SSC CHSL Tier-I 10 July 2019 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL 

(10 July 2019 Shift-I) 

Reasoning 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.1 In a code language, TRILOGY is written as OGYLTRI. How will FRAGILE be written as in that language? 

A ILEGFRA 

B ALEGFRI 

C ALEGFRA 

D ILEGFRB 

Answer: A 

 

Q.2 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.

(24, 48, 36) 

A (26, 58, 46) 

B (15, 49, 37) 

C (45, 49, 77) 

D (25, 49, 37) 

Answer: D 

 

Q.3 Arrange the following words in a logical sequence as they would appear in the English dictionary.

1. Examine 2. Excited 3. Exclaim 4. Example 5. Execute 

A 4, 1, 3, 5, 2 

B 5, 3, 4, 1, 2 

C 1, 4, 2, 5, 3 

D 1, 4, 2, 3, 5 

Answer: D 

 

Q.4 Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? 

1, 2, 6, 24, 120, ? 

A 240 

B 570 

C 720 

D 360 

Answer: C 

 

Q.5 Select the number-pair in which the two numbers are related in the same way as are the two numbers of the following number-pair. 6 : 40 

A 15 : 45 

B 9 : 72 

C 5 : 25 

D 7 : 53 

Answer: D 

 

Q.6 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out. 

A EGK 

B IKM 

C BDH 

D DFJ 

Answer: B 

 

Q.7 How many triangles are present in the following figure ? 

A 7 

B 9 

C 8 

D 11 

Answer: B 

 

Q.8 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the right of the figure. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.9 Select the Answer Fig. that will come next in the following Problem Fig. series. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.10 Two positions of a dice are shown below. When the number3 is at the top, which number would appear at the bottom ? 

A 2 

B 4 

C 1 

D 5 

Answer: C

 

Q.11 Select the option in which the given figure (X) is embedded. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.12 ‘Man’ is related to ‘Crowd’ in the same way as ‘Student’ is related to _____. 

A Class 

B Cinema 

C Gang 

D Family 

Answer: A 

 

Q.13 Three of the following four numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the number that is different from the rest. 

A 145 

B 325 

C 425 

D 235 

Answer: C

 

Q.14 If it was a Monday on 1 January 2018, what was the day of the week on 31 December 2018 ? 

A Monday 

B Friday 

C Sunday 

D Tuesday 

Answer: A 

 

Q.15 A paper is folded and cut as shown in the following figures (X, Y and Z). Select the option that depicts how this paper will appear when unfolded ? 

Answer: A 

 

Q.16 Manju introduced Sushma to her friend, “Her (Sushma’s) father’s only son’s wife is my mother-in-law.” How is Manju’s husband related to Sushma? 

A Son 

B Brother 

C Nephew 

D Father 

Answer: C 

 

Q.17 Select the option that is related to the third letter-pair in the same way as the second letter pair is related to the first letter-pair. DH : HL :: GK : ? 

A KO 

B LO 

C LM 

D KL 

Answer: A 

 

Q.18 Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: 

All hens are eggs. 

All birds are eggs. 

Some eggs are lions. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some lions are eggs.

II. Some eggs are hens. 

III. Some eggs are birds. 

A All the conclusions follow. 

B Either conclusion II or III follows. 

C Only conclusion I follow. 

D Only conclusions I and II follow. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.19 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. (16, 25, 82) 

A (11, 121, 110) 

B (25, 36, 51) 

C (36, 49, 170) 

D (25, 49, 81) 

Answer: C 

 

Q.20 If BUS is coded as 126 and FUEL is coded as 176, then how will SHRUB be coded as ? 

A 340 

B 68 

C 204 

D 272 

Answer: A 

 

Q.21 Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd word out. 

A Lucknow 

B Punjab 

C Mumbai 

D Patna 

Answer: B 

 

Q.22 Which letter-pair will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? GD, IF, ? , SP, AX 

A MJ 

B NM 

C JK 

D MN 

Answer: A

 

Q.23 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes. Pi, Theta, Symbols 

Answer: A 

 

Q.24 Which two signs and numbers should be interchanged in the following equation to make it correct? 

10 + 8 − 200 × 15 ÷ 5 = 407 

A + and −, 15 and 10 

B × and ÷, 8 and 5 

C × and −, 5 and 15 

D + and ÷, 200 and 10 

Answer: A 

 

Q.25 Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the following word-pair. Paper : Pen 

A Blackboard : Chalk 

B Chalk : Duster 

C Curd : Milk 

D Wood : Table 

Answer: A 

 

General knowledge 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.26 Who has been given the ‘Yashwantrao Chavan National Award 2018’ for his contribution to economic development? 

A Bimal Jalan 

B Amartya Sen 

C Raghuram Rajan 

D Arvind Subramanian 

Answer: C 

 

Q.27 The first complete census in India was held in the year ______. 

A 1881 

B 1873 

C 1891 

D 1885 

Answer: A 

 

Q.28 Which of the following Parliamentary Committees does NOT draw any member from Rajya Sabha? 

A Committee on Estimates 

B Committee on Petitions 

C Committee on Public Undertakings 

D Committee on Public Accounts 

Answer: A 

 

Q.29 Who of the following players was named Wisden’s Leading T20 Cricketer of the Year for 2018? 

A Rashid Khan 

B Rohit Sharma 

C Virat Kohli 

D Sam Curran 

Answer: C 

 

Q.30 _______ is Google’s new app aimed at helping children in primary school learn to read in Hindi and English. 

A Padho 

B Khelo 

C Seekho 

D Bolo 

Answer: D 

 

Q.31 Which of the following is the SI unit of temperature ? 

A Kelvin 

B Réaumur scale 

C Candla 

D Ampere 

Answer: A 

 

Q.32 Ram Nath Kovind is the ______ President of India. 

A 13th 

B 16th 

C 14th 

D 15th 

Answer: C 

 

Q.33 In 1917, Mahatma Gandhi organised a Satyagraha in the Kheda district of Gujarat in support of the: 

A cotton mill workers who were demanding better wages 

B tribals whose customary rights were being violated 

C women who were struggling against the oppressive patriarchal system 

D peasants who were affected by crop failure and a plague epidemic 

Answer: D 

 

Q.34 The rate of interest on which commercial banks borrow money from RBI to meet their short term credit needs is known as: 

A Sub-Prime Lending Rate 

B Statutory Lending Rate 

C Prime Lending Rate 

D Bank Rate 

Answer: D 

 

Q.35 The audible range of sound for an average adult human being is ______. 

A 2 Hz – 20000 Hz 

B 2 Hz – 2000 Hz 

C 20 Hz – 2000 Hz 

D 20 Hz – 20000 Hz 

Answer: D 

 

Q.36 In the context of Man Booker International Prize, 2019, which of the following statements is NOT correct? 

A The prize was awarded to her for the novel titled Celestial Bodies. 

B Alharthi hails from Oman. 

C Alharthi is the second Arabic author to win this prize. 

D The prize was bagged by Jokha Alharthi. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.37 A nuclear-powered Arctic icebreaker recently launched by Russia has been named: 

A Elbrus 

B Volga 

C Ural 

D Lenin 

Answer: C 

 

Q.38 The Khurja pottery is associated with which state of India? 

A Andhra Pradesh 

B Uttar Pradesh 

C Madhya Pradesh 

D Himachal Pradesh 

Answer: B 

 

Q.39 ______ won the women’s singles title at Italian Open 2019. 

A Naomi Osaka 

B Simona Halep 

C Johanna Konta 

D Karolina Pliskova 

Answer: D 

 

Q.40 ______ Bank has become the first bank in the country to introduce Iris Scan Authentication feature for Aadhaar-based transactions through its micro ATM tablets. 

A Axis 

B Canara 

C Bandhan 

D Yes 

Answer: A 

 

Q.41 ______ was named ICC Emerging Player of the Year 2018. 

A Rohit Sharma 

B Calum McLeod 

C Aaron Finch 

D Rishabh Pant 

Answer: D 

 

Q.42 From which of the following Harappan era site has the evidence of ploughed fields been found ? 

A Mohenjodaro 

B Chanhudaro 

C Kalibangan 

D Harappa 

Answer: C 

 

Q.43 The Hill station of Matheran is located in ______. 

A Maharashtra 

B Manipur 

C Madhya Pradesh 

D Kerala 

Answer: A 

 

Q.44 The waves used in radar systems are _______ waves. 

A ultraviolet 

B infrared 

C micro 

D radio 

Answer: C 

 

Q.45 Ghumot is indigenous traditional percussion instrument of ______. 

A Andhra Pradesh 

B Goa 

C Punjab 

D Assam 

Answer: B 

 

Q.46 In the field of information and communication technology, what is the full form of FDD ? 

A Folder Disk Drive 

B Floppy Disk Drive 

C Folder Data Drive 

D Floppy Data Drive 

Answer: B 

 

Q.47 In the context of plate tectonics, which of the following statements is NOT correct? 

A Eurasian plate is largely an oceanic plate. 

B The major tectonic plates are surrounded by young fold mountain ridges, trenches, and/or faults. 

C Tectonic plates move horizontally over the asthenosphere. 

D Earth’s surface is divided into seven major plates. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.48 Which of the following statements about the Himalayan Mountains is NOT correct ? 

A The range lying to the immediate south of the Himadri is called the Shiwaliks. 

B The Shiwalik ranges are composed of unconsolidated sediments brought down by rivers. 

C The core of the Himadri is made of granite. 

D Its northernmost part is called the Himadri. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.49 Which of the following states has been given GI tag for Kasuti embroidery? 

A Telangana 

B Karnataka 

C Rajasthan 

D Bihar 

Answer: B 

 

Q.50 In the context of digital computer, which of the following pairs of digits is referred to as binary code? 

A 3 and 4 

B 0 and 1 

C 2 and 3 

D 1 and 2 

Answer: B 

 

Quantative Apptitute 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.51 The simplified value of [ 1⅕ of {³/₇ − ( 1⁴/₁₅ − ¹³/₁₅) × ⁵/₇}] ÷ (⁶/₇ ÷ 5) is: 

A ²/₁₅ 

B ⅕ 

C 1 

D ⁴/₁₅

Answer: C 

 

Q.52 The point A of a triangle ABC moves parallel to the straight line BC. Which one among the following also moves along a straight line parallel to BC? 

(a) The circumcentre (b) the centroid (c) the incentre (d) the orthocentre. 

A (d) 

B (b) 

C (c) 

D (a) 

Answer: B 

Q.53 If then ‘ x ‘ is equal to: 

A cosβ 

B cosα 

C sinβ 

D sinα 

Answer: B 

 

Q.54 Three successive discounts on the marked price of an article turns out to be equivalent to a single discount of 19%.If the rates of the first and second discountare 10% and 4% respectively, what is the rate of the third discount? 

A 7.50% 

B 5.25% 

C 6.25% 

D 6.00% 

Answer: C 

 

Q.55 The given Bar Graph presents the runs scored (A) and strike rate (B) of a batsman in five matches. Strike Rate is the number of runs scored per 100 balls faced. The strike rate (B) is taken on record only when the batter scores at least 30 runs in a match. 

What is the average strike rate of the batsman? 

A 89 

B 91.25 

C 90.75 

D 95.5 

Answer: B 

 

Q.56 In a △ABC, AD is perpendicular to BC from A. if ∠BAC = 90 ∘ , then AB 2 : AC2 is equal to: 

A BD2 : CD2 

B CD : BD 

C CD2 : BD2 

D BD : CD 

Answer: D 

 

Q.57 The total cost price of two articles is ₹2,000. One Of Them is sold at a profit of 12% and the other at a loss of 12%. The overall gain in the transaction is 1.2%. The cost price of the article for which there wasa profit was: 

A ₹1,050 

B ₹1,100 

C ₹1,120 

D ₹1,080 

Answer: B 

 

Q.58 For θ being an acute angle, 4(2 sin2 θ + 7 cos2 θ) = 13. What is the value of ? 

A 600

B 450

C 300

D 00

Answer: A 

 

Q.59 A boy standing by the side of a railway track finds that an Up train crosses him in 8 seconds and a Down train of twice the length of that of the Up train crosses him in 20 seconds. How long (in seconds) will the two trains take to cross each other? 

A 13⅓ 

B 15 

C 20 

D 12⅓ 

Answer: A 

 

Q.60 a, b, c are three positive numbers, such that, (a + b + c) = 20, a2 + b2 + c2 = 152. The value (ab + bc + ca) of is equal to: 

A 124 

B 110 

C 112 

D 102 

Answer: A

 

Q.61 If 16 men working 12 hours a day can complete a work in 27 days, then working for how many hours a day can 18 men complete the work in 24 days ? 

A 9 

B 18 

C 16 

D 12 

Answer: D 

 

Q.62 If sinθ + cosecθ = 2 , then what is the value of sin153 θ + cosec253 θ ? 

A 1/153×253  

B 253/153

C 2 

D 153/253

Answer: C 

 

Q.63 If (x + y)⅓ + (y + z)⅓ = −(z + x)⅓, then (x3 + y3 + z3) can be expressed as: 

A ⅛xyz 

B (x + y)(y + z)(z + x) 

C ⅜(x + y)(y + z)(z + x) 

D 3xyz 

Answer: C

 

Q.64 The average of the first 1234 ………… numbers is equal to 1234. Fill in the blank. 

A odd 

B even 

C prime 

D natural 

Answer: A 

 

Q.65 A borrows a sum of ₹1,000 from his friend B on 31 December 2015 on the condition that he will return the same after one year with simple interest at 12%. However, A gets into a position of returning the money on | May 2016. How much amount he has to return to B ? 

A ₹1,331.5 

B ₹1,045 

C ₹1,120 

D ₹1,040 

Answer: D 

 

Q.66 The given Bar Graph presents the runs scored (A) and strike rate (B) of a batsman in five matches. Strike Rate is the number of runs scored per 100 balls faced. The strike rate (B) is taken on record only when the batsman scores at least 30 runs in a match. 

How many balls did the batsman face in the third match? 

A 60 

B 30 

C 40 

D 50 

Answer: C 

 

Q.67 Which among the following numbers is exactly divisible by 7, 11 and 13 ? 

A 14982 

B 15004 

C 14993 

D 15015 

Answer: D 

 

Q.68 Twelve sticks, each of length one unit, are used to form an equilateral triangle. The area of the triangle is:

A  3√3sq units 

B 2√3 sq units 

C 4√3 sq units 

D 8√3 sq units 

Answer: C 

 

Q.69 ₹8,000 is distributed among A, B and C suchthat they receive notes of ₹500, ₹200 and ₹100 respectively. The amounts received by them arein the ratio 15 : 2 : 3. What was the ratio of the number of notes of ₹500, ₹200 and ₹100? 

A 3 : 1 : 3 

B 3 : 3 : 1 

C 4 : 1 : 2 

D 3 : 2 : 2 

Answer: A 

 

Q.70 A regular hexagon is inscribed in a circle. What is the ratio of the area of the circle to that of its portion not covered by the hexagon ? 

Answer: A 

 

Q.71 If a + 1/a= 2 , what is the value of ( a41/a4) ? 

A 0 

B ¼ 

C 1 

D 4 

Answer: A 

 

Q.72 Two circles of diameters 4.8 cm and 8 cm are such that the distance between their centres is 6.5 cm. What is the length of a common tangent to the circles that does not intersect the line joining the centres ?

A 6.3 cm 

B 6.2 cm 

C 6.1 cm 

D 6.0 cm 

Answer: A

 

Q.73 The given Bar Graph presents the runs scored (A) and strike rate (B) of a batsman in five matches. Strike Rate is the number of runs scored per 100 balls faced. The strike rate (B) is taken on record only when the batsman scores at least 30 runs in a match. 

How many runs the batsman should have scored in the fifth match in as many balls he had faced in that match so that the average strike rate of the second and the fifth match becomes 120 ? 

A 150 

B 240 

C 160 

D 120 

Answer: A 

 

Q.74 Price of tea has increased by 20% but I have decided to increase my expenditure towards tea by 15% only. By What percentage should I reduce my consumption (correct to one place of decimal) in order to be able to maintain the same level of expenses towards tea? 

A 5.4 

B 4.2 

C 5.6 

D 4.8 

Answer: B 

 

Q.75 The given Bar Graph presents the runs scored (A) and strike rate (B) of a batsman in five matches.Strike Rate is the number of runs scored per 100 balls faced. The strike rate (B) is taken on record only when the batsman scores at least 30 runs in a match. 

What is the average run scored by the batsman in the five matches ? 

A 50 

B 49 

C 45 

D 56.25 

Answer: B 

 

English 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.76 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. Any account of the reign of King Harsha would remain ______ without a reference to Hiuen Tsang. 

A incomplete 

B famous 

C eminent 

D unknown 

Answer: A 

 

Q.77 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. IDENTICAL 

A similar 

B legible 

C detailed 

D perfect 

Answer: A 

 

Q.78 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words place for collection of dried plant specimens 

A green house 

B nursery 

C warehouse 

D herbarium 

Answer: D 

 

Q.79 Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence. Hemant said to the hotel receptionist, “Please tell Bharat I will come to see him tomorrow at 10 am.” 

A Hemant said to the hotel receptionist please to tell Bharat he will come to see me tomorrow at 10 am. 

B Hemant requested to the hotel receptionist please inform Bharat I will come to see him tomorrow at 10 am. 

C Hemant said to the hotel receptionist to please tell Bharat that I will come to see him tomorrow at 10 am. 

D Hemant requested the hotel receptionist to inform Bharat that he would come to see him the next day at 10 am. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.80 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

A whimsical 

B contiguous 

C spectaculer 

D adjacent 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 

Comprehension: It’s turning out to be a tough summer for the State. With an alarming dip (1) ______ groundwater levels across (2) ______ state, experts fear residents (3) ______ soon have to battle an (4) ______ water crisis, along (5) ______ extremely high temperatures. 

Q.81 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1. 

A from 

B in 

C on 

D with 

Answer: B 

 

Q.82 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2. 

A nearby 

B the 

C every 

D all 

Answer: B 

 

Q.83 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3. 

A might 

B should 

C shall 

D can 

Answer: A 

 

Q.84 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4. 

A unlikely 

B average 

C unknown 

D acute 

Answer: D 

 

Q.85 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5. 

A with 

B from 

C to 

D by 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.86 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. Necessary support to ______ the process of sale is being extended by the banks in the consortium. 

A felicitate 

B complicate 

C confuse 

D facilitate 

Answer: D 

 

Q.87 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. OSTENTATIOUS 

A distinct 

B complete 

C flashy 

D trusted 

Answer: C 

 

Q.88 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom bolt from the blue 

A winning after losing a game many times 

B something sudden that happens unexpectedly 

C someone who runs fast and wins a race 

D locking the doors to keep the rain out 

Answer: B 

 

Q.89 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Inspite Smita had taken part in many television serials earlier, this was the first time she was going to host a live show. 

A in many television serials earlier 

B she was going to host 

C this was the first time 

D In Spite Smita had taken part 

Answer: D 

 

Q.90 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. A spokesperson of the company explained that the media had misrepresented the facts about the accident in their building. 

A misrepresent the facts on the accident 

B misrepresenting the facts about the accident 

C No improvement 

D misrepresents the facts for an accident 

Answer: C 

 

Q.91 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

A. Gone are the days when you stayed with one firm for your entire career and made lifelong friends in the office. 

B. This phenomenon was noted in a recent research report which found that the median tenure for employees below the age of 30 is just two years. 

C. The research report stated that young people today are tempted to switch jobs quickly. 

D. As job longevity becomes a phenomenon of the past, there is a change in attitude in the modern generation towards employment. 

A DBCA 

B BADC 

C CDAB 

D DCBA 

Answer: A 

 

Q.92 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. There was a long queue at the post office and by the time I have reached the counter I was told the printer was not working. 

A I reached the counter 

B No improvement 

C I reach the counter 

D I am reaching the counter 

Answer: A 

 

Q.93 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words a group of stars found close together 

A concoction 

B conflagration 

C confederation 

D constellation 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. 

