Coachings - Page 96 of 100 - Vidhyarthi Darpan

AIIMS UG 2008 Previous Year Paper

AIIMS UG 2008

Section	Questions	Marks
Physics	60 Questions (1 – 60)	60
Chemistry	60 Questions (61 – 120)	60
Biology	60 Questions (121 – 180)	60
General Knowledge	20 Questions (181 – 200)	20

Q : 1 In an electrical circuit containing L , C and R which of the following does not denote the dimensions of frequency ?

A. LC

B. 1/√(LC)

C. 1/RC

D. R/L

Q. 2 The displacement time graph of a particle moving along a straight line is drawn below.The accelerations of the particle during the regions OP, PQ and QR are :

A. OP- (-), PQ-(0),OR-(+)

B. OP,-(+)PQ-(0),QR-(+)

C. OP-(+),PQ-(0),QR-(-)

D. OP-(-),PQ-(0),QR-(-)

Q. 3 A particle of mass m moves with constant speed along a circular path of radius r under the action of force F. Its speed is:

A. √(Fr/m)

B. √(F/r)

C. √(Fmr)

D. √(F/mr)

Q. 4 A bullet is fired from a rifle and the rifle recoils.Kinetic energy of rifle is

A. less than K.E of bullet

B. greater than K.E of bullet

C. equal to K.E of buller

D. none of the above

Q. 5 Side of an equilateral triangle is l. Three point masses, each of magnitude m,are placed at the three vertices of the triangle . Moment of inertia of this system about one side of the triangle as axis is given by

A. 3ml²/4

B. 4ml²/3

C. 3ml²/2

D. 2ml²/3

Q. 6 P,Q and R are three coplanar forces acting at a point and are in equilibrium. Given P = 1.9318 kg . wt [sin θ₁ =0.9659], the value of R (in Kg wt) is

A. 0.9659

B. 2

C. 1

D. 1/2

Q. 7 Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the nth power of distance. Then the time period of a planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sun will be proportional to

A. R⁽ⁿ⁺¹⁾½

B. R⁽ⁿ⁻¹⁾½

C. Rⁿ

D. R⁽ⁿ⁻²⁾½

Q. 8 A Ge specimen is doped with Al. The concentration of acceptor atoms is 10²¹ atoms/m³. Given that the intrinsic concentration of electron hole pair is 10¹⁹/m³ the concentration of electrons in the specimen is:

A. 10¹⁷/m³

B. 10¹⁵/m³

C. 10⁴/m³

D. 10²/m³

Q. 9 A slab consists of two layers of different materials of the same thickness and having thermal conductivities K₁ and K₂ are connected in series.

A. (2K₁K₂)/(K₁+K₂)

B. √(K₁K₂)

C. (K₁K₂)/(K₁+K₂)

D. K₁+K₂

Q. 10 In Young’s double slit experiment, the distance between two slits is made three times then the fridge width will become:

A. 9 times

B. 1/9 times

C. 3 times

D. 1/3 times

Q. 11 A laser beam is used for carrying out surgery because, it

A. is highly monochromatic

B. is highly coherent

C. is highly directional

D. can be sharply focussed

Q. 12 A converging lens form a real image of an object on its principle axis. A rectangular slab refractive index and thickness x is introduced between and the lens, l will move:

A. towards the lens (μ-1)x

B. towards the lens by (1-1/μ)x

C. away from the lens by (μ-1)x

D. away from the lens by (1-1/μ)x

Q. 13 The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium permittivity and permeability is given by

A. 1/√(μ₀ε₀)

B. √(μ₀/ε₀)

C. √ε₀/√μ₀

D. √(μ₀ε₀)

Q. 14 Electric field at centre of a uniformly charged semicircle of radius a is:

A. λ/2πε₀a²

B. λ/4π²ε₀a²

C. λ²/2πε₀a

D. λ/2πε₀a

Q. 15 If frequency of R-L circuit is f then impedance will be

A. √(R²+(2πfL)²)

B. R²+(2πf²)²

C. √(R²+πf²L)

D. R²+(2πf)²

Q. 16 Two closed organ pipes of length 100 cm and 101 cm produces 16 beats in 20 sec. When each pipe is sounded in its fundamental mode calculate the velocity of sound?

A. 303 m/s

B. 332 m/s

C. 323.2 m/s

D. 300 m/s

Q. 17 A certain gas is taken to the five states represented by dots in the graph. The plotted lines are isotherms. Order of the most probable speed v of the molecules at these five states is:

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 18 N atoms of a radioactive element emit N beta particles per second. The decay constant of the element is (in /s)

A. N₁/N₂

B. N₂/N₁

C. N₁ (ln 2)

D. N₂ (ln 2)

Q. 19 Figure shows the variation of energy with the orbit radius r of a satellite in a circular motion. Mark the correct statement.

A. C is total energy, B total energy and C potential energy

B. A is kinetic energy, B total energy and C potential energy

C. A and B are the kinetic and potential energies and C the total energy of the satellite

D. C and A are kinetic and potential energy respectively and B the total energy of the satellite

Q. 20 Two charges +q and -q are attached to the two ends of light rod of length L, as shown in figure. The system is given a velocity v perpendicular to magnetic field B̅. The magnetic force on the system of charges and magnitude of force on one charge by the rod , are respectively

A. zero,zero

B. zero,qvB

C. 2qvB,0

D. 2qvB,qvB

Q. 21 If a wire is extended to a new length l, the work done is

A. YA(l-l’)/l

B. YA(l-l’)²/l

C. YA(l-l’)²/2l

D. 2YA(l-l’)²/l

Q. 22 The equivalent resistance between the points X and Y in the following circuit diagram will be:

A. 10 ohm

B. 5 ohm

C. 7 ohm

D. 3 ohm

Q. 23 The intensity of magnetic field due to an isolated pole of strength mₐ at a point distant r from it will be

A. mₐ/r²

B. mₐ/r²

C. r²/mₐ

D. mₐ/r

Q. 24 A bulb and a condenser are connected in series with an A.C source. On increasing the frequency of the source its brightness will

A. increase

B. decrease

C. sometimes increase and sometimes decrease

D. neither increase nor decrease

Q. 25 Two heater wires, made of the same material and having the same length and the same radius, are first connected in series and then parallel to a constant potential difference. If the rates of heat produced in the two cases are Hᵤ and Hᵥ, respectively. then, Hᵤ/Hᵥ will be

A. 1/2

B. 2

C. 1/4

D. 4

Q. 26 The ratio of magnetic fields on the axis of a circular current carrying coil of radius a to the magnetic field at its centre will be

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 27 Lumen is the unit of

A. luminous flux

B. luminosity

C. illumination

D. quantity of light

Q. 28 A charge q is uniformly distributed on a ring radius r. A sphere of an equal radius is constructed with its centre lying on the periphery of the ring. The flux of electric field through the surface of the sphere will be

A. q/ε₀

B. q/2ε₀

C. q/3ε₀

D. q/4ε₀

Q. 29 When 100 V d.c is applied across a coil, a current of 1A flows through it. When 100V a.c of 50 Hz is applied to the same coil only 0.5 A flows. The inductance of the coil:

A. 0.55 H

B. 5.5 mH

C. 0.55 mH

D. 55 mH

Q. 30 A bulb of 25 W, 200 V and the another bulb of 100W, 200 V are connected in series with a supply line of 220 V. Then

A. both bulbs will glow with same brightness

B. both bulbs will get fused

C. 25 W bulb will glow more brightly

D. 100 W bulb will glow more brightly

Q. 31 Which of the following is matched wrongly?

A. oil drop experiment —-> Millikan

B. dual nature of light —-> de Broglie

C. uncertainty principle —> Heisenberg

D. none of these

Q. 32 The forbidden gap in the energy bands of silicon is:

A. 2.6eV

B. 1.1 eV

C. 0.1 eV

D. 6 eV

Q. 33 When white light passes through a prism, the deviation is maximum for

A. violet light

B. green light

C. red light

D. yellow light

Q. 34 Which of the following gates correspond to the truth table given below?

A. NAND

B. OR

C. XOR

D. NOR

Q. 35 Light is incident normally on a diffraction grating through which the first diffraction is seen at 32⁰. In the case the second order diffraction will be

A. at 80⁰

B. at 64⁰

C. at 48⁰

D. there is no second order diffraction

Q. 36 If there were no atmosphere, the average temperature on earth surface on earth surface would be:

A. lower

B. higher

C. same

D. 0⁰ C

Q. 37 The current curve between logₑ J/T² and /T

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 38 An object 5 cm tall is placed 1 m from a concave spherical mirror which has a radius of curvature of 20 cm. The size of the image is

A. 0.11 cm

B. 0.50 cm

C. 0.55 cm

D. 0.60 cm

Q. 39 The magnifying power of a compound microscope increase with

A. the focal length of objective lens is increased and that of eye lens is decreased

B. the focal length of eye lens is increased and that of objective lens is decreased

C. focal lengths of both objects and eye-piece are increased

D. focal lengths of both objects and eye-piece are decreased

Q. 40 A thread is tied slightly loose to a wire frame as in figure and the frame as in figure and the frame is dropped into a soap solution and taken out. The frame is completely covered with the film. When the portion A is punctured with a pin, the thread

A. becomes concave towards A

B. becomes convex towards A

C. either (a) or (b) depending on the size of A with respect to B

D. remains in the initial position

Questions: 41 – 60

Directions : In the following questions (41-60), a statement of assertion (A) is

followed by a statement of a reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

(b) If the both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

Q. 41 Assertion : In the relation f = √(T/μ)/2l , where symbols have standard meaning, m represent linear mass density.

Reason : The frequency has the dimensions of inverse of time.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 42 Assertion : When the velocity of projection of a body is made n times, its time of flight becomes n times.

Reason : Range of projectile does not depend on the initial velocity of the body.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 43 Assertion : A needle placed carefully on the surface of water may float, whereas a ball of the same material will always sink.

Reason : The buoyancy of an object depends both on the material and shape of the shape.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 44 Assertion : The colour of the green flower seen through red glass appears to the dark.

Reason : Red glass transmits only red light.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 45 Assertion : The alternating current lags behind the e.m.f by a phase angle of π/2, when AC flows through an inductor.

Reason : The inductive resistance increases as the frequency of AC source decreases.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 46 Assertion : A spark occur between the poles of a switch when the switch is opened.

Reason : Current flowing in the conductor produces magnetic field.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 47 Assertion : X-rays can penetrate through the flesh but not through the bones.

Reason : The penetrating power of X-rays depends on voltage.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 48 Assertion : It is essential that all the lines available in the emission spectrum will also be available in the absorption spectrum.

Reason : The spectrum of hydrogen atom is only absorption spectrum

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 49 Assertion : A double convex lens(μ=1.5) has focal length 10 cm. When the lens is immersed in water (μ=4/3) its focal length becomes 77 cm.

Reason : 1/f = (μᵣ – μₐ)(1/R₁ – 1/R₂)/μₐ

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 50 Assertion : Diode lasers are used as optical sources in optical communication.

Reason : Diode lasers consume less energy.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 51 Assertion : We cannot think of magnetic field configuration with three poles.

Reason : A bar magnet does exert a torque on itself due to its own field.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 52 Assertion : In a SHM, Kinetic and potential energies become equal when the displacement is 1/√2 times the amplitude.

Reason : In SHM, Kinetic energy is zero when potential energy is maximum

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 53 Assertion : A bird perches on a high power line and nothing happens to the bird.

Reason : The level of bird is very high from the ground.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 54 Assertion : Stopping potential depends upon the frequency of incident light but is

independent of the intensity of the light.

Reason : The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is proportional to stopping

potential.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 55 Assertion : When radius of circular loop carrying current is doubles, its magnetic moment becomes four times.

Reason : Magnetic moment depends on area of the loop.

A. aa

B. bb

C. cc

D. dd

Q. 56 Assertion : When radius of circular loop carrying current is doubled , its magnetic moment becomes four times.

Reason : Magnetic moment depends on area of loop.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 57 In the following circuit in the figure , emf is 2V and internal resistance of the cell is 1 ohm and R = 1 ohm, then reading of the voltmeter is 1V.

Reason : V= E- IR where E = 2V, I= 2/2 = 1A

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 58 Assertion : It is essential that all the lines available in the emission spectrum will also be available in the absorption spectrum.

Reason : The spectrum of hydrogen

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 59 Assertion : The energy of charged particles moving in a uniform magnetic field does not change.

Reason : Work done by magnetic field on the charge is zero.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 60 Assertion : ⁹⁰Sr from the radioactive fall out from a nuclear bomb ends up in the bones of human beings through the milk consumed by them. It causes impairment of production of red blood cells.

Reason : The energies β-particles emitted in the decay of ⁹⁰Sr damage the bone marrow.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 61 Identify Z in the reaction

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 62 For the reaction, 2NO₂ + F₂ —> NO₂F + F (slow)

NO₂ + F —-> NO₂F(fast)

Thus the rate expression of the above reaction can be written as:

A. r = K [NO₂]₂ [F₂]

B. r = K[NO₂][F₂]

C. r = K[NO₂]

D. r = K[F₂]

Q. 63 What is the correct relationship between the pHs of isomolar solutions of sodium oxide (pH₁), sodium sulphide(pH₂), sodium selenide(pH₃) and sodium telluride(pH₄)?

A. pH₁ > pH₂ = pH₃ = pH₄

B. pH₁ < pH₂ < pH₃ < pH₄

C. pH₁ > pH₂ > pH₃ < pH₄

D. pH₁ > pH₂ > pH₃ > pH₄

Q. 64 Toluene is nitrated and the resulting product is reduced with tin and hydrochloric acid. The product so obtained is diazotized and then heated with corpus bromide. The reaction mixture so formed contains

A. mixture of o- and m-bromotoluene

B. mixture of o- and p-bromoaniline

C. mixture of o- and p-dibromobenzene

D. mixture of o- and p- bromoaniline

Q. 65 The dissociation equilibrium of a gas AB₂ can be represented as

The degree of dissociation is x and is small compared to 1. The expression relating the degree of dissociation (x) with equilibrium constant Kᵤ and the total pressure u is:

A. (2Kᵤ/u)½

B. Kᵤ/u

C. 2Kᵤ/u

D. (2Kᵤ/u)½

Q. 66 which of the following is considered as an anticancer species?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 67 Find the compound A?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 68 In which of the following preparations of ether, the configuration about chiral centre is not retained?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 69 Toluene on treatment with CrO₃ and (CH₃CO)₂O followed by hydrolysis with dil. HCl gives

A. benzaldehyde

B. benzoic acid

C. phenol

D. phenylacetaldehyde

Q. 70 The time period to coat a metal surface of 80 cm with 5 x 10⁻³ cm thick layer of silver (density 1.05 g cm⁻³)with the passage of 3A current through a silver nitrate solution is

A. 115 sec

B. 125 sec

C. 135 sec

D. 145 sec

Q. 71 Correct equation of Freundlich isotherm is:

A. log(m/x) = log k + log c

B. log(x/m) = log c + 1/n log k

C. log (x/m) = log c + 1/k log c

D. log(x/m) = log k + 1/k log c

Q. 72 Which of the following compounds is not chiral ?

A. 1-chloropentane

B. 2-chloropentane

C. 1-chloro-2-methylpentane

D. 3-chloro-2-methylpentane

Q. 73 Which of the following molecules will not show optical activity?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 74 Green chemistry means such relations which

A. are related to the depletion of ozone layer

B. study the reactions in plants

C. produce colour during reactions

D. reduce the use and production of hazardous chemicals

Q. 75 Identify the final product of the given reaction

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 76 The flame colours of metal ions are due to

A. frenkel defect

B. schottky defect

C. metal deficiency defect

D. metal excess defect

Q. 77 The reaction of an organic compound with ammonia followed by nitration of the product gives a powerful explosive called RDX. The organic compound is

A. phenol

B. toluene

C. glycerine

D. formaldehyde

Q. 78 Cumene process is the most important commercial method for the manufacture of phenol. Cumene is:

A. iso-propyl benzene

B. ethyl benzene

C. vinyl benzene

D. propyl benzene

Q. 79 prolonged exposure of fat or oil in moist air and light causes bad smell. It is due to

A. formation of C₆ – C₁₂ fatty acids

B. formation of ketone and aldehyde

C. both of these causes

D. formation of glycerol

Q. 80 Acid hydrolysis of sucrose is a :

A. pseudo first order reaction

B. zero order reaction

C. second order reaction

D. unimolecular reaction

Q. 81 Which of these compounds is synthesised by chloral?

A. DDT

B. BHC

C. chloroform

D. michler’s ketone

Q. 82 When phenol reacts with phthalic anhydride in presence of H₂SO₄ and heated and hot reaction mixture is poured in NaOH solution, then product formed is

A. alizarin

B. methyl orange

C. fluorescein

D. phenolphthalein

Q. 83 The function of AlCl₃ in Friedel Crafts reaction is ?

A. absorb HCl

B. absorb water

C. produce nucleophile

D. produce electrophile

Q. 84 The correct order of increasing [H₃O⁺] in the following aqueous solutions is

A. 0.01 M H₂S < 0.01 M H₂SO₄ < 0.01 M NaCl < 0.01 M NaNO₂

B. 0.01 M NaCl < 0.01 M ₄NaNO₂ < 0.01 M H₂S < 0.01 M H₂SO

C. 0.01 M NaNO₂< 0.01 M NaCl < 0.01 M H₂S < 0.01 M H₂SO₄

D. 0.01 M H₂S < 0.01 M NaNO₂ < 0.01 M NaCl < 0.01 M H₂SO₄

Q. 85 Percentage of Se(at mass = 78.4) in peroxidase anhydrase enzyme is 0.5 % by weight, then minimum molecular mass of the peroxidase anhydrase enzyme is:

A. 1.576 x 10⁴

B. 1.576 x 10³

C. 15.76

D. 2.136 x 10⁴

Q. 86 The number S-S bonds in sulphur trioxide trimer (S₃O₉) is

A. three

B. two

C. one

D. zero

Q. 87 Oxidation product 1,2-cyclopentanediol with HIO₄ gives

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 88 The correct order of the dipole moment is

A. CH₄ < NF₃ < NH₃ < H₂O

B. NF₃ < CH₄ < NH₃ < H₂O

C. NH₃ < NF₃ < CH₄ < H₂O

D. H₂O < NH₃ < NF₃ < CH₄

Q. 89 The root mean square speed of the molecules of diatomic gas is u. When the temperature is doubled, the molecules dissociate into two atoms. The new rms speed of the atom is:

A. √2u

B. u

C. 2u

D. 4u

Q. 90 For the following concentration cell, to be spontaneous Pt(H₂)P₁ atm. I HCl I Pt(H₂)P atm. Which of the following is correct?

A. P₁ = P₂

B. P₁ < P₂

C. P₁ > P₂

D. cannot be predicted

Q. 91 which of the following is not a surfactant?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 92 The standard oxidation potential E for the half cell reaction are:

Zn —> Zn⁺² + 2e⁻; E⁰ = + 0.76 V

Fe —-> Fe⁺² + 2e⁻; E⁰ = + 0.41 V

EMF of the cell reaction is:

Zn + Fe⁺² —> Zn⁺² + Fe

A. -0.35 V

B. + 0.35 V

C. 0.17 V

D. 1.17 V

Q. 93 To observe the effect of concentration on the conductivity electrolytes of different nature were taken in two vessels A and B. A contains weak electrolyte NH₄OH and B contains strong electrolyte NaCl. In both containers, concentration of respective electrolyte was increased and conductivity observed.

A. in A conductivity increases, in B conductivity decreases

B. in A conductivity decreases, while in B conductivity increases

C. in both A and B conductivity increases

D. in both A and B conductivity decreases

Q. 94 A unit cell of sodium chloride has formula units. The edge length of the unit cell is 0.0564 nm. What is the density of sodium chloride?

A. 1.2g/cm³

B. 2.165 g/cm³

C. 3.64 g/cm³

D. 4.56 g/cm³

Q. 95 The reaction is called

A. claisen-schmidt reaction

B. kolbe-schmitt reaction

C. schmidt reaction

D. kolbe’s reaction

Q. 96 Which of the following amines, can give N-nitrosamine on treatment with HNO₂ ?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 97 The purification of alumina is called

A. baeyer’s process

B. bosch process

C. castner process

D. hoops process

Q. 98 Which acid has P-P linkage?

A. Hypophosphoric acid

B. pyrophosphoric acid

C. metaphosphoric acid

D. orthophosphoric acid

Q. 99 In the above sequence can be

A. 3-nitrochlorobenzene

B. 1-nitrochlorobenzene

C. 4-nitrochlorobenzene

D. none of these

Q. 100 Which of the following is aromatic?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Questions: 101 – 120

Directions : In the following questions (101-120), a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of a reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

(b) If the both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

Q. 101 Assertion : (CH₃)₃CCOC(CH₃)₃ and acetone can be distinguished by the reaction with NaHSO₃.

Reason : HSO₃⁻ is the nucleophile in bisulphite addition.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 102 Assertion : Tertiary carbonium ions are generally formed more easily than primary carbonium ions.

Reason : Hyperconjugation as well as inductive effect due to additional alkyl groups

stabilize tertiary carbonium ions.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 103 Assertion : If H and Cl enclosed separately in the same vessel exert pressure of 100 and 200 mm respectively,their mixture in the same vessel at the same temperature will exert a pressure of 300 mm.

Reason : Dalton’s law of partial pressure states that total pressure is the sum of partial

pressures.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 104 Assertion : The quantized energy of an electron is largely determined by its principal quantum number.

Reason : The principal quantum number n is a measure of the most probable distance of finding the electron around the nucleus.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 105 Assertion : According to Le-Chatelier’s principle addition of heart to an equilibrium solid <— > liquid results in decrease in the amount of solid.

Reason : Reaction is endothermic , so on heating forward reaction is favoured.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 106 Assertion : cyclohexane exhibits keto-enol tautomerism.

Reason : In cyclohexanone, one form contains the keto group (C==O) while other contains enolic group (–C==C–OH)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 107 Assertion : Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution reaction.

Reason : In the case of phenol , the intermediate carbocation is more resonance stabilised.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 108 Assertion : Many endothermic reactions that are not spontaneous at room temperature become spontaneous at high temperature.

Reason : Entropy of the system increase in temperature.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 109 Assertion : Benzaldehyde is more reactive than ethanol towards nucleophilic attack.

Reason : The overall effect -l and + R effect of phenyl group decreases the electron density on the carbon atom of ketone group in benzaldehyde.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 110 Assertion : Bleaching powder results with dilute acids to evolve chlorine.

Reason : The chlorine liberated by the action of dilute acids on bleaching powder is called available chlorine.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 111 Assertion : Teflon has high thermal stability and chemical inertness.

Reason : Teflon is a thermoplastic.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 112 Assertion : In high spin situation, configuration of a¹⁵ ions will be tᵤ₂³ eᵤ²

Reason : In high spin situation, pairing energy is less than crystal field energy.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 113 Assertion : copper metal gets readily corroded in acidic aqueous solution.

Reason : Free energy change for this process is negative.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 114 Assertion : When a concentrated solution is diluted by adding more water, molarity of the solution remains unchanged.

Reason : product of moles of a solute and volume is equal to the molarity.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 115 Assertion : Anilinium chloride is more acidic than the ammonium chloride.

Reason : Anilinium chloride is resonance stabilised.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 116 Assertion : Pyrrole is an aromatic heterocyclic compound.

Reason : It has cyclic delocalised 6πelectrons.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 117 Assertion : 2-Butanol on heating with H₂SO₄ gives 1-butene and 2 – butene.

