SSC Exam - Page 25 of 32 - Vidhyarthi Darpan

SSC MTS Tier-I 12 October 2017 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC MTS Tier 1 2017 12 Oct Shift 2

Q. 1 In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 6

Q. 2 How many quadrilaterals are there in the given figure?

A. 3

B. 5

C. 4

D. 6

Q. 3 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix- I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix – II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘Y’ can be represented by 20, 78, etc, and ‘F’ can be represented by 11, 85, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word “HATE”.

A. 86, 40, 33, 13

B. 34, 58, 67, 31

C. 59, 41, 65, 31

D. 86, 59, 00, 68

Q. 4 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 5 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 6 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 7 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 8 If ‘Z’ means ‘-‘, ‘T’ means ‘÷’, ‘F’ means ‘×’ and’V’ means ‘+’, then

12 T 5 F 15 V 3 =?

A. 33

B. 36

C. 39

D. 49

Q. 9 If 4+9+3+6= 9463 and 1+5+7+6= 5167, then

9+5+4+2= ?

A. 5942

B. 9524

C. 5924

D. 2459

Q. 10 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Burke

2. Blues

3. Blown

4. Blast

5. Bride

A. 43251

B. 42315

C. 32145

D. 41235

Q. 11 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

70, 80, 100, 130, 140, 160, ?

A. 170

B. 190

C. 200

D. 210

Q. 12 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

D, F, I, M, R, ?

A. U

B. V

C. W

D. X

Q. 13 In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Actor

B. Film

C. Musician

D. Director

Q. 14 In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 20, 63

B. 40, 123

C. 15, 45

D. 30, 93

Q. 15 In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. FGED

B. LMKJ

C. TUSQ

D. UVTS

Q. 16 Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

Cat, Kitten, Dog

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 17 In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Time : Second : : Energy : ?

A. Farad

B. Mole

C. Kelvin

D. Joule

Q. 18 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

22 : 55 : : 48 : ?

A. 105

B. 115

C. 110

D. 120

Q. 19 In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

COPY : AMNW : : XOHO : ?

A. VMFM

B. WNFN

C. VNGN

D. WHGN

Q. 20 In the following question, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

MOMENTUM

A. MENTS

B. NOTE

C. TONE

D. MUTE

Q. 21 Present age of L and M is in ratio 8 : 11. After 6 years age of L will 38 years. What is the present age (in years) of M?

A. 44

B. 50

C. 32

D. 36

Q. 22 If North is called West, West is called South and South is called East, then what will South- West be called as?

A. South-East

B. North-East

C. North

D. West

Q. 23 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

I. Some green are big.

II. All big are blue.

Conclusions:

I. Some blue are green.

II. Some big are green.

A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Only conclusion (II) follows.

C. Both conclusion follow.

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor conclusion (II) follows.

Q. 24 In a certain code language, “FIX” is written as “GKA”. How is “GEL” written in that code language?

A. HFO

B. FFO

C. HGO

D. HFM

Q. 25 In a certain code language, “TAB” is written as “20” and “RAT” is written as “36”. How is “DOG” written in that code language?

A. 22

B. 23

C. 24

D. 26

Q. 26 How many factors of 60 are prime numbers?

A. 4

B. 5

C. 3

D. 2

Q. 27 What is the value of problem given in the figure?

A. √23 – √11

B. √15 – √9

C. √14 + √10

D. √17 + √7

Q. 28 What is the HCF of 3⁴×5⁵ and 3²×5⁶?

A. 34 x 56

B. 32 x 55

C. 32 x 56

D. 34 x 55

Q. 29 What is the value of 102 x 98?

A. 9998

B. 10002

C. 9994

D. 9996

Q. 30 How many zeroes are there at the end of product 35 x 27 x 52?

A. 7

B. 6

C. 2

D. 4

Q. 31 What is the value of problem given in the figure ?

A. √15 + √8

B. √21 + √2

C. √22 + √11

D. √29 + √11

Q. 32 A and B together can do a piece of work in 40 days and A alone can do it in 6080 days. B alone can do the work in how many days?

A. 80

B. 90

C. 120

D. 75

Q. 33 If 4/5th of a cistern is filled in 20 minute, then what is the time (in minutes) needed to fill the remaining part?

A. 5

B. 10

C. 12

D. 15

Q. 34 The lengths of two diagonals of a rhombus are 12 cm and 16 cm. What is the side (in cm) of the rhombus?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 10√2

D. 20√2

Q. 35 The marked price of a chair is Rs 600 and a customer pays Rs 540 for it. What is the discount percentage?

A. 10

B. 18

C. 20

D. 21

Q. 36 What is the net discount (in %) for successive discounts of 10% and 20%?

A. 23

B. 70

C. 75

D. 28

Q. 37 Two numbers are in the ratio of 3 : 4. If 12 is subtracted from each, then the new ratio becomes 9 : 14. What are the two numbers?

A. 30 and 40

B. 24 and 36

C. 45 and 60

D. 60 and 80

Q. 38 If A/2 = B/5 = C/7, then what is A : B : C?

A. 2 : 5 : 7

B. 2 : 5 : 12

C. 5 : 2 : 7

D. 7 : 5 : 2

Q. 39 The average of 10 numbers is 20 and that of other 30 numbers is 40. What is the average of all the numbers?

A. 35

B. 40

C. 45

D. 50

Q. 40 If the cost price of 15 articles is equal to the selling price of 12 articles, then what is the profit percentage?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 25

D. 15

Q. 41 By selling an article of Rs 850, a shopkeeper gains 70%. To gain 30% what should be the selling price?

A. 650

B. 720

C. 470

D. 570

Q. 42 If the price of an article is increased by 25%, then to restore its former value the new price must be decreased by how much percent?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 25

D. 12.5

Q. 43 What is the value of 30% of 40% of 2400?

A. 288

B. 72

C. 144

D. 108

Q. 44 Speed of a boat along the current and against the current are 11 km/hr and 6 km/hr respectively. What is the speed (in km/hr) of the current?

A. 1.5

B. 2.5

C. 3

D. 4.5

Q. 45 A car travels some distance at a speed of 8 km/hr and returns at a speed of 12 km/hr. If the total time taken by the car is 15 hours, then what is the distance (in km)?

A. 48

B. 60

C. 56

D. 72

Q. 46 An amount invested at simple interest gives Rs 4320 interest at rate of 18% in 4 years. What is the principal (in Rs)?

A. 5000

B. 5500

C. 6000

D. 6500

Q. 47 The table given below shows the revenue (in crores) of a company from years 2010 to 2016. What is the percentage change in the revenue from year 2010 to 2014?

A. 225

B. 150

C. 100

D. 125

Q. 48 The table given below shows the revenue (in crores) of a company from years 2010 to 2016. What is the percentage change in revenue from year 2011 to 2015?

A. 75

B. 175

C. 16.67

D. 25

Q. 49 The table given below shows the revenue (in crores) of a company from years 2010 to 2016. What is the percentage revenue (in crores) from year 2010 to 2014?

A. 85

B. 84

C. 90

D. 82.5

Q. 50 The table given below shows the revenue (in crores) of a company from years 2010 to 2016. In how many years, the revenue was more than that in year 2013?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Q. 51 In the following question, some part of sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Several people were booked for arson(1)/ rioting, illegal assembly, attempting to (2)/

murder, and obstructing officers discharging their duty. (3)/ No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 52 In the following question, some part of sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

The police said that accused (1)/ were arrested from various places (2)/ in Sirsa after they identified. (3)/ No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 53 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Akanksha is annoyed ______ me.

A. with

B. to

C. against

D. over

Q. 54 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

I asked them her for some money, but she ______ .

A. has not

B. had not

C. had none

D. has none

Q. 55 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Abolition

A. Legalization

B. Confirmation

C. Promotion

D. Cancellation

Q. 56 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Slack

A. Stiff

B. Feeble

C. Rigid

D. Tight

Q. 57 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Wobble

A. Stabilize

B. Balance

C. Vibrate

D. Be still

Q. 58 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Disdain

A. Scorn

B. Dislike

C. Favour

D. Pride

Q. 59 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Endeavour

A. Aim

B. Effort

C. Laziness

D. Venture

Q. 60 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Fabricate

A. Build

B. Break

C. Contrive

D. Erect

Q. 61 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of Idiom/Phrase.

A turning point

A. Anything that brings about changes

B. Become out of control

C. To be excited about working

D. Something terrifying

Q. 62 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of Idiom/Phrase.

All moonshine

A. Far from reality

B. Close together

C. Sentimental

D. On the height

Q. 63 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

Interestingly, the two women (was) very different personalities.

A. is

B. are

C. will

D. No improvement

Q. 64 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

Yet, their combined achievements also (bought into) focus the fact that the next best

woman shuttler in India is now here close to them in potential.

A. bring in into

B. brought in into

C. bring into

D. No improvement

Q. 65 In the following question, out of four given alternatives, select the alternative which is best substitute of the phrase.

A person employed in armed forces

A. Principal

B. Personnel

C. Kennel

D. Cannel

Q. 66 In the following question, out of four given alternatives, select the alternative which is best substitute of the phrase.

A place where clothes are kept.

A. Bathrobe

B. Geoprobe

C. Anaerobe

D. Wardrobe

Q. 67 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Tewelth

B. Twelfth

C. Tvefth

D. Twelth

Q. 68 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Skillfull

B. Skilsful

C. Skillful

D. Scilful

Q. 69 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

The realization of the

P: waste disposal has can be

Q: negative environmental effect that

R: a very sobering experience

A. QPR

B. PRQ

C. QRP

D. RPQ

Q. 70 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

Our bad times

P: and bad friends

Q: about our good

R: makes us realize

A. PRQ

B. RQP

C. QPR

D. PQR

Q. 71 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Unity in diversity means _____ in the varieties. India is the best country proving this concept for _____ years. India is a country where it is very clear to see unity in diversity because people of many religion, race, culture, and tradition live together without affecting each other’s feelings and beliefs to their religion. Unity in diversity _____ on the existence of unity even after lots of differences of cultural, social, physical, linguistic, religious, political, ideollogical, psychological, etc. A number of diversities make unity more _____. People in India are united in spite of much diversity of races, religions, castes, sub-castes, communities, language and dialects. People in India are highly spiritual and God- _____ in nature so they give respect to everyone’s religion. Unity in diversity means _____ in the varieties.

A. oneness

B. openness

C. uniqueness

D. emptiness

Q. 72 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

A. much

B. many

C. most

D. ample

Q. 73 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

A. ensures

B. directs

C. focuses

D. sustain

Q. 74 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

A. simple

B. neutral

C. indifferent

D. complex

Q. 75 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

A. fearing

B. bearing

C. rearing

D. gearing

Q. 76 What is the full form of PDS?

A. Public Distribution System

B. Private Distribution System

C. Public Development System

D. Private Development System

Q. 77 Which of the following are the modern forms of money?

A. Currency – paper notes and coins

B. Precious metals such as gold, silver and copper

C. Grains and cattle

D. None of these

Q. 78 Which fundamental right allows citizens to move to the court if they believe that any of their fundamental rights have been violated by the state?

A. Rights to Equality

B. Rights to freedom

C. Rights against Exploitation

D. Right to Constitutional Remedies

Q. 79 Which kind of government provides a method to deal with differences and conflicts?

A. Autocratic

B. Aristocratic

C. Monarchic

D. Democratic

Q. 80 To which dynasty did Mahadji Scindia and Nana Phadnis belong?

A. Maratha

B. Wodeyar

C. Mughal

D. Cholas

Q. 81 What was the title of three-volume history of Akbar’s reign written by Abul Fazl?

A. Akbarnama

B. Babarnama

C. Safar-i-Akbar

D. Akbar-Darbar

Q. 82 What is the zone between the Arctic Circle and the North pole in the Northern Hemisphere and the Antarctic Circle and the South Pole in Southern Hemisphere called?

A. Temperate Zone

B. Frigid Zone

C. Torrid Zone

D. None of these

Q. 83 Which is the second largest ocean in the world?

A. India Ocean

B. Atlantic Ocean

C. Pacific Ocean

D. Southern Ocean

Q. 84 Major requirement of Protein in the body is for _____.

A. Energy

B. Growth

C. Repair

D. Immunity

Q. 85 The highest unit of classification is ______.

A. Species

B. Family

C. Class

D. Kingdom

Q. 86 The blood groups in man were discovered by ______.

A. Mendel

B. Francis Nelson

C. Aristotle

D. Landsteiner

Q. 87 Which of the following relation is correct?

A. Speed = Distance x Time

B. Speed = Distance/Time

C. Speed = Time/Distance

D. Speed = 1/Distance x Time

Q. 88 What happens when a bulb gets fused?

A. Filament becomes cold

B. Filament gets broken

C. Filament becomes thick

D. Filament becomes thin

Q. 89 Coding is the process of ______.

A. Executing a program

B. Multitasking

C. Writing out computer instructions

D. Restarting the computer

Q. 90 If we open a bottle of perfume, its smell spreads in the entire room within a short time due to the process of _____.

