Q. 1 Consider the set S = {2, 3, 4, ……, 2n+1}, where ‘n’ is a positive integer larger than 2007. Define X as the average of the odd integers in S and Y as the average of the even integers in S. What is the value of X – Y?
A. 0
B. 1
C. (1/2)n
D. (n+1)/2n
E. 2008
Q. 2 Ten years ago, the ages of the members of a joint family of eight people added up to 231 years. Three years later, one member died at the age of 60 years and a child was born during the same year. After another three years, one more member died, again at 60, and a child was born during the same year. The current average age of this eight-member joint family is nearest to
A. 23 years
B. 22 years
C. 21 years
D. 25 years
E. 24 years
Q. 3 A function f(x) satisfies f(1) = 3600 and f(1) + f(2) + ………. + f(n) = n^2 f(n), for all positive integers n > 1. What is the value of f(9)?
A. 80
B. 240
C. 200
D. 100
E. 120
Q. 4 Suppose you have a currency, named Miso, in three denominations: 1 Miso, 10 Misos and 50 Misos. In how many ways can you pay a bill of 107 Misos?
A. 17
B. 16
C. 18
D. 15
E. 19
Q. 5 A confused bank teller transposed the rupees and paise when he cashed a cheque for Shailaja giving her rupees instead of paise and paise instead of rupees. After buying a toffee for 50 paise, Shailaja noticed that she was left with exactly three times as much as the amount on the cheque. Which of the following is a valid statement about the cheque amount?
A. Over Rupees 13 but less than Rupees 14
B. Over Rupees 7 but less than Rupees 8
C. Over Rupees 22 but less than Rupees 23
D. Over Rupees 18 but less than Rupees 19
E. Over Rupees 4 but less than Rupees 5
Q. 6 How many pairs of positive integers m, n satisfy 1/m +4/n = 1/12, where, ‘n’ is an odd integer less than 60?
A. 6
B. 4
C. 7
D. 5
E. 3
Questions: 7 – 10
Each question is followed by two statements A and B. Indicate your response based on the following directives.
Mark (1) if the questions can be answered using A alone but not using B alone. Mark (2) if the question can be answered using B alone but not using A alone. Mark (3) if the question can be answered using A and B together, but not using either A or B alone. Mark (4) if the question cannot be answered even using A and B together.
Q. 7 The average weight of a class of 100 students is 45 kg. The class consists of two sections, I and II, each with 50 students. The average weight, WI , of Section I is smaller than the average weight WII , of the Section II. If the heaviest student say Deepak, of section II is moved to Section I, and the lightest student, say Poonam, of Section I is moved to Section II, then the average weights of the two sections are switched, i.e., the average weight of Section I becomes WII and that of Section II becomes WI . What is the weight of Poonam?
A: WII – WI = 1.0 .
B: Moving Deepak from Section II to I (without any move I to II) makes the average weights of the two sections equal.
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Q. 8 ABC Corporation is required to maintain at least 400 Kilolitres of water at all times in its factory, in order to meet safety and regulatory requirements. ABC is considering the suitability of a spherical tank with uniform wall thickness for the purpose. The outer diameter of the tank is 10 meters. Is the tank capacity adequate to met ABC’s requirements?
A: The inner diameter of the tank is at least 8 meters.
B: The tank weights 30,000 kg when empty, and is made of a material with density of 3 gm/cc.
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Q. 9 Consider integers x, y, z. What is the minimum possible value of x^2 + y^2 + z^2 = ?
A: x + y + z = 89.
B: Among x, y, z two are equal.
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Q. 10 Rahim plans to draw a square JKLM with point O on the side JK but is not successful. Why is Rahim unable to draw the square?
A: The length of OM is twice that of OL.
B: The length of OM is 4 cm.
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
Questions: 11 – 12
Cities A and B are in different time zones. A is located 3000 km east of B. The table given in figure (1) describes the schedule of an airline operating non-stop flights between A and B. All the times indicated are local and on the same day. Assume that planes cruise at the same speed in both directions. However, the effective speed is influenced by a steady wind blowing from east to west at 50 km per hour.
Q. 11 What is the time difference between A and B?
A. 1 hour and 30 minutes
B. 2 hours
C. 2 hours and 30 minutes
D. 1 hour
E. Cannot be determined
Q. 12 What is the plane’s cruising speed in km per hour?
A. 700
B. 550
C. 600
D. 500
E. Cannot be determined.
Questions: 13 – 14
Shabnam is considering three alternatives to invest her surplus cash for a week. She wishes to guarantee maximum returns on her investment. She has three options, each of which can be utilized fully or partially in conjunction with others
Q. 13 The maximum guaranteed return to Shabnam is
A. 0.25%
B. 0.10%
C. 0.20%
D. 0.15%
E. 0.30%
Q. 14 What strategy will maximize the guaranteed return to Shabnam?
A. 100% in option A
B. 36% in option B and 64% in option C
C. 64% in option B and 36% in option C
D. 1/3 in each of the three options
E. 30% in option A, 32% in option B and 38% in option C
Questions: 15 – 16
Let S be the set of all pairs (i, j) where, 1 ≤ i < j ≤ n and n ≥ 4 . Any two distinct members of S are called “friends” if they have one constituent of the pairs in common and “enemies” otherwise. For example, if n = 4, then S = {(1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (2, 3), (2, 4), (3, 4)}. Here, (1, 2) and (1, 3) are friends, (1, 2) and (2, 3) are also friends, but (1, 4) and (2, 3) are enemies.
Q. 15 For general ‘n’, how many enemies will each member of S have?
A. n – 3
B. 1/2 (n^2 – 3n – 2)
C. 2n – 7
D. 1/4 (n^2 – 5n + 6)
E. 1/2 (n^2 – 7n + 14)
Q. 16 For general ‘n’, consider any two members of S that are friends. How many other members of S will be common friends of both these members?
A. 1/2 (n^2 – 5n + 8)
B. 2n – 6
C. 1/2(n)(n – 3)
D. n – 2
E. 1/2 (n^2 – 7n + 14)
Q. 17 In a tournament, there are n teams T1, T2, …., Tn, with n > 5. Each team consists of ‘k’ players, k > 3. The following pairs of teams have one player in common: T1 & T2, T2 & T3, ……….., Tn-1 & Tn, and Tn & T1.
No other pair of teams has any player in common. How many players are participating in the tournament, considering all the ‘n’ teams together?
A. n(k-1)
B. k(n-1)
C. n(k-2)
D. k(n-2)
E. (n-1)(k-1)
Q. 18 Consider four-digit numbers for which the first two digits are equal and the last two digits are also equal. How many such numbers are perfect squares?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 0
E. 1
Questions: 19 – 20
Mr. David manufactures and sells a single product at a fixed price in a niche market. The selling price of each unit is Rs. 30. On the other hand, the cost, in rupees, of producing ‘x’ units is 240 + bx + cx^2, where ‘b’ and ‘c’ are some constants. Mr. David noticed that doubling the daily production from 20 to 40 units increases the daily production cost by 66 2/3%. However, an increase in daily production from 40 to 60 units results in an increase of only 50% in the daily production cost. Assume that demand is unlimited and that Mr. David can sell as much as he can produce. His objective is to maximize the profit.
Q. 19 How many units should Mr. David produce daily?
A. 130
B. 100
C. 70
D. 150
E. Cannot be determined
Q. 20 What is the maximum daily profit, in rupees, that Mr. David can realize from his business?
A. 620
B. 920
C. 840
D. 760
E. Cannot be determined
Q. 21 The price of Darjeeling tea (in rupees per kilogram) is 100 + 0.10n, on the nth day of 2007 (n = 1, 2, …, 100), and then remains constant. On the other hand, the price of Ooty tea (in rupees per kilogram) is 89 + 0.15n, on the nth day of 2007 (n = 1, 2, …, 365). On which date in 2007 will the prices of these two varieties of tea be equal?
A. May 21
B. April 11
C. May 20
D. April 10
E. June 30
Q. 22 Two circles with centres P and Q cut each other at two distinct points A and B. The circles have the same radii and neither P nor Q falls within the intersection of the circles. What is the smallest range that includes all possible values of the angle AQP in degrees?
A. Between 0 and 90
B. Between 0 and 30
C. Between 0 and 60
D. Between 0 and 75
E. Between 0 and 45
Q. 23 A quadratic function ƒ(x) attains a maximum of 3 at x = 1. The value of the function at x = 0 is 1. What is the value ƒ(x) at x = 10?
A. –119
B. –159
C. –110
D. –180
E. –105
Questions: 24 – 25
Let a1 = p and b1 = q, where p and q are positive quantities. Define a n = pb n–1, b n = qb n–1, for even n > 1, and a n = pa n-1, b n = qa n-1, for odd n > 1.
Q. 24 Which of the following best describes an + bn for even ‘n’?
A. q(pq)^1/2(n-1) (p + q)
B. qp^1/2(n-1) (p + q)
C. q^1/2(n) (p + q)
D. q^1/2(n) (p + q)^1/2(n)
E. q(pq)^1/2(n-1) (p + q)^1/2(n)
Q. 25 If p = 1/3 and q = 2/3, then what is the smallest odd ‘n’ such that an + bn < 0.01
A. 7
B. 13
C. 11
D. 9
E. 15
Questions: 26 – 29
A health-drink company’s R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R, and S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table given in figure (1) gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is O: 150, P: 50. Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100. .
Q. 26 For a recuperating patient, the doctor recommended a diet containing 10% minerals and at least 30% protein. In how many different ways can we prepare this diet by mixing at least two ingredients?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. None
Q. 27 Which among the following is the formulation having the lowest cost per unit for a diet having 10% fat and at least 30% protein? (The diet has to be formed by mixing two ingredients).
A. P and Q
B. P and S
C. P and R
D. Q and S
E. R and S
Q. 28 In what proportion P, Q and S should be mixed to make a diet having at least 60% carbohydrate at the lowest cost per unit?
A. 2:1:3
B. 4:1:2
C. 2:1:4
D. 3:1:2
E. 4:1:1
Q. 29 The company is planning to launch a balanced diet required for growth needs of adolescent children. This diet must contain at least 30% each of carbohydrate and protein, no more than 25% fat and at least 5% minerals. Which one of the following combinations of equally mixed ingredients is feasible?
A. O and P
B. R and S
C. P and S
D. Q and R
E. O and S
Questions: 30 – 33
Each question is followed by two statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions:
Mark (1) if the question can be answered by using the statement A alone but not by using the statement B alone.
Mark (2) if the question can be answered by using the statement B alone but not by using the statement A alone.
Mark (3) if the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
Mark (4) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either of the statements alone.
Mark (5) if the question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.
Q. 30 In a particular school, sixty students were athletes. Ten among them were also among the top academic performers. How many top academic performers were in the school?
A. Sixty per cent of the top academic performers were not athletes.
B. All the top academic performers were not necessarily athletes.
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
E. (5)
Q. 31 Five students Atul, Bala, Chetan, Dev and Ernesto were the only ones who participated in a quiz contest. They were ranked based on their scores in the contest. Dev got a higher rank as compared to Ernesto, while Bala got a higher rank as compared to Chetan. Chetan’s rank was lower than the median. Who among the five got the highest rank?
A. Atul was the last rank holder.
B. Bala was not among the top two rank holders.
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
E. (5)
Q. 32 Thirty per cent of the employees of a call centre are males. Ten per cent of the female employees have an engineering background. What is the percentage of male employees with engineering background?
A. Twenty five per cent of the employees have engineering background.
B. Number of male employees having an engineering background is 20% more than the number of female employees having an engineering background.
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
E. (5)
Q. 33 ln a football match, at the half-time, Mahindra and Mahindra Club was trailing by three goals. Did it win the match?
A. In the second-half Mahindra and Mahindra Club scored four goals.
B. The opponent scored four goals in the match.
A. (1)
B. (2)
C. (3)
D. (4)
E. (5)
Questions: 34 – 37
The following table given in figiure (1) shows the break-up of actual costs incurred by a company in last five years (year 2002to year 2006) to produce a particular product.
The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2006 was Rs. 125 per unit. Some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production, while others do not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and hence are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2006 as the basis for projecting the figures for the year 2007, answer the following questions:
Q. 34 What is the approximate cost per unit in rupees, if the company produces and sells 1400 units in the year 2007?
A. 104
B. 107
C. 110
D. 115
E. 116
Q. 35 What is the minimum number of units that the company needs to produce and sell to avoid any loss?
A. 313
B. 350
C. 384
D. 747
E. 928
Q. 36 If the company reduces the price by 5%, it can produce and sell as many units as it desires. How many units the company should produce to maximize its profit?
A. 1400
B. 1600
C. 1800
D. 1900
E. 2000
Q. 37 Given that the company cannot sell more than 1700 units, and it will have to reduce the price by Rs.5 for all units, if it wants to sell more than 1400 units, what is the maximum profit, in rupees, that the company can earn?
A. 25,400
B. 24,400
C. 31,400
D. 32,900
E. 32,000
Questions: 38 – 41
The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are given in figure (1). The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the Secondary Section and rest are equally divided between Class 11 and 12.
Q. 38 What is the percentage of male students in the secondary section?
A. 40
B. 45
C. 50
D. 55
E. 60
Q. 39 In Class 12, twenty five per cent of the vegetarians are male. What is the difference between the number of female vegetarians and male non-vegetarians?
A. less than 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
E. 16
Q. 40 What is the percentage of vegetarian students in Class 12?
A. 40
B. 45
C. 50
D. 55
E. 60
Q. 41 In the Secondary Section, 50% of the students are vegetarian males. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Except vegetarian males, all other groups have same number of students.
B. Except non-vegetarian males, all other groups have same number of students.
C. Except vegetarian females, all other groups have same number of students.
D. Except non-vegetarian females, all other groups have same number of students.
E. All of the above groups have the same number of students
Questions: 42 – 45
The Table given in figure (1) shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.
The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given in figure (2): A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table in figure (3):
Q. 42 A US citizen is hurt in an accident and requires an angioplasty, hip replacement and a knee replacement. Cost of foreign travel and stay is not a consideration since the government will take care of it. Which country will result in the cheapest package, taking cost of poor quality into account?
A. India
B. Thailand
C. Malaysia
D. Singapore
E. USA
Q. 43 Taking the cost of poor quality into account, which country/countries will be the most expensive for knee replacement?
A. India
B. Thailand
C. Malaysia
D. Singapore
E. India and Singapore
Q. 44 Approximately, what difference in amount in Bahts will it make to a Thai citizen if she were to get a hysterectomy done in India instead of in her native country, taking into account the cost of poor quality? (It costs 7500 Bahts for one-way travel between Thailand and India).
A. 23500
B. 40500
C. 57500
D. 67500
E. 75000
Q. 45 The rupee value increases to Rs.35 for a US Dollar, and all other things including quality, remain the same. What is the approximate difference in cost, in US Dollars, between Singapore and India for a Spinal Fusion, taking this change into account?
A. 700
B. 2500
C. 4500
D. 8000
E. No difference
Questions: 46 – 50
A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table given in figure (1) shows the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.
Q. 46 What is the lowest price, in rupees, a passenger has to pay for travelling by the shortest route from A to J?
A. 2275
B. 2850
C. 2890
D. 2930
E. 3340
Q. 47 The company plans to introduce a direct flight between A and J. The market research results indicate that all its existing passengers travelling between A and J will use this direct flight if it is priced 5% below the minimum price that they pay at present. What should the company charge approximately, in rupees, for this direct flight?
A. 1991
B. 2161
C. 2707
D. 2745
E. 2783
Q. 48 If the airports C, D and H are closed down owing to security reasons, then what would be the minimum price, in rupees, to be paid by a passenger travelling from A to J?
A. 2275
B. 2615
C. 2850
D. 2945
E. 3190
Q. 49 If the prices include a margin of 10% over the total cost that the company incurs, then what is the minimum cost per kilometer that the company incurs in flying from A to J?
A. 0.77
B. 0.88
C. 0.99
D. 1.06
E. 1.08
Q. 50 If the prices include a margin of 15% over the total cost that the company incurs, then which among the following is the distance to be covered in flying from A to J that minimizes the total cost per kilometer for the company?
A. 2170
B. 2180
C. 2315
D. 2350
E. 2390
Questions: 51 – 53
Human Biology does nothing to structure human society: age may enfeeble us all, but cultures vary considerably in the prestige and power they accord to the elderly. Giving birth is a necessary condition for being a mother, but it is not sufficient. We expect mothers to behave in maternal ways and to display appropriately maternal sentiments. We prescribe a clutch of norms or rules that govern the role of a mother. That the social role is independent of the biological base can be demonstrated by going back three sentences. (giving birth is certainly not sufficient to be a mother but, as adoption and fostering show, it is not even necessary!
The fine detail of what is expected of a mother or a father or a dutiful son differs from culture to culture, but everywhere behaviour is coordinated by the reciprocal nature of roles. Husbands and wives, parents and children, employers and employees, waiters and customers, teachers and pupils, warlords and followers: each makes sense only in its relation to the other. The term ‘role’ is an appropriate one. because the metaphor of an actor in a play neatly expresses the rule-governed nature or scripted nature of much of social life and the sense that society is a joint production. Social life occurs only because people play their parts (and that is as true for war and conflicts as for peace and love) and those parts make sense only in the context of the overall show. The drama metaphor also reminds us of the artistic licence available to the players. We can play a part straight or, as the following from J.P. Sartre conveys, we can ham it up. Let us consider this waiter in the café. His movement is quick and forward, a little too precise, a little too rapid. He comes towards the patrons with a step a little too quick. He bends forward a little too eagerly: his voice, his eyes express an interest a little too solicitous for the order of the customer. Finally there he
returns, trying to imitate in his walk the inflexible stiffness of some kind of automation while carrying his tray with the recklessness of a tightropewalker…..All his behaviour seems to us a game….But what is he playing? We need not watch long before we can explain it: he is playing at being a waiter in a café.
