Coachings - Page 99 of 100 - Vidhyarthi Darpan

SBI PO 2011 Mains Previous Year Paper

SBI PO 2011 Mains

Section	Questions	Marks
Logical Reasoning	50 Questions (1 – 50)	50
Quantitative Aptitude	20 Questions (51 – 70)	20
Data Interpretation	30 Questions (71 – 100)	30
General Knowledge	50 Questions (101 – 150)	50
English	50 Questions (151 – 200)	50

Questions: 1 – 3

Directions (Q 1-3) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?

Q. 1 The word which doesn’t belong in the group is –

A. Break

B. Change

C. Split

D. Divide

E. Separate

Q. 2 The word which doesn’t belong in the group is –

A. Train

B. Instruct

C. Educate

D. Advocate

E. Coach

Q. 3 The word which doesn’t belong in the group is –

A. Extend

B. Higher

C. Upward

D. Rise

E. Ascend

Q. 4 Which of the following symbols should replace question mark in the given expression in order to make the expressions ‘A>D’ and ‘F>C’ definitely true?

A>B≥C?D≤E=F

A. >

B. <

C. ≤

D. =

E. Either = or ≥

Q. 5 Which of the following expressions is definitely true if the given expressions ‘RQ’ are definitely true?

A. P>Q=R≤T<S

B. S>T≥R>Q<P

C. Q>R≤T>P≥S

D. S>T≥R>Q>P

E. None of these

Q. 6 Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows:

‘A x B’ means ‘A is the father of B’

‘A + B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’

‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the son of B’

‘A – B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’

What will come in place of question mark to establish that P is the son-in law of S in the following expression?

P x Q + R – T ? S

A. +

B. x

C. –

D. ÷

E. Either + or ÷

Questions: 7 – 12

Directions (Q 7-12) :

Study the following information to answer the given questions :

Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each such that they are equidistant from each other. In row 1: P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are facing South. In row 2: A, B, C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. S sits third to the right of Q. Either S or W sits at an extreme end of the line. The one who faces Q sits second to the right of E. Two people sit between B and F. Neither B nor F sits at an extreme end of the line. The immediate neighbor of B faces the person who sits third to the left of P. R and T are immediate neighbors. C sits second to the left of A. T does not face the immediate neighbor of D.

Q. 7 Who amongst the following sit at the extreme ends of the rows?

A. S, D

B. Q, A

C. V, C

D. P, D

E. Q, F

Q. 8 Who amongst the following faces S?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. F

Q. 9 How many persons are seated between V and R?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

E. None of these

Q. 10 P is related to A in the same way as S is related to B based on the given arrangement. Which f the following is T related to following the same pattern?

A. C

B. D

C. E

D. F

E. Cannot be determined

Q. 11 Which of the following is true regarding T?

A. F faces T

B. V is an immediate neighbor of T

C. F faces the one who is second to the right of T

D. T sits at one of the extreme ends of the line

E. Q sits second to the right of T

Q. 12 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

A. A-T

B. B-T

C. F-P

D. C-V

E. E-Q

Questions: 13 – 17

Directions (Q 13-17) :

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.

Q. 13 Which bag amongst P, Q, R, S and T is the heaviest?

I. Bag Q is heavier than R and S. Bag T is heavier than only bag P.

II. Only three bags are lighter than R. the weight of bag Q is 50 kg, which is 2 kg more than bag R.

A. The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

B. The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question

C. The data in either statement I or II alone are sufficient to answer the question

D. The data in both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question

E. The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

Q. 14 Are all five friends – A, B, C, D and E – who are seated around a circular table facing the centre?

I. A sits to the left of B. B faces the centre. D and E are immediate neighbors of each other. C sits second to the right of E.

II. D sits second to right of C. C faces the centre. Both E and A are immediate neighbors of D. B sits second to the right of A.

A. The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

B. The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question

C. The data in either statements I or II alone are sufficient to answer the question

D. The data in both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question

E. The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

Q. 15 In a college, five different subjects viz Physics, Chemistry, Botany, Zoology and Mathematics are taught on five different days of the same week, starting from Monday and ending on Friday. Is Chemistry taught on Wednesday?

I. Two subjects are taught between Zoology and Mathematics. Mathematics is taught before Zoology. Chemistry is taught on the day immediately next to the day when Physics is taught. Botany is not taught on Friday.

II. Three lectures are scheduled between the lectures of Botany and Zoology. Mathematics is taught immediately before Physics.

A. The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

B. The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question

C. The data in either statements I or II alone are sufficient to answer the question

D. The data in both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question

E. The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

Q. 16 Is it 9 o’clock now?

I. After half an hour, the minute and the hour hands of the clock will make an angle of exactly 90° with each other.

II. Exactly 15 minutes ago, the hour and the minute hands of the clock coincided with each other.

A. The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

B. The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question

C. The data in either statements I or II alone are sufficient to answer the question

D. The data in both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question

E. The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

Q. 17 Is F granddaughter of B?

I. B is the father of M. M is the sister of T. T is the mother of F.

II. S is the son of F. V is the daughter of F. R is the brother of T.

A. The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

B. The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question

C. The data in either statements I or II alone are sufficient to answer the question

D. The data in both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question

E. The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

Questions: 18 – 20

Directions (Q 18 -20) :

Study the following information to answer the given questions:

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two-digit numbers and are arranged as per some logic based on the value of the number) Input: win 56 32 93 bat for 46 him 28 11 give chance

Step I : 93 56 32 bat for 46 him 28 11 give chance win

Step II : 11 93 56 32 bat for 46 28 give chance win him

Step III : 56 11 93 32 bat for 46 28 chance win him give

Step IV : 28 56 11 93 32 bat 46 chance win him give for

Step V : 46 28 56 11 93 32 bat win him five for chance bat

Step VI is the last step of the arrangement in the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input for the questions :

Input : fun 89 at the 28 16 base camp 35 53 here 68

(All numbers given in the arrangement are 2 digit numbers)

Q. 18 Which of the following would be step II?

A. 89 fun at 28 base camp 35 53 here 68 the

B. 35 53 28 68 16 89 the here fun camp base at

C. 16 89 at fun 28 camp base 35 53 68 the here

D. 53 28 68 16 89 35 the here fun camp base at

E. None of these

Q. 19 Which word/number would be at seventh position from the left in step IV?

A. base

B. at

C. 35

D. The

E. 53

Q. 20 Which step number would be the following output?

53 28 68 16 89 at 35 the here fun camp base

A. There will be no such step

B. III

C. II

D. V

E. IV

Questions: 21 – 27

Directions (Q 21-27) :

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight colleagues A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them holds a different post – Manager, Company Secretary, Chairman, President, Vice President, Group Leader, Financial Advisor and Managing Director. A sits third to the right of the Managing Director. Only two people sit between the Managing Director and H. The Vice President and the Company Secretary are immediate neighbors. Neither A nor H is a Vice President or a Company Secretary. The Vice President is not an immediate neighbor of the Managing Director. The Manager sits second to the left of E. E is not an immediate neighbor of H. The Manager is an immediate neighbor of both the Group Leader and the Financial Advisor. The Financial Advisor sits third to the right of B. B is not the Vice President. C sits on the immediate right of the Chairman. A is not the Chairman. F is not an immediate neighbor of A. G is not an immediate neighbor of the Manager.

Q. 21 Who amongst the following sits third to the left of E?

A. Manager

B. G

C. A

D. Financial advisor

E. B

Q. 22 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

A. F – Chairman

B. G – President

C. D – Manager

D. A – Financial Advisor

E. B – Managing Director

Q. 23 Who among the following is the President of the company?

A. A

B. C

C. H

D. G

E. D

Q. 24 Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?

A. The Group Leader of the company is an immediate neighbor of the Vice President

B. G sits second to the right of D

C. The Group Leader and the Company Secretary are immediate neighbors

D. The Chairman of the company sits to the immediate left of the Managing Director

E. The Group Leader sits second to the left of D

Q. 25 Which of the following post does B hold in the company?

A. Chairman

B. Manager

C. Company Secretary

D. Vice President

E. Financial Advisor

Q. 26 Who among the following sits exactly between the Managing Director and H?

A. H and the Chairman

B. B and G

C. The Chairman and C

D. F and C

E. E and the Group Leader

Q. 27 Who among the following is the Group Leader?

A. C

B. F

C. G

D. H

E. A

Questions: 28 – 31

Directions (Q 28-31) :

Read the following information and the sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) given below and answer the questions that follow:

A host of foreign companies are in talks with the Indian government for selling B150, a tough, short-haul plane ideal for connectivity of smaller towns which is lacking in India at present.

(A) B150 planes have not only low operating costs than competing planes like Cezana but also a much better track record in terms of safety and efficiency

(B) The profit margin of road transport operators in the smaller towns connected by B150 planes has been reduced substantially as a majority of people prefer air transport over other means of transport

(D) B150 planes are capable of operating in sectors where large airlines cannot fly due to challenging conditions such as mist, short runways, etc. Such planes can also double as cargo planes and charter flights for the rich and the elite.

(E) B150 planes need to operate in the existing airports which are suited in bigger cities only and are poorly connected to the smaller cities.

Q. 28 Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) can be inferred from the facts/information given in the statement? (An interference is something which is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given facts)

A. Only A

B. Only B

C. Only C

D. Both B and D

E. Only E

Q. 29 Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above would weaken the offer made by the foreign companies for selling B150 planes to Indian government?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

Q. 30 Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above represents a possible consequence of the success B150 planes in smaller cities?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

Q. 31 Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) would favor the foreign companies; bid to sell B150 planes in India?

A. Only A

B. Only B

C. Both B and C

D. Both A and D

E. Both E and C

Questions: 32 – 37

Directions (Q 32-37) :

Study the following information to answer the given questions :

In a certain code, ‘always create new ideas’ is written as ‘ba ri sha gi’. ‘ideas and new thoughts’ is written as ‘fa gi ma ri’, ‘create thoughts and insights’ is written as ‘ma job a fa’ and ‘new and better solutions is written as ‘ki ri to fa’.

Q. 32 What is the code for ‘ideas’?

A. sha

B. ba

C. gi

D. ma

E. Cannot be determined

Q. 33 What does ‘fa’ stand for?

A. Thoughts

B. Insights

C. New

D. And

E. Solutions

Q. 34 ‘fa lo ba’ could be a code for which of the following?

A. Thoughts and action

B. Create and innovate

C. Ideas and thoughts

D. Create new solutions

E. Always better ideas

Q. 35 What is the code for ‘new’?

A. ki

B. ri

C. to

D. fa

E. ba

Q. 36 Which of the following may represent ‘insights always better’?

A. jo ki to

B. ki to ri

C. sha jo ri

D. to sha jo

E. sha to ba

Q. 37 What is the code for ‘thoughts’?

A. ma

B. fa

C. ba

D. jo

E. Either jo or fa

Q. 38 Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

All existing and upcoming hotels within a 5 km radius of national parks and sanctuaries in India will have to pay 30% of their annual turnover as tax to the government.

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the facts/information given in the above statements?

A. The tax collected from the hotels will be used for the betterment of these national parks and sanctuaries

B. Hotels which are sponsored by the government will not have to pay any tax even if these are located within 5 km radius of such wildlife hotspots

C. The ecosystem of the national parks and sanctuaries is adversely affected even if the hotels are located outside the 5 km radius

D. Government allows construction of hotels within 5 km radius of national parks and sanctuaries

E. Such a step is taken by the environment ministry to boost eco-tourism and perk up revenue collection of State governments

Q. 39 Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow.

Tenants’ associations have demanded a ‘vacancy tax’ on all vacant and unsold flats in Mumbai. Which of the following would support the demand made by the tenants’ association?

A. House owners too have demanded for laws that make it easier to evict tenants who default on rent payment

B. Such a tax law would be difficult to implement as it would be difficult to record the number of vacant flats in the city

C. People with surplus money buy many houses and rent these out while many consumers cannot afford even their first house

D. The number of vacant flats in Mumbai is lower than other metros such as Delhi and Chennai where vacancy tax already exists

E. Such a tax would compel the house owners to sell/rent properties which in turn would control hoarding and skyrocketing property prices

Questions: 40 – 45

Directions (Q 40-45) :

In each question below are given two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Q. 40 Statements :

All rings are circles

All squares are rings

No ellipse is a circle

Conclusions :

I. Some rings being ellipses is a possibility

II. At least some circles are squares

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

E. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follows

Q. 41 Statements :

No house is an apartment

Some bungalows are apartments

Conclusions :

I. No house is a bungalow

II. All bungalow are houses

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

E. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follows

Q. 42 Statements :

Some gases are liquids

All liquids are water

Conclusions :

I. All gases being water is a possibility

II. All such gases which are not water can never be liquids

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

E. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follows

Q. 43 Statements :

All minutes are seconds

All seconds are hours

No second is a day

Conclusions :

I. No day is an hour

II. At least some hours are minutes

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

E. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follows

Q. 44 Statements :

Some teachers are professors

Some lecturers are teachers

Conclusions :

I. All teachers as well as professors being lecturers is a possibility

II. All those teachers who are lecturers are also professors

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

E. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follows

Q. 45 Statements :

Some teachers are professors

Some lecturers are teachers

Conclusions :

I. No professor is a lecturer

II. All lecturers being professors is a possibility

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

E. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follows

Q. 46 Which one of the five Answer figures should come after the Problem Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 47 Which one of the five Answer figures should come after the Problem Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 48 Which one of the five Answer figures should come after the Problem Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 49 Which one of the five Answer figures should come after the Problem Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 50 Which one of the five Answer figures should come after the Problem Figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Questions: 51 – 55

Directions (Q 51-55) :

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

Q. 51 32.05% of 259.99 = ?

A. 92

B. 88

C. 8

D. 90

E. 83

Q. 52 1/8 of 2/3 of 3/5 of 1715 = ?

A. 80

B. 85

C. 90

D. 95

E. 75

Q. 53 25.05 x 123.95 + 388.999 x 15.001 = ?

A. 900

B. 8950

C. 8935

D. 8975

E. 8995

Q. 54 561 ÷ 35.05 x 19.99 = ?

A. 320

B. 330

C. 315

D. 325

E. 335

Q. 55 (15.01)² x √730 = ?

A. 6125

B. 6225

C. 6200

D. 6075

E. 6250

Questions: 56 – 60

Directions (Q 56-60) :

In each of these questions, a number series is given. In each series, only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.

Q. 56 3601 3602 1803 604 154 36 12

A. 3602

B. 1803

C. 604

D. 154

E. 36

Q. 57 4 12 42 196 1005 6066 42511

A. 12

B. 42

C. 1005

D. 196

E. 6066

Q. 58 2 8 12 20 30 42 56

A. 8

B. 42

C. 30

D. 20

E. 12

Q. 59 32 16 24 65 210 945 5197.5

A. 945

B. 16

C. 24

D. 210

E. 65

Q. 60 7 13 25 49 97 194 385

A. 13

B. 49

C. 97

D. 194

E. 25

Q. 61 Mr X invested a certain amount in Debt and Equity Funds in the ratio of 4:5. At the end of one year, he earned a total dividend of 30% on his investment. After one year, he reinvested the amount including the dividend in the ratio of 6:7 in Debt and Equity Funds. If the amount reinvested in Equity Funds was ₹94,500, what was the original amount invested in Equity Funds?

A. ₹75,000

B. ₹81,000

C. ₹60,000

D. ₹65,000

E. None of these

Q. 62 The age of the father is 30 years more than the son’s age. Ten years hence, the father’s age will become three times the son’s age that time. What is the son’s present age in years?

A. Eight

B. Seven

C. Five

D. Cannot be determined

E. None of these

Q. 63 If the length of a rectangular field is increased by 20% and the breadth is reduced by 20%, the area of the rectangle will be 192 m². What is the area of the original rectangle?

A. 184 m²

B. 196 m²

C. 204 m²

D. 225 m²

E. None of these

Q. 64 The product of one-third of a number and 150% of another number is what percent of the product of the original numbers?

A. 80%

B. 50%

C. 75%

D. 120%

E. None of these

Q. 65 Inside a square plot, a circular garden is developed which exactly fits in the square plot and the diameter of the garden is equal to the side of the square plot which is 28 meters. What is the area of the space left out in the square plot after developing the garden?

A. 98 m²

B. 146 m²

C. 84 m²

D. 168 m²

E. None of these

Q. 66 Amit and Sujit together can complete an assignment of data entry in five days. Sujit’s speed is 80% of Amit’s speed and the total key depressions in the assignment are 5,76,000. What is Amit’s speed in key depressions per hour if they work for 8 hours a day?

A. 4800

B. 6400

C. 8000

D. 7200

E. None of these

Q. 67 Out of five girls and three boys, four children are to be randomly selected for a quiz

contest. What is the probability that all the selected children are girls?

A. 1/14

B. 1/7

C. 5/17

D. 2/17

E. None of these

Q. 68 Profit earned by an organization is distributed among officers and clerks in the ratio of 5:3. If the number of officers is 45 and the number of clerks is 80 and the amount received by each officer is ₹25,000, what was the total amount of profit earned?

A. ₹22 lakh

B. ₹18.25 lakh

C. ₹18 lakh

D. ₹23.25 lakh

E. None of these

Q. 69 A shopkeeper labeled the price of his articles so as to earn a profit of 30% on the cost price. He then sold the articles by offering a discount of 10% on the labeled price. What is the actual percent profit earned in the deal?

A. 18%

B. 15%

C. 20%

D. Cannot be determined

E. None of these

Q. 70 Mr Shamin’s salary increases every year by 10% in June. If there is no other increase or reduction in the salary and his salary in June 2011 was ₹22,385, what was his salary in June 2009?

A. ₹18,650

B. ₹18,000

C. ₹19,250

D. ₹18,500

E. None of these

Questions: 71 – 75

Directions (Q 71-75) :

In each of these questions, one question is given followed by data in three statements I, II and III. You have to study the question and the data in statements and decide the question can be answered with data in which of the statements and mark your answer accordingly.

Q. 71 What is the rate of interest pcpa?

Statements :

I. The difference between the compound interest and simple interest earned in two years on the amount invested is ₹100.

II. The amount becomes ₹19,500 in three years on simple interest

III. The simple interest accrued in two years on the same amount at the same rate of interest is ₹3,000.

A. Only I and II

B. Only I and III

C. Only II and III

D. Only I and either II or III

E. None of these

Q. 72 What is the speed of the train in kmph?

Statements :

I. The train crosses an ‘x’ meter-long platform in ‘n’ seconds

II. The length of the train is ‘y’ meters

III. The train crosses a signal pole in ‘m’ seconds

A. Any two of the three

B. Only II and III

C. Only I and III

D. All I, II and III

E. Question cannot be answered even with information in all three statements

Q. 73 How many students passed in first class?

Statements :

I. 85% of the students who appeared in examination have passed either in first class or in second class or in pass class

II. 750 students have passed in second class

III. The number of students who passed in pass class is 28% of those passed in second class

A. All I, II and III

B. Only I and III

C. Only II and III

D. Question cannot be answered even with information in all three statements

E. None of these

Q. 74 What is the amount invested in Scheme ‘B’?

Statements :

I. The amounts invested in Schemes ‘A’ and ‘B’ are in the ratio 2:3

II. The amount invested in Scheme ‘A’ is 40% of the total amount invested

III. The amount invested in Scheme ‘A’ is ₹45,000

A. Only I and II

B. Only I and III

C. Only II and III

D. All I, II and III

E. Only III and either I or II

Q. 75 What is the cost of flooring a rectangular hall?

Statements :

I. The length of the rectangle is 6 meters

II. The breadth of the rectangle is two-thirds of its length

III. The cost of flooring the area of 100 cm² is ₹45

A. Only I and III

B. Only II and III

C. All I, II and III

D. Question cannot be answered even with data in all three statements

E. None of these

Questions: 76 – 83

Directions (Q 76-83) :

Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions.

Q. 76 If the profit earned in 2006 by Company B was ₹8,12,500, what was the total income of the company in that year?

A. ₹12,50,000

B. ₹20,62,500

C. ₹16,50,000

D. ₹18,25,000

E. None of these

Q. 77 If the amount invested by the two companies in 2005 was equal, what was the ratio of the total income of the Company A to that of B in 2005?

A. 31:33

B. 33:31

C. 34:31

D. 14:11

E. None of these

Q. 78 If the total amount invested by the two companies in 2009 was ₹27 lakh, while the amount invested by Company B was 50% of the amount invested by Company A, what was the total profit earned by the two companies together?

A. ₹21.15 lakh

B. ₹20.70 lakh

C. ₹18.70 lakh

D. ₹20.15 lakh

E. None of these

Q. 79 If the income of Company A in 2007 and that in 2008 were equal and the amount invested in 2007 was ₹12 lakh, what was the amount invested in 2008?

A. ₹10,87,500

B. ₹10,85,700

C. ₹12,45,000

D. ₹12,85,000

E. None of these

Q. 80 If the amount of profit earned by Company A in 2006 was ₹10.15 lakh, what was the total investement?

A. ₹13.8 lakh

B. ₹14.9 lakh

C. ₹15.4 lakh

D. ₹14.2 lakh

E. None of these

Q. 81 If the amount invested by Company B in 2004 is ₹12 lakh and the income of 2004 is equal to the investment in 2005, what is the amount of profit earned in 2005 by Company B?

A. ₹6.6 lakh

B. ₹18.6 lakh

C. ₹10.23 lakh

D. ₹9.6 lakh

E. None of these

Q. 82 If the investments of Company A in 2007 and 2008 were equal, what is the difference between the profits earned in the two years if the income in 2008 was ₹24 lakh?

A. ₹2.25 lakh

B. ₹3.6 lakh

C. ₹1.8 lakh

D. ₹2.6 lakh

E. None of these

Q. 83 If each of the companies A and B invested ₹25 lakh in 2010, what was the average profit earned by the two companies?

A. ₹18 lakh

B. ₹22.5 lakh

C. ₹17.5 lakh

D. ₹20 lakh

E. None of these

Questions: 84 – 90

Directions (Q 84-90) :

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions which follow.

Q. 84 From State B, which post had the highest percentage of candidates short listed?

A. V

B. IV

C. VI

D. II

E. None of these

Q. 85 What is the average number of candidates (approximately) found eligible for Post III from all states?

A. 6700

B. 6200

C. 4200

D. 4500

E. 5500

Q. 86 What is the overall percentage (rounded off to one digit after decimal) of candidates shortlisted over the total number of candidates eligible for Post I from all the States together?

A. 9.5%

B. 12.5%

C. 7.2%

D. 6.5%

E. None of these

Q. 87 What is the ratio of the total number of candidates short-listed for all the posts together from State E to that from State G?

A. 307:369

B. 73:79

C. 6:5

D. 9:7

E. None of these

Q. 88 The total number of candidates found eligible for Post I from all states together is approximately what percent of the total number of candidates found eligible for Post VI from all States together?

A. 45%

B. 50%

C. 60%

D. 55%

E. 65%

Q. 89 Which state had the lowest percentage of candidates short listed with respect to candidate eligible for Post IV?

A. G

B. F

C. E

D. C

E. None of these

Q. 90 What is the ratio of the total number of candidates short listed for Post V to that for post VI from all states together?

A. 6:7

B. 55:96

C. 165:278

D. 16:25

E. None of these

Questions: 91 – 95

Directions (Q 91-95) :

These questions are based on the following data. Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow.

In s school having 400 students, boys and girls are in the ratio of 3:5. The students speak Hindi, English or both the languages. 12% of the boys speak only Hindi. 22% of the girls speak only English. 24% of the total students speak only Hindi and the number of boys speaking both the languages is six times the number of boys speaking only Hindi.

Q. 91 How many boys speak Hindi?

A. 18

B. 126

C. 108

D. 26

E. None of these

Q. 92 How many girls speak only Hindi?

A. 55

B. 117

C. 96

D. 78

E. None of these

Q. 93 How many students speak English?

A. 304

B. 79

C. 225

D. 117

E. None of these

Q. 94 The number of girls speaking only Hindi is what percent of the total number of students speaking only Hindi?

A. 38.2%

B. 71.8%

C. 31.2%

D. 78%

E. None of these

Q. 95 What is the ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls speaking both the

Languages?

A. 23:25

B. 12:25

C. 12:13

D. 25:13

E. None of these

Q. 96 The area of the circle is 616 cm². What is the area of the rectangle? ( ● or ‘dot’ indicates centre of the circle)

A. 784 cm²

B. 196 cm²

C. 392 cm²

D. Cannot be determined

E. None of these

Q. 97 What is the average female population in million?

A. 8.32

B. 8.86

C. 8.68

D. 9.12

E. None of these

Q. 98 What is the percent rise in production in 2007 from 2006? (Round off to two digits after decimal)

A. 28.18%

B. 18.18%

C. 16.28%

D. 26.18%

E. None of these

Q. 99 Out of a total 550 students, how many students did not prefer Maths or Economics?

A. 462

B. 154

C. 196

D. 396

E. None of these

Q. 100 What is the difference (in ₹ lakh) between the average salary and the lowest salary?

A. 4.2

B. 2.65

C. 3.65

D. 4.06

E. None of these

Q. 101 A major Public Sector Bank raised interest rates on loans by 25 basis points – was newsin some major financial newspapers recently. This means the bank has raised interest by 25 basis points of

A. Savings Bank Interest Rate

B. Base Lending Rate

C. Repo Rates

D. Present Rates on Deposits

E. Discounted Rates of Interest

Q. 102 The Finance Minister of India in one of his press conferences said that inflationary pressure is likely to continue following recent increase in rates of some commodities in international markets. Which of the following commodities was he referring to as it gets frequent increase at international levels and disturbs our Home Economy substantially?

A. Gold and Silver

B. Petroleum Products

C. Tea and Coffee

D. Sugar

E. Jute and Jute products

Q. 103 Immediately prior to change in the measure of Food Inflation, which of the following indexes was being used for measuring it?

A. Wholesale Price Index

B. Consumer Price Index

C. Interest Rates offered by banks on deposits

D. Sensex and Nifty

E. None of these

Q. 104 What is the full form of ‘FINO’, a term we see frequently in financial newspapers?

A. Financial investment Network and Operations

B. Farmer’s Investment in National Organisation

C. Farmers Inclusion News and Operations

D. Financial Inclusion Network and Operations

E. None of these

Q. 105 Which of the following is/are commodity/ies on which subsidy is given to farmers/poor in India?

(A) Fertilizer

(B) Kerosene

A. Only (A)

B. Only (B)

C. Only (C)

D. Only (A) and (C)

E. All (A), (B) and (C)

Q. 106 ‘Bhagyam Oilfields’, which were recently in news, are located in which of the following states in India?

A. Rajasthan

B. Gujarat

C. Assam

D. Maharashtra

E. Karnataka

Q. 107 The Finance Minister of India recently decided to review the position of ‘Bad Debts’ in priority sector. Which of the following is/are the reason(s) owing to which FM took this Decision?

(A) Bad Debt in agriculture is still rising substantially every year despite special treatment to it

(B) Bad Debt in other areas of priority sector is almost nil now

(C) Govt. is planning to disburse another installment of ₹1,60,000 crore, which will bring ‘Bad Debts’ almost at ‘Nil level’ and no special treatment will be needed in next fiscal year

A. Only (A)

B. Only (B)

C. Only (C)

D. Both (A) and (B)

E. All (A), (B) and (C)

Q. 108 Which amongst the following countries is NOT a member of the TAPI pipeline project, which was in news recently?

A. India

B. Afghanistan

C. Portugal

D. Pakistan

E. Turkmenistan

Q. 109 An agreement on Arms Reduction popularly known as ‘START’ is one of the major issues in the way of smooth relations between which of the following two countries?

A. India-Pakistan

B. India-China

C. China-Japan

D. USA-Russia

E. Russia-Iran

Q. 110 The International WWW Conference – 2011 was organized in which of the following places in March 2011?

A. London

B. Paris

C. Vienna

D. Manila

E. Hyderabad

Q. 111 Which of the following international agencies/organizations had initiated an ‘International Convention for the Protection of All Persons from Enforced Disappearance’, which came into effect recently?

A. World Health Organisation (WHO)

B. International Court of Justice

C. International Maritime Organisation

D. International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)

E. United Nations Organisation (UNO)

Q. 112 ‘BRIC’ which was the organization of 4 nations, namely Brazil, Russia, India and China, has now become ‘BRICS’. Which is the fifth nation in it?

A. South Korea

B. Sri Lanka

C. Singapore

D. Spain

E. South Africa

Q. 113 The process of acquisition of agricultural land and its compensation to farmers recently came up as a major issue in which of the following states? (It also created law and order problem in the state)

A. Haryana

B. Gujarat

C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Rajasthan

E. Punjab

Q. 114 What does the letter ‘L’ denote in the term ‘LAF’ as referred every now and then in relation to monetary policy of the RBI?