A. Evaporation

B. Sublimation

C. Diffusion

D. Decantation

Q. 91 The elements of group 18 are ______.

A. Halogens

B. Noble gases

C. Metals

D. Alkaline earth metals

Q. 92 Match the following:

Pollutant Effect

A. Smog 1. Reduces oxygen carrying capacity of blood

B. Carbon monoxide 2. Permanent lung damage

C. Sulphur dioxide 3. Asthma, Cough

A. C-1, A-3, B-2

B. A-3, B-1, C-2

C. B-2, A-3, C-1

D. C-2, A-1, B-3

Q. 93 On whose 125th birth anniversary did the “Gram Uday se Bharat Uday Abhiyan” initiate?

A. Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

B. Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar

C. Mahatma Gandhi

D. Pt. Jawahrlal Nehru

Q. 94 What was discovered by Ernest Orlando Lawrence?

A. Electric Motor

B. Electricity

C. Electric Fan

D. Cyclotron

Q. 95 Who is known as “The Wizard of Hockey”?

A. Maurice Richard

B. Bobby Hull

C. Manzoor Hussain

D. Major Dhyanchand

Q. 96 What are the paintings done on walls and rock surfaces like roofs and sides called?

A. Chikan

B. Mural

C. Patola

D. Jataka

Q. 97 Which company has won the prestigious “Golden Globe Tiger Award” for excellence and leadership for the year 2017?

A. Coal India Limited

B. Gujarat Narmada Valley Fertilisers and Chemicals Limited

C. Delhi Metro Rail Corporation

D. National Fertilisers limited

Q. 98 Who is the author of the book named “The Race of My Life”?

A. Chris Gayle

B. Milkha Singh

C. Anil Kumble

D. Kapil Dev

Q. 99 Which o the following lays out the rules and regulations for diplomatic relations between countries?

A. Bangkok Convention

B. Veinna Convention

C. Kyoto Convention

D. Singapore Convention

Q. 100 About what percentage of water of Indus river system is received by Pakistan under Indus Water Treaty?

A. 60

B. 70

C. 80

D. 90

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	B	B	D	A	D	C	C	C	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	D	B	C	C	A	D	D	A	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	A	C	C	B	C	A	B	D	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	C	A	A	A	D	A	A	A	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	B	A	B	D	C	D	C	B	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	C	A	C	D	B	C	C	C	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	A	B	C	B	D	B	C	A	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	B	C	D	A	A	A	D	D	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	A	B	B	B	D	D	B	B	C	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	B	B	D	D	B	B	B	B	C

SSC MTS Tier-I 12 October 2017 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC MTS Tier 1 2017 12 Oct Shift 1

Q. 1 In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 2 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 7

Q. 3 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix- I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix – II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘P’ can be represented by 22, 75, etc, and ‘L’ can be represented by 20, 78, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word “WATCH”.

A. 34, 00, 96, 40, 65

B. 02, 01, 79, 68, 10

C. 02, 58, 79, 44, 65

D. 43, 33, 77, 03, 66

Q. 4 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 5 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 6 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 7 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 8 By interchanging which two signs the equation will be correct?

58÷2×29+6=10

A. + and ÷

B. × and =

C. + and ×

D. × and ÷

Q. 9 If 6 $ 4 @ 6 = 18 and 7 $ 6 @ 7 = 35, then 9 $ 3 @ 9 = ?

A. 12

B. 16

C. 18

D. 25

Q. 10 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Enact

2. Envoy

3. Evade

4. Embed

5. Ensue

A. 43125

B. 41523

C. 42513

D. 45123

Q. 11 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

5, 6, 10, 19, 35, ?

A. 57

B. 59

C. 60

D. 64

Q. 12 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

ACE, FHJ, KMO, ?

A. PQR

B. PRS

C. PRT

D. PTR

Q. 13 In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Cat

B. Horse

C. Snake

D. Cow

Q. 14 In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 13 – 169

B. 15 – 225

C. 16 – 256

D. 17 – 279

Q. 15 In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. DCA

B. MLJ

C. TSQ

D. WVS

Q. 16 Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

Players, Cricketer, Female

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 17 In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Brave : Timid : : Casual : ?

A. Seldom

B. Bizarre

C. Ordinary

D. Formal

Q. 18 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

216 : 12 : : 347 : ?

A. 84

B. 88

C. 90

D. 96

Q. 19 In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

GAP : FCM : : TIN : ?

A. SKK

B. UKL

C. SJL

D. UJK

Q. 20 In the following question, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

ACCESSORIES

A. RICE

B. STORE

C. SORES

D. CARE

Q. 21 Akshay remembers his anniversary is after 7th July but before 13th July. His wife remembers their anniversary is after 1st July but before 9th July. On which day of July is their anniversary?

A. 8th July

B. 9th July

C. 7th July

D. 8th July or 9th July

Q. 22 Sukesh, Gaurav, Ajay, Manjeet and Ranjeet are standing in a row facing north. Sukesh and Ranjeet are standing at ends. Gaurav and Manjeet cannot be at middle. Which of the following can be correct order of standing from right to left?

A. Manjeet, Ranjeet, Ajay, Gaurav, Sukesh

B. Ranjeet, Manjeet, Gaurav, Ajay, Sukesh

C. Sukesh, Ajay, Manjeet, Gaurav, Ranjeet

D. Ranjeet, Manjeet, Ajay, Gaurav, Sukesh

Statements:

I. All pens are pencils.

II. No pen is paper.

Conclusions:

I. Some pencils are paper.

II. Some pencils are not paper.

A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Only conclusion (II) follows.

C. Both conclusion follow.

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor conclusion (II) follows.

Q. 24 In a certain code language, “AUTO” is written as “BTUN”. How is “CEIL” written in that code language?

A. DDHM

B. DDHN

C. DDJK

D. DFHN

Q. 25 In a certain code language, “AIR” is written as “31” and “FOR” is written as “42”. How is “WET” written in that code language?

A. 49

B. 50

C. 51

D. 52

Q. 26 What is the value of the problem given in the figure?

A. 105

B. 95

C. 85

D. 90

Q. 27 What is the value of problem given in the figure?

A. 14

B. 15

C. 13

D. 17

Q. 28 What is the unit digit of product of problem given in the figure?

105521711?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 5

D. 7

Q. 29 Which of the following statement given in the figure is/are true?

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Q. 30 How many multiples of 3 are there from 1 to 100 which are not multiples of 2?

A. 17

B. 21

C. 34

D. 22

Q. 31 What is the value of problem given in the figure ?

A. √15 + √8

B. √21 + √2

C. √12 + √11

D. √13 + √10

Q. 32 A and B together can do a piece of work in 5 days and A alone can domit in 30 days. B alone can do the work in how many days?

A. 5

B. 6

C. 8

D. 10

Q. 33 Three taps A, B and C can fill a tank in 10, 12 and 15 hours respectively. How long (in hours) would the three taps take to fill the tank if all of them are opened together?

A. 4

B. 8

C. 6

D. 7

Q. 34 If the volume of two cubes are in the ratio 125 : 1, then what is the ratio of their edges?

A. 5 : 1

B. 10 : 1

C. 25 : 1

D. 125 : 1

Q. 35 The marked price of a chair is Rs 650 and a discount of 40% is given. What is the selling price (in Rs) of the chair?

A. 390

B. 440

C. 480

D. 520

Q. 36 The marked price of an article is Rs 840. A shopkeeper gives a discount of 40% and still makes a profit of 5%. What is the cost price (in Rs) of the article?

A. 480

B. 360

C. 420

D. 400

Q. 37 If A : B = 2 : 3 and B : C = 4 : 5, then what is A : B : C?

A. 8 : 12 : 15

B. 2 : 3 : 5

C. 2 : 4 : 5

D. 3 : 5 : 2

Q. 38 The ratio of two numbers is 2 : 5. If their difference is 36, then what is the smallest number?

A. 24

B. 28

C. 16

D. 18

Q. 39 The average of 23, 34, x, 21, 19 and 18 is 21. What is the value of x?

A. 9

B. 10

C. 11

D. 12

Q. 40 If the ratio of the cost price and selling price of an article is 5 : 3, then what will be the loss percentage?

A. 20

B. 40

C. 45

D. 50

Q. 41 A man gains 90% by selling an article for a certain price. If he sells it at half price, then what will be the loss percentage?

A. 5

B. 8

C. 15

D. 25

Q. 42 When 70 is subtracted from 25% of a number, the result is 20. What is the value of the number?

A. 180

B. 360

C. 480

D. 540

Q. 43 If Q got 40% less marks than P, then the !arks of P is how much percent more than that of Q?

A. 40

B. 33.33

C. 25

D. 66.66

Q. 44 A person goes from point L to M and comes back. His average speed for the whole journey is 50 km/hr. If his speed while going from L to M is 35 km/hr, then what will be the speed of the person (in km/hr) while coming back from M to L?

A. 62.5

B. 75

C. 87.5

D. 67.5

Q. 45 If 150 meters long train takes 10 seconds to cross a pole, then what is the speed (in km/hr) of the train?

A. 9

B. 18

C. 36

D. 54

Q. 46 A certain principal invested in a scheme of compound interest. The amount obtained after 1 year is Rs 3900 and the amount obtained after 2 years is Rs 5070. What is the rate of interest (in percentage) ?

A. 25

B. 30

C. 35

D. 37.5

Q. 47 The line chart given in the figure shows the number of students who have taken admission in college A and B from the years 2010 to 2015.

What is the average difference of number of students in college A and B in the given period?

A. 24

B. 48

C. 96

D. 144

Q. 48 The line chart given in the figure shows the number of students who have taken admission in college A and B from the years 2010 to 2015.

The difference between the number of students in both colleges is maximum in which year?

A. 2010

B. 2012

C. 2014

D. 2015

Q. 49 The line chart given in the figure shows the number of students who have taken admission in college A and B from the years 2010 to 2015.

What percentage of seats remained vacant in college B in 2015 if the capacity was 1000?

A. 2

B. 10

C. 20

D. 40

Q. 50 The line chart given in the figure shows the number of students who have taken admission in college A and B from the years 2010 to 2015.

In how many years, the number of students in college A is less than the average number of students in college B across all the years?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Q. 51 In the following question, some part of sentence may have errors. Find out which part of

the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from

error, select ‘No Error’.

There is no doubt that Oltmans is(1)/ a very good coach and helped an (2)/ Indian cricket

team take bold strides (3)/ No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 52 In the following question, some part of sentence may have errors. Find out which part of

the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from

error, select ‘No Error’.

The rival teams scored three goals (1)/ with 10 circle penetrations against us and (2)/ we did

scored just one off 15 (3)/ No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 53 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled with an appropriate

word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the

appropriate option.

Only one of the students _____ not done the homework given yesterday

A. is

B. has

C. could

D. have

Q. 54 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled with an appropriate

word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the

appropriate option.

Government is trying to ______ the former glory of Red Fort.

A. create

B. rehab

C. restore

D. survive

Q. 55 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best

expresses the meaning of the given word.

Banish

A. Expel

B. Allow

C. Keep

D. Welcome

Q. 56 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best

expresses the meaning of the given word.

Audacious

A. Gentle

B. Bold

C. Humble

D. Mild

Q. 57 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best

expresses the meaning of the given word.

Abbreviate

A. Long

B. Shorten

C. Large

D. Huge

Q. 58 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is

opposite in meaning of the given word.

Adultery

A. Affair

B. Fling

C. Cheating

D. Purity

Q. 59 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is

opposite in meaning of the given word.

Brazen

A. Bold

B. Modest

C. Flashy

D. Forward

Q. 60 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is

opposite in meaning of the given word.

Certify

A. Approve

B. Disapprove

C. Attest

D. Notify

Q. 61 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which

best expresses the meaning of Idiom/Phrase.

Be wet behind the ears

A. An infectious diseases

B. To deceive someone

C. Not very experienced

D. Go upto the extreme

Q. 62 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which

best expresses the meaning of Idiom/Phrase.

