SSC CGL Tier-II 12 September 2019 English Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL ENGLISH

 Tier-II (12 Sept 2019) 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.1 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

A. She was a tall woman and she carried a large purse. 

B. Suddenly a boy ran up behind her and tried to snatch her purse. 

C. It was 11 o’clock at night and a woman was walking alone. 

D. It had a long strap, and she carried it slung across her shoulder. 

A CADB 

B DCBA 

C ACDB 

D DBCA 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number. 

Comprehension: In a rare show of honesty, a gardener of the irrigation department has handed (1)______ to the police 57 tolas of gold (2)______ by him while working in the (3)______ of the superintending engineer’s bungalow in Raipur. The (4)______in turn has handed over the (5)______ to the Central Excise and Customs Department (6)______investigation. It was in June this year (7)______ Ramdayal found a tiny plastic box, meticulously (8)______ with polythene, buried six inches (9)______ under a Banyan tree, while digging the garden. He (10)______ the box and took it to his house behind the bungalow and was dazzled to find that it contained biscuits, bangles and coins all of gold. 

Q.2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1. 

A over 

B out 

C up 

D down 

Answer: A 

 

Q.3 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2. 

A recovered 

B recovers 

C recovering 

D recover 

Answer: A 

 

Q.4 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3. 

A garden 

B orchard 

C park 

D field 

Answer: A 


Q.5 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4. 

A engineer 

B gardener 

C custom officer 

D police 

Answer: D 

 

Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5. 

A coins 

B bangles 

C biscuits 

D gold 

Answer: D 

 

Q.7 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.6. 

A by 

B about 

C for 

D to 

Answer: C 

 

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.7. 

A after 

B until 

C that 

D while 

Answer: C 

 

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.8. 

A sheltered 

B topped 

C enclosed 

D covered 

Answer: D 

 

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.9. 

A deep 

B deepen 

C deeply 

D depth 

Answer: A 

 

Q.11 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.10. 

A picked on 

B picked in 

C picked over 

D picked up 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.12 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. ALLURING 

A interesting 

B charming 

C repulsive 

D glamorous 

Answer: C 

 

Q.13 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. The authorities are planning to lift restrictions on the movement of people in the Valley from the coming week. 

A It has been planned to lift restrictions on the movement of people in the Valley from the coming week. 

B Restrictions on the movement of people in the Valley from the coming week are planning to lift the authorities in 

the Valley. 

C It is being planned by the authorities to lift restrictions on the movement of people in the Valley from the coming week. 

D Lifting restrictions on the movement of people in the Valley is planned from the coming week. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.14 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. Mother said to Kavya, “Turn on the light.” 

A Mother told Kavya to turn on the light. 

B Mother asked Kavya if the light was on. 

C Kavya told mother to turn on the light. 

D Mother requested Kavya to please on the light. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.15 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. If there is no error, select No error. No one informed me that you would be absent. 

A No one inform me 

B would be absent. 

C No error 

D that you 

Answer: A 

 

Q.16 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

A. Security cameras captured the whole incident. 

B. Commuters in Virginia, USA got a shock when a deer entered a metro station. 

C. However, it eventually backed out and ran away unharmed. 

D. Nobody knows how it made it into the station. 

A DCBA 

B BADC 

C BDCA 

D ADCB 

Answer: C 

 

Q.17 Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. The little girl asked her mother if she could visit her friend’s house. 

A The little girl said to her mother, “Why can’t I visit my friend’s house?” 

B The little girl said to her mother, “Should she visit her friend’s house?” 

C The little girl said to her mother, “Can I visit my friend’s house?” 

D The little girl said to her mother, “I could visit my friend’s house.” 

Answer: C 

 

Q.18 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. He was surprised at me refusing to accept his offer. 

A No improvement 

B at me to refusing 

C at my refusing 

D on me refusing 

Answer: C 

 

Q.19 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. Pushpa said, “I arrived at the workshop an hour ago but nothing much is happening here.” 

A Pushpa observed that though she had arrived at the workshop an hour ago but nothing much was happening there. 

B Pushpa said that she had arrived at the workshop an hour earlier but nothing much is happening here. 

C Pushpa asked why she had to arrive at the workshop an hour before when nothing much was happening there. 

D Pushpa said that she had arrived at the workshop an hour before but nothing much was happening there. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.20 Select the correct active form of the given sentence. When we arrived at his house, we were welcomed by his parents. 

A When his parents arrived at his house, we welcomed them. 

B When we arrived at his house, his parents welcomed us. 

C When we arrived at his house, we welcomed his parents. 

D After we arrived at his house, his parents had welcomed us. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.21 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. TURBULENT 

A raging 

B peaceful 

C forceful 

D swirling 

Answer: B 

 

Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. For most people a six figure salary was unimaginable two decades ago. 

A For most of people 

B To much people 

C For a many people 

D No improvement 

Answer: D 

 

Q.23 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. A brick falling from the rooftop broke the front glass of my car. 

A The front glass of my car has broken a brick falling from the rooftop. 

B The front glass of my car was broken by a brick falling from the rooftop. 

C The front glass of my car had been broken by a brick falling from the rooftop. 

D The front glass of my car has been broken by a brick falling from the rooftop 

Answer: B 

 

Q.24 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. I have visited several places in India, but I ______ the Andaman and Nicobar Islands yet. 

A haven’t been visiting 

B didn’t visit 

C haven’t visited 

D don’t visit 

Answer: C 

 

Q.25 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. A dome-shaped shelter built from blocks of solid snow used by Eskimos 

A wigwam 

B yurt 

C tepee 

D igloo 

Answer: D 

 

Q.26 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. The trouble makers took to their heels when they saw the police coming. 

A hid themselves 

B ran away 

C faced them boldly 

D prepared to fight 

Answer: B 

 

Q.27 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

A medieval 

B measure 

C magazine 

D machenic 

Answer: D 

 

Q.28 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. Having been a student activist once, a politician never forgets those days. 

A a politician 

B never forget 

C Having been 

D those days 

Answer: B

 

Instructions: Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. 

Q.29 Your behavior annoys me greatly. 

A I was greatly annoyed by your behavior. 

B I have been greatly annoyed by your behavior. 

C I am greatly annoyed by your behavior. 

D Your behavior has been greatly annoyed by me. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.30 The Indian army has inducted several women officers in Infantry and Armoured Corps. 

A Several female officers will be inducted by the Indian Army in the Infantry and Armoured Corps. 

B Several women officers were inducted by the Indian Army in Infantry and Armoured Corps. 

C Several women officers are being inducted by the Indian Army in Infantry and Armoured Corps. 

D Several women officers have been inducted by the Indian Army in Infantry and Armoured Corps. 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.31 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. Prasad recalled that meeting people has been a part of his life as a student activist. 

A meeting people have been 

B Prasad recalled that 

C a part of his life 

D as a student activist. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.32 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. The teacher said to Mohit, “Go to your seat and sit quietly” 

A The teacher requested Mohit to go to his seat and sit quietly. 

B The teacher instructed Mohit to go to his seat and sit quietly. 

C The teacher instructed Mohit that he must go to his seat and sit quietly. 

D The teacher told Mohit to go to your seat and sit quietly. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.33 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The rescue team dug out a soldier from the snow ______ how he could have survived for seven days buried under it. 

A wondering 

B wondered 

C to wonder 

D wonder 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions: Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

Q.34 A. It is because nowadays people have no time for recreation. B. But this pastime is getting out of favour now. C. It is really a thrilling exercise. D. Flying kites is my favourite pastime. 

A DCBA 

B CDAB 

C DBAC 

D BCDA 

Answer: A 

 

Q.35 A. If we drove 10 kilometers along the road that branched off to the right, we would reach Barhampur. 

B. Aditya and I were returning from the site of our new factory. 

C. We had reached a point where the road bifurcated. 

D. We were driving along National Highway 40. 

A CDBA 

B BDAC 

C BDCA 

D ACBD 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number. 

Comprehension: Hunter-gatherer culture was the way of life for early humans until around 11,000 to 12,000 years ago. The lifestyle of hunter-gatherers was (1) ______ on hunting animals and foraging for food. Anthropologists (2)______ discovered evidence for the practice of hunter-gatherer culture (3)______ modern humans (Homo sapiens) and their distant ancestors dating as (4)______ back as two million years ago. Before the (5)______ of hunter-gatherer culture, earlier groups relied on (6)______practice of scavenging animal remains that predators left (7)______. Because hunter-gatherers did not rely on agriculture, (8)______ used mobility as a survival strategy. Indeed, (9)______ lifestyle required access to large areas of (10)______ to find the food they needed for survival. 

Q.36 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1. 

A based 

B basing 

C base 

D bases 

Answer: A 

 

Q.37 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2. 

A have 

B has 

C had 

D having 

Answer: A 

 

Q.38 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3. 

A with 

B from 

C by 

D to 

Answer: C 

 

Q.39 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4. 

A far 

B distant 

C near 

D farther 

Answer: A 

 

Q.40 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5. 

A dependence 

B experience 

C emergence 

D departure 

Answer: C 

 

Q.41 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.6. 

A an 

B one 

C the 

D a 

Answer: C 

 

Q.42 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.7. 

A before 

B beyond 

C beneath 

D behind 

Answer: D 

 

Q.43 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.8. 

A them 

B he 

C they 

D we 

Answer: C 

 

Q.44 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.9. 

A their 

B our 

C theirs 

D its 

Answer: A 

 

Q.45 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.10. 

A towns 

B valleys 

C land 

D villages 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions: For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.46 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. The old man lifted the heavy bundle with hardly any effort at all. 

A with hardly any effort 

B No improvement 

C with hard an effort 

D without hardly no effort 

Answer: A 

 

Q.47 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. Did you receive my letter? 

A Did my letter be received by you? 

B Have you been received by my letter? 

C Was my letter received by you? 

D Has my letter been received by you? 

Answer: C 

 

Q.48 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. Many companies prefer that the new employees have not only a degree but also two years’ work experience . 

A but also two years’ work experience 

B No improvement 

C but more two year work experience 

D but two year work experience 

Answer: A 

 

Q.49 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom in the given sentence. When Anshul told everyone that he had resigned his job, all the members in the family were at their wits’ end . 

A very serious 

B quite angry 

C quite perplexed 

D absolutely satisfied 

Answer: C 

 

Q.50 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. I was surprised to see that Avika could write such good poems in Hindi. 

A to see as Avika 

B I was surprised 

C such good poems in Hindi 

D could write 

Answer: A 

 

Q.51 Select the correct active form of the given sentence. Has the car been cleaned by the driver? 

A How has the driver cleaned the car? 

B Does the driver clean the car? 

C Has the driver cleaned the car? 

D Did the driver clean the car? 

Answer: C 

 

Q.52 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. The Science which studies the crust of the earth 

A zoology 

B etymology 

C biology 

D geology 

Answer: D 

 

Q.53 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. Frost occurs in the northern part of the state as frequently as in the central part. 

A more frequently than 

B No improvement 

C more frequently as 

D as frequent than 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions: Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

Q.54 A. They appeared to be posing for ‘selfies’. 

B. An expeditioner had left it sitting on the ice while he visited a rookery. 

C. In Antarctica, two penguins found a video camera. 

D. The penguins curiously stared down at the camera. 

A CBDA 

B CADB 

C DACB 

D BCDA 

Answer: A 

 

Q.55 A. Mr Adams was very proud of it and insisted on an inspection by everyone. 

B. The vault was a small one but it had a new patented door. 

C. It fastened three solid steel bolts thrown simultaneously with a single handle, and had a time lock. 

D. The Elmore Bank had just put in a new safe and vault. 

A BCAD 

B ADBC 

C ABCD 

D DABC 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.56 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. full of beans 

A being upset 

B lively and energetic 

C full of crazy ideas 

D in good health 

Answer: B 

 

Q.57 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. We have sufficient food and clothing for the flood victims in Kerala. 

A We have sufficient 

B in Kerala 

C about the flood victims 

D food and clothing 

Answer: C 

 

Q.58 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. EMPATHY 

A appreciation 

B warmth 

C sympathy 

D apathy 

Answer: D

 

Q.59 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. Who was the first to declare that the earth is round ? 

A an earth was round 

B the earth were round 

C an earth is round 

D No improvement 

Answer: D 

 

Q.60 Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. The officer ordered the fellow to be arrested. 

A The officer said, “Why don’t we arrest the fellow?” 

B The officer said, “Arrest the fellow.” 

C The officer requested, “The fellow may be arrested.” 

D The officer said to the fellow, “Arrest him.” 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions: Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Q.61 If the bus hadn’t broken down, we will be at home now. 

A will have been 

B had been 

C No improvement 

D would have been 

Answer: D 

 

Q.62 By my opinion it is better to cancel the trip during this monsoon. 

A No improvement 

B In my opinion 

C From my opinion 

D By mine opinion 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions: For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.63 Select the correct active form of the given sentence. Preparations were being made for the sports meet at the school. 

A They have been making preparations for the sports meet at the school. 

B They were making preparations for the sports meet at the school. 

C They have started making preparations for the sports meet at the school. 

D They have made preparations for the sports meet at the school. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.64 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Bhanu made a working model of an airplane ______ when he was sixteen. 

A itself 

B himself 

C oneself 

D herself 

Answer: B 


Q.65 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

A. I caught a snake once. 

B. That well is full of snakes. 

C. I caught it by its tail and dropped it in the old well. 

D. Whenever we catch one, instead of killing it, we drop it in the well. 

A BCAD 

B CBDA 

C ACBD 

D BACD 

Answer: C 

 

Q.66 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate idiom. This is strictly ______ but some changes are going to happen in the company in the near future. 

A off the rails 

B off the key 

C off the mark 

D off the record 

Answer: D 

 

Q.67 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

A. There were some mangoes lying beside him. 

B. She looked at the mangoes longingly. 

C. Romi was growing fast and was nearly always hungry. 

D. Just as he was about to eat one, Kamla came along. 

A ABCD 

B BCAD 

C CBDA 

D CADB 

Answer: D 

 

Q.68 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. Please share your class notes with me. 

A Your class notes have been shared with me. 

B You are requested to share your class notes with me. 

C Why don’t you share your class notes with me? 

D You can share your class notes with me. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.69 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. Rahul said, “I can speak French.” 

A Rahul said that he should speak French. 

B Rahul said that he can speak French. 

C Rahul said that he could speak French. 

D Rahul said that I can speak French. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.70 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. For a long time he kept his wife in the dark about the true nature of his job. 

A in high position 

B in a dark place 

C in ignorance 

D in a locked room 

Answer: C 

 

Q.71 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. If there is no error, select No error. Everything has become very expensive these days. 

A No error 

B Everything has became 

C very expensive 

D these days 

Answer: B 

 

Q.72 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. the cultivation of grapevines. 

A agriculture 

B horticulture 

C viticulture 

D sericulture 

Answer: C 

 

Q.73 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. EVIDENCE 

A indication 

B refutation 

C denial 

D concealment 

Answer: A 


Q.74 Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. She told the villagers that she would not rest till she had solved their water problem. 

A She said to the villagers, “She would not rest till she has solved their water problem.” 

B She said to the villagers, “She will not rest till she has solved my water problem.” 

C She said to the villagers, “I will not rest till I have solved your water problem.” 

D She said to the villagers, “I would not rest till I am solving our water problem.” 

Answer: C 

 

Q.75 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

A. It was tossed high on the waves. 

B. A violent storm rocked the sea. 

C. The helpless people aboard the ship plunged into the sea. 

D. Fierce winds struck a sailing ship. 

A DCBA 

B DABC 

C BDCA 

D BDAC 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions: Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Q.76 Bhanu promised that he would have come today but he hasn’t arrived yet. 

A would have came 

B would come 

C No improvement 

D will came 

Answer: B 

 

Q.77 If he is more careful , he wouldn’t have had an accident. 

A had been more careful 

B No improvement 

C has been more careful 

D being more careful 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions: For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.78 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. Doctors are constantly monitoring the condition of the patient. 

A The condition of the patient has been constantly monitored by the doctors. 

B The condition of the patient is being constantly monitored by the doctors. 

C The condition of the doctors is being constantly monitored by the patient. 

D The condition of the patient is constantly monitored by the doctors. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.79 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. PERSIST 

A continue 

B cease 

C halt 

D forget 

Answer: A 

 

Q.80 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

A lathargy 

B latter 

C lateral 

D latitude 

Answer: A 

 

Q.81 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. Organizing World Cup matches in England imply that rains can be a constant threat. 

A be a constant threat. 

B in England imply 

C that rains can be 

D Organizing World Cup matches 

Answer: B 

 

Q.82 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. Who can help me with Mathematics? 

A By whom was I helped in Mathematics? 

B By whom can I be helped in Mathematics? 

C Could I be helped in Mathematics by somebody? 

D Whom did I help in Mathematics? 

Answer: B 

 

Q.83 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. The royal family hid their internal discord and presented a united front on its country . 

A on their country 

B No improvement 

C to their country 

D to its country 

Answer: C 

 

Q.84 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. a room where medicines are prepared and provided 

A infirmary 

B dispensary 

C surgery 

D hospital 

Answer: B 

 

Q.85 Select the correct active form of the given sentence. By whom was this window pane broken? 

A Who breaks this window pane? 

B Who broke this window pane? 

C Who has broken this window pane? 

D Who will break this window pane? 

Answer: B 

 

Q.86 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. COGENT 

A convincing 

B weak 

C ineffective 

D pathetic 

Answer: A 

 

Q.87 Select the correct active form of the given sentence. A poster on Independence Day was being made by Avika. 

A A poster was making Avika on Independence Day. 

B Avika was making a poster on Independence Day. 

C Avika is making a poster on Independence Day. 

D Independence Day was making a poster on Avika. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.88 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. My friend has started a restaurant in a wooden big building in Manali. 

A in Manali 

B in a wooden big building 

C My friend has started 

D a restaurant 

Answer: B 

 

Q.89 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. The lady said to the plumber, “Why didn’t you come last week? The RO machine has been making some noise for the last ten days.” 

A The lady asked the plumber why he hadn’t come the previous week and told him that the RO machine had been making some noise for the last ten days.

B The lady asked the plumber why he didn’t come last week and told him that the RO machine has been making some noise for the last ten days. 

C The lady asked the plumber if he had come the previous week and told him that the RO machine had been making some noise for the last ten days. 

D The lady scolded the plumber for not coming last week and told him that the RO machine was making some noise for the last ten days. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.90 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. Why was he angry with the guard? 

A Why was he angry 

B Why he were angry 

C Why did he angry 

D No improvement 

Answer: A 

 

Q.91 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. the science dealing with X-rays and other high-energy radiation, especially for the diagnosis and treatment of disease. 

A nephrology 

B neurology 

C pathology 

D radiology 

Answer: D 

 

Q.92 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. The patient waited in dread for the trolley it would take him to the operation theatre. 

A that would taken 

B it would take 

C that would take 

D No improvement 

Answer: C 

 

Q.93 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. India and Bhutan signed ten MOUs in the field of space research, aviation, power and education. 

A Ten MOUs in the field of space research, aviation, power and education have been signed by India and Bhutan. 

B Ten MOUs in the field of space research, aviation, power and education will be signed by India and Bhutan. 

C Ten MOUs in the field of space research, aviation, power and education were signed by India and Bhutan. 

D Ten MOUs in the field of space research, aviation, power and education are being signed by India and Bhutan. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.94 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. Wealth creators are essential for money to be distributed in the economy. 

A for money to distributed 

B are essential 

C in the economy 

D Wealth creators 

Answer: A 

 

Q.95 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. fear of heights 

A autophobia 

B zoophobia 

C xenophobia 

D acrophobia 

Answer: D 

 

Q.96 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. When Rohit saw Saurabh, he said, “Oh, how tall you have grown!” 

A When Rohit saw Saurabh, he exclaimed that he (Saurabh) had grown very tall. 

B When Rohit saw Saurabh, he exclaimed how tall he (Saurabh) was grown. 

C When Rohit saw Saurabh, he observed that you have grown very tall. 

D When Rohit saw Saurabh, he commented that he (Saurabh) has grown very tall. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.97 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. This is one of the best books that I have read. 

A one of a best book 

B one of the best books 

C one in the best book 

D No improvement 

Answer: B 

 

Q.98 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. Most of the work of this NGO is of little benefit to the disadvantaged. 

A Most of the work 

B of this NGO 

C to the disadvantaged 

D are of little benefit 

Answer: D 

 

Q.99 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. Addressing a public meeting, Rajnath Singh said, “Whatever talks take place they will be on the issue of Pakistan occupied Kashmir.” 

A Addressing a public meeting, Rajnath Singh asked whatever talks took place, why they were not on the issue of Pakistan occupied Kashmir. 

B Addressing a public meeting, Rajnath Singh said that whatever talks take place, they will be on the issue of Pakistan occupied Kashmir. 

C Addressing a public meeting, Rajnath Singh announced that whatever talks took place, they would be on the issue of Pakistan occupied Kashmir. 

D Addressing a public meeting, Rajnath Singh said that if there were talks, that had to be on the issue of Pakistan occupied Kashmir. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.100 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. We urgently need well qualified teachers for our school . 

A No improvement 

B for ours school 

C to ours school 

D to our school 

Answer: A 

 

Q.101 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

A. I learnt to push Lily’s wheelchair. 

B. I stopped the chair in front of the pond and watched Lily roll her eyes to see the ducks. C. All of a sudden, the wheelchair shook violently. 

D. One afternoon, I wheeled her to the park. 

A DACB 

B DBAC 

C ABCD 

D ADBC 

Answer: D 

 

Q.102 Select the correct active form of the given sentence. More roles for women will be opened up in the ranks of soldiers by the Indian army. 

A The Indian army has opened up more roles for women in the ranks of soldiers. 

B More roles will open up for the Indian army in the ranks of women soldiers. 

C The Indian army will open up more roles for women in the ranks of soldiers. 

D Women will open up more roles for the Indian army in the ranks of soldiers. 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions: Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. 

Q.103 The teacher asked Avika what had happened to her and why her nose was bleeding. 

A The teacher said to Avika, “What happened to her? Why was her nose bleeding?” 

B The teacher said to Avika, “What happened to you? Why is your nose bleeding?” 

C The teacher said to Avika, “What had happened to you? Why was your nose bleeding?” 

D The teacher said to Avika, “What is happening to you? Why is your nose bleeding?” 

Answer: B 

 

Q.104 The saint prayed that God might pour all his blessings on the newly married couple. 

A The saint said to the newly married couple, “God must pour all his blessings on you.” 

B The saint said to the newly married couple, “May God pour all his blessings on you.” 

C The saint requested God, “Pour all your blessings on the newly married couple.” 

D The saint blessed the newly married couple, “God will pour all his blessings on you.” 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions: For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.105 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. the quality of being honest and having strong moral principles. 

A insatiability 

B integrity 

C insidiousness 

D intellect 

Answer: B 

 

Q.106 Select the correct active form of the given sentence. The film Jurassic Park was directed by Steven Spielberg. 

A The film Jurassic Park directed Steven Spielberg. 

B Steven Spielberg is the director of the film Jurassic Park. 

C Steven Spielberg has been directing the film Jurassic Park. 

D Steven Spielberg directed the film Jurassic Park. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.107 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. He spends a good deal of money on clothing. 

A a good deal of 

B the good deal of 

C No improvement 

D good dealing of 

Answer: A 

 

Q.108 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. Rani said, “We are organizing a cleaning programme in the colony tomorrow.” 

A Rani said that they were organizing a cleaning programme in the colony the next day. 

B Rani asked why they were organizing a cleaning programme in the colony the next day. 

C Rani said that we are organizing a cleaning programme in the colony tomorrow. 

D Rani said that we were organizing a cleaning programme in the colony that day. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.109 Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. I will tell him that I don’t want to join the art classes. 

A I will tell him, “I don’t want to join the art classes.” 

B I said to him, “I couldn’t join the art classes.” 

C I want to tell him, “I don’t like to join the art classes.” 

D I will tell him, “I didn’t want to join the art classes.” 

Answer: A

 

Q.110 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. My cousin has been ill for three days. 

A for three days. 

B No improvement 

C from three days. 

D by three days. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.111 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. In order for him to attend the meeting, he needs to prepare exhaustive notes. 

A to attend the meeting 

B he needs to prepare 

C exhaustive notes 

D In order for he 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions: Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. 

Comprehension: Nothing, not even the angry, red eruptions on her face and body, will stop Sneha from aiming for her “dream job”. “I love the Indian Army,” says the 18-year-old, as she sits by herself under one of the canopies at the Chhatrapati Shivaji Stadium of the Maratha Light Infantry Regimental Centre in Belagavi, Karnataka. Outside the enclosure, around 35 women run on the 400-m track. 

