SSC Exam - Page 29 of 32 - Vidhyarthi Darpan

SSC CGL Tier-I 05 August 2017 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2017 5 Aug Shift 2

Q. 1 In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Player : Team : : Minister : ?

A. Army

B. Troupe

C. Council

D. Crowd

Q. 2 In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

TRACK : MECTV : : POND : ?

A. EOPQ

B. FPQR

C. GOQQ

D. HPPR

Q. 3 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

850 : 863 : : 430 : ?

A. 437

B. 442

C. 435

D. 451

Q. 4 In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Cotton

B. Mustard

C. Peas

D. Sesame

Q. 5 In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. CXA

B. MNQ

C. PKN

D. HSU

Q. 6 In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 64 – 576

B. 17 – 343

C. 27 – 196

D. 32 – 36

Q. 7 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Yangtze

2. Yakking

3. Yakuzas

4. Yobbery

5. Yobbish

A. 24531

B. 23145

C. 54231

D. 54321

Q. 8 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

AK12, GV29, LF18, PO?

A. 34

B. 31

C. 42

D. 40

Q. 9 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

21, 26, 33, 42, 53, ?

A. 56

B. 63

C. 66

D. 69

Q. 10 Ratio of present ages of Pankaj and Punit is 5 : 6 and the sum of their ages is 33 years. What will be the difference (in years) of their ages?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Q. 11 Kritika walks 40 metres towards south. Then turning to her right she rides 30 metres. Then, turning to her left, she rides 50 metres. Again, she turns to her left and rides 30 metres. How far (in metres) is she from her initial position?

A. 65

B. 70

C. 80

D. 90

Q. 12 In the following question, from the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

CONSOLIDATE

A. CONSOLE

B. ONSET

C. SALTY

D. SOLID

Q. 13 In a certain code language, “STUBBORN” is written as “VUTAAOSP”. How is “SHIPPING” written in that code language?

A. TIJOOHPJ

B. QFOLLSLO

C. TIJNNOJH

D. JITOOHOJ

Q. 14 Correct the following equation by interchanging the two signs and two numbers.

7 x 6 + 5 – 4 = 33

A. –, x an d 4, 5

B. –, x an d 4, 5

C. +, – and 5 , 6

D. x, – and 5, 6

Q. 15 If 3 @ 3 * 3 = 3 and 48 @ 4 * 3 = 36, then 91 @ 13 * 2 = ?

A. 4

B. 8

C. 10

D. 14

Q. 16 In the following question select the number which can be placed at the sign of the question mark(?) from the given alternatives

A. 11

B. 16

C. 21

D. 31

Q. 17 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

A. 11

B. 9

C. 10

D. 12

Q. 18 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

I. No purse is cloth.

II. All purses are leather.

Conclusions:

I. No leather is cloth.

II. Some leather are cloth.

III. Some leather are purses.

A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Only conclusion (III ) follows.

C. Only conclusion (I) and conclusion (II) follow.

D. All conclusions follow.

Q. 19 Three positions of a cube are shown below. What will come opposite to face containing ‘1’?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6

Q. 20 Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

Brother, Husband, Men

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 21 Which of the following figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 22 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figure. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figure is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 25 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘D’ can be represented first by 68, 95, etc, and ‘P’ can be represented by 75, 97, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word “BAND”

A. 23, 76, 22, 77

B. 11, 67, 40, 95

C. 00, 55, 03, 59

D. 44, 89, 30, 87

Q. 26 In which of the following case, law of demand fails?

A. Giffen goods

B. Normal goods

C. Inferior goods

D. Both Giffen and Inferior goods

Q. 27 Match the following

A. 1-b, 2- c, 3-a

B. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b

C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c

D. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c

Q. 28 How many fundamental Rights are mentioned in Indian constitution?

A. Five

B. Four

C. Seven

D. Eight

Q. 29 Which of the following Article/Articles cannot be suspended even during emergency?

A. Article 19

B. Article 20 and 21

C. Article 22 and 23

D. Article 24 and 25

Q. 30 Who was the first Viceroy of India?

A. Lord Canning

B. Lord Curzon

C. Lord Wavell

D. Lord Mountbatten

Q. 31 Who wrote ‘Nyaya Sutra’?

A. Vyasa

B. Gautam

C. Kapila

D. Charaka

Q. 32 Earth’s Deepest point in water is Mariana trench. It is located in which of the following oceans?

A. Atlantic Ocean

B. Arctic Ocean

C. Indian Ocean

D. Pacific Ocean

Q. 33 Masai is a tribe of which of the following country?

A. Kenya

B. Germany

C. Australia

D. India

Q. 34 With which of the following body organ is ‘pace-maker’ associated?

A. Liver

B. Brain

C. Heart

D. Lungs

Q. 35 Haemoglobin is an important component of _______.

A. white blood cells

B. red blood cells

C. plasma

D. All options are correct

Q. 36 Anaemia is caused because of deficiency of which of the following?

A. Cobalt

B. Iron

C. Sodium

D. Calcium

Q. 37 What is the minimum distance (in metres) required to hear an echo?

A. 10

B. 13

C. 17

D. 21

Q. 38 Why does a black board appears black in colour?

A. It reflects black colour

B. It absorbs black colour

C. It reflects all colours

D. It absorbs all the colours

Q. 39 Which one among the following is a main system board of a computer?

A. CPU

B. Keyboard

C. Microchip

D. Mother board

Q. 40 Which among the following metal is used for galvanization?

A. Zinc

B. Copper

C. Iron

D. Silver

Q. 41 What is dry ice?

A. Solid Carbon dioxide

B. Solid Nitrogen dioxide

C. Solid Sulphur dioxide

D. Solid Water

Q. 42 Which of the following represents the most complex trophic level?

A. Community

B. Population

C. Ecosystem

D. Species

Q. 43 Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh launched a medical scheme for APL families. What is the name of that scheme?

A. Haritha Kalyanam

B. Arogya Raksha

C. Kalyanamsurvay

D. Swasthya Raksha

Q. 44 Who discovered X-rays?

A. W. C. Roentgen

B. Albert Einstein

C. Samuel Cohen

D. Edward Taylor

Q. 45 How many players are there in a water polo team?

A. 6

B. 5

C. 7

D. 8

Q. 46 ‘Lavani’ is a dance form of which state in India?

A. Maharashtra

B. Gujarat

C. Madhya Pradesh

D. Andhra Pradesh

Q. 47 Who is being awarded with Asian Award 2016 as the Chivas Social entrepreneur of the year?

A. Vikram Patel

B. Shri Prakash Lohia

C. Rami Ranger

D. Anil Agarwal

Q. 48 The book “Azad Bachpan ki Aur” is written by which author?

A. Kailash Satyarthi

B. Radhakant Bharti

C. Dipak Misra

D. Subhash Chandra

Q. 49 India by the Nile’, was a cultural festival celebrated by India and _____.

A. Sudan

B. Kampala

C. Egypt

D. Kenya

Q. 50 Sheikh Hasina Wazed is the Prime Minister of which neighbouring country of India?

A. Pakistan

B. Bangladesh

C. Afghanistan

D. Nepal

Q. 51 What is the value of [12/(√5 + √3)] + [18/(√5 – √3)]?

A. 15(√5 – √3)

B. 3(5√5 + √3)

C. 15(√5 + √3)

D. 3(3√5 + √3)

Q. 52 S, T and U can complete a work in 40, 48 and 60 days respectively. They received Rs 10800 to complete the work. They begin the work together but T left 2 days before the completion of the work and U left 5 days before the completion of the work. S has completed the remaining work alone. What is the share of S(in Rs) from total money?

A. 4000

B. 4320

C. 4500

D. 4860

Q. 53 A farmer’s land is in the shape of a trapezium which has its parallel sides measuring 2.56 yards and 3.44 yards and the distance between the parallel sides in 1.44 yards. The cost of ploughing the land is Rs 1800 per square yard. What amount will (in Rs) have to be spent in order to plough the entire land?

A. 3672

B. 6732

C. 7776

D. 8214

Q. 54 If after giving a discount of 18%, a book is sold for Rs 1599, then what will be the marked price (in Rs) of the book?

A. 1800

B. 1880

C. 1950

D. 2000

Q. 55 A man has 3 sons, 2 daughters and a wife. They divided a sum of Rs 19000 among themselves such that each daughter got 1.5 times the amount received by each son and his wife received 600 less than each son. What is the total amount (in Rs) received by the 3 sons together?

A. 2800

B. 3600

C. 5600

D. 8400

Q. 56 The average of 3 consecutive even numbers is A. If next 5 even numbers are added, then what is the average of these 8 numbers?

A. A + 3

B. A + 4

C. A + 5

D. A + 7

Q. 57 While selling an article for Rs 18450, a person suffered a loss of 50%. At what price he should have sold the article (in Rs) to earn a profit of 50%?

A. 13837

B. 52000

C. 55350

D. 56775

Q. 58 The present population of a town is 26010. It increases annually at the rate of 2%. What was the population of town 2 years ago?

A. 25000

B. 25100

C. 25200

D. 25500

Q. 59 A train of length 100 m crosses another train of length 150 m, running on a parallel track in the opposite direction in 9 seconds. If the speed of train having length 150 m is 40 km/hr, then what is the speed (in km/hr) of the other train?

A. 30

B. 48

C. 50

D. 60

Q. 60 What is the compound interest (in Rs) for 1 year on a sum of Rs 20000 at the rate of 40% per annum compounding half yearly?

A. 8000

B. 8650

C. 8750

D. 8800

Q. 61 What is the difference of the cube and square of the common root of (x2 – 8x + 15) = 0 and (y2 + 2y – 35) = 0?

A. 76

B. 100

C. 294

D. 318

Q. 62 If (x – 1/3)² +(y – 4)² = 0, then what is the value of y – x/y + x?

A. 11/13

B. 13/11

C. 16/9

D. 9/16

Q. 63 What is the difference of the factors of the expression x² + (1/x²) – 6?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 4

Q. 64 If x +(1/x) = √13, then what is the value of x⁵ -(1/x⁵)?

A. 169

B. 169√3

C. 393

D. 507

Q. 65 If D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively of a triangle ABC such that DE||BC. If AD = x cm, DB = (x – 3) cm, AE = (x + 3) cm and EC = (x – 2) cm, then what is the value (in cm) of x?

A. 3

B. 3.5

C. 4

D. 4.5

Q. 66 If medians of a triangle have lengths 18 cm, 24 cm and 30 cm, then what is the area (in cm2) of the triangle?

A. 24√6

B. 244

C. 288

D. 360

Q. 67 Two smaller circles touch a large circle internally and pass through the center O of the larger circle. If the diameter of the bigger circle is 28 cm, then what is the area of the bigger circle which is not enclosed by the two smaller circles (in cm2)?

A. 154

B. 256

C. 308

D. 616

Q. 68 In the given figure, O is the in-center of triangle ABC. If AO/OE = 5/4 and CO/OD = 3/2, then what is the value of BO/OF?

A. 19/4

B. 38/17

C. 38/7

D. 19/7

Q. 69 What is the simplified value of tan (θ/2) + cot (θ/2)?

A. 2 cosec θ

B. 2 sec θ

C. sin θ

D. cosec θ

Q. 70 What is the simplified value of [(sec³x – tan³x)/(secx – tanx)] – 2tan²x – secxtanx?

A. 0

B. 2

C. -1

D. 1

Q. 71 If sin⁸θ + cos⁸θ – 1 = 0, then what is the value of cos²θsin²θ(If θ ≠ 0 or n/2)?

A. -1

B. 0

C. 1

D. 2

Questions: 72 – 75

The table given below represents the marks obtained by 5 students in 4 different

subjects. Each student was given marks out of 100 in each of the given subjects.

Q. 72 In which subject the total marks of all the students is highest?

A. English

B. Mathematics

C. Science

D. Hindi

Q. 73 Which student scored the maximum marks in all the 4 subjects taken together?

A. Student 1

B. Student 2

C. Student 3

D. Student 5

Q. 74 A new subject is added in which all the students have scored 100 marks. If total marks are calculated as sum of the marks of highest 4 subjects, then who will be second in terms of total marks?

A. Student 3

B. Student 2

C. Student 5

D. Student 4

Q. 75 The average marks per student in English is what percent of the average marks per student in Hindi?

A. 91.48

B. 97.12

C. 92.71

D. 98.18

Q. 76 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No error’.

My sister-in-laws (1)/ who lives in Kolkata (2)/ have come to stay with us. (3)/ No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 77 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No error’.

These kind of clothes (1)/ are rather expensive (2)/ for me to buy. (3)/ No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 78 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The employee did not _____ to the argument of the manager.

A. precede

B. exceed

C. concede

D. recede

Q. 79 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

He was sworn _____ as the Prime Minister of our country.

A. in

B. off

C. about

D. out

Q. 80 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Cantankerous

A. Humorous

B. Quarrelsome

C. Remorseful

D. Dullness

Q. 81 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Connoisseur

A. Decisive

B. Uncivilised

C. Discerning Judge

D. Narrow-minded

Q. 82 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Nugatory

A. Delusive

B. Futile

C. Unreal

D. Productive

Q. 83 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Naive

A. Artful

B. Candid

C. Credulous

D. Sincere

Q. 84 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase.

A. Ill-tempered

B. Soft-spoken

C. Enthusiastic

D. Depressed

Q. 85 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase.

By fits and starts

A. Occasionally

B. Totally

C. Finally

D. Irregularly

Q. 86 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

I had (not only helped her by) giving hints but also with providing him links.