Drive something home

A. To keep a secret

B. To emphasize an important point

C. To think about his/her welfare

D. To fool someone

Q. 63 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

It is still doubtful whether demand for industrial output (is went to) attain any meaningful

strength.

A. is going to

B. is becoming to

C. is making to

D. No improvement

Q. 64 Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

Most of the surveys suggest that consumer sentiment (have) deteriorate steadily in recent

months.

A. must

B. has

C. will

D. No improvement

Q. 65 In the following question, out of four given alternatives, select the alternative which is best

substitute of the phrase.

Allowance paid to wife on legal separation

A. Alimony

B. Ceremony

C. Antimony

D. Testimony

Q. 66 In the following question, out of four given alternatives, select the alternative which is best

substitute of the phrase.

Loss of memory

A. Panacea

B. Anaesthesia

C. Amnesia

D. Amusia

Q. 67 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which one is

correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Aboulish

B. Abolish

C. Abolesh

D. Ebolish

Q. 68 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which one is

correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Ebsence

B. Absence

C. Abcense

D. Absense

Q. 69 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

A safe and secure

P: women to take up a variety

Q: environment may allow more

R: of jobs or run a business

A. PQR

B. QPR

C. RPQ

D. RQP

Q. 70 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

Non renewable

P: resources are those

Q: after few years of use

R: which will get exhausted

A. PQR

B. RQP

C. PRQ

D. QRP

Q. 71 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully

and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

a person with _____ morals is involved in good deeds and always know it. A person doing

bad deeds at the same time may always consider it right in _____ to the society he lives in

but is actually having bad _____ . If the ethical and moral values of a person have declined,

he will never feel any shame or fear in performing a wrong deed or even a _____ crime as it

is something appropriate by his morals and ethics. Most of the times, it is experiences and

the way a person is _____ up that decide his actions and hence his morality and ethics.

A person with _____ morals is involved in good

A. bad

B. good

C. neutral

D. trnsient

Q. 72 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully

and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

A person with _____ morals is involved in good deeds and always know it. A person doing

bad deeds at the same time may always consider it right in _____ to the society he lives in

but is actually having bad _____ . If the ethical and moral values of a person have declined,

he will never feel any shame or fear in performing a wrong deed or even a _____ crime as it

is something appropriate by his morals and ethics. Most of the times, it is experiences and

the way a person is _____ up that decide his actions and hence his morality and ethics.

it right in _____ to the society

A. sedating

B. irritating

C. adaptating

D. adopting

Q. 73 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully

and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

A person with _____ morals is involved in good deeds and always know it. A person doing

bad deeds at the same time may always consider it right in _____ to the society he lives in

but is actually having bad _____ . If the ethical and moral values of a person have declined,

he will never feel any shame or fear in performing a wrong deed or even a _____ crime as it

is something appropriate by his morals and ethics. Most of the times, it is experiences and

the way a person is _____ up that decide his actions and hence his morality and ethics.

actually having bad _____ .

A. murals

B. corals

C. cultural

D. morals

Q. 74 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully

and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

A person with _____ morals is involved in good deeds and always know it. A person doing

bad deeds at the same time may always consider it right in _____ to the society he lives in

but is actually having bad _____ . If the ethical and moral values of a person have declined,

he will never feel any shame or fear in performing a wrong deed or even a _____ crime as it

is something appropriate by his morals and ethics. Most of the times, it is experiences and

the way a person is _____ up that decide his actions and hence his morality and ethics.

wrong deed or even a _____ crime

A. serious

B. usual

C. casual

D. mere

Q. 75 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully

and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

A person with _____ morals is involved in good deeds and always know it. A person doing

bad deeds at the same time may always consider it right in _____ to the society he lives in

but is actually having bad _____ . If the ethical and moral values of a person have declined,

he will never feel any shame or fear in performing a wrong deed or even a _____ crime as it

is something appropriate by his morals and ethics. Most of the times, it is experiences and

the way a person is _____ up that decide his actions and hence his morality and ethics.

person is _____ up that decide his actions

A. bought

B. caught

C. sort

D. brought

Q. 76 How is National Income calculated?

A. Net National product – Indirect taxes + Subsidies

B. Net Domestic product – Indirect taxes – Depreciation

C. Net Domestic Product + Indirect taxes – Depreciation

D. Net National Product + Indirect taxes – Depreciation

Q. 77 Economic activities, though, are grouped into three different categories are highly ______.

A. independent

B. autonomous

C. unconnected

D. interdependent

Q. 78 Which among the following is/are organ/organs of Indian Government?

I. The Media

II. The Legislature

III. The Executive

IV. The Judiciary

A. I and II

B. I, II and III

C. II, III and IV

D. I, III and IV

Q. 79 Which form of government enhances the dignity of citizens?

A. Aristocratic

B. Autocratic

C. Democratic

D. Monarchic

Q. 80 In which year did Jalianwala Bagh massacre happened?

A. 1910

B. 1925

C. 1919

D. 1915

Q. 81

Arrange the following dynasties in the correct order according to their period of their rule.

1. Tughlak Dynasty

2. Lodi Dynasty

3. Sayyid Dynasty

4. Khilji Dynasty

A. 2, 1, 4, 3

B. 4, 1, 3, 2

C. 3, 1, 2, 4

D. 1, 4, 2, 3

Q. 82 Which of the following latitude passes through the Europe?

A. Arctic Circle

B. Tropic of Cancer

C. Antarctic Circle

D. Tropic of Capricorn

Q. 83 What is the approximate north-south extent of India from Kashmir to Kanyakumari (in km)?

A. 2500

B. 2900

C. 3200

D. 3600

Q. 84 The part of food that is NOT digested in the body is _____.

A. Carbohydrate

B. Cellulose

C. Proteins

D. Fat

Q. 85 Which of the following processes keeps plant cool?

A. Transpiration

B. Tropisms

C. Photosynthesis

D. Germination

Q. 86 In which organ the blood is stored?

A. Spleen

B. Liver

C. Kidney

D. Heart

Q. 87 The meter that measures the distance moved by the vehicle is called _____.

A. Speedometer

B. Odometer

C. Chronometer

D. Barometer

Q. 88 What is the change in the direction of light by a mirror is called?

A. Absorption of light

B. Refraction of light

C. Reflection of light

D. Diffraction of light

Q. 89 Windows is an example of _____.

A. an operating system

B. a programming language

C. a file manager

D. a web browser

Q. 90 Atomic theory was given by _____.

A. John Dalton

B. Robert Brown

C. E. Rutherford

D. E. Goldstein

Q. 91 Which amongst the following in NOT a noble gas?

A. Helium

B. Xenon

C. Radium

D. Argon

Q. 92 The autotrophs or the producers exist at which trophic level of the food chain?

A. First

B. Second

C. Third

D. Fourth

Q. 93 Which person launched the Rashtriya Avishkar Abhiyan on 09 July @015?

A. Prakash Javadekar

B. Smriti Irani

C. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

D. Narendra Modi

Q. 94 What was discovered by F. Banting?

A. Penicillin

B. Bacteria

C. Insulin

D. Oxygen

Q. 95 For which of the following sports the famous “Golden Ball Award” is presented?

A. Cricket

B. Hockey

C. Football

D. Tennis

Q. 96 Which is the oldest literary heritage of mankind?

A. Rig Veda

B. Ashtadhyayi

C. Ratnavali

D. Arthashastra

Q. 97 Who has been selected by the US-India Business Council for the “Trans-formative Chief

Minister Award”?

A. Vijay Rupani

B. Pinaraji Vijayan

C. Amarinder Singh

D. N. Chandrababu Naidu

Q. 98 Who is the author of the book named “Unhappy India”?

A. Jawaharlal Nehru

B. Lala Lajpat Rai

C. Sanjay Baru

D. Jai Shankar Prasad

Q. 99 Which organisation has ruled that China’s claims of historical rights over south China Sea

have no legal basis?

A. UN International Law Commission

B. International Court of Justice

C. Permanent Court of Arbitration

D. None of these

Q. 100 Which project allows the shipping segment from Kolkata to Sittwe in Myanmar?

A. Open sky

B. Kaladan

C. Arun-III

D. Sankat Mochan

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	D	C	B	D	D	C	D	C	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	C	C	D	D	C	D	A	A	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	D	B	C	C	B	C	A	B	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	B	A	A	A	A	A	A	C	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	C	D	C	D	B	B	B	B	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	C	B	C	A	B	B	D	B	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	B	A	B	A	C	B	B	B	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	C	D	A	D	D	D	C	C	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	A	C	B	A	A	B	B	C	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	A	C	C	C	A	D	B	C	B

SSC MTS Tier-I 10 October 2017 Shift-III Previous Year Paper

SSC MTS Tier 1 2017 10 Oct Shift 3

Q. 1 In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

A. 36

B. 24

C. 42

D. 66

Q. 2 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

A. 6

B. 7

C. 4

D. 10

Q. 3 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix – I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix – II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘E’ can be represented by 32, 67 etc, and ‘A’ can be represented by 12, 68 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the words ‘LOCKS’.

A. 23, 89, 31, 10, 12

B. 01, 13, 67, 86, 11

C. 23, 13, 31, 40, 59

D. 01, 57, 31, 85, 11

Q. 4 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 5 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 6 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 7 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 8 If ‘-‘ means ‘/’, ‘/’ means ‘-‘, ‘+’ means ‘x’ and ” means ‘+’, then which of the following equation is true?

A. 11 x 2 + 9 – 3 = 15

B. 14 + 2 – 4 x 6 = 14

C. 19 + 2 x 6 – 3 = 40

D. 9 – 6 + 12 x 2 = 22

Q. 9 If 27 @ 22 = 25 and 39 @ 33 = 36, then 25 @ 22 = ?

A. 25

B. 49

C. 16

D. 9

Q. 10 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Guard

2. Guest

3. Grain

4. Grove

5. Graph

A. 54312

B. 34521

C. 35124

D. 35412

Q. 11 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

4, 6, 10, 18, 34, 66, ?

A. 128

B. 126

C. 130

D. 132

Q. 12 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

D, F, H, J, ?

A. K

B. L

C. M

D. H

Q. 13 In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Tornado

B. Volcano

C. Typhoon

D. Hurricane

Q. 14 In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 24 – 124

B. 35 – 215

C. 63 – 513

D. 15 – 63

Q. 15 In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. ACF

B. JLP

C. RTW

D. GIL

Q. 16 Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship between the given classes.

Female, Teacher, Writer

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 17 In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Mustard : Seed : : Cauliflower : ?

A. Fruit

B. White

C. Vegetable

D. Ground

Q. 18 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

6 : 64 : : 11 : ?

A. 149

B. 100

C. 121

D. 169

Q. 19 In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

POST : NMQR : : HUNT : ?

A. GTMR

B. FSLR

C. FSMR

D. GTLR

Q. 20 In the following question, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of given word.

AWARDING

A. SIGN

B. WIND

C. WAR

D. AWARD

Q. 21 Sanjay walks 10 km towards East. He turns right and walks 5 km. He turns right and walks 10 km. How far (in km) is he from his starting point?

A. 10

B. 5

C. 15

D. 20

Q. 22 There are 47 cars in a row. A black car is 18th from the right end and the white car is 39th from the right end. How many cars are there between black and white car?

A. 21

B. 20

C. 19

D. 18

Q. 23 In the following question, below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

I – All red are coal.

II – Some red are green.

Conclusions:

I – All red are green.

II – Some coals are green.

A. Only I follows

B. Only II follows

C. Both follow

D. Neither I nor II follows

Q. 24 In a certain code language, “DATE” is written as “EBUF”. How is “CHIP” written in that code language?

A. DIJQ

B. DIJR

C. DIKQ

D. DJJQ

Q. 25 Ina certain code language, “EAR” is written as “23” and “EYE” is written as “34”. How is “ARM” written in that code language?

A. 30

B. 31

C. 32

D. 33

Q. 26 What is the least number which leaves 1 as a remainder when divided by 6 and 7?

A. 85

B. 43

C. 37

D. 29

Q. 27 What is the value of 0.001040?

A. 104/1000

B. 104/1000000

C. 104/100000

D. 104/10000

Q. 28 If 465781P is completely divisible by 12, then what is the vale of P?

A. 2

B. 6

C. 2 or 6

D. 8

Q. 29 What is the value of √(269 – √169)?

A. 17

B. 15

C. 22

D. 16

Q. 30 What is the value of 296 x 304?

A. 89974

B. 89874

C. 79984

D. 89984

Q. 31 What is the value of (√5 – √3) / (√5 + √3)?

A. 4 – √15

B. 6 – 2√15

C. 8 – 2√15

D. 4 + √15

Q. 32 Three taps A, B and C can fill a tank in 10, 12 and 15 hours respectively. If all the taps are opened together, then in how many hours will the tank be filled?