A. Liquidity

B. Liability

C. Leveraged

D. Longitudinal

E. Linear

Q. 115 BP Plc, which was in news recently, is a major international company in the field of

A. Heavy Machinery

B. Oil exploration and processing

C. Atomic Energy

D. Information Technology

E. None of these

Q. 116 Who amongst the following has been appointed the new coach of the Indian Cricket team for a period of two years?

A. Stuart Law

B. Allan Border

C. Gary Kirsten

D. Duncan Fletcher

E. Allan Donald

Q. 117 Why was Kanishtha Dhankar’s name in news recently?

A. She was crowned Femina Miss India 2011

B. She was adjudged Best Actress 2010 by Film fare

C. She is the new captain of India’s woman cricket team

D. She has become the new Dy Minister of Textile in place of Dayanidhi Maran

E. None of these

Q. 118 K Balachander, who was awarded prestigious Dada Saheb Phalke Award 2010, is basically a/an

A. Actor

B. Director

C. Photographer

D. Music Director

E. Choreographer

Q. 119 Banks and other financial institutions in India are required to maintain a certain amount of liquid assets like cash, precious metals and other short-term securities as a reserve all the time. In Banking World, this is known as

A. CRR

B. Fixed Asset

C. SLR

D. PLR

E. None of these

Q. 120 Which of the following space agencies recently launched three satellites and placed them into Polar Sun Synchronous Orbit successfully?

A. NASA

B. ROSCOSMOS

C. cnsa

D. ISRO

E. JAXA

Q. 121 As per the decision taken by the Govt. of India recently, “Bamboo is a liberated item now”. What does it really mean?

(A) Bamboo, henceforth, will be treated as a minor forest produce only

(B) Now villagers are free to sell bamboo in their community forest areas

A. Only (A)

B. Only (B)

C. Only (C)

D. All (A), (B) and (C)

E. None of these

Q. 122 Union Cabinet recently passed a ₹7000-crore project to clean up which of the following rivers in India?

A. Narmada

B. Ravi

C. Ganga

D. Chambal

E. Krishna

Q. 123 As per estimates of the Planning Commission of India, the target growth rate of 12th Five Year Plan is set at

A. 7 to 8%

B. 8.0 to 8.5%

C. 9 to 9.5%

D. 10 to 10.5%

E. 11%

Q. 124 Goodluck Jonathan was recently re-elected the President of

A. South Africa

B. Nigeria

C. Kosovo

D. Haiti

E. None of these

Q. 125 Which of the following schemes has NOT been launched by the Ministry of Rural

Development, Govt. of India?

A. National Old Age Pension Scheme

B. National Maternity Benefit Scheme

C. National Family Benefit Scheme

D. Mid-day Meal Scheme

E. All are launched by Ministry of Rural Development

Q. 126 Where are you likely to find an embedded operating system?

A. On a desktop operating system

B. On a networked PC

C. On a networked Server

D. On a PDA

E. On a mainframe

Q. 127 An online discussion group that allows direct “live” communication is known as

A. Webcrawler

B. Chat group

C. Regional service provider

D. Hyperlink

E. E-mail

Q. 128 Which of the following is a program that uses a variety of different approaches to identify and eliminate spam?

A. Directory search

B. Anti-spam program

C. Web server

D. Web storefront creation package

E. Virus

Q. 129 Connection or link to other documents or Web Pages that contain related information is called

A. Dial-up

B. Electronic commerce

C. Hyperlink

D. E-cash

E. Domain name

Q. 130 Which of the following is a programming language for creating special programs like applets?

A. Java

B. Cable

C. Domain name

D. Net

E. COBOL

Q. 131 The system unit

A. Coordinates input and output devices

B. Is the container that houses electronic components

C. Is a combination of hardware and software

D. Controls and manipulates data

E. Does the arithmetic operations

Q. 132 System software

A. Allows the user to diagnose and troubleshoot the device

B. Is a programming language

C. Is part of a productivity suite

D. Is an optional form of software

E. Helps the computer manage internal resources

Q. 133 Computer and communication technology, such as communication links to the Internet, that provide help and understanding to the end user is known as

A. Presentation file

B. Information technology

C. Program

D. Worksheet file

E. FTP

Q. 134 Which of the following is contained on chips connected to the system board and is a holding area for data instructions and information? (processed data waiting to be output

to secondary storage)

A. Program

B. Mouse

C. Internet

D. Memory

E. Modem

Q. 135 Microsoft’s Messenger allows users to

A. Bypass a browser to surf the Web

B. Create a blog

C. Communicate via direct live communication

D. Identify and eliminate spam

E. Make graphic presentations

Q. 136 Portable computer, also known as a laptop computer, weighing between 4 and 10 pounds is called

A. General-purpose application

B. Internet

C. Scanner

D. Printer

E. Notebook computer

Q. 137 The main circuit-board of the system unit is the

A. Computer program

B. Control unit

C. Motherboard

D. RAM

E. None of these

Q. 138 Which of the following is billionth of a second?

A. Gigabyte

B. Terabyte

C. Nanosecond

D. Microsecond

E. Terasecond

Q. 139 Online Marketing is the function of which of the following?

A. Purchase section

B. Production Department

C. IT Department

D. Designs Section

E. A collective function of all staff

Q. 140 Customization is useful for

A. Designing customer specific products

B. Call centers

C. Publicity

D. Motivating the staff

E. Cold calls

Q. 141 The key challenge to market-driven strategy is

A. Selling maximum products

B. Employing maximum DSAs

C. Delivering superior value to customers

D. Being rigid to changes

E. Adopting short-term vision

Q. 142 Effective selling skills depends on

A. Size of the sales team

B. Age of the sales team

C. Peer strength

D. Knowledge level of the sales team

E. Educational level of the sales team

Q. 143 Generation of sales leads can be improved by

A. Being very talkative

B. Increasing personal and professional contacts

C. Being passive

D. Engaging Recovery Agents

E. Product Designs

Q. 144 A Market Plan is

A. Performance Appraisal of marketing staff

B. Company Prospectus

C. Documented marketing strategies

D. Business targets

E. Call centre

Q. 145 Marketing channels mean

A. Delivery objects

B. Sales targets

C. Delivery outlets

D. Delivery boys

E. Sales teams

Q. 146 Social Marketing means

A. Share market prices

B. Marketing by the entire society

C. Internet Marketing

D. Marketing for a social cause

E. Society bylaws

Q. 147 Service Marketing is the same as

A. Internet Marketing

B. Telemarketing

C. Internal Marketing

D. Relationship Marketing

E. Transaction Marketing

Q. 148 Market-driven strategies include

A. Identifying problems

B. Planning marketing tactics of peers

C. Positioning the Organisation and its brands in the marketplace

D. Internal marketing

E. Selling old products

Q. 149 Innovation in marketing is same as

A. Motivation

B. Perspiration

C. Aspiration

D. Creativity

E. Team work

Q. 150 Personal Loans can be canvassed among

A. Salaried persons

B. Pensioners

C. Foreign Nationals

D. NRI customers

E. Non-customers

Questions: 151 – 160

Directions (Q 151-160) :

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below.

Certain words/phrases have been given in quotes to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Jagir Singh has sold red onions at a market in south Delhi everyday for the past half-century. Perched on an upturned crate, wrapped tight against the chill air, he offers pyaz, a staple for much Indian cooking, for 60 rupees a kilo, the most he can remember. Business is brisk but most customers pick up only a small handful of onions. That is just as well. Wholesale supplies are “tight”, he says, and the quality is poor. As India’s economy grows by some 9% a year, food prices are soaring. In late December, the commerce ministry judged that food inflation had reached 18.3%, with pricey vegetables mostly to blame. Officials have made some attempts to “temper” the rise in the past month – scrapping import taxes for onions, banning their export and ordering low-priced sales at government-run shops. But there is no quick fix. Heavy rain in the west of India brought a roten harvest. Vegetables from farther afield – including a politically sensitive delivery from a neighbouring country – are costly to move on India’s crowded, pot-holed roads. Few refrigerated lorries and poor logistics mean that much of each harvest is wasted. Newspapers allege hoarders are “cashing in”. The biggest problems are structural. Food producers, hampered by land restrictions, “archaic” retail networks and bad infrastructure, fail to meet extra demand from consumers. It was estimated in October that a 39% rise in income per person in the previous five years might have created an extra 220 million regular consumers of milk, eggs, meat and fish. Supplies have not kept up with this potential demand. The broader inflation rate may be a less eye-watering problem than the onions suggest. The central bank has lifted interest rates steadily in the past year and is expected to do so again later this month. Headline inflation fell to 7.5% in November, down by just over a percentage point from October, though it is still above the central bank’s forecast of 5.5% for March.

Q. 151 What is responsible for the increased demand of certain food items amongst consumers?

A. There has been an increase in the wholesale supplies of this food stuff

B. The vegetables in the market are highly priced

C. There has been an increase in the incomes of people

D. There is a lack of availability of vegetables in the market

E. There has been a surge in population

Q. 152 Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?

A. The overall inflation is not as bad as the food inflation in India

B. Help from other countries to counter food inflation has proved to be quite encouraging

C. Government is banning the export of certain types of vegetables in order to check food inflation

D. Highly priced vegetables are mostly responsible for the increased food inflation

E. All the above statements are true

Q. 153 Which of the following is/are the reason/s for increase in food/vegetable prices?

(A) Bad weather

(B) Land restrictions

A. Only (B)

B. Only (A) and (C)

C. Only (A) and (B)

D. Only (B) and (C)

E. All (A), (B) and (C)

Q. 154 Which of the following is/are TRUE in the context of the passage?

(A) Interest rates are being raised in India

(B) India is witnessing a steady economic growth

A. All (A), (B) and (C)

B. Only (A) and (B)

C. Only (C)

D. Only (B) and (C)

E. None is true

Q. 155 Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage?

A. Food Inflation in India

B. Onions and Vendors

C. Food Deficit Worldwide

D. Food Imports in India

E. Benefits to Indian Consumers

Q. 156 What can be said about the sale of onions at present as given in the passage?

A. Vegetables vendors are unwilling to sell onions

B. People are not buying as much as they used to

C. The sale of onions has picked up and is unprecedented

D. People are buying more onions than they used to

E. None of these

Q. 157 The usage of the phrase “cashing in” in the passage can possible mean

A. Profiting

B. Running away

C. Paying money

D. Bailing out

E. Buffering

Q. 158 Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word “tight” as used in the passage?

A. Firm

B. Loose

C. Limited

D. Taut

E. Tense

Q. 159 Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word “temper” as used in the passage?

A. Displeasure

B. Anger

C. Rage

D. Harness

E. Control

Q. 160 Which of the following is most opposite in meaning of the word “archaic” as used in the passage?

A. Simple

B. Straightforward

C. Modern

D. Lively

E. Ancient

Questions: 161 – 165

Directions (Q161 – 165) :

Which of the phrases given below each sentence in the options should replace the phrase given in quotes in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is then choose option 5 as the correct answer.

Q. 161 Seeing that there was an ongoing sale in one of her favourite stores, Seeta “made a bee line for” it immediately after entering the mall

A. Made a bee’s line for

B. Make bees lined to

C. Made a bee line to

D. Make bee line to

E. No correction required

Q. 162 Sharon made it to work in the “nicks of time”, or else she would have missed the meeting

A. Nick of time

B. Nicked time

C. Nick of timeliness

D. Nick and time

E. No correction required

Q. 163 Varun was “on cloud nine” after having stood first in his class

A. In ninth cloud

B. On nine clouds

C. A cloudy nine

D. Cloud on nine

E. No correction required

Q. 164 Vithal had a habit of “pass the buck” when it came to important issues at work

A. Pass to bucking

B. Passing buck

C. Passing the buck

D. Pass buck

E. No correction required

Q. 165 Puneet “racked his brains” and tried to find an answer to a tricky question given in the paper but couldn’t find one

A. Rake his brain

B. Racked his brains

C. Racked brains

D. Raked brain

E. No correction required

Questions: 166 – 170

Directions (Q 166-170) :

Each question has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Find out which option can be used to fill up the blank in the sentence in the same sequence to make it meaningfully complete.

Q. 166 The water transport project on the west coast is ________ to get a shot in the arm with a new plan in which the Road Development Corporation will build the infrastructure and ________ a private party to operate the service.

A. scheduled, let

B. verge, permit

C. set, sanctions

D. slated, allow

E. bound, task

Q. 167 As the weekend finally rolled around, the city folk were only ________ happy to settle down and laugh their cares ________.

A. just, fair

B. too, away

C. extremely, off

D. very, up

E. so, on

Q. 168 The flood of brilliant ideas has not only ________ us, but has also encouraged us to ________ the last date for submission of entries.

A. overwhelmed, extend

B. enjoyed, stretch

C. dismayed, decide

D. scared, scrap

E. happy, boundary

Q. 169 ________ about prolonged power cuts in urban areas, the authorities have decided to ________ over to more reliable and eco-friendly systems to run its pumps.

A. worried, shift

B. frantic, move

C. troubled, jump

D. concerned, switch

E. endangered, click

Q. 170 The high cutoff marks this year have ________ college admission-seekers to either ________ for lesser known colleges or change their subject preferences.

A. cajoled, ask

B. pressured, sit

C. forced, settle

D. strained, compromise

E. entrusted, wait

Questions: 171 – 185

Directions (Q 171-185) :

Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words/phrases have been given in quotes to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

India is rushing headlong towards economic success and modernization, counting on high-tech industries such as information technology and biotechnology to “propel” the nation to prosperity. India’s recent announcement that it would no longer produce unlicensed inexpensive generic pharmaceuticals bowed to the realities of the World Trade Organisation while at the same time challenging the domestic drug industry to compete with the multinational firms. Unfortunately, its weak higher education sector constitutes the “Achilles’ heel” of this strategy. Its systematic disinvestment in higher education in recent years has yielded neither world-class research nor very many highly trained scholars, scientists or managers to sustain high-tech development. India’s main competitors – especially China, but also Singapore, Taiwan and South Korea – are investing in large and “differentiated” higher education systems. They are providing access to a large number of students at the bottom of the academic system while at the same time building some research-based universities that are able to compete with the world’s best institutions. The recent London Times Higher Education Supplement ranking of the world’s top 200 universities include three in china, three in Hong Kong, three in South Korea, one in Taiwan and one in India. These countries are positioning themselves for leadership in the knowledge-based economies of the coming era. There was a time when countries could achieve economic success with cheap labour and low-tech manufacturing. Low wages still help, but contemporary large-scale development requires a sophisticated and at least partly knowledge based economy. India has chosen that path, but will find a major “stumbling block” in its university system. India has significant advantages in the 21st century knowledge race. It has a large higher education sector – the third largest in the world in terms of number of students, after china and the United States. It uses English as a primary language of higher education and research. It has a long academic tradition. Academic freedom is respected. There are a small number of high-quality institutions, departments and centres that can form the basis of quality sector in higher education. The fact that the States, rather than the Central Government, exercise major responsibility for higher education creates a rather “cumbersome” structure, but the system allows for a variety of policies and approaches. Yet the weakness far outweighs the strengths. India educates approximately 10 percent of its young people in higher education compared to more than half in the major industralised countries and 15 percent in china. Almost all of the world’s academic systems “resemble” a pyramid, with a small, high quality tier at the top and a “massive” sector at the bottom. India has a tiny top tier. None of its universities occupies a solid position at the top. A few of the best universities have some excellent departments and centres and there are a small number of outstanding undergraduate colleges. The University Grants Commission’s recent major support to five universities to build on their recognized strength is a step towards recognizing a differentiated academic system and “fostering” excellence. These universities, combines, enroll well under one percent of the student population.

Q. 171 Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?

A. The top five universities in India educate more than 10 percent of the Indian student population

B. India’s higher education sector is the largest in the world

C. In the past, countries could progress economically through low manufacturing cost as well as low wages of labourers

D. India has recently invested heavy sums in the higher education sector leading to world-class research

E. All are true

Q. 172 What does the phrase “Achilles’ heel” mean as used in the passage?

A. Weakness

B. Quickness

C. Low quality

D. Nimbleness

E. Advantage

Q. 173 Which of the following is/are India’s strength/s in terms of higher education?

(A) Its system of higher education allows variations

(B) Medium of instruction for most higher learning is English

educational sector

A. Only (B)

B. Only (A) and (B)

C. Only (C)

D. Only (B) and (C)

E. All (A), (B) and (C)

Q. 174 What are the Asian countries, other than India, doing to head towards a knowledge based economy?

(A) Building competitive research-based universities

(B) Investing in diverse higher education systems

A. Only (A)

B. Only (A) and (B)

C. Only (B) and (C)

D. Only (B)

E. All (A), (B) and (C)

Q. 175 Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage?

A. The Future of Indian Universities

B. Methods of overcoming the Educational Deficit in India

C. India and the Hunt for a Knowledge-Based Economy

D. Indian Economy Versus Chinese Economy

E. Indian Economy and its Features

Q. 176 What did India agree to do at the behest of the World Trade Organisation?

A. It would stop manufacturing all types of pharmaceuticals

B. It would ask its domestic pharmaceutical companies to compete with the international ones

C. It would buy licensed drugs only from the USA

D. It would not manufacture cheap common medicines without a license

E. None of these

Q. 177 Which of the following is/are India’s weakness/es when it comes to higher education?

(A) Indian universities do not have the requisite teaching faculty to cater to the needs of the higher education sector

(B) Only five Indian universities occupy the top position very strongly in the academic pyramid when it comes to higher education

(C) India has the least percentage of young population taking to higher education as compared to the rest of the comparable countries

A. Only (A) and (B)

B. Only (B)

C. Only (C)

D. Only (A) and (C)

E. All (A), (B) and (C)

Q. 178 Which of the following according to the passage is/are needed for the economic success of a country?

(A) Cheap labour

(B) Educated employees

A. Only (A) and (B)

B. Only (B)

C. Only (C)

D. Only (B) and (C)

E. All (A), (B) and (C)

Q. 179 Which word is most similar in meaning to the word “FOSTERING” as used in the passage?

A. Safeguarding

B. Neglecting

C. Sidelining

D. Nurturing

E. Ignoring

Q. 180 Which word is most similar in meaning to the word “PROPEL” as used in the passage?

A. Drive

B. Jettison

C. Burst

D. Acclimatize

E. Modify

Q. 181 Which word is most similar in meaning to the word “MASSIVE” as used in the passage?

A. Lump sum

B. Strong

C. Little

D. Gaping

E. Huge

Q. 182 Which word is most similar in meaning to the word “STUMBLING BLOCK” as used in the passage?

A. Argument

B. Frustration

C. Advantage

D. Hurdle

E. Fallout

Q. 183 Which word is opposite in meaning to the word “CUMBERSOME” as used in the passage?

A. Handy

B. Manageable

C. Breathtaking

D. Awkward

E. Difficult

Q. 184 Which word is opposite in meaning to the word “RESEMBLE” as used in the passage?

A. Against

B. Similar to

C. Mirror

D. Differ from

E. Unfavorable to

Q. 185 Which word is opposite in meaning to the word “DIFFERENTIATED” as used in the passage?

A. Similar

B. Varied

C. Harmonized

D. Synchronized

E. Discriminated

Questions: 186 – 190

Directions (Q 186-190) :

Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions that follow.

(A) Its prevalence reflects very badly on a society that is not able to stop this evil.

(B) Though elimination of child labour is an impossible task considering the current socio-economic scenario of these poor families, the Indian government is committed to the task of ensuring that no child remains illiterate, hungry and without medical care

(D) The members of these households have to send their children to work, even if the future of these innocent children is ruined, as that is the only choice open for them to survive in this world.

(E) Child labour is, no doubt, an evil that should be done away with at the earliest.

(F) But in a society where many households may have to suffer the pangs of hunger if the children are withdrawn from work, beggars can’t be choosers.

Q. 186 Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

A. A

B. E

C. C

D. F

E. D

Q. 187 Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

A. B

B. A

C. C

D. F

E. E

Q. 188 Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

A. A

B. F

C. D

D. B

E. C

Q. 189 Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

A. E

B. A

C. F

D. C

E. D

Q. 190 Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?

A. A

B. C

C. E

D. D

E. B

Questions: 191 – 200

Directions (Q 191-200) :

In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.

These numbers are given in the questions below and five words are given against it, one of which fits in the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. Around the world, forests are being (__1__) at a rate of about thirteen million hectares a year and deforestation accounts for an estimated 17-20% of all global emissions. In addition, forests and other terrestrial carbon sinks play a (__2__) role in preventing runaway climate change, soaking up a full 2.6 Gt of atmospheric carbon every year. The destruction of forests, therefore, not only emits carbon – a staggering 1.6 Gt a year, which severely (__3__) forest’s capacity to absorb emissions from other sources – but also drastically (__4__) the amount of forested land available to act as a carbon sink in the future. However, the effects of deforestation extend beyond carbon. Rainforests (__5__) a wide variety of ecosystems services, from regulating rainfall to purifying groundwater and keeping fertile soil from (__6__); deforestation in one area can seriously damage food production and (__7__) to clean water in an entire region. The value of global ecosystem services has been estimated at 33 trillion USD each year (almost half of global GDP), but these services have been taken for granted without a mechanism to make the market reflect their value. Rainforests are also a home and (__8__) of income for a huge number of people in Africa, Asia and South America. (__9__) this, economic pressures frequently drive both local communities and national governments in the developing world to (__10__) these forests in ways that are unsustainable, clear-cutting vast areas for fuel, timber, mining, or agricultural land.

Q. 191 The word suitable for (__1__) is

A. Ended

B. Destroyed

C. Extinct

D. Killed

E. Wasted

Q. 192 The word suitable for (__2__) is

A. Tough

B. Important

C. Vital

D. Biggest

E. Effective

Q. 193 The word suitable for (__3__) is

A. Affects

B. Diminishes

C. Increases

D. Alternates

E. Impairs

Q. 194 The word suitable for (__4__) is

A. Plagues

B. Develops

C. Reduces

D. Shortens

E. Influences

Q. 195 The word suitable for (__5__) is

A. Sell

B. Offer

C. Give

D. Provide

E. Earns

Q. 196 The word suitable for (__6__) is

A. Transforming

B. Decoding

C. Erupting

D. Draining

E. Eroding

Q. 197 The word suitable for (__7__) is

A. Handiness

B. Excess

C. Availability

D. Access

E. Supply

Q. 198 The word suitable for (__8__) is

A. Beginning

B. Source

C. Ways

D. Reference

E. Measure

Q. 199 The word suitable for (__9__) is

A. Despite

B. Also

C. Inspite

D. Apart

E. Beside

Q. 200 The word suitable for (__10__) is

A. Exploit

B. Encompass

C. Nurture

D. Work

E. Improve

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	D	A	D	A	E	D	A	B	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	E	C	B	C	C	D	E	C	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	E	A	D	C	E	B	C	E	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	C	D	B	D	A	A	A	E	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	D	A	A	A	B	D	A	D	D	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	E	B	C	A	D	D	B	A	E	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	C	E	B	D	C	A	D	E	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	C	E	D	E	C	B	C	B	A	E
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	A	D	C	E	D	A	E	C	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	D	A	E	C	C	A	B	D	E
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	B	B	A	A	E	A	A	C	D	E
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	E	E	C	A	B	D	A	B	C	D
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	D	C	C	B	D	D	B	B	C	A
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	C	E	A	D	C	E	C	C	E	A
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	C	C	B	C	A	D	D	A	D	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	B	E	B	A	B	A	C	E	C
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	E	A	E	C	B	D	B	A	D	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	C	A	D	B	C	D	C	E	D	A
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	E	D	B	D	A	B	D	A	D	E
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	B	C	E	C	B	E	D	B	A	A

UPSC 2014 Paper-II (CSAT) Previous Year Paper

UPSC 2014 Paper-II (CSAT)

Questions: 1 – 3

Read the following passage carefully and answer the Q(1-3).

In recent times, India has grown fast not only compared to its own past but also in comparison with other nations. But there cannot be any room for complacency because it is possible for the Indian economy to develop even faster and also to spread the benefits of this growth more widely than has been done thus far. Before going into details of the kinds of micro-structural changes that we need to conceptualize and then proceed to implement, it is worthwhile elaborating on the idea of inclusive growth that constitutes the defining concept behind this Government’s various economic policies and decisions. A nation interested in inclusive growth views the same growth differently depending on whether the gains of the growth are heaped primarily on a small segment or shared widely by the population. The latter is caused for celebration but not the former. In other words, growth must not be treated as an end in itself but as an instrument for spreading prosperity to all. India’s own past experience and the experience of other nations suggest that growth is necessary for eradicating poverty but it is not a sufficient condition. In other words, policies for promoting growth need to be complemented with policies to ensure that more and more people joined in the growth process and, further, that there are mechanisms in place to redistribute some of the gains to those who are unable to partake in the market process and, hence, get left behind.

A simple way of giving this idea of inclusive growth a sharper form is to measure a nation’s progress in terms of the progress of its poorest segment, for instance the bottom 20 per cent of the population. One could measure the per capital income of the bottom quin tile of the population and also calculate the growth rate of income; and evaluate our economic success in terms of these measures that pertain to the poorest segment. This approach is attractive because it does not ignore growth like some of the older heterodox criteria did. It simply looks at the growth of income of the poorest sections of the population. It also ensures that those who are outside of the bottom quintile do not get ignored. If that were done, then those people would in all likelihood drop down into the bottom quintile and so would automatically become a direct target of our policies. Hence the criterion being suggested here is a statistical summing up of the idea of inclusive growth, which, in turn, leads to two corollaries : to wish that India must strive to achieve high growth and that we must work to ensure that the weakest segments benefit from the growth.

Q. 1 The author’s central focus is on

A. Applauding India’s economic growth not only against its own past performance, but against other nations.

B. Emphasizing the need for economic growth which is the sole determinant of a country’s prosperity.

C. Emphasizing inclusive growth where gains of growth are shared widely by the population.

D. Emphasizing high growth

Q. 2 The author supports policies which will help

A. Develop economic growth.

B. Better distributions of incomes irrespective of rate of growth.

C. Develop economic growth and redistribute economic gains to those getting left behind.

D. Put an emphasis on the development of the poorest segments of society.

Q. 3 According to the author, India’s economy has grown but there is no room for complacency as

1. Growth eradicates poverty.

2. Growth has resulted in prosperity for all.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Questions: 4 – 5

Passage – 2

It is easy for the government to control State-owned companies through nods and winks. So what really needs to be done as a first step is to put petrol pricing on a transparent formula – if the price of crude is x and the exchange rate y, then every month or fortnight, the government announces a maximum price of petrol, which anybody can work out from the x and the y. The rule has to be worked out to make sure that the oil-marketing companies can, in general, cover their costs. This will mean that if one company can innovate and cut costs, it will make greater profits. Hence, firms will be more prone to innovate and be efficient under this system. Once the rule is announced, there should be no interference by the government. If this is done for a while, private companies will re-enter this market. And once a sufficient number of them are in the fray, we can remove the rule-based pricing and leave it truly to the market (subject to, of course, the usual regulations of anti-trust and other competition laws).

Q. 4 Consider the following statements:

According to the passage, an oil company can make greater profits, if a transparent formula for petrol pricing is announced every fortnight or month, by

1. Promoting its sales.

2. Undertaking innovation.

3. Cutting costs.

4. Selling its equity shares at higher prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 and 4

D. 1, 2 and 4

Q. 5 Consider the following statements:

According to the passage, private oil companies re-enter the oil producing market if

1. a transparent rule-based petrol pricing exists.

2. there is no government interference in the oil producing market.

3. subsidies are given by the government.

4. regulations of anti-trust are removed.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 3 and 4

D. 2 and 4

Q. 6 Five persons five bullets at an interval 0f 6, 7, 8, 9, and 12 seconds respectively. The number of times they would fire the bullets together at the target in an hour is

A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 9

Q. 7 A group of 630 children is seated in rows for a group photo session. Each row contains three less children than the row in front of it. Which one of the following number of rows is not possible?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

Q. 8 There are seven persons up on a ladder, A, B, C, D, E, F and G (not in that order). A is further up than E but is lower than C. B is in the middle. G is between A and B. E is between B and F. If F is between E and D, the person on the bottom step of the ladder will be

A. B

B. F

C. D

D. E

Q. 9 Consider that:

1. A is taller than B.

2. C is taller than A.

3. D is taller than C.

4. E is the tallest of all.

If they are made to sit in the above order of their height, who will occupy the mid position?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 10 Consider the following statements:

There are six villages A, B, C, D, E and F.

F is 1km to the west of D.

B is 1km to the east of E.

A is 2km to the north of E.

C is 1km to the east of A.

D is 1km to the south of A.

Which three villages are in a line?

A. A, C, B

B. A, D, E

C. C, B, F

D. E, B, D

Q. 11 Four children are sitting in a row. A is occupying the seat next to B but not next to C. If C is not sitting next to D, who is/are occupying seat/seats adjacent to D?

A. B

B. A

C. B and A

D. Impossible to tell

Q. 12 Assume that:

1. the hour and minute hands of a clock move without jerking.

2. the clock shows a time between 8 o’clock and 9 o’clock.

3. the two hands of the clock are one above the other.

After how many minutes (nearest integer) will the two hands be again lying one above the other?