A. helped not only to her by.

B. helped her not only by

C. not only helped her

D. No improvement

Q. 87 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

We (has finished) our lunch half an hour ago.

A. finished

B. will have finished

C. had finished

D. No improvement

Q. 88 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

The act of speaking irreverently about sacred things.

A. Atheist

B. Blasphemy

C. Bellicose

D. Deflection

Q. 89 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

A person who talks too much of himself.

A. Egoist

B. Elite

C. Emetic

D. Egotist

Q. 90 In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt.

Find the incorrectly spelt word.

A. Entrepreneur

B. Remuneration

C. Apprentice

D. Soveriegnity

Q. 91 In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt.

Find the incorrectly spelt word.

A. Tranquillity

B. Perseverence

C. Resplendence

D. Accommodation

Q. 92 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

P: In other countries which are populated by ‘haves’, frustration is among them also

because they do “haves”.

Q: In some countries, frustration exists because these countries are populated by “havenots”.

R: Frustration is a global cancer.

S: It has spared no country.

A. RSQP

B. SQRP

C. PSRQ

D. QRPS

Q. 93 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

P: The real purpose underlying this maxim lies in its utility in the worldly sense.

Q: He has within him a spirit which is ever exhorting him to cut down his needs and learn to be happy with what he has.

R: Man is something much greater than an intelligent being using his intellect to make newer inventions from time to time.

S: It tells us to be up and doing, not to be passive in our attitude to life.

A. PRQS

B. QPSR

C. RQPS

D. SRPQ

Q. 94 In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

Why do you waste money?

A. Why is money been wasted by you?

B. Why has money been wasted by you ?

C. Why is money wasted by you?

D. Why is money being wasted by you?

Q. 95 In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

The doctor said, “well, what can I do for you?”

A. The doctor wanted to know what he could do for her.

B. The doctor said that he couldn’t do anything for her.

C. The doctor asked what he couldn’t do for her.

D. The doctor wondered what he could do for her.

Questions: 96 – 100

In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives. The world has seen a _____ growth in several spheres. Agricultural production, industrial production, communication, medicine, education etc, have seen _____ growth. We can safely assume that the future is not as _____ as once appeared to be. We are not by a vision of hungry hordes overwhelming world food resources. Although it is _____ that many people, especially in the developing countries, are hungry, illiterate and _____ to diseases.

Q. 96 The world has seen a _____ growth in several spheres.

A. tremendous

B. mere

C. hardly

D. slow

Q. 97 Agricultural production, industrial production, communication, medicine, education etc, have seen _____ growth.

A. equal

B. unprecedented

C. negligible

D. negative

Q. 98 We can safely assume that the future is not as _____ as once appeared to be.

A. good

B. strong

C. bleak

D. high

Q. 99 Although it is _____ that many people, especially in the developing countries,

A. unclear

B. false

C. incorrect

D. true

Q. 100 are hungry, illiterate and _____ to diseases.

A. prone

B. averse

C. liable

D. engross

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	B	A	A	D	B	B	B	C	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	C	D	C	D	A	C	B	C	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	B	B	A	C	D	A	A	B	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	D	A	C	B	B	C	D	D	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	C	B	A	C	A	A	A	C	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	D	C	C	D	C	C	A	D	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	B	D	C	D	C	C	C	A	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	B	C	B	C	A	A	C	A	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	D	A	B	D	B	C	B	D	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	A	C	C	A	A	B	C	D	A

SSC CGL Tier-I 05 August 2017 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2017 5 Aug Shift 1

Q. 1 In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.

Power : Watt : : ? : ?

A. Pressure : Newton

B. Force : Pascal

C. Resistance : Mho

D. Work : Joule

Q. 2 In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

NPBG : OQCH : : AJOT : ?

A. BKPU

B. BUPK

C. BHKP

D. HBKU

Q. 3 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

101 : 10201 : : 107 : ?

A. 10707

B. 10749

C. 11449

D. 11407

Q. 4 In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Lion

B. Leopard

C. Snake

D. Tiger

Q. 5 In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. NPR

B. TVW

C. FHJ

D. KMO

Q. 6 In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.

A. 69

B. 59

C. 61

D. 53

Q. 7 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Ropped

2. Roster

3. Roasted

4. Road

5. Roller

A. 35412

B. 45312

C. 34512

D. 43512

Q. 8 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

BCF, CDG, DEH, ?

A. EFI

B. EFG

C. DFI

D. EGI

Q. 9 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

2, 5, 12, 27, ?

A. 53

B. 56

C. 57

D. 58

Q. 10 If ‘P 3 Q’ means ‘P is daughter of Q’, ‘P 5 Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’, ‘P 7 Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’ and ‘P 9 Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’, then how is J related to K in J 3 L 9 N 3 O 5 K?

A. Mother

B. Wife

C. Niece

D. Daughter

Q. 11 Rakhi got engaged 10 years ago. Rakhi’s present age is 5/3 of her age at the time of engagement. If the present age of Rakhi’s mother is twice that of present age of Rakhi, then what was her mother’s age (in years) at the time of her engagement?

A. 50

B. 40

C. 30

D. 60

Q. 12 In the following question, from the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

Suspensefulness

A. Sense

B. Fuels

C. Useful

D. Fullness

Q. 13 In a certain code language, “BAD” is written as “7” and “SAP” is written as “9”. How is “BAN” written in that code language?

A. 8

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6

Q. 14 In the following question, correct the equation by interchanging two signs.

9 x 3 + 8 ÷ 4 – 7 = 28

A. x and –

B. + and –

C. ÷ and +

D. x and ÷

Q. 15 If 4 * 5 % 3 = 8000 and 2 * 3 % 2 = 36, then

4 * 3 % 3 = ?

A. 432

B. 1728

C. 36

D. 144

Q. 16 In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

A. 43

B. 49

C. 59

D. 71

Q. 17 How many triangles are there in given figure ?

A. 20

B. 22

C. 28

D. 32

Q. 18 In each of the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

I. Some pens are pencils.

II. All pencils are erasers.

Conclusions:

I. Some pens are erasers.

II. No pens are erasers.

III. Some erasers are pencils

A. Only conclusion (II) follows

B. Only conclusion (I) and (II) follow.

C. Only conclusion (I) and (III) follow.

D. No conclusion follows.

Q. 19 Three positions of a cube are shown below. What will come opposite to face containing ‘I’ ?

A. VI

B. IV

C. II

D. V

Q. 20 In the given figure, how many pens are blue ?

A. 23

B. 19

C. 12

D. 15

Q. 21 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure ?

A. 1)

B. 2)

C. 3)

D. 4)

Q. 22 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded.

A. 1)

B. 2)

C. 3)

D. 4)

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. 1)

B. 2)

C. 3)

D. 4)

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the lie AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure ?

A. 1)

B. 2)

C. 3)

D. 4)

Q. 25 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.

The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘K’ can be represented by 01,34,etc. and ‘P’ can be represented by 65,99,etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word “BLAND”

A. 10, 14, 00, 68, 79

B. 31, 41, 33, 96, 86

C. 44, 20, 42, 88, 59

D. 23, 32, 24, 55, 66

Q. 26 At which rate, Reserve Bank of India borrows money from commercial banks?

A. Bank Rate

B. Repo Rate

C. Reverse Repo Rate

D. Statutory Liquidity Rate

Q. 27 Movement along the supply curve is known as ______ .

A. Contraction of supply

B. Expansion of supply

C. Increase in supply

D. Expansion and contraction of supply

Q. 28 What is the minimum age required to become vice-president of India?

A. 30 years

B. 35 years

C. 40 years

D. 37 years

Q. 29 Which of the following “writ” of the High Court or the Supreme Court is issued to restrain a person from holding a public office which he is not entitled to?

A. Certiorari

B. Mandamus

C. Prohibition

D. Quo Warranto

Q. 30 Who was the son of Chandragupta Maurya?

A. Bindusara

B. Chandragupta

C. Ashoka

D. Bimbisara

Q. 31 Which dynasty came to power in India after the Tughlaq dynasty?

A. The Guptas

B. The Khiljis

C. The Mughals

D. The Sayyids

Q. 32 Which planet is considered as the Dwarf planet?

A. Earth

B. Jupiter

C. Pluto

D. Saturn

Q. 33 Sandstone is which type of rock?

A. Calcareous Rock

B. Igneous Rock

C. Metamorphic Rock

D. Sedimentary Rock

Q. 34 Wheat is a ______.

A. Creeper

B. Herb

C. Shrub

D. Tree

Q. 35 Snakes, turtle, lizards and crocodiles falls under which category of animals?

A. Pisces

B. Amphibian

C. Reptilian

D. Aves

Q. 36 Which of the following instrument is used to measure Soil Water Tension?

A. Photometer

B. Pyrometer

C. Psychrometer

D. Tensiometer

Q. 37 What is the SI unit of Force?

A. Pascal

B. Boyle

C. Newton

D. Watt

Q. 38 Which one of the following is a bad Thermal Conductor?

A. Aluminium

B. Copper

C. Glass

D. Silver

Q. 39 Which of the following stores data permanently in a computer?

A. ALU

B. Cache Memory

C. RAM

D. ROM

Q. 40 Rusting is _____

A. Electrolysis

B. Oxidation

C. Redox reaction (Oxidation and Reduction)

D. Reduction.

Q. 41 Which amongst the following is not a Cation?

A. Aluminium ion

B. Copper ion

C. Sulphate ion

D. Zinc ion

Q. 42 Which of the following is not a component of Smog?

A. Volatile organic compounds

B. Nitrogen Oxide

C. Sulphur dioxide

D. Chlorine oxide

Q. 43 NITI Aayog has been formed to replace which of the following institution?

A. Planning Commission

B. IRDA

C. Department of Telecommunications (DoT)

D. Department of Information Technology

Q. 44 Who invented first working laser?

A. A. H. Taylor

B. W. K. Roentgen

C. T. H. Maiman

D. Fred Morrison

Q. 45 Which of the following venue hosted its first ever test match on 9th November, 2016 which was played between India and England?

A. JSCA International Stadium Complex, Ranchi

B. Saurashtra Cricket Association Stadium, Rajkot

C. Himachal Pradesh Cricket Association Stadium, Dharamshala

D. Holkar Cricket Stadium, Indore

Q. 46 Match the following.

Artist Art form

1. gauri Shankar Devilal 1. Flute

2. Hari prasad Chaurasia 2. Painting

3. M. F. Hussain 3. Kathak

4. Zakir Hussain 4. Tabla

A. 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c

B. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d

C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b,4-d

D. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d

Q. 47 Who is the only Indian cricketer to have received the Polly Umrigar award 3 times?

A. Sachin Tendulkar

B. Virender Sehwag

C. Virat Kohli

D. Ravichandran Ashwin

Q. 48 Who is the author of the book titled “The Sellout”?

A. Paul Beatty

B. Arvind Adiga

C. Eleanor Catton

D. Howard Jacobson

Q. 49 Which country was designated as the major defence partner of USA in December, 2016?

A. Canada

B. Israel

C. India

D. United Kingdom

Q. 50 With which country India did its seventh edition of bilateral EKUVERIN Exercise 2016 at Kadhdhoo?

A. Nepal

B. Pakistan

C. Maldives

D. Bhutan

Q. 51 If X and Y are the two digits of the number 347XY such that the number is completely divisible by 80, then what is the value of X + Y?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

Q. 52 A, B and C can complete a work in 20, 24 and 30 days respectively. All three of them starts together but after 4 days A leaves the job and B left the job 6 days before the work was completed. C completed the remaining work alone. In how many days was the total work completed?

A. 10

B. 12

C. 14

D. 16

Q. 53 A solid sphere of diameter 17.5 cm is cut into two equal halves. What will be the increase (in cm2 ) in the total surface area?

A. 289

B. 361.5

C. 481.25

D. 962.5

Q. 54 After a discount of 34% an article is sold for Rs 3168. What is the marked price (in Rs) of the article?

A. 4750

B. 4800

C. 4850

D. 5000

Q. 55 If 3/7 P = 4/11 Q then what is the ratio of P and Q respectively ?

A. 12 : 77

B. 12 : 33

C. 28 : 33

D. 3 : 28

Q. 56 The average of 17 results is 60. If the average of first 9 results is 57 and that of the last 9 results is 65, then what will be the value of 9th result?

A. 39

B. 78

C. 117

D. 156

Q. 57 For an article the profit is 170% of the cost price. If the cost price increases by 20% but the selling price remains same, then what is the new profit percentage?

A. 41

B. 50

C. 75

D. 125

Q. 58 32% of a number exceeds 17% of the same number by 120. What is the value of the number?

A. 900

B. 860

C. 940

D. 800

Q. 59 A boat goes 15 km upstream and 10 1/2 km downstream in 3 hours 15 minutes. It goes 12 km upstream and 14 km downstream in 3 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water ?

A. 4

B. 6

C. 10

D. 14

Q. 60 A person lent certain sum of money at 5% per annum simple interest and in 15 years the interest amounted to Rs 250 less than the sum lent. What was the sum lent (in Rs)?