Q.94 COMPLACENT 

A humble 

B satisfied 

C confident 

D trusted 

Answer: A 

 

Q.95 SALIENT 

A negligible 

B prominent 

C striking 

D clear 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.96 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

A. I should have charged double the amount, but it didn’t occur to me then. 

B. Now, after all the expenses and the gardener’s salary, I made a profit of only five hundred rupees. 

C. The jasmine plants flowered twice and I sold 250 grams of buds just for ten rupees. 

D. Had I charged at least twenty rupees I would have made a good profit. 

A ADCB 

B BCDA 

C CADB 

D BDAC 

Answer: C 

 

Q.97 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. You have made a mistake in writing your answer. 

A A mistake has been made by you in writing your answer. 

B A mistake has been made by you in writing your answer. 

C A mistake is being made by you in writing your answer. 

D A mistake had been made by you in writing your answer. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.98 Select the correctly spelt word. 

A queiten 

B questionnaire 

C quallification 

D quantefy 

Answer: B 

 

Q.99 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom left-handed compliment 

A praise that is given directly 

B insulting someone in front of others 

C insulting remark appearing as praise 

D making fun of someone to tease them 

Answer: C 

 

Q.100 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. The lady listened carefully to my complaint but I doubt she will do anything about it. 

A but I doubt she 

B will do anything about it 

C to my complaint 

D The lady listened carefully 

Answer: A 

SSC CHSL Tier-I 11 July 2019 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL 

(11 July 2019 Shift-I) 

Reasoning 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.1 In a code language, GOURD is written as IQSTF. How will APHID be written in that language? 

A CRJKF 

B CRFLF 

C CRFKF 

D CREKF 

Answer: C 

 

Q.2 ‘ENGINEER’ is related to ‘BUILDING’ in the same way as ‘WRITER’ is related to ‘_________’. 

A BOOK 

B PAPER 

C PEN 

D INK 

Answer: A 

 

Q.3 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out. 

A QSUV 

B DFHJ 

C JLNP 

D CEGI 

Answer: A 

 

Q.4 Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd word out. 

A Car 

B Jeep 

C Truck 

D Ship 

Answer: D 

 

Q.5 Arrange the following words in the sequence as they appear in English dictionery order. 1. Mercury 2. Earth 3. Jupiter 4. Venus 5. Mars 

A 1, 4, 2, 3, 5 

B 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 

C 4, 2, 5, 3, 1 

D 2, 3, 5, 1, 4 

Answer: D 

 

Q.6 Which letter-pair will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? FJ, HL, ? , LP, NR 

A JM 

B JN 

C GM 

D IN 

Answer: B 

 

Q.7 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. (16, 36, 64) 

A (6, 36, 80) 

B (10, 30, 58) 

C (9, 25, 62) 

D (12, 32, 50) 

Answer: B 

 

Q.8 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the right of the figure. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.9 Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: 

All hens are eggs. 

All birds are eggs. 

All eggs are lions. 

Conclusions: 

I. All hens are lions. 

II. Some lions are eggs. 

III. All birds are lions. 

A Only conclusions II and III follow. 

B Only conclusions I and II follow. 

C Only conclusion I follows. 

D All the conclusions follow. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.10 Anil and Abhay are brothers. Swati is the daughter of Samir and sister of Anil. How is Abhay’s mother related to Samir? 

A Sister 

B Wife 

C Sister-in-law 

D Mother 

Answer: B

 

Q.11 Three different positions of the same dice are shown. Select the pattern that will be on the face opposite to the one having 

Answer: D 

 

Q.12 Select the option in which the given figure (X) is embedded. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.13 Select the number-pair in which the two numbers are related in the same way as are the two numbers of the following number-pair. 29, 31 

A 15, 17 

B 23, 25 

C 11, 13 

D 20, 21 

Answer: C

 

Q.14 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes. Rats, Frogs, Snakes 

Answer: C 

 

Q.15 Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the following word-pair. Cement : Building 

A Wire : Electricity 

B Wood : Furniture 

C Book : Author 

D Pen : Pencil 

Answer: B 

 

Q.16 How many triangles are present in the following figure ? 

A 11 

B 9 

C 10 

D 13 

Answer: A 

 

Q.17 Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? 2, 4, 7, 12, 19, 30, ? 

A 47 

B 38 

C 43 

D 36 

Answer: C 

 

Q.18 What was the day of the week on 15 August 2013? 

A Thursday 

B Monday 

C Wednesday 

D Tuesday 

Answer: A 

 

Q.19 Select the Answer Fig. that will come next in the following Problem Fig. series. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.20 Select the option that is related to the third letter-pair in the same way as the second letter-pair is related to the first letter-pair. DJ : HT : : HM : ? 

A PY 

B JK 

C LW 

D LP 

Answer: C 

 

Q.21 A paper is folded and cut as shown in the following figures (X, Y and Z). Select the option that depicts how this paper will appear when unfolded ? 

Answer: D 

 

Q.22 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. (49, 81, 121) 

A (9, 4, 8) 

B (16, 25, 49) 

C (36, 64, 100) 

D (16, 64, 100) 

Answer: C

 

Q.23 Which two signs should be interchanged in the following equation to make it correct? 

5 + 8 − 30 × 10 ÷ 2 = 240 

A × and ÷ 

B + and ÷ 

C + and − 

D × and − 

Answer: D 

 

Q.24 Three of the following four numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the number that is different from the rest. 

A 65 

B 95 

C 75 

D 85 

Answer: C 

 

Q.25 If BARBER is coded as 116 and GLINT is coded as 73, then how will LIZARD be coded as? 

A 92 

B 93 

C 91 

D 90 

Answer: A 

 

General knowledge 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.26 Who among the following was included in Facebook ‘Hall of Fame 2019’ for detetcing a Whatapp Bug that violated privacy of a user? 

A Sonam Wangchuk 

B Jeje Lalpekula 

C Baichung Bhutia 

D Zonel Sougaijam 

Answer: D 

 

Q.27 Who was sworn in as the new chief minister of Andhra Pradesh on 30th May 2019? 

A Chandrababu Naidu 

B Raghuveera Reddy 

C Pawan Kalyan 

D YS Jagan Mohan Reddy 

Answer: D 

 

Q.28 In the context of the banking system in India, what does IFSC stand for? 

A Indian Financial Structural Code 

B Indian Functional System Calculation 

C Indian Financial System Code 

D Indian Financial Social Code 

Answer: C 

 

Q.29 Which country has become the second country in the world to declare a climate and biodiversity emergency? 

A Bhutan 

B Ireland 

C Norway 

D Canada 

Answer: B 

 

Q.30 Hypokalaemia is caused by the deficiency of ________. 

A Iodine 

B Potassium 

C Iron 

D Calcium 

Answer: B 

 

Q.31 Which one of the following lakes and their locations is INCORRECTLY matched? 

A Lonar-Maharashtra 

B Chilika-Andhra Pradesh 

C Loktak-Manipur 

D Roopkund-Uttarakhand 

Answer: B 

 

Q.32 In the context of the Internet, what is the full form of MAN? 

A Master Area Network 

B Makeshift Area Network 

C Massive Area Network 

D Metropolitan Area Network 

Answer: D 

 

Q.33 Who among the following was re-elected as the Prime Minister of Israel April 2019? 

A Imad Khamis 

B Benjamin Netanyahu 

C Ranil Wickremesinghe 

D Sheikh Hasina 

Answer: B 

 

Q.34 In the cabinet of the 17th Lok Sabha, who has been appointed as the Finance Minister ? 

A Amit Shah 

B Nirmala Sitharaman 

C Smriti Irani 

D Rajnath Singh 

Answer: B 

 

Q.35 In May 2019, the kilogram was redefined for the first time in 130 years. It will now be redefined by a fundamental property of nature known as: 

A Planck’s Constant 

B Electric Constant 

C Gravitational Constant 

D Magnetic Constant 

Answer: A 

 

Q.36 Rovers Cup is associated with which of the following sports? 

A Swimming 

B Lawn Tennis 

C Snooker 

D Football 

Answer: D 

 

Q.37 Justice Rajinder Sachar Committee was set up to study ________. 

A the socio-economic status of Muslim community in India 

B the impact of globalisation on India 

C the standards maintained by government hospitals in India 

D the environmental issues of the western ghats in India 

Answer: A 

 

Q.38 Which one of the following is NOT a tributary of river Kaveri? 

A Vaigai 

B Kabini 

C Bhavani 

D Amravati 

Answer: A 

 

Q.39 Which of the following classical dances and their places of origin is INCORRECTLY matched ? 

A Kuchipudi-Odisha 

B Bharatanatym-Tamilnadu 

C Mohiniattam-Kerala 

D Sattriya-Assam 

Answer: A 

 

Q.40 According to which Article of the Constitution of India shall the council of ministers be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha? 

A Article 29 

B Article 75 

C Article 35 

D Article 302 

Answer: B 

 

Q.41 The Salal Project is constructed on the river: 

A Chenab 

B Bhima 

C Krishna 

D Manjra 

Answer: A 

 

Q.42 Which of the following is a western flowing river? 

A Sabarmati 

B Gomti 

C Mahanadi 

D Krishna 

Answer: A 

 

Q.43 The head quarter of Federation Internationale de Football Association (FIFA) is located in _______. 

A Madrid 

B Amsterdam 

C Zurich 

D Paris 

Answer: C 

 

Q.44 Which of the following dances is in UNESCO’s Intangible Heritage List? 

A Fugdi 

B Chhau 

C Jhoomar 

D Dalkhai 

Answer: B 

 

Q.45 Who was the founder of Bahujan Samaj Party? 

A Munshi Ram 

B Devi Lal 

C Kanshi Ram 

D Lakshman Singh 

Answer: C 

 

Q.46 Which of the following texts gives a detailed account of the kings of Kashmir ? 

A Rajatarangini 

B Dipavamsa 

C Vinaya Pitaka 

D Katha Sarit Sagar 

Answer: A 

 

Q.47 The Samkhaya School of Philosophy was founded by ________. 

A Patanjali 

B Kapila 

C Kumarila Bhatta 

D Gautama 

Answer: B 

 

Q.48 The headquarters of computer technology giant, Intel is in ____________. 

A London 

B Tokyo 

C California 

D Frankfurt 

Answer: C 

 

Q.49 Which of the following is an example of terrestrial habitat? 

A Grassland 

B Lagoon 

C Pond 

D Swamp 

Answer: A 

 

Q.50 Pullela Gopichand is the chief national coach of the Indian ________ team as of June 2019. 

A Badminton 

B Basketball 

C Archery 

D Table tennis 

Answer: A 

 

Quantative Appititute 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.51 The platform of a station 400 m longstarts exactly where the last span of a bridge 1.2 km long ends. Howlong will a train 200 m long and travelling at the speed of 72 km/htake to cover the distance between the starting point of the span of the bridge and the far end of the platform ? 

A 1.6 min 

B 1.5 min 

C 1.8 min 

D 1.2 min 

Answer: B 

 

Q.52 An article having marked price, ₹900, was sold for ₹648 after two successive discounts. The first discount was 20%. What was the percentage rate of the second discount? 

A 5 

B 15 

C 10 

D 12.5 

Answer: C 

 

Q.53 A purchased two articles for ₹200 and ₹300 respectively and sold at gains of 5% and 10%respectively. What was his overall gain percentage ? 

A 6 

B 9 

C 5 

D 8 

Answer: D 

 

Q.54 If 10/7 (1 − 2.43 × 10−3) =  1.417 + x, then x is equal to:  

A 0.0417 

B 0.417 

C 0.0081 

D 0.81 

Answer: C 

 

Q.55 The full marks for a paper is 300. The break-up of the marks into theory (X), practical (Y) and project (Z), which are the three components of evaluation is 6 : 5 : 4. In order to pass one has to score at least 40%, 50% and 50% respectively in X, Y, Z and 60% in aggregate. The marks scored by four students A, B, C and D are shown in the given Bar Graph. 

How much percentage marks more than B has C scored in practical ? 

A 40 

B 30 

C 60 

D 20 

Answer: B 

 

Q.56 The simplified value of { 1¼ of ( 2 ⅓ ÷ 1 ⅖) − 1 5/12 } + 1/9 ÷ 2 ⅓ + 2/7 + ⅙ is: 

A 7/3

B 3/2

C 7/6

D 1 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions 

The full marks for a paper is 300. The break-up of the marks into theory (X), practical (Y) and project (Z), which are the three components of evaluation is 6 : 5 : 4. In order to pass one has to score at least 40%, 50% and 50% respectively in X, Y, Z and 60% in aggregate. The marks scored by four students A, B, C and D are shown in the given Bar Graph. 

Q.57 Arrange the students B, C and D according to the ascending order of the aggregate marks scored by them. 

A B, D, C 

B B, C, D 

C C, D, B 

D D, B, C 

Answer: A 

 

Q.58 What is the average marks of the four students in theory? 

A 60 

B 65 

C 70 

D 68 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.59 With reference to a number greater than one, the difference between itself and its reciprocal is 25% of the sum of itself and its reciprocal. By how much percentage (correct one decimal place) is the fourth power of the number greater than its square ? 

A 57.8 

B 62.5 

C 64.5 

D 66.7 

Answer: D 

 

Q.60 For all ∝i′ s,(i = 1,2,3,…..20) lying between 0 ∘ and 90 ∘ , it is given that  sin ∝1 +sin ∝2 +sin ∝3 +……. + sin ∝20= 20. What is the value (in degrees) of (∝1 + ∝2 + ∝3 +……… + ∝20) ? 

A 1800 

B 900 

C 0 

D 20 

Answer: A

 

Q.61 The ten digit number 2x600000y8 is exactly divisible by 24. If x ≠ 0 and y ≠ 0, then the least value of (x + y) is equal to: 

A 5 

B 8 

C 9 

D 2 

Answer: A 

 

Q.62 The value of 18.43×18.43−6.57×6.57/11.86 is: 

A 23.62 

B 25 

C 26 

D 24.12 

Answer: B 

 

Q.63 O, G, and H are respectively the circumcentre, centroid, incentre and orthocentre of an equilateral triangle. Which of these points are identical ? 

A O and I only 

B O and G only 

C O, G, land H 

D O, G and H only 

Answer: C

 

Q.64 A certain sum was invested on simple interest. The amount to which it had grown in five years was times the amount to which it had grown in three years. The percentage rate of interest was: 

A 10% 

B 20% 

C 25% 

D 15% 

Answer: B 

 

Q.65 A can complete a piece of work in 20 days and B can complete 20% of the work in 6 days. If they work together in how many day scan they finish 50% of the work, if they work together ? 

A 12 

B 6 

C 8 

D 9 

Answer: B 

 

Q.66 What is the value of cosec2 30 + sin2 45 + sec2 60 + tan2 30

A 53/6

B 8 

C 25/3

D 9 

Answer: A 

 

Q.67 △ABC ∼ △DEF  and their perimeters are 64 cm and 48 cm respectively. What is the length AB, if DE is equal to 9 cm ? 

A 17.5 cm 

B 16 cm 

C 12 cm 

D 18 cm 

Answer: C 

 

Q.68 If (3x + 1)3 + (x − 3)3 + (4 − 2x)3 + 6(3x + 1)(x − 3)(x − 2) = 0 , then x is equal to: 

A -1 

B −21 

C 1 

D 12

Answer: A 

 

Q.69 For 0 ∘ ≤ θ ≤ 90∘ , what is θ , when  √3cosθ + sinθ = 1 ? 

A 90∘ 

B 0∘

C 45∘ 

D 30∘ 

Answer: A 

 

Q.70 During a practice session in a stadium an athlete runs along a circular track and her performance is observed by her coach standing at a point on the circle and also by her physiotherapist standing at the centre of the circle. The coach finds that she covers an angle of 72 in 1 min. What will be the angle covered by her in 1 second according to the measurement made by her physiotherapist ? 

A It depends on the position of the coach on the circular track 

B 4.8 

C 1.2 

D 2.4 

Answer: D 

 

Q.71 The two diagonals of a rhombus are respectively, 14 cm and 48 cm. The perimeter of the rhombus is equal to: 

A 120 cm 

B 160 cm 

C 80 cm 

D 100 cm 

Answer: D 

 

Q.72 AB and CD are two chords of a circle which intersect at a point O inside the circle. It is given that, AB = 10 cm, CO = 1.5 cm and DO = 12.5 cm. What Is the ratio between the larger and smaller among AO and BO ? 

A 7:3 

B 3:2 

C 3:1 

D 4:1 

Answer: C

 

Q.73 The ratio of the square of a number to the reciprocal of its cube is 243/16807. What is the number 

A 2/7

B 7/3

C 3/7

D 5/7

Answer: C 

 

Q.74 The average of 1088 real numbers is zero. At most how many of them can be negative? 

A 100 

B 88 

C 544 

D 1087 

Answer: D 

 

Q.75 The full marks for a paper is 300. The break-up of the marks into theory (X), practical (Y) and project (Z), which are the three components of evaluation is 6 : 5 : 4. In order to pass one has to score at least 40%, 50% and 50% respectively in X, Y, Z and 60% in aggregate. The marks scored by four students A, B, C and D are shown in the given Bar Graph. 

Who among the students could not pass ? 

A A only 

B B and C 

C B only 

D B and D 

Answer: D 

 

English 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.76 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. The minister promise to looked into the matter of fuel emissions and air pollution. 

A promise to looks into 

B No improvement 

C promised to look into 

D promises to looking at 

Answer: C 

 

Q.77 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. ABSTRACT 

A elusive 

B concrete 

C intangible 

D vague 

Answer: B 

 

Q.78 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom make no headway 

A check if the head can pass through 

B unable to progress ahead 

C unable to overtake anyone 

D forced to fix a new goal 

Answer: B 

 

Q.79 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. Once again, higher food inflation, in combination with fuel and power, provided ______ to the wholesale inflation. 

A impression 

B inspiration 

C insight 

D impetus 

Answer: D 

 

Q.80 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. A. Using matches however came much later.

B. The first great discovery that man probably made was that of fire.

C. In olden times fires were made by rubbing two flints against each other till a spark was produced.

D. And this spark set fire to dry straw, leaves or wood. 

A CBDA 

B BDAC 

C ADBC 

D BCDA 

Answer: D 

 

Q.81 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. HOPE 

A daring 

B courage 

C despair 

D confidence 

Answer: C 

 

Q.82 Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence. The interviewer asked Ramesh, “Do you have any idea about our products?” 

A The interviewer asked Ramesh that if he had any idea about the products. 

B The interviewer asked Ramesh if he have any idea about their products. 

C The interviewer asked Ramesh if he had any idea about their products. 

D The interviewer asked Ramesh if they had any idea about his products. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.83 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. Someone gave him a new case for his credit cards. 

A He is given a new case for his credit cards. 

B He had given a new case for his credit cards. 

C He was given a new case for his credit cards. 

D He has given a new case for his credit cards. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.84 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

A. We had already covered half the distance when we reached a three-road junction. 

B. I was worried it might pounce on us. 

C. But thankfully we picked up speed and it got left behind. 

D. Suddenly, a barking dog began to chase the bike for some distance. 

A ABDC 

B DACB 

C BDAC 

D ADBC 

Answer: D 

 

Q.85 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. She was unable to produce sufficient evidences for support her accusations. 

A to produce 

B She was unable 

C sufficient evidences for 

D support her accusations 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions 

Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

Q.86 ACCURATE 

A real 

B sincere 

C precise 

D genuine 

Answer: C 

 

Q.87 DEDICATION 

A contentment 

B trepidation 

C determination 

D commitment 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.88 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. My professor gave me a lot of useful advices when I was writing my research paper. 

A gave me a lots of useful advices 

B gave me a lot of useful advice 

C No improvement 

D give me lots of useful advices 

Answer: B 

 

Q.89 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words A person who sells and arranges cut flowers 

A nutritionist 

B agriculturist 

C florist 

D botanist 

Answer: C 

 

Q.90 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom make short work of something 

A reduce the size 

B dispose of quickly 

C edit carefully 

D shorten some dress 

Answer: B 

 

Q.91 Select the correctly spelt word. 

A manegeable 

B managable 

C manageble 

D manageable 

Answer: D 

 

Q.92 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words One who draws or produces maps 

A cartographer 

B photographer 

C designer 

D draftsman 

Answer: A 

 

Q.93 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. As he crossed the desert he nearly ______ to thirst when he was forced to go without water for four days and five nights. 