A. 60

B. 62

C. 65

D. 67

Questions: 13 – 14

Passage – 1

Climate change poses potentially devastating effects on India’s agriculture. While the overall parameters of climate change are increasingly accepted – 1’C average temperature increase over the next 30 years, sea level rise of less than 10 cm in he same period, and regional monsoon variations and corresponding droughts – the impacts in India are likely to be quite site and crop specific. Some crops may respond favorably to the changing conditions, others may not. This emphasizes the need to promote agricultural research and create maximum flexibility in the system to permit adaptations. The key ingredient for”drought proofing” is the managed recharge of aquifers. To ensure continued yields of important staple crops (e.g. wheat), it may also be necessary to shift the locations where these crops are grown, in response to temperature changes as well as to water availability. The latter will be a key factor in making long term investment decisions. For example, water runoff from the Himalayas is predicted to increase over the next 30 years as glaciers melt, but then decline substantially thereafter. It will be critical to provide incentives to plan for these large-scale shifts in agro-ecological conditions. India needs to make long term investment in research and development in agriculture. India is likely to experience changed weather patterns in future.

Q. 13 Consider the following statements:

Climate change may force the shifting of locations of the existing crops due to

1. Meting of glaciers.

2. water availability and temperature suitability at other locations.

3. Poor productivity of crops.

4. Wider adaptability of crop plants.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q. 14 According to the passage, why is it important to promote agricultural research in India?

A. To predict variations in monsoon patterns and to make water resources.

B. To make long term investment decisions for economic growth.

C. To facilitate wider adaptability of crops.

D. To predict drought conditions and to recharge aquifers.

Questions: 15 – 18

Passage – 2

It is essential that we mitigate the emissions of greenhouse gases and thus avoid some of the worst impacts of climate change that would take place in coming years and decades. Mitigation would require a major shift in the way we produce and consume energy. A shift away from overwhelming dependence on fossil fuels is now long overdue, but unfortunately, technological development has been slow and inadequate largely because government policies have not promoted investments in research and development, myopically as a result of relatively low prices of oil. It is now, therefore, imperative for a country like India treating the opportunity of harnessing renewable energy on a large scale as a national imperative. This country is extremely well endowed with solar, wind and biomass sources of energy. Where we have lagged, unfortunately, is in our ability to develop and to create technological solutions for harnessing these resources. One particular trajectory for carrying out stringent mitigation of greenhouse gas emissions assessed by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) clearly shows the need for ensuring that global emissions of greenhouse gases peak no later than 2015 and reduce rapidly thereafter. The cost associated with such a trajectory is truly modest and would amount, in the estimation of IPCC, to not more than 3 percent of the global GDP in 2030. In other words, the level of prosperity that the world would have reached without mitigation would at worst be postponed by a few months or a year at the most. This is clearly not a very high price to pay for protecting hundreds of millions of people from the worst risks associated with climate change. Any such effort, however, would require lifestyles to change appropriately also. Mitigation of greenhouse gas emissions is not a mere technological fix, and clearly requires changes in lifestyle and transformation of a country’s economic structure, whereby effective reduction in emissions is brought about , such as through the consumption of much lower quantities of animal proteins. The Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) has determined that the emissions from the livestock sector amount to 18% of the total. The reduction of emissions from this source is entirely in the hands of human beings, who have never questioned the impact that their dietary habits of consuming more and more animal protein are bringing about. Mitigation overall has huge co-benefits, such as lower air pollution and health benefits, higher energy and greater employment.

Q. 15 According to the passage, which of the following would help in the mitigation of greenhouse gases?

1. Reducing the consumption of meat.

2. Rapid economic liberalization.

3. Reducing the consumerism.

4. Modern management practices of livestock.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 4 only

Q. 16 Why do we continue to depend on the fossil fuels heavily?

1. In adequate technological development.

2. Inadequate funds for research and development.

3. Inadequate availability of alternative sources of energy.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 17 According to the passage, how does the mitigation of greenhouse gases help us?

1. Reduces expenditure on public health

2. Reduces dependence on livestock.

3. Reduces energy requirements.

4. Reduces rate of global climate change

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1, 3 and 4

C. 2, 3 and 4

D. 1 and 4 only

Q. 18 What is the essential message of the passage?

A. We continue to depend on fossil fuels heavily.

B. Mitigation of the greenhouse gases is imperative.

C. We must invest in research and development.

D. People must change their lifestyle.

Q. 19 There are 50 students admitted to a nursery class. Some student can speak only English and some can speak only Hindi. 10 students can speak both English and Hindi. If the number of students who can speak English is 21, then how many students can speak Hindi, how many can speak only Hindi and how many can speak only English?

A. 21, 11 and 29 respectively

B. 28, 18 and 22 respectively

C. 37, 27 and 13 respectively

D. 39, 29 and 11 respectively

Q. 20 A gardener increased the area of his rectangular garden by increasing its length by 40% and decreasing its width by 20%. The area of the new garden is

A. Has increased by 20%.

B. Has increased by 12%

C. Has increased by 8%

D. Is exactly the same as the old area.

Q. 21 Six books are labelled A, B, C, D, E and F and are placed side by side. Books B, C, E and F have green covers while others have yellow covers. Books A, B and D are new while the rest are old volumes. Book A, B and C are Law reports while the rest are medical extracts. Which two books are old medical extracts and have green covers?

A. B and C

B. E and F

C. C and E

D. C and F

Q. 22 A straight line segment is 36cm long. Points are to be marked on the line from both the end points. From each end, the first point is at a distance of 1 cm from the end, the second point is at a distance of 2 cm from the first point and the third point is at distance of 3 cm from the second point and so on. If the points on the ends are not counted and the common points are counted as one, what is the number of points?

A. 10

B. 12

C. 14

D. 16

Q. 23 If Sohan, while selling two goats at the same price, makes a profit of 10% on one goat and suffers a loss of 10% on the other.

A. he makes no profit and no loss.

B. he makes a profit of 1%.

C. he suffers a loss of 1%.

D. he suffers a loss of 2%

Q. 24 Out of a total of 120 musicians in a club, 5% can play all the three instruments, guitar, violin and flute. It so happens that the number of musicians who can play any two and only two of the above instrument is 30. The number of musicians who can play the guitar alone is 40. What is the total number of those who can play violin alone or flute alone?

A. 45

B. 44

C. 38

D. 30

Q. 25 Six identical cards are placed on a table. Each card has number ‘1’ marked on one side and number ‘2’ marked on its other side. All the six cards are placed in such a manner that the number ‘1’ is on the upper side. In one try, exactly four (neither more nor less) cards are turned upside down. In how many least number of tries can the cards be turned upside down such that all the six cards shows number ‘2’ on the upper side?

A. 3

B. 5

C. 7

D. This cannot be achieved

Questions: 26 – 29

Passage – 1

The Himalayan ecosystem is highly vulnerable to damage, both due to geological reasons and on account of the stress caused by increased pressure of population, exploitation of natural resources and other related challenges. These aspects may be exacerbated due to the impact of climate change. It is possible that climate change may adversely impact the Himalayan ecosystem through increased temperature, altered precipitation patterns, episodes of drought and biotic influences. This would not only impact the very sustenance of the indigenous communities in uplands but also the life of downstream dwellers across the country and beyond. Therefore, there is an urgent need for giving special attention to sustain the Himalayan ecosystem. This would require conscious efforts for conserving all the representative systems. Further, it needs to be emphasized that the endemics with restricted distribution, and most often with specialized habitat requirements, are among the most vulnerable elements. In this respect the Himalayan biodiversity hotspot, with rich endemic diversity, is vulnerable to climate change. The threats include possible loss of genetic resources and species, habitats and concomitantly a decrease in ecosystem services. Therefore, conservation of endemic elements in representative ecosystems/habitats assumes a great significance while drawing conservation plans for the region. Towards achieving the above, we will have to shift toward contemporary conservation approaches, which include a paradigm of landscape level inter connectivity between protected area systems. The concept advocates a shift from the species-habitat focus to an inclusive focus on expanding the bio geographic range so that natural adjustments to climate change can proceed without being restrictive.

Q. 26 Consider the following statements:

According to the passage, the adverse impact of climate change on an ecosystem can be a

1. permanent disappearance of some of its flora and fauna.

2. permanent disappearance of ecosystem itself

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q. 27 Which of the following statements best implies the need to shift toward contemporary conservation approach?

A. Exploitation of natural resources causes a stress on the Himalayan ecosystem.

B. Climate change alters precipitation patterns, causes episodes of drought and biotic interference.

C. The rich biodiversity, including endemic diversity, makes the Himalayan region a biodiversity hotspot.

D. The Hiamalayan biogeographic region should be enabled to adapt to climate change smoothly.

Q. 28 What is the most important message conveyed by the passage?

A. Endemism is a characteristic feature of Himalayan region.

B. Conservation efforts should emphasize on biogeographic ranges rather than on some species or habitats.

C. Climate change has adverse impact on the Himalayan ecosystem.

D. Without Himalayan ecosystem, the life of the communities of upland and downstreams will have no sustenance.

Q. 29 With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. To maintain natural ecosystems, exploitation of natural resources should be completely avoided.

2. Not only anthropogenic but also natural reasons can adversely affect ecosystems.

3. Loss of endemic diversity leads to the extinction of ecosystems.

Which of the following assumptions are is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3

D. 3 only

Questions: 30 – 33

Passage – 2

It is often forgotten that globalization is not only about policies on international economic relationships and transactions, but has equally to do with domestic policies of a nation. Policy changes necessitated by meeting the internationally set conditions (by WTO etc.) of free trade and investment flows obviously affect domestic producers and investors. But the basic philosophy underlying globalization emphasizes absolute freedom to markets to determine prices and production and distribution patterns, and view government interventions as processes that create distortions and bring in inefficiency. Thus, public enterprises have to be privatized through disinvestments and sales; sectors and activities hitherto reserved for the public sector have to be opened to the private sector. This logic extends to the social services like education and heath. Any restrictions on the adjustments in workplace by way of retrenchment of workers should also be removed and exit should be made easier by removing any restrictions on closures. Employment and wages should be governed by free play of market forces, as any measures to regulate them can discourage investment and also create inefficiency in production. Above all, in line with the overall philosophy of reduction in the role of the State, fiscal reforms should be undertaken to have generally low levels of taxation and government expenditure should be kept to he minimum to abide by the principle of fiscal prudence. All these are policy actions on the domestic front and are not directly related to the core items of the globalization agenda, namely free international flow of goods and finance

Q. 30 According to the passage, under the globalization, government interventions are viewed as processes leading to

A. distortions and inefficiency in the economy.

B. optimum use of resources.

C. more profitable to industries.

D. free play of market forces with regards to industries.

Q. 31 According to the passage, the basic philosophy of globalization is to

A. give absolute freedom to producers to determine prices and productions.

B. give freedom to producers to evolve distribution patterns.

C. give absolute freedom to markets to determine prices, production and employment.

D. give freedom to producers to import and export.

Q. 32 According to the passage, which of the following is/are necessary for ensuring

Globalization?

1. Privatization of public enterprises.

2. Expansionary policy of public expenditure.

3. Free play of market forces to determine wages and employment.

4. Privatization of social services like education and health.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 3 and 4

D. 2, 3 and 4

Q. 33 According to the passage, in the process of globalization the State should have

A. expanding role.

B. reducing role.

C. statutory role.

D. none of the above roles.

Questions: 34 – 37

The following graph shows the average profit of two fruit-sellers A and B in thousands (Rs.) per year from the year 1995 to 2000. Consider the graph and answer the 4 (four) items that follows:

Q. 34 In which year is the average profit of A and B is same?

A. 1995

B. 1996

C. 1997

D. 1998

Q. 35 What is the difference between the average profit of B and A in the year 1998?

A. – Rs. 100

B. – Rs. 1,000

C. + Rs. 600

D. – Rs. 300

Q. 36 How much more average profit did A make in the year 2000 than in the year 1999?

A. Rs. 200

B. Rs. 1,000

C. Rs. 1,500

D. Rs. 2,000

Q. 37 What is the trend of the average profit of B from the year 1997 to the year 2000?

A. Non-increasing

B. Non-decreasing

C. Steady

D. Fluctuating

Q. 38 The following table shows the marks obtained by two students in different subjects: The difference in the mean aggregate percentage marks of the students is

A. 2.5%

B. 13.75%

C. 1.25%

D. Zero

Q. 39 Examine the figure 1:

Which one of the following figures (a), (b), (c), (d) has the above figure embedded in it?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 40 Consider the following matrix of figure 1:

Which one of the following figures (a), (b), (c), (d) fits into the blank part of the above matrix?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 41 The following table gives population and total income of a city for four years:

Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of the above data?

A. Population increased by 5% or more every year.

B. Income increased by 10% or more every year.

C. Per capita income was always above Rs. 5,000.

D. Per capita income was highest in 1994.

Q. 42 Consider the table given below in which the numbers bear certain relationship among themselves along the rows:

Which one of the following numbers is the missing number indicated above by X?

A. 19

B. 15

C. 14

D. 8

Q. 43 Consider the following matrix of figure 1 with one empty block in the lower extreme corner:

Which one of the following figures (a), (b), (c), (d) could fit in the empty block and thus complete the matrix?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 44 With reference to the figure given below, the number of different routes from S to T without retracing from U and/or V, is

A. 3

B. 6

C. 9

D. 18

Q. 45 Consider the following sequence in figure 1:

Change in positions of beads in the four figures above follows a sequence. Following the same sequence, which of the figures (a), (b), (c), (d) should appear as the fifth figure above?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 46 A bell rings every 18 minutes. A second bell rings every 24 minutes. A third bell rings every 32 minutes. If all the three bells ring at the same time at 8 o’clock in the morning, at what other time will they all ring together?

A. 12 : 40 hrs

B. 12 : 48 hrs

C. 12 : 56 hrs

D. 13 : 04 hrs

Q. 47 “Price is not the same thing as value. Suppose that on a day the price of everything viz., coal, bread, postage stamps, a day’s labour, the rent of houses, etc. were to double. Prices then would certainly rise, but values of all things except one would not.” The writer wants to say that if prices of all things were doubled

A. the values of all things would remain constant.

B. the values of the things sold would be doubled.

C. the values of the things bought would be halved.

D. the value of money only would be halved.

Q. 48 A and B decide to travel from place X to place Y by bus. A has Rs. 10 with him and he finds that it is 80% of the bus fare for two persons. B finds that he has Rs. 3 with him and hands it over to A. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Now the money A has is just enough to buy two tickets.

B. A still needs Rs. 2 for buying the tickets.

C. After buying the two tickets A will be left with 50 paise.

D. The money A now has is still not sufficient to buy two tickets.

Q. 49 As per agreement with a bank, a businessman had to refund a loan in some equal installments without interest. After paying 18 installments he found that 60 percent of his loan was refunded. How many installments were there in the agreement?

A. 22

B. 24

C. 30

D. 33

Q. 50 A worker reaches his factory 3 minutes late if his speed from his house to the factory is 5km/hr. If he walks at a speed of 6km/hr, then he reaches the factory 7 minutes early. The distance of the factory from his house is

A. 3 km

B. 4 km

C. 5 km

D. 6 km

Q. 51 “Liberty, therefore, is never real unless the Government can be called to account when it invades rights.”

Which one of the following is the best justification of the above statement?

A. In the realization that the government can be brought to book in a court of law.

B. In identifying a man as a political unit in a way which distinguishes him from other citizens.

C. In a decentralised society wherein the basic needs of men can find satisfaction.

D. In the understanding that liberty and restraints are complementary.

Questions: 52 – 54

Passage – 1

Many nations now place their faith in capitalism and governments choose it as the strategy to create wealth for their people. The spectacular economic growth seen in Brazil, China and India after the liberalisation of their economies is proof of its enormous potential and success. However, the global banking crisis and the economic recession have left many bewildered. The debates tend to focus on free market operations and forces, their efficiency and their ability for self correction. Issues of justice, integrity and honesty are rarely elaborated to highlight the failure of the global banking system. The apologists of the system continue to justify the success of capitalism and argue that the recent crisis was a blip. Their arguments betray an ideological bias with the assumptions that an unregulated market is fair and competent, and that the exercise of private greed will be in the larger public interest. Few recognize the bidirectional relationship between capitalism and greed; that each reinforces the other. Surely, a more honest conceptualisation of the conflicts of interest among the rich and powerful players who have benefited from the system, their biases and ideology is needed; the focus on the wealth creation should also highlight the resultant gross inequity

Q. 52 The apologists of the “Free market system”, according to the passage, believe in

A. market without control by government authorities.

B. market without protection by the government.

C. ability of market to self correct.

D. markets for free goods and services.

Q. 53 With reference to “ideological bias”, the passage implies” that

A. free market is fair but not competent.

B. free market is not fair but competent.

C. free market is fair and competent.

D. free market is neither fair nor biased.

Q. 54 “The exercise of private greed will be in the larger public interest” from the passage

1. refers to the false ideology of capitalism.

2. underlies the righteous claims of the free market.

3. show the benevolent face of capitalism.

4. ignores resultant gross inequity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 4

D. 4 only

Questions: 55 – 58

Passage – 2

Net profits are only 2.2% of their total assets for central public sector undertakings, lower than for the private corporate sector. While the public sector or the State-led entrepreneurship played an important role in triggering India’s industrialization, our evolving development needs, comparatively less-thansatisfactory performance of the public sector enterprises, the maturing of our private sector, a much larger social base now available for expanding entrepreneurship and the growing institutional capabilities to enforce competition policies would suggest that the time has come to review the role of public sector.

What should the portfolio composition of the government be? It should not remain static all times. The airline industry works well as a purely private affair. At the opposite end, rural roads, whose sparse traffic makes tolling unviable, have to be on the balance-sheet of the State. If the government did not own rural roads, they would not exist. Similarly, public health capital in our towns and cities will need to come from the public sector. Equally, preservation and improvement of forest cover will have to be a new priority for he public sector assets. Take the example of steel. With near-zero tariffs, India is a globally competitive market for the metal. Indian firms export steel into the global market, which demonstrates there is no gap in technology. Indian companies are buying up global steel companies, which shows there is no gap in capital availability. Under these conditions, private ownership works best. Private ownership is clearly desirable in regulated industries, ranging from finance to infrastructure, where a government agency performs the function of regulation and multiple competing firms are located in the private sector. Here, the simple and clean solution – government as the umpire and the private sector as the players is what works best. In many of these industries, we have a legacy of government ownership, where productivity tends to be lower, fear of bankruptcy is absent, and the risk of asking for money from the tax payer is ever present. There is also the conflict of interest between government as an owner and as the regulator. The formulation and implementation of competition policy will be more vigorous and fair if government companies are out of action.

Q. 55 According to the passage, what is/are the reason/reasons for saying that the time has come to review the role of public sector?

1. Now public sector has lost its relevance in the industrialization process.

2. Public sector does not perform satisfactorily.

3. Entrepreneurship in private sector is expanding.

4. Effective competition policies are available now.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct in the given context?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q. 56 According to the passage, rural roads should be in the domain of public sector only. Why?

A. Rural developmental work is the domain of government only.

B. Private sector cannot have monetary gains in this.

C. Government takes money from tax payers and hence it is the responsibility of government only.

D. Private sector need not have any social responsibility.

Q. 57 The portfolio composition of the government refers to

A. Public sector assets quality.

B. Investment in liquid assets.

C. Mix of government investment in different industrial sectors.

D. Buying Return on investment yielding capital assets.

Q. 58 The author prefers government as the umpire and private sector as players because

A. Government prescribes norms for a fair play by the private sector.

B. Government is the ultimate in policy formulation.

C. Government has no control over private sector players.

D. None of the above statements is correct in this context.

Q. 59 A question paper must have a question on one of the eight poets: A, B, C, D, E, F, G or H.

The first four belong to the medieval period while the rests are considered modern poets. Generally, modern poets figure in the question paper in alternate years. Generally those who like H like G also; and those who like F like E also. The paper-setter does not like to ask about F as he has written a book on F, but he likes F. Last year, the paper contained a question on A. On the basis of the information given, this year’s paper is most likely to contain a question on

A. C

B. E

C. F

D. H

Q. 60 In a group of six women there are four dancers, four vocal musicians, one actress and three violinists. Girija and Vanaja are among the violinists while Jalaja and Shailaja do not know how to play on the violin. Shailaja and Tanuja are among the dancers. Jalaja, Vanaja, Shailaja and Tanuja are all vocal musicians and two of them are also violinists. If Pooja is an actress, who among the following is certainly a dancer and a violinist?

A. Jalaja

B. Pooja

C. Shailaja

D. Tanuja

Q. 61 The letter L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T in their order are substituted by nine integers 1 to 9 but not in that order. 4 is assigned to P. The difference between P and T is 5. The difference between N and T is 3. What is the integer assigned to N?

A. 7

B. 5

C. 4

D. 6

Q. 62 The number of deaths among the army personnel is 8 in 1000, but among the civilian population it is 20 per 1000. Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from this statement?

A. It is better to joined the army.

B. The relationship is fortuitous.

C. Quality of Life index is very high within the armed forces.

D. The groups cannot be compared due to their heterogeneity

Q. 63 Given the statement: “Buses are the cause of more accidents than cars, and trucks cause fewer accidents than buses”, which of the following conclusions can we draw?

A. There are more buses on the roads than trucks.

B. Car drivers are more careful than bus drivers.

C. Truck drivers are more skilled than either car or bus drivers.

D. None of the above.

Q. 64 ”If political leadership fails to emerge, there is likelihood of military taking over power in developing countries. Radical student groups or labour may try to raise revolution but they are not likely to compete with the military. Military intervention, rule, and withdrawal from politics is closely related to a society’s level of political development.” In the context of political development, the assumption in the above passage is that

A. Political leadership is not an effective instrument.

B. Military fills in political vacuum.

C. Military intervention in inevitable for development.

D. None of the above.

Q. 65 Four persons, Alok, Bhupesh, Chander and Dinesh have a total of Rs. 100 among themselves. Alok and Bhupesh between them have as much money as Chander and Dinesh between them, but Alok has more money than Bhupesh; and Chander has only half the money that Dinesh has. Alok has in fact Rs. 5 more than Dinesh has. Who has the maximum amount of money?

A. Alok

B. Bhupesh

C. Chander

D. Dinesh

Q. 66 Examine the following statements:

1. George attends Music classes on Monday.

2. He attends Mathematics classes on Wednesday.

3. His Literature classes are not on Friday.

4. He attends History classes on the day following the day of his Mathematics classes.

5. On Tuesday, he attends his Sports classes.

If he attends just one subject in a day and his Sunday is free, then he is also free on

A. Monday

B. Thursday

C. Saturday

D. Friday

Q. 67 In a row ‘A’ is in the 11th position from the left and ‘B’ is in the 10th position from the right. If ‘A’ and ‘B’ interchange, then ‘A’ becomes 8th from the left. How many persons are there in the row other than ‘A’ and ‘B’?

A. 27

B. 26

C. 25

D. 24

Q. 68 Location of B is north of A and location of C is east of A. The distances AB and AC are 5km and 12km respectively. The shortest distance (in km) between the locations B and C is:

A. 60

B. 13

C. 17

D. 7

Q. 69 Two cars start towards each other, from two places A and B which are at a distance of 160km. They start at the same time 08 : 10 AM. If the speed of the cars are 50km and 30km per hour respectively, they will meet each other at

A. 10 : 10 AM

B. 10 : 30 AM

C. 11 : 10 AM

D. 11 : 20 AM

Questions: 70 – 71

Passage – 1

In front of us was walking a bare-headed old man in tattered clothes. He was driving his beasts. They were all laden with heavy loads of clay from the hills and looked tired. The man carried a long whip which perhaps he himself had made. As he walked down the road he stopped now and then to eat the wild berries that grew on bushes along the uneven road. When he threw away the seeds, the bold birds would fly to peck at them. Sometimes a stray dog watched the procession philosophically and then began to bark. When this happened, my two little sons would stand still holding my hands firmly. A dog can sometimes be dangerous indeed.

Q. 70 The author’s children held his hand firmly because

A. they were scared of the barking dogs.

B. they wanted him to pluck berries.

C. they saw the whip in the old man’s hand.

D. the road was uneven.

Q. 71 The expression ”a stray dog watched the procession philosophically” means that

A. the dog was restless and ferocious.

B. the dog stood aloof, looking at the procession with seriousness.

C. the dog looked at the procession with big, wandering eyes.

D. the dog stood there with his eyes closed.

Questions: 72 – 75

Passage – 2

Cynthia was a shy girl. She believed that she was plain and untalented. One day her teacher ordered the entire class to show up for audition for the school play. Cynthia nearly died of fright when she was told that she would have to stand on stage in front of the entire class and deliver dialogues. The mere thought of it made her feel sick. But a remarkable transformation occurred during the audition. A thin, shy girl, her knees quaking, her stomach churning in terror, began to stun everyone with her excellent performance. Her bored classmates suddenly stopped their noisy chat to stare at her slender figure on the stage. At the end of her audition, the entire room erupted in thunderous applause.

Q. 72 Cynthia was afraid to stand on stage because

A. she felt her classmates may laugh at her.

B. her stomach was churning.

C. she lacked self-confidence.

D. she did not like school plays.

Q. 73 Cynthia’s classmates were chatting because

A. it was their turn to act next.

B. they were bored of the performances.

C. Cynthia did not act well.

D. the teacher had no control over them.

Q. 74 Cynthia’s knees were quaking because

A. she felt nervous and shy.

B. the teacher scolded her.

C. she was very thin and weak.

D. she was afraid of her classmates.

Q. 75 The transformation that occurred during the audition refers to

A. the nervousness of Cynthia.

B. the eruption of the entire room in thunderous applause.

C. the surprise on the faces of her classmates.

D. the stunning performance of Cynthia

Q. 76 If the 3rd day of a month is Monday, which one of the following will be the fifth day from 21st of this month?

A. Monday

B. Tuesday

C. Wednesday

D. Friday

Q. 77 For a charity show, the total tickets sold were 420. Half of these tickets were sold at the rate of Rs. 5, one-third at the rate of Rs. 3 each and the rest for Rs. 2 each. What was the total amount received?

A. Rs. 900

B. Rs. 1,540

C. Rs. 1,610

D. Rs. 2,000

Questions: 78 – 80

A, B, C, D, E, F are members of a family. They are engineer, stenographer, doctor,draughtsman, lawyer and judge (not in order). A, the engineer is married to the lady stenographer. The judge is married to the lawyer. F, the draughtsman is the son of B and brother of E. C, the lawyer is the daughter-in-law of D. E is the unmarried doctor. D is the grandmother of F. There are two married couples in the family.

Q. 78 What is the profession of B?

A. Judge

B. Lawyer

C. Draughtsman

D. Cannot be determined

Q. 79 Which of the following is/are a couple/couples?

A. AD only

B. BC only

C. Both AD and BC

D. Both AC and BD

Q. 80 What is the profession of D?

A. Judge

B. Stenographer

C. Doctor

D. Cannot be determined

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	C	D	B	A	B	D	C	C	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	C	B	C	C	D	B	B	D	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	B	C	B	A	A	D	B	B	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	C	B	B	C	D	B	D	C	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	A	D	B	B	D	C	C	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	C	C	C	C	B	C	D	B	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	D	D	B	A	D	C	B	A	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	D	D	D	D	C	C	A	C	B

NEET 2018 Previous Year Paper

NEET 2018

Section	Questions	Marks
Chemistry	45 Questions (1 – 45)	180
Biology	90 Questions (46 – 135)	360
Physics	45 Questions (136 – 180)	180

Q. 1 Which of the following statements is “not” true for the halogens?

A. All form monobasic oxyacids

B. Chlorine has the highest electron gain enthalpy

C. All but fluorine show positive oxidation states

D. All are oxidizing agents

Q. 2 The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 elements are:

A. B < Al < In < Ga < Tl

B. B < Ga < Al < In < Tl

C. B < Ga < Al < Tl < In

D. B < Al < Ga < In < Tl

Q. 3 In the structure of CIF₃ , the number of lone pairs of electrons on the central atom “Cl” is:

A. One

B. Three

C. Four

D. Two

Q. 4 The correct order of the N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is:

A. HNO₃, NO, N₂, NH₄Cl

B. NH₄Cl, N₂, NO, HNO₃

C. HNO₃, NH₄Cl, NO, N₂

D. HNO₃, NO, NH₄Cl, N₂

Q. 5 Which one of the following elements is unable to form MF₆⁻³ ion:

A. Ga

B. In

C. B

D. Al

Q. 6 Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the following metals can be used to reduce alumina?

A. Fe

B. Cu

C. Mg

D. Zn

Q. 7 The compound A on treatment with Na gives B, and with PCl₅ gives C. B and C react together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are in the order

A. C₂H₅OH, C₂H6, C₂H₅Cl

B. C₂H₅OH, C₂H₅ONa, C₂H₅Cl

C. C₂H₅Cl, C₂H6, C₂H₅OH

D. C₂H₅OH, C₂H₅Cl, C₂H₅ONa

Q. 8 Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon atoms (A) is :

A. CH = CH

B. CH₄

C. CH₃ – CH₃

D. CH₂ = CH₂

Q. 9 The compound C₇H₈ undergoes the following reactions given in the figure. The product ‘C’ is:

A. m-bromotoluene

B. p-bromotoluene

C. 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene

D. o-bromotoluene

Q. 10 Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both due to natural and human activity?

A. N₂O₅

B. NO

C. N₂O

D. NO₂

Q. 11 Following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different concentrations:

a. 60mL M/10 HCl + 40mL M/10 NaOH

b. 55mL M/10 HCl + 45mL M/10 NaOH

c. 75mL M/5 HCl + 25mL M/5 NaOH

d. 100mL M/10 HCl + 100mL M/10 NaOH

pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?