A. 1000

B. 1500

C. 2400

D. 3000

Q. 61 If x = 2+√3/2-√3 , then what is the value of x+ 1/x ?

A. 14

B. 8√3

C. 0

D. 18

Q. 62 If x = 2+√3/2-√3 , then what is the value of √(2x) – 1/ √(2x) ?

A. 2√3

B. 3√3

C. (3√3 + 1)/2

D. 2√3 + 1

Q. 63 If x+1/x = 4 , then what is the value of x⁶ + 1/x⁶ ?

A. 52

B. 256

C. 1026

D. 2702

Q. 64 If y= 2-x/1+x, then what is the value of (1/y+1) + (2y-1/y²-1) ?

A. ((1+x)(2-x))/(2x-1)

B. ((1-x)(2+x))/(x-1)

C. ((1+x)(2-x))/(1-2x)

D. ((1+x)(1-2x))/(1-2x)

Q. 65 In the triangle ABC, ∠BAC = 50° and the bisectors of ∠ABC and ∠ACB meets at P. What is the value (in degrees) of ∠BPC?

A. 100

B. 105

C. 115

D. 125

Q. 66 Two circles of same radius intersect each other at P and Q. If the length of the common chord is 30 cm and distance between the centres of the two circles is 40 cm, then what is the radius (in cm) of the circles?

A. 25

B. 25√2

C. 50

D. 50√2

Q. 67 In the given figure, , ∠QRN =40⁰ , ∠PQR= 46⁰ and MN is a tangent at R. What is the value (in degrees) of x,y and z respectively ?

A. 40, 46, 94

B. 40, 50, 90

C. 46, 54, 80

D. 50, 40, 90

Q. 68 In ΔPQR, ∠R = 54°, the perpendicular bisector of PQ at S meets QR at T. If ∠TPR = 46°, then what is the value (in degrees) of ∠PQR?

A. 25

B. 40

C. 50

D. 60

Q. 69 what is the simplified value of (cot A + tan B)/(cot B + tan A) ?

A. tan B cot A

B. tan A cot B

C. tan A tan B

D. cot A cot B

Q. 70 What is the simplified value of (1/(cosec Ac+ cot A))² ?

A. sec A + tan A

B. (1 – cos A)/(1 + cos A)

C. (1 – cosec A)/(1 + cosec A)

D. sin A

Q. 71 If cos2 θ – sin θ = 1/4, then what is the value of sin θ?1)

A. -1

B. 1/2

C. 1

D. 3/2

Q. 72 The table shows the number of students of a college studying Arts, Science, Commerce and Business for given 5 years. What is the percentage increase in number of students of Commerce from 2012 to 2016?

A. 11.16

B. 17.28

C. 13.51

D. 15.67

Q. 73 The table shows the number of students of a college studying Arts, Science, Commerce and Business for given 5 years. What is the simple annual growth rate (in %) of the number of students of Business from 2012 to 2016?

A. 10

B. 12.5

C. 15

D. 17.5

Q. 74 The table shows the number of students of a college studying Arts, Science, Commerce and Business for given 5 years. What is the ratio of average number of students studying Arts per year and average number of students studying Science per year?

A. 169 : 331

B. 66 : 169

C. 127 : 261

D. 32 : 75

Q. 75 The table shows the number of students of a college studying Arts, Science, Commerce and Business for given 5 years. Which year shows the maximum percentage increase in the total number of students in these 4 subjects over the previous year?

A. 2013

B. 2014

C. 2015

D. 2016

The two men were (1)/ quarrelling with one another (2)/ claiming the same watch as their own. (3)/ No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Everybody knows (1)/ that Bhutan is the most peaceful (2)/ of all other countries of the

world. (3)/ No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

The higher you climb, the more difficult it _____ to breathe.

A. became

B. becomes

C. has become

D. is becoming

Neha has been crying _____ morning.

A. from

B. of

C. since

D. till

Q. 80 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Opulent

A. Fake

B. Gloomy

C. Rich

D. Selfish

Q. 81 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Morose

A. Flatter

B. Gloomy

C. friendly

D. Savvy

Q. 82 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Irk

A. Attract

B. Discourage

C. Irritate

D. Please

Q. 83 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Grotesque

A. Free

B. Odd

C. Plain

D. Queer

Q. 84 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

To keep the wolf from the door.

A. Avoid starvation

B. Crack the deal

C. Entry prohibited

D. Have a pleasant tour

Q. 85 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Teething problems

A. Oral problems

B. Problems at the start of a new project

C. Problems for quite a long time in adjusting in the new place

D. Problem of having good dentist

Q. 86 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

She did not like to have coffee (nor I did).

A. neither I liked it

B. nor did I

C. nor I like it

D. No improvement

Q. 87 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

Taj Mahal is ( a worth seeing monument) in Agra.

A. a monument to see its worth

B. a monument worth seeing

C. one of worth seeing monuments

D. No improvement

Q. 88 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

That which cannot be corrected

A. Impregnable

B. Immolation

C. Incorrigible

D. Ineligible

Q. 89 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

A person who is blamed for the wrong doings of others

A. Bursar

B. Captor

C. Phlegmatic

D. Scapegoat

Q. 90 In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Select the incorrectly spelt word.

A. Conceive

B. Leisure

C. Neice

D. Reign

Q. 91 In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is incorrectly spelt. Select the incorrectly spelt word.

A. Dictionory

B. Irrelevant

C. Perishable

D. Tangible

Q. 92 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

P- It had been umpteen years since we had seen each other.

Q- One dull dark day in autumn, I was travelling on horseback through a dreary stretch of countryside.

R- This was the house of Roderick Usher, who had been my childhood pal.

S- At night fall, I came in sight of the house of Usher.

A. PQSR

B. PSQR

C. QSRP

D. QRSP

Q. 93 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

P- According to various estimates, between 1942 and 1944 there were approximately 400 victims of this practice daily in Warsaw alone, with numbers on some days reaching several thousands.

Q- A common German practice in occupied Poland was to round up random civilians on the streets of Polish cities.

R- For example, on 19th September 1942 close to 3000 men and women were transported by train to Germany – they had been caught in the massive round-ups all over Warsaw the previous two days.

S- The term, “lapanka” carried a sardonic connotation from the word’s earlier use for the children’s game known in English as “tag”.

A. SQRP

B. SRPQ

C. QSPR

D. QSPR

Q. 94 In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

An elephant may be helped even by an ant.

A. An ant can even help a elephant.

B. An ant may even help a elephant.

C. Even an ant may help an elephant

D. Even an ant ought to help an elephant.

“Please don’t cry” he said.

A. He begged that I should not cry.

B. He begged me not to cry.

C. He said to please him and not cry.

D. He told me to not to cry

Q. 96 In the following questions, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The _____ of lectures could be enhanced by introducing the lecture with a brief review of the work _____, it should also be indicated how the day’s lecture _____ into the course pattern. A lecture should _____ be presented in one unbroken discourse. Unless exceptionally interesting, a long lecture strains the _____ of a concentrated listening, causing intermittent wandering of attention and loss of continuity in thought.

The _____ of lectures could be enhanced by introducing the lecture

A. condition

B. effectiveness

C. efficiency

D. interest

Q. 97 In the following questions, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

A. ascending

B. preceding

C. reciting

D. succeeding

Q. 98 In the following questions, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

A. adds

B. fits

C. gets

D. lets

Q. 99 In the following questions, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and

indicate it by selecting the appropriate option. The _____ of lectures could be enhanced by introducing the lecture with a brief review of the work _____, it should also be indicated how the day’s lecture _____ into the course pattern. A lecture should _____ be presented in one unbroken discourse. Unless exceptionally interesting, a long lecture strains the _____ of a concentrated listening, causing intermittent wandering of attention and loss of continuity in thought. A lecture should _____ be presented in one unbroken discourse.

A. continuously

B. often

C. randomly

D. seldom

Q. 100 In the following questions, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

A. authority

B. capacity

C. comfortability

D. reasonability

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	A	C	C	B	A	D	A	D	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	D	A	D	B	D	B	C	A	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	A	B	C	D	C	D	B	D	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	C	D	B	C	D	C	C	D	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	A	C	B	C	C	A	C	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	C	C	B	C	B	D	D	C	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	C	D	C	C	A	A	B	A	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	C	B	A	B	B	C	B	C	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	D	C	A	B	B	B	C	D	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	C	C	C	B	B	B	B	D	B

SSC CGL Tier-I 31 August 2016 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 31 Aug Shift 2

Q. 1 Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives:

Sanitation : Illness : : Care : ?

A. Rest

B. Ignore

C. Accident

D. Suggestion

Q. 2 Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives:

GrtK : KtrG : : FjbH : ?

A. HbjF

B. jHbF

C. FbjH

D. HjbF

Q. 3 Select the related word/letters/numbers from the given alternatives:

20 : 11 : : 102 : ?

A. 49

B. 52

C. 61

D. 58

Q. 4 For the following questions

Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

A. Man : Garage

B. Pig : Sty

C. Horse : Stable

D. Cow : Shed

Q. 5 For the following questions

Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

A. WVU

B. DBA

C. NML

D. HGF

Q. 6 For the following questions

Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 1629

B. 3418

C. 2349

D. 1834

Q. 7 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary.

1. Exploit 2. Explosive 3. Exponent 4. Exposition 5. Explore

A. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2

B. 1, 5, 2, 3, 4

C. 1, 5, 3, 2, 4

D. 1, 3, 5, 4, 2

Q. 8 A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

CAR, GCO, KEL, OGI, ?

A. SIK

B. SIF

C. TIK

D. TIL

Q. 9 A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

100, 50, 52, 26, 28, ? , 16, 8

A. 14

B. 30

C. 32

D. 38

Q. 10 Mithilesh said to Neha, ‘Your only brother’s son is my wife’s brother.’ How is Neha related to the wife of Mithilesh?

A. Aunt

B. Mother – in – law

C. Sister

D. Mother

Q. 11 W, X, Y and Z are four friends. W is shorter than X, but taller than Y, who is shorter than Z. Who is the shortest among all?

A. W

B. X

C. Y

D. Z

Q. 12 From the given alternatives words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

SPECULATION

A. SPECIAL

B. TOPIC

C. SECULAR

D. CAUTION

Q. 13 If A = 26 and X-RAY = 40, then WHAT = ?

A. 52

B. 54

C. 56

D. 58

Q. 14 If ‘A’ stands for ‘+’ , ‘B’ stands for ‘-‘ , ‘C’ stands for ‘x’ , what is the value of (10C4)A(4C4)B6 = ?

A. 46

B. 50

C. 56

D. 60

Q. 15 If 324⊕289 = 35, 441⊕484 = 43, then 625⊕400 = ?

A. 31

B. 43

C. 34

D. 45

Q. 16 Select the missing numbers from the given alternatives

12 8 4 8 4 12 4 12 8 100 44 ?

A. 80

B. 56

C. 48

D. 36

Q. 17 A person started walking towards West and covered a distance of 15 m, he turned right and walked 10 m. Again he turned right and walked 5 m and in the end he turned left and walked 15 m. Which direction is this person facing now?

A. North

B. South

C. East

D. West

Q. 18 Consider the given statement/s to be true and decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statements. Statements :

1. All cycles are ducks.

2. All ducks are swans.

Conclusions :

I. All swans are cycles.

II. Some swans are cycles.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Q. 19 Find the number of triangles in the given figure?

A. 8

B. 10

C. 12

D. 14

Q. 20 Which of the diagrams given below correctly represent the relationship among WOMEN, MOTHERS, SPINSTERS

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 21 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 22 From the given answer figures, select the one in which question figure is hidden.

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 25 In this question, the sets of numbers given in alternatives are represented. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these Matrices can represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., S can be represented by 02, 11, etc., and ‘L’ can be represented by 65, 86, etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word ‘GATE’

A. 30, 89, 11, 57

B. 21, 68, 34, 78

C. 21, 96, 24, 78

D. 12, 89, 42, 68

Q. 26 Which institution is known as ‘Soft Loan Window’ of World Bank?

A. IDBI

B. IDA

C. IMF

D. RBI

Q. 27 Which curve shows the inverse relationship between unemployment and inflation rates

A. Supply curve

B. Indifference curve

C. IS curve

D. Phillips curve

Q. 28 The longest sea beach in India is

A. Chapora beach

B. Diu beach

C. Aksa beach

D. Marina beach

Q. 29 The Jammu and Kashmir State Legislative Assembly has a tenure of ________________

A. Six years

B. Five years

C. Four years

D. Seven years

Q. 30 Which of the following Committees is described as the ‘twin sister’ of the Estimates Committee?

A. Public Accounts Committee

B. Committee on Public Undertakings

C. Departmental Standing Committee

D. Privilege Committee

Q. 31

Potato is a ?