The American sociologist Frying Goffman built an influential body of social analysis on elaborations of themetaphor of social life as drama. Perhaps his most telling point was that it is only through acting out a part that we express character. It is not enough to be evil or virtuous: we have to be seen to be evil or virtuous.
There is distinction between the roles we play and some underlying self. Here we might note that some roles are more absorbing than others. We would not be surprised by the waitress who plays the part in such a way as to signal to us that she is much more than her occupation. We would be surprised and offended by the father who played his part ‘tongue in cheek’. Some roles are broader and more far-reaching than others. Describing someone as a clergyman or faith healer would say far more about that person than describing someone as a bus driver.
Q. 51 What is the thematic highlight of the passage?
A. In the absence of strong biological linkages, reciprocal roles provide the mechanism for coordinating human behaviour.
B. In the absence of reciprocal roles, biological linkages provide the mechanism for coordinating human behaviour
C. Human behaviour is independent of biological linkages and reciprocal roles.
D. Human behaviour depends on biological linkages and reciprocal roles.
E. Reciprocal roles determine normative human behaviour in society.
Q. 52 Which of the following would have been true if biological linkages structured human society?
A. The role of mother would have been defined through her reciprocal relationship with her children.
B. We would not have been offended by the father playing his role ‘tongue in cheek’.
C. Women would have adopted and fostered children rather than giving birth to them.
D. Even if warlords were physically weaker than their followers, they would still dominate them.
E. Waiters would have stronger motivation to serve their customers.
Q. 53 It has been claimed in the passage that “some roles are more absorbing than others”. According to the passage, which of the following seem(s) appropriate reason(s) for such a claim?
A. Some roles carry great expectations from the society preventing manifestation of the true self.
B. Society ascribes so much importance to some roles that the conception of self may get aligned with the roles being performed.
C. Some roles require development of skill and expertise leaving little time for manifestation of self.
A. A only
B. B only
C. C only
D. A and B
E. B and C
Questions: 54 – 56
In each question, there are five sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage.
Q. 54 A. When I returned to home, I began to read.
B. everything I could get my hand on about Israel.
C. That same year Israel’s Jewish Agency sent
D. a Shaliach a sort of recruiter to Minneapolis.
E. I became one of his most active devotees.
A. C and E
B. C only
C. E only
D. B, C and E
E. C, D and E
Q. 55 A. So once an economy is actually in a recession,
B. he authorities can, in principle, move the economy
C. out of slump – assuming hypothetically.
D. that they know how to – by a temporary stimuli.
E. In the longer term, however, such polices have no affect on the overall behaviour of the economy.
A. A, B & E
B. B, C & E
C. C & D
D. E only
E. B only
Q. 56 A. It is sometimes told that democratic
B. government originated in the city-states
C. of ancient Greece. Democratic ideals have been handed to us from that time.
D. In truth, however, this is an unhelpful assertion.
E. The Greeks gave us the word, hence did not provide us with a model.
A. A, B & D
B. B, C & D
C. B & D
D. B only
E. D only
Questions: 57 – 59
Every civilized society lives and thrives on a silent but profound agreement as to what is to be accepted as the valid mould of experience. Civilization is a complex system of dams, dykes. and canals warding off, directing, and articulating the influx of the surrounding fluid element: a fertile fenland, elaborately drained and protected from the high tides of chaotic, unexercised, and inarticulate experience. In such a culture, stable and sure of itself within the frontiers of ‘naturalized’ experience, the arts wield their creative power not so much in width as in depth. They do not create new experience, but deepen and purify the old. Their works do not differ from one another like a new horizon from a new horizon, but like a madonna from a Madonna.
The periods of art which are most vigorous in creative passion seem to occur when the established pattern of experience loosens its rigidity without as yet losing its force. Such a period was the Renaissance, and Shakespeare its poetic consummation. Then it was as though the discipline of the old order gave depth to the excitement of the breaking away, the depth of job and tragedy, of incomparable conquests and irredeemable losses. Adventurers of experience set out as though in lifeboats to rescue and bring back to the shore treasures of knowing and feeling which the old order had left floating on the high seas. The works of the early Renaissance and the poetry of Shakespeare vibrate with the compassion for live experience in danger of dying from exposure and neglect. In this compassion was the creative genius of the age. Yet, it was a genius of courage, not of desperate audacity. For, however elusively, it still knew of harbours and anchors, of homes to which to return, and of barns in which to store the harvest. The exploring spirit of art was in the depths of its consciousness still aware of a scheme of things into which to fit its exploits and creations. But the more this scheme of things loses its stability, the more boundless and uncharted appears the ocean of potential exploration. In the blank confusion of infinite potentialities flotsam of significance gets attached to jetsam of experience: for everything is sea, everything is at sea-
…The sea is all about us;
The sea is the land’s edge also, the granite
Into which it reaches, the beaches where it tosses
Its hints of earlier and other creation…
– and Rilke tells a story in which, as in T.S. Eliot’s poem, it is again the sea and the distance of ‘other creation’ that becomes the image of the poet’s reality. A rowing boat sets out on a difficult passage. The oarsmen labour in exact rhythm. There is no sign yet of the destination. Suddenly a man. seemingly idle, breaks out into song. And if the labour of the oarsmen meaninglessly defeats the real resistance of the real waves, it is the idle single who magically conquers the despair of apparent aimlessness. While the people next to him try to come to grips with the element that is next to them, his voice seems to bind the boat to the farthest distance so that the farthest distance draws it towards itself. ‘I don’t know why and how,’ is Rilke’s conclusion, ‘but suddenly I understood the situation of the poet, his place and function in this age. It does not matter if one denies him every place — except this one. There one must tolerate him.’
Q. 57 In the passage, the expression “like a madonna from a madonna” alludes to
A. The difference arising as a consequence of artistic license.
B. The difference between two artistic interpretations.
C. The difference between ‘life’ and ‘interpretation of life’.
D. The difference between ‘width’ and ‘depth’ of creative power.
E. The difference between the legendary character and the modern day singer.
Q. 58 The sea and ‘other creation’ leads Rilke to
A. Define the place of the poet in his culture.
B. Reflect on the role of the oarsman and the singer.
C. Muse on artistic labour and its aimlessness.
D. Understand the elements that one has to deal with.
E. Delve into natural experience and real waves.
Q. 59 According to the passage, the term “adventurers of experience” refers to
A. Poets and artists who are driven by courage.
B. Poets and artists who create their own genre.
C. Poets and artists of the Renaissance.
D. Poets and artists who revitalize and enrich the past for us.
E. Poets and artists who delve in flotsam and jetsam in sea.
Q. 60 Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Characters are also part of deep structure. Characters tie events in a story together and provide a thread of continuity and meaning. Stories can be about individuals, groups, projects, or whole organizations, so from an organizational studies perspective, the focal actor(s) determine the level and unit of analysis used in a study. Stories of mergers and acquisitions, for example, are commonplace. In these stories whole organizations are personified as actors. But these macrolevel stories usually are not told from the perspective of the macro-level participants, because whole organizations cannot narrate their experiences in the first person.
A. More generally, data concerning the identities and relationships of the characters in the story are required, if one is to understand role structure and social networks in which that process is embedded.
B. Personification of a whole organization abstracts away from the particular actors and from traditional notions of level of analysis.
C. The personification of a whole organization is important because stories differ depending on who is enacting various events.
D. Every story is told from a particular point of view, with a particular narrative voice, which is not regarded as part of the deep structure.
E. The personification of a whole organization is a textual device we use to make macrolevel theories more comprehensible. 61. Nevertheless, photographs still retain
Q. 61 Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Nevertheless, photographs still retain some of the magical allure that the earliest daguerreotypes inspired. As objects, our photographs have changed; they have become physically flimsier as they have become more technologically sophisticated. Daguerre produced pictures on copper plates: today many of our photographs never become tangible things, but instead remain filed away on computers and cameras, part of the digital ether that envelops the modern world. At the same time, our patience for the creation of images has also eroded. Children today are used to being tracked from birth by digital cameras and video recorders and they expect to see the results of their poses and performances instantly. The space between life as it is being lived and life as it is being displayed shrinks to a mere second.
A. Yet, despite these technical developments, photographs still remain powerful because they are reminders of the people and things we care about.
B. Images, after all, are surrogates carried into battle by a soldier or by a traveller on holiday.
C. Photographs, be they digital or traditional, exist to remind us of the absent, the beloved, and the dead.
D. In the new era of the digital image, the images also have a greater potential for fostering falsehood and trickery, perpetuating fictions that seem so real we cannot tell the difference.
E. Anyway, human nature being what it is, little time has passed after photography’s invention became means of living life through images.
Q. 62 Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Mma Ramotswe had a detective agency in Africa, at the foot of Kgale Hill. These were its assets: a tiny white van, two desks, two chairs, a telephone, and an old typewriter. Then there was a teapot, in which Mma Ramotswe – the only private lady detective in Botswana – brewed redbush tea. And three mugs – one for herself, one for her secretary, and one for the client. What else does a detective agency really need? Detective agencies rely on human intuition and intelligence, both of which Mma Ramotswe had in abundance.
A. But there was also the view, which again would appear on no inventory.
B. No inventory would ever include those, of course.
C. She had an intelligent secretary too.
D. She was a good detective and a good woman.
E. What she lacked in possessions was more than made up by a natural shrewdness.
Questions: 63 – 65
To discover the relation between rules, paradigms, and normal science, consider first how the historian isolates the particular loci of commitment that have been described as accepted rules. Close historical investigation of a given specialty at a given time discloses a set of recurrent and quasi-standard illustrations of various theories in their conceptual, observational, and instrumental applications. These are the community’s paradigms, revealed in its textbooks, lectures, and laboratory exercises. By studying them and by practicing with them, the members of the corresponding community learn their trade. The historian, of course, will discover in addition a penumbral area occupied by achievements whose status is still in doubt, but the core of solved problems and techniques will usually be clear. Despite occasional ambiguities, the paradigms of a mature scientific community can be determined with relative ease. That demands a second step and one of a somewhat different kind. When undertaking it, the historian must compare the community’s paradigms with each other and with its current research reports. In doing so, his object is to discover what isolable elements, explicit or implicit, the members of that community may have abstracted from their more global paradigms and deploy it as rules in their research. Anyone who has attempted to describe or analyze the evolution of a particular scientific tradition will necessarily have sought accepted principles and rules of this sort. Almost certainly, he will have met with at least partial success. But, if his experience has been at all like my own, he will have found the search for rules both more difficult and less satisfying than the search for paradigms. Some of the generalizations he employs to describe the community’s shared beliefs will present more problems. Others, however, will seem a shade too strong. Phrased in just that way, or in any other way he can imagine, they would almost certainly have been rejected by some members of the group he studies. Nevertheless, if the coherence of the research tradition is to be understood in terms of rules, some specification of common ground in the corresponding area is needed. As a result, the search for a body of rules competent to constitute a given normal research tradition becomes a source of continual and deep frustration. Recognizing that frustration, however, makes it possible to diagnose its source. Scientists can agree that a Newton, Lavoisier, Maxwell, or Einstein has produced an apparently permanent solution to a group of outstanding problems and still disagree, sometimes without being aware of it, about the particular abstract characteristics that make those solutions permanent. They can, that is, agree in their identification of a paradigm without agreeing on, or even attempting to produce, a full interpretation or rationalization of it. Lack of a standard interpretation or of an agreed reduction to rules will not prevent a paradigm from guiding research. Normal science can be determined in part by the direct inspection of paradigms, a process that is often aided by but does not depend upon the formulation of rules and assumption. Indeed, the existence of a paradigm need not even imply that any full set of rules exists.
Q. 63 What is the author attempting to illustrate through this passage?
A. Relationships between rules, paradigms, and normal science
B. How a historian would isolate a particular ‘loci of commitment’
C. How a set of shared beliefs evolves into a paradigm
D. Ways of understanding a scientific tradition
E. The frustrations of attempting to define a paradigm of a tradition
Q. 64 The term ‘loci of commitment’ as used in the passage would most likely correspond with which of the following?
A. Loyalty between a group of scientists in a research laboratory
B. Loyalty between groups of scientists across research laboratories
C. Loyalty to a certain paradigm of scientific inquiry
D. Loyalty to global patterns of scientific inquiry
E. Loyalty to evolving trends of scientific inquiry
Q. 65 The author of this passage is likely to agree with which of the following?
A. Paradigms almost entirely define a scientific tradition.
B. A group of scientists investigating a phenomenon would benefit by defining a set of rules.
C. Acceptance by the giants of a tradition is a sine qua non for a paradigm to emerge
D. Choice of isolation mechanism determines the type of paradigm that may emerge from a tradition.
E. Paradigms are a general representation of rules and beliefs of a scientific tradition.
Q. 66 In each question, there are four sentences. Each sentence has pairs of words/phrases that are italicized and highlighted. From the italicized and highlighted word(s)/phrase(s), select the most appropriate word(s)/phrase(s) to form correct sentences. Then, from the options given, choose the best one.
The cricket council that was [A] / were [B] elected last March is [A] are [B] at sixes and sevens over new rules.
The critics censored [A] / censured [B] the new movie because of its social unacceptability.
Amit’s explanation for missing the meeting was credulous [A] I credible [B].
She coughed discreetly [A] / discretely [B] to announce her presence.
A. BBAAA
B. AAABA
C. BBBBA
D. AABBA
E. BBBAA
Q. 67 In each question, there are four sentences. Each sentence has pairs of words/phrases that are italicized and highlighted. From the italicized and highlighted word(s)/phrase(s), select the most appropriate word(s)/phrase(s) to form correct sentences. Then, from the options given, choose the best one.
The further [A] / farther [B] he pushed himself, the more disillusioned he grew. For the crowds it was more of a historical [A] / historic [B] event; for their leader, it was just another day.
The old man has a healthy distrust [A] / mistrust [B] for all new technology.
This film is based on a real [A] I true [B] story.
One suspects that the compliment [A] / complement [B] was backhanded.
A. BABAB
B. ABBBA
C. BAABA
D. BBAAB
E. ABABA
Q. 68 In each question, there are four sentences. Each sentence has pairs of words/phrases that are italicized and highlighted. From the italicized and highlighted word(s)/phrase(s), select the most appropriate word(s)/phrase(s) to form correct sentences. Then, from the options given, choose the best one.
Regrettably [A] / Regretfully [B] I have to decline your invitation.
I am drawn to the poetic, sensual [A] / sensuous [B] quality of her paintings.
He was besides [A] / beside [B] himself with rage when I told him what I had done.
After brushing against a stationary [A] / stationery [B] truck my car turned turtle.
As the water began to rise over [A] / above [B] the danger mark, the signs of an imminent flood were clear.
A. BAABA
B. BBBAB
C. AAABA
D. BBAAB
E. BABAB
Questions: 69 – 71
The difficulties historians face in establishing cause-and-effect relations in the history of human societies are broadly similar to the difficulties facing astronomers, climatologists, ecologists, evolutionary biologists; geologists, and palaeontologists. To varying degrees each of these fields is plagued by the impossibility of performing replicated, controlled experimental interventions, the complexity arising from enormous numbers of variables, the resulting uniqueness of each system, the consequent impossibility of formulating universal laws, and the difficulties of predicting emergent properties and future behaviour. Prediction in history, as in other historical sciences, is most feasible on large spatial scales and over long times, when the unique features of millions of small-scale brief events become averaged out. Just as I could predict the sex ratio of the next 1,000 newborns but not the sexes of my own two children. The historian can recognize factors that made inevitable the broad outcome of the collision between American and Eurasian societies after 13,000 years of separate developments, but not the outcome of the 1960 U.S. presidential election. The details of which candidate said what during a single televised debate in October 1960 could have given the electoral victory to Nixon instead of to Kennedy, but no details of who said what could have blocked the European conquest of Native Americans. How can students of human history profit from the experience of scientists in other historical sciences? A methodology that has proved useful involves the comparative method and so-called natural experiments. While neither astronomers studying galaxy formation nor human historians can manipulate their systems in controlled laboratory experiments, they both can take advantage of natural experiments, by comparing systems differing in the presence or absence (or in the strong or weak effect) of some putative causative factor. For example, epidemiologists, forbidden to feed large amounts of salt to people experimentally, have still been able to identify effects of high salt intake by comparing groups of humans who already differ greatly in their salt intake: and cultural anthropologists, unable to provide human groups experimentally with varying resource abundances for many centuries, still study long-term effects of resource abundance on human societies by comparing recent Polynesian populations living on islands differing naturally in resource abundance. The student of human history can draw on many more natural experiments than just comparisons among the five inhabited continents. Comparisons can also utilize large islands that have developed complex societies in a considerable degree of isolation (such as Japan, Madagascar. Native American Hispaniola, New Guinea, Hawaii, and many others), as well as societies on hundreds of smaller islands and regional societies within each of the continents. Natural experiments in any field, whether in ecology or human history, are inherently open to potential methodological criticisms. Those include confounding effects of natural variation in additional variables besides the one of interest, as well as problems in inferring chains of causation from observed correlations between variables. Such methodological problems have been discussed in great detail for some of the historical sciences. In particular, epidemiology, the science of drawing inferences about human diseases by comparing groups of people (often by retrospective historical studies), has for a long time successfully employed formalized procedures for dealing with problems similar to those facing historians of human societies. In short, I acknowledge that it is much more difficult to understand human history than to understand problems in fields of science where history is unimportant and where fewer individual variables operate. Nevertheless, successful methodologies for analyzing historical problems have been worked out in several fields. As a result, the histories of dinosaurs, nebulae, and glaciers are generally acknowledged to belong to fields of science rather than to the humanities.