A day earlier, Sneha had cleared her ground tests — a 1.6-km race that had to be completed in eight minutes or less, high jump and long jump — and physical fitness tests, when she was diagnosed with chickenpox. Now on medication for the pox, she is back at the stadium for a medical examination as part of the recruitment process. As she waits for her turn, isolated from the other women, Sneha, says, “I had no fever when I left home in Kerala. Even when I reached Belagavi and got these pimples, I did not think much of it. So I came for my physical and ground tests.” 

Accompanied by her mother and uncle, Sneha, who is pursuing a computer course in her hometown Iritty, about 41 km from Kannur, made the 611-km journey from home to Belagavi spending eight hours in a bus and three hours on a train. She is among the 850-odd women, many of whom have travelled several hundred kilometers, to turn up at the first-ever recruitment rally for women to the Indian Army’s Corps of Military Police. 

The recruitment of women as Soldier General Duty (Women Military Police) marks the first time that women will be taken in not only as officers, but as soldiers, giving them an opportunity to be involved in active military duties. As personnel of the military police, the women soldiers will be responsible for investigating offences such as molestation, theft, and rape; “assisting in the maintenance of good order and discipline”; and in custody and handling of prisoners of war — essentially combat-support operations. 

The move is part of a slow opening up of avenues for women in the armed forces. In his Independence Day speech last year, Prime Minister Narendra Modi had said women officers recruited into the armed forces under the Short Service Commission would be given the option of taking up permanent commission — a “gift” to India’s “brave daughters”. Following a notification issued by the Army on April 25, around 15,000 women registered for the recruitment rally at Belagavi, the first of five such to be held across India to fill 100 positions in the Military Police. The Belagavi centre catered to candidates from the southern states of Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana and the Union Territories of Lakshadweep, Andaman and Nicobar and Puducherry. Of the 15,000 aspirants, about 3,000 were short- listed on the basis of their Class 10 marks, with the cut-off set at 86 per cent. Of the shortlisted candidates, only about one-third turned up at the Belagavi centre between August 1 and 5 at the date and time assigned to them. Just then, outside the enclosure where Sneha is sitting, a shrill whistle pierces the air and another batch of girls takes off — feet on the wet ground, mostly bare, making a dash for their place in history. “Does everybody understand English?” asks Major Chaudhry and the group of 30 women, sitting on red carpets on the ground, bellows: “Yes”. 

Q.112 What is the occasion being talked about in the passage? 

A Recruitment of women in the Indian Army 

B Medical examination of the women soldiers of the Indian Army 

C Sports event for the women working in the Indian Army 

D An assembly of the women personnel of the Indian Army 

Answer: A 

 

Q.113 Which city does Sneha come from? 

A Kannur, Kerala 

B Kozhikode, Kerala 

C Iritty, Kerala 

D Belagavi, Karnataka 

Answer: C 

 

Q.114 Why are there eruptions on Sneha’s face? 

A She is tired and hot after 400 meters. 

B She has pimples on her face. 

C She has got the chicken pox. 

D She is angry over the long wait. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.115 How many women are participating at the recruitment rally at Belagavi? 

A 100 

B 850 

C 3000 

D 15000 

Answer: B 

 

Q.116 What gift was announced by the PM in his Independence Day speech last year for the brave daughters of the country? 

A woman will be recruited in the armed forces. 

B Women will be recruited as soldiers in the Military police. 

C Women officers will be able to opt for permanent commission in the armed forces. 

D Women will have an opportunity to be involved in active military duties. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.117 In what way is ‘history’ being made in Belagavi? 

A Women have travelled from far-off places to turn up at the recruitment rally. 

B This rally marks the first time that women will be taken in as soldiers. 

C Belagavi rally is the first of the five to be held across India. 

D The rally is a result of the PM’s Independence Day speech last year. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.118 Which of the following duties will be borne by women soldiers? 1. Investigating offences involving molestation, theft and rape. 2. Assisting in maintaining order and discipline. 3.Administrative jobs 4. Handling prisoners of war in custody. 

A 1, 2 and 3 

B 2, 3 and 4 

C 1, 2 and 4 

D 1, 2, 3 and 4 

Answer: C 

 

Q.119 Which of the following is NOT necessary to qualify for the recruitment in the armed forces? 

A long jump and high jump 

B 1.6 meter race to be completed within 8 minutes 

C to speak English 

D physical fitness tests 

Answer: C 

 

Q.120 Which of the following states were not covered by the Belagavi centre? 

A Karnataka and Kerala 

B UTs of Puducherry, Lakshadweep and AN Islands 

C Telangana and Andhra Pradesh 

D Maharashtra and Goa 

Answer: D 

 

Q.121 Which statement is NOT true according to the passage? 

A About one third of the shortlisted candidates turned up at the Belagavi centre. 

B Women were called on the basis of their class 10 marks 

C There are only 100 positions to be filled up. 

D 3000 women registered for the recruitment rally at Belagavi. 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.122 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. Major Chaudhry said to the aspirants, “Does everyone understand English?” 

A Major Chaudhry informed the aspirants that everyone understood English. 

B Major Chaudhry asked the aspirants whether everyone understood English. 

C Major Chaudhry told the aspirants that everyone should understand English. 

D Major Chaudhry asked the aspirants whether everyone understands English. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.123 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. A. Flying kites is an old world sport. B. This sport involves a lot of risk. C. So, one has to be very cautious and skillful. D. It was quite popular during the days of the Nawabs. 

A BDCA 

B BACD 

C ABDC 

D ADBC 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Q.124 The soldiers carried around the orders of their commander without question. 

A No improvement 

B carried out 

C carried away 

D carried 

Answer: B 

 

Q.125 In an examination, it is more important to answer accurately than a quick finish. 

A to quick finishing 

B No improvement 

C to finish quickly 

D finish quickly 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.126 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. The Finance Minister said, “The Government will trim the corporate tax gradually to 25 percent for all companies.” 

A The Finance Minister said that the Government would trim the corporate tax gradually to 25 percent for all companies. 

B The Finance Minister asked the Government if it would trim the corporate tax gradually to 25 percent for all companies. 

C The Finance Minister ordered the Government to trim the corporate tax gradually to 25 percent for all companies 

D The Finance Minister told that the Government will trim the corporate tax gradually to 25 percent for all companies 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each number. 

Comprehension: The other day there was a heavy downpour in our town. The roads looked (1) ______ small rivulets. There was a house (2) ______ our locality which was in a (3)______ condition. All of a sudden it collapsed. (4) ______ news spread in the whole (5) ______ like wildfire. 

Q.127 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1. 

A same 

B so as 

C as 

D like 

Answer: D 

 

Q.128 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2. 

A in 

B to 

C at 

D on 

Answer: A 

 

Q.129 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3. 

A destroyed 

B dilapidated 

C dejected 

D declined 

Answer: B 

 

Q.130 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4. 

A A 

B Few 

C One 

D The 

Answer: D 

 

Q.131 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5. 

A house 

B village 

C valley 

D town 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.132 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. If there is no error, select No error. What is the function of the kidney in the body? 

A in the body 

B the function of the kidney 

C What is 

D No error 

Answer: D 

 

Q.133 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

A. And I was earning barely enough money to keep body and soul together. 

B. It was twenty years ago. 

C. At that time I was living in Paris. 

D. I had a tiny apartment in the Latin Quarter overlooking a cemetery. 

A ADBC 

B BCDA 

C ABCD 

D BDCA 

Answer: B 

 

Q.134 Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. Her mother advised her not to go too fast while reciting her poem. 

A Her mother said, “Why are you going so fast while reciting your poem?” 

B Her mother said, “Don’t go too fast while reciting your poem.” 

C Her mother said, “You needn’t go too fast while reciting your poem.” 

D Her mother said, “Don’t go too fast while reciting her poem.” 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

Q.135 A. The other day we entered the city’s only Jewish cemetery. 

B. But then, it should not be a surprise. 

C. We were astonished to discover how tiny it was. 

D. Although Jewish people have lived in India for generations, they are one of the nation’s tiniest minorities. 

A BCAD 

B DCBA 

C ADBC 

D ACBD 

Answer: D 

 

Q.136 A. The officers are looking to reunite the dog with his owner. 

B. Eventually, the police caught the Chihuahua. 

C. A police officer on a motorcycle chased the dog. 

D. A Chihuahua ran across California’s San Francisco-Oakland Bay Bridge. 

A DCBA 

B CDAB 

C ABCD 

D DBCA 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. 

Comprehension: At a number of places in the Kashmir Valley, security forces have put coils of razor wire on roads to enforce restrictions on movement. Concertina wire or razor wire fences are used along territorial borders and in areas of conflict around the world, to keep out combatants, terrorists, or refugees. 

The expandable spools of barbed or razor wire get their name from concertina, a hand-held musical instrument similar to the accordion, with bellows that expand and contract. Concertina wire coils were an improvisation on the barbed wire obstacles used during World War I. The flat, collapsible coils with intermittent barbs or blades were designed to be carried along by infantry, and deployed on battlefields to prevent or slow down enemy movement. 

The Englishman Richard Newton is credited with creating the first barbed wire around 1845; the first patent for “a double wire clipped with diamond shaped barbs” was given to Louis François Janin of France. In the United States, the first patent was registered by Lucien B Smith on June 25, 1867, for a prairie fence made of fireproof iron wire. Michael Kelly twisted razor wires together to form a cable of wires. The American businessman Joseph F Glidden is considered to be the father of the modern barbed wire. He designed the wire with two intertwined strands held by sharp prongs at regular intervals. 

Barbed wire was initially an agrarian fencing invention intended to confine cattle and sheep, which unlike lumber, was largely resistant to fire and bad weather. An advertorial published in the US in 1885 under the title ‘Why Barb Fencing Is Better Than Any Other’, argued that “it does not decay; boys cannot crawl through or over it; nor dogs; nor cats; nor any other animal; it watches with Argus eyes the inside and outside, up, down and lengthwise; it prevents the ‘ins’ from being ‘outs’, and the ‘outs’ from being ‘ins’, watches at day-break, at noontide, at . 

sunset and all night long…” Barbed wire was put to military use in the Siege of Santiago in 1898 during the Spanish- American War, and by the British in the Second Boer War of 1899-1902 to confine the families of the Afrikaans- speaking Boer fighters. 

World War I saw extensive use of barbed wire — and German military engineers are credited with improvising the earliest concertina coils on the battlefield. They spun the barbed wire into circles and simply spread it on the battlefield. Without using any support infrastructure like poles etc. this was more effective against the infantry charge by Allied soldiers. 

The fence erected by India along the Line of Control to keep out terrorist infiltrators consists of rows of concertina wire coils held by iron angles. They are now commonly seen and are used to secure private properties as well. 

Q.137 What is the main theme of the above passage? 

A How barbed wire was patented 

B The use of barbed wire in Jammu and Kashmir 

C The use of barbed wire in agriculture 

D The evolution and use of barbed wire 

Answer: D 

 

Q.138 Who is credited with creating the modern barbed wire? 

A Louise Francoise Janin 

B Joseph F Glidden 

C Lucien B Smith 

D Richard Newton 

Answer: B 

 

Q.139 What was the initial purpose of inventing the barbed wire? 

A to secure the borders of a country 

B to keep the dogs and boys out of gardens 

C to restrict the movement of trouble makers 

D to confine cattle and sheep within an area 

Answer: D

 

Q.140 Who first spread the barbed wires on the field without using the poles or any other support system? 

A German military engineers 

B British army 

C American military 

D Allied soldiers 

Answer: A 

 

Q.141 Which statement is NOT true according to the passage? 

A The fence along the Indian Line of Control consists of rows of concertina wire coils held by iron angles. 

B In the United States, the first patent was registered by Louis François Janin. 

C It was Richard Newton, an Englishman, who invented the barbed wire around 1845. 

D Barbed wire was first put to military use in the Siege of Santiago in 1898 during the Spanish-American War. 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.142 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. A. There had already been abundant rainfall in Delhi. B. It was the fag end of summer. C. A strong wind began to blow and the rain came causing havoc all around. D. One day, however, we had a cyclonic storm. 

A BADC 

B CADB 

C BACD 

D CBAD 

Answer: A 

 

Q.143 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. I said to Taru, “The tyre of my car is punctured.” 

A I told Taru that the tyre of my car is punctured. 

B Taru told me that the tyre of my car was punctured. 

C I told Taru that the tyre of my car was punctured. 

D I told Taru that the tyre of her car is punctured. 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. 

Q.144 Rohit did not come to the office because he got held up due to the heavy rains. 

A to the office 

B due to the heavy rains 

C Rohit did not came 

D because he got held up 

Answer: C 

 

Q.145 Despite incessant rains, she is the only one who plans to attend the meeting at the ministry. 

A Despite incessant rains 

B who plan to attend 

C the meeting at the ministry. 

D she is the only one 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.146 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. pie in the sky 

A something very small 

B something not possible 

C difficult to find 

D an easy situation 

Answer: B 

 

Q.147 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. A. Due to the movie, tourists started coming to the beach there. B. Maya Bay in Thailand was in the media in 1999 when Hollywood arrived there to film ‘The Beach’. C. One of the film’s actors was Leonardo Di Caprio. D. As many as 4,000 visitors would arrive on boats every day. 

A BCAD 

B CBDA 

C ABCD 

D CABD 

Answer: A 

 

Q.148 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. In view of the excessive heat, schools in Delhi remained closed ______a week in July. 

A for 

B about 

C in 

D to 

Answer: A 

 

Q.149 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. Everybody is waiting to see whether the new leadership has effect some changes soon in the party. 

A Everybody is waiting to see 

B soon in the party 

C has effect some changes 

D whether the new leadership 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. 

Comprehension: LAST WEEK, scientists from all corners of India descended on Ahmedabad to remember the architect of India’s space programme, a man whom the late president, APJ Abdul Kalam, had famously termed “Mahatma Gandhi of Indian Science”. 

They were there to launch celebrations on the birth centenary of Vikram Sarabhai, 47 years after his death at the age of 52, by when he had founded 38 institutions that are now leaders in space research, physics, management and performing arts. 

Former director of the Space Applications Centre Pramod Kale was a 19-year old science graduate from MS University of Baroda, besotted by space technology, when he first met Sarabhai. “In May 1960, I went to Ahmedabad to meet Dr. Sarabhai. “I met him and ended up talking for two hours,” Kale says. 

By June that year, Kale had done exactly as Sarabhai had advised him and taken up a master’s course at Gujarat University. In 1962, when Sarabhai was looking at studying the magnetic equator, Kale went on to be among the first few to go to NASA to learn radar tracking. The room resounded with many such memories. Former ISRO chairman K Kasturirangan remembered how they ran into some trouble at the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL), founded in 1947 by Sarabhai, in their attempts to fly a balloon at 4 am, when in sailed Sarabhai. “He told us had the flight been successful, you would not have learnt even half of what you learnt because of that initial problem,” said Kasturirangan. Many of those who had collected in Ahmedabad in Sarabhai’s memory were teenagers when they first met him. Gandhinagar-based entrepreneur K Subramanian was 19 and a student of National Institute of Technology, Tiruchirappalli, working on a summer project at PRL, when a man in a kurta-pyjama walked in and began turning all the waste paper bins upside down, inspecting their contents and putting them back again. “I asked a colleague who that was and was told it is Dr Vikram Sarabhai. He had come to check how much waste the lab was generating,” laughs Subramanian. 

Born to Ambalal and Sarla Devi, Ahmedabad’s leading textile-mill owners, Vikram Sarabhai showed creative promise early. He was 15 when he built a working model of a train engine with the help of two engineers, which is now housed at the Community Science Centre (CSC) in Ahmedabad. The CSC was Vikram’s way of providing other children the privileges he had, of experimental research, says his son Kartikeya, 71, adding how his father wished to work with children at the science centre after he retired. 

“He was essentially a researcher, and believed that people, especially children, should be allowed to think freely and come up with solutions on their own,” recalls Kartikeya, who founded the Centre for Environment Education in 1984. Kartikeya is carefully piecing together all the dog-eared notes he is discovering in the recesses of their three grand homes — Shanti Sadan, The Retreat and Chidambaram. To inspire the young to dream like Sarabhai, Kartikeya is building a permanent exhibition gallery on the Sabarmati Riverfront, expected to open this November. 

 

Q.150 What was the occasion for the gathering at Ahmedabad? 

A Foundation Day of Community Science Centre 

B Launch of the celebrations of the Birth Centenary of Vikram Sarabhai 

C Foundation Day of ISRO 

D Birth Anniversary of India’s Space Programme 

Answer: B 

 

Q.151 What is Vikram Sarabhai mainly known for? 

A for being an entrepreneur in Ahmedabad 

B for pioneering India’s space programme 

C for founding 38 different institutions 

D for establishing Community Science Centre 

Answer: B 

 

Q.152 Among the people who had gathered at Ahmedabad, who was the former chairman of ISRO? 

A Kartikeya 

B K Subramanian 

C K Kasturirangan 

D Pramod Kale 

Answer: C 

 

Q.153 Which statement shows that Vikram Sarabhai had a creative mind at an early age? 

A He built a working model of a train engine at the age of 15. 

B He founded the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL). 

C He told the scientists that they learnt much more from problems than from success. 

D He checked how much waste the lab was generating. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.154 How did Vikram Sarabhai provide under-privileged children the experience of experimental research? 

A By initiating space research at PRL 

B By founding Community Science Centre at Ahmedabad. 

C By founding Physical Research Laboratory 

D By providing them with scholarships in science 

Answer: B 

 

Q.155 APJ Abdul Kalam called Vikram Sarabhai “Mahatma Gandhi of Indian Science”. What does ‘Mahatma Gandhi’ mean here? 

A Father 

B Social reformer 

C Revolutionary 

D Architect 

Answer: A 

 

Q.156 Which statement is NOT true according to the passage? 

A The Sarabhai family owns three grand homes in Mumbai. 

B Vikram Sarabhai’s son, Kartikeya, is now 71 years old. 

C The names of Vikram Sarabhai’s parents were Ambalal and Sarla Devi. 

D Vikram Sarabhai’s father was a textile mill owner. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.157 ‘He was a 19-year old science graduate besotted by space technology, when he first met Sarabhai.’ ‘besotted’ here means 

A frantic 

B wasted 

C obsessed 

D greedy 

Answer: C 

 

Q.158 Who among the following went to NASA to study radar tracking? 

A Pramod Kale 

B K Subramanian 

C K Kasturirangan 

D Kartikeya 

Answer: A 

 

Q.159 Where did K Subramanian come from to work at PRL? 

A Bangalore 

B Baroda 

C Ahmedabad 

D Tiruchirappalli 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.160 Select the correct active form of the given sentence. Pruning of trees in my colony has been started by the horticulture department. 

A Pruning of trees in my colony has started the horticulture department. 

B The horticulture department has been starting pruning of trees in my colony. 

C The horticulture department has started pruning trees in my colony. 

D The horticulture department will start pruning trees in my colony. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.161 Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. The officer told me that I needed to work harder to meet my targets otherwise I would have to leave the company. 

A The officer said to me, “I need to work harder to meet my targets otherwise I will have to leave the company.” 

B The officer said to me, “Work harder to meet your targets otherwise be ready to leave the company.” 

C The officer said to me, “You have to work harder to meet our targets otherwise I will have to leave the company.” 

D The officer said to me, “You need to work harder to meet your targets otherwise you will have to leave the company.” 

Answer: D 

 

Q.162 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. I am going on a holiday to Pachmarhi tomorrow. 

A tomorrow 

B to Pachmarhi 

C to a holiday 

D I am going 

Answer: C 

 

Q.163 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

A naucea 

B naughty 

C naturalistic 

D nautical 

Answer: A 

 

Q.164 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. Avika said to her mother, “You are very late today.” 

A Avika asked her mother why she was late today. 

B Avika told her mother that she was very late that day. 

C Avika told her mother that she was very late that day. 

D Avika told her mother that you were very late that day. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.165 Select the correct active form of the given sentence. Being a space scientist, you are advised not to take your work lightly. 

A Being a space scientist, you do not take your work lightly. 

B Being a space scientist, you could not take your work lightly. 

C Being a space scientist, you should not take your work lightly. 

D Being a space scientist, you will not take your work lightly. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.166 Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. Mr. Lucas told his wife not to wait for him as he would be late at the studio that night. 

A His wife said to Mr Lucas, “Don’t wait for him as he will be late at the studio that night.” 

B Mr Lucas said to his wife, “Not to wait for him as I would be late at the studio tonight.” 

C Mr Lucas said to his wife, “Don’t wait for me as I will be late at the studio tonight.” 

D Mr Lucas said to his wife, “Don’t wait for him as he will be late at the studio that night.” 

Answer: C 

 

Q.167 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. I came across some words which meant I did not know. 

A the meanings of which 

B No improvement 

C that meanings which 

D which means that 

Answer: A 

 

Q.168 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. sell like hot cakes 

A to face hardship 

B to sell quickly 

C to agree fully 

D to deal with a problem 

Answer: B 

 

Q.169 Select the correct active form of the given sentence. Mobile toilets were placed by the district administration behind the area where people assembled for army recruitment. 

A The district administration has placed mobile toilets behind the area where people assembled for army recruitment. 

B The district administration is planning to place mobile toilets behind the area where people will assemble for army recruitment. 

C The district administration placed mobile toilets behind the area where people assembled for army recruitment. 

D The mobile toilets placed district administration behind the area where people assembled for army recruitment. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.170 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. A. All day I seem to remember, I played on the sands with strange exciting children. B. Then watched the incoming tide destroy them. C. My parents took me by car to a place by the sea. D. We made sandcastles with huge walls. 

A ACDB 

B CADB 

C CDAB 

D ABCD 

Answer: B 

 

Q.171 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. The height of an object or point in relation to sea level or ground level 

A rectitude 

B longitude 

C latitude 

D altitude 

Answer: D 

 

Q.172 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. I am sure he will give me some advice about admission to the University of Delhi. 

A I am sure he will be given some advice by me about admission to the University of Delhi. 

B I am sure I will be given some advice by him about admission to the University of Delhi. 

C I am sure I was given some advice by him about admission to the University of Delhi. 

D I am sure I can be given some advice by him about admission to the University of Delhi. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.173 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. Anshul said, “Should we go to the Zoo today?” 

A Anshul said that they should go to the zoo that day. 

B Anshul wondered if they should go to the zoo that day. 

C Anshul asked if we should go to the zoo today. 

D Anshul announced that they would go to the zoo that day. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.174 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. causing no harm 

A insolvent 

B inorganic 

C integral 

D innocuous 

Answer: D 

 

Q.175 Select the most appropriate indirect form of the given sentence. My sister said, “What time will the train reach Bhopal?” 

A My sister asked what time the train reaches Bhopal. 

B My sister asked what time the train will reach Bhopal. 

C My sister asked what time the train reached Bhopal. 

D My sister asked what time the train would reach Bhopal. 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it. 

Comprehension: A great water scarcity looms over India; by 2025 Indians will get just over half the water they get today. This grave problem has a simple solution. Catch the rain as it falls, and the water crisis will disappear. However, about 80 per cent of India’s rainfall buckets down during the three months of the monsoons. As yet, no government programmer has discovered how to store this water. 

‘Dying Wisdom’, a seven-year countryside study by Delhi’s Centre for Science and Environment, reveals that ruins of amazing ancient technologies survive in every corner of India. Drip-irrigation systems of bamboo pipes in Meghalaya; ‘kunds’, underground tanks in Rajasthan; ‘pynes’, water channels built by tribals in Bihar; and thousands of open- water bodies down south are all superb examples of rainwater harvesting systems. Even today, tanks called ‘eris’ in Tamil Nadu water one-third of the state’s irrigated area. Unfortunately, governmental planners mostly refuse to acknowledge the potential of these low-cost systems, concentrating on costly dams and canals. 

Few cities have lost touch with their ecological traditions as fast-and with as damaging results-as Bangalore. Only 17 of its water bodies struggle to survive in a city where once 200 lakes, ponds and wetlands cooled the city and recharged its ground water. The threats continue unabated as the relentless march of urbanization shows no sign of stopping. 

Q.176 ‘This grave problem’ in the passage refers to 

A short monsoon span 

B rainfall 

C storage of water 

D water crisis 

Answer: D 

 

Q.177 What, according to the passage, is the primary reason for the water shortage? 