A. Root

B. Stem

C. Bud

D. Fruit

Q. 32 English education was introduced in India by

A. Curzon

B. Macaulay

C. Dalhousie

D. Bentick

Q. 33 Short term contractions and expansions in economic activity are called ________________

A. Expansions

B. Recession

C. Deficits

D. The business cycle

Q. 34 Which one of the following region is most rich in coal deposits?

A. Brahmaputra valley

B. Damodar valley

C. Mahanadi valley

D. Godavari valley

Q. 35 Rainfall caused by intense evaporation in equatorial areas is called ____________

A. Orographic rainfall

B. Cyclonic rainfall

C. Frontal rainfall

D. Convectional rainfall

Q. 36 Haematopoiesis is take place in ______________

A. Lungs

B. Pancreas

C. Liver

D. Bone marrow

Q. 37 __________________ is a hormone that regulates the amount of glucose in the blood

A. Glucogen

B. Thyroxine

C. Oxytocin

D. Insulin

Q. 38 Wall Street collapse led to _________________

A. World War II

B. Recession

C. U.S. Attack on Iraq

D. Great Depression

Q. 39 Gandhara Art is t

he combination of

A. Indo – Roman

B. Indo – Greek

C. Indo – Islamic

D. Indo – China

Q. 40 If electric resistance is to be decreased, then the number of resistances should be connected in __________________

A. Series

B. Parallel

C. Mixed arrangement

D. None of these

Q. 41 Related to computers, what is ‘Wetware’ ?

A. Computer programs

B. Circuitry

C. Human brain

D. Chemical storage devices

Q. 42 Indira Goswami, the famous editor, poet, scholar and writter won the Jnanpith Award in which language?

A. Bengali

B. Odisha

C. Assamese

D. Hindi

Q. 43 Ultraviolet radiation in the stratosphere is absorbed by

A. SO2

B. Ozone

C. Oxygen

D. Argon

Q. 44 All isotopes of same element have ____________

A. different atomic numbers and different atomic mass

B. different atomic numbers and the same atomic mass

C. the same atomic number but different atomic masses

D. the same atomic number and the atomic mass

Q. 45 Nitric acid does not react wit

A. Gold

B. Copper

C. Zinc

D. Iron

Q. 46 Nanda Devi peak is located in ________________ State

A. Himachal Pradesh

B. Uttarakhand

C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Sikkim

Q. 47 Which one of the following industries is known as ‘Sunrise Industry’ ?

A. Iron & Steel

B. Cotton Textile

C. Information Technology

D. Tea & Coffee

Q. 48 The material used in electric heater is ….

A. Tungsten

B. Nichrome

C. Brass

D. Steel

Q. 49 Pellagra and Scurvy are caused by which pair of vitamin deficiency respectively____________________

A. Vitamin C and Vitamin D

B. Vitamin B-12 and Vitamin C

C. Vitamin C and Vitamin A

D. Vitamin A and Vitamin B-12

Q. 50 Who appoints the Finance Commission in India?

A. Governor, R. B. I.

B. CAG of India

C. President of India

D. Central Finance minister

Q. 51 A can do a certain job in 12 days. B is 60% more efficient than A. Then B can do the same piece of work in

A. 8 days

B. 15/2 days

C. 25/4 days

D. 6 days

Q. 52 A rectangle with one side 4 cm is inscribed in a circle of radius 2.5 cm. The area of the rectangle is :

A. 8 cm^2

B. 12 cm^2

C. 16 cm^2

D. 20 cm^2

Q. 53 A merchant marked cloth at Rs. 50/metre . He offers two successive discounts of 15% and 20%. The net price/metre is :

A. Rs. 32.50

B. Rs. 42.50

C. Rs. 34.00

D. Rs. 40.00

Q. 54 3 brothers divided Rs. 1620 among them in such a way that the share of second is equal to 5/13 of share of other two, combined. What is the share of the second one ?

A. Rs. 1170

B. Rs. 450

C. Rs. 540

D. Rs. 500

Q. 55 A dealer marks his goods 20% above their cost prices. then, he allows such a discount on the marked price so that he makes a profit of 8%. The rate of discount is :

A. 12%

B. 10%

C. 6%

D. 4%

Q. 56 The salary of a person is reduced by 20% . To restore the previous salary, his present salary is to be increased by

A. 20%

B. 25%

C. 17.5%

D. 22.5%

Q. 57 Two buses travel to a place at 45 km/hr and 60 km/hr respectively. If the second bus takes 11/2 hours less than the first for the journey, the length of the journey is :

A. 900 km

B. 945 km

C. 990 km

D. 1350 km

Q. 58 If (x + 1/x) : (x – 1/x) = 5 : 3, then the value(s) of x is / are

A. ±1

B. ±2

C. ±3

D. 0

Q. 59 An exterior angle of a triangle is 115° and one of the interior opposite angle is 45° . Then the other two angles are

A. 65° , 70°

B. 60° , 75°

C. 45° , 90°

D. 50° , 85°

Q. 60 In a ΔABC, ∠A + ∠B = 75° and ∠B + ∠C = 140° , then ∠B is

A. 40°

B. 35°

C. 55°

D. 45°

Q. 61 The value of (1 + tanθ^2)(1 – sinθ^2) is

A. 2

B. 1

C. -1

D. -2

Q. 62 If 4x^2 – 12x + k is a perfect square, then the value of k is

A. 2

B. 9

C. 12

D. 10

Q. 63 ((113^2) + (115^2) + (117^2) – 113 x 115 – 115 x 117 – 117 x 113) is equal to

A. 0

B. 4

C. 8

D. 12

Q. 64 The average of runs scored by a cricketer in his 99 innings is 99. How many runs will he have to score in his 100th innings so that his average of runs in 100 innings may be 100 ?

A. 100

B. 99

C. 199

D. 200

Q. 65 If rsinθ = 1, rcosθ = √3 then the value of (r^2)tanθ is

A. 4

B. 1/√3

C. 4/√3

D. 4√3

Q. 66 If p^3 – q^3 = (p – q) ((p – q)^2 + x p q) then value of x is

A. 1

B. -1

C. 3

D. 2

Q. 67 If (a + 1/a)^2 = 3, then the value of a^18 + a^12 + a^6 + 1 is

A. 3

B. 1

C. 0

D. 2

Q. 68 The top of a broken tree touches the ground at a distance of 15 m from its base. If a tree is broken at a height of 8 m from the ground, then the actual height of the tree is

A. 17 m

B. 20 m

C. 25 m

D. 30 m

Q. 69 In ΔPQR, straight line parallel to the base QR cuts PQ at X and PR at Y. If PX : XQ = 5 : 6, then the XY : QR will be

A. 5 : 11

B. 6 : 5

C. 11 : 6

D. 11 : 5

Q. 70 A man borrowed some money from a private organisation at 5% simple interest per annum. He lended this money to another person at 10% compound interest per annum, and made a profit of Rs 26,410 in 4 years. The man borrowed

A. 200000

B. 150000

C. 132050

D. 100000

Q. 71 From two points, lying on the same horizontal line, the angles of elevation of the top of the pillar are θ and Φ (θ < Φ). If the height of the pillar is ‘h’ m and the two points lie on the same sides of the pillar, then the distance between the two points is

A. h(tanθ – tanΦ) m

B. h(cotΦ – cotθ) m

C. h(cotθ – cotΦ) m

D. h((tanθ tanΦ)/(tanΦ – tanθ)) m

Q. 72 The bar graphs represents the number of road accidents due to bus and car during the years 2008 – 2013. Study the graph and answer the questions.

The total number of road accidents in the year 2009, 2011 and 2013 combined together is

A. 180000

B. 110000

C. 70000

D. 160000

Q. 73 The bar graphs represents the number of road accidents due to bus and car during the years 2008 – 2013. Study the graph and answer the questions.

The ratio of the road accidents due to bus in the year 2008 to that by Car in the year 2012 is

A. 2 : 1

B. 1 : 2

C. 2 : 3

D. 3 : 4

Q. 74 The bar graphs represents the number of road accidents due to bus and car during the years 2008 – 2013. Study the graph and answer the questions.

The respective ratio between the accidents by cars in the year 2012, 2010 and 2009 is

A. 2 : 5 : 4

B. 4 : 5 : 4

C. 4 : 3 : 2

D. 4 : 5 : 2

Q. 75 The bar graphs represents the number of road accidents due to bus and car during the years 2008 – 2013. Study the graph and answer the questions.

The ratio of the averages of the road accidents due to Bus to that by Car in the year 2008, 2011 and 2013 is

A. 4 : 5

B. 5 : 4

C. 5 : 1

D. 1 : 4

Q. 76 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

LETHARGIC

A. ENERGETIC

B. LAZY

C. LETHAL

D. LEGAL

Q. 77 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

MALLEABLE

A. TEACHABLE

B. INTRACTABLE

C. MANAGEABLE

D. PLIABLE

Q. 78 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word and click the button corresponding to it.

A. Persemonious

B. Persimonoius

C. Parsemonious

D. Parsimonious

Q. 79 In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the ‘No error’ option.

Sooner had he come (A) / his colleagues (B) / organised a get together (C) / No error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 80 In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the ‘No error’ option.

I enjoyed during (A) / my tenure (B) / at Shimla (C) / No error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 81 In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the ‘No error’ option.

The Government offered him (A) / derical job (B) / but he turned it over (C) / No error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 82 The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

After a noisy and tumultuous supper, we ______________ for the day.

A. retirement

B. retiring

C. retired

D. retire

Q. 83 The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

The villager cried ____________________ his voice for help

A. on the top of

B. in the top of

C. from the top of

D. at the top of

Q. 84 The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

Simon teaches children ________________ water colour painting

A. the art on

B. the art in

C. the art by

D. the art of

Q. 85 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it.

Be down with

A. Suffering from

B. In grief with

C. In pain with

D. Aching with

Q. 86 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it.

Fair – weather friend

A. Honest only when easy and convenient

B. Truthful only when easy and convenient

C. Supports only when easy and convenient

D. Temporary only when easy and convenient

Q. 87 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it.

Pull together

A. Become friends

B. Work harmoniously

C. Be successful

D. Live happily

Q. 88 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it.

A place where soldiers live

A. Tanks

B. Shacks

C. Ordnance Depots

D. Barracks

Q. 89 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it.

A man who collects old and new coins

A. Geologist

B. Numismatist

C. Archaeologist

D. Zoologist

Q. 90 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it.

Regular users of places/restaurants etc.

A. Client

B. Clientele

C. Often

D. Usage

Q. 91 A sentence/part of sentence is in double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the quoted part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to ‘No improvement’.

This material is “not much enough” for me

A. not more enough

B. not so much enough

C. not enough

D. No improvement

Q. 92 A sentence/part of sentence is in double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the quoted part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to ‘No improvement’.

This is a change “of my usual work”.

A. from my usual work

B. for my usual work

C. in my usual work

D. No improvement

Q. 93 A sentence/part of sentence is in double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the quoted part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to ‘No improvement’.

Maharana Pratap killed many enemy soldiers “through his sword”

A. by his sword

B. with his sword

C. across his sword

D. No improvement

Q. 94 A sentence/part of sentence is in double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the quoted part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to ‘No improvement’.

Everyone hoped “of” good weather on the day of the wedding.

A. for

B. at

C. about

D. No improvement

Q. 95 A sentence/part of sentence is in double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the quoted part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to ‘No improvement’.

He asked the child to go and play with “some others” children

A. some other’s children

B. some others

C. some other

D. No improvement

Q. 96 A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully & choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives & click the button corresponding to it. Two men were once walking along a forest path, talking of courage & loyalty. The bigger one, who had a gun, was boasting of his own bravery & fidelity, when suddenly a large bear came from behind a rock close in front of them, & stood in their way growling angrily. The boaster fled to the nearest tree, dropped his gun, & climbed to a safe place without thinking of his poor friend. The later flung himself upon his face as though dead. The bear smelt his body, turned him over, licked his face, & supposing him to be dead, went on its way leaving him unhurt. The other man came down from the tree, & going to his friend said “Well what secrets did he whisper so quietly in your ear?” . To which the little man, who owed his life to his own presence of mind & not to the boasted bravery & fidelity of his companion, replied, “why, he said, ‘put not your trust in braggarts’, & I shall take his advice.” What were the two men talking about while walking along the forest path?

A. About their wives & children

B. About money & fame

C. About friendship & enjoyment

D. About courage & loyalty

Q. 97 A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully & choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives & click the button corresponding to it.

The other man came down from the tree, & going to his friend said “Well what secrets did he whisper so quietly in your ear?” . To which the little man, who owed his life to his own presence of mind & not to the boasted bravery & fidelity of his companion, replied, “why, he said, ‘put not your trust in braggarts’, & I shall take his advice.”

What is the meaning of the word “fidelity” ?

A. Muscle

B. Strength

C. Faithfulness

D. Courage

Q. 98 A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully & choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives & click the button corresponding to it.

Two men were once walking along a forest path, talking of courage & loyalty. The bigger one, who had a gun, was boasting of his own bravery & fidelity, when suddenly a large bear came from behind a rock close in front of them, & stood in their way growling angrily. The boaster fled to the nearest tree, dropped his gun, & climbed to a safe place without thinking of his poor friend. The later flung himself upon his face as though dead. The bear smelt his body, turned him over, licked his face, & supposing him to be dead, went on its way leaving him unhurt. The other man came down from the tree, & going to his friend said “Well what secrets did he whisper so quietly in your ear?” . To which the little man, who owed his life to his own presence of mind & not to the boasted bravery & fidelity of his companion, replied, “why, he said, ‘put not your trust in braggarts’, & I shall take his advice.” After seeing the bear, what happened to the boaster ?

A. He fled home.

B. He hid himself behind the rock.

C. He hid himself behind a shed

D. He fled & climbed up the nearest tree.

Q. 99 A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully & choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives & click the button corresponding to it.