A succumbed 

B subsisted 

C survived 

D submerged 

Answer: A 

 

Q.94 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

A fourtieth 

B seventeenth 

C fifteenth 

D fourteenth 

Answer: A 

 

Q.95 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. The team began searching for reasons for their poor performance in the tournament. 

A The team began 

B in the tournament 

C searching for reasons 

D for their poor performance 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 

Comprehension: If winter seems to be the season for migratory birds to flock to warmer climates, summer time is ideal for wetland birds. (1) ______ fifty kilometers from Warangal in Telangana, Pakhal lake (2) ______ to be playing host to (3) ______ wide variety of flora and fauna (4) ______ season. Wetland birds from North and Central India come (5) ______ the south in search of larger water bodies. 

Q.96 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1 

A Totally 

B But 

C Nearly 

D Not 

Answer: C 

 

Q.97 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2 

A will seems 

B seems 

C was seemed 

D seem 

Answer: B 

 

Q.98 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3 

A one 

B a 

C the 

D an 

Answer: B 

 

Q.99 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4 

A their 

B these 

C this 

D that 

Answer: C 

 

Q.100 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5 

A below 

B towards 

C away 

D about 

Answer: B 

SSC CHSL Tier-I 11 July 2019 Shift-III Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL 

(11 July 2019 Shift-III) 

Reasoning 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.1 Three of the following four numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the number that is different from the rest. 

A 8715 

B 6915 

C 8915 

D 7815 

Answer: C 

 

Q.2 Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd word out. 

A Potato 

B Egg 

C Onion 

D Tomato 

Answer: B 

 

Q.3 A paper is folded and cut as shown in the following figures (X, Y and Z). Select the option that depicts how this paper will appear when unfolded. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.4 Select the number-pair in which the two numbers are related in the same way as are the two numbers of the following number-pair. 20 : 30 

A 12 : 23 

B 16 : 36 

C 30 : 42 

D 6 : 14 

Answer: C 

 

Q.5 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the right of the figure. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.6 Select the option that is related to the third letter-pair in the same way as the second letter pair is related to the first letter-pair. GP : TK : : DR ? 

A WX 

B IW 

C VU 

D WI 

Answer: D 

 

Q.7 If WIND is coded as 414923 and CARDS is coded as 1941813, then how will ORIENT be coded as? 

A 2013591815 

B 2014591815 

C 2014581815 

D 1518951420 

Answer: B 

 

Q.8 Arrange the following words as they appear in the English Dictionary. 

1. Chairman 2. Challan 3. Chaos 4. Champion 5. Changing 

A 1, 4, 2, 3, 5 

B 1, 2, 4, 5, 3 

C 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 

D 1, 3, 4, 2, 5 

Answer: B 

 

Q.9 ‘Dice’ is related to ‘Cube’ in the same way as ‘Ball’ is related to ‘__________’. 

A Cone 

B Cube 

C Line 

D Sphere 

Answer: D 

 

Q.10 Select the option that is related to the third letter-pair in the same way as the second letter pair is related to the first letter-pair. FU : UF :: RS : ? 

A JH 

B GH 

C IP 

D IH 

Answer: D

 

Q.11 Which two signs should be interchanged in the following equation to make it correct? 

10 + 18 − 20 × 100 ÷ 5 = 27 

A × and − 

B + and − 

C × and ÷ 

D + and ÷ 

Answer: C 

 

Q.12 Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? 2, 3, 8, 31, ? 

A 95 

B 134 

C 154 

D 105 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. 

Q.13 (10, 32, 54) 

A (16, 37, 56) 

B (25, 47, 77) 

C (15, 49, 37) 

D (35, 57, 79) 

Answer: D

 

Q.14 (35, 48, 83) 

A (15, 25, 41) 

B (25, 49, 91) 

C (24, 49, 75) 

D (15, 24, 39) 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.15 Two different positions of the same dice are shown.Select the pattern that will be on the face opposite to the one having 

Answer: D 

 

Q.16 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes. Lawyers, Architects, Human Beings 

Answer: D 

 

Q.17 Select the Answer Fig. that will come next in the following Problem Fig. series. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.18 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out. 

A NRV 

B DHL 

C FKM 

D PTX 

Answer: C 

 

Q.19 Shyam is the brother of Riya. Mohini is the mother of Anuj. Riya is the daughter of Ram. Anuj is the brother of Shyam. How is Mohini related to Ram? 

A Sister 

B Daughter 

C Wife 

D Mother 

Answer: C 

 

Q.20 If it was a Saturday on 10 November 2018, what was the day of the week on 15 August 2017? 

A Monday 

B Tuesday 

C Sunday 

D Friday 

Answer: B 

 

Q.21 Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: 

All knives are axes. 

All axes are swords . 

All saws are swords. 

Conclusions: 

I. All words are knives. 

II. Some swords are axe s. 

III. Some swords are saws . 

A Only conclusions II and III follow. 

B All the conclusions follow. 

C Only conclusions I and II follow. 

D Only conclusion I follows. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.22 In a code language, THRUST is written as UJUYXZ. How will WOOD be written as in that language? 

A XQSH 

B XQRH 

C XQRI 

D XORH 

Answer: B

 

Q.23 Select the option in which the given figure (X) is embedded (rotation not allowed). 

Answer: A 

 

Q.24 How many squares are present in the following figure ? 

A 21 

B 19 

C 23 

D 17 

Answer: B 

 

Q.25 Which letter-pair will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? KH, ? , QN, WT, EB 

A NJ 

B MJ 

C LN 

D MK 

Answer: B 

 

General knowledge 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.26 The Goldman Prize was instituted in 1989 by Richard and Rhoda Goldman is given in the field of __________. 

A Education 

B Environment 

C Painting 

D Music 

Answer: B 

 

Q.27 India’s PU Chitra won a gold medal in women’s 1500 meter at Folksam Grand Prix 2019 held in _______. 

A Indonesia 

B France 

C Sweden 

D Russia 

Answer: C 

 

Q.28 Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru were executed on ________. 

A 28 January, 1933 

B 23 April, 1932 

C 23 February, 1930 

D 23 March, 1931 

Answer: D 

 

Q.29 The team that won the first two World Cup cricket tournaments was: 

A England 

B Australia 

C West Indies 

D India 

Answer: C 

 

Q.30 Which of the following national parks is situated in Uttar Pradesh? 

A Van Vihar 

B Dudhwa 

C Hemis 

D Dachigam 

Answer: B 

 

Q.31 Who among the following was NOT a governor of the Reserve Bank of India? 

A M S Gill 

B Manmohan Singh 

C M Narasimham 

D D. Subbarao 

Answer: A 

 

Q.32 The term ‘Hellenistic’ is related to which of the following countries? 

A India 

B Peru 

C China 

D Greece 

Answer: D 

 

Q.33 An example of an input device is ______. 

A Headphones 

B Projector 

C Sound Card 

D Webcam 

Answer: D 

 

Q.34 A biochemical compound is any: 

A mineral-based compound found in living things 

B hydrogen-based compound found in living things 

C sulfur-based compound found in living things 

D carbon-based compound found in living things 

Answer: D 

 

Q.35 The 2018 BWF World Tour Finals men’s singles was won by: 

A Sameer Verma 

B Shi Yuqi 

C Son Wan Ho 

D Kento Momoto 

Answer: B 

 

Q.36 In the context of banking system in India what is the fullform of RTGS ? 

A Random Time Gross Settlement 

B Real Time Gain Settlement 

C Reel Time Gain Settlement 

D Real Time Gross Settlement 

Answer: D 

 

Q.37 In the field of Information and Technology what is the full form of ASCII ? 

A American Standard Code for Information Interchange 

B American Standard Code for Infrastructure Interchange 

C American Standard Communication for Information Interchange 

D American Standard Code for International Interchange 

Answer: A 

 

Q.38 In June 2019, which Ministry was created by merging the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation and the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation? 

A Jal Jeevan 

B Jal Shakti 

C Jal Sangrah 

D Jal Nidhi 

Answer: B 

 

Q.39 The famous ‘Tangaliya shawl’ is associated to which state of India? 

A Punjab 

B Uttar Pradesh 

C Gujarat 

D Uttarakhand 

Answer: C 

 

Q.40 The famous Madhubani artist who won the Bihar Ratna in 1984 is ______. 

A Ganga Devi 

B Mahasundari Devi 

C Shashi Kala Devi 

D Sita Devi 

Answer: D 

 

Q.41 Which of the following is the major state taxes in India? 

A Corporation Tax 

B Customs duty 

C Income tax 

D Stamp duty and registration 

Answer: D 

 

Q.42 The Indian ship that will take part in the 8th Indo – Myanmar Coordinated Patrol is ______. 

A INS Car Nicobar 

B INS Sukanya 

C INS Vikrant 

D INS Saryu 

Answer: D 

 

Q.43 The right pulmonary artery is ______. 

A longer than the left 

B wider than the left 

C of same size as the left 

D shorter than the left 

Answer: A 

 

Q.44 An island between India and Sri Lanka is ______. 

A Ilha grande 

B Kachchatheevu 

C Divar 

D Chorao 

Answer: B 

 

Q.45 Hampi, the ancient capital of Vijayanagara is located in: 

A Tamil Nadu 

B Kerala 

C Karnataka 

D Telangana 

Answer: C 

 

Q.46 Who among the following is famous for Classical Carnatic Music ? 

A Pandit Shivkumar Sharma 

B Pandit Kumar Gandharva 

C Balamuralikrishna 

D Pandit Ravi Shankar 

Answer: C 

 

Q.47 Which of the following is not a natural greenhouse gas? 

A Carbon dioxide 

B Nitrogen 

C Methane 

D Water vapour 

Answer: B 

 

Q.48 The Gandikota canyon, also known as the grand canyon of India is located in ______. 

A Kerala 

B West Bengal 

C Andhra Pradesh 

D Karnataka 

Answer: C 

 

Q.49 Central Potato Research Institute is located in __________. 

A Kolkata 

B Hyderabad 

C Nagpur 

D Shimla 

Answer: D 

 

Q.50 The Pacific Vanguard maritime exercise was held in ________ May 2019. 

A Australia 

B China 

C Guam 

D Japan 

Answer: C 

 

Quantative Apptitute 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.51 A, B and C, alone can do a piece of work in 9, 12 and 18 days respectively. They all started working together, but A left after 3 days. In how many days, was the remaining work completed ? 

A 11/4

B 9/5

C 2

D 5/2

Answer: B 

 

Q.52 If in △ABC ,D is a point on BC, such that BD : BC = 2 : 5, what is the ratio area (△ABC) : area (△ABD) ? : 

A 4:9 

B 2:5 

C 1:2 

D 2:3 

Answer: D 

 

Q.53 The eight digit number 5x32465y is divisible by 88. What Is the value of (2x + 3y) ? 

A 20 

B 24 

C 16 

D 18 

Answer: B 

 

Q.54 The given Bar Graph presents the percentages of population in the age groups, X(above 50 years), Y(20 to 50 years), Z(below 20 years) in five different villages, A, B, C, D and E with total population of 5000, 6000, 8000, 4500 and 6000 respectively. 

What is the ratio of the total number of persons of ages above 50 years in the villages, B and C, taken together to the total number of persons having ages between 20 and 50 years in the said villages ? 

A 24 : 27 

B 51 : 59 

C 47 : 53 

D 49 : 57 

Answer: C 

 

Q.55 if 2sin2 θ + 3sinθ − 2 = 0, 0 < θ < 90 then value of θ is 

A 600

B 900

C 450

D 300

Answer: D 

 

Q.56 If a= √8-√7 and a = ⅟b then (a2+b2-3ab)/(a2+b2+ab)is equal to 

A 29/31

B 27/32

C 29/33

D 27/31

Answer: D 

 

Q.57 The price of petrol is increased by 24%. A person wants to increase his expenditure by 14% only. By what percentage (correct to one decimal place), should he decrease his consumption in order to maintain the same level of expenditure ? 

A 8.3 

B 7.9 

C 8.1 

D 7.8 

Answer: C 

 

Q.58 The difference between compound interest and simple interest on ₹x at 6.5% per annum for 2 years is ₹33.80. What is the value of x? 

A ₹7800 

B ₹8000 

C ₹7500 

D ₹8500 

Answer: B 

 

Q.59 The simplified value of 20 − [2.8 × 5 + 0.7 − 3 ÷ 0.9 × 1.54 + 2] is equal to: 

A 3 

B 3.8 

C 3.6 

D 3.4 

Answer: A 

 

Q.60 A person covers 40% of a distance with a speed of 60 km/h and the remaining with a speed of 40 km/h. What is his average speed for the whole journey in km/h? 

A 600/11 

B 500/13 

C 500/11

D 600/13

Answer: D

 

Q.61 The given Bar Graph presents the percentages of population in the age groups, X(above 50 years), Y(20 to 50 years), Z(below 20 years)in five different villages, A, B, C, D and E with total population of 5000, 6000, 8000, 4500 and 6000 respectively. 

The number of persons having ages below 20 years in villages, B and C taken together is what percentage of the total population of the said villages? 

A 1907

B 2007

C 1865

D 184 5

Answer: B 

 

Q.62 Four cubes, each of edge 5 cm are joined end to end. What is the total surface area of the resulting cuboid ? 

A 475 cm2 

B 450 cm2 

C 600 cm2 

D 500 cm2 

Answer: B 

 

Q.63 The given Bar Graph presents the percentages of population in the age groups, X(above 50 years), Y(20 to 50 years), Z(below 20 years)in five different villages, A, B, C, D and E with total population of 5000, 6000, 8000, 4500 and 6000 respectively. 

What is the total number of persons in the age group of 20 to 50 years in the villages A and B, taken together? 

A 4000 

B 4300 

C 4200 

D 4100 

Answer: D

 

Q.64 A quadrilateral ABCD is inscribed in a circle with centre O. If ∠BOC = 920 and ∠ADC = 1120, then ∠ABO is equal to: 

A 240

B 220

C 280

D 260

Answer: A 

 

Q.65 The cost price of an article is ₹425. A shopkeeper gives a discount of 20% and still gains 16%. What is the marked price of the article? 

A ₹620.50 

B ₹624.50 

C ₹605.75 

D ₹616.25 

Answer: D 

 

Q.66 If a + b + c = 5 and ab + bc + ca = 4, then a3 + b3 + c3 − 3abc is equal to: 

A 72 

B 62 

C 68 

D 65 

Answer: D 

 

Q.67 if tanθ = ⅗, 0 < θ < 90 then sinθcosθ is equal to: 

A  √17

B  14/√34

C  16/√34

D 15/√34

Answer: D 

 

Q.68 What is the ratio of the mean proportional between 14.4 and 3.6 and the third proportional of 5 and 4? 

A 9:4 

B 8:5 

C 4:9 

D 5:8 

Answer: A 

 

Q.69 Given that x,y,z are positive real numbers, if (x + y)2 − z2 = 8,(y + z)2 − x2 = 10 and (x + z)2 − y2 = 7, then (x + y + z) is equal to: 

A 5 

B 8 

C 7 

D 6 

Answer: A 

 

Q.70 The selling price of 24 articles is equal to the cost price of 26 articles. What is the gain percentage (correct to one decimal place) in such situation ? 

A 26/3% 

B 25/3% 

C 105/13 % 

D 105/13 % 

Answer: B 

 

Q.71 if △ABC , ∠ABC = 90∘ and BD⊥AC , if AD= 4cm and CD= 5cm then BD is equal to 

A  3√5

B  2√5 

C 3√2

D 4√5

Answer: B 

 

Q.72 The average of 24 numbers is 65. The average of first 11 numbers is 67 and the average of the last 10 numbers is 70. If the 12th number is 13 less than the 13th number, and the 14th number is one more than the 13th number, then the average of 12th and 14th number is: Latek 

A 39 

B 36 

C 42 

D 26 

Answer: A

 

Q.73 The given Bar Graph presents the percentages of population in the age groups, X(above 50 years), Y(20 to 50 years), Z(below 20 years)in five different villages, A, B, C, D and E with total population of 5000, 6000, 8000, 4500 and 6000 respectively. 

The difference between the number of persons of ages below 20 years in villages D and E, taken together, is what percentage of the number of persons of the same age group in village D? 

A 185/3

B 182/3

C 190/3

D 200/3

Answer: D 

 

Q.74 If (sin2 360 + tan2 600 + sec2 300 + sin2 540) is equal to: 

A 14/3

B 17/3

C 16/3

D 5 

Answer: C 

 

Q.75 In a circle, chords AD and BC meet at a point E outside the circle. If ∠BAE = 760 and ∠ADC = 1020, then ∠AEC is equal to: 

A 250

B 280

C 260

D 240

Answer: C 

 

English 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.76 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. A. One population lives in the Bwindi National Park in Uganda. B. Mountain gorillas are some of the most threatened animals o n the planet. C. Only two groups of mountain gorillas remain. D. The other group lives in the Virunga Mountain s. 

A BCAD 

B BDCA 

C CDBA 

D ABCD 

Answer: A 

 

Q.77 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. CONCLUSIVE 

A decisive 

B ambiguous 

C undeniable 

D clear 

Answer: B 

 

Q.78 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. Everyone should obey traffic regulations. 

A Traffic regulations are obeyed by everyone. 

B Traffic regulations should be obeyed by everyone. 

C Traffic regulations should be obeyed by everyone. 

D Traffic regulations will be obeyed by everyone. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.79 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. Women in traditional costumes welcoming a foreign dignitaries. 

A welcome to foreign dignitaries 

B No improvement 

C welcomed the foreign dignitaries 

D welcomes the foreigner dignitaries 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 

Comprehension: Rivers around the world are (1) ______ with dangerous levels of antibiotics, (2) ______ to a recent study. Concentration of antibiotics in some waterways (3) ______ safety levels by 300 times. Researchers looked at several (4) ______ used antibiotics in rivers flowing (5) ______ 72 countries. 

Q.80 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 1 

A infected 

B contaminated 

C fouled 

D tainted 

Answer: B 

 

Q.81 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 2 

A consistent 

B according 

C reported 

D conforming 

Answer: B 

 

Q.82 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 3 

A outgrows 

B exceeds 

C excels 

D outpaces 

Answer: B 

 

Q.83 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 4 

A unusually 

B badly 

C commonly 

D likely 

Answer: C 

 

Q.84 Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 5 

A below 

B above 

C through 

D with 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions: For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.85 Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence. The boss said to his employee, “I will be happy if you finish this project by evening.” 

A The boss told his employee that he would be happy if he will finish this project by evening. 

B The boss told his employees that he would be happy if he finishes that project by evening. 

C The boss told his employee that he would be happy if he finished that project by evening. 

D The boss told his employee he will be happy if he finished this project by evening. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.86 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase in the given sentence. She has a good job and a happy family. She has the best of both worlds. 

A all the advantages 

B advantages and disadvantages 

C a good career 

D a contented family 

Answer: A 

 

Q.87 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. People living at the same time 

A contemporaries 

B cosmopolitans 

C comrades 

D friends 

Answer: A 

 

Q.88 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. With each passing day he was going in more trouble. 

A he was getting into 

B he were going to 

C he are getting in 

D No improvement 

Answer: A 

 

Q.89 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. A. In fact, there are about 800 million mobile phone users now. B. They have been in use in the country for over two decades. C. Mobile companies are regularly bringing out phones with new features for these users. D. There are billions of mobile phones in India today. 

A ACBD 

B DBAC 

C ABCD 

D DCAB 

Answer: B 

 

Q.90 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The crisis would ______ damage their reputation. 

A further 

B either 

C neither 

D farther 

Answer: A 

 

Q.91 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. CLIMAX 

A culmination 

B preface 

C prologue 

D epilogue 

Answer: A 

 

Q.92 Select the correctly spelt word. 

A counterfeit 

B counterfate 

C countorfeit 

D counterfiet 

Answer: A 

 

Q.93 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The hotel room ______ of odour of leftover food. 

A reeked 

B smoked 

C flavoured 

D traced 

Answer: A 

 

Q.94 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. One who can use both hands efficiently 

A ambivalent 

B genius 

C skillful 

D ambidextrous 

Answer: D 

 

Q.95 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. ROUTINE 

A regular 

B accepted 

C different 

D normal 

Answer: C 

 

Q.96 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. I am not thinking of the solution to this problem. I will cross the bridge when I come to it. 