A Lack of means to store rainwater 

B Government’s ignorance of the situation 

C Less rainfall in the country 

D Carelessness of people in using water 

Answer: A 

 

Q.178 Which State uses bamboo pipes for the drip irrigation system? 

A Bihar 

B Rajasthan 

C Meghalaya 

D Tamil Nadu 

Answer: C 

 

Q.179 Which of the following is not a low cost technology in water usage? 

A water channels 

B drip-irrigation 

C underground tanks 

D dams and canals 

Answer: D 

 

Q.180 The people in ancient India had amazing technology to harvest water. This shows that 

A they understood the significance of water. 

B it used to rain heavily. 

C they did not know how to build dams. 

D water was scarce at that time. 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.181 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. the feeling of being upset or annoyed as a result of being unable to change or achieve something. 

A astonishment 

B fascination 

C frustration 

D anticipation 

Answer: C 

 

Q.182 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

A. On Saturday the 10th, Typhoon Lekima made landfall in China’s Zhejiang province. 

B. This province is often hit with typhoons, but this storm was its strongest ever. 

C. The typhoon brought winds of up to 116mph, and floods affected almost 5 million people. 

D. More than 1 million people were evacuated from their homes. 

A ABCD 

B BDCA 

C ADBC 

D CBAD 

Answer: A 

 

Q.183 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. I request you to not to crack jokes in the class. 

A not to crack 

B No improvement 

C to not to cracking 

D not cracking 

Answer: A 

 

Q.184 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. In the same boat 

A at the centre of attention 

B in a superior position 

C in the same situation 

D in disgrace 

Answer: C 

 

Q.185 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. The Social Media Department is headless at the moment and many are vying to the post. 

A is headless at the moment 

B The Social Media Department 

C to the post. 

D and many are vying 

Answer: C 

 

Q.186 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. Right from the beginning ______ government’s focus has been on ______ development of the country. 

A the, the 

B a, the 

C the, a 

D a, no word required 

Answer: A 

 

Q.187 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

A. And taking this village lad into their midst was terribly upsetting. 

B. She was by no means pleased with this unnecessary addition to her family. 

C. When he reached Calcutta, Phatik met his aunt for the first time. 

D. She found her own three boys quite enough to manage without taking in anyone else. 

A CBDA 

B BCDA 

C BCAD 

D CADB 

Answer: A 

 

Q.188 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. He switched on the TV to listen to the speech of the PM on the Independence Day. 

A He switched on the TV 

B of the PM 

C to listening to the speech 

D on Independence Day. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.189 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. They started playing badminton at a young age of nine years old . 

A the young age of nine 

B the young age of nine years old 

C a young age of nine years 

D No improvement 

Answer: A 

 

Q.190 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. the customary code of polite behaviour in society 

A norm 

B majesty 

C estimation 

D etiquette 

Answer: D

 

Instructions: Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. 

Q.191 The traveller said that he had come a long way off. 

A The traveller said, “He had come a long way off.” 

B The traveller said, “I am coming a long way off.” 

C The traveller said, “He has come a long way off.” 

D The traveller said, “I have come a long way off.” 

Answer: D 

 

Q.192 I told Vinod that the plumber had forgotten his mobile there. 

A I said to Vinod, “The plumber is forgetting his mobile here.” 

B I said to Vinod, “The plumber had forgotten his mobile there.” 

C Vinod said to me, “The plumber has forgotten his mobile here.” 

D I said to Vinod, “The plumber has forgotten his mobile here.” 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.193 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate idiom. Now that Mr. Krishna Murthy has retired from the company, his daughter is ______. 

A in the doghouse 

B in the driver’s seat 

C in the lap of luxury 

D in the pink 

Answer: B 

 

Q.194 Select the most appropriate sequence from the given options to make a meaningful paragraph from jumbled sentences. 

A. After around 20 minutes of the crash, the tanker caught fire and exploded. 

B. On Saturday, an oil tanker in Tanzania lost control and overturned on a busy road. 

C. Around 150 people gathered near the tanker and some of them tried to siphon away some fuel. 

D. At least 61 people died and 70 more were injured. 

A DCAB 

B BCAD 

C DBAC 

D BACD 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions: Select the most appropriate direct form of the given sentence. 

Q.195 I asked my friend if he had seen the launch of the Chandrayaan2 from Sriharikota. 

A I said to my friend, “How did you see the launch of the Chandrayaan2 from Sriharikota?” 

B I said to my friend, “I had seen the launch of the Chandrayaan2 from Sriharikota?” 

C I said to my friend, “Did you see the launch of the Chandrayaan2 from Sriharikota?” 

D I said to my friend, “He has seen the launch of the Chandrayaan2 from Sriharikota.” 

Answer: C 

 

Q.196 She says that Rani is a talented actress. 

A She said, “Rani was a talented actress.” 

B She said, “Rani is a talented actress.” 

C She says, “Rani is a talented actress.” 

D She asks, “Is Rani a talented actress?” 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.197 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words. a decision on which one cannot go back 

A intractable 

B invincible 

C invulnerable 

D irrevocable 

Answer: D 

 

Q.198 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom in the given sentence. They talked over the matter of his leaving the job and going for further studies. 

A discussed 

B fought against 

C surveyed 

D explained 

Answer: A 

 

Q.199 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. If there is no error, select No error. They made her the Chairperson of their bank. 

A No error 

B as the Chairperson 

C of their bank. 

D They made her 

Answer: B 

 

Q.200 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error from the given options. They can’t hardly believe that Article 370 is no longer valid in Jammu and Kashmir. 

A is no longer valid 

B in Jammu and Kashmir. 

C that Article 370 

D They can’t hardly believe 

Answer: D 

SSC CGL Tier-II 12 September 2019 Maths Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL MATHS

 Tier-II (12 Sept 2019)  

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.1 Two-third of the number of employees of a company are males and the rest are females. If ⅜ of the male employees and ⅖ female employees are temporary employees and the total number of permanent employees is 740. Then ⁷/₁₅ the total number of employees exceeds the number of temporary female employees by: 

A 400 

B 340 

C 308 

D 320 

Answer: A 

 

Q.2 Three fractions x,у and z are such that x > y > z.When small of them divided by the greatest, the result is ⁹/₁₆ , which exceeds y by 0.0625.If  x+y+z=1¹³/₂₄,then the value of x+z is 

A ⁷/₈

B 1 

C ²⁵/₂₄

D ⁷/₆

Answer: C 

 

Q.3 If the 11-digit number 5678x43267y is divisible by 72, then the value of √(5x+8y) is: 

A 6 

B 4 

C 7 

D 8 

Answer: A 

 

Q.4 What is the ratio of the third proportionalto 0.4 and 0.8, to the mean proportional between 13.5 and 0.24? 

A 5 : 4 

B 7: 8 

C 8 : 9 

D 9 : 10 

Answer: C 

 

Q.5 If x + ⅟₁₆x = 3 then the value of 16x3 + ⅟₂₅₆x3 is: 

A 423 

B 441 

C 432 

D 414 

Answer: A 

 

Q.6 If 60% of a number is 120 more than 20% of the number, then 28% of the number is less than 33⅓% of the number by: 

A 14 

B 12 

C 16 

D 15 

Answer: C 

 

Q.7 A sum lent out at simple interest amounts to ₹6076 in 1 year and ₹7504 in 4 years. The sum and the rate of interest p.a. are respectively: 

A ₹5,600 and 9% 

B ₹5,600 and 8.5% 

C ₹5,400 and 9% 

D ₹5,400 and 10% 

Answer: B 

 

Q.8 In △ABC , the medians AD, BE and CF meet at O. What is the ratio of the area of △ABD tothe area of △AOE

A 2 : 1 

B 3 : 1 

C 5 : 2 

D 3 : 2 

Answer: B 

 

Q.9 If x + y + z = 2, xy + yz + zx = −11 and xyz = −12 , then what is the value of √(x3 + y3 + z 3 − 2) ? 

A 6 

B 12 

C 9 

D 8 

Answer: A 

 

Q.10 The value of ( 1⅓÷ 2⁶/₇ of 5⅗)÷( 6⅖÷ 4½ of 5⅓) × ( ¾× 2⅔÷ ⁵/₉ of 1⅕) = 1 + k ,where k lies between 

A -0.07 and -0.06 

B -0.08 and -0.07 

C -0.06 and -0.05 

D -0.05 and -0.04 

Answer: A 

 

Q.11 5 years ago, the ratio of the age of A to that of B was 4 : 5. Five years hence, the ratio of the age of A to that of B will be 6 : 7. If, at present, C is 10 years younger than B, then what will be the ratio of the present age of A to that of C? 

A 3 : 2 

B 5 : 4 

C 4 : 3 

D 5 : 3 

Answer: B 

 

Q.12 The area of the base of a right circular cone is 400π andits height is 15 cm. The curved surface area of the cone (in cm2 ) is: 

A 480π

B 500π

C 450π

D 560π

Answer: B 

 

Q.13 The given pie chart shows the quantity wise sales distribution of five products (A, B, C, D and E) of a company in 2016.  Quantity wise sales distribution of five products (A, B, C, D and E) 

If 1500 units of product D were sold in 2016 and the total number of units sold by the company in 2017 was 18% more than that sold in 2016, then the total units sold by the company in 2017 is: 

A 6336 

B 6390 

C 6372 

D 6354 

Answer: C 

 

Q.14 The given bar graph shows the imports and exports (in ₹ crores) of steel by a country from 2013 to 2017. 

What is the ratio of the total imports in 2015 and 2017 to the total exports in 2013 and 2016? 

A 11 : 4 

B 9 : 8 

C 25 : 21 

D 9 : 11 

Answer: C 

 

Q.15 An article is sold at a certain price. If it is sold at 80% of this price, then there will be a loss of 10%. What is the percentage profit when the article is sold at the original selling price? 

A 15½ 

B 12½ 

C 15 

D 12 

Answer: B 

 

Q.16 In a circle, AB and DC are two chords. When AB and DC are produced, they meet at P. If PC = 5.6 cm, PB = 6.3 cm and AB = 7.7 cm, then the length of CD is: 

A 8.35 cm 

B 9 cm 

C 10.15 cm 

D 9.25 cm 

Answer: C 

 

Q.17 The value of  is:

A ³/₂

B ½

C 1 

D 2 

Answer: D 

 

Q.18 A is 25% more than B and B is 40% less than C. If C is 30% more than D, then by what percent is A less than D? 

A 1.5 

B 2.5 

C 4 

D 5 

Answer: B 

 

Q.19 In a class, 83⅓%of the number of studentsare girls and the rest are boys. If 60% of the number of boys and 80% of the number of girls are present, then what percentage of the total number of students in the class is absent? 

A 26⅔

B 22⅔ 

C 23⅓ 

D 12⅓

Answer: C 

 

Q.20 A spends 65% of his income. His income is increased by 20.1% and his expenditure is increased by 25%. His savings: 

A Increase by 11% 

B Increase by 5% 

C Decrease by 5% 

D Decrease by 11% 

Answer: A 

 

Q.21 The average weight of a certain numberofstudents in a group is 72 kg. If 10 students having an average weight of 78 kg leave and 4 students having an average weightof 80 kg join the group, the average weight of the students in the group decreases by 0.7 kg, The number of students initially in the group is: 

A 56 

B 46 

C 44 

D 54 

Answer: B 

 

Q.22 If (1+sinφ)/ (1-sinφ) =p2/q2, then secφ is equal to 

A 2P2Q2/p2+q2

B ½(q/p+p/q)

C ⅟p2+⅟q2

D P2q2/p2-q2

Answer: B 

 

Q.23 The marked price of an article is ₹800 and it is sold at a discount of 19%. If there is a gain of 8%, then by what percent above the cost price was the article marked? 

A 33⅓

B 35 

C 27 

D 36⅔

Answer: A 


Q.24 The base of a right prism is a triangle with sides 20cm, 21cm and 29cm. If its volume is 7560cm3, then its lateral surface area (in cm2 ) is: 

A 2484 

B 2556 

C 2520 

D 2448 

Answer: C 

 

Q.25 The expression √[10 + 2 ( √6 − √15 − √10)] is equal to: 

A √3 + √2 − √5 

B √3 − √2 − √5 

C √3 − √2 + √5 

D√2 − √3 −√5 

Answer: A 

 

Q.26 A cylindrical vessel of radius 3.5 m is full of water. If 15400 litres of water is taken out from it, then the drop in the water level in the vessel will be: 

A 72 cm 

B 40 cm 

C 35 cm 

D 60 cm 

Answer: B 

Q.27 The value of  is equal to:

A 2cosφ

B cosecφ secφ

C 2sinφ

D sinφ cosφ

Answer: D 

 

Q.28 A, B and C start a business. A invests 33⅓%of the total capital, B invests 25%of the remaining and C invests the rest. If the total profit at the end of a year is ₹1,62,000, then A’s share in profit is: 

A ₹81,000 

B ₹60,000 

C ₹54,000 

D ₹90,000 

Answer: C

 

Q.29 A solid metallic sphere of radius 8 cm is melted and drawn into a wire of uniform cross-section. If the length of the wire is 24 m, then its radius (in mm) is: 

A 6 

B 5 

C 5⅓

D 6 ⅔

Answer: C 

 

Q.30 The sides of a triangle are 56 cm, 90 cm and 106 cm. The circumference of its circumcircle is: 

A 106π 

B 109π 

C 108π 

D 112π 

Answer: A 

 

Q.31 The speed of a boat in still water is 18 km/h and the speed of the current is 6 km/h. In how much time (in hours) will the boat travel a distance of 90 km upstream and the same distance downstream? 

A 9½

B 11¼

C 12 

D 10 

Answer: B 

 

Q.32 The HCF of two numbers is 21 and their LCM is 221 times the HCF. If one of the numbers lies between 200 and 300, then the sum of the digits of the other number is: 

A 14 

B 17 

C 18 

D 15 

Answer: D 

 

Q.33 △ABC and △DBC are on the same BC but on opposite sides of it. AD and BC intersect each other at O.If AO = a cm, DO = b cm and the area of △ABC = xcm2 , then what is the area(in cm2 ) of △DBC 

A (a/b)x 

B (ab/2)

C bx /a

D (a+b)/2 

Answer: C 

 

Q.34 The value of tan2 φ + cot2 φ sec2 φcosec2 φ is equal to 

A -2 

B 1 

C 0 

D -1 

Answer: A 

 

Q.35 The point of intersection of the graphs of the equations 3x – 5y = 19 and 3y -7x + 1 =0 is P ( α,β ). Whatis the value of ( 3α β ) ? 

A -2 

B -1 

C 1 

D 0 

Answer: B 

 

Q.36 ( secφ − tanφ )2 ( 1 + sinφ )2 ÷ sin2 φ= ? 

A cosφ 

B cot2 φ 

C secφ 

D cos2 φ

Answer: B 

 

Q.37 By selling two articles for ₹800, a person gains the cost price of three articles. The profit percent is: 

A 125 

B 140 

C 120 

D 150 

Answer: D 

 

Q.38 What is the compound interest on a sum of ₹7200 for 2⅖ years at 20% p.a., interest compounded yearly (nearest to an integer)? 

A ₹4,290 

B ₹3,960 

C ₹4,205 

D ₹3,997 

Answer: D 

Q.39 The value of is: 

A -1 

B 1 

C 3 

D -3 

Answer: A 

 

Q.40 The base of a right pyramid is an equilateral triangle with side 8 cm, and the height of the pyramid is 24√3 cm3. The volume (in cm3) of the pyramid is: 

A 1152 

B 480 

C 576 

D 384 

Answer: D 

 

Q.41 The sum of the interior angles of a regular polygonis 1260⁰, What is the difference between an exterior angle and an interior angle of the polygon? 

A 105⁰

B 100⁰

C 120⁰

D 90⁰

Answer: B 

 

Q.42 In circle with centre O. AC and BD are two chords. AC and BD meet at E when produced. If AB is the diameter and ∠AEB=68⁰ , then the measure of ∠DOC is 

A 32⁰

B 30⁰

C 22⁰

D 44⁰

Answer: D 

 

Q.43 In ΔABC, the perpendiculars drawn fromA,B and C meet the opposite sides at D,E and F, respectively.AD, BE and CF intersect at point P. If ∠EPD=116⁰ and the bisectors of ∠A and ∠B meet at Q, then the measure of ∠AQBis: 

A 96⁰

B 122⁰

C 124⁰

D 64⁰

Answer: B 

 

Q.44 The perimeters of two similar triangles ABC and PQR are 78 cm and 46.8 cm, respectively. If PQ = 11.7, then the length of AB is: 

A 19.5 cm 

B 23.4 cm 

C 24 cm 

D 20 cm 

Answer: A 

 

Q.45 If the diameter of the base of a right circular cylinder is reduced by 33⅓% and its height is doubled, then the volume of the cylinder will: 

A increase by 1⅟₉%

B remain unchanged 

C increase by 11⅟₉%

D decrease by 11⅟₉%

Answer: D 

 

Q.46 A right circular solid cone of radius 3.2 cm and height 7.2 cm is melted and recast into a right circular cylinder of height 9.6 cm. What is the diameter of the base of the cylinder? 

A 4.2 cm 

B 4.5 cm 

C 3.5 cm 

D 3.2 cm 

Answer: D 

 

Q.47 40 litres of 60% concentration of acid solution is added to 35 litres of 80% concentration of acid solution. What is the concentration of acid in the new solution? 

A 66%

B 66⅔%

C 69⅓%

D 69%

Answer: C 

 

Q.48 In △PQR, I is the incentre of the triangle. If ∠QIR = 107∘, then what is the measure of ∠P

A 37⁰

B 43⁰ 

C 73⁰

D 34⁰

Answer: D 

 

Q.49 If x4− 83x2 + 1 = 0, then a value of x3x−3can be: 

A 758 

B 756 

C 739 

D 737 

Answer: B 

 

Q.50 Sujata marks an article 36% above the cost price and allows a 40% discount on the marked price. The loss percentage is: 

A 15 

B 16.8 

C 18.4 

D 4 

Answer: C 

 

Q.51 If 3(cot2 φ −cosφ) = cos2φ, 0⁰ < φ < 90⁰ 2, then the value of (tan2 φ + cosec2 φ +sin2 φ) is: 

A ¹³/₃

B ⁶¹/₁₂

C ²⁵/₁₂

D ¹⁵/₄

Answer: B 

 

Q.52 A hemispherical bowl of internal diameter 36 cm is full of a liquid. This liquid is to be filled into cylindrical bottles each of radius 3 cm and height 12 cm. How many such bottles are required to empty the bowl? 

A 72 

B 54 

C 36 

D 27 

Answer: C 

 

Q.53 If (5x + 1)3 + (x − 3)3 + 8(3x − 4)3 = 6(5x + 1)(x − 3)(3x − 4) , then x is equal to: 

A ⁵/₆

B ⅓

C ⅔

D ¾

Answer: A 

 

Q.54 The average of 33 numbers is 74. The average of the first 17 numbers is 72.8 and that of the last 17 numbers is 77.2. If the 17th number is excluded, then what will be the average of the remaining numbers (correct to one decimal place)? 

A 72.9 

B 73.4 

C 71.6 

D 70.8 

Answer: A 

 

Q.55 A solid cube is cut into three cuboids of same volumes. Whatis the ratio of the surface area of the cube to the sum of the surface areas of any two of the cuboids so formed? 

A 9 : 10 

B 27 : 16 

C 20 : 10 

D 9 : 8 

Answer: A 

 

Q.56 (sin2 φ − 3sinφ + 2)/cos2 φ = 1 where 0⁰ < φ < 90⁰ , then what is the value of (cos2φ + sin3φ + cosec2φ) ? 

A (2- √3)/ 3 

B (3- 4√3)/ 6 

C (9- 4√3)/ 6 

D (3- 2√3)/ 3 

Answer: C 

 

Q.57 A loan has to be returned in two equal yearly instalments each of ₹44,100. If the rate of interest is 5% p.a.. compounded annually, then the total interest paid is: 

A ₹5,840 

B ₹6,000 

C ₹6,200 

D ₹6,280 

Answer: C 

 

Q.58 A sum of ₹x is divided among A, B and C such that the ratio of the shares of A and B is 6 : 7 and that of B and is 3 : 2. If the difference between the shares of A and C is ₹540, then the value of x is: 

A 7425 

B 7020 

C 7155 

D 7290 

Answer: C

 

Q.59 The sides PQ and PR of △PQR are produced to points S and T , respectively. The bisectors of ∠SQR and ∠TRQ meet at U . If ∠QUR = 79∘ , then the measure of ∠P is: 

A 41⁰ 

B 49⁰ 

C 22⁰ 

D 23⁰ 

Answer: C 

Q.60 The value of  is:

A 2 

B -1 

C -2 

D 0 

Answer: B 

 

Q.61 Alloy A contains copper and zine in the ratio of 4 : 3 and alloy B contains copper and zine in the ratio of 5: 2. A and B are taken in the ratio of 5 : 6 and melted to form a new alloy. The percentage of zinc in the new alloy is closest to: 

A 54 

B 34.2 

C 36.8 

D 35 

Answer: D 

 

Q.62 If the price of petrol increases by 19%, and Sunitha intends to spend only an additional 12% on petrol, by what percent should she reduce the quantity of petrol purchased (nearest to an integer)? 

A 7 

B 6 

C 5 

D 8 

Answer: B 

Q.63 The value of is equal to: 

A cosecφ

B ½

C secφ

D 1

Answer: D 

 

Q.64 A, B and C invested their capital in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5. The ratio of months for which A, B and C invested is 4 : 2 : 3. If C gets a share of profit which is ₹1,47,000 more than that of A, then B’s share of profit is: 

A ₹1,26,000 

B ₹1,68,000 

C ₹1,05,000 

D ₹1,89,000 

Answer: A 

 

Q.65 In a quadrilateral ABCD, the bisectors of ∠A and ∠D meet at E. If ∠CED=560 and ∠A=490, then the measure of ∠B is: 

A 710

B 540

C 630

D 670

Answer: C 

 

Q.66 If 8x3 − 27y3 = (Ax + By)(Cx2Dy2 + 6xy),then (A + B + C D) is equal to: 

A -12 

B 12 

C 15 

D 9 

Answer: B 

 

Q.67 The number of factors of 3600 is: 

A 45 

B 44 

C 43 

D 42 

Answer: A 

 

Q.68 The given pie chart shows the quantity wise sales distribution of five products (A, B, C, D and E) of a company in 2016. Quantity wise sales distribution of five products (A, B, C, D and E) 

If 320 units of product A were sold by the company, then how many units of products B and E together were sold by the company? 

A 567 

B 576 

C 512 

D 640 

Answer: B 

 

Q.69 4 men and 5 women can complete a work in 15 days, whereas 9 men and 6 women can do it in 10 days. To complete the same work in 7 days, how many women should assist 4 men? 

A 11 

B 14 

C 12 

D 13 

Answer: D 

 

Q.70 If x = (164)169 + (333)337 − (727)726 , then what is the units digit of x? 

A 5 

B 7 

C 8 

D 9 

Answer: C 

 

Q.71 Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 16 hours and 24 hours, respectively. and pipe C alone can empty the full tank in x hours. All the pipes were opened together at 10:30 a.m., but C was closed at 2:30 p.m. If the tank was full at 8:30 p.m. on the same day, then what is the value of x? 

A 64 

B 48 

C 45 

D 96 

Answer: D 

 

Q.72 Let x be the least number which when divided by 15, 18, 20 and 27, the remainder in each case is 10 and x is a multiple of 31. What least number should be added to x to make it a perfect square? 

A 39 

B 37 

C 43 

D 36 

Answer: A 

 

Q.73 The given bar graph shows the imports and exports (in ₹ crores) of steel by a country from 2013 to 2017. 

The total imports of steel in 2014, 2016 and 2017 is what percent less than the total exports in 2013, 2015 and 2017 (correct to one decimal place)? 

A 13.4 

B 15.8 

C 16.2 

D 14.5 

Answer: D 

 

Q.74 A person sells an article at 16% below its cost price. Had he sold it for ₹33 more, he would have gained 14%. To gain 25%, he should sell the article for: 

A ₹128 

B ₹137.5 

C ₹135 

D ₹130.5 

Answer: B 

 

Q.75 The given bar graph shows the imports and exports (in ₹ crores) of steel by a country from 2013 to 2017. 

In how many years were the imports more than 80% of the average exports (per year) of the country during the given 5 years? 

A 4 

B 2 

C 1 

D 3 

Answer: D 

 

Q.76 Renu was sitting inside train A, which was travelling at 50 km/h. Another train, B, whose length was three times the length of A crossedher in the opposite direction in 15 seconds. If the speed of train B was 58 km/h, then the length of train A (in m) is: 

A 210 

B 180 

C 160 

D 150 

Answer: D 

 

Q.77 The given graph shows the marks obtained by students in an examination.