A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 2

Q. 33 Two pipes P and Q can fill the tank alone in 20 and 30 hours respectively. If both pipes are opened together, then in how many hours will the tank be filled?

A. 12

B. 24

C. 8

D. 15

Q. 34 The length and breadth of a rectangle are in the ratio 8 : 3. If the perimeter of the rectangle is 220 cm, then what is the length (in cm) of the rectangle?

A. 60

B. 70

C. 80

D. 85

Q. 35 If the difference between a discount of 30% and two successive discounts of 20% on a certain bill is Rs 42, then what is the amount (in Rs) of the bill?

A. 400

B. 300

C. 700

D. 820

Q. 36 If a shopkeeper marks the price of goods 40% more than their cost price and allows a discount of 30%, then what is his gain or loss percent?

A. 5% loss

B. 10% loss

C. 2% loss

D. 7.5% profit

Q. 37 Incomes of X and Y are in the ratio of 5 : 3. Their expenditures are in the ratio 9 : 5. If both save Rs 1600 at the end of the month, then what is the income (in Rs) of X?

A. 18000

B. 16000

C. 9600

D. 14000

Q. 38 If 6.3 of a = 1.17 of b, then what is a : b?

A. 13 : 70

B. 91 : 7

C. 7 : 130

D. 13 : 7

Q. 39 Average of 5 consecutive even numbers is 42. Which number is the largest of the 5 numbers?

A. 44

B. 46

C. 42

D. 48

Q. 40 A sold a cycle to B at a profit of 20%. B sold the cycle to C at a profit of 30%. If C pays Rs 468 for cycle, then for how much (in Rs) A bought the cycle?

A. 320

B. 400

C. 300

D. 280

Q. 41 By selling an article for Rs 360 there is a loss of 10%. What is the cost price (in Rs) of the article?

A. 324

B. 450

C. 400

D. 380

Q. 42 A number is increased first by 20% and then it is decreased by 10%. What is the percentage change in the number?

A. 8% decrease

B. 10% decrease

C. 10% increase

D. 8% increase

Q. 43 A is 20% less than B. B is 10% less than C. C is 30% more than D. If D is 400, then what is the value of A?

A. 374.4

B. 368.6

C. 382.2

D. 354.2

Q. 44 The speed of a boat in still water is 8 km/hr. It covers a distance of 52 km upstream in 8 hours. What is the speed (in km/hr) of the stream?

A. 1.5

B. 2

C. 3

D. 2.5

Q. 45 A train running with a speed of 45 km/hr, crosses a telephone pole. If the length of the train is 810 meters, then what is the time taken (in seconds) by the train to cross the pole?

A. 66

B. 64.8

C. 68

D. 67.2

Q. 46 In how much time (in years) will Rs 9000 amount to Rs 13500 at simple interest at the rate of 5% per annum?

A. 15

B. 10

C. 12

D. 13

Questions: 47 – 50

The line chart given shows the number of cars manufactured (in 000′) by company X in the year 2015 from the month of July to December.

Q. 47 What is the percentage change in the number of cars manufactured in December to that in July?

A. 130

B. 80

C. 160

D. 140

Q. 48 What is the difference between the maximum and a minimum number of cars

manufactured among the given months as a percentage of the cars manufactured in September?

A. 250

B. 300

C. 150

D. 200

Q. 49 What is the average number of cars manufactured (in 000′) by the company X from July to November?

A. 105

B. 100

C. 115

D. 141

Q. 50 In how many months was the number of cars manufactured a multiple of 10,000?

A. 6

B. 5

C. 4

D. 7

Questions: 51 – 52

In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No error’.

Q. 51 But migrant laborers who (1) / are being working inside the (2) / premises for years. (3) / No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 52 Someone who used to follow (1) / the Satguru told me that I could (2) / work here. (3) / No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Questions: 53 – 54

In the following question, the sentence is given with a blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Q. 53 Sohail was busy when we _______ to see him.

A. went

B. go

C. goes

D. gone

Q. 54 My parents have given their _______ to the match.

A. refuse

B. accept

C. assent

D. expect

Questions: 55 – 57

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Q. 55 A similar word for ‘TACKLE’ is

A. Avoid

B. Forget

C. Neglect

D. Deal

Q. 56 A similar word for ‘SMUDGE’ is

A. Clean

B. Sanitary

C. Pure

D. Stain

Q. 57 A similar word for ‘UNANIMOUS’ is

A. Split

B. Undisputed

C. Cleaved

D. Seperate

Questions: 58 – 60

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in the meaning of the given word.

Q. 58 Opposite meaning of ‘DEFY’ is

A. Brave

B. Yield

C. Defeat

D. Ignore

Q. 59 Opposite meaning of ‘OBLIGATE’ is

A. Force

B. In debt

C. Restrict

D. Let off

Q. 60 Opposite meaning of ‘STERN’ is

A. Bitter

B. Cruel

C. Light

D. Grim

Questions: 61 – 62

In the following question, out of the four given alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Q. 61 To pull one’s leg

A. To everyone’s liking

B. To make fool of

C. To bribe

D. To be afraid of

Q. 62 Snake in the grass

A. Very clear

B. Something mandatory

C. A hidden enemy

D. An exciting moment

Questions: 63 – 64

Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

Q. 63 But she (win more) hearts for her gallant display of endurance.

A. winned more

B. won more

C. wan more

D. No improvement

Q. 64 In doing so, she (farther) raised the profile of badminton and of women’s sport itself in India.

A. far away

B. far off

C. further

D. No improvement

Questions: 65 – 66

In the following question, out of the four given alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

Q. 65 A portable radio set

A. Transistor

B. Transcription

C. Transposition

D. Transaction

Q. 66 The bony framework of the body

A. Respiratory system

B. Skeleton

C. Neurons

D. Arteries

Q. 67 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Woolen

B. Woollen

C. Wollen

D. Wolen

Q. 68 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Sukceed

B. Succed

C. Sucede

D. Succeed

Questions: 69 – 70

Rearrange the parts of the sentence in the correct order.

Q. 69 Deforestation is

P: society and environment

Q: arising as a major

R: problem to the

A. QRP

B. PRQ

C. QPR

D. RPQ

Q. 70 Stress is said to be positive

P: an opportunity for

Q: one to give something

R: when the situation offers

A. QRP

B. RPQ

C. PQR

D. RQP

Questions: 71 – 75

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Reading habit is one of the best characteristics that a man can possess. Once the habit of reading books grows in one, it _______ dies out. It is said that a book is one’s best friend in life. By reading a good book, one cannot only earn knowledge but also ________ experience in life, and realize the eternal truth. A good book can guide one in the ________ direction in his life’s journey. The taste of reading should be acquired early in life because a good book refreshes one’s mind and brings _________ pleasure. Just to read any book, whatever comes near hand, is not called a good reading habit, because worthless books cannot provide knowledge. It is only a good book that can provide innocent joy and pure wisdom that one _________. So there must be a proper selection of books which are to be read.

Q. 71 it _______ dies out.

A. seldom

B. thinks

C. usually

D. frequently

Q. 72 knowledge but also ________ experience

A. wain

B. gain

C. slain

D. wane

Q. 73 guide one in the ________ direction in his life’s

A. lift

B. wrong

C. right

D. front

Q. 74 brings _________ pleasure.

A. cense

B. commence

C. immense

D. condenses

Q. 75 pure wisdom that one _________.

A. ignores

B. retires

C. seperates

D. aspires

Q. 76 __________ by the government of the country makes money acceptable as a medium of exchange.

A. permission

B. instructions

C. authorisation

D. ownership

Q. 77 Literacy rate in India is measured after which age?

A. 5 years and above

B. 7 years and above

C. 9 years and above

D. 11 years and above

Q. 78 Which part of Indian constitution deals with ‘The Union and its Territories’?

A. Part I

B. Part II

C. Part III

D. Part IV

Q. 79 In which form of government the final decision-making power lies with those elected by the people?

A. Autocratic

B. Democratic

C. Aristocratic

D. Monarchic

Q. 80 Which is the oldest Veda among the four Vedas?

A. Rigveda

B. Samaveda

C. Yajurveda

D. Atharvaveda

Q. 81 Who was the scholar entrusted by Sultan Mahmud of Gazni to write an account of subcontinent?

A. Malik Jayasi

B. Al-Baruni

C. Amir Khusrau

D. Shah Latif

Q. 82 Movement of Earth on its axis is called _________.

A. Revolution

B. Rotation

C. Translation

D. Illumination

Q. 83 What is the approximate area of India (in lakh sq. km)?

A. 2.78

B. 3.28

C. 4.35

D. 3.6

Q. 84 Whch is/are NOT Abiotic components?

I. Plants

II. Animals

III. Water

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Both I and II

D. I, II and III

Q. 85 The incisor tooth is meant for ________.

A. Biting and Cutting

B. Chewing

C. Crushing

D. Churning

Q. 86 At high altitude, RBC’s of human blood will ________.

A. increase in number

B. decrease in number

C. decrease in size

D. increase in size

Q. 87 An object is said to be in what kind of motion if its speed keeps changing while moving along a straight line?

A. Uniform motion

B. Non uniform motion

C. Periodic motion

D. Aperiodic motion

Q. 88 When an electric current passes through a wire it behaves like a ________.

A. Fuse

B. Battery

C. Magnet

D. Element

Q. 89 What is the typed, submitted or transmitted data called in a computer system?

A. Output

B. Input

C. Router

D. Modem

Q. 90 Which of the following is an example of a mixture?

A. Glucose

B. Brass

C. CO₂

D. NO₂

Q. 91 A double bond between two carbon atoms is formed by ________.

A. the transfer of two protons from one carbon atom to another

B. the transfer of one electron from one carbon atom to another

C. two shared electron pairs

D. the sharing of two protons

Q. 92 All green plants and certain blue-green algae which can produce food by photosynthesis are called the __________.

A. Consumers

B. Producers

C. Decomposers

D. Bacteria

Q. 93 What is the minimum age for joining the National Pension Scheme?

A. 18 yers

B. 21 years

C. 25 years

D. 30 years

Q. 94 What was invented by Samuel Colt?

A. Revolver

B. Refrigerator

C. Safety Razor

D. Penicilin

Q. 95 Bull’s eye as associated with which sports?

A. Baseball

B. Badminton

C. Shooting

D. Polo

Q. 96 Which region of India is famous for Patola Print dupattas?

A. Jammu and Kashmir

B. Gujarat

C. Karnataka

D. Tamilnadu

Q. 97 Who among the following is NOT a recipient of Arjun Award 2017?

A. Cheteshwar Pujara

B. Mariyappan

C. Jasvir Singh

D. Anup Kumar

Q. 98 Who is the author of book named “Godan”?

A. Munshi Prem Chand

B. Rabindranath Tagore

C. Durga Das

D. B P Singh

Q. 99 Which of the following was adopted as an outcome document of 11th edition of the Asia- Europe Meeting Summit (ASEM-11) held in Mongolia?

A. Ulaanbaatar Declaration

B. Mongolia Declaration

C. Bangkok Framework

D. Hague Declaration

Q. 100 Which is the first Integrated Check Post on the India-Bangladesh Border?

A. Agartala Integrated Check-Post

B. Petrapole Integrated Check-Post

C. Hari Nagar Integrated Check-Post

D. Silchar Integrated Check-Post

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	C	D	D	B	D	A	C	D	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	B	B	C	B	C	C	C	B	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	B	B	A	B	B	C	A	D	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	A	A	C	C	C	B	A	B	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	A	A	B	B	C	D	C	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	C	A	C	D	D	B	B	D	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	C	B	C	A	B	B	D	A	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	B	C	C	D	C	B	A	B	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	B	B	C	A	A	B	C	B	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	B	A	A	C	B	D	A	A	A

SSC MTS Tier-I 10 October 2017 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC MTS Tier 1 2017 10 Oct Shift 2

Q. 1 In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

A. 1

B. 3

C. 5

D. 6

Q. 2 How many quadrilaterals are there in the given figure?

A. 9

B. 11

C. 13

D. 15

Q. 3 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix – I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix – II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘B’ can be represented by 30, 75 etc, and ‘E’ can be represented by 32, 69 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the words ‘PHONE’.

