SSC Exam - Page 30 of 32 - Vidhyarthi Darpan

SSC CGL Tier-I 28 August 2016 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 28 Aug Shift 2

Q. 1 Select the related letters from the given alternatives.

PZQW: NXOU :: FISK:?

A. EFPJ

B. FERI

C. DGQI

D. HKVM

Q. 2 Select the related word pair from the given alternatives.

Head : Human Body :: ?

A. Arc : Circle

B. Cube : Circle

C. Square : Circle

D. Triangle : Circle

Q. 3 Select the related number from the given alternatives.

7: 19 :: 10:?

A. 25

B. 21

C. 30

D. 23

Q. 4 Find the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Bigger

B. Faster

C. Greater

D. Taller

Q. 5 Find the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. AEIM

B. BFJN

C. CGKO

D. FDKN

Q. 6 Find the odd number pair from the given alternatives

A. 140 → 45

B. 110 → 35

C. 100 → 30

D. 80 → 25

Q. 7 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary

1. Forest

2. Fascinating ·

3. Fantastic

4. Fabulous

A. 2, 4, 3, 1

B. 4, 2, 3, 1

C. 4, 3, 2, 1

D. 2, 3, 4, 1

Q. 8 Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?

a_ ca_ c _de_ d _ad_

A. ddacdc

B. daadca

C. dadaac

D. ddaacc

Q. 9 Which number comes next in the series?

1, 5, 2, 6, 3, 7, ?

A. 6

B. 5

C. 4

D. 3

Q. 10 P and Q are sisters. R and S are brothers. P’s daughter to R’s sister. What is Q’s relation to S?

A. Mother

B. Grandmother

C. Sister

D. Aunt

Q. 11 A man was 32 years of age when he had his first son. His wife was 35 years of age when his son attained the age of 7 years. The difference between the age of the father and the mother is ________.

A. 7 years

B. 3 years

C. 5 years

D. 4 years

Q. 12 From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word :

ANNOUNCEMENTS

A. CEMENT

B. NOUN

C. COUNTER

D. TENSE

Q. 13 If RATION is written as OXQFLK then LUMBER may be written as __________.

A. KTLADQ

B. ITJABQ

C. OXPEHU

D. IRJYBO

Q. 14 A * B means multiply A by B; A @ B means divide A by B, A? B means add B to A and A=B means subtract B from A. Then find the value of 10 * 10 = 5 * 10? 50@10

A. 100

B. 45

C. 1000

D. 55

Q. 15 If 37 * 14 = 17,

69 * 33 = 34,

91 “* 125 = 72

then what should be 28 * 56 = ?

A. 26

B. 42

C. 34

D. 28

Q. 16 Select the missing number from the given responses

A. 110

B. 120

C. 130

D. 140

Q. 17 P started walking from North to South. She turned right at right angle and then again right at right angle. In which direction was she ultimately walking?

A. North

B. East

C. South

D. West

Q. 18 Consider the given statements to be true and decide which of the given

conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement.

Statements :

All states having dams face no water problem. One of the states has no dam.

Conclusions :

I. It may be facing water problem.

IL Dams solve water problem.

A. Only Conclusion I follows

B. Only Conclusion II follows

C. Both Conclusion I and Conclusion II follow

D. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows

Q. 19 How many triangles are there in this figure?

A. 10

B. 12

C. 14

D. 16

Q. 20 Which of the answer figures illustrates the relationship between:

Delhi, Sri Lanka, Asia

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 21 Which, answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 22 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 25 In this. question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below the columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from O to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘A’ can be represented by 03, 55, etc., and ‘P’ can be represented by 10, 99, etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word ‘VENU’

A. 69, 87, 32, 41

B. 85, 02, 20, 57

C. 11, 95, 89, 57

D. 69, 95, 22, 04

Q. 26 What is the phenomenon which established the transverse nature of light?

A. Reflection

B. Interference

C. Diffraction

D. Polarisation

Q. 27 What is the name of a memory buffer used to accommodate a speed differential?

A. Cache

B. Stack Pointer

C. Accumulator

D. Disc

Q. 28 What is contained in Chlorophyll?

A. Sodium

B. Potassium

C. Manganese

D. Magnesium

Q. 29 Epigraphy is the study of which of 1he following?

A. Coins

B. Inscriptions

C. Temples

D. Birds

Q. 30 Who won 1he Women’s Singles Wimbledon Championship 2016?

A. Angilique Kuber

B. Serena Williams

C. Venus Williams

D. Steffi Graff

Q. 31 In which field is B.C. Roy Award given?

A. Music

B. Journalism

C. Medicine

D. Environment

Q. 32 What is Damodar Valley Corporation?

A. Statutory body

B. Municipal Corporation looking after Damodar Valley

C. A private enterprise located in Bihar

D. A non-government organisation

Q. 33 Which is the highest gallantry Award in India?

A. Vir Chakra

B. Param Vishist Seva Medal

C. Kirti Chakra

D. Param Vir Chakra

Q. 34 Who was recently appointed as the first woman President of Nepal?

A. Sita Subedi

B. Pampha Bhusal

C. Unnila Rana

D. Bidhya Devi Bhandari

Q. 35 In which field is Pulitzer Prize awarded for outstanding work?

A. Environment Study

B. Science and Technology

C. Literature and Journalism

D. Intematlonal Understanding

Q. 36 Why is Carbon Monoxide a pollutant?

A. Reacts with haemoglobin

B. Makes nervous system inactive

C. It reacts with Oxygen

D. It inhibits glycolysis

Q. 37 Why is Rann of Kutch of India famous for?

A. Tidal and flats

B. Fertile soil

C. Dense Vegetation

D. All are correct

Q. 38 Commercial banks lend to which of the following priority sectors?

A. Heavy Industries

B. Agriculture, Small scale industries

C. Foreign Companies

D. State Government in emergency situation

Q. 39 What is the accounting year of the Reserve Bank of India?

A. April-March

B. July-June

C. October-September

D. January-December

Q. 40 What is the position of the Earth when it is at the greatest distance from the sun?

A. Aphelion

B. Antipode

C. Perihelion

D. Aldiate

Q. 41 The biogas used for cooking is a mixture of which of the following?

A. Carbon dioxide and oxygen

B. isobutane and propane

C. Methane and carbon monoxide

D. Methane and carbon dioxide

Q. 42 From the following, who was the first woman speaker of Lok Sabha?

A. Sushma Swaraj

B. Margret Alva

C. Meera Kumar

D. Sarojini Naidu

Q. 43 Which of the following wind is blowing from the Mediterranean sea to the North Western parts of India ?

A. Western disturbances

B. Norwesters

C. Loo

D. Mango showers

Q. 44 Azolla increases soil fertility for

A. maize cultivation

B. wheat cultivation

C. barley cultivation

D. rice cultivation

Q. 45 Which of the following is not provided in the constitution?

A. Election Commission

B. Finance Commission

C. Public Service Commission

D. Planning Commission

Q. 46 What is the popular name of Monolithic rock shrines at Mahabalipuram?

A. Rathas

B. Prasad

C. Mathika

D. Gandhakuti

Q. 47 What is the name of the device used to convert alternating current into direct current?

A. Ammeter

B. Galvanometer

C. Rectifier

D. Transformer

Q. 48 Why does ice covered in sawdust not melt quickly?

A. Sawdust does not allow the air to touch the ice

B. The water is absorbed by sawdust

C. Sawdust is. a bad conductor of heat

D. Sawdust is good conductor of heat

Q. 49 Which layer of the earth’s atmosphere contains the ozone layer?

A. Troposphere

B. Mesosphere

C. Ionosphere

D. Stratosphere

Q. 50 Where is the Great Barrier Reef located?

A. Pacific Ocean

B. Indian Ocean

C. Atlantic Ocean

D. Arctic Ocean

Q. 51 The sum of three consecutive natural numbers each divisible by 5, is 225. The largest among them is

A. 85

B. 75

C. 70

D. 80

Q. 52 A can do a piece of work in 18 days. He worked at it for 12 days and B finished the remaining work in 8 days. B alone can do the whole work in

A. 16 days

B. 24 days

C. 28 days

D. 29 days

Q. 53 The list price of an article is Rs. 900. It is available at two successive discounts of 20% and 10%. The selling price of the article is :

A. Rs. 640

B. Rs. 648

C. Rs. 540

D. Rs. 548

Q. 54 A man spends a part of his monthly income and saves the rest. The ratio of his expenditure to the savings is 61 : 6. If his monthly income is Rs. 8710, the amount of his monthly savings is

A. Rs. 870

B. Rs. 690

C. Rs. 980

D. Rs. 780

Q. 55 An article was sold at Rs. 950 allowing 5% discount on the marked price. The marked price of the article is

A. Rs. 960

B. Rs. 1000

C. Rs. 955

D. Rs. 945

Q. 56 A person loses 75% of his money in the first bet, 75% of the remaining in the second and 75% of the· remaining in the third bet and returns home with Rs. 2 only. His initial money was

A. Rs. 64

B. Rs. 128

C. Rs. 256

D. Rs. 512

Q. 57 The time taken by a train 160 m long, running at 72 km/hr, in crossing an electric pole is

A. 8 seconds

B. 9 seconds

C. 6 seconds

D. 4 seconds

Q. 58 If x + 1/9x = 4, then the value 9x² + 1/9x² is

A. 140

B. 142

C. 144

D. 146

Q. 59 If a= 2, b = -3 then the value of 27a³ – 54a²b + 36 ab² – 8b³ is

A. 1562

B. 1616

C. 1676

D. 1728

Q. 60 Possible lengths of the three sides of a triangle are

A. 2 cm, 3 cm and 6 cm

B. 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm

C. 2.5 cm, 3.5 cm and 6 cm

D. 4 cm, 4 cm and 9 cm

Q. 61 AD is the median of ti ABC. If O is the centroid and AO = 10 cm, then OD is

A. 5 cm

B. 20 cm

C. 10 cm

D. 30 cm

Q. 62 If in a triangle ABC, sin A = cos B, then the value of cos C is

A. √3/2

B. 0

C. 1

D. 1/√2

Q. 63 Incentre of ΔABC is I. ∠ABC = 90° and ∠ACB = 70° . ∠AIC is

A. 115°

B. 135°

C. 110°

D. 105°

Q. 64 The length of the two adjacent sides of a rectangle inscribed in a circle are 5 cm and 12 cm respectively. Then the radius of the circle will be

A. 6 cm

B. 6.5 cm

C. 8 cm

D. 8.5 cm

Q. 65 If sinθ x cosθ = 1/2 . The value of sinθ – cosθ is where 0° < θ < 90°

A. 0

B. √2

C. 2

D. 1

Q. 66 The mean of 100 observations was calculated as 40. It was found later on that one of the observations was misread as 83 instead of 53. The correct mean is:

A. 39

B. 39.7

C. 40.3

D. 42.7

Q. 67 If a³ + 1/a³ = 2, then value of (a² + 1)/a is (a is a positive number)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 68 If x(3 – 2/x) = 3/x , then the value of x² + 1/x² will be

A. 3 (1/9)

B. 3 (2/9)

C. 2(1/9)

D. 2 (4/9)

Q. 69 A sphere of radius 5 cm is melted to form a cone with base of same radius. The height (in cm) of the cone is

A. 5

B. 10

C. 20

D. 22

Q. 70 The difference between compound interest and simple interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 5% per annum is Rs. 41. What is the sum of money?

A. Rs. 7200

B. Rs. 9600

C. Rs. 16400

D. Rs. 8400

Q. 71 A man standing on the bank of river observes that the angle subtended by a tree on the opposite bank is 60°. When he retires 36 m from the bank, he finds that the angle is 30°. The breadth of the river is

A. 15 metre

B. 18 metre

C. 16 metre

D. 11 metre

Questions: 72 – 75

Directions (Q.72-76): Study the bar-graph given below which shows the percent distribution of total expenditures of a company under various expenses and answer the questions.

Q. 72 The expenditure on the interest on loans is more than the expenditure on transport by

A. 5%

B. 10%

C. 40%

D. 30%

Q. 73 If the interest on loans amounted to Rs. 2.45 crores, then the total amount of expenditure on advertisement, taxes and research and development is:

A. Rs. 7 crores

B. Rs. 4.2 crores

C. Rs. 5.4 crores

D. Rs. 3 crores

Q. 74 The ratio of the total expenditure on infrastructure and transport to the total expenditure on taxes and interest on loans is:

A. 5 : 4

B. 8 : 7

C. 9 : 7

D. 13 : 11

Q. 75 If the total expenditure of the company is Rs. 20 crores, then the ratio of expenditure on transport to that on salary is

A. 5 : 4

B. 4 : 5

C. 5 : 8

D. 8 : 5

Q. 76 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

ENIGMA

A. Attractive

B. Riddle

C. Flare-up

D. Dream

Q. 77 In the following question, out of the four alternatives; choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word.

INERTIA

A. Stupor

B. Vigour

C. Languor

D. Inertness

Q. 78 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word.

A. Pious

B. Pios

C. Pieos

D. Piuos

Questions: 79 – 81

Directions (79 ·- 81) : In the following questions, one part of the sentence.may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and choose the option corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, choose the “No error”option.