A deal with something only when necessary 

B not even think about the problem 

C not deal with the problem at all 

D let someone else deal with the problem 

Answer: A 

 

Q.97 Select the correctly spelt word. 

A acquision 

B acquasition 

C acquesition 

D acquisition 

Answer: D 

 

Q.98 In the sentence identify the segment which contains a grammatical error. I will stop to refreshments at the next restaurant on the highway. 

A I will stop 

B to refreshments 

C at the next restaurant 

D on the highway 

Answer: B 

 

Q.99 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. MANUAL 

A dictionary 

B directory 

C handbook 

D thesaurus 

Answer: C 

 

Q.100 In the sentence identify the segment which contains a grammatical error. Our nation can make significant growth but if we all work collectively. 

A work collectively 

B Our nation can 

C but if we all 

D make significant growth 

Answer: C 

SSC CHSL Tier-I 11 July 2019 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC CHSL 

(11 July 2019 Shift-II) 

Reasoning 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.1 If SAW is coded as 8264 and CUDDLE is coded as 24623231522, then how will MEDULLA be coded as? 

A 1422237151525 

B 1422236151526 

C 1422236151625 

D 1422236161526 

Answer: B 

 

Q.2 Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd word out. 

A Kiwi 

B Eagle 

C Vulture 

D Goose 

Answer: A 

 

Q.3 Which two signs and two numbers should be interchanged in the following equation to make it correct? 

8 + 15 − 20 × 10 ÷ 5 = 47 

A × and ÷, 5 and 8 

B + and −, 8 and 15 

C + and ÷, 10 and 20 

D × and −, 15 and 20 

Answer: B 

 

Q.4 ‘RETINA’ is related to ‘EYE’ in the same way as ‘HYDROGEN’ is related to ‘________’. 

A WATER 

B IODINE 

C EAR 

D LEGS 

Answer: A 

 

Q.5 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. (16, 23, 32) 

A (10, 23, 46) 

B (11, 18, 27) 

C (6, 14, 25) 

D (10, 17, 28) 

Answer: B 

 

Q.6 Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the following word-pair. Ostrich : Eagle 

A Cow : Elephant 

B Swan : Lion 

C Whale : Kite 

D Hen : Goat 

Answer: A 

 

Q.7 Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? 7, 9, 12, 17, 24, 35, ? 

A 52 

B 45 

C 47 

D 48 

Answer: D 

 

Q.8 Select the option in which the given figure (X) is embedded. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.9 Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes. Ants, Butterflies, Insects 

Answer: C 

 

Q.10 In a code language, KNIFE is written as MPGHG. How will SWORD be written as in that language? 

A UYMTF 

B VYMTF 

C UYMTE 

D UYQTF 

Answer: A

 

Q.11 Select the option that is related to the third letter-pair in the same way as the second letter pair is related to the first letter-pair CH : FP : : GK : ? 

A JS 

B MP 

C JL 

D NU 

Answer: A 

 

Q.12 Select the figure that will come next in the following figure series. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.13 Which letter-pair will replace the question mark (?) in the following series? EI, GK, ? , KO, MQ 

A IL 

B KM 

C IM 

D JK 

Answer: C

 

Q.14 Three of the following four numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the number that is different from the rest. 

A 13 

B 23 

C 17 

D 51 

Answer: D 

 

Q.15 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set. (25, 49, 37) 

A (12, 14, 8) 

B (16, 64, 78) 

C (26, 64, 120) 

D (6, 4, 5) 

Answer: D 

 

Q.16 Arrange the following words in the sequence as they appear in English dictionery order. 1. Master 2. Marvel 3. Market 4. Marker 5. Marble 6. Margin 

A 6, 5, 4, 2, 1, 3 

B 5, 6, 4, 3, 2, 1 

C 5, 6, 4, 3, 1, 2 

D 5, 4, 6, 3, 2, 1 

Answer: B 

 

Q.17 What was the day of the week on 26 January 2012 ? 

A Sunday 

B Saturday 

C Thursday 

D Tuesday 

Answer: C 

 

Q.18 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the left of the figure. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.19 Select the number-pair in which the two numbers are related in the same way as are the two numbers of the following number-pair. 7, 13 

A 15, 19 

B 17, 25 

C 23, 31 

D 17, 21 

Answer: C 

 

Q.20 A paper is folded and cut as shown in the following figures (X, Y and Z). Select the option that depicts how this paper will appear when unfolded ? 

Answer: A 

 

Q.21 A paper sheet is made into the following pattern (A). Find the cube that will best represent after folding the paper (A). 

A 1, 2 and 3 only 

B 1, 3 and 4 only 

C 2, 3 and 4 only 

D 2 and 3 only 

Answer: C 

 

Q.22 Two statements are given, followed by four conclusions numbered I, II III and IV. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statement : 

No carrot is root. 

All roots are potatoes. 

Conclusions: 

I. No carrot is potatoes. 

II. No potatoes is carrot . 

III. Some potatoes are ro ots. 

IV . All the potatoes are roots . 

A Only conclusion (III) follow 

B Conclusion (I) and (IV) follows 

C Conclusion (I) and (II) follows 

D Only conclusion (I) follow 

Answer: A

 

Q.23 How many triangles are present in the following figure ? 

A 14 

B 16 

C 13 

D 11 

Answer: C 

 

Q.24 Mala and Lali are sisters. Mahesh is father of Dev. Gargi is mother of Mala and Dev. How Mahesh’s father is related to Lali? 

A Paternal Grand Father 

B Uncle 

C Father 

D Maternal Grand Father 

Answer: A 

 

Q.25 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out. 

A IKMO 

B PRTW 

C BDFH 

D CEGI 

Answer: B 

 

General knowledge 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.26 The famous Civil Rights activist Iromn Chanu Sharmila belongs to which of the following states of India? 

A Manipur 

B Tripura 

C Himachal Pradesh 

D Assam 

Answer: A 

 

Q.27 Netaji Subhash National Institute of Sports is located in ______. 

A Patiala 

B Karnal 

C Agartal 

D Cuttack 

Answer: A 

 

Q.28 Which of the following hormones is known to be helpful in coping with stress? 

A Serotonin 

B Testosterone 

C Calcitonin 

D Melatonin 

Answer: A 

 

Q.29 With reference to the banking system of India, what does NEFT stand for? 

A National Equity Finance Transaction 

B National Equity Funds Transaction 

C National Electronic Finance Transfer 

D National Electronic Funds Transfer 

Answer: D 

 

Q.30 Daringbadi hill station is located in ______. 

A Madhya Pradesh 

B Jharkhand 

C Odisha 

D West Bengal 

Answer: C 

 

Q.31 Which of the following is NOT a type of loan available under the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana? 

A Purush 

B Kishore 

C Shishu 

D Tarun 

Answer: A 

 

Q.32 Which of the following is an igneous rock? 

A Limestone 

B Slate 

C Marble 

D Granite 

Answer: D 

 

Q.33 Which of the following is NOT a classical language of India? 

A Odia 

B Pali 

C Kannada 

D Telugu 

Answer: B 

 

Q.34 Who became the acting prime minister of India after the death of Jawaharlal Nehru in 1964? 

A V P Singh 

B Morarji Desai 

C Gulzarilal Nanda 

D Charan Singh 

Answer: C 

 

Q.35 Who is the author of the book ‘The Idea of India’? 

A Sunil Khilnani 

B Amartya Sen 

C Girish Kuber 

D Amitav Ghosh 

Answer: A 

 

Q.36 The 1982 Asian Games were hosted by ______. 

A Pakistan 

B South Korea 

C India 

D Saudi Arabia 

Answer: C 

 

Q.37 In the context of the Internet, what does IP stand for? 

A Internet Protocol 

B Intra Propaganda 

C Intra Protocol 

D Internet Proposal 

Answer: A 

 

Q.38 Who among the following discovered the circulation of blood ? 

A William Harvey 

B Florence Rena Sabin 

C Ernest Heinrich Weber 

D Van Leeuwenhock 

Answer: A 

 

Q.39 In 1974, the first nuclear test of Pokhran was code named as: 

A Dancing Buddha 

B Blessing Buddha 

C Smiling Buddha 

D Laughing Buddha 

Answer: C 

 

Q.40 Which of the following trains entered its 90th year of service on 1st June 2019? 

A Deccan Queen 

B The Golden Chariot 

C Palace On Wheels 

D Deccan Odyssey 

Answer: A 

 

Q.41 As of May 2019, who is the CEO of Google? 

A Jan Koum 

B Satya Nadella 

C Sundar Pichai 

D Vinod Khosla 

Answer: C 

 

Q.42 Which of the following decisions was taken in the first cabinet meeting of the Narendra Modi 2.0 Government? 

A Expansion of Ayushman Bharat Program 

B Scholarship to wards of martyred state police officials 

C Disinvestment of 10 key PSUs 

D Announcement of new employment policy 

Answer: B 

 

Q.43 Silappadikaram’ is a Tamil epic that was written by ______. 

A Sattanar 

B Ilango Adigal 

C Thiruvalluar 

D Avvaiyar 

Answer: B 

 

Q.44 DhanuYatra’ is an annual open air theatrical performance celebrated in ______. 

A Uttarakhand 

B Odisha 

C Gujarat 

D Assam 

Answer: B 

 

Q.45 Which of the following rivers is a left bank tributary of Ganga? 

A Son 

B Betwa 

C Ken 

D Gandak 

Answer: D 

 

Q.46 India successfully test-fired ‘Nirbhay’ in April 2019. It is a/an ______. 

A Trans-sonic missile 

B Supersonic missile 

C Sub-sonic missile 

D Hypersonic missile 

Answer: C 

 

Q.47 Sariska Tiger Reserve is located in __________. 

A Rajasthan 

B Uttarakhand 

C Madhya Pradesh 

D Maharashtra 

Answer: A 

 

Q.48 Who among the following is a famous Snooker player in India ? 

A Prajnesh Gunneswaran 

B Sharath Achanta 

C Pankaj Advani 

D Vimal Kumar 

Answer: C 

 

Q.49 In May 2019, scientists from Council of Scientific & Industrial Research’s (CSIR)-Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology in Hyderabad, for the first time, sequenced the entire genome of ______. 

A Elephant 

B Asiatic Lion 

C Lion-tailed Macaque 

D Nilgiri Tahr 

Answer: B 

 

Q.50 Who among the following was known as ‘Devanam Piya’? 

A Kanishka 

B Amoghavarsha 

C Ashoka 

D Kharavela 

Answer: C 

 

Quantative Appititute 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.51 The perimeter of △ABC is 24 cm and its side, BC = 9 cm. AD is the bisector of ∠BAC, while I is the incentre. AI : ID is equal to: 

A 7 : 5 

B 5 : 2 

C 3 : 2 

D 5 : 3 

Answer: D 

 

Q.52 A man loses 20% by selling an article for ₹96. For what amount should he have sold the article to gain 15% ? 

A ₹120 

B ₹115 

C ₹138 

D ₹140 

Answer: C 

 

Q.53 The given Bar Graph presents the sale of a particular brand of car by three show rooms, A, B and C (in multiples of 100) during the months Jan, Feb, Mar and Apr, 2016. 

If the cars sold by A and B are all found to be in perfect order, but the cars sold by C were found to be defective to the extent of 15%, 10%, 8% and 6%,respectively in Jan, Feb, Mar and Apr 2016. What is the percentage of defective cars sold by all showrooms during Apr, 2016? 

A 4⁴/₉

B 1⁴/₉

C 2³/₇

D 7²/₉

Answer: B 

 

Q.54 The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest on a sum at 10% p.a. for three years is ₹155. The sum (in ₹) is: 

A 5,500 

B 6,000 

C 6,600 

D 5,000 

Answer: D 

 

Q.55 An inlet pipe can fill a tank in 10 hours and an outlet pipe can empty the completely filled tank in 20 hours. Both the pipes are opened at 6.30 a.m. When will the tank get filled? 

A 2.30 a.m. next day 

B 2 a.m. next day 

C 1 a.m. next day 

D 12.00 midnight 

Answer: A 

 

Q.56 Two chords, AB and CD of circle meet at a point O, outside the circle. It is given that AB = 7 cm, CD =4 cm, OB = 5 cm. What is the length of OD? 

A 5 cm 

B 6 cm 

C 7.5 cm 

D 10 cm 

Answer: B 

 

Q.57 For all α/ίs, (ί = 1,2,3,………………..20) lying between 00 and 900, it is given that,cos ∝1 + cos ∝2 +cos ∝3 +………. + cos ∝20= 20. What is the value of (∝1 + ∝2 + ∝3 +………+ ∝20)? 

A 9000

B 1800

C 00

D 200

Answer: C 

 

Q.58 A square has been inscribed in a circle. What is the ratio of the length of a side of the square to the radius of the circle? 

A 2:1

B 1 : √2

C 1:2 

D √2: 1

Answer: D 

 

Q.59 If (1.25)(1 − 6.4 × 10−5) = 1.2496 + a, then a is equal to: 

A 0.0016 

B 0.00016 

C 0.0032 

D 0.00032 

Answer: D 

 

Q.60 The given Bar Graph presents the sale of a particular brand of car by three showrooms, A, B and C (in multiples of 100) during the months Jan, Feb, Mar and Apr, 2016. 

What is the ratio of number of cars sold by A in Jan-Feb, 2016 to that of cars sold by B during Mar-Apr, 2016? 

A 5:8 

B 8:17 

C 12:19 

D 10:19 

Answer: D

 

Q.61 The volume of a right circular cone is equal to that of a sphere, whose radius is half the radius of the base of the cone. What is the ratio of the radius ofthe base to the height of the cone ? 

A 1:4 

B 1:2 

C 4:1 

D 2:1 

Answer: D 

 

Q.62 1 if (a+b+4){ab+4(a+b)}-4ab=0, and a≠-4, b≠-4, then ( (1/(a+b+1))117 − 2−234) is equal to 

A ¼117 

B ½117 

C −½234  

D 0 

Answer: D 

 

Q.63 The simplified value of {¾ of 4/15 × 1⅔ − (3½ − 2⅙)} 

A 13

B 1 

C 2 

D 2 3

Answer: B

 

Q.64 The given Bar Graph presents the sale of a particular brand of car by three showrooms, A, B and C (in multiples of 100) during the months Jan, Feb, Mar and Apr, 2016. 

What was the average number of cars sold by A during Feb-Apr, 2016? 

A 375 

B 350 

C 250 

D 300 

Answer: B 

 

Q.65 For 0 < θ < 90 , tanθ + cotθ = 2.8 is equal to: 

A 30∘ 

B 60∘ 

C 45∘ 

D 0∘ 

Answer: C 

 

Q.66 The given Bar Graph presents the sale of a particular brand of car by three showrooms, A, B and C (in multiples of 100) during the months Jan, Feb, Mar and Apr, 2016. 

If the cars sold by A and B are all found to be in perfect order, but the cars sold by C were found to be defective to the extent of 15%, 10%, 8% and 6%,respectively in Jan, Feb, Mar and Apr 2016, then what is the ratio of non-defective cars sold by C to that of all cars sold by A and B during Jan-Mar 2016 ? 

A 177 : 1400 

B 384 : 1385 

C 489 : 1300 

D 255 : 1348 

Answer: C 

 

Q.67 Given a + 1/a =2 what is the value of a118 + 1/a117

A 118 

B 1 

C 2 

D 117 

Answer: C 

 

Q.68 For a number, greater than one, the difference between itself and its reciprocal is 20% of the sum of itself and its reciprocal. By how much percentage (nearest to an integer) is the square of the number less than its cube? 

A 122 

B 18 

C 81  

D 33 

Answer: B 

 

Q.69 ABCD is a rhombus with each side being equal to 8 cm. If BD = 10 em, AC = 2√x cm, what is the value of  1+√x.

A 2√3

B 3√2

C 7 

D 5 

Answer: C 

 

Q.70 What is the ratio between the fourth proportional of 3, 4, 9 and the mean proportional between 2 and 98 ?

A 7:8 

B 7:6 

C 8:7 

D 6:7 

Answer: D 

 

Q.71 The 10-digit number 79x00001y6 is exactly divisible by 88. What is the value of (x + 3)? 

A 5 

B 9 

C 6 

D 7 

Answer: B 

 

Q.72 The average of a series of 21 numbers is equal to 43. The average of the first eleven of them is 33. The average of the last eleven numbers is 53. The eleventh number of the series is: 

A 43 

B 47 

C 33 

D 46 

Answer: A

 

Q.73 A shopkeeper decides to raise the marked price of an article by 10%. How much discount should he allow so as to be able to sell the article at the original marked price? 

A 9⅟₁ % 

B 8₁⅑% 

C 9½ % 

D 10% 

Answer: A 

 

Q.74 What is the simplified value of [(sin2310+sin2590)/(sec2350– cot2550)+tan290 cot600-cosec2610]

A 0 

B -1 

C ½

D 1 

Answer: A 

 

Q.75 A returns train goes from from R to P P with to Q with a speed a speed u/2. What w km/h, is the then average from speed Q to R (in (QR km/h)of = 2PQ) the with train a speed for the 3 entire km/h, and journey starting from P and back to P? 

A 18u/23 

B 4u/3

C 16u/3

D 3u/2

Answer: A 

 

English 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.76 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. GAUNT 

A lean 

B bent 

C plump 

D old 

Answer: C 

 

Q.77 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. The little boy was so busy playing with his toy train that he do not even look up at us. 

A busy playing with 

B he do not even 

C his toy train 

D look up at us 

Answer: B 

 

Q.78 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

A. Baskets and carts flooded the street turning it into a mobile market. 

B. Hearing their cries people with bags started coming out from their ho uses. 

C. Suddenly the street came alive. 

D. From one end to the other cries of the vendors rent the air. 

A CADB 

B ABDC 

C DACB 

D CBAD 

Answer: A 

 

Q.79 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. After going through their brochure I has decided to make a donation to help their campaign. 

A I decided to make a donation to help 

B No improvement 

C I decide to make a donation for helping 

D I decided for making a donation to help 

Answer: A 

 

Q.80 Select the wrongly spelt word. 

A opulence 

B oppression 

C oppurtunity 

D opposition 

Answer: C 

 

Q.81 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom in a nutshell 

A add nuts into something 

B put everything in a shell 

C packed very tightly 

D express very briefly 

Answer: D 

 

Q.82 Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence. Mahesh said to the interviewer, “Sir, I was in charge of the production unit at my previous office.” 

A Mahesh told the interviewer that Sir was in charge of the production unit at my previous office. 

B Mahesh told the interviewer I was in charge of the production unit at his previous office. 

C Mahesh told the interviewer you were in charge of the production unit at my previous office. 

D Mahesh told the interviewer that he had been in charge of the production unit at his previous office. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.83 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. A fresh interest rate cut by the Reserve Bank of India would largely ______ on how the monsoon turns out in the months ahead. 

A depend 

B determine 

C define 

D demonstrate 

Answer: A 

 

Q.84 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order. 

A. Today flax is used to make fine linen fabric. 

B. The Neolithic man first clad himself with an imal skins. 

C. He also used flax which had a good fibre for making clo th. 

D. But in those days cloth made of flax must have been very ro ugh. 

A CADB 

B BDAC 

C DABC 

D BCDA 

Answer: D 

 

Q.85 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word. VIRULENT 

A dangerous 

B amicable 

C lethal 

D powerful 

Answer: B 

 

Q.86 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. be an open book 

A one about whom it is easy to know everything 

B one who advises others to be frank and unsecretive 

C one who is fond of reading even when travelling 

D one who has written an examination without preparation 

Answer: A 

 

Q.87 Select the correctly spelt word. 

A tantative 

B substentive 

C remunerative 

D speculetive 

Answer: C 

 

Q.88 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words A game in which no one wins 

A conquest 

B draw 

C triumph 

D feat 

Answer: B 

 

Q.89 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. The government has adopted a tough stance with respect of terror and security. 

A in respect of 

B about respect to 

C No improvement 

D with respect to 

Answer: D 

 

Q.90 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. We will use enamel paint on this wall because it gives a best finish. 

A enamel paint on this wall 

B We will use 

C a best finish 

D because it gives 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. 