A. 21, 86, 98, 57, 32

B. 79, 34, 99 56, 13

C. 21, 59, 66, 42, 68

D. 79, 87, 66, 44, 10

Q. 4 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 5 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 6 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 7 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 8 By interchanging which two digits the equation will be correct?

47 x 3 / 2 + 15 = 33

A. 5 and 4

B. 7 and 5

C. 7 and 2

D. 3 and 4

Q. 9 If 4 * 7 * 6 = 698 and 3 * 5 * 0 = 572, then 6 * 2 * 1 = ?

A. 438

B. 938

C. 583

D. 843

Q. 10 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Onion

2. Onset

3. Oxide

4. Overt

5. Opera

A. 12543

B. 13542

C. 21345

D. 12345

Q. 11 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

67, 64, 59, 52, ?

A. 43

B. 47

C. 49

D. 45

Q. 12 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

CD, FG, IJ, LM, ?

A. OP

B. PQ

C. PO

D. QR

Q. 13 In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Lungs

B. Nose

C. Air pipe

D. Liver

Q. 14 In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 11 – 1331

B. 4 – 64

C. 5 – 25

D. 7 – 343

Q. 15 In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. WVX

B. QPR

C. KJL

D. GFI

Q. 16 Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship between the given classes.

Actor, Director, Male

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 17 In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Wine : Brewery : : Coin : ?

A. Locker

B. Wallet

C. Mint

D. Safe

Q. 18 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

4 : 64 : : 6 : ?

A. 216

B. 36

C. 98

D. 156

Q. 19 In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

BD : EH : : PX : ?

A. RA

B. SB

C. RB

D. SA

Q. 20 In the following question, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of given word.

TRANSFORMED

A. ROSE

B. TRADE

C. STRAP

D. SAND

Q. 21 If North-East is called East, North is called North-East and North-West is called North, then what will South be called as?

A. West

B. South-West

C. North-West

D. East

Q. 22 P is taller than Q. Q is shorter than R. S is taller than P but shorter than R. Who is the shortest?

A. Q

B. P

C. S

D. R

Statements:

I – Some blue are yellow.

II – Some yellow are green.

Conclusions:

I – Some blue are green.

II – Some blue are not green.

A. Only I follows

B. Only II follows

C. Both follow

D. Neither I nor II follows

Q. 24 In a certain code language, “GOT” is written as “HQW”. How is “HEN” written in that code language?

A. IGQ

B. GGQ

C. IFQ

D. IGO

Q. 25 Ina certain code language, “SUN” is written as “55” and “RAT” is written as “40”. How is “GUN” written in that code language?

A. 41

B. 42

C. 43

D. 47

Q. 26 The sum of two numbers is 7 and their product is 12. What is the sum of their reciprocals?

A. 7/12

B. 8/15

C. 7/13

D. 12/7

Q. 27 How many multiples of 5 are there from 1 to 200 which are not multiples of 4?

A. 40

B. 30

C. 25

D. 35

Q. 28 What is the value of √(18 – 2√77)?

A. √11 + √7

B. √12 – √5

C. √11 – √7

D. √13 – √4

Q. 29 How many factors of 420 are prime numbers?

A. 3

B. 15

C. 7

D. 4

Q. 30 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 9?

A. 234561

B. 444123

C. 555231

D. 65422

Q. 31 What is the value of [(0.4)³ + (0.6)³] / [(0.4)² + (0.6)² – (0.4)(0.6)]

A. 1.2

B. 1.1

C. 1.0

D. 0.9

Q. 32 A and B together can do a piece of work in 20 days and A alone can do it in 30 days. B alone can do the work in how many days?

A. 45

B. 60

C. 75

D. 90

Q. 33 If 2/5th of cistern is filled in 6 minutes, then what is the time (in minutes) needed to fill the remaining part?

A. 8

B. 9

C. 12

D. 10

Q. 34 The length and breadth of a rectangular field are in the ratio of 6 : 5. If the perimeter of the field is 132 meters, then what is its breadth (in meters)?

A. 24

B. 30

C. 35

D. 36

Q. 35 A trader allows two successive discounts of 30% and 40% on selling an article. If he sells that article for Rs 840, then what is the marked price (in Rs) of the article?

A. 2000

B. 1900

C. 1800

D. 1700

Q. 36 The marked price of an article is Rs 1050. A shopkeeper gives a discount of 30% and still makes a profit of 40%. What is the cost price (in Rs) of the article?

A. 495

B. 475

C. 500

D. 525

Q. 37 If 2/3 of P = 6/7 of Q, then what is P : Q?

A. 9 : 7

B. 9 : 5

C. 7 : 5

D. 5 : 7

Q. 38 If x/y = 3/5, then what is the ratio of (5x+2y) and (5x-y)?

A. 5 : 2

B. 5 : 3

C. 5 : 8

D. 3 : 8

Q. 39 The mean of 15 numbers is 40. If two numbers 45 and 35 are removed, then what will be the mean of remaining numbers?

A. 37.5

B. 40

C. 42.5

D. 38

Q. 40 If chairs are bought at Rs 1200 each and sold at Rs 150 each, then what will be the profit percentage?

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 25

Q. 41 If the ratio of the cost price and selling price of an article is 4 : 5, then what will be the profit percentage?

A. 25

B. 35

C. 40

D. 50

Q. 42 In a school 55% of the students are girls. If a number of boys are 360, then what is the total number of students in the school?

A. 720

B. 800

C. 1000

D. 1200

Q. 43 If the price of the commodity is decreased by 40% and its consumption is increased by 30%, then what will be the percentage increase or decrease in the expenditure of the commodity?

A. 22% decrease

B. 22% increase

C. 12% increase

D. 12% decrease

Q. 44 Speed of a boat along the current and against the current are 16 km/hr and 10 km/hr respectively. What is the speed (in km/hr) of current?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 1

Q. 45 If 200 meters long train takes 40 seconds to cross a pole, then what is the speed (in km/h) of the train?

A. 9

B. 18

C. 36

D. 45

Q. 46 A sum was invested on simple interest at a certain rate for 5 years. If the interest rate is increased by 2%, then the interest increases by Rs 190. What is the sum (in Rs) invested?

A. 1300

B. 1600

C. 1900

D. 2200

Questions: 47 – 50

The bar chart given shows the sales (in crores) of 2 companies A and B from years 2010 to 2015.

Q. 47 What is the average sale (in crores) of company A from years 2010 to 2015?

A. 315

B. 313.27

C. 350

D. 313.33

Q. 48 For how many years was the sale of company A greater than that of company B?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 49 What is the percentage change in the sale of a company B from year 2011 to 2012 ?

A. 100

B. 225

C. 150

D. 125

Q. 50 What is the difference (in crores) between the sales of Company A in 2012 and Company B in 2015?

A. 15

B. 150

C. 40

D. 140

Questions: 51 – 52

Q. 51 We look forward to an (1) / successful working relationship (2) / in the future. (3) / No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 52 Teachers Day shall be observed (1) / as non-teaching day (2) / in our campus. (3) / No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Questions: 53 – 54

Q. 53 When we got home last night, we found that the guest ______.

A. had arrived

B. has arrived

C. is arriving

D. have arrived

Q. 54 Throw a stone ______ the fierce cat.

A. above

B. on

C. at

D. forward

Questions: 55 – 57

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Q. 55 A similar word for ‘OBLIGATION’ is

A. Denial

B. Refusal

C. Commitment

D. Declination

Q. 56 A similar word for ‘NOTORIOUS’ is

A. Diseputable

B. Ethical

C. Honorable

D. Glorious

Q. 57 A similar word for ‘SAVAGE’ is

A. Civilized

B. Brutal

C. Tame

D. Domesticated

Questions: 58 – 60

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in the meaning of the given word.

Q. 58 Opposite meaning of ‘SOLACE’ is

A. Pity

B. Disharmony

C. Relief

D. Cheer

Q. 59 Opposite meaning of ‘GATHER’ is

A. Choose

B. Unite

C. Crowd

D. Divide

Q. 60 Opposite meaning of ‘INDUCE’ is

A. Convince

B. Activate

C. Impel

D. Prevent

Questions: 61 – 62

In the following question, out of the four given alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Q. 61 A burning question

A. A lengthy question

B. An important question

C. A useless question

D. An easy question

Q. 62 By hook or by crook

A. Causing trouble to

B. By all means

C. To fight against

D. To bear patiently

Questions: 63 – 64

Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

Q. 63 Last month (he makes news with his) “go whistle” comment to the leaders over outstanding dues.

A. he will make news with him

B. he made news with his

C. he makes news with him

D. No improvement

Q. 64 The term of a future partnership would be vastly (inferior on) comparison with the benefits of full membership.

A. inferior by

B. inferior to

C. inferior in

D. No improvement

Questions: 65 – 66

In the following question, out of the four given alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

Q. 65 A woman who entertains guests

A. Nurse

B. Waiter

C. Hostess

D. Maid

Q. 66 A reminder of something

A. Information

B. Letter

C. Brochure

D. Memento

Q. 67 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Sponsor

B. Esponsor

C. Sponser

D. Sponcer

Q. 68 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Satelite

B. Sattelite

C. Satellite

D. Sattellite

Questions: 69 – 70

Rearrange the parts of the sentence in the correct order.

Q. 69 A country cannot

P: development of its citizens

Q: the individual growth and

R: grow and develop without

A. PRQ

B. QRP

C. PQR

D. RQP

Q. 70 Everyone should

P: the same opportunities

Q: command the same

R: respect and enjpy

A. RQP

B. QRP

C. PQR

D. QPR

Questions: 71 – 75

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

One of the major problems os India is unemployment. Unemployment means the state of being without _________ opportunity of earning one’s livelihood. In the good, old, golden days when the population of the world was _____, there was hardly a person who was not employed in some way or other to earn a _______. But this situation no longer exists. In those days most people lived in the rural areas and depended on agriculture and cottage industries. But industrial _______ brought about a change in the situation. It introduced machines, and as a single machine can do the work of many men, it naturally threw many people out of employment. No doubt, this industrial civilization has greatly ________ the wants of and opened up many new opportunities for employment.

Q. 71 the state of being without _________ opportunity

A. any

B. every

C. either

D. neither

Q. 72 population of the world was _____,

A. popular

B. smaller

C. larger

D. significant

Q. 73 some way or other to earn a _______.

A. giving

B. liking

C. living

D. searching

Q. 74 But industrial _______ brought about a change

A. change

B. backwardness

C. barbarism

D. civilization

Q. 75 greatly ________ the wants of and opened

A. increased

B. balanced

C. decreased

D. sustained

Q. 76 Per-capita income is also called ________.

A. Gross National Product

B. Gross Domestic Product

C. Average Income

D. Total Income

Q. 77 What is a paper instructing the bank to pay a specific amount from one person’s account to another person’s account called?

A. Lease

B. Order

C. Cheque

D. Transfer

Q. 78 Which schedule of the Indian constitution deals with languages recognized by the constitution?

A. First Schedule

B. Second Schedule

C. Eight Schedule

D. Tenth Schedule

Q. 79 A _______ government rules within limits set by constitutional law and civil rights.

A. Monarchic

B. Autocratic

C. Aristocratic

D. Democratic

Q. 80 Who devised the Mahalwari Settlement?

A. Holt Mackenzie

B. Lord Dalhousie

C. Edmund Burke

D. Warren Hastings

Q. 81 Match the given columns.

A. A – 1, B – 2, C – 3

B. A – 1, B – 3, C – 2

C. A – 3, B – 1, C – 2

D. A – 2, B – 1, C – 3

Q. 82 What does the 66¹/₂ degrees south latitude mark?

A. Tropic of cancer

B. Tropic of capricorn

C. Arctic Circle

D. Antarctic Circle

Q. 83 What is the thickness of the crust on the continental masses (in km)?

A. 5

B. 15

C. 25

D. 35

Q. 84 What are the changes in our surrounding that makes us respond to them called?

A. Respiration

B. Excretion

C. Stimuli

D. Reproduction

Q. 85 The original function of the vertebrate stomach was _______.

A. Storage

B. Digestion

C. Bile juice secretion

D. mixing of food

Q. 86 A deficiency of vitamin A results in ______.

A. Pellagra

B. Rickets

C. Xerophthalmia

D. Color blindness

Q. 87 What is the time taken by the pendulum to complete one oscillation called?

A. Time period

B. Frequency

C. Amplitude

D. Vibration

Q. 88 What happens when an electric current is passed through a wire?

A. The wire gets cool

B. The wire gets hot.

C. The wire gets cool first and then gets hot.

D. No change occurs

Q. 89 The discarded file in the recycle bin gets removed permanently when ________.

A. the computer is shut down

B. it is emptied manually

C. the user is switched

D. data changes

Q. 90 A metal sulfate has the formula MSO₄. A chloride of the same metal will have the formula _______.

A. M₂Cl₃

B. M₂Cl

C. MCl₂

D. M₃C₃

Q. 91 The general name of the elements of 17th group are ________.

A. Metals

B. Halogens

C. Transition elements

D. Noble gases

Q. 92 Which among the following is NOT classified under consumers?

A. Herbivores

B. Carnivores

C. Omnivores

D. Autotrophs

Q. 93 Rashtriya Uchchatar Siksha Abhiyan was approved for reforming the state _______ education system.

A. Primary

B. Lower

C. Higher

D. Middle

Q. 94 Who built the first laser?

A. Theodore H Maiman

B. Henry Great Head

C. Benjamin Franklin

D. Issac Newton

Q. 95 Who was the first Indian to play for any international football club?

A. Micheal Chopra

B. Sunil Jhingan

C. Bhaichung Bhutiya

D. Sandesh Jhingan

Q. 96 The Mahayana text belongs to which religion?

A. Jainism

B. Sikhism

C. Buddhism

D. None of these

Q. 97 Which company has received Prime Minister’s trophy for ‘Best Performing Integrated Steel Plant’ for the performance years 2014-15 and 2015-16?