Q. 79 Each child (1)/ was given a (2)/ red beautiful balloon. (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 80 She has had the best medical facilities available (1)/ but she will not be cured (2) / unless she does not have a strong desire to live. (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 81 She has had the best medical facilities available (1)/ but she will not be cured (2) / unless she does not have a strong desire to live. (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Questions: 82 – 84

Directions (82–84): The sentences given with blanks are to be filled With an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative

Q. 82 The passengers were afraid but the captain ______ them that there was no danger.

A. suggested

B. pleaded

C. advise

D. assured

Q. 83 I insisted _______ his leaving the place.

A. on

B. about

C. in

D. with

Q. 84 Please don’t _______ me when I’m speaking

A. interrupted

B. interrupts

C. interrupt

D. interrupting

Questions: 85 – 87

Directions (85 – 87): In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/ Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/ Phrase.

Q. 85 Beat around the bush.

Choose the correct meaning.

A. Walk around the forest

B. Clean the bushy areas

C. Avoiding the main topic

D. Play around the forest

Q. 86 Make room

Choose the correct meaning.

A. Clean the room

B. Make space

C. Attain the room

D. Make a clean sweep

Q. 87 Mend your ways.

Choose the correct meaning.

A. Happy with one’s behaviour

B. Sad with one’s behaviour

C. Destroy one’s behaviour

D. Improve one’s behaviour

Questions: 88 – 90

Directions (88-90): In the following questions, out of the four alternatives; choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/ sentences.

Q. 88 A record of one’s own life written by oneself

A. History

B. Biography

C. Bibliography

D. Autobiography

Q. 89 Belong to the same period

A. Comrades

B. Contemporaries

C. Compromises

D. Renegades

Q. 90 One who listens secretly to private conversation.

A. Eavesdropper

B. Encroacher

C. Eaves bearer

D. Listener

Questions: 91 – 95

Directions (91 – 95): In each of the following questions, a. sentence/a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Four alternatives are given to fill the bold part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, choose the option corresponding to “No improvement”.

Q. 91 Choose the correct option:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 92 Choose the correct option:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 93 Choose the correct option:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 94 Choose the correct option:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 95 Choose the correct option:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Questions: 96 – 100

Directions (96-100): A passage is given with 5 questions, following it, Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

Crude mineral oil comes out of the earth as a thick brown or black liquid with a strong smell. It is a complex mixture of many different substances, each with its own individual qualities. Most of them are combinations of hydrogen and carbon in varying proportions. Such hydrocarbons are also found in other forms such as bitumen, asphalt and natural gas. Mineral oil originates from the carcasses of tiny animals and from plants that live in the sea; Over millions of years these dead creatures form large deposits under sea-bed and ocean currents cover them with a blanket of sand and silt. As this material hardens, it becomes sedimentary rock and effectively shuts out the oxygen thus preventing the: complete decomposition of the marine deposits its underneath. The layers of sedimentary rocks become thicker and heavier. Their pressure produces heat, which transforms the tiny carcasses into crude oil in a process that is still going on today.

Q. 96 How does crude oil come out of the earth ?

A. Thick brown or black liquid with mild smell

B. Thick red-brown liquid with strong smell

C. Mixture of different colours

D. Thick brown or black liquid with a strong smell

Q. 97 What is crude mineral oil?

A. Complex mixture of many different substances

B. Simple mixture of natural gas

C. Plain white oil

D. It is bitumen

Q. 98 From where does mineral oil originate?

A. Complex mixture of pure substances

B. Carcasses of tiny animals and plants that live in the sea

C. From lakes

D. Only from plants

Q. 99 The time- taken for the marine deposits to harden into rocks is

A. a few centuries

B. millions of years

C. a few decades

D. thousands of years

Q. 100 Sedimentary rocks Lead to the formation of oil deposits because

A. their pressure produces heat and turns deposits of animal carcasses and plants into oil

B. it turns heavy and shuts out the oxygen

C. it becomes hard and forms into rocks to squeeze oil

D. it becomes light and soft and applies pressure to produce oil

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	A	A	B	D	C	C	D	C	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	C	D	D	D	C	A	C	C	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	D	C	A	B	D	A	D	B	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	A	D	D	C	A	A	B	B	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	D	C	A	D	D	A	C	C	D	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	B	B	D	B	B	D	B	D	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	B	B	B	A	B	B	D	C	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	C	B	D	C	B	B	A	C	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	D	A	C	C	B	D	D	B	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	A	A	A	C	D	A	B	B	A

SSC CGL Tier-I 27 August 2016 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 27 Aug Shift 2

Q. 1 If BLACKSMITH is coded as CNBELUNKUJ, then CHILDREN will be coded as ?

A. DJINETEP

B. DJJNETFP

C. DIJMESFO

D. DIJMEYEP

Q. 2 If 17 + 17 = 2895

18 + 18 = 3245

19 + 19 = 3615

then 23 + 23 = ?

A. 5765

B. 5295

C. 2565

D. 4005

Q. 3 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary

A. Dyke

B. Dwindle

C. Dwell

D. Dye

A. B, C, D, A

B. C, B, A, D

C. B, C, A, D

D. C, B, D, A

Q. 4 Select the missing number (In figure (1)) from the given responses.

A. 432

B. 501

C. 512

D. 332

Q. 5 Select the related letters from the given alternatives.

DHL : PTX : : BFJ : ?

A. KOS

B. NRV

C. NRU

D. NPS

Q. 6 Select the related word from the given alternatives.

Donkey : Brays : : Monkey : ?

A. Trumpets

B. Bellows

C. Chatters

D. Grunts

Q. 7 Select the related letters from the given alternatives.

ABDE : FGIJ : : IJLM : ?

A. NMOP

B. NOPQ

C. NOQR

D. NPQR

Q. 8 Select the related number from the given alternatives.

1 : 8 : : ? : 64

A. 36

B. 27

C. 30

D. 25

Q. 9 Find the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Diving

B. Swimming

C. Driving

D. Sailing

Q. 10 Find the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. CTES

B. VDZC

C. MKOJ

D. RGTF

Q. 11 Find the odd number from the given alternatives.

A. 245

B. 443

C. 633

D. 843

Q. 12 Find the wrong number in the series:

28 33 31 36 34 29

A. 29

B. 36

C. 30

D. 34

Q. 13 How many squares are there in the square figure ABCD?

A. 16

B. 17

C. 30

D. 26

Q. 14 Which answer figure (among (1), (2), (3), (4) will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 15 Find the word that cannot be formed from the letters in the given word.

SEGREGATION

A. NATION

B. GREAT

C. GREETINGS

D. SEATING

Q. 16 Asha is taller than Pratima. Prabhas is shorter than Pratima. Alka is shorter than Asha. Alka is taller than Prabhas. Who among the following is the shortest?

A. Pratima

B. Alka

C. Prabhas

D. Asha

Q. 17 Below some statements are given , followed by some conclusions. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.

Statement: All intelligent people are creative.

Conclusion I: Some creative people are intelligent.

Conclusion II: All intelligent people are creative.

A. only conclusion I follows

B. only conclusion II follows

C. Either conclusion I or II follows

D. Both conclusions I and II follow

Q. 18 Shama, during the time of sunset, started walking towards the opposite side of sun and then she turns right and right again. What direction is she facing?

A. South

B. West

C. East

D. North

Q. 19 What is the mirror image (among (1), (2), (3), (4)) of the following figure? The mirror may be represented by a line XY.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 20 Find the missing term in the given series:

2 7 10 22 18 37 26 ?

A. 42

B. 52

C. 46

D. 62

Q. 21 Find the missing term in the given series:

4 12 48 240 1440 ?

A. 7620

B. 10080

C. 6200

D. 10020

Q. 22 Find the missing term of the following series?

GEFH ZXYZ SQRT ?

A. LJKM

B. KILN

C. JGIO

D. NLMO

Q. 23 In the question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The set of numbers given in the alternatives is represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., S can be represented by 14, 23, etc., and ‘E’ can be represented by 56, 68, etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word ‘CURE’

A. 10

B. 19

C. 20

D. 9

Q. 25 In which of the following figures (among (1), (2), (3), (4)), the given figure is embedded?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 26 The Kakori conspiracy was a train robbery that took place between Kakori and Lucknow in

A. 1931

B. 1919

C. 1925

D. 1929

Q. 27 Who was the first lady Governor of an Indian State?

A. Vijaylakshmi Pandit

B. Sharda Mukherjee

C. Fathima Beevi

D. Sarojini Naidu

Q. 28 Which cell organelle is the site of photosynthesis and also contains chlorophyll?

A. Chloroplasts

B. Vacuole

C. Cytoplasm

D. Nucleolus

Q. 29 What are the components responsible for acid rain?

A. Nitrogen monoxide (NO) and Carbon monoxide (CO)

B. Sulphur dioxide (SO2) and Nitrogen oxides (NOx)

C. Carbon dioxide (CO2) and Carbon monoxide (CO)

D. Oxides of carbon (COx) and Oxides of nitrogen (NOx)

Q. 30 The headquarters of FIFA is in

A. Berlin

B. Vienna

C. France

D. Zurich

Q. 31 Which of the following is an insulator?

A. Mercury

B. Carbon

C. Germanium

D. Glass

Q. 32 Which of the following states has the highest literacy rate?

A. Goa

B. Karnataka

C. Mizoram

D. Himachal Pradesh

Q. 33 Which monument is known as the ‘Dream in Stones’?

A. Char Minar

B. Ajanta Caves

C. Sanchi Stupa

D. Panch Mahal

Q. 34 Name the process by which bubbles from liquid are formed?

A. Effervescence

B. Surface Tension

C. Surface Energy

D. Degasification

Q. 35 Zeolite is

A. hydrated aluminosilicate

B. hydrated calcium sulphate

C. dehydrated aluminosilicate

D. dehydrated calcium sulphate

Q. 36 Highest source of air pollution in the world is

A. Automobile

B. Industries

C. Household wastes

D. Aircraft

Q. 37 Who wrote the famous line: ‘A thing of beauty is a joy forever’

A. William Shakespeare

B. J. K. Rowling

C. John Keats

D. George Eliot

Q. 38 The boiling point of water depends upon the

A. atmospheric pressure

B. volume

C. density

D. mass

Q. 39 Which of the following deserts has the highest gold deposits?

A. Kyzyl – Kum desert

B. Gobi desert

C. Mojave desert

D. Tanami desert

Q. 40 The Himalayas are also known by the name

A. ancient mountains

B. fold mountains

C. valley mountains

D. Indus mountains

Q. 41 The amount of insolation received at a place on the surface of the earth depends upon:

A. its climate

B. the longitude of the place

C. its latitude

D. the altitude of the place

Q. 42 Alluvial soils are rich soil for crop cultivation but are poor in

A. humus

B. nitrogen and humus

C. organic material

D. inorganic material

Q. 43 By which Amendment were ‘Fundamental Duties’ added to the Constitution?

A. 42nd

B. 46th

C. 61st

D. 88th

Q. 44 Bamboo is classified as

A. Tree

B. Grass

C. Shrub

D. Herb

Q. 45 Which apparatus is used to measure the intensity of light?

A. Lux meter

B. Calorimeter

C. Anemometer

D. Altimeter

Q. 46 L.P.G. is mostly liquified

A. hydrogen

B. oxygen

C. butane

D. methane

Q. 47 What is used in storage batteries?

A. Copper

B. Tin

C. Lead

D. Zinc

Q. 48 The first computer made available for commercial use was

A. MANIAC

B. ENIAC

C. UNIVAS

D. EDSAC

Q. 49 Which river originates from the Amarkantak plateau?

A. Narmada River

B. Son River

C. Betwa River

D. Godavari River

Q. 50 Thomas Cup is associated with

A. Billiards

B. Table Tennis

C. Lawn Tennis

D. Badminton

Q. 51 In ΔABC, AB = a – b, AC = √(a² + b²) and BC = √2ab, then find angle B.

A. 60°

B. 30°

C. 90°

D. 45°

Q. 52 If 10% of x is 3 times 15% of y, then find x : y.

A. 7 : 2

B. 9 : 2

C. 8 : 3

D. 11 : 4

Q. 53 Find the value of 1/(1 + tan²θ) + 1/(1 + cot²θ)

A. 1/4

B. 1

C. 1/2

D. 2

Q. 54 Find the value of the equation given in the figure

A. 6

B. 10

C. 8

D. 4

Q. 55 Two rifles are fired from the same place at a difference of 11 min 45 seconds. But a man who is coming towards the same place in a train hears the second sound after 11 minutes. Find the speed of the train (Assuming speed of sound = 330 m/s)

A. 72 km/h

B. 36 km/h

C. 81 km/h

D. 108 km/h

Q. 56 If a + 1/(a – 2) = 4, then the value of (a – 2)² + (1/(a – 2))² is:

A. 0

B. 2

C. -2

D. 4

Q. 57 The average of runs of a cricket player of 20 innings was 32. How many runs must he make in his next innings so as to increase his average of runs by 4?