Two men were once walking along a forest path, talking of courage & loyalty. The bigger one, who had a gun, was boasting of his own bravery & fidelity, when suddenly a large bear came from behind a rock close in front of them, & stood in their way growling angrily. The boaster fled to the nearest tree, dropped his gun, & climbed to a safe place without thinking of his poor friend. The later flung himself upon his face as though dead. The bear smelt his body, turned him over, licked his face, & supposing him to be dead, went on its way leaving him unhurt. The other man came down from the tree, & going to his friend said “Well what secrets did he whisper so quietly in your ear?” . To which the little man, who owed his life to his own presence of mind & not to the boasted bravery & fidelity of his companion, replied, “why, he said, ‘put not your trust in braggarts’, & I shall take his advice.” What made the bear go away after examining the man ?

A. The bear thought the man was dead

B. The bear could not stand the bad odour of the man.

C. The bear did not want to eat the man

D. The bear heard a noise & was scarred

Q. 100 A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully & choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives & click the button corresponding to it.

A. The aid from the villagers

B. His friend’s bravery

C. His own presence of mind

D. His own courage

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	A	B	A	B	D	B	B	A	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	C	C	B	D	B	A	B	D	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	B	D	A	C	B	D	D	A	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	B	D	B	D	D	D	D	B	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	C	B	C	A	B	C	B	B	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	B	C	B	B	B	C	B	A	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	B	D	C	C	C	C	C	A	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	C	A	D	B	B	B	B	D	A	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	C	D	D	A	C	B	D	B	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	A	B	A	C	D	C	D	A	C

SSC CGL Tier-I 31 August 2016 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 31 Aug Shift 1

Q. 1 Select the related word from the given alternatives:

CURE : DISEASE :: HEAL ?

A. Illness

B. Injury

C. Recover

D. Sick

Q. 2 Select the related letters from the given alternatives:

DBCE : QOPR :: JLKI : ?

A. YWXU

B. WYXV

C. WXYV

D. WYVX

Q. 3 Select the related numbers from the given alternatives:

6 : 42 :: 12 : ?

A. 48

B. 72

C. 60

D. 84

Q. 4 Find the odd word pair from the given alternative.

A. High – Up

B. Past – Present

C. Often – Seldom

D. Fresh – Stale

Q. 5 Find the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. AOU

B. EOI

C. UIE

D. ALO

Q. 6 Find the odd number from the given alternatives.

A. 13

B. 17

C. 29

D. 87

Q. 7 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary and choose the one that comes first:

1. Temple

2. Tenant

3. Terminate

4. Temperature

A. Temple

B. Tenant

C. Terminate

D. Temperature

Q. 8 A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

NOM, QRP, TUS, ?

A. WAX

B. HUT

C. WXV

D. HTU

Q. 9 A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

1, 3, 7, 13, 21, ?

A. 27

B. 29

C. 31

D. 33

Q. 10 If it is Saturday on 27th September, what day will it be on 27th October of the same year?

A. Thursday

B. Sunday

C. Friday

D. Monday

Q. 11 The ratio of the ages of man and his wife is 4 : 3. After 4 years, the ratio will be 9 : 7. If at the time of marriage, the ratio was 5 : 3, how many years ago were they married?

A. 12

B. 24

C. 5

D. 8

Q. 12 From the given words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

ALTERNATIVES

A. ALTER

B. NATIVE

C. TEN

D. NATIONAL

Q. 13 If code P is denoted by 7, X by 9, M by 5, Z by 8, L by 2, T by 1, then ZLTPXM WILL BE

A. 812851

B. 821591

C. 812715

D. 821795

Q. 14 If 24 x 2 = 84 and 32 x 3 = 69, then 13 x 3 = ?

A. 38

B. 93

C. 16

D. 10

Q. 15 If ‘+’ means division, ‘-‘ means multiplication, ‘÷’ means subtraction, ‘x’ means addition and ‘<‘ means less than, then which of the following is false?

A. (10 + 2) ÷ 7 < (10 ÷ 7) + 2

B. (10 – 7) x 2 < (10 x 2) – 7

C. (10 x 7) – 2 < (10 – 2) x 7

D. (10 ÷ 2) + 7 < (10 + 7) x 2

Q. 16 Select the missing number in figure (1) from the given responses.

A. 1

B. 4

C. 9

D. 25

Q. 17 Ram went 20 metres to the north then turned towards east and walked another 5 metres, then he turned towards right and covered 20 metres. How far is he from the starting point?

A. 3 metre

B. 4 metre

C. 5 metre

D. 6 metre

Q. 18 One or two statements are given followed by two or more conclusions/assumptions, I, II, III, IV. You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statements.

Statements:

1. All goats are tiger.

2. All tigers are lions.

Conclusions:

I. All tigers are goats.

II. All lions are tigers.

III. No goat is a lion.

IV. No lion is a goat.

A. Only conclusions III and IV follow

B. Only conclusion I and II follow

C. None of the conclusions follows

D. All conclusions follow

Q. 19 In the question figure how many squares are there in all? Select from the given alternatives

A. 12

B. 14

C. 10

D. 11

Q. 20 In the following figure, triangle represents teachers, square represents merchants and circle represents social workers. Which number space represents Teachers who are social workers?

A. 3

B. 2

C. 4

D. 5

Q. 21 Which answer figures among (1), (2), (3), (4) complete the pattern in the question figure (A)?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 22 From the given answer figures (1), (2), (3), (4), select the one in which the question figure (A) is hidden/embedded.

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown in figure (A). From the given answer figures(1), (2), (3), (4), indicate how many it will appear when opened.

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures (1), (2), (3), (4) is the right image of the given figure (A).

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 25 In this question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given in figure (1). The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., D can be represented by 02, 10, etc., and R can be represented by 55, 67, etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word ‘BEAR’.

A. 13, 11, 12, 78

B. 31, 22, 23, 97

C. 42, 34, 42, 79

D. 24, 40, 23, 67

Q. 26 Money market is a market for

A. Short term fund

B. Long term fund

C. Negotiable instrument

D. Sale of shares

Q. 27 India shares longest international boundary with which country?

A. Bangladesh

B. China

C. Nepal

D. Bhutan

Q. 28 The Residuary powers of legislation under Indian Constitution rests with

A. President

B. Prime Minister

C. Parliament

D. States

Q. 29 Appointments for all India Services are made by

A. UPSC

B. President

C. Prime mInister

D. Parliament

Q. 30 The people of the Indus valley civilisation worshipped

A. Vishnu

B. Pashupati

C. Indra

D. Brahma

Q. 31 The Upanishads are the

A. Great Epics

B. Story Books

C. Source of Hindu Philosophy

D. Law Books

Q. 32 Tsangpo is the other name in Tibet for

A. Kosi

B. Gandak

C. Brahmaputra

D. Ganga

Q. 33 The largest herbarium of India is located at

A. Kolkata

B. Lucknow

C. Mumbai

D. Coimbatore

Q. 34 Temperature of distant luminous bodies can be determined by

A. Mercury thermometers

B. Gas thermometers

C. Pyrometers

D. Colour thermometers

Q. 35 In IT terminology, failure is the kernel is called as

A. Crash

B. Crash dump

C. Dump

D. Kernel error

Q. 36 Which of the following institutions was not founded by Mahatma Gandhi?

A. Sabarmati Ashram

B. Sevagram Ashram

C. Vishwa Bharti

D. Phoenix Ashram

Q. 37 Which of the following State has become India’s first carbon free State?

A. Himachal Pradesh

B. Madhya Pradesh

C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Maharashtra

Q. 38 Energy travels from Sun to Earth through?

A. conduction

B. convection

C. radiation

D. modulation

Q. 39 C. K. Naidu Cup is associated with which of the following sporting events?

A. Tennis

B. Cricket

C. Hockey

D. Golf

Q. 40 Pump priming should be resorted to at a time of:

A. Inflation

B. Deflation

C. Stagflation

D. Reflation

Q. 41 Which is the highest award for gallantry during peacetime?

A. Vir Chakra

B. Param Vir Chakra

C. Ashok Chakra

D. Mahavir Chakra

Q. 42 At Barren Island, the only active volcano in India is situated in

A. Andaman Islands

B. Nicobar Islands

C. Lakshadweep

D. Minicoy

Q. 43 The transfer of minerals from top soil to subsoil through soil-water is called?

A. Percolation

B. Conduction

C. Leaching

D. Transpiration

Q. 44 Heat is transmitted from higher temperature to lower temperature through the actual motion of the molecules in

A. Conduction

B. Convection

C. Radiation

D. Both conduction and convection

Q. 45 Polio is caused by

A. Bacteria

B. Virus

C. Fungus

D. Protozoa

Q. 46 Which country is in the process of building the largest single Aperture Radio Telescope – FAST?

A. Japan

B. China

C. USA

D. Russia

Q. 47 The Kovvada Nuclear Park project is proposed to be set up in which state?

A. Rajasthan

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Andhra Pradesh

D. Karnataka

Q. 48 Fixed Foreign Exchange Rate can be changed by

A. RBI

B. SEBI

C. Ministry of Finance

D. FIPB

Q. 49 In bio fortification technique plant breeders use breeding to overcome

A. loss due to insect pests

B. Decrease in food production

C. Deficiencies of micronutrients and vitamins

D. Loss due to plant diseases

Q. 50 Which Institution has the final authority to interpret the Constitution of India?

A. Parliament

B. Supreme Court of India

C. President

D. Attorney General of India

Q. 51 A and B together can do a piece of work in 9 days. If A does thrice the work of B in a given time, the time A alone will take to finish the work is

A. 4 days

B. 6 days

C. 8 days

D. 12 days

Q. 52 The diameters of two cylinders are in the ratio 3 : 2 and their volumes are equal. The ratio of their heights is

A. 2 : 3

B. 3 : 2

C. 9 : 4

D. 4 : 9

Q. 53 A trader sold a cycle at a loss of 10%. If the selling price had been increased by Rs. 200, there would have been a gain of 6%. The cost price of the cycle is

A. Rs. 1200

B. Rs. 1205

C. Rs. 1250

D. Rs. 1275

Q. 54 In a city, 40% of the people are illiterate and 60% are poor. Among the rich, 10% are illiterate. The percentage of the illiterate poor population is

A. 36

B. 60

C. 40

D. 50

Q. 55 In which time will a 100 metre long train running with a speed of 50 km/hr cross a pillar?

A. 7.0 seconds

B. 72 seconds

C. 7.2 seconds

D. 70 seconds

Q. 56 If 2p/(p^2 – 2p + 1) = 1/4, then the value of p + 1/p will be

A. 8

B. 10

C. 12

D. None of these

Q. 57 If l + m + n = 9 and l^2 + m^2 + n^2 = 31, then the value of (lm + mn + nl) will be

A. 22

B. 50

C. 25

D. -25

Q. 58 The centroid of a triangle is the point where

A. the medians meet

B. the altitudes meet

C. The right bisectors of the sides of the triangle meet

D. the bisectors of the angles of the triangles meet

Q. 59 In a triangle PQR, the side QR is extended to S. ∠QPR = 72° and ∠PRS = 110°, then the value of ∠PQR is:

A. 38°

B. 32°

C. 25°

D. 29°

Q. 60 In a trapezium ABCD, AB || CD, AB < CD, CD = 6 cm and distance between the parallel sides is 4 cm. if the area of ABCD is 16 cm^2, then AB is

A. 1 cm

B. 2 cm

C. 3 cm

D. 8 cm

Q. 61 If tanθ + cotθ = 5, then the value of tan^2θ + cot^2θ is

A. 22

B. 25

C. 23

D. 27

Q. 62 When a number is divided by 56, the remainder will be 29. If the same number is divided by 8, then the remainder will be

A. 6

B. 7

C. 5

D. 3

Q. 63 If a shopkeeper marks his goods for a certain amount so as to get 25% gain after allowing a discount of 20%, then marked price is

A. Rs. 156.25

B. Rs. 146.25

C. Rs. 166.25

D. Rs. 150.25

Q. 64 The average of marks of 17 students in an examination was calculated as 71. But it was later found that the mark of one student had been wrongly entered as 65 instead of 56 and another as 24 instead of 50. The correct average is

A. 70

B. 71

C. 72

D. 73

Q. 65 The simple interest on a sum for 5 years is two-fifth of the sum. The rate of interest per annum is

A. 0.1

B. 0.08

C. 0.06

D. 0.04

Q. 66 If (x + 1/x)^2 = 3, then the value of (x^3 + 1/x^3) is

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. -1

Q. 67 If (a – b) = 3 and (a^2 + b^2) = 25, then the value of (ab) is

A. 16

B. 8

C. 10

D. 15

Q. 68 In ΔABC, ∠B = 70° and ∠C = 60°. The internal bisectors of the two smallest angles of ΔABC meet at O. The angle so formed at O is:

A. 125°

B. 120°

C. 115°

D. 110°

Q. 69 If θ be positive acute angle and 5cosθ + 12sinθ = 13, then the value of cosθ is

A. 12/13

B. 5/13

C. 5/12

D. 1/5

Q. 70 A cylindrical container of 32 cm height and 18 cm radius is filled with sand. Now all this sand is used to form a conical heap of sand. If the height of the conical heap is 24 cm, what is the radius of its base?

A. 12 cm

B. 24 cm

C. 36 cm

D. 48 cm

Q. 71 The angle of elevation of the top of a pillar from the foot and the top of a building 20 m high, are 60° and 30° respectively. The height of the pillar is

A. 10 m

B. 10√3

C. 60 m

D. 30 m

Questions: 72 – 75

The pie-chart given in figure (1) shows the percentage of literate and illiterate males and females in a state.