A. b

B. c

C. d

D. a

Q. 12 On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion depend?

A. The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone

B. The sign of charge on the ion alone

C. Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion

D. Size of the ion alone

Q. 13 The solubility of BaSO₄ in water is 2.42 x 10⁻³ gL⁻¹ at 298K.The value of its solubility product (Ksp) will be (Given molar mass of BaSO₄=233g/mol⁻¹)

A. 1.08 x 10⁻¹⁰ mol²/L⁻²

B. 1.08 x 10⁻⁸ mol²/L⁻²

C. 1.08 x 10⁻¹⁴ mol²/L⁻²

D. 1.08 x 10⁻¹² mol²/L⁻²

Q. 14 Given van der Waals constant for NH₃, H₂, O₂ and CO₂ are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and 3.59, which one of the following gases is most easily liquefied?

A. NH₃

B. CO₂

C. O₂

D. H₂

Q. 15 Match the metal ions given in column I with the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in column II (Given in figure (1)) and assign the correct code:

A. a(iv), b(v), c(ii), d(i)

B. a(iii), b(v), c(i), d(ii)

C. a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

D. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

Q. 16 Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)₅ is:

A. tetranuclear

B. dinuclear

C. trinuclear

D. mononuclear

Q. 17 The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)₄] are:

A. square planar geometry and diamagnetic

B. tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic

C. square planar geometry and paramagnetic

D. tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic

Q. 18 Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d transition and paramagnetism as well?

A. CrO₄⁻²

B. MnO₄⁻²

C. MnO₄⁻

D. Cr₂O₇⁻²

Q. 19 The type of isomerism shown by the complex [CoCl₂(en)₂] is:

A. geometrical isomerism

B. linkage isomerism

C. ionisation isomerism

D. coordination isomerism

Q. 20 Identify the major products P, Q and R (Among options (1), (2), (3), (4)) in the following sequence of reaction given in the figure:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 21 Which of the following compounds can form a zwitterion?

A. Aniline

B. Glycine

C. Benzoic acid

D. Acetanilide

Q. 22 Which of the following molecules represent the order of hybridisation sp², sp², sp, sp from left to right atoms?

A. HC ≡ C – C ≡ CH

B. CH₃ – CH = CH – CH₃

C. CH₂ = CH – CH = CH₂

D. CH₂ = CH – C = CH

Q. 23 Which of the following carbocations is expected to be most stable (Among options (1), (2), (3), (4)):

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 24 Which of the following is correct with respect to -I effect of the substituents?(R = alkyl)

A. -NH₂ < -OR < -F

B. -NR₂ > -OR > -F

C. -NH₂ > -OR > -F

D. -NR₂ < -OR < -F

Q. 25 Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound. If the ground state electronic configuration of (X) is 1s² 2s² 2p³, the simplest formula for this compound is:

A. Mg₂X₃

B. Mg₃X₂

C. Mg₂X

D. MgX₂

Q. 26 Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains constant with temperature) is:

A. √3/√2

B. 1/2

C. 3√3/4√2

D. 4√3/3√2

Q. 27 Which of the following statement is wrong (Among (1), (2), (3), (4))?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 28 Consider the following species:

CN⁺, CN⁻, NO and CN

Which one of these will have the highest bond order?

A. NO

B. CN

C. CN⁺

D. CN⁻

Q. 29 In the reaction given in the figure, the electrolyte involved is:

A. dichloromethyl cation (CHCl₂)

B. dichlorocarbene (:CCl₂)

C. dichloromethyl anion (CHCl₂)

D. formyl cation (CHO)

Q. 30 Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular mass. It is due to their:

A. formation of intramolecular H-bonding

B. formation of intermolecular H-bonding

C. more extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction

D. formation of carboxylate ion

Q. 31 Compound A, C₈H₁₀O is found to react with NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic smell.

A and Y are respectively (Among (1), (2), (3), (4)):

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 32 The correct difference between first and second order reactions is that:

A. The rate of first order reaction does not depend on the reactant concentrations; the rate of a second order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations.

B. The rate of first order reaction does depend on the reactant concentrations; the rate of a second order reaction does not depend on the reactant concentrations.

C. a first order reaction can be catalyzed; a second order reaction cannot be catalyzed.

D. the half time of a first order reaction does not depend on the [A]0; the half life of a second order reaction does not depend on the [A]0

Q. 33 Among the CaH₂, BeH₂, BaH₂, the order of the ionic character is:

A. BeH₂ < CaH₂ < BaH₂

B. BaH₂ < BeH₂ < CaH₂

C. BeH₂ < BaH₂ < CaH₂

D. CaH₂ < BeH₂ < BaH₂

Q. 34 Consider the change in oxidation state of Bromine corresponding to different emf values as shown in the diagram.

Then the species undergoing disproportionation is:

A. BrO₃⁻

B. HBrO

C. Br₂

D. BrO₄⁻

Q. 35 In which case is the number of molecules of water maximum?

A. 18 mL of water

B. 10⁻³ mol of water

C. 0.00224L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K

D. 0.18 g of water

Q. 36 Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. They contains covalent bonds between various linear polymer chains.

B. They contains strong covalent bonds in their polymer chains

C. Examples are bakelite and melamine

D. They are formed from bi and tri functional monomers.

Q. 37 Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also gives m-nitroaniline because:

A. In spite of substitutions nitro group always goes to only m-position

B. In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present as anilinium ion

C. In absence of substituents nitro groups always goes to m-position

D. In electrophilic substitution reactions amino group is meta directive

Q. 38 Which of the following oxides is most acidic in nature?

A. MgO

B. CaO

C. BaO

D. BeO

Q. 39 The difference between amylose and amylose and amylopectin is:

A. Amylopectin have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 α-linkage

B. Amylose is made up of glucose and galactose

C. Amylopectin have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1→ 6 β-linkage

D. Amylose have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 β-linkage

Q. 40 A mixture of 2:3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid is treated with conc. H₂SO₄. The evolved gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pallets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP will be:

A. 1.4

B. 4.4

C. 2.8

D. 3.0

Q. 41 For redox reaction given in the figure, what is the correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced equation are:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 42 The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas equation corresponds to:

A. density of the gas molecules

B. forces of attraction between the gas molecules

C. electric field present between the gas molecules

D. volume of the gas molecules

Q. 43 Which one of the following conditions will favour maximum formation of the product in the reaction:

A₂(g) + B₂(G) ⇔ X₂(g) ΔrH = – X kJ?

A. low temperature and high pressure

B. high temperature and low temperature

C. high temperature and high pressure

D. low temperature and low pressure

Q. 44 The bond dissociation energies of X₂, Y₂ and XY of in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. ΔH for the formation of XY is -200 KJ/mol⁻¹.The bond dissociation energy of X₂ will be:

A. 200KJ mol⁻¹

B. 400 KJ mol⁻¹

C. 800 KJ mol⁻¹

D. 100 KJ mol⁻¹

Q. 45 When initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the half life period of a zero order reaction.

A. is halved

B. remains unchanged

C. is tripled

D. is doubled

Q. 46 Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder?

A. anthracis

B. emphysema

C. botulism

D. silicosis

Q. 47 Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it:

A. binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin

B. prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament

C. detaches the myosin head from the actin filament

D. activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it

Q. 48 Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis?

A. chief cells

B. parietal cells

C. goblet cells

D. mucous cells

Q. 49 Match the items given in column I with those in column II (Given in the figure) and select the correct option:

A. a(iii), b(ii), c(i)

B. a(ii), b(iii), c(i)

C. a(i), b(iii), c(ii)

D. a(i), b(ii), c(iii)

Q. 50 Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?

A. Aldosterone and Prolactin

B. Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin

C. Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone

D. Progesterone and Aldosterone

Q. 51 Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?

A. epinephrine

B. estriol

C. estradiol

D. ecdysone

Q. 52 Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function?

A. Medulla oblongata: It controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes

B. Corpus callosum: band of fibres connecting the left and right cerebral hemispheres

C. Hypothalamus: production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst

D. Limbic system: consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movements.

Q. 53 The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by

A. ligaments attached to ciliary body

B. smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body

C. smooth muscles attached to the iris

D. ligaments attached to the iris

Q. 54 Among the following set of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option.

A. forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah

B. eye of octopus, bat and man

C. brain of bat, man and cheetah

D. heart of bat, man and cheetah

Q. 55 In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?

A. Elephantiasis

B. Amoebiasis

C. Ringworm disease

D. Ascariasis

Q. 56 Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

A. Psoriasis

B. Vitiligo

C. Alzheimer’s disease

D. Rheumatoid arthritis

Q. 57 Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of:

A. Vitamin D

B. Vitamin E

C. Vitamin B12

D. Vitamin A

Q. 58 Which of the following characters represent ‘inheritance of blood groups’ in human:

a. Dominance

b. Co-dominance

c. Multiple allele

d. Incomplete dominance

e. Polygenic inheritance

A. b, c and e

B. a, c and e

C. b, d and e

D. a, b and c

Q. 59 The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of:

A. homology

B. adaptive radiation

C. convergent evolution

D. analogy

Q. 60 Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis?

A. earthworm

B. starfish

C. moth

D. tunicate

Q. 61 Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm?

A. Macropus

B. Psittacula

C. Camelus

D. Chelone

Q. 62 Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach?

A. Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th abdominal segment

B. Presence of anal cerci

C. Forewings with darker tegmina

D. Presence of caudal styles

Q. 63 Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?

A. Dinoflagellates

B. Euglenoids

C. Cyanobacteria

D. Diatoms

Q. 64 Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in

A. using flagella for locomotion

B. having two types of nuclei

C. using pseudopodia for capturing prey

D. having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water

Q. 65 Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system

A. Amphibia

B. Osteichthyes

C. Aves

D. Reptilia

Q. 66 The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from:

A. ectoderm and mesoderm

B. ectoderm and endoderm

C. mesoderm and trophoblast

D. endoderm and mesoderm

Q. 67 Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are:

A. hCG, hPL , progestogens, prolactin

B. hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids

C. hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens

D. hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin

Q. 68 The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’

A. blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted

B. is a post coital contraceptive

C. is an IUD

D. increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.

Q. 69 The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is:

A. In spermatogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed

B. In spermatogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules

C. In spermatogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed

D. In spermatogenesis spermatozoa are formed while in spermiation spermatids are formed

Q. 70 In a growing population of a country:

A. pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals

B. pre-reproductive individuals are less than the reproductive individuals

C. reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number

D. reproductive individuals are less than the post reproductive individuals

Q. 71 Match the items given in the column I with those in column II (Given in the figure) and select the correct option given below:

A. a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)

B. a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)

C. a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

D. a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)

Q. 72 Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug ‘smack’ ?

A. flowers

B. leaves

C. roots

D. latex

Q. 73 Which of the following population interactions widely used in medical sciences for the production of antibiotics?

A. Commensalism

B. Amensalism

C. Parasitism

D. Mutualism

Q. 74 All of the following are included in “ex-situ conservation” except

A. wildlife safari parks

B. seed banks

C. botanical gardens

D. sacred groves

Q. 75 Match the items given in column I with those column II (Given in the figure) and select the correct option given below:

A. a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

B. a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

C. a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

D. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

Q. 76 Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option given below:

A. a(iv), b(v), c(ii), d(iii)

B. a(v), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

C. a(v), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

D. a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

Q. 77 A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by:

A. only daughters

B. both sons and daughters

C. only grandchildren

D. only sons

Q. 78 AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?

A. AGGUAUCGCAU

B. UCCAUAGCGUA

C. ACCUAUGCGAU

D. UGGTUTCGCAT

Q. 79 Match the items given in column I with those in column II (Given in the figure) and select the correct option given below:

A. a(iii), b(ii), c(i)

B. a(iii), b(i), c(ii)

C. a(ii), b(iii), c(i)

D. a(i), b(iii), c(ii)

Q. 80 According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is:

A. multiple step mutations

B. minor mutations

C. phenotypic variations

D. saltation

Q. 81 All of the following are part of an operon except

A. an operator

B. a promoter

C. an enhancer

D. structural genes

Q. 82 Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?

A. protein folding

B. phospholipid synthesis

C. cleavage of signal peptide

D. protein glycosylation

Q. 83 Which of these statements is incorrect?

A. enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix

B. oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane

C. glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms

D. glycolysis occurs in cytosol

Q. 84 Select the incorrect match:

A. lampbrush chromosome – diplotene bivalents

B. polytene chromosome – oocytes of amphibians

C. submetacentric chromosome – L-shaped chromosomes

D. allosomes – sex chromosomes

Q. 85 Which of the following terms describe human dentition?

A. thecodont, diphyodont, homodont

B. pleurodont, diphyodont, heterodont

C. pleurodont, monophyodont, homodont

D. thecodont, diphyodont, heterodont

Q. 86 Nissil bodies are mainly composed of

A. proteins and lipids

B. free ribosomes and RER

C. nucleic acids and SER

D. DNA and RNA

Q. 87 Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as:

A. Polysome

B. Nucleosome

C. Plastidome

D. Polyhedral bodies

Q. 88 Match the items given in the column I with those in column II (Given in figure) and select the correct option given below:

A. a(iii), b(i), c(ii)

B. a(ii), b(i), c(iii)

C. a(i), b(ii), c(iii)

D. a(i), b(iii), c(ii)

Q. 89 Match the item in the column I with the column II (Given in the figure) and select the correct option given below:

A. a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

B. a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

C. a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)

D. a(iii), b(i), c(iv0, d(ii)

Q. 90 Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema , respectively.

A. inflammation of bronchioles, decreased respiratory surface

B. decreased respiratory surface, inflammation of bronchioles

C. increased respiratory surface, inflammation of bronchioles

D. increased number of bronchioles, increased respiratory surface

Q. 91 The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is

A. Pachytene

B. Zygotene

C. Diakinesis

D. Diplotene

Q. 92 Which of the following is true for nucleolus?

A. Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.

B. It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.

C. It takes part in spindle formation.

D. It is a membrane-bound structure.

Q. 93 Stomatal movement is not affected by

A. Temperature

B. CO₂ concentration

C. O₂ concentration

D. Light

Q. 94 Which among the following is not a prokaryote ?

A. Saccharomyces

B. Oscillatoria

C. Nostoc

D. Mycobacterium

Q. 95 Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis ?

A. ATP

B. Oxygen

C. NAPDH

D. NADH

Q. 96 Stomata in grass leaf are

A. Dumb-bell shaped

B. Barrel shaped

C. Rectangular

D. Kidney shaped

Q. 97 The Golgi complex participates in

A. Fatty acid breakdown

B. Activation of amino acid

C. Respiration in bacteria

D. Formation of secretory vesicles

Q. 98 The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are

A. hydroxyl and methyl

B. carbonyl and hydroxyl

C. carbonyl and phosphate

D. carbonyl and methyl

Q. 99 A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to

A. Co-667

B. Basmati

C. Lerma Rojo

D. Sharbati Sonora

Q. 100 Select the correct match:

A. Ribozyme – Nucleic acid

B. G. Mendel – Transformation

C. T.H. Morgan – Transduction

D. F₂ x Recessive parent – Dihybrid cross

Q. 101 Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes ?

A. Retrovirus

B. pBR 322

C. λ phage

D. Ti plasmid

Q. 102 In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is

A. Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)

B. Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)

C. Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)

D. Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)

Q. 103 The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is

A. Extension, Denaturation, Annealing

B. Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

C. Denaturation, Extension, Annealing

D. Annealing, Extension, Denaturation

Q. 104 Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called

A. Bio-infringement

B. Bioexploitation

C. Biodegradation

D. Biopiracy

Q. 105 Winged pollen grains are present in

A. Mustard

B. Pinus

C. Mango

D. Cycas

Q. 106 After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in

A. Neurospora

B. Saccharomyces

C. Agaricus

D. Alternaria

Q. 107 Which one is wrongly matched ?

A. Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia

B. Unicellular organism – Chlorella

C. Gemma cups – Marchantia

D. Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae

Q. 108 Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II (Given in figure) and select the correct option given below:

A. a → i, b → iv, c → iii, d → ii

B. a → iii, b → iv, c → i, d → ii

C. a → ii, b → iv, c → iii, d → i

D. a → iii, b → ii, c → i, d → iv

Q. 109 What is the role of NAD⁺ in cellular respiration ?

A. It functions as an enzyme.

B. It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.

C. It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.

D. It functions as an electron carrier.

Q. 110 Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by

A. Green sulphur bacteria

B. Chara

C. Cycas

D. Nostoc

Q. 111 Double fertilization is

A. Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs

B. Syngamy and triple fusion

C. Fusion of two male gametes with one egg

D. Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei

Q. 112 In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants ?

A. Ferric

B. Both ferric and ferrous

C. Free element

D. Ferrous

Q. 113 Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells?

A. Magnesium

B. Calcium

C. Potassium

D. Sodium

Q. 114 Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other ?

A. Hydrilla

B. Voila

C. Banana

D. Yucca

Q. 115 Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
A. -120°C

B. -160°C

C. -196°C

D. -80°C

Q. 116 Niche can be defined as:

A. All the biological factors in the organism’s environment

B. The functional role played by the organism where it lives

C. The range of temperature that the organism needs to live

D. The physical space where an organism lives

Q. 117 Which of the following is a secondary pollutant ?

A. CO

B. O₃

C. SO₂

D. CO₂

Q. 118 World Ozone Day is celebrated on

A. 5th June

B. 22nd April

C. 16th September

D. 21st April

Q. 119 In stratosphere, which of the following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and release of molecular oxygen ?

A. Carbon

B. Oxygen

C. Fe

D. Cl

Q. 120 What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data ?

Secondary consumer : 120 g

Primary consumer: 60 g

Primary producer: 10 g

A. Inverted pyramid of biomass

B. Upright pyramid of biomass

C. Upright pyramid of numbers

D. Pyramid of energy

Q. 121 Natality refers to

A. Death rate

B. Number of individuals entering a habitat

C. Number of individuals leaving a habitat

D. Birth rate

Q. 122 Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils ?

A. Pollenkitt

B. Sporopollenin

C. Oil Content

D. Cellulosic intine

Q. 123 Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched ?

A. Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles

B. T.H. Morgan : Linkage

C. XO type sex determination : Grasshopper

D. ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance

Q. 124 Select the correct match:

A. Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus pneumoniae

B. Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod – Lac operon

C. Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Pisum sativum

D. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – TMV

Q. 125 Which of the following flowers only once in its lifetime ?

A. Bamboo species

B. Papaya

C. Mango

D. Jackfruit

Q. 126 Select the correct statement:

A. Franklin Stahl coined the term “linkage”.

B. Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.

C. Spliceosomes take part in translation.

D. Punnett square was developed by a British scientist.

Q. 127 Offsets are produced by

A. Meiotic divisions

B. Parthenogenesis

C. Parthenocarpy

D. Mitotic divisions

Q. 128 The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a

A. Fungus

B. Virus

C. Plant

D. Bacterium

Q. 129 Select the wrong statement:

A. Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae.

B. Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except Monera.

C. Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans.

D. Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes.

Q. 130 Casparian strips occur in

A. Epidermis

B. Endodermis

C. Cortex

D. Pericycle

Q. 131 Which of the following statements is correct ?

A. Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms.

B. Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus.

C. Horsetails are gymnosperms.

D. Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous

Q. 132 Pneumatophores occur in

A. Halophytes

B. Submerged hydrophytes

C. Carnivorous plants

D. Free-floating hydrophytes

Q. 133 Sweet potato is a modified

A. Stem

B. Rhizome

C. Tap root

D. Adventitious root

Q. 134 Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by

A. Apical meristems

B. Axillary meristems

C. Phellogen

D. Vascular cambium

Q. 135 Plants having little or no secondary growth are

A. Grasses

B. Cycads

C. Conifers

D. Deciduous angiosperms

Q. 136 The power radiated by a black body is P and it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, λ0. If the temperature of the black body is now changed so that it radiates maximum energy at wavelength 3/4λ0 , the power radiated by it becomes nP.The value of n is

A. 3/4

B. 81/256

C. 256/81

D. 4/3

Q. 137 Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. The first wire has cross-sectional area A and the second wire has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the first wire is increased by ΔI on applying a force F, how much force is needed to stretch the second wire by the same amount ?

A. 9 F

B. F

C. 4 F

D. 6 F

Q. 138 A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and normal pressure (1.013×10⁵ Nm⁻²) requires 54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at 100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is 167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the sample, is

A. 104.3 J

B. 84.5 J

C. 42.2 J

D. 208.7 J

Q. 139 A small sphere of radius ‘r’ falls from rest in a viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due to viscous force. The rate of production of heat when the sphere attains its terminal velocity, is proportional to

A. r³

B. r⁴

C. r⁵

D. r²

Q. 140 An electron falls from rest through a vertical distance h in a uniform and vertically upward directed electric field E. The direction of electric field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it through the same vertical distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of fall of the proton is

A. smaller

B. equal

C. 10 times greater

D. 5 times greater

Q. 141 A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s² at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is

A. 2 π s

B. 1 s

C. 2 s

D. π s

Q. 142 The electrostatic force between the metal plate of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having charge Q and area A, is

A. independent of the distance between the plates.

B. inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.

C. proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates.

D. linearly proportional to the distance between the plates.

Q. 143 A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in glass tube. The length of the air column in the tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At room temperature of 27°C two successive resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27°C

A. 330 m/s

B. 300 m/s

C. 350 m/s

D. 339 m/s

Q. 144 The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom. is

A. 1 : 1

B. 1 : -2

C. 2 : -1

D. 1 : -1

Q. 145 When the light of frequency 2v0 (where v0 is threshold frequency), is incident on a metal plate, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted is v1. When the frequency of the incident radiation is increased to 5v0, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is

A. 1 : 2

B. 2 : 1

C. 4 : 1

D. 1 : 4

Q. 146 For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is

A. 20

B. 15

C. 30

D. 10

Q. 147 An electron of mass m with an initial velocity V⃗ =V₀î(V₀ > 0) enters an electric field E⃗ = −E₀î (E₀ = constant > 0) at t=0. If λ₀ is its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-Broglie wavelength at time t is

A. λ₀/(1 + (eE₀/mV₀)t)

B. λ₀

C. λ₀t

D. λ₀(1 + (eE₀/mV₀)t)

Q. 148 An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 μF and a resistor 50 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in the circuit is

A. 0.79 W

B. 1.13 W

C. 2.74 W

D. 0.43 W

Q. 149 A metallic rod of mass per unit length 0.5 kg m⁻¹ is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide down by flowing a current through it when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is acting on it in the vertical direction. The current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary is

A. 7.14 A

B. 11.32 A

C. 14.76 A

D. 5.98 A

Q. 150 A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically between the poles of an electromagnet. When the current in the electromagnet is switched on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains gravitational potential energy. The work required to do this comes from

A. the current source

B. the induced electric field due to the changing magnetic field

C. the lattice structure of the material of the rod

D. the magnetic field

Q. 151 Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the galvanometer is

A. 40 Ω

B. 500 Ω

C. 250 Ω

D. 25 Ω

Q. 152 A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling motion a body possesses translational kinetic energy (Kt) as well as rotational kinetic energy (Kr) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is

A. 7 : 10

B. 2 : 5

C. 10 : 7

D. 5 : 7

Q. 153 The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are KA, KB and KC respectively. AC is the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of the Sun S as shown in the figure. Then

A. KA < KB < KC

B. KB > KA > KC

C. KB < KA < KC

D. KA > KB > KC

Q. 154 If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller and the universal gravitational constant were ten times larger in magnitude, which of the following is not correct ?

A. Raindrops will fall faster

B. g’ on the Earth will not change

C. Time period of a simple pendulum on the Earth would decrease.

D. Walking on the ground would become more difficult.

Q. 155 A solid sphere is rotating freely about its symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the sphere is increased keeping its mass same. Which of the following physical quantities would remain constant for the sphere ?

A. Angular velocity

B. Angular momentum

C. Rotational kinetic energy

D. Moment of inertia

Q. 156 Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane surface of a material of refractive index ′μ′. At a particular angle of incidence ′i′, it is found that the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other. Which of the following options is correct for this situation ?

A. Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector parallel to the plane of incidence

B. i = tan⁻¹(1/μ)

C. i = sin⁻¹(1/μ)

D. Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector perpendicular to the plane of incidence

Q. 157 In Young’s double slit experiment the separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength λ of the light used is 5896 Å and distance D between the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe angular width to 0.21° (with same λ and D) the separation between the slits needs to be changed to

A. 1.8 mm

B. 1.7 mm

C. 2.1mm

D. 1.9 mm

Q. 158 An astronomical refracting telescope will have large angular magnification and high angular resolution, when it has an objective lens of

A. small focal length and large diameter

B. small focal length and small diameter

C. large focal length and large diameter

D. large focal length and small diameter

Q. 159 A carbon resistor of (47±4.7) kΩ is to be marked with rings of different colours for its identification. The colour code sequence will be

A. Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver

B. Green – Orange- Violet- Gold

C. Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold

D. Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver

Q. 160 A set of ‘n’ equal resistors, of value R each, are connected in series to a battery of emf E and internal resistance ‘R’ The current drawn is I. Now, the ‘n’ resistors are connected in parallel to the same battery. Then the current drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of ‘n’ is

A. 10

B. 9

C. 20

D. 11

Q. 161 A battery consists of a variable number ‘n’ of identical cells (having internal resistance ‘r’ each) which are connected in series. The terminals of the battery are short-circuited and the current I is measured. Which of the graphs shows (among (1), (2), (3), (4)) the correct relationship between I and n ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 162 A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in the figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to

A. 3/2 D

B. 5/4 D

C. 7/5 D

D. D

Q. 163 Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have the same mass M and radius R. They all spin with the same angular speed ω to about their own symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the relation

A. WC > WB > WA

B. WA > WC > WB

C. WB > WA > WC

D. WA > WB > WC

Q. 164 Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?

A. Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction

B. Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions of length

C. Frictional force opposes the relative motion

D. Limiting value of static friction is directly proportional to normal reactions

Q. 165 A moving block having mass m, collides with another stationary block having mass 4m. The lighter block comes to rest after collision. When the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be

A. 0.5

B. 0.4

C. 0.8

D. 0.25

Q. 166 An em wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity V⃗ = Vî. The instantaneous oscillating electric field of this em wave is along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of the em wave will be along :-

A. –z direction

B. –x direction

C. –y direction

D. +z direction

Q. 167 The refractive index of the material of a prism is √2 and the angle of the prism is 30°. One of the two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from the other face will retrace its path (after reflection from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on the prism is :-

A. 60°

B. zero

C. 30°

D. 45°

Q. 168 The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance

A. 0.138 H

B. 13.89 H

C. 1.389 H

D. 138.88 H

Q. 169 An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards the mirror, the displacement of the image will be:-

A. 30 cm away the mirror

B. 36 cm towards the mirror

C. 30 cm towards the mirror

D. 36 cm away the mirror

Q. 170 In the circuit shown in the figure, the input voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The values of IB, IC and β are given by :-

A. IB = 40 μA, IC = 10 mA, β = 250

B. IB = 40 μA, IC = 5 mA, β = 125

C. IB = 20 μA, IC = 5 mA, β = 250

D. IB = 25 μA, IC = 5 mA, β = 200

Q. 171 In a p-n junction diode , change in temperature due to heating

A. affects only reverse resistance

B. affects the overall V-I characteristics of p-n junction

C. does not affect resistance of p-n junction

D. affects only forward resistance

Q. 172 In the combination of the following gates output Y can be written in terms of input A and B as :

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 173 A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless horizontal plane surface under the influence of a uniform electric field E⃗ . Due to the force q E⃗ , its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At that instant the direction of the field is reversed. The car continues to move for two more seconds under the influence of this field. The average velocity and the average speed of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are respectively

A. 2 m/s , 4 m/s

B. 1.5 m/s , 3 m/s

C. 1 m/s , 3.5 m/s

D. 1 m/s , 3 m/s

Q. 174 A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination θ as shown in the figure. The wedge is given an acceleration ‘a’ towards right .The relation between a and θ for the block to remain stationary on the wedge is

A. a= g/cosec θ

B. a= g tan θ

C. a= g cos θ

D. a= g/sin θ

Q. 175 A student measured the diameter of the small steel ball using the screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm .The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular scale division coincides with 25 divisions above the reference level. If screw gauge has a zero error of -0.004 cm , the correct diameter of the ball is :

A. 0.521 cm

B. 0.529 cm

C. 0.053 cm

D. 0.525 cm

Q. 176 The moment of the force F = 4î + 5ĵ – 6k̂ at (2,0,-3) about the point (2, -2,-2) is given by

A. -8î – 4ĵ – 7k̂

B. -7î – 4ĵ – 8k̂

C. -7î – 8ĵ – 4k̂

D. -4î – ĵ – 8k̂

Q. 177 The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from state A to state B, is

A. 2/5

B. 2/7

C. 1/3

D. 2/3

Q. 178 The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm , the length of the open organ pipe is :

A. 13.2 cm

B. 16 cm

C. 12.5 cm

D. 8 cm

Q. 179 The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water, is:

A. 26.8 %

B. 12.5%

C. 6.25%

D. 20%

Q. 180 At what temperature will the rms speed of oxygen molecules become just sufficient from escaping from Earth’s atmosphere?

