggy. Then I bumped into a little clump of trees that loomed up in front of me. I climbed up the nearest trunk and managed to find a tolerable comfortable fork to sit on. The waiting was spent by my attempts to identify the little stirrings and noises of animal life that I could hear. I grew colder and colder and managed to sleep only in uneasy fitful starts. At last when the moon came up I was on my way again.

Q. 191 The writer felt unusually solitary because

A. he was feeling very lonely without his family.
B. he was missing the company of other holiday-makers.
C. his destination was a little village eight miles away.
D. there was no one to meet him.

Q. 192 “I left all signs of habitation behind me.” This means that he

A. came to a place where there were very few houses.
B. was in front of a large collection of cottages
C. had come very far from places where people lived.
D. had just passed a remote village.

Q. 193 I became darker than the writer expected because

A. the nights are shorter in autumn than in summer.
B. the nights are longer in October than mid summer.
C. the train arrived later than usual.
D. he had walked unduly slowly.

Q. 194 The writer found it difficult to keep to the path because of

A. the darkness and narrowness of the path.
B. poor visibility and grassy track.
C. the darkness and his slow pace.
D. poor visibility and dew on grass

Q. 195 When he settled himself on the fork of the tree the writer ___________

A. had a sound sleep.
B. was disturbed by noises of animals.
C. was too afraid to sleep.
D. tried to sleep but without much success.

PASSAGE – II (Q. NOS. 196-200)
It is sad that in country after country, progress should become synonymous with an assault on nature. We who are a part of nature and dependent on her for every need, speak constantly about ‘exploiting’ nature. When the highest mountain in the world was climbed in 1953, Jawaharlal Nehru objected to the phrase conquest of Everest’ which he thought was arrogant. Is it surprising that this lack of consideration and the constant need to prove one’s superiority should be projected onto our treatment of our fellowmen? I remember Edward Thompson, a British writer and a good friend of India, once telling Mr. Gandhi that wildlife was fast disappearing. Remarked Mr. Gandhi: ‘It is decreasing in the jungles but it is increasing in the towns’. On the one hand the rich look askance at our continuing poverty; on the other they warn us against their own methods. We do not wish to impoverish the environment any further and yet we cannot forget the grim poverty of large numbers of people. Are not poverty and need the great polluters? For instance, unless we are in a position to provide employment and purchasing power for the daily necessities of the tribal people and those who live in and around our jungles, we cannot prevent them from combing the forest for food and livelihood, from poaching and from despoiling the vegetation.

Q. 196 At the beginning of the passage, the writer expresses her opinion that in many countries progress is synonymous with

A. development
B. utmost care for nature.
C. a balanced treatment of nature.
D. utmost cruelty to nature.

Q. 197 In the passage the term ‘exploiting’ nature suggests

A. regretfulness
B. sarcasm
C. destructive urge of man
D. greed of man

Q. 198 Nehru objected to the phrase ‘conquest of Everest’ since

A. it carries a war-like connotation.
B. it sounds pompous and boastful.
C. it depicts Everest as a victim.
D. Everest is unconquerable.

Q. 199 Gandhi’s statement ‘It is decreasing in the jungles but it is increasing in the towns.!’

A. Refers to wild animals’ decrease in the jungle
B. Refers to flora and fauna
C. Refers to man’s selfishness
D. Is a satirical comparison of man’s callousness to the animals

Q. 200 The writer is of opinion that tribal people can be prevented from combining forest for food

A. to provide employment
B. to increase purchasing power
C. by deterring them from poaching and despoiling vegetation
D. to provide employment and purchasing power for daily necessities

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	C	A	B	C	B	D	B	B	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	D	D	B	B	C	C	A	B	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	C	D	D	C	C	A	D	B	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	D	A	B	B	C	C	C	C	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	D	C	B	A	D	B	B	D	C	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	C	C	A	B	B	A	A	A	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	D	C	A	B	C	A	A	D	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	B	A	B	A	A	C	B	D	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	B	A	D	B	B	C	A	A	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	D	C	D	D	D	D	B	D	C
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	B	B	C	C	C	C	A	B	C	A
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	D	D	C	C	B	A	C	C	B
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	B	D	A	D	D	C	D	D	C
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	A	D	C	C	A	D	D	C	C	B
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	B	A	D	B	A	C	B	C	B	C
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	A	B	B	B	B	A	B	A	C	C
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	D	D	C	C	B	C	D	C	C	A
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	D	A	D	C	A	A	B	A	C	B
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	C	C	B	B	B	D	A	A	A	B
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	B	C	B	D	D	D	B	B	C	D

SSC CGL Tier-I 08 July 2012 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2012 8 Jul Shift 2

Q. 1 Length: meter :: power :: ?

A. calories

B. degree

C. watt

D. kilometer

Q. 2 Square : Cube :: circle :: ?

A. Ellipse

B. parabola

C. cone

D. sphere

Q. 3 Paper :: Tree :: Glass : ?

A. window

B. sand

C. stone

D. mirror

Q. 4 ACFJ :: ZXUQ :: EGIN :: ??

A. VUSQ

B. VRPM

C. UTRP

D. VTRM

Q. 5 ACEG :: DFHJ :: QSUW :: ??

A. TVXZ

B. TQST

C. MNPR

D. EGIJ

Q. 6 EGIK :: FILO :: FHJL :: ??

A. JGMP

B. JGPM

C. GJPM

D. GJMP

Q. 7 10 :: 91 :: 9 ??

A. 69

B. 72

C. 89

D. 97

Q. 8 7 :: 56 :: 9 ??

A. 63

B. 81

C. 93

D. 99

Q. 9 20 : 50 :100 ?

A. 150

B. 250

C. 200

D. 156

Q. 10 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. Pathelogy

B. geology

C. cardiology

D. radiology

Q. 11 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. Rivulet

B. stream

C. river

D. pond

Q. 12 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. konark

B. madhurai

C. dilmora

D. ellora

Q. 13 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. RTW

B. QOM

C. IKG

D. IKM

Q. 14 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. EFH

B. OPQ

C. BCE

D. IJL

Q. 15 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. DH

B. FJ

C. HK

D. PR

Q. 16 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. 121

B. 324

C. 523

D. 729

Q. 17 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. 704, 11

B. 256 , 4

C. 823, 13

D. 310, 5

Q. 18 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. 24

B. 49

C. 80

D. 15

Q. 19 Arrange the following words in the ascending order in the dictionary :

1. Pick

2.Pith

3.Pile

4.PErk

5. Pour

A. 4,1,2,3 5

B. 4 1 3 2 5

C. 4 3 2 1 5

D. 5 4 3 2 1

Q. 20 Arrange the following words in the ascending order in the dictionary :

1. Millineum

2. diamond jubliee

3.Silver jubliee

4.Century

5.golden jubliee

A. 2 3 5 4 1

B. 2 5 3 1 4

C. 3 5 2 4 1

D. 2 3 5 1 4

Q. 21 Arrange the following words in the ascending order in the dictionary :

1. weekly

2. Bi-anual

3.fortnightly

4. monthly

5.annual

A. 1, 3,4 2, 5

B. 2,5, 4,1,3

C. 4, 1,2, 3, 5

D. 5,2, 4,3,1

Q. 22 Which one of the set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?

a__ cbc __ca __ ab__ bca __ ab

A. b a b c c

B. b c a b b

C. a b c b c

D. b c a b c

Q. 23 BCFG, JKNO , RSVW , … ?

A. ZADE

B. HIKL

C. STUX

D. MNPQ

Q. 24 CNR, HIN, MSW .. ?

A. SXA

B. YUB

C. RXB

D. ZEH

Q. 25 2, ,3 6 , 7, 14, 15 ?

A. 16

B. 30

C. 31

D. 32

Q. 26 3120 , ? , 122 , 23, 4

A. 488

B. 621

C. 610

D. 732

Q. 27 0 , 5 , 60 , 615 ?

A. 6030

B. 6170

C. 6130

D. 6000

Q. 28 Nithya is sam’s sister .Mogan is sam’s father .Selvan is rajan’s son . Rajan is mogan’s brother .How is nithya related to selvan ?

A. daughter

B. sister

C. cousin

D. wife

Q. 29 A boy’s age is one fourth of his father’s age .The sum of boy’s age and his father’s age is 35 what will be father’s age after 8 years ?

A. 15

B. 28

C. 35

D. 36

Q. 30 A man said to a lady ” your mother’s husband’s sister is my aunt “. How is the lady related to aunt ?

A. sister

B. mother

C. daughter

D. granddaughter

Q. 31 If south east becomes north , then what will south east become ?

A. north

B. west

C. east

D. north west

Q. 32 From the given options select the correct option which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word .

CONTENTION

A. tonic

B. note

C. nation

D. notion

Q. 33 In a certain code language ,GRAPE is written as 27354 and FOUR written as 1687 . How is group written in that code ?

A. 27384

B. 27684

C. 27685

D. 27658

Q. 34 WAYIN is written as TXVFK .How LBU be written in that code ?

A. IYRH

B. KATJ

C. JZSI

D. NDWM

Q. 35 In a certain language , if the word PARTNER as OZQSMDQ .What is the code word for SEGMENT ?

A. TFHNFOU

B. RDFLDMS

C. RDELDMS

D. RDFEDNS

Q. 36 IF DOCTOR is written as FQEVQT , how PATIENT can be written in that code ?

A. RVKGPV

B. RCKPGVV

C. RCVKGPV

D. RVCKGVP

Q. 37 Find the missing number ?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 3

D. 5

Q. 38 Find the missing number

A. 9

B. -4

C. 4

D. -8

Q. 39 IF + means ÷ , and – means X , X means + , ÷ means – then

90+18- 6 X 30 ÷ 4 = ?

A. 64

B. 65

C. 56

D. 48

Q. 40 IF 73 +46 = 42 and 95 +87 = 57 then , 62 +80 = ?

A. 32

B. 48

C. 64

D. 36

Q. 41 Based on the given data estimate the number of television buyers for the year 1990 .

A. 611

B. 591

C. 571

D. 601

Q. 42 A man coming from the backdoor of his house which is facing east walked for 1 kilometer turned to his right and walked for another kilometer .Then he turned to his right and walked another kilometer . Where was he from his home at the end ?

A. 1 km away in north

B. 1 km away in south

C. 1 km away in east

D. 1 km away in west

Q. 43 Two squads of soldiers A and B , facing east and west respectively received the following commands -Left turn , about turn , right turn , left turn .Which directions would be squad A and B face at the end ?

A. East ,west

B. West , East

C. North , South

D. South , North

Q. 44 Statements :

(1) Due to contamination of water, large number of people were admitted to hospital.

(2) The symptoms were of Typhoid.

Conclusions : I. Contamination of water may lead to Typhoid.

II. Typhoid is a contagious disease.

A. Only conclusion I is true

B. Only conclusion II is true

C. Both conclusions I and II are true

D. Both conclusions I and II are false

Q. 45 Statements :

(1) 60% of the government employees went on strike.

(2) Mr. Gopal is a government employee. Conclusions : I. Mr. Gopal went on strike.

II. Mr. Gopal did not participate in the strike.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Both conclusions I and II follow

D. Either conclusion I and II follows

Q. 46 In the following question which answer figure will complete the question figure?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 47 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden / embedded

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 48 In the following question a piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figure. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 49 In the following question if a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 50 In the following question a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘R’ can be represented by 13, 22, etc. and ‘P’ can be represented by 67, 76 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word SHRI.