The number of students who obtained less than 300 marks is what percent more than the number of students who obtained 350 or more marks? 

A 80% 

B 28% 

C 44.4% 

D 22.7% 

Answer: A 

 

Q.78 In △ABC , AB = ACand is a point on BC. If BD = 5 cm, AB = 12 cm and AD = 8 cm, then the length of CD is: 

A 14.8 cm 

B 16.2 cm 

C 16 cm 

D 14 cm 

Answer: C 

 

Q.79 The ratio of the incomes of A and last year was 4 : 3, respectively. The ratios of their individual incomes of the last year and the present year are 3 : 4 and 5 : 6, respectively. If their total income for the present year is ₹8.04 lakh, then the income of B last year was: 

A ₹2.7 lakh 

B ₹3.6 lakh 

C ₹2.4 lakh 

D ₹2.8 lakh 

Answer: A 

 

Q.80 When a two-digit numberis multiplied by the sum of its digits, the product is 424. When the number obtained by interchanging its digits is multiplied by the sum of the digits, the result is 280. The sum ofthe digits of the given number is: 

A 6 

B 9 

C 8 

D 7 

Answer: C 

 

Q.81 To do a certain work,the ratio of the efficiencies of X and Y is 5 : 4. Working together, they can complete the same work in 10 days. Y alone starts the work and leaves after 5 days. The remaining work will be completed by X alone in: 

A 14 days 

B 12 days 

C 15 days 

D 10 days 

Answer: A 

 

Q.82 The bisector of ∠B in  ABC meets AC at D. If AB =10cm, BC = 11cm and  AC = 14cm, then the length of AD is: 

A 6cm

B ²²/₃cm

C 7cm

D ²⁰/₃cm

Answer: D 

 

Q.83 The value of  is:

Answer: A 

 

Q.84 A circle is inscribed in a quadrilateral ABCD touching AB, BC, CD and AD at the points P, Q, R and S, respectively, and ∠B = 90∘ . If AD = 24 cm, AB = 27 cm and DR = 6 cm, then what is the circumference of the circle? 

A 20 π 

B 18 π 

C 15 π 

D 12 π 

Answer: B 

 

Q.85 Places A and B are 396 km apart. Train X leaves from A for B and train Y leaves from B for A at the same time on the same day onparallel tracks. Both trains meet after 5½ hours. The speed of Y is 10 km/h more than that of X. What is the speed (in km/h) of Y? 

A 41 

B 54 

C 31 

D 56 

Answer: A 

 

Q.86 If the curved surface area of a solid cylinder is one-third of its total surface area, then what is the ratio of its diameter to its height? 

A 5 : 2 

B 1 : 1 

C 2 : 1 

D 4 : 1 

Answer: D 

 

Q.87 A sum amounts to ₹14,395.20 at 9.25 % p.a. simple interest in 5.4 years. What will be the simple interest on the same sum at 8.6 % p.a. in 4.5 years? 

A ₹3,715.20 

B ₹3,627 

C ₹3,797.76 

D ₹3,672 

Answer: A 

 

Q.88 When an article is sold at its marked price, it gives a profit of 25%. If a discount of 9.6% is allowed on the marked price, then the profit percent will be: 

A 13 

B 15.4 

C 15 

D 16.6 

Answer: A 

 

Q.89 A man sells his goods at a certain price, 20% of which is his profit. If the price at which he buys the goods increases by 10% and he sells them at an 8% higher price, then what will be his profit percent (correct to one decimal place)? 

A 21.8 

B 23.4 

C 21.4 

D 22.7 

Answer: D 

 

Q.90 The given pie chart shows the quantity wise sales distribution of five products (A, B, C, D and E) of a company in 2016. Quantity wise sales distribution of five products (A. B, C, D and E)

In 2016,if a total of 14616 units were sold, then the number of units of products D sold was: 

A 4263 

B 4872 

C 4060 

D 4096 

Answer: C 

 

Q.91 The value of 9 × 6 ÷ 24 + 8 ÷ 2 of 5 − 30 ÷ 4 of 4 + 27 × 5 ÷ 9 is: 

A ⁶⁴⁷/₄₀

B ²⁴³/₈

C ⁴⁹³/₈

D ²⁵⁹/₈

Answer: A 

 

Q.92 A field roller, in the shape of a cylinder, has a diameter of 1 m and length of 1¼m. If the speed at which the roller rolls is 14 revolutions per minute, then the maximum area (in m2 ) that it can roll in 1 hour is: (Take π = ²²/₇) 

A 3960 

B 3600 

C 3300 

D 3560 

Answer: C 

 

Q.93 If the volume of a sphere is 4851cm3 , then its surface area (in cm2) is: (Take π = ²²/₇) 

A 1386 

B 2772 

C 1323 

D 1337 

Answer: A 

 

Q.94 From a point exactly midway between the foot of two towers P and Q,the angles of elevation of their tops are 30∘ and 60∘ , respectively. The ratio of the height of P to that of Q is: 

A 1 : 3 

B 1 : 2 

C 1 : 2√3 

D 2 : 3√3 

Answer: A 

 

Q.95 The graphs of the equations 2x + 3y = 11 and x − 2y + 12 = 0 intersects at P(x1,y1 ) and the graph of the equations x − 2y + 12 = 0 intersects the x-axis at Q(x2,y2 ) . What is the value of (x1x2 + y1 + y2 ) ? 

A 13 

B -11 

C 15 

D -9 

Answer: C 

 

Q.96 If x = (√5-√3)/(√5+√3) and y is the reciprocal of x , then what is the value of (x3 + y3 )? 

A 488 

B 504 

C 472 

D 476 

Answer: A 

 

Q.97 A man starts from his house and travelling at 30 km/h, he reacheshis office late by 10 minutes, and travelling at 24 km/h, he reachesh is office late by 18 minutes. The distance (in km) from his house to his office is: 

A 18 

B 16 

C 12 

D 20 

Answer: B 

 

Q.98 The value of (tan29 cot61 − cosec2 61 ) + cot2 54sec2 36 + (sin2 1 + sin2 3 + sin2 5 + − − − + sin2 89 ) is: 

A 20½ 

B 21

C 22½

D 22 

Answer: A 

 

Q.99 If √(10 − 2√21) + √(8 + 2√15) = √a + √b , where a and b are positive integers, then the value of √(ab) is closest to: 

A 4.6 

B 5.9 

C 6.8 

D 7.2 

Answer: B 

 

Q.100 A can do 40% of a work in 12 days, whereas B can do 60% of the same work in 15 days. Both work together for 10 days. C completes the remaining work alone in 4 days. A, B and C together will complete 28% of the same work in: 

A 2½days 

B 3days 

C 1½days 

D 2 days 

Answer: D 

SSC CGL Tier-II 13 September 2019 English Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL English

Tier-II (13 Sept 2019)  

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order.

A. Using his mother’s show-business contacts, Charlie became a professional entertainer in 1897. 

B. He spent his early childhood with his mother, the singer Hannah Hall, after she and his father separated. 

C. Even today Charlie is widely regarded as the greatest comic artist of the screen and one of the most important figures in motion-picture history. 

D. Charlie Chaplin was born on April 16, 1889 in London and named after his father, a British music-hall entertainer. 

A CBDA 

B CABD 

C DABC 

D DBAC 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 2 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. All human beings must learn to live in ______ with nature. 

A kindness 

B pleasure 

C admiration 

D harmony 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 3 Find a word that is the ANTONYM OF animosity 

A sarcasm 

B benevolence 

C bitterness 

D contamination 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 4 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice(active/passive voice) form of a given sentence 

A I regret the way I treated you 

B I regret the way you were treated by me 

C I regret the way I am treating you 

D I regret the way you treated me. 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 5 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. I owe a big debt of gratitude to my mentor, Ms. Pallavi Dutta. 

A A big debt of gratitude had been owed by me to my mentor,Ms. Pallavi Dutta. 

B A big debt of gratitude was owing by me to my mentor,Ms. Pallavi Dutta. 

C A big debt of gratitude will be owed by my mentor, Ms. Pallavi Dutta. 

D A big debt of gratitude is owed by me to my mentor, Ms Pallavi Dutta. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 6 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Mrs. Sethi said to her students, “Would you like to go outdoors for the yoga class?” 

A Mrs Sethi asked her students whether they would like to go outdoors for the yoga class 

B Mrs Sethi asked her students about their liking to go outdoors for the yoga class. 

C Mrs Sethi told her students that would you like to go outdoors for the yoga class. 

D Mrs Sethi said to her students will you like to go outdoors for the yoga class? 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 7 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence.. Did the boys take permission to go out today? 

A Are the boys taking permission to go out today? 

B Was permission to go out today taken by the boys? 

C Has permission to going out today been taken by the boys? 

D Had the boys taken permission to go out today? 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 8 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. My friends persuaded me that I should forgive him. 

A I was persuaded by my friends that he should be forgiven 

B I will have been persuaded by my friends to forgive him 

C I am being persuaded by my friends that he should be forgiven. 

D I will be persuaded by my friends that he should be forgiven. 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 9 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. ‘Let’s not go out today. It’s going to be a hot day,” he said to me. 

A He suggested that we shouldn’t be going out that day as it is going to be a hot day. 

B He is suggesting that they shouldn’t go out today as it was going to be a hot day. 

C He suggested that we shouldn’t go out that day as it was going to be a hot day 

D He had suggested that they shouldn’t go out today as it was going to be a hot day 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. 

Comprehension: Dust storms of May 2018, in Northern India, contributed to the deteriorating air quality in the region and the capital city of Delhi, with implications for human health, a study found. The high death toll from the severe dust storms that lashed the region was mainly attributed to the intense winds, which surprised even scientists and meteorologists. But apart from the immediate damage to life and property, drastic changes in air quality from the dust engulfing the region affected far more people with potential implications for human health, stated a team of researchers who analysed the impact of the spell of dust storms that struck the region that month. They reported increases in particulate matter, mainly in Delhi and urged for an early 

Dust storms commonly occur in the Indo-Gangetic Plains – the fertile plains in northern India that stretch all the way to the East – from March to May, the pre-monsoon season. Westerly winds typically bring loose sand and soil particles, picked up from the Arabian Peninsula or the Thar Desert in North Western India, to the Indo-Gangetic Plains. The dust tends to worsen air quality over the Indo-Gangetic Plains, home to around 900 million people, which can have far- reaching effects on human health. While dust storms are a regular feature in the region, the May 2018 dust storms specifically had a death toll of about 100 people, with around 200 people injured. 

“We are concerned that the dust impacts the health of people who get exposed,” said a senior professor. However, he also observed that scattered rains occurring soon after the dust storms tend to clean up the dust, improving air quality. During October-November, densely populated cities like Delhi and Kanpur in the Indo-Gangetic Plains are vulnerable to wind borne long-range air pollution from crop residue burning in the North, and now this study “shows the effect of dust storms during the March-May time frame,” Sarkar pointed out. “This really puts the Indo-Gangetic valley in a unique spot in terms of it being targeted by these different hazardous conditions which are mostly outsourced from other areas.” 

Q. 10 Dust storms in Delhi are a cause of concern as they 

A cause strong winds. 

B affect Delhi alone. 

C challenge scientists 

D are a health hazard. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 11 Dust storms are caused by 

A winds from the North. 

B winds from the South. 

C Westerly winds. 

D Easterly winds. 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 12 The notable fact about pollution in Oct to Nov is that _____ 

A Westerly winds bring loose sand and soil particles 

B dust storms are a regular feature. 

C it is caused by crop burning in North India 

D it is caused by the winds from Thar Desert 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 13 By saying, ‘This really puts the Indo-Gangetic valley in a unique spot’ the writer refers to the fact that 

A the Indo- Gangetic valley receives its pollution from other areas or factors. 

B the valley is affected by pollution caused by hazardous industries. 

C intense winds in the valley surprise even scientists and meteorologists. 

D studies find that only the valley faces pollution all year round. 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 14 Choose the correct sequence in which events take place – 

A Strong winds- poor air quality -dust storms- – death and disease 

B Dust storms- poor air quality- strong winds -death and disease 

C Dust storms – death and disease-strong winds- poor air quality 

D Strong winds- dust storms- poor air quality- death and disease 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 15 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. A. New ideas on marketing were brainstormed and all the members agreed to try them forthwith. B. Upon their return from anoff-site camp Ravi and Sunil decided to hold a meeting. C. As soon as everyone assembled, the meeting which lasted for four hours, began. D. Its purpose was to replace some of the old ways of marketing used by the company with new ones. 

A ACBD 

B BDAC 

C CDBA 

D BCDA 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 16 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- I’m thinking about buying a new car as my old one is giving me trouble. 

A thinks to buying 

B thinking of buying 

C thought to buy 

D no improvement 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 17 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. exercising a compelling charm 

A dismissive 

B vapid 

C charismatic 

D uninspiring 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 18 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. They shifted the venue of the conference. 

A The venue of the conference was shifted. 

B The venue of the conference has been shifted 

C They are shifting the venue of the conference 

D They were shifting the venue of the conference 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 19 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. A. There is a story about an ancient Indian sage who was called ugly names by a passerby. B. The sage then said, “Well then, I have not accepted your offering” and walked away. C. He finally asked the man, “If an offering is not accepted who does it belong to?” at which the man replied, “To the person who offered it.” D. The sage listened unperturbed till the man ran out of words. 

A CABD 

B ACDB 

C DCBA 

D ADCB 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 20 Identify the word that is misspelt. 

A definitely 

B accidentally 

C conscience 

D chargable 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 21 Select the segment which has an error. Over the years, the writer Amish has evolved to what millions of youngsters aspires to be today – an intellectual. 

A Over the years 

B aspires to be today 

C Amish has evolved 

D millions of youngsters 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 22 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in context) to fill in the sentence. Rohit was ______ when he took important decisions without consulting the family. 

A cutting the red tape 

B told to get a new lease of life 

C in the same boat 

D told to fight his own battles himself 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 23 Select the segment which has an error Each film will be checked by a government-appointed censor board along public exhibition. 

A along public exhibition. 

B each film 

C by a government-appointed censor board 

D will be checked 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 24 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- The books those I gave you is mine . Please don’t misplace them or lend them to someone else. 

A that I gave you are mine 

B no improvement 

C that I gave to you is my 

D which I gives to you is mine 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 25 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order.

A. It was called the ‘take ownership’ programme, and it worked.

B. The programme was a huge success in reviving the corporate culture of the bank and in reviving the bank’s stock price.

C. My colleagues and I felt and behaved like owners, because we actually were.

D. I once worked for a large bank that gave stock options to all of its employees. 

A CDBA 

B DACB 

C ADCB 

D CABD 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 26 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Kapil said to his team, “If you don’t perform well in this match, you will not get a place in the team.” 

A Kapil told his team if you don’t perform well in this match, you will not get a place in the team. 

B Kapil warned his team that if they didn’t perform well in that match, they would not get a place in the team 

C Kapil warned to his team, if they don’t perform well in this match, they will not get a place in the team. 

D . Kapil said to his team that if you don’t perform well in that match, you will not get a place in the team. 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 27 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- The author is not well known. Few people have heard of him. 

A no improvement 

B A little bit of people 

C A few person 

D Few people 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 28 Select the segment which has an error. It is said that in 2019 the Indian Stock Market will fall drastically and we can expect 

A we can expect 

B It is be said 

C that in 2019 

D the Indian Stock Market will fall 

Answer: B

 

Q. 29 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “I will be twenty five tomorrow”, said Vidushi. 

A Vidushi is saying that she will be twenty five by tomorrow. 

B Vidushi said that she would be twenty five the next day. 

C Vidushi will say that she would be twenty five tomorrow. 

D .Vidushi had told me she would be twenty five the next day. 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 30 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. My grandmother believes that drinking a glass of milk at bedtime is essential for health. 

A It is believed by my grandmother that drinking a glass of milk at bedtime is essential for health. 

B It is being believed by my grandmother that drinking a glass of milk at bedtime is essential for health.. 

C It will have been believed by my grandmother that drinking a glass of milk at bedtime is essential for health. 

D It has been believed by my grandmother that drinking a glass of milk at bedtime is essential for health 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 31 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in context) to fill in the sentence. Radha is unable to continue working in this office. Hard work is ______ on her health.. 

A making her meet both ends 

B blowing hot and cold 

C It will have been believed by my grandmother that drinking a glass of milk at bedtime is essential for health. 

D It has been believed by my grandmother that drinking a glass of milk at bedtime is essential for health. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 32 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in context) to fill in the sentence. Radha is unable to continue working in this office. Hard work is ______ on her health. 

A making her meet both ends 

B blowing hot and cold 

C keeping an eye 

D volatile 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 33 Find a word that is the synonym of – mercurial 

A interchangeable 

B predictable 

C permanent 

D volatile 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 34 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- My recent London trip was really special because I was being able to meet my nephew and his family after many years. 

A was able to meet 

B am unable to 

C no improvement 

D has able to 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions: Read the following passage and fill in each blank with words chosen from the options given. 

Comprehension: Uncertainty looms over the revival of Naini Lake, a waterbody in the middle of Model Town in North Delhi, due to ______ (1) in the opinions of residents and local bodies regarding its desilting and ______ (2). While the Corporation claimed that the lake ______ (3) for years and several attempts by them to initiate a drive to desilt it were halted because of lack of funds or ______ (4) from locals, residents alleged that it is ______ (5) fresh water lake and is free from silt, and only a water treatment plant will be enough to resolve the problem. 

Q. 35 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1 

A feuds 

B protest 

C objections 

D differences 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 36 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2 

A evacuation 

B beautification 

C moderation 

D resolution 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 37 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3 

A is desilted 

B is not to be desilted 

C hasn’t been desilted 

D has desilted 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 38 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4 

A activation 

B applause 

C resistance 

D assault 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 39 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5 

A any 

B some 

C the 

D a 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 40 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. The interviewer said, “Rajiv, I’m impressed with you.” 

A The interviewer says I am impressed with Rajiv 

B The interviewer told to Rajiv that he is impressed with him 

C The interviewer told Rajiv that he was impressed with him. 

D The interviewer said to Rajiv that he had been impressed with you. 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. 

Comprehension: Parents all over Iceland’s capital Reykjavik embark on a two-hour evening walk around their neighbourhood every weekend, checking on youth hangouts as a 10 pm curfew approaches. The walk in Reykjavik is one step toward Iceland’s success in turning around a crisis in teenage drinking. 

Focusing on local participation and promoting more music and sports options for students, an island nation in the North Atlantic has dried up a teenage culture of drinking and smoking. Icelandic teenagers now have one of the lowest rates of substance abuse in Europe. 

The Icelandic Centre for Social Research and Analysis, the institute pioneering the project for the past two decades, says it currently advises 100 communities in 23 countries, from Finland to Chile, on cutting teenage substance abuse. “The key to success is to create healthy communities and by that get healthy individuals, ” said Inga Dora Sigfusdottir, a sociology professor who founded the Youth of Iceland programme, which now has rebranded as Planet Youth. 

The secret, she says, is to keep young people busy and parents engaged without talking much about drugs or alcohol. That stands in sharp contrast to other anti-abuse programmes, which try to sway teenagers with school lectures and scary, disgusting ads showing smokers’ rotten lungs or eggs in a frying pan to represent an intoxicated brain. 

“Telling teenagers not to use drugs can backlash and actually get them curious to try them,” Ms Sigfusdottir said. In 1999, when thousands of teenagers would gather in Reykjavik every weekend, surveys showed 56% of Icelandic 16- year-olds drank alcohol and about as many had tried smoking. 

Years later, Iceland has the lowest rates for drinking and smoking among the 35 countries measured in the 2015 European School Survey Project on Alcohol and Other Drugs. 

On average, 80% of European 16-year-olds have tasted alcohol at least once, compared with 35% in Iceland, the only country where more than half of those students completely abstains from alcohol. 

Denmark, another wealthy Nordic country, has the highest rates of teenage drinking, along with Greece, Hungary and the Czech Republic, where 92% to 96% have consumed alcohol. 

In the US, teen drinking is a significant health concern, because many US teenagers are driving cars and do not have access to good public transport like teenagers in Europe. 

Reykjavik mayor Dagur B. Eggertsson said the Icelandic plan “is all about society giving better options” for teens than substance abuse. He believes the wide variety of opportunities that now keep students busy and inspired has dramatically altered the country’s youth culture. 

Local municipalities like Reykjavik have invested in sport halls, music schools and youth centres.To make the programmes widely available, parents are offered a 500 US dollar annual voucher toward sports or music programmes for their children. 

Researchers say the Planet Youth prevention model is evolving constantly because it is based on annual surveys to detect trends and measure policy effectiveness. By law, introduced when Icelandic police routinely dealt with alcohol- fuelled street gatherings, children under 12 are not allowed to be outside after 8pm without parents and those 13 to 16 not past 10pm. 

“We tell the kids if they are out too late, polite and nice, and then they go home,” said Heidar Atlason, a veteran member of the patrol. Over Iceland’s harsh winter, one parent admits, evenings sometimes pass without running into any students. 

 

Q. 41 Parents in Reykjavik take an evening walk at night in order to 

A remain fit and healthy by avoiding drinking at night 

B keep a watch on teenagers to ensure they don’t get into the habit of drinking 

C meet other parents to know and discuss how to control teenagers 

D enjoy the evening stroll with other parents after dinner 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 42 What is dramatic about the figures of teenage drinking in Iceland? 

A They’ve remained the same over the years 

B They’ve become the lowest in Europe 

C They’ve gone up by 36% 

D They’ve shot down by 96% 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 43 The Icelandic Centre for Social Research and Analysis does the work of 

A showing teenagers anti-abuse programmes, which stop teenagers from drinking 

B advising many countries on controlling use of drugs etc. by young adults 

C legally allowing children 12 years and more to remain outside their homes after 6 

D going around at night with patrolling groups in many European countries. 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 44 Teenage drinking in many countries like Denmark, Greece, Hungary, etc has been reported as 

A completely eradicated. 

B the lowest in the world. 

C low compared to Iceland. 

D the highest in the world 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 45 “Cutting teenage substance abuse” refers to 

A teenagers consuming hazardous substances such as alcohol and drugs. 

B parents shaming their young children for their bad habits. 

C reducing consumption of drugs and alcohol among young adults. 

D teenagers who consume alcohol abusing their parents. 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 46 The programme Planet Youth was started by 

A The Icelandic Centre for Social Research and Analysis 

B the local municipality of Reykjavik 

C Inga Dora Sigfusdottir 

D Dagur B. Eggertsson 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 47 Which of the following does not contribute to the success of Planet Youth programme? 

A Enacting laws against late night movement of teenagers 

B Arranging street gatherings of teenagers 

C Arranging opportunities for music, sports etc. 

D Ensuring parental control and influence 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 48 From the passage one can conclude that 

A bad habits can be checked by engaging teens in alternative activities 

B by showing smokers’ diseased lungs to teens, parents can influence them 

C parents must pay for sports and other activities for their children. 

D strict punishment is needed as it acts as a deterrent. 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 49 The word from the passage that means ‘change the image of an organisation or program’ is 

A abstain 

B rebrand 

C invest 

D embark 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 50 ‘Over Iceland’s harsh winter, one parent admits, evenings sometimes pass without running into any students.’ This means – 

A parents are not motivated to get involved in the programme. 

B students are not bothered about the efforts made for them. 

C the programme is having the right impact on teenagers 

D authorities are disappointed that the programme has failed. 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- The masses, though well intentioned, preferable to remain passive spectators. 

A prefer to remain 

B prefers to remaining 

C No improvement. 

D had preferred to remaining 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 52 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. The old lady said, “May God bless you and give you all you desire in life!” 

A The old lady says that may God bless you and give you all you desire in life. 

B The old lady said that God may bless you and give you all you desire in life 

C The old lady said that God will bless me and give me all I desire in life 

D The old lady wished that God would bless me and give me all I desired in life 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 53 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. They are selling very good stationery here. 

A very good stationery sells here. 

B Very good stationery is being sold here. 

C Stationery selling here is very good. 

D Stationery selling has been very good here. 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 54 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given The act of compelling or forcing authority on others. 