Q. 69 Why do islands with considerable degree of isolation provide valuable insights into human history?
A. Isolated islands may evolve differently and this difference is of interest to us
B. Isolated islands increase the number of observations available to historians.
C. Isolated islands, differing in their endowments and size may evolve differently and this difference can be attributed to their endowments and size.
D. Isolated islands. differing in their endowments and size, provide a good comparison to large islands such as Eurasia, Africa, Americas and Australia.
E. Isolated islands, in so far as they are inhabited, arouse curiosity about how human beings evolved there.
Q. 70 According to the author, why is prediction difficult in history?
A. Historical explanations are usually broad so that no prediction is possible.
B. Historical outcomes depend upon a large number of factors and hence prediction is difficult for each case.
C. Historical sciences, by their very nature, are not interested in a multitude of minor factors, which might be important in a specific historical outcome.
D. Historians are interested in evolution of human history and hence are only interested in long-term predictions.
E. Historical sciences suffer from the inability to conduct controlled experiments and therefore have explanations based on a few long-term factors.
Q. 71 According to the author, which of the following statements would be true?
A. Students of history are missing significant opportunities by not conducting any natural experiments.
B. Complex societies inhabiting large islands provide great opportunities for natural experiments.
C. Students of history are missing significant opportunities by not studying an adequate variety of natural experiments.
D. A unique problem faced by historians is their inability to establish cause and effect relationships.
E. Cultural anthropologists have overcome the problem of confounding variables through natural experiments.
Q. 72 The sentence/paragraph labelled A is in its correct place. The four that follow are labelled B, C, D and E, and need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate one.
A. In America, highly educated women, who are in stronger position in the labour market than less qualified ones, have higher rates of marriage than other groups.
B. Some work supports the Becker thesis, and some appears to contradict it.
C. And, as with crime, it is equally inconclusive.
D. But regardless of the conclusion of any particular piece of work, it is hard to establish convincing connections between family changes and economic factors using conventional approaches.
E. Indeed, just as with crime, an enormous academic literature exists on the validity of the pure economic approach to the evolution of family structures.
A. BCDE
B. DBEC
C. BDCE
D. ECBD
E. EBCD
Q. 73 The sentence/paragraph labelled A is in its correct place. The four that follow are labelled B, C, D and E, and need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate one.
A. Personal experience of mothering and motherhood are largely framed in relation to two discernible or “official” discourses: the “medical discourse and natural childbirth discourse”. Both of these tend to focus on the “optimistic stories” of birth and mothering and underpin stereotypes of the “good mother”.
B. At the same time, the need for medical expert guidance is also a feature for contemporary reproduction and motherhood. But constructions of good mothering have not always been so conceived – and in different may exist in parallel to other equally dominant discourses.
C. Similarly, historical work has shown how what are now taken-for-granted aspects of reproduction and mothering practices result from contemporary “pseudoscientific directives” and “managed constructs”. These changes have led to a reframing of modern discourses that pattern pregnancy and motherhood leading to an acceptance of the need for greater expert management.
D. The contrasting, overlapping, and ambiguous strands within these frameworks focus to varying degrees on a woman’s biological tie to her child and predisposition to instinctively know and be able to care for her child.
E. In addition, a third, “unofficial popular discourse” comprising “old wives” tales and based on maternal experiences of childbirth has also been noted. These discourses have also been acknowledged in work exploring the experiences of those who apparently do not “conform” to conventional stereotypes of the “good mother”.
A. EDBC
B. BCED
C. DBCE
D. EDCB
E. BCDE
Q. 74 The sentence/paragraph labelled A is in its correct place. The four that follow are labelled B, C, D and E, and need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate one.
A. Indonesia has experienced dramatic shifts in its formal governance arrangements since the fall of President Soeharto and the close of his centralized, authoritarian “New Order” regime in 1997.
B. The political system has taken its place in the nearly 10 years since Reformasi began. It has featured the active contest for political office among a proliferation of parties at central, provincial and district levels; direct elections for the presidency (since 2004); and radical changes in centre-local government relations towards administrative, fiscal, and political decentralization.
C. The mass media, once tidily under Soeharto’s thumb, has experienced significant liberalization, as has the legal basis for non-governmental organizations, including many dedicated to such controversial issues as corruption control and human rights.
D. Such developments are seen optimistically by a number of donors and some external analysts, who interpret them as signs of Indonesia’s political normalization.
E. A different group of analysts paint a picture in which the institutional forms have changed, bitt power relations have not. Vedi Hadiz argues that Indonesia’s “democratic transition” has been anything but linear.
A. BDEC
B. CBDE
C. CEBD
D. BCDE
Q. 75 The sentence/paragraph labelled A is in its correct place. The four that follow are labelled B, C, D and E, and need to be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose the most appropriate one.
A. I had six thousand acres of land, and had thus got much spare land besides the coffee plantation. Part of the farm was native forest, and about one thousand acres were squatters’ land, what [the Kikuyu] called their shambas.
B. The squatters’ land was more intensely alive than the rest of the farm, and was changing with the seasons the year round. The maize grew up higher than your head as you walked on the narrow hard-trampled footpaths in between the tall green rustling regiments.
C. The squatters are Natives, who with their families hold a few acres on a white man’s farm, and in return have to work for him a certain number of days in the year. My squatters, I think, saw the relationship in a different light, for many of them were born on the farm, and their fathers before them, and they very likely regarded me as a sort of superior squatter on their estates.
D. The Kikuyu also grew the sweet potatoes that have a vine like leaf and spread over the ground like a dense entangled mat, and many varieties of big yellow and green speckled pumpkins.
E. The beans ripened in the fields, were gathered and thrashed by the women, and the maize stalks and coffee pods were collected and burned, so that in certain seasons thin blue columns of smoke rose here and there all over the farm
A punching machine is used to punch a circular hole of diameter two Units from a square sheet of aluminium of width 2 units, as shown below. The hole is punched such that the circular hole touches one corner P of the square sheet and the diameter of the hole originating at P is in line with a diagonal of the square:
Q. 1 The proportion of the sheet area that remains after punching is:
A. (π +2)/ 8
B. (6 –π )/ 8
C. (4 – π)/4
D. (π -2)/ 4
E. (14 -3π)/ 6
Answer: B.
Explanation:
The area of triangle ABC is 1/2 *√2 *√2 = 1
Area of semicircle ABC = π/2
So, area of circle outside the square = π/2 – 1 = (π -2)/2
So, area of circle inside the sheet =π/2 – (π – 1) = 1 + π/2
Area of original square = 2*2 = 4
So, area of the sheet after punching = 4 – 1 – π/2 = 3 – π/2
So, proportion of sheet that remains after punching = (3 –π/2 )/4 = (6 – π)/8
Q. 2 Find the area of the part of the circle (round punch) falling outside the square sheet.
A. π /4
B. (π -1)/2
C. (π -1)/4
D. (π -2)/2
E. (π -2)/4
Answer: D.
Explanation:
The area of triangle ABC is 1/2 *√2 *√2 = 1
Area of semi-circle ABC = π/2
So, area of circle outside the square = π/2 – 1 = ( π-2)/2
Instructions
An airline has a certain free luggage allowance and charges for excess luggage at a fixed rate per kg. Two passengers, Raja and Praja have 60 kg of luggage between them, and are charged Rs 1200 and Rs 2400 respectively for excess luggage. Had the entire luggage belonged to one of them, the excess luggage charge would have been Rs 5400.
Q. 3 What is the weight of Praja’s luggage?
A. 20 kg
B. 25 kg
C. 30 kg
D. 35 kg
E. 40 kg
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Let the limit be x and the rate of charge be k per kg.
Let the excess luggage with Raja be R kg.
So, excess luggage with Praja = 2R kg
Now, excess luggage with Raja + excess luggage with Praja = 60 – 2x
So, 3R = 60 – 2x => R = 20 – 2x/3 which was charged 1200 Also, if one person had the entire luggage, excess luggage would have been 60 – x, which would have been charged 5400.
=> (60-2x)/3*(60-x) = 1200/5400
Solving this, x = 15 kg
So, Praja’s luggage = 35 kg
Q. 4 What is the free luggage allowance?
A. 10 kg
B. 15 kg
C. 20 kg
D. 25kg
E. 30kg
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Let the limit be x and the rate of charge be k per kg.
Let the excess luggage with Raja be R kg.
So, excess luggage with Praja = 2R kg
Now, excess luggage with Raja + excess luggage with Praja = 60 – 2x
So, 3R = 60 – 2x => R = 20 – 2x/3 which was charged 1200 Also, if one person had the entire luggage, excess luggage would have been 60 – x, which would have been charged 5400.
=> (60-2x)/3*(60-x) = 1200/5400
Solving this, x = 15 kg
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 5 If x = -0.5, then which of the following has the smallest value?
A. 21/x
B. 1/x
C. 1/x2
D. 2x
E. 1/√-x
Answer: B.
Explanation:
2P is always positive
x2 is always non negative
1/√-x is always positive
1/x is negative when x is negative.
In this case, x is negative =>1/x is smallest.
Q. 6 Which among 21/2 , 31/3 , 41/4 , 61/6, and 121/12 is the largest?
A. 21/2
B. 31/3
C. 41/4
D. 61/6
E. 121/12
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Make the power equal and compare the denominators.
21/2 can be written as 641/12
31/3 can be written as 811/12
41/4can be written as 641/12
61/6 can be written as 361/12
Among these, 811/12 is the greatest =>31/3 is the greatest.
Q. 7 If a/b = 1/3, b/c = 2, c/d = 1/2 , d/e = 3 and e/f = 1/4, then what is the value of abc/def ?
A. 3/8
B. 27/8
C. 3/4
D. 27/4
E. 1/4
Answer: A.
Explanation:
a/d = a/b * b/c * c/d = 1/3 * 2 * 1/2 = 1/3
Similarly, b/e and c/f are 3 and 3/8 respectively.
b/e = b/c*c/d*d/e = 3
c/f = c/d*d/e*e/f = 3/8
=> Value of abc/def = 1/3 * 3 * 3/8 = 3/8
Q. 8 The length, breadth and height of a room are in the ratio 3:2:1. If the breadth and height are halved while the length is doubled, then the total area of the four walls of the room will
A. remain the same
B. decrease by 13.64%
C. decrease by 15%
D. decrease by 18.75%
E. decrease by 30%
Answer: E.
Explanation:
The area of the four walls is length*height*2 + breadth*height*2
Initial area = 3*1*2 + 2*1*2 = 10
Final area = 6*1/2*2 + 1*1/2*2 = 7
So, the area decreased by 30%
Q. 9 Consider a sequence where the nth term, tn = n/(n + 2), n = 1, 2, …. The value of t3 ∗ t4 ∗ t5 ∗ ….. ∗ t53equals.
A. 2/495
B. 2/477
C. 12/55
D. 1/1485
E. 1/2970
Answer: A.
Explanation:
substituting 3,4…53 in the given function, we get
t3= 3/5
t4= 4/6
t5= 5/7
t6= 6/8
Multiplying the values, we get ⅗ * 4/6 * 5/7 * ….. 52/54 * 53/55 which ultimately after cancellations give 3*4 /54*55 = 2/495
Q.10 A group of 630 children is arranged in rows for a group photograph session. Each row contains three fewer children than the row in front of it. What number of rows is not possible?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Let x be in the front row.
So no. of children in next rows will be x-3,x-6,x-9,x-12,x-15,x-18,x-21….
Suppose there are 6 rows, then the sum is equal to x + x-3 + x-6 + x-9 + x-12 + x-15 = 6x – 45 This sum is equal to 630.
=> 6x – 45 = 630 => 6x = 585
Here, x is not an integer.
Hence, there cannot be 6 rows.
Q. 11 What are the values of x and y that satisfy both the equations?
20.7x ∗ 3−1.25y = 8√6 /27
40.3x ∗ 90.2y = 8 ∗ 811/5
A. x = 2, y = 5
B. x = 2.5, y = 6
C. x =3, y = 5
D. x = 3,y = 4
E. x = 5,y = 2
Answer: E.
Explanation:
20.7x ∗ 3−1.25y = 8√6 /27
=> 20.7x ∗ 3−1.25y = 23.5 ∗ 3-2.5
=> 0.7x = 3.5 => x = 5
=> -1.25y = -2.5 => y = 2
40.3x ∗ 90.2y = 8 ∗ 811/5
=> 40.3x ∗ 90.2y = 23 ∗ 30.8
=> 0.6x = 3 => x = 5
=> 0.4y = 0.8 => y = 2
=> (5,2) is the solution.
Q. 12 The number of solutions of the equation 2x + y = 40 where both x and y are positive integers and x <= y is:
A. 7
B. 13
C. 14
D. 18
E. 20
Answer: B.
Explanation:
y = 38 => x = 1
y = 36 => x = 2
…
…
y = 14 => x = 13
y = 12 => x = 14 => Cases from here are not valid as x > y.
Hence, there are 13 solutions.
Q. 13 A survey was conducted of 100 people to find out whether they had read recent issues of Golmal, a monthly magazine. The summarized information regarding readership in 3 months is given below:
Only September: 18;
September but not August: 23;
September and July: 8;
September:28;
July: 48;
July and August: 10;
none of the three months: 24
What is the number of surveyed people who have read exactly two consecutive issues (out of the three)?
A. 7
B. 9
C. 12
D. 14
E. 17
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Let the areas be labelled as shown in the diagram above.
The number of people corresponding to “none of the three months” is 24. So, H is 24.
Only September is 18. So, G = 18
September but not August is 23. So, G + D = 23.
Hence, D = 23 – 18 = 5.
We know that September and July are 8. So, D + E = 8
This implies E = 3.
September = 28.
So, D + E + F + G = 28.
So, F = 28 – 5 – 3 – 18 = 2.
July and August = 10.
So, B + E = 10.
E = 3. So, B = 7.
July = 48.
So, A + B + D + E = 48
A = 48 – 7 – 5 – 3 = 33.
There are 100 people in total. So, C = 100 – A – B – D – E – F – G – H
= 100 – 33 – 7 – 5 – 3 – 2 – 18 – 24 = 8
So, number of people who read exactly two consecutive issues
= (July & August) + (August & September)
= B + F = 7 + 2 = 9
Q. 14 The sum of four consecutive two-digit odd numbers, when divided by 10, becomes a perfect square. Which of the following can possibly be one of these four numbers?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 41
D. 67
E. 73
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Sum of the four numbers < 396
396/10 = 39.6
So, the perfect square is a number less than 39.6
The possibilities are 36, 25, 16 and 9
For the sum to be 360, the numbers can be 87, 89, 91 and 93
The sum of four consecutive odd numbers cannot be 250
For the sum to be 160, the numbers can be 37,39,41 and 43
The sum of 4 consecutive odd numbers cannot be 90
So, from the options, the answer is 41.
Q. 15 The graph of y – x (on the y axis) against y + x (on the x axis) is as shown below. (All graphs in this question are drawn to scale and the same scale and the same scale has been used on each axis.)
Which of the following shows the graph of y against x?
Answer: D.
Explanation:
y-x = k(y+x)
y = k(x+1)/(1-k)
Since k>1
Therefore y<0 for x>-1 and y>0 for x<-1
Option d correctly satisfy this condition
Q. 16 Consider the set S = { 1, 2, 3, .., 1000 }. How many arithmetic progressions can be formed from the elements of S that start with l and end with 1000 and have at least 3 elements?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
E. 8
Answer: D.
Explanation:
The nth term is a + (n-1)d
1000 = 1 + (n-1)d
So, (n-1)d = 999
999 = 3^3 * 37
So, the number of factors is 4*2 = 8
Since there should be at least 3 terms in the series, d cannot be 999.
So, the number of possibilities is 7
Q. 17 What values of x satisfy x2/3 + x1/3 − 2 ≤ 0 ?
A. −8 ≤ x ≤ 1
B. −1 ≤ x ≤ 8
C. 1 ≤ x ≤ 8
D. 1 ≤ x ≤ 18
E. −8 ≤ x ≤ 8
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Try to solve this type of questions using the options.
Substitute 0 first => We ger -2 <=0, which is correct. Hence, 0 must be in the solution set.
Substitute 8 => 4 + 2 – 2 <=0 => 6 <= 0, which is false. Hence, 8 must not be in the solution set.
=> Option 1 is the answer.
Q. 18 Let f(x) = max (2x + 1, 3 – 4x), where x is any real number. Then the minimum possible value of f(x) is:
A. 1/3
B. 1/2
C. 2/3
D. 4/3
E. 5/3
Answer: E.
Explanation:
The minimum value is obtained when 2x+1 = 3-4x => 6x = 2 => x = 1/3
So, f((x) = 2*1/3 + 1 = 5/3
Q. 19 Arun, Barun and Kiranmala start from the same place and travel in the same direction at speeds of 30, 40 and 60 km per hour respectively. Barun starts two hours after Arun. If Barun and Kiranmala overtake Arun at the same instant, how many hours after Arun did Kiranmala start?