A. 58, 02, 13, 01

B. 85, 42, 31, 14

C. 68, 20, 13, 32

D. 85, 02, 44, 30

Q. 51 A movement along the demand curve of a commodity occurs due to change in

A. income of the consumers

B. its own price

C. taste of consumers

D. expectations of the consumers

Q. 52 GNP calculation through expenditure method does not include

A. gross domestic private investments

B. net foreign investments

C. depreciation expenditures

D. private consumer expenditure

Q. 53 Which one of the following is not a qualitative credit control measure of the RBI?

A. Fixing margin requirements

B. Variable interest rates

C. Open market operations

D. Credit rationing

Q. 54 Find the odd one out of the following

A. Delhi transport corporation

B. Indian Railways

C. kingfisher airlines

D. Reliance industries limited

Q. 55 Monetray policy in India is laid down and executed by

A. union government

B. ASSOCHAM

C. Reserve bank of India

D. FICCI

Q. 56 Which one of the following subjects is not available on the union list ?

A. census

B. banking

C. trade union

D. foreign loans

Q. 57 The term closure in parlimaentary language implies .

A. the end of session of parliament

B. stoppage of debate on a motion

C. end of days proceedings

D. none of the above

Q. 58 Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

A. Article 14 – equality before law

B. Article 16 – equal opportunities

C. Article 17 – abolition of titles

D. Article 18 – permission of military titles

Q. 59 Which of the following presidents held office for 2 consecutive terms?

A. Dr. S.Radha krishnan

B. Dr. Zakir Hussain

C. Dr.Rajendra prasad

D. both a and c

Q. 60 Which of the amendment act reduced the age from 21 to 18 ?

A. 42nd

B. 44th

C. 52nd

D. 61st

Q. 61 Who among the following was the First Viceroy of India?

A. Lord Ripon

B. Lord Curzon

C. Lord Mountbatten

D. Lord Canning

Q. 62 Mahavira was the

A. 21st tirthankara

B. 24th tirthankara

C. 23rd tirthankara

D. 22nd tirthankara

Q. 63 Which one among the following women scholars challenged the invincible yajnavalkya in debate ?

A. Ghosa

B. Apala

C. Maitreyi

D. Gargi

Q. 64 Which one of the following made the crown of england to take over Indian administration ?

A. Battle of plassey

B. Battle of buxar

C. the carnatic wars

D. the sepoy mutiny

Q. 65 Who built the famous dilwara temple at mount abu in rajasthan in the 13th century ?

A. Mahendrapala

B. Mahipala

C. Rajyapala

D. Tejapala

Q. 66 Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

A. Darjeeling – West Bengal

B. Mount Abu – Rajasthan

C. Kodaikanal – Tamil Nadu

D. Simla – Uttar Pradesh

Q. 67 The earth is at its maximum distance from the Sun on

A. January 30th

B. December 22nd

C. September 22nd

D. July 4th

Q. 68 Consider the following pairs:

Tributary Main River

1. Chambal : Yamuna

2. Sone : Narmada

3. Manas : Brahmputra

Which one of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2

C. 2 and 3

D. 3 only

Q. 69 A form of condensation that reduces visibility and causes breathing problems is

A. dew

B. frost

C. smog

D. mist

Q. 70 The total population divided by available arable land area is referred to as

A. Population density

B. Nutritional density

C. Agricultural density

D. Industrial density

Q. 71 Green glands are associated with

A. Reproduction

B. Excretion

C. Respiration

D. Digestion

Q. 72 During the respiration, the gases enter into the blood and leave the same by the process of

A. Active Transport

B. Diffusion

C. Diffusion and active transport

D. Osmosis

Q. 73 Broad spectrum antibiotics are produced by

A. streptomyces

B. aspergillus

C. pencillium

D. basicllus

Q. 74 The pigment that protects plants from harmful effects of ultraviolet rays is

A. chlorophyll

B. caretenoid

C. physcocinain

D. plastid

Q. 75 Glucogen , starch and cellulose are polymers of

A. fructose

B. glucose

C. lactose

D. maltose

Q. 76 Black death is

A. cancer

B. AIDS

C. plague

D. gonorreha

Q. 77 stars appear to move from east to west because of

A. the whole universe is moving from east to west

B. earth is revolving round the sun

C. earth is rotating from east to west

D. earth is rotating from west to east

Q. 78 On the moo the astronaut cannot drink lemonade with the help of stawr because

A. acceleration due to gravity on the moon is less

B. there is no atmosphere on the moon

C. lemonade evaporates instantly on the moon

D. none of the above

Q. 79 A particle moving with uniform speed

A. must have uniform velocity

B. cannot have uniform velocity

C. may have uniform velocity

D. will have no uniform velocity

Q. 80 Device which uses sound waves for detection and ranging is called

A. radar

B. sonar

C. pukar

D. none of these

Q. 81 What is the name of the network topology in which there are bi-directioal links between each possible note ?

A. Ring

B. star

C. tree

D. mesh

Q. 82 LAN stands for

A. Local area nodes

B. Large area network

C. large area nodes

D. local area network

Q. 83 Dry ice is nothing but

A. gaseous carbon diaoxide

B. washing soda

C. soild carbon diaoxide

D. carbon monoxide

Q. 84 Which one is obtained as slag in a blast furnance

A. calcium carbonate

B. calcium sulphate

C. calcium chloride

D. calcium silicate

Q. 85 When H2 gas is allowed to expand from a region of high pressure to aregion of low pressure the temperature of gas

A. decreases to a small extent

B. increases

C. dos not change

D. decreases slowly

Q. 86 In the industrail production of vegetable ghee, the process involved is :

A. dissociation

B. reduction

C. oxidation

D. ionisation

Q. 87 Which one of the followind weeds is found useful to check water pollution in the industrial afluents ?

A. parthenium

B. elephant grass

C. water hyaicnth

D. both a and b

Q. 88 In which year the chernobyl nuclear power plant of the former USSR had accident that caused escape of radio nuclieds into atmosphere ?

A. 1979

B. 1980

C. 1984

D. 1986

Q. 89 certain desert lizards excrete their wastes in dry forms This serves as a means of

A. prootective mechanism against predators

B. limiting factor of the organism

C. adaption of the organsim to the environment

D. counting the problem of food scarcity

Q. 90 Which one is regarded as world Heritage forest ?

A. nandan kanan in odisha

B. kaziranga in assam

C. sunderbans in west bengal

D. Indian botanical garden , west bengal

Q. 91 Kidney can be taken from a dying person who has the

A. cessation of neurological function only

B. cessation of cardiac function only

C. cessation of respirratory function only

D. cessation of kidney function only

Q. 92 One of the following Chief Minister received the highest Civilian Award “BHARAT RATNA”

A. Lalu Prasad yadav of bihar

B. Late M.G. Ramachandran of Tamilnadu

C. Jyothi Basu of West Bengal

D. Late N.T Ramam Rao of Andhra Pradesh

Q. 93 Loosong is a festival celebrated in

A. Tibet

B. Arunachal pradesh

C. Sikkim

D. Kerela

Q. 94 The commodity for which India spends the largest amount of import is

A. food grains

B. crude petroleum

C. fertilisers

D. iron and steel

Q. 95 In which categories did marie curie win her 2 different nobel prizes

A. physics and chemistry

B. chemistry and medicine

C. physics and medicine

D. chemistry and peace

Q. 96 Michail Phelps won _____ gold medals in swimming events in beijing olympics

A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 9

Q. 97 Spot the odd one from the following .

A. Tarapur

B. Trombay

C. kalpakan

D. Narora

Q. 98 Which of the following players has the unique distinction of 50 doubles titles in ATP tour history ?

A. LEander PEas

B. Andy roddick

C. Novak Djockovic

D. roger Fedrer

Q. 99 As per 2011 census , the state with the largest gap in male and female literacy is

A. uttar pradesh

B. madhya pradesh

C. Rajasthan

D. kerela

Q. 100 Whihc among the following is termed as hot money ?

A. FII

B. FDI

C. ADR

D. GDR

Q. 101 What would be the sum of 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 15 + ……. up to 15th term?

A. 250

B. 240

C. 225

D. 265

Q. 102 The least number which when divided by 48, 64, 90, 120 will leave the remainders 38, 54, 80, 110 respectively, is

A. 2870

B. 2860

C. 2890

D. 2880

Q. 103 A, B, C subscribe together ` 50,000 for a business. A subscribes ` 4,000 more than B and B ` 5,000 more than C. Out of a total profit of ` 35,000, A receives

A. rs.` 8,500

B. rs.`11,998

C. rs.12,600

D. rs.14,700

Q. 104 If 1³+ 2³+ ……. + 9³ = 2025 then the approx. value of (0.11)³+ (0.22)³+ ……. + (0.99)³ is

A. 0.2695

B. 0.3695

C. 2.695

D. 3.695

Q. 105 With a two digit prime number, if 18 is added, we get another prime number with digits reversed. How many such numbers are possible?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 0

D. 1

Q. 106 X and Y can do a piece of work in 30 days. They work together for 6 days and then X quits and Y finishes the work in 32 more days. In how many days can Y do the piece of work alone?

A. 30 days

B. 32 days

C. 34 days

D. 40 days

Q. 107 A metal pipe of negligible thickness has radius 21 cm and length 90 cm. The outer curved surface area of the pipe in square cm is

A. 11880

B. 11680

C. 11480

D. 10080

Q. 108 A businessman allows a discount of 10% on the written price. How much above the cost price must he mark his goods to make a profit of 17%?

A. 30%

B. 20%

C. 27%

D. 18%

Q. 109 . 465 coins consists of 1 rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise coins. Their values are in the ratio 5: 3 : 1. The number of each type of coins respectively is

A. 155, 186, 124

B. 154, 187, 124

C. 154, 185, 126

D. 150, 140, 175

Q. 110 A batsman makes a score of 58 runs in the 15th innings and thus increases his average by 3 runs. What is the average after 15th inning?

A. 12

B. 14

C. 16

D. 18

Q. 111 The average of 5 consecutive numbers is n. If the next two numbers are also included, the average of the 7 numbers will

A. increase by 2

B. increase by 1

C. remain the same

D. increase by 1.4

Q. 112 A man sold an article at a loss of 20%. If he sells the article for rs.12 more, he would have gained 10%. The cost price of the article is

A. Rs.60

B. Rs.40

C. Rs.30

D. Rs.22

Q. 113 A trader has a weighing balance that shows 1,200 gm for a kilogram. He further marks up his cost price by 10%. Then the net profit percentage is

A. 32%

B. 23%

C. 31.75%

D. 23.5%

Q. 114 A car covers four successive 6 km stretches at speeds of 25 kmph, 50 kmph, 75 kmph and 150 kmph respectively. Its average speed over this distance is

A. 25 kmph

B. 50 kmph

C. 75 kmph

D. 150 kmph

Q. 115 The difference between C. I. (Compound Interest) and S.I. (Simple Interest) on a sum of Rs. 4,000 for 2 years at 5% p.a. payable yearly is

A. Rs.20

B. Rs.10

C. Rs. 50

D. Rs. 60

Q. 116 If x= 4ab/(a+b) i then the value of

A. a

B. b

C. 0

D. 2

Q. 117 If x = 997, y = 998, z = 999, then the value of x²+ y²+ z² – xy – yz – zx will be

A. 3

B. 9

C. 16

D. 4

Q. 118 The area (in sq. unit) of the triangle formed by the three graphs of the equations x = 4, y = 3, and 3x + 4y = 12, is

A. 12

B. 10

C. 6

D. 8

Q. 119 . If a + b + c = 8, then the value of (a – 4)³+ (b – 3)³+ (c – 1)³ – 3 (a – 4) (b – 3) (c – 1) is

A. 2

B. 4

C. 1

D. 0

Q. 120 If x= √a+1/√a and y= √a-1/√a then the value of x⁴+ y⁴– 2x²2y²

A. 16

B. 20

C. 10

D. 5

Q. 121 Id 5a+(1/3a)= 5 then the value of 9a ² + 1/25a ² is

A. 51/5

B. 29/5

C. 52/5

D. 39/5

Q. 122 If x = +3+ 2√2 then the value of √x-1/√x is

A. ±2√2

B. ±2

C. ±√2

D. ±1/2

Q. 123 . If abc ++= 0 , the value of

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Q. 124 If a, b, c are real and a³+ b³+ c³= 3ab and abc ++¹ 0, then the relation between a, b, c will be

A. a + b = c

B. a + c = b

C. a = c = b

D. b + c = a

Q. 125 The radius of the circumcircle of the triangle made by x-axis, y-axis and 4x + 3y = 12 is

A. 2 unit

B. 2.5 unit

C. 3 unit

D. 4 unit

Q. 126 The length of the circum-radius of a triangle having sides of lengths 12 cm, 16 cm and 20 cm is

A. 15 cm

B. 18 cm

C. 10 cm

D. 16 cm

Q. 127 If D is the mid-point of the side BC of triangle ABC and the area of trainagle ABD is 16 cm , then the area of trianagle ABC is

A. 16 cm^2

B. 24 cm ^2

C. 32 cm ^2

D. 48 cm ^2

Q. 128 ABC is a triangle. The medians CD and BE intersect each other at O. Then triangle ODE : D ABC is

A. 1 :3

B. 1: 4

C. 1: 6

D. 1 :12

Q. 129 If P, R, T are the area of a parallelogram, a rhombus and a triangle standing on the same base and between the same parallels, which of the following is true?

A. R < P < T

B. P > R > T

C. R = P = T

D. R = P = 2T

Q. 130 AB is a diameter of the circumcircle of D APB; N is the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point P on AB. If AP = 8 cm and BP = 6 cm, then the length of BN is

A. 3.6 cm

B. 3 cm

C. 3.4 cm

D. 3.5 cm

Q. 131 Two circles with same radius r intersect each other and one passes through the centre of the other. Then the length of the common chord is

A. r

B. √3r

C. √3/2 r

D. √5 r

Q. 132 The bisector of ÐA of DABC cuts BC at D and the circumcircle of the triangle at E. Then

A. AB : AC = BD : DC

B. AD : AC = AE : AB

C. AB : AD = AC : AE

D. AB : AD = AE : AC

Q. 133 Two circles intersect each other at P and Q. PA and PB are two diameters. Then ∠AQB is

A. 120°

B. 135°

C. 160°

D. 180°

Q. 134 O is the centre of the circle passing through the points A, B and C such that ∠BAO = 30°, ∠BCO = 40° and ∠AOC = x°. What is the value of x ?

A. 70°

B. 140°

C. 210°

D. 280°

Q. 135 A and B are centres of the two circles whose radii are 5 cm and 2 cm respectively. The direct common tangents to the circles meet AB extended at P. Then P divides AB

A. externally in the ratio 5 : 2

B. internally in the ratio 2 : 5

C. internally in the ratio 5 : 2

D. externally in the ratio 7 : 2

Q. 136 A wheel rotates 3.5 times in one second. What time (in seconds) does the wheel take to rotate 55 radian of angle?

A. 1.5

B. 2.5

C. 3.5

D. 4.5

Q. 137 If 2y cosθ = x sinθ and 2x secθ – y cosec θ= 3, then the relation between x and y is

A. 2x²+ y²= 2

B. x²+ 4y²= 4

C. x²+ 4y²= 1

D. 4x²+ y²= 4

Q. 138 if sec θ+ tan θ =√3 then the positive value of sinθ is

A. 0

B. 1/2

C. √3/2

D. 1

Q. 139 The radian measure of 63 °14′ 51″ is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 140 In a triangle ABC, AB = AC, BA is produced to D in such a manner that AC = AD. The circular measure of triangle BCD is

A. π/6

B. π/3

C. 2π/3

D. π/2

Q. 141 Find the value of the given equation

A. 4

B. 0

C. 1/8

D. 1

Q. 142 what is the value of the equation

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 143 The angles of elevation of the top of a tower standing on a horizontal plane from two points on a line passing through the foot of the tower at a distance 9 ft and 16 ft respectively are complementary angles. Then the height of the tower is

A. 9 ft

B. 12 ft

C. 16 ft

D. 144 ft

Q. 144 If sin²a = cos³a, then the value of (cot⁶a – cot²a) is

A. 1

B. 0

C. -1

D. 2

Q. 145 The simplified value of (1 + tanq + secq) (1 + cotq – cosecq) is

A. -2

B. 2

C. 1

D. -1

The Following Pie-Chart represents the profits earned by a certain company in seven sonsecutive years. Study the pie-chart carefully and answer the question.