A. Gallant Steel Limited

B. Tata Steel Limited

C. Bharat Steel Limited

D. Ambuja Steel Limited

Q. 98 Who is the author of the book named “My Experiments with Truth”?

A. Harbans Singh

B. Satyajit Ray

C. Atal Bihari Vajpayee

D. M K Gandhi

Q. 99 Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) was established in 1987 by ________ countries.

A. G-20

B. G-4

C. NAM

D. G-7

Q. 100 The Indo-Lanka Economic and Technological Cooperation Agreement is a __________ agreement.

A. Trade

B. Cultural

C. Educational

D. Information Technology

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	C	B	A	B	B	A	C	D	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	A	D	C	D	C	C	A	B	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	A	D	A	C	A	B	C	D	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	B	B	B	A	D	A	A	B	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	B	B	B	B	C	D	B	C	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	B	A	C	C	A	B	B	D	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	B	B	C	C	D	A	C	D	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	B	C	D	A	C	C	C	D	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	D	D	C	A	C	A	B	B	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	D	C	A	C	C	B	D	D	A

SSC MTS Tier-I 10 October 2017 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC MTS Tier 1 2017 10 Oct Shift 1

Q. 1 In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

A. 33

B. 44

C. 66

D. 55

Q. 2 How many quadrilaterals are there in the given figure?

A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 9

Q. 3 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix – I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix – II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘W’ can be represented by 30, 95 etc, and ‘P’ can be represented by 13, 89 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the words ‘CROWN’.

A. 40, 57, 76, 95, 56

B. 04, 55, 75, 32, 22

C. 04, 55, 86, 95, 21

D. 40, 88, 75 , 31 57

Q. 4 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 5 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 6 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 7 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 8 If ‘L’ means ‘x’, ‘N’ means ‘+’, ‘O’ means ‘/’ and ‘P’ means ‘-‘, then 15 L 4 N 6 O 3 = ?

A. 32

B. 74

C. 50

D. 62

Q. 9 If 9 # 4 # 1 = 419 and 9 # 1 # 6 = 169, then 5 # 3 # 1 = ?

A. 315

B. 153

C. 351

D. 135

Q. 10 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Fight

2. Fifth

3. Fifty

4. Frank

5. Faith

A. 54123

B. 53124

C. 52314

D. 54321

Q. 11 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

11, 12, 16, 25, 41, ?

A. 61

B. 66

C. 64

D. 68

Q. 12 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

AC, DF, GI, ?

A. JK

B. JL

C. JM

D. KL

Q. 13 In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Arrow

B. Knife

C. Gun

D. Soldier

Q. 14 In the following question, select the odd number pair from the given alternatives.

A. 13 – 172

B. 15 – 228

C. 16 – 259

D. 17 – 282

Q. 15 In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. ACEG

B. KMOQ

C. SUWY

D. GILN

Q. 16 Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes. Pencil, Lead, Ink

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 17 In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Force : Newton : : Area : ?

A. Hertz

B. Volume

C. Metre

D. Hectare

Q. 18 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

29 : 59 : : 76 : ?

A. 147

B. 151

C. 153

D. 149

Q. 19 In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

SN : VR : : AJ : ?

A. CN

B. DN

C. CM

D. DM

Q. 20 In the following question, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of given word.

BROADCASTING

A. STAR

B. CAPS

C. GRAND

D. BROAD

Q. 21 Ankit is 5 times as heavy as Suraj. Suraj is one third the weight of Imran. Imran is 4/3 times as heavy as Shrey. Shrey is half the weight of Gagan. Who is the lightest?

A. Imran

B. Shrey

C. Suraj

D. Suraj or Shrey

Q. 22 The ratio of present ages of R and S is 5 : 7. 5 years ago R was 30 years old. What was the age (in years) of S 10 years ago?

A. 39

B. 32

C. 49

D. 42

Statements:

I – All oranges are sweet.

II – Some sweet are round.

Conclusions:

I – Some oranges are round.

II – Some oranges are not round.

A. Only I follows

B. Only II follows

C. Both follow

D. Neither I nor II follows

Q. 24 In a certain code language, “ARMS” is written as “BQNR”. How is “BELT” written in that code language?

A. CDMS

B. CDKS

C. fms

D. CFMU

Q. 25 Ina certain code language, “AGO” is written as “26” and “SUN” is written as “57”. How is “CRY” written in that code language?

A. 47

B. 48

C. 49

D. 50

Q. 26 A number when divided by 36 leaves remainder 25. What is the remainder when the same number is divided by 6?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 4

Q. 27 If 2785P3 is divisible by 11, then what will be the digit in place of P?

A. 2

B. 5

C. 8

D. 6

Q. 28 What is the value of ∛(340 + √9)?

A. 9

B. 7

C. 5

D. 19

Q. 29 What is the least number multiplied by 200, so that number obtained becomes multiple of 60?

A. 5

B. 15

C. 3

D. 8

Q. 30 What is the value of 26 x 34?

A. 904

B. 896

C. 908

D. 884

Q. 31 How many zeroes are there in product of 4⁶ x 15¹⁰?

A. 10

B. 12

C. 11

D. 6

Q. 32 A can do a piece of work in 20 days. He worked for 5 days and B finished the remaining work in 42 days. B alone can do the whole work in how many days?

A. 56

B. 52

C. 46

D. 64

Q. 33 Three taps, A, B and C can fill a tank in 40, 48 and 60 hours respectively. How long (in hours) would the three taps take to fill the tank if all of them are opened together?

A. 12

B. 16

C. 10

D. 8

Q. 34 If the ratio of edges of two cubes is 4 : 9 then what is the ratio of the volume of the two cubes?

A. 64 : 729

B. 16 : 81

C. 4 : 9

D. 2 : 3

Q. 35 The marked price of a chair is Rs 900 and a discount of 10% is given. What is the selling price (in Rs)?

A. 810

B. 890

C. 900

D. 870

Q. 36 The marked price of an article is Rs 550 and a customer pays Rs 495 for it. What is the discount percentage?

A. 10

B. 12

C. 15

D. 8

Q. 37 If (2/3) P = (4/5) Q = (3/2) R, then what is P : Q : R?

A. 18 : 15 : 8

B. 15 : 8 : 18

C. 2 : 4 : 3

D. 3 : 5 : 2

Q. 38 If 3A = 4B = 12C, then what is A : B : C?

A. 4 : 3 : 1

B. 4 : 3 : 2

C. 3 : 4 : 12

D. 12 : 4 : 3

Q. 39 The mean of 20 numbers is 35. If four numbers 24, 20, 21 and 27 are removed, then what will be the mean of remaining numbers?

A. 38

B. 40

C. 33

D. 37

Q. 40 An article is sold at 5% profit instead of 8% loss, the man gains Rs 260 more. What is the cost price (in Rs) of the article?

A. 1800

B. 2000

C. 1500

D. 1400

Q. 41 If the profit is 10%, then what will be the ratio of the cost price to selling price respectively?

A. 10 : 9

B. 10 : 11

C. 10 : 13

D. 4 : 5

Q. 42 If the price of a commodity is decreased by 20% and its consumption is increased by 30%, then what will be the percentage increase or decrease in the expenditure of the commodity?

A. 10% decrease

B. 10% increase

C. 4% increase

D. 4% decrease

Q. 43 If the price of a commodity is decreased by 30% and its consumption is increased by 30%, then what will be the percentage increase or decrease in the expenditure of the commodity?

A. 9% decrease

B. 9% increase

C. 11% increase

D. 11% decrease

Q. 44 Speed of a boat along the current and against the current are 16 km/hr and 12 km/hr respectively. What is the speed of boat (in km/hr) in still water?

A. 2

B. 7

C. 14

D. 12

Q. 45 A man travels 3 hours of the journey at a speed of 100 km/hr and remaining 2 hours of the journey at 120 km/hr. What is the average speed (in km/hr) of the entire journey?

A. 105

B. 110

C. 108

D. 107

Q. 46 An amount invested at simple interest gives Rs 4200 interest at a rate of 15% in 4 years. What is the principal (in Rs)?

A. 7000

B. 6000

C. 8000

D. 9000

Questions: 47 – 50

The bar chart given shows the sales (in crores) of company P from years 2009 to 2015.

Q. 47 What is the percentage change in sales from the year 2010 to 2014?

A. 75

B. 175

C. 16.67

D. 25

Q. 48 What is the average sale (in crores) from the year 2009 to 2013?

A. 340

B. 336

C. 360

D. 350

Q. 49 In how many years, the sale was more than that in the year 2012?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Q. 50 What is the percentage change in the sale from the year 2009 to 2013?

A. 225

B. 150

C. 100

D. 125

Questions: 51 – 52

Q. 51 These are super-interesting activities (1) / keep your little one engaged (2) / thrilled and off TV. (3) / No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 52 Since they got something (1) / different each month (2) / they keep coming back to it. (3) / No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Questions: 53 – 54

Q. 53 They look like ________.

A. our

B. ours

C. us

D. we

Q. 54 Both Sushant _____ Rohit are handsome.

A. as well as

B. and

C. or

D. neither

Questions: 55 – 57

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Q. 55 A similar word for ‘SUBSIDE’ is

A. Descend

B. Enlarge

C. Prolong

D. Ascend

Q. 56 A similar word for ‘INVADE’ is

A. Abuse

B. Ravage

C. Trash

D. Shred

Q. 57 A similar word for ‘STEADY’ is

A. Vulnerable

B. Flexible

C. Abiding

D. Wobbly

Questions: 58 – 60

In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in the meaning of the given word.

Q. 58 Opposite meaning of ‘IMMACULATE’ is

A. Clean

B. Bright

C. Pure

D. Foul

Q. 59 Opposite meaning of ‘IMPUTE’ is

A. Defend

B. Accuse

C. Assign

D. Blame

Q. 60 Opposite meaning of ‘FORSAKE’ is

A. Desert

B. Forgo

C. Give up

D. Revert

Questions: 61 – 62

In the following question, out of the four given alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Q. 61 To doctor the accounts

A. Very costly tratment

B. To manipulate the accounts

C. High class treatment

D. Auditing of accounts

Q. 62 On the brink of disaster

A. Something still in hand

B. Natural destruction

C. To die

D. Very close to failure

Questions: 63 – 64

Improve the bracketed part of the sentence.

Q. 63 Nothing (shows on) the ineptness of the state more than unpreparedness in the face of predictable events.

A. shows off

B. shows in

C. shows up

D. No improvement

Q. 64 Prohibitory orders (will not) enforced, with the government evidently viewing the looming protests as a pressure relief valves instead of as trigger points for violence.

A. were not

B. willingly

C. were be

D. No improvement

Questions: 65 – 66

In the following question, out of the four given alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the phrase.

Q. 65 A place where arms are kept

A. Auditory

B. Armoury

C. Apiary

D. Actuary

Q. 66 A medical examination of a dead body

A. Premortem

B. Postmortem

C. Prenatal

D. Postnatal

Q. 67 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Eighth

B. Eaight

C. Aight

D. Eihght

Q. 68 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Grammar

B. Grammer

C. Grammured

D. Grammor

Questions: 69 – 70

Rearrange the parts of the sentence in the correct order.