A aspersion 

B volition 

C coercion 

D scion 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 55 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. A.This move is part of the government’s reform agenda for PSBs under Enhanced Access and Service Excellence Programme (EASE) 2.0. B. Banks have already agreed to keep branches operational for customers for uniform working hours in one location and this will be another step towards standardising operating hours. C. Under EASE a banker’s panel has recommended that every region adopt one of three six-hour time slots — 9 am to 3 pm, 10 am to 4 pm or 11 am to 5 pm. D. Public sector banks (PSBs) across the country will soon have standard operating hours as per a recent move. 

A BCDA 

B CDBA 

C DCBA 

D DACB 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 56 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. Were all formalities completed by you? 

A Did you complete all formalities? 

B Have you completed all formalities? 

C Have you been completing all formalities? 

D Will you complete all formalities? 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 57 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “Don’t use your mobile while crossing the road,” I said to him. 

A I told him not to use his mobile phone while crossing the road. 

B I advised him not to use his mobile phone while crossing the road. 

C I am advising him not to use his mobile phone while crossing the road. 

D I told him not to use his mobile phone while crossing the road. 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 58 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in context) to fill in the sentence. He tries to perform well but good projects done by him are______. He needs to put in extra effort 

A on edge 

B walking on air 

C few and far between 

D going with the flow 

Answer: C

 

Instructions Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

Q. 59 A. In the study, researchers found that kids who experienced their growth spurt late had lower than average bone density in young adulthood.

B. Teens who hit puberty late may end up with weaker bones, a new study finds.

C. However, they continue to have lower bone strength even after they finish growing and may be at greater risk for osteoporosis in adulthood.

D. These later maturing teens do catch up with early maturing teens in terms of bone strength. 

A ACDB 

B BADC 

C BCDA 

D ADCB 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 60 A. Having cancer is often one of the most stressful experiences in a person’s life.

B. They also allow people to learn from others facing similar situations .

C. The groups are gaining popularity these days as they allow volunteers to talk with those who are living with cancer.

D. But these days there are support groups that help patients cope with the emotional aspects of cancer by providing an opportunity to share feelings and challenges they face with others. 

A CBDA 

B ADCB 

C DCBA 

D ACBD 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 61 Select the segment which has an error. Two American cities, witnessed the shooting and resulting in mass fatalities over the weekend. 

A over the weekend 

B Two American cities 

C witnessed shooting 

D and resulting in mass fatalities 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 62 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. She said to her friend, “Where did you go yesterday?” 

A She asked her friend where she had gone the day before 

B She asked her friend where had she gone the day before. 

C She asked her friend where she was going yesterday. 

D She asked her friend where she went yesterday 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’ 

Q. 63 Word by word reading lead to the development of another bad habit which is the habit of reading aloud. 

A lead to develops 

B leads to the development 

C No improvement 

D leading to the developing 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 64 My friend did not understand the story. She asked me to explain it to her . 

A to explain it to her 

B no improvement 

C to explaining it for her 

D can I explain that to her 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 65 Select the segment which has an error. Instead of helping her mother in the kitchen, Rekha was on her mobile talking to her friend. 

A talking to her friend 

B of helping 

C at the kitchen 

D on her mobile 

Answer: C 

Q. 66 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order.

A. The ingredients must therefore be of the finest quality and in the right proportions.

B. When you have them right and keep practicing you are sure to bake some of the yummiest cakes.

C. Success in life is just like baking a cake that requires many things.

D. Firstly, unless you have the right ingredients and recipe it is not going to work 

A BADC 

B CDAB 

C CABD 

D BCDA 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 67 Select the segment which has an error. Please go out and check if it is still raining. 

A and check 

B if it is 

C yet raining 

D Please go out 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 68 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- My new office is on the first floor of the new office complex. 

A no improvement 

B over first floor 

C on the first floor 

D at above floor 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 69 Select the segment which has an error It was a really bad movie- a worse movie I’ve ever seen in my life. 

A in my life 

B I’ve ever seen 

C was a really 

D a worse 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 70 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. found everywhere 

A scarce 

B rare 

C unusual 

D omnipresent 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 71 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in context) to fill in the sentence The government has decided to ______ GST on some items in order to help small traders. 

A steer clear of 

B roll back 

C wash away 

D crack down on 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 72 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. If your actions are ______ what you say, no one is going to believe you. 

A contrary for 

B contrary with 

C contrary to 

D contrary at 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 73 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The mother said to her son, “You always do what you want. Do you always have to be so ______? 

A stubborn 

B reasoning 

C withdrawn 

D awkward 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 74 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order.

A. Creating a relaxing bedroom environment is very important too, and this can be done using a calming, subtle fragrance..

B. It is possible to retrain your brain to have a sound sleep.

C. This is possible if you make sure your room is undisturbed, quiet and dark.

D. Start by regulating the times you go to bed and get up. 

A BDCA 

B ADBC 

C BCAD 

D DACB 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 75 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in context) to fill in the sentence. The residents of my colony ______ in trying to find out about the increasing number of car thefts. 

A hit a purple patch 

B hit the sack 

C beat about the bush 

D pulled all the stops 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 76 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- It takes me within 15 minutes to walk to the metro station from my house. 

A take me most of 

B no improvement 

C takes me about 

D takes me going 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 77 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in context) to fill in the sentence. When you ______ it is best to be patient and have faith in your inner strength. 

A remain on high alert 

B keep someone at an arm’s length 

C call a spade a spade 

D find yourself in troubled waters 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 78 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- When we were on holiday in Kerala, we were visiting beautiful tea terraces and spice gardens. 

A visited any 

B are visit a few 

C visited many 

D no improvement 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 79 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. The belief that events are predetermined and therefore cannot be changed 

A fatalism 

B chasm 

C autism 

D prism 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 80 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. Spoon the brownie batter into prepared pan and bake for 30 to 40 minutes. 

B. Now beat in eggs and vanilla extract, and add cocoa and mix until well combined. 

C. To make chocolate chip brownies mix together melted butter, brown sugar and white sugar using a wooden spoon or hand mixer. 

D. Next, stir in flour and salt and mix until flour is incorporated, and then add some chocolate chips. 

A CDBA 

B ACDB 

C CABD 

D ADCB 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 81 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. The airport helper said, “Should I fetch you a trolley?” 

A The helper had said he would be fetching me a trolley. 

B The airport helper is asking me that he will fetch a trolley. 

C The airport helper asked me if he should fetch me a trolley. 

D The airport helper said he will go to fetch me a trolley. 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 82 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- Would you like to speak in English or Hindi? 

A like to speaking 

B liking to speak 

C no improvement 

D liked speaking 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 83 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. The salesgirl said, “Forgive me but this dress is already sold.” 

A The salesgirl said that she is sorry but this dress is already sold. 

B The salesgirl begged forgiveness and regretted that that dress was already sold. 

C The salesgirl asked to be forgiven but this dress was already sold. 

D The salesgirl said to me to forgive her but this dress was sold. 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 84 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. The exact opposite 

A prosthesis 

B aesthete 

C analogous 

D antithesis 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 85 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order.

A. She started the Udaipur-based organisation Shikshantar to create a space for self directed learning called ‘unschooling’.

B. It also organizes week-long camps where children involve themselves in local communities and interact with other kids who don’t attend school.

C. Nidhi Jain has been an unschooling parent for over two decades.

D. The organisation arranges everything from internships in filmmaking to cooking for unschooled kids. 

A DBAC 

B CBAD 

C ACDB 

D CADB 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 86 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “If the rains don’t stop we will have to move the animals to another place,”said the zoo official. 

A The zoo official had been saying that if the rains don’t stop they would have to move the animals to another place. 

B The zoo official said that if the rain didn’t stop they would have to move the animals to another place. 

C The zoo official will say that if the rains don’t stop they would have to move the animals to another place. 

D The zoo official said that if the rains are not stopping they would have to move the animals to another place. 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 87 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. touching along the side or boundary 

A inconspicuous 

B unpretentious 

C harmonious 

D contiguous 

Answer: D 

Q. 88 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order.

A. “It’s sort of cool to be on a ship but even more amazing is this Earth we live on,” Williams remarked as she described life on a spaceship to eager kids.

B. Williams, who is set to be one of the first to fly aboard Boeing’s Starliner spacecraft in November 2019, was introduced at the festival by former NASA astronaut Mike Massimino .

C. On Sept. 22, 2018 NASA astronaut Sunita Williams — a veteran of two long-duration space flights — talked to families and space enthusiasts about space travel.

D. She was speaking at the Intrepid Air, Sea & Space Museum during the recent Space & Science Festival. 

A BCDA 

B CDBA 

C CBDA 

D BACD 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 89 Select the segment which has an error. Found in many parts of India, the frangipani tree is a small, low -branching tree which is especially used for several medicinal purposes. 

A a small, low -branching tree 

B Found in many parts 

C The frangipani tree is 

D which is especial used 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 90 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. The art teacher said, “I never tell my students what to draw. I tell them to imagine.” 

A The art teacher said that I never tell my students what to draw. I tell them to imagine. 

B The art teacher said that she never told her students what to draw. She told them to imagine. 

C The art teacher is saying that she never tells her students what to draw. She tells them to imagine. 

D The art teacher had said that she never told her students what to draw. She tells them to imagine. 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 91 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- I am very much like Chinese food and have learnt to cook it. 

A like very much Chinese food 

B like Chinese food very much 

C no improvement 

D am liking very much Chinese food 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 92 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. A. Some used cars may have been involved in accidents or salvaged and rebuilt. B. Before buying a used car, it’s important to know everything there is to know about it. C. If the car engine is clean, it’s a good sign, but still ask for a test drive. D. It is therefore very important to examine the car’s engine for any fluid leaks. 

A CDBA 

B ACDB 

C BADC 

D DBCA 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 93 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in context) to fill in the sentence. Many old projects are ______ with a change in company policies. 

A beating around the bush 

B caught red handed 

C getting a new lease of life 

D breaking the ice 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 94 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- Food and water are the two basic necessities that citizens should have access . 

A access for 

B access at 

C No improvement. 

D access to 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 95 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “Reena, I’m surprised you want dinner as we had such a late lunch,” said Rajat. 

A Rajat had told Reena that he was surprised that she had wanted dinner as they were having such a late lunch. 

B Rajat was saying to Reena that he was surprised that she was wanting dinner as they had been having such a late lunch. 

C Rajat had been telling Reena that he was surprised that she wants dinner as they had had such a late lunch. 

D Rajat told Reena that he was surprised that she wanted dinner as they had had such a late lunch. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 96 Find a word that is the synonym of – onerous 

A arduous 

B abundant 

C honourable 

D accessible 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 97 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. The two little girls were playing a game of dice. 

A The two little girls had played a game of dice. 

B A game of dice was played by the two little girls. 

C A game of dice was being played by the two little girls. 

D The two little girls had been playing a game of dice. 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 98 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. To be a good speaker you need to memorize these speeches. 

A These speeches will be memorized by you to be a good speaker. 

B To be a good speaker these speeches need to be memorized by you 

C To be a good speaker these speeches need to memorize by you. 

D To be a good speaker these speeches being memorized by you. 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions: Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. 

Q. 99 “Can you pay him in cash?” she said to me. 

A She asked me if he could pay me in cash. 

B She asked him if I can pay him in cash. 

C She asked me if I could pay him in cash. 

D She asked him if I should pay him in cash. 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 100 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. He advised me to go abroad for higher studies the following year. 

A He said to me,”I go abroad for higher studies next year.” 

B He said to me,”Please go abroad for higher studies next year.” 

C He told me,”You should go abroad for higher studies the following year.” 

D He said to me,”You should go abroad for higher studies next year.” 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 101 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. one who studies human societies and their culture 

A pathologist 

B astrobiologist 

C pharmacologist 

D anthropologist 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 102 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order.

A. According to hair loss experts, excess DHT drastically increases collagen production in the hair follicle.

B. Hair loss can be traced to an increase of internal Dihydrotestosterone (DHT) and collagen production.

C. Eventually, collagen blocks the pore completely causing a lack of necessary blood flow due to which your hair loses its sheen, thins down and finally you lose your hair completely.

D. When too much collagen lines the interior of the follicle, it narrows the pores, decreases blood flow and slowly strangles your hair to death. 

A DABC 

B DCAB 

C BADC 

D BDAC 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 103 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “If I had the manual of the new T.V, I would have fixed it by now,” said Uma. 

A Uma said that if she was having the manual of the new T.V she would have fixed it by now. 

B Uma said that if she has the manual of the new T.V she will have fixed it by then. 

C Uma said that if she will have the manual of the new T.V she would have fixed it by then 

D Uma said that if she had had the manual of the new T.V she would have fixed it by then 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 104 Find a word that is the ANTONYM of – pandemonium 

A turbulence 

B harmony 

C excitement 

D uproar 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 105 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- Shyamalan’s movie ‘The Sixth Sense’ starring Bruce Willis was a great success but doesn’t win all Academy Award as expected. 

A No improvement. 

B but didn’t win any 

C but did win most 

D although it won some 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 106 Find a word that is the ANTONYM OF piquant 

A pungent 

B interesting 

C bland 

D peppery 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 107 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order.

A. Over the past week, the state has been pounded by intense rainfall, thus transforming the July deficit to surplus.

B. A year after being ravaged by the worst floods in 100 years, Kerala is once again facing a deluge.

C. The districts in Kerala’s north – in particular Kozhikode, Wayanad, and Malappuram – are among the worst affected where relief work is going on.

D. The copious amounts of rainfall in the state have been both intense and consistent leading to many deaths besides rendering thousands homeless. 

A BADC 

B DBAC 

C DBCA 

D ABCD 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 108 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. I hope you are 100 percent fit by now. 

A It will be hoped that you are 100 percent fit by then. 

B It is hoping you are 100 percent fit by now. 

C It is hoped that you are 100 percent fit by now. 

D It was being hoped by me that you are 100 percent fit by then. 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 109 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- Even if Uma is unable to make it, I can’t most definitely come. 

A No improvement. 

B won’t definite 

C needn’t more definite 

D shall most definitely 

Answer: D

 

Instructions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow 

Comprehension: Mount Everest, the world’s highest peak at 8,848 metres, draws adventurers from all over. But the mountain on the Nepal-China border is fast becoming a dangerous place to visit even for the hardened mountaineer. The inherent risks were highlighted with a photograph by Nirmal Purja, a Gorkha ex-soldier. The image, which went viral and altered the manner in which people worldwide imagine what it is to scale Mt. Everest, showed a long queue awaiting a final tilt at the summit, with all the dangers such a wait holds. In the 2019 season, at least 11 climbers have died or gone missing, including four Indians. Experts have been calling for Nepal to restrict the number of permits. It awarded a record 381 for this spring each fetching $11,000 (climbing from the Tibet side is more expensive). On 22nd May, 200 climbers ascended the summit, a new record for a single day. Last year, 807 managed to reach the summit. In 2012, the United Nations estimated that there were more than 26,000 visitors to the Everest region, and this figure has grown manifold since then. Nepal officials argue that permits are not issued recklessly, and that jams such as this year’s near the summit are on account of spells of bad weather, which result in mountaineers being compelled to reach the summit within a narrow time frame. Waiting in sub-zero temperatures at rarefied altitude can be fatal— this season’s deaths were mostly due to frostbite, exhaustion, dehydration and lack of oxygen. 

This year’s drama has caught the public imagination, as happened in 1996 when eight people died in a single day amid an unexpected storm – events of and around that day were the subject of Jon Krakauer’s bestselling book ‘Into Thin Air’. The adventure industry that is built around the human desire to scale the peak has meant many amateurs take up the challenge, confident that support teams and specialized equipment will make up for their lack of adequate mountaineering experience. The fallout is that in case of a disaster not only are some of them unable to manage but they also hold up others, putting them in harm’s way. The commercial operations have led to the Everest being called the world’s highest garbage dump as many climbers discard non-critical gear, used oxygen cylinders, plastic bottles, cans, batteries, food wrappings, fecal matter and kitchen waste on the mountains. It is unlikely, however, that this season’s tragedies will deter future summiteers, as the hypnotic lure remains intact. But the authorities must learn from this year’s tragedies and work out an optimum number of climbers and strengthen safety measures. 

Q. 110 What is the theme of this newspaper editorial? Select the most appropriate combination of factors given below. a. Overcrowding of Mount Everest on 22nd May, 2019. b. The urgent necessity to introduce and implement adequate safety measures to prevent man-made disasters. c. Not to treat the ascent of the highest peak as an adventure sport. d. Refuse permits to amateur climbers. e. Disallow tour operating companies from crowding the base-camp. 

A c & d 

B b & c 

C a & e 

D a & b 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 111 Fill in the blank to complete the statement. In 2019 ______ people have lost their lives on Mt. Everest. 

A eleven 

B eight 

C nine 

D ten 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 112 What image has Nirmal Purja’s viral photograph captured? 

A A long queue of climbers on the final stretch of a steep slope. 

B Dead bodies of mountaineers on the route of the highest peak. 

C The accumulated garbage on the mountain slopes. 

D Exhausted mountaineers falling unconscious on the way up. 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 113 Why was the Nepal Government criticized recently? 

A For not providing optimum facilities to the mountaineers. 

B For charging a hefty fee to issue a permit. 

C For allowing too many tour operators at the Everest Base Camp Site. 

D For issuing 381permits to aspiring climbers. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 114 Why, according to the text, do most climbers prefer to climb Everest from Nepal side? 

A Nepali people are keen to help the climbers because this is their only way to earn money. 

B International mountaineers are not allowed in Chinese territory. 

C Nepal provides better logistical support than India. 

D Climbing Mount Everest from Nepal side is cheaper than the Tibet side. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 115 Choose the factor, which was NOT responsible for the death of mountaineers in May, 2019. 

A Dehydration 

B Lack of food 

C Lack of oxygen 

D Frostbite and exhaustion 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 116 If an amateur mountaineer is one who climbs mountains as a hobby, which word in the text, describes an experienced one. 

A reckless mountaineer 

B ex-soldier climber 

C adventure climber 

D hardened mountaineer 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 117 How are amateur mountaineers a threat to others? 

A Amateurs are dependent on their support teams and cannot manage anything on their own. 

B Amateurs, because of their inexperience and slow pace, are exposed to all kinds of hazards. 

C Amateurs need specialized equipment to make up for their inexperience. 

D Amateurs hold up other mountaineers in case of unforeseen disasters because they are not self-reliant. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 118 Identify the INCORRECT OPTION. The Everest has become the ‘highest garbage dump’ as many climbers leave behind ______ 

A kitchen waste 

B protective clothing. 

C empty food cans and bottles 

D spent oxygen tanks 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 119 Select the INCORRECT Option. ‘Into Thin Air’ is _____ 

A a best- selling book. 

B based on an unexpected storm in the Himalayas. 

C an account of the death of eight people in a single day. 

D an incident that happened in 1999. 

Answer: D 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 120 Select the segment which has an error. A recent government report highlighted that the shortage of teachers in higher educational institutions is greater than that in countries like China, Brazil, Sweden and Russia. 

A A recent government report highlight 

B in higher educational institutions 

C that the shortage of teachers 

D is greater than 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 121 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. Consisting of many things or parts 

A few 

B singular 

C numerical 

D multitudinous 

Answer: D

 

Instructions: Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- 

Q. 122 His large income was still insufficient to meet the growing demands of his family. 

A No improvement. 

B was still insufficient 

C have been still insufficient 

D was being yet insufficient 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 123 I had no idea at first how difficult it was being track the identity of every tree in Delhi. 

A No improvement. 

B was to track 

C were to tracked 

D have been tracking 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions: For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 124 Select the segment which has an error. Their houses aren’t very big but their garden is. 

A aren’t very big 

B Their house 

C garden is 

D but their 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 125 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. It is known by everyone that the tournament will be won by us. 

A It is known to everyone that we are going to win the tournament. 

B It is known that the tournament is going to be won by us. 

C Everyone knows that we will win the tournament. 

D Everyone knows that the tournament was won by us. 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions: Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

Q. 126 A. It requires continuous learning and sacrifices. B. To raise well behaved and responsible children one should be willing to invest a considerable amount of time, patience and energy. C. Instilling and inculcating good values in a child will go a long way in making him/her a good person and a better citizen. D. There is no doubt that parenting is among the most difficult and demanding tasks in the world. 

A ACBD 

B ABCD 

C BDCA 

D DABC 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 127 A. Such was his devotion that Kaali Ma appeared before him with a thousand heads and a thousand pairs of arms.

B. Once, Tenali Raman wanted to visit the Kaali temple on the outskirts of the city and pray.

C. It was quite dark by the time Tenali reached the temple, prostrated before the goddess, and with eyes closed started praying to Mother Kaali.

D. Raman who was dazzled to see Mother Kaali in all her glory, looked at her from left to right and right to left and could not control his happiness. 

A BCAD 

B BACD 

C DCBA 

D CDAB 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 128 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. How were they managing the school for one year without a Principal? 

A How was the Principal managed for one year without a School? 

B How was the school managed for one year without a Principal? 

C How was the Principal being managed for one year without a School? 

D How was the school being managed for one year without a Principal? 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 129 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in context) to fill in the sentence. Factory owners are protesting because they think that the government has ______ of plastic manufacturing companies by closing their factories in big cities. 

A separated the wheat from the chaff 

B made no bones 

C been barking up the wrong tree 

D upset the applecart 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 130 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. It was quite a ______ matter but was escalated due to the media coverage. 

A humble 

B trivial 

C stingy 

D ghastly 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 131 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in context) to fill in the sentence. In trying to solve the crime, the detective found himself ______ Yet the mystery kept deepening. 

A beating the bush 

B beating his brains out 

C letting his hair down 

D making room for others 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 132 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. One should leave office on time to maintain good work life balance. 

A Office is being left on time to maintain good work life balance. 

B Office should be left on time to maintain good work life balance. 

C Office has to be left on time to maintain good work life balance. 

D Office will be left on time to maintain good work life balance. 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 133 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’ Now that I grow old , I often spend a lot of time thinking about my childhood. 

A had grown older 

B has grown older 

C No improvement. 

D am growing older 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions: Select the segment which has an error. 

Q. 134 Is she goes to visit her parents in the evening? 

A her parents 

B to visit 

C in the evening 

D Is she go 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 135 Our most memorable meeting with Spielberg happened while we were at the Berlin Film Festival in 1977, where the film ‘Shatranj ke Khilari ‘were being screened as India’s official entry. 

A Our most memorable meeting 

B while we were at 

C where the film 

D were being screened 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 136 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. The commander said, “Keep marching till you reach the border.” 

A The commander ordered his men to keep marching until they reached the border. 

B The commander requested the men keep marching till they reach the border. 

C The commander said the men should keep marching till they reach the border. 

D The commander said to his men they should keep marching till you reach the border. 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 137 Select the segment which has an error. Doctors say that eating red meat is one of the leading causes of heart disease. 

A is one of the leading causes 

B of heart disease 

C Doctors say that 

D eating red meat 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 138 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. An interesting discussion is being held on environmental degradation. 

A They are holding an interesting discussion on environmental degradation. 

B An interesting discussion had been held on environmental degradation. 

C An interesting discussion is to be held on environmental degradation. 

D They will be holding an interesting discussion on environmental degradation. 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 139 Identify the word that is misspelt. 

A exhilaration 

B idiosyncracy 

C recalcitrant 

D conscientious 

Answer: B

 

Q. 140 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in context) to fill in the sentence. The official found himself ______ when he could not explain his actions and all the members started attacking him with accusations of cheating. 

A in the eye of a storm 

B on the same page 

C wet behind the ears 

D burning the midnight oil 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 141 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. A. So he told his son that for every careless act of his he would hammer a nail into a wooden pillar in their house, and for every positive act he would pull out one nail. B. The boy saw that the pillar was getting crowded with nails and realised his mistake. C. A father wanted to inculcate a sense of responsibility in his careless son. D. He resolved to change his behaviour and soon the nails started coming out, until there were none left. 

A BACD 

B BCDA 

C CABD 

D CDBA 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 142 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. I said, “Mother please let me go out for a movie with my friends.” 

A He requested his mother she may please let him go out for a movie with his friends. 

B I said to mother you please let me go out for a movie with my friends. 

C She is begging her mother to please let me go out for a movie with my friends. 

D I begged my mother to let me go out for a movie with my friends. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 143 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. My art teacher asked me whether I had attended her classes. 

A My art teacher was asking me whether I had attended her classes. 

B My art teacher asks me whether I attended her classes. 

C I was being asked by my art teacher whether I was attending her classes. 

D I was asked by my art teacher whether I had attended her classes. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 144 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- I think you can have a piece of this cake but not all of it. I have to save some for my mother. 

A but never all of those 

B but not some of that 

C or not most of it 

D no improvement 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 145 Identify the word that is misspelt. 