Q. 146 If the expenditure in the year 1993 was 30% more than the expenditure in the year 1991, then the income in the year 1993 exceeds the income in the year 1991 by 30% of

A. the income in the year 1991

B. the expenditure in the year 1993

C. the income in the year 1993

D. the expenditure in the year 1991

Q. 147 If x% of the total of profits earned in all the given years is same as the profit earned in the year 1994, then x is

A. 16(2/3)

B. 33(1/3)

C. 12(1/2)

D. 11(2/3)

Q. 148 The ratios of expenditures and incomes in the years 1992, 1994 and 1996 are given to be 6 : 5 : 8 and 2 : 3 : 4 respectively. The ratio of the income in the year 1996 to the total expenditure in the years 1992 and 1994 is

A. 40 :11

B. 10 : 7

C. 20:11

D. 20 : 13

Q. 149 The year in which the profit is nearest to the average of the profits earned in all the given years is

A. 1991

B. 1995

C. 1993

D. 1994

Q. 150 If the income in the year 1997 was 5 times the expenditure made in the same year, then the ratio of the profit earned in the year 1991 to the expenditure in the year 1997 was

A. 11:28

B. 44 : 7

C. 28:11

D. 7 : 44

Q. 151 Air pollution, together with littering(A) are causing many problems(B) in our cities.(C ) No error.(D)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 152 The accused refused (A) to answer to the policeman (B) on duty (C) No error.(D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 153 What is(A) the use of me(B) attending the session?(c) No error(D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 154 We met our prospective employer, (A) for a briefing session(B) n the Taj Hotel(C) nO ERROR (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 155 Because of the severe snow storm and the road blocks,(A) the air force dropped food and(B) medical supplies close to the city(C) nO ERROR (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 156 . ______________ pollution control measures are expensive,many industries hesitate to adopt them

A. although

B. however

C. because

D. despite

Q. 157 It is not ______________ for a man to be confined to the pursuit of wealth.

A. healthy

B. easy

C. possible

D. common

Q. 158 ______________ his being innocent of the crime, the judge sentenced him to one year imprisonment.

A. inspite of

B. incase of

C. on account o f

D. in event of

Q. 159 It is a story of two men and a batch of ______________ armoured cars.

A. deceased

B. diseased

C. decrepit

D. defeated

Q. 160 Although there is ______________ gunfire, there is no stiff resistance to the revolutionary army

A. bitter

B. meagre

C. continuous

D. sporadic

Q. 161 choose the one which best expresses the meaning of Vociferous

A. violent

B. loud

C. secret

D. true

Q. 162 choose the one which best expresses the meaning of Fictional

A. genuine

B. authentic

C. fanciful

D. real

Q. 163 choose the one which best expresses the meaning of Trivial

A. crucial

B. significant

C. vital

D. ordinary

Q. 164 choose the one which best expresses the meaning of Impudent

A. vigilant

B. astute

C. Insolent

D. arrogant

Q. 165 choose the one which best expresses the meaning of Pompous

A. Pretentious

B. Supportive

C. Demanding

D. flashy

Q. 166 choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word Cultivated

A. crude

B. Genteel

C. Suave

D. Refined

Q. 167 choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word Impertinent

A. Insolent

B. Impudent

C. Cheeky

D. Courteous

Q. 168 choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word Divulge

A. Disseminate

B. Dissemble

C. Publicize

D. Transmit

Q. 169 choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word Appreciation

A. Aspersion

B. Admiration

C. Commendation

D. Compliment

Q. 170 choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word Supple

A. Pliant

B. Pliable

C. Rigid

D. Flexible

Q. 171 Once the case reached the court, the police washed their hands off it

A. waited for a response to

B. claimed credit for

C. disassociated themselves from

D. seemed eager to continue

Q. 172 She wanted to go hitch-hiking but her mother put her foot down and now she’s going by bus

A. took a firm stand

B. expressed her displeasure

C. scolded her badly

D. got irritated

Q. 173 Adolescence is a period of halcyon days

A. hard days

B. of mental pressure

C. happy days

D. days of preparation

Q. 174 My sincere advice to my maidservant fell on stony ground

A. was counter productive

B. had a strong impact

C. made on stubborn

D. had little success

Q. 175 He has all his ducks in a row; he is complacent.

A. has everything ready

B. is well organised

C. always scores a zero

D. never gets confused

Q. 176 You “shall have attended” if the court had instructed you to do so.

A. would have had to attend

B. would attend

C. would have to

D. No improvement

Q. 177 The relics of Greece “over which” such a great deal of evidence has been collected should be preserved.

A. from which

B. on which

C. ascent which

D. no improvement

Q. 178 When the beverage was ready, they drank “possibly as much as they could.”

A. as much as they possibly could

B. as much as possibly they could

C. as much as they could possibly

D. No improvement

Q. 179 A citizen is expected to give “allegiance” to his country of origin.

A. homage

B. loyalty

C. obedience

D. no improvement

Q. 180 We were “with” daggers drawn despite attempts to understandeach other.

A. in

B. on

C. at

D. no improvement

Q. 181 A round or cylindrical container used for storing things such as food, chemicals or rolls of film

A. tankard

B. canister

C. vessel

D. casket

Q. 182 A place of permanent residence

A. abode

B. dormitory

C. domicile

D. apartment

Q. 183 That cannot be altered or withdrawn

A. irrevocable

B. irretrievable

C. irrefutable

D. irresistible

Q. 184 Money paid to employees on retirement

A. gratuity

B. gift

C. pension

D. arrears

Q. 185 A place where clothes are kept

A. closet

B. drawer

C. wardrobe

D. cupboard

Q. 186 Find the correctly spelt word

A. garulous

B. garrulous

C. garullous

D. garrullous

Q. 187 Find the correctly spelt word

A. marquee

B. markue

C. marquei

D. marquie

Q. 188 Find the correctly spelt word

A. puissant

B. puiscant

C. puiscent

D. puissent

Q. 189 Find the correctly spelt word

A. disconncerting

B. disconserting

C. discuncerting

D. disconcerting

Q. 190 Find the correctly spelt word

A. exilarate

B. exhilerate

C. exsilarate

D. exhilarate

Questions: 191 – 195

Stuck with the development dilemma? Stay away from management courses. Seriously, one of the biggest complaints that organisations have about management courses is that they fail to impact the participants’ on-the-job behaviour. Some management trainers stress the need for follow-up and reinforcement on the job. Some go so far as briefing the participants’ managers on what behaviour they should be reinforcing back on the job. Other include a follow-up training day to review the progress of the participants. None of this is really going far enough The real problem is that course promoters view development as something which primarily, takes place in a classroom. A course is an event and events are, by definition limited in time. When you talk about follow-up after a course, it is seen as a nice idea, but not as an essential part of the participants’ development programme. Any rational, empowered individual should be able to take what has been learnt in a course and transfer it to the work place – or so the argument goes. Another negative aspect of the course mindset is that, primarily, development is thought to be about skill-acquisition. So, it is felt that the distinction between taking the course and behaving differently in the work place parallels the distinction between skill-acquisition and skill-application. But can such a sharp distinction be maintained? Skills are really acquired only in the context of applying them on the job, finding them effective and, therefore, reinforcing them The problem with courses is that they are events, while development is an ongoing process which, involves, within a complex environment, continual interaction, regular feedback and adjustment. As we tend to equate development with a one-off event, it is difficult to get seriously motivated about the followup. Anyone paying for a course tends to look at follow-up as an unnecessary and rather costly frill.

Q. 191 What is the passage about?

A. personal management

B. development dilemma

C. management courses

D. course promotors’ attitude

Q. 192 Which of the following statements is false?

A. Some management trainers stress the need for followup and reinforcement on the job

B. Some suggest a follow-up training day to review the progress of the participants

C. Some go to the extent of briefing the participants’ managers on what behaviour they should be reinforcing back on the job

D. The real problem is that course promoters view development as something which does not take place during a course

Q. 193 The writer’s attitude, as reflected in the passage, is

A. critical

B. ironic

C. sympathetic

D. philosophical

Q. 194 The course promoters’ attitude is

A. self-righteous

B. ndifferent

C. easy-going

D. unprogressive

Q. 195 The word ‘mindset’ here means

A. a determined mind

B. a (fixed) attitude of mind

C. an open mind

D. mindful

Questions: 196 – 200

One may look at life, events, society, history, in another way. A way which might, at a stretch, be described as the Gandhian way, though it may be from times before Mahatma Gandhi came on the scene. The Gandhian reaction to all grim poverty, squalor and degradation of the human being would approximate to effort at selfchange and self-improvement, to a regime of living regulated by discipline from within. To change society, the individual must first change himself. In this way of looking at life and society, words too begin to mean differently. Revolution, for instance, is a term frequently used, but not always in the sense it has been in thelexicon of the militant. So also with words like peace and struggle. Even society may mean differently, being some kind of organic entity for the militant, and more or less a sum of individuals for the Gandhian. There is yet another way, which might, for want of a better description, be called the mystic. The mystic’s perspective measures these concerns that transcend political ambition and the dynamism of the reformer, whether he be militant or Gandhian. The mystic measures the terror of not knowing the remorseless march of time; he seeks to know what was before birth, what comes after death? The continuous presence of death, of the consciousness of death, sets his priorities and values: militants and Gandhians, kings and prophets, must leave all that they have built; all that they have unbuilt and depart when messengers of the buffaloriding Yama come out of the shadows. Water will to water, dust to dust. Think of impermanence. Everything passes.

Q. 196 The Gandhian reaction of poverty is

A. a total war on poverty

B. self-discipline

C. self-abnegation

D. a regulated distribution of wealth

Q. 197 According to Gandianism, the individual who wants to change society

A. should destroy the existing society

B. must re-form society

C. must change himself

D. may change society without changing himself

Q. 198 Who, according to the passage, finds new meaning for words like revolutions, peace and struggle?

A. A Gandhian who believes in non-violent revolution

B. A militant

C. A mystic

D. A Gandhian who disciplines himself from within

Q. 199 The expression ‘water will to water, dust to dust’ means

A. water and dust can mix well

B. man will become water after death

C. man will one day die and become dust

D. man will become dust and water after death

Q. 200 What does society mean to a Gandhian?

A. a sum of individuals

B. an organic entity

C. a regime of living regulated by discipline from within

D. a disciplined social community

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	D	B	D	A	D	B	C	B	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	D	A	B	C	B	C	D	B	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	A	A	C	B	B	B	C	D	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	C	C	B	A	C	C	B	C	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	A	D	D	D	D	B	D	C	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	B	C	C	B	C	B	A	D	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	B	D	C	B	D	D	C	C	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	C	A	C	B	C	D	C	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	A	C	C	A	B	D	D	D	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	A	A	B	C	B	D	A	C
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	C	A	D	C	A	D	A	A	A	C
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	B	A	B	B	D	A	C	D	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	D	B	B	C	B	B	C	D	D	A
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	B	D	D	B	A	A	B	B	A	D
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	D	A	B	A	B	D	A	C	A	C
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	B	B	B	C	D	C	A	A	C	D
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	B	C	A	D	B	A	D	B	A	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	C	A	C	D	B	A	C	A	B	C
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	B	C	A	A	C	B	A	A	D	D
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	C	D	A	D	B	B	C	D	C	A

SSC CGL Tier-I 31 June 2012 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2012 31 Jun Shift 2

Q. 1 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives

EVFU : TGSH : : IRJQ : _______

A. KWLX

B. PKOL

C. OLPK

D. PKLO

Q. 2 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives

L x M : 12 x 13 : : U x W : _______

A. 21 x 22

B. 24 x 26

C. 9 x 11

D. 21 x 23

Q. 3 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives

CFIL : XURO : : ORUX : _______

A. ROLI

B. RITO

C. LIFC

D. MJFC

Q. 4 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives

CFIL : ABCD : : _______ : WXYZ

A. ZYXW

B. DCBA

C. JHPS

D. XURO

Q. 5 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives

Zoology : Animal : : Psychology : _______

A. Animal

B. Human-being

C. Animal and human-being

D. Plant

Q. 6 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives

Life starts : embryo : : Life ends : _______

A. Old age

B. Dead body

C. Illness

D. Death

Q. 7 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives

Man : Mammal : : _______

A. Hail : Snow

B. Native : Inhabitant

C. Offspring : Family

D. Liberty : Literate

Q. 8 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives

1 : 8 : : 4 : _______

A. 64

B. 512

C. 128

D. 32

Q. 9 Select the related letter/ word/ number from the given alternatives

6 : 2 : : 8 : _______

A. 1

B. 3

C. 7

D. 5

Q. 10 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 81

B. 93

C. 66

D. 72

Q. 11 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. Frog

B. Tortoise

C. Crab

D. Fish

Q. 12 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 186 – 69

B. 168 – 570

C. 1001 – 100

D. 5270 – 2936

Q. 13 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. (64, 216)

B. (216, 02)

C. (343, 01)

D. (125, 27)

Q. 14 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. Jammu and Kashmir

B. Haryana

C. Himachal Pradesh

D. Arunachal Pradesh

Q. 15 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. IVEF

B. VEENS

C. EINN

D. VEIIDD

Q. 16 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 17

B. 27

C. 37

D. 47

Q. 17 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 6 3 8 5 2

B. 5 2 6 3 8

C. 2 8 7 5 1

D. 8 5 3 6 2

Q. 18 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. Number

B. Form

C. Weight

D. Size

Q. 19 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. Commission

B. Team

C. Agenda

D. Board

Q. 20 Find the odd number / letters / number pair from the given alternatives.

A. Addition

B. Subtract

C. Multiplication

D. Division

Q. 21 Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

DF , GJ , KM , NQ , RT, _______

A. UW

B. YZ

C. XZ

D. UX

Q. 22 Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

B I P _______ D

A. W

B. S

C. R

D. U

Q. 23 Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

AAC BBD CCE DDF EEG F_______

A. FG

B. GH

C. FH

D. DG

Q. 24 Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

RAZ SBY TCX UDW VEV _______

A. WFU

B. FWU

C. XGX

D. ZAT

Q. 25 which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?

a_ba_c_aad_aa_ea

A. babbd

B. babbc

C. bacde

D. babbb

Q. 26 which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?

aa_aa bb_b_aa_aa bb_bb

A. bbbba

B. aabbb

C. babba

D. bbbaa

Q. 27 If DEAF is equal to 32, what will be LEAF = _______

A. 48

B. 50

C. 52

D. 56

Q. 28 In a certain code, “CERTAIN” is coded as “XVIGZRM” , “SEQUENCE” is coded as “HVJFVMXV”.

How would “REQUIRED” be coded ?