Comprehension: With the groundwater table receding alarmingly, an ostrich mentality will only increase water woes. Deficit rainfall (1) ______ indiscriminate extraction of ground water (2) ______ two major reasons for (3) ______ situation. Government must promote (4) ______ harvesting and conservation. Citizens must (5) ______ learn to use water judiciously or else the State will run out of water like Cape Town. 

Q.91 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1. 

A and 

B but 

C unless 

D also 

Answer: A 

 

Q.92 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2. 

A was 

B be 

C is 

D are 

Answer: D 

 

Q.93 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3. 

A the 

B those 

C a 

D their 

Answer: A 

 

Q.94 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4. 

A crop 

B seed 

C soil 

D water 

Answer: D 

 

Q.95 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5. 

A although 

B already 

C anyhow 

D also 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.96 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words A strong and fast moving stream of water 

A rivulet 

B creek 

C torrent 

D trickle 

Answer: C 

 

Q.97 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. The pilgrims grew increasingly aware of the ______ of sacred Buddhist texts in the Chinese language and decided to travel to India in search of them. 

A persistence 

B parity 

C preference 

D paucity 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

Q.98 MINIATURE 

A diminutive 

B mammoth 

C colossal 

D gigantic 

Answer: A 

 

Q.99 CAMOUFLAGE 

A exhibit 

B disguise 

C divulge 

D expose 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.100 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence. The cyclone has damaged several crops. 

A Several crops are being damaged by the cyclone. 

B Several crops had been damaged by the cyclone. 

C Several crops have been damaged by the cyclone. 

D Several crops have damaged the cyclone. 

Answer: C 

SSC CGL Tier-II 11 September 2019 English Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL  ENGLISH

 Tier-II (11 Sept 2019)  

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.1 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. causing great damage or suffering 

A Catastrophic 

B Spasmodic 

C Catatonic 

D Chasm 

Answer: A 

 

Q.2 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. They also believe that one must not hold on to things if one doesn’t use them and love them anymore. 

B. Finally it’s a very good idea to give the things to someone who can and will use them.

C. They further advise that one can begin the process of decluttering by first checking if the things one wishes to give away are still usable and valuable. 

D. Minimalists believe that clutter causes a lot of stress and wastes precious space. 

A DCBA 

B ABDC 

C DACB 

D CADB 

Answer: C 

 

Q.3 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. Why should always we have to wait for her to join us? 

A for her to join her 

B Why should 

C always we 

D have to wait 

Answer: C 

 

Q.4 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. The priest said to me, “You have committed a cardinal sin.” 

A The priest told me that I had committed a cardinal sin. 

B The priest is saying I have committed a cardinal sin. 

C The priest said if I will be committing a cardinal sin. 

D The priest told me I am committing a cardinal sin. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.5 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. Two children were shot dead by a psychopath during the California music festival. 

A Two children were being shot dead by a psychopath during the California music festival. 

B Two children are shot dead by a psychopath during the California music festival. 

C A psychopath during the California music festival was shooting dead two children. 

D A psychopath shot dead two children during the California music festival. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.6 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Her mother said, “We must have a party to celebrate your promotion.” 

A Her mother said that they must have a party to celebrate her promotion. 

B Her mother said she had been planning a party for celebrating her promotion. 

C Her mother says that they should plan a party to celebrate her promotion. 

D Her mother told that they would be having a party to celebrate her promotion. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.7 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. Somebody feeds the stray dog daily. 

A Daily somebody has fed the stray dog. 

B The stray dog was fed daily. 

C The stray dog is fed daily by somebody. 

D The stray dog will be fed daily. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.8 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. As soon as she was given the slippers, she broke into a dance strutting around in her first ever pair of slippers. 

B. This story may seem strange but it is a fact that, in many villages of India, people don’t have anything to put on their feet. 

C. Goonj , a leading NGO of India, runs a Cloth for Work Scheme and gives clothes and useful items in exchange for work done. 

D. Recently, as part of the scheme, an old lady in a Madhya Pradesh village was given a pair of slippers. 

A DACB 

B CABD 

C CDAB 

D DBAC 

Answer: C 

 

Q.9 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. She is a very good sprinter. I can’t run as fast as she does. 

A no improvement 

B like she is doing 

C as she doing 

D as she do 

Answer: A 

 

Q.10 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. The home then was a bungalow, single storied and bounded by walls. 

B. He states that in the early 1950’s houses in most cities relied on the bungalow model. 

C. According to Gautam Bhatia ,a leading architect we need to bring about a radical change in our model of housing. 

D. Sadly ,nearly 70years later after a 100-fold increase in city population, density and land value we still persist on the same outmoded model 

A CBAD 

B CDAB 

C DBAC 

D CDBA 

Answer: A 


Q.11 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. But today adults as well as a growing number of young parents are cutting down on intake of sugar. 

B. Until about two decades ago, becoming careful about sugar was only for diabetics. 

C. Thus going zero on sugar is fast becoming a popular trend for all. 

D. Before joining this trend doctors advise that we all need to find out whether all sugars are harmful. 

A BACD 

B CDAB 

C ABDC 

D DBAC 

Answer: A 

 

Q.12 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. Unfortunately this resulted in his going to jail. 

B. As a child he always landed in trouble. 

C. Louis Armstrong was a famous jazz musician. 

D. Once he found a pistol and fired it in the street. 

A CBAD 

B CBDA 

C BCAD 

D DABC 

Answer: B 

 

Q.13 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The car cleaner expressed his inability to continue cleaning my car from 1st July due to his ______ . 

A ill feeling 

B ill health 

C disease 

D disorder 

Answer: B 

 

Q.14 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. A strong feeling of dislike towards someone or something. 

A sympathy 

B telepathy 

C antipathy 

D empathy 

Answer: C 

 

Q.15 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. She is a great cook, has her own blog on YouTube and was followed by one lakh viewers. 

A She is 

B a great cook 

C has her own blog 

D was followed 

Answer: D 

 

Q.16 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. My uncle said, “Just my luck! I’ve missed the bus again.” 

A My uncle exclaimed that he was unlucky as he had missed the bus again. 

B My uncle said he was lucky as he had missed the bus again. 

C My uncle exclaimed that he is once again lucky to miss the bus. 

D My uncle says that he is unlucky as he has missed the bus again. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.17 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Kiran said, “I will reach Patna tomorrow morning.” 

A Kiran said that she will reach Patna tomorrow morning. 

B Kiran says that she will reach Patna tomorrow morning. 

C Kiran said that I will reach Patna the next morning. 

D Kiran said that she would reach Patna the next morning. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.18 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. The Prime Minister holding is the important meeting to review the security and safety of doctors working in government hospitals. 

A of doctors 

B working in 

C to review 

D holding is the 

Answer: D 

 

Q.19 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in the context) to fill in the sentence. Making the final paper was a really difficult task but by the end of the week, I was able to ______ . 

A bark up the wrong tree 

B wrap my head around it 

C cry my eyes out 

D run out of steam 

Answer: B 


Q.20 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. His death was a cause of great speculation. 

B. Edgar Allan Poe was a famous American author. 

C. Within a few days of being found, he died mysteriously on Oct 7, 1849. 

D. He had gone missing on October 3, 1849 and was found a few days later. 

A CDBA 

B BADC 

C BCDA 

D DBCA 

Answer: B 

 

Q.21 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. To express in an unclear way 

A eloquent 

B garbled 

C lucid 

D Intelligible 

Answer: B 

 

Q.22 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The sky is quite overcast. We’re ______ to have rain today. 

A likely 

B mostly 

C surely 

D probably 

Answer: A 

 

Q.23 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. When my friend suggested going to the mall for lunch, I agreed ______ . 

A at once 

B at large 

C at most 

D at ease 

Answer: A 

 

Q.24 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. This record of migration is one of the greatest natural events on earth. 

B. Each Autumn, millions of Monarch butterflies leave their breeding grounds in US and Canada. 

C. The migration of the Monarch butterfly is an amazing phenomenon. 

D. They travel over 3000 miles to reach their winter habitat in Mexico. 

A ADBC 

B CBDA 

C DCBA 

D ABDC 

Answer: B 

 

Q.25 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. Next, step by step from the shallow waters you are gradually guided to dive in safe areas. 

B. This ‘dry’ lesson is followed by wearing the gear and then entering shallow waters to practice basic scuba diving skills. 

C. The Discover Scuba Diving tour starts with a 30 minute lesson on teaching basic skills outside water. 

D. Finally, what is most reassuring about the whole tour is that your instructor is always by your side to monitor you ill the end of the session. 

A CABD 

B ABDC 

C ABCD 

D CBAD 

Answer: D 


Q.26 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. The airline official said, “We are extremely sorry that the flight has been delayed due to heavy floods.” 

A The airline official announced the airline is extremely sorry that the flight will be delayed due to heavy floods. 

B The airline official announces they are extremely sorry that the flight has been delayed due to heavy floods. 

C The airline official announced that they were extremely sorry that the flight had been delayed due to heavy floods. 

D The airline official announced that we are extremely sorry that the flight has been delayed due to heavy floods. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.27 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. If you wishes to participating at the National level games you’ll have to start getting coaching immediately. 

A wish to participating 

B wished for participating 

C wish to participate 

D no improvement 

Answer: C 

 

Q.28 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. Popular monuments will be kept open till 9 p.m. 

A They had kept popular monuments open till 9 p.m. 

B They are keeping popular monuments open till 9 p.m. 

C They will keep popular monuments open till 9 p.m. 

D They will be keeping popular monuments open till 9 p.m. 

Answer: C

 

Q.29 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. Last evening my friend tells me the funny joke that I have ever heard. 

A that I have 

B ever heard 

C tells me the funny joke 

D Last evening my friend 

Answer: C 

 

Q.30 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. You have been so unwell! How you feeling now? 

A you is feeling 

B you are feeling 

C No improvement 

D are you feeling 

Answer: D 

 

Q.31 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. something happening by chance in a happy and beneficial way 

A serenity 

B serendipity 

C misadventure 

D fortitude 

Answer: B 

 

Q.32 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. Despite this, he was very good at delegating work. 

B. No wonder his films were universally acclaimed. 

C. A Satyajit Ray film was solely his film. 

D. Even after delegation, he was involved in every aspect of the film. 

A DACB 

B CDBA 

C CADB 

D ABDC 

Answer: C 

 

Q.33 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given lacking in variety and interest 

A monotonous 

B fresh 

C exclamatory 

D vibrant 

Answer: A 

 

Q.34 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. I am going to see a play tomorrow evening. 

A seeing 

B no improvement 

C to saw 

D to seeing 

Answer: B 

 

Q.35 Pick a word opposite in meaning to optimistic. 

A energetic 

B pessimistic 

C idealistic 

D realistic 

Answer: B 

 

Q.36 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Rita said, “I’m not feeling well.” 

A Rita said that she was not feeling well. 

B Rita said she will not be feeling well. 

C Rita said she is not feeling well. 

D Rita says that I’m not feeling well. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.37 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in the context) to fill in the sentence. Suman really has ______. She moved to a new house just a month back but already has a lovely garden. 

A a heart of gold 

B a bad hair day 

C a foot in the door 

D green fingers 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions Read the following passage and fill in each blank with words chosen from options given. 

Comprehension: As he started his speech, Harsh was aware that people were listening to him quite (1) ______ . Things seemed to be going quite well. (2) ______ , halfway through the talk, he saw his friend, Ravi look ( 3) ______ his pal Sunil, roll his eyes and whisper in his ear. Harsh (4) ______ understood that Ravi ,who had been upset ever since his promotion, was now (5) ______ disturbance intentionally. 

Q.38 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1. 

A intently 

B smoothly 

C evenly 00

D clearly 

Answer: A 

 

Q.39 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2. 

A Wherever 

B Whenever 

C Moreover 

D However 

Answer: D 

 

Q.40 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3. 

A at 

B opposite 

C through 

D in 

Answer: A 

 

Q.41 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4 

A immediately 

B keenly 

C urgently 

D cleverly 

Answer: A 

 

Q.42 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5. 

A created 

B create 

C creates 

D creating 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.43 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. When I was a child I do not like going out to play in the park. 

A did not like 

B don’t likes 

C no improvement 

D did not liked 

Answer: A 

 

Q.44 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. Something causing shock or dismay 

A frivolous 

B appalling 

C mischievous 

D remarkable 

Answer: B 

 

Q.45 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. My guests doesn’t wanted to eat anything since they weren’t hungry after the party. 

A didn’t want to eat 

B didn’t wanted to eat 

C don’t wants to eat 

D no improvement 

Answer: A 

 

Q.46 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. Please switch on all the lights in the room as it’s getting very dark now. 

A as it were getting 

B no improvement 

C as it was getting 

D when it will get 

Answer: B 

 

Q.47 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. One of the crocodiles was four feet long and almost six years old. 

B. Post this announcement a video of a crocodile attacking a dog has gone viral causing people to panic further. 

C. The authorities have announced that more crocodiles would be sighted once the waters recede. 

D. After the monsoon deluge the Forest Department of Vadodara has so far rescued three crocodiles which had swum into residential areas. 

A BDAC 

B ADBC 

C DACB 

D DCAB 

Answer: C 

 

Q.48 Identify the word that is mis-spelt. 

A Immediate 

B iliterate 

C implement 

D illogical 

Answer: B 

 

Q.49 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in the context) to fill in the sentence. Pallavi worked really hard for the examination and ______ to gain success. 

A struck a sour note 

B hit the bull’s eye 

C beat about the bush 

D left no stone unturned 

Answer: D 

 

Q.50 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. By how many people were you helped in your time of difficulty? 

A How many people helped you in your time of difficulty? 

B How many people were you helping in time of difficulty? 

C How many people are you helped by in your time of difficulty? 

D In your time of difficulty how many people were you helped by? 

Answer: A 

 

Q.51 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. Nobody told me Vanita was unwell. 

A I wasn’t being told by anybody that Vanita was unwell. 

B I wasn’t told by anybody that Vanita was unwell. 

C Nobody told me Vanita was being unwell. 

D Nobody tells me that Vanita was unwell. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.52 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. When Veena returned to India she had to get use driving on the left. 

A to get used to drives 

B to get used to driving 

C No improvement 

D to getting use to 

Answer: B 

 

Q.53 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. The birth of a girl bring great joy to Neha’s family. 

A The birth 

B of a girl 

C to Neha’s family 

D bring great joy 

Answer: D 

 

Q.54 Identify the word that is misspelt. 

A aesthetic 

B equivocal 

C catastrophy 

D ingenious 

Answer: C 

 

Q.55 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in the context) to fill in the sentence. Listen, you need to prioritize. You can’t have your ______! 

A Achilles’heel 

B heebie-jeebies 

C paint the town red 

D finger in every pie 

Answer: D 

 

Q.56 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. This summer, I’ve met down a lot of interesting people. 

A interesting people 

B I’ve met down 

C a lot of 

D This summer 

Answer: B 

 

Q.57 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The business prospect seemed quite ______ so I convinced my friend to partner with me to start the venture. 

A lucrative 

B dubious 

C flourishing 

D prosperous 

Answer: A 

 

Q.58 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. Do not take the coastal road during monsoons. 

A You are not taking the coastal road during monsoons. 

B You will not take the coastal road during monsoons. 

C Coastal road is not being taken during monsoons. 

D Coastal roads should not be taken during monsoons. 

Answer: D

 

Q.59 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. The team manager is examining the documents of all the players. 

A Examination of the documents of all the players was done by the team manager. 

B The documents of all the players are being examined by the team manager. 

C The documents of all the players the team manager is examining. 

D The team manager has been examining the documents of all the players. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.60 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. He asked me if I would like to take that apartment on rent from the next day. 

A “Would you had taken this apartment on rent from tomorrow?” he said to me. 

B “Would you have taken this apartment on rent from the next day?” he said to me. 

C “Would you like to take this apartment on rent from tomorrow?” he said to me. 

D “Would you be liking to take this apartment on rent from tomorrow?” he said to me. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.61 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in the context) to fill in the sentence. Initially I thought I could participate in the international Scholars Contest but when I saw the preparatory material I ______ . 

A missed the boat 

B hit the bull’s eye 

C got cold feet 

D made a scene 

Answer: C 

 

Q.62 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. The company gave in to the demands of the employees as it found them ______ . 

A illegal 

B irrational 

C legitimate 

D formidable 

Answer: C 

 

Q.63 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. continuing for a very long time 

A laconic 

B interim 

C concise 

D interminable 

Answer: D 

 

Q.64 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. I won’t be here next week as I’m going to Mumbai to a conference. 

A I won’t 

B be here 

C to a conference 

D as I’m going 

Answer: C 

 

Q.65 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. My daughter fell asleep while she been reading. 

A while she is reading 

B no improvement 

C while she was reading 

D whenever she has reading 

Answer: C 

 

Q.66 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. Teenagers don’t like being told what to do. 

A Being told what to do was not being liked by teenagers. 

B Teenagers should not be told what to do. 

C Being told what to do is not liked by teenagers. 

D Teenagers are not liking being told what to do. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.67 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. Its chief feature is that the reader is given the opportunity to play along and engage in the process of deduction. 

B. A whodunit is a kind of detective story made famous by Agatha Christie. 

C. Thus, along with the protagonist the reader is also involved in solving the case. 

D. As the reader goes along he/she takes note of the clues, deduces and tries to identify the criminal before the climax. 

A ABCD 

B BDAC 

C DABC 

D BADC 

Answer: D 

 

Q.68 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. The metro service is so good that one doesn’t have to wait since a few minutes. 

A beyond a few minutes 

B No improvement 

C for some few minutes 

D up to a few minutes 

Answer: A 

 

Q.69 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’- Have you any idea where is Anya? 

A where Anya were? 

B No improvement 

C where was Anya? 

D where Anya is? 

Answer: D 

 

Q.70 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. I am really bored of this movie! When was it end? 

A it end? 

B I am really bored 

C of this movie 

D When was 

Answer: D 

 

Q.71 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. I’m going to the airport to receives my friend. 

A my friend 

B to the airport 

C to receives 

D I’m going 

Answer: C 

 

Q.72 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. People are reading the articles on using plastic waste innovatively with interest. 

A The articles on innovative use of plastic waste are read with interest. 

B The articles on using plastic waste innovatively are being read with interest. 

C People have been reading the articles on using plastic waste innovatively with interest. 

D People were reading the articles on using plastic waste innovatively with interest. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.73 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “You speak such good English!” said Mary. 

A Mary exclaimed that I speak so much good English. 

B Mary told me I was speaking much good English. 

C Mary exclaimed that I spoke very good English. 

D Mary exclaimed that I was speaking very good English. 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. 

Comprehension: The four-year tiger census report, Status of Tigers in India, 2018, released by Prime Minister Narendra Modi shows numbers of the cat have increased across all landscapes. 

The Global Tiger Forum, an international collaboration of tiger-bearing countries, has set a goal of doubling the count of wild tigers by 2022. More than 80% of the world’s wild tigers are in India, and it’s crucial to keep track of their numbers. 

The total count in 2018 has risen to 2,967 from 2,226 in 2014 — an increase of 741 individuals an increase of 33%, in four years. 

This is by far the biggest increase in terms of both numbers and percentage since the four?yearly census using camera traps and the capture-mark-recapture method began in 2006. The 2018 figure has a great degree of credibility because, according to the report, as many as 2,461 individual tigers (83% of the total) have actually been photographed by trap cameras. In 2014, only 1,540 individuals (69%) were photographed. 

The tiger census is needed because the tiger sits at the peak of the food chain, and its conservation is important to ensure the well-being of the forest ecosystem. The tiger estimation exercise includes habitat assessment and prey estimation. The numbers reflect the success or failure of conservation efforts. This is an especially important indicator in a fast-growing economy like India where the pressures of development often run counter to the demands of conservation. 

Where has the tiger population increased the most? The biggest increase has been in Madhya Pradesh — a massive 218 individuals (71%) from 308 in 2014 to 526. 

However, since tigers keep moving between states, conservationists prefer to talk about tiger numbers in terms of landscapes. 

So, why have the numbers gone up? The success owes a lot to increased vigilance and conservation efforts by the Forest Department. From 28 in 2006, the number of tiger reserves went up to 50 in 2018, extending protection to larger numbers of tigers over the years. Healthy increases in core area populations eventually lead to migrations to areas outside the core; this is why the 2018 census has found tigers in newer areas. Over the years, there has been increased focus on tigers even in the areas under the territorial and commercial forestry arms of Forest Departments. 