A. 116

B. 114

C. 170

D. 76

Q. 58 If x = 6pq/(p + q), then the value of (x + 3p)/(x – 3p) + (x + 3q)/(x – 3q) is

A. 6

B. 8

C. 2

D. 3

Q. 59 12 men and 16 boys can do a piece of work in 5 days; 13 men and 24 boys can do it in 4 days, then the ratio of the daily work done by a man to that of a boy is

A. 2 : 1

B. 3 : 1

C. 1 : 3

D. 5 : 4

Q. 60 If x = 1 + √2 + √3, then find the value of x² – 2x + 4

A. 2(7 + √6)

B. 2(4 + √6)

C. 2(3 + √7)

D. (4 + √6)

Q. 61 A is faster than B. A and B each walk 24 km. The sum of their speeds is 7 km/hr and the sum of times taken by them is 14 hours. Then A’s speed is equal to:

A. 3 km/hr

B. 4 km/hr

C. 5 km/hr

D. 7 km/hr

Q. 62 A man gains 20% by selling an article for a certain price. If he sells it at double the price, the percentage of profit will be

A. 40%

B. 100%

C. 120%

D. 140%

Q. 63 A man buys a watch for Rs. 1950 in cash and sells it for Rs. 2200 at a credit of 1 year. If the rate of interest be 10% per annum, then how much profit or loss will he have?

A. Rs. 55 gain

B. Rs. 30 profit

C. Rs. 30 loss

D. Rs. 30 profit

Q. 64 A sum of money invested at a compound interest amounts to Rs. 800 in 3 years and to Rs. 840 in 4 years. The rate of interest per annum is :

A. 2 1/2 %

B. 4%

C. 5%

D. 6 2/3%

Q. 65 If D, E and F are the mid-points of the sides of an equilateral triangle ABC (given in the figure), then the ratio of the area of triangle DEF and DCF is:

A. 1.1 : 1

B. 1 : 1.1

C. 0.9 : 1

D. 1 : 1

Q. 66 How many common tangents can be drawn on two circles touching each other externally?

A. Infinity

B. 0

C. 2

D. 3

Q. 67 If tanθ + 1/tanθ = 2, then the value of tan²θ + 1/tan²θ is equal to:

A. 6

B. 4

C. 2

D. 3

Q. 68 From 40 m apart from the foot of a tower, the angle of elevation of its top is 60°. What is the height of the tower?

A. 120/√3 m

B. 60/√3 m

C. 50/√3 m

D. 130√7 m

Q. 69 If the price of sugar increases by 20%, one can buy 2 kg less for Rs. 50. What is the amount of sugar that could be bought before price hike?

A. 10 kg

B. 12 kg

C. 14 kg

D. 16 kg

Q. 70 In how many years will a sum of Rs. 800 at 10% per annum compounded semi-annually become Rs. 926.10?

A. 2 1/2 years

B. 3 years

C. 2 years

D. 1 1/2 years

Q. 71 The number of coins of radius 0.75 cm and thickness 0.2 cm required to be melted to make a right circular cylinder of height 8 cm and base radius 3 cm is:

A. 500

B. 600

C. 460

D. 640

Q. 72 Pushpa is twice as old as Rita was 2 years ago. If difference between their ages is 2 years, how old is Pushpa today?

A. 6 years

B. 8 years

C. 10 years

D. 12 years

Questions: 73 – 75

Study the following bar graph (Given in figure) carefully to answer the questions:

Q. 73 The yield per acre of India is what percent more than that of Pakistan?

A. 25%

B. 50%

C. 75%

D. 100%

Q. 74 If the yield per acre is arranged in ascending order, then what is the difference between the yield per acre of first three countries and last three countries

A. 168 quintals

B. 172 quintals

C. 182 quintals

D. 190 quintals

Q. 75 The yield per acre produced by Bangladesh is what percent of the total yield per acre produced by all countries?

A. 14%

B. 13.5%

C. 14.8%

D. 16%

Questions: 76 – 77

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been quoted to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. The villager has customarily been very conservative in his attitude and approach. He is reluctant to change his traditional way of thinking and doing things. His attitude, in many aspects, is: “homemade is best”. For instance, most cattle farmers in the villages, prefer to feed their cows and buffaloes with a home-mix comprising local oilseeds like mustard or cottonseed, pulses, jaggery, salt, etc. It takes numerous visits, hard-convincing, daily trials and experience to convince the rural cattle farmer that compound feeds, scientifically formulated, improve the yields of milk, without any incremental costs. The age-old values and attitude towards caste, creed, woman, time and money take time to change. The villager has traditionally been a believer in the philosophy of ‘karma’ or ‘fate’. He has found it more convenient to blame his economic destitution, poor living conditions and straitened social status on ‘bhagya’, ‘karma’ or ‘fate’. The security that the villagers find in the ‘status quo’, acts as a disincentive to change and experiment, in his short run. Many of these antiquated attitudes, value-system and outlooks are changing, due to improved levels of awareness and education. However, the rate of change is sluggish. Attitudes have fossilised over the centuries, do take time to change.

Q. 76 When will you call a person conservative in his attitude and approach?

A. when he likes to try out every new idea before accepting it.

B. when he sticks to old ways of thinking and doing.

C. when he solves his problems through tried out methods.

D. when he imputes motives to change-agents.

Q. 77 What does the phrase “home made is best” imply?

A. The best should not be discarded.

B. Change for the sake of change is not good.

C. People should go in for swadeshi because it is home-made

D. Whatever is being practised is better than what is new.

Q. 78 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

DEVASTATION

A. DESTRUCTION

B. CONSTRUCTION

C. SEPARATION

D. FRUSTRATION

Q. 79 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word and click the button corresponding to it.

A. Connaisseur

B. Conoisseur

C. Connossieur

D. Connoiseur

Q. 80 In the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

Fit like a glove

A. to fit snugly

B. something tight and sticky

C. soft and easy to ware

D. difficult to hold

Q. 81 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

To pull a long face

A. to make fun

B. to look sad

C. to irritate someone

D. to pull someone’s face

Q. 82 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

Cat nap

A. …

B. …

C. make a snoring sound while sleeping

D. to sleep briefly

Q. 83 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

To flog a dead horse

A. to act in a foolish way

B. To waste one’s efforts

C. To revive interest in an old effort

D. None of these

Q. 84 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

Money given to agents on sales.

A. help

B. Commission

C. assignment

D. endeavour

Q. 85 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

Person believing in one marriage

A. polygamist

B. misogynist

C. monogamist

D. philanthropist

Q. 86 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

A system of government in which only one political party is allowed to function.

A. Oligarchy

B. Dictatorship

C. Totalitarianism

D. Theocracy

Q. 87 In this question, a sentence or a part of sentence is quoted. Below are given alternatives to the quoted part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, answer is (4)

She “cut a sad figure” in her first performance on the stage.

A. made a sorry figure

B. cut a sorry face

C. cut a sorry figure

D. no improvement

Q. 88 In each of these questions, choose the word which expresses the meaning of the word given in CAPITALS.

A. ….

B. Gloomy

C. Dying

D. Superfluous

Q. 89 In each of these questions, choose the word which expresses the meaning of the word given in CAPITALS.

SOOTHE

A. Agitate

B. Perturb

C. Fluster

D. Mollify

Q. 90 In each of these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the word opposite in meaning to the word given in CAPITALS.

EPITOME

A. quintessence

B. paragon

C. enlargement

D. incarnation

Q. 91 In each of these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the word opposite in meaning to the word given in CAPITALS.

GUMPTION

A. ingenuity

B. stupidity

C. sagacity

D. acumen

Q. 92 In each of these questions, a sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriated word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four alternatives.

The waiter hasn’t brought the coffee _________________ I’ve been here for ________________ an hour.

A. still

B. yet

C. up

D. till

Q. 93 In each of these questions, a sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriated word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four alternatives.

I always fall __________ old friends in times of need.

A. over

B. through

C. back on

D. off

Q. 94 In each of these questions, a sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriated word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four alternatives.

A person came in with a baby who, she said ______________________ a safety pin

A. swallowed

B. just swallowed

C. had just swallowed

D. …

Q. 95 In each of these questions, a sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriated word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four alternatives.

the monsoon did not arrive _________________ time.

A. at

B. by

C. on

D. after

Q. 96 Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Choose the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’ as thee answer.

He is (1) / capable to do this work (2) / within the stipulated period. (3) / No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 97 Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Choose the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’ as thee answer.

I used (1) / a pair of trousers (2) / for a week (3) / No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 98 Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Choose the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’ as thee answer.

He has made a (1) / mistake of (2) / which I am certain. (3) / No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 99 Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Choose the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’ as thee answer.

Good heavens! (1) / How was she (2) / grown! (3) No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 100 Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Choose the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, choose ‘No error’ as thee answer.

The weather (1) / of the new place (2) / did not suit Ravi. (3) / No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	B	D	C	B	C	C	B	C	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	A	C	B	A	C	D	B	C	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	A	C	C	D	C	D	A	B	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	C	D	A	A	A	C	A	C	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	B	A	B	A	C	C	C	A	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	B	B	D	C	B	A	C	A	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	D	A	C	D	D	C	A	B	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	B	A	A	C	B	D	A	C	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	D	B	C	C	B	B	C	D	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	B	C	C	C	B	A	D	B	A

SSC CGL Tier-I 27 August 2016 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 27 Aug Shift 1

Q. 1 Select the related weird from the given alternatives :

College : Student : : Hospital : ?

A. Doctor

B. Treatment

C. Nurse

D. Patient

Q. 2 Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives:

DHL : PTX :: BFJ : ?

A. NRV

B. RVZ

C. CGK

D. KOS

Q. 3 Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives:

5 : 124 :: 7 : ?

A. 125

B. 248

C. 342

D. 343

Q. 4 Find the odd word pair from the given alternatives

A. Hard:Soft

B. Hot:Cold

C. Right:Wrong

D. Come:Arrive

Q. 5 Find the odd letter from the given alternatives

A. AG

B. WA

C. ET

D. IQ

Q. 6 Find the odd number pair from the given alternatives

A. 14, 12

B. 24, 7

C. 42, 4

D. 37, 4

Q. 7 Arrange the following words as per the order in the dictionary

1. RESIGN

2. REPAIR

3. RESIDUE

4. RESEARCH

5. RESCUE

A. 4 5 3 1 2

B. 2 5 4 3 1

C. 2 5 4 1 3

D. 5 4 3 1 2

Q. 8 A series is given with one term missing, Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

JAZ, LEX, NIV, PMT, ?

A. QUR

B. RQR

C. SUR

D. RUS

Q. 9 A series is given with one term missing, Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

19, 28, 39, 52, ?, 84

A. 39

B. 52

C. 67

D. 84

Q. 10 X and Y are brothers. R is the father of Y. T is the sister of S who is maternal uncle of X. How is T related to R?

A. Mother

B. Wife

C. Sister

D. Brother

Q. 11 A is taller than B. C is taller than A. D is taller than E but shorter than B. Who is the tallest?

A. C

B. A

C. D

D. B

Q. 12 From the given alternative words, select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word.

SOMNAMBULISM

A. NAMES

B. BASALT

C. SOUL

D. BIOME

Q. 13 If D = 4, DOG = 26, then find the value of ANIMAL= ?

A. 47

B. 49

C. 48

D. 50

Q. 14 If ‘+’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘-‘ stands for ‘=’, ‘x’ stands for ‘+’, ‘÷’stands for greater than, ‘=’ stands for less than, ‘>’ stands for multiplication and ‘<‘ stands for subtraction, then which of the following alternatives is correct?

A. 5÷2×1=3+4>1

B. 5>2×1-3>4<1

C. 5×2<1-3<4×1

D. 5<2×1÷3>4×1

Q. 15 In this question, some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. On the same basis find out the correct answer from amongst the four alternatives for the unsolved equation.

3X4X5 = 435

4X3X2 = 342

2X3X4= ?

A. 324

B. 342

C. 432

D. 243

Q. 16 In the question, selection the missing number from the given alternatives.

A. 56

B. 120

C. 151

D. 154

Q. 17 Ram walks 3 km towards East and takes a left turn and walks for one km before he turns left and walks 2 km to take another left turn to walk for another one km. How many km is he away from his starting point?

A. 1km

B. 2 kms

C. 3 kms

D. 4 kms

Q. 18 Consider the given· statement/(s) to be true an decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement.

Statements :

All fruits are leaves.

Some fruits are grapes.

Conclusions :

I. Some leaves are grapes.

II. All grapes are fruits.

A. Only Conclusion I follows

B. Only Conclusion II follows

C. Both Conclusions I and II follow

D. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

Q. 19 Find out the number of triangles in the figure given.

A. 6

B. 8

C. 10

D. 12

Q. 20 Which one of the following diagrams represent the correct relationship between DOCTORS, SURGEONS and NURSES

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 21 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 22 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 23A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 25 In the question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its toe and next by its column. e.g. ‘A’ can be represented by 22, 10 etc and ‘P’ can be represented by 55, 67, 79 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word “NEAT”.