Q. 72 If the total number is 35000, then the difference between the number of literate males and that of literate females is

A. 3500

B. 3700

C. 400

D. 4500

Q. 73 The difference of central angles corresponding to illiterate male and illiterate female is:

A. 12.2°

B. 13.4°

C. 11.2°

D. 14.4°

Q. 74 If the difference between the two categories of people are represented by 36° in the diagram, then these categories are

A. literate males and literate females

B. literate males and illiterate males

C. illiterate males and literate females

D. illiterate males and illiterate females

Q. 75 If two categories together have a central angle of 169.2°, then these categories are

A. literate females and illiterate females

B. literate males and illiterate females

C. illiterate males and illiterate females

D. illiterate males and literate females

Q. 76 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

CONSTRAIN

A. stress

B. contradict

C. restrict

D. obstruct

Q. 77 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word.

NONCONFORMIST

A. conventional

B. practical

C. fashionable

D. nomad

Q. 78 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word.

A. Erroneous

B. Eronneous

C. Erronous

D. Eroneous

Questions: 79 – 81

In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and choose the correct alternative. If the sentence is free from error, choose “No error”.

Q. 79 Although I have never seen the girl before, (1)/ I recognized her at home (2)/ from her photograph. (3)/ No error (4)

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 80 There was a (1)/ comparison between (2)/ you and he (3)/ No error (4)

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 81 He flowed into a rage (1)/ at the very (2)/ sight of that man. (3)/ No error (4)

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Questions: 82 – 84

In the following questions, the sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative.

Q. 82 He is _________________ connected

A. respectively

B. respected

C. respectably

D. respectable

Q. 83 After retirement Surti lived ____________ Australia

A. in

B. at

C. over in

D. over at

Q. 84 He _________________ the low pay.

A. moan at

B. complain about

C. grumbled at

D. ran after

Questions: 85 – 87

In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

Q. 85 Pros and Cons

A. Professionals

B. Con artists

C. Professionals and con artists

D. Advantages and disadvantages

Q. 86 Once in a blue moon

A. Very rarely

B. Common

C. Predictable

D. Ordinary

Q. 87 Fish out of water

A. Dehydrated

B. Comfortable position

C. An uncomfortable position

D. Fish in an aquarium

Questions: 88 – 90

In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences.

Q. 88 A remedy for all diseases

A. Antiseptic

B. Antibiotic

C. Narcotics

D. Panacea

Q. 89 Of the highest quality

A. Productive

B. Reactive

C. Superlative

D. Relative

Q. 90 A place of shelter for ships

A. Harbour

B. Helipad

C. Port

D. Barrack

Questions: 91 – 95

In each of the following questions, a sentence/a part of the sentence is quoted. Four alternatives are given which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case of no improvement is needed, choose the option of “No improvement”.

Q. 91 His wife is “as tall if not”, taller than him

A. as tall as, if not

B. as taller if not

C. not as tall but as

D. No improvement

Q. 92 He is a fast bowler of repute, but “his yesterday’s performance” was not up to the mark.

A. performance for yesterday

B. yesterday performance

C. performances for yesterday

D. No improvement

Q. 93 Owing to his respiratory problems the doctor has told him “to refrain from” smoking.

A. to not refrain from

B. to refrain to

C. to refrain not from

D. No improvement

Q. 94 He “is suffering” from fever for a week.

A. was suffering

B. had suffering

C. has been suffering

D. No improvement

Q. 95 None knows how it “was happened”

A. was happen

B. has happened

C. happened

D. No improvement

Questions: 96 – 100

The snowstorm was getting worse. White flakes whirled around us as we fought our way against the wind. I had almost given up hope of sheltering, when we found an abandoned log cabin in front of us. I squeezed through the door of the cabin and stepped cautiously inside with Jane close behind me. It was dark and musty-smelling, but at least it was sheltered and dry. Glad to be out of the storm, we settled down on the dusty floor to wait for a break in the weather. “What’s this?” asked Jane curiously. Her hand closing over something shiny. She held it up to the weak ray of light that pierced the gloom. A gold necklace glittered and shone. Its ruby pendant was a lustrous wine-red in the faint beam. Strangely, there was no dust on the necklace. It was almost as though it had dropped from the throat of its owner moments ago. We gazed at each other speechlessly. What strange mystery had we accidently stumbled upon?

Q. 96 What had the writer given up hope?

A. To be able to withstand this snowstorm

B. To be able to fight her way against the wind

C. That the snowstorm would improve

D. To find shelter from the wind

Q. 97 What did the two friends find while searching for shelter?

A. A haunted hut

B. A deserted hut

C. A very old hut

D. A very small hut

Q. 98 Why did the writer step cautiously inside the cabin?

A. Because she was feeling so cold that her legs had become numb

B. Because she could not see clearly in the dark

C. Because the wind made it difficulty for her to enter quickly

D. Because the cabin was very dusty

Q. 99 What did Jane find?

A. A necklace made of gold

B. A necklace made of red ruby

C. A red-coloured necklace

D. A golden necklace with a pendant on it

Q. 100 What was the strange thing about the necklace?

A. It was made of marble

B. It was pink in colour

C. There was no dust in it

D. There was a picture on the pendant

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	B	D	A	D	D	D	C	C	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	D	D	B	C	D	C	C	B	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	D	D	A	D	A	A	C	B	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	C	A	C	A	C	A	C	B	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	A	C	B	B	B	C	C	C	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	D	C	B	C	B	C	A	A	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	C	A	C	B	A	B	A	B	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	A	D	A	A	C	A	A	A	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	A	C	A	C	D	A	C	D	C	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	D	D	C	C	D	B	B	D	C

SSC CGL Tier-I 30 August 2016 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 30 Aug Shift 1

Q. 1 Select the related word from the given alternatives:

Flow : River : : Stagnant : ?

A. Pond

B. Rain

C. Stream

D. Canal

Q. 2 Select the related letters from the given alternatives:

AEIM : BFJN : : CGKO : ?

A. DHLP

B. ZVRP

C. BCDK

D. MPQR

Q. 3 Select the related number from the given alternatives:

24 : 60 : : 210 : ?

A. 348

B. 336

C. 340

D. 326

Q. 4 Find the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Shimla

B. Ooty

C. Darjeeling

D. Agra

Q. 5 Find the odd number from the given alternatives

A. 64

B. 900

C. 343

D. 1000

Q. 6 Find the odd letters from the given alternatives

A. NSWX

B. KPSU

C. HMQR

D. EJNO

Q. 7 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary

1. Maternity

2. Matriarchy

3. Matchbox

4. Matricide

A. 3, 1, 2, 4

B. 4, 3, 1, 2

C. 3, 4, 1, 2

D. 1, 3, 4, 2

Q. 8 A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

EDBA, KJHG, QPNM, ?

A. WVTS

B. WXUV

C. WVST

D. WVTX

Q. 9 A series is given, with one term missing, Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

463,452,439,424,?

A. 407

B. 413

C. 419

D. 411

Q. 10 At present, the ratio between the ages of Arun and Deepak is 4 : 3. After 6 years, Arun’s age will be 26 years. What is the age of Deepak at present?

A. 12 years

B. 15 years

C. 19 1/2 years

D. 25 years

Q. 11 X is the husband of Y. W is the daughter of X. Z is the husband of W. N is the daughter of Z. What is the relationship of N to Y?

A. Cousin

B. Niece

C. Daughter

D. Granddaughter

Q. 12 From the given words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

DETERMINATION

A. DETENTION

B. DESTINATION

C. TERMINATE

D. DOMINATE

Q. 13 If GOODNESS is coded as HNPCODTR then GREATNESS will be coded as

A. HQZFBMFRT

B. HPFZUMERT

C. HQEZUMFTR

D. HQFZUMFRT

Q. 14 Complete the third equation on the basis of a certain system followed in the first two equations

5 * 4 * 2 * 1 = 1426

7 * 8 * 1 * 6 = 6817

9 * 3 * 7 * 5 = ?

A. 3795

B. 5397

C. 5973

D. 5379

Q. 15 If ‘-‘ stands for division, ‘+’ for multiplication, ‘÷’ for subtraction and ‘x’ for addition, which one of the following equations is correct?

A. 18 ÷ 3 x 2 + 8 – 6 = 10

B. 18 – 3 + 2 x 8 ÷ 6 = 14

C. 18 – 3 ÷ 2 x 8 + 6 = 17

D. 18 x 3 + 2 ÷ 8 – 6 = 15

Q. 16 Find missing pair of letters from given responses to replace{?)

A. HR

B. HS

C. HV

D. HU

Q. 17 X walked 20-feet from A to B in the East direction. Then X turned to the right and walked 6 feet. Again X turned to the right and walked 28 feet. How far is X from A?

A. 28

B. 9

C. 10

D. 27

Q. 18 Consider the given statement(s) to be true and decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the· given statement. Statement:

The situation calls for an immediate action

Conclusions :

I. The situation is serious.

II. Immediate action is possible.

A. Only I is an assumption

B. Only II is an assumption

C. Both I and II are assumptions

D. Neither I or II is an assumption

Q. 19 How many cubes are there in the diagram?

A. 10

B. 12

C. 8

D. 6

Q. 20 Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among classes given below North America, United States of America, New York

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 21 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 22 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 25 In this question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g. G can be represented by 04, 40, etc., and ‘K’ can be represented by 56, 75 etc. You have to identify the set for the word ‘HILL’

A. 56, 58, 03, 02

B. 55, 77, 69, 85

C. 56, 62, 03, 02

D. 57, 60, 10, 02

Q. 26 Who among the following is not a member of the National Development Council?

A. The Prime Minister

B. The Member of NITI Aayog

C. The Chief Ministers of States

D. The President of India

Q. 27 The rate of tax increase as the amount of the tax base increases is called

A. Proportional tax

B. Progressive tax

C. Regressive tax

D. Degressive tax

Q. 28 The supply-side economics lays greater emphasis on

A. Producer

B. Global economy

C. Consumer

D. Middle Man

Q. 29 The founding father of “Theory of·bureaucracy” was

A. F. W. Taylor

B. Max Weber

C. Elton Mayo

D. Herbert Simon

Q. 30 The United Nations Organisation came into existence in

A. 1947

B. 1950

C. 1945

D. 1946

Q. 31 Abdul Fazal was the son of which Sufi saint?

A. Sheikh Mubarak

B. Hazarat Khwaja

C. Nasiruddin Chirag

D. Baba Qutubuddin Bakhtiyar Kaki

Q. 32 French revolution broke out in the year:

A. 1917

B. 1911

C. 1789

D. 1790

Q. 33 The song “Vande Mataram” occurs in the book

A. Geetanjali

B. Anandmath

C. Indian People

D. Poverty and UN-British Rule in India

Q. 34 Which mosquito is the carrier of Zika virus?

A. Culex

B. Aedes

C. Anopheles

D. Culiseta

Q. 35 Geothermal energy is maximum utilised in

A. Iceland

B. New Zealand

C. Russia

D. Japan

Q. 36 Root cap is derived from

A. Dermatogen

B. Calyptrogen

C. Protoderm

D. Histogen

Q. 37 The blotting technique used to identify the isolated protein is

A. Northern blotting

B. Western blotting

C. Southern blotting

D. Cloning

Q. 38 Morphology of Chromosomes can be best studied at

A. lnterphase

B. Prophase

C. Metaphase

D. Zygotene

Q. 39 The ‘Choke’ used with a tube light is basically

A. an inductor

B. a capacitor

C. a transformer

D. a resistor

Q. 40 Curie s an unit of

A. Radioactivity

B. energy of Gamma rays

C. intensity of Gamma rays

D. work function

Q. 41 In Networks, WEP stands for

A. Wireless Equivalent Privacy

B. Wired Extra Privacy

C. Wired Equivalent Privacy

D. Wireless Embedded Privacy

Q. 42 For extinguishing fire, we use

A. Hydrogen

B. Carbon Monoxide

C. Carbon Dioxide

D. Marsh gas

Q. 43 The chemical name of quartz is

A. Calcium oxide

B. Calcium phosphate

C. Sodium phosphate

D. Sodium silicate

Q. 44 Continuous chain of mountains that rise abruptly more or less parallel to the coastline of India is

A. Aravalli

B. Satpura

C. Eastern ghats

D. Western ghats

Q. 45 The biggest reserves of Thorium are in

A. China

B. USA

C. India

D. France

Q. 46 Which of the following became the first country in the world to legalise euthanasia?

A. Belgium

B. Netherlands

C. Denmark

D. Canada

Q. 47 Which of the following countries won Euro Cup 2016 (football)?

A. France

B. Germany

C. Portugal

D. Iceland

Q. 48 Shivkumar Sharma is famous for playing the

A. Sitar

B. Flute

C. Santoor

D. Tabla

Q. 49 Who among the following is popularly known as ‘Blade Runner’?

A. Usain Bolt

B. Oscar Carl Pistorious

C. Carl Lewis

D. Ben Johnson

Q. 50 FORA administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs stands for ________?

A. Foreign Currency Regulation Act

B. Foreign Contribution Regulation Act

C. Foreign Contract Regulation Act

D. Foreign Cartel Restriction Act

Q. 51 The product of two positive integers is 2048 and one of them is twice the other. The smaller number is

A. 32

B. 64

C. 16

D. 1024

Q. 52 A and B can do a work in 8 days, B and C can do the same work in 12 days. A, B and C together can finish it in 6 days. A and C together will do it in

A. 4 days

B. 6 days

C. 8 days

D. 12 days

Q. 53 The diagonal of a cuboid of length 5 cm, width 4 cm and height 3 cm is

A. 5√2 cm

B. 2√5 cm

C. 12 cm

D. 10 cm

Q. 54 An article marked at Rs. 540 is sold at Rs. 496.80 in an offseason offer. Then the rate of discount offered (in per cent) is

A. 7

B. 7.5

C. 8

D. 10

Q. 55 Three numbers are in the ratio 5:7:12. If the sum of the first and the third numbers is greater than the second number by 50. The sum of the three numbers is

A. 125

B. 120

C. 95

D. 85

Q. 56 The average age of 10 children is 9 years 9 months. The average age of 9 children is 8 years 11 months. What is the age of the tenth child?