A. VJIFWTRV

B. WVJRIFVI

C. IVJFRIVW

D. FJIVWVIR

Q. 29 If P denotes ÷ , Q denotes x , R denotes + , and S denotes − , then 18 Q 12 P 4 R 5 S 6 = _______

A. 53

B. 51

C. 57

D. 95

Q. 30 Find the wrong number in the series from the given alternatives.

17 , 36 , 53 , 68 , 83 , 92

A. 53

B. 68

C. 83

D. 92

Q. 31 Select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:

‘CONSTITUTIONAL’

A. LOCATION

B. TUTION

C. TALENT

D. CONSULT

Q. 32 If 25 ÷ 5 = 15, 30 ÷ 6 = 20 , then 35 ÷ 7 = _______

A. 20

B. 50

C. 25

D. 75

Q. 33 If 33 + 45 = 30, 90 + 26 = 40, then 30 + 45 = _______

A. 14

B. 16

C. 18

D. 15

Q. 34 It was Shriram’s and Sreedevi’s 12th Wedding Anniversary. Shriram said “When we got married, Sreedevi was 3/4th of my age, but now she is 5/6th of my age” . what actually are their present ages ?

A. Shriram 36, Sreedevi 30

B. Shriram 30, Sreedevi 24

C. Shriram 40, Sreedevi 34

D. Shriram 38, Sreedevi 32

Q. 35 If 64 ÷ 14 = 5, 92 ÷ 31 = 7, 26 ÷ 11 = 6, then 56 ÷ 22 = _______

A. 39

B. 7

C. 36

D. 11

Q. 36 Select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6

Q. 37 Select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6

Q. 38 Sherly starting from a fixed point goes 15 m towards North and then after turning to his right he goes 15 m. Then he goes 10, 15 and 15 metres after turning to his left each time. How far is he from his starting point ?

A. 5 metres

B. 10 metres

C. 20 metres

D. 15 metres

Q. 39 Ram and Sham start walking in opposite directions. Ram covers 6 kms and Sham 8 kms. Then Ram turns right and walks 8 kms and Sham turns left and walks 6 kms. How far each is from the starting point ?

A. 8 kms

B. 9 kms

C. 10 kms

D. 11 kms

Q. 40 Two statements are followed by 2 conclusions numbered I and II. Which one of the four alternatives is correct ?

Statement I : All teachers are aged.

Statement II : Some women are teachers.

Conclusion I : All aged are women.

Conclusion II : Some women are aged.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

D. Both conclusion I and II follows

Q. 41 Two statements are followed by 2 conclusions numbered I and II. Which one of the four alternatives is correct ?

Statement I : All skaters are good swimmers.

Statement II : All good swimmers are runners.

Conclusion I : Some runners are skaters.

Conclusion II : Some skaters are good swimmers.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Both conclusion I and II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Q. 42 If Alphabets are serially numbered, one of the answers given below has a meaningful word hidden in it. Identify the answer.

A. 5, 1, 3, 5, 20, 8, 18

B. 18, 5, 8, 1, 3, 5, 20

C. 20, 5, 8, 1, 3, 5, 18

D. 5, 18, 5, 8, 1, 3, 5, 20

Q. 43 If LUXOR is coded as 30, then GUILDS will be coded as ?

A. 36

B. 38

C. 24

D. 40

Q. 44 In the following list of English alphabets, one alphabet has not been used. Identify the same.

X N F A P S R W L T M D E X M G B

C X Q J L O P V R C Q J Z O H S G

O D I P T S M R A B E F G N U N E

A. I

B. K

C. J

D. V

Q. 45 How many 9’s are followed by and preceded by numbers divisible by 2 ?

8965359683496526973729413794173

498453976153195742968532957489451

A. 6

B. 8

C. 10

D. 12

Q. 46 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 47 which answer figure will complete the question figure ?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 48 A square sheet of paper has been folded and punched as shown below. You have to figure out from amongst the four response figures, how it will appear when opened?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 49 if a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure ?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 50 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.

The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘T’ can be represented by 31, 76 etc. and ‘S’ can be represented by 14, 99, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word STAR.

A. 23, 76, 33, 98

B. 14, 87, 98, 97

C. 69, 96, 03, 56

D. 99, 31, 86, 98

Q. 51 Who decides the disputes regarding election of President ?

A. The Supreme Court

B. The Election Commission

C. The Parliament

D. Both Supreme Court and High Courts

Q. 52 An apparatus used for locating submerged objects is known as :

A. radar

B. sonar

C. quasar

D. pulsar

Q. 53 Near which one of the following cities, the Palitana Temples are situated ?

A. Bhavnagar

B. Mount Abu

C. Mearke

D. Ujjain

Q. 54 Main cause for agitations for separate states in India is

A. regionalism

B. growing regional imbalances

C. people’s political consciousness

D. social inequalities

Q. 55 Law of ‘Use and disuse’ was proposed by :

A. Hugo De Vries

B. Lederberg

C. Lamarck

D. Darwin

Q. 56 Which revenue earned by Union Government is not distributed among State Governments ?

A. Excise duty

B. Income tax

C. Customs duty

D. None of these

Q. 57 The substance that causes the worst air pollution is

A. smoke

B. sulphur dioxide

C. carbon dioxide

D. carbon monoxide

Q. 58 Two bodies of the same mass are thrown with equal speed from the top of a tower simultaneously . One body (x) is thrown vertically downwards. The other (y) is thrown horizontally.

A. Both X and Y reaches ground simultaneously

B. Both reaches ground with same Kinetic energy

C. x reaches ground with greater Kinetic energy

D. y reaches ground with greater Kinetic energy

Q. 59 The rocket which gives us information about Mars is :

A. Cassini

B. Discovery

C. Insat 4

D. Atlas 5

Q. 60 JDBC stands for

A. Java Database Connectivity

B. Java Developer Conductivity

C. Java Database Conductivity

D. Java Developing Conductivity

Q. 61 Choose the correct one from among the following :

A. Siksha – astrology

B. nirukta – metre

C. jyotisha – phonetics

D. vyakarana – grammar

Q. 62 The famous book” A Better India , A better world” has been written by :

A. Rajiv Sikri

B. Azim Premji

C. N. R. Narayana Murthy

D. Praveen Mahapatra

Q. 63 The world’s fastest growing water plant is

A. Water Chestnut

B. Amazon water lily

C. Water hyacinth

D. Utricularia

Q. 64 The International agreement to reduce greenhouse gases between 2008 – 2012 is known as :

A. Agenda 21

B. Rule of 70

C. Rio Protocol

D. Kyoto Protocol

Q. 65 Which of the following has recently produced the first cloned camel ?

A. U.S.A

B. DUBAI

C. IRAN

D. SYRIA

Q. 66 The Newzealander’s are also known as

A. Sams

B. Kiwis

C. Arabs

D. Orientals

Q. 67 Find the odd one out :

A. EXIM Bank – Financial assistance to exporters and importers

B. IDBI – Financial assistance to large industries

C. SIDBI – Financial assistance to small industries

D. FCI – Financial assistance to food-grains merchants

Q. 68 Who is the first Law Officer of the Government of India ?

A. The Chief Justice of India

B. Law Secretary

C. Union Law Minister

D. Attorney General of India

Q. 69 ‘Milk of magnesia’ is a suspension of

A. Magnesium sulphate

B. Magnesium carbonate

C. Magnesium hydroxide

D. Magnesium chloride

Q. 70 If all the plants of the world dies, all the animals would also die due to shortage of

A. Shelter

B. Cold air

C. Food

D. Oxygen

Q. 71 A person opens his mouth on hearing a thunder in order to

A. overcome fear

B. equalise pressure of air on both sides of the eardrum

C. receive more sound

D. allow air to come out of the mouth

Q. 72 ‘EI Nino effect’ is closely associated with

A. Gulf current

B. Humboldt current

C. Equatorial counter current

D. Canaries current

Q. 73 If a bacterium cell divides in every 20 minutes, how many bacteria will be formed in two hours ?

A. 4

B. 16

C. 8

D. 64

Q. 74 The state of Jhansi was made a part of the British empire in India through the :

A. Doctrine of Lapse

B. Policy of Subsidiary alliance

C. War against Rani Lakshmi Bai

D. None of these

Q. 75 Pila globosa is used as biofilter in cleaning pollution of water by :

A. Algal blooms

B. Mercury

C. Arsenic

D. Cadmium

Q. 76 As per 2011 census, in India the number of females per thousand males is

A. 972

B. 940

C. 934

D. 933

Q. 77 Chemical name of Plaster of Paris is

A. Calcium sulphate

B. Hydrated calcium carbonate

C. Calcium hydrate

D. Calcium sulphate hemihydrate

Q. 78 Who was the first envoy of the East India company to mee Jahangir in 1608 A.D ?

A. William Hawkins

B. William Edwards

C. Sir Thomas Roe

D. Edward Terry

Q. 79 Carbohydrates are compounds of

A. carbon and hydrogen

B. carbon , oxygen and hydrogen

C. carbon , nitrogen and hydrogen

D. carbon , nitrogen

Q. 80 The growth of bacteria is measured by

A. auxanometer

B. hemocytometer

C. spectrophotometer

D. calorimeter

Q. 81 A government is classified as federal or unitary on the basis of

A. relation between the centre and states

B. relation between the executive and legislature

C. relation between three organs of government

D. none of the above

Q. 82 EVM stands for

A. Electric vending machine

B. Electronic vending machine

C. Electronic voting machine

D. none of the above

Q. 83 When the ice is heated from 0 deg to 10 deg C the volume of water

A. increases steadily

B. decreases steadily

C. first increases then decreases

D. first decreases then increases

Q. 84 Mammals form urea in the :

A. Liver

B. Kidney

C. Spleen

D. Bladder

Q. 85 Wanchoo committee dealt with

A. agricultural prices

B. agricultural taxation

C. direct taxes

D. monopolies and trade practices

Q. 86 Which of the following are wrongly matched ?

(i) Tropic of Cancer – 23½° N latitude

(ii) Tropic of Capricorn – 66½° N latitude

(iii) International Date line – 0° longitude

(iv) Antarctic Circle – 66½° S latitude

A. (i)

B. (ii) and (iii)

C. (i), (ii) and (iv)

D. None of these

Q. 87 The tributary of River indus which flows through Himachal Pradesh is

A. Hunza

B. Sutlej

C. Beas

D. Ravi

Q. 88 Which one of the following is an essential ingredient of parliamentary government ?

A. A written constitution

B. A rigid constitution

C. Political parties

D. An independent judiciary

Q. 89 Through which states does the river Chambal flows ?

A. UP,MP ,Rajasthan

B. Mp, Gujarat , U P

C. Rajasthan , MP, Bihar

D. Gujarat , Mp , Chattisgarh

Q. 90 The contents of memory will not be lost when the power goes of f in _____

A. ROM

B. EPROM

C. EEPROM

D. All the above

Q. 91 Simple Goitre is a disease affecting :

A. Gums

B. Tear glands

C. LIver

D. Thyroid glands

Q. 92 The word ‘Secular’ is a part of the Preamble of the Constitution of India :

A. after the 42ⁿᵈ amendment

B. after the 44ᵗʰ amendment

C. after the 73ʳᵈ amendment

D. from the date of implementation

Q. 93 The programme which is being implemented in all the districts of the country is:

A. Navodaya Vidyalaya

B. Rajiv Gandhi GRamin Vidytikaran Yojna

C. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan

D. M. G. N .R.E.G programme

Q. 94 Which one of the following cricketers has been declared by the ICC as cricketers of the twentieth century ?

A. Anil kumble

B. Sachin tendulkar

C. Kapil Dev

D. Rahul Dravid

Q. 95 As per the 2011 population census , the most populous state in the country is

A. Rajasthan

B. Madhya pradesh

C. Uttar pradesh

D. West bengal

Q. 96 Which one of the following is not an internal factor for industrial sickness?

A. Mismanagement

B. Diversion of funds

C. Technological Obsolescence

D. wrong dividend policy

Q. 97 Vikramshila university was found by

A. Chnadragupta Maurya

B. Kanishka

C. Dharampala

D. Pulakesin II

Q. 98 Acidity of rain in measured by

A. Barometer

B. Hygrometer

C. Ammeter

D. pH- meter

Q. 99 For which of the following are honey bees used ?

A. sericulture

B. Apiculture

C. Horticulture

D. Pisciculture

Q. 100 Chlorination is

A. a process of converting chlorides into chlorine

B. adding small amounts of chloride to contaminated water

C. a chemical reaction in which chlorine is formed

D. the formation of a salt containing chlorine

Q. 101 The average temperature of Monday , Tuesday and Wednesday was 30° C and that of Tuesday , Wednesday and Thursday was 33° C. IF the temperature on Monday was 32° C , then the temperature on Thursday was :

A. 30°C

B. 31°C

C. 32°C

D. 33°C

Q. 102 A watch is sold at a profit of 30 % .Had it been sold for Rs. 80 less , there would have been a lo of 10 % .What is the cost price in rupees ?