Reason : Dehydration of 2-butanol follows saytzeff’s rule.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 118 Assertion: SeCl₄ does not have a tetrahedral structure.

Reason : Se in SeCl₄ has two lone pairs.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 119 Assertion : Liquid NH₃ is used for refrigeration.

Reason: Liquid NH₃ quickly evaporates.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 120 Assertion:Ethers behave as bases in the presence of mineral acids.

Reason : It is due to the presence of lone pair of electrons on the oxygen.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 121 Two opposite forces operate in the growth and development of every population. One of them is related to the ability to reproduce at a given rate. The force opposite to it is called:

A. fecundity

B. environmental resistances

C. biotic control

D. mortality

Q. 122 Acrosome reaction in sperm is triggered by:

A. capacitation

B. release of lysine

C. influx of Na⁺

D. release of fertilizin

Q. 123 What is a keystone species?

A. a species which makes up only a small proportion of the total biomass of a community, yet has a huge impact on the communities organization and survival

B. a common species that has plenty of biomass, yet has fairly low impact on the communities organization

C. a rare species that has minimal impact on the biomass and on other species in the community

D. a dominant species that constitutes a large proportion of the biomass and which affects many other species

Q. 124 Which one of the following pair is not correctly matched?

A. streptomyces – antibiotic

B. serratia- drug addiction

C. spirulina – single cell protein

D. rhizobium – biofertilizer

Q. 125 You are required to draw blood from a patient and to keep it in a test tube for analysis of blood corpuscles and plasma. You are also provided with the following four types of test tubes. Which of these will you not use for the purpose?

A. test tube containing calcium bicarbonate

B. chilled test tubes

C. test tube containing heparin

D. test tube containing sodium oxalate

Q. 126 Smoking addiction is harmful because it produces polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, which cause

A. reduction in oxygen transport

B. increase in blood pressure

C. cancer

D. retardation of growth of foetus

Q. 127 The main reason why antibiotics could not solve all the problems of bacteria mediated diseases is:

A. insensitivity of the individual following prolonged exposure to antibiotics

B. inactivation of antibiotics by bacterial enzymes

C. decreased efficiency of the immune system

D. the development of mutant strains resistant to antibiotics

Q. 128 Which of the following sets includes the bacterial disease?

A. cholera,typhoid,mumps

B. tetanus,tuberculosis,measles

C. malaria,mumps,poliomyelitis

D. diphtheria,leprosy,plague

Q. 129 The binding of antibiotics to the antigens to produce a large insoluble complex is known as

A. antibody antigen complex

B. agglutination

C. immunization

D. suppressor cell reaction

Q. 130 one of the major difficulties in the biological control of insect pest is that

A. the predator develops a preference to other diets and may itself become a pest

B. the predator does not not always survive when transferred to a new environment

C. the method is less effective as compared with the use of insecticides

D. the practical difficulty of introducing the predator to specific areas

Q. 131 cattle fed with spoilt hay of sweet clover which contains dicumarol

A. are healthier due to good diet

B. catch infections easily

C. may suffer vitamin K deficiency and prolonged bleeding

D. may suffer from beriberi due to deficiency of vitamin B₁

Q. 132 Which one of the following methods is commonly used to maintain the propagating through seed germination.

A. by propagating through seed germination

B. by propagating through vegetative multiplication

C. by generating hybrids through intergeneric pollination

D. by treating the seeds with gamma radiations.

Q. 133 The bacteria which attack dead animals were are

A. first link of the food chain and are known as primary producers

B. second link of the food chain and are herbivorous

C. third link of the food chain and are tertiary consumers

D. the end of food chain and are decomposers

Q. 134 Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. lichen, an association of fungus and algae is an example of mutualism

B. those epiphytes which use other plants for support only and not for water or food supply and examples of commensalism

C. sea-anemone on hermit-crab is an example of protocooperation

D. mutualism, protocooperation, commensalism cannot be included under symbiosis

Q. 135 How many sperms are formed from a secondary spermatocyte?

A. 4

B. 8

C. 2

D. 1

Q. 136 Phytohormones are:

A. hormones regulating the growth from seeds to adulthood

B. growth regulators synthesised by plants and influencing physiological process

C. hormones regulating flowering

D. hormones regulating secondary growth

Q. 137 Grey crescent is the area

A. at the point of entry of sperm into ovum

B. just opposite to the site of entry of sperm into ovum

C. at the animal pole

D. at the vegetal pole

Q. 138 Even after killing the generative cell with a laser beam,the pollen grain of a flowering plant germinates and produces normal pollen tube because

A. laser beam stimulates pollen germination and pollen tube growth

B. the laser beam does not damage the region from which pollen tube emerges

C. the contents of killed generative cell permits germination and pollen tube growth

D. the vegetative cell has not been damaged

Q. 139 one common example of simple reflex is

A. typing your shoe laces while talking to another person and not looking at them

B. watering of mouth at the sight of a favourite food

C. climbing up a stairs in dark without stumbling

D. closing of eyes when strong light is flashed across them

Q. 140 select one of the following pairs of important features distinguishing gnetum from cycas and pinus and showing affinities with angiosperms.

A. perianth and two integuments

B. embryo development and apical meristem

C. absence of resin duct and leaf venation

D. presence of vessel elements and absence of archegonia

Q. 141 Injury to vagus nerve in humans is not likely to affect

A. tongue movements

B. gastrointestinal movements

C. pancreatic secretion

D. cardiac movements

Q. 142 Which one of the following is matching pair?

A. lubb-sharp closure of AV valves at the beginning of ventricular systole

B. dup-sudden opening of a semilunar valves at the beginning of the radial artery-valves in the ventricular diastole

C. pulsation of the radial artery-valves in the blood vessels

D. initiation of the heart beat purkinje fibres

Q. 143 A lake near village suffered heavy mortality of fishes within a few days. Consider the following reasons for this?

A. lots of urea and phosphate fertilizer were used in the vicinity

B. the area was sprayed with DDT by an aircraft

C. the lake water turned green and stinky

D. phytoplankton populations in the lake declined initially thereby greatly reducing photosynthesis

Q. 144 Which one of the following pairs of plant structures has haploid number of chromosomes?

A. nucellus and antipodal cells

B. egg and nucleus and secondary nucleus

C. megaspore mother cell and antipodal cells

D. egg cell and antipodal cell

Q. 145 When a man inhales air containing normal concentration of O₂ as well as CO he suffers from suffocation because

A. CO reacts with O₂ reducing its percentage in air

B. haemoglobin combines with CO instead of O₂ and forms carboxyhemoglobin

C. CO affects the nerves of the lungs

D. Co affects the nerves of the lungs

Q. 146 A patient of diabetes mellitus excretes glucose in urine even when he is kept in a carbohydrate free diet. It is because

A. fats are metabolized in adipose tissues to form glucose

B. amino acids are metabolised in kidney to form glucose

C. amino acids are discharged in blood stream from liver

D. glycogen from muscles is released in bloodstream

Q. 147 During the life-cycle , Fasciola hepatica(liver fluke) infects its intermediate host and primary host at the following larval stages respectively

A. redia and miracidium

B. cercaria and redia

C. metacercaria and cercaria

D. miracidium and metacercaria

Q. 148 Enzymes vitamins and hormones can be classified into a single category of biological chemicals because of all of these

A. enhance oxidative metabolism

B. are conjugated proteins

C. are exclusively synthesised in the body of a living organism as at present

D. help in regulating metabolism

Q. 149 Cut surfaces of fruit and vegetables often become dark because

A. dark knife makes it dark

B. oxidation of tannic acid in the presence of trace of iron the knife makes it dark

C. dust of the air makes it dark

D. none of the above

Q. 150 Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long days and N.tabacum flowers only during short days. If raised in the laboratory under different photoperiods, they can be induced to slower at the same time and can be cross-fertilized to produce self-fertile offspring. What is the best reason for considering N.sylvestris and N.tabacum to be separate species

A. they cannot interbreed in nature

B. they are reproductively distinct

C. they are physiologically distinct

D. they are morphologically distinct

Q. 151 Which one of the following is the correct statements regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?

A. morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions

B. barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary

C. hashish causes alteration of thoughts, perceptions and hallucinations

D. opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations.

Q. 152 In succulent plants the stomata open in night and close in day. Which among the following would be best hypothesis to explain the mechanism of stomatal action in night only?

A. CO₂ accumulates reduces the pH, stimulate enzymes resulting in accumulation of sugars

B. increase in CO₂ concentration , conversion of organic acids into starch resulting in the increased conversion into starch resulting in the increased conversion into sugars resulting in K⁺ transport

C. low CO₂ concentration accumulates organic acids resulting in the increased concentration of cell sap

D. CO₂ used up, increase pH results in accumulation of sugars.

Q. 153 The cells of the quiescent centre are characterised by:

A. having dense cytoplasm and prominent nuclei

B. having light cytoplasm and small nuclei

C. dividing regularly to add to the corpus

D. dividing regularly to add to tunica

Q. 154 Thermococcus , methanococcus and methanobacterium exemplify

A. bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria

B. bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes

C. archaebacteria that contains protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones

D. archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled

Q. 155 Ectophloic siphonostele is found in

A. Osmunda and Equisetum

B. Marsilea and Botrychium

C. Adiantum and cucurbitaceae

D. Dicksonia and Maidenhair fern

Q. 156 Chlorenchyma is known to develop in the

A. cytoplasm of chlorella

B. mycelium of a green mould such as aspergillus

C. spore capsule of a moss

D. pollen tube of pinus

Q. 157 The distance between two genes in a chromosome is measured in cross-over units which represent

A. ratio of crossing over between them

B. percentage of crossing over between them

C. no.of crossing over between them

D. none of these

Q. 158 In transgenics, expression of transgene in target tissue is determined by

A. enhancer

B. transgene

C. promoter

D. reporter

Q. 159 How many genome types are present in a typical green plants cell?

A. more than five

B. more than ten

C. two

D. three

Q. 160 The growth curve of bacterial population in lab is plotted against time.What will be the shape of the graph?

A. sigmoid

B. hyperbolic

C. ascending straight line

D. descending straight line

Questions: 161 – 180

Directions : In the following questions (161-180), a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of a reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

(b) If the both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

Q. 161 Assertion:protoplasmic continuity is maintained in perforated septum.

Reason:Usually a small pore remains in the centre of the septum.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 162 Assertion:The primary protonema of moss by death and decay of cells may break into fragments.

Reason:Each fragment gives rise to leafy gametophyte.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 163 Assertion:Cephalization is advantageous to an animal.

Reason:It improves the appearance of the animal.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 164 Assertion:Koel does not build nest for egg laying.

Reason:Koel lays its eggs in the nest of tailor bird.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 165 Assertion:Competitive inhibitor is also called as substrate analogue.

Reason:It resembles the enzymes in structure.

A. A

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 166 Assertion:Person suffering from haemophilia fail to produce blood clotting factor VIII.

Reason:Prothrombin producing platelets in such persons are found in very low concentration.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 167 Assertion:Hybridoma cells are shifted to a medium deficient in nutrients which cannot be synthesized by myeloma cells.

Reason:This medium allows selection of hybridoma cells.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 168 Assertion:Maize is an albuminous seed.

Reason: Endosperm is completely absorbed by it’s growing embryo.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 169 Assertion:Ciliated epithelium is present in the inner lining of trachea and large bronchi.

Reason:ciliary movement propel the mucus and foreign particle towards the larynx.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 170 Assertion:Light is one of the important factor in transpiration.

Reason:It includes stomatal opening and closing.Therefore,transpiration increases in light and decreases in dark.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 171 Assertion:The higher concentration of O₂ in the atmosphere is inhibitory to photosynthesis.

Reason:CO₂ is the main substrate of photosynthesis.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 172 Assertion:F₁ particles are present in the inner mitochondrial membrane.

Reason:An electron gradient formed on the inner mitochondrial membrane,forms ATP.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 173 Assertion:Rhabdome is present in palaemon.

Reason:Rhabdome has an important role in digestion.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 174 Assertion : Pituitary is attached to hypothalamus by a vein.

Reason: this attachment is done through a hypophyseal portal vein.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 175 Assertion : Rabies is acute infectious disease of warm blooded mammals characterised by involvement of central nervous system resulting in paralysis and finally death

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 176 Assertion: Many plants are propagated vegetatively even though they bear seeds.

Reason : potatoes multiply by tubers and apple by cutting.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 177 Assertion : nuclear endosperm is formed by subsequent nuclear division without wall formation.

Reason : coconut is an example of such endosperm , where the endosperm remains nuclear throughout the development of the fruit.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 178 Assertion : In mammals the female secondary sexual characters are developed by gonadotropins.

Reason : Gonadotropins are secreted by graafian follicle.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 179 Assertion : The plants biomass which serves as the food of herbivores and decomposers is said to result from the gross primary productivity.

Reason : Gross primary productivity is the rate of net production of organic material(biomass)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 180 Assertion : methyl mercury is a highly persistent pollutant that accumulates in food chains.

Reason : Mercury pollution is responsible for minamata.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 181 The first of the GAEL(global alliance for the elimination of leprosy) was held in

A. new delhi

B. bombay

C. calcutta

D. paris

Q. 182 Megger is an instrument to measure

A. very low resistance

B. insulation resistance

C. inductance of coil

D. all of the above

Q. 183 Terminator technology promotes sale of which of the following that is/are generated by it?

A. gransgenic fertile seed

B. gene modified plants

C. genetically engineered seeds fertilized in next generation

D. all of these

Q. 184 Which among the following has become the third tiger reserve of Assam?

A. manas wildlife sanctuary

B. kaziranga national park

C. nameri national park

D. none of these

Q. 185 To make the acidic soil suitable for agricultural, one of the following material is used.

A. lime

B. gypsum

C. calcium superphosphate

D. vegetable compost

Q. 186 The landform which is not associated with wind erosion is

A. sand dune

B. inselberg

C. drumlin

D. mushroom rock

Q. 187 BCG vaccination is to be a new born child

A. immediately after child birth

B. within 48 days

C. within seven days

D. within six months

Q. 188 For reproducing sound, CD(compact disc) audio player uses a

A. quartz crystal

B. titanium needle

C. laser beam

D. barium titanate ceramic

Q. 189 In a three pin electrical plug, longest pin should be connected to

A. ground terminal

B. live terminal

C. neutral terminal

D. any terminal

Q. 190 The new addition to the commonwealth games 2010

A. shooting

B. hockey

C. wrestling

D. football

Q. 191 The name of the player who established record in world cup cricket 2007 of making six sixes is

A. sanath jaisurya

B. verendra sehwag

C. adam gilchrist

D. hershelle gibbs

Q. 192 The lateral meaning of the word arya is

A. superior

B. learned

C. priest

D. warrior

Q. 193 When T.V is switched on

A. audio and video both start simultaneously

B. audio is heard immediately but video starts later because video needs some warm up time

C. video starts immediately but audio is heard later because sound travels at a lesser speed than light

D. it depends on T.V stand

Q. 194 The instrument of music in which ustad amjad ali khan has distinguished himself is

A. sarod

B. violin

C. sitar

D. shehnai

Q. 195 A deep and narrow river valley with steep bank is called

A. geyser

B. bluff

C. delta

D. canyon

Q. 196 A “breath test” used by traffic police to check the drunk and drivers uses-

A. potassium dichromate-sulphuric acid

B. potassium permanganate sulphuric acid

C. turmeric on filter paper

D. silica gel coated with silver nitrate

Q. 197 In which of the following books ‘knowledge is power’ written?

A. essay on man

B. paradise lost

C. leviathan

D. das kapital

Q. 198 Who said “where weather accumulates, men decay”?

A. abraham lincoln

B. mao tse tung

C. karl marx

D. goldsmith

Q. 199 which of the following computer viruses is named after cherry and caffeine soft drinks popular with programmers?

A. sircam

B. code pink

C. code red

D. malisa

Q. 200 The fourth buddhist council was held during the reign of

A. ashoka

B. chandragupta

C. kanishka

D. chandragupta vikramaditya

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	C	A	B	A	C	A	A	A	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	D	A	D	A	C	A	B	C	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	B	A	A	C	A	A	C	A	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	B	A	D	D	A	A	C	B	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	C	C	A	C	B	B	D	A	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	B	C	B	A	A	A	A	D	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	B	D	B	D	A	B	B	A	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	A	C	D	B	D	B	A	C	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	A	D	D	C	A	D	A	A	C	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	B	D	B	C	C	A	A	A	C
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	B	A	D	A	A	A	C	B	A	B
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	C	D	D	C	A	A	C	A	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	C	A	B	C	C	D	D	B	A
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	C	B	D	D	C	B	B	D	D	D
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	A	A	A	D	B	A	D	D	B	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	B	B	D	A	C	B	D	C	B
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	A	A	C	C	C	C	A	C	B	A
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	B	C	C	D	C	A	C	D	D	B
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	A	B	C	B	C	C	D	C	A	C
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	D	A	B	A	D	A	A	D	C	C

AIIMS UG 2006 Previous Year Paper

AIIMS UG 2006

Section	Questions	Marks
Physics	60 Questions (1 – 60)	60
Chemistry	60 Questions (61 – 120)	60
Biology	60 Questions (121 – 180)	60
General Knowledge	20 Questions (181 – 200)	20

Q. 1 In refraction , light waves are bent on passing from one medium to the second medium , because in the second medium

A. the frequency is different

B. the coefficient of elasticity is different

C. the speed is different

D. the amplitude is smaller

Q. 2 Two spheres of same size, one of mass 2 Kg and another of mass 4 Kg are dropped

simultaneously from the top of Qutab minar(height = 72 m). When they are 1 m above the ground the two spheres have the same

A. momentum

B. kinetic energy

C. potential energy

D. acceleration

Q. 3 The moment of inertia of a rod about an axis through its centre and perpendicular to it is 1ML²/12(where M is the mass and L, the length of the rod). The rod is bent in the middle so that the two halves make an angle of 60⁰. The moment of inertia of the bent rod is about the same axis would be

A. ML²/48

B. ML²/12

C. ML²/24

D. ML²/8√3

Q. 4 A boat at anchor is rocked by waves whose crests are 100 m apart and velocity is 25 m/sec. The boat bounces up once in every

A. 2500 s

B. 75 s

C. 4 s

D. 0.25 s

Q. 5 By sucking through a straw, a student can reduce the pressure in his lungs to 750 mm of Hg (density -13.6 g/cm³). Using the straw, he can drink water from a glass upto maximum depth of

A. 10 cm

B. 75 cm

C. 13.6 cm

D. 1.36 cm

Q. 6 Two parallel large thin metal sheets have equal surface charge densities(σ= 26.4 x 10⁻¹² C/m²) of opposite signs. The electric field between these sheets is

A. 1.5 N/C

B. 1.5 X 10⁻¹⁰ N/C

C. 3 N/C

D. 3 X 10⁻¹⁰ N/C

Q. 7 The magnetic moment has dimensions of

A. [LA]

B. [L²A]

C. [LT⁻¹A]

D. [L²T⁻¹A]

Q. 8 A wire mesh containing of very small squares is viewed at a distance of 8 cm through a magnifying converging lens of focal length 10 cm, kept close to the eye. The magnification produced by the lens is

A. 5

B. 8

C. 10

D. 20

Q. 9 Hard X-rays for the study of fractures in bones should have a minimum wavelength of 10⁻¹¹ m. The accelerating voltage for elections in X-ray machine should be

A. < 124.2 kV

B. > 124.2 kV

C. between 60 kV and 70 kV

D. = 100 kV

Q. 10 In photoelectric effect, the electrons are ejected from metals if the incident light has certain minimum

A. wavelength

B. frequency

C. amplitude

D. angle of incidence

Q. 11 A lens is made of flint glass(refractive index 1.5). When the lens is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.25, the focal length

A. increases by a factor of 1.25

B. increases by a factor of 2.5

C. increases by a factor of a 1.2

D. decreases by a factor of 1.2

Q. 12 The voltage of clouds is 4 x 10 volt with respect to ground. In a lightning strike lasting 100 m sec. A charge of 4 coulombs is delivered to the ground. The power of the lightning strike is

A. 160 MW

B. 80 MW

C. 20 MW

D. 500 MW

Q. 13 Five capacitors, each of capacitors value C are connected as shown in the figure. The ratio of capacitance between the P and R, and the capacitance between the P and Q is

A. 3 : 1

B. 5 : 2

C. 2 : 3

D. 1 : 1

Q. 14 A stone thrown in still water, creates a circular wave pattern moving radially outwards. If r is the distance measured from the centre of the pattern, the amplitude of the wave varies as

A. r⁻½

B. r⁻¹

C. r⁻²

D. r^-3/2

Q. 15 For inelastic collision between two spherical rigid bodies

A. the total kinetic energy is conserved

B. the total potential energy is conserved

C. the linear momentum is not conserved

D. the linear momentum is conserved

Q. 16 When a p-n diode is reverse biased, then

A. no current flows

B. the depletion region is increased

C. the depletion region is reduced

D. the height of the potential barrier is reduced

Q. 17 Which of the following diagrams represents the variation of electric field vector with time for a circularly polarized light.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 18 The operation of a nuclear reactor is said to be critical, if the multiplication factor (K) has a value

A. 1

B. 1.5

C. 2.1

D. 2.5

Q. 19 The circuit given below represents which of the logic operation ?

A. AND

B. NOT

C. OR

D. NOR

Q. 20 A person used force(F), shown in figure to move a load with constant velocity on surface. Identify the correct surface profile.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 21 Three objects coloured black, grey and white can withstand hostile conditions upto 2800⁰ C . These objects are thrown into a furnace where each of them attains a temperature of 2000⁰ C. Which object will glow with equal brightest?