A questionnaire 

B hierarchy 

C liaison 

D millenium 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 146 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. We expect an important announcement regarding the foreign policy today. 

A An important announcement regarding the foreign policy was expected today. 

B We had been expected an important announcement regarding the foreign policy today 

C An important announcement regarding the foreign policy is expected today. 

D An important announcement regarding the foreign policy will be expected today. 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 147 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “Why is everybody leaving so early today?” said the manager. 

A The manager asked why was everybody leaving so early that day. 

B The manager asked why everybody left so early that day. 

C The manager asked why everybody was leaving so early that day. 

D The manager asked why everybody was leaving so early today. 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 148 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- In my lifetime, I have been greatly privileged to travel to some of the most wonderful places in the world. 

A No improvement. 

B only a few of 

C none of 

D least of the 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 149 Select the segment which has an error. Since a meeting drew to a close, I realized that people were not really listening to me. 

A I realized 

B Since a meeting 

C drew to a close 

D were not really 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 150 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Amar urged Amit to stop taking tranquillizers without consulting the doctor. 

A “Amit,please stop taking tranquillizers without consulting the doctor,”Amar was advising, 

B Amit said to Amar, “Please stop taking tranquillizers without consulting the doctor.” 

C “Amit,please stop taking tranquillizers without consulting the doctor,” said Amar. 

D Amar says to Amit,“ Please consult the doctor before taking tranquilisers.” 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 151 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. My birthday was celebrated by my colleagues at the office today. 

A My colleagues have celebrated my birthday at the office today. 

B My colleagues are celebrating my birthday at the office today. 

C My colleagues will celebrate my birthday at the office today. 

D My colleagues celebrated my birthday at the office today. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 152 Select the segment which has an error. Rescue officials was unable to find any survivors in the California boat tragedy. 

A was unable 

B in the 

C to find 

D Rescue officials 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 153 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Aanya said, “Even if it rains very hard I will not miss school tomorrow.” 

A Aanya says that even if it rains very hard she will not miss school tomorrow. 

B Aanya said that even if it rained very hard she would not miss school the next day. 

C Aanya said though it rains very hard she will not miss school the next day. 

D Aanya has said that if it rains very hard I will not miss school tomorrow. 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 154 Find a word that is the synonym of – diminutive 

A petite 

B expeditious 

C dangerous 

D fallacious 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 155 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Father hugged me and said, “What a beautiful painting!” 

A Father hugged me and exclaimed that my painting was very beautiful. 

B Father hugs me and exclaimed that my painting is very beautiful. 

C Father hugs me and says that my painting was very beautiful. 

D Father hugged me and exclaimed I had made a very beautiful painting. 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 156 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. Making a show of being morally superior to others 

A approving 

B sanctum 

C profligate 

D sanctimonious 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 157 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The ______ speech did not impress the audience as they could not really make out the focus of her discussion. 

A contagious 

B concurrent 

C contaminated 

D convoluted 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 158 Select the segment which has an error. Please don’t disturb me as I am reading a book. 

A Please don’t 

B reading a book 

C as I am 

D disturbs me 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions: Read the following passage and fill in each blank with words chosen from the options given. 

Comprehension: Packing is one of those chores that seems ______ (1) simple but it’s a skill that most of humanity ______ (2).Even seasoned travellers end up carrying a ______ (3) array of stuff they don’t use.Heavy bags ______ (4) be back-breaking and frustrating. Packing ______ (5) is a test of planning skills and is indicative of one’s ability to ______ (6) one’s life. The simplest way to pack smart is to ______ (7) a medium- sized bag so you’re not tempted to ______ (8)more stuff at the last minute.The smart packer doesn’t ______ (9)what -if -I -need it-category of stuff, the singular reason junk lands in ______ (10) suitcase. 

Q. 159 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1 

A deceptively 

B cleverly 

C specially 

D deceitfully 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 160 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2 

A do have 

B does have 

C don’t have 

D doesn’t have 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 161 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3 

A irritating 

B illuminating 

C bedazzling 

D mind boggling 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 162 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4 

A will 

B mustn’t 

C should 

D can 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 163 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5 

A complicatedly 

B randomly 

C deliberately 

D strategically 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 164 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.6 

A detect 

B reflect 

C organise 

D interpret 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 165 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.7 

A select 

B invest 

C go 

D look 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 166 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.8 

A squeeze in 

B pushing in 

C spreading on 

D putting on 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 167 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.9 

A live on 

B stay on 

C think on 

D dwell on 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 168 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.10 

A most 

B the 

C one 

D many 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 169 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Rashmi says, “My startup is doing very well.” 

A Rashmi says that my startup is doing very well. 

B Rashmi said that her startup is doing very well. 

C Rashmi said that her startup was doing very well. 

D Rashmi says that her startup is doing very well. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 170 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. A. Now, that the real estate sector has got its own regulator, RERA, from May 1, 2017, things are expected to improve. B. For many of the homebuyers, across locations the delay has extended to almost six years or more. C. In the absence of a regulator and with no rules in place, the builder-buyer battle appeared one-sided. D. For the buyers of real estate properties the delay in possession of their homes has been the biggest concern. 

A DBCA 

B ABDC 

C DABC 

D BACD 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 171 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. He said, “The last film I saw was such a violent one that I couldn’t sleep the whole night.” 

A He is saying the last film he saw was such a violent one that he couldn’t sleep the whole night. 

B He shall be saying that the last film he had been seeing was such a violent one that he couldn’t sleep the whole 

night. 

C He shall say that the last film he had seen was such a violent one that he couldn’t sleep the whole night. 

D He said that the last film he had seen was such a violent one that he couldn’t sleep the whole night. 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 172 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. a private conversation between two people 

A monologue 

B tête-à-tête 

C dialogue 

D sermon 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 173 Select the segment which has an error. Aanya’s class teacher and her friends congratulates her warmly when she won the inter school debate and brought the trophy to the school. 

A and brought the trophy 

B congratulates her 

C when she won 

D and her friends 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 174 Select the segment which has an error. Some of us are planning to go for a movie tonight. 

A for a movie 

B to go 

C Some of us 

D are plan to go 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 175 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. proceeding in a gradual way and secretly intending to cause harm 

A benevolent 

B malevolent 

C solvent 

D insidious 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 176 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order.

A. Thought everything was on the up and up for Holzman, yet … something wasn’t quite right.

B. At 19, he enrolled in the Culinary Institute of America before heading to the West Coast to cook for such well-esteemed restaurants as Paladin, Napa and Aqua.

C. He got a little fed up with the kitchen and started to feel that he wanted to do something different with it.

D. Holzman, a well known chef, started his career at the age of 15 when the prodigy began cooking under Eric Ripert at the iconic New York restaurant, Le Bernardin. 

A DBAC 

B ABCD 

C DACB 

D ACBD 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 177 Select the segment which has an error. The novel ‘Embers’ has a captivating plot and begins with a senior army officer preparing to receive a rare visitor, a man who was once his closest friend. 

A his close friend 

B has a captivating plot 

C a man who was once 

D begins with 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow- 

Comprehension: Brain training is big business. From online websites to video games to mobile apps, it seems like there are plenty of ways to give your brain a bit of a boost. But does all this brain training really work? Can it increase your cognitive abilities or your IQ? According to a few recent studies, while these brain training tools might help sharpen your abilities to retain information, they won’t necessarily increase your intelligence or improve your ability to reason and think abstractly. 

The parent company of one of the most prominent “brain training” websites was recently fined for deceptive advertising. According to the complainant, the company suggested its games could reduce or delay cognitive impairment such as one might find in Alzheimer’s patients, which is false. 

So while there may be some benefits to brain training, don’t expect miraculous results. Earlier studies have found no link between increased intelligence and brain training exercises. 

Same is the case with standardized tests. Students today take a wide variety of standardized tests, from assessments throughout elementary school to evaluations required for college admission. While test preparation for such assessments can increase factual knowledge, one study suggests that this preparation does little to increase overall IQ.Why is it so? While test preparation increases what psychologists refer to as crystallized intelligence, it does not increase what is known as fluid intelligence. Crystallized intelligence includes facts and information, while fluid intelligence involves the ability to think abstractly or logically. 

In a study published in the journal Psychological Science, researchers looked at the IQ scores and test scores of approximately 1,400 eighth-grade students. While schoolwork helped increase the students’ test scores, it had no effect on measures of fluid intelligence. The authors suggest that fluid intelligence is a much better indicator of abilities such as problem solving ability, abstract thinking skills, memory capacity, and processing speed. 

While the study found no indicator that test preparation improved IQ, that does not mean that this preparation has no value. Research clearly shows that having high scores on standardized tests is linked to having high scores on other important tests including Advanced Placement tests, the SAT etc. 

Q. 178 In the passage, ‘give your brain a bit of a boost’ means to – 

A increase its ability to grow stronger 

B be able to play video games 

C increase its size 

D sharpen it 

Answer: D 


Q. 179 What do brain training tools do? 

A Enable you to retain information 

B Sharpen the ability to think clearly 

C Increase intelligence 

D Improve problem solving abilities 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 180 A brain training site was fined for- 

A making false claims 

B causing Alzheimer’s disease 

C helping improve learning ability 

D decreasing intelligence 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 181 On comparing crystallized intelligence and fluid intelligence it is found that- 

A students have better fluid intelligence and perform better because of schoolwork and standardized test. 

B crystallized intelligence helps in making you think with a logical mind gives you better test scores. 

C fluid intelligence is what gives a learner skills such as problem-solving and processing of information. 

D crystallized intelligence is better because it helps you learn facts and information. 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 182 From the passage one can arrive at the conclusion that both brain training and standardized tests – 

A do not really increase overall IQ and mental abilities. 

B sharpen logical thinking through intensive training. 

C increase brain functioning and performance. 

D make you more intelligent and get better results. 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 183 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. Hillary Clinton and her daughter Chelsea are working on ‘The Book of Gutsy women ‘. 

A ‘The Book of Gutsy Women,’is being worked upon by Hillary Clinton and her daughter Chelsea. 

B Hillary Clinton and Chelsea will have worked upon ‘The Book of Gutsy Women’. 

C ‘The Book of Gutsy Women’ would have been worked upon by Hillary Clinton and her daughter Chelsea. 

D Hillary Clinton and her daughter Chelsea were working upon ‘The Book of Gutsy Women.’ 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 184 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. The monsoons spur the trees to sprout new leaves. 

A Trees were spurred to sprout new leaves by the monsoons. 

B The monsoons will have spurred the trees to sprout new leaves. 

C Trees are spurred by the monsoons to sprout new leaves. 

D The monsoons are spurring the trees to sprout new leaves. 

Answer: C 


Instructions: Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. 

Q. 185 The gym instructor exclaimed that her students’ performance was extremely poor. 

A The gym instructor said to her students, “How poor their performance is!” 

B The gym instructor said to her students, “How is your performance so poor?” 

C The gym instructor said to her students, “How poor your performance is!” 

D The gym instructor says to her students, “Your performance is poor.” 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 186 The teacher suggested that the PTM be postponed to the third Saturday of the month. 

A The teacher said, “The PTM will be postponed to the third Saturday of the month. “ 

B The teacher said, “Let’s postpone the PTM to the third Saturday of the month. “ 

C The teacher said, “The PTM would be postponed to the third Saturday of the month.” 

D The teacher suggested, “The PTM must be postponed to the third Saturday of the month.” 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 187 The RWA members said, “We want to see the audited accounts before we make more payments.” 

A The RWA members are saying that they want to see the audited accounts before they make more payments. 

B The RWA members said that they wanted to see the audited accounts before they made more payments. 

C The RWA members said that we want to see the audited accounts before we make more payments. 

D The RWA members said we wanted to see the audited accounts before we make more payments. 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions: Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- 

Q. 188 The vicious cycle of poverty refers to a situation where those who are poor will be trapped in poverty. 

A would be trap 

B will remain trapped 

C No improvement. 

D were trapping 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 189 There was a time when it was fashionable to have a dainty dog, like as the poodles or any other tiny creature as a pet. 

A like as the poodle 

B such as a poodle 

C No improvement. 

D much like a poodle 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions: Read the following passage and fill in each blank with words chosen from the options given. 

Comprehension: It’s a magical sight: Just as the light begins to vanish, thousands of tiny penguins waddle ______ (1) the surf on an island in south-eastern Australia, then ______ (2) the beach and along well-worn paths toward ______ (3) burrows. The “Penguin Parade” has been a major attraction since the 1920s, when tourists ______ (4) by torchlight to view the nightly ______ (5) the birds — the world’s smallest penguin breed, with adults ______ (6) 13 inches tall. For much of that time, the penguins lived ______ (7) the residents of a housing development, in tight proximity to cars and pets. The penguins’ numbers fell ______(8) But in 1985, the state government decided to buy ______ (9) piece of property on the Peninsula and return the land to the penguins. Today there are about 31,000 penguins ______ (10) on the peninsula, up from 12,000 in the 1980s. 

Q. 190 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 1 

A stand off 

B passing off 

C far off 

D out of 

Answer: D 

 

Q. 191 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 2 

A move out 

B move up 

C moves on 

D moved to 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 192 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 3 

A their 

B those 

C these 

D this 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 193 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 4 

A was lead 

B had led 

C were led 

D were leading 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 194 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 5 

A shining of 

B arrival of 

C playing off 

D going of 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 195 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 6 

A averages 

B average 

C averaging 

D averaged 

Answer: C 

 

Q. 196 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 7 

A within 

B among 

C between 

D towards 

Answer: B 

 

Q. 197 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 8 

A drastically 

B variously 

C numerously 

D clearly 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 198 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 9 

A all 

B any 

C each 

D some 

Answer: A 

 

Q. 199 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 10 

A preparing 

B proceeding 

C propelling 

D breeding 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions: For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 200 Select the segment which has an error. It is estimated that most of the addict, a whopping 85%, in God’s own country Kerala, are below 25 years of age. 

A It is estimated that 

B are below 25 

C most of the addict 

D a whopping 85% 

Answer: C 

SSC CGL Tier-II 13 September 2019 Maths Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL – MATHS

Tier-2 (13 Sept 2019) 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.1 N solid metallic spherical balls are melted and recast into a cylindrical rod whose radius is 3 times that of a spherical ball and height is 4 times the radius of a spherical ball. The value of N is: 

A 30 

B 27 

C 24 

D 36 

Answer: B 

 

Q.2 If x is the remainder when 361284 is divided by 5 and y is the remainder when 496 is divided by 6, then what is the value of (2x – y)? 

A -4 

B 4 

C -2 

D 2 

Answer: C 

 

Q.3 What is the area (in square units) of the triangular region enclosed by the graphs of the equations x + y = 3, 2x + 5y = 12 and the x-axis? 

A 2 

B 3 

C 4 

D 6 

Answer: B 

 

Q.4 The value of √(28+10√3) – √(7-4√3)is closest to: 

A 7.2 

B 6.1 

C 6.5 

D 5.8 

Answer: C 

 

Q.5 If secθ + tanθ = p, ( p > 1 ) then cosecθ+1/cosecθ-1 =?

A p+1/p-1

B P2

C p-1/p+1

D 2p2

Answer: B 

 

Q.6 The value cosec(670 + θ) − sec(230 − θ) + cos150 cos350 cos550 cos600 cos750 is: 

A 2 

B 0 

C 1 

D ½ 

Answer: D 

 

Q.7 35% of goods were sold at a profit of 65%, while the remaining were sold at x% loss. If the overall loss is 12%, then what is the value of x ? (correct to one decimal place) 

A 51.8 

B 50.6 

C 53.5 

D 52.4 

Answer: C 

 

Q.8 In a circle with centre O, ABCD is cyclic quadrilateral and AC is the diameter. Chords AB and CD are produced to meet at E. If ∠CAE = 340 and ∠E = 300, then ∠CBD is equal to: 

A 360 

B 260 

C 240 

D 340 

Answer: B 

 

Q.9 ab(a − b) + bc(b − c) + ca(c − a) is equal to: 

A (a + b)(b − c)(c − a) 

B (a − b)(b + c)(c − a) 

C (a − b)(b − c)(c − a) 

D (b − a)(b − c)(c − a) 

Answer: D 

 

Q.10 The radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is increased by 20%. By what percent should its height be reduced so that its volume remains the same as before? 

A 25 

B 30 2/9

C 30 5/9

D 28 

Answer: C 

 

Q.11 A is as efficient as B and C together. Working together A and B can complete a work in 36 days and C alone can complete it in 60 days. A and C work together for 10 days. B alone will complete the remaining work in: 

A 110 days 

B 88 days 

C 84 days 

D 90 days 

Answer: A 

 

Q.12 If 2cos2 θ + 3sinθ = 3 , where 00 < θ < 90 , then what is the value of sin2 2θ + cos2 θ + tan2 2θ + cosec2 2θ ? 

A 35/12

B 29/3

C 35/6

D 29 6

Answer: C 

 

Q.13 The radius and the height of a right circular cone are in the ratio 5 : 12. Its curved surface area is 816.4 cm². What is the volume (in cm³ ) of the cone? (Take π = 3.14) 

A 2512 

B 1256 

C 3140 

D 628 

Answer: A 

 

Q.14 Given that (5x − 3)3 + (2x + 5)3 + 27(4 − 3x)3 = 9(3 − 5x)(2x + 5)(3x − 4), then the value of (2x + 1) is: 

A -13 

B 15 

C -15 

D 13 

Answer: B 

 

Q.15 The sides of a triangle are 12 cm, 35 cm and 37 cm. What is the circumradius of the triangle 

A 19 cm 

B 17.5 cm 

C 17 cm 

D 18.5 cm 

Answer: D 

 

Q.16 The base of a right pyramid is an equilateral triangle with area 163cm2. If the area of one of its lateral faces is 30 cm2, then its height (in cm) is: 

A √(739/12)

B √(209/12)

C √(611/12)

D √(643/12)

Answer: C 

 

Q.17 A vessel contains a 32 litre solution of acid and water in which the ratio of acid and water is 5 : 3. If 12 litres of the solution are taken out and 7½ litres of water are added to it, then what is the ratio of acid and water in the resulting solution? 

A 4 : 7 

B 5 : 6 

C 4 : 9 

D 8 : 11 

Answer: B 

 

Q.18 A sphere of maximum volume is cut out from a solid hemisphere. What is the ratio of the volume of the sphere to that of the remaining solid? 

A 1 : 4 

B 1 : 2 

C 1 : 3 

D 1 : 1 

Answer: C 

 

Q.19 If √5x3+2√2y3 = (Ax+√2y)(Bx2+2y2+Cxy), then the value of (A2 + B2 − C2) is: 

A 15 

B 20 

C 30 

D 40 

Answer: B 

 

Q.20 The value of (1 + cotθ − cosecθ )(1 + cosθ + sinθ)secθ =? 

A -2 

B 2 

C sec θ cosec θ

D sin θ cos θ

Answer: B 

 

Q.21 S is the incenter △PQR of ∠PSR = 1250. If , then the measure of ∠PQR  is: 

A 750

B 550

C 800

D 700

Answer: D 

 

Q.22 The value of 0.4 7 + 0.5 03 − 0.3 9 × 0.8 is: 

A 0.615

B 0.615

C 0.625

D 0.625

Answer: D 

 

Q.23 If △ABC in , D and are the points on AB and BC respectively such that DE ∥ BC, and AD : AB = 3: 8, then (area of △BDE) : ( area of quadrilateral DECA) = ? 

A 9 : 55 

B 9 : 64 

C 8 : 13 

D 25 : 39 

Answer: D 

 

Q.24 Monika spends 72% of her income. If her income increases by 20% and savings increase by 15%, then her expenditure increases by: (correct to 1 decimal place) 

A 20.8% 

B 20.2% 

C 21.9% 

D 19.8% 

Answer: C 

 

Q.25 A. B and C started a business with their capitals in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. A increased his capital by 50% after 4 months, B increased his capital by 33⅓% after 6 months and C withdrew 50% of his capital after 8 months, from the start of the business. If the total profit at the end of a year was ₹86,800,then the difference between the shares of A and C in the profit was: 

A ₹12,600 

B ₹7,000 

C ₹9,800 

D ₹8,400 

Answer: A 

 

Q.26 The graph of the equations 5x − 2y + 1 = 0 and 4y − 3x + 5 = 0, interest at the point P(α,β), What is the value of (2α − 3β)? 

A 4 

B 6 

C -4 

D -3 

Answer: A 

 

Q.27 An article was sold at a profit of 14%. Hadit been sold for ₹121 less, a loss of 8% would have been incurred. If the same article would have been sold for ₹536.25, then the profit/loss per cent would have been: 

A Profit, 5% 

B Loss, 5% 

C Loss, 2.5% 

D Profit, 2.5% 

Answer: C 

 

Q.28 A shopkeeper allows 18% discount on the marked price of an article and still makes a profit of 23%. If he gains ₹18.40 on the sale of the article, then what is the marked price of the article? 

A ₹140 

B ₹125 

C ₹120 

D ₹146 

Answer: C

 

Q.29 The value of (sec2θ/cosec2θ)+ (cosec2θ/sec2θ) – (sec2θ+cosec2θ)is: 

A 0 

B -2 

C 2 

D 1 

Answer: B 

 

Q.30 The given graph shows the weights of students in a school on a particular day. 

The number of students weighing less than 50 kg is what percent less than the number of students weighing 55 kg or more? 

A 44 

B 40 

C 55 

D 30 

Answer: A 

 

Q.31 A right prism has height 18 cm and its base is a triangle with sides 5 cm, 8 cm and 12 cm. What is its lateral surface area (in cm2) ? 

A 450 

B 468 

C 432 

D 486 

Answer: A 

 

Q.32 A can do one-third of a work in 15 days, B can do 75% of the same work in 18 days and C can do the same work in 36 days. B and C work together for 8 days. In how many days will A alone complete the remaining work? 

A 24 days 

B 18 days 

C 20 days 

D 16 days 

Answer: C 

 

Q.33 A person buys 80 kg of rice and sells it at a profit of as much money as he paid for 30 kg. His profit per cent is: 

A 27 ³/₁₁

B 35 

C 40 

D 37½

Answer: D 

 

Q.34 To cover a distance of 416 km, a train A takes 2⅔ hours more than train B. If the speed of A is doubled, it would take 1⅓ hours less than B, What is the speed (in km/h) of train A? 

A 56 

B 54 

C 52 

D 65 

Answer: C 

 

Q.35 The value of  (2√10) / (√5+√2-√7) – √(√5-2/√5+2) – (3/√7-2)is: 

A 2+√2

B 2√5

C √2

D √7

Answer: C 

 

Q.36 The price of oil has increased by 20%. However, its consumption decreased by 8⅓%. What is the percentage increase or decrease in the expenditure on it? 

A Increase by 10% 

B Increase by 5% 

C Decrease by 10% 

D Decrease by 5% 

Answer: A 

 

Q.37 The average age of 120 students in a group is 13.56 years. 35% of the number of students are girls and the rest are boys. If the ratio of the average age of boys and girls is 6 : 5, then what is the average age (in years)of the girls? 

A 12 

B 11.6 

C 10 

D 14.4 

Answer: A 

 

Q.38 The marked price of an article is ₹1500. If two successive discounts, each of x% . on the marked price is equal to a single discount of ₹587.40, then what will be the selling price of the article if a single discount of x% is given on the marked price? 

A ₹1,025 

B ₹1,155 

C ₹1,170 

D ₹1,200 

Answer: C 

 

Q.39 Two parallel chords on the same side of the centre of a circle are 12 cm and 20 cm long and the radius of the circle is 5√13cm. What is the distance (in cm) between the chords? 

A 2 

B 3 

C 2.5 

D 1.5 

Answer: A 

 

Q.40 Study the following bar graph and answer the question given. 

The ratio of the total demand of motorcycles of companies A, C and E to the total production of motorcycles of B and C is: 

A 1 : 1 

B 2 : 1 

C 11 : 10 

D 3 : 2 

Answer: D

 

Q.41 A circle touches the side BC of ABC at D and AB and AC are produced to E and F, respectively. If AB = 10 em, AC = 8.6 cm and BC = 6.4 cm, then BE =? 