A. 200

B. 400

C. 800

D. 150

Q. 103 The mean of 19 observations is 24 .If the mean of the first 10 observations is 17 and that of the last 10 observations is 24 , find the 10ᵗʰ observation .

A. 37

B. 46

C. 53

D. 65

Q. 104 R and r are the radius of 2 circle (R > r) .If the distance between the centre of the 2 circles bed , then the length of common tangent of 2 circles is

A. √d²- (R²-r²)

B. √(R²-r²)-d²

C. √R²-d²

D. √r²- d²

Q. 105 O is the circumcentre of the triangle ABC with circumradius 13 cm .Let BC= 24 cm and OD is perpendicular to Bc.then the lenght of OD is

A. 3 cm

B. 4 cm

C. 5 cm

D. 7 cm

Q. 106 IF a commission of 10 % is given on the marked price of a work , the publisher gains 20 %.If the commission is increased to 15 % the gain percent is

A. 16⅔%

B. 13⅓%

C. 15⅙%

D. 15 %

Q. 107 If (5x² – 3y²) : xy = 11 : 2, then the positive value of x/y is :

A. 5/2

B. 3/2

C. 5/3

D. 7/2

Q. 108 A boy standing in the middle of a field, observes a flying bird in the north at an angle of elevation fo 30 degree. and after 2 min, he observes the same bird in the south at an angle of elevation of 60 degree. If the bird flies all along in a straight line at a height of 50√3 then its speed in km/h is.

A. 3

B. 9

C. 6

D. 4.5

Q. 109 By selling 9 articles for a rupee, a man incurred a loss of 4%. To make a gain of 44%, the number of articles to be sold for a rupee is :

A. 3

B. 4

C. 6

D. 5

Q. 110 By decreasing 15° of each angle of a triangle, the ratios of their angles are 2 : 3 : 5. The radian measure of greatest angle is :

A. π/12

B. π/24

C. 5π/24

D. 11π/24

Q. 111 AB is a diameter of a circle with centre O. CD is a chord equal to the radius of the circle. AC and BD are produced to meet at P. Then the measure of ∠APB is :

A. 30°

B. 60°

C. 90°

D. 120°

Q. 112 The least value of 4 cosec²α = 9 sin²α is :

A. 10

B. 11

C. 12

D. 14

Q. 113 The perimeter of an isosceles right-angled triangle is 2p unit. The area of the same triangle is :

A. (2 + √2) p² sq.unit

B. (2 – √2) p² sq.unit

C. (3 – √2) p² sq.unit

D. (3 – 2√2) p² sq.unit

Q. 114 If G is the centroid of ΔABC and AG = BC, then ∠BGC is :

A. 45°

B. 90°

C. 60°

D. 75°

Q. 115 Prabhat took a certain amount as a loan from a bank at the rate of 8% p.a simple inters and gave the same amount to Ashih as a loan at the rate of 12 % p.a .IF at the end of 12 years , he made a profit of Rs.960 in the deal , then the original amount was :

A. Rs.1000

B. Rs.2000

C. Rs.3000

D. Rs. 3356

Q. 116 In a right-angled triangle ABC, ∠B is the right angle and AC = 2√5 cm. If AB – BC = 2 cm, then the value of (cos²A – cos²C) is :

A. 3/5

B. 6/5

C. 3/10

D. 2/5

Q. 117 then the value of x is :

A. 30

B. √15

C. 15

D. 6

Q. 118 If tan(x+y) tan (x-y) = 1, then the value of tan x is :

A. 1

B. 1/2

C. 1/√3

D. √3

Q. 119 If ax + by = 6, bx – ay = 2 and x² + y² = 4, then the value of (a² + b²) would be :

A. 2

B. 4

C. 5

D. 10

Q. 120 The perimeters of two similar triangles ΔABC and ΔPQR are 36 cm and 24 cm respectively. If PQ = 10 cm, then AB is :

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 25

Q. 121 P is a point outside a circle and is 13 cm away from its centre. A secant drawn from the point P intersects the circle at points A and B in such a way thet PA = 9 cm and AB = 7 cm.

The radius of the circle is :

A. 5 cm

B. 4 cm

C. 4,5 cm

D. 5.5 cm

Q. 122 The next term of the series -1, 6, 25, 62, 123, 214, ______ is :

A. 143

B. 341

C. 343

D. 345

Q. 123 1 + 876542 × 876544 / 876543 × 876543 is equal to

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Q. 124 The greatest no. that will divide 19, 35 and 59 to leave the same remainder in each case is :

A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 9

Q. 125 If cotA + cosecA = 3 and A is an acute angle, then the value of cosA is :

A. 1

B. 1/2

C. 3/4

D. 4/5

Q. 126 The area of the largest triangle that can be inscribed in a semi circle of radius x in square unit is :

A. x²

B. 2x²

C. 3x²

D. 4x²

Q. 127 If a = √3 – √2 / √3 + √2 , b = √3 + √2 / √3 – √2 , then the value of a²/b + b²/a is :

A. 970

B. 1030

C. 930

D. 900

Q. 128 If a + 1/a + 2 = 0, then the value of (a + 2)³ + 1/(a + 2)³ is :

A. 6

B. 4

C. 3

D. 2

Q. 129 The simplied value of

A. 0

B. 1

C. sin A

D. cos A

Q. 130 If x = 2 + √3 , then the value of √x + 1/√x is :

A. √6

B. 2√6

C. 6

D. √3

Q. 131 A jar contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in the ratio 4 : 1. When 10 lt of the mixture is replaced with liquid B, the ratio becomes 2 : 3. The volume of liquid A present in the jar earlier was :

A. 10 lt

B. 16 lt

C. 15 lt

D. 20 lt

Q. 132 Area of the traingle formed by the graph of the line 2x – 3y + 6 = 0 along with the coordinate axes is :

A. 3/2 sq. units

B. 3 sq. units

C. 6 sq. units

D. 1/2 sq. units

Q. 133 If α is a positive acute angle and 2 sinα + 15 cos²α = 7, then the value of cotα is :

A. 4/3

B. √5/2

C. 2/√5

D. 3/4

Q. 134 A three-digit number 4a3 is added to another three-digit number 984 to give the four digit number 13b7 which is divisble by 11.

Then the value of (a + b) is :

A. 12

B. 9

C. 10

D. 11

Q. 135 In a partnership business, A invests 1/6th of the capital for 1/6 of the total time, B invests 1/4 of the capital for 1/4 of the total time and C, the rest of the capital for the whole time. Out of a profit of Rs 19,400, B’s share is :

A. 1200

B. 1600

C. 1800

D. 2000

Q. 136 Area of the trapezium formed by x-axis; y-axis and the lines 3x + 4y =12 and 6x + 8y = 60 is :

A. 31.5 sq. unit

B. 48 sq. unit

C. 36.5 sq. unit

D. 37.5 sq. unit

Q. 137 A train overtakes two persons who are walking in the same direction in which the train is running, at the rate of 2 kmph and 4 kmph and passes them completely in 9 and 10 seconds respectively. The length of the trian ( in metres) is :

A. 45

B. 54

C. 50

D. 72

Q. 138 ΔABC and ΔDEF are similar and their areas be respectively 64 cm² and 121 cm². If = 15.4 cm, BC is :

A. 11.2 cm

B. 12.1 cm

C. 11.0 cm

D. 12.3 cm

Q. 139 If 12 men or 18 women can reap a field in 14 days, then working at the same rate, 8 men and 16 women can reap the same field in :

A. 5 days

B. 7 days

C. 8 days

D. 9 days

Q. 140 If a³ – b³ = 56 and a – b = 2, then the value of (a² + b²) is :

A. -12

B. 20

C. 18

D. -10

Q. 141 If tanθ – cotθ and cosθ – sinθ = b, then the value of (a² + 4 ) ( b² – 1)² is :

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 142 If a + 1/a = 1, then the value of a³ is :

A. 2

B. -1

C. 4

D. -2

Q. 143 D and E are the mid-points of AB and AC of ΔABC; BC is produced to any point P; DE; DP and EP are joined. Then,

A. ΔPED = ΔBEC

B. ΔADE = ΔBEC

C. ΔBDE = ΔBEC

D. ΔPED = 1/4ΔABC

Q. 144 The length of the common chord of two circles of radii 15 cm and 20 cm whose centres are 25 cm apart is (in cm) :

A. 24

B. 25

C. 15

D. 20

Q. 145 If (a² – b²) sinθ + 2 ab cosθ = a² + b², then the value of tan is

A. 1/2 (a² – b²)

B. 1/2ab (a² – b²)

C. 1/2 (a² + b²)

D. 1/2ab (a² + b²)

Q. 146 The range of BSNL simcard sold in the 4states in lakhs is:

A. 15

B. 14

C. 13

D. 12

Q. 147 In Assam, the ratio of Aircell simcard and Airtel simcard sold is :

A. 2 : 5

B. 5 : 2

C. 2 : 3

D. 3 : 2

Q. 148 In which state are there the largest number of owners of Airtel simcard ?

A. Gujarat

B. Kerala

C. Assam

D. Tamilnadu

Q. 149 Average of simcard sold in the four states in lakhs is

A. 40.5

B. 35

C. 33.75

D. 30.25

Q. 150 Of all the simcards sold in all the four states, the number of simcards sold in Gujarat is (approx)

A. 38%

B. 35%

C. 42%

D. 40%

Q. 151 some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none .Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C ). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to (D) in the Answer sheet.

Indian scinetists are in no way (A) / inferior than (B) / any other scientist in the world (C) / no error

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 152 some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none .Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C ). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to (D) in the Answer sheet.

Belgiun chocolate is considered (A) / by many to be finer (B) / than any others in the World (C) / no error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 153 some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none .Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C ). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to (D) in the Answer sheet.

My grandfather owns (A) / fifty acre (B) / of wet land (C) / no error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 154 some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none .Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C ). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to (D) in the Answer sheet.

Our history can be seen as a long evolutionary dialectical development (A) / in which there have been (B) / a painstaking forging of rational and moral self (C) / No error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 155 some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none .Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C ). If a sentence is free from error, blacken the rectangle [ ] corresponding to (D) in the Answer sheet.

Our knowledge of history does not come to (A) / Our help and some times we even fail to (B) / remember who invented America (C) / No error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

In questions 156 to 160 senstences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate words . Choose the correct alternative out of the four

Q. 156 Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle in the Anwser sheet.

We didn’t _______ the programme to be such a huge success .

A. accept

B. except

C. expect

D. access

Q. 157 Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle in the Anwser sheet.

I suffer from no ___________ about my cpabilities.

A. illusions

B. doubts

C. hallucinations

D. imaginations

Q. 158 The government, in a bid to make Bihar, a preferred investment destination, has ________________ major schemes to create infrastructure at different stages.

A. launched

B. opposed

C. opened

D. pushed

Q. 159 The student’s aren’t prepared _________ the examination.

A. to give

B. to listen

C. to work

D. to take

Q. 160 We should _________ opportunities as they arise.

A. seize

B. cease

C. size

D. sneeze

Q. 161 Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word mark it in the Answer sheet.

Duplicity

A. repetition

B. artlessness

C. deceit

D. cleverness

Q. 162 Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word mark it in the Answer sheet.

Vanguard

A. Race driver

B. Officer

C. Flag bearer

D. Pioneer

Q. 163 Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word mark it in the Answer sheet.

Fortitude

A. Similarity

B. Courage

C. Protection

D. Safety

Q. 164 Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word mark it in the Answer sheet.

Inadvertent

A. Ignorant

B. Unexpected

C. Unintentional

D. Undisturbed

Q. 165 Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word mark it in the Answer sheet.

Fidelity

A. Faithfulness

B. Resourcefulness

C. Strength

D. Weakness

Q. 166 Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.

Amicable

A. hostile

B. friendly

C. haughty

D. unpleasant

Q. 167 Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.

Aversion

A. avoidance

B. awareness

C. hatred

D. liking

Q. 168 Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.

Taciturn

A. judge

B. silent

C. talkative

D. immense

Q. 169 Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.

Mitigate

A. abate

B. aggravate

C. allay

D. alleviate

Q. 170 Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer sheet.

Artisan

A. unskilled labour

B. skilled labour

C. learned person

D. ignorant villager

Q. 171 Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

At first, there was a show of resistance to the new rule issued by the Government, but the movement had no backbone and speedily collapsed.

A. support

B. justification

C. impact

D. strength

Q. 172 Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

The cops were on their toes throughout the day.