A. 3
B. 3.5
C. 4
D. 4.5
E. 5
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Let the distance be D.
Time taken by Arun = D/30
Time taken by Barun = D/40
Now, D/40 = D/30 – 2
=> 3D. = 4D. – 240
=> D. = 240
Therefore time taken by Arun to cover 240 km = 240/30 = 8 hr
Time Kiranmala takes to cover 240 km = 240/60 = 4 hr
So, Kiranmala has to start 4 hours after Arun.
Q. 20 When you reverse the digits of the number 13, the number increases by 18. How many other two-digit numbers increase by 18 when their digits are reversed?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
E. 10
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Let the number be xy
10y + x = 10x + y + 18
=> 9y – 9x = 18
=> y – x = 2
So, y can take values from 9 to 4 (since 3 is already counted in 13)
Number of possible values = 6
Q. 21 A semicircle is drawn with AB as its diameter. From C, a point on AB, a line perpendicular to AB is drawn meeting the circumference of the semi-circle at D Given that AC = 2 cm and CD = 6 cm, the area of the semi-circle (in sq. cm) will be:
A. 32 π
B. 50 π
C. 40.5 π
D. 81 π
E. Can’t be determined
Answer: B.
Explanation:
In triangle CDO, which is a right angled triangle, we can use pythagoras theorem.
62+ (r − 2)2 = r2
=> 36 + r2 − 4r + 4 = r2
=> 4r = 40
=> r = 10
=> Area =π ∗ 10 ∗ 10/2 = 50π
Q. 22 There are 6 tasks and 6 persons. Task 1 cannot be assigned either to person 1 or to person 2; task 2 must be assigned to either person 3 or person 4. Every person is to be assigned one task. In how many ways can the assignment be done?
A. 144
B. 180
C. 192
D. 360
E. 716
Answer: A.
Explanation:
If the first task is assigned to either person 3 or person 4, the second task can be assigned in only 1 way. If the first task is assigned to either person 5 or person 6, the second task can be assigned in 2 ways. Therefore, the number of ways in which the first two tasks can be assigned is 2*1 + 2*2 = 6.
The other 4 tasks can be assigned to 4 people in 4! ways.
The total number of ways of assigning the 6 tasks is, therefore, 6*4! = 144.
Q. 23 The number of employees in Obelix Menhir Co. is a prime number and is less than 300. The ratio of the number of employees who are graduates and above, to that of employees who are not, can possibly be:
A. 101:88
B. 87:100
C. 110:111
D. 85:98
E. 97:84
Answer: E.
Explanation:
The addition of numerator and denominator should give a prime no. Only option E. gives that. 3 is a factor of 189 and 183 => A. and D. eliminated
17 is a factor of 187 and 221 => B. and C. eliminated
181 is prime.
Q. 24 If logyx = (a ∗ logzy) = (b ∗ logxz) = ab, then which of the following pairs of values for (a, b) is not possible?
Q. 25 An equilateral triangle DOC is drawn inside a square ABCD What is the value of the angle AOB in degrees?
A. 75
B. 90
C. 120
D. 135
E. 150
Answer: E.
Explanation:
Triangle AOD. is isosceles. So, angle DAO = angle DOA. = 75. Similarly, angle BOC. = 75. So, angle AOB. = 150
Data Interpretation
Instructions
In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups – PCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan’s score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table.)
Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.
Q. 26 How much did Dipan get in English Paper II?
A. 94
B. 96.5
C. 97
D. 98
E. 99
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Since we know the average , we can calculate the marks Dipan got in English Paper II (x) as ; 98+95+95.5+95+ (96+x)/2 = 96*5 . We get 96+x = 96.5*2 . Thus x = 97 . Hence option C. .
Q. 27 Students who obtained Group Scores of at least 95 in every group are eligible to apply for a prize. Among those who are eligible, the student obtaining the highest Group Score in Social Science Group is awarded this prize. The prize was awarded to:
A. Shreya
B. Ram
C. Ayesha
D. Dipan
E. no one from the top ten
Answer: D.
Explanation:
From the given data it is clear that Dipan is the only student who obtained Group Scores of at least 95 in every group and obtained the highest Group Score in Social Science Group. Hence option D.
Q. 28 Among the top ten students, how many boys scored at least 95 in at least one paper from each of the groups?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Among the top ten students, only Dipan scored at least 95 in at least one paper from each of the groups. Hence option A.
Q. 29 Each of the ten students was allowed to improve his/her score in exactly one paper of choice with the objective of maximizing his /her final score. Everyone scored 100 in the paper in which he or she chose to improve. After that, the topper among the ten students was:
A. Ram
B. Agni
C. Pritam
D. Ayesha
E. Dipan
Answer: E.
Explanation:
Lets first consider ayesha’s marks , her 7 marks will increase in geography . So increase in her average marks is 7/(2*5) = 0.7. So new average is 96.9 .
Now for dipan , his 5 marks will increase in mathematics . So increase in his average 5/5 = 1 . So his new average is 96+1 = 97 which is greater than ayesha’s . Other will clearly have a lower average than these both. Hence option E.
Q. 30 Had Joseph, Agni, Pritam and Tirna each obtained Group Score of 100 in the Social Science Group,then their standing in decreasing order of final score would be;
A. Pritam, Joseph, Tirna, Agni
B. Joseph, Tirna, Agni, Pritam
C. Pritam, Agni, Tirna, Joseph
D. Joseph, Tirna, Pritam, Agni
E. Pritam, Tirna, Agni, Joseph
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Had Joseph, Agni, Pritam and Tirna each obtained Group Score of 100 in the Social Science Group , their final score would increase by 0.9, 0.9, 2.2, 2.1 respectively. Adding these to the final score then their standing in decreasing order of final score would be Pritam, Joseph, Tirna, Agni with scores of 96.1,95.9,95.8,95.2 respectively. Hence option A.
Instructions
Mathematicians are assigned a number called Erdos number (named after the famous mathematician, Paul Erdos). Only Paul Erdos himself has an Erdos number of zero. Any mathematician who has written a research paper with Erdos has an Erdos number of 1.For other mathematicians, the calculation of his/her Erdos number is illustrated below:
Suppose that a mathematician X has co-authored papers with several other mathematicians. ‘From among them, mathematician Y has the smallest Erdos number. Let the Erdos number of Y be y. Then X has an Erdos number of y+1. Hence any mathematician with no co-authorship chain connected to Erdos has an Erdos number of infinity. :
In a seven day long mini-conference organized in memory of Paul Erdos, a close group of eight mathematicians, call them A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, discussed some research problems. At the beginning of the conference, A. was the only participant who had an infinite Erdos number. Nobody had an Erdos number less than that of F.
On the third day of the conference F co-authored a paper jointly with A. and C. This reduced the average Erdos number of the group of eight mathematicians to 3. The Erdos numbers of B, D, E, G and H remained unchanged with the writing of this paper. Further, no other co-authorship among any three members would have reduced the average Erdos number of the group of eight to as low as 3.
• At the end of the third day, five members of this group had identical Erdos numbers while the other three had Erdos numbers distinct from each other.
• On the fifth day, E. co-authored a paper with F which reduced the group’s average Erdos number by 0.5. The Erdos numbers of the remaining six were unchanged with the writing of this paper.
• No other paper was written during the conference.
Q. 31 The person having the largest Erdos number at the end of the conference must have had Erdos number (at that time):
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 14
E15
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Let us consider the Erdos number of A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H be a,b,c,d,e,f,g,h where f is the min, a is infinity.
At the end of 3rd day, F co authored with A. and C. Since F has min Erdos number ,the values of c,a will change to f+1 and the Erdos number of F will remain the same. [Because according to Erdos principle if a person co-authors with some one who has higher Erdos number then the Erdos number of co-authors will be min Erdos value + 1]
Average of the mathematicians is 3
Sum of the Erdos number of eight mathematicians=24
Erdos number at the third day:f+1,b,f+1,d,e,f,g,h
At the end of the fifth day, F co-authors with E. thereby changing the average to 2.5 and the Erdos number of rest of the mathematicians remain unchanged.
Sum of the Erdos numbers of eight mathematicians=20
So here the difference of 4[24-20] arose, which means e will be f+5 initially and changed to f+1 after co-authoring with F.
So the Erdos number at the third day:f+1,b,f+1,d,f+5,f,g,h
At the end of the third day, five mathematicians had the same Erdos number and the rest had distinct Erdos number from each other.
It cannot be f+5 because then there will be two mathematicians with the same Erdos number f+1. So five mathematicians will have f+1, one with f+5,one with f, one with some different value say x 5(f+1)+f+5+f+x=24
7f+x=14
The only value which satisfies the above equation is f=1,x=7
Erdos number at the end of fifth day,f+1,b,f+1,d,f+1,f,g,h
On tabulating, we get
Hence the person having the largest Erdos number at the end of the conference must have had Erdos number 7 . Hence option B.
Q. 32 How many participants in the conference did not change their Erdos number during the conference?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. Cannot be determined
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Let us consider the Erdos number of A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H be a,b,c,d,e,f,g,h where f is the min, a is infinity.
At the end of 3rd day, F co authored with A. and C. Since F has min Erdos number ,the values of c,a will change to f+1 and the Erdos number of F will remain the same. [Because according to Erdos principle if a person co-authors with some one who has higher Erdos number then the Erdos number of co-authors will be min Erdos value + 1]
Average of the mathematicians is 3 Sum of the Erdos number of eight mathematicians=24 Erdos number at the third day:f+1,b,f+1,d,e,f,g,h
At the end of the fifth day, F co-authors with E. thereby changing the average to 2.5 and the Erdos number of rest of the mathematicians remain unchanged. Sum of the Erdos numbers of eight mathematicians=20 So here the difference of 4[24-20] arose, which means e will be f+5 initially and changed to f+1 after co-authoring with F.
So the Erdos number at the third day:f+1,b,f+1,d,f+5,f,g,h
At the end of the third day, five mathematicians had the same Erdos number and the rest had distinct Erdos number from each other.
It cannot be f+5 because then there will be two mathematicians with the same Erdos number f+1. So five mathematicians will have f+1, one with f+5, one with f, one with some different value say x 5(f+1)+f+5+f+x=24
7f+x=14
The only value which satisfies the above equation is f=1,x=7
Erdos number at the end of fifth day,f+1,b,f+1,d,f+1,f,g,h On tabulating, we get
So B,D. ,F,G,H are 5 participants in the conference who did not change their Erdos number during the conference.
Q. 33 The Erdos number of C. at the end of the conference was:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Let us consider the Erdos number of A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H be a,b,c,d,e,f,g,h where f is the min, a is infinity.
At the end of 3rd day, F co authored with A. and C. Since F has min Erdos number ,the values of c,a will change to f+1 and the Erdos number of F will remain the same. [Because according to Erdos principle if a person co-authors with some one who has higher Erdos number then the Erdos number of co-authors will be min Erdos value + 1]
Average of the mathematicians is 3 Sum of the Erdos number of eight mathematicians=24 Erdos number at the third day:f+1,b,f+1,d,e,f,g,h
At the end of the fifth day, F co-authors with E. thereby changing the average to 2.5 and the Erdos number of rest of the mathematicians remain unchanged. Sum of the Erdos numbers of eight mathematicians=20 So here the difference of 4[24-20] arose, which means e will be f+5 initially and changed to f+1 after co-authoring with F.
So the Erdos number at the third day:f+1,b,f+1,d,f+5,f,g,h
At the end of the third day, five mathematicians had the same Erdos number and the rest had distinct Erdos number from each other.
It cannot be f+5 because then there will be two mathematicians with the same Erdos number f+1. So five mathematicians will have f+1, one with f+5, one with f, one with some different value say x 5(f+1)+f+5+f+x=24
7f+x=14
The only value which satisfies the above equation is f=1,x=7
Erdos number at the end of fifth day,f+1,b,f+1,d,f+1,f,g,h On tabulating, we get
Erdos no. of C. at the end is f+1 = 1+1 = 2. Hence option B.
Q. 34 The Erdos number of E. at the beginning of the conference was:
A. 2
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
E. 8
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Let us consider the Erdos number of A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H be a,b,c,d,e,f,g,h where f is the min, a is infinity.
At the end of 3rd day, F co authored with A. and C. Since F has min Erdos number ,the values of c,a will change to f+1 and the Erdos number of F will remain the same. [Because according to Erdos principle if a person co-authors with some one who has higher Erdos number then the Erdos number of co-authors will be min Erdos value + 1]
Average of the mathematicians is 3 Sum of the Erdos number of eight mathematicians=24
Erdos number at the third day:f+1,b,f+1,d,e,f,g,h
At the end of the fifth day, F co-authors with E. thereby changing the average to 2.5 and the Erdos number of rest of the mathematicians remain unchanged. Sum of the Erdos numbers of eight mathematicians=20 So here the difference of 4[24-20] arose, which means e will be f+5 initially and changed to f+1 after co-authoring with F.
So the Erdos number at the third day:f+1,b,f+1,d,f+5,f,g,h
At the end of the third day, five mathematicians had the same Erdos number and the rest had distinct Erdos number from each other.
It cannot be f+5 because then there will be two mathematicians with the same Erdos number f+1. So five mathematicians will have f+1, one with f+5, one with f, one with some different value say x 5(f+1)+f+5+f+x=24
7f+x=14
The only value which satisfies the above equation is f=1,x=7
Erdos number at the end of fifth day,f+1,b,f+1,d,f+1,f,g,h On tabulating, we get
Hence erdos no. of E. at the beginning of conference would be f+5 = 6 .
Q. 35 How many participants had the same Erdos number at the beginning of the conference?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. Cannot be determined
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Since at the end of the 3rd day 5 people had identical erdos no.(f+1) so : 5*(f+1) +f+f+5+x = 24 ; Only f=1 and x = 7 satisfies the equation. So out of 5 people who had identical erdos no. at the end of day 3, 2 of them had different nos. at the beginning. So there were 5-2 = 3 participants who had the same Erdos number at the beginning of the conference.
Instructions
Two traders, Chetan and Michael, were involved in the buying and selling Of MCS shares over five trading days. At the beginning of the first day, the MCS share was priced at Rs 100, while at the end of the fifth day it was priced at Rs 110. At the end of each day, the MCS share price either went up by Rs 10, or else, it came down by Rs 10. Both Chetan and Michael took buying and selling decisions at the end of each trading day. The beginning price of MCS share on a given
day was the same as the ending price of the previous day. Chetan and Michael started with the same number of shares and amount of cash, and had enough of both. Below are some additional facts about how Chetan and Michael traded over the five trading days.
• Each day if the price went up, Chetan sold 10 shares of MCS at the closing price. On the other hand, each day if the price went down, he bought 10 shares at the closing price.
• If on any day, the closing price was above Rs 110, then Michael sold 10 shares of MCS, while if it was below Rs 90, he bought 10 shares, all at the closing price.
Q. 36 If Chetan sold 10 shares of MCS on three consecutive days, while Michael sold 10 shares only once during the five days, what was the price of MCS at the end of day 3?
A. Rs 90
B. Rs 100
C. Rs 110
D. Rs 120
E. Rs 130
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Let at start no. of shares of both be 0 (No. of shares can be negative) and M and C. be no. of shares at the end of 5th day. Following are the possibilities in the changes in share prices over days :
In the 5th possibility we can see that Chetan sold 10 shares of MCS on three consecutive days, while Michael sold 10 shares only once during the five days, so price of MCS at the end of day 3 was 110. Hence option C.
Q. 37 If Michael ended up with Rs 100 less cash than Chetan at the end of day 5, what was the difference in the number of shares possessed by Michael and Chetan (at the end of day 5)?
A. Michael had l0 less shares than Chetan.
B. Michael had 10 more shares than Chetan.
C. Chetan had 10 more shares than Michael.
D. Chetan had 20 more shares than Michael.
E. Both had the same number of shares.
Answer: E.
Explanation:
Let at start no. of shares of both be 0 (No. of shares can be negative) and M and C. be no. of shares at the end of 5th day. Following are the possibilities in the changes in share prices over days :
For the 6th possibility we find that chetan earned 1300 after selling and earned 1200 after selling at 120. Hence when Michael ended up with Rs 100 less cash than Chetan at the end of day 5 the no. of shares possesed are same.
Q. 38 If Chetan ended up with Rs 1300 more cash than Michael at the end of day 5, what was the price of MCS share at the end of day 4?
A. Rs 90
B. Rs 100
C. Rs 110
D. Rs 120
E. Not uniquely determinable
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Let at start no. of shares of both be 0 (No. of shares can be negative) and M and C. be no. of shares at the end of 5th day. Following are the possibilities in the changes in share prices over days :
We can calculate in the 3rd possibility, Chetan ended up with Rs 1300 and Michael ended with 0 ( by selling no shares) at the end of day 5, the price of MCS share at the end of day 4 is 100 as from the table.
Q. 39 What could have been the maximum possible increase in combined cash balance of Chetan and Michael at the end of the fifth day?
A. Rs 3700
B. Rs 4000
C. Rs 4700
D. Rs 5000
E. Rs 6000
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Let at start no. of shares of both be 0 (No. of shares can be negative) and M and C. be no. of shares at the end of 5th day. Following are the possibilities in the changes in share prices over days :
In the 8th possibility we can calculate that chetan ended up with 1300 and michael ended with 3700 cash . So the combined cash balance of Chetan and Michael at the end of the fifth day is 5000. Hence option D.
Q. 40 If Michael ended up with 20 more shares than Chetan at the end of day 5, what was the price of the share at the end of day 3?