A 3.2 cm 

B 3.5 cm 

C 2.2 cm 

D 2.5 cm 

Answer: D 

 

Q.42 If the measure of each exterior angle of a regular polygon is 513/70 then the ratio of the number of its diagonals to the number of its sides is: 

A 5 : 2 

B 13 : 6 

C 3 : 1 

D 2 : 1 

Answer: D 

 

Q.43 Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5. If 13 is subtracted from each, the new numbers are in the ratio 10 : 21, If 15 is added to each of the original numbers, then the ratio becomes: 

A 5 : 7 

B 23 : 33 

C 4 : 5 

D 24 : 35 

Answer: D 

 

Q.44 Pipes A and B are filling pipes while pipe C is an emptying pipe. A and B can fill a tank in 72 and 90 minutes respectively. When all the three pipes are opened together, the tank gets filled in 2 hours. A and B are opened together for 12 minutes, then closed and C is opened, The tank will be empty after: 

A 15 minutes 

B 18 minutes 

C 12 minutes 

D 16 minutes 

Answer: B 

 

Q.45 The LCM of two numbers x and y is 204 times their HCF. If their HCF is 12 and the difference between the numbers is 60, then x + y = ? 

A 660 

B 426 

C 852 

D 348 

Answer: D 

 

Q.46 In △ABC,BE ⊥ AC,CD ⊥ AB and BE and CD intersect each other at O. The bisectors of ∠OBC and ∠OCB meet at P. If ∠BPC = 148, then what is the measure of ∠A? 

A 560 

B 280

C 320

D 640

Answer: D 

Q.47 The value of is:

A -1 

B -2 

C 2 

D 1 

Answer: D 

 

Q.48 The value of 24 × 2 ÷ 12 + 12 ÷ 6 of 2 ÷ (15 ÷ 8 × 4) of (28 ÷ 7 of 5) is: 

A 4⅙ 

B 4 8/75

C 4⅔ 

D 4 32/75

Answer: A 

 

Q.49 A person covers 40% of the distance from A to B at 8 km/h, 40% of the remaining distance at 9 km/h and the rest at 12 km/h. His average speed (in km/h) for the journey is: 

A 9⅝ 

B 9⅔ 

C 9⅜ 

D 9⅓ 

Answer: C 

 

Q.50 A 15 m deep well with radius 2.8 m is dug and the earth taken out from it is spread evenly to form platform of breadth 8 m and height 1.5 m. What will be the length of the platform? (Take π = 22/7) 

A 28.4 m 

B 28.8 m 

C 30.2 m 

D 30.8 m 

Answer: D 

 

Q.51 In △PQR,∠Q > ∠R,PS is the bisectors of ∠P and PT ⊥ PQ. If ∠SPT = 28 and ∠ R = 23, then the measure of ∠Q is: 

A 74

B 79 

C 82

D 89

Answer: B 

 

Q.52 25 persons can complete a work in 60 days. They started the work. 10 persons left the work after x days. If the whole work was completed in 80 days, then whatis the value of x ? 

A 9

B 8 

C 12 

D 15 

Answer: C 

 

Q.53 The value of sin264 + cos64 sin26 + 2cos43 cosec47 is: 

A 4 

B 1 

C 2 

D 3 

Answer: D 

 

Q.54 A tank is in the form of a cuboid with length 12 m. If 18 kilolitre of water is removed from it, the water level goes down by 30cm. What is the width (in m) of the tank? 

A 4 

B 5 

C 5.5 

D 4.5 

Answer: B 

 

Q.55 In finding the HCF of two numbers by division method, the last divisor is 17 and the quotients are 1. 11 and 2, respectively. What is the sum of the two numbers? 

A 833 

B 867 

C 816 

D 901 

Answer: C 

 

Q.56 A person invested one-fourth of the sum of ₹25,000 at a certain rate of simple interest and the rest at 4% p.a. higher rate. If the total interest received for 2 years is ₹4,125, what is the rate at which the second sum was invested? 

A 9.5% 

B 9.25% 

C 5.25% 

D 7.5% 

Answer: B 

 

Q.57 The radius of the base of a right circular cylinder is 3 cm and its curved surface area is 60πcm2, The volume of the cylinder (in cm3) is: 

A 90π 

B 72π

C 60π

D 81π

Answer: A 

 

Q.58 If [3(x2+1)-7x] / 3x = 6, x ≠ 0, then the value of √x+ 1/√x is: 

A  √25/3

B  √11/3

C  √35/3

D  √31/3

Answer: D

 

Q.59 Basir’s working hours per day were increased by 15% and his wages per hour were increased by 20%. By how much percent did his daily earnings increase? 

A 40 

B 38 

C 35 

D 36 

Answer: B 

 

Q.60 A student was asked to find the value of 9⁴/9 ÷ 11⅓ of ⅙ +(1⅓×1⅘÷⅗)×2⅙ of ⅔÷⁴/3of ⅔.His answer was 19¼What is the difference between his answer and the correct answer 

A 7¾ 

B 6⅔ 

C 7½ 

D 6⅓ 

Answer: A 

 

Q.61 If a 10-digit number 5 4 3 2 y 1 7 4 9 x is divisible by 72, then what is the value of (5x – 4y)? 

A 14 

B 15 

C 10 

D 9 

Answer: A 

 

Q.62 What is the remainder when (12797+9797) is divided by 32? 

A 4 

B 2 

C 7 

D 0 

Answer: D 

 

Q.63 The value of [(sinθ-cosθ)(1+tanθ+cotθ)]/1+sinθcosθ= ?

A secθ − cosecθ

B cosecθ − secθ

C sinθ + cosθ

D tanθ − cotθ

Answer: A 

 

Q.64 A, B and C spend 80%, 85% and 75% of their incomes, respectively. If their savings are in the ratio 8 : 9 : 20 and the difference between the incomes of A and C is ₹18,000, then the income of B is: 

A ₹24,000 

B ₹27,000 

C ₹30,000 

D ₹36,000 

Answer: B 

 

Q.65 If 25% of half of x is equal to 2.5 times the value of 30% of one-fourth of y. then x is what percent more or Less than y? 

A 33⅓% more 

B 50% more 

C 33⅓% less 

D 50% less 

Answer: B 

 

Q.66 The value of (sinθ+cosθ-1)/(sinθ-cosθ+1)×[tan2θ(cosec2θ-1)]/(secθ-tanθ) is:

A 0 

B -1 

C 1 

D 1 

Answer: C 

 

Q.67 In an examination, A obtained 10% more marks than B, B obtained 20% more marks than C and C obtained 32% less marks than D. If A obtained 272 more marks than C, then the marks obtained by B is: 

A 850 

B 816 

C 1020 

D 952 

Answer: C 

 

Q.68 In quadrilateral ABCD,∠C = 72 and ∠D = 28 . The bisectors of ∠A and ∠B meet in O. What is the measure of ∠AOB ? 

A 48∘ 

B 54∘ 

C 50∘ 

D 36∘ 

Answer: C 

 

Q.69 a, b and c are three fractions such that a < b < c. If c is divided by a, the result is 9/2, which exceeds b by 23/6. The sum of a, b and c is 19/12, What is the value of (2a + b – c)? 

A ½ 

B ⅓ 

C 1/12

D ¼ 

Answer: D 

 

Q.70 How many kg of salt costing ₹28 per kg must be mixed with 39.6 kg of salt costing ₹16 per kg, so that selling the mixture at ₹29.90, there is a gain of 15%? 

A 33 

B 31 

C 35 

D 32 

Answer: A 

 

Q.71 Study the following bar graph and answer the question given. 

The total production of motorcycles of companies C, D and E is what percent less than the total demand of motorcycles of all the companies during five years? 

A 43 

B 32 

C 38 

D 47 

Answer: B 

 

Q.72 A, B and C started a business, Thrice the investment of A is equal to twice the investment of B and also equal to four times the investment of C, If C’s share out of the total profit is ₹4,863,then the share ofA in the profit is: 

A ₹7,272 

B ₹6,484 

C ₹9,726 

D ₹8,105 

Answer: B 

 

Q.73 Two positive numbers differ by 2001. When the larger number is divided by the smaller number, the quotient is 9 and the remainder is 41. The sum of the digits of the larger number is: 

A 15 

B 11 

C 10 

D 14 

Answer: D 

 

Q.74 Let , then the value of x2+y2 is:

A 223/36

B 221/36

C 221/9

D 227/9

Answer: A 

 

Q.75 If (5x + 2y) : (10x + 3y) = 5 : 9 , then (2x2 + 3y2 ) : (4x2 + 9y2 ) = ?

A 31 : 87 

B 10 : 27 

C 16 : 47 

D 1 : 3 

Answer: A 

 

Q.76 The average of 18 numbers is 37.5. If six numbers of average X are added to them, then the average of all the numbers increases by one, The value of x is: 

A 40 

B 41.5 

C 42 

D 38.5 

Answer: B 

 

Q.77 In an office, ⅝ of the total number of employees are males and the rest are females. ⅖ of the number of males are non technical workers while ⅔ of the number of females are technical workers, What fraction of the total number of employees are technical workers? 

A ⅝ 

B ⅖ 

C ½ 

D ⅜ 

Answer: A 

 

Q.78 A solid cylinder of base radius 12 cm and height 15 cm is melted and recast into m toys each in the shape of a right circular cone of height 9 cm mounted on a hemisphere of radius 3 cm. The value of n is: 

A 27 

B 64 

C 48 

D 54 

Answer: C 

 

Q.79 In △ABC,D and E are the points on AB and AC respectively such that AD × AC = AB × AE. If ∠ADE = ∠ACB + 30 and ∠ABC = 78 , then ∠A =? 

A 56∘ 

B 54∘ 

C 68∘ 

D 48∘ 

Answer: B 

 

Q.80 P and Q are two points on the ground on either side of a pole. The angles of elevation of the top of the pole as observed from P and Q are 60 and 30, respectively and the distance between them is 84√3m. What is the height (in m) of the pole? 

A 63 

B 73.5 

C 52.5 

D 60 

Answer: A 

 

Q.81 If in △PQR,∠P = 120 ,PS ⊥ QR at S and PQ + QS = SR . then the measure of ∠Q is: 

A 20

B 50

C 40

D 30

Answer: C 

 

Q.82 The given pie-chart shows the break-up of total marks obtained by a student in five subjects A, B, C, D and E. The maximum marks in each subject is 150 and he obtained a total of 600 marks. 

In how many subjects did the student obtain more than his average score? 

A 3 

B 2 

C 4 

D 1 

Answer: B 

 

Q.83 Walking at 60% of his usual speed, a man reaches his destination 1 hour 40 minutes late, His usual time (in hours) to reach the destination is: 

A 2½ 

B 2¼ 

C 3⅛ 

D 3¼ 

Answer: A 

 

Q.84 A man can row a distance of 900 metres against the stream in 12 minutes and returns to the starting point in 9 minutes. What is the speed (in km/h) of the man in still water? 

A 4½ 

B 6 

C 5¼ 

D 5 

Answer: C 

 

Q.85 If x + y + z = 6,xyz = −10 and x2 + y2 + 22 = 30, then what is the value of (x3 + y3 + z3 )? 

A 132 

B 135 

C 130 

D 127 

Answer: A 

Q.86 The value of is:

A 24.42 

B 24.24 

C 25.42 

D 25.48 

Answer: D 

 

Q.87 If  ,0< θ <90,then the value of (tanθ +secθ)-1 is:

A 2-√3

B 3-√2

C 2+√3

D 3+√2

Answer: A 

 

Q.88 Sudha bought 80 articles at the same price. She sold some of them at 8% profit and the remaining at 12% loss resulting in an overall profit of 6%. The number of items sold at 8% profit is: 

A 64 

B 60 

C 72 

D 70 

Answer: C 

 

Q.89 The given pie-chart shows the break-up of total marks obtained by a student in five subjects A, B, C, D and E. The maximum marks in each subject is 150 and he obtained a total of 600 marks. 

The total marks obtained by the student in subjects C and E is approximately how much per cent more than what he obtained in A and D together? 

A 9.09% 

B 10.25% 

C 8.33% 

D 7.26% 

Answer: A 

 

Q.90 If the selling price of an article is 32% more than its cost price and the discount offered on its marked price is 12%, then what is the ratio of its cost price to the marked price? 

A 4 : 5 

B 3 : 8 

C 2 : 3 

D 1 : 2 

Answer: C 

 

Q.91 Study the following bar graph and answer the question given. 

The number of companies whose production of motorcycles is equal to or more than the average demand of motorcycles (per year) over five years is: 

A 4 

B 2 

C 1 

D 3 

Answer: D 

 

Q.92 The internal diameter of a hollow hemispherical vessel is 24 cm. It is made of a steel sheet which is 0.5 cm thick. What is the total surface area (in cm2) of the vessel? 

A 612.75 π

B 468.75 π

C 600.2 π

D 600.5 π

Answer: A 

 

Q.93 The bisector of in ∠A △ABC meets BC in D. If AB = 15cm,AC = 13cm and BC = 14cm , then DC =?

A 8.5 cm 

B 7.5 cm 

C 6.5 cm 

D 8 cm 

Answer: C 

 

Q.94 A certain loan was returned in two equal half yearly instalments each of ₹6,760. If the rate of interest was 8% p.a., compounded yearly, how much was the interest paid on the loan? 

A ₹750 

B ₹810 

C ₹790 

D ₹770 

Answer: D 

 

Q.95 A sum is divided among A, B, C and D such that the ratio of the shares of A and is 2 : 3, that of B and C is 1 : 2 and that of C and D is 3 : 4. If the difference between the shares of A and is ₹648,then the sum of their shares is: 

A ₹2,052 

B ₹2,160 

C ₹2,484 

D ₹1,944 

Answer: A 

 

Q.96 The given pie-chart shows the break-up of total marks obtained by a student in five subjects A, B, C, D and E. The maximum marks in each subject is 150 and he obtained a total of 600 marks. 

What is the difference between the marks obtained by the student in subjects B and D? 

A 20 

B 27 

C 30 

D 12 

Answer: A 

 

Q.97 A sector of radius 10.5 cm with the central angle 1200 is folded to form a cone by joining the two bounding radii of the sector. What is the volume (in cm3) of the cone so formed? 

A (343√2)π /6

B (343√3)π /6

C (343√3)π /12

D (343√2)π /12

Answer: D 

 

Q.98 A certain sum amounts to ₹4,205.55 at 15% p.a. in years, interest compounded yearly. The sum is: 

A ₹3,200 

B ₹3,500 

C ₹2,700 

D ₹3,000 

Answer: D 

 

Q.99 In △ABD,C is the midpoint of BD. If AB = 10cm,AD = 12cm and AC = 9cm, then BD =?

A 2√14 cm

B 2√10 cm

C √41 cm

D √10 cm

Answer: A 

 

Q.100 A sum of ₹10,500 amounts to ₹13,825 in years at a certain rate per cent per annum simple interest. What will be the simple interest on the same sum for 5 years at double the earlier rate? 

A ₹8,470 

B ₹8,750 

C ₹8,670 

D ₹8,560 

Answer: B 

SSC CGL Tier-I 23 August 2017 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2017 23 Aug Shift 1 

 

Q. 1 Select the related word from the given alternatives.

Car : Steering wheel :: Motorcycle : ?

A. Tyre

B. Headlight

C. Engine

D. Handle bar

 

Q. 2 Select the related letters from the given alternatives.

EFG : VUT :: JIH : ?

A. SUW

B. QRS

C. QSU

D. HFD

 

Q. 3 Select the related number from the given alternatives.

0.02 : 0.002 :: 1/3 : ?

A. 0.333

B. 1/30

C. 0.003

D. 3

 

Q. 4 Select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Bat

B. Umpire

C. Stumps

D. Bails

 

Q. 5 Select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. ECA

B. GIK

C. QOM

D. WUS

 

Q. 6 Select the odd number from the given alternatives.

A. 133

B. 253

C. 231

D. 209

 

Q. 7 A series is given, with one word missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

rupees, arena, pursue, spare, separate, ?

A. rapid

B. pusher

C. person

D. super

 

Q. 8 A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

U, T, R, O, K ?

A. G

B. H

C. E

D. F

 

Q. 9 A series is given, with one number missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

-7.25, -5.75, -4.25, -2.75, ? , 0.25

A. 1.25

B. -1.25

C. 1.5

D. -1.5

 

Q. 10 Aarush’s birthday is on Thursday 27th April. On what day of the week will be Mitul’s Birthday in the same year if Mitul was born on 28th September?

A. Monday

B. Thursday

C. Wednesday

D. Tuesday

 

Q. 11 The weights of 4 boxes are 20, 30, 40 and 60 kilograms. Which of the following cannot be the total weight, in kilograms, of any combination of these boxes and in a combination a box can be used only once?

A. 150

B. 110

C. 130

D. 140

 

Q. 12 From the given words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

HUMBLING

A. BLUE

B. NUMB

C. LUNG

D. GLUM

 

Q. 13 If FOREIGN is coded as ULIVRTM, then how will SAP be coded as?

A. NQL

B. PLQ

C. GYP

D. HZK

 

Q. 14 In a certain code language, ‘+’ represents ‘x’, ‘-‘ represents ‘+’, ‘x’ represents ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ represents ‘-‘. What is the answer to the following question?

25 + 10 ÷ 240 x 16 = ?

A. 85

B. 235

C. 12

D. 20

 

Q. 15 If 9#3=6; 15#3=9; 60#4=32; then what is the value of 27#3=?

A. 24

B. 15

C. 13

D. 33

 

Q. 16 Select the missing number from the given responses

A. 13

B. 17

C. 84

D. 98

 

Q. 17 Priya cycles 5 km North, then turns East and cycles 4 km, then turns South and cycles 5 km, then turns to her right and cycles 6 km. Where is she now with reference to her starting position?

A. 2km East

B. 2km West

C. 10km West

D. 10km East

 

Q. 18 In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.

Statement 1 : No squares are rectangles.

Statement 2 : All rectangles are triangles.

Conclusion I : Some triangles are squares.

Conclusion II : Some triangles are rectangles.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Both I and II follow

D. Neither I nor II follows

 

Q. 19 Which of the following cube in the answer figure cannot be made based on the unfolded cube in the question figure? 

 

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 20 In the following figure, square represents teacher, triangle represents swimmers, circle represents numbers,

A. D,F

B. A, B, D, F, G

C. A, B, G

D. I, C, H

 

Q. 21 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 22 From the given figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figure. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

 

Q. 25 A word is created by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example ‘K’ can be represented by 42, 33 etc and ‘Z’ can be represented by 56, 67 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘NOTE’.

A. 04,30, 85,66

B. 20,40,75,69

C. 40,21,69,55

D. 99,78,75,22

 

Q. 26 The marginal product curve is inverse ____ shaped.

A. X

B. W

C. V

D. U

 

Q. 27 Goods which are consumed together are called?

A. Inferior goods

B. Normal goods

C. Complementary goods

D. Substitute goods

 

Q. 28 “Public health and sanitation; hospitals and dispensaries” is listed in the __________ list given in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India.

A. Union

B. State

C. Global

D. Concurrent

 

Q. 29 _________ elects the President and the Vice President and removes judges of Supreme Court and High Court.

A. Ministry of Defence

B. Lok Sabha

C. Prime Minister’s Office

D. Securities and Exchange Board of India

 

Q. 30 According to the categories of land mentioned in the Chola inscriptions ___________ was known as the land gifted to Brahmanas?

A. Vellanvagai

B. Brahmadeya

C. Shalabhoga

D. Devadana

 

Q. 31 Prithviraj III (1168-1192) was a best known ___________ ruler.

A. Chahamana

B. Gahadavala

C. Chalukya

D. Brahmana

 

Q. 32 ___________ is the wearing away of the landscape by different agents like water, wind and ice. 

A. Weathering

B. Attrition

C. Erosion

D. Abrasion

 

Q. 33 The method of soil conservation in which bare ground between plants is covered with layer of organic matter like straw is called?

A. Mulching

B. Contour barriers

C. Rock dam

D. Terrace farming

 

Q. 34 Classes comprising animals like fishes, amphibians, reptiles, birds along with mammals constitute the category called?

A. Species

B. Genus

C. Kingdom

D. Phylum

 

Q. 35 The predominant stage of the life cycle of a moss is the gametophyte which consists of two stages. The first stage is the ___________ stage.

A. Agar

B. Leafy

C. Chlorella

D. Protonema

 

Q. 36 _________ is the largest phylum of Animalia which includes insects.

A. Annelida

B. Chordata

C. Arthropoda

D. Platyhelminthes

 

Q. 37 For an object, the state of rest is considered to be the state of ______ speed.

A. increasing

B. decreasing

C. inverse

D. zero

 

Q. 38 The laws which govern the motion of planets are called _______.

A. Newton’s Laws

B. Kepler’s Laws

C. Avogadro’s Laws

D. De Morgan’s Laws

 

Q. 39 In Microsoft Word, _______ allows us to change the color of selected text.

A. Font Color

B. Text Color

C. Change Color

D. Background Color

 

Q. 40 Brownish film formed on iron when left in open is called?

A. Dust

B. Shovel

C. Spade

D. Rust

 

Q. 41 The substances which have very low ignition temperature and can easily catch fire with a flame are called _____________ substances.

A. hazardous

B. perilous

C. incombustible

D. inflammable

 

Q. 42 Many freshwater animals cannot live for long in sea water and vice versa because of the _______ problems, they would face.

A. Osmotic

B. Eurythermal

C. Stenothermal

D. Hydrothermal

 

Q. 43 _____________ scheme has been introduced by the Central Government to provide equal primary education to all budding children across India.

A. Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan

B. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana

C. Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Yojana

D. Vidyanjali Yojana

 

Q. 44 Who discovered Insulin?

A. Sir Alexander Fleming

B. Frederick Banting

C. James Watt

D. Sir F.G . Hopkins

 

Q. 45 Which nation will host the Summer Olympics in the year 2020?

A. China

B. South Korea

C. Canada

D. Japan

 

Q. 46 Dhamek Stupa was built by?

A. Akbar

B. Humayun

C. Ashoka

D. Narasimha

 

Q. 47 Which of the following is India’s highest award in cinema given annually by the Government of India for lifetime contribution to Indian cinema?

A. Ashok Chakra

B. Dada Saheb Phalke Awards

C. Arjuna Award

D. Padma Shri

 

Q. 48 Which of the statements given below are correct?

1. The author of the novel ‘Air’ is Geoff Ryman.

2. The author of the novel ‘Ulysses’ is James Joyce.

3. The author of the novel ‘The Great Gatsby’ is F. Scott Fitzgerald

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1and 3

D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Q. 49 In 2016, which company lost high profile legal battles with HP and Google?

A. Oracle

B. Apple

C. Microsoft

D. Intel

 

Q. 50 Which of the following is a major river in Bangladesh which is also the main distributary of the Ganges?

A. Gandak

B. Kosi

C. Gomati

D. Padma

 

Q. 51 What least number must be subtracted from 518, so that the sum is completely divisible by 13?

A. 11

B. 10

C. 9

D. 12

 

Q. 52 A and B together do a job in 12 days and A could do the job in 20 days if he worked alone. How many days would B take to do the job if he worked alone?

A. 30

B. 25

C. 24

D. 15

 

Q. 53 What is the area (in sq cm) of a regular hexagon of side 9 cm?

A. 50√3

B. 300√3

C. 243√3/2

D. 200√3

 

Q. 54 If 1 shirt is offered free on purchase of 4 shirts, what is the effective discount (in %) on each shirt?

A. 25

B. 20

C. 16

D. 24

 

Q. 55 The ratio of present ages of P and Q is 7:9. Before 10 years the ratio of their ages was 5:7. What is Q’s present age (in years)?

A. 35

B. 45

C. 25

D. 55

 

Q. 56 The average marks of 40 students in an examination was 34. It was later found that the marks of one student had been wrongly entered as 62 instead of 26. what is the correct average?

A. 33.1

B. 33.3

C. 33.5

D. 33.7

 

Q. 57 A wholesaler sells a good to a retailer at a profit of 5% and the retailer sells it to a customer at a profit of 10%. If the customer pays Rs. 2,000, what had it cost (in Rs) the wholesaler?

A. 1731.6

B. 3210.6

C. 1931.6

D. 2310.6

 

Q. 58 When a number is increased by 69, it becomes 103% of itself. What is the number ?

A. 1300

B. 3300

C. 2300

D. 4300

 

Q. 59 A boat goes a certain distance at 40 km/hr and comes back the same distance at 24 km/hr. What is the average speed (in km/hr) for the total journey?