A. 44,14,34,56

B. 20,33,78,75

C. 13,40,67,99

D. 32,21,41,68

Q. 26 Which one of the following is not a scheme/project of the present Government?

A. AMRUT

B. Swachh Bharat

C. AYUSH

D. Jan Dhan Yojana

Q. 27 Which of the following was India’s first interplanetary mission?

A. Chandrayaan Mission

B. Mangalyaan Mission

C. Aryabhatta Mission

D. Philae Mission

Q. 28 Why the Earth is having its own atmosphere ?

A. Winds

B. Clouds

C. Gravity

D. Rotation of the Earth

Q. 29 Motor skills are associated with which part of the brain?

A. Frontal lobe

B. Parietal Lobe

C. Temporal lobe

D. Occipital Lobe

Q. 30 Which enzyme is present in all members of the animal kingdom except Protozoa?

A. Insulin

B. Pepsin

C. Renin

D. Amylase

Q. 31 At boiling point of liquids , its

A. Temperature increases

B. Atmospheric pressure increases

C. Temperature remains constant

D. Vapour pressure decreases

Q. 32 A level of atmosphere which is composed partly of electrons and positive ions is called

A. Troposphere

B. Ionosphere

C. Stratosphere

D. Mesosphere

Q. 33 In India which of the following taxes is levied by the State governments?

A. Excise duty on liquor

B. Capital gains tax

C. Customs tax

D. Corporation tax

Q. 34 After question hour, a motion moved by a Member of Parliament to draw the attention of Executive for discussing a definite matter of public importance is

A. Privilege motion

B. Calling attention Motion

C. Adjournment motion

D. No- confidence motion

Q. 35 The major objective of monetary policy is to

A. increase government’s tax revenue

B. revamp the Public Distribution System

C. Promote economic growth with price stability

D. weed out corruption in the economy

Q. 36 The only Viceroy to be assassinated in India was

A. Lord Harding

B. Lord Northbrook

C. Lord Ellenborough

D. Lord Mayo

Q. 37 Which one is not the main objective of fiscal policy in India?

A. To increase liquidity in the economy

B. To promote price stability

C. To minimize the inequalities of income & wealth

D. To promote employment opportunity

Q. 38 Who was the founder of the Theosophical Society?

A. Justice Ranade

B. Madam Blavatsky

C. Annie Besant

D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Q. 39 India recently signed land boundary agreement with which country?

A. China

B. Nepal

C. Bhutan

D. Bangladesh

Q. 40 Who among the following Indians is one who has been selected on July 27,for the Ramon Magsaysay Award, 2016?

A. Bezwada Wilson

B. Kailash Satyarthi

C. Kiran Bedi

D. Mahasweta Devi

Q. 41 The first Field Marshall of India was

A. A. S. Vaidya

B. K.M. Cariappa

C. Sunderji

D. S.H.F.J. Manekshaw

Q. 42 “Earth provides enough to satisfy everyman’s need but not everyman’s greed”. Who said this?

A. Guru Nanak Dev

B. Mahatma Gandhi

C. Pope Paul VI

D. Smt. Indira Gandhi

Q. 43 Who won the first medal for India at the Rio Olympics?

A. Babita Kumari

B. Narsingh Yadav

C. P. V. Sindhu

D. Sakshi Malik

Q. 44 The most serious air pollutant causing health hazard is

A. Sulphur dioxide

B. Carbon monoxide

C. Ozone

D. Nitrogen oxide

Q. 45 Helium is added to the oxygen supply of deep sea divers because it is

A. less poisonous than nitrogen

B. Lighter than nitrogen

C. Readily miscible with oxygen

D. less soluble in blood than nitrogen at high pressure

Q. 46 Terylene is a condensation polymer of ethylene glycol and which acid?

A. Benzoic Acid

B. Salicylic acid

C. Phthalic acid

D. Terephthalic acid

Q. 47 In IT, means that the data available in the database is both accurate and consistent.

A. Data Security

B. Data Availability

C. Data Binding

D. Data Integrity

Q. 48 On a clean glass plate a drop of water spreads to form a thin layer whereas a drop of mercury remains almost spherical because

A. Mercury is a metal

B. Density of mercury is greater than that of water

C. Cohesion of mercury is greater than its adhesion with glass

D. Cohesion of water is greater than its adhesion with glass

Q. 49 The smallest island country in the Indian Ocean is

A. Maldives

B. Sri Lanka

C. Mauritius

D. Madagascar

Q. 50 The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by the

A. President of India

B. Prime Minister of India

C. Speaker of Lok Sabha

D. Chairman of Rajya Sabha

Q. 51 A and B can together do a piece of work in 6 days and A alone can do it in 9 days. The number of days B will take to do it alone is

A. 18 days

B. 24 days

C. 9 days

D. 12 days

Q. 52 The length of the two parallel sides of a trapezium are 16 m and 20 m respectively. If its height is 10 m, its area in square metres is

A. 360

B. 260

C. 240

D. 180

Q. 53 A discount series of 15%, 20% and 25% is equal to the single discount of?

A. 48%

B. 49%

C. 50%

D. 51%

Q. 54 Rs. 490 is divided among A, B and C such that A’s share is half that of B’s and thrice that of C’s. What is C’s share?

A. Rs.49

B. Rs.147

C. Rs.294

D. Rs.245

Q. 55 A dealer sold an article at 6% loss. Had he sold it for Rs. 64 more, he would have made a profit of 10%. Then the cost of the article is

A. Rs.400

B. Rs.200

C. Rs.164

D. Rs.464

Q. 56 There are 1400 students in a school, 25% of those wear spectacles and 2/7 of those wearing spectacles are boys. How many girls in the school wear spectacles?

A. 250

B. 100

C. 200

D. 300

Q. 57 A man can row upstream at 12 km/hr and downstream at 18 km/hr. The man’s rowing speed in stillwater is

A. 15 km/hr

B. 5 km/hr

C. 3 km/hr

D. 10 km/hr

Q. 58 If ab = 21 and (a + b)²/(a – b)² = 25/4 , then the value of a² + b² + 3ab is

A. 115

B. 121

C. 125

D. 127

Q. 59 The value of (d^(s + t) ÷ d^s) ÷ d^t would be

A. d ^(2(s + t))

B. 1

C. 0

D. d^(s – t)

Q. 60 Possible measures of three angles of a triangle are

A. 33°, 42°, 115°

B. 40°, 70°, 80°

C. 30°, 60°, 100°

D. 50°, 60°, 70°

Q. 61 BD and CE are two medians of the triangle ABC. If EO = 7 cm, then the length of CE is

A. 28 cm

B. 14 cm

C. 21 cm

D. 35 cm

Q. 62 If sec²θ + tan²θ = √3 , then the value of sec⁴θ – tan⁴θ is

A. 1/√3

B. 1

C. √3

D. 0

Q. 63 The greatest perfect square number of 6 digits is

A. 999001

B. 998001

C. 998009

D. 998101

Q. 64 The average height of 30 boys out of a class of 50 is 160 cm. If the average height of the remaining boys is 165 cm, the average height of the whole class (in cm) is:

A. 161

B. 162

C. 163

D. 164

Q. 65 Given a – b = 2 , a³ – b³ = 26 , then the value of (a + b)² is

A. 9

B. 4

C. 16

D. 12

Q. 66 If X + Y + Z = 9, then the value of (X – 4)³ + (Y – 2)³ + (Z – 3)³ – 3(X – 4)(Y -Z)(Z – 3) is

A. 6

B. 9

C. 0

D. 1

Q. 67 Three medians AD, BE and CF of ΔABC intersect at G; Area of ΔABC is 36 sq cm. Then the area of ΔCGE is

A. 12 sq cm

B. 6 sq cm

C. 9 sq cm

D. 18 sq cm

Q. 68 A chord of a circle is equal to its radius. A tangent is drawn to the circle at an extremity of the chord. The angle between the tangent and the chord is

A. 30°

B. 45°

C. 60°

D. 75°

Q. 69 If π sinθ = 1, π cosθ = 1, then the value of {√3 tan(⅔θ) + 1} is

A. 1

B. √3

C. 2

D. 1/√3

Q. 70 The difference between simple and compound interest (compounded annually) on a sum of money for 3 years at 10% per annum is Rs. 93. The sum (in Rs.) is:

A. 30000

B. 30300

C. 3000

D. 3030

Q. 71 The angles of elevation of top and bottom of a flag kept on a flag post from 30 metres distance, are 45° and 30° respectively. Height of the flag is [taking √3 = 1.732]

A. 12 √3 m

B. 15 m

C. 14.32 m

D. 12.68 m

Questions: 72 – 75

Study the following bar-diagram carefully and answer the questions. The bar

graph given below shows the foreign exchange reserves of a country (in million

US $) from 1991 – 1992 to 1998 – 1999.

Q. 72 The ratio of the number of years, in which the foreign exchange reserves are above the average reserves, to those in which the reserves are below the average reserves is

A. 2:6

B. 3:4

C. 3:5

D. 4:4

Q. 73 The foreign exchange reserves in 1996-97 were approximately what percent of the average foreign exchange reserves over the period under review?

A. 95%

B. 110%

C. 115%

D. 124%

Q. 74 The percentage increase in the foreign exchange reserves in 1997-98 over 1993-94 is

A. 100

B. 150

C. 200

D. 120

Q. 75 Ratio of the sum of foreign exchange reserves during the years 1991-92, 1992-93, 1993- 94 to that during the years 1995-96, 1996-97, 1997-98 is

A. 31 : 35

B. 35 : 31

C. 37 : 52

D. 52 : 37

Q. 76 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

PANACEA

A. PRAISE

B. CURE-ALL

C. POISON

D. AMBROSIA

Q. 77 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

DETEST

A. DENOUNCE

B. IGNORE

C. ADORE

D. CASTIGATE

Q. 78 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word and click the button corresponding to it.

A. Debilitate

B. Impecable

C. Inkulcate

D. Harrass

Questions: 79 – 81

The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative.

Q. 79 What a ________________ holiday!

A. momentous

B. memorable

C. momentary

D. immortal

Q. 80 Many important projects have reached the final stage of.

A. accomplishment

B. initiation

C. resolution

D. implementation

Q. 81 ________________ you live long!

A. Might

B. May

C. Shall

D. Should

Questions: 82 – 84

In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The number of that part is your answer. If a sentence is free from errors, your answer is No error.

Q. 82 Each of the girls (1) / have come (2) / with her books. (3) / No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 83 Me and my wife (1) / were at home (2) / last night. (3) / No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 84 Essay writing is an art (1) / that requires many planning (2) / on the part of the writer. (3) / No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Questions: 85 – 87

In these questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/ phrase printed in quotes. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase given in quotes.

Q. 85 “Caught red-handed”

A. Caught by mistake

B. Caught with a red-handkerchief

C. Found wounded

D. Discovered in the act of doing

Q. 86 “Gate crasher”

A. Invader

B. Thief

C. Uninvited guest

D. Children

Q. 87 “To angle”

A. To measure the river breadth

B. To fish with a net

C. To fish

D. To sit and watch the river

Questions: 88 – 90

In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

Q. 88 Favouritism shown by a person in power to his relatives

A. Formalism

B. Red-tapism

C. Nepotism

D. Bureaucracy

Q. 89 A round-about way of expression

A. Verbosity

B. Talkativeness

C. Circumlocution

D. Locquacious

Q. 90 Suitable or intended for only young persons

A. Youthful

B. Puerile

C. Adolescent

D. Juvenile

Questions: 91 – 95

In each of the following questions, a sentence/part of the sentence is printed in quotes. Four alternatives are given to the quoted part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, select option corresponding to ”No improvement”.

Q. 91 Each self is unique, and therefore cannot be compared.

A. incomparable

B. Non comparable

C. Incomparably

D. No improvement

Q. 92 Shall I sit between you at the concert?

A. beside

B. besides

C. next

D. No Improvement

Q. 93 No one other reason than poverty is hampering India’s progress.

A. No other

B. None other

C. No another

D. No improvement

Q. 94 The custom has took root in the society.

A. taken root

B. take root

C. takes root

D. No improvement

Q. 95 We will take care of your children when you are away at Mumbai.

A. be looking for

B. look after

C. take care after

D. No improvement

Questions: 96 – 100

A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives My brother, David, was always close to our grandmother. Both of them shared a love of Mother Nature and of food that they had grown themselves. Whenever his schedule permitted, he would drop in for a short visit and a cup of coffee. One day, when he found no one home, he left a chunk of dirt on her porch. This started what was later to be known as his “calling card”. Grandmother would come home occasionally and instantly know that Dave had been by when she spotted the chunk of dirt on her porch. Although Grandmother had a poor upbringing in Italy, she managed to do well in the United States. She was always healthy and independent and enjoyed a fulfilling life. Recently she had a stroke and died. Everyone was saddened by her death. David was disconsolate. His life-long friend was now gone.

Q. 96 What is the opposite of the word ‘disconsolate’

A. Devastated

B. Hilarious

C. Exuberant

D. Sombre

Q. 97 David would drop in for a short visit and leave a ______________ as a sign on grandma’s porch if she was not at home.