A. 17 years 3 months

B. 18 years 4 months

C. 17 years 5 months

D. 18 years 3 months

Q. 57 Gopi goes from place A to B to buy an article costing 15% less at B, although he spends Rs. 150 on travelling, still he gains Rs. 150. compared to buying it at A. His profit percent is

A. 4.5

B. 6

C. 7.5

D. 8

Q. 58 If the income of Mohan is 150% higher than that of Mahesh, then by what percent the income of Mahesh is less than that of Mohan?

A. 40%

B. 50%

C. 60%

D. 45%

Q. 59 The lengths of a train and that of a platform are equal. If with a speed of 90 km/hr the train crosses the platform in one minute, then the length of the train (in metres) is

A. 500

B. 600

C. 750

D. 900

Q. 60 The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 5% is Rs. 1600. The compound interest at the same rate after 3 years interest compound annually, is

A. Rs.2520

B. Rs.2522

C. Rs.2555

D. Rs.2535

Q. 61 If x + 1/x = √3 , then the value of x³ + 1/x³ is equal to

A. 1

B. 3√3

C. 0

D. 3

Q. 62 If a/b + b/a = 1, the value of a³ + b³ is equal to

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Q. 63 If p² + q² = 7 pq, then the value of p/q + q/p is equal to

A. 9

B. 5

C. 7

D. 3

Q. 64 If x = 99, then the value of 2(x² + 3x + 3 ) is equal to

A. 10101

B. 10000

C. 20202

D. 10102

Q. 65 The centroid of a triangle ΔABD is G. If the area of ΔABC is 72 sq. units, then the area of ΔBGC is

A. 16 sq. units

B. 24 sq. units

C. 36 sq. units

D. 48 sq. units

Q. 66 In case of an acute angled triangle, its orthocentre lies

A. inside the triangle

B. outside the triangle

C. on the triangle

D. on one of the vertices of the triangle

Q. 67 If ΔPQR and ΔLMN are similar and 3PQ = LM and MN = 9 cm, then QR is equal to :

A. 12 cm

B. 6 cm

C. 9 cm

D. 3 cm

Q. 68 AB is a chord of a circle with O as centre. C is a point on the circle such that OC ⊥ AB and OC intersects AB at P. If PC= 2 cm and AB= 6 cm then the diameter of the circle is

A. 6 cm

B. 6.5 cm

C. 13 cm

D. 12 cm

Q. 69 If x² = sin² 30°+ 4 cot² 45° – sec² 60° , then the value of x (x > 0) is

A. -1/2

B. 1

C. 0

D. 1/2

Q. 70 If 7sin²θ + 3cos²θ = 4 then the value of secθ + cosecθ is

A. 2/√3 – 2

B. 2√3 + 2

C. 2/√3

D. None of these

Q. 71 An observer on the top of a mountain, 500 m above the sea level, observes the angles of depression of the two boats in his same place of vision to be 45° and 30° respectively. Then the distance between the boats, if the boats are on the same side of the mountain is

A. 456 m

B. 584 m

C. 366 m

D. 699 m

Questions: 72 – 75

Study the bar diagram and answer the following· questions.

Q. 72 Average marks obtained in Physics for two terms is

A. 80.5

B. 82.5

C. 72.5

D. 83.5

Q. 73 Difference of marks obtained in both the terms by the students is maximum in

A. English

B. Physics

C. Biology

D. Mathematics

Q. 74 What is the percentage of marks obtained in Chemistry for both the terms?

A. 76.5

B. 56.7

C. 75.6

D. 67.5

Q. 75 The ratio of the average of the marks obtained in Biology for two terms to the average of the marks obtained in English and Mathematics for first term only is

A. 43:92

B. 39:42

C. 29:34

D. 23:94

Q. 76 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

VENIAL

A. corrupt

B. superficial

C. respected

D. pardonable

Q. 77 In tμe following question, out of the four ·alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word.

DIFFIDENT

A. shy

B. brave

C. confident

D. meek

Q. 78 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly, Choose the correctly spelt word.

A. Monolouge

B. Monologue

C. Monologe

D. Monolouge

Questions: 79 – 81

Directions (79-81) : In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and choose the alternative corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, choose the “No error” option

Q. 79 We must go (1) / and congratulate him for (2)/ his brilliant success. (3) / No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 80 My brother (1) / along with his friends (2) / are going on a tour. (3) / No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 81 You have prepared well (1) / for the examination (2) / isn’t it? (3) / No error (4}

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Questions: 82 – 84

Directions (82-84): In the following questions, the sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative.

Q. 82 What good fortune! I found the very thing I was _______ !

A. looking in

B. looking to

C. looking besides

D. looking for

Q. 83 The swimmer _______ his clothes. and jumped into the river.

A. took off

B. took of

C. took out

D. took down

Q. 84 I will _______ to Singapore next month.

A. be travelling

B. be travel

C. travels

D. am travelled

Questions: 85 – 87

Directions (85-87): In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

Q. 85 Made light of

A. Did not hear

B. Treated it lightly

C. Blew away

D. Carried with him

Q. 86 Every inch a gentleman

A. Somewhat

B. Partly

C. Entirely

D. Calculatively

Q. 87 Gall and wormwood

A. A problem

B. Hateful

C. Useless

D. Hard to digest

Questions: 88 – 90

Directions (88-90): Out of the four alternatives, find out the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and choose the alternative corresponding to it.

Q. 88 A rough, violent, troublesome person

A. Tartar

B. Talker

C. Vagabond

D. Swindler

Q. 89 A brave, noble-minded or chivalrous man

A. Handsome

B. Robust

C. Gallant

D. Reckless

Q. 90 Obsession with books

A. Bibliomania

B. Megalomania

C. Xenophobia

D. Egomania

Questions: 91 – 95

Directions (91-95): In each of the following questions a sentence/ a part of the sentence is printed in bold and in double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the bold part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, choose the alternative corresponding to “No improvement”.

Q. 91 The farmers work “at the fields”.

A. on the fields

B. through the fields

C. in the fields

D. No improvement

Q. 92 The boss impatiently told him “to get up” with his work

A. to get on

B. to get by

C. to get under

D. No improvement

Q. 93 The judges “remarked on” the high standard of entries for the competition

A. remarked of

B. remarked at

C. remarked over

D. No improvement

Q. 94 He did not know how to solve the problem and “I did not either”.

A. neither do I

B. neither did I

C. either did I

D. No improvement

Q. 95 It is a place “far of here”.

A. far by here

B. far from here

C. far away here

D. No improvement

Questions: 96 – 100

Directions (96-100) : A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.

Mary Garden, a. noted opera singer, earned a great deal of money during her career, but was constantly bothered by the demand of her father for money and always in large sums. Miss Garden would always give it to him, though often she would often complain that his requests seemed somewhat unreasonable. To this the stock reply was that he needed the money for a very special project. She was not going to refuse her father, was she? During the depression Miss Garden, like many others, lost her money in the stock market crash. Shortly afterward, her father died, and, much to her surprise, she was notified that he had left a large bank account in her name. He had saved for her every cent she had given him. The demands God makes on us may seem hard at times. But all the while. He, is actually helping us to store up an ‘eternal bank account’ in heaven-one which may balance ‘the ‘scales in our favour when we least expect it. Troubles are often the instruments by which God fashions us for better things.

Q. 96 Mary’s father made demands for __________

A. a small sum of money

B. large sums of money

C. no money

D. a reasonable sum of money

Q. 97 Mary ___ to the demands of her father.

A. could not refuse to pay any attention

B. wanted to refuse to pay any attention

C. finally refused to pay any attention

D. Initially refused to pay any attention

Q. 98 Mary’s father had ______ all the money he took from her.

A. gambled

B. wasted

C. invested

D. saved

Q. 99 During the depression Mary ________ in the stock market.

A. lost no money at all

B. lost her money

C. lost some money

D. lost lot of money

Q. 100 God at times, makes hard demands so that He ________ when we least expect it.

A. can balance the scales against us

B. can balance the scales in our favour

C. can harm us

D. can refuse to assist us

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	A	B	D	B	B	A	A	A	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	B	D	D	B	B	C	C	A	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	B	D	C	B	D	B	A	B	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	C	B	B	A	B	B	C	A	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	C	D	D	C	B	C	C	B	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	C	A	C	B	A	C	C	C	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	A	C	C	B	A	D	B	D	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	C	B	C	D	C	D	C	B	B	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	D	A	A	B	C	B	A	C	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	A	D	B	B	B	A	D	B	B

SSC CGL Tier-I 29 August 2016 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 29 Aug Shift 2

Q. 1 Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

FUNGI: MYCOLOGY:: TISSUE: ??

A. Haematology

B. Cytology

C. Histology

D. Bacteriology

Q. 2 Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

BDFH : YWUS :: JLNP : ?

A. QOMK

B. ACEF

C. ZXUT

D. UVWX

Q. 3 Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

18 : 30 : : 36 : ?

A. 78

B. 64

C. 66

D. 68

Q. 4 For the following questions

Find out the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives

A. Arithmetic

B. Mathematics

C. Geometry

D. Algebra

Q. 5 For the following questions

Find out the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives

A. ACEG

B. BDFG

C. JLNP

D. SUWY

Q. 6 For the following questions

Find out the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives

A. 16, 32

B. 20, 40

C. 64, 81

D. 81, 162

Q. 7 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary

1. Weather 2. Weasand 3. Wealth 4. Weapon 5. Weekend

A. 3,2,4,1,5

B. 3,2,1,4,5

C. 3,4,2,1,5

D. 3,4,1,2,5

Q. 8 Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series

BFK, KOT, UYD,?

A. BFJ

B. ADG

C. FJO

D. PSX

Q. 9 Find the missing number in the series

2, 3, 8, ?, 112, 565

A. 565

B. 112

C. 27

D. 8

Q. 10 A woman pointing to a man said, “He is the widower of my uncle’s brother’s daughter.”

How is the man related to the woman?

A. Brother-in-law

B. Brother

C. Uncle

D. Nephew

Q. 11 P, Q, R and S are four friends. P is shorter than Q but taller than R who is shorter than S. Who is the shortest among all?

A. P

B. Q

C. R

D. S

Q. 12 From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letter of the given word.

IMPRACTICABLE

A. CAPABLE

B. PARTICLE

C. PRACTICAL

D. PEACE

Q. 13 If BROTHER is coded as GWTYMJW, then SCHOOL is coded as

A. WGLSSP

B. WGLSSQ

C. XHMTTQ

D. XHMTTP

Q. 14 If ‘+’ means subtraction, ‘÷’ means addition, ‘<‘ means multiplication and ‘>’ means division, then find the value of the given statement,

The value of 9 ÷ 7 < 8 > (4>2) + 5 will be

A. 32

B. 18

C. 16

D. 11

Q. 15 If 5 * 3 = 19 and 8 * 5 = 49, then what should 6 * 4 be?

A. 24

B. 28

C. 18

D. 16

Q. 16 Select the missing number from the given responses.

A. 45

B. 65

C. 70

D. 80

Q. 17 A man walks 7 km towards south and turns to the left. After walking 5 km, he turns to the right and walks 7 km. In which direction is he now from the starting point?

A. West

B. South

C. South-East

D. North-East

Q. 18 Consider the given statement/s to be true and decide which of the given

conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement.

Statement 1: When water is cooled, it turns into ice.

Statement 2: When water is heated, it turns into steam.

Conclusion I: Water is a solid.

Conclusion II: Water is a gas.

A. Only Conclusion I follows

B. Only Conclusion II follows

C. Both I and II follow

D. Neither I nor II follows

Q. 19 What is total number of triangles in the given figure?

A. 16

B. 32

C. 40

D. 12

Q. 20 Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among classes given below Men, Rodents and living beings

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 21 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 22 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the figure is hidden/embedded

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figure is the right image?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 25 In the question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column. e.g. N can be represented by 01, 14 etc. and A can be represented by 55, 69, etc. You have to identify the set for the word ‘GOOD’.