A. quick

B. eager

C. alert

D. harried

Q. 173 Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

When the family in the next house packed off at midnight, I began to smell a rat.

A. to smell a bad smell

B. to suspect a trick

C. to misunderstand

D. to see hidden meaning

Q. 174 Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

He was out of spirits for a few days after his defeat.

A. uninvolved

B. gloomy

C. sober

D. lifeless

Q. 175 Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

The minister assured the agitating employees that he would look into their demands

sympathetically.

A. examine

B. discuss

C. watch

D. grant

Q. 176 Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D).

Those plucking flowers are liable for punishable.

A. are liable for punishable

B. are liable for punishing

C. are liable to be punished

D. are viable for punishment

Q. 177 Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D).

When we see black smoke near the wing of the plane, we were certain that disaster was imminent.

A. When we were seeing

B. When we saw

C. When we had seen

D. No improvement

Q. 178 Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D).

The prolific writer’s work is published every year.

A. exquisite

B. didactic

C. great

D. no improvement

Q. 179 Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D).

His lust for power brought about his downfall.

A. Intense desire

B. Desire for power

C. Desire for sex

D. No improvement

Q. 180 Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (D).

I’II meet the raging of the skies, but not an angry father.

A. sunshine

B. rain

C. anger

D. no improvement

Q. 181 choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

One indifferent to art and literature is

A. aromantic

B. critic

C. philistine

D. scholar

Q. 182 choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

“Open to injury or Criticism”.

A. Invincible

B. Vulnerable

C. Naive

D. Sensitive

Q. 183 choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

Government by a small group of all powerful persons.

A. Oligarchy

B. Monarchy

C. democracy

D. Anarchy

Q. 184 choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

A narrow piece of land connecting two large masses of land.

A. peninsula

B. isthmus

C. continent

D. gulf

Q. 185 choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

One who collects coins as a hobby.

A. philatelist

B. ornithologist

C. statistician

D. numismatist

Q. 186 There are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.

A. benificial

B. beneficil

C. beneficial

D. benifical

Q. 187 There are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.

A. uniquely

B. internaly

C. coldly

D. fortunetely

Q. 188 There are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.

A. apprehenson

B. apprehension

C. apprihension

D. aprihension

Q. 189 There are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.

A. affactionately

B. affectionately

C. afectionately

D. affectionnality

Q. 190 There are four different words out of which one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer Sheet.

A. averisious

B. avericious

C. avaricious

D. avarisious

You have two brief passage with 5 questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and mark it in the Answer sheet. If this is so, if to read a book as it should be read calls for the rarest Qualities of imagination, insight and judgement. You may perhaps conclude that literature is a very complex art and a life time of reading, to make any valuable contribution to its criticism. We must remain readers, we shall not put on the further glory that belongs to those rare beings who are also critics.

Q. 191 What are the Qualities required for reading a book ?

A. proper judgement

B. imagination

C. imagination , insight and judgement

D. none of the above

Q. 192 According to the author

A. Most of the people can contribute to criticism of literature

B. It is not possible for most of us to contribute anything for criticism

C. It is possible to do something

D. It is not even easy to understand literature

Q. 193 What is the opinion of most of the people about literature ?

A. That it is very easy to understand

B. That it is not an easy one to contribute anything

C. That it is to some extent difficult to understand

D. That no contribution is necessary for literature

Q. 194 The antonym of conclude is

A. include

B. commence

C. exclude

D. end

Q. 195 The author feels that we cannot have the greatness of

A. readers

B. writers

C. critics

D. publishers

These days not even many politicians deny that the oceans are ill. Protecting the health of coastal waters is now a matter of national policy in dozens of countries including the U.S., and world leaders are beginning to prescribe a revolutionary remedy that conservationists have been promoting for years : marine planning and zoning. The idea is a natural extension of management policies that have guided the development of cities and landscapes for nearly a century. Zoning advocates envision a mosaic of regional. Drilling and mining would be allowed only in certain parts of the ocean; fishing in others. The most critically threatened areas would be virtually off-limits. Whereas people can easily find maps telling them what they can do where on land , the marine – realm is a hodge – podge of rules emanating from an army of agencies, each one managing a single use or symptom.

Q. 196 Seazoning is all about __________.

A. dividing watery space for specific purposes

B. drilling and sea mining

C. conserving the environment

D. banning fishing in the sea

Q. 197 Marine planning and zoning is a __________ to protect the coastal waters.

A. national policy of the US

B. conservationists discovery

C. marine project

D. revolutionary remedy

Q. 198 Marine realm is a hodge-podge of rules means __________.

A. coastal areas are not being looked after properly

B. seas need to be cleaned

C. there are no uniform laws governing the seas.

D. there is total anarchy

Q. 199 These days _________ that the oceans are not in good health.

A. everybody agrees

B. most of the politicians agree

C. all politicians agree

D. nobody agrees

Q. 200 ‘Conservationist’ means ____________.

A. a proficient speaker

B. a marine engineer

C. one who looks after others

D. one who prevents something from destruction

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	D	C	D	C	B	C	B	B	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	B	B	A	D	B	C	B	C	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	A	C	A	C	C	A	C	A	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	C	D	A	B	D	A	B	C	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	B	C	B	A	B	C	D	A	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	A	A	B	C	C	D	B	D	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	C	C	D	B	B	D	D	C	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	B	D	A	D	B	D	A	B	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	A	C	D	A	C	B	B	C	A	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	D	A	C	C	C	C	C	D	B	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	B	B	B	A	C	B	B	B	C	D
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	C	D	B	B	A	C	A	D	B
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	A	B	B	C	D	A	A	D	D	A
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	B	B	D	C	C	A	C	A	D	B
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	D	B	D	A	B	C	A	D	D	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	B	C	B	B	C	C	A	A	A	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	C	D	A	C	A	A	D	C	B	A
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	D	C	B	B	A	D	B	D	B	D
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	C	B	A	B	D	C	A	B	B	C
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	C	B	B	B	C	A	D	C	B	D

SSC CGL Tier-I 26 June 2012 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2012 26 Jun Shift 2

Q. 1 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :

8:9: :56:?

A. 90

B. 73

C. 72

D. 89

Q. 2 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :

ACEG : ZXVT : : BDFH: ?

A. YVSP

B. IKMO

C. YUQM

D. YWUS

Q. 3 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :

BCFG:HILM: :NORQ:?

A. TXUW

B. TUXW

C. TVWX

D. TXWU

Q. 4 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :

Affluent : Opulent : : Flourish : ?

A. Prosper

B. Flatter

C. Comprise

D. Outfolow

Q. 5 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :

25:37: :49: ?

A. 56

B. 60

C. 65

D. 41

Q. 6 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :

ABCD : ZYXW : : EFGH : ?

A. VUTS

B. EUTS

C. POTS

D. UOTS

Q. 7 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :

7:32 : :28: ?

A. 128

B. 126

C. 136

D. 116

Q. 8 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :

Gulp : Drink : : Rush: ?

A. Jump

B. Hop

C. Go

D. Run

Q. 9 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :

Joy : Delight : : Gloomy : ?

A. Silent

B. Dull

C. Vague

D. Plain

Q. 10 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :

A. JQ

B. AT

C. HK

D. CF

Q. 11 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :

A. Mumbai

B. New Delhi

C. Kolkata

D. Chennai

Q. 12 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :

A. Tiger

B. Cheetah

C. Lion

D. Wolf

Q. 13 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :

A. OUT

B. FED

C. DIN

D. JOT

Q. 14 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :

A. 26

B. 82

C. 15

D. 65

Q. 15 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :

A. 27

B. 37

C. 47

D. 17

Q. 16 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :

A. CFI

B. DGJ

C. EHL

D. BEH

Q. 17 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :

A. 5 – 35

B. 4 – 44

C. 6 – 64

D. 3 – 30

Q. 18 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :

A. Disk

B. SIM

C. USB

D. Modem

Q. 19 Directions: Which of the following word will appear last in the dictionary?

A. rhapsody

B. revolve

C. rheumatism

D. reward

Q. 20 Directions: Which of the following word will appear last in the dictionary?

A. heart string

B. heavy

C. health

D. heathen

Q. 21 Directions: Which of the following word will appear last in the dictionary?

A. prize

B. prosecute

C. prompt

D. prostate

Q. 22 Directions: A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the

given ones that will complete the series:

2 6 12 20 30 ? 56

A. 38 B. 46

C. 56

D. 42

Q. 23 Directions: A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series:

JkL AbC MnO DeF PqE Gh ?

A. I

B. i

C. S

D. s

Q. 24 Directions: A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series:

1,4,10,19,31,?

A. 43

B. 46

C. 50

D. 55

Q. 25 Directions: A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series:

RQOLH?

A. B

B. C

C. D

D. A

Q. 26 Directions: A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series:

YXHGWVFEUTDCSRB?

A. D

B. C

C. I

D. A

Q. 27 Directions: A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series:

0,6,24,60,120,210,…..

A. 336

B. 504

C. 338

D. 420

Q. 28 A husband and a wife had five married sons and each of them had four children. How many members are there in the family?

A. 32

B. 36

C. 30

D. 40

Q. 29 In a certain code, if DEMOCRACY is written as YCARCOMED, how will the word PRESIDENT be coded as?

A. EIETPRSDN

B. NDSRPTEIE

C. TNEDISERP

D. RSDNPEIET

Q. 30 From the given alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

‘Distribution’

A. tribute

B. riot

C. dust

D. disturb

Q. 31 If ‘MOTHER’ is coded as ‘NPUIFS’, select the appropriate code from the answer choices, for the word in capital letters:- ZENITH

A. AFOGHJ

B. BGPKVJ

C. AFOJUI

D. AFOGHI

Q. 32 If AEIOU is written as BCJMV, how XCKYB can be written in that code?

A. YALWC

B. ADNZE

C. YELAC

D. YBLXC

Q. 33 Five persons (R,S,T,U and V) are in a queue facing a reservation counter. Immediately behind S is U. T is standing between R and V. In between R and U, no one is there. Then, where is S standing in the queue?

A. Last but one

B. First

C. Second

D. Last

Q. 34 In the year 2003, some months have 31 days . How many months have 28 days.

A. 12 month

B. Alternative months

C. 6 month

D. 1 month

Q. 35 In a team of five players, Vani is older than Rani. Sita is younger than Vani but older than Rani. Nita is younger than Mary and Rani. Rani is older than Mary. Whose age is middle of all the five in this team?

A. Mary

B. Vani

C. Rani

D. Sita

Q. 36 In a certain code, SURFER is written as RUSREF.

How is KNIGHT written in that code?

A. THGINK

B. GHTINK

C. INKTHG

D. THINKG

Q. 37 Directions: Some equations are solved on the basis of certain system. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on the basis:

4 6 8

5 8 3

266 398 ?

A. 544

B. 445

C. 515

D. 454

Q. 38 Directions: Some equations are solved on the basis of certain system. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on the basis:

4x6x9=649, 9x8x4=894, 3x7x2=?

A. 272

B. 294

C. 732

D. 813

Q. 39 Based on the given details, find out the number of postgraduates enrolled in a college for the year 1970.

1968 1969 1970 1971 1972

113 88 ? 63 59

A. 63

B. 79

C. 72

D. 84

Q. 40 Two squads of soldiers A and B facing North and South respectively revived the following commands – Right Turn, Left Turn, Left Turn, Left Turn. Which squads A and B face at the end?

A. South, North

B. West, East

C. North, South

D. East, West

Q. 41 In a square-shaped hostel, there are 8 rooms on each side in every floor. Room No. 101 is the first room facing north in the first floor. The room numbers are continued clockwise.

Which direction does Room No. 125 face?

A. South

B. North

C. West

D. East

Q. 42 Select the missing number from the given responses.

9 6 7

8 ? 3

3 5 8

216 900 168

A. 30

B. 55

C. 60

D. 70

Q. 43 If x stands for +, ÷ stands for – and + stands for ÷, which one of the following is correct?

A. 11-6÷4+2=64

B. 10-5 x 6÷2=54

C. 15+3×4÷3=12

D. 12+4÷2-7=8

Q. 44 Direction: Two statements are given, followed by two conclusion I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions if any, follow from the given statements.

Statements: 1. All scholars are eccentric.

Statements: 2. No women is eccentric.

Conclusion:I No women is scholar.

Conclusion:II All eccentric are men.

A. Only conclusion II follows

B. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

C. Both conclusions I and II follows

D. Only conclusion I follows

Q. 45 Direction: Two statements are given, followed by two conclusion I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions if any, follow from the given statements.

Statements: 1. All students are girls.

Statements: 2. No girl is dull.

Conclusion:I. There are no boys in the class

Conclusion:II. No student is dull.

A. Only conclusion II follows

B. Both conclusions I and II follow

C. Neither conclusion I nor II follow

D. Only conclusion I follows

Q. 46 Direction: From the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters given in the word.

POWERHOUSE

A. USER

B. HORSE

C. PERUSE

D. sweeper

Q. 47 Find the odd word from the given alternative.

A. Cowdung

B. Mustard oil

C. Petrol

D. Coal

Q. 48 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and fill in the blank space.

1,6,11,18,27,?

A. 38

B. 48

C. 49

D. 35

Q. 49 Sunday is Friday as Wednesday is to

A. Tuesday

B. Sunday

C. Friday

D. Monday

Q. 50 Five boys are sitting in the first bench on the right hand side of their classroom. Kumar has two boys on his left and two on his right. Abdul is sitting next to kumar, but he(Abdul) is not adjacent to John or Dev. Sid is not sitting next to John. Sid is not sitting next to John. Then, who is/ are sitting next to him(Sid)?