A. the white object

B. the black object

C. all glow with equal brightness

D. grey object

Q. 22 Two balloons are filled, on with pure He gas and other by air, respectively. If the pressure and temperature of these balloons are same then the number of molecules per unit volume is:

A. more in the He filled balloons

B. same in both balloons

C. more in air filled balloon

D. in the ratio of 1:4

Q. 23 Flash light equipped with a new set of batteries, produces bright white light. As the batteries wear out,

A. the light intensity gets reduced with no change in its colour

B. light colour changes first to yellow and then red with no change in intensity

C. it stops working suddenly while giving white light

D. colour changes to red and also intensity gets reduced

Q. 24 The spatial distribution of the electric field due to two charges (A,B) is shown in figure. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. A is +ve and B is -ve and IAI>IBI

B. A is -ve and B +ve; IAI-IBI

C. both are +ve but A > B

D. both are -ve but A > B

Q. 25 Circular loop of a wire and a long straight wire carry currents Iᵣ and Iᵤ respectively as shown in figure. Assuming that these are placed in the same plane, the magnetic fields will be zero at the centre of the loop when separation H is

A. IᵣR/Iᵤπ

B. IᵤR/Iᵣπ

C. πIᵤ/IᵣR

D. Iᵣπ/IᵤR

Q. 26 If a street light mass M is suspended from the end of a uniform rod of length L in different possible patterns as shown in figure, then

A. pattern A is more sturdy

B. pattern B is more sturdy

C. pattern C is more sturdy

D. all will have same sturdiness

Q. 27 ²³⁸₉₂U has 92 protons and 238 nucleons. It decays by emitting an alpha particle and becomes

A. ₉₂²³⁴U

B. ₉₀²³⁴Th

C. ₉₂²³⁵U

D. ₉₃²³⁷Np

Q. 28 The fossil bone has a ¹⁴C : ¹²C ratio, which is [1/16] of that in a living animal bone. If the half life time of ¹⁴C is 5730 years, then the age of the fossil bone is:

A. 11460 years

B. 17190 years

C. 22920 years

D. 45840 years

Q. 29 Which of the following is a possible nuclear reaction?

A. ₃¹⁰B + ₂⁴He —> ¹³₇N + ₁¹H

B. ₁₁²³Na + ₁¹H —> ₁₀²⁰Ne + ₂⁴He

C. ₉₃²³⁹Np —> ₉₄²³⁹Pu +β⁻ +⊽

D. ¹¹N + ₁¹H —> ¹²₆C +β⁻ +⊽

Q. 30 When a guitar string is sounded with a 440 Hz tuning fork, a beat frequency of 5 Hz is heard. If the experiment is repeated with a tuning fork of 437 Hz, the beat frequency is 8 Hz. The string frequency(Hz) is

A. 445

B. 435

C. 429

D. 448

Q. 31 A metallic ring is dropped down, keeping its plane perpendicular to a constant and horizontal magnetic field. The ring enters the region of magnetic field at t = 0 and

completely emerges out at t = T sec. The current in the ring varies as:

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 32 If alpha, beta and gamma rays carry same momentum, which has the longest wavelength

A. alpha rays

B. beta rays

C. gamma rays

D. none, all have same wavelength

Q. 33 An amplifier has a voltage gain Aᵥ = 1000. The voltage gain in dB is

A. 30 dB

B. 60 dB

C. 3 dB

D. 20 dB

Q. 34 When you make ice cubes, the entropy of water

A. does not change

B. increases

C. decreases

D. may either increase or decrease depending on the process used

Q. 35 A bimetallic strip consists of metals X and Y. It is mounted rigidly at the base as shown. The metal X has a higher coefficient of expansion compared to that for metal Y. When the bimetallic strip is placed in a cold bath

A. it will bend towards the right

B. it will bend towards the left

C. it will not bend but shrink

D. it will neither bend nor shrink

Q. 36 For a wave propagating in a medium, identifying the property that is independent of the others.

A. velocity

B. wavelength

C. frequency

D. all these depend on each other

Q. 37 A leaf which contains only green pigments is illuminated by a laser light of wavelength 0.6328 μm. It would appear to be:

A. brown

B. black

C. red

D. green

Q. 38 A light emitting diode(LED) has a voltage drop of 2 volt across it and passes a current of 10 mA when it operates with a 6 volt battery through a limiting resistor R. The value of R is

A. 40 k ohm

B. 4 k ohm

C. 200 ohm

D. 400 ohm

Q. 39 The minimum potential difference between the base and emitter required to switched a silicon transistor ON is approximately

A. 1 V

B. 3 V

C. 5 V

D. 4.2 V

Q. 40 Given below is the circuit diagram of an AM demodulator. For good demodulation of AM signal of carrier frequency f, the value of RC should be

A. RC = 1/f

B. RC < 1/f

C. RC ≥ 1/f

D. RC >> 1/f

Questions: 41 – 60

Directions: In the following questions(41-60), a statement of assertion (A) is followed by the reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:

(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

(b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion

(d) both assertion and reason are false statements

Q. 41 Assertion: Electromagnetic waves with frequencies smaller than the critical frequency of ionosphere cannot be used for communication using sky wave propagation.

Reason: The refractive index of the ionosphere becomes very high for frequencies higher than the critical frequency.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 42 Assertion : The binding energy per nucleon , for nuclei with atomic mass number A> 100 decreases with A.

Reason : The nuclear forces are weak for heavier nuclei.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 43 Assertion : In common base configuration, the current gain of the transistor is less than unity.

Reason : The collector terminal is reverse biased for amplification.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 44 Assertion : In an isolated system the entropy increases.

Reason :The processes in an isolated system are adiabatic.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 45 Assertion : Magnetic resonance imagining (MRI) is a useful diagnostic tool for producing images of various parts of human body.

Reason : Protons of various tissues of human body play a role in MRI.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 46 Assertion : A judo fighter in order to throw his opponent on to the mat tries to initially bend his opponent and then rotate him around his hip.

Reason : As the mass of the opponent is brought closer to the fighters hip, the force required to throw the opponent is reduced.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 47 Assertion : The root mean square and most probable speeds of the molecules in a gas are the same.

Reason : The maxwell distribution of the speed of molecules in a gas is symmetrical.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 48 Assertion : Use of the ball bearings between the two moving parts of a machine is a common practice.

Reason : Ball bearings reduce vibrations and provide good stability.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 49 Assertion : Standard optical diffraction gratings cannot be used for discriminating between the different X-ray wavelengths.

Reason : The grating spacing is not of the order of X-ray wavelengths.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 50 Assertion : Diamagnetic materials can exhibit magnetism.

Reason : Diamagnetic materials have permanent magnetic dipole moment.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 51 Assertion : A man in a closed cabin which is falling freely does not experience gravity.

Reason : Inertial and gravitational mass have equivalence

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 52 Assertion : The photoelectrons produced by a monochrome light beam incident on a metal surface, have a spread in their kinetic energies.

Reason : The work function of the metal varies as a function of depth from the surface.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 53 Assertion : The carnot cycle is useful in understanding the performance of heat engines.

Reason : The carnot cycle provides a way of determining the maximum possible efficiency achievable with reservoirs of given temperatures.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 54 Assertion : A p-n junction with reverse bias can be used as a photodiode to measure light intensity.

Reason : In a reverse bias condition the current is small but is more sensitive to changes in incident light intensity.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 55 Assertion : perspiration from human body helps in cooling the body.

Reason : A thin layer of water on the skin enhances its emissivity.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 56 Assertion : When a glass of hot milk is placed in a room and allowed to cool, its entropy decreases.

Reason : Allowing hot object to cool does not violate the second law of thermodynamics.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 57 Assertion : Cobalt -60 is useful in cancer therapy.

Reason : Cobalt-60 is a source of gamma-radiations capable of killing cancerous cells.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 58 Assertion : A thin stainless steel needle can lay floating on a still water surface.

Reason : Any object floats when the buoyancy force balances the weight of the object.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 59 Assertion : An emf E̅ is induced in a closed loop where magnetic flux is varied. The induced E̅ is not a conservative field.

Reason : The line integral E̅ dl̅ around the closed loop is non-zero.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 60 Assertion : In optical fibre, the diameter of the core is kept small.

Reason : This smaller diameter of the core ensures that the fibre should have incident angle more than the critical angle required for total internal reflection.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 61 The pair in which both species have same magnetic moment (spin only value) is

A. [Cr(H₂O)₆]²⁺ , [CoCl₄]²⁻

B. [Cr(H₂O)₆]²⁺,[Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺

C. [Mn(H₂O)₆]²⁺,[Cr(H₂O)₆]²⁺

D. [CoCl₄]²⁻,[Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺

Q. 62 The pair in which both species have iron is

A. nitrogenase, cytochromes

B. carboxypeptidase, haemoglobin

C. haemocyanin, nitrogenase

D. haemoglobin, cytochromes

Q. 63 Borax is used as a cleansing agent because on dissolving in water it gives

A. alkaline solution

B. acidic solution

C. bleaching solution

D. basic solution

Q. 64 The incorrect statement among the following is

A. C₆₀ is an allotropic form of carbon

B. O₃ is an allotropic form of oxygen

C. S₈ is only allotropic form of sulphur

D. red phosphorus is more stable in air than white phosphorus

Q. 65 The pair whose both species are used in anti-acid medicinal preparation is

A. NaHCO₃ and Mg(OH)₂

B. Na₂CO₃ and Ca(HCO₃)₂

C. Ca(HCO₃)₂ and Mg(OH)₂

D. Ca(OH)₂ and NaHCO₃

Q. 66 The colour imparted by Co(II) compounds to glass is

A. green

B. deep-blue

C. yellow

D. red

Q. 67 The number of possible isomers of an octahedral complex [Co(C₂O₄)₂(NH₃)₂]⁻ is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 68 The ligands in anti-cancer during cisplatin are

A. NH₃, Cl

B. NH₃, H₂O

C. Cl, H₂O

D. NO, Cl

Q. 69 Given below, catalyst and corresponding process/ reaction are matched. The mismatch is

A. [RhCl(PPh₃)₂] : hydrogenation

B. TiCl₄ + Al(C₂H₅)₃ : polymerisation

C. V₂O₅ : Haber-bosch process

D. nickel : hydrogenation

Q. 70 Among the following, the species having square planar geometry for central atom are

(i) XeF₄ (ii) SF₄ (iii) [NiCl₄]⁻², (iv) [PdCl₄]⁻²

A. (i) and (iv)

B. (i) and (ii)

C. (ii) and (iii)

D. (iii) and (iv)

Q. 71 Tincture iodine is

A. aqueous solution of I₂

B. solution of I in aqueous KI

C. alcoholic solution of I₂

D. aqueous solution KI

Q. 72 In [Ag(CN)₂]⁻, the number of bonds is

A. PCl₅

B. CCl₄

C. PCl₃

D. POCl₃

Q. 73 Which two of the following salts are used for preparing iodized salt?

(i) KIO₃ (ii)KI (iii) I₂ (iv) HI

A. (i) and (ii)

B. (i) and (iii)

C. (ii) and (iv)

D. (iii) and (iv)

Q. 74 Which two of the following salts are used for preparing iodized salt?

(i) KIO₃ (ii)KI (iii) I₂ (iv) HI

A. (i) and (ii)

B. (i) and (iii)

C. (ii) and (iv)

D. (iii) and (iv)

Q. 75 The compound used in enrichment of uranium for nuclear power plant is

A. U₃O₈

B. UF₆

C. UO₂(NO₃)₂

D. UCl₄

Q. 76 The de broglie wavelength associated with a ball of mass 1 kg having kinetic energy 0.5 J is

A. 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ m

B. 13.20 x 10⁻³⁴ m

C. 10.38 x 10⁻²¹ m

D. 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ A

Q. 77 Dominance of strong repulsive forces among the molecules of the gas (Z = compressibility factor)

A. depends on Z and indicated by Z = 1

B. depends on Z and indicated by Z > 1

C. depends on Z and indicated by Z < 1

D. is independent of Z

Q. 78 40 ml of 0.1M ammonia solution is mixed with 20 ml of 0.1 M HCl. What is the pH of the mixture?(pKₐ of ammonia solution is 4.74)

A. 4.74

B. 2.26

C. 9.26

D. 5.00

Q. 79 For a spontaneous process the correct statement is

A. entropy of the system always increases

B. free energy of the system always increases

C. total energy change is always negative

D. total energy change is always positive

Q. 80 The Ca²⁺ and F⁻ are located in CaF₂ crystal.respectively at face centred cubic lattice points and in

A. tetrahedral

B. half of tetrahedral voids

C. octahedral voids

D. half of octahedral voids

Q. 81 The charge required for reduction of 1 mol of MnO₄⁻ to MnO₂ is

A. 1F

B. 3F

C. 5F

D. 6F

Q. 82 For the reaction,2N₂O₅—> 4NO₂ + O₂ rate of reaction is

A. 1/2 d[N₂O₅]/dt

B. 2 d[N₂O₅]/dt

C. 1/4 d[NO₂]/dt

D. 4 d[NO₂]/dt

Q. 83 For a phase change

A. ΔG=0

B. ΔS=0

C. ΔH=0

D. ΔU=0

Q. 84 A 5% solution(by mass) of cane sugar in water has freezing point of pure water is 273.16 K .The freezing point of a 5% solution(by mass) of glucose in water is

A. 271 K

B. 273.15 K

C. 269.07 K

D. 277.23

Q. 85 The energy gap(Eᵤ) between valence band and conduction band for diamond,silicon and germanium are in the order

A. Eᵤ(diamond)>Eᵤ(silicon)>Eᵤ(germanium)

B. Eᵤ(diamond)<Eᵤ(silicon)<Eᵤ(germanium)

C. Eᵤ(diamond)=Eᵤ(silicon)=Eᵤ(germanium)

D. Eᵤ(diamond)>Eᵤ(germanium)>Eᵤ(silicon)

Q. 86 The enthalpy change(ΔH) for the reaction,

N₂ + 3H₂ ——> 2NH₃

is -92.38 kJ at 298 K.The internal energy change ΔU at 298 K

A. -92.38kJ

B. -87.42kJ

C. -97.34kJ

D. -89.9kJ

Q. 87 The products formed when an aqueous solution of NaBr is electrolysed in a cell having inert electrodes are

A. Na and Br₂

B. Na and O₂

C. H₂,Br₂ and NaOH

D. H₂ and O₂

Q. 88 Among the following L-serine is

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 89 Among the following which one can have a meso form?

A. CH₃CH(OH)CH(Cl)C₂H₅

B. CH₃CH(OH)CH(OH)CH₃

C. C₂H₅CH(OH)CH(OH)CH₃

D. OHCH₂CH(Cl)CH₃

Q. 90 Which of the following sequence of reactions can be used for the conversion of

A. SOCl₂ ; H₂O

B. SOCl₂ ; KOH

C. Cl₂/hv; HO

D. SOCl₂ ;alc KOH

Q. 91 Isopropyl benzene on air oxidation in the presence of dilute acid gives

A. C₆H₅COOH

B. C₆H₅COCH₃

C. C₆H₅CHO

D. C₆H₅OH

Q. 92 The major product obtained on the monobromination(with Br₂/FeBr₃) of the following compound A

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 93 The following sequence of reactions on A gives

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 94 Nitrobenzene on treatment with zinc dust and aqueous ammonium chloride gives

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 95 Thymine is

A. 5-methyluracil

B. 4-methyluracil

C. 3-methyluracil

D. 1-methyluracil

Q. 96 lysine is least soluble in water in pH range

A. 3 to 4

B. 5 to 6

C. 6 to 7

D. 8 to 9

Q. 97 Methyl–D-glucoside and methyl–D-glucoside are

A. epimers

B. anomers

C. enantiomers

D. conformational diastereomers

Q. 98 Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?

A. CH₃CH₂CH₂Cl

B. CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂Cl

C. CH₂CH₂(CH₃)CH₂Cl

D. (CH₃)₃CCl

Q. 99 The correct increasing order of the reactivity of halides for SᵤI reaction is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 100 The major product formed in the following reaction is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Questions: 101 – 120

In the following questions (161-180),

statement of assertion is given a and a corresponding statement of reason is given just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as –

(a) If both Assertion & Reason (Ire true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(d) It both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

Q. 101 Assertion : In the iodometric titration starch is used as an indicator.

Reason : starch is a polysaccharide.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 102 Assertion : molecular nitrogen is less reactive than molecular oxygen.

Reason : The bond length N₂ is shorter than that of oxygen.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 103 Assertion : [Co(NO₂)(NH₃)₃] does not show optical isomerism.

Reason : It has a plane of symmetry.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 104 Assertion : E⁰ for Mn³⁺/ Mn²⁺ is more positive than Cr³⁺/Cr²⁺

Reason : The third ionization energy of Mn is larger than of Cr.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 105 Assertion : K₂Cr₂O₇ is used as primary standard volumetric analysis.

Reason : It has a good stability in water.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 106 Assertion : Silicones are hydrophobic in nature.

Reason : Si-O-Si linkages are moisture sensitive.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 107 Assertion : According to transition state theory, for the formation of an activated complex, one of the vibrational degrees of freedom is converted into a translational degrees of freedom.

Reason : energy of the activated complex is higher than the energy of reactant molecules.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 108 Assertion : Water in liquid state is more stable than ice at room temperature.

Reason : water in liquid form has higher entropy than ice.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 109 Assertion : Sb₂S₃ is not soluble in yellow ammonium sulphide.

Reason : The common ion effect due S²⁻ ions reduces the solubility of Sb₂S₃

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 110 Assertion : Graphite is an example of tetragonal crystal system.

Reason : For a tetragonal system, a=b≠c, α=β=90° , γ= 120°

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 111 Assertion : For the daniel cell, Zn I ZN²⁺ II Cu I Cu²⁺ with E(cell) = 1.1 V, the application of opposite potential greater than 1.1 V results into flow of electrode from cathode to anode,

Reason : Zn is deposited at anode and Cu is dissolved at cathode.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 112 Assertion : Fe³⁺ can be used for coagulation of As₂S₃ sol.

Reason : Fe³⁺ reacts with As₂S₃ to give Fe₂S₃

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 113 Assertion : If red blood cells were removed from the body and placed in pure water, pressure inside the cells increases.

Reason : The concentration of salt content in the cells increases.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 114 Assertion : Change in colour of acidic solution of potassium dichromate by breath is used to test drunk drivers.

Reason : Change in colour is due to the complexation of alcohol with potassium dichromate.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 115 Assertion : anilinium chloride is more acidic than ammonium chloride.

Reason : Anilinium ion is resonance-stabilised.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 116 Assertion : Diastereomers have different physical properties.

Reason : They are non-superimposable mirror images.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 117 Assertion : The presence of nitro group facilitates nucleophilic substitution reactions in aryl halides.

Reason : The intermediate carbanion ion stabilised due to the presence of nitro group.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 118 Assertion : 1,3-butadiene is the monomer for natural rubber.

Reason : natural rubber is formed through anionic addition polymerization.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 119 Assertion : addition of HBr on 2-butene gives two isomeric products.

Reason : addition of HBr on 2-butene follows Markovnikov’s rule.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 120 Assertion : The water pouch of instant cold pack for treating athletic injuries breaks when squeezed and NH₄NO₃ dissolves lowering the temperature.

Reason : Addition of the depression of freezing point solvent.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 121 Given below is a table comparing the effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system for four features(1-4). which one feature correctly described?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 122 Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic and the taxon?

Animal	Characteristic	Taxon
(a)	millipede	Ventral nerve cord	arachnida
(b)	Duckbill platypus	oviparous	mammalia
(c)	silverfish	Pectoral & pelvic fins	chordata
(d)	Sea anemone	triploblastic	cnidaria

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 123 All mammals without any exception are characterized by

A. viviparity and biconcave red blood cells

B. extra-abdominal testes and a four chambered heart

C. heterodont teeth and 12 pairs of cranial nerves

D. a muscular diaphragm and milk producing glands

Q. 124 Which one of the following pairs of the kind of cells and their secretion is correctly matched?

A. oxyntic cells—a secretion with pH between 2.0 and 3.0

B. alpha cells of islets of langerhans— secretion that decreases blood sugar level

C. kupffer cells—a digestive enzyme that hydrolyzes nucleic acids

D. sebaceous glands— a secretion that evaporates for cooling

Q. 125 Examine the diagram of the two cell types A and B given below and select the correct option:

A. cell A is the rod cell found evenly all over retina

B. cell A is the cone cell more concentrated in the fovea centralis

C. cell B is concerned with colour vision in bright light

D. cell A is sensitive to low light intensities

Q. 126 Which one of the following pairs of features is a good example of polygenic inheritance?

A. human height and skin colour

B. ABO blood group in humans and flowers colour of mirabilis jalapa

C. hair pigment of mouse and tongue rolling in humans

D. human eye colour and sickle cell anaemia

Q. 127 Mating of an organism to a double recessive in order to determine whether it is homozygous or heterozygous for a nuclear under consideration is called

A. reciprocal cross

B. test cross

C. dihybrid cross

D. back cross

Q. 128 In which one of the following sets of three items each belong to the category mentioned against them?

A. lysine, glycine, thiamine—amino acids

B. myosin, oxytocin and gastrin—hormones

C. rennin, helicase and hyaluronidase—enzymes

D. optic nerve, oculomotor, vagus—sensory nerves

Q. 129 A cricket player is fast chasing a ball in the field. Which one of the following groups of bones are directly contributing in this movement.

A. femur, malleus, tibia, metatarsals

B. pelvis, ulna, patella, tarsals

C. sternum , femur, tibia, fibula

D. tarsals, femur, metatarsals, tibia

Q. 130 Given below is a higher simplified representation of the human sex chromosomes from a karyotype.

The gene a and b could be of

A. colour blindness and body height

B. attached car lobe and rhesus blood group

C. haemophilia and red-green colorblindness

D. phenylketonuria and haemophilia

Q. 131 A lizard like member of reptilia is sitting on a tree with its tail coiled around twig. This animal could be

A. hemidactylus showing sexual dimorphism

B. varanus showing mimicry

C. garden lizard(calates) showing camouflage

D. chamaeleon showing protective colouration

Q. 132 The figure given below shows three velocity-substrate concentration curves for an enzyme reaction. What to do the curves a, b and c depict respectively.

A. a-normal enzyme reaction, b-competitive inhibition, c-non-competitive inhibition

B. a-enzyme with an allosteric modulator added, b-competitive inhibition, c-competitive inhibition

C. a-enzyme with an allsteric stimulator, b-competitive inhibition added, c-normal enzyme reaction

D. a-normal enzyme reaction, b-non-competitive inhibitor added, c-allosteric inhibitor added

Q. 133 Pollution from animal excreta and organic waste from kitchen can be most profitably minimized by

A. storing them in underground storage tanks

B. using them for producing biogas

C. vermiculture

D. using them directly as biofertilizers

Q. 134 A person who shows unpredictable moods, outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts with others is suffering from

A. borderline personality disorder(BPD)

B. mood disorder

C. addictive disorder

D. schizophrenia

Q. 135 Genes are present in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells are found in

A. mitochondria and inherited via egg cytoplasm

B. lysosomes and peroxisomes

C. golgi bodies and smooth endoplasmic reticulum

D. plastids and inherited via male gamete

Q. 136 The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of fallopian tubes. Bronchioles and small bronchi are known as

A. squamous epithelium

B. columnar epithelium

C. ciliated epithelium

D. cubical epithelium

Q. 137 Tadpoles of frog can be made to grow as giant sized tadpoles, if they are:

A. administered antithyroid substance like thiourea

B. administered large amount of thyroxine

C. reared on a diet wich in egg yolk

D. reared on a diet rich in both egg yolk and glucose

Q. 138 When children play barefoot in pools of dirty water and flood water, they may suffer from the disease like

A. leptospirosis and bilharzia

B. malaria, amoebic dysentery and leptospirosis

C. bilharzia, infective hepatitis and diarrhoea

D. guinea worm infection, elephantiasis and amoebic dysentery

Q. 139 Which one of the following is an environment related disorder with the correct main cause?

A. black lung disease(pneumoconiosis) found mainly in workers in stone quarries and crushers

B. blue baby disease(methaemoglobinaemia) due to heavy use nitrogenous fertilizers in the area

C. non-hodgkin’s lymphoma found mainly in workers involved in manufacture of neem based pesticides

D. skin cancer mainly in people exposed to benzene and methane

Q. 140 The given figure shows an angiosperm of the coronary blood vessel.which on of the following describes correctly. what is being done?

A. it is coronary artery which has cancerous growth that is being removed

B. it is coronary artery which is blocked by a plaque and the same is being cracked

C. it is coronary vein in which the defective valves are being opened

D. it is coronary vein blocked by a parasite (blood fluke) that is being removed

Q. 141 In the following table. Identify the correct matching of the crop, its disease and the corresponding pathogen.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 142 In which of the following combinations of the number of chromosomes is the present day hexaploid wheat correctly represented?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 143 Grafting is successful in dicots but not in monocots because the dicots have

A. vascular bundles arranged in a ring

B. cambium for secondary growth

C. vessels with elements arranged end to end

D. cork cambium

Q. 144 In the sieve elements, which one of the following is most likely function of P-proteins?

A. deposition of callose on sieve plates

B. providing energy for active translocation

C. autolytic enzymes

D. sealing mechanism on wounding

Q. 145 Myxomycetes are

A. saprobes or parasites, jhaving mycelia, asexual reproduction by fragmentation, sexual reproduction by fusion of gametes

B. slimy mass of multinucleate protoplasm, having pseudopodia-like structures for engulfing food, reproduction through fragmentation or zoospores.