Given: Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 x 10⁻²⁶ kg

Boltzmann’s constant kB = 1.38 x 10⁻²³ J K⁻¹)

A. 2.508 x 10⁴ K

B. 1.254 x 10⁴ K

C. 5.016 x 10⁴ K

D. 8.360 x 10⁴ K

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	B	D	A	C	C	B	B	A	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	C	A	A	A	D	D	B	A	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	D	C	A	B	C	C	D	B	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	D	A	B	A	B	B	D	A	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	D	B	A	C	D	D	A	B	B	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	D	A	B	A	C	C	D	A	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	D	D	B	C	A	C	A	B	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	C	D	B	D	B	D	B	A	C	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	B	B	B	D	B	A	A	D	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	D	B	C	A	D	A	D	B	B	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	A	B	B	D	B	C	A	B	D	A
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	A	C	D	C	B	B	C	D	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	D	B	A	B	A	D	D	D	C	B
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	A	A	D	D	A	C	A	D	C	A
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	D	A	D	D	A	A	A	A	B	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	D	D	B	B	D	D	C	D	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	A	B	A	B	D	D	D	B	D	B
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	B	D	D	B	B	B	A	A	A	D

NEET 2013 Previous Year Paper

NEET 2013

Section	Questions	Marks
Physics	45 Questions (1 – 45)	180
Chemistry	45 Questions (46 – 90)	180
Biology	90 Questions (91 – 180)	360

Q. 1 In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows : P = (a^3)(b^2)/cd. % error in P is —

A. 14%

B. 10%

C. 7%

D. 4%

Q. 2 The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is (2i + 3j) m/s. Its velocity (in m/s) at point B is —

A. – 2i – 3j

B. – 2i + 3j

C. 2i – 3j

D. 2i + 3j

Q. 3 A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers distances h1, h2 and h3 in the first 5 seconds, the next 5 seconds and the next 5 seconds respectively. The relation between h1, h2 and h3 is —

A. h1 = 2(h2) = 3(h3)

B. h1 = (h2)/3 = (h3)/5

C. h2 = 3(h1) and h3 = 3(h2)

D. h1 = h2 = h3

Q. 4 Three blocks with masses m, 2m and 3m are connected by strings, as shown in the figure. After an upward force F is applied on block m, the masses move upward at constant speed v. What is the net force on the block of mass 2m? (g is the acceleration due to gravity)

A. zero

B. 2 mg

C. 3 mg

D. 6 mg

Q. 5 The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination x is perfectly smooth while lower half is rough. A block starting from rest at the top of the plane will again come to rest at the bottom, if the coefficient of friction between the block and lower half of the plane is given by —

A. 1/tan(x)

B. 2/tan(x)

C. 2tan(x)

D. tan(x)

Q. 6 A uniform force of (3i + j) newton acts on a particle of mass 2kg. Hence the particle is displaced from position (2i + k) meter to position (4i + 3j – k) meter. The work done by the force on the particle is —

A. 9 J

B. 6 J

C. 13 J

D. 15 J

Q. 7 An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a horizontal plane. Two of them go off at right angles to each other. The first part of mass 1 kg moves with a speed of 12 m/s and the second part of mass 2 kg moves with 8 m/s speed. If the third part flies off with 4 m/s speed, then its mass is —

A. 3 kg

B. 5 kg

C. 7 kg

D. 17 kg

Q. 8 A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged at end P. The rod is kept horizontal by a massless string tied to point Q as shown in figure. When string is cut, the initial angular acceleration of the rod is —

A. 3g/2L

B. g/L

C. 2g/L

D. 2g/3L

Q. 9 A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity ‘v’. It reaches upto a maximum height of 3v^2/4g with respect to the initial position. The object is —

A. Ring

B. Solid sphere

C. Hollow sphere

D. Disc

Q. 10 A body of mass ‘m’ is taken from the earth’s surface to the height equal to twice the radius (R) of the earth. The change in potential energy of body will be —

A. mg2R

B. (2/3)mgR

C. 3mgR

D. (1/3)mgR

Q. 11 Infinite number of bodies, each of mass 2 kg are situated on x-axis at distances 1 m, 2 m, 4 m, 8 m, respectively, from the origin. The resulting gravitational potential due to this system at the origin will be —

A. -G

B. -8/3 G

C. -4/3 G

D. -4G

Q. 12 The following four wires are made of the same material. Which of these will have the largest extension when the same tension is applied?

A. length = 50 cm, diameter = 0.5 mm

B. length = 100 cm, diameter = 1 mm

C. length = 200 cm, diameter = 2 mm

D. length = 300 cm, diameter = 3 mm

Q. 13 The wettability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on —

A. viscosity

B. surface tension

C. density

D. angle of contact between the surface and the liquid

Q. 14 The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at constant pressure and volume are denoted by C and c, respectively. If ratio of specific heats = C/c and R is the universal gas constant, then c is equal to —

A. 1+(ratio of specific heats)/1-(ratio of specific heats)

B. R/[(ratio of specific heats)-1]

C. [(ratio of specific heats)-1]/R

D. (ratio of specific heats)R

Q. 15 A piece of iron is heated in a flame. It first becomes dull red then becomes reddish yellow and finally turns to white hot. The correct explanation for the above observation is possible by using —

A. Stefan’s law

B. Wien’s displacement law

C. Kirchoff’s law

D. Newton’s law of cooling

Q. 16 A gas is taken through the cycle A —> B —> C —> A, as shown. What is the network done by the gas?

A. 2000 J

B. 1000 J

C. zero

D. -2000 J

Q. 17 During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its temperature. The ratio of Cp/Cv for the gas is —

A. 4/3

B. 2

C. 5/3

D. 3/2

Q. 18 In the given (V – T) diagram, what is the relation between pressures P1 and P2?

A. P2 = P1

B. P2 > P1

C. P2 < P1

D. cannot be predicted

Q. 19 The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 g of Helium at NTP, from (T1)K to (T2)K is —

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 20 A wave travelling in the +ve x-direction having displacement along y-direction as 1 m, wavelength 2(pi)m and frequency of 1/pi Hz is represented by —

A. y = sin(x – 2t)

B. y = sin(2pix – 2(pi)t)

C. y = sin(10(pi)x – 20(pi)t)

D. y = sin(2(pi)x + 2(pi)t)

Q. 21 If we study the vibration of a pipe open at both ends, then the following statement is not true —

A. Open end will be antinode

B. Odd harmonies of the fundamental frequency will be generated

C. All harmonies of the fundamental frequency will be generated

D. Pressure change will be maximum at both ends

Q. 22 A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/s, when sounded with a source of known frequency 250 Hz. The second harmonic of the source of unknown frequency gives five beats per second, when sounded with a source of frequency 513 Hz. The unknown frequency is —

A. 254 Hz

B. 246 Hz

C. 240 Hz

D. 260 Hz

Q. 23 Two pith balls carrying equal charges are suspended from a common point by strings of equal length, the equilibrium separation between them is r. Now the strings are rigidly clamped at half the height. The equilibrium separation between the balls now become —

A. (1/root of 2)^2

B. (r/cube root of 2)

C. (2r/root of 3)

D. (2r/3)

Q. 24 A, B and C are three points in a uniform electric field. The electric potential is —

A. maximum at A

B. maximum at B

C. maximum at C

D. same at all the three points A, B and C

Q. 25 A wire of resistance 4 ohm is stretched to twice its original length. The resistance of stretched wire would be —

A. 2 ohm

B. 4 ohm

C. 8 ohm

D. 16 ohm

Q. 26 he internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a current of 0.2A through a resistance of 10 ohm is —

A. 0.2 ohm

B. 0.5 ohm

C. 0.8 ohm

D. 1.0 ohm

Q. 27 The resistances of the four arms P, Q, R and S in a Wheatstone’s bridge are 10 ohm, 30 ohm, 30 ohm and 90 ohm, respectively. The e.m.f and internal resistance of the cell are 7 volt and 5 ohm respectively. If the galvanometer resistance is 50 ohm, the current drawn from the cell will be —

A. 1.0 A

B. 0.2 A

C. 0.1 A

D. 2.0 A

Q. 28 When a proton is released from rest in a room, it starts with an initial acceleration a towards west . When it is projected towards north with a speed v it moves with an initial accelration 3a toward west. The electric and magnetic fields in the room are —

A. ma/e west, 2ma/ev up

B. ma/e west, 2ma/ev down

C. ma/e east, 3ma/ev up

D. ma/e east, 3ma/ev down

Q. 29 A current loop in a magnetic field —

A. experiences a torque whether the field is uniform or non-uniform in all orientations

B. can be in equilibrium in one orientation

C. can be in equilibrium in two orientations, both the equilibrium states are unstable

D. can be in equilibrium in two orientations, one stable while the other is unstable

Q. 30 A bar magnet of length ‘l”and magnetic dipole moment ‘M’ is bent in the form of an arc as shown in figure. The new magnetic dipole moment will be —

A. M

B. 3/pi M

C. 2/pi M

D. M/2

Q. 31 A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field. The frequency of change of direction of the induced e.m.f. is —

A. once per revolution

B. twice per revolution

C. four times per revolution

D. six times per revolution

Q. 32 A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series with a bulb B and an AC source. Brightness of the bulb decreases when —

A. frequency of the AC source is decreased

B. number of turns in the coil is reduced

C. a capacitance of reactance X of C = X of L is included in the same circuit

D. an iron rod is inserted in the coil

Q. 33 The condition under which a microwave oven heats up a food item containing water molecules most efficiently is —

A. The frequency of the microwaves must match the resonant frequency of water molecules

B. The frequency of the microwaves has no relation with natural frequency of water molecules

C. Microwaves are heat waves, so always produce heating

D. Infra-red waves produce heating in a microwave oven

Q. 34 Ratio of longest wave lengths corresponding to Lyman and Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is —

A. 5/27

B. 3/23

C. 7/29

D. 9/31

Q. 35 The half-life of a radioactive isotope ‘X’ is 20 years. It decays to another element ‘Y’ which is stable. The two elements ‘X’ and ‘Y’ were found to be in the ratio 1:7 in a sample of a given rock. The age of the rock is estimated to be —

A. 40 years

B. 60 years

C. 80 years

D. 100 years

Q. 36 A certain mass of Hydrogen is changed to Helium by the process of fusion. The mass defect in fusion reaction is 0.02866 u. The energy liberated per u is — (Given 1 u = 931 MeV)

A. 2.67 MeV

B. 26.7 MeV

C. 6.675 MeV

D. 13.35 MeV

Q. 37 For photoelectric emission from certain metal the cutoff frequency is v/ If radiation of frequency 2v impinges on the metal plate, the maximum possible velocity of the emitted electron will be (m is the electron mass) —

A. Root of (hv/2m)

B. Root of (hv/m)

C. Root of (2hv/m)

D. 2[root of (hv/m)]

Q. 38 The wavelength of an electron and wavelength of a photon of same energy E are related by —

A. Wavelength of photon is proportional to (wavelength of electron)^2

B. Wavelength of photon is proportional to wavelength of electron

C. Wavelength of photon is proportional to root of wavelength of electron

D. Wavelength of photon is proportional to 1/(root of wavelength of electron)

Q. 39 A piano convex lens fits exactly into a piano concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each other. If lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices u1 and u2 and R is the radius of curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then the focal length of the combination is —

A. R/2(u1 + u2)

B. R/2(u1 – u2)

C. R/(u1 – u2)

D. 2R/(u2 u1)

Q. 40 For a normal eye, the cornea of eye provides a converging power of 40D and the least converging power of the ye lens h=behind the cornea is 20D. Using this information, the distance between the retina and the cornea-eye lens can be estimated to be —

A. 5 cm

B. 2.5 cm

C. 1.67 cm

D. 1.5 cm

Q. 41 In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 2mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two wavelengths 12000 A and 10000 A respectively. At what minimum distance from the common central bright fringe on the screen 2m from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a bright fringe from the other?

A. 8 mm

B. 6 mm

C. 4 mm

D. 3 mm

Q. 42 A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent screen is placed at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is increased, which of the following statements is correct?

A. Diffraction pattern is not observed on the screen in the case of electrons

B. The angular width of the central maximum of the diffraction pattern will increase

C. The angular width of the central maximum will decrease

D. The angular width of the central maximum will be unaffected

Q. 43 In a n-type semiconductor, which of the following statements is true —

A. Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants

B. Electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants

C. Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants

D. Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants

Q. 44 In a common emitter (CE) amplifier having a voltage gain G, the transistor used has transconductance 0.03 ho and current gain 25. If the above transistor is replaced with another one with transconductance 0.02 mho and current gain 20, the voltage gain will be —

A. 2/3 G

B. 1.5 G

C. 1/3 G

D. 5/4 G

Q. 45 The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in figure will be —

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 46 The value of Planck’s constant is 6.63 x 10^(-34) Js. The speed of light is 3 x 10^17 nm/s. Which value is closest to the wavelength in nanometer of a quantum of light with frequency of 6 x 10^15/s?

A. 10

B. 25

C. 50

D. 75

Q. 47 What is the maximum number of electrons that can be associated with the following set of numbers?

n = 3, l = 1 and m = -1

A. 10

B. 6

C. 4

D. 2

Q. 48 What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the temperature is raised from 20 degrees C to 35 degrees C? (R = 8.314 J/molK)

A. 342 kJ/mol

B. 269 kJ/mol

C. 34.7 kJ/mol

D. 15.1 kJ/mol

Q. 49 A hydrogen gas electrode is made by dipping platinum wire in a solution of HCl of pH = 10 and by passing hydrogen gas around the platinum wire at one atm pressure. The oxidation potential of electrode would be?

A. 0.059 V

B. 0.59 V

C. 0.118 V

D. 1.18 V

Q. 50 A reaction having equal energies of activation for forward and reverse reactions has —

A. Change in S = 0

B. Change in G = 0

C. Change in H = 0

D. Change in H = Change in G = Change in S = 0

Q. 51 At 25 degrees C, molar conductance of 0.1 molar aqueous solution of ammonium hydroxide is 9.54 (ohm)^-1 (cm)^2 (mol)^-1 and at infinite dilution its molar conductance is 238 (ohm)^-1 (cm)^2 (mol)^-1 . The degree of ammonium hydroxide at the same concentration and temperature is —

A. 2.080%

B. 20.800%

C. 4.008%

D. 40.800%

Q. 52 Based on equation E = -2.178 x 10^18J(Z^2/n^2), certain conclusions are written. Which of them is not correct?

A. The negative sign in equation simply means that the energy of electron bound to the nucleus is lower than it would be if the electrons were at the infinite distance from the nucleus.

B. Larger the value of n, the larger is the orbit radius.

C. Equation can be used to calculate the change in energy when the electron changes orbit.

D. For n = 1, the electron has a more negative energy than it does for n = 6 which means that the electron is more loosely bound in the smallest allowed orbit.

Q. 53 A button cell used in watches functions as following.

The cell potential will be —

A. 1.10 V

B. 0.42 V

C. 0.84 V

D. 1.34 V

Q. 54 How many grams of concentrated nitric acid solutions should be used to prepare 250 mL of 2.0 M HNO3? The concentrated acid is 70% HNO3.

A. 45.0 g conc. HNO3

B. 90.0 g conc. HNO3

C. 70.0 g conc. HNO3

D. 54.0 g conc. HNO3

Q. 55 The number of carbon atoms per unit cell of diamond unit cell is —

A. 4

B. 8

C. 6

D. 1

Q. 56 Maximum deviation from ideal gas is expected from :

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 57 A metal has a fee lattice. The edge length of the unit cell is 404 pm. The density of the metal is 2.72 g cm^-1. The molar mass of the metal is :

[Avogadro’s constant = 6.02 x 10^23 mol^-1]

A. 40 g mol^-1

B. 30 g mol^-1

C. 27 g mol^-1

D. 20 g mol^-1

Q. 58 Dipole-induced dipole interactions are present in which of the following pairs :

A. H20 and alcohol

B. Cl2 and CCl4

C. HCl and He atoms

D. SiF4 and He atoms

Q. 59 A magnetic moment of 1.73 BM will be shown by one among the following –

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 60 Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a byproduct. This is colorless gas with choking smell of burnt sulphur and causes great damage to respiratory organs as a result of acid rain. Its aqueous solution is acidic , acts as a reducing agent and its acid has never been isolated. The gas X is —

A. H2S

B. SO2

C. CO2

D. SO3

Q. 61 Which is the strongest acid in the following?

A. H2SO4

B. HClO3

C. HClO4

D. H2SO3

Q. 62 Which of the following is paramagnetic?

A. CO

B. O2^-

C. CN^-

D. NO^+

Q. 63 Which of the following structure is similar to graphite?

A. BN

B. B

C. B4C

D. B2H6

Q. 64 The basic structural unit of silicates is —

A. SiO^-

B. SiO4^4-

C. SiO3^2-

D. SiO4^2-

Q. 65 Reaction by which Benzaldehyde cannot be prepared —

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 66 Which of the following does not give oxygen on heating?

A. KClO3

B. Zn(ClO3)2

C. K2Cr2O7

D. (NH4)2Cr2O7

Q. 67 Which of the following lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic? (At. No. Ce = 58, Sm = 62, Eu = 63, Yb = 70)

A. Ce^2+

B. Sm^2+

C. Eu^2+

D. Yb^2+

Q. 68 Identify the correct order of solubility in aqueous medium —

A. CuS > ZnS > Na2S

B. ZnS > Na2S > CuS

C. Na2S > CuS > ZnS

D. Na2S > ZnS > CuS

Q. 69 XeF2 is isostructural with —

A. TeF2

B. ICl2^-

C. SbCl3

D. BaCl2

Q. 70 An excess of AgNo3 is added to 100mL of a 0.01 M solution of dichlorotetra aquachrominum (III) chloride. The number of moles of AgCl precipitated

would be —

A. 0.001

B. 0.002

C. 0.003

D. 0.01

Q. 71 Which of these is least likely to act as a Lewis base?

A. CO

B. F^-

C. BF3

D. PF3

Q. 72 KMnO4 can be prepared from K2MnO4 as per the given reaction.

The reaction can go to completion by removing OH^- ions by adding —

A. HCl

B. KOH

C. CO2

D. SO2

Q. 73 Which of the following is electron-deficient?

A. (CH3)2

B. (SiH3)2

C. (BH3)2

D. PH3

Q. 74 Structure of the compound whose IUPAC name is 3-Ethyl-2hydroxy-4-methylhex-3-en-5- ynoic acid is —

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 75 Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicone polymer?

A. MeSiCl3

B. Me2SiCl2

C. Me3SiCl

D. PhSiCl3

Q. 76 Which of the following statements about the interstitial compounds is incorrect?

A. They retain metallic conductivity

B. They are chemically reactive

C. They are much harder than the pure metal

D. They have higher melting points than the pure metal

Q. 77 Which one of the following molecules contains no pi bond?

A. CO2

B. H2O

C. SO2

D. NO2

Q. 78 Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent growth of microrganisms. Identify which of the following statements is not true —

A. A 0.2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic while 1% solution acts as a disinfectant

B. Chlorine and Iodine are used as strong disinfectants

C. Dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen peroxide are strong antiseptics

D. Disinfectants harm the living tissues

Q. 79 Among the following ethers, which one will produce methyl alcohol on treatment with hot concentrated HI?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 80 Nylon is an example of —

A. Polyester

B. Polysaccharide

C. Polyamide

D. Polythene

Q. 81 The structure of isobutyl group in an organic compound is —

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 82 Nitrobenzene on reaction with conc. HNO3/H2SO4 at 80-100 degrees C forms which one of the following products?

A. 1,2-Dinitrobenzene

B. 1,3-Dinitrobenzene

C. 1,4-Dinitrobenzene

D. 1,2,4-Trinitrobenzene

Q. 83 Some meta-directing substitution in aromatic substitution are given. Which one is most deactivating?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 84 6.02 x 10^20 molecules of urea are present in 100mL of its solution. The concentration of solution is —

A. 0.02 M

B. 0.01 M

C. 0.001 M

D. 0.1 M

Q. 85 Which of the following is a polar molecule?

A. BF3

B. SF4

C. SiF4

D. XeF4

Q. 86 Which is the monomer of Neoprene in the following?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 87 In the reaction, A is —

A. HgSO4/H2SO4

B. Cu2Cl2

C. H3PO2 and H2O

D. H^+/H2O

Q. 88 The given radical is aromatic because it has —

A. 6 p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons

B. 7 p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons

C. 7 p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons

D. 6 p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons

Q. 89 The order of stability of the following tautomeric compounds is —

A. I>II>III

B. III>II>I

C. II>I>III

D. II>III>I

Q. 90 Which of the following compounds will not undergo Friedal-Craft reaction easily —

A. Cumene

B. Xylene

C. Nitrobenzene

D. Toluene

Q. 91 Select the wrong statement:

A. Isogametes are similar in structure, function and behaviour

B. Anisogametes differ either in structure, function of behaviour

C. In Oomycetes female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and non-motile

D. Chlamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy

Q. 92 Which one of the following is not a correct statement?

A. Herbarium houses dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens

B. Botanical gardens have collection of living plants for reference

C. A museum has collection of photographs of plants and animals

D. Key is a taxonomic aid for identification of specimens

Q. 93 Isogamous condition with non-flagellated gametes is found in:

A. Chlamydomonas

B. Spirogyra

C. Volvox

D. Fucus

Q. 94 Besides paddy fields, cyanobacteria are also found inside vegetative part of:

A. Pinus

B. Cycus

C. Equisetum

D. Psilotum

Q. 95 Megasporangium is equivalent to :

A. Embryo sac

B. Fruit

C. Nucellus

D. Ovule

Q. 96 Read the following (A-E) and answer the question which follows them :

(A) In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free-living

(B) Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous

(D) The sporophytes in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses

(E) Both, Pinus and Marchentia are dioecious

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

Q. 97 Among bitter gourd, mustard, brinjal, pumpkin, china rose, lupin, cucumber, sunnhemp, gram, guava, bean, chilli, plum, petunia, tomato, rose, withania, potato, onion, aloe and tulip how many plants have hypogynous flower?

A. Six

B. Ten

C. Fifteen

D. Eighteen

Q. 98 Interfascicular cambium develops from the cells of :

A. Medullary rays

B. Xylem parenchyma

C. Endodermis

D. Pericycle

Q. 99 In china rose the flowers are :

A. Actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted aestivation

B. Actinomorphic, epigynous with valvate aestivation

C. Zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate aestivation

D. Zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted aestivation

Q. 100 Lenticels are involved in

A. Transpiration

B. Gaseous exchange

C. Food transport

D. Photosynthesis

Q. 101 Age of a tree can be estimated by :

A. Its height and girth

B. Biomass

C. Number of annual rings

D. Diameter of its heartwood

Q. 102 Seed coat is not thin membranous in :

A. Maize

B. Coconut

C. Groundnut

D. Gram

Q. 103 Transition state structure of the substate formed during an enzymatic reaction is

A. Transient but stable

B. Permanent but unstable

C. Transient and unstable

D. Permanent and stable

Q. 104 A phosphoglyceride is always made up of :

A. Only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached

B. Only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached

C. A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached

D. A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group which is also attached to a glycerol molecule

Q. 105 Pigment-containing membranous extensions in some cyanobacteria are

A. Heterocysts

B. Basal bodies

C. Pneumatophores

D. Chromatophores

Q. 106 A major site for synthesis of lipids is :

A. RER

B. SER

C. Symplast

D. Nucleoplasm

Q. 107 The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called :

A. Equatorial plate

B. Kinetochore

C. Bivalent

D. Axoneme

Q. 108 The three boxes in this diagram represent thee three major biosynthetic pathways in aerobic respiration. Arrows represent net reactants or products.

Arrows numbered 4, 8, and 12 can all be

A. NADH

B. ATP

C. H2O

D. FAD^+ or FADH2

Q. 109 The most abundant intracellular cation is :

A. Na^+

B. Ca^++

C. H^+

D. K^+

Q. 110 During seed germination its stored food is mobilized by :

A. Ethylene

B. Cytokinin

C. ABA

D. Gibberellin

Q. 111 Which of the following criteria does not pertain to facilitated transport?

A. Requirement of special membrane proteins

B. High selectivity

C. Transport saturation

D. Uphill transport

Q. 112 The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous plants is :

A. NO2^-

B. Ammonia

C. NO3^-

D. Glutamate

Q. 113 Which of the metabolites is common to respiration mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins?

A. Glucose-6-phosphate

B. Fructose1, 6-bisphosphate

C. Pyruvic acid

D. Acetyl CoA

Q. 114 Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine

B. Sporogenous tissue is haploid

C. Endothecium produces the mocrosphores

D. Tapetum nourishes the devloping pollen

Q. 115 Product of sexual reproduction generally generates :

A. Longer viability of seeds

B. Prolonged dormancy

C. New genetic combination leading to variation

D. Large biomass

Q. 116 Meiosis takes place in :

A. Meiocyte

B. Conidia

C. Gemmule

D. Megaspore

Q. 117 Advantage of cleistogamy is :

A. Higher genetic variability

B. More vigorous offspring

C. No dependence on pollinators

D. Vivipary

Q. 118 Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of :

A. Antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the same plant

B. Stamen and carpel on the same plant

C. Upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the same plant

D. Upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant

Q. 119 Perisperm differs from endosperm in :

A. Being a haploid tissue

B. Having no reserve food

C. Being a diploid tissue

D. Its formation by fusion of secondary nucleus with several sperms

Q. 120 Which of the following statements is not true of two genes that show 50% recombination frequency?

A. The genes may be on different chromosomes

B. The genes are tightly linked

C. The genes show independent assortment

D. If the genes are present on the same chromosome, they undergo more than one crossovers in every meiosis.

Q. 121 Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This is referred to as :

A. Genetic flow

B. Genetic drift

C. Random mating

D. Genetic load

Q. 122 If two persons with ‘AB’ blood group marry and have sufficiently large number of children, these children could be classified as ‘A’ blood group : ‘AB’ blood group : ‘B’ blood group in 1:2:1 ratio. Modern technique of protein electrophoresis reveals presence of both ‘A’ and “B’ type proteins in ‘AB’ blood group individuals. This is an example of :

A. Codominance

B. Incomplete dominance

C. Partial dominance

D. Complete dominance

Q. 123 The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge is called :

A. Natural selection

B. Convergent evolution

C. Non-random evolution

D. Adaptive radiation

Q. 124 The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by :

A. random mating

B. lack of migration

C. lack of mutations

D. lack of random mating

Q. 125 Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in India by the farmers?

A. Maize

B. Cotton

C. Brinjal

D. Soybean

Q. 126 A good product of citric acid is :

A. Aspergillus

B. Pseudomonas

C. Clostridium

D. Saccharomyces

Q. 127 DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by :

A. Centrifugation

B. Polymerase chain reaction

C. Electrophoresis

D. Restriction mapping

Q. 128 Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme?

A. Bacteria-Lysozyme

B. Plant cells- Cellulase

C. Algae-Methylase

D. Fungi – Chitinase

Q. 129 The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of nonrecombinant bacteria because of :

A. Non-recombinant bacteria containing betagalactosidase

B. Insertional inactivation of alphagalactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria

C. Insertional inactivation of alphagalactosidase in recombinant bacteria

D. Inactivation of glycosidase in recombinant bacteria

Q. 130 Which of the following are likely to be present in deep sea water?

A. Archaebacteria

B. Eubacteria

C. Blue-green algae

D. Saprophytic fungi

Q. 131 Natural reservoir of phosphorus is :

A. Sea water

B. Animal bones

C. Rock

D. Fossils

Q. 132 Secondart productivity is rate of formation of new organic matter by :

A. Producer

B. Parasite

C. Consumer

D. Decomposer

Q. 133 Which one of the following is not used for ex situ plant conservation?

A. Field gene banks

B. Seed banks

C. Shifting cultivation

D. Botanical Gardens

Q. 134 Kyoto-Protocol was endorsed at :

A. CoP-3

B. CoP-5

C. CoP-6

D. CoP-4

Q. 135 Which of the following represent maximum number of species among global biodiversity?

A. Algae

B. Lichens

C. Fungi

D. Mosses and Ferns

Q. 136 Match the name of the animal, with one characteristic, and the phylum/class to which it belongs :

A. Petromyson – ectroparasite – Cyclostomata

B. Ichthyophis – terrestrial – Reptilia

C. Limulus – body covered by chitinous exoskeleton – Pisces

D. Adamsia – radially symmetrical – Porifera

Q. 137 Which of the following are correctly matched with respect of their taxonomic classification?

A. Flying fish, cuttlefish, silverfish – Pisces

B. Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpion – Insecta

C. House fly, butterfly, tsetsefly, silverfish – Insecta

D. Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea cucumber-Echinodermata

Q. 138 Which group of animals belong to the same phylum?

A. Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito

B. Earthworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm

C. Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta

D. Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish

Q. 139 One of the representatives of Phylum Arthropoda is :

A. cuttlefish

B. silverfish

C. pufferfish

D. flying fish

Q. 140 The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to —

A. the absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A-band

B. the central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band

C. the central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the Aband

D. extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A-band

Q. 141 What external changes are visible after the last moult of a cockroach nymph?

A. Mandibles become harder

B. Anal cerci develop

C. Both fore wings and hind wings develop

D. Labium develops

Q. 142 The Golgi complex plays a major role :

A. in trapping the light and transforming it into chemical energy

B. in digensting proteins and carbohydrattes

C. as energy transferring organelles

D. in post translational modification of proteins and glycosidation of lipids

Q. 143 Which one of the following organelle in the figure correctly matches with its function?

A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation of glycoproteins

B. Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis

C. Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids

D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein synthesis

Q. 144 Macro molecule chitin is :

A. nitrogen containing polysaccharide

B. phosphorus containing polysaccharide

C. sulphur containing polysaccharide

D. simple polysaccharide

Q. 145 The essential chemical components of many coenzymes are :

A. Proteins

B. Nucleic acids

C. Carbohydrates

D. Vitamins

Q. 146 A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which gives correct identification of the stage with its characteristics.