The other important reason is increased vigilance, and the fact that organized poaching rackets have been all but crushed. According to Nitin Desai of Wildlife Protection Society of India, there has been no organized poaching by traditional gangs in Central Indian landscapes since 2013. 

The increased protection has encouraged the tiger to breed. Tigers are fast breeders when conditions are conducive. 

The rehabilitation of villages outside core areas in many parts of the country has led to the availability of more inviolate space for tigers. 

Also, because estimation exercises have become increasingly more accurate over the years, it is possible that many tigers that eluded enumerators in earlier exercises were counted this time. 

 

Q.74 The Global Tiger Forum comprises – 

A countries which have tigers. 

B National Geographic and World Wildlife Fund. 

C all countries of the United Nations. 

D America and the European Union. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.75 The biggest increase in tiger population has been between the years 

A 2014-2018 

B 2002-2006 

C 2006-2010 

D 2010-2014 

Answer: A 

 

Q.76 The year 2022 marks the target date for – 

A tripling the world tiger population. 

B tripling India’s tiger population. 

C doubling the count of world tiger population. 

D doubling the count of India’s tiger population. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.77 2018 census on the big cat has been the most reliable because? 

A it photographed 1540 tigers. 

B it photographed 83% of the tigers. 

C it photographed all living tigers of India. 

D it only uses the capture-mark-recapture method. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.78 The survival of the tiger is vital today because? 

A it is no longer a threat to the villagers’ safety. 

B it is central to the food chain and the eco system. 

C it promotes tourism in India and increases revenue. 

D it is now on the verge of extinction. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.79 Researchers refer to places where tigers are found not by states but by the term? 

A green belts 

B deep forests 

C landscapes 

D ecosystems 

Answer: C 

 

Q.80 What is the tiger population of Madhya Pradesh? 

A 28 

B 741 

C 50 

D 526 

Answer: D 

 

Q.81 Which of the following statements is not true as per the passage? 

A There are more reliable ways of data collection 

B Forest departments have become more watchful 

C The tiger reserves have increased to 100 in 2018 

D Poaching gangs have been reduced drastically 

Answer: C 

 

Q.82 What has been the impact of providing inviolate spaces for tigers? 

A The poachers have been caught in these spaces very easily. 

B The number of villagers killed by man eater tigers has increased. 

C Tiger numbers have increased due to safe breeding places. 

D Tigers have moved from Uttar Pradesh to Madhya Pradesh. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.83 Pick out a word that is similar in meaning to: CONDUCIVE 

A reclusive 

B helpful 

C unfavorable 

D hindering 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.84 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. Does an English examination begin at 10 o’clock? 

A 10 o’clock? 

B English examination 

C begin at 

D Does an 

Answer: D 

 

Q.85 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. Please give me some more time to complete the assignments. 

A You may please give me some more time to complete the assignments. 

B I am requesting you to give me some more time to complete the assignments. 

C Some more time will be given to me to complete the assignments. 

D I may please be given some more time to complete the assignments. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.86 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Rohan smiled and said that he thought Jojo liked him. 

A Rohan smiled and said he thought, “Jojo likes me!” 

B Rohan smiled and said, “I think Jojo likes me!” 

C Rohan smiled and said, “They think Jojo likes me!” 

D Rohan smiled and asked, “Do you think Jojo likes me?” 

Answer: B 

 

Q.87 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. The Inspector stopped the boy and asked where he went. 

A he had going 

B No improvement 

C he has gone 

D he was going 

Answer: D 

 

Q.88 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. I use to going for a morning walk when I was living in Dehradun. 

A living in Dehradun 

B for a morning walk 

C when I was 

D use to going 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. 

Q.89 The commander ordered his battalion to march on. 

A The commander says to his battalion, “Please march on.” 

B “March on!” the commander said to his battalion. 

C The commander says to his battalion, “March on!” 

D The commander gives his battalion order, “March on!” 

Answer: B 

 

Q.90 The lawyer says, “My client is innocent.” 

A The lawyer said that his client is innocent. 

B The lawyer says that his client is innocent. 

C The lawyer says my client was innocent. 

D The lawyer said that my client is innocent. 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions Read the following passage and fill in each blank with words chosen from options given? 

Comprehension: I was friends with the artist Bhupen Khakar. He was one of the (1) ______ human beings I have ever met. I learnt (2) ______ from him. When we were in Baroda we (3) ______ meals together all the time. I _____ (4) ______ remember how his caretaker (5) ______ family to him and he would often (6) ______ his children to school and taught _______(7) ______ mathematics. His studio was in the (8) ______ of the house and (9) ______ for anyone to come in (10) ______ at his work. 

Q.91 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1 

A Finer 

B finest 

C few 

D fine 

Answer: B 

 

Q.92 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2 

A a lot 

B the more 

C a lots 

D the less 

Answer: A 

 

Q.93 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3 

A would had 

B having had 

C has had 

D would have 

Answer: D 

 

Q.94 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4 

A still 

B until 

C never 

D alone 

Answer: A 

 

Q.95 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5 

A is 

B was 

C be 

D were 

Answer: B 

 

Q.96 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.6 

A to drop 

B dropping 

C dropped 

D drop 

Answer: D 

 

Q.97 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.7 

A those 

B their 

C they 

D them 

Answer: D 

 

Q.98 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.8 

A centering 

B centralized 

C centre 

D central 

Answer: C 

 

Q.99 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.9 

A open 

B was opening 

C opens 

D opening 

Answer: A 

 

Q.100 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.10 

A to look 

B to watch 

C looking upon 

D for looking 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.101 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. What shall we do on ourselves this evening? 

A this evening 

B on ourselves 

C What shall 

D we do 

Answer: B 

 

Q.102 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “Let’s go out for dinner. I’ve been home this whole week,” said Anna. 

A Anna said to me that we must go out for dinner as she has been home that whole week. 

B Anna told me she was wanting to go out for dinner and had been home this whole week. 

C Anna told me she is at home the whole week and would like to go out for dinner. 

D Anna suggested we go out for dinner as she had been home that whole week. 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. 

Q.103 They sealed all unauthorized farms on the highway. 

A All unauthorized farms on the highway were sealed. 

B They are sealing all unauthorized farms on the highway. 

C All unauthorized farms on the highway have sealed the authorities. 

D The authorities were sealing all unauthorized farms on the highway. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.104 Do you think that the government will accept our demands? 

A Do you think we will accept the government demands? 

B Do you think that our demands will be accepted by the government? 

C Do you think that the government is going to accept our demands? 

D Do you think that our demands have been accepted by the government? 

Answer: B 

 

Q.105 How many languages are spoken in India? 

A How many languages did the Indians speak? 

B How many languages are Indians speaking? 

C How many languages do people in India speak? 

D People have been speaking how many languages in India? 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.106 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in the context) to fill in the sentence. In my parents’ time, we mostly ate at home and family outings happened ______ . 

A once in a blue moon 

B behind the back 

C in fine feather 

D shoulder to shoulder 

Answer: A 

 

Q.107 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “Go on, apply for the job,” said my best friend. 

A My best friend says I should go off and apply for the job. 

B My best friend had said to me to go on and apply for the job. 

C My best friend encouraged me to apply for the job. 

D You should apply for the job my best friend said. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.108 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. These tribes believe that they can communicate with dead ancestors only through this language. 

B. Today, linguists call such a language an “isolated” language. 

C. Zuni is a language spoken only by the Zuni tribes. 

D. It is remarkable that these tribes have been able to preserve their language. 

A BCDA 

B ADCB 

C CADB 

D DABC 

Answer: C 

 

Q.109 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. High interest rates are alarming automobile dealers. 

A Automobile dealers is being alarmed by high interest rates. 

B High interest rates has been alarmed by automobile dealers. 

C High interest rates have alarmed automobile dealers. 

D Automobile dealers are being alarmed by high interest rates. 

Answer: D

 

Q.110 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “You should lock your car as there have been some instances of theft,” said Anil. 

A There have been instances of theft so I should lock my car was told to me by Anil. 

B Anil advised me that I should lock my car as there had been some instances of theft. 

C There have been some instances of theft so I should have locked my car said Anil. 

D Anil said he must lock his car because there were some instances of theft. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.111 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. Instead of studying in home I went to my friend’s house. 

A in home 

B I went 

C Instead of studying 

D to my friend’s house. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.112 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given Impossible to satisfy 

A palatable 

B insatiable 

C insane 

D magnanimous 

Answer: B 

 

Q.113 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “I’m so sorry! I totally forgot about the meeting,” he said. 

A He is being sorry for having totally forgotten about the meeting. 

B He apologized and said he had totally forgotten about the meeting. 

C He was so sorry that he had forgot totally about the meeting. 

D Having forgotten totally about the meeting he is very sorry. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.114 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. I couldn’t visit my aunt as there were the traffic jam due to an accident. 

A no improvement 

B are a traffic jam 

C were a traffic jam 

D was a traffic jam 

Answer: D 

 

Q.115 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. We have written all the library rules on the notice-board. 

A All the library rules have been written on the notice-board. 

B All the library rules were written on the notice-board. 

C All the library rules are being written on the notice-board. 

D We are writing all the library rules on the notice-board. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.116 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. The Queen said to the ministers, “Cut off the prisoner’s head!” 

A The Queen ordered the ministers to cut off the prisoner’s head. 

B Screaming at the ministers the Queen is ordering to cut off the prisoner’s head. 

C The prisoner’s head would be cut off screamed the queen to the ministers. 

D The Queen told the ministers that to cut off the prisoner’s head. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.117 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. We waited till 10 pm for our guests but they never turned up. 

A was waiting 

B no improvement 

C have been waited 

D are waiting 

Answer: B 

 

Q.118 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in the context) to fill in the sentence. That student of yours has such sound values. She’s indeed a ______ . 

A rare bird 

B barrel of laughs 

C pain in the neck 

D pot calling the kettle black 

Answer: A 

 

Q.119 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. 

Mother said, “Sonam, don’t throw tantrums.” 

A Mother warns Sonam not to throw tantrums. 

B Mother said that Sonam is not to throw tantrums. 

C Mother told Sonam not to throw tantrums. 

D Mother says to Sonam not to throw tantrums. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.120 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. The most helpful thing you can do is to hold someone’s hand when they most need it.

B. Also, jotting down notes for your seniors on ward rounds is probably not the most important thing. 

C. My first year as a doctor in U.K. is over and this is what I have learnt. 

D. No matter what anyone tells you, writing that urgent discharge summary is not the most important thing you will do today. 

A DBAC 

B CDBA 

C ABDC 

D CBAD 

Answer: B 

 

Q.121 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. He likes to put all the garbage ino a black small bag . 

A into a 

B all the garbage 

C He like to put 

D black small bag 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions Read the following passage and fill in each blank with words chosen from options given: 

Comprehension: One can soon feast (1) ______ eyes on Humayun’s Tomb (2) ______ Safdarjung Tomb at night, with the government deciding to keep 10 heritage (3) ______ open to the (4) ______ from sunrise (5) ______ 9 p.m. The announcement was made (6) ______ morning by the Union Minister for Culture and (7) ______ . Currently, most monuments (8) ______ for visitors at 6pm.The change in timings (9) ______ effective for a period (10) ______ 3 years. 

Q.122 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1 

A her’s 

B ours 

C one’s 

D theirs 

Answer: C 

 

Q.123 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2 

A therefore 

B both 

C by 

D and 

Answer: D 

 

Q.124 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 3 

A building 

B monument 

C apartments 

D monuments 

Answer: D 

 

Q.125 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4 

A peoples 

B mob 

C public 

D residents 

Answer: C 

 

Q.126 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5 

A in 

B by 

C for 

D till 

Answer: D 

 

Q.127 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.6. 

A this 

B then 

C those 

D that 

Answer: A 

 

Q.128 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.7 

A Tour 

B Tourist 

C Tourists 

D Tourism 

Answer: D 

 

Q.129 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 8 

A close 

B was closed 

C having closed 

D was being closed 

Answer: A 

 

Q.130 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 9 

A will be 

B has been 

C will have been 

D would have been 

Answer: A 

 

Q.131 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No. 10 

A about 

B into 

C through 

D of 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow: 

Comprehension: A few years ago it seemed as if the moment for stand-up comedy had arrived. By the end of 2017, stand-up comedians were on the cover of a magazine, signaling the coming of age of the industry. 

The stand-up game attracted investors in the right places: on platforms like Netflix and Amazon Prime, apart from increasing open mic schedules in venues across cities. Two major companies Comedy Store and Canvas Laugh Club arrived on the scene and were game changers. 

But despite a heady start, the comic landscape has changed drastically today with stand- up comedians feeling the brunt of faltering payments and cancelled shows. Despite a good start, the Indian stand-up industry is still unorganized and uncertain for comics. 

If you ask viral comic Kunal Kamra about the scene, he says that the audience isn’t really ‘invested’ in the art form at the moment and that only ten or twenty tickets would sell if comics weren’t on the internet promoting themselves. And this is despite the surge in open mics and more stand-ups coming in. 

Last year, new-age Indian comedy’s reputation came under strain when allegations under the #MeToo movement exposed a darker side of the circuit. Since then, the big three comedy groups: All India Bakchod, SNG Comedy and East India Comedy, have either disbanded or had founding members quit. 

Jeeya Sethi, a leading comedian says, “It’s a good thing that these -collectives have died because they mostly had men with no women being showcased.” 

Sethi adds saying that it isn’t as easy as it sounds. “In a fledgling industry, a viral YouTube video isn’t a sign that you’ve made it”. Craft takes time. Every comic who does two open mics calls himself a comedian. In my opinion, you have to do comedy for more than 20 years to be a comic. It takes at least five years to find your voice.” 

 

Q.132 By saying ‘the audience has not invested in the stand-up comedy art form’ the author means that? 

A the audience prefers to watch only women comedians. 

B it is a new art form and it will take time to build an audience. 

C the audience don’t wish to develop a sense of humour. 

D there are faltering payments and cancelled shows. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.133 The stand-up comedy show had a wonderful start because- 

1. Open mic shows were held in venues across cities. 

2. Leading companies came forward to support artists. 

3. Payments to artists were prompt and good. 

4. Some Bollywood directors offered them roles. 

5. Comedians were given good media coverage. 

A 3, 4 & 5 

B 1, 2 & 5 

C 2, 4 & 5 

D 2, 3 & 4 

Answer: B 

 

Q.134 Select the word which means the same as ‘fledgling’ in the given context. 

A a nervous person who frets a lot 

B a fairly new company or industry 

C a mature person who performs well 

D a successful and established venture 

Answer: B 

 

Q.135 How has the situation been reversed from the early success of stand-up comedy? 

A SNG Comedy and East India Comedy support the comedians. 

B Comedians are being offered double the price asked by them. 

C Comedy Store and Canvas Laugh Club are offering bigger platforms to comedians. 

D Comedy groups are packing up and founders are resigning. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.136 Sethi believes that- 

1. The road to success is only through YouTube. 

2. A a viral YouTube video is a sign of success. 

3. Comedy is an art form and takes hard work and patience. 

4. The true comic artist takes years to find one’s voice. 

A 1 & 3 

B 2 & 4 

C 1 & 2 

D 3 & 4 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.137 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. Ravi can’t come to the meeting as he was not well. 

A couldn’t came 

B could come 

C couldn’t come 

D no improvement 

Answer: C 

 

Q.138 Find a word that is the synonym of Philanthropist. 

A humanitarian 

B philosopher 

C humanist 

D misant 

Answer: A 

 

Q.139 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. These houses which were built 20 years ago are now in need of repairs. 

A which can built 

B no improvement 

C which was build 

D who was built 

Answer: B

 

Q.140 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. Splendid and expensive-looking 

A sumptuous 

B peculiar 

C curious 

D malicious 

Answer: A 

 

Q.141 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence.If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. Don’t stay in school after 2 p.m. All the teachers have been leaving by then. 

A are leave 

B will have left 

C must left 

D No improvement 

Answer: B 

 

Q.142 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. I have an invite from a friend to visit the Canada and United States next month. 

A no improvement 

B to Canada or the united states 

C to the Canada and United States 

D Canada and the United States 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. 

Q.143 Reena said, “What a lovely scene! I wish I could stay here forever!” 

A Reena said with happiness that was a lovely scene. She wishes to stay there forever. 

B Reena exclaimed that it was a lovely scene. She further wished that she could stay there forever. 

C Reena says this is a lovely scene. I wish I could stay there forever. 

D Reena said what a lovely scene! She wished she could stay here forever. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.144 My grandfather wished that God should give me success in my new venture. He further said that his prayers would always be with me. 

A My grandfather says to me, “God might give you success in your new venture! My prayers are always going to be with you.” 

B My grandfather said to me, “Maybe God will give you success in your new venture! My prayers would always be with you.” 

C My grandfather wished to me, “May God give to you success in your new venture! My prayers are always with you.” 

D My grandfather said to me, “May God give you success in your new venture! My prayers will always be with you.” 

Answer: D 

 

Q.145 The salesman said to me, “All the gift items are new. We received this consignment yesterday.” 

A The salesman informed me that all the gift items were new. He further said they had received that consignment the day before. 

B The salesman informed to me about all the gift items that they were new. They received that consignment the day before. 

C The salesman told me that all the gift items are new. He further said we received this consignment yesterday. 

D The salesman said to me that all the gift items are new. We received that consignment yesterday. 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.146 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. Seeming reasonable 

A plausible 

B permeable 

C versatile 

D volatile 

Answer: A 

 

Q.147 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. Whenever we go out we spend a lot money on food. 

A much of 

B most of 

C a lot of 

D no improvement 

Answer: C 

 

Q.148 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A In those allotted minutes the directors have the freedom to interpret the segments in their own unique way. 

B The play has been divided into segments of 10 minutes each by the directors. 

C Eight young directors, over 50 actors and one landmark play-Hayavadana. 

D This unique collaboration is a tribute to the playwright Girish Karnad. 

A BACD 

B CDBA 

C ADBC 

D CABD 

Answer: B 

 

Q.149 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. An apple carries about 100 million useful bacteria. 

A About 100 million useful bacteria are being carried by an apple. 

B An apple will carry about 100 million useful bacteria. 

C The useful bacteria to be carried in an apple is about 100 million. 

D About 100 million useful bacteria are carried by an apple. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.150 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. High level security arrangements were made for the forthcoming visit to a Japanese Prime Minister. 

A security arrangements 

B were made 

C for the forthcoming 

D visit to a 

Answer: D 

 

Q.151 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. Preparations are being made for our Annual fest. 

A We are making preparations for our Annual fest. 

B We have made preparations for our Annual fest. 

C Preparations were being made for our Annual fest. 

D Our Annual fest preparations are made. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.152 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. My student,a doctor by profession, preferring to walk to the hospital everyday. 

A preferring walking 

B no improvement 

C prefers to walk 

D prefer to walking 

Answer: C 

 

Q.153 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. The teacher said to Rana, “Have you completed the project?” 

A The teacher asked Rana that if Rana has completed the project. 

B The teacher asks Rana have you completed the project. 

C The teacher asked Rana whether he had completed the project. 

D The teacher asks Rana will you complete the project. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.154 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Sonia says, “I love the monsoons.” 

A Sonia said that she loved the monsoons. 

B Sonia says that she loves the monsoons. 

C Sonia says that she is loving the monsoons. 

D Sonia said that she was loving the monsoons. 

Answer: B 

 

Instructions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. 

Comprehension: According to a new American study headed by Dr. Willis, it has been found that people who exercise in the morning seem to lose more weight than people completing the same workouts later in the day. 

These findings help shed light on the vexing issue of why some people shed considerable weight with exercise and others almost none. The study adds to the growing body of science suggesting that the timing of various activities, including exercise, could affect how those activities affect us. 

The relationship between exercise and body weight is somewhat befuddling. Multiple past studies show that a majority of people who take up exercise to lose weight drop fewer pounds than would be expected, given how many calories they are burning during their workouts. Some gain weight. But a few respond quite well, shedding pound after pound with the same exercise regimen that prompts others to add inches. 