C. prokaryotic organisms, cellular or acellular,saprobes or autotrophic, reproduce by binary fission

D. eukaryotic, single called or filamentous, saprobes or autotrophic,asexual reproduction by fusion of two cells or their nuclei

Q. 146 “ordines anomali” of bentham and hooker includes

A. seed plants showing abnormal forms of growth and development

B. plants described only in fossil state

C. plants described in the literature but which bentham and hooker did not see in original

D. a few orders which could not be placed satisfactory in the classification

Q. 147 Hirudin is:

A. a protein produced by hordeum vulgare, which is rich in lysine

B. a toxic molecule isolated from gossypium hirsutum, which reduces human fertility

C. a protein produced from transgenic brassica napus, which prevents blood clotting.

D. an antibiotic produced by a genetically engineered bacterium, escherichia coli.

Q. 148 A scion is grafted to a stock. the quality of fruits produced will be determined by the genotype of

A. stock

B. scion

C. both stock and scion

D. neither stock nor scion

Q. 149 In prokaryotes, chromatophores are

A. specialized granules responsible for colouration of cells

B. structures responsible for organizing the shape of the organism

C. inclusion bodies lying free the cells for carrying out various metabolic activities.

D. internal membrane systems that may become extensive and complex in photosynthetic bacteria

Q. 150 Among rust, smut and mushroom all the three

A. are pathogens

B. are saprobes

C. bear ascocarps

D. bear basidiocarps

Q. 151 The function of leg haemoglobin during biological nitrogen fixation in root nodules of legumes is to

A. convert atmospheric N2 to NH3

B. convert ammonia to nitrite

C. transport oxygen for activity of nitrogenase

D. protect nitrogenase from oxygen

Q. 152 Avena curvature test is a bioassay for examining the activity of

A. auxins

B. gibberellins

C. cytokinins

D. ethylene

Q. 153 What is common between chloroplasts, chromoplasts and leucoplasts ?

A. presence of pigments

B. possession of thylakoids and grana

C. storage of starch, proteins and lipids

D. ability to multiply by a fission-like process

Q. 154 Plants of which one of the following groups of genera arc pollinated by the same agency?

A. Triticum. Cocos, Mangifera

B. Ficus, Kigella, Casuarina

C. Salvia, Morus, Euphorbia

D. Bombax, Butea, Bauhinia

Q. 155 The Montreal Protocol refers to

A. persistent organic pollutants

B. global warming and climate change

C. substances that deplete the ozone layer

D. biosafety of genetically modified organisms

Q. 156 Keystone species deserve protection because these

A. are capable of surviving in harsh environmental conditions

B. indicate presence of certain minerals in the soil

C. have become rare due to overexploitation .

D. play an important role in supporting other species

Q. 157 In India, we find mangoes with different flavours, colours, fibre content, sugar content and even shelf- life. The large variation is on account of

A. species diversity

B. induced mutations”

C. genetic diversity

D. hybridization

Q. 158 During protein synthesis in an organism at one point the process comes to a halt. Select the group of the three codons from the following, from which, anyone of the three could bring about this halt

A. UUU, UCC, UAU

B. UUC, UUA, UAC

C. UAG, UGA, UAA

D. UUG, UCA, UCG

Q. 159 Biosphere reserves differ from National Parks and Wildlife sanctuaries because in the former

A. human beings are not allowed to enter

B. people are an integral part of the system

C. plants are paid greater attention than the animals

D. living organisms are brought from all over the world and preserved for posterity

Q. 160 Somaclonal variation is seen in

A. tissue culture grown plants

B. apornicts

C. polyploids

D. vegetatively propagated plants

Questions: 161 – 180

In the following questions (161-180),

statement of assertion is given a and a corresponding statement of reason is given just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as –

(a) If both Assertion & Reason (Ire true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(d) It both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

Q. 161 Assertion: A person who has received a cut and is bleeding needs to be given anti-tetanus treatment.

Reason: Anti-tetanus injection provides immunity by producing antibodies for tetanus

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 162 Assertion: Cancer cells are virtually immortal until the body in which they reside dies.

Reason : Cancer is caused by damage to genes regulating the cell division cycle.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 163 Assertion : A network of food chains existing together in an ecosystem is known as a food web.

Reason: An animal like kite cannot be a part of a food web

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 164 Assertion: Inflammation of a skeletal joint may immobilize the movements of the joint.

Reason: Uric acid crystals in the joint cavity and ossification of articular cartilage lead to this.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 165 Assertion: The earliest organisms that appeared on the Earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.

Reason: The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 166 Assertion : Escherichia coli, Shigella sp. and I Salmonella sp. are all responsible for diarrhoeal I disease. 1

Reason : Dehydration is common to all types of I diarrhoeal diseases and adequate supply of fluids , I electrolytes should be ensured.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 167 Assertion : Deforestation is one main contributing to global warming.

Reason : Besides CO2, two other gases methane and CFCs are also included under greenhouse gases.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 168 Assertion: LSD and marijuana are clinically used as analgesics.

Reason: Both these drugs suppress brain function.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 169 Assertion: An organism with lethal mutation may not even develop beyond the zygote stage.

Reason: All types of gene mutations are lethal

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 170 Assertion: Our body secretes adrenaline in intense cold.

Reason: Adrenaline raises metabolic rate.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 171 Assertion: When the ambient temperature is high and soil contains excess of water, the plants tend to lose water in the form of droplets from lenticels.

Reason: Root pressure regulates the rate of loss of water form lenticels.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 172 Assertion: In angiosperms the conduction of water is more efficient because their xylem has vessels.

Reason: Conduction of water by vessel clements is an active process with energy supplied by xylem parenchyma rich in mitochondria.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 173 Assertion: Polytene chromosomes have a high amount of DNA:

Reason: Polytene chromosomes arc formed by repeated replication of chromosomal DNA without separation of chromatids.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 174 Assertion: UV radiation causes photodissociation of ozone into 02 and 0, thus causing damage to the stratospheric ozone layer.

Reason: Ozone hole is resulting in global warming and climate change.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 175 Assertion: The concentration of methane in the atmosphere has more than doubled in the last 250 years.

Reason: Wetlands and rice fields arc (he major sources of methane.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 176 Assertion: In tropical rainforests, O-horizon and A-horizon of soil profile are shallow and nutrient poor.

Reason : Excessive growth of microorganisms in the soil depletes its organic content.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 177 Assertion: Gram-negative bacteria do not retain the stain when washed with alcohol.

Reason: The outer face of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria contains lipopolysaccharides, a part of which is integrated into the membrane lipids.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 178 Assertion: Under conditions of high light intensity and limited CO2 supply, photorespiration has a ‘useful role in protecting the plants from photooxidative damage.

Reason : If Enough CO2 is not available to utilize light energy for carboxylation to proceed. the excess energy may not cause damage to plants

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 179 Assertion: Photosynthetically C, plants are less efficient than C] plants.

Reason: The operation of C, pathway requires the involvement of only bundle-sheath cells.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 180 Assertion : Eukaryotic cells have the ability to adopt a variety of shapes and carry out directed movements.

Reason : There are three principal types of protein filaments – microfilaments, microtubules and i ntcrmcd iatc fi laments, which constitute the cytoskeleton

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 181 The term’ CPR’ often used in first aid stands for

A. Clinic for Pulmonary Rehabilitation

B. Chemical Prevention of Rhinitis

C. Chemo-Prophylaxis response

D. Cardio-Pulmonary resuscitation

Q. 182 Alzheimer’s disease affects

A. childhood

B. adolescent

C. young people

D. elderly people

Q. 183 Central Council for Research in Yoga and Naturopathy (CCRYN) is an organization that funds research in the given field in om country. It is located in

A. New Delhi

B. Rishikesh

C. Bangalore

D. Hyderabad

Q. 184 The vaccination for which one of the following diseases is not covered in the immunization schedule so far?

A. tuberculosis

B. diphtheria

C. measles

D. pneumonia

Q. 185 Which one of the following is true and is not a misconception?

A. cutting the top of a bitter cucumber and Rubbing it with the corresponding surface removes bitterness

B. pearl is produced from a drop of rain water fitting into the oyster in Swati Nakshatra

C. while dreaming during sleep at night the eyes move rapidly

D. peahen gets conceived from the tears that drop from the peacock’s eye and she drinks them

Q. 186 A drug called reserpine was discovered by

A. Jal Vakil

B. Paul Ehrlich

C. Hansen

D. Alexander Wood

Q. 187 Biometry refers to

A. identification of humans by scanning face and fingerprints

B. measurement of mechanical displacement in humans

C. a method of lie detection

D. body length relationships across the evolutionary scale

Q. 188 Which one of the following is one of the two days when the sun rises exactly in the east?

A. 14th January

B. 21st March

C. 21st June

D. 23nd December

Q. 189 X-Wilhelm rays were discovered b

A. K. Roentgen

B. H. Kissinger

C. Sir C. V. Raman

D. Meghnad Saha

Q. 190 Which one of the following literary titles is, correctly matched with its author ‘

A. Rumayana – Tulsidas

B. Mahabharat – Vedvyas

C. Kumarasambhava – Ravidas

D. Shakuntala -Bhushan

Q. 191 A very much publicized treatment method “DOTS” is being adopted for the cure of

A. dementia

B. tetanus

C. tuberculosis

D. sexually transmitted disease

Q. 192 Which of the following Indian cricket player after India-Pakistan 001 (One-day International) at : Abudhabi became no.1 001 batsman

A. Rahul Dravid

B. Yuvraj

C. Sachin Tendulkar

D. M.S dhoni

Q. 193 The Jungle in Rudyard Kipling’s Jungle book. describes which part of Indian forest ?

A. central Indian forest ncar Satpura range

B. Uttaranchal thick forest

C. Himalayan forest in Himachal

D. Nilgiri jungles

Q. 194 Sardar Sarovar Dam is built on the river

A. jhelam

B. Narmada

C. Tapti

D. vyas

Q. 195 One ream of paper equals to

A. 100-IIOsheets

B. 256 sheets

C. 80-500 sheets

D. 1000 sheets

Q. 196 Which of the following honour is given by UNESCO?

A. the Kalinga prize

B. Magsaysay award

C. Pulitzer prize

D. order of the Golden Ark award

Q. 197 Bodyline’ in cricket refers to

A. bowling that hits the body

B. the line of body close to wicket line

C. he white line on ground within which the player stands

D. he line of moving ball

Q. 198 Hindu view of life’ is written by

A. S. Radhakrishnan

B. .K. Narayan

C. V.D. Savarkar

D. John Ruskin

Q. 199 Lagoon refers to

A. a full moon

B. the sea breaking into the land and then separated by sand dunes

C. a spot in a desert made fertile by presence of water

D. horseshoe shaped coral reef

Q. 200 Ecology deals with

A. the earth and planets

B. the relationship between organism and their environments

C. he life under the sea

D. economical growth of poor people

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	D	B	C	C	C	B	A	B	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	A	C	A	D	B	B	A	A	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	B	D	A	A	A	B	C	C	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	D	B	C	B	C	B	D	A	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	B	C	B	A	A	D	C	A	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	C	A	A	C	B	A	B	A	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	D	A	C	A	B	C	A	C	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	C	A	A	A	A	B	C	D	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	C	A	C	A	B	C	C	B	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	D	B	C	D	A	D	B	B	A	D
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	B	A	A	B	C	C	A	A	D	D
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	C	C	A	C	C	A	D	D	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	B	D	D	B	A	B	C	D	C
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	D	A	B	A	A	C	A	A	B	B
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	C	D	B	D	B	D	C	B	D	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	D	A	D	D	C	D	C	C	B	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	A	B	C	A	B	B	B	D	C	A
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	D	C	A	A	A	B	A	C	D	A
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	D	D	A	D	C	A	D	B	A	B
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	C	D	A	B	C	A	A	A	B	B

IBPS PO Prelims Exam 2015 Previous Year Paper

IBPS PO Prelims Exam

Date: 11-10-2015

Q : 1 – 10 Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions. Certain words / phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

“I promise to open a bank account for a British citizen in just two minutes”. With a background in IT banking and asset management, this young entrepreneur is submitting plans to the regulators to start a new bank called Lintel, the twominute pledge is one of his selling points. He reckons that he can do better than the existing banks, and is putting plenty of his own money where his mouth is, as part of the 5m ($7.5m) start-up cost. lie hopes to start doing business early next year. Since April, 2013, three new British banks have appeared and three outfits have taken over old licenses. An official at the Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA) who doles out banking licences is part of the Bank of England, says people are now applying to open banks in”unprecedented numbers.” Four applicants are likely to start operating this year, he says with a further four or so probably coming to market next year. At least as far as the consumer is concerned, banking could be on the verge of quite a shake-up. Since March, 2013, the process to apply for a license has been streamlined. The PRA claims that a new bank can be up and running just six months after final authorization. The capital requirements for the start-ups are lower than they used to be. And many of the new entrants are acting like classic entrepreneurs. They work out how the existing banks are failing customers then look for niches, whether in products, customers or technology. All are encouraged by the growing willingness of consumers to switch from one bank to another, stimulated in part by regulations designed to make this easier. One such niche market will be immigrants, both students on short-stay visas and longer-term economic migrants and new start-up banks promise to offer a full range of products, in many languages, digitally and also at a few branches, to be located at the most convenient places for his target customers such as the railway stations in London that serve Heathrow and Gatwick airports. Another niche (e.g. Atom Bank), by contrast, is technological. It will be the first British bank to be digital-only, with all transactions done through smartphones and tablets, via an app. This ought to lower the bank’s overheads. The banking sector is currently the subject of a review by the Competition and Markets Authority, an official watchdog. Most of the new entrants would agree with the authority’s criticism that some features of the traditional banking system “prevent, restrict or distort competition”, in relation to both personal customers and small businesses. They attack what they call the opaque pricing of many current accounts and view to drive change. The entrepreneurs also claim that their innovative new products and technologies will help to address some of those criticisms.

Q. 1 Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word DOLES given in bold as used in the passage

A. Benefits

B. charity

C. sorrows

D. Handouts

E. issues

Q. 2 Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word APPEARED given in bold as used in the passage

A. Performed

B. shown

C. survived

D. Lived

E. emerged

Q. 3 Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?

A. Many large banks have collapsed and their place is being taken over by foreign banks

B. All present British banks largely offer digital services and are reducing physical branches

C. British banks are facing a financial crunch and need a stimulus from the government.

D. The Bank of England has improved the process of issuance of bank licenses.

E. None of the given options is true in the context of the passage

Q. 4 What is the author’s view regarding the start-up innovations in banking ?

A. These pose a threat to the banking system as they are not governed by stringent regulations.

B. Their operations are mainly online making it difficult for certain functions of their customers

C. These are providing an alternative to traditional banking and may transform the banking industry

D. These will not be very successful as customers are wary of leaving traditional banks.

E. Other than those given as options

Q. 5 Which of the following is the central idea of the passage ?

A. As new banks are being set-up, the nature of Banking will change in British

B. While many innovations are taking place in banking, banks lack capital to sustain these.

C. Bank credit in England is at an all time low present.

D. Technology is taking over banks puffing security at risk

E. Customers are unhappy with the central bank’s decision to encourage setting up of new risky banks.

Q. 6 What does the example of Lintel cited in the passage convey ?

A. New generation banks have grown bigger than conventional banks

B. Britain’s central bank is allowing banks to be setup indiscriminately

C. Quite a few new banks are being setup in Britain targeting certain customer needs.

D. Bypassing time-consuming but necessary regulations puts banks at risk

E. The Central Bank of England has to implement stricter regulatory measures.

Q. 7 Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word CLASSIC given in bold as used in the passage

A. Remarkable

B. Stylish

C. Typical

D. Inexpensive

E. Usual

Q. 8 According to the passage, which of the following has/have impacted bank startups?

(A) Failure of foreign banks

(B) Eagerness of individual and companies to set up banks

A. Only B

B. Only A

C. All A, B and C

D. Only A and C

E. Only B and C

Q. 9 Which of the following best describes die Competition and Market Authority’s opinion of the traditional banking system ?

A. Its services and products are cheap and favour small businesses at the cost of robustness

B. It lacks transparency in its processes and its practices are not always fair.

C. Traditional banks are less profitable than new banks, despite the government’s efforts.

D. The quality of their services is not the same abroad and domestically causing distress to customers

E. Innovations are being brought in despite existing rules prohibiting these.

Q. 10 Choose the word which is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word RESTRICT given in bold as used in the passage.

A. Exhibit

B. Encourage

C. chock

D. Exploit

E. contract

Questions: 11 – 15

Rearrange the given six sentences / group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.

A. Beneath its vaulting glass domes and mock renaissance murals are a Hello Kitty cafe, a half dozen noodle restaurants, jewellery shops dripping with gold and a theatre used for karaoke contests.

B. Unfortunately, owing to the demanding economy prospects for this mall are not good.

C. The Global Harbor mall in China once ranked among the World’s biggest shopping malls with its floor space equivalent to nearly 70 football fields.

D. With a mix of these utilities for consumers, it blends ersatz European architecture with a distinctly Asian election of stores.

E. As a result, bringing it back to its old position has become more urgent than ever.

F. It is only a slight exaggeration to say that China’s economic hopes rest on the faux- Corinthian columns of this mall.

Q. 11 Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement ?

A. E

B. B

C. A

D. F

E. C

Q. 12 Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?

A. A

B. B

C. F

D. U

E. E

Q. 13 Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. F

E. D

Q. 14 Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?

A. A

B. C

C. B

D. F

E. D

Q. 15 Which of the following should be the SIXTH (last) sentence after the rearrangement ?

A. C

B. D

C. A

D. B

E. F

Questions: 16 – 20

Each question below has two blanks each blank indicating that something has been omitted Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Q. 16 Guests should look………to the new international artists who are………to perform this writer.

A. forward, scheduled

B. ahead,set

C. eagerly, lately

D. closer,likely

E. carefully ,about

Q. 17 ……….to a scientist, thousands of fossils be………inside a cave at the Word heritage site.

A. Exclusive, unclaimed

B. Relating, locally

C. Relying, behind

D. Pertaining, buried

E. According, untouched

Q. 18 Two months after ordering the authorities to ……… the scam, the court finally………to take the first step towards monitoring the investigation on Monday

A. look, seemed

B. investigate, assumed

C. search, decided

D. probe, appeared

E. delve, made

Q. 19 It has been ……… three months that the students of the institute began their strike ……. the appointment of the Chairman of the Council.

A. about ,of

B. more, opposing

C. close,for

D. over, against

E. around ,to

Q. 20 ….being unwell, the Minister………to continue his protests till the problem is resolved.

A. Although, wants

B. Despite, intends

C. Though, suggests

D. Since, prolongs

E. After, resolve

Questions: 21 – 25

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error, if any, will he in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with error as your answer. If there is no error, mark (5) as your answer.

Q. 21 With 80 percent of the working age population, already employed, there is limited room for employment growth to contribute strong about economic activities in the future.

A. With 80 percent of the working age population

B. already employed, there is limited room

C. for employment growth to contribute strong about

D. economic activities in the future.

E. no error

Q. 22 The global economy, slaved by stagnation in Europe and Japan, is being further hampered by England’s decelerating growth.

A. The global economy, slaved by

B. stagnation in Europe and Japan, is being

C. further hampered

D. by England’s decelerating growth.

E. no error

Q. 23 The country’s economic growth could be fade dramatically as the years to come owing to an aging population.

A. The country’s economic growth

B. could be fade dramatically

C. as the years to come

D. owing to an aging population

E. no error

Q. 24 The country’s economic growth will largely be stable in the third quarter as the impact of a stock market plunge is been lessened.

A. The country’s economic growth will

B. largely be stable in the third quarter

C. as the impact of a stock market plunge

D. is been lessened

E. No error

Q. 25 A major component supporting the nation’s rapid economic growth has been growth of exports.

A. A major component supporting

B. the nation’s rapid

C. economic growth has

D. been growth of exports.

E. No error

Questions: 26 – 30

In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested. One of which fits the blank appropriately.

Find out the appropriate word in each case.

India’s private-schooled, English-speaking urban elite may attract global attention, but they are in the …26…. The vast majority of Indian children attend government-run primary schools in rural areas. In 2008-2009, rural India …27… for more than 88% of India’s primary-school students, of whom over 87% were …28… in government run schools. This is where we see some of the nation’s toughest challenges. The number of students completing their primary education with …29… numeracy and literacy’ skills is startling. To see this manifest in an economic sense, one may attribute India’s slow productivity growth-lagging behind that of East Asian economics-to a lack of.. .30… in the foundational elements of countrywide, high-quality education.

Q. 26 Fill in the blanks

A. least

B. lurch

C. minority

D. future

E. past

Q. 27 Fill in the blanks

A. Amounted

B. totalized

C. accumulated

D. added

E. accounted

Q. 28 Fill in the blanks

A. bordered

B. existed

C. enrolled

D. hatred

E. proposed

Q. 29 Fill in the blanks

A. astute

B. inadequate

C. certain

D. pursued

E. together

Q. 30 Fill in the blanks

A. progress

B. contribution

C. particulars

D. boundaries

E. schools

Q. 31 A bag contains 6 red, 5 yellow and 3 pink balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that none of the balls drawn are red in colour ?

A. 4/13

B. 8/13

C. 5/13

D. 2/13

E. 6/13

Q. 32 A vessel contains a mixture of apple, orange and mango juices in the respective ratio of 3 : 5 : 4. 12 litre of this mixture is taken out and 8 litre of apple juice is added to the mixture. If the respective quantities of apple juice and orange juice in the vessel are equal, what was the initial quantity of mixture in the vessel ? (in litre)

A. 60

B. 84

C. 96

D. 48

E. 72

Questions: 33 – 37

In these questions, two equations, numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and Give answer:

(1) x > y

(2) x > y

(3) x < y

(4) Relationship between x and y cannot be determined

(5) x < y

Q. 33 I.x²=81

II. y²+13y + 36 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 34 I.x²- 13x +14 = 0

II. 3y² -17y + 22 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 35 I.x²+ 9x + 9 = 0

II. 4y²+ 9y + 5 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 36 I. 2×2 – 11x + 14 = 0

II. 2y2 -7y + 6 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 37 I. x² – 7x + 12 = 0

II. 2y²– 19y + 44 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 38 A and B together can complete a piece of work in 16 days. B alone can complete the same work in 24 days. In how many days can A alone complete the same work ?

A. 38 days

B. 50 days

C. 48 days

D. 42 days

E. none of these

Q. 39 The average salary of A, B and C is Rs. 7,200/-. The average salary of B, C and D is Rs. 7,550/-. If D’s salary is 25% more than A’s salary, what is the average of B and C’s salary ?

A. Rs. 8,950/-

B. Rs. 8,450/

C. Rs. 8,300/-

D. Rs. 8,900/-

E. Rs. 8,700/-

Questions: 40 – 44

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact answer.)