A. Kumar

B. Kumar and Dev

C. Dev

D. Abdul

Q. 51 Which of the following has recently produced the first cloned camel?

A. DUBAI

B. IRAN

C. SYRIA

D. U.S.A

Q. 52 If all the plants of the world dies, all the animals would also die due to shortage of

A. Cold air

B. Food

C. Oxygen

D. Shelter

Q. 53 Chlorination is

A. adding small amount of chlorine to contaminated water

B. a chemical reaction in which chlorine is formed

C. the formation of a salt containing chlorine

D. a process of converting chlorides into chlorine

Q. 54 Who decides the disputes regarding election of President?

A. The Supreme Court

B. The Election Commission

C. The Parliament

D. Both Supreme Court and High Court

Q. 55 The growth of bacteria is measured by

A. hemacytometer

B. spectrophotometer

C. calorimeter

D. auxanometer

Q. 56 For which one of the following, are honey bees used?

A. Apiculture

B. Horticulture

C. Pisciculture

D. Sericulture

Q. 57 Which one of the following is not an internal factor for industrial sickness?

A. Diversion of funds

B. Technological obsolescence

C. Wrong dividend policy

D. Mismanagement

Q. 58 Who is the first law officer of the government of India?

A. Law secretary

B. Union law minister

C. Attorney General of India

D. The chief justice of India

Q. 59 The substance that causes the worst air pollution is

A. Sulphur dioxide

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Carbon monoxide

D. Smoke

Q. 60 Mammals form urea in the

A. Kidney

B. Spleen

C. Bladder

D. Liver

Q. 61 Main cause for agitations for separate states in India is

A. Growing regional imbalances

B. People’s political consciousness

C. Social inequalities

D. Regionalism

Q. 62 Vikramshila University was founded by

A. Kanishka

B. Dharampala

C. Pulakesin II

D. Chandra Gupta Maurya

Q. 63 A government is classified as federal or unitary on the basis of

A. Relations between the centre and states

B. Relations between the executive and the legislature

C. Relations between three organs of government

D. None of the above

Q. 64 Choose the correct one from among the following –

A. Nirukta – metre

B. Jyotisha – phonetics

C. Vyakarana – grammar

D. Siksha – astrology

Q. 65 The Newzealander’s are also known as

A. Kiwis

B. Arabs

C. Orientals

D. Sams

Q. 66 Near which one of the following cities, the Palitana Temples are situated?

A. Mount Abu

B. Mearke

C. Ujjain

D. Bhavnagar

Q. 67 Which one of the following is an essential ingredient of parliamentary government?

A. A rigid constitution

B. Political parties

C. An independent judiciary

D. A written constitution

Q. 68 ‘El Nino effect’ is closely associated with

A. Humboldt current

B. Equatorial counter current

C. Canaries current

D. Gulf current

Q. 69 ‘EVM’ stands

A. Electric Vending Machine

B. Electronic Vending Machine

C. Electronic Voting Machine

D. None of the above

Q. 70 JDBC stands for

A. Java Developer Connectivity

B. Java Database Connectivity

C. Java Developing Connectivity

D. Java Database Conductivity

Q. 71 ‘Milk of Magnesia’ is a suspension of

A. Magnesium carbonate

B. Magnesium hydroxide

C. Magnesium chloride

D. Magnesium sulphate

Q. 72 Pila globosa is used as biofilter in cleaning pollution of water by

A. Mercury

B. Arsenic

C. Cadmium

D. Algal blooms

Q. 73 Find the odd one out

A. IDBI – Financial assistance to large industries

B. SIDBI – Financial assistance to small industries

C. FCI – Financial assistance to food – grains merchants

D. EXIM Bank – Financial assistance to exporters and importers

Q. 74 The word ‘Secular’ is a part of the Preamble of the Constitution of India –

A. After the 44th amendment

B. After the 73rd amendment

C. From the date of implementation

D. After the 42nd amendment

Q. 75 Chemical name of a Plaster of Paris is

A. Hydrated calcium carbonate

B. Calcium hydrate

C. Calcium sulphate hemihydrate

D. Calcium sulphate

Q. 76 The tributary of River Indus which flows through Himachal Pradesh is

A. Sutlej

B. Beas

C. Ravi

D. Hunza

Q. 77 Acidity of rain is measured by

A. Hygrometer

B. Ammeter

C. pH – meter

D. Barometer

Q. 78 Which revenue earned by Union Government is not distributed among State

Governments?

A. Excise duty

B. Income tax

C. Customs duty

D. None of these

Q. 79 The world’s fastest growing water plant is

A. Amazon water lily

B. Water hyacinth

C. Utricularia

D. Water Chestnut

Q. 80 The contents of memory will not be lost, when the power goes off in

A. ROM

B. EPROM

C. EEPROM

D. All the above

Q. 81 The Programme which is being implemented in all the districts of the country is

A. Rajiv Gandhi Gramin Vidyutikaran Yojna

B. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan

C. M.G.N.R.E.G. Programme

D. Navodaya Vidyalaya

Q. 82 Who was the first envoy of the East India Company to meet Jahangir in 1608 A.D?

A. William Edwards

B. Sir Thomas Roe

C. Edward Terry

D. William Hawkins

Q. 83 As per 2011 census, in India the number of females per thousand males is

A. 940

B. 934

C. 933

D. 972

Q. 84 Law of ‘Use and disuse’ was proposed by

A. Lederberg

B. Lamarck

C. Darwin

D. Hugo De Vries

Q. 85 Which one of the following Cricketers has been declared by the ICC as ‘Cricketer of the Twentieth Century’?

A. Sachin Tendulkar

B. Kapil Dev

C. Rahul Dravid

D. Anil Kumble

Q. 86 The rocket which gives us information about Mars is

A. Discovery

B. Insat 4

C. Atlas 5

D. Cassini

Q. 87 Wanchoo Committee dealt with

A. Agricultural taxation

B. Direct taxes

C. Monopolies and trade practices

D. Agricultural prices

Q. 88 Carbohydrates are compounds of

A. Carbon, oxygen and hydrogen

B. Carbon, nitrogen and hydrogen

C. Carbon and nitrogen

D. Carbon and hydrogen

Q. 89 If a bacterium cell divides in every 20 minutes, how many bacteria will be formed in 2 hours?

A. 16

B. 8

C. 64

D. 4

Q. 90 The International agreement to reduce greenhouse gases between 2008-2012 is known as

A. Rule of 70

B. Rio protocol

C. Kyoto protocol

D. Agenda 21

Q. 91 A person opens his mouth on hearing a thunder in order to

A. Equalise pressure of air on both sides of the eardrum

B. Receive more sound

C. Allow air to come out of the mouth

D. Overcome fear

Q. 92 When ice is heated from 0°C to 10°C, the volume of water

A. Decreases steadily

B. First increases then decreases

C. First decreases then increases

D. Increases steadily

Q. 93 Through which states does the river Chambal flows?

A. M.P., Gujarat, U.P

B. Rajasthan, M.P., Bihar

C. Gujarat, M.P., Chattisgarh

D. U.P., M.P., Rajasthan

Q. 94 As per the 2011 population census, the most populous state in the country is

A. Madhya Pradesh

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. West Bengal

D. Rajasthan

Q. 95 The state of Jhansi was made a part of the British empire in India through the

A. Doctrine of Lapse

B. Policy of Subsidiary alliance

C. War against Rani Lakshmi Bai

D. None of these

Q. 96 The famous book “A Better India, A better world” has been written by

A. Azim Premji

B. N.R. Narayana Murthy

C. Praveen Mahapatra

D. Rajiv Sikri

Q. 97 Simple Goitre is disease affecting

A. Tear glands

B. Liver

C. Thyroid glands

D. Gums

Q. 98 Two bodies of the same mass are thrown with equal speed from the top of a tower simultaneously. One body (x) is thrown vertically downwards. The other (y) is thrown horizontally

A. Both reaches ground with same Kinetic energy

B. x reaches ground with greater Kinetic energy

C. y reaches ground with greater Kinetic energy

D. Both x and y reaches ground simultaneously

Q. 99 An apparatus used for locating submerged object is known as

A. Sonar

B. Quasar

C. Pulsar

D. Radar

Q. 100 Which of the following are wrongly matched?

(i) Tropic of Cancer – 23+1/2°N latitude

(ii) Tropic of Capricorn – 66+1/2°N latitude

(iii) International Date line – 0° longitude

(iv) Antarctic circle – 66+1/2°S latitude

A. (i)

B. (ii) and (iii)

C. (i), (ii) and (iv)

D. None of these

Q. 101 The average of 1², 2², 3², 4², 5², 6², 7², 8², 9², 10² is

A. 42.5

B. 46.5

C. 50.5

D. 38.5

Q. 102 The distance between the points (0, 0) and the intersecting point of the graphs of x=3 and y=4 is

A. 4 unit

B. 3 unit

C. 2 unit

D. 5 unit

Q. 103 A certain number when divided by 899 leaves the remainder 65. When the same number is divided by 31, the remainder is

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 1

Q. 104 If G is the centroid and AD, BE, CF are three medians of ABC with area 72 cm², then the area of ΔBDG is

A. 12 cm²

B. 16 cm²

C. 24 cm²

D. 8 cm²

Q. 105 If a+b=6, a-b=2, then the value of 2(a²+b²) is

A. 20

B. 30

C. 40

D. 10

Q. 106 The odd element in the sequence

3, 7, 13, 21, 33, 43, 57, __________ is

A. 21

B. 33

C. 43

D. 7

Q. 107 The tangents drawn at the points A and B of a circle centred at O meet at P. If ∠AOB=120° then ∠APB : ∠APO is

A. 2 : 5

B. 3 : 2

C. 4 : 1

D. 2 : 1

Q. 108 From the top of a cliff 90 m high, the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a tower are observed to be 30° and 60° respectively. The height of the tower is

A. 45 m

B. 60 m

C. 75 m

D. 30 m

Q. 109 The least positive integer which is a perfect square and also divisible by each of 21, 36 and 66 is

A. 186624

B. 213444

C. 254016

D. 156816

Q. 110 The value of x when 5% of √2x is 0.01 will be

A. 0.03

B. 0.02

C. 0.01

D. 0.05

Q. 111 If √x-a/√x-b + a/x = √x-b/√x-a + b/x, b≠a, then the value of x is

A. b/a+b

B. ab/a+b

C. 1

D. a/a+b

Q. 112 If x=2√24/√3+√2, then the value of x+√8/x-√8 + x+√12/x-√12 is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 0

D. -2

Q. 113 If a=2+√3/2-√3 and b=2-√3/2+√3 then the value of (a²+b²+ab) is

A. 185

B. 195

C. 200

D. 175

Q. 114 If secθ- cosecθ= 0, then the value of (secθ+cosecθ) is

A. √3/2

B. 2/√3

C. 0

D. 2√2

Q. 115 A and B can separately do a piece of work in 20 and 15 days respectively. They worked together for 6 days after which B was replaced by C. The work was finished in next 4 days. The number of days in which C alone could do the work is

A. 35 days

B. 30 days

C. 45 days

D. 40 days

Q. 116 If x=2√6/√3+√2 then the value of x+√2/x-√2 + x+√3/x-√3 is

A. √2

B. √3

C. √6

D. 2

Q. 117 Side AB of rectangle ABCD is divided into four equal parts by points x, y, z. The ratio of

A. 1/7

B. 1/6

C. 1/9

D. 1/8

Q. 118 If the length of a chord of a circle, which makes 45° with the tangent drawn at one end point of the chord, is 6 cm, then the radius of the circle is

A. 6√2 cm

B. 5 cm

C. 3√2 cm

D. 6 cm

Q. 119 A man buys one table and one chair for ₹500. He sells the table at a loss of 10% and the chair at a gain of 10%. He still gains ₹10 on the whole. The cost price of the chair is

A. ₹250

B. ₹300

C. ₹350

D. ₹200

Q. 120 The three medians AD, BE and CF of ΔABC intersect at point G. If the area of ΔABC is 60 sq. cm, then the area of the quadrilateral BDGF is

A. 10 sq. cm

B. 15 sq. cm

C. 20 sq. cm

D. 30 sq. cm

Q. 121 The rate of simple interest at which a sum of money becomes three times in 25 years is

A. 6%

B. 8%

C. 5%

D. 4%

Q. 122 If Psinθ=3 and Pcosθ=1, then the value of P is

A. 1/2

B. 2/√3

C. -1/√3

D. 2

Q. 123 ABCD is a trapezium, such that AB = CD and AD||BC AD=5 cm, BC=9 cm. If area of ABCD is 35 sq. cm, then CD is

A. √29 cm

B. 5 cm

C. 6 cm

D. √21 cm

Q. 124 If xsin³θ+ycos³θ=sinθ cosθ and xsinθ-ycosθ=0, then value of x²+y² is

A. 1

B. sinθ-cosθ

C. sinθ+cosθ

D. 0

Q. 125 If √4x-9 + √4x+9= 5+√7 then the value of x is

A. 4

B. 5

C. 7

D. 3

Q. 126 If uᵥ=cosⁿα+sinⁿα then the value of 2u₆-3u₄+1 is

A. 1

B. 4

C. 6

D. 0

Q. 127 The value of the following is:

sqrt(-sqrt(3) + sqrt(3 + 8 * sqrt(7 + 4 sqrt(3))))

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 1

Q. 128 P and Q are the middle points of two chords (not diameters) AB and AC respectively of a circle with centre at a point O. The lines OP and OQ are produced to meet the circle respectively at the points R and S. T is any point on the major arc between the points R and S of the circle. If ∠BAC =32°, ∠RTS=

A. 32°

B. 74°

C. 106°

D. 64°

Q. 129 A container has 80 L of milk. From this container 8L of milk was taken out and replaced by water. The process was further repeated twice. The volume of milk in the container after that is

A. 85.32 L

B. 58.23 L

C. 85.23 L

D. 58.32 L

Q. 130 The radius of a circle is 13 cm and xy is a chord which is at a distance of 12 cm from the centre. The length of the chord is

A. 15 cm

B. 12 cm

C. 10 cm

D. 20 cm

Q. 131 Two angles of a triangle are 1/2 radian and 1/3 radian. The measure of the third angle is degree (taking π=22/7) is

A. 132+1°/11

B. 132+2°/11

C. 132+3°/11

D. 132°

Q. 132 Two equal circles pass through each other’s centre. If the radius of each circle is 5 cm, what is the length of the chord?