A. Telophase – nuclear envelop reforms, golgi complex reforms

B. Late anaphase – chromosomes move away from equatorial plate, golgi complex not present

C. Cytokinesis – cell plate formed, mitochondria distributed between two daughter cells

D. Telophase – endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus not reformed yet

Q. 147 Select the correct match of the digested products in humans with their absorption site and mechanism.

Column I	Column II
(1)	Glycine, glucose	Small intestine, active
(2)	Fructose, Na*	Small instestine, passive absorption
(3)	Glycerol, fatty acids	Duodemum, move as chilomicrons
(4)	Cholesterol, maltose	Large intestine, active absorption

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 148 A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low intelligence quotient and abnormal skin.

This is the result of :

A. Deficiency of iodine in diet

B. Low secretion of growth hormone

C. Cancer of the thyroid gland

D. Over secretion of pars distalis

Q. 149 The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, B, C and D. Select the option which gives correct identification and main function and/or characteristic.

A. A-trachea long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air

B. B-pleural membrane — surround ribs on both sides to provide cushion against rubbing.

C. C-Alveoli — thin walled vascular bag like structures for exchange of gases.

D. D-Lower end of lungs — diaphragm pulls it down during inspiration.

Q. 150 Figure shows schematic plant of blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Identify the label and give its function/s.

A. A-Pulmonary vein — takes impure blood from body parts, PO2 = 60 mm Hg

B. B-Pulmonary artery — takes blood from heart to lungs, PO2 = 90 mm Hg

C. C-Vena Cava — takes blood from body parts to right auricle, PCO2 = 45 mm Hg

D. D-Dorsal aorta — takes blood from heart to body parts, PO2 = 95 mm Hg

Q. 151 The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the :

A. Contraction of both the atria

B. Initiation of the ventricular contraction

C. Beginning of the systole

D. End of systole

Q. 152 Figure shows human urinary system with structures labeled A to D. Select option which correctly identifies them and given their characteristics and/or functions.

A. A-Adrenal gland-located at the anterior part of Kidney. Secrete Catecholamines which stimulate glycogen breakdown

B. B-Pelvis= broad funnel shaped space inner to hilum, directly connected to loops of Henle.

C. C-Medulla-inner zone of kidney and contains complete nephrons.

D. D-Cortex-outer part of kidney and do not contain any part of nephrons.

Q. 153 Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans :

A. A decreased level of progesterone causes osteoporosis in old people.

B. Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their inflammation

C. The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae.

D. The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous joint.

Q. 154 The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint in humans is :

A. Fluid cartilage between two bones, limited movements — Knee joint

B. Fluid filled between two joints, provide cushion — Skull bones

C. Fluid filled synovial cavity between two bones — Joint between atlas and axis

D. Lymph filled between two bones, limited movement — Gilding joint between carpals

Q. 155 A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse is given. Identify correctly at least two of AD.

A. A-Receptor ; C-Synaptic vesicles

B. B-Synaptic connection ; D-K^+

C. A-Neurotransmitter ; B-Synaptic cleft

D. C-Neurotransmitter ; D-Ca^++

Q. 156 Parts A, B, C and D of the human eye are shown in the diagram. Select the option which gives correct identification along with its functions/characteristics :

A. A-Retina-contains photo receptors-rods and cones

B. B-Blind spot-has only a few rods and cones

C. C-Aqueous chamber-reflects the light which does not pass through the lens

D. D-choroid-its anterior part forms ciliary body

Q. 157 Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the endocrine system?

A. Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus

B. Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do not produce any hormones

C. Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace amount that act as intercellular messenger are known as hormones

D. Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland

Q. 158 Select the answer which correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and its function/deficiency symptom :

A. Anterior pituitary — Oxytocin — Stimulates uterus contraction during child birth

B. Posterior pituitary — Growth Hormone (GH) — Oversecretion stimulates abnormal growth

C. Thyroid gland — Thyroxine — Lack of iodine in diet results in goitre

D. Corpus luteum — Testosterone — stimulates spermatogenesis

Q. 159 What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?

A. Spermatid, spermatocyte, spermatogonia, spermatozoa

B. Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatozoa, spermatid

C. Spermatogonia, spermatozoa, spermatocyte, spermatid

D. Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoa

Q. 160 Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of :

A. Progesterone

B. FSH

C. Oxytocin

D. Vasopressin

Q. 161 Which one of the following is not the function of placenta? It :

A. facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo

B. secretes estrogen

C. Facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste material from embryo

D. Secretes oxytocin during parturition

Q. 162 One of the legal methods of birth control is :

A. abortion by taking an appropriate medicine

B. by abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle

C. by having coitus at the time of day break

D. by a premature ejaculation during coitus

Q. 163 Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?

A. Klinefelter syndrome

B. Sex of the foetus

C. Down syndrome

D. jaundice

Q. 164 Artificial insemination means “

A. transfer of sperms pf a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova

B. transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova

C. artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina

D. introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary

Q. 165 Which mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1 generation resembles both the parents?

A. incomplete dominance

B. law of dominance

C. inheritance of one gene

D. co-dominance

Q. 166 The incorrect statement with regard to Haemophilia is :

A. It is a sex-linked disease

B. It is a recessive disease

C. It is a dominant disease

D. A single protein involved int eh clotting of blood is affected

Q. 167 If both parents are carriers for thalessemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child?

A. no chance

B. 50%

C. 25%

D. 100%

Q. 168 The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A to C.

A. A-transcription, B-replication, C-James Watson

B. A-translation, B-transcription, C-Erevin Chargaff

C. A-transcription, B-translation, C-Francis Crick

D. A-translation, B-extension, C-Rosalind Franklin

Q. 169 Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a non-sense in the lac Y gene?

A. b-galactosidase

B. Lactose permease

C. Transacetylase

D. Lactose permease and transacetylase

Q. 170 According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to —

A. Intraspecific competition

B. Interspecific competition

C. Competition within closely related species

D. Reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species

Q. 171 The ye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar function. This is an example of :

A. Homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution

B. Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution

C. Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution

D. Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution

Q. 172 Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by :

A. drinking water containing eggs of Adcaris

B. eating imperefectly cooked pork

C. Tse-tse fly

D. mosquito bite

Q. 173 The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by :

A. T-lymphocytes

B. B-lymphocytes

C. Thrombocytes

D. Erythrocytes

Q. 174 In plant breeding programmes, the entire collection (of plants/seeds) having all the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is called :

A. selection of superior recombinants

B. cross-hybridisation among the selected parents

C. evaluation and selection of parents

D. germplasm collection

Q. 175 During sewage treatment, biogases are produced which include :

A. methane, hydrogensulphide, carbon dioxide

B. methane, oxygen, hydrogensulphide

C. hydrogensulphode, methane, sulphur dioxide

D. hydrogensulphide nitrogen, methane

Q. 176 A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn, he found that the average natality was 250, average mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net increase in population is :

A. 10

B. 15

C. 05

D. zero

Q. 177 Which one of the following processes during decomposition is correctly described?

A. Frangmentation – carried out by organisms such as earthworm

B. Humification – Leads o the accumuation of a dark coloured substance humus which undergoes microbial action at a very fast rate

C. Catabolism – Last step in he decomposition under fully amaerobic condition

D. Leaching – Water soluble inorganic nutrients rise to the top layers of soil

Q. 178 A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the shell lining of hermit crab. The association is :

A. Ectoparasitism

B. Symbiosis

C. Commensalism

D. Amensalism

Q. 179 Global warming can be controlled Y :

A. Reducing deforestation, cutting down use fossil fuels

B. Reducing deforestation, increasing the use of fossil fuel

C. Increasing deforestation, slowing down the growth of human population

D. Increasing deforestation, reducing efficiency of energy usage

Q. 180 The Air Prevention and Control of Pollution act came into force in

A. 1975

B. 1981

C. 1985

D. 1990

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	C	B	A	C	A	B	A	D	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	A	D	B	B	B	D	C	A	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	A	B	B	D	B	B	B	D	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	D	A	A	B	C	C	A	C	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	C	C	A	C	C	D	C	B	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	D	A	A	B	D	C	C	A	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	B	A	B	D	D	D	D	B	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	C	C	C	B	C	B	B	B	C	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	D	B	D	B	B	C	C	A	B	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	C	B	B	D	C	C	A	A	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	C	D	C	C	D	B	C	B	D	D
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	D	B	C	D	C	A	C	D	C	B
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	A	B	D	B	A	C	C	C	A
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	C	C	C	A	C	A	C	C	B	C
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	C	D	D	A	D	A	A	A	C	C
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	A	A	B	C	A	A	C	C	D	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	D	A	D	C	B	C	C	C	A	B
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	C	A	A	D	A	D	A	B	A	B

NEET 2016 Phase-II Previous Year Paper

NEET 2016 Phase-II

Section	Questions	Marks
Physics	45 Questions (1 – 45)	180
Chemistry	45 Questions (46 – 90)	180
Biology	90 Questions (91 – 180)	360

Q. 1 Planck’s constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c) and Newton’s gravitational constant (G) are three fundamental constants. Which of the following combinations of these has the dimension of length?

A. √(hG)/c^(3/2)

B. √hG/c^(5/2)

C. √(hc/G)

D. √Gc/h^(3/2)

Q. 2 Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same time in a straight line and their positions are represented by xP(t) = at + bt² and xQ(t) = ft – t². At what time do the cars have the same velocity?

A. (a – f)/(1 + b)

B. (a + f)/(2b – 1)

C. (a + f)/(21 + b)

D. (f – a)/(2 + 2b)

Q. 3 In the given figure, a = 15 m/s² represents the total acceleration of a particle moving in the clockwise direction in a circle of radius R = 2.5 m at a given instant of time. The speed of the particle is

A. 4.5 m/s

B. 5.0 m/s

C. 5.7 m/s

D. 6.2 m/s

Q. 4 A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at 60⁰ and gets reflected without loss of speed as shown in the figure below. The value of impulse imparted by the wall on the ball will be

Image result for A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at 60â° and gets reflected without loss of speed as shown in the figure below. The value of impulse imparted by the wall on the ball will be

A. mV

B. 2mV

C. mV/2

D. mV/3

Q. 5 A bullet of mass 10 g moving horizontally with a velocity of 400 m/s strikes a wooden block of mass 2 kg which is suspended by a light inextensible string of length 5 m. As a result, the centre of gravity of the block is found to rise a vertical distance of 10 cm. The speed of the bullet after it emerges out horizontally from the block will be

A. 100 m/s

B. 80 m/s

C. 120 m/s

D. 160 m/s

Q. 6 Two identical balls A and B having velocities of 0.5 m/s and -0.3 m/s, respectively collide elastically in one dimension. The velocities of B and A after the collision respectively will be

A. -0.5 m/s and 0.3 m/s

B. 0.5 m/s and -0.3 m/s

C. -0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s

D. 0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s

Q. 7 A particle moves from a point -2iˆ + 5jˆ to 4jˆ + 3kˆ when a force of 4iˆ + 3jˆ N is applied. How much work has been done by the force?

A. 8 J

B. 11 J

C. 5 J

D. 2 J

Q. 8 Two rotating bodies a and ᵦ of masses m and 2m with moments of inertia Iₐ and Iᵦ (Iᵦ > Iₐ) have equal kinetic energy of rotation. If Lₐ and Lᵦ be their angular momenta respectively, then

A. Lₐ = Lᵦ/2

B. Lₐ = 2Lᵦ

C. Lᵦ > Lₐ

D. Lₐ > Lᵦ

Q. 9 A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is rotating about its diameter. A solid cylinder of the same mass and same radius is also rotating about its geometrical axis with an angular speed twice that of the sphere. The ratio of their kinetic energies of rotation (Esphere / Ecylinder) will be

A. 2:3

B. 1:5

C. 1:4

D. 3:1

Q. 10 A light rod of length L has two masses m₁ and m₂ attached to its two ends. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis perpendicular to the rod and passing through the centre of mass is

A. √m₁ √m₂ (L²)

B. m₁ m₂ (L²) / (m₁ + m₂)

C. (m₁ + m₂) / m ₁m₂ (L²)

D. (m₁ + m₂) L²

Q. 11 Starting from the centre of the Earth having radius R, the variation of g (acceleration due to gravity) is shown by

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 12 A satellite of mass m is orbiting the Earth (of radius R) at a height h from its surface. The total energy of the satellite in terms of g₀, the value of acceleration due to gravity at the Earth’s surface, is

A. -2mg₀R² / (R+h)

B. mg₀R² / 2(R+h)

C. -mg₀R² / 2(R+h)

D. Rmg₀R² / (R+h)

Q. 13 A rectangular film of liquid is extended from (4 cm x 2 cm) to (5 cm x 4 cm). If the work done is 3 x 10⁴ J, the value of the surface tension of the liquid is

A. 0.250 Nm-1

B. 0.125 Nm-1

C. 0.2 Nm-1

D. 8.0 Nm-1

Q. 14 Three liquids of densities ρ1, ρ2 and ρ3 (with ρ1 > ρ2 > ρ3), having the same value of surface tension T, rise to the same height in three identical capillaries. The angles of contact θ1, θ2 and θ3 obey

A. 2^Π > θ1 > θ2 > θ3 ≥ 0

B. 0 ≤ θ1 < θ2 < θ3 < 2^Π

C. 2^Π < θ1 < θ2 < θ3 < Π

D. Π > θ1 > θ2 > θ3 > 2^Π

Q. 15 Two identical bodies are made of a material for which the heat capacity increases with temperature. One of these is at 100 °C, while the other one is at 0 °C. If the two bodies are brought into contact, then, assuming no heat loss, the final common temperature is

A. 50 °C

B. More than 50 °C

C. Less than 50 °C but greater than 0 °C

D. 0 °C

Q. 16 A body cools from a temperature 3T to 2T in 10 minutes. The room temperature is T. Assume that Newton’s law of cooling is applicable. The temperature of the body at the end of next of 10 minutes will be

A. 7/4 T

B. 3/2 T

C. 4/3 T

D. T

Q. 17 One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a process described by the equation PV³ = constant. The heat capacity of the gas during this process is

A. (3/2) R

B. (5/2) R

C. 2R

D. R

Q. 18 The temperature inside a refrigerator is t₂ °C and the room temperature is t₁ °C. The amount of heat delivered to the room for each joule of electrical energy consumed ideally will be

A. t₁/ (t₁ – t₂)

B. (t₁ + 273) / (t₁ – t₂)

C. (t₂ + 273) / (t₁ – t₂)

D. (t₁ + t₂) / (t₁ + 273)

Q. 19 A given sample of an ideal gas occupies a volume V at a pressure P and absolute temperature T. The mass of each molecule of the gas is m. Which of the following gives the density of the gas?

A. P/(kT)

B. Pm/(kT)

C. P/(kTV)

D. mkT

Q. 20 A body of mass m is attached to the lower end of a spring whose upper end is fixed. The spring has negligible mass. When the mass m is slightly pulled down and released, it oscillates with a time period of 3 s. When the mass m is increased by 1 kg, the time period of oscillations becomes 5 s. The value of m in kg is :

A. 3/4

B. 4/3

C. 16/9

D. 9/16

Q. 21 The second overtone of an open organ pipe has the same frequency as the first overtone of a closed pipe L meter long. The length of the open pipe will be

A. L

B. 2L

C. L/2

D. 4L

Q. 22 Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have frequencies (n – 1), n, (n + 1). They superimpose to give beats. The number of beats produced per second will be

A. 1

B. 4

C. 3

D. 2

Q. 23 An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field intensity 2 × 10^5 N/C. It experiences a torque equal to 4 Nm. The charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm, is

A. 8 mC

B. 2 mC

C. 5 mC

D. 7 μC

Q. 24 A parallel- plate capacitor of area A, plate separation d and capacitance C is filled with four dielectric materials having dielectric constant k1, k₂, k₃, and k₄ as shown in the figure below. If a single dielectric material is to be used to have the same capacitance C in this capacitor, then its dielectric constant k is given by

Image result for A parallel- plate capacitor of area A, plate separation d and capacitance C is filled with four dielectric materials having dielectric constant k1, kâ, kâ, and kâ as shown in the figure below. If a single dielectric material is to be used to have the same capacitance C in this capacitor, then its dielectric constant k is given by

A. k = k₁ + k₂ + k₃ + 3 (k₄)

B. k = (2/3)(k₁ + k₂ + k₃) + 2 (k₄ )

C. 2/k = 3/(k₁ + k₂ + k₃) + 1/k₄

D. 1/k = 1/k₁ + 1/k₂ + 1/k₃ + 3/2 (k₄ )

Q. 25 The potential difference (VA – VB) between the points A and B in the given figure is

A. – 3 V

B. + 3 V

C. + 6 V

D. + 9 V

Q. 26 A filament bulb (500 W, 100 V) is to be used in a 230 V main supply. When a resistance R is connected in series, it works perfectly and the bulb consumes 500 W. The value of R is

A. 230 Ω

B. 46 Ω

C. 26 Ω

D. 13 Ω

Q. 27 A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circular loop of one turn. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is B. It is then bent into a circular coil of n turns. The magnetic field at the centre of this coil of n turns will be

A. nB

B. n²B

C. 2nB

D. 2n²B

Q. 28 A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread in a uniform horizontal magnetic field and is in equilibrium state. The energy required to rotate it by 60° is W. Now the torque required to keep the magnet in this new position is

A. W/√3

B. √3 W

C. √3/2 W

D. 2W / √3

Q. 29 An electron is moving in a circular path under the influence of a transverse magnetic field of 3.57 × 10^(–2) T. If the value of e/m is 1.76 × 10^(11) C/kg, the frequency of revolution of the electron is

A. 1 GHz

B. 100 MHz

C. 62.8 MHz

D. 6.28 MHz

Q. 30 Which of the following combinations should be selected for better tuning of an L-C-R circuit used for communication?

A. R = 20 Ω, L = 1.5 H, C = 35μF

B. R = 25 Ω, L = 2.5 H, C = 45μF

C. R = 15 Ω, L = 3.5 H, C = 30μF

D.R = 25 Ω, L = 1.5 H, C = 45μF

Q. 31 A uniform magnetic field is restricted within a region of radius r. The magnetic field changes with time at a rate dB/dt . Loop 1 of radius R > r encloses the region r and loop 2 of radius R is outside the region of magnetic field as shown in the figure below. Then the e.m.f. generated is

Image result for A uniform magnetic field is restricted within a region of radius r. The magnetic field changes with time at a rate dB/dt . Loop 1 of radius R > r encloses the region r and loop 2 of radius R is outside the region of magnetic field as shown in the figure below. Then the e.m.f. generated is

A. Zero in loop 1 and zero in loop 2

B. -dB/dt ( πr² ) in loop 1 and -dB/dt ( πr² ) in loop 2

C. -dB/dt ( πr² ) in loop 1 and zero in loop 2

D. -dB/dt ( πR² ) in loop 1 and zero in loop 2

Q. 32 The potential differences across the resistance, capacitance and inductance are 80 V, 40 V and 100 V respectively in an L-C-R circuit. The power factor of this circuit is

A. 0.4

B. 0.5

C. 0.8

D. 1.0

Q. 33 A 100 Ω resistance and a capacitor of 100 Ω reactance are connected in series across a 220 V source. When the capacitor is 50% charged, the peak value of the displacement current is

A. 2.2 A

B. 11 A

C. 4.4 A

D. 11 √2 A

Q. 34 Two identical glass (μg = 3/2) equiconvex lenses of focal length f each are kept in contact. The space between the two lenses is filled with water (μw = 4/3). The focal length of the combination is

A. f/3

B. f

C. 4f/3

D. 3f/4

Q. 35 An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index 1.5 (near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when viewed from one surface and 3 cm deep when viewed from the opposite face. The thickness (in cm) of the slab is

A. 8

B. 10

C. 12

D. 16

Q. 36 The interference pattern is obtained with two coherent light sources of intensity ratio n. In the interference pattern, the ratio (Imax – Imin)/ (Imax + Imin), will be

A. √n/(n + 1)

B. √n/(n + 1)

C. √n/(n + 1)²

D. 2√n/(n + 1)²

Q. 37 A person can see clearly objects only when they lie between 50 cm and 400 cm from his eyes. In order to increase the maximum distance of distinct vision to infinity, the type and power of the correcting lens, the person has to use, will be

A. Convex, + 2.25 diopter

B. Concave, – 0.25 diopter

C. Concave, – 0.2 diopter

D. Convex, + 0.15 diopter

Q. 38 A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm is placed immediately in front of a lens of focal length 60 cm. The aperture is illuminated normally by a parallel beam of wavelength 5 × 10^(-5) cm. The distance of the first dark band of the diffraction pattern from the centre of the screen is

A. 0.10 cm

B. 0.25 cm

C. 0.20 cm

D. 0.15 cm

Q. 39 Electrons of mass m with de-Broglie wavelength λ fall on the target in an X-ray tube. The cutoff wavelength (λ0) of the emitted X-ray is :-

A. λ0 = 2mcλ2/h

B. λ0 = 2h/mc

C. λ0 = 2m²c²λ³/h²

D. λ0 = λ

Q. 40 Photons with energy 5 eV are incident on a cathode C in a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of emitted photoelectrons is 2 eV. When photons of energy 6 eV are incident on C, no photoelectrons will reach the anode A, if the stopping potential of A relative to C is:-

A. +3 V

B. +4 V

C. -1 V

D. 3 V

Q. 41 If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the 3rd orbit to the 2nd orbit, it emits a photon of wavelength λ . When it jumps from the 4th orbit to the 3rd orbit, the corresponding wavelength of the photon will be :-

A. (16/25) λ

B. (9/16)/λ

C. (20/7) λ

D. (20/13) λ

Q. 42 The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30 minutes. The time (in minutes) taken between 40% decay and 85% decay of the same radioactive substance is :-

A. 15

B. 30

C. 45

D. 60

Q. 43 For CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of 2kΩ is 4 V. If the current amplification factor of the transistor is 100 and the base resistance is 1 kΩ, then the input signal voltage is :-

A. 10 mV

B. 20 mV

C. 30 mV

D. 15 mV

Q. 44 The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in the figure below. The current flowing through the resistance R1 will be

A. 2.5 A

B. 10.0 A

C. 1.43 A

D. 3.13 A

Q. 45 What is the output Y in the following circuit, when all the three inputs A, B, C are first 0 and then 1?

A. 0, 1

B. 0, 0

C. 1, 0

D. 1, 1

Q. 46 Which one of the following compounds shows the presence of intramolecular hydrogen bond?

A. H2O2

B. HCN

C. Cellulose

D. Concentrated acetic acid

Q. 47 The molar conductivity of a 0.5 mol/dm³ solution of AgNO3 with electrolytic conductivity of 5.76 × 10^(-3) S cm–1 at 298 K is

A. 2.88 S cm²/mol

B. 11.52 S cm²/mol

C. 0.086 S cm²/mol

D. 28.8 S cm²/mol

Q. 48 The decomposition of phosphine (PH3) on tungsten at low pressure is a first-order reaction. It is because the

A. rate is proportional to the surface coverage

B. rate is inversely proportional to the surface coverage

C. rate is independent of the surface coverage

D. rate of decomposition is very slow

Q. 49 The coagulation values in millimoles per litre of the electrolytes used for the coagulation of As₂S₃ are given below:

I. (NaCl) = 52,

II. (BaCl₂) = 0.69,

III. (MgSO₄) = 0.22

The correct order of their coagulating power is

A. I > II > III

B. II > I > III

C. III > II > I

D. III > I > II

Q. 50 During the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the time required to produce 0.10 mol of chlorine gas using a current of 3 amperes is

A. 55 minutes

B. 110 minutes

C. 220 minutes

D. 330 minutes

Q. 51 How many electrons can fit in the orbital for which n = 3 and l = 1?

A. 2

B. 6

C. 10

D. 14

Q. 52 For a sample of perfect gas when its pressure is changed isothermally from pᵢ to p􀀁, the entropy change is given by

A. Δ S =nR ln ( p􀀁 / pᵢ )

B. Δ S =nR ln ( pᵢ / p􀀁 )

C. Δ S =nRT ln ( p􀀁 / pᵢ )

D. Δ S =RT ln ( pᵢ / p􀀁 )

Q. 53 The van’t Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution of the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Q. 54 The percentage of pyridine (C₅H₅N) that forms pyridinium ion (C₅H₅N⁺H) in a 0.10 M aqueous pyridine solution (Kᵦ for C₅H₅N = 1.7 × 10⁻⁹) is

A. 0.0060%

B. 0.013%

C. 0.77%

D. 1.6%

Q. 55 In calcium fluoride, having the fluorite structure, the coordination numbers for calcium ion Ca²⁺ and fluoride ion F⁻ are

A. 4 and 2

B. 6 and 6

C. 8 and 4

D. 4 and 8

Q. 56 If the E°cell for a given reaction has a negative value which of the following gives the correct relationships for the values of G° and Keq?

A. ΔG° > 0; Keq < 1

B. ΔG° > 0; Keq > 1

C. ΔG° < 0; Keq > 1

D. ΔG° < 0; Keq < 1

Q. 57 Which one of the following is incorrect for ideal solution?

A. ΔHmix = 0

B. ΔUmix = 0

C. ΔP = Pobs – P(calculated by Raoult’s law) = 0

D. ΔGmix = 0

Q. 58 The solubility of AgCl(s) with solubility product 1.6 × 10^(–10) in 0.1 M NaCl solution would be

A. 1.25 × 10^(-5) M

B. 1.6 × 10^(-9) M

C. 1.6 × 10^(-11) M

D. zero

Q. 59 Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 mole of XY2 weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are

A. 40, 30

B. 60, 40

C. 20, 30

D. 30, 20

Q. 60 The number of electrons delivered at the cathode during electrolysis by a current of 1 ampere in 60 seconds is (charge on electron = 1.60 ×10^(–19) C)

A. 6 × 10^(23)

B. 6 × 10^(20)

C. 3.75 × 10^(20)

D. 7.48 × 10^(23)

Q. 61 Boric acid is an acid because its molecule

A. contains replaceable H+ ion

B. gives up a proton

C. accepts OH– from water releasing proton

D. combines with proton from water molecule

Q. 62 AlF₃ is soluble in HF only in presence of KF. It is due to the formation of

A. K₃ [ AlF₃H₃ ]

B. K₃ [ AlF₆ ]

C. AlH₃

D. K [ AlF₃H ]

Q. 63 Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanized iron but the reverse is not possible. It is because

A. zinc is lighter than iron

B. zinc has lower melting point than iron

C. zinc has lower negative electrode potential than iron

D. zinc has higher negative electrode potential than iron

Q. 64 The suspension of slaked lime in water is known as

A. Lime water

B. Quicklime

C. Milk of lime

D. Aqueous solution of slaked lime

Q. 65 The hybridizations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO2+, NO3- and NH4+ respectively are

A. sp, sp³ and sp²

B. sp², sp³ and sp

C. sp, sp² and sp³

D. sp², sp and sp³

Q. 66 Which of the following fluoro-compounds is most likely to behave as a Lewis base?

A. BF3

B. PF3

C. CF4

D. SiF4

Q. 67 Which of the following pairs of ions is isoelectronic and isostructural?

A. (CO₃)²⁻, (NO₃)⁻

B. (ClO₃)⁻, (CO₃)²⁻

C. (SO₃)²⁻, (NO₃)⁻

D. (ClO₃)⁻, (SO₃)²⁻

Q. 68 In context with beryllium, which one of the following statements is incorrect?

A. It is rendered passive by nitric acid.

B. It forms Be2C.

C. Its salts rarely hydrolyze.

D. Its hydride is electron-deficient and polymeric.

Q. 69 Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a moderately strong oxidizing agent. Which of the following reactions does not show oxidizing behavior?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 70 Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have electron density along the axes?