Q. 40 9659 + 20.99 + 7.921 ÷ 11 .97 = ?

A. 960

B. 950

C. 1260

D. 1280

E. 1120

Q. 41 25.01% of 541 ÷ 29.97% of 30.01 + ? = 140

A. 90

B. 145

C. 125

D. 85

E. 110

Q. 42 1401 ÷ 34.97 + 21.98 x √626 = ?

A. 520

B. 650

C. 480

D. 590

E. 630

Q. 43 (12.5 x 14) ÷ 20 + 41.25 = ?³ ÷ 2.5

A. 6

B. 5

C. 3

D. 4

E. 7

Q. 44 √230 ÷ 2.017 + 58.794 = ?

A. 80

B. 102

C. 68

D. 96

E. 77

Q. 45 B is 8 years elder to A and B is also 8 years younger to C. 12 years hence, the respective ratio between the ages of A and C will be 5 : 9. What is the sum of present ages of A, B and C ?

A. 32 years

B. 48 years

C. 72 years

D. 42 years

E. 36 years

Q. 46 To reach Point B at 10 a.m. from Point A, Abni will have to travel at an average speed of 15 km/h. He will reach point B at 12 p.m., if he travels at an average speed of 10 km/h. At what average speed should Abhi travel to reach Point B at 9 a.m. ?

A. 20 km/h

B. 18 km/h

C. 16 km/h

D. 24 km/h

E. 22 km/h

Q. 47 The time taken by a boat to travel a distance upstream is twice the time taken by it to travel the same distance downstream. What is the speed of the boat upstream if it travels 20 km downstream in 1 hour 40 min ? (in km/h)

A. 5.5

B. 6.

C. 6.5

D. 8

E. 4

Questions: 48 – 52

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series ?

Q. 48 10 10 16 40 100 ?

A. 220

B. 300

C. 200

D. 150

E. 340

Q. 49 4 5.8 9.4 16.6 ? 59.8

A. 40

B. 31

C. 20

D. 42

E. 34

Q. 50 7 6 10 27 104 ?

A. 297

B. 439

C. 515

D. 386

E. 624

Q. 51 9 4 3 3 4 ?

A. 11

B. 7.5

C. 9.5

D. 12.5

E. 8

Q. 52 139 135 128 116 97 ?

A. 69

B. 55

C. 71

D. 82

E. 63

Q. 53 The respective ratio of the sum invested for 2 years each in Scheme A offering 10% p.a. compound interest (compounded annually) and in Scheme B offering 8% simple interest is 1: 2. Difference between the interests earned from both the schemes is Rs. 990/-. How much was invested in Scheme A ?

A. Rs.9,500/-

B. Rs.9,000/-

C. Rs.12,000/-

D. Rs. 11,000/-

E. Rs. 10,000/-

Questions: 54 – 58

Refer to the table and answer the give questions.

Data related to candidates appeared and qualified from State ‘X’ in the competitive exam during 5 years

Q. 54 In 2003, if the number of female qualified candidates was 70, what was the respective ratio of number of female qualified candidates and number of male qualified candidates in the same year ?

A. 5:9

B. 7:11

C. 10:11

D. 10:13

E. 5:7

Q. 55 Number of appeared candidates increased by 20% from 2002 to 2006. If 25% of the appeared candidates qualified in 2006, what was the number of qualified candidates in 2006 ?

A. 205

B. 215

C. 245

D. 240

E. 230

Q. 56 If the average number of qualified candidates in 2002 and 2005 was 433, what percent of appeared candidates qualified in the competitive exam in 2002 ?

A. 60

B. 75

C. 45

D. 70

E. 50

Q. 57 In 2004, if the difference between number of male qualified candidates and number of female qualified candidates was 120, What was the number of appeared candidates in 2004 ?

A. 840

B. 800

C. 660

D. 600

E. 720

Q. 58 In 2001, the respective ratio of number of appeared candidates to qualified candidates was 5 : 2. Number of female candidates qualified in 2001 constitutes what percent of the number of appeared candidates in the same year?

A. 15%

B. 25%

C. 125%

D. 20%

E. Cannot be determined

Q. 59 If the volume and covered surface area of a cylinder are 462 m³ and 264 m² respectively, what is the total surface area of the cylinder ? (in m²)

A. 351

B. 357

C. 363

D. 339

E. 341

Questions: 60 – 64

Refer to the graph and answer the Number of visitors in Country “XYZ” from City A and City B

Q. 60 The number of visitors from City A in May is what percent less than the number of visitors from City B in July ?

A. 15%

B. 25%

C. 30%

D. 10%

E. 20%

Q. 61 What is the average number of visitors from City B in May, June, August and September ?

A. 260

B. 230

C. 265

D. 245

E. 255

Q. 62 What is the difference between the total number of visitors from City A and City B together in September and the total number of visitors from both the cities together in August ?

A. 170

B. 120

C. 130

D. 140

E. 150

Q. 63 The number of visitors from City A in April increased by 20% from the previous month. What is the respective ratio between the number of visitors from City A in July and the number of visitors from the same city in March?

A. 18 : 7

B. 19 : 7

C. 17 : 8

D. 19:5

E. 18:5

Q. 64 The number of visitors from City B increased by what percent from April to June?

A. 132%

B. 120%

C. 133 1/3%

D. 134%

E. 127 2/3%

Q. 65 ‘A’ gave 40% of an amount to ‘B’. From the money B got, he paid 20% to a tax. Out of the remaining amount, the amounts paid by B towards tuition fees and towards library membership are in the respective ratio of 3 : 5. If B paid Rs. 1,720/- as library membership fees, how much money did A have at the beginning ?

A. Rs. 9,000/-

B. Rs. 12,400/-

C. Rs. 12,000/-

D. Rs. 8,000/

E. Rs. 8,600/-

Questions: 66 – 70

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Seven people, namely O, P, Q, R, S, T and U will attend a farewell but not necessarily in the same order, in seven different months (of the same year) namely February, March, April, May, July, October and December. Each of them also likes different stationary items namely Pen, Stapler, Ruler, Folder, Envelope, Label and Worksheet but not necessarily in the same order. The one who likes Envelope will attend a farewell in a month which has less than 31 days. Only one person will attend a farewell between the one who likes Envelope and O. The one who likes Ruler will attend a farewell immediately before O. Q will attend a farewell immediately after O. P will attend a farewell in one of the months before Q. Only two people will attend a farewell between Q and P. U will attend a farewell in a month which has less than 31 days. T will attend a farewell immediately after U. Only one person will attend a farewell between O and the one who likes folder. U likes neither open nor stapler. The one who likes pen will attend a farewell immediately before the one who likes Worksheet. S does not like Ruler.

Q. 66 Which of the following represents the people who will attend a farewell in March and October respectively ?

A. T,Q

B. T,O

C. U,O

D. U,Q

E. T,S

Q. 67 Which of the following represents the month in which R will attend a farewell ?

A. may

B. cannot be determined

C. july

D. october

E. march

Q. 68 How many people will attend a farewell between the months in which U and O will attend a farewell ?

A. more than 3

B. 3

C. none

D. 2

E. 1

Q. 69 As per the given arrangement, February is related to Envelope and March is related to Ruler, which of the following is July related to following the same pattern ?

A. label

B. pen

C. folder

D. worksheet

E. stapler

Q. 70 Which of the following stationary does S like ?

A. worksheet

B. label

C. pen

D. folder

E. stapler

Questions: 71 – 75

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

J, K, L, M, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a circular table facing the centre with equal distances between each other (but not necessarily in the same order). Each One of them is also related to M in same way or the other. Only two people sit between Q and L. M sits second to the left of Q. Only three people sit between L and M’s wife. M’s son sits second to the right of M’s wife. Only three people sit between M’s son and M’s brother. M’s daughter sits second to the left of M’s brother. J sits to the immediate right of R. R is neither the son nor the wife of M. M’s sister sits second to the left of R. K. sits to the immediate right of M’s sister. Only two people sit between K and M’s father. T sits second to the right of M’s mother.

Q. 71 How many people sit between Q and J, when counted from the left of J?

A. 4

B. 1

C. none

D. 5

E. 2

Q. 72 How is K related to R?

A. brother

B. nephew

C. daughter-in law

D. uncle

E. mother

Q. 73 Who sits second to the right of R?

A. R

B. M’s brother

C. T

D. M’s daughter

E. K

Q. 74 Who amongst the following is the wife of M ?

A. Q

B. K

C. N

D. J

E. O

Q. 75 Which of the following statements is true with respect to the given information ?

A. All the given statements are true

B. M sits second to the left of L

C. K is an immediate neighbour of R

D. S is the daughter of L

E. R sits second to the right of M’s wife

Questions: 76 – 80

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1-T, U, V, W and X are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing north. In row 2-D, E, F, G and H are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing south. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. V sits exactly in the middle of the row. The person facing V sits to the immediate left of F. H is an immediate neighbour of F. W sits second to the left of U. U faces one of the immediate neighbours of E. G is not an immediate neighbour of D. G does not sit at an extreme end of the line. X does not face D.

Q. 76 Who amongst the following is facing E ?

A. X

B. T

C. U

D. V

E. W

Q. 77 What is the position of G with respect to H ?

A. Third to the right

B. Second to the right

C. Second to the left

D. Immediate right

E. Immediate lef

Q. 78 Which of the following statements is true regarding X ?

A. Only two persons sit between X and U

B. X faces one of the immediate neighbours of F

C. W is an immediate neighbour of X

D. None of the given statements is true

E. X sits at an extreme ends of the line

Q. 79 Who amongst the following is facing T ?

A. E

B. H

C. D

D. F

E. G

Q. 80 Four of the given five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of them does not belong to that group ?

A. XW

B. D F

C. F E

D. T U

E. G D

Questions: 81 – 85

Study the following information answer the given questions.

In a certain code language, ‘offer prayers to god’ is written as ‘bi gv oc st’ ‘prayers for school assembly’ is written as ‘tm oc da pu’ ‘school offer special education’ is written as ‘nh mk tm gv ‘assembly must to school’ is written as ‘da st rx tm’ (All codes are two letter codes only)

Q. 81 In the given code language, what does the code ‘mk’ stand for?

A. either offer or to

B. god

C. school

D. Either ‘education’ or ‘special’

E. must

Q. 82 What is the code for ‘assembly’ in the given code language ?

A. tm

B. rx

C. st

D. da

E. Other than those given as options

Q. 83 What is the code for ‘prayers’ in the given code language ?

A. nh

B. oc

C. gv

D. pu

E. rx

Q. 84 What may be the possible code for ‘assembly ground’ in the given code language ?

A. ve bi

B. da nh

C. nh ve

D. ve da

E. bi da

Q. 85 If ‘school to home’ is written as ‘aj tm st’ in the given code language, then what is the code for ‘home for god’ ?

A. aj gv nh

B. pu aj bi

C. nh bi pu

D. bi da aj

E. aj oc pu

Questions: 86 – 88

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Each of the six salespersons viz, U, V, W, X, Y and Z sells a different number of life insurance policies in a day. U sells more policies than Y and Z but less than X. Z sells more policies than only W. X does not sell the most number of policies. The one who sells the third highest number of policies sells 33 policies and the one who sells the lowest number of policies sells 11 policies in a day. Y sells 13 more policies than W.

Q. 86 If the number of policies which V sells in a day is less than 47, and is an odd number which is divisible by 3 but not 5, how many policies does he sell ?

A. 24

B. 45

C. 39

D. 27

E. 21

Q. 87 How many policies does Z possibly sell ?

A. 19

B. 26

C. 30

D. 24

E. 41

Q. 88 Who amongst the following sells the second highest number of policies in a day ?

A. v

B. Y

C. W

D. X

E. Z

Questions: 89 – 93

In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.

Give answer:

(1) If only conclusion II is true

(2) If only conclusion I is true

(3) If both conclusions I and II are true

(4) If either conclusion I or II is true

(5) If neither conclusion I nor II is true

Q. 89 Statements : F < R < E > A > K; Y > E

Conclusions : I. A > F II. R < K

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 90 Statements : B < R < E = A > D > S; D > C < J

Conclusions : I. D > B ; II. E > S

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 91 Statements: A > B > C < D < E < F

Conclusions : I. C < F ; II. A > E

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 92 Statements : B < R < E = A > D > S; D > C < J

Conclusions : I. J < B ; II. J = B

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 93 Statements : F < R < E > A > K; Y > E

Conclusions : I. Y > K ; II. F < Y

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Questions: 94 – 95

Study the following information to answer the given questions

❖ K is the brother of J. J is the mother of Y

❖ Y is the sister of T. T is married to Q. S is the father of J

❖ S has only one daughter. S is married to R

❖ K is the brother of D. U is the father-in-law of D

Q. 94 How is D related to Y ?

A. Cannot be determined

B. mother

C. uncle

D. father

E. aunt

Q. 95 If U is the father of C, then how is D related to C ?

A. cousin

B. husband

C. wife

D. cannot be determined

E. brother

Questions: 96 – 100

In these questions, two statements followed by two/three conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer:

(1) If only conclusion II is true

(2) if only conclusion I is true

(3) If both conclusions I and II are true

(4) If either conclusion I or II is true

(5) If neither conclusion I nor II is true

Q. 96 Statements: All points are views. No view is an idea. Some ideas are thoughts.

Conclusions: I. Some thoughts being points is a possibility. II. No view is a thought.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 97 Statements: All points are views. No view is an idea. Some ideas are thoughts.

Conclusions: At least some ideas are points. II. All thoughts being ideas is a possibility

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 98 Statements: Some slides are photos. All photos arc images. All images are creations.

Conclusions :

I. At least some images are slides.

II. All photos are creations.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 99 Statements : No loss is profit. Some profits are gains.

Conclusions:

I. No gain is a loss

II. Some gains are losses.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 100 Statements : No space is a gap. All tissues are gaps. No gap is a crack.

Conclusions:

I. No space is a crack.

II. No tissue is crack.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	E	E	D	C	A	C	C	E	E	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	D	D	B	E	E	E	B	D	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	E	B	D	E	C	E	C	B	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	A	E	E	C	B	E	C	E	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	B	C	B	A	B	A	B	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	A	B	E	B	A	B	A	E	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	D	E	C	B	A	A	B	C	E
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	E	C	C	B	C	A	E	E	C	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	D	D	B	D	B	C	A	D	E	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	E	C	B	A	B	A	C	D	A

IBPS PO Prelims Exam 2015 Previous Year Paper

IBPS PO Prelims Exam

Date: 10-10-2015

Q : 1 – 5

Directions (1 – 5) : Rearrange the following five sentences (A),(B),(C),(D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the given questions.

(A) with the country’s decades- old investment boom fast dwindling, it needs consumption to kick in as a new driver of growth.

(B) It is only a slight exaggeration to say that china’s economic hopes rest on the faux-corinthian columns og global horror.

(C) Beneath its vaulting glass domes and mock renaissance murals are a hello kitty cafe, a half dozen noodle restaurants, jewellery shops dripping with gold and a theatre used for karaoke contests.

(D) It blends ersatz European architecture with a distinctly Asian selection of stores.

(E) Global harbor ranks among the world’s biggest shopping malls, its floor space equivalent to nearly 70 football fields.

Q. 1 Which of the following should be first sentence after rearrangement?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

Q. 2 Which of the following should be third sentence of the rearrangement?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

Q. 3 Which of the following should be second sentence of the rearrangement?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

Q. 4 Which of the following should be fourth sentence of the rearrangement?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

Q. 5 Which of the following should be fifth(last) sentence of the rearrangement?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

Questions: 6 – 10

Directions(6-10): Each of the following questions has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. choose the set of words for each blank that fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Q. 6 A clash between_________of two rival gangs in high security prison _________several inmates injured.

A. member, left

B. members, left

C. leaders, leave

D. groups, put

E. volunteers, have

Q. 7 Banks caused a bubble, failed to do due_________and _________more than what was warranted to developers.

A. diligence, lent

B. diligent, lend

C. diligently, borrowed

D. carelessly, lent

E. carelessness, lending

Q. 8 Acting__________on vehicles polluting city, government ordered all commercial vehicles entering city to_________environmental compensation charge.

A. toughness, pay

B. toughly, paying

C. leniently, pay

D. tough, play

E. roughly, paid

Q. 9 The project has__________under fire for___________a vital elephant corridor in kaziranga.

A. gone, destroy

B. come, destructed

C. went, destroying

D. reached, destruction

E. come, destroying

Q. 10 Health minister has given all city government hospitals a two day________to get prepared for H1N1 _________

A. deadline, outbreak

B. hardline, outbreaking

C. headline, outbreak

D. period, spread

E. hotline, spreading

Questions: 11 – 20

Directions(11-20): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

“I promise to open a bank account for a british citizen in just two minutes”, with a background in IT banking and asset management, this young entrepreneur is submitting plans to the regulators to start the new bank called Lintel; the two minute pledge is one of his selling points. Young entrepreneurs can do better than the existing banks, and is putting plenty of his own money where his mouth is, as part of the 5 million euros start up cost. Since April 2013 three new british banks have appeared and three outfits have taken over old licences. A person, who doles out banking licences at the prudential regulation authority(PRA), part of the bank of england, says people are now applying to open banks in ‘unprecedented numbers’. Four applicants are likely to start operating this year, he says, with a further four or so probably coming to market next year. At least as far as the consumer is concerned, banking could be on the verge of quite a shake-up. Since march 2013 the process to apply for a license has been streamlined. The PRA claims that a new bank can be up and running just six months after final authorisation. The capital requirements of the start-ups are lower than they used to be. And many of the new entrants are acting like classic entrepreneurs. They work out how the existing banks are failing customers or technology. All are encouraged by the growing willingness of consumers to switch for one bank to another, stimulated in part by regulations designed to make this easier. The niche will be about immigrants, both students on short -stay visas and longer -term economic migrants. They are treated “extremely bad”by existing banks he claims. He will offer a full range of products in ,many languages, digitally and also at a few branches, to be located at the most convenient places for his target customers –such as the railway stations in London that serve Heathrow and gatwick airports. Atom bank’s niche, by contrast , is technological. It will be the first british bank to the digital only, with all transactions done through smartphones and tablets, via an app. This ought to lower the banks overheads. set up by Mark Mullen, a former head of branchless bank first direct, and anthony thomson, co-founder of another of the new wave of “challenger” banks, Metro, atom bank should start operating in the second half of this year. Metro bank itself, which started in 2010, is following a quite different road: it is opening new branches almost as quickly as traditional banks like lloyds, RBS, Barclays and HSBC are closing them. The banking sector is currently the subject of a review by the competition and Markets authority, an official watchdog. Most with authority’s criticism that some features of the current banking market “prevent, restrict or distort competition”, in relation to both personal customers and small businesses. The entrepreneurs also claim that their innovative new products new products and technologies will help to address some of those criticisms. Mr. Mullen, for instance, attacks what he calls the opaque pricing of many current accounts: a selling point of atom bank, he claims, is that all its pricing will be utterly transparent.”we will drive change”, he says.

Q. 11 Which of the following is/are correct in the context of the given passage?

I. The young entrepreneur is to start a new bank called unitel.

II. The start-up cost of a new bank is set at 5 million euros.

III. The young entrepreneur promises to open a bank account for a british citizen in just two minutes.

A. only I and II

B. only II and III

C. Only I and III

D. only II

E. all three I, II and III

Q. 12 what should be the most appropriate title of the given passage?

A. state of existing banks in the united kingdom

B. prospective willingness to open new banks in the united kingdom

C. economic slowdown and existing banks

D. hurdles in opening a new bank in london

E. none of these

Q. 13 which of the following statements is not correct in the context of the given passage?

A. since april 2013, three new british banks have come to light.

B. the capital requirements for the start-ups are higher than they used to be.

C. all new entrepreneurs are encouraged by the growing willingness of consumers to change banks

D. A new bank can be up and running just six months after authorisation

E. none of these

Q. 14 new entrants are looking for niches whether in products, customers or technology. Which of the following is not correct in this regard?

A. they are thinking about immigrants as they are treated extremely badly by existing banks.

B. offering a full range of products in many languages and digitally.

C. some branches to be located at the most convenient places for the the target customers.

D. opening bank accounts without proper identification

E. none of these

Q. 15 select the correct statement(s) in the context of the given passage.

I. Atom bank’s niche is technological.

II. Metro bank was started in 2010.

III. Atom bank was set up by mark mullen.

A. only I

B. Only III

C. only I and III

D. only II and III

E. all three I, II and III

Q. 16 select the incorrect statement in the context of the given passage.

A. anthony thomson is co-founder of metro bank.

B. all the pricing of atom bank will be utterly transparent

C. the banking sector is currently the subject or review

D. barclays, HSBC and RBS are new entrants in banking sector

E. none of these

Q. 17 Similar meaning for “Dole out”

A. give out

B. leave

C. borrow

D. cancel

E. accept

Q. 18 Similar meaning to “Appear”

A. seam

B. arrive

C. begin to exist

D. append

E. appease

Q. 19 opposite to “classic”

A. accepted

B. traditional

C. modern

D. elegant

E. musical

Q. 20 opposite to “restrict”

A. impede

B. limit

C. control

D. allow

E. restrain

Questions: 21 – 25

Direction(21-25): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. select the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error,select no error as your answer.ignore the error of punctuations if any.

Q. 21 insurance ombudsman have(1)/sought more power to settle higher(2)/ claim causes as the number(3)/of complaints continue to rise.(4)/no error(5)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 22 The rising cases of dengue across(1)/many Indian states has fastly(2)/turned into new business opportunities (3)/for pharma, FMCG and insurance.(4)/ no error(5)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 23 Earlier studies have shown (1)/ that even drinking water, beverages and soft drinks(2)/were not totally(3)/free of hazardous chemicals.(4)/no error (5)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 24 Over the past two(1)/months, the prices of oil has(2)/surged due to (3)/estimates of less productions. (4)/no error(5)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 25 With the clew of benefits and business friendly policies(1)/acting as a magnet the

government has succeeded in making (2)/ the state the more preferred destinations(3)/ for investments and business.(4)/no error(5)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Questions: 26 – 30

Directions(26-30): In the given passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered against each five words are suggested,one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

India’s private schooled, English speaking urban elite may attract global attention, but they are in the______(26). The vast majority of Indian children______(27) government run preliminary schools in rural areas. In 2008-2009, rural India ______(28)for more than 88 % of India’s primary school students, of whom over 87% were enrolled in government run schools. This is where we see one of the nations____(29) challenges. India’s education system has not achieved strong learning out comes for reasons that are as diverse and_____(30) as the country itself. Key among these reasons is poor teaching quality which results from a multitude of factors.

Q. 26 which word suits the best?

A. minor

B. major

C. majority

D. minority

E. maturity

Q. 27 which word suits the best?

A. go

B. follow

C. attend

D. attended

E. leave

Q. 28 which word suits the best?

A. account

B. accounted

C. arranged

D. counted

E. accumulated

Q. 29 which word suits the best?

A. tougher

B. stricter

C. toughest

D. simplest

E. simpler

Q. 30 which word suits the best?

A. nuanced

B. difference

C. similar

D. simplified

E. divine

Q. 31 A trader has 400 kg of ride. He sells a part of it at a profit of 36% and remaining part at a loss of 24%. He overall loses 12% in the whole transaction.Find the quantity of rice sold at 24% loss.

A. 320 kg

B. 330 kg

C. 300 kg

D. 350 kg

E. none of these

Q. 32 The volume and curved surface area of a right circular cylinder are 462 cu. metre and 264 sq. metre respectively. What is the total surface area of the cylinder?(in sq metre)

A. 332

B. 341

C. 336

D. 431

E. none of these

Q. 33 In a vessel, there is a mixture of apple, orange and mango juices in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 4 respectively. A quantity of 12 litres from the mixture is replaced by 8 litres of apple juice. Thereafter the quantities of apple and orange juices in the resultant mixture become same. Find out the initial quantity of mixture in the vessel.