The Midwest Trial 2, was conducted in the University of Kansas, U.S. on how regular, supervised exercise influences body weight. The trial involved 100 overweight, previously inactive young men and women who were made to work out five times a week at a physiology lab, jogging or otherwise sweating until they had burned up to 600 calories per session. 

After 10 months of this regimen, almost everyone had dropped pounds. But the extent of their losses fluctuated wildly, even though everyone was doing the same, supervised workout. A team of researchers started brainstorming what could be responsible for the enormous variability in the weight loss. 

They hit upon activity timing. They decided to do a Follow -up study of the Mid West Trial 2. In this new study,the Mid West Trial 2 Follow up study the researchers now studied a team of participants who could visit the gym whenever they wished between 7 a.m. and 7 p.m. They also tracked everyone’s calorie intakes and daily movement habits throughout the 10 months. They knew, too, whether and by how much people’s weights had changed. Now, they checked weight change against exercise schedules and quickly noticed a consistent pattern. 

Those people who usually worked out before noon had lost more weight, on average, than the men and women who typically exercised after 3 p.m. The researchers uncovered a few other, possibly relevant differences between the morning and late-day exercisers. The early-exercise group tended to be slightly more active throughout the day, taking more steps in total than those who worked out later. They also ate less. These factors may cumulatively have contributed to the striking differences in how many pounds people lost, Dr. Willis says. 

Thus it seems that people who worked out before noon lost more weight, on average, than those who typically exercised after 3 p.m. But Dr. Willis also points out that most of those who worked out later in the day did lose weight, even if not as much as the larkish exercisers, and almost certainly became healthier. “I would not want anyone to think that it’s not worth exercising if you can’t do it first thing in the morning,” he says. “Any exercise, at any time of day, is going to be better than none.” 

Q.155 The Mid West Trail 2 was a 

A A European study on 100 participants who exercised 7 times a week and burnt 800 calories. 

B Canadian study on 500 participants who exercised 6 times a week and burnt 600 calories. 

C U.S based study on 100 participants who exercised 5 times a week and burnt 600 calories 

D U.S based study on 100 participants who exercised 3 times a week and burnt 300 calories. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.156 The Mid West Trial 2 duration was – 

A 12 months 

B 6 months 

C 18 months 

D 10 months 

Answer: D 

 

Q.157 Select the option that is not true as per the passage. Several studies show that as a result of the workout- 

A the majority lost a little weight. 

B a few had the desired weight loss. 

C some gained some weight. 

D most gained a lot of weight. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.158 What was the difference between the Mid West Trial 2 study and the Mid West Trial 2 Follow-up study that was taken up later? 

A The duration of the follow up study was longer. 

B The calorie intake and the time of exercise were examined. 

C Participants of the study stayed in the premises. 

D Face to face interviews were conducted. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.159 The finding of the Mid West Trial 2 Follow- up study was that the best time for exercise was- 

A noon to 3 p.m. 

B between 3-7 p.m. 

C before noon. 

D 7 p.m. onwards. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.160 Select the option which is not true. The successful weight losers in the Mid West Trial 2 Follow-up study ____________ 

A remained active. 

B slept more. 

C walked more. 

D ate less. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.161 Select the correct option. By ‘larkish exercisers’ the writer refers to people who- 

A love to see the lark in the morning. 

B like to exercise late with the larks. 

C like to sing in the morning. 

D exercise in the morning. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.162 Find one word which means the same as the following. a set of rules about food and diet that someone follows 

A catalogue 

B regiment 

C regimen 

D fundamental 

Answer: C 

 

Q.163 Find one word in the passage which means the same as ‘confusing’. 

A brainstorming 

B vexing 

C befuddling 

D striking 

Answer: C 

 

Q.164 What would Dr. Willis say to someone who has given up exercising because they cannot do so in the morning? 

A Exercise is good only in the morning. 

B Exercise only with a trainer. 

C Any exercise is better than none. 

D Evening is the worst time to exercise. 

Answer: C 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.165 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in the context) to fill in the sentence. Colleges cannot ______ to ragging because of the Anti Ragging Act. 

A turn a blind eye 

B add fuel to the fire 

C look forward 

D look someone in the eye 

Answer: A 

 

Q.166 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. I had a hard time paying the driver as I had only hundreds rupee note. 

A paying the driver 

B only hundreds rupee note 

C I had a hard time 

D as I had 

Answer: B 

 

Q.167 Identify the word that is misspelt. 

A Miscellaneous 

B Umbilical 

C Prophesy 

D Accomodation 

Answer: D 

 

Q.168 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in the context) to fill in the sentence. During the staff meeting there was a lot of ruckus since many didn’t ______ with the authorities. 

A see eye to eye 

B put their best foot forward 

C put their foot down 

D move up in the world 

Answer: A 

 

Q.169 Pick a word opposite in meaning to Predecessor. 

A processor 

B lessor 

C oppressor 

D successor 

Answer: D 

 

Q.170 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. Furthermore, make sure that you give some vivid details of the city making it as real as you can. 

B. For example, if it begins in a city, give details about the city. 

C. First of all make it as specific as possible. 

D. While writing a story or a novel the setting is very important. 

A DCBA 

B CABD 

C ACBD 

D DABC 

Answer: A 

 

Q.171 Select the most appropriate idiom ( in the context) to fill in the sentence. I could make out that the conversation was leading to a fight so I ______ . 

A nipped it in the bud 

B cut corners 

C killed two birds with a stone 

D made a song and a dance 

Answer: A 

 

Q.172 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. Therefore, I firmly believe that this curriculum be extended to all schools. 

B. I believe that India as a country needs the happiness curriculum. 

C. They are a dejected lot and will definitely benefit from this curriculum. 

D. It is really needed for the younger generation. 

A ABDC 

B BCAD 

C BDCA 

D CDAB 

Answer: C 

 

Q.173 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. I had to go to the doctor because I was not bear the pain in my tooth. 

A had to go 

B in my tooth 

C to the doctor 

D was not bear 

Answer: D 

 

Q.174 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. The fear of water 

A claustrophobia 

B autophobia 

C hydrophobia 

D pyrophobia 

Answer: C 

 

Q.175 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. My boss said, “Do you think you can complete the report within five days?” 

A My boss said to me do you think I can complete the report within five days? 

B My boss asked me whether I thought I could complete the report within five days. 

C My boss said to me if I think I can complete the report within five days. 

D My boss says do you think you can complete the report within five days? 

Answer: B 

 

Q.176 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. To write a poem I need a pen, a diary and also the quiet place. 

A a diary 

B To write 

C and also the 

D I need 

Answer: C 

 

Q.177 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. I think that capitalism is not a better economic system for our country. 

A was not the good 

B is not better 

C no improvement 

D is not a good 

Answer: D 

 

Q.178 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. The play on environment issues was performed with great professionalism by our students. 

A Our students performed the play on environment issues with great professionalism. 

B Our students were to perform with great professionalism the play on environment issue. 

C Our students have been performing the play on environment issues with great professionalism. 

D The play on environment issues was being performed with great professionalism by our students. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.179 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. “Don’t overspeed at night,” I said to Irina. 

A I warned Irina not to overspeed at night. 

B Over speeding at night is not good, I said to Irina. 

C I warn to Irina not to overspeed at night. 

D I had been warning Irina not to overspeed at night. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.180 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. Therefore an advanced ambulance needs to reach the patient immediately. 

B. A cardiac arrest, as is well known, needs revival within 4 minutes. 

C. A question often asked by us in India is whether we will get timely health care in an emergency. 

D. But even in Delhi, the capital city, a patient does not get emergency care. 

A ABDC 

B BCAD 

C CDAB 

D CBAD 

Answer: D 

 

Q.181 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. My friend told me I could stay at his place in Dehradun whenever I wished. 

A My friend said, “You will be coming to stay at my place in Dehradun whenever you wish.” 

B My friend said, “If you are wishing to come to Dehradun come and stay in my place.” 

C My friend said, “You can stay at my place in Dehradun whenever you wish.’’ 

D My friend said, “You will come and be staying in my place in Dehradun whenever you wish.” 

Answer: C 

 

Q.182 Find a word that is the synonym of impoverished. 

A spendthrift 

B generous 

C wealthy 

D penniless 

Answer: D 

 

Q.183 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. I don’t like movies who has an unhappy ending. 

A who has 

B I don’t 

C like movies 

D an unhappy ending 

Answer: A 

 

Q.184 Find a word that is the synonym of Stoical. 

A ruffled 

B apathetic 

C panicky 

D equivocal 

Answer: B 

 

Q.185 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. Our home was built in 1990 by my father. 

A Our home was being built in 1990 by my father. 

B My father had built our home in 1990. 

C My father was building our home in 1990.

D My father built our home in 1990. 

Answer: D 

 

Q.186 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Mary said, “I have to be there by 10 am tomorrow.” 

A Mary says to me that she has to be there by 10 am. 

B Mary tells me she has to be there by 10 am tomorrow. 

C Mary told me that she had to be there by 10 am the next day. 

D Mary is telling me that she has to be there by 10 am tomorrow. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.187 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. But a sprig was taken and planted in one of the hills of Sri Lanka. 

B. The original tree is no longer there. 

C. That sprig grew into a tree and is called Maha Bodhi tree. 

D. Gautam Buddha attained enlightenment under a peepal tree in Bodhgaya in Bihar. 

A CABD 

B BCAD 

C ACBD 

D DBAC 

Answer: D 

 

Q.188 Identify the segment in the sentence, which contains the grammatical error. It takes me one hour to get to work in the morning in week day. 

A in week day 

B in the morning 

C takes me 

D to get to work 

Answer: A 

 

Q.189 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. Some of the Vitamin A rich sources of foods are carrots, broccoli, spinach, fish and meat. 

B. An American research study has found that Vitamin A intake can lower risk of skin cancer. 

C. It suggests that we should consume a diet with fruits and vegetables. 

D. This study has been published in JAMA Dermatology. 

A ABDC 

B BDCA 

C BADC 

D CABD 

Answer: B 

 

Q.190 Identify the best way to improve the underlined part of the given sentence. If there is no improvement required, select ‘no improvement’. It has been two years that I have see Meena. 

A since I have seen 

B No improvement 

C since I didn’t saw 

D that I saw 

Answer: A

 

Q.191 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Pick the option that gives their correct order. 

A. This lovable big cat is all ready to charm kids in a film version. 

B. ‘The Tiger who Came to Tea’ is Judith Kerr’s bestselling book,having sold 5million copies. 

C. He ends up making a delightful nuisance of himself. 

D. The story is about a tiger who pops by for tea. 

A BCAD 

B BDCA 

C CDBA 

D ACDB 

Answer: B 

 

Q.192 Choose the most appropriate option to change the voice (active / passive) form of the given sentence. I am writing a story after a long time. 

A A story after a long time was written by me. 

B A story is being written by me after a long time. 

C I have written a story after a long time. 

D A story had been written by me after a long time. 

Answer: B 

 

Q.193 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. A distinguished conductor or performer of classical music 

A maestro 

B layman 

C amateur 

D novice 

Answer: A 

 

Instructions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. 

Comprehension: The United Kingdom’s Social Mobility Commission study reports that disadvantaged children in England are being priced out of a cultural hinterland. Children aged 10-15 from low-income families are three times less likely than wealthier peers to engage in out-of-school musical activities, such as learning an instrument etc. There were also differences according to race – 4% of British Pakistani children took part in music classes, compared with 28% of Indian children and 20% of white children – and regional divides: 9% of children in north-east England played a musical instrument, compared with 22% in the south-east. 

Disadvantaged children are also more likely to miss out on extracurricular sports (football, boxing, cricket) and drama, dance and art. The commission set out recommendations, including bursaries, better funding and support for schools – let’s hope they’re taken on board. As well as the activities themselves, children are missing out on other crucial gains including confidence-building, team spirit and social skill, and are less likely to go on to higher education. 

Extracurricular activities tend to cost money, but there are also problems with a lack of availability and access, such as schools being unable to afford to run after-school clubs or stay open during holidays. Another barrier is the kids’ “fear of not fitting in”. In this sense, certain children are self-excluding from, say, learning an instrument, singing in a choir, playing cricket or acting. They decide by themselves that they’re “undeserving” of music, sport, art and drama. Unbelievably, in 2019, children as young as 10 are already hard-wired with the selflimiting poverty notion of “not for the likes of us”. 

This is heartbreaking. It’s hardly news that life is tougher for poorer children, but it’s an outrage if all sense of curiosity, artistry and playfulness is knocked out of them so early. Something is wrong if better-off children feel entitled to explore and participate in areas that interest and excite them, while the disadvantaged are cast from the start as cultural wallflowers – doomed to sit out every dance. 

This isn’t about every child learning the piano or violin (but why not?), it’s about sowing the seeds for a cultural hinterland that will sustain and enrich them for life. It’s about people exploring their passions and refusing to have their horizons artificially limited. Regardless of circumstances, all children should know that their faces “fit” – automatically and forever. Culture belongs to everyone. 

 

Q.194 The probability of a child in United Kingdom getting opportunities to engage in cultural and sports activities depends on- 

1-parental economic background 

2-whether one parent is British 

3-whether parents have a university education 

4-kind of school and funding available Of the above points which are correct 

A 1 & 4 

B 2 & 4 

C 1 & 2 

D 3 & 4 

Answer: A 

 

Q.195 According to the passage which of the following is not the correct reason- Exposure to cultural activities and sports at a young age is very important for children because it- 

A brings about differences among children. 

B leads children to explore their talents. 

C builds team spirit and social skills. 

D helps in confidence building. 

Answer: A 

 

Q.196 Pick out a phrase or a word which means the same as a group of people considered to be superior to others because of their social standing or wealth 

A disadvantaged 

B cultural wallflowers 

C hard-wired 

D elitist 

Answer: D 

 

Q.197 How will a wholesome education including arts and sports not benefit the disadvantaged? 

A Children will get exposure to arts and sports. 

B Children will no longer have the fear of not fitting in. 

C Children will have feelings of low self-esteem and self-exclusion. 

D Children will explore play and learning outside of class. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.198 According to the author, what is truly heart- breaking and damaging for the kids is that – 

A parents don’t have money to pay for any additional classes for their children. 

B teachers are told not to offer these opportunities as they are not tested. 

C schools wish to offer activities but don’t have funds. 

D children themselves feel that the activities are not fit for the likes of them. 

Answer: D 

 

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.199 Choose the most appropriate option to change the narration (direct / indirect) of the given sentence. Sumit said, “I will be leaving for London this summer so I can meet you only when I return.” 

A Sumit said he will be leaving for London this summer and he could meet him only when he returned. 

B Sumit said he will go to London this summer and he would meet me only when he will be returning. 

C Sumit said that he would be leaving for London that summer and he could meet me only when he returned. 

D Sumit said he will have gone to London that summer and could meet me only when he returned. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.200 Pick a word opposite in meaning to Lackadaisical. 

A indifferent 

B jocular 

C enthusiastic 

D lukewarm 

Answer: C 

SSC CGL Tier-II 11 September 2019 Maths Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL MATHS

Tier-II (11 Sept 2019)

Instructions For the following questions answer them individually 

Q.1 The value of is: 

A 7.8 

B 4.6 

C 8.7 

D 6.4 

Answer: D 

 

Q.2 The bar graph shows the exports of Cars of Type A and B (in ₹ millions). 

In which year, the exports of cars of type A was 10% more than the average exports (per year) of cars of type A over the five years? 

A 2015 

B 2017 

C 2014 

D 2016 

Answer: C 

 

Q.3 If sinθ = √3 cosθ,0 < θ < 90 , then the value of 2sin2 θ + sec2 θ + sinθsecθ + cosecθ is: 

A (33-10√3) /6 

B(19-10√3) /6 

C (33-10√3) /3 

D (19-10√3) /3 

Answer: A 

 

Q.4 To do a certain work, the ratio of efficiency of A to that of B is 3 : 7. Working together, they can complete the work in 10½ days. They work together for 8 days. 60% of the remaining work will be completed by A alone in 

A 5½ days 

B 5 days 

C 6½ days 

D 4 days 

Answer: B 

 

Q.5 The average of thirteen numbers is 47. The average of the tirst three numbers is 39 and that of next seven numbers is 49. The 11th number is two times the 12th number and 12th number is 3 less then the 13th number. What is the average of 11th and 13th numbers? 

A 54.5 

B 57 

C 56 

D 55.5 

Answer: B 

 

Q.6 The bar graph shows the exports of Cars of Type A and B (in ₹ millions).

What is the ratio of the total exports of cars of type A in 2014 and 2018 to the total exports of cars of type B in 2015 and 2016? 

A 11 : 10 

B 10 : 9 

C 5 : 4 

D 3 : 2 

Answer: B 

 

Q.7 If x8 − 1442x4 + 1 = 0 , then possible value of x − 1/xis: 

A 5 

B 8 

C 4 

D 6 

Answer: D 

 

Q.8 The graphs of the equations 3x + y − 5 = 0 and 2x y − 5 = 0 intersect at the point P(α,β). What is the value of (3α + β) ? 

A 4 

B -4 

C 3 

D 5

Answer: D 

 

Q.9 If √(86 − 60√2) = a b√2, then what will be the value of √(a2 + b2), correct to one decimal place? 

A 8.4 

B 8.2 

C 7.8 

D 7.2 

Answer: C 

 

Q.10 The sides AB and AC of △ABC are produced to P and Q respectively. The bisectors of ∠CBP and ∠BCQ meet at R. If the measure of ∠A is 44, then what is the measure of, ½∠BOC ? 

A  33

B  38

C  34

D  32

Answer: C 

 

Q.11 In △ABC, D is a point on side BC such that ∠ADC = ∠BAC. If CA = 12 cm, CB = 8 cm, then CD is equal to: 

A 12 cm 

B 15 cm 

C 18 cm 

D 16 cm 

Answer: C 

 

Q.12 A person marks his goods x% above the cost price and allows a discount of 30% on the marked price.If his profit is 5%. then the value of x will be: 

A 50 

B 60 

C 45 

D 35 

Answer: A 

 

Q.13 If a2 + b2 + c2 + 96 = 8(a + b − 2c) , then √(ab bc + ca) is equal to: 

A 6 

B 2√2 

C 4 

D 2√3 

Answer: C 

Q.14 A right circular cylinder of maximum volume is cut out from a solid wooden cube. The material left is what percent of the volume (nearest to an integer) of the original cube? 

A 19 

B 28 

C 23 

D 21 

Answer: D 

 

Q.15 The ratio of the volumes of two cylinders is x : y and the ratio of their diameters is a : b, What is the ratio of their heights? 

A xb : ya 

B xa : yb 

C xb2 : ya2 

D xa2 : yb2 

Answer: C 

 

Q.16 The value of the expression (cos6 θ + sin6 θ − 1)(tan2 θ + cot2 θ + 2) is: 

A 0 

B -1 

C -3 

D 1 

Answer: C 

 

Q.17 If A is 28% more than B and C is 25% less than the sum of A and B. Then by what percent will C be more than A (correct to one decimal place)? 

A 32.2% 

B 28% 

C 43% 

D 33.6% 

Answer: D 

 

Q.18 A shopkeeper bought 120 quintals of wheat. 20% of it was sold al 25% less. Al what percent gain should he sell the rest to gain 25% on the whole transaction? 

A 36½ 

B 40 

C 37½

D 35 

Answer: C 

Q.19 The value of is: 

Answer: D 

Q.20 Anu sold an article for ₹480 at some profit. Had she sold it for ₹400, then there would have been a loss equal to onethird of the initial profit. What was the cost price of the article ? 

A ₹450 

B ₹430 

C ₹425 

D ₹420 

Answer: D 

 

Q.21 In a school, ⁴/₉ of the numberof students are girls and the rest are boys. ³/₅of the number of boys are below 12 years of age and ⁵/₁₂of the number of girls are 12 years or above 12 years of age. If the number of students below 12 years of age is 480, then ⁵/₁₈of the total number of students in the school will be equal to: 

A 270 

B 315 

C 225 

D 240 

Answer: C 

 

Q.22 (2sinA)(1+sinA)/(1+sinA+cosA)is equal to: 

A 1 + sinA − cosA

B 1 − sinAcosA

C 1 + cosA − sinA

D 1 + sinAcosA

Answer: A 

 

Q.23 A and B can do a piece of work in 6 days and 8 days, respectively. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days and earned ₹1,848. What was the share of C ? 