A. dz², dxz

B. dxz, dyz

C. dz² , dx²-y²

D. dxy , dx²-y²

Q. 71 The correct geometry and hybridization for XeF4 are :

A. Octahedral, sp3d2

B. Trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d

C. Planar triangle, sp3d3

D. Square planar, sp3d2

Q. 72 Among the following which one is a wrong statement?

A. PH5 and BiCl5 do not exist

B. pπ-dπ bonds are present in SO2

C. SeF4 and CH4 have same shape

D. I3+ has bent geometry

Q. 73 The correct increasing order of trans-effect of the following species is :

A. (NH3) > (CN–) > (Br–) > (C6H5–)

B. (CN–) > (C6H5–) > (Br–) > (NH3)

C. (Br–) > (CN–) > (NH3) > (C6H5–)

D. (CN–) > (Br–) > (C6H5–) >(NH3)

Q. 74 Which one of the followng statements related to lanthanons is incorrect?

A. Europium shows +2 oxidation state.

B. The basicity decreases as the ionic radius decreases from Pr to Lu.

C. All the lanthanons are much more reactive than aluminium

D. Ce(+4) solutions are widely used as oxidizing agent in volumetric analysis

Q. 75 Jahn-Teller effect not observed in high spin complexes of :-

A. d7

B. d8

C. d4

D. d9

Q. 76 Which of the following can be used as halide component for Friedel-Crafts reaction?

A. Chlorobenzene

B. Bromobenzene

C. Chloroethene

D. Isopropyl chloride

Q. 77 In which of the following molecules, atoms are coplanar?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 78 Which one of the following structures represents nylon 6,6 polymer?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 79 In pyrrole, the electron density is maximum on

A. 2 and 3

B. 3 and 4

C. 2 and 4

D. 2 and 5

Q. 80 Which of the following compounds shall not produce propene by reaction with HBr followed by elimination or direct only elimination reaction?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 81 Which one of the following nitro-compounds does not react with nitrous acid?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 82 The central dogma of molecular genetics states that the genetic information flows from

A. Amino acids → Proteins → DNA

B. DNA → Carbohydrates → Proteins

C. DNA → RNA → Proteins

D. DNA → RNA → Carbohydrates

Q. 83 The correct corresponding order of names of following aldoses with configuration given below, respectively, is

A. L-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose, D-threose

B. D-threose, D-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose

C. L-erythrose, L-threose, D-erythrose, D-threose

D. D-erythrose, D-threose, L-erythrose, L-threose

Q. 84 In the given reaction, the product P is,

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 85 A given nitrogen containing aromatic compound aromatic A reacts with Sn/HCl, followed by HNO2 to give an unstable compound B. B, on treatment with phenol, forms a beautiful coloured compound C with the molecular formula C12H10N 2O. The structure of the compound A is

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 86 Consider the reaction

CH3-CH2-CH2-Br + NaCN → CH3 –CH2 – CH2 –CN + NaBr

The reaction will be the fastest in

A. ethanol

B. methanol

C. N, N’ –dimethylformamide (DMF)

D. water

Q. 87 The correct structure of the product A formed in the reaction

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 88 Which among the given molecules can exhibit tautomerism?

A. III only

B. Both I and III

C. Both I and II

D. Both II and III

Q. 89 The correct order of the strengths of the carboxylic acids

A. I> II >III

B. II > III > I

C. III > II > I

D. II > I > II

Q. 90 The compound that will react most readily with gaseous bromine has the formula?

A. C3H6

B. C2H2

C. C4H10

D. C2H4

Q. 91 Which one of the following is wrong for fungi?

A. They are eukaryotic.

B. All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall.

C. They are heterotrophic.

D. They are both unicellular and multicellular.

Q. 92 Methanogens belong to

A. Eubacteria

B. Archaebacteria

C. Dinoflagellates

D. Slime moulds

Q. 93 Select the wrong statement

A. The walls of diatoms are easily destructible.

B. ‘Diatomaceous earth’ is formed by the cell wall of diatoms.

C. Diatoms are chief producers in the ocean.

D. Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water

Q. 94 The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry information on

A. date of collection

B. name of collector

C. local names

D. height of the plant

Q. 95 Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental conditions because of

A. broad hardy leaves

B. superficial stomata

C. thick cuticle

D. presence of vessels

Q. 96 Which one of the following statements is wrong?

A. Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in the immediate environment.

B. Algin is obtained from red algae, and carrageenan from brown algae.

C. Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria

D. Laminaria and Sargassum are used as food.

Q. 97 The term ‘polyadelphous’ is related to

A. gynoecium

B. androecium

C. corolla

D. calyx

Q. 98 How many plants among Indigofera, Sesbania, Salvia, Allium, Aloe, mustard, groundnut, radish, gram and turnip have stamens with different lengths in their flowers?

A. Three

B. Four

C. Five

D. Six

Q. 99 Radial symmetry is found in the flowers of

A. Brassica

B. Trifolium

C. Pisum

D. Cassia

Q. 100 Free-central placentation is found in

A. Dianthus

B. Argemone

C. Brassica

D. Citrus

Q. 101 Cortex is the region found between

A. epidermis and stele

B. pericycle and endodermis

C. endodermis and pith

D. endodermis and vascular bundle

Q. 102 The balloon-shaped structures called tyloses

A. lysozyme

B. ribozyme

C. ligase

D. deoxyribonuclease

Q. 103 A non-proteinaceous enzyme is

A. Stroma

B. Lumen of thylakoids

C. Inter membrane space

D. Antennae complex

Q. 104 Select the mismatch

A. Gas vacuoles – Green bacteria

B. Large central vacuoles – Animal cells

C. Protists – Eukaryotes

D. Methanogens – Prokaryotes

Q. 105 Select the wrong statement.

A. Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan.

B. Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of bacterial cells.

C. Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells.

D. Mycoplasma is a wall-less microorganism.

Q. 106 A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzymes is

A. lysosome

B. microsome

C. ribosome

D. mesosome

Q. 107 During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in

A. S Phase

B. G1 phase

C. G2 phase

D. M phase

Q. 108 Which of the following biomolecules is common to respiration-mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins?

A. Glucose-6-phosphate

B. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate

C. Pyruvic acid

D. Acetyl CoA

Q. 109 A few drops of sap were collected by cutting across a plant stem by a suitable method. The sap was tested chemically. Which one of the following test results indicates that it is phloem sap?

A. Acidic

B. Alkaline

C. Low refractive index

D. Absence of sugar

Q. 110 You are given a tissue with its potential for differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the following pairs of hormones would you add to the medium to secure shoots as well as roots?

A. IAA and gibberellins

B. Auxin and cytokinin

C. Auxin and abscisic acid

D. Gibberellin and abscisic acid

Q. 111 Phytochrome is a

A. flavoprotein

B. glycoprotein

C. lipoprotein

D. chromoprotein

Q. 112 Which is essential for the growth of root tip?

A. Zn

B. Fe

C. Ca

D. Mn

Q. 113 The process which makes major difference between C3 and C4 plants is

A. glycolysis

B. Calvin cycle

C. photorespiration

D. respiration

Q. 114 Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. Offspring produced by the asexual reproduction are called clone.

B. Microscopic, motile asexual reproductive structures are called zoospores.

C. In potato, banana and ginger, the plantlets arise from the internodes present in the modified stem.

D. Water hyacinth, growing in the standing water, drains oxygen from water that leads to the death of fishes.

Q. 115 Which one of the following generates new genetic combinations leading to variation?

A. Vegetative reproduction

B. Parthenogenesis

C. Sexual reproduction

D. Nucellar polyembryony

Q. 116 Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 117 In majority of angiosperms

A. egg has a filiform apparatus

B. there are numerous antipodal cells

C. reduction division occurs in the megaspore mother cells

D. a small central cell is present in the embryo sac

Q. 118 Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought about by the agency of

A. water

B. insects or wind

C. birds

D. bats

Q. 119 The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent

A. megasporangium

B. megasporophyll

C. megaspore mother cell

D. megaspore

Q. 120 Taylor conducted the experiments to prove semiconservative mode of chromosome replication on

A. Vinca rosea

B. Vicia faba

C. Drosophila melanogaster

D. E. coli

Q. 121 The mechanism that causes a gene to move from one linkage group to another is called

A. Inversion

B. Duplication

C. Translocation

D. Crossing over

Q. 122 The equivalent of a structural gene is

A. Mutation

B. Cistron

C. Operon

D. Recon

Q. 123 A true breeding plant is

A. One that is able to breed on its own

B. Produced due to cross pollination among unrelated plants

C. Near homozygous and produces offspring of its own kind

D. Always homozygous recessive in its genetic constitution

Q. 124 Which of the following rRNAs acts as structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria?

A. 5S rRNA

B. 18S rRNA

C. 23S rRNA

D. 5.8S rRNA

Q. 125 Stirred tank bioreactors have been designed for

A. Purification of product

B. Addition of preservatives to the product

C. Availability of oxygen throughout the process

D. Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel

Q. 126 A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using

A. Eco R1

B. Taq Polymerase

C. Polymerase III

D. ligase

Q. 127 Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing?

A. Separation

B. Purification

C. Preservation

D. Expression

Q. 128 Which of the following restriction enzymes produce blunt ends?

A. Sal I

B. Eco RV

C. Xho I

D. Hind III

Q. 129 Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four year old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency?

A. Gene therapy

B. Chemotherapy

C. Immunotherapy

D. Radiation therapy

Q. 130 How many hot spots of biodiversity in the world have been identified till date by Norman Myers?

A. 17

B. 25

C. 34

D. 43

Q. 131 The primary producers of deep-sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem are

A. Green algae

B. Chemosynthetic bacteria

C. Blue green algae

D. Coral reefs

Q. 132 Which of the following is corrent for r-selected species?

A. Large number of progeny with small size

B. Large number of progeny with large size

C. Small number of progeny with small size

D. Small number of progeny with large size

Q. 133 If ‘+’ sign is assigned to beneficial interactions, ‘-’ sign to detrimental and ‘0’ sign to neutral interactions, then the population interaction represented by ‘+’ ‘-’ refers to

A. Mutualism

B. Amensalism

C. Commensalism

D. Parasitism

Q. 134 Which of the following is correctly matched?

A. Aerenchyma – Opuntia

B. Age pyramid – Biome

C. Parthenium hysterophorus – Threat to biodiversity

D. Stratification – population

Q. 135 Red list contains data or information

A. all economically important plants

B. Plants whose products are in international trade

C. threatened species

D. marine vertebrates only

Q. 136 Which of the following sets of diseases is caused by bacteria?

A. Cholera and tetanus

B. Typhoid and smallpox

C. Tetanus and mumps

D. Herpes and influenza

Q. 137 Match Column-I with Column-II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Image result for Match Column-I with Column-II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given below:

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 138 Choose the correct statement

A. All mammals are viviparous

B. All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins

C. All reptiles have a three chambered heart

D. All Pisces have gills covered by an operculum

Q. 139 Study the four statements (A-D) given below and select the two correct ones out of them:

A. Definition of biological species was given by Ernst Mayr

B. Photoperiod does not affect reproduction in plants

C. Binomial nomenclature system was given by R. H. Whittaker

D. In unicellular organisms, reproduction is synonymous with growth The two correct statements are

A. B and C

B. C and D

C. A and D

D. A and B

Q. 140 In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which part of the reproductive system?

A. Seminal vesicles

B. Mushroom glands

C. Testes

D. Vas deferens

Q. 141 Smooth muscles are

A. Involuntary, fusiform, non-striated

B. Voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical

C. Involuntary, cylindrical, striated

D. Voluntary, spindle shaped, uninucleate

Q. 142 Oxidative phosphorylation is

A. Formation of ATP by transfer of phosphate group from a substrate to ADP

B. Oxidation of phosphate group in ATP

C. Addition of phosphate group to ATP

D. Formation of ATP by energy released from electrons removed during substrate oxidation

Q. 143 Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in stabilizing the three dimensional folding of most proteins?

A. Hydrogen bonds

B. Electrostatic interaction

C. Hydrophobic interaction

D. Ester bonds

Q. 144 Which of the following describes the given graph correctly?

A. Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme

B. Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme

C. Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme

D. Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme

Q. 145 When cell has stalled DNA replication fork, which checkpoint should be predominantly activated?

A. G1/S

B. G2/M

C. M

D. Both G2/M and M

Q. 146 Match the stages of meiosis in column I to their characteristic feature in column II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Image result for Match Column-I with Column-II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given below:

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 147 Which hormones do stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?

A. Angiotensin and epinephrine

B. Gastrin and insulin

C. Cholecystokinin and secretin

D. Insulin and Glucagon

Q. 148 The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs is

A. equal to that in the blood

B. more than that in the blood

C. less than that in the blood

D. less than that of the carbon dioxide

Q. 149 Choose the correct statement.

A. Nociceptors respond to changes in pressure

B. Meissner’s corpuscles are thermoreceptors

C. Photoreceptors in the human eye are depolarized during darkness and become hyperpolarized in response to the light stimulus

D. Receptors do not produce graded potentials

Q. 150 Grave’s disease is caused due to

A. hyposecretion of thyroid gland

B. hypersecretion of thyroid gland

C. hyposecretion of adrenal gland

D. hypersecretion of adrenal gland

Q. 151 Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin for cross-bridge activity during muscle contraction

A. Calcium

B. Magnesium

C. Sodium

D. Potassium

Q. 152 Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood from the body.

A. Erythrocytes

B. Leucocytes

C. Neutrophils

D. Thrombocytes

Q. 153 Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilization.

A. Insulin

B. Glucagon

C. Secretin

D. Gastrin

Q. 154 Osteoporosis, age-related disease of skeletal system, may occur due to

A. immune disorder affecting neuro-muscular junction leading to fatigue

B. high concentration of Ca++ and Na+

C. decreased level of estrogen

D. accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation of joints

Q. 155 Serum differs from blood in

A. lacking globulins

B. lacking albumins

C. lacking clotting factors

D. lacking antibodies

Q. 156 Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lungs which can never be expelled because

A. there is a negative pressure in the lungs

B. there is negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls

C. there is a positive intrapleural pressure

D. pressure in the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure

Q. 157 The posterior pituitary gland is not a ‘true’ endocrine gland because

A. it is provided with a duct

B. it only stores and release hormones

C. it is under the regulation of hypothalamus

D. it secretes enzymes

Q. 158 The part of nephron involved in active reabsorption of sodium is

A. distal convoluted tubule

B. proximal convoluted tubule

C. Bowman’s capsule

D. descending limb of Henle’s loop

Q. 159 Which of the following is hormone-releasing IUD?

A. LNG-20

B. Multiload 375

C. Lippes loop

D. Cu7

Q. 160 Which of following incorrect regarding vasectomy?

A. No sperm occurs in seminal fluid

B. No sperms occurs in epididymis

C. Vasa deferentia is cut and died

D. Irreversible sterility

Q. 161 Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilization is transferred into

A. uterus

B. fallopian tube

C. fimbriae

D. cervix

Q. 162 Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of transport of sperms?

A. Rete testis → Efferent ductules → Epididymis → Vas deferens

B. Rete testis → Epididymis → Efferent ductules → Vas deferens

C. Rete testis → Vas deferens → Efferent ductules → Epididymis

D. Efferent ductules → Rete testis → Vas deferens → Epididymis

Q. 163 Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Column I	Column II
a. Mons pubis	(i) Embyo formation
b. Antrum	(ii) Sperm
c. Trophectoderm	(iii)Female external genitalia
d. Nebenkern	(iv) Graafin follicle

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 164 Several hormones likes hCG, hPL, estrogen, progesterone are produced by

A. Ovary

B. Placenta

C. Fallopian tube

D. Pituitary

Q. 165 If a colour-blind man marries a woman who is homozygous for normal vision, the probability of their son being colour blind is

A. 0

B. 0.5

C. 0.75

D. 1

Q. 166 Genetic drift operates in:

A. Small isolated population

B. Large isolated population

C. Non-reproductive population

D. Slow reproductive population

Q. 167 In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individuals is represented by

A. p²

B. 2pq

C. pq

D. q²

Q. 168 The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is

A. Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus

B. Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus

C. Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Australopithecus → Homo erectus

D. Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus

Q. 169 Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life?

I. Formation of protobionts

II. Synthesis of organic monomers

III. Synthesis of organic polymers

IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic systems

A. I, II, III, IV

B. I, III, II, IV

C. II, III, I, IV

D. II, III, IV, I

Q. 170 A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill the traits given below, except

A. It should be able to express itself in the form of ‘Mendelian characters’

B. It should be able to generate its replica

C. It should be unstable structurally and chemically

D. It should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for evolution

Q. 171 DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes transcription on one strand of the DNA which is called the

A. template strand

B. coding strand

C. alpha strand

D. antistrand

Q. 172 Interspecific hybridization is the mating of

A. animals within same breed without having common ancestors

B. two different related species

C. superior males and females of different breeds

D. more closely related individuals within same breed for 4—6 generations

Q. 173 Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?

A. HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptase

B. HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase

C. HIV is unenveloped virus

D. HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response

Q. 174 Among the following edible fishes, which one is a marine fish having rich source of omega-3 fatty acids?

A. Mystus

B. Mangur

C. Mrigala

D. Mackerel

Q. 175 Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Column I Column II
a. Citric acid (i) Trichoderma

b. Cyclosporin A (ii) Clostridium

c. Statins (iii) Aspergillus

d. Butyric acid (iv) Monascus

A. a – (III), b – (I), c – (II), d – (IV)

B. a – (III), b – (I), c – (IV), d – (II)

C. a – (I), b – (IV), c – (II), d – (III)

D. a – (III), b – (IV), c – (I), d – (II)

Q. 176 Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be a good index for pollution for water bodies receiving effluents from

A. Domestic sewage

B. Dairy industry

C. Petroleum industry

D. Sugar industry

Q. 177 The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by

A. C. Darwin

B. G. F. Gause

C. MacArthur

D. Verhulst and Pearl

Q. 178 Which of the following National Parks is home to the famous musk deer or hangul?

A. Keibul Lamjao National Park, Manipur

B. Bandhavgarh National Park, Madhya Pradesh

C. Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary, Arunachal Pradesh

D. Dachigam National Park, Jammu & Kashmir

Q. 179 A lake which is rich in organic waste may result in

A. Increased population of aquatic organisms due to minerals

B. Drying of the lake due to algal bloom

C. Increased population of fish due to lots of nutrients

D. Mortality of fish due to lack of oxygen

Q. 180 The highest DDT concentration in aquatic food chain shall occur in

A. Phytoplankton

B. Seagull

C. Crab

D. Eel

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	D	C	A	C	B	C	C	B	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	C	B	D	B	B	D	B	B	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	D	B	C	D	C	B	B	A	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	C	A	D	C	B	B	D	A	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	B	A	C	C	B	A	C	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	B	D	B	C	A	D	B	A	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	B	D	C	C	B	A	C	D	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	C	B	C	B	D	A	D	C	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	C	D	C	B	C	B	A	B	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	B	A	D	C	B	B	B	A	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	A	C	B	B	B	A	A	D	B	B
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	D	C	C	C	C	D	C	B	A	B
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	C	B	C	C	C	D	D	B	A	C
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	B	A	D	C	C	A	A	B	C	A
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	A	D	D	B	B	A	C	B	C	B
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	A	D	A	C	C	B	B	B	A	B
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	A	A	B	B	A	A	B	B	C	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	A	B	B	D	B	C	B	D	D	B

NEET 2016 Phase-I Previous Year Paper

NEET 2016 – 1

Section	Questions	Marks
Physics	45 Questions (1 – 45)	180
Chemistry	45 Questions (46 – 90)	180
Biology	90 Questions (91 – 180)	360

Q. 1 From a disc of radius R and mass M. a circular hole diameter R whose rim passes through the centre is cut. What the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about perpendicular axis & passing through the centre?

A. 15 MR²/32

B. 13 MR²/32

C. 11 MR²/32

D. 9 MR²/32

Q. 2 A square loop ABCD carrying a current i, is placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor XY carrying a current I. The net force on the loop will be:

A. 2μ₀li/3π

B. μ₀li/2π

C. 2μ₀liL/3π

D. μ₀liL/2π

Q. 3 The magnetic suscepetibility is negative for

A. diamagnetic material only

B. paramagnetic material only

C. ferromagnetic material only

D. Paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials

Q. 4 A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800 Hz moves away from an observer towards a cliff at a a speed of 15 ms⁻¹ .Then , the frequency of sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected from the cliff is :

(Take velocity of sound in air = 330 ms⁻¹)

A. 765 Hz

B. 800 Hz

C. 838 Hz

D. 885 Hz

Q. 5 A capacitor of 2 μF is charged as shown in the diagram. When the switch S is turn to position 2, the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is:

A. 0%

B. 20%

C. 75%

D. 80%

Q. 6 In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width ‘a’, the first minimum is observed at an angle 30° when light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed at an angle of:

A. sin⁻¹(1/4)

B. sin⁻¹(2/3)

C. sin⁻¹(1/2)

D. sin⁻¹(3/4)

Q. 7 At what height from the surface of earth the gravitation potential and the value of g are -5.4×10⁷ J kg⁻² and 6.0 ms⁻² respectively? Take the radius of earth as 6400 km:

A. 2600 km

B. 1600 km

C. 1400 km

D. 2000 km

Q. 8 Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating

electromagnetic wave?

A. A charge moving at constant velocity

B. A stationary charge

C. A chargeless particle

D. An accelerating charge

Q. 9 Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of lengths l, are initially at a distance d (d << l) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak from the both the sphere at a constant rate. As a result, the sphere approach each other with a velocity v. Then v varies as a function of the distance x between the spheres as :

A. v proportional to x¹/²

B. v proportional to x

C. v proportional to x⁻¹/²

D. v proportional to x⁻¹

Q. 10 A uniform rope of length L and mass m₁ hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m₂ is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength λ1 is produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is λ2. The ratio λ2/λ1 is:

A. √m₁/√m₂

B. √m₁+m₂/√m₂

C. √m₂/√m₁

D. √m₁+m₂/√m₁

Q. 11 A refrigerator works between 4°C and 30°C. It is required to remove 600 calories of heat every second in order to keep the temperature of the refrigerated space constant. The power required is:

(Take 1 cal = 4.2 joules)

A. 2.365 W

B. 23.65 W

C. 236.5 W

D. 2365 W

Q. 12 An air column, closed at one end and open at the other, resonates with a turning fork when the smallest length of the column is 50 cm. The next larger length of the column resonating with the same turning fork is:

A. 66.7 cm

B. 100 cm

C. 150 cm

D. 200 cm

Q. 13 Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is:

A. 0 A

B. 10⁻² A

C. 10⁻¹ A

D. 10⁻³ A

Q. 14 The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as Q = at – bt², where a and b are positive constants. The total heat produced in R is:

A. a³R/6b

B. a³R/3b

C. a³R/2b

D. a³R/b

Q. 15 A black body is at a temperature of 5760 K. The energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength 250 nm is U₁. At wavelength 500 nm is U₂ and that at 1000 nm is U₃. Wien’s constant, b = 2.88 x 10⁶ nmK. Which of the following is correct?

A. u₁=0

B. u₃=0

C. u₁>u₂

D. u₂>u₁

Q. 16 Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are α1 and α2. Lengths of brass and steel rods are l₁ and l₂ respectively. If (l₂ – l₁) is maintained same at all temperatures, which one of the following relations holds good?

A. α₁l₂ = α₂l₁

B. α₁l₂² = α₂l₁²

C. α₁²l₂ =α₂²l₁

D. α₁l₁ = α₂l₂

Q. 17 A npn transistor is connected in common emitter configuration in a given amplifier. A load resistance of 800 Ω is connected in the collector circuit and the voltage drop across it is 0.8 V. Of the current amplification factor is 0.96 and the input resistance of the circuit is 192 Ω, the voltage gain and the power gain of the amplifier will respectively be:

A. 4, 3.84

B. 3.69, 3.84

C. 4, 4

D. 4, 3.69

Q. 18 The intensity of the maximum in a Young’s double slit experiment is I₀. Distance between two slits of d = 5λ, where λ is the wavelength of light used in the experiment. What will be the intensity in front of one of the slits on the screen placed at a distance D = 10d?

A. I₀

B. I₀/4

C. I₀

D. I₀/2

Q. 19 A uniform circular disc of radius 50 cm at rest is free to turn about an axis which is perpendicular to its plane and passes through its center. It is subjected to a torque which produces a constant angular acceleration of 2.0 rad s⁻². Its net acceleration in ms⁻² at the end of 2.0 s is approximately.

A. 8.0

B. 7.0

C. 6.0

D. 3.0

Q. 20 An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths associated with them is :

A. (1/c)(E/2m)¹/²

B. (E/2m)¹/²

C. c(2mE)¹/²

D. (1/E)(2m)²⁺⁽¹/ ᶜ⁾

Q. 21 A disk and a sphere o same radius but different masses roll off on two inclined planes of the same altitude and lengths. Which one of the two objects gets to the bottom of the plane first?

A. Disk

B. Sphere

C. Both reach at the same time

D. Depends on their masses

Q. 22 The angle of incidence for a ray light at a refracting surface of a prism is 45°. The angle of prism is 60°. If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum deviation and refractive index of the material of the prism respectively, are:

A. 45°1;/√2

B. 30°;√2

C. 45°;√2

D. 30°;1∕√2

Q. 23 When an α – particle of mass ‘m’ moving with velocity ‘􀀁’ bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge ‘Ze’, its distance of closet approach from the nucleus depends on m as:

A. 1/m

B. 1/√m

C. 1/m²

D. M

Q. 24 A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 c with a constant tangential acceleration. What is the magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic energy of the particle becomes equal to 8 x 10⁻⁴ J by the end of the second revolution after the beginning of the motion?

A. 0.1 m/s²

B. 0.15 m/s²

C. 0.18 m/s²

D. 0.2 m/s²

Q. 25 The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s. velocity of 200 ms⁻¹ at 27 °C and 1.0 x 10⁵ Nm⁻² pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas respectively, 127 °C and 0.05 x 10⁵ Nm⁻², the r.m.s. velocity of its molecules in ms⁻¹ is:

A. 100√2

B. 400/√3

C. 100√2/3

D. 100/3

Q. 26 A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed over its cross–section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B’, at radial distances a/2 and 2a respectively, from the axis of the wire is:

A. 1/4

B. 1/2

C. 1

D. 4

Q. 27 A particle moves so that its position vector is given by r = cosωt ˆx + sin ωtyˆ . Where ω is a constant. Which of the following is true?

A. Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular to r

B. Velocity and acceleration both are parallel to r

C. Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is directed towards the origin.

D. Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration is directed away from the origin.

Q. 28 What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass m must enter a vertical loop of radius R so that it can complete the loop?

A. √gR

B. √2gR

C. √3gR

D. √5gR

Q. 29 When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V/4 . The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is:

A. 4 λ

B. 5 λ

C. 5λ/2

D. 3λ

Q. 30 A gas is compressed is isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed separately through and adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then:

A. Compressing the gas isothermally will require more work to be done.

B. Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done

C. Compressing the gas isothermally of adiabatically will require the same amount or work

D. Which of the case (wheather compression through isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires more work will depend upon the atomicty of the gas.

Q. 31 A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it. Two cells are connected in series first to support one another and then in opposite direction. The balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of emf’s is

A. 5:1

B. 5:4

C. 3:4

D. 3:2

Q. 32 A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To view an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a distance

A. 37.3 cm

B. 46.0 cm

C. 50.0 cm

D. 54.0 cm

Q. 33 Two non-mixing liquids of densities ρ and nρ (n > 1) are put in a container. The height of each liquids is h. A solid cylinder of length L and density d is put in this container. The cylinder floats with its axis vertical and length pL (p < 1) in the denser liquids. The density d is equal to

A. {1+(n+1)p}p

B. {2+(n+1)p}p

C. {2+{n-1}p}p

D. {1+(n-1)p}p

Q. 34 To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is:

A. A = 0, B = 1, C = 0

B. A = 1, B = 0, C = 0

C. A = 1, B = 1, C = 0

D. A = 1, B = 0, C = 1

Q. 35 A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one – quarter of the heat produced is absorbed by the ice and all the energy of ice gets converted into heat during its fall. The value of h is: [Latent heat of ice is 3.4 x 10⁵ J/kg and g = 10 N/kg]

A. 34km

B. 544 km

C. 136 km

D. 68 km

Q. 36 The ratio of escape velocity of earth (􀀁ᵥ) to the escape velocity at a planet (􀀁p) whose radius and mean density are twice as that of earth is:

A. 1 : 2

B. 1: 2√2

C. 1:4

D. 1: √2

Q. 37 If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors, the angle between these vectors is:

A. 0°

B. 90°

C. 45°

D. 180°

Q. 38 Given the value of Rydberg constant is 10⁷ m⁻¹, the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum will be:

A. 0.025 x 10⁴ m⁻¹

B. 0.5 x 10⁷ m⁻¹

C. 0.25 x 10⁷ m⁻¹

D. 2.5 x 10⁷ m⁻¹

Q. 39 A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force F=(2ti+3t₂ J)N, where i and J are unit along x and y axis. What power will be developed by the force at the time t?