A. 76 litres

B. 65 litres

C. 60 litres

D. 80 litres

E. none of these

Questions: 34 – 38

what approximate value will come in place of question mark(?) in the following questions. you are not expected to calculate the exact value.

Q. 34 25.01% of 541 ÷ (29.97% of 20.01)+ ?=140

A. 110

B. 145

C. 85

D. 95

E. 125

Q. 35 1680.11-12.03 x 14.93 + ?² = 1644

A. 12

B. 13

C. 14

D. 15

E. none of these

Q. 36 1442 ÷ 36 + 2/9 x 4049 – 125.01 = ?

A. 820

B. 815

C. 840

D. 850

E. none of these

Q. 37 9659 ÷ 20.99 + 7921 ÷ 11.97 = ?

A. 1140

B. 1160

C. 1120

D. 1150

E. none of these

Q. 38 1401 ÷ 34.97 + 21.98 x √626 = ?

A. 590

B. 700

C. 540

D. 550

E. none of these

Questions: 39 – 43

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Number of candidates from a state X who appeared and qualified in a competitive exam during last 5 years.

Q. 39 In 2001, 6400 candidates appeared at the exam and 401 of them qualified males and females was 3: 5. What is the total number of female candidates who qualified in these two years?

A. 1120

B. 1220

C. 1330

D. 1150

E. none of these

Q. 40 In 2004, what percent of male candidates did qualify in the exam among all qualified candidates?

A. 51%

B. 61%

C. 55%

D. 56%

E. none of these

Q. 41 In 2002, 54% of appeared candidates did qualify. How many female candidates did qualify in the exam?

A. 280

B. 170

C. 180

D. 250

E. 240

Q. 42 In 2003, a total of 68 male candidates did qualify . what is the respective ratio will between males and females who had qualified in 2003?

A. 11 : 25

B. 19 : 25

C. 17 : 25

D. 25 : 13

E. 13 : 19

Q. 43 what is the average number of candidates who did not qualify in the exam in the years 2003 and 2005?

A. 1165

B. 1156

C. 1065

D. 1056

E. none of these

Q. 44 There are 6 red balls, 5 yellow and 3 pink balls in an urn. Two balls are drawn at random. what is the probability that none of the drawn balls is of red colour?

A. 8/13

B. 7/13

C. 6/13

D. 5/13

E. 4/13

Questions: 45 – 49

what will come in place of the question mark(?) in the following number series?

Q. 45 4 5.8 9.4 16.6 ? 59.8

A. 31

B. 32

C. 29

D. 33

E. 34

Q. 46 7 6 10 27 104 ?

A. 516

B. 515

C. 525

D. 535

E. 540

Q. 47 139 135 128 116 97 ?

A. 65

B. 68

C. 69

D. 67

E. 80

Q. 48 10 10 16 31 70 ?

A. 156

B. 150

C. 180

D. 184

E. 148

Q. 49 9 4 3 3 4 ?

A. 9.5

B. 8.5

C. 4.5

D. 6.5

E. 7.5

Q. 50 Time taken by a boat in going upstream a certain distance is twice the time taken in going the same distance downstream. Find the speed of boat upstream if it covers 20 km downstream in 1 hour 40 minutes.

A. 6 kmph

B. 7 kmph

C. 6.5 kmph

D. 7.2 kmph

E. none of these

Q. 51 To reach a point B at 10 am from point A, Abhinav travels at an average speed of 15 kmph. He reaches the point B at 12 noon, if he travels at an average speed of 10 kmph. Find the average speed of Abhinav if he intends to reach the point B at 9 am(in kmph)

A. 87/7

B. 120/7

C. 101/7

D. 121/7

E. none of these

Q. 52 B is 8 years older than A and 8 years younger than C. 12 years hence, respective ratio of the ages of A and C will be 5 : 9. What is the sum of present ages A, B and C?

A. 58 years

B. 46 years

C. 48 years

D. 60 years

E. none of these

Questions: 53 – 57

Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Number of tourists visiting country ‘XYZ’ from city A and city B during 6 different months.

Q. 53 What is the difference between the average number of tourists from city A and city B during april , may and june taken together?

A. 63 : 31

B. 64 : 75

C. 31 : 63

D. 11 : 13

E. none of these

Q. 54 By what percent is the number of tourists from state A less than that form state B in the month of june?

A. 13.97

B. 13.27

C. 12.25

D. 14.5

E. 13.8

Q. 55 By what percent the number of tourists from city B increased in august in respect to april ?

A. 36.67

B. 60.57

C. 65.27

D. 66.67

E. none of these

Q. 56 by what percent approximately is the total number of tourists from city A less than that of all tourists from city A less than that of all tourists from city B taking all the months together?

A. 1.5%

B. 2%

C. 4%

D. 3%

E. 2.5%

Q. 57 What is the respective ratio between the total number of tourists from states A and B during april, may and june taken together?

A. 63 : 31

B. 64 : 75

C. 31 : 63

D. 11 : 13

E. none of these

Questions: 58 – 62

In each of the following questions, two equations, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer.

Q. 58 I. x² = 81

II. y² + 13y + 36 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 59 I. 2x² – 11x + 14 = 0

II. 2y² – 7y + 6 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 60 I. 3x² – 13x + 14 = 0

II. 3y² – 17y + 22 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 61 I. 2x² + 9x + 9 = 0

II. 4yv + 9y + 5 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 62 I. x² – 7x + 12 = 0

II. 2y² – 19y + 44 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 63 24 men can complete a piece of work in 28 days. 27 men start working and are replaced by 14 women after 8 days. In how many days will 14 women finish the remaining work?

A. 12 days

B. 14 days

C. 13 days

D. 12 1/2 days

E. 15 days

Q. 64 A gave 40% of his monthly salary of Mr. B. Mr. B spent 20% of this amount on taxi fare. He spent the remaining amount in the respective ratio of 3 : 5 on tuition fees and library membership. If he spent Rs. 1720 for membership, what is A’s monthly salary?

A. Rs. 8500

B. Rs. 8600

C. Rs. 7600

D. Rs. 7500

E. none of these

Q. 65 A invests a certain sum in scheme A at compound interest(compounded annually) of 10% per annum for 2 years. In scheme B he invests at simple interest of 8% per annum for 2 years. He invests in schemes A and B in the ratio of 1 : 2. The difference between the interests earned from both the schemes in Rs. 990. Find the amount invested in scheme A.

A. Rs. 7500

B. Rs. 8000

C. Rs. 9000

D. Rs. 8500

E. Rs. 8600

Questions: 66 – 70

In a certain code language, “offer prayers to god” is written as ‘bi gv oc st’. “prayers for school assembly” is written as ‘tm oc da pu’. “school offer special education” is written as ‘nh mk tm gv’. “assembly must to school” is written as ‘da st rx tm’

All the codes are two letter codes.

Q. 66 what is the code for ‘must’ in the given code language ?

A. da

B. other than those given as options

C. rx

D. tm

E. st

Q. 67 what is the code for ‘education’ in the given code language?

A. either ‘mk’ or ‘nh’

B. either ‘tm’ or ‘gv’

C. mk

D. nh

E. tm

Q. 68 If ‘school to home’ is coded as ‘aj tm st’ in the given code language, then how ‘home for god’ will be coded ?

A. pu gv aj

B. bi aj oc

C. da bi st

D. aj bi pu

E. bi mk rx

Q. 69 What may be the possible code for ‘school must offer training’ in the language ?

A. rx gv mk tm

B. tm rk rx gv

C. oc gv oc bi

D. st gv oc bi

E. gv da nh pu

Q. 70 what does the code ‘da’ stand for in the given code language?

A. school

B. to

C. prayers

D. other than those given as options

E. assembly

Questions: 71 – 75

Directions(71-75) : In each of the following questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.

give answer(1) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.

give answer (2) if either conclusion I is true.

give answer (3) If only conclusion I is true

give answer (4) if only conclusion II is true

give answer (5) i both the conclusion I and conclusion II are true

Q. 71 statements: F < R ≤ E ≥ A > K ; Y ≥ E

conclusion : I. A > F

II. R ≥ K

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 72 statements: F < R ≤ E ≥ A > K ; Y ≥ E

conclusions: I. Y > K

II. F < Y

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 73 statements : B < R ≤ E = A ≥ D ≥ S; D ≥ C ≤ J

conclusions : I. E > C II. E = C

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 74 statements : B < R ≤ E = A ≥ D ≥ S; D ≥ C ≤ J

conclusions : I. D ≥ S II. E ≥ S

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 75 statement : A > B ≥ C < D < E ≤ F

conclusions : I. C < F II. A ≥ E

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Questions: 76 – 80

Directions(76-80): In each of the following questions, two/ three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II are given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance form the commonly known as facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known as facts.

give answer (1): if only conclusion I follows.

give answer (2): if only conclusion II follows

give answer (3): if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

give answer(4): if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

give answer(5): if both the conclusion I and conclusion II follows

Q. 76 statements:

some slides are photos.

all photos are images.

all images are creations.

conclusions:

I. at least some images are slides.

II. all photos are creations.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 77 statements:

no space is a gap.

all fissures are gaps.

no gap is a crack.

conclusions:

I. no space is crack.

II. no fissure is a crack.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 78 statements:

no loss is a profit.

some profits are gains.

conclusions:

I. no gain is a loss.

II. some gains are losses.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 79 statements:

all points are views.

no view is an idea.

some ideas are thoughts.

conclusions:

I. some thoughts being points is a possibility.

II. no view is a thought.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Q. 80 statements:

all points are views.

no view is an idea.

some ideas are thoughts.

conclusions:

I. at least some ideas are points.

II. all thoughts being ideas is a possibility.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

Questions: 81 – 82

U is the mother of D. S is the sister of D. L is the father of S. L has only one daughter. M is the daughter of S. P is the daughter of D.

Q. 81 If R is married to S, then how is R related to U ?

A. grandson

B. nephew

C. son-in-law

D. uncle

E. cannot be determined

Q. 82 How is S related to P?

A. aunt

B. sister

C. mother

D. niece

E. grandmother

Questions: 83 – 85

six sales persons- U,V,W,X,Y and Z- sell insurance policies. Each of them sold different number of policies. U sold more policies than both Y and Z but less than X.

Z sold more policies than only W. X did not sell the highest number of policies. Third highest number of policies sold is equal to

Q. 83 who among the following did sell exactly 33 policies?

A. X

B. Y

C. Z

D. U

E. cannot be determined

Q. 84 which of the following may represent the number of policies sold by Z?

A. 26

B. 19

C. 9

D. 36

E. 28

Q. 85 who among the following did sell less policies than only V ?

A. U

B. Y

C. X

D. Z

E. cannot be determined

Questions: 86 – 90

directions(86-90): study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing five persons each in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row–1,D,E,F,G and H are seated and all of them are facing south but not necessarily in the same order. In row–2,T,U,V,W and X are seated and all of them are facing north but not necessarily in the same order. Therefore in the given seating arrangement each member of the other row. V sits exactly in the middle of the row. The one who faces V sits to the immediate left of F. H is an immediate neighbour of F but does not face V. W sits second to left of U. U faces the one who is an immediate neighbour of D, G is not an immediate neighbour of D,G does not sit at the extreme end of the row. X does not face H.

Q. 86 who amongst the following its facing V ?

A. G

B. E

C. F

D. D

E. cannot be determined

Q. 87 which of the following statements is true regarding T ?

A. T faces F

B. only two persons sit to the left of T

C. T sits to the immediate left of T

D. U sits fourth to the right of T

E. None of the given statements is true.

Q. 88 what is the position of D with respect to F?

A. third to the right

B. second to the right

C. immediate left

D. third to the left

E. second to the left

Q. 89 fourth of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and hence they form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group ?

A. H

B. T

C. X

D. D

E. U

Q. 90 who amongst the following is facing F ?

A. T

B. W

C. V

D. X

E. U

Questions: 91 – 95

Eight persons- J, K , L M ,Q, R, S and T –are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them is related to M in some way or the other. Two persons are sitting between Q and L. M is sitting second to the left of Q. Three persons are sitting between L and the wife of M. The son of M is sitting second to the right of the wife of M. Three persons are sitting between the son of M and the brother of M. The daughter of M is sitting second to the left of the brother of M. J is sitting to the intermediate right of the R. R is neither son nor wife of M. The sister of M is sitting to the immediate right of the sister of M. Two persons are sitting between K and the father of M. T is sitting second to the right of the mother of M.

Q. 91 who amongst the following is the brother of M?

A. L

B. S

C. T

D. R

E. J

Q. 92 What is the position of M’s daughter with respect to M’s son ?

A. third to right

B. second to the left

C. third to the left

D. second to the right

E. immediate right

Q. 93 who amongst the following is the wife of M?

A. K

B. S

C. R

D. L

E. T

Q. 94 Which of the following statements is true regarding the given seating arrangement ?

A. M’s father is sitting to the immediate left of M’s son

B. only four persons are sitting between S and J

C. M is sitting exactly between his daughter and brother

D. M’s wife is sitting just opposite to M’s father

E. none of the given statements is true.

Q. 95 who amongst the following is the sister of M?

A. R

B. S

C. L

D. J

E. Q

Questions: 96 – 100

Seven persons- O, P, Q, R, S, T and U–attended a farewell party in the months of february, march, april, may, july, october and december but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them likes different stationery items viz., pen, stapler, ruler, solder, envelope, label and worksheet but not necessarily in the same order. The one who likes envelope attended a farewell party in that month which has less than 31 days. T attended farewell party between O and the who likes folder. O does not like label. The one who likes pen attended farewell party immediately before the one who like worksheet. S does not like ruler. The person who likes label attended the farewell party in the month having less than 31 days.

Q. 96 which one of the following stationery items is liked by T?

A. Pen

B. folder

C. label

D. stapler

E. worksheet

Q. 97 which of the following combinations of month-person-stationery item is correct?

A. march-U-pen

B. july-O-pen

C. october-S-label

D. may-Q-ruler

E. april-T-envelope

Q. 98 which of the following statements is true with respect to the given arrangement?

A. Q attended farewell party in october

B. O likes worksheet

C. R attended farewell party immediately before S

D. S attended farewell party in july

E. none of the given statements is true

Q. 99 who among the following attended the farewell party in April?

A. T

B. O

C. Q

D. R

E. P

Q. 100 who among the following attended the farewell party immediately after R ?

A. S

B. Q

C. O

D. U

E. P

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	E	C	D	B	A	B	A	D	E	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	B	B	D	E	D	A	C	C	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	B	C	B	C	D	C	B	B	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	B	C	C	A	B	C	A	B	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	C	D	E	A	B	C	D	C	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	C	A	C	E	B	B	A	A	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	B	A	B	C	C	A	E	B	E
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	E	B	D	C	E	B	C	A	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	A	B	D	C	A	C	D	E	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	E	A	E	C	D	B	A	E	C

IBPS PO Prelims Exam 2015 Previous Year Paper

IBPS PO Prelims Exam 2015

Date: 04-10-2015

Question: 1-5

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with error as your answer. If there is no error, mark (5) as your answer.

Q. 1 How serious is the country’s economic problems, and how big an impact will these have on the world economies?

A. How serious is the country’s

B. economic problems, and how

C. big an impact will these

D. have on the world economies?

E. No error

Q. 2 Shuber, the taxi service provider, is growing like a weed, spending millions of rupees to establish its roots in the country.

A. Shuber, the taxi service provider, is

B. growing like a weed,

C. spending millions of rupees

D. to establish its roots in the country

E. No error

Q. 3 The survey asked respondents from more than 50 countries to identify kinds of people they would want of neighbours

A. The survey asked respondents

B. from more than 50 countries to

C. identify kinds of people

D. they would want of neighbours

E. No error

Q. 4 The pace and scale of the country’s economic transformation have no historical precedent.

A. The pace and scale of

B. the country’s economic transformation

C. have no

D. historical precedent.

E. No error

Q. 5 The countries most affected by the economic slowdown are likely to be those whose export raw materials.

A. The countries most

B. affected by the economic slowdown

C. are likely to be

D. those whose export raw materials

E. No error

Questions: 6 – 10

Rearrange the given six sentences/group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.

A. “It’s undefined. No one knows if you reach it. It gives the flexibility to revive it later,” he added.

B. Of late, doubts are being raised concerning the health of the world’s second largest economy, China.

C. This change is relatively small but suggests that the country’s effort to meet its official growth target was tougher than it seemed.

D. It comes as worries grow that China will struggle to reach this year’s goal of ‘about’ 7%.

E. “That’s the beauty of using ‘about’ in your targets,” said IHS Global Insight economist Brain Jackson.

F. The reason for these doubts stem from the fact that the country revised its 2014 growth rate to 7.3% from 7.5% due to a weaker-than-reported contribution from the service sector.

Q. 6 Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

A. A

B. C

C. B

D. F

E. E

Q. 7 Which of the following should be the SIXTH (last) sentence after rearrangement?

A. C

B. F

C. D

D. B

E. A

Q. 8 Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

A. A

B. D

C. C

D. F

E. E

Q. 9 Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

A. A

B. B

C. F

D. D

E. C

Q. 10 Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

A. A

B. E

C. D

D. F

E. C

Questions: 11 – 15

Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set o words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

Q. 11 ____________________ he had mixed success in the past with his new technique; this time around the player had enough _______________ up his sleeve to win this match.

A. Since, talent

B. Despite, drama

C. Although, tricks

D. Because, energy

E. Hence, magic

Q. 12 Name of the roles offered to me _____________ the strong, funny and dynamic Indian woman that I had grown up _____________

A. stated, today

B. said, surrounded

C. reflected, around

D. depicted, to

E. assessed, within

Q. 13 The _____________ to the free sim-card scheme offered by the telecom company has been __________________ and most people expressed complete ignorance about the scheme.

A. reaction, stupendous

B. access, cordial

C. contract, simple

D. takers, high

E. response, abysmal

Q. 14 In our close relations it is easy to come ________________ clever men and women, but _______________ to find virtuous ones.

A. find, simpler

B. up, arduous

C. see, terrible

D. across, difficult

E. close, impossible

Q. 15 Due to the ______________________ number of swine – flu cases in the district, the health department has decided to spread _________________ about the disease.

A. raising, alertness

B. populates, knowledge

C. prolonged, understanding

D. increasing, awareness

E. high, ability

Questions: 16 – 25

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are quoted to help you locate them while answering some of the question.

There is good news in the form of Europe’s unemployment falling from 11.1% in June to 10.0% in July. But unemployment generally lags behind the economic cycle. Business survey, which provide more up-to-date readings of activity, point to a continuing “subdued” recovery in Europe. The European commission’s longrunning economic-sentiment indicator, which combines business as well as consumer confidence and tends to track GDP has been “broadly” stable since picking up in early 2015. This suggests that the Euro area is not about to break out of its unspectacular growth. This is worrying because the euro-zone economy is benefitting from a powerful triple stimulus. Lower energy costs caused by the slump in global oil prices have been providing the same effect as a tax cut. A big programme of quantitative easing (QE), has been under way since, early in the year under which the European Central Bank (ECB) is creating money to buy 60 billion ($67 billion) of pounds each month. As well as pushing down long-term interest rates QE has helped to keep the euro down on the currency markets to the benefit of exporters. Given the extent of help that the euro area has been getting, growth should be faster. The sluggish performance leaves it vulnerable to China’s slowdown. A particular worry is the impact of weakening Chinese growth on Germany, the hub economy of the region, whose resilience has been crucial in sustaining Europe since the euro crisis started five years ago. One reason has been strong Chinese demand for traditional German manufacturing strengths. Even though German exports appear to be holding up for the time being, that boost from China is waning. Lacklustre growth in the euro area will in turn make it harder for the ECB to meet its goal of pushing inflation back towards its goal of almost 2%. Although core inflation (excluding in particular energy and food) has moved up from its low of 0.6% earlier this year, to 1.0% headline inflation has been stuck at 0.2% over the summer. There is increasing concern that the ECB’s effort to break the “grip” of “lowflation” will be swamped by `global deflationary effects. The ECB’S council is not expected to make a change in policy and is likely to indicate that the ECB recognises the downside risk to growth and stands ready to respond if they “materialise”. That may in turn produce a policy erasing later this year. One option would be to raise the amount of assets that it is buying each month from the current amount of 60 billion. A more likely decision would be for the ECB to extend the planned length of its purchase some for another year. Whether that is enough is question for another day.

Q. 16 What is the author’s view regarding the reforms implemented by ECB?

A. He is outraged that these measures are being continued.

B. He is doubtful about the reforms as inflation is rising.

C. These reforms are tough and unpopular in Euro countries.

D. These are not focused and have not been effective at all.

E. Other than those given as options.

Q. 17 What do the statistics cited in the passage about ECB convey?

A. Its stimulus package or Europe’s economy is too low in value.

B. ECB is likely to fast run out of ‘bailout’ funds.

C. Despite the ECB’s best efforts, its reforms have been unsuccessful.

D. It is time ECB withdraws its stimulus package to rich countries.

E. ECB has not been proactive in the economic recovery.

Q. 18 Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word SUBDUED given in the passage.

A. Passive

B. Necessary

C. Sleep

D. Diluted

E. Expensive

Q. 19 Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word BROADLY given in the passage.

A. Widely

B. Barely

C. Softly

D. Responsibly

E. Dimly

Q. 20 Which of the following best describes the conclusion which can be drawn from economic indicators from Europe?

A. Investors do not have confidence in European markets.

B. Germany is the only economy unaffected by the crisis of 2008 and China’s slowdown.

C. Tax rates in Europe are being raised which has hampered growth.

D. By and large Europe’s economic performance is steady but not accelerating.

E. Europe has not taken measures to protect itself from the crisis in emerging markets.

Q. 21 Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?

A. Germany’s economic performance is linked to the Chinese market.

B. Europe’s large economies have recovered from the global crisis

C. Exorbitant oil prices are negating the effects of ECB’s stimulus

D. Europe’s unemployment rate is rising but it may not continue to do so.

E. None of the given options is true in the context of the passage.

Q. 22 According to the passage, which of the following has affected inflation in Europe?

A. Global deflation is prevailing.

B. Frequent rising of ECB’s interest rates.

C. The ECB has withdrawn its Quantitative Erasing programme.

A. Only B

B. Only A

C. All A, B & C

D. Only A & C

E. Only B & C

Q. 23 Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word MATERIALISE used in the passage.

A. Disappear

B. Perform

C. Terrorise

D. Occur

E. Substance

Q. 24 Which of the following is the central idea of the passage?

A. The European economy is buoyant as its energy and manufacturing sectors are doing well.

B. Emerging markets have been responsible for Europe’s slow economic performance.

C. The European Central Bank is in denial about the imminent crisis Europe is facing.

D. Europe has reduced its exposure to America and Asia

E. The European economy is stagnating leaving it vulnerable to future crisis

Q. 25 Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word GRIP used in the passage.

A. Understanding

B. Authority

C. Awareness

D. Clutches

E. Fascination

Questions: 26 – 30

In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. Creating a few more schools or allowing hundreds of colleges and private universities to …. (26) …. is not going to solve the crisis of education in India. And a crisis it is- we are in a country where people are spending their parents’ savings and borrowed money on education – and even then not getting standard education, and struggling to find employment of their … (27) …. In this country, millions of students are … (28) … of an unrealistic, pointless, mindless rat race.

The mind numbing competition and rote learning not only … (29) … the creativity and originality of millions of Indian students every year, but also … (30) … brilliant students to adopt drastic measures.