A ₹231 

B ₹924 

C ₹462 

D ₹693 

Answer: A 

 

Q.24 If x + y + z = 11,x2 + y2 + z2 = 133 and x3 + y3 + z3 = 881, then the value of 3xyz is: 

A -6 

B 6

C -8 

D 8 

Answer: A 

 

Q.25 The given pie chart shows the breakup of total number of the employees of a company working in different offices (A, B, C, D and E). 

Total No. of employees = 2400.

What is the number of offices in which the number of employees of the company is between 350 and 650? 

A 1 

B 4 

C 2 

D 3 

Answer: D 

 

Q.26 Pipes A, B and C can fill a tank in 30 h, 40 h and 60 h respectively. Pipes A, B and C are opened at 7 a.m., 8 a.m., and 10 a.m., respectively on the same day. When will the tank be full? 

A 10.00 p.m. 

B 10.20 p.m. 

C 9.20 p.m. 

D 9.40 p.m. 

Answer: C 

 

Q.27 If the radius of a right circular cylinder is decreased by 20% while its height is increased by 40%, then the percentage change in its volume will be: 

A 1.04% increase 

B 10.4% decrease 

C No increase or decrease 

D 10.4% increase 

Answer: B 

 

Q.28 The number of students in a class is 75, out of which 33⅓% are boys and the rest are girls. The average score in mathematics of the boys 66⅔% is more than that of the girls. If the average score of all the students is 66, then the average score of the girls is: 

A 52 

B 55 

C 54 

D 58 

Answer: C

 

Q.29 A shopkeeper allows 28% discount on the marked price of an article and still makes a profit of 20%. If he gains ₹30.80 on the sale of one article, then what will be the cost price of the article? 

A ₹164 

B ₹145 

C ₹160 

D ₹154 

Answer: D 

 

Q.30 In △ABC,∠A = 52 and O is the orthocenter of the triangle (BO and CO meet AC and AB at E and F respectively when produced). If the bisectors ∠OBC of ∠OCB and meet at P, then the measure of ∠BPC is:

A 124

B 132

C 138 

D 154

Answer: D 

 

Q.31 Let a,b and c be the fractions such that a < b < c. If c is divided by a, the result is ⁵/₇, Which exceeds b by ⁷/₄. If a + b + c = 1¹¹/₂, then (c a) will be equal to: 

A ⅓

B ⅔

C ⅙

D ½

Answer: D 

Q.32 The value of is 50×10k, where the value of k is: 

A 3 

B 4 

C 2 

D -3 

Answer: A 

 

Q.33 Travelling at 60 km/h, a person reaches his destination in a certain time. He covers 60% of his journey in ⅖th of the time. At what speed (in km/h) should he travel to cover the remaining journey so that he reaches the destination right on time? 

A 40 

B 48 

C 42 

D 36 

Answer: A 

 

Q.34 Study the graph and answer the question that follows.

What is the ratio of the total number of workers whose daily wages are less than $500 to the total number of workers whose daily wages are ₹600 and above? 

A 5 : 6

B 6 : 7

C 3 : 4

D 15 : 11

Answer: A 

Q.35 The value of is: 

A 4 

B ½

C 2 

D ¼

Answer: C 

 

Q.36 If ( √2 + √5 −√3) × k = −12 k then what will be the value of ? 

A ( √2 +√5 + √3)

B ( √2 + √5 + √3)( 2 − √10)

C ( √2 + √5 − √3)( 2 + √5)

D ( √2 + √5 + √3)( 2 − √5)

Answer: B 

 

Q.37 If θ lies in the first quadrant and cos2 θ − sin2 θ = ½ , then the value of tan22θ + sin23θis: 

A ⁷/₂

B 3 

C 4 

D ⁴/₃

Answer: C 

 

Q.38 A sum of ₹18,000 is lent at 10% p.a. compound interest. compounded annually. What is the difference between the compound interest for 3rd year and  4th year? 

A ₹220.60 

B ₹217.80 

C ₹221.80 

D ₹215.40 

Answer: B 

 

Q.39 What is the value of cosec(65 + θ) − sec(25θ) + tan2 20 − cosec2 70

A 0 

B 1 

C 2 

D -1 

Answer: D 

 

Q.40 The ratio of the income of A to that of B is 5 : 7. A and B save ₹4,000 and ₹5,000 respectively. If the expenditure of A is equal to 66⅔ % of the expenditure of B, then the total income of A and B is: 

A ₹25,200 

B ₹24,000 

C ₹26,400

D ₹28,800 

Answer: B 

 

Q.41 In △ABC, AB = 6cm,AC = 8cm, and BC = 9cm. The length of median AD is: 

A √317/2cm 

B √119/2cm 

C √313/2cm 

D √115/2cm 

Answer: B 

 

Q.42 If a nine-digit number 389 × 6378 y is divisible by 72, then the value of √(6x+7y) will be: 

A 6 

B √13

C √46

D 8 

Answer: D 

 

Q.43 [(1+cos2θ)+sin2θ]/(cosec2θ−1)sin2θ =?

A cosθ (1 + sinθ )

B 2cosθ (1 + secθ )

C secθ (1 + sinθ )

D 2secθ (1 + secθ)

Answer: D 

 

Q.44 When 12, 16, 18, 20 and 25 divide the least number x, the remainder in each case is 4 but x is divisible by 7. What is the digit at the thousands’ place in x ? 

A 5

B 8 

C 4 

D 3 

Answer: B 

 

Q.45 If (a + b) : (b + c) : (c + a) = 7 : 6 : 5 and a + b + c = 27 , then what will be the value of 1/a: 1/b: 1/c

A 3 : 6 : 4 

B 3 : 2 : 4 

C 4 : 3 : 6 

D 3 : 4 : 2 

Answer: C 

 

Q.46 PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral in which PQ = 14.4 cm, QR = 12.8 cm and SR = 9.6 cm. If PR bisects QS, whatis the length of PS? 

A 15.8 cm 

B 16.4 cm 

C 13.6 cm 

D 19.2 cm 

Answer: D 

 

Q.47 In what ratio, sugar costing ₹60 per kg be mixed with sugar costing ₹42 per kg such that byselling the mixture at ₹56 per kg there is a gain of 12%? 

A 5 : 6 

B 8 : 9 

C 4 : 5 

D 5 : 7 

Answer: C 

 

Q.48 When an article is sold for ₹355, there is a loss of 29%. To gain 21%,it should be sold for ₹: 

A 629.20 

B 580.80 

C 605 

D 635 

Answer: C 

 

Q.49 [(1−tanθ)/(1−cotθ )]2 + 1 =?

A cosec2θ 

B sec2θ 

C sin2θ 

D cos2θ

Answer: B 

 

Q.50 √[(cotθ+cosθ)/(cotθ−cosθ)] is equal to: 

A secθ + tanθ

B 1 + secθtanθ 

C 1 − secθtanθ

D secθ − tanθ

Answer: A 

 

Q.51 If 5sinθ − 4cosθ = 0,0 < θ < 90, then the value of (5sinθ−2cosθ)/(5sinθ+3 cosθ)is: 

A ⅜

B ⅞

C ²/₇

D ⅝

Answer: C 

 

Q.52 If the radius of the base of a cone is doubled, and the volume of the new cone is three times the volume of the original cone, then what will be the ratio of the height of the original cone to that of the new cone? 

A 1 : 3 

B 4 : 3 

C 2 : 9 

D 9 : 4 

Answer: B 

 

Q.53 Abhi rows upstream a distance of 28 km in 4 h and rows downstream a distance of 50 km in 2 h. To row a distance of 44.8 km in still water, he will take: 

A 2.8 h 

B 3.2 h 

C 2.4 h 

D 2.2 h 

Answer: A 

 

Q.54 A sum of ₹8,400 amounts to ₹11,046 at 8.75% p.a. simple interest in certain time. What is the simple interest on the sum of ₹9,600 at the same rate for the same time? 

A ₹2,990 

B ₹3,012 

C ₹2,686 

D ₹3,024 

Answer: D 

 

Q.55 If the diameter of the base of a cone is 42 cm and its curved surface area is 2310 cm2, then what will be its volume (in cm3) ? 

A 25872 

B 19404 

C 12936 

D 38808 

Answer: C 

 

Q.56 If a cuboid of dimensions 32cm×12cm× 9cm is cut into two cubes of same size, what will be the ratio of the surface area of the cuboid to the total surface area of the two cubes? 

A 65 : 72 

B 37 : 48 

C 24 : 35 

D 32 : 39 

Answer: A 

 

Q.57 When x is added to each of 2, 3, 30 and 35, then the numbers obtained in this order, are in proportion. What is the mean proportional between (x + 7) and (x – 2)? 

A 7 

B 4 

C 6 

D 5 

Answer: C 

 

Q.58 The ratio of investment by A to that by B in a business is 14 : 15 and the ratio of their respective profits at the end of a year is 2 : 5. IfA invested the money for 3 months, then for how much time (in months) B invested his money? 

A 7 

B 6 

C 5 

D 9 

Answer: A

 

Q.59 In △ABC,AB = 7cm,BC = 10cm, and AC = 8cm . If AD is the angle bisector of ∠BAC , where D is a point on BC , then BD is equal to: 

A ¹⁶/₃cm 

B ¹⁵/₄cm 

C ⁴/₃cm 

D ¹⁷/₄cm 

Answer: C 

 

Q.60 The base of right prism is a trapezium whose parallel sides are 11 cm and 15 cm and the distance between them is 9 cm. If the volume of the prism is 1731.6 cm3 , then the height(in cm) of the prism will be: 

A 15.6 

B 15.2 

C 14.8 

D 14.2 

Answer: C 

 

Q.61 Raghav spends 80% of his income. If his income increases by 12% and the savings decrease by 10%, then what will be the percentage increase in his expenditure? 

A 20.5 

B 16 

C 17.5 

D 22 

Answer: C 

 

Q.62 The lateral surface area of a cylinder is 352cm2. If its height is 7cm, then its volume(in cm3 ) is: (Take π = ²²/₇) 

A 1408 

B 1078 

C 1243 

D 891 

Answer: A 

 

Q.63 What will be the compound interest on a sum of ₹31,250 for 2 years at 12% p.a., if the interest is compounded 8-monthly? 

A ₹8,106 

B ₹8,116 

C ₹8,016 

D ₹8,156 

Answer: B 

 

Q.64 When 7897, 8110 and 8536 are divided by the greatest number x, then the remainder in each case is the same. The sum of the digits of x is: 

A 14 

B 5 

C 9 

D 6 

Answer: D 

 

Q.65 The ratios of copper to zinc in alloys A and B are 3 : 4 and 5 : 9, respectively. A and B are taken in the ratio 2 : 3 and melted to form a new alloy C. What is the ratio of copper to zinc in C? 

A 8 : 13 

B 3 : 5 

C 9 : 11 

D 27 : 43 

Answer: D 

 

Q.66 In △ ABC, D and E are the points on sides AB and BC respectively such that DE ∥ AC. If AD : DB = 5 : 3, then what is the ratio of the area of △ BDE to that of the trapezium ACED? 

A 4 : 25 

B 9 : 55 

C 9 : 64 

D 1 : 6 

Answer: B 

 

Q.67 One year ago, the ratio of the age (in years) of A to that of B was 4 : 3. The ratio of their respective ages, 3 years from now,will be 6 : 5. What will be the ratio of respective ages of A and B, 9 years from now? 

A 7 : 6 

B 10 : 9 

C 9 : 8 

D 8 : 7 

Answer: C 

 

Q.68 The sides of a triangle are 11 cm, 60 cm and 61 cm. What is the radius of the circle circumscribing the triangle? 

A 31.5 cm 

B 31 cm 

C 30 cm 

D 30.5 cm 

Answer: D 

 

Q.69 A sum of ₹5,000 is divided into two parts such that the simple interest on the first part for 4¹/₅years at 6⅔% p.a is double the simple interest on the second part for 2¾ years at 4% p.a. What is the difference between the two parts? 

A ₹680 

B ₹600 

C ₹560 

D ₹620 

Answer: B 

 

Q.70 If x = √(1 + √3 /2) − √(1 − √3 /2) , then the value of (√2−x)/(√2 +x)will be closest to: 

A 0.17 

B 0.12 

C 1.4 

D 1.2 

Answer: A 

 

Q.71 The given pie chart shows the breakup of total number of the employees of a company working in different offices (A, B, C, D and E). 

Total No. of employees = 2400 

If the percentage of male employees in office C is 20% and that of female employees in E is 40%, then what is the ratio of the number of female employees in C to that of female employees in E? 

A 3 : 2 

B 5 : 4 

C 2 : 3 

D 3 : 8 

Answer: A 

 

Q.72 In a trapezium ABCD, DC∥AB, AB = 12 cm and DC = 7.2 cm. What is the length of the line segment joining the midpoints of its diagonals? 

A 2.6 cm 

B 4.8 cm 

C 2.4 cm 

D 3.6 cm 

Answer: C 

 

Q.73 A number is first increased by 16% and then increased by 14%. The number, so obtained, is now decreased by 30%. What is the net increase or decrease percent in the original number(nearest to an integer)? 

A 6% increase 

B 7% decrease 

C No increase or decrease 

D 9% decrease 

Answer: B 

 

Q.74 Radha marks her goods 25% above the cost price. She sells 35% of goods at the marked price, 40% at 15% discount and the remaining at 20% discount. What is her overall percentage gain? 

A 11.25 

B 10 

C 11.75 

D 12.75 

Answer: A 

 

Q.75 Chord AB of a circle is produced to a point P, and is a point onthe circle such that PC is a tangent to the circle. If PC = 18 cm, and BP = 15 cm, then AB is equal to: 

A 5.8 cm 

B 6.2 cm 

C 6.6 cm 

D 8.5 cm 

Answer: C 

 

Q.76 One of the factors of (82k + 52k), where k is an odd number, is: 

A 86 

B 88 

C 84 

D 89 

Answer: D 

 

Q.77 The internal and external radii of a hollow hemispherical vessel are 6 cm and 7 cm respectively. What is the total surface area (in cm2 ) of the vessel? 

A 183π 

B 189π 

C 177π 

D 174π 

Answer: A 

 

Q.78 When the price of an item was reduced by 25%, then its sale was increased by x% . If there is an increase of 20% in the receipt of the revenue, then the value of x will be: 

A 50 

B 60 

C 45 

D 75 

Answer: B 

 

Q.79 In a constituency, 55% of the total number of voters are males and the rest are females. If 40% of the males are illiterate and 40% of the females are literate, then by what percent is the number of literate males more than that of illiterate females? 

A 22⁸/₁₁

B 18²/₉

C 22²/₉

D 18⁸/₁₁

Answer: C 

 

Q.80 From the top of a tower, the angles of depression of two objects on the ground on the same side of it, are observed to be 60 and 30respectively and the distance between the objects is 400√3m. The height (in m) of the tower is: 

A 800 

B 800√3

C 600 

D 600√3 

Answer: C 

 

Q.81 A train travelling at the speed of x km/h crossed a 200 m long platform in 30 seconds and overtook a man walking in the same direction at the speed of 6 km/h in 20 seconds. What is the value of x ? 

A 50

B 54 

C 56 

D 60 

Answer: D 

 

Q.82 Let (633)24 − (277)38 + (266)54. What is the units digit of x ? 

A 7 

B 6 

C 4 

D 8 

Answer: D 

 

Q.83 Three solid metallic spheres whose radii are 1 cm, X cm and 8 cm, are melted and recast into a single solid sphere of diameter 18 cm. The surface area (in cm2 ) of the sphere with radius x cm is: 

A 144π 

B 72π 

C 64π 

D 100π 

Answer: A 

 

Q.84 The value of (2⁶/₇ of 4⅕ ÷ ⅔)×1⅑ ÷ (¾×2⅔ of ½ ÷¼ )is: 

A 5 

B 8 

C ⅟₈

D ⅟₅ 

Answer: A 

 

Q.85 An article is sold at a certain price. If it is sold at of 33⅓% this price, there is a loss of 33⅓%. What is the percentage profit when it is sold at 60% of the original selling price? 

A 20 

B 30 

C 33⅓

D 17⅓ 

Answer: A 

 

Q.86 If a3 + b3 = 218 and a + b = 2 , then the value of ab is: 

A 34 

B -35 

C -31 

D 32 

Answer: B 

 

Q.87 In △ABC,∠A = 58 . If I is the in center of the triangle, then the measure of ∠BIC is: 

A 109 

B 123 

C 112 

D 119 

Answer: D 

 

Q.88 If 2√2x3 − 3√3y3 = ( √2x − √3y )( Ax2 + By2 + Cxy ) , then the value of A2 + B2C2 is: 

A 11 

B 7 

C 19 

D 10 

Answer: B 

 

Q.89 A circle is inscribed in △ABC , touching AB, BC and AC at the points P, Q and respectively. If AB – BC = 4 cm, AB – AC = 2 cm and the perimeter of △ABC = 32 cm, then PB + AR is equal to: 

A 12 cm 

B 13 cm 

C ³³/₅cm 

D ³⁸/₅cm 

Answer: D 

 

Q.90 Of each interior angle of a regular polygon is ( 128⁴/₇) , then what is the sum of the number of its diagonals and the number of its sides? 

A 15 

B 19 

C 17 

D 21 

Answer: D 

 

Q.91 If the radius of a sphere is increased by 4 cm, its surface area is increased by 464πcm2. What is the volume(in cm3) of the original sphere? 

A ¹⁵⁶²⁵/₆ π 

B ³⁵⁹³⁷/₈ π 

C ¹¹⁹⁷⁹/₂ π 

D ¹⁵⁶²⁵/₈ π 

Answer: A 

 

Q.92 The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is ⅐ of the number. The units digit is 4 less than the tens digit. If the number obtained on reversing its digits is divided by 7, the remainder will be: 

A 4 

B 5 

C 1 

D 6 

Answer: D 

 

Q.93 The graph of the equation x – 7y = -42, intersects the y-axis at P(α,β) and the graph of 6x + y – 15 = 0, intersects the x-axis at Q(γ,δ), What is the value of α + β + γ + δ?

A ¹⁷/₂

B 6 

C ⁹/₂

D 5 

Answer: A 

 

Q.94 In quadrilateral ABCD, the bisectors of ∠A and ∠B meet at O and ∠AOB = 64 ∘ .∠C + ∠D is equal to: 

A 136 

B 128 

C 116 

D 148

Answer: B 

 

Q.95 ‘A’ started a business with a capital of ₹54,000 and admitted ‘B’ and ‘C’ after 4 months and 6 months, respectively. At the end of the year, the profit was divided in the ratio 1 : 4 : 5. What is the difference between the capitals invested by ‘B’ and ‘C’? 

A ₹1,08,000 

B ₹1,62,000 

C ₹2,16,000 

D ₹3,24,000 

Answer: C 

 

Q.96 A and B started their journeys from X to Y and Y to X, respectively. After crossing each other, A and B completed the remaining parts of their journeys in 6⅛h and 8 h respectively. If the speed of B is 28 km/h, then the speed (in km/h) of A is: 

A 40 

B 42 

C 32 

D 36 

Answer: C 

 

Q.97 The given pie chart shows the breakup of total number of the employees of a company working in different offices (A,B, C, D and E). 

Total No. of employees = 2400 

If 40% of the number of employees in office A are shifted equally to office B and E, then what is the difference between the number of employees in B and that in C? 

A 72 

B 120 

C 82 

D 130 

Answer: A 

 

Q.98 The volume of a right pyramid is 45√3cm3 and its base is an equilateral triangle with side 6 cm. What is the height(in cm)of the pyramid? 

A 15 

B 18 

C 12 

D 20 

Answer: A 

 

Q.99 A certain number of persons can complete a work in 34 days working 9 h a day. If the number of persons is decreased by 40%, then how many hours a day should the remaining persons work to complete the work in 51 days? 

A 9 

B 8 

C 12 

D 10 

Answer: D 

 

Q.100 The bar graph shows the exports of Cars of Type A and B (in ₹ millions).

The total exports of cars of type A in 2014 to 2017 is approximately what percentage less than the total exports of cars of type B in 2015 to 2018? 

A 31.3 

B 30.4 

C 14.3 

D 23.8 

Answer: D 

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