A. (2t² + 3t³) W

B. (2t² + 4t⁴) W

C. (2t³ + 3t⁴) W

D. (2t³ + 3t⁵) W

Q. 40 An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 μF and a resistor 40 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf V = 10 sin 340t. The power loss in A.C circuit is:

A. 0.51 W

B. 0.67 W

C. 0.76 W

D. 0.89 W

Q. 41 If the velocity of a particle is 􀀁 = At + Bt², where A and B are constants, then the distance travelled by it between is and 2s is:

A. 3/2(A+4B)

B. 3/3(A+ 7B)

C. 23ᴬ⁺ᴮ

D. (A/2)+(B/3)

Q. 42 A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4 x 10⁻³ Wb. The self– inductance of the solenoid is:

A. 4H

B. 3H

C. 2H

D. 1H

Q. 43 A small signal voltage V(t) = V₀ sin ωt is applied across an ideal capacitor C:

A. Current I(t), lags voltage V(t) by 90°.

B. Over a full cycle the capacitor C does not consume any energy from the voltage source.

C. Current I(t) is in phase with voltage V(t) .

D. Current I(t) leads voltage V(t) by 180°.

Q. 44 Match the corresponding entries of column 1 with column 2 [where m is the magnification produced by the mirror]

A. A→b and c; B→b and c; C→b and d; D→a and d

B. A→a and c; B→a and d; C→a and b; D→c and d

C. A→a and d; B→b and c; C→b and d; D→b and c

D. A→c and d; B→b and d; C→b and c; D→a and d

Q. 45 A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle θ. The coefficient of friction between the types of the car and the road is μ. The maximum safe velocity on this road is:

A. √((gR²)(μ+tanθ)/(1-μ tanθ))

B. √((gR)( μ+tanθ)/(1-μtanθ))

C. √((gμ+tanθ)/(R1-μtanθ))

D. √((g/R²)(μ+tanθ)/(1-μtanθ))

Q. 46 Consider the molecules CH₄, NH₃ and H₂O. Which of the given statements is false?

A. The H – C – H bond angle in CH₄, the H – N – H bond angle in NH₃, and the H – O – H bond angle in H₂O are all greater than 90°.

B. The H – O – H bond angle in H₂O is larger than the H – C – H bond angle in CH₄.

C. The H – O – H bond angle in H₂O is smaller than the H – N – H bond angle in NH₃.

D. The H – C – H bond angle in CH₄ is larger than the H – N – H bond angle in NH₃.

Q. 47 In the following reaction

X and Y are :

A. X = 1 – Butyne; Y = 3- Hexyne

B. X = 2 – Butyne; Y = 3 – Hexyne

C. X = 2- Butyne ; Y = 2- Hexyne

D. X = 1- Butyne ; Y = 2 – Hexyne

Q. 48 Among the following the correct order of acidity is :

A. HClO₃ < HClO₄ < HClO₂< HClO

B. HClO < HClO₂ < HClO₃ < HClO₄

C. HClO₂< HClO < HClO₃ < HClO₄

D. HClO₄ < HClO₂ < HClO < HClO₃

Q. 49 The rate of first order reaction is 0.04 mol⁻¹ s⁻¹at 10 seconds and 0.03 mol⁻¹ s⁻¹ at 20 seconds after intiation of the reaction. The half – life period of the reaction is :

A. 24.1 s

B. 34.1 s

C. 44.1s

D. 54.1 s

Q. 50 Which one of the following characteristics is associated with adsorption?

A. Δ G is negative but ΔH and ΔS are positive

B. ΔG, ΔH and ΔS all are negative

C. ΔG and ΔH are negative but ΔS is positive

D. ΔG and ΔS are negative butΔH is positive

Q. 51 In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it?

A. Al³⁺> Mg²⁺< Na⁺< F⁻ (increasing ionic size)

B. B < C < N < O (increasing first ionisation enthalpy)

C. I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy

D. Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)

Q. 52 Which of the following statements is false?

A. Mg²⁺ ions form a complex with ATP.

B. Ca²⁺ ions are important in blood clotting

C. Ca²⁺ ions are not important in maintaining the regular beating of the heart

D. Mg²⁺ ions are important in the green parts of plants.

Q. 53 Which of the following statements about hydrogen is incorrect

A. Hydrogen has three isotopes of which tritium is the most common

B. Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts

C. Hydronium ion, H₃O⁺ exists freely in solution

D. Dihydrogen does not act as a oxidising agent

Q. 54 The correct statement regarding a carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alphacarbon is :

A. A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha – carbon never equilibrates with its corresponding enol.

B. A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha – carbon rapidily equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as aldehyde – ketone equilibration

C. A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha – carbon rapidly equilibrium with its corresponding enol and this process is known as carbonylation

D. A carbonyl compound with a hydrogen atom on its alpha – carbon rapidly equilibrates with its corresponding enol and this process is known as keto – enol tautomerism.

Q. 55 MY and NY₃ two nearly insoluble salts, have te same ksp values of 6.2 x 10⁻¹³ at room temperature. Which statement would be true in regard of MY and NY₃?

A. The molar solubilities of MY and NY₃ in water are indetical

B. The molar solubility of MY in water is less than that of NY₃

C. The salts MY and NY₃ are more soluble in 0.5 M KY than in pure water.

D. The addition of the salt of KY to solution of MY and NY₃ will have no effect on their solubilities.

Q. 56 In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked together by:

A. α – glycosidid bond

B. β – glycosidic bond

C. Peptide bond

D. Dative bond

Q. 57 Natural rubber has:

A. All cis – configuration

B. All trans – configuration

C. Alternate cis – and trans – configuration

D. Random cis – and trans – configuration

Q. 58 Match items of Column I with the item of Column II and assign the correct code :

	Column I		Column II
(a)	Cyanide process	(i)	Ultrapure Ge
(b)	Froth floatation process	(ii)	Dressing of ZnS
(c)	Electrolytic reduction	(iii)	Extraction of Al
(d)	Zone refining	(iv)	Extraction of Au
		(v)	Purification of Ni

A. A (4), B (2), C(3), D(1)

B. A (2), B (3), C(1), D (5)

C. A(1), B(2), C(3), D(4)

D. A(3), B(4), C(5), D(1)

Q. 59 Which one of the following statements is correct when SO₂ is passed through acidified K₂Cr₂O7 solution?

A. The solution turns blue

B. The solution is decolorized

C. SO₂ is reduced.

D. Green Cr₂ (SO₄)₃ is formed

Q. 60 The electronic configurations of Eu (Atomic No.63), Gd (Atomic No.64 and Tb (Atomic No.65) are :

A. [Xe]4f⁷6s², [Xe]4f⁸6s² and [Xe]4f⁸5d¹6s²

B. [Xe]4f⁶5d¹6s², [Xe]4f⁷5d¹6s² and [Xe]4f⁹6s²

C. [Xe]4f⁶5d¹6s², [Xe]4f⁷5d¹6s² and [Xe]4f⁸5d¹6s²

D. [Xe]4f⁷6s², [Xe]4f⁷5d¹6s² and [Xe]4f⁹6s²

Q. 61 Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by :

A. Principle quantum number

B. Magnetic quantum number

C. Azimutual qautum number

D. Spin qauntum number

Q. 62 When copper is heated with cone. HNO₃ it produces:

A. Cu(NO₃) and NO₂

B. Cu(NO₃) and NO

C. Cu(NO₃)₂, and NO₂

D. Cu(NO₃)₂ and N₂O

Q. 63 Which of the following regents would distinguish cis-cyclopenta-1, 2-diol from the transisomer?

A. Aceptone

B. Ozone

C. MnO₂

D. Aluminium isopropoxide

Q. 64 The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperature is :

A. H < 0 and S = 0

B. H > 0 and S < 0

C. H < 0 and S > 0

D. H < 0 and S < 0

Q. 65 Lithium has a bcc structure. Its density is 530 kg m-3 and its atomic mass is 6.94g mol⁻¹. Calculate the edge length of a unit cell of Lithium metal. (Nₐ = 6.02 × 10²³ mol⁻¹)

A. 154 pm

B. 352 pm

C. 527 pm

D. 264 pm

Q. 66 Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules ?

A. (1)I₂ > Br₂ > Cl₂ > F₂

B. Cl₂ > Br₂ > F₂ > I₂

C. Br₂ > I₂ > F₂ > Cl₂

D. F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂

Q. 67 Which of the following is an analgesic ?

A. Novalgin

B. Penicllin

C. Streptomycin

D. Chloromycetion

Q. 68 Equal moles of hydrogen and oxygen gases are placed in a container with a pin-hole through which both can escape. What fraction of the oxygen escapes in the time required for one-half of the hydrogen to escape?

A. 1/8

B. 1/4

C. 3/8

D. 1/2

Q. 69 Consider the nitration of benezene using mixed conc. H₂SO₄ and HNO₃. If a large amount of KHSO₄ is added to the mixture, the rate of nitration will be:

A. faster

B. slower

C. unchanged

D. doubled

Q. 70 Predict the correct order among the following:

A. lone pair – lone pair > lone pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair

B. lone pair – lone pair > bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – bond pair

C. bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – bond pair > lone pair – lone pair

D. lone pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – lone pair

Q. 71 The product obtained as a result of a reaction of nitrogen with CaC₂ is :

A. Ca(CN)₂

B. CaCN

C. CaCN₃

D. Ca₂CN

Q. 72 Consider the following liquid — vapor equilibrium.

Liquid ⇔ Vapor

Which of the following relations is correct?

A. dlnG/dT² =Δ Hᵥ/RT²

B. dlnP/dT = -ΔHᵥ/RT

C. dlnP/dT² = -ΔHᵥ/T²

D. dlnP/dT = ΔHᵥ/RT²

Q. 73 Match the compounds given in set 1 with the hybridization and shape given in set 2 and mark the correct option.

Set 1

(a) XeF6

(b) XeO3

(d) XeF4

Set 2

(i) distorted octahedral

(ii) square planar

(iii) pyramidal

(iv) square pyramidal

A. (a) – (i) (b) – (iii) (c) – (iv) (d) – (ii)

B. (a) – (i) (b) – (ii) (c) – (iv) (d) – (iii)

C. (a) – (iv) (b) – (ii) (c) – (i) (d) – (ii)

D. (a) – (iv) (b) – (i) (c) – (ii) (d) – (iii)

Q. 74 Which of the following has longest C – O bond length? (Free C – O bond length in CO is 1.28Å.)

A. Ni(CO)₄

B. [Co(CO)4]⊖

C. [Fe(CO)₄]²⁻

D. [Mn(CO)₆]⁺

Q. 75 The pressure of H2 required to make the potential of H₂ –electrode zero in pure water at 298 K is:

A. 10⁻¹⁴ atm

B. 10⁻¹² atm

C. 10⁻¹⁰ atm

D. 10⁻⁴ atm

Q. 76 The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities?

A. Entropy

B. Internal Energy

C. Enthalpy

D. Activation Energy

Q. 77 The ionic radii of A⁺ and B⁻ ions are 0.98 × 10⁻¹⁰ m and 1.81 × 10⁻¹⁰ m. The coordination number of each ion in AB is:

A. 6

B. 4

C. 8

D. 2

Q. 78 Which is the correct statement for the given acids?

A. Phosphinic acid is a diprotic acid while Phosphonic acid is a monoprotic acid.

B. Phosphinic acid is a monoprotic acid while Phosphonic acid is a diprotic acid.

C. Both are triprotic acids.

D. Both are diprotic acids.

Q. 79 Fog is colloidal solution of:

A. Liquid in gas

B. Gas in liquid

C. Solid in gas

D. Gas in gas

Q. 80 Which of the following statements about the composition of the vapour over an ideal 1: 1 molar mixture of benzene and toluene is correct? Assume that the temperature is constant at 25˚C. (Given, Vapour Pressure Data at 25˚C, benzene = 12.8 kPa, toluene = 3.85 kPa)

A. The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene.

B. The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene.

C. The vapour will contain equal amounts of benzene and toluene.

D. Not enough information is given to make a prediction.

Q. 81 The correct statement regarding the comparison of staggered and eclipsed conformations of ethane, is:

A. The staggered conformation of ethane is less stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has torsional strain.

B. The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation, because eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain.

C. The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more stable than staggered conformation even though the eclipsed conformation has torsional strain.

D. The staggered conformation of ethane is more stable than eclipsed conformation, because staggered conformation has no torsional strain.

Q. 82 The following reaction can be classified as:

A. Williamson ether synthesis reaction

B. Alcohol formation reaction

C. Dehydration reaction

D. Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction

Q. 83 The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is:

A. Schiff base

B. Ketone

C. Carboxylic acid

D. Aromatic acid

Q. 84 Which of the following biphenyl is optically active?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 85 Which of the following statements is correct?

A. (a) and (b) are elimination reactions and (c) is addition reaction.

B. (a) is elimination, (b) is substitution and (c) is addition reaction.

C. (a) is elimination, (b) and (c) are substitution reactions.

D. (a) is substitution, (b) and (c) are addition reactions.

Q. 86 At 100˚C the vapour pressure of a solution of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732mm. If Kb = 0.52, the boiling point of this solution will be:

A. 101˚C

B. 100˚C

C. 102˚C

D. 103˚C

Q. 87 The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA, respectively is :

A. The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is 2’- deoxyribose.

B. The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2’- deoxyribose.

C. The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is ribose.

D. The sugar component in RNA is 2’- deoxyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose.

Q. 88 The correct statement regarding the basicity of arylamines is :

A. Arylamines are generally less basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons are delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring π electron system.

B. Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because the nitrogen lone-pair electrons are delocalized by interaction with the aromatic ring π electron system.

C. Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines because of aryl group.

D. Arylamines are generally more basic than alkylamines, because the nitrogen atom in arylamines is sp-hybridized.

Q. 89 Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar?

A. Maltose

B. Lactose

C. Glucose

D. Sucrose

Q. 90 The pair of electron in the given carbanion, CH₃CH ≡ C^⊖, is present in which of the following orbitals?

A. 2p

B. sp³

C. sp²

D. sp

Q. 91 Gause’s principle of competitive exclusion states that:

A. More abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition.

B. Competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences.

C. No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources.

D. Larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition.

Q. 92 The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by:

A. Hydrogen bonds

B. Phosphodiester bond

C. Covalent bond

D. Disulphide bridges

Q. 93 The coconut water from tender coconut represents:

A. Endocarp

B. Fleshy mesocarp

C. Free nuclear proembryo

D. Free nuclear endosperm

Q. 94 Which of the following statements is wrong for viroids?

A. They lack a protein coat

B. They are smaller than viruses

C. They cause infections

D. Their RNA is of high molecular weight

Q. 95 Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum-Arthropoda?

A. Chitinous exoskeleton

B. Metameric segmentation

C. Parapodia

D. Jointed appendages

Q. 96 Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia?

A. Recessive gene disorder

B. X-linked recessive gene disorder

C. Chromosomal disorder

D. Dominant gene disorder

Q. 97 Emerson’s enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of:

A. Photophosphorylation and non-cyclic electron transport

B. Two photosystems operating simultaneously

C. Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport

D. Oxidative phosphorylation

Q. 98 In which of the following, all three are macronutrients?

A. Boron, zinc, manganese

B. Iron, copper, molybdenum

C. Molybdenum, magnesium, manganese

D. Nitrogen, nickel, phosphorus

Q. 99 Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking:

A. Emphysema

B. Asthma

C. Respiratory acidosis

D. Respiratory alkalosis

Q. 100 A system of rotating crops with legume or grass pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is called:

A. Ley farming

B. Contour farming

C. Strip farming

D. Shifting agriculture

Q. 101 Mitochondria and chloroplast are:

(a) semi-autonomous organelles.

(b) formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesizing machinery.

Which one of the following options is correct?

A. Both (a) and (b) are correct.

B. (b) is true but (a) is false.

C. (a) is true but (b) is false.

D. Both (a) and (b) are false.

Q. 102 In context of Amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect?

A. It is usually done when a woman is between 14 – 16 weeks pregnant.

B. It is used for prenatal sex determination.

C. It can be used for detection of Down syndrome.

D. It can be used for detection of Cleft palate.

Q. 103 In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in 2

A. Stroma

B. Lumen of thylakoids

C. Inter membrane space

D. Antennae complex

Q. 104 Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of :

A. Guanosine and Retinol

B. Opsin and Retinal

C. Opsin and Retinol

D. Transducin and Retinene

Q. 105 Spindle fibres attach on to:

A. Telomere of the chromosome

B. Kinetochore of the chromosome

C. Centromere of the chromosome

D. Kinetosome of the chromosome

Q. 106 Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India?

A. Gangetic shark

B. River dolphin

C. Blue whale

D. Sea – horse

Q. 107 Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon?

A. glucose

B. galactose

C. lactose

D. lactose and galactose

Q. 108 Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other?

A. Parathormone – Calcitonin

B. Insulin – Glucagon

C. Aldosterone – Atrial Natriuretic Factor

D. Relaxin – lnhibin

Q. 109 Microtubules are the constituents of:

A. Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes

B. Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia

C. Centrioles, Spindle fibres and Chromatin

D. Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles

Q. 110 A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as:

A. Polysome

B. Polymer

C. Polypeptide

D. Okazaki fragment

Q. 111 Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if:

A. the sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube.

B. the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of the fallopian tube.

C. the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of the cervix.

D. the sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus.

Q. 112 Asthma may be attributed to:

A. bacterial infection of the lungs

B. allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs

C. inflammation of the trachea

D. accumulation of fluid in the lungs

Q. 113 The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of:

A. ABA

B. GA₃

C. IAA

D. Ethylene

Q. 114 The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called:

A. Carina

B. Pappus

C. Vexillum

D. Corona

Q. 115 Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of:

A. Liliaceae

B. Solanaceae

C. Fabaceae

D. Poaceae

Q. 116 One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is :

A. Chitin

B. Peptidoglycan

C. Cellulose

D. Hemicellulose

Q. 117 Select the incorrect statement :

A. FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis.

B. LH triggers ovulation in ovary.

C. LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase.

D. LH triggers secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells.

Q. 118 In meiosis crossing over is initiated at:

A. Pachytene

B. Leptotene

C. Zygotene

D. Diplotene

Q. 119 A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the F1 plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of:

A. 1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall homozygous : Tall heterozygous : Dwarf

B. 1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall heterozygous : Tall homozygous : Dwarf

C. 3 : 1 :: Tall : Dwarf

D. 3 : 1 :: Dwarf : Tall

Q. 120 Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction?

A. Over – exploitation

B. Alien species invasion

C. Habitat loss and fragmentation

D. Co-extinctions

Q. 121 Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem?

A. Absence of soil organisms

B. Least genetic diversity

C. Absence of weeds

D. Ecological succession

Q. 122 Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of:

A. estrogen and progesterone

B. estrogen and inhibin

C. progesterone only

D. progesterone and inhibin

Q. 123 Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids?

A. Independent replication

B. Circular structure

C. Transferable

D. Single-stranded

Q. 124 Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta americana?

A. Schizocoelom as body cavity

B. Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development

C. Exoskeleton composed of N-acetylglucosamine

D. Metamerically segmented body

Q. 125 In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to:

A. Allergic response

B. Graft rejection

C. Auto-immune disease

D. Active immunity

Q. 126 Match the terms in Set 1 with their description in Set2 and choose the correct option:

Set 1

(a) Dominance

(b) Codominance

(d) Polygenic inheritance

Set 2

(i) Many genes govern a single character

(ii) In a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses itself

(iii) In a heterozygous organism both alleles express themselves fully

(iv) A single gene influences many characters

A. (a) – (ii) (b) – (i) (c) – (iv) (d) – (iii)

B. (a) – (ii) (b) – (iii) (c) – (iv) (d) – (i)

C. (a) – (iv) (b) – (i) (c) – (ii) (d) – (iii)

D. (a) – (iv) (b) – (iii) (c) – (i) (d) – (ii)

Q. 127 Joint Forest Management Concept was introduced in India during:

A. 1960s

B. 1970s

C. 1980s

D. 1990s

Q. 128 Pick out the correct statements:

(a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.

(b) Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy.

(d) Sickle cell anaemia is an X-linked recessive gene disorder.

A. (a) and (d) are correct.

B. (b) and (d) are correct.

C. (a), (c) and (d) are correct.

D. (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

Q. 129 Which one of the following statements is wrong?

A. Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae.

B. Golden algae are also called desmids.

C. Eubacteria are also called false bacteria.

D. Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi.

Q. 130 Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the:

A. Anther

B. Connective

C. Placenta

D. Thalamus or petal

Q. 131 Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?

A. Barrier methods – prevent fertilization

B. Intra uterine devices – increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms

C. Hormonal contraceptives – Prevent/ retard entry of sperms, prevent ovulation and fertilization

D. Vasectomy – prevents spermatogenesis

Q. 132 The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from:

A. Thermus aquaticus

B. Thiobacillus ferroxidans

C. Bacillus subtilis

D. Pseudomonas putida

Q. 133 Identify the correct statement on ’inhibin’:

A. Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Prolactin.

B. Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH.

C. Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of LH.

D. Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits the secretion of LH.

Q. 134 Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita?

A. Flower

B. Leaf

C. Stem

D. Root

Q. 135 Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain:

A. Activated pathogens

B. Harvested antibodies

C. Gamma globulin

D. Attenuated pathogens

Q. 136 Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane?

A. Mitochondria

B. Chloroplasts

C. Lysosomes

D. Nuclei

Q. 137 Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as:

A. Spasm

B. Fatigue

C. Tetanus

D. Tonus

Q. 138 Which of the following is not a stem modification?

A. Pitcher of Nepenthes

B. Thorns of citrus

C. Tendrils of cucumber

D. Flattened structures of Opuntia

Q. 139 Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are:

A. Xanthophylls

B. Chlorophylls

C. Carotenoids

D. Anthocyanins

Q. 140 Select the correct statement:

A. Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous

B. Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms

C. Sequoia is one of the tallest trees

D. The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate

Q. 141 Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present?

A. Polymerase chain reaction

B. Zinc finger analysis

C. Restriction enzymes

D. DNA-DNA hybridization

Q. 142 Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location?

A. Tissue – Smooth muscle Location – Wall of intestine

B. Tissue – Areolar tissue Location – Tendons

C. Tissue – Transitional epithelium Location – Tip of nose

D. Tissue – Cuboidal epithelium Location – Lining of stomach

Q. 143 A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilisation. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant?

A. C₃

B. C₄

C. CAM

D. Nitrogen fixer

Q. 144 Which of the following structures is homologous to the wing of a bird?

A. Dorsal fin of a Shark

B. Wing of a Moth

C. Hind limb of Rabbit

D. Flipper of Whale

Q. 145 Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals?

A. Cartilaginous endoskeleton – Chondrichthyes

B. Viviparous – Mammalia

C. Possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw – Chordata

D. 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle – Reptilia

Q. 146 Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?

A. Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle.

B. Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor.

C. Mutations inactivate the cell control.

D. Mutations inhibit production of telomerase.

Q. 147 The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of :

A. Melatonin and Serotonin

B. Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine

C. Estrogen and Progesterone

D. Cortisol and Cortisone

Q. 148 Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life :

(a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.

(b) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.

Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct?

A. (a) is correct but (b) is false.

B. (b) is correct but (a) is false.

C. Both (a) and (b) are correct.

D. Both (a) and (b) are false.

Q. 149 Reduction in pH of blood will:

A. reduce the rate of heart beat.

B. reduce the blood supply to the brain.

C. decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen.

D. release bicarbonate ions by the liver.

Q. 150 Analogous structures are a result of:

A. Divergent evolution

B. Convergent evolution

C. Shared ancestry

D. Stabilizing selection

Q. 151 Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?

A. Hind II

B. Protease

C. DNase I

D. RNase

Q. 152 The term ecosystem was coined by:

A. E.P’. Odum

B. A.G. Tansley

C. E. Haeckel

D. E. Warming

Q. 153 Which one of the following statements is wrong?

A. Sucrose is a disaccharide.

B. Cellulose is a polysaccharide.

C. Uracil is a pyrimidine.

D. Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.

Q. 154 In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires:

A. Wind

B. Insects

C. Birds

D. Water

Q. 155 When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero? The logistic model is given as dN/dt = rN(1-N/K):

A. when N/K is exactly one.

B. when N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat.

C. when N/K equals zero.

D. when death rate is greater than birth rate.

Q. 156 Which one of the following statements is not true?

A. Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther

B. Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin

C. Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies

D. Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programmes

Q. 157 Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks?

A. Lichens

B. Liverworts

C. Mosses

D. Green algae

Q. 158 Which one of the following is the starter codon?

A. AUG

B. UGA

C. UAA

D. UAG

Q. 159 Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals?

A. Ossified endoskeleton

B. Breathing using lungs

C. Viviparity

D. Warm blooded nature

Q. 160 Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature?

A. Biological names can be written in any language

B. The first word in a biological name represents the genus name, and the second is a specific epithet

C. The names are written in Latin and are italicised

D. When written by hand, the names are to be underlined

Q. 161 Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is:

A. same as that in the aorta.

B. more than that in the carotid.

C. more than that in the pulmonary vein.

D. less than that in the venae cavae.

Q. 162 Cotyledon of maize grain is called:

A. plumule

B. coleorhiza

C. coleoptile

D. scutellum

Q. 163 In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the :

A. gastrin secreting cells

B. parietal cells

C. peptic cells

D. acidic cells

Q. 164 Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers:

A. Nitrous oxide

B. Ozone

C. Ammonia

D. Methane

Q. 165 Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and Slime moulds are included in the kingdom:

A. Monera

B. Protista

C. Fungi

D. Animalia

Q. 166 Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening. Through the same stomatal opening carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. Reason out the above statements using one of following options:

A. Both processes cannot happen simultaneously.

B. Both processes can happen together because the diffusion coefficient of water and CO₂ is different.

C. The above processes happen only during night time.

D. One process occurs during day time, and the other at night.

Q. 167 In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea?

A. Renal Vein

B. Dorsal Aorta

C. Hepatic Vein

D. Hepatic Portal Vein

Q. 168 Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants involves the process of:

A. Sporulation

B. Budding

C. Somatic hybridization

D. Apomixis

Q. 169 Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 170 In a testcross involving F₁ dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were produced than the recombinant-type offspring. This indicates:

A. The two genes are located on two different chromosomes.

B. Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis.

C. The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome.

D. Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene.

Q. 171 It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for a large animal, because:

A. It is easier to carry a small body weight

B. Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate

C. Small animals have a lower O₂ requirement

D. The efficiency of muscles in large animals is less than in the small animals.

Q. 172 Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells?

A. Spindle fibres

B. Disappearance of nucleolus

C. Chromosome movement

D. Synapsis

Q. 173 Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of the same species grows into the style.

B. Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen/nectar robbers.

C. Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical components of pollen interacting with those of the pistil.

D. Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species.

Q. 174 Specilised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called:

A. Complementary cells

B. Subsidiary cells

C. Bulliform cells

D. Lenticels

Q. 175 Which of the following guards the opning of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum?

A. Semilunar valve

B. Ileocaecal valve

C. Pyloric sphincter

D. Sphincter of Oddi

Q. 176 Stems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as:

A. Cladodes

B. Phyllodes

C. Phylloclades

D. Scales

Q. 177 The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, include the:

A. Halophiles

B. Thermoacidophiles

C. Methanogens

D. Eubacteria

Q. 178 A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in:

A. Drying of the river very soon due to algal bloom.

B. Increased population of aquatic food web organisms.

C. An increased production of fish due to biodegradable nutrients.

D. Death of fish due to lack of oxygen.

Q. 179 A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his teacher that this cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of cell plate and thus the cell is containing more number of chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would result in:

A. Aneuploidy

B. Polyploidy

C. Somaclonal variation

D. Polyteny

Q. 180 A typical fat molecule is made up of:

A. Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecule

B. One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules

C. One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule

D. Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	A	A	C	D	D	A	D	C	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	C	B	A	D	D	A	D	A	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	B	A	A	B	C	C	D	D	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	D	D	D	C	B	B	C	D	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	B	A	B	B	A	B	A	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	C	A	D	B	C	A	A	D	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	A	A	C	B	B	A	A	B	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	D	A	C	AA	D	A	B	A	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	D	A	A	B	B	A	B	A	D	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	D	D	D	C	B	B	D	A	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	C	D	B	B	B	B	C	D	B	A
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	B	C	C	A	A	C	A	A	C
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	A	D	B	C	B	C	D	C	D
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	D	A	B	D	D	C	C	A	D	C
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	B	A	B	D	A	D	A	C	C	B
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	A	B	D	D	A	A	A	A	C	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	C	D	B	B	B	B	C	D	D	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	B	D	A	B	D	C	C	D	B	B