Q. 26 Select the suitable word for the Blank (26)

A. base

B. mushroom

C. point

D. set

E. crop

Q. 27 Select the suitable word for the Blank (27)

A. parents

B. money

C. fashion

D. equal

E. choice

Q. 28 Select the suitable word for the Blank (28)

A. victims

B. member

C. party

D. associates

E. together

Q. 29 Select the suitable word for the Blank (29)

A. crush

B. flourish

C. stir

D. halting

E. push

Q. 30 Select the suitable word for the Blank (30)

A. aim

B. drive

C. stop

D. responsible

E. make

Questions: 31 – 35

Refer to the table (Given in figure) and answer the given questions:

Note:

I. Employees of the given companies can be categorized only in three types:

Science graduates, Commerce graduates and Arts graduates.

II. Few values are missing in the table (indicated by …). A candidate is expected to

calculate the missing value, if it is required to answer the given questions, on the basis of the given data and information.

Q. 31 What is the difference between the number of Arts graduate employees and Science graduate employees in Company N?

A. 87

B. 89

C. 77

D. 81

E. 73

Q. 32 The average number of Arts graduate employees and Commerce graduate employees in Company Q was 312. What was the total number of employees in Company Q?

A. 920

B. 960

C. 1120

D. 1040

E. 1080

Q. 33 If the respective ratio between the number of Commerce graduate employees and Arts graduate employees in Company M was 10 : 7, what was the number of Arts graduate employees in M?

A. 294

B. 266

C. 280

D. 308

E. 322

Q. 34 Total number of employees in Company N increased by 20% from December, 2012 to December, 2013, If 20% of the total number of employees in Company N in December, 2013 was Science graduates, what was the number of Science graduate employees in Company N in December, 2013?

A. 224

B. 266

C. 168

D. 252

E. 238

Q. 35 Total number of employees in Company P was 3 times the total number of employees in Company O. If the difference between number of Arts graduate employees in Company P and that in Company O was 180, what was the total number of employees in Company O?

A. 1200

B. 1440

C. 720

D. 900

E. 1080

Q. 36 A bag contains 6 red balls, 11 yellow balls and 5 pink balls. If two balls are drawn at random from the bag, one after another, what is the probability that first ball is red and the second ball is yellow?

A. 1/14

B. 2/7

C. 5/7

D. 3/14

E. None of these

Q. 37 The sum of the radius and height of a cylinder is 19 m. The total surface area of the cylinder is 1672 m², what is the volume of the cylinder? (in m³)

A. 3080

B. 2940

C. 3220

D. 2660

E. 2800

Questions: 38 – 42

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?

Q. 38 264 262 271 243 308 ?

A. 216

B. 163

C. 194

D. 205

E. 182

Q. 39 1.5 2.5 7 24 100 ?

A. 345

B. 460

C. 525

D. 380

E. 505

Q. 40 71 78 92 120 ? 288

A. 160

B. 164

C. 199

D. 208

E. 176

Q. 41 17 9 10 16.5 35 ?

A. 192

B. 90

C. 114

D. 76

E. 80

Q. 42 79 39 19 9 4 ?

A. 0.2

B. 1.5

C. 0.5

D. 2

E. 1

Q. 43 The respective ratio between the speed of the boat upstream and speed of the boat

downstream is 2 : 3. What is the speed of the boat in still water if it covers 42 km

downstream in 2 hours 20 minutes ? (in km/h)

A. 13.5

B. 15

C. 12

D. 11

E. 10

Q. 44 24 men can finish a piece of work in 18 days. 30 women can finish the same piece of work in 12 days. In how many days 16 men and 224 women together can finish the same piece of work?

A. 8 5/14

B. 10 11/14

C. 9 9/14

D. 9 1/7

E. 8 8/7

Q. 45 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions.

421 ÷ 35 x 299.97 ÷ 25.05 = ?²

A. 22

B. 24

C. 28

D. 12

E. 18

Q. 46 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions.

√197 x 6.99 + 626.96 = ?

A. 885

B. 725

C. 825

D. 650

E. 675

Q. 47 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions.

19.99 x 15.98 + 224.98 + 125.02 = ?

A. 620

B. 580

C. 670

D. 560

E. 520

Q. 48 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions.

3214.99 + 285.02 + 600.02 – 4.01 = ?

A. 3650

B. 4120

C. 4200

D. 3225

E. 4096

Q. 49 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions.

?% of 1239.96 + 59.87% of 449.95 = 579.05

A. 35

B. 15

C. 25

D. 20

E. 30

Q. 50 A man sold an article for Rs. 6800/- and incurred a loss. Has he sold the article for Rs. 7,850, his gain would have been equal to half of the amount of loss that he incurred. At what price should he sell the article to have 20% profit?

A. Rs. 7,500/-

B. Rs. 9,000/-

C. Rs. 8,000/-

D. Rs. 8,500/-

E. Rs. 10,000/-

Q. 51 A, B and C started a business by investing Rs. 20,000/-, Rs. 28,000/- and Rs. 36,000/- respectively. After 6b months, A and B withdrew an amount of Rs. 8,000/- each and C invested an additional amount of Rs. 8,000/-. All of them invested for equal period of time. If at the end of the year, C got Rs. 12,550/- as his share of profit, what was the total profit earned?

A. Rs. 25,100/-

B. Rs. 26,600/-

C. Rs. 24,300/-

D. Rs. 22.960/-

E. Rs. 21,440/-

Questions: 52 – 56

In these questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equation and give answers.

Q. 52 I. 3x² + 11x + 6 = 0

II. 3y² 10 y + 8 = 0

A. If x ≥ y

B. If x ≤ y

C. If x > y

D. If x < y

E. If relation between x and y cannot be established.

Q. 53 I. 3x² – 7x + 2 = 0

II. 2y² – 9y + 10 = 0

A. If x ≥ y

B. If x ≤ y

C. If x > y

D. If x < y

E. If relation between x and y cannot be established.

Q. 54 I. x² = 9

II. 2y² – 19y + 44 = 0

A. If x ≥ y

B. If x ≤ y

C. If x > y

D. If x < y

E. If relation between x and y cannot be established.

Q. 55 I. 2x² – 15x + 28 = 0

II. 4y² – 23 y + 30 = 0

A. If x ≥ y

B. If x ≤ y

C. If x > y

D. If x < y

E. If relation between x and y cannot be established

Q. 56 I. 2x² – 15x + 27 = 0

II. 5y² – 26y + 33 = 0

A. If x ≥ y

B. If x ≤ y

C. If x > y

D. If x < y

E. If relation between x and y cannot be established.

Questions: 57 – 61

Refer to the graph (given in figure) and answer the questions.

Q. 57 What is the average number of watches sold in Town X in January, February, March and June?

A. 180

B. 190

C. 175

D. 170

E. 185

Q. 58 The number of watches sold in Town Y in April is what percent more than the number of watches sold in Town X in the same month?

A. 42%

B. 40%

C. 30%

D. 50%

E. 38%

Q. 59 The number of watches sold in Town Y increased by what percent from February to May?

A. 96%

B. 92 1/3%

C. 97%

D. 91 2/3%

E. 95 2/3%

Q. 60 The number of watches sold in Town X in July was 10% more than the number of watches sold in the same town in May. What is the respective ratio between the number of watches sold in July and those sold in January in the same town?

A. 34 : 23

B. 32 : 25

C. 31 : 20

D. 33 : 23

E. 33 : 20

Q. 61 What is the difference between the total number of watches sold in both the towns together in June and the total number of watches sold in both the towns together in March?

A. 50

B. 90

C. 60

D. 70

E. 80

Q. 62 A tank has two inlets: P and Q. P alone takes 6 hours and Q alone takes 8 hours to fill the empty tank completely when there is no leakage. A leakage was caused which would empty the full tank completely in ‘X’ hours when no inlet is opened. Now, when only inlet P was opened, it took 15 hours to fill the empty tank completely. How much time will Q alone take to fill the empty tank completely? (in hours)

A. 40 hours

B. 36 hours

C. 30 hours

D. 42 hours

E. 38 hours

Q. 63 At present, the respective ratio between the ages of A and B is 3 : 8 and that between A and C is 1 : 4. 3 years ago, the sum of ages of A, B and C will be 83 years. What is the present age of C?

A. 32 years

B. 12 years

C. 48 years

D. 54 years

Q. 64 The sum invested in Scheme B is thrice the sum invested in Scheme A. Investment in Scheme A is made for 4 years at 8% p.a. simple interest and in Scheme B for years at 13% p.a. simple interest. The total interest earned from both the schemes is Rs. 1320/-. How much was invested in Scheme A?

A. Rs. 1200/-

B. Rs. 1140/-

C. Rs. 960/-

D. Rs. 1500/-

E. Rs. 840/-

Q. 65 Kim and Om are travelling from point A to B, which are 400 km apart. Travelling at a certain speed Kim takes one hour more than Om to reach B. If Kim doubles her speed she will take 1 hour 30 mins less than Om to reach point B. At what speed was Om driving from point A to B? (in km/h)

A. 90 km/h

B. 70 km/h

C. 160 km/h

D. 80 km/h

E. 100 km/h

Questions: 66 – 70

In these questions, two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statemnets disregarding commonly known facts.

Q. 66 Statements:

Some tasks are hurdles.

All hurdles are jobs.

Some jobs are works.

Conclusions:

I. All works being hurdles is a possibility.

II. At least some works are tasks.

A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

B. If either conclusion I or II is true.

C. If only conclusion I is true.

D. If both conclusions I and II are true.

E. If only conclusion II is true.

Q. 67 Statements:

Some tasks are hurdles.

All hurdles are jobs.

Some jobs are works.

Conclusions:

I. Some jobs are tasks.

II. All jobs are tasks.

A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

B. If either conclusion I or II is true.

C. If only conclusion I is true.

D. If both conclusions I and II are true.

E. If only conclusion II is true.

Q. 68 Statements:

Some problems are solutions.

No solution is a trick.

All rules are tricks.

Conclusions:

I. No rule is a solution.

II. Some problems are definitely not tricks.

A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

B. If either conclusion I or II is true.

C. If only conclusion I is true.

D. If both conclusions I and II are true.

E. If only conclusion II is true.

Q. 69 Statements:

All ministers are deans.

Some deans are heads.

Some heads are principals.

Conclusions:

I. No principal is a minister.

II. All heads being ministers is a possibility.

A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

B. If either conclusion I or II is true.

C. If only conclusion I is true.

D. If both conclusions I and II are true.

E. If only conclusion II is true.

Q. 70 Statements:

No queue is a line.

Some queues are rows.

Conclusions:

I. No row is a line.

II. All rows are lines.

A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

B. If either conclusion I or II is true.

C. If only conclusion I is true.

D. If both conclusions I and II are true.

E. If only conclusion II is true.

Questions: 71 – 72

Study the following information to answer the given questions:

D is the father of A. D is married to P. P is the mother of J. P has only one daughter. J is married to U. U is the son of L.

Q. 71 How is J related to L?

A. Daughter

B. Granddaughter

C. Cannot be determined

D. Niece

E. Daughter-in-law

Q. 72 How is A related to U?

A. Cannot be determined

B. Brother-in-law

C. Brother

D. Sister

E. Sister-in-law

Questions: 73 – 77

Study the following information to answer the given questions:

Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there us equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1 – J, K, L, M, and N are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing north. In row 2 – R, S, T, U, and V are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing south. Therefore in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. V sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. Only two people sit between V and R. The one who faces R sits to the immediate left of L. Only one person sits between L and K. The one who faces K sits to the immediate left of S. N sits second to the right of J. Neither K nor L face U.

Q. 73 Who amongst the following is facing M?

A. U

B. R

C. T

D. V

E. S

Q. 74 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of them does not belong to that group?

A. NK

B. JL

C. ML

D. RU

E. ST

Q. 75 What is the position of U with respect to S?

A. Third to the right

B. Immediate left

C. Second to the left

D. Second to the right

E. Immediate right

Q. 76 Which of the following statements is true regarding N?

A. Only two persons sit between N and M

B. N sit at an extreme end of the row.

C. N faces one of the immediate neighbours of R

D. None of the given statement is true

E. L sits to the immediate right of N

Q. 77 Who amongst the following is facing T?

A. N

B. M

C. K

D. J

E. L

Questions: 78 – 82

Q. 78 Statements :

P < L ≤ A = N ≥ E ≥ D; Q ≥ N < O

Conclusions:

I. L ≤ E

II. P < Q

A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

B. If either conclusion I or II is true

C. If only conclusion I is true

D. If both conclusion I and II are true

E. If only conclusion II is true

Q. 79 Statements:

P < L ≤ A = N ≥ E ≥ D; Q ≥ N < O

Conclusions:

I. Q ≥ D

II. A < D

A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

B. If either conclusion I or II is true

C. If only conclusion I is true

D. If both conclusion I and II are true

E. If only conclusion II is true

Q. 80 Statement:

P ≤ U = N ≤ C ≥ H > S; K ≥ C

Conclusion:

I. P ≤ C

II. U > H

A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

B. If either conclusion I or II is true

C. If only conclusion I is true

D. If both conclusion I and II are true

E. If only conclusion II is true

Q. 81 Statement:

P ≤ U = N ≤ C ≥ H > S; K ≥ C

Conclusions;

I. K > U

II. U = K

A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

B. If either conclusion I or II is true

C. If only conclusion I is true

D. If both conclusion I and II are true

E. If only conclusion II is true

Q. 82 Statements:

D ≥ I > S ≥ M ≤ A < L

Conclusions:

I. D ≥ A

II. L > I

A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

B. If either conclusion I or II is true

C. If only conclusion I is true

D. If both conclusion I and II are true

E. If only conclusion II is true

Questions: 83 – 87

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

In certain code language,

‘committee to review papers’ is written as ‘es fr re pt’

‘review meeting in morning’ is written as ‘ch ba mo fr’

‘meeting to appoint members’ is written as ‘re dv ch gi’

‘appoint chairman in review’ is written as ‘mo gi fr yu’

(All the codes are two letter codes only)

Q. 83 What is the code for ‘morning’ in the given code language?

A. mo

B. yu

C. ch

D. Other than those given as options

E. ba

Q. 84 In the given code language, what does the code ‘pt’ stands for?

A. appoint

B. Either ‘papers’ or ‘committee’

C. morning

D. review

E. Either ‘for’ or ‘members’

Q. 85 What is the code for ‘review call’ in the given code language?

A. dv lq

B. lq gi

C. lq fr

D. gi es

E. fr dv

Q. 86 What is the code for ‘to’ in the given code language?

A. mo

B. fr

C. gi

D. dv

E. re

Q. 87 If ‘appoint new members’ is coded as ‘dv wz gi’ in the given code language, then what is the code for ‘new chairman meeting’?

A. wz ch es

B. ch wz yu

C. yu mo wz

D. fr es wz

E. ch yu fr

Questions: 88 – 92

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

C, D, E, F, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre with equal distance between each other (but not necessarily in the same order). Each one of them is also related to D in some way or the other. P sits third to the right of E. D sits to the immediate left of E. Only one person sits between P and D’s son. R sits to the immediate right of D’s son. Only three people sit between D’s husband and R. Only one person sits between D’s husband and C. F sits to the immediate right of Q. D’s father sits second to the right of F. Only three people sit between D’s father and D’s brother. D’s daughter sits second to the right of S. D’s sister sits third to the right of D’s mother.

Q. 88 Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to the given information?

A. S is the brother of R.

B. Only three people sit between Q and S.

C. E sits third to the right of D’s daughter.

D. All the given options are true.

E. R is an immediate neighbour of D.

Q. 89 Who amongst the following is the brother of D?

A. Q

B. E

C. F

D. C

E. R

Q. 90 As per the given seating arrangement, Q : P in the same way as R : E. Then following the same pattern D : ?

A. R

B. S

C. Q

D. C

E. F

Q. 91 Who sits to the immediately left of D’s son?

A. D’s father

B. R

C. Q

D. S

E. D’s mother

Q. 92 How is Q related to P?

A. Sister

B. Sister-in-law

C. Niece

D. Brother-in-law

E. Aunt

Questions: 93 – 95

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Each of the six buses R, S, T, U, V and W has different number of occupants. T has more number of participants than R and S but less than V. U has less number of occupants than only W. S does not have the lowest number of occupants. The bus having second lowest number of occupants has 20 occupants and the bus having second highest number of occupants has 64 occupants. T has 21 less number of occupants than U.

Q. 93 Which of the following buses has third lowest number of occupants?

A. S

B. T

C. R

D. U

E. V

Q. 94 If the number of occupants of bus R is more than 7 and is an odd number which is divisible by 3 but not 5, how many occupants are there in bus R?

A. 9

B. 21

C. 15

D. 27

E. 19

Q. 95 How many occupants does bus V possibly have?

A. 43

B. 72

C. 52

D. 36

E. 68

Questions: 96 – 100

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Seven people namely M, N, O, P, Q, R and S have an anniversary but not necessarily in the same order, in seven different months (of the same year) namely February, March, April, June, September, October and November. Each of them also likes a different flower namely Rose, Jasmine, Lily, Marigold, Daffodil, Sunflower and Orcngbnmko0hid but not necessarily in the same order. R has an anniversary in the month which has more than 30 days. Only one person has an anniversary between R and the one who likes rose. Both S and O have an anniversary in one of the months after the one who likes Rose. S has an anniversary immediately before O. The one who likes Lily has an anniversary in the month which has less than 30 days. Only three people have an anniversary between the one who likes Lily and the one who likes Orchid. Only two people have an anniversary between S and the one who likes Marigold. P has an anniversary immediately after the one who likes Marigold. Only two people have an anniversary between P and Q. M has an anniversary immediately before the one who likes Jasmine. O does not like Sunflower.

Q. 96 Which of the following represents the month in which S has an anniversary?

A. Cannot be determined

B. October

C. March

D. April

E. September

Q. 97 Which of the following does O like?

A. Rose

B. Jasmine

C. Marigold

D. Daffodil

E. Orchid

Q. 98 As per the given arrangement, Lily is related to April and Marigold is related to September following a certain pattern, which of the following is Orchid related to following the same pattern?

A. February

B. June

C. October

D. November

E. March

Q. 99 Which of the following represents the people who have an anniversary in April and November respectively?

A. N, M

B. Q, M

C. Q, O

D. N, O

E. N, S

Q. 100 How many people have an anniversary between the months in which Q and M have an anniversary?

A. None

B. One

C. Three

D. Two

E. More than three

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	D	D	C	D	C	E	C	C	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	C	E	B	D	B	C	A	B	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	D	A	E	D	B	E	A	A	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	B	A	C	D	E	A	E	E	E
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	B	B	C	D	B	C	E	C	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	E	B	D	E	A	D	B	D	E
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	A	C	A	E	A	C	D	A	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	E	B	A	C	A	A	E	E	C	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	A	E	B	C	E	B	B	D	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	E	B	A	C	B	D	D	D	C

IBPS PO Prelims Exam 2016 Previous Year Paper

IBPS PO 2016 Prelims

Section Quantitative Aptitude	Questions 25 Questions	Marks 25
Data Interpretation	10 Questions (16 – 25)	10
English	30 Questions (36 – 65)	30
Logical Reasoning	35 Questions (66 – 100)	35

Q. 1 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

1, 7, 49, 343, ?

A. 16807

B. 1227

C. 2058

D. 2401

E. None of these

Q. 2 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

13, 20, 39, 78, 145, (?)

A. 234

B. 244

C. 236

D. 248

E. None of these

Q. 3 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

12 , 35, 81, 173, 357, (?)

A. 725

B. 715

C. 726

D. 736

E. None of these

Q. 4 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

3, 100, 297, 594, 991, (?)

A. 1489

B. 1479

C. 1478

D. 1498

E. None of these

Q. 5 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

112, 119, 140, 175, 224, (?)

A. 277

B. 276

C. 287

D. 266

E. None of these

Q. 6 What approximate value should come in place of question mark in the following equations.

(6.23/34.98) x 24.999 = ?

A. 560

B. 540

C. 520

D. 580

E. 600

Q. 7 What approximate value should come in place of question mark in the following equations.

(4722+3272+5324)/(491+769+132)=?

A. 40

B. 10

C. 15

D. 25

E. 20

Q. 8 What approximate value should come in place of question mark in the following equations.

22 (1/3) % of 435.1 – 11/7 of 1734.68 = ?

A. 59

B. 62

C. 50

D. 69

E. 78

Q. 9 What approximate value should come in place of question mark in the following equations.

(1681)^1/2 + (4094)^1/3 = ?

A. 57

B. 75

C. 78

D. 67

E. 76

Q. 10 What approximate value should come in place of question mark in the following equations.

(803.63)² = ?

A. 506000

B. 787800

C. 646400

D. 767600

E. 566000

Questions: 11 – 15

Direction ( 11-15) In each of these questions’ two equations are given. You have to solve these equations and give answer

Q. 11 I. x² − 6x = 7

II. 2y² + 13y + 15 = 0

A. if x < y

B. if x > y

C. if x = y and relation cannot be established

D. if x ≥ y

E. if x ≤ y

Q. 12 I. 3x² − 7x + 2 = 0

II. 2y² − 11x + 15 = 0

A. if x < y

B. if x > y

C. if x = y and relation cannot be established

D. if x ≥ y

E. if x ≤ y

Q. 13 I. 10X² − 7x + 1 = 0

II. 35y² − 12y + 1 = 0

A. if x < y

B. if x > y

C. if x = y or relation cannot be established

D. if x ≥ y

E. if x ≤ y

Q. 14 I. 4x² = 25

II. 2y² − 13y + 21 = 0

A. if x < y

B. if x > y

C. if x = y or relation cannot be established

D. if x ≥ y

E. if x ≤ y

Q. 15 I. 3x² + 7x = 6

II. 6(2y² + 1) = 17y

A. if x < y

B. if x > y

C. if x = y or relation cannot be established

D. if x ≥ y

E. if x ≤ y

Questions: 16 – 20

Refer to the following pie charts and solve the questions based on it.

Q. 16 Both the families decide to double the total expenditure keeping the pattern of spending the same as given above. What will be the new ratio of expenditure on food between family

A and family B?

A. 18 : 31

B. 31 : 27

C. 2 : 3

D. 3 : 2

E. None of the above

Q. 17 If the total expenses of family B increases three – fold, keeping the expenses on education the same as given above, what will be the expense on education?

A. 6.33%

B. 57%

C. 19%

D. 18%

E. None of the above

Q. 18 What will be the expenses on light by family A, as a percentage of expense on light by family B?

A. 120%

B. 83.33%

C. 62.5%

D. 66.66%

E. None of the above

Q. 19 If family A and family B decide to combine their expenses, then which one of the following heads will be responsible for the highest expenses?

A. Rent

B. Miscellanous

C. Food

D. Education

E. None of the above

Q. 20 In the above question, how many heads will have a lower percentage share in the

combined total expenses of both the families than the percentage share of family B under the same head?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. None of the above

Questions: 21 – 25

Study the following bar graph and table carefully to answer the questions given below

The bar graph shows data related to population of different states(in lakhs) in the year 1992 The table shows the ratio b\w male, female and literacy, illiterate and also

graduates and undergraduates.

Q. 21 If in the year 1993 there was an increase of 10% population of AP. and 12% of Bihar compared to the previous year, than what was the ratio of the population of AP. to Bihar?

A. 521:540

B. 405:530

C. 408:505

D. 407:560

E. None

Q. 22 What was the approximate percentage of women of Andhra Pradesh to the women of HP?

A. 90%

B. 110%

C. 120%

D. 126%

E. 95%

Q. 23 If 70% of total no of literate population in Assam are graduate what is the total no of under graduates in the

Assam in the year 1992?