A. Rs 90
B. Rs 100
C. Rs 110
D. Rs 120
E. Rs 130
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Let at start no. of shares of both be 0 (No. of shares can be negative) and M and C. be no. of shares at the end of 5th day. Following are the possibilities in the changes in share prices over days :
In the second possibility we can see that difference of no. of shares in 20 and at the end of the 3rd day the price was 90 .Hence option A.
Instructions
A significant amount of traffic flows from point S to point T in the one-way street network shown below. Points A, B, C, and D are junctions in the network, and the arrows mark the direction of traffic flow. The fuel cost in rupees for travelling along a street is indicated by the number adjacent to the arrow representing the street. –
Motorists traveling from point S to point T would obviously take the route for which the total cost of traveling is the minimum. If two or more routes have the same least travel cost, then motorists are indifferent between them. Hence, the traffic gets evenly distributed among all the least cost routes.
The government can control the flow of traffic only by levying appropriate toll at each junction. For example, if a motorist takes the route S-A-T (using junction A alone), then the total cost of travel would be Rs 14 (i.e., Rs 9 + Rs 5) plus the toll charged at junction A
Q. 41 If the government wants to ensure that all motorists travelling from S to T pay the same amount (fuel costs and toll combined) regardless of the route they choose and the street from B to C is under repairs (and hence unusable), then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this goal is:
A. 2,5,3,2
B. 0,5,3,2
C. 1,5,3,2
D. 2,3,5,1
E. 1,3,5,1
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Let the toll charged at junctions A, B, C, and D be a,b,c and d respectively. Then the so that equal amount is collected through all route we have, 9+a+5=2+b+2+a+5=10+d+c=13+d. Then from the options only option C satisfies the above equality. hence option C
Q. 42 If the government wants to ensure that no traffic flows on the street from D to T, while equal amount of traffic flows through junctions A and C, then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C,and D respectively to achieve this goal is:
A. 1,5,3,3
B. 1,4,4,3
C. 1,5,4,2
D. 0,5,2,3
E. 0,5,2,2
Answer: E.
Explanation:
Let the toll charged at junctions A, B, C, and D be a,b,c and d respectively. Now since we want equal traffic through A and C, total cost through routes passing from A. and C should be equal. So we have (9+a+5) + (2+b+2+a+5) = (2+3+b+c+2) + (7+d+1+c+2) . Only option E. satisfies the above equality.
Q. 43 If the government wants to ensure that all routes from S to T get the same amount of traffic, then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this goal is:
A. 0, 5, 2, 2
B. 0,5,4,1
C. 1,5,3,3
D. 1, 5, 3,2
E. 1,5,4,2
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Now the fuel cost along different routes are :
SAT = 14
SBAT = 9
SBCT = 7
SDCT = 10
SDT = 13
Now , if we consider option D. Total cost for all routes comes out to be the same which is 15. Hence option D.
Q. 44 If the government wants to ensure that the traffic at S gets evenly distributed along streets from S to A, from S to B, and from S to D, then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this goal is:
A. 0,5,4,1
B. 0,5,2,2
C. 1,5,3,3
D. 1,5,3,2
E. 0,4,3,2
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Total cost = fuel cost + toll
Total cost along SAT : 14+toll A
Total cost along SBAT : 9+toll A+toll B
Total cost along SDT : 13+toll D
Now when option A is considered , total costs come out to be same.
Hence option A is correct.
Q. 45 The government wants to devise a toll policy such that the total cost to the commuters per trip is minimized. The policy should also ensure that not more than 70 per cent of the total traffic passes through junction B. The cost incurred by the commuter travelling from point S to point T under this policy will be:
A. Rs 7
B. Rs 9
C. Rs 10
D. Rs 13
E. Rs 14
Answer: C.
Explanation:
The costs of the routes are as given below:
S – B. – C. – T = 7
S – B. – A. – T = 9
S – D. – C. – T = 10
S – D. – T = 13
S – A. -T = 14
Hence now 100% of the traffic flows through S – B – C – T
Now if we make the cost of traveling through S – B – C – T same as some other route not going through B, then the traffic will be equally distributed between these two routes. The lowest such route is S-D-C-T. The difference in cost = 3. Hence if we levy a toll of Rs.3 at B, the costs of SBCT and SBAT become 10,12 respectively and other routes are not affected. So 50% traffic flows through SBCT and 50% flows through SDCT . Hence cost in this policy = 10.
Instructions
K, L, M, N, P, Q, R, S, U and W are the only ten members in a department. There is a proposal to form a team from within the members of the department, subject to the following conditions:
1. A. team must include exactly one among P,R and S.
2. A. team must include either M or Q, but not both.
3. If a team includes K, then it must also include L, and vice versa.
4. If a team includes one among S, U and W, then it should also include the other two.
5. L and N cannot be members of the same team.
6. L and U cannot be members of the same team.
The size of a team is defined as the number of members in the team.
Q. 46 What could be the size of a team that includes K?
A. 2 or 3
B. 2 or 4
C. 3 or 4
D. Only 2
E. Only 4
Answer: E.
Explanation:
A. team which has K should have L also.
Since L is there in the team, N and U should not be there in the team. Since U is not there in the team, S and W should not be there in the team.
So, the team will have K, L, one of P and R and one of M or Q.
So, the team size will be 4.
Q. 47 In how many ways a team can be constituted so that the team includes N?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
Answer: E.
Explanation:
Since N is in the team, L and K cannot be in the team.
The team can have one of M and Q. So, 2 ways of selection.
If the team has S, then it should have U and W as well.
If the team has no S, then it should have one of P or R.
So, the number of ways of forming the team is 2*(1+2) = 6 ways
Q. 48 What would be the size of the largest possible team?
A. 8
B. 7
C. 6
D. 5
E. cannot be determined
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Out of P, R and S only 1 can be in the team. If S is there, U and W will also be there. So, P and R should not be in the team for its size to be maximum.
Out of M and Q, only 1 can be there.
If L is there in the team, N and U cannot be in the team.
If L is not there in the team, then K is also not there in the team but N and U can be in the team.
So, the maximum team size is 5 consisting of S, U, W, (M or Q), N.
Q. 49 Who can be a member of a team of size 5?
A. K
B. L
C. M
D. P
E. R
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Out of P, R and S only 1 can be in the team. If S is there, U and W will also be there. So, P and R should not be in the team for its size to be maximum.
Out of M and Q, only 1 can be there.
If L is there in the team, N and U cannot be in the team.
If L is not there in the team, then K is also not there in the team but N and U can be in the team. So, the maximum team size is 5 consisting of S, U, W, (M or Q), N.
So, M can be a member of team size 5.
Q. 50 Who cannot be a member of a team of size 3?
A. L
B. M
C. N
D. P
E. Q
Answer: A.
Explanation:
If L is in the team, the team should include K also. The team should have one among P, R and S and one among M and Q.
So, the team size cannot be 3 if L is in the team.
Verbal
Instructions
Fifteen years after communism was officially pronounced dead, its spectre seems once again to be haunting Europe. Last month, the Council of Europe’s parliamentary assembly voted to condemn the “crimes of totalitarian communist regimes,” linking them with Nazism and complaining that communist parties are still “legal and active in some countries.” Now Goran Lindblad, the conservative Swedish MP behind the resolution, wants to go further. Demands that European Ministers launch a continent-wide anti-communist campaign – including school textbook revisions, official memorial days, and museums – only narrowly missed the necessary two-thirds majority. Mr. Lindblad pledged to bring the wider plans back to the Council of Europe in the coming months:
He has chosen a good year for his ideological offensive: this is the 50’h anniversary of Nikita Khrushchev’s denunciation of Josef Stalin and the subsequent Hungarian uprising, which will doubtless be the cue for further excoriation of the communist record. Paradoxically, given that there is no communist government left in Europe outside Moldova, the attacks have if anything, become more extreme as time has gone on. A. clue as to why that might be can be found in the rambling report by Mr. Lindblad that led to the Council of Europe declaration. Blaming class struggle and public ownership, he explained “different elements of communist ideology such as equality or social justice still seduce many” and “a sort of nostalgia for communism is still alive.” Perhaps the real problem for Mr. Lindblad and his right-wing allies in Eastern Europe is that communism is not dead enough – and they will only be content when they have driven a stake through its heart.
The fashionable attempt to equate communism and Nazism is in reality a moral and historical nonsense. Despite the cruelties of the Stalin terror, there was no Soviet Treblinka or Sorbibor, no extermination camps built to murder millions. Nor did the Soviet Union launch the most devastating war in history at a cost of more than 50 million lives – in fact it played the decisive role in the defeat of the German war machine. Mr. Lindblad and the Council of Europe adopt as fact the wildest estimates of those “killed by communist regimes” (mostly in famines) from the fiercely contested Black Book of Communism, which also underplays the number of deaths attributable to Hitler. But, in any case, none of this explains why anyone might be nostalgic in former communist states, now enjoying the delights of capitalist restoration.
The dominant account gives no sense of how communist regimes renewed themselves after 1956 or why Western leaders feared they might overtake the capitalist world well into the 1960s. For all its brutalities and failures, communism in the Soviet Union, Eastern Europe, and elsewhere delivered rapid industrialization, mass education, job security, and huge advances in social and gender equality. Its existence helped to drive up welfare standards in the west, and provided a powerful counterweight to western global domination.
It would be easier to take the Council of Europe’s condemnation of communist state crimes seriously if it had also seen fit to denounce the far bloodier record of European colonialism – which only finally came to an end in the 1970s. This was a system of racist despotism, which dominated the globe in Stalin’s time. And while there is precious little connection between the ideas of fascism and communism, there is an intimate link between colonialism and Nazism. The terms lebensraum and konzentrationslager were both first used by the German colonial regime in South-West Africa (now Namibia), which committed genocide against the Herero and Nama peoples and bequeathed its ideas and personnel directly to the Nazi parry.
Around 10 million Congolese died as a result of Belgian forced labor and mass murder in the early twentieth century; tens of millions perished in avoidable or enforced famines in British-ruled India; up to a million Algerians died in their war for independence, while controversy now rages in France about a new law requiring teachers to put a positive spin on colonial history. Comparable atrocities were carried out by all European colonialists, but not a word of condemnation from the Council of Europe. Presumably, European lives count for more.
No major twentieth century political tradition is without blood on its hands, but battles over history are more about the future than the past. Part of the current enthusiasm in official Western circles for dancing on the grave of communism is no doubt about relations with today’s Russia and China. But it also reflects a determination to prove there is no alternative to the new global capitalist order – and that any attempt to find one is bound to lead to suffering. With the new imperialism now being resisted in the Muslim world and Latin America, growing international demands for social justice and ever greater doubts about whether the environmental crisis can be solved within the existing economic system, the pressure for alternatives will increase.
Q. 51 Among all the apprehensions that Mr. Goran Lindblad expresses against communism, which one gets admitted, although indirectly, by the author?
A. There is nostalgia for communist ideology even if communism has been abandoned by most European nations.
B. Notions of social justice inherent in communist ideology appeal to critics of existing systems.
C. Communist regimes were totalitarian and marked by brutalities and large scale violence.
D. The existing economic order is wrongly viewed as imperialistic by proponents of communism:
E. Communist ideology is faulted because communist regimes resulted in economic failures.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
From the 3rd para we find the sentences like ‘ … Mr. Lindblad and the Council of Europe adopt as fact the wildest estimates of those “killed by communist regimes” (mostly in famines) from..’ From here we can infer that among all apprehensions that Mr. Goran Lindblad expresses against communism this option C. is admitted indirectly.
Q. 52 What, according to the author, is the real reason for a renewed attack against communism?
A. Disguising the unintended consequences of the current economic order such as social injustice and environmental crisis.
B. Idealising the existing ideology of global capitalism.
C. Making communism a generic representative of all historical atrocities, especially those perpetrated by the European imperialists.
D. Communism still survives, in bits and pieces, in the minds and hearts of people.
E. Renewal of some communist regimes has led to the apprehension that communist nations might overtake the capitalists.
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Options A, C and E are irrelevant according to the passage.
Both B and D seem to be the answers, but the question asks for the real reason.
If communism is not a threat, then it is not required to destroy it. So, D. cannot be the real reason. Hence, option B is the answer.
Q. 53 The author cites examples of atrocities perpetrated by European colonial regimes in order to
A. compare the atrocities committed by colonial regimes with those of communist regimes.
B. prove that the atrocities committed by colonial regimes were more than those of communist regimes.
C. prove that, ideologically, communism was much better than colonialism and Nazism.
D. Neutralise the arguments of Mr. Lindblad and to point out that the atrocities committed by colonial regimes were more than those of communist regimes. .
E. Neutralize the arguments of Mr. Lindblad and to argue that one needs to go beyond and look at the motives of these regimes.
Answer: E.
Explanation:
Option A,B,C. are clearly not the answers and are out of context . Out of D. and E. , option E. gives perfect reason of why author cites examples of atrocities perpetrated by European colonial regimes.
Q. 54 Why, according to the author, is Nazism closer to colonialism than it is to communism?
A. Both colonialism and Nazism were examples of tyranny of one race over another.
B. The genocides committed by the colonial and the Nazi regimes were of similar magnitude.
C. Several ideas of the Nazi regime were directly imported from colonial regimes.
D. Both colonialism and Nazism are based on the principles of imperialism.
E. While communism was never limited to Europe, both the Nazis and the colonialists originated in Europe.
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Author compares the motives behind all the atrocities and according to him colonialism and Nazism were examples of tyranny of one race over another. Hence option A is the answer.
Q. 55 Which of the following cannot be inferred as a compelling reason for the silence of the Council of Europe on colonial atrocities?
A. The Council of Europe being dominated by erstwhile colonialists.
B. Generating support for condemning communist ideology.
C. Unwillingness to antagonize allies by raking up an embarrassing past.
D. Greater value seemingly placed on European lives.
E. Portraying both communism and Nazism as ideologies to be condemned.
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Except D, all the other options are compelling reasons for the silence of the Council of Europer over colonial atrocities. Option D is the compelling reason for condemnation of communism.
Hence, option D is the answer.
Instructions
My aim is to present a conception of justice which generalizes and carries to a higher level of abstraction the familiar theory of the social contract. In order to do this we are not to think of the original contract as one to enter a particular society or to set up a particular form of government. Rather, the idea is that the principles of justice for the basic structure of society are the object of the original agreement. They are the principles that free and rational persons concerned to further their own interests would accept in an initial position of equality. These principles are to regulate all further agreements; they specify the kinds of social cooperation that can be entered into and the forms of government that can be established. This way of regarding the principles of justice, I shall call justice as fairness. Thus, we are to imagine that those who engage in social cooperation choose together, in one joint act, the principles which are to assign basic rights and duties and to determine the division of social benefits. Just as each person must decide by rational reflection what constitutes his good, that is, the system of ends which it is rational for him to pursue, so a group of persons must decide once and for all what is to count among them as just and unjust. The choice which rational men would make in this hypothetical situation of equal liberty determines the principles of justice.
In ‘justice as fairness’, the original position is not an actual historical state of affairs. It is understood as a purely hypothetical situation characterized so as to lead to a certain conception of justice. Among the essential features of this situation is that no one knows his place in society, his class position or social status, nor does anyone know his fortune in the distribution of natural assets and abilities, his intelligence, strength, and the like. I shall even assume that the parties do not know their conceptions of the good or their special psychological propensities. The principles of justice are chosen behind a veil of ignorance. This ensures that no one is advantaged or disadvantaged in the choice of principles by the outcome of natural chance or the contingency of social circumstances. Since all are similarly situated and no one is able to design principles to favor his particular condition, the principles of justice are the result of a fair agreement or bargain.
Justice as fairness begins with one of the most general of all choices which persons might make together, namely, with the choice of the first principles of a conception of justice which is to regulate all subsequent criticism and reform of institutions. Then, having chosen a conception of justice, we can suppose that they are to choose a constitution and a legislature to enact laws, and so on, all in accordance with the principles of justice initially agreed upon. Our social situation is just if it is such that by this sequence of hypothetical agreements we would have contracted into the general system of rules which defines it. Moreover, assuming that the original position does determine a set of principles, it will then be true that whenever social institutions satisfy these principles, those engaged in them can say to one another that they are cooperating on terms to which they would agree if they were free and equal persons whose relations with respect to one another were fair. They could all view their arrangements as meeting the stipulations which they would acknowledge in an initial situation that embodies widely accepted and reasonable constraints on the choice of principles. The general recognition of this fact would provide the basis for a public acceptance of the corresponding principles of justice. No society can, of course, be a scheme of cooperation which men enter voluntarily in a literal sense; each person finds himself placed at birth in some particular position in some particular society, and the nature of this position materially affects his life prospects. Yet a society satisfying the principles of justice as fairness comes as close as a society can to being a voluntary scheme, for it meets the principles which free and equal persons would assent to under circumstances that are fair.
Q. 56 A just society, as conceptualized in the passage, can be best described as:
A. A Utopia in which everyone is equal and no one enjoys any privilege based on their existing positions and powers. ‘
B. A hypothetical society in which people agree upon principles of justice which are fair.
C. A society in which principles of justice are not based on the existing positions and powers of the individuals.
D. A society in which principles of justice are fair to all.
E. A hypothetical society in which principles of justice are not based on the existing positions and powers of the individuals.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
A. just society is not a utopia according to the passage => option A is wrong.
The society mentioned in the passage is not hypothetical => options B and E are wrong.
Between option C and option D, option C fits better to be the answer because it is similar to the authors views in the passage whereas option D is too generalized.