A. schedule

B. chunk of dirt

C. calling card

D. cup of coffee

Q. 98 Grandmother used to be

A. rich in Italy but poor in the United States

B. in the United States but is now in Italy

C. poor earlier but became rich later on

D. rich earlier but now poor

Q. 99 Grandmother enjoyed a _______________ life.

A. healthy but sickly

B. good and healthy

C. rich but sickly

D. poor and healthy

Q. 100 Grandmother’s death made everyone

A. sad including David

B. disconsolate excluding David

C. happy and disconsolate

D. sad excluding David

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	A	C	D	C	D	B	B	C	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	C	D	B	A	B	A	A	D	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	D	C	B	A	B	B	C	A	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	B	A	C	C	D	A	B	D	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	D	B	D	A	D	D	D	C	A	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	D	B	A	A	A	A	B	B	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	C	B	B	C	C	B	A	C	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	C	D	A	C	B	C	A	B	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	B	A	B	D	C	C	C	C	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	A	A	A	B	C	B	C	B	A

SSC CGL Tier-I 04 September 2016 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 4 Sep Shift 1

Q. 1 Select the related word from the given alternatives :

Play : Actor :: Concert :

A. Symphony

B. Musician

C. Piano

D. Percussion

Q. 2 Select the related letters from the given alternatives:

EGIK : FILO :: FHJL : ?

A. JGMP

B. JGPM

C. GJMP

D. GMJP

Q. 3 Select the related number from the given alternatives :

583 : 295 :: 486 : ?

A. 291

B. 378

C. 487

D. 581

Q. 4 Find the odd word from the given alternatives :

A. Fire

B. Light

C. Gas

D. Water

Q. 5 Find the odd word from the given alternatives:

A. ECBY

B. RTUX

C. GEDA

D. WUTQ

Q. 6 Find the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 52-61

B. 43-54

C. 72-83

D. 18-29

Q. 7 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.

1. Fraudulent

2. Fraught

3. Fraternity

4. Franchise

5. Frantic

A. 5, 4, 1, 2, 3

B. 4, 5, 3, 1, 2

C. 4, 3, 5, 1, 2

D. 3, 4, 5, 2, 1

Q. 8 Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

H __ JH __ IJHHI __ HH __ JH

A. I H J I

B. H I H I

C. I H I J

D. H J H J

Q. 9 Which number will complete the series?

63, 72, 81, 90, ___, 108

A. 80

B. 99

C. 100

D. 117

Q. 10 Rajiv is the brother of Arun. Sonia is the sister of Sunil. Arun is the son of Sonia. How is Rajiv related to Sunil?

A. nephew

B. son

C. brother

D. father

Q. 11 A mother is five times older than her daughter. After 5 years, she would be 3 times older than her daughter. Find the mother’s present age.

A. 20 years

B. 22 years

C. 25 years

D. 29 years

Q. 12 From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:

PRONOUNCEMENT

A. MOUNT

B. CEMENT

C. PAVEMENT

D. NOUN

Q. 13 If SYSTEM is written as RXRSDL. How can CORRECT be written in that code?

A. BNQQDBS

B. BQQNDBS

C. BNQQBDS

D. BNQDQBS

Q. 14 If A means +, B means x, C means ÷, D means -, then the value of given equation will be 9A2B6D4C2

A. 16

B. 19

C. 27

D. 30

Q. 15 If 4 x 3 = 14; 5 x 4 = 18; 6 x 5 = 22, then find the value of 7 x 6.

A. 20

B. 26

C. 30

D. 42

Q. 16 Select the missing number from the given responses:

A. 6

B. 9

C. 5

D. 4

Q. 17 Rita travelled 35 km from a point towards South and then turned left and travelled 20 km and finally turned left again and travelled 35 km. In which direction is she from the starting point?

A. East

B. West

C. North

D. South

Q. 18 Consider the given statement/s to be true and decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Statement: To achieve economic development, people should work hard.

Conclusions:

I. Economic development is directly related to people’s hard work.

II. Working hard by all the people is impossible.

A. Only I follows

B. Only II follows

C. Both I and II follow

D. Neither I nor II follows

Q. 19 Find the number of triangles in the figure (1).

A. 12

B. 18

C. 22

D. 26

Q. 20 Which of the answer figures (1), (2), (3), (4) best represents the relation between: Shirt, Garments, Clothes

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 21 Which answer figure among (1), (2), (3), (4), will complete the pattern in the question figure (A)?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 22 From the given answer figures (1), (2), (3), (4), select the one in which the question figure (A) is hidden/embedded.

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown in figure (A). From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened (among figure (1), (2), (3), (4))

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 24 The mirror image of a word is seen as given in figure (A). What is the actual word among (1), (2), (3), (4)?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 25 In the question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The set of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given in figure (1). The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., B can be represented by 00, 13, etc, and A can be represented by 55, 69, etc. You have to identify the set for the word ‘LION’.

A. 03, 55, 76, 33

B. 11, 65, 77, 22

C. 23, 79, 85, 43

D. 11, 88, 99, 22

Q. 26 Besides CO2, the other greenhouse gas is?

A. CH4

B. N2 N2

C. Ar Ar

D. O2

Q. 27 National Income of India is compiled by

A. Finance Commission

B. Indian Statistical Institute

C. National Development Council

D. Central Statistical Organisation

Q. 28 The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

A. Advisory jurisdiction

B. Original jurisdiction

C. Appellate jurisdiction

D. Jurisprudence

Q. 29 The word ‘Satyamev Jayate’ have been derived from which Upanishad?

A. Akshi Upanishad

B. Mundaka Upanishad

C. Garuda Upanishad

D. Mahavakya Upanishad

Q. 30 When Granite rocks get metamorphosed, they form

A. Quartzite

B. Gneisa

C. Marble

D. Slate

Q. 31 Which of the following is a commercial source of energy?

A. Agricultural waste

B. Dried dung

C. Sun

D. Natural gas

Q. 32 Backward bending supply curve belongs to which market?

A. Capital

B. Labour

C. Money

D. Inventories

Q. 33 In IT, associative memory is called as

A. Virtual memory

B. Cache memory

C. Content addressable memory

D. Main memory

Q. 34 Addition of suitable impurities into semiconductor, is called

A. Doping

B. Mixing

C. Forming

D. Diluting

Q. 35 Kyoto Protocol is associated with:

A. Species conservation

B. Climate change

C. Wetland conservation

D. Medicinal plants

Q. 36 Ebrahim Alkazi is an eminent personality in which one of the following area?

A. Heart surgery

B. Civil aviation

C. Theatre

D. Painting

Q. 37 Skoda, which launched sedan ‘Rapid’, is an automobile manufacturer based in

A. Japan

B. France

C. South Korea

D. Czech Republic

Q. 38 Sattriya is a classical dance form of ______________

A. Manipur

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Assam

D. Andhra Pradesh

Q. 39 P. V. Sindhu defeated Wang Yihan to enter the semi final of womens’ singles of badminton at the Rio Olympics. Wang Yihan belongs to _________________

A. Indonesia

B. Taiwan

C. China

D. Japan

Q. 40 If a budget is defeated in the legislature of a state then

A. The Finance Minister alone has to resign

B. The Finance Minister concerned has to be suspended

C. The council of Ministers along with the Chief Minister has to resign

D. Reelection have to be ordered

Q. 41 Which one of the following papers was edited by Gandhiji in South Africa?

A. Indian Opinion

B. Harijan

C. Young India

D. Indian Mirror

Q. 42 In which of the following cities India’s first water metro project was recently launched?

A. Kolkata

B. Kochi

C. Visakhapatnam

D. Mumbai

Q. 43 Meibomian glands are located in

A. Eye

B. Ear

C. Nose

D. Skin

Q. 44 In which city is India’s first Post Office ATM opened?

A. Chennai

B. New Delhi

C. Hyderabad

D. Mumbai

Q. 45 Arsenic problem in India is primarily due to

A. Overexploitation of coal in Bihar and Bengal

B. Overexploitation of arsenopyrite in the hinterland

C. Overexploitation of groundwater in the affected areas

D. Overexploitation of surface water in the affected

Q. 46 Men’s Singles Wimbledon Championship 2016, is bagged by

A. Andy Murray

B. Milos Ravnic

C. Roger Federer

D. Novak Dijokovic

Q. 47 Which of the following vitamins are water soluble?

A. Vit. A and Vit. B

B. Vit. B and Vit. C

C. Vit. C and Vit. D

D. Vit. A and Vit. K

Q. 48 In terms of economics, if it is possible to make someone better off without making someone worse off, then the situation is

A. Insufficient

B. Efficient

C. Optimal

D. Paretosuperior

Q. 49 Greenhouse Effect means

A. Pollution in houses in tropical region

B. Prevention of ultraviolet radiation by the ozone layer

C. Trapping of solar energy due to atmospheric gases

D. Damage to green painted buildings

Q. 50 General Dyer, who was responsible for Jallianwala Bagh massacre, was shot dead by?

A. Hasrat Mohani

B. Vir Savarkar

C. Udham Singh

D. Jatin Das

Q. 51 X can do a piece of work in ‘p’ days and Y can do the same work in ‘q’ days. Then the number of days in which X and Y can together do that work is

A. (p + q)/2

B. 1/p + 1/q

C. pq/(p + q)

D. pq

Q. 52 A shopkeeper marks his goods 40% above the cost price and allows a discount of 25% on it. His gain per cent is

A. 5%

B. 10%

C. 15%

D. 20%

Q. 53 The ratio of the present ages of two boys is 3 : 4. After 3 years, the ratio of their ages is equal to will be 4 : 5. The ratio of their ages after 21 years will be

A. 14 : 17

B. 17 : 19

C. 11 : 12

D. 10 : 11

Q. 54 The cost price of 25 books is equal to the selling price of 20 books. The profit percent is:

A. 20%

B. 22%

C. 24%

D. 25%

Q. 55 One number is 25% of another number. The larger number is 12 more than the smaller. The larger number is:

A. 48

B. 16

C. 4

D. 12

Q. 56 A train, 500 metre long, running at a uniform speed, passes a station in 35 seconds. If the length of the platform is 221 metre, the speed of the train in km/hr is

A. 72 1/35

B. 74.16

C. 24.76

D. 78.54

Q. 57 If the simple interest on Rs. 400 for 10 years is Rs. 280, the rate of interest per annum is :

A. 7%

B. 7 1/2%

C. 7 1/4%

D. 8 1/4%

Q. 58 If a + b = 2c, then the value of a/(a – c) + c/(b – c) is equal to (where a ≠ b ≠ c)

A. -1

B. 1

C. 0

D. 1/2

Q. 59 If x + 1/x = 5, then the value of x/(1 + x + x^2) is

A. 1/5

B. 1/6

C. 5

D. 6

Q. 60 G and AD are respectively the centroid and median of the triangle ΔABC. The ratio AG : AD is equal to

A. 3 : 2

B. 2 : 3

C. 2 : 1

D. 1 : 2

Q. 61 A point P lying inside a triangle is equidistant from the vertices of the triangle. Then the triangle has P as its

A. Centroid

B. Incentre

C. Orthocentre

D. Circumcentre

Q. 62 If sinθ + cosθ = 1, then sinθ . cosθ is equal to

A. 0

B. 1

C. 1/2

D. -1/2

Q. 63 If 7 times the seventh term of an Arithmetic Progression (AP) is equal to 11 times its eleventh term, then the 18th term of the AP will be

A. 1

B. 0

C. 2

D. -1

Q. 64 The average age of eight teachers in a school is 40 years. A teacher among them died at the age of 55 years whereas another teacher whose age was 39 years joins them. The average age of the teachers in the school now is (in years)

A. 35

B. 36

C. 38

D. 39

Q. 65 If a^2/(b + c) = b^2/(c + a) = c^2/(a + b) = 1 then find the value of 2/(1 + a) + 2/(1 + b) + 2/(1 + c)

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Q. 66 If 2x + 2/x = 3, then the value of x^3 + 1/x^3 + 2 is

A. 3/4

B. 4/5

C. 5/8

D. 7/8

Q. 67 There are two equal circles of radius 3cm each and distance between their centres is 10 cm. The length of one of their transverse common tangents is?

A. 7 cm

B. 9 cm

C. 10 cm

D. 8 cm

Q. 68 In ΔABC if the median 1/2 AD = BC, then ∠BAC is equal to

A. 90°

B. 45°

C. 60°

D. 75°

Q. 69 IF (sinθ + cosθ)/(sinθ – cosθ) = 3 then the value of sin^4θ – cos^θ is

A. 4/3

B. 3/4

C. 5/3

D. 3/5

Q. 70 A sphere has the same curved surface area as a cone of vertical height 40 cm and radius 30 cm. The radius of the sphere is

A. 5√5 cm

B. 5√3 cm

C. 5√15 cm

D. 5√10 cm

Q. 71 The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point A on the ground is 30°. On moving a distance of 20 metres towards the foot of the tower to a point B, the angle of elevation increases to 60°. The height of the tower in metres is

A. √3

B. 5√3

C. 10√3

D. 20√3

Question :- 72 – 75

Given is a pie chart in figure (1) showing the cost of gold in 2010, 2011, 2012 and

2013.

Q. 72 If the price of gold in 2013 is Rs. 31,500 per 10 gram, then the price of gold in 2011 per 10 gram is

A. Rs 17000

B. Rs 17500

C. Rs 18000

D. Rs 18500

Q. 73 The ratio of the price of gold in the two years 2010 and 2013 is

A. 1 : 2

B. 1 : 3

C. 1 : 4

D. 1 : 5

Q. 74 The percentage increase in the price of gold from the year 2011 to 2013 is

A. 50%

B. 60%

C. 70%

D. 80%

Q. 75 The ratio of percentage increases in price of gold from 2011 and 2012 to 2013 is

A. 6 : 5

B. 7 : 5

C. 8 : 5

D. 9 : 5

Question:_ 76-79

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Q. 76 EXAGGERATE

A. Magnify

B. Imagine

C. Reinforce

D. Reiterate

Q. 77 GREGARIOUS

A. Unsociable

B. Unsympathetic

C. Ungrateful

D. Unattractive

Q. 78 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word.

A. Serendipty

B. Serendipity

C. Serndipty

D. Sernidipity

Question:-79-81

In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and choose the alternative. If the sentence is free from error, choose the “No error” option.