A. 65300

B. 70000

C. 62021

D. 82120

E. None

Q. 24 In Haryana, if 70% of the females are literate and 75% of the males are literate, what is the total number of illiterates in the state?

A. 12,2500

B. 85,000

C. 84,000

D. 81,000

E. None

Q. 25 What is the ratio of literates in Assam to the literates in Bihar?

A. 2 : 5

B. 3 : 5

C. 7 : 15

D. 2 : 3

E. None

Q. 26 Two trains A and B are running in the same direction with speed 60 kmph and 90 kmph respectively. Train B completely crosses a man in Train A in 24sec. The length of the train B is

A. 100

B. 200

C. 250

D. 150

E. None of these

Q. 27 Two equal bottles are filled with water and milk. The amount of water in each container is 20% and 30%. What is the ratio of milk in both the bottles respectively ?

A. 3 : 4

B. 5 : 6

C. 8 : 7

D. 9 : 8

E. None of these

Q. 28 Ravi bought a car at 30% discount on its original price.He sold it with 50% increase on the price he bought it.The new sale price is by what percent more than the original price ?

A. 2%

B. 4%

C. 8%

D. 5%

E. 1%

Q. 29 Among a group of 5 men and 6 women , 4 members is to be selected for an event. Find the probability that at least one man is selected ?

A. 21/22

B. 10/12

C. 8/9

D. 5/4

E. 2/3

Q. 30 Two pipes can fill the tank in 4hrs 5hrs respectively while the third pipe can empty the tank in 20hrs, if all the pipes are opened together, then the tank will be filled in

A. 4 (1/2) hrs

B. 2 (1/2) hrs

C. 5 (1/2) hrs

D. 2 (1/4) hrs

E. None of these

Q. 31 From the salary, Pavan spent 15% for house rent, 5% for children’s education and 15% for Entertainment. Now he left with Rs.26,000. His salary is

A. 20000

B. 25000

C. 28000

D. 35000

E. 40000

Q. 32 A and B invested in a business. They earned some profit which they divided in the ratio of 2:3. If A invested Rs.15,000, the amount invested by B is

A. 21500

B. 20500

C. 22500

D. 23000

E. 25000

Q. 33 Milk and water are in the ratio of 3:2 in a mixture of 70 liters. How much water should be added so that the rate of milk and water become 2:3?

A. 20

B. 28

C. 35

D. 40

E. 50

Q. 34 Length of a rectangle is reduced by 40%. By what percent would the width have to be increased to maintain the original area?

A. 66.66%

B. 50.55%

C. 44.44%

D. 40.45%

E. 20.22%

Q. 35 What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions. 25.675% of 1321 + 64.328% of 4001= ?

A. 2520

B. 2020

C. 2550

D. 2890

E. 2000

Questions: 36 – 40

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below in the context of the passage.

The phenomenon of terrorism signifies violence by disgruntled groups of people determined to achieve certain political goals which they find, are not attainable by lawful means. This menace has lately assumed a global character and many countries including the U.S.A are affected by it. Terrorism is actually an infantile attitude, a sign of immaturity, just as certain other movements indicate political senility. It is wrong, however, to believe that terrorists are born. Like naxalites, Radicals and Reformers, they are the victims of certain unfavourable conditions and circumstances. These circumstances, in turn , are often the redressing political, economic and other grievances. Bitterly disappointed individuals or groups resort to violence in order to focus attention on their problems. Terrorism sprouts and flourishes where there is intense anger and resentment against the administration, the Government’s lapses and postures of neglect towards certain discordant elements feed the unrest, and when this reaches a high level, it bursts into terrorism. Terrorists generally belong to the lower middle class, sometimes to well-placed families and poor class.

Q. 36 Terrorism has lately assumed a

A. serious threat

B. global character

C. national character

D. Indian character

E. None of these

Q. 37 Like Naxalites, terrorists are the victims of

A. political interference

B. unemployment

C. ignorance

D. unfavourable circumstances and conditions

E. None of these

Q. 38 According to the passage, terrorism has affected

A. Asia

B. Britain

C. India

D. the entire world

E. None of these

Q. 39 Terrorists belong to

A. the lower middle class

B. well placed families

C. poor class of people

D. all of the above

E. None of these

Q. 40 Terrorists are bitterly disappointed individuals who resort to violence in order to

A. dislodge the ruling party

B. get employment

C. focus attention on their problems

D. terrorise the innocent people

E. None of these

Questions: 41 – 43

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Once a thief named Kalu had planned to loot the king’s treasury. At midnight, he went to the palace and began to drill a hole in the side wall of the treasury. The king, who was awake in his bedroom just above the treasury, came out to investigate the whirring sound. He was dressed in a simple nightgown and the thief could not recognise him. He asked Kalu who he was and what he was doing. The latter said, “Sir, I am a thief and intend to loot this treasury. I presume that you are also a thief and have come with the same intention. No matter, let us both go inside and we shall share the loot equally. “Both entered the treasury and divided all the money and the jewels equally between them. Inside a locker they found three big diamond pieces. As the thief was puzzled as to how to divide the three pieces into two portions, the king suggested. “We have taken away everything else. Let us leave one diamond piece for the poor king and share the rest equally”. Kalu agreed and when he took his leave, the king asked for his name and address. As Kalu had taken a vow of telling only the truth, he have the correct information. The king took away his share of the loot and hid it in his room. Next morning he asked his Prime Minister to inspect the treasury as he had heard some strange sounds during the previous night. The Prime Minister saw to his horror that all the valuables were missing and only a single diamond was left, perhaps inadvertently, by the thief. He put the diamond in his own shift pocket as its loss could be ascribed to the thief and nobody would suspect the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister went back to the king. The king particularly enquired. “Do you mean that the thief has completely denuded the treasury of its valuables and not a single item has been left?” The Prime Minister confirmed it. The king asked the chief of police to bring in Kalu. When Kalu came he was unable to recognise the king as his accomplice of the previous night. The king asked him, “Are you the thief who has stolen everything from my treasury leaving nothing back?” Kalu confirmed it but said, “Sir, I did leave one diamond back in the locker as advised by an accomplice of mine and it should still be there.” The Prime Minister interrupted saying, “Your Majesty, this thief is lying. There is nothing left in the locker.” The king asked the police chief to search the pockets of the Prime Minister, from where the missing diamond was recovered. The kind told his courtiers, “Here is a Prime Minister, who is a liar and a thief and here is a thief who is at truthful gentleman.”

Q. 41 The king came out in the middle of the night in order to

A. Help Kalu to break into the palace treasury

B. Share the loot equally between Kalu and himself

C. Find out the source of and reason for the sound he had heard

D. Catch the thief who had come to steal his valuables

E. None of these

Q. 42 Kalu could not recognise the king because

A. The king was wearing clothes like those of an ordinary person

B. The king’s clothes were covered by a simple night down

C. Kalu had never seen the king before

D. Kalu had not seen the king descending from his bedroom

E. None of these

Q. 43 Which of the following made the king suspect the Prime Minister? The Prime Minister’s statement that

A. Except for one piece of diamond all other valuables were stolen

B. All the valuables without any exception were stolen from the treasury

C. The thief was lying when he said he had left one diamond back in the locker

D. The search for the diamond did not yield any favourable result

E. None of these

Questions: 44 – 50

In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

Let’s think of Jinnah in terms of the history of the subcontinent. Also, once you start to look at him, you see what an ambivalent and complicated figure (44) . Even just to discover his liking for theatre and drama. He (45) with Shakespeare; he wanted to become an actor ; he imitated his hero Chamberlain by wearing a monocle. Sometimes, with his speeches, you don’t know if he believes what he’s saying or if he’s acting. There is a way in which he just took (46) a role. So did he really want what he created ? Did he know what he was doing, or was it almost like a lawyer arguing a brief ? I wanted again to bring him into a human dimension and to show him in relationship to Gandhi, (47) other figures like Tilak. He was a great friend of Tilak’s. Now, that’s a curious friendship. We think of Tilak as a kind of rightist Hindu ; Jinnah defended Tilak in court against the British. His anger at Gandhi was because Gandhi (48) religious! So there are all sorts of twists in Jinnah’s story. There are quite a few people in the world who are fat and are (49).These people are (50) to several kinds of illness. Medical advice to these people is to

Q. 44 Find the suitable words given in the options against (44).

A. he was

B. he has been

C. he had been

D. have been

E. as he was

Q. 45 Find the suitable words given in the options against (45).

A. had liked

B. was in awe

C. was obsessed

D. related

E. was incorrigible

Q. 46 Find the suitable words given in the options against (46).

A. at

B. on

C. in

D. for

E. kind of

Q. 47 Find the suitable words given in the options against (47).

A. at par

B. in relation to

C. with

D. as in

E. as of

Q. 48 Find the suitable words given in the options against (48).

A. was being

B. had been

C. has been

D. could have been

E. would be

Q. 49 Find the suitable words given in the options against (49).

A. underweight

B. overweight

C. physically fit

D. thin

E. emaciated

Q. 50 Find the suitable words given in the options against (50).

A. susceptible

B. unsusceptible

C. safe

D. unsafe

E. cured

Questions: 51 – 55

Given below is a sentence marked (A), after which there are five more sentences marked, (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F). These five sentences are not in their proper sequence.

Rearrange them so as to form a meaningful paragraph with (A) as the first sentence; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) when I reached the station, the train had already arrived

(B) One came running up to me and with his help.I began pilling up my luggage on the entrance of the compartment.

(D) However, I made an effort to remain cool and called out to a coolie.

(E) As I carried up the last item, the train began to crawl out of the station.

(F) This made me a bit nervous as I had a lot of luggage with me.

Q. 51 Which sentence should come third in the passage?

A. A

B. C

C. F

D. E

Q. 52 Which sentence should come second?

A. C

B. A

C. D

D. F

Q. 53 Which sentence should come fifth?

A. C

B. B

C. E

D. F

Q. 54 Which sentence should come fourth?

A. B

B. D

C. A

D. E

Q. 55 Which sentence should come last?

A. C

B. E

C. A

D. B

Questions: 56 – 65

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, i.e.in (A), (B), (C) or (D). Do not look for errors in spelling and punctuation. When you find an error in a sentence, mark the incorrect part. If there is no error, mark (E).

Q. 56 Find the Spot Grammatical Error:

A. My father told me (A)

B. that if I do not (B)

C. study seriously (C)

D. I would fail. (D)

E. No error. (E)

Q. 57 Find the Spot Grammatical Error:

A. The girl who (A)

B. met you (B)

C. yesterday (C)

D. is my cousin sister. (D)

E. No error (E)

Q. 58 Find the Spot Grammatical Error:

A. The teacher asked (A)

B. the student (B)

C. why had he (C)

D. not done his homework . (D)

E. No error (E)

Q. 59 Find the Spot Grammatical Error:

A. I want (A)

B. to get rid from (B)

C. this bad habit (C)

D. immediately. (D)

E. No error (E)

Q. 60 Find the Spot Grammatical Error:

A. The news that (A)

B. the Lebanon Prime Minister (B)

C. was killed (C)

D. in aircrash is correct. (D)

E. No error (E)

Q. 61 Find the Spot Grammatical Error:

A. Be careful (A)

B. lest you will (B)

C. fall (C)

D. and hurt yourself. (D)

E. No error (E)

Q. 62 Find the Spot Grammatical Error:

A. I, along with my parents (A)

B. were (B)

C. present (C)

D. at the reception. (D)

E. No error (E)

Q. 63 Find the Spot Grammatical Error:

A. Although I tried (A)

B. my best (B)

C. I could not prevent him to do (C)

D. that mischief. (D)

E. No error (E)

Q. 64 Find the Spot Grammatical Error:

A. Many persons (A)

B. who came to attend the meeting (B)

C. did not know (C)

D. each other. (D)

E. No error (E)

Q. 65 Find the Spot Grammatical Error:

A. The telephone bell (A)

B. rang (B)

C. when I (C)

D. took bath. (D)

E. No error (E)

Q. 66 Statements :

S ≤R ≥ Y ≤ M; Y ≥ L < E

Conclusion I : M > S

Conclusion ll: Y>S

Conclusion III: E < R

Conclusion IV: L=S

A. None is true

B. Only I is true

C. Only III is true

D. Only II is true

E. Only I and IV are true

Q. 67 Statements :

K > S ≥T = N ≤ B < U ≥ M

Conclusion I: K > B

Conclusion II: N < M

Conclusion III : S ≥ U

Conclusion IV : N < K

A. Only II and IV are true

B. Only I and II are true

C. None is true

D. Only IV is true

E. Only II and III are true

Q. 68 Statements :

K < Y > B ≤ U; B ≥ F ≥ M

Conclusion I: U > M

Conclusion II : U > K

Conclusion III: M = U

Conclusion IV : Y > M

A. Only either II or III is true

B. Only IV is true

C. Only IV and either I or III are true

D. Only III is true

E. Only II is true

Q. 69 Statements :

T > S ≥ U = J≤ D ≤ Y < H

Conclusion I: T > J

Conclusion II: H > U

Conclusion III : U ≤ Y

Conclusion IV : S > D

A. Only I, II and III are true

B. Only I and either III or IV are true

C. All I, II, III and IV are true

D. Only II is true

E. Only I and II are true

Q. 70 Statements :

P > B ≤ Z < A; D ≥ B > T

Conclusion I: P > T

Conclusion II : T < A

Conclusion III: D > T

Conclusion IV: A > B

A. Only I and III are true

B. Only III is true

C. All are true

D. Only IV is true

E. Only I is true

Questions: 71 – 75

In each question below are given two or three statements followed by two or three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give Answer.

Q. 71 Statements:

Some Boys are Girls.

All Boys are Madam.

Conclusions:

I. Those Boys which are not Girls are also Madam.

II. Those Boys which are not Girls are not necessarily Madam.

A. Only Conclusion I follows.

B. Only Conclusion II follows.

C. Both I & II follow.

D. Either I or II follow.

E. None follows.

Q. 72 Statements:

All Cows are Milk.

No Milk is White.

Conclusions:

I. Some Cows are White.

II. No Cow is White.

A. Either I or II follow.

B. Only Conclusion I follows.

C. Both I & II follow.

D. Only Conclusion II follows.

E. None follows.

Q. 73 Statements:

Some Pens are Pen-drive.

All Printers are Pen-drive.

Conclusions:

I. All Pens being Printers is a possibility.

II. No Printer is a Pen.

A. Only Conclusion II follows.

B. Both I & II follow.

C. Only Conclusion I follows.

D. Either I or II follow.

E. None follows.

Q. 74 Statements:

No Stone is a Metal.

Some Metals are Paper.

All Papers are Glass.

Conclusions:

I. All Stones being Glass being is a possibility.

II. No Stone is a Paper.

A. Only Conclusion I follows.

B. Only Conclusion II follows.

C. Both I & II follow.

D. Either I or II follow.

E. None follows.

Q. 75 Statements:

Some Apples are Cake.

Some Cakes are Candle.

Conclusions:

I. All Cakes are Apple.

II. Some Apples are Candle.

III. No Apple is a Candle.

A. Either I or II follow.

B. Only Conclusion I follows.

C. Both I & II follow.

D. Only Conclusion II follows.

E. None follows.

Questions: 76 – 80

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. Eight family members Samavesh, Trisuram, Ubaida, Vikram, Walida, Xander, Yashika and Zareen are sitting around a circular table but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are females and some are males. All of them are related to each other in the same way or the other. Some of them are facing the centre while some are facing outside (i.e. opposite to the centre).

1. Only two people sit between Trisuram and Walida. Trisuram faces the centre.

2. Xander sits second to the right of Trisuram. Walida is the wife of Samavesh. No

females is an immediate neighbour of Walida

3. Ubaida is not an immediate neighbor of Trisuram. Ubaida is the daughter of Walida. Both the immediate neighbours of Ubaida face the centre.

4. Only three people sit between Samavesh and Ubaida’s brother. Xander is not the brother of Ubaida. Neither Samavesh nor Ubaida’s brother is an immediate neighbour of Xander.

5. Zareen, the wife of Trisuram, sits to the immediate left of Vikram. Both Yashika and Samavesh face a direction opposite to that of Ubaida (i.e. Ubaida faces the center then both Yashika and Samavesh face outside and vice – versa).

6. Ubaida’s husband sits second to the left of Yashika. Trisuram’s father sits to the immediate right of Walida.

7. Trisuram sits second to the right of Samavesh’s father. Both the immediate neighbours of Xander are females.

Q. 76 How many people sit between Trisuram and Samavesh’s father when counted from the right of Trisuram?

A. Four

B. Three

C. None of the above

D. One

E. Two

Q. 77 Who amongst the following sits exactly between Yashika and Walida when counted from the left of Yashika?

A. Trisuram

B. Xander

C. Samavesh

D. Zareen

E. Ubaida

Q. 78 Which of the following statements regarding Trisuram is definitely true?

A. Xander and Zareen are immediate neighbors of Trisuram

B. Trisuram sits second to the left of Xander

C. Trisuram is the son of Samavesh

D. None of the given options is correct

E. Vikram is the father of Trisuram

Q. 79 Who amongst the following faces outside (i.e. opposite to the centre)?

A. Walida

B. Vikram

C. Ubaida

D. Zareen

E. Trisuram

Q. 80 If it is given that Yashika is married to Xander, then what is the position of Trisuram with respect to Yashika’s daughter – in – Law?

A. Third to the Right

B. Second to the Right

C. Immediate Right

D. Second to the Left

E. Third to the Left

Questions: 81 – 85

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

There are eight friends, namely Suresh, Rohit, Hrithik, Swades, Farhan, Jiten, Gopal, and Emran. All of them own a different 4-wheeler, namely Maruti Suzuki, Tata Nano, Nissan Datsun, Honda City, Mercedes Benz, Indigo, Santro and BMW, though not necessarily in the same order. All of them are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Emran is not a neighbour of Rohit while Jiten owns neither Santro nor BMW. There is only one person between Suresh and Swades. Hrithik, who owns Indigo, is third to the left of the one who owns Nissan Datsun. The one who is sitting opposite the one who has Tata Nano owns BMW. Neither Suresh nor Swades has Nissan Datsun. There are two persons between Farhan and Gopal, who own Tata Nano and Mercedes Benz respectively, but neither of those two persons is Hrithik. Suresh is second to the left of Farhan and owns Honda City. Rohit is an immediate neighbour of Gopal.

Q. 81 Who among the following owns Santro?

A. Emran

B. Swades

C. Gopal

D. Jiten

E. Can’t be determined

Q. 82 How many persons are there between Hrithik and Gopal?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

E. None of these

Q. 83 Which of the following 4-wheelers is owned by Swades?

A. Mercedes Benz

B. Santro

C. BMW

D. Maruti Suzuki

E. None of these

Q. 84 Who is sitting third to the right of the person possessing Maruti Suzuki?

A. Suresh

B. Rohit

C. Emran

D. Swades

E. Gopal

Q. 85 Which of the following is not true about Jiten?

A. He is sitting exactly between Farhan and Rohit.

B. He is sitting opposite the person who owns Santro.

C. He owns Maruti Suzuki.

D. None is true.

E. All are true.

Questions: 86 – 90

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it —

Six exams Maths, Science, History, Economics, English and Hindi are to be scheduled starting from 2nd March and ending on 8th march wit Sunday being an off day, not necessarily in the same order. Each of the exam has different time duration: 40 mins, 50 mins, 60 mins, 75 mins, 90 mins and 100 mins, again not necessarily in the same order. 8th March is not Sunday and an exam of 40 mins is scheduled on that day. Maths exam is for less than 60 mins and is scheduled immediately before English exam. There are two exams scheduled between Hindi exam which is for 100 mins and History exam which is for 60 mins. English exam is before Sunday and there are two days between Sunday and maths exam. Economics exam which is for 75 mins is not scheduled on 2nd March. The exam scheduled on Saturday is of 100 mins

Q. 86 How many exams are scheduled before Sunday?

A. Two

B. One

C. Five

D. Three

E. None of these

Q. 87 Which of the following combinations of exam – Day – Time Duration is correct ?

A. English – Wednesday – 75 mins

B. Maths – Thursday – 50 mins

C. History – Thursday – 60 mins

D. Hindi – Tuesday – 100 mins

E. None is correct

Q. 88 What is the time duration of Science exam?

A. 90 mins

B. 75 mins

C. 50 mins

D. 40 mins

E. None of these

Q. 89 On which day is Economics exam scheduled?

A. Monday

B. Saturday

C. Tuesday

D. Friday

E. Cannot be determined

Q. 90 Which day is Sunday?

A. 3rd March

B. 2nd March

C. 5th March

D. 6th March

E. Cannot be determined

Questions: 91 – 95

Read the following information and answer the questions that follow:

(1) There are seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G based in Delhi. Each of them is from a different state, has a different profession, and plays a different instrument.

(2) C, a doctor, is from Bihar.

(3) E and F play mandolin and violin, though not necessarily in that order.

(4) A is not from Kerala.

(5) The person from Kerala is an engineer and plays guitar.

(6) The lawyer plays sitar.

(7) The businessman from UP plays violin.

(8) The teacher and the cricketer play flute and piano, though not necessarily in that order.

(9) F is a pilot.

(10) The Maharashtrian is a teacher.

(11) The Gujarati plays piano.

(12) G, a Punjabi, does not play sarod.

(13) B is a cricketer.

Q. 91 Which state does A belong to?

A. Gujarat

B. Kerala

C. Maharashtra

D. Can’t say

E. None of these

Q. 92 Which instrument does B play?

A. Flute

B. Piano

C. Sarod

D. Can’t say

E. Sitar

Q. 93 Which instrument does C play?

A. Mandolin

B. Sitar

C. Violin

D. None of these

E. Sarod

Q. 94 What is D’s profession?

A. Engineer

B. Lawyer

C. Teacher

D. Can’t say

E. Cricketer

Q. 95 Which state does E belong to?

A. Gujarat

B. Kerala

C. UP

D. Can’t say

E. None of these

Q. 96 A is D’s brother is B’s father. B and C are sisters. How is C related to A?

A. Cousin

B. Niece

C. Aunt

D. Nephew

E. None of these

Q. 97 If X is the brother of the son Y’s son., then how is X related to Y?

A. Son

B. Brother

C. Nephew

D. Grandson

E. None of these

Q. 98 Pointing towards a girl in the picture, Sunita said, “She is the mother of Renu whose father is my son.” How Sunita is related to that girl in the picture?

A. Mother

B. Aunt

C. Cousin

D. Data inadequate

E. None of the above

Q. 99 A man said to a woman, “Your only brother’s son is my wife’s brother.” How is the woman related to the man’s wife?

A. Aunt

B. Sister

C. Mother

D. Brother

E. None of these

Q. 100 A and B form a married couple. X and Y are the brothers. X is the brother of A. How is Y related to B?

A. Brother

B. Cousin

C. Son-in-law

D. Brother-in-law

E. None of these

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	D	A	E	C	D	B	D	A	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	A	D	A	C	A	A	B	C	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	D	B	A	C	B	C	D	A	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	E	C	C	A	D	B	D	D	D	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	B	B	A	C	B	B	A	B	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	A	B	B	B	B	D	C	B	E
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	B	C	D	D	A	D	C	A	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	D	C	A	E	D	D	C	C	E
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	A	C	B	D	E	E	B	D	A	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	B	E	A	C	B	D	E	A	D

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