Q. 69 If you shun responsibility

P: accept slavery in

Q: some way or another way

R: you have to

A. PQR

B. RQP

C. QPR

D. RPQ

Q. 70 Digital India programme

P: government of India of make this

Q: s a big step taken by the

R: country a digitally empowered country

A. QPR

B. RPQ

C. PQR

D. RQP

Questions: 71 – 75

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Today, when India is _______, these officials representing all government departments are very close to the most corrupt businessmen who are too ________ to let any opportunity of amassing profits _________. This collusion broadens the base of the vicious circle and corruption spreads like wildfire to ________ the entire society. The political and social guardians depend only too much on the richer communities and they look indulgently on while these communities hold the entire society and the government to _________.

Q. 71Today, when India is _______,

A. free

B. bound

C. restricted

D. chained

Q. 72 who are too ________ to let any opportunity

A. ethical

B. unscrupulous

C. principal

D. trustworthy

Q. 73 of amassing profits _________.

A. inflates

B. rises

C. slip

D. surges

Q. 74 like wildfire to ________ the entire society.

A. complete

B. finish

C. engulf

D. deteriorate

Q. 75 society and the government to _________.

A. restrain

B. detain

C. restrict

D. ransom

Q. 76 Average income is also called ________.

A. Net National Income

B. Net National Product

C. Per-capita Income

D. Total Income

Q. 77 Which among the following constitute money in the modern economy?

A. Only currency – paper notes and coins

B. Only demand deposits

C. Both currency – paper notes and coins and demand deposits

D. None of these

Q. 78 What is the amount reduced by a token cut in case of a financial bill (in Rs)?

A. 1

B. 100

C. 150

D. 1000

Q. 79 A ________ government is a better government because it is a more accountable form of government.

A. Democratic

B. Monoarchic

C. Aristocratic

D. Autocratic

Q. 80 In how many Varnas people were divided in Ancient India?

A. 2

B. 6

C. 4

D. 5

Q. 81 The government complex in New Delhi consisted of a two-mile avenue which is present-day Rajpath, was known as __________.

A. Durbar

B. Civil lines

C. Kingsway

D. Bylane

Q. 82 The movement of the Earth around the Sun in a fixed path or orbit is called __________.

A. Revolution

B. Rotation

C. Translation

D. Illumination

Q. 83 What is the duration of hot weather season (summer) in India?

A. March to May

B. October and November

C. December to February

D. June to September

Q. 84 About 70% of our energy requirements should be met by _________.

A. Amino acids

B. Fats

C. Lipids

D. Carbohydrates

Q. 85 Gastric digestion takes place efficiently in ________.

A. acidic medium

B. basic medium

C. neutral medium

D. None if these

Q. 86 Rh factor is named after a species of ________.

A. Rat

B. Monkey

C. Whale

D. Snake

Q. 87 The meter that measures the speed of the vehicle is called ________.

A. Speedometer

B. Odometer

C. Chronometer

D. Barometer

Q. 88 The image formed by a plane mirror is always ________.

A. Inverted

B. Erect

C. Tilted

D. Bent

Q. 89 Where is the taskbar placed in Microsoft Windows in the default settings?

A. At the top of the screen

B. At the bottom of the screen

C. At the center of the screen

D. At no place on the screen

Q. 90 The formula for potassium permanganate is _________.

A. KMnO₄

B. KMn₂O₄

C. K₂Mn₂O₄

D. K₂Mn₂O₂

Q. 91 The elements in the middle of the periodic table are called ________.

A. Metalloids

B. Transition Elements

C. Rate earth elements

D. Noble gases

Q. 92 A series of organisms feeding on one another at various biotic levels form a__.

A. Food chain

B. Food cycle

C. Food web

D. Food level

Q. 93 Which organization had helped for the development of Digital Gender Atlas for Girls Education in India?

A. UNICEF

B. WTO

C. WHO

D. NATO

Q. 94 WHo invented the lightning conductor?

A. Edward Priestly

B. Vint Cerf

C. Benjamin Franklin

D. John Dalton

Q. 95 Who is popularly called the “Payyoli Express”?

A. Anju Boby George

B. P T Usha

C. Jhulan Goswami

D. Deepa Malik

Q. 96 Which is the most important work of the Hinayana School?

A. Panchatantra

B. Mahavastu

C. Ashtadhyayi

D. Zend Avesta

Q. 97 Who is the first Indian woman leader to have been honored with the “Social Entrepreneur of the year” award at the 7th Asian awards in London?

A. Asha Bhosle

B. Paul Sagoo

C. Nisha Dutt

D. Neeta Ambani

Q. 98 Who is the author of the book named “Prison DIary”?

A. J P Narayan

B. Harbhajan Singh

C. Javed Akhtar

D. Amitav Ghosh

Q. 99 India became the _______ full member of Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR).

A. 35th

B. 1st

C. 20th

D. 8th

Q. 100 India and _______ have set a joint working group on fisheries to address long-standing issues of fisherman from Tamil Nadu.

A. Pakistan

B. Maldives

C. Bangladesh

D. Sri-Lanka

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	B	C	B	A	A	B	D	A	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	B	D	D	D	B	D	C	B	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	A	D	A	C	B	B	B	C	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	A	B	A	A	A	A	A	A	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	C	A	C	C	A	C	B	C	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	A	C	B	A	B	C	D	A	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	D	C	A	B	B	A	A	D	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	B	C	C	D	C	C	B	A	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	A	A	D	A	B	A	B	B	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	A	A	C	B	B	C	A	A	D

SSC CHSL Tier-I 26 March 2018 Shift-III Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL Tier 1 2018 26 March Shift 3

Q. 1 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Evolutionary processes give rise to biodiversity in every (1)/ level of biological organisation, including the level of (2)/ species, individual organisms, and molecules. (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 2 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Population decline, counter-urbanisation, invasion, and (1)/ movement of people, which had begun in Late (2)/ Antiquity, continued in the Early Middle Ages. (3)/ No error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 3 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

The architect was unable to ______ those designs.

A. made

B. sketch

C. scatter

D. built

Q. 4 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Life is short but it has a ______ meaning.

A. rare

B. sharp

C. deep

D. blur

Q. 5 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Pert

A. Humble

B. Lively

C. Meek

D. Timid

Q. 6 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Copious

A. Counterfeit

B. Plentiful

C. Commendable

D. Deficient

Q. 7 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Egregious

A. Noticeable

B. Gross

C. Mild

D. Obvious

Q. 8 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Rectitude

A. Goodness

B. Infamy

C. Honesty

D. Character

Q. 9 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

The elusive

P : status in the Red List of the International

Q : snow leopard has lost its endangered

R : Union for Conservation of Nature

A. QPR

B. RPQ

C. QRP

D. PQR

Q. 10 A sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four given alternatives, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice.

He gave her promotion happily.

A. She was given promotion happily by him.

B. She had been given promotion by him happily

C. Her promotion was gave happily by him.

D. Her promotion was given.

Q. 11 A sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect Speech. Out of the four given alternatives, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct Speech.

Anuj said, “I need your help now.”

A. Anju needed my help then.

B. Anuj said that he needed my help then.

C. Anuj said he needed my help now

D. Anuj says he needed my help now.

Q. 12 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Hygiene

B. Hygine

C. Higine

D. Hygeine

Q. 13 In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

The reason is a fear that we will not ______________ find ourselves in that higher echelon of posts and achievements that get so many likes and reposts, a sign of success and ____________ in our binary outlook. A darker worry also exists at the back _______ our mind. What if we end __________ in the other group, an object of ridicule, derided as another in a long list of failures _________ embarrassments that go viral for all the wrong reasons? we will not ______________ find ourselves in that

A. automatically

B. automatic

C. automatical

D. automation

Q. 14 In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

A. appreciate

B. appreciative

C. appreciation

D. appreciatively

Q. 15 In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

A. for

B. from

C. off

D. of

Q. 16 In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

A. upon

B. on

C. up

D. above

Q. 17 In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

A. but

B. nor

C. also

D. and

Q. 18 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Stab someone in the back

A. Praise someone.

B. Like someone secretly.

C. Betray someone.

D. Meet someone after a long time

Q. 19 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Over my dead body

A. Used to emphasize that one completely opposes something

B. Be dead sure of something.

C. Feel afraid of something or someone.

D. Feel unhealthy and very weak

Q. 20 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence.

Farmland ploughed and harrowed but left for a period without being sown in order to

restore its fertility

A. Fallow

B. Urbane

C. Sophisticated

D. Gentee

Q. 21 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence.

Showing or feeling no interest, enthusiasm, or concern

A. Ardent

B. Fervent

C. Apathetic

D. Melancholic

Q. 22 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “no improvement”.

Over the last few weeks I (has been) on a whirlwind series of travel for work and vacation.

A. have been

B. was been

C. have being

D. no improvement

Q. 23 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “no improvement”.

I closed the window just in time and (return) to my room with relief.

A. returns

B. returned

C. will return

D. no improvement

Q. 24 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

In order to

A-regulate the technology and boost

B-the rankings, we need our

C-teachers to do exponential thinking

A. CBA

B. CAB

C. BCA

D. ABC

Q. 25 In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt.

Select the correctly spelt word.

A. symptommatically

B. symptomaticaly

C. symptomatically

D. symptommaticaly

Q. 26 In the following question, select the related word pair from the given alternatives.

Ohm : Resistance : : ? : ?

A. Temperature : Degree

B. Hectare : Area

C. Energy : Watt

D. Current : Ampere

Q. 27 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

16 : 23 : : 22 : ?

A. 34

B. 29

C. 23

D. 31

Q. 28 In the following question, select the related letter/letters from the given alternatives.

GOI : RZT : : FMD : ?

A. PWN

B. QXP

C. PWO

D. QXO

Q. 29 In the following question, select the odd word pair from the given alternatives.

A. Figure – Rectangle

B. Ornament – Ring

C. Vehicle – Scooter

D. Necklace – Ornament

Q. 30 In the following question, four number pairs are given. The number on left side of (–) is related to the number on the right side of (–) with some

Logic/Rule/Relation. Three are similar on basis of same Logic/Rule/Relation. Select the odd one out from the given alternatives.

A. 17 – 34

B. 37 – 74

C. 43 – 86

D. 29 – 59

Q. 31 In the following question, select the odd letter/letters from the given alternatives.

A. SKC

B. ZRJ

C. ZSK

D. VNF

Q. 32 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Pinnacle

2. Pigment

3. Pierce

4. Phony

5. Pick

A. 52431

B. 45321

C. 12453

D. 23514

Q. 33 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

13, 19, 32, 51, 83, ?

A. 142

B. 134

C. 156

D. 140

Q. 34 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

CLG, GPK, KTO, OXS, ?

A. TBW

B. SZW

C. SWA

D. SBW

Q. 35 Suraj is shorter than Gopal but taller than Tarun. Rajan is the tallest and Shivam is shorter than Suraj but not the shortest. Who is the third shortest?

A. Gopal

B. Suraj

C. Rajan

D. Shivam

Q. 36 From the given alternatives, select the word which CANNOT be formed using the letters of the given word.

Endeavors

A. Vote

B. Rose

C. End

D. Done

Q. 37 In a certain code language, “LINKS” is written as “93210” and “CROMA” is written as “84576”. How is “ROCKS” written in that code language?

A. 81054

B. 83106

C. 45810

D. 10486

Q. 38 In a certain code language, ‘-‘ represents ‘+’, ‘+’ represents ‘x’, ‘x’ represents ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ represents ‘-‘. Find out the answer to the following question.

7 – 8 + 20 x 10 ÷ 9 = ?

A. 18

B. 20

C. 22

D. 14

Q. 39 The following equation is incorrect. Which two signs should be interchanged to correct the equation?

16 x 4 – 10 + 2 ÷ 12 = 18

A. x and –

B. ÷ and –

C. – and +

D. ÷ and x

Q. 40 If 4!4 = 80, 3!8 = 110 and 6!2 = 80, then find the value of 7!9 = ?

A. 70

B. 100

C. 60

D. 160

Q. 41 Which of the following terms follows the trend of the given list?

ABABCDAB, ABADCBAB, ABCDABAB, ADCBABAB, CDABABAB, _______________.