Q. 79 Considering the (1)/ gravity of the problems (2)/ an early reply has expected. (3)/ No error (4)

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 80 The Statesman has the (1)/ larger circulation (2)/ of all English dailies. (3)/ No error (4)

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 81 I am very anxious (1)/ to know how are you (2)/ and mother are doing (3)/ No error(4)

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Question:-82-84

In the following questions, the sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question.

Q. 82 Everything ___________________ carefully checked.

A. has been

B. have been

C. are being

D. is been

Q. 83 I’ve __________________ finished painting the house.

A. about

B. nearing

C. towards

D. almost

Q. 84 She _________________________ made him angry.

A. have absolutely

B. has certainly

C. have certainly

D. has absolutely

Question:-85-90

In each of the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

Q. 85 Burn your boats

A. Have a burning desire to win

B. Become extremely tired after working very hard

C. Do something that makes it impossible to return to the previous situation

D. Want to spend money as soon as you get it

Q. 86 Dressing down

A. Apply bandage

B. Wear an expensive gown

C. Give a scolding

D. Pretend

Q. 87 Null and void

A. Invalid

B. Observant

C. Uncontrolled

D. Homeless

Question:-88-90

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences

Q. 88 Write or carve words on stone or paper

A. Sketch

B. Imprint

C. Affix

D. Inscribe

Q. 89 Unable to pay one’s debt

A. Insolvent

B. Impute

C. Indebt

D. Obligate

Q. 90 Trouble and annoy continually

A. Complaint

B. Harass

C. Punish

D. Oppress

Question:-91-95

In each of the following questions, a sentence/ a part of the sentence is quoted. Four alternatives are given to the quoted part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternatives corresponding to it.

Q. 91 The Chairman’s harsh words “like” insult to injury to the embarrassed speaker

A. added

B. evoked

C. invoked

D. No improvement

Q. 92 He is “in” of sorts today.

A. out

B. on

C. outside

D. no improvement

Q. 93 She “told to me” the news

A. said me

B. said to me

C. told me

D. No improvement

Q. 94 The philanthropist “bestowned” a lakh to the orphanage.

A. granted

B. parted with

C. donated

D. No improvement

Q. 95 “There are a better ways of solving the problem”

A. There are different ways of solving a problem

B. There is a better way of looking at the problem

C. There are better ways of solving the problem.

D. No improvement.

Question:- 96-100

In general it is better to use too little make-up than too much. The audience should not be aware that the actor’s face is painted. For the actor who is playing his own age, the artist uses makeup to strengthen the features, particularly eyes and mouth, and to add lifelike colour to the face. Character makeup does these things in addition to transforming the face to another age, another type or another race. This transformation, particular for young actors playing old characters, can be helped greatly by hats and hairdos. Make-up consists of applying a base colour, then modelling the face by highlighting and shadowing (sinking the cheeks, for example, with a darker colour). Sometimes, modelling is done by applying false (putty or plastic) noses, enlarged eyebrows, or scars. Lines to suggest wrinkles are drawn on with a dark makeup pencil (brown or maroon, not black) or brush. Each line is highlighted with another line, either white or light tint of the base colour. Lips are outlined and coloured, and a similar colour is applied to the cheeks. After make-up is complete, powder is applied.

Q. 96 The artist uses makeup to strengthen the features, particularly eyes and mouth, and to add life like colours to the face for the actor who is playing ____________

A. the lead role

B. the old man or woman

C. his own age

D. the role of the clown

Q. 97 What do artists use to help young actors playing old men?

A. Wig and moustache

B. Hats and hairdos

C. Wheelchairs and walking sticks

D. False noses, enlarged eyebrows or scars

Q. 98 What is the correct sequence for make-up?

A. Modelling the face by highlighting and shadowing then applying a base colour

B. Highlighting and shadowing, then applying a base colour and modelling the face

C. Applying a base colour, then modelling the face by highlighting and shadowing

D. Shadowing and modelling, then applying a base colour for highlighting

Q. 99 Lines are drawn with a dark make-up pencil or brush to suggest ______________

A. Dimples

B. Wrinkles

C. Smiles

D. Pimples

Q. 100 When is powder usually applied?

A. Before the make-up

B. As make-up foundation

C. After the make-up

D. During the make-up

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	C	B	D	B	A	B	A	B	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	C	A	B	B	C	A	A	B	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	A	C	D	D	A	D	B	B	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	B	C	A	B	C	D	C	C	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	B	A	A	C	A	B	A	C	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	A	D	D	B	B	A	B	B	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	A	B	C	C	D	D	A	D	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	C	B	B	D	B	A	A	B	C	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	A	D	B	C	C	A	D	A	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	A	C	C	C	C	B	C	B	C

SSC CGL Tier-I 03 September 2016 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 3 Sep Shift 1

Q. 1 Select the related word from the given alternatives :

Owl : Hoots : : Hen : ?

A. Chirps

B. Clucks

C. Coos

D. Cackles

Q. 2 Select the related letters from the given alternatives.

AKU:?: :·CMW: DN

A. BGL

B. BLQ

C. BGQ

D. BLV

Q. 3 Select the related number from the given alternatives.

5:100::7:?

A. 49

B. 196

C. 91

D. 135

Q. 4 Find the odd word from the · given alternatives

A. time

B. skill

C. interest

D. knowledge

Q. 5 Find the odd letters from the given alternatives

A. CPA

B. REB

C. QUD

D. AOT

Q. 6 Find the ocld number pair from the given alternatives

A. 15-21

B. 32-41

C. 22-27

D. 31-35

Q. 7 Arrange,the following words as per order in the dictionary and then choose the one which comes last.

A. Qualify

B. Quarter

C. Quarrel

D. Quaver

Q. 8 A series is given, with one term missing._Ghoose the correct alternative from_ the given ones that will complete the series.

DF, GJ,.KM, NQ, RT,?

A. EI

B. UX

C. UV

D. XY

Q. 9 A series is given, With one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

2,7, 14,2:,,34,?

A. 47

B. 39

C. 42

D. 46

Q. 10 A and B are standing at place “P”. They start moving in the opposite directions at the speed of 5 kmph and 4 kmph respectively. What will be the distance between them after 3 hours?

A. 3 km

B. 21 km

C. 18 km

D. 27 km

Q. 11 If Usha is taller than Nisha; Nisha is taller than Asha; Aika is taller then Usha; Harsha is shorter than ‘Asha; then who among them is the tallest?

A. Usha

B. Alka

C. Nisha

D. Asha

Q. 12 From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters Of the given word :

DHARAMSALA

A. MASALA

B. ARAMANA

C. RAMA

D. SAHARA

Q. 13 If in a code GONE is written as ILPB then how may CRIB be written in that code?

A. EUKY

B. EKUY

C. EYUK

D. EOKY

Q. 14 In a certain code language,@ represents +, + represents -, α represents ‘+’ and – represents ‘x’. Find out the answer to the following question .

101 – 3 + 64 α 8 + 2 – 9 = ?

A. 295

B. 290

C. 209

D. 105

Q. 15 If 12 X 16 = 188 and 14 X 18 = 248, then find . the value of 16 x 20 =?

A. 320

B. 360

C. 316

D. 318

Q. 16 Find the missing number from the given alternatives

A. 60

B. 62

C. 64

D. 66

Q. 17 One morning, Raju walked towards the sun. After some time he turned left and again to his left. Which direction is he facing?

A. north

B. south

C. east

D. west

Q. 18 One or two statements are given followed by two conclusions/ assumptions, I and II.’You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Indicate your answer.

Statement : If people are intelligent, they should be creative.

Conclusions/Assumptions:

I. Creativity and intelligence are related.

II. Creative people are intelligent

A. Only Conclusion I follows

B. Only Conclusion II follows

C. Both Conclusion I and Conclusion II follow

D. Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows

Q. 19 How many rectangles are there in the given figure?

A. 8

B. 15

C. 24

D. 30

Q. 20 In a village some of the gold-smiths are literates. Which diagram shows literate goldsmiths?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 21 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 22 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures fs the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 25 In this question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabet as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from O to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column e.g., O can be represented by 03, 11, etc., and ‘F’ can be represented by 55, 68, etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word ‘BEAD’

A. 97, 32, 14, 56

B. 88, 41, 20, 57

C. 57, 32, 41, 87

D. 75, 14, 20, 57

Q. 26 Who among the following Sikh Gurus had laid the foundation of Amritsar?

A. Guru Amar Das

B. Guru Ram Das

C. Guru Arjan Dev

D. Guru Har Govind

Q. 27 In the 42nd Constitutional Amendment 1976, which word was added to the Preamble?

A. Sovereign

B. Equality

C. Secular

D. Socialist

Q. 28 Which monument is known as “The National Monument of India”?

A. India Gate

B. Gateway of India

C. Raj Ghat

D. Red fort

Q. 29 Which of the following country has recently declared 3 month emergency following a failed military coup?

A. Sudan

B. Turkey

C. Maldives

D. Syria

Q. 30 The award which, the famous writer and social of activist Mahasweta Devi, who passed away recently, did not win

A. Sahity Akademi Award

B. Jnanpith Award

C. Saraswati Samman

D. Padam Vibhushan

Q. 31 Which place is said to be the Manchester of South india?

A. Coimbatore

B. Salem

C. Thanjavur

D. Madurai

Q. 32 A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting with it a

A. high resistance in parallel

B. low resistance on parallel

C. high resistance on Series

D. low resistance in series

Q. 33 In computer processing, __ selects processes from the pool and loads them into memory for execution.

A. Job Scheduler

B. Resource Scheduler

C. CPU Scheduler

D. Process Scheduler

Q. 34 Name the first cricketer to score- 1000 runs in an innings in any competitive match

A. Prithvi Shaw

B. Pranav Dhanawade

C. Virat Kohli

D. Shikhar Dhawan

Q. 35 The beach sands of Kerala are rich in

A. calcium

B. radium

C. thorium

D. manganese

Q. 36 During which of the following operating conditions of an automobile, carbon monoxide content in exhaust gas is maximum?

A. Acceleration

B. Cruising

C. Idle running

D. Deacceleration

Q. 37 India’s first Railway University will come up at

A. Vadodara, Gujarat

B. Bengaluru, Karnataka

C. Hyderabad,Andhra Pradesh

D. Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh

Q. 38 The Himalayas is the example of

A. Fold mountains

B. Block mountains

C. Ancient mountains

D. Residual mountains

Q. 39 The largest irrigation canal in India is____

A. Yamuna canal

B. Indira Gandhi canal

C. Sirhand canal

D. Upper Bari Doab canal

Q. 40 Even after sunset, the air near the Earth’s surface continue to receive heat due to

A. insolation

B. Terrestrial Radiation

C. Conduction

D. Convection

Q. 41 At the Rio Olympics, who was the flagbearer of the India contingent?

A. Narsingh Yadav

B. Abhinav Bindra

C. Dipa Karunakar

D. Sania Mirza

Q. 42 A landscape which is caused due to the fissure in the earth along which one side has moved down with reference to the other is known as.

A. Rift Valley

B. U Shaped Valley

C. V Shaped Valley

D. Hanging Valley

Q. 43 The largest artery in human body is

A. Aorta

B. Capillary

C. Vena cava

D. Pulmonary vein

Q. 44 An eudiometer measures

A. Atmospheric pressure

B. Time

C. Volume of gases

D. Vapour pressure

Q. 45 Trinitrotoluene is

A. used to melt metals

B. used to fuse two metals

C. used as an abrasive

D. used as an explosive

Q. 46 In a cut motion, when the amount of demand is reduced by Rs. 100 it is known as

A. Disapproval of policy cut

B. Economy cut

C. Vote on Account

D. Token cut

Q. 47 One of the leading producers of asbestos in the world is

A. Australia

B. Russia

C. Canada

D. Armenia

Q. 48 Beighton Cup t.s associated With which of the following

A. Cricket

B. Hockey

C. Football

D. Volleyball

Q. 49 If Reserve Bank of India reduces the cash reserve ratio, it will:

A. increase credit creation

B. decrease credit creation

C. have no impact on credit creation

D. have no definite impact on credit creation

Q. 50 Nitrification is the biological process of converting

A. N2 into nitrate

B. N2 into nitrite

C. Ammonia into nitrite

D. Ammonia into N2

Q. 51 20 men working 8 hours per day can complete a piece of work in 21 days. How many hours per day must 48 men work to complete the same job in 7 days?