Hence, C is the answer.
Q. 57 The original agreement or original position in the passage has been used by the author as:
A. A hypothetical situation conceived to derive principles of justice which are not influenced by position, status and condition of individuals in the society.
B. A hypothetical situation in which every individual is equal and no individual enjoys any privilege based on the existing positions and powers. .
C. A hypothetical situation to ensure fairness of agreements among individuals in society.
D. An imagined situation in which principles of justice would have to be fair.
E. An imagined situation in which fairness is the objective of the principles of justice to ensure that no individual enjoys any privilege based on the existing positions and powers.
Answer: A.
Explanation:
It is clearly mentioned in the 2nd para of the passage that the original agreement is a hypothetical situation and is not influenced by position or status of the individual. Refer to the sentence “It is understood as a purely hypothetical situation………intelligence, strength and the like.”
Q. 58 Which of the following best illustrates the situation that is equivalent to choosing ‘the principles of justice’ behind a ‘veil of ignorance’?
A. The principles of justice are chosen by businessmen, who are marooned on an uninhabited island after a shipwreck, but have some possibility of returning.
B. The principles of justice are chosen by a group of school children whose capabilities are yet to develop.
C. The principles of justice are chosen by businessmen, who are marooned on an uninhabited island after a shipwreck and have no possibility of returning.
D. The principles of justice are chosen assuming that such principles will govern the lives of the rule makers only in their next birth if the rule makers agree that they will be born again.
E. The principles of justice are chosen by potential immigrants who are unaware of the resources necessary to succeed in a foreign country.
Answer: D.
Explanation:
In this second paragraph, refer to the following lines:”This ensures that no one is advantaged or disadvantaged in the choice of principles by the outcome of natural chance or the contingency of social circumstances.” If the rule makers agree that they will be born again and these principals will govern in the next birth, then they are framing the laws in the veil of ignorance.
Q. 59 Why, according to the passage, do principles of justice need to be based on an original agreement?
A. Social institutions and laws can be considered fair only if they conform to principles of justice.
B. Social institutions and laws can be fair only if they are consistent with the principles of justice as initially agreed upon.
C. Social institutions and laws need to be fair in order to be just.
D. Social institutions and laws evolve fairly only if they are consistent with the principles of justice as initially agreed upon.
E. Social institutions and laws conform to the principles of justice as initially agreed upon.
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Refer to the sentence “Our social situation is just…………general system of rules which define it.” Option B. justifies this whereas other options deviate from this statement.
Q. 60 Which of the following situations best represents the idea of justice as fairness, as argued in the passage?
A. All individuals are paid equally for the work they do.
B. Everyone is assigned some work for his or her livelihood.
C. All acts of theft are penalized equally.
D. All children are provided free education in similar schools.
E. All individuals are provided a fixed sum of money to take care of their health.
Answer: D.
Explanation:
The author says that the initial equality and the veil of ignorance are the most important.
Among the given options, only option D. fits to be the answer because of the initail equality it poses. Hence, option D. is the answer.
Instructions
Our propensity to look out for regularities, and to impose laws upon nature, leads to the psychological phenomenon of dogmatic thinking or, more generally, dogmatic behaviour: we expect regularities everywhere and attempt to find them even where there are none; events which do not yield to these attempts we are inclined to treat as a kind of `background noise’; and we stick to our expectations even when they are inadequate and we ought to accept defeat. This dogmatism is to some extent necessary. It is demanded by a situation which can only be dealt with by forcing our conjectures upon the world. Moreover, this dogmatism allows us to approach a good theory in stages, by way of approximations: if we accept defeat too easily, we may prevent ourselves from finding that we were very nearly right.
It is clear that this dogmatic attitude; which makes us stick to our first impressions, is indicative of a strong belief; while a critical attitude, which is ready to modify its tenets, which admits doubt and demands tests, is indicative of a weaker belief. Now according to Hume’s theory, and to the popular theory, the strength of a belief should be a product of repetition; thus it should always grow with experience, and always be greater in less primitive persons. But dogmatic thinking, an uncontrolled wish to impose regularities, a manifest pleasure in rites and in repetition as such, is characteristic of primitives and children; and increasing experience and maturity sometimes create an attitude of caution and criticism rather than of dogmatism.
My logical criticism of Hume’s psychological theory, and the considerations connected with it, may seem a little removed from the field of the philosophy of science. But the distinction between dogmatic and critical thinking, or the dogmatic and the critical attitude, brings us right back to our central problem. For the dogmatic attitude is clearly related to the tendency to verify our laws and schemata by seeking to apply them and to confirm them, even to the point of neglecting refutations, whereas the critical attitude is one of readiness to change them – to test them; to refute them; to falsify them, if possible. This suggests that we may identify the critical attitude with the scientific attitude, and the dogmatic attitude with the one which we have described as pseudo-scientific. It further suggests that genetically speaking the pseudo-scientific attitude is more primitive than, and prior to, the scientific attitude: that it is a pre-scientific attitude. And this primitivity or priority also has its logical aspect. For the critical attitude is not so much opposed to the dogmatic attitude as super-imposed upon it: criticism must be directed against existing and influential beliefs in need of critical revision – in other words, dogmatic beliefs. A. critical attitude needs for its raw material, as it were, theories or beliefs which are held more or less dogmatically.
Thus, science must begin with myths, and with the criticism of myths; neither with the collection of observations, nor with the invention of experiments, but with the critical discussion of myths, and of magical techniques and practices. The scientific tradition is distinguished from the pre-scientific tradition in having two layers. Like the latter, it passes on its theories; but it also passes on a critical attitude towards them. The theories are passed on, not as dogmas, but rather with the challenge to discuss them and improve upon them.
The critical attitude, the tradition of free discussion of theories with the aim of discovering their weak spots so that they may be improved upon, is the attitude of reasonableness, of rationality. From the point of view here developed, all laws, all theories, remain essentially tentative, or conjectural, or hypothetical, even when we feel unable to doubt them any longer. Before a theory has been refuted we can never know in what way it may have to be modified.
Q. 61 In the context of science, according to the passage, the interaction of dogmatic beliefs and critical attitude can be best described as:
A. A. duel between two warriors in which one has to die.
B. The effect of a chisel on a marble stone while making a sculpture.
C. The feedstock (natural gas) in fertilizer industry being transformed into fertilizers.
D. A. predator killing its prey.
E. The effect of fertilizers on a sapling.
Answer: B.
Explanation:
It has been stated in the passage that “For the critical attitude is not so much opposed to the dogmatic attitude as super-imposed upon it: criticism must be directed against existing and influential beliefs in need of critical revision – in other words, dogmatic beliefs. A. critical attitude needs for its raw material, as it were, theories or beliefs which are held more or less dogmatically.”
From this we can infer that critical attitude is not opposed to dogmatic beliefs. Rather it uses dogmatic beliefs as raw material. Hence, we can eliminate options A, D. and E.
From the passage, we can infer that the critical attitude acts on dogmatic beliefs to refine them. Hence, option B. is more appropriate.
Q. 62 According to the passage, the role of a dogmatic attitude of dogmatic behaviour in the development of science is
A. critical and important, as, without it, initial hypotheses or conjectures can never be made.
B. positive, as conjectures arising out of our dogmatic attitude become science.
C. negative, as it leads to pseudo-science.
D. neutral, as the development of science is essentially because of our critical attitude.
E. inferior to critical attitude, as a critical attitude leads to the attitude of reasonableness and rationality.
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Options C,D,E. do not hold true.
Amongst option A. and B,option A. is more appropriate.Refer to the 3rd paragraph. It is written that “the pseudo-scientific attitude is more primitive than, and prior to, the scientific attitude: that it is a pre-scientific attitude. And this primitivity or priority also has its logical aspect. For the critical attitude is not so much opposed to the dogmatic attitude as super-imposed upon it: criticism must be directed against existing and influential beliefs in need of critical revision — in other words, dogmatic beliefs. A. critical attitude needs for its raw material, as it were, theories or beliefs which are held more or less dogmatically”.
Q. 63 Dogmatic behaviour, in this passage, has been associated with primitives and children. Which of the following best describes the reason why the author compares primitives with children?
A. Primitives are people who are not educated, and hence can be compared with children,who have not yet been through school. .
B. Primitives are people who, though not modern, are as innocent as children.
C. Primitives are people without a critical attitude, just as children are.
D. Primitives are people in the early stages of human evolution; similarly, children are in the early stages of their lives.
E. Primitives are people who are not civilized enough, just as children are not. .
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Refer to the lines:
It further suggests that genetically speaking the pseudo-scientific attitude is more primitive than, and prior to, the scientific attitude: that it is a pre-scientific attitude. And this primitivity or priority also has its logical aspect. For the critical attitude is not so much opposed to the dogmatic attitude as super-imposed upon it. It clearly illustates option 4.
Data Interpretation
Q. 64 Which of the following statements best supports the argument in the passage that a critical attitude leads to a weaker belief than a dogmatic attitude does?
A. A critical attitude implies endless questioning, and, therefore, it cannot lead to strong beliefs.
B. A critical attitude, by definition, is centered on an analysis of anomalies and “noise”.
C. A critical attitude leads to questioning everything, and in the process generates “noise” without any conviction.
D. A critical attitude is antithetical to conviction, which is required for strong beliefs.
E. A critical attitude leads to questioning and to tentative hypotheses. .
Answer: E.
Explanation:
Refer to the last 3 lines
“From the point of view here developed, all laws, all theories, remain essentially tentative, or conjectural, or hypothetical, even when we feel unable to doubt them any longer. Before a theory has been refuted we can never know in what way it may have to be modified.”
Option E clearly supports this argument.
Option A contains a distortion of “endless questioning”. A critical attitude requires questioning but not endless questioning.
Option B has not been implied anywhere in the passage.
The first part of option C is true but the second part is false. The result of a critical attitude is not noise but tested beliefs that are subject to change.
Option D. has not been implied anywhere in the passage.
Q. 65 According to the passage, which of the following statements best describes the difference between science and pseudo-science? :
A. Scientific theories or hypothesis are tentatively true whereas pseudo-sciences are always true.
B. Scientific laws and theories are permanent and immutable whereas pseudo-sciences are contingent on the prevalent mode of thinking in a society.
C. Science always allows the possibility of rejecting a theory or hypothesis, whereas pseudo-sciences seek to validate their ideas or theories.
D. Science focuses on anomalies and exceptions so that fundamental truths can be uncovered, whereas pseudo sciences focus mainly on general truths.
E. Science progresses by collection of observations or by experimentation, whereas pseudo-sciences do not worry about observations and experiments.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Refer to these lines
“But the distinction between dogmatic and critical thinking, or the dogmatic and the critical attitude, brings us right back to our central problem. For the dogmatic attitude is clearly related to the tendency to verify our laws and schemata by seeking to apply them and to confirm them, even to the point of neglecting refutations, whereas the critical attitude is one of readiness to change them — to test them; to refute them; to falsify them, if possible. This suggests that we may identify the critical attitude with the scientific attitude, and the dogmatic attitude with the one which we have described as pseudo-scientific.”
Option C. is the main point of the above paragraph. Hence, option C is the answer.
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 66 Facts, which deal with pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification (the answer option indicates such a statement with an `F’).
Inferences,which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known (the answer option indicates such a statement with an `I’).
Judgements which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future (the answer option indicates such a statement with a J)
Select the answer option that best describes the set of four statements.
1.So much of our day-to-day focus seems to be on getting things done, trudging our way through the tasks of living – it can feel like a treadmill that gets you nowhere; where is the childlike joy?
2.We are not doing the things that make us happy; that which brings us joy; the things that we cannot wait to do because we enjoy them so much.
3.This is the stuff that joyful living is made of – identifying your calling and committing yourself wholeheartedly to it.
4.When this happens, each moment becomes a celebration of you; there is a rush of energy that comes with feeling completely immersed in doing what you love most.
A. IIIJ
B. IFIJ
C. JFJJ
D. JJJJ
E. JFII
Answer: D.
Explanation:
The first statement says “It can feel like a treadmill that gets you nowhere”. This is an opinion and hence the statement is a judgement.
Statement 2 is also a personal opinion and hence a judgement.
Similarly, statements 3 and 4 are also opinions and hence can be categorised as judgements.
Q. 67 Facts, which deal with pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification (the answer option indicates such a statement with an `F’).
Inferences,which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known (the answer option indicates such a statement with an `I’).
Judgements which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future (the answer option indicates such a statement with a J)
Select the answer option that best describes the set of four statements.
1.Given the poor quality of service in the public sector, the HIV/AIDS affected should be switching to private initiatives that supply antiretroviral drugs (ARVs) at a low cost.
2.The government has been supplying free drugs since 2004, and 35000 have benefited up to now – though the size of the affected population is 150 times this number.
3.The recent initiatives of networks and companies like AIDSCare Network, Emcure, Reliance-Cipla-CII, would lead to availability of much-needed drugs to a larger number of affected people.
4.But how ironic it is that we should face a perennial shortage of drugs when India is one of the world’s largest suppliers of generic drugs to the developing world.
A. JFIJ
B. JIIJ
C. IFIJ
D. IFFJ
E. JFII
Answer: A.
Explanation:
The first statement is an opinion since it says “Given the poor quality…” and “…should be switching”. The second statement is clearly a fact. The fourth statement is a judgement since the words “…ironic it is…” indicate the opinion of the author and not something that can be verified by facts. The answer is option A
Q. 68 Facts, which deal with pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification (the answer option indicates such a statement with an `F’).
Inferences,which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known (the answer option indicates such a statement with an `I’).
Judgements which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future (the answer option indicates such a statement with a J)
Select the answer option that best describes the set of four statements.
1.According to all statistical indications, the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan has managed to keep pace with its ambitious goals.
2.The Mid-day Meal Scheme has been a significant incentive for the poor to send their little ones to school, thus establishing the vital link between healthy bodies and healthy minds.
3.Only about 13 million children in the age group of 6 to 14 years are out of school.
4.The goal of universalisation of elementary education has to be a prerequisite for the evolution and development of our country.
A. IIFJ
B. JIIJ
C. IJFJ
D. IJFI
E. JIFT
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Statement 1 is an inference, because it is drawing a conclusion (Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan has managed to keep pace with its ambitious goals) based on a fact (all statistical indications).
Statement 2 is a judgement since “the vital link between healthy bodies and healthy minds” is not something that can be investigated for data. Statement 3 is clearly a fact. Statement 4 is an opinion, and hence it is a judgement.
Q. 69 Facts, which deal with pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification (the answer option indicates such a statement with an `F’).
Inferences,which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known (the answer option indicates such a statement with an `I’).
Judgements which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future (the answer option indicates such a statement with a J)
Select the answer option that best describes the set of four statements.
1.We should not be hopelessly addicted to an erroneous belief that corruption in India is caused by the crookedness of Indians.
2.The truth is that we have more red tape – we take eighty-nine days to start a small business, Australians take two.
3.Red tape leads to corruption and distorts a people’s character.
4.Every red tape procedure is a point of contact with an official, and such contacts have the potential to become opportunities for money to change hands.
A. JFIF
B. JFJJ
C. JIJF
D. IFJF
E. JFJI
Answer: E.
Explanation:
Statement 1 expresses the personal opinion of the author and hence it is a judgement. Statement 2 is a fact. Statement 3 is again an opinion of the author and hence is a judgement. Statement 4 is an inference because it draws a conclusion (“has the potential…”) based on a fact (“Every red tape procedure is a point of contact with an official…”). Option E. is the answer.
Q. 70 Facts, which deal with pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are open to discovery or verification (the answer option indicates such a statement with an `F’).
Inferences,which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known (the answer option indicates such a statement with an `I’).
Judgements which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations and occurrences in the past, the present or the future (the answer option indicates such a statement with a J)
Select the answer option that best describes the set of four statements.
1.Inequitable distribution of all kinds of resources is certainly one of the strongest and most sinister sources of conflict.
2.Even without war, we know that conflicts continue to trouble us – they only change in character.
3.Extensive disarmament is the only insurance for our future; imagine the amount of resources that can be released and redeployed.
4.The economies of the industrialized western world derive 20% of their income from the sale of all kinds of arms.
A. IJJI
B. JIJF
C. IIJF
D. JIIF
E. IJIF
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Statements 1 and 3 are judgements because they are both opinions of the author. This eliminates all options except B. Hence B is the right answer.
Q. 71 From the given options, choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
I am sometimes attacked for imposing `rules’. Nothing could be further from the truth: I hate rules. All I do is report on how consumers react to different stimuli. I may say to a copywriter, “Research shows that commercials with celebrities are below average in persuading people to buy products. Are you sure you want to use a celebrity?” Call that a rule? Or I may say to an art director, “Research suggests that if you set the copy in black type on a white background, more people will read it than if you set it in white type on a black background.”
A. Guidance based on applied research can hardly qualify as `rules’.
B. Thus, all my so called `rules’ are rooted in applied research. .
C. A. suggestion perhaps, but scarcely a rule.
D. Such principles are unavoidable if one wants to be systematic about consumer behaviour.
E. Fundamentally it is about consumer behaviour – not about celebrities or type settings.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
The last sentence should talk about the statement that the author made to the art director. According to the author, the statement is not a rule. So, option a) and c) are applicable. Between these two, option c) is better because it specifically talks about this statement and not about “rules” in general. So, c) is the best concluding sentence.