A. ABABADCB

B. ABABCDAB

C. ABADCBAB

D. CBABABAD

Q. 42 The fitness club has organised a race. The route goes 4.5 km West from the starting point. It then turns North and goes 3 kms, then turns East and goes 4.5 km, finally it turns left and goes 1.5 km to reach the end point. Where is the end point with respect to the start point?

A. 4.5 km North

B. 1.5 km South

C. 4.5 km South

D. 1.5 km North

Q. 43 In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.

Statement I: Some ribbons are tapes

Statement II: Some strips are ribbons

Conclusion I: All tapes are strips

Conclusion II: No strips are tapes

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Both conclusions I and II follow

D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

Q. 44 In the figure rectangle represents web Hair stylists, circle represents Choreographers , triangle represents Mountain climbers and square represents Gymnasts. which set of letters represents Gymnasts who are both Hair stylists or Mountain climbers ?

A. CF

B. GF

C. C

D. BC

Q. 45 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

AHR, HOY, OVF, VCM, ?

A. CJT

B. BKU

C. ALV

D. ZGQ

Q. 46 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

6, 13, 20, 27, ?

A. 34

B. 32

C. 37

D. 43

Q. 47 In the following question, four groups of three numbers are given. In each group the second and third number are related to the first number by a Logic/Rule/Relation. Three are similar on basis of same Logic/Rule/Relation. Select the odd one out from the given alternatives.

A. (7, 36, 21)

B. (9, 46, 27)

C. (11, 56, 33)

D. (22, 106, 63)

Q. 48 If a mirror is placed on the line MN then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure ?

A. 1)

B. 2)

C. 3)

D. 4)

Q. 49 Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure ?

A. 1)

B. 2)

C. 3)

D. 4)

Q. 50 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in the one of the alternatives.

The sets of numbers as given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The column and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column. For example ‘C’ can be represented by 21,34 and ‘T’ can be represented by 97,89 etc.Similarly you have to identify the set for the word ‘MAZE’

A. 22,97,43,66

B. 24,76,12,66

C. 31,76,11,58

D. 14,41,76,12

Q. 51 Find the average of first 20 multiples of 9.

A. 94.8

B. 94.7

C. 94.6

D. 94.5

Q. 52 Calculate (7|2-6|-4|5|÷5)/(-7×(2)-2×2 ÷2+2)

A. -16/18

B. -14/7

C. -12/7

D. -12/18

Q. 53 What is the value equation a³+ b³+ c³ – 3abc if a² + b² + c² = ab + bc + ca + 4 and a + b + c = 4.

A. 0

B. 1

C. 16

D. 256

Q. 54 What is the x – intercept of the linear equation 18x + 25y – 900 = 0?

A. 18

B. 25

C. 50

D. 450

Q. 55 Two equal circles intersect each other at point A and B, whose centers are O and O’. OO’ = 24 mm and AB = 10 mm, then find the area (in sq. mm) of the circle.

A. 530.66

B. 520.66

C. 510.33

D. 500.33

Q. 56 The length of the diameter of the circle is 10 cm and length of the chord drawn in a circle is 6 cm. Find the distance (in cm) of chord from the center.

A. 10

B. 8

C. 6

D. 4

Q. 57 60% of P = 50% of Q and Q = x% of P. What is the value of x?

A. 130

B. 120

C. 140

D. 80

Q. 58 X, Y and Z are partners in a company. In one year X receives 1/4 part of profit, Y receives ⅕ part of profit and Z receives Rs 22000. How much amount (in Rs) will X get as profit?

A. 10000

B. 12000

C. 15000

D. 18000

Q. 59 P and Q started a business by investing Rs 50000 and Rs 40000 respectively. After 4 months, P withdraws Rs 20000 while Q invest Rs 70000 more after 6 months of starting the business. At the end of the year P’s share in the profit is Rs 11000. What will be the total profit (in Rs) at the end of year?

A. 33500

B. 27600

C. 42800

D. 38800

Q. 60 The average weight of 25 candles is 40 grams. If some candles of weight 50 grams each were removed, then average weight becomes 37.5 grams. How many candles of weight 50 grams each were removed?

A. 3

B. 5

C. 8

D. 12

Q. 61 Simple interest on a sum for 9 months at 8% per annum is Rs 270.What is the value (in Rs) of the sum?

A. 5200

B. 5400

C. 4500

D. 3600

Q. 62 The difference between cost price and selling price is Rs 575. If profit percentage is 23%, then what is the selling price (in Rs)?

A. 3225

B. 1925

C. 2500

D. 3075

Q. 63 A merchant marks the price of his articles 20% above the cost price. If he allows 20% discount, then what is the profit or loss percentage?

A. 2% loss

B. 4% profit

C. 4% loss

D. No profit/loss

Q. 64 What is that least digit that must be added to the product 5786 × 5784 to make it a perfect square?

A. 1

B. 6

C. 5

D. 4

Q. 65 20 boys do one fourth of work in 25 days. How many more boys will be required to complete the remaining work in 50 days?

A. 8

B. 10

C. 15

D. 20

Q. 66 When Gopal walks from A to B and returns from B to A on cycle, then it takes him 46 minutes. By walking both ways, it takes him 75 minutes. If he rides cycle both ways then what will be the total time (in minutes)?

A. 19

B. 17

C. 23

D. 15

Q. 67 The bar graph shows average marks scored in a 100 marks Geography exam by students of 7 divisions of Standard X. Study the diagram and answer the following questions. Which division scored the second highest average marks?

A. F

B. B

C. A

D. C

Q. 68 The bar graph shows average marks scored in a 100 marks Geography exam by students of 7 divisions of Standard X. Study the diagram and answer the following questions. What is the ratio of average marks scored by Division C to Division G?

A. 3 : 5

B. 5 : 3

C. 6 : 5

D. 5 : 6

Q. 69 The bar graph shows average marks scored in a 100 marks Geography exam by students of 7 divisions of Standard X. Study the diagram and answer the following questions. Average marks of division A were lesser than that of Division C by _________

A. 100%

B. 150%

C. 200%

D. 50%

Q. 70 The bar graph shows average marks scored in a 100 marks Geography exam by students of 7 divisions of Standard X. Study the diagram and answer the following questions. If all students of Division C got bonus 10 marks for winning the inter-school trophy their new average marks would increase by how much?

A. 15%

B. 25%

C. 16.67%

D. 20%

Q. 71 The lengths of the two diagonals of a rhombus are 8 cm and 15 cm respectively. Find its area (in cm²).

A. 30

B. 120

C. 90

D. 60

Q. 72 Find the area (in cm²) of a semi-circle of radius 35 cm.

A. 3850

B. 960

C. 1920

D. 1925

Q. 73 Find the total surface area (in cm²) of a right circular cone of diameter 14 cm and slant height 10 cm.

A. 374

B. 570

C. 428

D. 524

Q. 74 ΔDEF is right angled at E. If m∠D = 45°, then find the value of (tanF + 1/3).

A. 4/3

B. 3√3/2

C. (√2+1)/√2

D. (3√2+1)/3

Q. 75 In ΔXYZ measure of angle Y is 90°. If cosec X = 17/15, and XY = 4 cm, then what is the length (in cm) of side YZ?

A. 7.5

B. 8.5

C. 5

D. 6

Q. 76 Which of the following is NOT included in general methodology while assessing the national income?

A. Pension

B. Investment Expenditure

C. Value added

D. Consumption Expenditure

Q. 77 In India, the Black Revolution is associated with self dependence in the production of ___________.

A. oil seeds production

B. crude petroleum

C. black box

D. No option is correct

Q. 78 Hiuen Tsang visited Kanchipuram, the capital of Pallavas, during the reign which of the following rulers?

A. Mahendra Verman I

B. Mahendra Verman II

C. Narasimha Varman I

D. Parmeshwar Varman II

Q. 79 E.P. Ramaswamy Naicker is associated with which of the following movements?

A. Self-respect movement

B. Viacom movement

C. Justice movement

D. Ezhava movement

Q. 80 World famous Kaieteur Falls is situated on which river?

A. Potaro

B. Mississippi

C. St. Lawrence

D. Zambezi

Q. 81 Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

A. Shivasamudram Falls – Kaveri

B. Dhuandhar Falls – Narmada

C. Sahastra dhara Falls – Baldy

D. Gerosoppa Falls – Kaveri

Q. 82 In which year did Vivekananda participate in the Parliament of the World’s Religions?

A. 1893 AD

B. 1895 AD

C. 1897 AD

D. 1899 AD

Q. 83 What was the theme of the Global Entrepreneurship Summit, 2017 organised in

Hyderabad?

A. Development for All

B. Women First, Prosperity for All

C. Run for Development

D. Women’s World

Q. 84 Which of the following films won the best film award in the 48th International Film Festival of India (IFFI), organized from November 20 to 28, 2017 in Panji, Goa?

A. 120 Beats Per Minute

B. Take Off

C. Angels Wear White

D. Dark Skull

Q. 85 How much area of Bhutan is approximately covered with forest?

A. 45%

B. 61%

C. 72%

D. 84%

Q. 86 The atoms of the elements having same difference between mass number and atomic number are called ______.

A. Isobar

B. Isotopes

C. Isotones

D. No option is correct

Q. 87 Heavy water is mostly used in which of the following?

A. In fire extinguisher

B. In nuclear reactors

C. In washing cloth

D. In both Nuclear reactors and Fire extinguisher

Q. 88 ______ prevents the Panchayat from doing wrong things like misusing money or favouring certain people.

A. Gram Sabha

B. District Collector

C. Sarpanch

D. Secretary

Q. 89 ______ is a particular area from which all the voters living there choose their

representatives.

A. Constituency

B. Voting Area

C. Election Area

D. Legislative Area

Q. 90 Match the following.

Organism Reproduction process

Leishmania Bud formation

Yeast Fragmentation

Spirogyra Binary fission

A. I – 2, II – 3, III – 1

B. I – 1, II – 3, III – 2

C. I – 3, II – 1, III – 2

D. I – 3, II – 2, III – 1

Q. 91 What is the shape of the two guard cells which enclose stomata?

A. Oval

B. Triangular

C. Rectangular

D. Kidney shaped

Q. 92 Under the ‘National Electric Mobility Mission Plan’, the government wants to see 6-7 million electric and hybrid vehicles on Indian roads from year ______ onwards.

A. 2022

B. 2020

C. 2025

D. 2019

Q. 93 Which research laboratory has developed an Artificial Intelligent robot named Shelley that writes horror stories?

A. IBM – Media research lab

B. MIT – Media Lab

C. Almaden’s Visual Media

D. Wal-mart Media Lab

Q. 94 On 9 November 2017, House Building Advance (HBA) rules were revised. Now, under the new rules, the central government employee can barrow a maximum of how much amount from government?

A. Rs 50 lakh

B. Rs 25 lakh

C. Rs 75 lakh

D. Rs 15 lakh

Q. 95 The Government of India has approved year 2018 as National year of which nutrient rich crop to boost its production?

A. Millet

B. Wheat

C. Rice

D. Maize

Q. 96 Find the acceleration (in m/s² ) of a body which accelerates from 10 m/s to 20 m/s in 4 seconds.

A. 7.5

B. 5

C. 15

D. 2.5

Q. 97 Propagation of sound can be visualised as propagation of _____________ variations in the medium.

A. energy

B. power

C. force

D. pressure

Q. 98 During the night, the direction of the wind would be from the __________________.

A. valleys to the mountains

B. mountains to the valleys

C. land to the sea

D. sea to the land

Q. 99 Which of the statements given below are correct?

A) Julio Granda won the Chess 2017 Women’s World Chess Championship.

B) Australia hosted the Tennis 2017 Hopman Cup.

C) Max Verstappen won the Formula One 2017 Malaysian Grand Prix.

A. Only A

B. Only C

C. Both B and C

D. A, B and C

Q. 100 In HTML, ______________ attribute specifies a set of controls that are linked so that only one radio button among each set is selected at a time.

A. TYPE=”TEXT”

B. TYPE=”PASSWORD”

C. TYPE=”RADIO”

D. TYPE=”CHECKBOX”

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	D	B	C	B	B	C	B	A	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	A	A	C	D	C	D	C	A	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	A	B	D	C	B	B	D	D	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	B	B	D	B	A	C	D	D	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	D	A	D	C	A	A	D	D	D	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	C	C	C	A	D	B	A	A	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	D	C	A	B	B	C	B	D	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	D	A	A	A	A	B	C	A	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	D	A	B	A	C	C	B	A	A	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	D	B	B	B	A	D	D	C	C	C