A. 12

B. 20

C. 10

D. 15

Q. 52 ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral ∠DBA = 50° and ∠ADB = 33°. Then the measure of ∠BCD is

A. 83°

B. 80°

C. 75°

D. 60°

Q. 53 A shopkeeper earns a profit of 12% on selling a book at 10% discount on the printed price. The ratio of the cost price to the printed price of the book is

A. 45: 56

B. 50: 61

C. 99: 125

D. none of these

Q. 54 The number of pupils of a class is 55. The ratio of the number of male pupils to: the number of female pupils is 5: 6. The 11 number of female pupils is

A. 11

B. 25

C. 30

D. 35

Q. 55 5% more is gained by selling a watch for Rs. 350 than by selling it for Rs. 340. The cost price of the watch is

A. Rs. 110

B. Rs. 140

C. Rs. 200

D. Rs. 250

Q. 56 If 60% of the students in a school are boys and the number of girls is 812, how many boys are there in the school?

A. 1128

B. 1218

C. 1821

D. 1281

Q. 57 It takes eight hours for a 600 km journey, if 120 km is done by train and ,the rest by car. It takes 20 minutes more, if 200 km is done; by train and the rest by car. The ratio of the speed of the train to that of the car is:

A. 3:5

B. 3:4

C. 4:3

D. 4:5

Q. 58 If α+1/α =1. then value of (α²-α+1)/(α²+α+1) is (α≠0)

A. 1

B. -1

C. 0

D. 2

Q. 59 If m + n = 1, then the value of m³ + n³ + 3mn is: equal to

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Q. 60 The maximum number of common tangents that can be drawn to two disjoint circles is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. Infinitely many

Q. 61 In figure, DE || BC. If DE = 3 cm, BC = 6 cm and area of ΔADE = 15 sq. cm, then the area of MBC is

A. 75 sq cm

B. 45 sq cm

C. 30 sq cm

D. 60 sq cm

Q. 62 If cos^4θ-sin^4θ=1/3, then the value of tan²θ is

A. 1/2

B. 1/3

C. 1/4

D. 1/5

Q. 63 If a perfect square, nQt divisible by 6, be divided by 6, the remainder will be

A. 1,3 or 5

B. 1, 2 or 5

C. 1, 3 or 4

D. 1, 2 or 4

Q. 64 A batsman in his 12th innings makes a score of 120, and thereby increases his average by 5. The average score after 12th innings is

A. 60

B. 55

C. 65

D. 70

Q. 65 The value of the root from figure is

A. 2

B. 4

C. ±2

D. -2

Q. 66 If x^4+1/x^4=119, then the value of (x-1/x) is

A. 6

B. 12

C. 11

D. 3

Q. 67 The side BC of MBC is extended to the point D. If ∠ACD =112° and ∠B = 3/4 ∠A.then the value of ∠B is

A. 64°

B. 48°

C. 46°

D. 50°

Q. 68 MBC is a right angled triangle, the radius of its circumcircle is 3 cm and the length of .Us altitude drawn from the opposite vertex to the hypotenuse is 2 cm. Then the area of the triangle is

A. 12 sq.cm

B. 3 sq.cm

C. 6 sq.cm

D. 5 sq.cm

Q. 69 The height of a tower is 50√3 metre. The angle of elevation of a tower from a distance 50 metre from its foot is

A. 30°

B. 45°

C. 60°

D. 90°

Q. 70 The amount of Rs. 10,000 after 2 years, compounded annually with the rate of interest being 10% per annum during the first year and 12% per annum during the second year, would be (in rupees)

A. 11,320

B. 12,000

C. 12,320

D. 12,500

Q. 71 The value of tan80° tan 10° +sin² 70° + sin² 20° is

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. √3/2

Question:- 72-77

The bar graph given below shows the per acre yield (in kg) of different countries.

Study the graph carefully and answer the questions.

Q. 72 The average yield of the given countries is

A. 132 1/3 kg

B. 133 1/3 kg

C. 134 1/3 kg

D. 135 1/3 kg

Q. 73 By how much percent is India’s per acre yield more than that of Pa!Q.stan’s?

A. 20%

B. 25%

C. 33 1/3 %

D. 35%

Q. 74 Sri Lanka’s yield {approximately) is what percent of total yield of all the countries?

A. 17.8%

B. 16.2%

C. 18.2%

D. 15.4%

Q. 75 Writing the yields of all countries in ascending order, the difference between the sum of yields of first three countries to that of last three countries is

A. 200 kg

B. 212 kg

C. 172 kg

D. 162 kg

Q. 76 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.CUPIDITY

A. fear

B. friendship

C. greed

D. love

Q. 77 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word.

CAPTIVATE

A. Distract

B. Obscure

C. imprison

D. Release

Q. 78 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word

A. Clandistine

B. Clandestine

C. Clandistene

D. Clandestene

Question:- 79-81

In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have- an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and choose the option corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, choose the “No Error” option.

Q. 79 Can I have (1)/ a loaf of bread (2)/ and a jam jar? (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 80 Now that I am back at work,(1)/ I have beginning (2)/ to feel much better. (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 81 The artist, plainly a better critic (1)/ than painter, destroyed what (2)/ he made over for ten years. (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Question :- 82-84

In the following questions, the sentences given with blanks are to be filled With an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative

Q. 82 Never give your friends _

A. the cold arm

B. the cold elbow

C. the cold shoulder

D. the cold hand

Q. 83 My mother upset the kettle of boiling water. and __ her hand.

A. scalded

B. scolded

C. scorched

D. wounded

Q. 84 His Writings are._ mistakes

A. brooded with

B. burst into

C. replete with

D. boasted of

Question :- 85-87

In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase

Q. 85 cat a sorry figure

A. Did not stand straight

B. Apologised for his remarks

C. Created a wrong impression

D. Made a poor impression

Q. 86 To take to task

A. Forgave him

B. Slapped him

C. Gave him extra work

D. Reprimanded him

Q. 87 Bring to light

A. Introduced

B. Revealed

C. Seen

D. Brought to life

Question:- 88-90

Ouf of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences.

Q. 88 A job carrying no salary

A. Honorory

B. Memento

C. Honorarium

D. Memorandium

Q. 89 Act of stealing something in small quantities

A. Pillage

B. Plagiarise

C. Proliferate

D. Pilferage

Q. 90 Pertaining to the west

A. Celestial

B. Occidental

C. Oriental

D. Terrestrial

Question:-91-95

In each of the following questions, a sentence/a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Four alternatives are’ given to the bold part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed; choose the alternative corresponding to “No improvement”.

Q. 91 As soon as I arrived in home, l knew that something was wrong

A. arrived by home

B. arrived home

C. arrived my home

D. no improvement

Q. 92 Unfortunately I did not pass in the examination

A. I did not pass over

B. I did not overcome

C. I did not pass

D. No improvement

Q. 93 His powerful desire brought about his downfall

A. His wishful desire

B. His desire for power

C. His seager desire

D. no improvement

Q. 94 Ramesh laid in the shade of a tree before he could walk further

A. lied

B. lay

C. lain

D. no improvement

Q. 95 An education in handling money would Imply the ability to oversee, the consequences of overspending or over-borrowing.

A. foresee

B. overlook

C. overvalue

D. no improvement

Question :- 96-100

A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

A knowledge of grammar is essential for good speaking and writing, by which one’s mind is judged ·Studying grammar means hard work : it must be learned as a whole with no part omitted. and it demands much thought and patience. But, once acquired, it can give a lifetime’s pleasure and profit. Its study requires no physical hardship, no special room or expenses. If people spent only their leisure time studying grammar they could master it in one year. The author learned it in less than a year. As a private soldier earning sixpence a day, he sat on his bed and studied. Unable to afford candle or oil; he read in winter by firelight (when it was his turn). If he could manage it thus, and with no outside encouragement, then any youth, however poor or busy, could do the same.

Q. 96 Why should we learn grammar?

A. To develop speaking skills

B. To develop writing skills

C. To have a mastery over language

D. To acquire good speaking and writing skills

Q. 97 How does the world judge a man’s mind?

A. By his dress

B. By his manners

C. By his appearance

D. By his speech and writing

Q. 98 How long would it take to gain mastery over grammar

A. 1year

B. 6 months

C. 2 years

D. 10 months

Q. 99 What is the occupation of the writer?

A. teacher

B. soldier

C. artist

D. clerk

Q. 100 The learning of grammar should be

A. patient, thoughtful and holistic

B. thoughtful, patient and piecemeal

C. holistic, thoughtful and rapid

D. thoughtful, rapid and piecemeal

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	D	B	A	D	A	D	B	A	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	B	D	A	C	C	D	C	D	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	D	D	D	C	B	A	A	B	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	C	A	B	C	C	A	A	B	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	A	A	C	D	D	B	B	A	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	A	A	C	C	B	B	C	B	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	A	C	C	A	D	B	C	C	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	C	D	B	B	C	C	A	B	C	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	C	A	C	C	D	B	A	D	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	C	B	B	A	D	D	A	B	A

SSC CGL Tier-I 02 September 2016 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 2 Sep Shift 2

Q. 1 Select the related word from the given alternatives.

Cell : Cytology :: Birds : ?

A. Odontology

B. Mycology

C. Ornithology

D. Etymology

Q. 2 Select the related letters from the given alternatives.

DHLP : WSOK :: FJNR : ?

A. UQMI

B. TPLH

C. SOKG

D. VRNJ

Q. 3 Select the related number from the given alternatives.’

2 : 10 :: 26 : ?

A. 50

B. 36

C. 42

D. 20

Q. 4 Find the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. EHJ

B. JML

C. PSR

D. VYX

Q. 5 Find the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Tomcat

B. Baby

C. Fawn

D. Cub

Q. 6 Find the odd number from the given alternatives.

A. 11

B. 17

C. 19

D. 21

Q. 7 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.

1. Patriot

2. Pastor

3. Patron

4. Pattern

5. Pastern

A. 5, 2, 3, 1, 4

B. 5, 2, 1, 3, 4

C. 5, 2, 4, 1 ,3

D. 5, 2, 4, 3, 1

Q. 8 A series is given below with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

SCD, TEF, UGH, ? , WKL

A. CMN

B. VJI

C. VIJ

D. IJT

Q. 9 A series is given below with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

124, 235, 346, 457, ?

A. 455

B. 465

C. 565

D. 568

Q. 10 F is the daughter of A. C is the daughter of A. K is the sister of F, G is the brother of C. Who is the uncle of G?

A. A

B. C

C. K

D. F

Q. 11 If Jhansi is 12 ahead in rank of Prabha, who ranks 15th from last, then how many students are there in the class if Jhansi ranks 4th in order of merit?

A. 23

B. 27

C. 30

D. 31

Q. 12 From the given words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

ENVIRONMENT

A. ENTER

B. METRE

C. IRON

D. MOMENTUM

Q. 13 If ‘BASKET’ is written as ‘TEKSAB’ how can ‘PILLOW’ be written in that code?

A. LOWPIL

B. WOLLIP

C. LOWLIP

D. WOLPIL

Q. 14 If ‘+’ means ‘-‘ and ‘-‘ means ‘x’, ‘x’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘+’ then 2 ÷ 6 x 6 ÷ 2 = ?

A. 1

B. 0

C. 10

D. 5

Q. 15 If 6 x 9 x 3 = 963 and 4 x 8 x 5 = 845, then 9 x 4 x 7 = ?

A. 974

B. 479

C. 497

D. 749

Q. 16 Select the missing number in figure (1) from the given responses:

A. 4

B. 3

C. 2

D. 1

Q. 17 Ashok went 8 kms south and turned west and walked 3 kms. Again he turned north and walked 5 kms. He took a final turn to east and walked 3 kms. In which direction was Ashok from the starting point?

A. East

B. North

C. West

D. South

Q. 18 Consider the given statement/s to be true and decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Statements: Ahimsa should be basic principle of human beings. All of us should practise Ahimsa.

Conclusions:

I. We all know the real meaning of Ahimsa.

II. Ahimsa promotes global harmony.

A. Only Conclusion I follows

B. Only Conclusion II follows

C. Neither I Conclusion nor II follows

D. Both conclusion I and II follow

Q. 19 Of a cubical container shown in figure (1), all the six faces have different markings indicating the position of the equipment packed inside. Which symbol is opposite the face having C?

A. Z

B. B

C. X

D. Y

Q. 20 Identify the diagram among (1), (2), (3), (4), that best represents the relationship among classes given below:

Minutes, Days, Months

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 21 Which answer figure among (1), (2), (3), (4) will complete the pattern in the question figure (A)?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 22 From the given answer figures among (1), (2), (3), (4), select the one in which the question figure (A) is hidden/embedded.