A. 02, 58, 68, 04

B. 44, 99, 76, 20

C. 31, 67, 76, 22

D. 33, 76, 86, 41

Q. 26 Among the following States, _________has the lowest birth rate in India.

A. Kerala

B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Bihar

D. West Bengal

Q. 27 The Secretariat of SAARC is set up at ____________

A. Washington

B. Kathmandu

C. Hague

D. New Delhi

Q. 28 The outermost range of Himalayas is called_________

A. Kali

B. Shiwaliks

C. Dehradun

D. Kumaon

Q. 29 Who is generally considered to be the father of the Indian Renaissance?

A. Rabindranath Tagore

B. Raja Rammohan Roy

C. Mahatma Phule

D. M.G. Ranade

Q. 30 The longest river of peninsular India is__________

A. Narmada

B. Godavari

C. Mahanadi

D. Cauvery

Q. 31 ___________gives hardness to stainless steel

A. Zinc

B. Lead

C. Carbon

D. Tin

Q. 32 Which of the following is responsible for transport of food and other substances in plants?

A. Xylem

B. Phloem

C. Chloroplast

D. None of these

Q. 33 The washing machine works on the principle of ____________

A. Dialysis

B. Diffusion

C. Reverse osmosis

D. Centrifugation

Q. 34 Which is not an external storage device?

A. CD-ROM

B. DVD-ROM

C. Pen Drive

D. RAM

Q. 35 Which of the following is the correct description of the term sex-ratio as used in the context of the census of population?

A. Number of males per 1000 females.

B. Number of females per 1000 males.

C. Number of females per 100 males

D. Number of females in a sample of 1000 persons.

Q. 36 The atomic power station in Rajasthan is situated at:

A. Pokhran

B. Suratgarh

C. Rawatbhata

D. Chittorgarh

Q. 37 The Sahitya Akademi Awards are given for best writings in how many Indian languages?

A. 12

B. 15

C. 20

D. 24

Q. 38 Right to Privacy comes under______________

A. Article 19

B. Article 20

C. Article 21

D. Article 18

Q. 39 The foreign traveller who visited India during the reign of Shahjahan was______________

A. Thomas Roe

B. William Hawkins

C. Ibn Batuta

D. Manucci

Q. 40 The GST (Goods and Services Tax), recently passed by Government will be levied on which of the following products?

A. Petroleum Crude

B. Tobacco

C. Natural Gas

D. Aviation Turbine Fuel

Q. 41 Who was elected the Prime Minister of Nepal recently?

A. Keshav Kumar Budhathoki

B. Khadga Prasad Sharma Koli

C. Sushil Koirala

D. Pushpakamal Dahal ‘Prachanda’

Q. 42 Which lobe of human brain is associated with hearing?

A. Frontal lobe

B. Parietal lobe

C. Temporal lobe

D. Occipital lobe

Q. 43 Which of the following is not soluble in water?

A. Lead sulphate

B. Zinc sulphate

C. Potassium sulphate

D. Sodium sulphate

Q. 44 Activated Charcoal is used to remove colouring matter from pure substances by_______

A. Bleaching

B. Oxidation

C. Adsorption

D. Reduction

Q. 45 Chernobyl disaster is the result of pollution by_____________

A. Oil spill

B. Acid rain

C. Carbon dioxide

D. Radioactive waste

Q. 46 Which of the following caused radioactive pollution along the coast of Kerala?

A. Plutonium

B. Zinc

C. Thorium

D. Radium

Q. 47 In mammals, an important role of excretion is played by________

A. Large intestine

B. Kidneys

C. Lungs

D. Liver

Q. 48 The second Green Revolution aims at increasing agricultural output to promote

A. Availability of easy credit to big farmers

B. Co-operative farming

C. Inclusive growth

D. Development of rural sector

Q. 49 Which of the following causes rainfall during winters in the north-western part of India?

A. Western disturbances

B. Cyclonic depression

C. Southwest monsoon

D. Retreating monsoon

Q. 50 The ‘Blue Water Policy’ was introduced by the Portuguese leader_________

A. Francisco-de-Almeida

B. Alfonso de Albuquerque

C. Francis Caron

D. Francis Martin

Q. 51 If the sum of a number and its reciprocal be 2, then the number is

A. 0

B. 1

C. -1

D. 2

Q. 52 The area of a rectangle in 60 cm2 and its perimeter is 34 cm, then the length of the diagonal is

A. 17cm

B. 11cm

C. 15cm

D. 13cm

Q. 53 A cloth merchant has announced 25% rebate in prices. If one needs to have a rebate of ₹ 40, then how many metres of cloth costing ₹ 32 per metre he should purchase.

A. 6m

B. 5m

C. 10m

D. 7m

Q. 54 A profit of Rs. 960 is divided between A and B in the ratio 1/3:1/2. The difference of their profit is :

A. Rs.120

B. Rs.160

C. Rs.180

D. Rs.240

Q. 55 The average monthly salary of 19 members of a group is Rs. 16000. If one more members whose monthly salary is Rs. 20000 has joined the group, then the average salary of the group is

A. Rs.18250

B. Rs.16200

C. Rs.18000

D. Rs.16250

Q. 56 A T.V was sold at a profit of 5% If it had been sold at a profit of 10% , the profit would have been Rs. 1000 more. What is its cost price ?

A. Rs.20000

B. Rs.5000

C. Rs.10000

D. Rs.15000

Q. 57 The price of an article is decreased by 10%. To restore it to its former value, the new price must be increased by :

A. 9(1/11)%

B. 10%

C. 11%

D. 11(1/9)%

Q. 58 A moving train passes a platform 50m long in 14 seconds and a lamp post in 10 seconds. The speed of the train (in km/h) is :

A. 24

B. 36

C. 40

D. 45

Q. 59 If x² + 1/x² = 2, then the value of x – 1/x is

A. -2

B. 0

C. 1

D. -1

Q. 60 Choose the correct option

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 61 A chord of length 16 cm is drawn in a circle of radius 10 cm. The distance of the chord from the centre of the circle is

A. 8cm

B. 6cm

C. 4cm

D. 12cm

Q. 62 An angle in a semicircle is

A. 45°

B. 60°

C. 90°

D. 120°

Q. 63 If x = a cosθ+ b sinθ and y = b cosθ- a sinθ, then x2 + y2 is equal to

A. ab

B. a2+b2

C. a2-b2

D. 1

Q. 64 A can do a work in 12 days while B can do it in 15 days. They undertake to complete it together for Rs. 450. what will be the share of A in this amount of money ?

A. Rs.200

B. Rs.240

C. Rs.250

D. Rs.300

Q. 65 If x = √2+1, then the value of x4-1/x4 is

A. 8√2

B. 18√2

C. 6√2

D. 24√2

Q. 66 If 9x + 16y² = 60 and 3x + 4y = 6, then the value of xy is

A. -1

B. 1

C. -2

D. 2

Q. 67 If in ΔABC, DE ||BC, AB = 7.5cm, BD = 6cm and DE = 2 cm, then the length of BC in cm is :

A. 6

B. 8

C. 10

D. 10.5

Q. 68 Suppose that the medians BD, CE and AF of a triangle ABC meet at G. Then AG: GF is

A. 1:2

B. 2:1

C. 1:3

D. 2:3

Q. 69 Choose the correct option

A. 60°

B. 45°

C. 30°

D. 35°

Q. 70 A sum of Rs. 2000 amounts to Rs. 4000 in two years at compound interest. In how many years does the same amount becomes Rs. 8000.

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

Q. 71 Two ships are sailing in the sea on the two sides of a lighthouse. The angle of elevation of the top of the light house as observed from the two ships are 30° and 45° respectively. If the lighthouse is 100m high, the distance between the two ships is :(take √3=1.73)

A. 173m

B. 200m

C. 273m

D. 300m

Questions: 72 – 75

The following figure shows the number of students (in thousands) admitted and passed out per year in a college during years 2000 to 2004. study the figure and answer the questions.

Q. 72 The percent increase in the number of students admitted in the year 2003 over that in 2001 is

A. 133.3

B. 33.3

C. 40.3

D. 66.7

Q. 73 During 2000 to 2003, the ratio of the total number of the students passed out to the total number of students admitted is

A. 17/23

B. 17/6

C. 11/23

D. 5/7

Q. 74 In which of the two years, the pass percentage of students was between 60 to 70 ?

A. 2000 and 2001

B. 2003 and 2004

C. 2001 and 2002

D. none of these

Q. 75 The ratio of the number of students admitted in the year 2002 to the average of the number of students passed out in the years 2003 and 2004. is

A. 7:8

B. 8:9

C. 9:8

D. 8:7

Q. 76 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

REVILE

A. REVIVE

B. REVIEW

C. ABUSE

D. REVEAL

Q. 77 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

A. SPEND

B. REDUCE

C. SLANDER

D. SKIMP

Q. 78 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word and click the button corresponding to it.

A. Sanctaries

B. Sanctauries

C. Santuaries

D. Sanctuaries

He had already sent me message (A) / that his arrival (B) / was scheduled for Thursday (C) / No error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 80 .In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the “No error” option.

Science and technology and (A) / their fallouts do not (B) / complete human culture (C) / No error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

The angry bird flap (A) / her wings, flies a short (B) / distance and returns. (C) / No error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 82 The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

The clock has __________ for want of winding.

A. run down

B. run short

C. run past

D. run up

Q. 83 The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

Few people know that flowers use textures to __________ different kinds of insects.

A. signal

B. feel

C. attract

D. distract

Q. 84 The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

They abandoned their comrades __________ the wolves.

A. BY

B. between

C. on

D. among

Q. 85 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it.

For keeps

A. Himself

B. Away

C. Forever

D. Hid

Q. 86 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it.

Pale into insignificance

A. Seemed less important

B. Was less exciting

C. Was less hectic

D. Was dull and pale

Q. 87 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it.

With one voice

A. By one man

B. By one community

C. Unanimously

D. In disharmony

Q. 88 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it.

Drug which causes people to sleep easily

A. Poppy

B. Soporific

C. Beguile

D. Pedant

Q. 89 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it.

The branch of philosophy concerned with the study of the principles of beauty, especially in art

A. Artistic

B. Aesthetics

C. Ethics

D. Metaphysics

Q. 90 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it.

The study of skin

A. Dermatology

B. Dermatoglyphics

C. Stratigraphy

D. Oncology

Q. 91 A sentence/a part of the sentence is under double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to “No improvement”.

She has that “rare character” – the ability to listen to people.

A. rare ear

B. rare characteristic

C. rare sense

D. No improvement

Q. 92 A sentence/a part of the sentence is under double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to “No improvement”.

“Both of them have” not apologized yet.

A. Neither of them has

B. Any of them have

C. None of the two

D. No improvement

Q. 93 A sentence/a part of the sentence is under double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to “No improvement”.

The greater the demand, “higher” the price.

A. the high

B. a higher

C. the higher

D. No improvement

Q. 94 A sentence/a part of the sentence is under double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to “No improvement”.

His appointment as coach is yet another” feather in his wing.”

A. feather in his hat

B. badge in his hat

C. feather in his cap

D. No improvement

Q. 95 A sentence/a part of the sentence is under double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to “No improvement”.

The majority of the rain-fed Indian rivers, either dry up, or become “trickle” after the monsoon.

A. the trickle

B. a trickle

C. an trickle

D. No improvement

Questions: 96 – 100

A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it. It’s nothing short of a revolution in how we eat, and it’s getting closer every day. Yes, a lot of people are obese, and yes, the definition of “healthy eating” seems to change all the time. But in labs and research centres around the world, scientists are racing to match our genes and our taste buds, creating the perfect diet for each of us, a diet that will fight disease, increase longevity, boost physical and mental performance, and taste great to boot. As food scientist J.Bruce German says, “The foods we like the most will be the most healthy for us.” Is that going to be a great day, or what? All this will come to pass, thanks to genomics, the science that maps and describes an individual’s genetic code. In the future, personalized DNA chips will allow us to assess our own inherited predispositions for certain diseases, then adjust our diets accordingly. So, if you’re at risk for heart disease, you won’t just go on a generic low-fat diet. You’ll eat foods with just the right amount and type of fat that’s best for you. You’ll even be able to track your metabolism day-to-day to determine what foods you should eat at any given time, for any given activity. “Since people differ in their genetics and metabolism, one diet won’t fit all,” says German. As complex as all this sounds, it could turn out to be relatively simple.

Q. 96 What are scientists doing?

A. Racing in labs and research centres around the world

B. Asking us to start dieting

C. Creating the perfect diet for us

D. Try and make us taller

Q. 97 What does J. Bruce German say?

A. The food we like is not healthy for us

B. The food we like is the healthiest one for us

C. The most healthy food should be liked by us

D. Food scientists like healthy food

Q. 98 What is genomics?

A. The science which describes about maps

B. The science which describes an individual

C. The science which deals with years

D. The science that maps and describes an individual’s genetic code

Q. 99 Why won’t a common diet fit everybody?

A. Because different people eat different food

B. Because their genes are different

C. Since they differ in genetics and metabolism

D. Because of their different moods

Q. 100 What will be possible in the future?

A. Personalised DNA chips for people to assess their own inherited predispositions

B. You are at great risk for heart disease

C. You will not be able to determine what food you should eat

D. You will be unable to adjust your diet

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	A	C	B	B	C	C	C	C	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	D	C	A	B	B	C	D	A	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	A	B	D	B	A	B	B	B	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	B	D	D	B	C	D	C	D	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	D	C	A	C	D	C	B	C	A	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	D	B	D	B	A	D	D	B	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	C	B	C	D	A	C	B	A	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	C	B	D	A	B	C	D	D	A	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	A	A	C	D	C	A	C	B	B	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	D	A	C	C	B	C	B	D	C	A