Q. 72 From the given options, choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Relations between the factory and the dealer are distant and usually strained as the factory tries to force cars on the dealers to smooth out production. Relations between the dealer and the customer are equally strained because dealers continuously adjust prices – make deals – to adjust demand with supply while maximizing profits. This becomes a system marked by ‘a lack of long-term commitment’ on either side, which maximizes feelings of mistrust. In order to maximize their bargaining positions, everyone holds back information – the dealer about the product and the consumer about his true desires.
A. As a result, `deal making’ becomes rampant, without concern for customer satisfaction.
B. As a result, inefficiencies creep into the supply chain.
C. As a result, everyone treats the other as an adversary, rather than as an ally.
D. As a result, fundamental innovations are becoming scarce in the automobile industry.
E. As a result, everyone loses in the long run.
Answer: E.
Explanation:
Option a) talks only about one part of the chain consisting of factory, dealer and customer. Option b) is far-fetched. Options c) and d) are out of scope. Option e) completes the para in the best possible way.
Q. 73 From the given options, choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
In the evolving world order, the comparative advantage of the United States lies in its military force: Diplomacy and international law have always been regarded as annoying encumbrances, unless they can be used to advantage against an enemy. Every active player in world affairs professes to seek only peace and to prefer negotiation to violence and coercion.
A. However, diplomacy has often been used as a mask by nations which intended to use force.
B. However, when the veil is lifted, we commonly see that diplomacy is understood as a disguise for the rule of force.
C. However, history has shown that many of these nations do not practice what they profess.
D. However, history tells us that peace is professed by those who intend to use violence.
E. However, when unmasked, such nations reveal a penchant for the use of force.
Answer: B.
Explanation:
The last sentence in the paragraph should counter the statement made by the nations as well as talk about diplomacy, to bring the para to a meaningful conclusion. This is best captured in option b), which says, when the veil is lifted, diplomacy is often used as a disguise for the rule of force.
Q. 74 From the given options, choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Age has a curvilinear relationship with the exploitation of opportunity. Initially, age will increase the likelihood that a person will exploit an entrepreneurial opportunity because people gather much of the knowledge necessary to exploit opportunities over the course of their lives, and because age provides credibility in transmitting that information to others. However, as people become older, their willingness to bear risks declines, their opportunity costs rise, and they become less receptive to new information.
A. As a result, people transmit more information rather than experiment with new ideas as they reach an advanced age.
B. As a result, people are reluctant to experiment with new ideas as they reach an advanced age.
C. As a result, only people with lower opportunity costs exploit opportunity when they reach an advanced age.
D. As a result, people become reluctant to exploit entrepreneurial opportunities when they reach an advanced age.
E. As a result, people depend on credibility rather than on novelty as they reach an advanced age.
Answer: D.
Explanation:
The para talks about the relationship between age and entrepreneurial spirit. When people are young, they tend to believe that age brings in more credibility in transmitting information to others. However, as people age, they become less receptive to information and their opportunity costs rise. Hence, it is very likely that they become reluctant to exploit entrepreneurial opportunities as they age. Statement D, therefore, is the best concluding statement.
Q. 75 From the given options, choose the sentence that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
We can usefully think of theoretical models as maps, which help us navigate unfamiliar territory. The most accurate map that it is possible to construct would be of no practical use whatsoever, for it would be an exact replica, on exactly the same scale, of the place where we were. Good maps pull out the most important features and throw away a huge amount of much less valuable information. Of course, maps can be bad as well as good – witness the attempts by medieval Europe to produce a map of the world. In the same way, a bad theory, no matter how impressive it may seem in principle, does little or nothing to help us understand a problem.
A. But good theories, just like good maps, are invaluable, even if they are simplified.
B. But good theories, just like good maps, will never represent unfamiliar concepts in detail.
C. But good theories, just like good maps, need to balance detail and feasibility of representation.
D. But good theories, just like good maps, are accurate only at a certain level of abstraction.
E. But good theories, just like good maps, are useful in the hands of a user who knows their limitations.
Answer: A.
Explanation:
The para talks about good maps throwing away a large amount of non-essential information and retaining more important information. They are also simplified as a result. So, the last sentence should be about good theories being simplified and more valuable. Option a) captures the essence in the best way.
Q. 1 If x = (16^3+17^3+18^3+19^3), then x divided by 70 leaves a remainder of
A. 0
B. 1
C. 69
D. 35
Q. 2 A chemical plant has four tanks (A, B, C and D), each containing 1000 litres of a chemical. The chemical is being pumped from one tank to another as follows.Question:Q. 2 A chemical plant has four tanks (A, B, C and D), each containing 1000 litres of a chemical. The chemical is being pumped from one tank to another as follows.
From A to B @ 20 litres/minute
From C to A @ 90 litres/minute
From A to D @ 10 litres/minute
From C to D @ 50 litres/minute
From B to C @ 100 litres/minute
From D to B @ 110 litres/minute
Which tank gets emptied first, and how long does it take (in minutes) to get empty after pumping starts?
A. A, 16.66
B. C, 20
C. D, 20
D. D, 25
Q. 3 Two identical circles intersect so that their centers, and the points at which they intersect, form a square of side 1 cm. The area in sq. cm of the portion that is common to the two circles is
A. π/4
B. (π/2) – 1
C. π/5
D. √2 – 1
Q. 4 A jogging park has two identical circular tracks touching each other, and a rectangular track enclosing the two circles. The edges of the rectangles are tangential to the circles. Two friends, A and B, start jogging simultaneously form the point where one of the circular tracks touches the smaller side of the rectangular track. A jogs along the rectangular track, while B jogs along the two circular tracks in a figure of eight. Approximately, how much faster than A does B have to run, so that they take the same time to return to their starting point?
A. 3.88%
B. 4.22%
C. 4.44%
D. 4.72%
Q. 5 In a chess competition involving some boys and girls of a school, every student had to play exactly one game with every other student. It was found that in 45 games both the players were girls, and in 190 games both were boys. The number of games in which one player was a boy and the other was a girl is
A. 200
B. 216
C. 235
D. 256
Questions: 6 – 7
Ram and Shyam run a race between points A and B, 5 km apart, Ram starts at 9 a.m from A at a speed of 5 km/hr, reaches B, and returns to A at the same speed, Shyam starts at 9:45 a.m. from A at a speed of 10 km/hr, reaches B and comes back to A at the same speed.
Q. 6 At what time do Ram and Shyam first meet each other?
A. 10 a.m
B. 10.10 a.m
C. 10.20 a.m
D. 10.30 a.m
Q. 7 At what time does Shyam over take Ram?
A. 10.20 a.m
B. 10.30 a.m
C. 10.40 a.m
D. 10.50 a.m
Q. 8 If R = (30^65 – 29^65) / 30^64 + 29^64, then
A. 0 < R ≤ 0.1
B. 0.1 < R ≤ 0.5
C. 0.5 < R ≤ 1.0
D. R > 1.0
Q. 9 What is the distance in cm between two parallel chords of lengths 32 cm and 24 cm in a circle of radius 20 cm?
A. 1 or 7
B. 2 or 14
C. 3 or 21
D. 4 or 28
Q. 10 For which value of k does the following pair of equations yield a unique solution of x such that the solution is positive?
x^2 – y^2 = 0
(x – k)^2 + y^2 = 1
A. 2
B. 0
C. √2
D. -√2
Q. 11 Let n! = 1 x 2 x 3 x ……………. x n for integer n ≥ 1. If p = 1! + (2 x 2!) + (3 x 3!) + ……… + (10 x 10!), then p + 2 when divided by 11! Leaves a remainder of
A. 10
B. 0
C. 7
D. 1
Q. 12 Consider a triangle drawn on the X-Y plane with its three vertices of (41, 0), (0, 41) and (0, 0), each vertex being represented by its (X, Y) coordinates. The number of points with integer coordinates inside the triangle (excluding all the points on the boundary) is
A. 780
B. 800
C. 820
D. 741
Q. 13 The digits of a three-digit number A are written in the reverse order to form another threedigit number B. If B > A and B-A is perfectly divisible by 7, then which of the following is necessarily true?
A. 100 < A < 299
B. 106 < A < 305
C. 112 < A < 311
D. 118 < A < 317
Q. 14 If a1 = 1 and a(n+1) – 3a(n) + 2 = 4(n) for every positive integer n, then a100 equals
A. 3^99 – 200
B. 3^99 + 200
C. 3^100 – 200
D. 3^100 + 200
Q. 15 Let S be the set of five-digit numbers formed by digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, using each digit exactly once such that exactly two odd position are occupied by odd digits. What is the sum of the digits in the rightmost position of the numbers in S?
A. 228
B. 216
C. 294
D. 192
Q. 16 The rightmost non-zero digits of the number 30^2720 is
A. 1
B. 3
C. 7
D. 9
Q. 17 Four points A, B, C and D lie on a straight line in the X-Y plane, such that AB = BC = CD, and the length of AB is 1 metre. An ant at A wants to reach a sugar particle at D. But there are insect repellents kept at points B and C. the ant would not go within one metre of any insect repellent. The minimum distance in metres the ant must traverse to reach the sugar particle is
A. 3√2
B. 1 + π
C. 4π/3
D. 5
Q. 18 If x ≥ y and y > 1, then the value of the expression logx (x/y) + logy (y/x) can never be
A. -1
B. -0.5
C. 0
D. 1
Q. 19 For a positive integer n, let p(n) denote the product of the digits of n and s(n) denote the sum of the digits of n. The number of integers between 10 and 1000 for which p(n) + s(n) = n is
A. 81
B. 16
C. 18
D. 9
Q. 20 Rectangular tiles each of size 70 cm by 30 cm must be laid horizontally on a rectangular floor of size 110 cm by 130 cm, such that the tiles do not overlap. A tile can be placed in any orientation so long as its edges are parallel to the edges of the floor. No tile should overshoot any edge of the floor. The maximum number of tiles that can be accommodated on the floor is
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Q. 21 In the X-Y plane, the area of the region bounded by the graph |x + y| + |x – y| = 4 is
A. 8
B. 12
C. 16
D. 20
Q. 22 In the following figure (1), the diameter of the circle is 3 cm. AB and MN are two diameters such that MN is perpendicular to AB. In addition, CG is perpendicular to AB such that AE : EB = 1 : 2, and DF is perpendicular to MN such that NL : LM = 1 : 2. The length of DH in cm is
A. 2√2 – 1
B. (2√2 – 1)/2
C. (3√2 – 1)/2
D. (2√2 – 1)/3
Q. 23 Consider the triangle ABC shown in the figure (1) where BC = 12 cm, DB = 9 cm, CD = 6 cm and ∠BCD = ∠BAC.
What is the ratio of the perimeter of ΔADC to that to the ΔBDC?
A. 7/9
B. 8/9
C. 6/9
D. 5/9
Q. 24 P, Q, S and R are points on the circumference of a circle of radius r, such that PQR is an equilateral triangle and PS is a diameter of the circle. What is the perimeter of the quadrilateral PQSR?
A. 2r (1 + √3)
B. 2r (2 + √3)
C. r (1 + √5)
D. 2r + √3
Q. 25 Let S be a set of positive integers such that every element n of S satisfies the conditions. i. 1000 ≤ n ≤ 1200
ii. Every digit in n is odd
Then how many elements of S are divisible by 3?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
Q. 26 Let x = √4 + √4 – √4 + √4 – ……… to infinity. Then x equals
A. 3
B. (√13 – 1)/2
C. (√13 + 1)/2
D. √13
Q. 27 Let g(x) be a function such that g(x + 1) + g(x – 1) = g(x) for every real x. Then for what value of p is the relation g(x + p) = g(x) necessarily true for every real x?
A. 5
B. 3
C. 2
D. 6
Q. 28 A telecom service provider engages male and female operators for answering 1000 calls per day. A male operator can handle 40 calls per day whereas a female operator can handle 50 calls per day. The male and the female operators get a fixed wage of Rs. 250 and Rs. 300 per day respectively. In addition, a male operator gets Rs. 15 per call he answers and female operator gets Rs. 10 per call she answers. To minimize the total cost, how many male operators should the service provider employ assuming he has to employ more than 7 of the 12 female operators available for the job?
A. 15
B. 14
C. 12
D. 10
Q. 29 Three Englishmen and three Frenchmen work for the same company. Each of them knows a secret not known to others. They need to exchange these secrets over person-to-person phone calls so that eventually each person knows all six secrets. None of the Frenchmen knows English, and only one Englishman knows French. What is the minimum number of phone calls needed for the above purpose?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 9
D. 15
Q. 30 A rectangular floor is fully covered with square tiles of identical size. The tiles on the edges are white and the tiles in the interior are red. The number of white tiles is the same as the number of red tiles. A possible value of the number of tiles along one edge of the floor is
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
Questions: 31 – 34
A game of strategy, as currently conceived in game theory, is a situation in which two or more “players” make choices among available alternatives (moves). The totality of choices determines the outcomes of the game, and it is assumed that the rank order of preferences for the outcomes is different for different players. Thus the “interests” of the players are generally in conflict. Whether these interests are diametrically opposed or only partially opposed depends on the type of game. Psychologically, most interesting situations arise when the interests of the players are partly coincident and partly opposed, because then one can postulate not only a conflict among the players but also inner conflicts within the players. Each is torn between a tendency to cooperate, so as to promote the common interests, and a tendency to compete, so as to enhance his own individual interests.
Internal conflicts are always psychologically interesting. What we vaguely call “interesting” psychology is n very great measure the psychology of inner conflict. Inner conflict is also held to be an important component of serious literature as distinguished from less serious genres. The classical tragedy, as well as the serious novel reveals the inner conflict of central figures. The superficial adventure story on the other hand, depicts only external conflict; that is, the threats to the person with whom the reader (or viewer) identifies stem in these stories exclusively from external obstacles and from the adversaries who create them. On the most primitive level this sort of external conflict is psychologically empty. In the fisticuffs between the protagonists of good and evil, no psychological problems are involved or, at any rate, none are depicted in juvenile representations of conflict.
The detective story, the “adult” analogue of a juvenile adventure tale, has at times been described as a glorification of intellectualized conflict. However, a great deal of the interest in the plots of these stories is sustained by withholding the unraveling of a solution to a problem. The effort of solving the problem is in itself not a conflict if the adversary (the unknown criminal) remains passive, like Nature, whose secrets the scientist supposedly unravels by deduction. If the adversary actively puts obstacles in the detective’s path toward the solution, there is genuine conflict. But the conflict is psychologically interesting only to the extent that it contains irrational components such as a tactical error on the criminal’s part or the detective’s insight into some psychological quirk of the criminal or something of this sort. Conflict conducted in a perfectly rational manner is psychologically no more interesting than a standard Western. For example, Tic-tac-toe, played perfectly by both players, is completely devoid of psychological interest. Chess may be psychologically interesting but only to the extent that it is played not quite rationally. Played completely rationally, chess would not be different from Tic-tac-toe. In short, a pure conflict of interest (what is called a zero-sum game) although it offers a wealth of interesting conceptual problems, is not interesting psychologically, except to the extent that its conduct departs from rational norms.
Q. 31 According to the passage, internal conflicts are psychologically more interesting than external conflicts because
A. internal conflicts, rather than external conflicts, form an important component of serious literature as distinguished from less serious genres.
B. only juveniles or very few “adults” actually experience external conflict, while internal conflict is more widely prevalent in society.
C. in situations of internal conflict, individuals experience a dilemma in resolving their own preferences for different outcomes.
D. there are no threats to the reader (or viewer) in case of external conflicts.
Q. 32 Which, according to the author, would qualify as interesting psychology?
A. A statistician’s dilemma over choosing the best method to solve an optimization problem.
B. A chess player’s predicament over adopting a defensive strategy against an aggressive opponent.
C. A mountaineer’s choice of the best path to Mt. Everest from the base camp.
D. A finance manager’s quandary over the best way of raising money from the market.
Q. 33 According to the passage, which of the following options about the application of game theory to a conflct-of-interest situation is true?
A. Assuming that the rank order of preferences for options is different for different players.
B. Accepting that the interests of different players are often in conflict.
C. Not assuming that the interests are in complete disagreement.
D. All of the above.
Q. 34 The problem solving process of a scientist is different from that of a detective because
A. scientists study inanimate objects, while detectives deal with living criminals or law offenders.
B. scientists study known objects, while detectives have to deal with unknown criminals or law offenders.
C. scientists study phenomena that are not actively altered, while detectives deal with phenomena that have been deliberately influenced to mislead.
D. scientists study psychologically interesting phenomena, while detectives deal with “adult” analogues of juvenile adventure tales.
Q. 35 The sentences given in the question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent
paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A. Similarly, turning to caste, even though being lower caste is undoubtedly a separate
cause of disparity, its impact is all the greater when the lower-caste families also happen to be poor.
B. Belonging to a privileged class can help a woman to overcome many barriers that obstruct women from less thriving classes.
C. It is the interactive presence of these two kinds of deprivation – being low class and being female – that massively impoverishes women from the less privileged classes.
D. A congruence of class deprivation and gender discrimination can blight the lives of poorer women very severely.
E. Gender is certainly a contributor to societal inequality, but it does not act independently of class.
A. EABDC
B. EBDCA
C. DAEBC
D. BECDA
Q. 36 The sentences given in the question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent
paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A. What identity is thus ‘defined by contrast’, divergence with the West becomes central
B. Indian religious literature such as the Bhagavad Gita or the Tantric texts, which are identified as differing from secular writings seen as ‘western’, elicits much greater interest in the West than do other Indian writings, including India’s long history of heterodoxy.