A. 5

B. 5√3

C. 10√3

D. 5√3/2

Q. 133 A grain dealer cheats to the extent of 10% while buying as well as selling by using false weights. His total profit percentage is

A. 20%

B. 21%

C. 23%

D. 25%

Q. 134 Consider ΔABD such that ∠ABD=20° and C is a point on BD such that AB=AC and CD=CA. Then the measure of ∠ABC is

A. 40°

B. 45°

C. 60°

D. 30°

Q. 135 If sin(x+y) =cos[3(x+y)], then the value of tan[2(x+y)] is

A. 3

B. 1

C. 0

D. 1/√3

Q. 136 The diameter of a garden roller is 1.4 m and it is 2m long. The area covered by the roller in 5 revolution is

A. 8.8 m²

B. 4.4 m²

C. 44 m²

D. 16.8 m²

Q. 137 A person travels 285 km in 6 hr. In the first part of the journey, he travels at 40 km/hr by bus. In the second part, he travels at 55 km/hr by train. The distance travelled by train is

A. 156 km

B. 165 km

C. 615 km

D. 561 km

Q. 138 The average of the runs made by Raju, Shyam and Hari is 7 less than that made by Shyam, Hari and Kishore. If the number of Kishore’s run is 35, what is Raju’s run?

A. 14

B. 21

C. 35

D. 7

Q. 139 The value of (1+sec20°+cot70°)(1-cosec20°+tan70°) is

A. 0

B. -1

C. 2

D. 1

Q. 140 If 0≤α≤ π/2 and 2 sinα+15cos²α=7, then the value of cotα is

A. 1/2

B. 5/4

C. 3/4

D. 1/4

Q. 141 The marked price of a shopkeeper for an article is 30% higher than the cost price. If he sells the article allowing 10% discount to customers, then the gain percent will be

A. 17%

B. 16+2/3%

C. 12+1/2%

D. 15%

Q. 142 If sin2θ=1/2, then the value of cos(75°-θ) is

A. 1

B. 1/2

C. √3/2

D. 1/√2

Q. 143 A triangle is formed by the x-axis and the lines 2x+y=4 and x-y+1=0 as three sides. Taking the side along x-axis as its base, the corresponding altitude of the triangle is

A. 2 unit

B. 3 unit

C. √5 unit

D. 1 unit

Q. 144 If x=1/2+√3, y=1/2-√3 then the value of 1/x+1 + 1/y+1 is

A. 1/2

B. √3

C. 1

D. 1/√3

Q. 145 A starts a business with ₹7000 and after 5 months, B joined as a partner. After a year the profit is divided in the ratios 2:3. The capital of B is

A. ₹9000

B. ₹10000

C. ₹6500

D. ₹18000

The following bar diagram shows the percentage of 7 coloured balls sold in 5 shops A, B, C, D and E. Study the graph and answer the following

Q. 146 In shop A, the ratio of percentage of violet balls and yellow balls is

A. 2:7

B. 7:4

C. 6:1

D. 2:4

Q. 147 The shops having equal percentage of white balls are

A. A and C

B. C and E

C. B and C

D. A and B

Q. 148 What fraction of the total percentage of colour balls is to the percentage of total yellow balls

A. 7/50

B. 3/20

C. 4/25

D. 13/100

Q. 149 The difference between total number of % of violet balls and total number of % of blue balls is

A. 10

B. 15

C. 25

D. 40

Q. 150 The ratio of total percentage of Red balls and total percentage of orange balls is

A. 1:1

B. 4:5

C. 9:11

D. 7:9

Directions for Questions 151-155 –

Some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and choose the option corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If a sentence is free from error, then select the option D for ‘No error’.

Q. 151 The sentence is –

A. “Our history can be seen as a long evolutionary dialectical development”

B. “in which there have been”

C. “a painstaking forging of rational and moral self”

D. No error

Q. 152 The sentence is –

A. Our knowledge of history does not “come to”

B. our help and sometimes we “even fail to”

C. remember who “invented” America

D. No error

Q. 153 The sentence is –

A. “My grandfather owns”

B. “fifty acre”

C. “of wetland”

D. No error

Q. 154 The sentence is –

A. “Belgium chocolate is considered”

B. “by many to be finer”

C. “than any others in the world”

D. No error

Q. 155 The sentence is –

A. “Indian scientist are in no way“

B. “inferior than”

C. “any other scientist in the world”

D. No error

Directions for Questions 156 to 160 –

Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word. Choose the correct alternative out of the four given options –

Q. 156 We didn’t __________ the programme to be such a huge success.

A. except

B. expect

C. access

D. accept

Q. 157 We should __________ opportunities as they arise.

A. cease

B. size

C. sneeze

D. seize

Q. 158 The students aren’t prepared __________ the examination.

A. to listen

B. to work

C. to take

D. to give

Q. 159 The government, in bid to make Bihar, a preferred investment destination, has __________ major schemes to create infrastructure at different stages.

A. opposed

B. opened

C. pushed

D. launched

Q. 160 I suffer from no __________ about my capabilities.

A. doubts

B. hallucinations

C. imaginations

D. illusions

Directions for Questions 161 to 165 –

Out of the four options, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Q. 161 Inadvertent –

A. Unexpected

B. Unintentional

C. Undisturbed

D. Ignorant

Q. 162 Fortitude –

A. Courage

B. Protection

C. Safety

D. Similarity

Q. 163 Duplicity –

A. Artlessness

B. Deceit

C. Cleverness

D. Repetition

Q. 164 Fidelity –

A. Resourcefulness

B. Strength

C. Weakness

D. Faithfulness

Q. 165 Vanguard –

A. Officer

B. Flag bearer

C. Pioneer

D. Race driver

Directions for Questions 166 to 170 –

Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

Q. 166 Taciturn –

A. silent

B. talkative

C. immense

D. judge

Q. 167 Artisan –

A. skilled sculptor

B. learned person

C. ignorant villager

D. unskilled labour

Q. 168 Amicable –

A. friendly

B. haughty

C. unpleasant

D. hostile

Q. 169 Mitigate –

A. aggravate

B. allay

C. alleviate

D. abate

Q. 170 Aversion –

A. awareness

B. hatred

C. liking

D. avoidance

Directions for Questions 171 to 175 –

Four options are given for the idiom/phrase quoted in the sentence. Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Q. 171 He was “out of spirits” for a few days after his defeat.

A. gloomy

B. sober

C. lifeless

D. uninvolved

Q. 172 When the family in the next house packed off at midnight, I began to “smell a rat”.

A. to suspect a trick

B. to misunderstand

C. to see hidden meaning

D. to smell a bad smell

Q. 173 At first, there was a show of resistance to be rule issued by the Government, but the movement had “no backbone” and speedily collapsed.

A. justification

B. impact

C. strength

D. support

Q. 174 The cops were “on their toes” throughout the day

A. eager

B. alert

C. harried

D. quick

Q. 175 The minister assured the agitating employees that he would “look into” their demands sympathetically.

A. discuss

B. watch

C. grant

D. examine

Directions for Questions 176 to 180 –

Below are given 4 choices to the quoted part at A, B and C which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct option. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is D.

Q. 176 The “prolific” writer’s work is published every year.

A. exquisite

B. didactic

C. great

D. no improvement

Q. 177 Those plucking flowers are “liable for punishable.”

A. are liable for punishable

B. are liable for punishing

C. are liable to be punished

D. are viable for punishment

Q. 178 His “lust for power” brought down his downfall.

A. intense desire

B. desire for power

C. desire for sex

D. no improvement

Q. 179 I’ll meet the “raging” of the skies, but not an angry father.

A. sunshine

B. rain

C. anger

D. no improvement

Q. 180 “When we see black smoke” near the wing of the plane, we were certain that disaster was imminent.

A. When we were seeing

B. When we saw

C. When we had seen

D. No improvement

Directions for Questions 181 to 185 –

Out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.

Q. 181 Government by a small group of all powerful persons

A. Monarchy

B. Democracy

C. Anarchy

D. Oligarchy

Q. 182 One indifferent to art and literature is

A. Critic

B. Philistine

C. Scholar

D. Aromatic

Q. 183 “Open to injury for Criticism”

A. Vulnerable

B. Naive

C. Sensitive

D. Invincible

Q. 184 One who collects coins as a hobby

A. Ornithologist

B. Statistician

C. Numismatist

D. Philatelist

Q. 185 A narrow piece of land connecting two large masses of land

A. Isthmus

B. Continent

C. Gulf

D. Peninsula

Directions for Questions 186 to 190 –

There are four different words out of which one is spelt correctly. Find the correctly spelt word.

Q. 186 The word is –

A. Beneficil

B. Beneficial

C. Benifical

D. Benificial

Q. 187 The word is –

A. Avericious

B. Avaricious

C. Avarisious

D. Averisious

Q. 188 The word is –

A. Internaly

B. Coldly

C. Fortunetely

D. Uniquely

Q. 189 The word is –

A. Affectionately

B. Afectionately

C. Affectionnality

D. Affactionately

Q. 190 The word is –

A. Apprehension

B. Apprihension

C. Aprihension

D. Apprehenson

Directions for Questions 191 to 195 –

Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question.

If this is so, if to read a book as it should be read calls for the rarest Qualities of imagination, insight and judgement. You may perhaps conclude that literature is a very complex art and that it is unlikely that we shall be able, even after a lifetime of reading, to make any valuable contribution to its criticism. We must remain readers, we shall not put on the further glory that belongs to those rare beings who are also critics.

Q. 191 What is the opinion of most of the people about literature?

A. That it is not an easy one to contribute anything

B. That it is to some extent difficult to understand

C. That no contribution is necessary for literature

D. That it is very easy to understand

Q. 192 The antonym of conclude is

A. Commence

B. Exclude

C. End

D. Include

Q. 193 According to the author

A. It is not possible for most of us to contribute anything for criticism

B. It is possible to do something

C. It is not even easy to understand literature

D. Most of the people can contribute to criticism of literature

Q. 194 The author feels that we cannot have the greatness of

A. Writers

B. Critics

C. Publishers

D. Readers

Q. 195 What are the qualities required for reading a book?

A. Proper judgement

B. Imagination

C. Imagination, insight and judgement

D. None of the above

Directions for Questions 196 to 200 –

Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question.

These days not even many politicians deny that the oceans are ill. Protecting the health of coastal waters is now a matter of national policy in dozens of countries including the U.S., and world leaders are beginning to prescribe a revolutionary remedy that conservationists have been promoting for years : marine planning and zoning. The idea is a natural extension of management policies that have guided the development of cities and landscapes for nearly a century. Zoning advocates envision a mosaic of regional maps in which every watery space on the planet is designated for a particular purpose. Drilling and mining would be allowed only in certain parts of the ocean; fishing in others. The most critically threatened areas would be virtually off-limits. Whereas people can easily find maps telling them what they can do where on land, the marine realm is a hodge-podge of rules emanating from an army of agencies, each one managing a single use or symptom.

Q. 196 Marine planning and zoning is a __________ to protect the coastal waters.

A. Conservationists’ discovery

B. Marine project

C. Revolutionary remedy

D. National policy of the US

Q. 197 These days __________ that the oceans are not in good health.

A. Most of the politicians agree

B. All politicians agree

C. Nobody agrees

D. Everybody agrees

Q. 198 ‘Marine realm’ is a hodge-podge of rules means __________.

A. Seas need to be cleaned

B. There are no uniform laws governing the seas

C. There is total anarchy

D. Coastal areas are not being looked after properly

Q. 199 Sea zoning is all about __________.

A. Drilling and sea mining

B. Conserving the environment

C. Banning fishing in the sea

D. Dividing watery space for specific purposes

Q. 200 ‘Conservationist’ means __________.

A. A marine engineer

B. One who looks after others

C. One who prevents something from destruction

D. A proficient speaker

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	D	B	A	C	A	A	C	B	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	D	A	C	A	C	C	B	C	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	D	A	B	B	D	A	A	C	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	A	B	A	C	C	B	C	C	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	A	B	D	C	D	D	B	B	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	C	A	A	A	A	B	C	C	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	B	A	C	A	D	B	B	C	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	C	C	D	C	A	C	C	B	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	D	A	B	B	C	B	A	C	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	C	D	B	A	B	C	A	D	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	D	D	B	A	C	B	D	B	B	B
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	B	B	D	D	D	D	C	B	C
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	D	A	A	A	D	A	B	D	C
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	C	B	B	A	B	C	B	A	C	C
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	A	B	A	C	D	B	C	A	B	D
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	B	C	B	C	B	A	D	D	D	D
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	B	D	B	D	C	B	D	D	A	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	A	A	C	B	D	D	D	B	D	B
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	D	B	A	C	A	B	B	D	A	A
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	A	A	A	B	C	C	A	B	D	C