A. 32

B. 28

C. 34

D. 30

 

Q. 60 A sum fetched a total simple interest of Rs.5,400 at the rate of 12.5 %/yr in 4 years. What is the sum (in Rs)?

A. 11800

B. 12800

C. 9800

D. 10800

 

Q. 61 If 2/3(6x/5 – 1/4) + 1/3 = 9x/5, then what is the value of x?

A. 1/6

B. -1/6

C. 1/5

D. -1/5

 

Q. 62 If a³+b³=341and ab = 30, then what is the value of a + b?

A. 1

B. 9

C. 7

D. 11

 

Q. 63 Sum of a fraction and thrice its reciprocal is 31/6. What is the fraction?

A. 2/9

B. 9/4

C. 9/2

D. 4/9

 

Q. 64 What is the sum of the first 13 terms of an arithmetic progression if the 5th term is 1 and the 8th term is -17?

A. -140

B. 61

C. -143

D. 166

 

Q. 65 What is the reflection of the point (-4, 3) in the line x = -2?

A. (-4, -7)

B. (4, 3)

C. (0, 3)

D. (-4, 7)

 

Q. 66 Point A divides segment BC in the ratio 5:1. Coordinates of B are (6 ,-4) and C are (0,8). What are the coordinates of point A?

A. (-1, 6)

B. (1, -6)

C. (-1, -6)

D. (1, 6)

 

Q. 67 What is the slope of the line parallel to the line passing through the points (3 , -4) and (-2 , 5)?

A. 9/5

B. -5/9

C. -9/5

D. 5/9

 

Q. 68 ΔXYZ is similar to ΔPQR. If ratio of Perimeter of ΔXYZ and Perimeter of ΔPQR is 4:9 and if PQ = 27 cm, then what is the length of XY (in cm)?

A. 9

B. 12

C. 16

D. 15

 

Q. 69 What is the value of Cot 45° + 1/3 Cosec 60°?

A. √3 + 2

B. (9 + 2√3)/9

C. √3

D. (2√2 + 3)/√6

 

Q. 70 Δ DEF is right angled at E. If m∠F = 45o, then what is the value of Sin F x Tan F?

A. √2

B. 1/√3

C. 1/√2

D. 2/√3

 

Q. 71 If Cot θ = 21/20, then what is the value of Sec θ?

A. 29/21

B. 21/29

C. 29/20

D. 20/29

 

Questions: 72 – 75

A survey conducted to find what genre of movies people liked the most 1200 people answered the survey. The pie chart shows the results of that survey. The numbers in the pie chart are the ratios. Study the diagram end answer the following questions.

 

Q. 72 Which two genres of movies were liked the least?

A. Fiction and Historical

B. Fiction and Drama

C. Drama and Historical

D. Drama and Romance

 

Q. 73 How many surveyed said they liked Historical movies?

A. 6

B. 72

C. 80

D. 60

 

Q. 74 How many more people surveyed like Drama movies than those who like Romance movies?

A. 3

B. 36

C. 40

D. 30

 

Q. 75 24% people who were mailed the survey questionnaire answered the survey. The survey questionnaire was mailed to how many people?

A. 5000

B. 10000

C. 1200

D. 288

 

Q. 76 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

The lady was knocked down (1)/by a speeding car (2)/upon crossing the road.(3)/No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 77 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Grandfather led (1)/a peaceful life after his (2)/retirement from the army.(3)/No Error (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 78 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Since my father was an _____________ from India, he brought his Indian culture and traditions to the United States with him.

A. emigrant

B. immigrant

C. native

D. citizen

 

Q. 79 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled in with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

At night, the winding roads can make driving up the mountain a ______________ journey.

A. carefree

B. beastly

C. obnoxious

D. treacherous

 

Q. 80 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Stupor

A. Sensibility

B. Slumber

C. Liveliness

D. Consciousness

 

Q. 81 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word similar in meaning to the word given.

Subtle

A. Harsh

B. Open

C. Ignorant

D. Understated

 

Q. 82 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Sullen

A. Glum

B. Silent

C. Crabby

D. Agreeable

 

Q. 83 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the word opposite in meaning to the word given.

Summon

A. Dismiss

B. Draft

C. Invite

D. Mobilise

 

Q. 84 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

At the drop of a hat

A. Without any hesitation; instantly

B. Show outward respect to someone you hate.

C. Forcibly let go of something which is very personal to you

D. A mistake which is of not much consequence.

 

Q. 85 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

Beat a dead horse

A. Show extreme level of cruelty especially to animals.

B. Exploit someone to the point of killing him/her.

C. To uselessly dwell on a subject far beyond its point of resolution.

D. To continue playing a game knowing very well that you are going to lose.

 

Q. 86 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “no improvement”.

I gave up (drinks) many years ago.

A. to drink

B. drink

C. drinking

D. no improvement

 

Q. 87 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “no improvement”.

Rahul went out without (saying) good bye.

A. say even

B. even said

C. say

D. no improvement

 

Q. 88 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence.

A person or thing that is likely to cause harm

A. Menace

B. Cordial

C. Festal

D. Blithe

 

Q. 89 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which is the best substitute of the words/sentence.

Having or involving an extreme or irrational fear of or aversion to something.

A. Valiant

B. Stout

C. Phobic

D. Foolhardy

 

Q. 90 In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. bereaving

B. bereaveing

C. bereving

D. bireaving

 

Q. 91 In the following question, four words are given out of which one word is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. deligence

B. diligence

C. delegence

D. dilegence

 

Q. 92 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph. 

I’ve taken out my

X-and stay poised and vigilant

Y-ear buds so I can

Z-listen for announc ements

A. ZXY

B. YZX

C. XZY

D. YXZ

 

Q. 93 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of the four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences to form a coherent paragraph.

In the Northeast, the sun

X-sets by four in the evening

Y-morning and in winter it

Z-rises as early as four in the

A. XYZ

B. YZX

C. ZYX

D. ZXY

 

Q. 94 In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive/Active voice.

The majestic Asiatic Lions roam the sanctuary.

A. The Asiatic lions which are majestic roamed the sanctuary.

B. The sanctuary is the place where the majestic Asiatic lions roam.

C. The sanctuary is roamed by majestic Asiatic lions.

D. The majestic Asiatic Lions have been roaming the sanctuary.

 

Q. 95 In the following question, a sentence has been given in Direct/Indirect speech. Out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Indirect/Direct speech.

“How old is your grandmother?”, Navneet asked her.

A. Navneet asked her how old her grandmother is.

B. Navneet asked her how old her grandmother has been.

C. Navneet asked her how old her grandmother was.

D. Navneet asked her how old is her grandmother.

 

Questions: 96 – 100

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

The promise of nuclear power has so __________ outweighed all of these concerns,  and India has reason to be proud of its technology and determination to look for non-fossil _______________ in its energy planning. However, _________ rapid progress in technology in other ______________ energy sources such as wind and solar power, the collapse of oil prices and the expansion in gas projects as a viable and

clean alternative, that promise ______________. 

 

Q. 96 nuclear power has so __________ outweighed all of these concerns

A. far

B. less

C. near

D. closely

 

Q. 97 look for non-fossil _______________ in its energy planning.

A. compulsions

B. obligations

C. alternatives

D. constraints

 

Q. 98 However, _________ rapid progress in technology

A. to

B. from

C. with

D. for

 

Q. 99 other ______________ energy sources such as wind and solar power

A. brief

B. renewable

C. untenable

D. temporary

 

Q. 100 projects as a viable and clean alternative, that promise ______________.

A. to dim

B. dimming

C. was dim

D. has dimmed

 

 

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer D B B B B A B D B B
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer D A D B B A B B C C
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer D D D D D D C B B B
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer A C A D D C D B A D
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer D A D B D C B D A D
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer A A C B B B A C D D
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer A D C C C D C B B C
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer A A C C A C D B D B
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer D D A A C C D A C A
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer B B C C C A C C B D

SSC MTS Tier-I 14 October 2017 Shift-III Previous Year Paper

SSC MTS Tier 1 2017 14 Oct Shift 3

Q. 1 In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?) from the given alternatives.

A. 20

B. 24

C. 32

D. 28

Q. 2 How many quadrilaterals are there in the given figure?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 1

Q. 3 A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives.

The set of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as shown in the given two matrices. The columns and rows of Matrix-I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix-II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, for example, ‘E’ can be represented by 01, 86, etc., and ‘N’ can be represented by 04, 89, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word “FACE”.

A. 31, 32, 02, 56

B. 67, 86, 97, 98

C. 00, 12, 13, 01

D. 23, 89, 68, 23

Q. 4 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 5 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 6 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 7 A piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 8 By interchanging which two signs the equation will be correct?

43 + 18 ÷ 9 x 4 – 3 = 87

A. + and ÷

B. x and +

C. ÷ and –

D. – and +

Q. 9 If 5 @ 3 @ 1 = 3 and 6 @ 9 @ 1 = 4, then 5 @ 9 @ 11 = ?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 5

Q. 10 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.

1. Form

2. Foaming

3. Flower

4. Flame

5. Fog

A. 43251

B. 43215

C. 34251

D. 34215

Q. 11 In the following question, select the missing number from the given series.

13, 17, 19, 23, ?

A. 27

B. 29

C. 26

D. 24

Q. 12 A series is given with one term missing. Select the correct alternatives from the given ones that will complete the series.

AC,DF, GI, ?

A. JK

B. JL

C. KL

D. KM

Q. 13 In the following question, select the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Cone

B. Cylinder

C. Cube

D. Triangle

Q. 14 In the following question, select the odd number from the given alternatives.

A. 25

B. 144

C. 361

D. 143

Q. 15 In the following question, select the odd letters from the given alternatives.

A. MN

B. AB

C. CE

D. XY

Q. 16 Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.

Humans, Female, Children

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 17 In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.

Nile : River : : Atlas : ?

A. Paper

B. Map

C. Mountain

D. Nature

Q. 18 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.

3 : 28 : : 4 : ?

A. 62

B. 63

C. 65

D. 64

Q. 19 In the following question, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

AD : BE : : MP : ?

A. PR

B. NQ

C. QR

D. NR

Q. 20 In the following question, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

SUSTENANCE

A. TEEN

B. SUN

C. NEST

D. CRUST

Q. 21 Present ages of M and N are in the ratio 7 : 8 respectively. After five years this ratio becomes 8 : 9. What is the present age (in years) of M?

A. 35

B. 40

C. 45

D. 30

Q. 22 N remembers his birthday is before 16th December. N’s brother remembers his birthday is after 14th December. On which date of December is his birthday?

A. 14

B. 16

C. 15

D. 17

Q. 23 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

I. Some plates are cups.

II. All cups are red.

Conclusions:

I. Some plates are red.

II. All plates are red.

A. Only conclusion (I) follows.

B. Only conclusion (II) follows.

C. Both conclusion follow.

D. Neither conclusion (I) nor conclusion (II) follows.

Q. 24 In a certain code language, “GOLD” is written as “IQNF”. How is “DRUM” written in that code language?

A. HSWO

B. FSVP

C. FSWP

D. FTWO

Q. 25 In a certain code language, “MAN” is written as “56” and “WAN” is written as “76”. How is “OPT” written in that code language?

A. 100

B. 101

C. 102

D. 103

Q. 26 How many positive factors of 76 are there?

A. 6

B. 7

C. 5

D. 8

Q. 27 What is the value of [(7.9)³+(2.4)³] ÷ [(7.9)²−7.9×2.4+(2.4)²]?

A. 11.4

B. 13.1

C. 10.3

D. 12.7

Q. 28 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

I. 2⁶⁰⁰>7⁹⁰⁰

II.3⁴⁰⁰>9⁵⁰⁰

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Q. 29 How many numbers are there from 200 to 285 which are divisible by 7?

A. 11

B. 12

C. 22

D. 32

Q. 30 If N = √9 + √7, then what is the value of (1/N)?

A. √9 – √7

B. 2(√9 – √7)

C. (√9 – √7)/2

D. 4(√9-√7)

Q. 31 What is the unit’s digit of 216²¹⁶?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

Q. 32 P, Q and R undertook a work for Rs 52000. Together P and Q complete (2/5)th part of the work. What is the share (in Rs) of R?

A. 30000

B. 31000

C. 31200

D. 30400

Q. 33 Two popes S and T can fill a tank in 3 hours and 6 hours respectively. Pipe U can alone empty the same tank in 4 hours. If all three pipes are opened together, then in how many hours will the tank be filled?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

Q. 34 If the area of an equilateral triangle is 12√3 m², then what is the value (in metres) of its height?

A. 4.5

B. 6.5

C. 6

D. 4√3

Q. 35 A trader gives a discount of 20% on the marked price. To earn profit of 12% , by how much percent should he mark the price of his goods higher than its cost price?

A. 20

B. 40

C. 25

D. 35

Q. 36 An article has marked price of Rs 7200 and is available at a discount of 20%. The shopkeeper gives another discount to the buyer and sells the article for Rs 4896. What is the second discount (in %) offered?

A. 20

B. 12

C. 15

D. 10

Q. 37 If M : N = 2 : 7 and M : O = 4 : 3, then what is (M+N) : (N+O)?

A. 18:17

B. 17:19

C. 17:7

D. 18:3

Q. 38 If the sum of two numbers is equal to five times of their difference, then what is the ratio of the numbers?

A. 3:2

B. 2:1

C. 4:3

D. 2:5

Q. 39 Average of 15 numbers is 20. If a number 4 is also included, then what will be the average of these 16 numbers?

A. 17

B. 18

C. 18.5

D. 19

Q. 40 Sahil sold a fan to Ankit at a profit of 10%. ANkit sold the fan to Pulkit at a profit of 20%. If Pulkit pays Rs 330 for fan, then for how much (in Rs) Sahil bought the fan?

A. 300

B. 280

C. 340

D. 250

Q. 41 On selling an article for Rs 455, a shopkeeper losses 30%. For how much (in Rs) he should sell the article in order to earn a profit of 30%?

A. 750

B. 245

C. 845

D. 680

Q. 42 A man saves 36% of his income in 9 months. If he wants to save the same amount in 6 months, then by how much percentage should he increases his monthly savings? 

A. 50

B. 33.33

C. 25

D. 75

Q. 43 Two numbers are 25% and 15% less than the third number respectively. First number is what percent less than the second number?

A. 11.76

B. 13.5

C. 17.8

D. 20.4

Q. 44 A car travels at a speed of 75 m/s for 2 hours. What is the distance (in km) travelled by the car?

A. 500

B. 525

C. 540

D. 550

Q. 45 An 800 metre long train crosses a 450 metre long bridge in 50 seconds. What is speed (in km/hr) of the train?

A. 90

B. 100

C. 80

D. 85

Q. 46 What is the simple interest (in Rs) on a principal of Rs 2000 at the rate of 5% per annum for 2 years?

A. 250

B. 200

C. 150

D. 225

Q. 47 The pie chart given below shows the number of students in 5 sections. The number of students is 7200.

What is the total number of students in section E and section B?

A. 3060

B. 2900

C. 5300

D. 6000

Q. 48 The pie chart given below shows the number of students in 5 sections. The number of students is 7200.

What is the difference between the number of students in section C and section D?

A. 86

B. 180

C. 196

D. 42

Q. 49 The pie chart given below shows the number of students in 5 sections. The number of students is 7200.

The number of students in section A is what percent of that of section B?

A. 90

B. 110

C. 109

D. 111.11

Q. 50 The pie chart given below shows the number of students in 5 sections. The number of students is 7200.

What is the average number of students of the 2 smallest sections?

A. 1860

B. 1170

C. 1600

D. 1730

Q. 51 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Sports other than cricket (1)/ should also be given (2)/ their due importance in India (3)/ No Error(4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 52 In the following question, some part of the sentence may have errors. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the appropriate option. If a sentence is free from error, select ‘No Error’.

Deeds (1)/ not words (2)/ are what (3)/ really count (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 53 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

Risha ______ a salary of Rs 50,000 every month.

A. have earned

B. earning

C. earn

D. earns

Q. 54 In the following question, the sentence given with blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the appropriate option.

She ______ her mind after seeing the damaged washing machine.

A. losing

B. lose

C. lost

D. was loses

Q. 55 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Brevity

A. Crispness

B. Greatness

C. Fondness

D. Meekness

Q. 56 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Accord

A. Confer

B. Refusal

C. Dissension

D. Opposition

Q. 57 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

Absolute

A. Division

B. Complete

C. Small

D. Half

Q. 58 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Swift

A. Rapid

B. Slow

C. Fast

D. Lonely

Q. 59 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Fragrance

A. Strength

B. Stench

C. Steal

D. Dirt

Q. 60 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the one which is opposite in meaning of the given word.

Agony

A. Suffering

B. Pain

C. Grief

D. Delight

Q. 61 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of Idiom/Phrase.

Can’t judge a book by its cover

A. We should not buy books without checking the cover

B. We should not judge others

C. We should not judge something primarily on its appearance

D. We should judge something primarily on its appearance

Q. 62 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of Idiom/Phrase.

To keep body and soul together

A. To be in love

B. To be undecided

C. To make hospitable

D. To manage to live

Q. 63 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “no improvement”.

One must (be working in a job) for which one has a natural talent.

A. be taking up a job

B. to prfferring a job

C. take up a job

D. No improvement

Q. 64 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the bracketed part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “no improvement”.

Ruby does not like (me coming so late).

A. me come so late

B. my coming so late

C. I coming so late

D. No improvement

Q. 65 In the following question, out of four given alternatives, select the alternative which is best substitute of the phrase.

to run away secretly with a romantic partner

A. Effect

B. Engage

C. Elope

D. Entice

Q. 66 In the following question, out of four given alternatives, select the alternative which is best substitute of the phrase.

to express regret for something that one has done wrong

A. Action

B. Reaction

C. Anxiety

D. Apologize

Q. 67 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Disilusionment

B. Dissillusionment

C. Disillussionment

D. Disillusionment

Q. 68 In the following question, a word has been written in four different ways out of which one is correctly spelt. Select the correctly spelt word.

A. Cactuss

B. Cactus

C. Ccttus

D. Kaktus

Q. 69 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

Mehak made

P: a terrible mistake

Q: by not going

R: to the party

A. QRP

B. RPQ

C. PQR

D. QPR

Q. 70 Rearrange the parts of the sentence in correct order.

The next

P: generation should use

Q: the non-renewable energy

R: wisely and sparingly

A. QRP

B. RPQ

C. PQR

D. QPR

Q. 71 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Character is destiny. Character is that on which the _______ of a nation is built. One cannot have a great nation with men of _______ character. We must have young men and women who look ______ others as the living image of themselves as our Shastras have so often declared. But whether in public life or student ______, we cannot reach great heights, if we are lacking in character. We cannot climb the mountain when the _______ at our feet is crumbling.

Character is that on which the _______ of a nation is built.

A. continuity

B. destiny

C. choice

D. volition

Q. 72 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Character is destiny. Character is that on which the _______ of a nation is built. One cannot have a great nation with men of _______ character. We must have young men and women who look ______ others as the living image of themselves as our Shastras have so often declared. But whether in public life or student ______, we cannot reach great heights, if we are lacking in character. We cannot climb the mountain when the _______ at our feet is crumbling.

One cannot have a great nation with men of _______ character.

A. big

B. huge

C. small

D. large

Q. 73 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives. Character is destiny. Character is that on which the _______ of a nation is built. One cannot have a great nation with men of _______ character. We must have young men and women who look ______ others as the living image of themselves as our Shastras have so often declared. But whether in public life or student ______, we cannot reach great heights, if we are lacking in character. We cannot climb the mountain when the _______ at our feet is crumbling.

en and women who look ______ others as the living image of themselves

A. under

B. upon

C. with

D. No option is correct

Q. 74 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Character is destiny. Character is that on which the _______ of a nation is built. One cannot have a great nation with men of _______ character. We must have young men and women who look ______ others as the living image of themselves as our Shastras have so often declared. But whether in public life or student ______, we cannot reach great he ights, if weare lacking in character. We cannot climb the mountain when the _______ at our fe et is crumbling.

whether in public life or student ______, 

A. life

B. thought

C. dilemma

D. apathy

Q. 75 In the following passage some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and select the correct answer for the given blank out of the four alternatives.

Character is destiny. Character is that on which the _______ of a nation is built. One cannot have a great nation with men of _______ character. We must have young men and women who look ______ others as the living image of themselves as our Shastras have so often declared. But whether in public life or student ______, we cannot reach great heights, if we are lacking in character. We cannot climb the mountain when the _______ at our fe et iscrumbling.

We cannot climb the mountain when the _______ at our feet is crumbling.

A. heavens

B. ground

C. sky

D. roof

Q. 76 Which of the following approves the draft framework of the Five Year Plans?

A. Reserve Bank of India

B. Inter State Council

C. Finance Ministry

D. National Development Council

Q. 77 Mira Seth Committee was related with development of ______.

A. primary education

B. women health

C. handlooms

D. gender equality

Q. 78 Which part of the Indian Constitution has been called its soul?

A. Fundamental Duties

B. Citizenship

C. Preamble

D. Directive Principles

Q. 79 How much time does it take in the creation of Indian Constitution?

A. 2 years 11 month and 17 days

B. 3 years 10 months 28 days

C. 4 years 8 months 10 days

D. 5 years 7 months and 15 days

Q. 80 Where was the capital of Gandhara, one of the sixteen Mahajanpadas?

A. Champa

B. Takshashila

C. Hataka

D. Patali

Q. 81 Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the founder of the ______.

A. Ramakrishna Mission

B. Brahma Samaj

C. Arya Samaj

D. Theosophical society

Q. 82 Between which of the following two planets are the asteroids found?

A. Saturn and Uranus

B. Jupiter and Saturn

C. Mars and Jupiter

D. Earth and Mars

Q. 83 In which of the following states of India bamboo drip irrigation method is prevalent?

A. Rajasthan

B. Meghalaya

C. Karnataka

D. Madhya Pradesh

Q. 84 Which part of the patato is eaten?

A. Stem

B. Root

C. Leaf

D. Flower

Q. 85 Which of the following in NOT a part of the digestive system?

A. Small Intestine

B. Large Intestine

C. Vacuole

D. Pancreas

Q. 86 Which of the following is a group of invertebrate animals?

A. Mammalia

B. Pisces

C. Reptilia

D. Arthropoda

Q. 87 Which one of the following statement is true about the gravitational force between two bodies?

A. It’s always repulsive

B. It’s always attractive

C. It can be attractive or repulsive

D. It’s neutral

Q. 88 Which part of the magnet has the least magnetic power?

A. at north pole

B. at south pole

C. in the middle

D. No option is correct

Q. 89 A standard alphanumeric keyboard of a laptop usually consists of how many keys?

A. 76-80 keys

B. 81-84 keys

C. 100-104 keys

D. 108-12 keys

Q. 90 Which of the following fact is true about alpha particles in an atom?

A. are positively charged particles

B. are negatively charged particles

C. are beam of neutrons

D. emits gamma radiation

Q. 91 A change of state directly from solid to gas without changing into liquid state (or vice versa) is called ______.

A. Evaporation

B. Condensation

C. Sublimation

D. Diffusion

Q. 92 Which of the following is NOT a major component of biotic environment?

A. Plant

B. Animal

C. Dcomposer

D. Water

Q. 93 In which of the following year Sampurn Gramin Rojgar Yojana (SGRY) was launched? 

A. 1988

B. 2001

C. 2004

D. 2007

Q. 94 Who among the following scientists invented the Telephone?

A. Alexander Graham Bell

B. James Watt

C. J.L Baird

D. C. Sholes

Q. 95 With which sport is Novak Djokovic associated?

A. Football

B. Golf

C. Tennis

D. Baseball

Q. 96 Which place is originally related to the famous Meenakari named “Theva Kala”?

A. Kerala

B. West Bengal

C. Rajasthan

D. Delhi

Q. 97 In which of the following fields is the B. C. Roy Award given?

A. Music

B. Journalism

C. Environment

D. Medical

Q. 98 Whose biography is the book ‘Anything but Khamosh’?

A. Manoj Bajpai

B. Shatrughan SInha

C. Nana Patekar

D. Sonakshi SInha

Q. 99 India is NOT a member of which of the following organization?

A. SAARC

B. BRICS

C. BIMSTEC

D. NATO

Q. 100 In which of the following countries the river Padma flow?

A. Nepal

B. Bhutan

C. Bangladesh

D. Sri Lanka

Answer Sheet 
Question123456 78910
AnswerABCAADCBDA
Question11121314151617181920
AnswerBBDDCBBCBD
Question21222324252627282930
AnswerACADCACDBC
Question31323334353637383940
AnswerCCBCBCAADD
Question41424344454647484950
AnswerCAACABABDB
Question51525354555657585960
AnswerDDDCAABBBD
Question61626364656667686970
AnswerCDCDCDDBCC
Question71727374757677787980
AnswerBCBABDCCAB
Question81828384858687888990
AnswerBCBACDBCCA
Question919293949596979899100
AnswerCDBACCDBDC
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