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown in Figure (A). From the given answer figures (1), (2), (3), (4), indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures (1), (2), (3), (4) is the right image of the given figure (A)?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 25 In the question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given in figure (1). The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., G can be represented by 03, 12 etc, and ‘L’ can be represented by 57, 65, etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word ‘DATE’:

A. 23, 68, 24, 97

B. 14, 96, 11, 85

C. 23, 96, 40, 85

D. 32, 89, 10, 68

Q. 26 MUDRA Bank has been launched to help

A. Small business

B. Marginal farmers

C. Poor women

D. Rural sector

Q. 27 Which of the following controls the insurance business of India?

A. RBI

B. IDBI

C. SEBI

D. IRDA

Q. 28 The Speaker of Lok Sabha addresses his letter of resignation to the

A. President of India

B. Prime Minister

C. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha

D. The Chief Justice of India

Q. 29 Who presided over the first session of the Indian National Congress?

A. A. O. Hume

B. Surendranath Banerjee

C. W. C. Banerjee

D. Badruddin Tayyabji

Q. 30 Which of the following writers has called Akbar’s Din-i-Ilahi as a monument of his folly, not of wisdom?

A. Badayuni

B. Vincent Smith

C. Baroi

D. W. Haig

Q. 31 Which of the following region in India is now regarded as an ‘Ecological Hot Spot’?

A. Western Himalayas

B. Eastern Himalayas

C. Western Ghats

D. Eastern Ghats

Q. 32 The Beaufort scale is used to measure:

A. Atmospheric pressure

B. Altitudes of mountains

C. Wind velocity

D. Intensity of earthquakes

Q. 33 The waste management technique that involves the use of micro-organisms to remove or neutralize pollutants from contaminated site is called

A. Bio sensor

B. Bio magnification

C. Bio remediation

D. Bio concentration

Q. 34 In IT networking, which of the following device is used in physical layer?

A. Repeater

B. Router

C. Transport Gateway

D. Bridge

Q. 35 The purest form of water in nature is:

A. Rain water

B. Lake water

C. River water

D. Sea water

Q. 36 The source of energy that causes the least global warming is

A. Coal

B. Geothermal energy

C. Natural Gas

D. Petroleum

Q. 37 The constellation ‘Sapta Rishi’ is known to Westerners as the

A. Seven Monk

B. Alpha Centauri

C. Big Dipper

D. Small Bear

Q. 38 Bridge is the technique used in

A. Athletics

B. Wrestling

C. Weight lifting

D. Karate

Q. 39 Which of the following books is called the ‘Bible of Socialism’?

A. Economics of Welfare

B. Das Capital

C. Value and Capital

D. Asian Drama

Q. 40 Which country recently detonated its first hydrogen bomb?

A. North Korea

B. South Korea

C. Iran

D. Libya

Q. 41 The Swarna Jayanti Shahari Rojgar Yojana (SJSRY) mainly aims at creating employment opportunities for

A. both self employment and wage employment in urban areas

B. self employment in urban areas only

C. wage employment in urban areas only

D. None of these

Q. 42 Who is known as the ‘Father of Green Revolution’ in India?

A. G. Paul

B. M. S. Swaminathan

C. Van Neil

D. Dr. Mithchell

Q. 43 The component used for tuning a radio is basically a variable

A. Resistor

B. Condenser

C. Inductor

D. Transformer

Q. 44 Which of the following is not a donor atom?

A. Phosphorous

B. Antimony

C. Arsenic

D. Aluminium

Q. 45 Which one of the following party was founded by Subhash Chandra Bose?

A. Abhinav Bharat

B. Azad Hind Sena

C. Revolutionary Army

D. Forward Block

Q. 46 0°K is equivalent to

A. 273°C

B. -273°C

C. 0°C

D. 100°C

Q. 47 The oxygen liberated during photosynthesis comes from

A. Water

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Glucose

D. Chlorophyll

Q. 48 First national park of India that was established in 1936 was named as

A. Kanha National Park

B. Bharatpur National Park

C. Hailey National Park

D. Rajaji National Park

Q. 49 Who is the 1st Indian female amputee to climb Mount Everest?

A. Arunima Sinha

B. Bachendri Pal

C. Santosh Yadav

D. Premlata Agarwal

Q. 50 The term “Higgs Boson” is associated with

A. Nano Technology

B. Oncology

C. God Particle

D. Stem Cell Research

Q. 51 If 100 cats kill 100 mice in 100 days, then 4 cats would kill 4 mice in how many days?

A. 4 days

B. 3 days

C. 40 days

D. 100 days

Q. 52 In Δ ABC, DE || BC, such that AD/BD = 3/5. If AC = 5.6 cm, then AE is equal to

A. 4.2 cm

B. 3.1 cm

C. 2.8 cm

D. 2.1 cm

Q. 53 Two circles touch each other internally. The greater circle has its radius is 6 cm and the distance between the centres of the circles is 2 cm. The radius of the other circle is

A. 3 cm

B. 4 cm

C. 2 cm

D. 5 cm

Q. 54 An office opens at 10 AM and closes at 5 PM. The lunch interval is for 30 minutes. The ratio of lunch interval to the total period of office hours is

A. 1 : 7

B. 1 : 14

C. 7 : 1

D. 14 : 1

Q. 55 A bookseller allowed 15% discount on the books sold. Sunil purchased books worth Rs. 1500. How much will he have to pay to the bookseller.

A. Rs. 1200

B. Rs. 1250

C. Rs. 1275

D. Rs. 1300

Q. 56 If the ratio between the profit and selling price of an article is 1 : 5, then the ratio between the selling price and the cost price of that article is:

A. 3 : 2

B. 4 : 3

C. 5 : 4

D. 6 : 5

Q. 57 What percent of 1 day is 36 minutes?

A. 25%

B. 2.5%

C. 3.6%

D. 0.25%

Q. 58 A car covers a certain distance in 25 hours. If it reduces the speed by 1/5th, the car covers 200 km less in that time. The speed of car is

A. 60 km/hr

B. 30 km/hr

C. 40 km/hr

D. 50 km/hr

Q. 59 At what percent of simple interest will a sum of money double itself in 15 years?

A. 6 1/3%

B. 6 2/3%

C. 6 1/2%

D. 6%

Q. 60 1/√a – 1/√b = 0, then the value of 1/a + 1/b is :

A. 1√ab

B. √ab

C. 2/√ab

D. 1/2√ab

Q. 61 If x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = 14 and xy + yz + zx = 11, then the value of (x + y + z)^2 is

A. 16

B. 25

C. 36

D. 49

Q. 62 If √2 tan 2θ = √6 and 0° < θ < 45°, then the value of sinθ + √3 cosθ – 2tan^2θ is

A. 2/3

B. 4/3

C. 2

D. 8/3

Q. 63 A positive number when decreased by 4, is equal to 21 times the reciprocal of this number.

This number is:

A. 3

B. 7

C. 5

D. 9

Q. 64 If tan α = 2, then the value of (sin α) / (sin^3 α + cos^3 α) is

A. 2/9

B. √5/9

C. 10/9

D. 5√5/9

Q. 65 If x = ∛28, y = ∛27, then the value of x + y – 1/(x^2 + xy + y^2) is

A. 8

B. 7

C. 6

D. 5

Q. 66 If x = 12 and y = 4, then the value of (x + y)^x/y is

A. 48

B. 1792

C. 4096

D. 570

Q. 67 In a triangle PQR, PQ = PR and ∠Q is twice that of ∠P. Then ∠Q is equal to

A. 72°

B. 36°

C. 144°

D. 108°

Q. 68 If the length of a chord of a circle is 16 cm and is at a distance of 15 cm from the centre of the circle, then the radius of the circle (in cm) is:

A. 15

B. 16

C. 17

D. 34

Q. 69 On 24th May, 2008 the maximum temperature of Delhi, Kolkata and Mumbai were recorded as 35°C, 33°C and 34°c respectively. What was the maximum temperature of Chennai so that the average maximum temperature of those cities would be 35°C?

A. 34°C

B. 35°C

C. 36°C

D. 38°C

Q. 70 The diameter of a sphere is twice the diameter of another sphere. The curved surface area of the first and the volume of the second are numerically equal. The numerical value of the radius of the first sphere is

A. 3

B. 24

C. 8

D. 16

Q. 71 The thread of a kite makes angle 60° with the horizontal plane. If the length of the thread be 80 m, then the vertical height of the kite will be

A. 40/√3 metre

B. 80√3 metre

C. 80 metre

D. 40√3 metre

Question:- 72-78

Study the following pie chart given in figure (1) carefully and answer the questions. The pie chart represents the percentage of people involved in various occupations.

Q. 72 How many more people are involved in service than in trade?

A. 3660

B. 2660

C. 1660

D. 660

Q. 73 The ratio of the people involved in service to that in industry is

A. 1 : 2

B. 2 : 3

C. 3 : 4

D. 3 : 2

Q. 74 The sectoral angle made by the people involved in service in the given pie-chart is

A. 36°

B. 90°

C. 72°

D. 108°

Q. 75 The difference between the maximum number of people involved and minimum number of people involved in various professions is

A. 2640

B. 3640

C. 6320

D. 5320

Q. 76 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

LABYRINTH

A. Maze

B. Path

C. Skyscraper

D. Impasse

Q. 77 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word.

BARREN

A. Fertile

B. Abundant

C. Harsh

D. Fallow

Q. 78 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word.

A. Mysogynous

B. Misogynous

C. Mysoginous

D. Misoginous

Question:- 79-81

In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error. If the sentence is free from error, choose “No error”:

Q. 79 According to scientists (1)/ there are a lot of (2)/ answers about it. (3)/ No error (4).

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 80 They are coming (1)/ straight to (2)/ our direction. (3)/ No error.(4)

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 81 The building collapsed (1)/ at the afternoon (2)/ at about 4 o’ clock. (3)/ No error (4).

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Question:- 82-84

In the following questions, the sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question.

Q. 82 The police is ________________________ on his activities.

A. keeping an eye

B. keeping watchful eyes

C. keeping both eyes

D. keeping on eye

Q. 83 Are you ______________________________ stamp collecting?

A. interested by

B. interested in

C. interested at

D. interested about

Q. 84 Your report _____________________ my statement.

A. conforms

B. conforming

C. confirms

D. comforting

Question:- 85-87

In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase.Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

Q. 85 To get cold feet

A. Drenched

B. Fear

C. Felicitate

D. Fever

Q. 86 Beside the mark

A. Perfect

B. Not to the point

C. Relevant

D. Charming

Q. 87 On tenterhooks

A. Happy and excited

B. In suspense and anxiety

C. Angry and irritated

D. Surprised and shocked

Question:-88-90

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, chose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences.

Q. 88 Property inherited from one’s father or ancestors

A. Patrimony

B. Mercenary

C. Hereditary

D. Aristocracy

Q. 89 A person who is womanish in his habits

A. Feminist

B. Philogynist

C. Effeminate

D. Feminine

Q. 90 One who is converted from one religion to another

A. Pilgrim

B. Polytheist

C. Proselyte

D. Presbyte

Question :- 91 – 95

In each of the following questions, a sentence/a part of the sentence is quoted. Four alternatives are given to the quoted part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, choose “no improvement”.

Q. 91 Do you have “some sugar”?

A. any sugar

B. little sugar

C. small sugar

D. no improvement

Q. 92 Iago “lied” to Othello about his wife.

A. Lay

B. laid

C. lain

D. No improvement

Q. 93 It is not possible to tell the

entire story “in nutshell”.

A. in a nutshell

B. in the nut

C. in a shell

D. No improvement

Q. 94 It is “all but same” to me whether I am transferred to Mumbai or Kolkata.

A. all or same

B. all the same

C. all one

D. no improvement

Q. 95 Despite his father’s financial assistance he was always “hard on”

A. hard in

B. hard up

C. hard out

D. no improvement

Questions: 96 – 100

Even the majority of elders turn their homes into hives of worry as they have too little to do in too much time. Those who have retired this find retirement tiresome when hobbies, instead, could have turned it into a period of creativity and contentment. This common problem of inability to utilise leisure pleasurably and profitably is not restricted to Indians. In fact, Japanese are the worst sufferers. Their weekends, rather than increase their enjoyments of life, have wreaked havoc on their health and happiness. Unable to while away the long, unstructured hours, many of them have become addicts to coffee or hard liquor, and have even taken to gambling. How has this social malady come about? Ironically, the syllabus-loaded education system is the main culprit. It places a heavy word-load on children and youth, laying emphasis as it does on memory rather than intelligence.

Q. 96 Why do a majority of retired elders find retirement tiresome?

A. Because their homes have been turned into hives of worry.

B. Because they do not have hobbies to utilise their free time

C. Because they had nothing to do.

D. Because they had plenty of free time

Q. 97 How have the Japanese benefited from their weekends?

A. They have increased enjoyment in life

B. They enjoy health and happiness

C. They use their free time to increase their enjoyment

D. They become addicts to coffee or hard liquor and gambling.

Q. 98 The syllabus-loaded education system

A. Places a heavy burden on the youth

B. Ensures that parents pay attention to the development of children

C. Lays emphasis on intelligence

D. Gives students a lot of free time

Q. 99 The author thinks that

A. Authorities are more appreciative of the syllabus-loaded education system.

B. Hobbies play an important role in changing the unfortunate situation.

C. Co Curricular activities are discouraged

D. Only Indians suffer from inability to utilise leisure

Q. 100 The passage tells us that

A. Hobbies are a waste of time

B. Hobbies play a crucial role in physical and mental development

C. Hobbies wreck havoc on man’s health and happiness

D. Hobbies can turn us into addicts of coffee, liquor or gambling

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	A	A	A	B	D	B	C	D	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	D	B	D	C	C	D	C	A	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	A	B	C	A	A	D	C	C	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	C	C	A	A	B	C	B	B	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	B	B	D	D	B	A	C	A	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	D	B	B	C	C	B	C	B	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	B	B	C	C	C	A	C	D	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	B	B	C	D	A	A	B	C	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	A	B	C	B	B	B	A	C	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	D	A	B	B	B	D	A	B	B