C. There is a similar neglect of Indian writing on non-religious subjects, from mathematics, epistemology and natural science to natural science to economics and linguistic.
D. Through selective emphasis that point up differences with the West, other civilizations can, in this way, be redefined in alien terms, which can be exotic and charming, or else bizarre and terrifying, or simply strange and engaging.
E. The exception is the Kamasutra in which western readers have managed to cultivate an interest
A. BDACE
B. DEABC
C. BDECA
D. BCEDA
Q. 37 The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A. This is now orthodoxy to which I subscribe – up to a point.
B. It emerged from the mathematics of chance and statistics.
C. Therefore the risk is measurable and manageable
D. The fundamental concept: Prices are not predictable, but the mathematical laws of chance can describe their fluctuations.
E. This is how what business schools now call modern finance was born.
A. ADCBE
B. EBDCA
C. ABDCE
D. DCBEA
Q. 38 In the question, the word at the top of the table is used in four different ways, numbered 1 to 4. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate. Near
A. I got there just after you left – a near miss!
B. She and her near friend left early
C. The war led to a near doubling of oil prices.
D. They came near to tears seeing the plight of the victims
Q. 39 In the question, the word at the top of the table is used in four different ways, numbered 1 to 4. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate. Hand
A. I have my hand full, I cannot do it today.
B. The minister visited the jail to see the breach at first hand.
C. The situation is getting out of hand here!
D. When the roof of my house was blown away, he was willing to lend me a hand
Q. 40 In the question, the word at the top of the table is used in four different ways, numbered 1 to 4. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate. For
A. He has a great eye for detail.
B. We are waiting for the day.
C. I can’t bear for her to be angry
D. It couldn’t be done for ever.
Questions: 41 – 44
Crinoline and croquet are out. As yet, no political activists have thrown themselves in front of the royal horse on Derby Day. Even so, some historians can spot the parallels. It is a time of rapid technological change. It is a period when the dominance of the world’s superpower is coming under threat. It is an epoch when prosperity masks underlying economic strain. And, crucially, it is a time when policy-makers are confident that all is for the best in the best of all possible worlds. Welcome to the Edwardian Summer of the second age of globalisation.
Spare a moment to take stock of what’s been happening in the past few months. Let’s start with the oil price, which has rocketed to more than $65 a barrel, more than double its level 18 months ago. The accepted wisdom is that we shouldn’t worry our little heads about that, because the incentives are there for business to build new production and refining capacity, which will effortlessly bring demand and supply back into balance and bring crude prices back to $25 a barrel. As Tommy Copper used to say, ‘Just like that’. Then there is the result of the French referendum on the European Constitution, seen as thick-headed luddites railing vainly against the modern world. What the French needed to realize, the argument went, was that there was no alternative to the reforms that would make the country more flexible, more competitive, more dynamic. Just the sort of reforms that allowed Gate Gourmet to sack hundreds of its staff at Heathrow after the sort of ultimatum that used to be handed out by Victorian mill owners. An alternative way of looking at the French “non” is that our neighbours translate “flexibility” as “you’re fired”.
Finally, take a squint at the United States. Just like Britian a century ago, a period of unquestioned superiority is drawing to a close. China is still a long way from matching America’s wealth, but it is growing at a stupendous rate and economic strength brings geopolitical clout. Already, there is evidence of a new scramble for Africa as Washington and Beijing compete for oil stocks. Moreover, beneath the surface of the US economy, all is not well. Growth looks healthy enough, but the competition from China and elsewhere has meant the world’s biggest economy now imports far more than it exports. The US is living beyond its means, but in this time of studied complacency a current account deficit worth 6 perfect of gross domestic product is seen as a sign of strength, not weakness. In this new Edwardian summer, comfort is taken from the fact that dearer oil has not had the savage inflationary consequences of 1973-1974, when a fourfold increase in the cost of crude brought an abrupt end to a postwar boom that had gone on uninterrupted for a quarter of a century. True, the cost of living has been affected by higher transport costs, but we are talking of inflation at 2.3 per cent and not 27 per cent. Yet the idea that higher oil prices are of little consequence is fanciful. If people are paying more to fill up their cars it leaves them with less to spend on everything else, but there is a reluctance to consume less. In the 1970s unions were strong and able to negotiate large, compensatory pay deals that served to intensify inflationary pressure. In 2005, that avenue is pretty much closed off, but the abolition of all the controls on credit that existed in the 1970s means that households are invited to borrow more rather than consume less. The knock-on effects of higher oil prices are thus felt in different ways – through high levels of indebtedness, in inflated asset prices, and in balance of payments deficits.
There are those who point out, rightly, that modern industrial capitalism has proved mightily resilient these past 250 years, and that a sign of the enduring strength of the system has been the way it apparently shrugged off everything – a stock market crash, 9/11, rising oil prices – that have been thrown at it in the half decade since the millennium. Even so, there are at least three reasons for concern. First, we have been here before. In terms of political economy, the first era of globalisation mirrored our own. There was a belief in unfettered capital flows, in free migration. Eventually, though, there was a backlash, manifested in a struggle between free traders and protectionists, and in rising labour militancy. Second, the world is traditionally as its most fragile at times when the global balance of power is in flux. By the end of the nineteenth century, Britain’s role as the hegemonic power was being challenged by the rise of the United States, Germany, and Japan while the Ottoman and Hapsburg empires were clearly in rapid decline. Looking ahead from 2005, it is clear that over the next two or three decades, both China and India – which together account for half the world’s population – will flex their muscles.
Finally, there is the question of what rising oil prices tell us. The emergence of China and India means global demand for crude is likely to remain high a t a time when experts say production is about to top out. If supply constraints start to bite, any decline in the prices are likely to be short-term cyclical affairs punctuating a long upward trend.
Q. 41 By the expression ‘Edwardian Summer’, the author refers
A. unparalleled luxury and opulence.
B. a sense of complacency among people because of all-round prosperity.
C. a culmination of all-round economic prosperity.
D. an imminent danger lurking behind economic prosperity.
Q. 42 What, according to the author, has resulted in a widespread belief in the resilence of modern capitalism?
A. Growth in the economies of Western countries despite shocks in the form of increase in levels of indebtedness and inflated asset prices.
B. Increase in the prosperity of Western countries and China despite rising oil prices.
C. Continued growth of Western economies despite a rise in terrorism, an increase in oil prices and other similar shocks.
D. The success of continued reforms aimed at making Western economies more dynamic, competitive and efficient.
Q. 43 Which of the following best represents the key argument made by the author?
A. The rise in oil prices, the flux in the global balance of power and historical precedents should make us question our belief that the global economic prosperity would continue.
B. The belief that modern industrial capitalism is highly resilient and capable of overcoming shocks will be belied soon.
C. Widespread prosperity leads to neglect of early signs of underlying economic weakness, manifested in higher oil prices and a flux in the global balance of power.
D. A crisis is imminent in the West given the growth of countries like China and India and the increases in oil prices.
Q. 44 What can be inferred about the author’s view when he states ‘As Tommy Cooper used to say “just like that” ?
A. Industry has incentives to build new production and refining capacity and therefore oil prices would reduce.
B. There would be a correction in the price levels of oil once new production capacity is added.
C. The decline in oil prices is likely to be short-term in nature.
D. It is not necessary that oil prices would go down to earlier levels.
Questions: 45 – 48
While complex in the extreme, Derrida’s work has proven to be a particularly influential approach to the analysis of the ways in which language structures our understanding of ourselves and the world we inhabit an approach he termed deconstruction. In its simplest formulation, deconstruction can be taken to refer to a methodological strategy which seeks to uncover layers of hidden meaning in a text that have been denied or suppressed. The term ‘text’, in this respect, does not refer simply to a written form of communication, however. Rather, texts are something we all produce and reproduce constantly in our every day social relations, be they spoken, written or embedded in the construction of material artifacts. At the heart of Derrida’s deconstructive approach is his critique of what he perceives to be the totalitarian impulse of the Enlightenment pursuit to bring all that exists in the world under the domain of representative language, a pursuit he refers to as logocentrism. Logocentrism is the search for a rational language that is able to know and represent the world and all its aspects perfectly and accurately. Its totalitarian dimension, for Derrida at least, lies primarily in its tendency to marginalize or dismiss all that does not neatly comply with its particular linguistic representations, a tendency that, throughout history, has all too frequently been manifested in the form of authoritarian institutions. Thus logocentrism has, in its search for the truth of absolute representation, subsumed difference and oppressed that which it designates as its alien ‘other’. For Derrida, western civilization has been built upon such a systematic assault on alien cultures and ways of life, typically in the name of reason and progress. In response to logocentrism, deconstruction posits the idea that the mechanism by which this process of marginalization and the ordering of truth occurs is through establishing systems of binary opposition. Oppositional linguistic dualisms, such as rational/irrational, culture/nature and good/bad are not, however, construed as equal partners as they are in, say, the semiological structuralism of Saussure. Rather, they exist, for Derrida, in a series of hierarchical relationships with the first term normally occupying a superior position. Derrida defines the relationship between such oppositional terms using the neologism difference. This refers to the realization that in any statement, oppositional terms differ from each other (for instance, the difference between rationality and irrationality is constructed through oppositional usage), and at the same time, a hierarchical relationship is maintained by the deference of one term to the other (in the positing of rationality over irrationality, for instance). It is this latter point which is perhaps the key to understanding Derrida’s approach to deconstruction. For the fact at any given time one term must defer to its oppositional ‘other’, means that the two terms are constantly in a state of interdependence. The presence of one is dependent upon the absence or ‘absent-presence’ of the ‘other’, such as in the case of good and evil, whereby to understand the nature of one, we must constantly relate it to the absent term in order to grasp its meaning. That is, to do good, we must understand that our act is not evil, for without that comparison the term becomes meaningless. Put simply, deconstruction represents an attempt to demonstrate the absent-presence of this oppositional ‘other’, to show that what we say or write is in itself not expressive simply of what is present, but also of what is absent. Thus, deconstruction seeks to reveal the interdependence of apparently dichotomous terms and their meanings relative to their textual context; that is, within the linguistic power relations which structure dichotomous terms hierarchically. In Derrida’s own words, a deconstructive reading “must always aim at a certain relationship, unperceived by the writer, between what he commands and what he does not command of the patterns of a language that he uses…. [It] attempts to make the not-seen accessible to sight.’ Meaning, then, is never fixed or stable, whatever the intention of the author of a text. For Derrida, language is a system of relations that are dynamic, in that all meanings we ascribe to the world are dependent not only on what we believe to be present but also on what is absent. Thus, any act of interpretation must refer not only to what the author of a text intends, but also to what is absent from his or her intention. This insight leads, once again, to Derrida’s further rejection of the idea of the definitive authority of the intentional agent or subject. The subject is decentred; it is conceived as the outcome of relations of differance. As author of its own biography, the subject thus becomes the ideological fiction of modernity and its logocentric philosophy, one that depends upon the formation of hierarchical dualisms, which repress and deny the presence of the absent ‘other’. No meaning can, therefore, even be definitive, but is merely an outcome of a particular interpretation.
Q. 45 According to the passage, Derrida believes that:
A. Reality can be construed only through the use of rational analysis
B. Language limits our construction of reality.
C. A universal language will facilitate a common understanding of reality.
D. We need to uncover the hidden meaning in a system of relations expressed by language
Q. 46 To Derrida, ‘logocentrism’ does not imply:
A. A totalitarian impulse
B. A domain of representative language.
C. Interdependence of the meanings of dichotomous terms.
D. A strategy that seeks to suppress hidden meanings in a text.
Q. 47 According to the passage, Derrida believes that the system of binary opposition
A. represents a prioritization or hierarchy.
B. reconciles contradictions and dualities.
C. weakens the process of marginalization and ordering of truth.
D. deconstructs reality.
Q. 48 Derrida rejects the idea of ‘definitive authority of the subject’ because
A. interpretation of the text may not make the unseen visible.
B. the meaning of the text is based on binary opposites.
C. the implicit power relationship is often ignored.
D. any act of interpretation must refer to what the author intends.
Questions: 49 – 52
Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose that one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Q. 49 The audiences for crosswords and sudoku, understandably, overlap greatly, but there are differences, too. A crossword attracts a more literary person, while sudoku appeals to a keenly logical mind. Some crossword enthusiasts turn up their noses at sudoku because they feel it lacks depth. A good crossword requires vocabulary, knowledge, mental flexibility and sometimes even a sense of humor to complete. It touches numerous areas of life and provides an “Aha!” or two along the way.__________________
A. Sudoku, on the other hand, is just a logical exercise, each one similar to the last.
B. Sudoku, incidentally, is growing faster in popularity than crosswords, even among the literati.
C. Sudoku, on the other hand, can be attempted and enjoyed even by children.
D. Sudoku, however, is not exciting in any sense of the term.
Q. 50 Most firms consider expert individuals to be too elitist, temperamental, egocentric, and difficult to work with. Force such people to collaborate on a high-stakes project and they just might come to fisticuffs. Even the very notion of managing such a group seems unimaginable. So most organizations fall into default mode, setting up project teams of people who get along nicely. _______________
A. The result, however, is disastrous
B. The result is mediocrity.
C. The result is creation of experts who then become elitist.
D. Naturally, they drive innovations.
Q. 51 Federer’s fifth grand slam win prompted a reporter to ask whether he was the best ever. Federer is certainly not lacking in confidence, but he wasn’t about to proclaim himself the best ever. “The best player of this generation, yes”, he said. “But nowhere close to ever. Just look at the records that some guys have. I’m a minnow.”
A. His win against Agassi, a genius from the previous generation, contradicts that.
B. Sampras, the king of an earlier generation, was as humble.
C. He is more than a minnow to his contemporaries.
D. The difference between ‘the best of this generation’ and ‘the best ever’ is a matter of perception.
Q. 52 Thus the end of knowledge and the closing of the frontier that it symbolizes is not a looming crisisat all, but merely one of many embarrassing fits of hubris in civilization’s long industry. In the end, it will pass away and be forgotten. Ours is not the first generation to struggle to understand the organizational laws of the frontier, deceive itself that it has succeeded, and go to its grave having failed.
A. One would be wise to be humble.
B. But we might be the first generation to actually reach the frontier.
C. But we might be the first generation to deal with the crisis.
D. However, this time the success is not illusory.
Questions: 53 – 56
Each question consists of four sentences on a topic. Some sentences are grammatically incorrect or inappropriate. Select the option that indicates the grammatically correct and appropriate sentence(s).
Q. 53 A. When virtuoso teams begin their work, individuals are in and group consensus is out.
B. As project progresses, however, the individual stars harness themselves to the product of the group.
C. Sooner or later, the members break through their own egocentrism and become a plurality with single-minded focus on the goal.
D. In short, they morph into a powerful team with a shared identity.
A. A & C
B. A & D
C. B & D
D. A, C & D
Q. 54 A. Large reductions in the ozone layer, which sits about 15-30 km above the Earth, take place each winter over the polar regions, especially the Antarctic, as low temperatures allow the formationof stratospheric clouds that assist chemical reactions breaking down ozone.
B. Industrial chemicals containing chlorine and bromine have been blamed for thinning the layer because they attack the ozone molecules, making them to break apart.
C. Many an offending chemicals have now been banned.
D. It will still take several decades before these substances have disappeared from the atmosphere.
A. D
B. B & D
C. A & D
D. A & C
Q. 55 A. The balance of power will shift to the East as China and India evolve.
B. Rarely the economic ascent of two still relatively poor nations has been watched with such a mixture of awe, opportunism, and trepidation.
C. Postwar era witnessed economic miracles in Japan and South Korea, but neither was populous enough to power worldwide growth or change the game in a complete spectrum of industries.
D. China and India, by contrast, posses the weight and dynamism to transform the 21st century global economy.
A. A, B & C
B. A & D
C. C
D. C & D
Q. 56 A. People have good reason to care about the welfare of animals.
B. Ever since Enlightenment, their treatment has been seen as a measure of mankind’s humanity.
C. It is no coincidence that William Wilberforce and Sir Thomas Foxwell Buxton, two leaders of the movement to abolish the slave trade, helped found the Royal Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals in 1820s.
D. An increasing number of people go further: mankind has a duty not to cause pain to animals that have the capacity to suffer.
A. A & D
B. B
C. A & C
D. C & D
Questions: 57 – 60
Each of the following questions has a paragraph with one quoted word that does not make sense. Choose the most appropriate replacement for that word from the options given below the paragraph.
Q. 57 Intelligent design derives from an early 19th – century explanation of the natural world given by an English clergyman, William Paley. Paley was the populariser of the famous watchmaker analogy. Proponents of intelligent design are “crupping” Paley’s argument with a new gloss from molecular biology.
A. destroying
B. testing
C. resurrecting
D. questioning
Q. 58 Women squat, heads covered, beside huge piles of limp fodder and “blunk” oil lamps, and just about all the cows in the three towns converge upon this spot. Sinners, supplicants and yes, even scallywags hand over a few coins for a crack at redemption and a handful of grass.
A. Shining
B. Bright
C. Sputtering
D. Effulgent
Q. 59 It is “klang” to a sensitive traveler who walks through this great town, when he sees the streets, the roads and cabin doors crowded with beggars, mostly women, followed by three, four, or six children, all in rags and importuning every passenger for alms.
A. Amusing
B. Irritating
C. Disgusting
D. Distressing
Q. 60 Or there is the most “fingummy” diplomatic note on record: when Philip of Macedon wrote to the Spartans that, if he came within their borders, he would leave not one stone of their city, they wrote back the one word – If
A. Witty
B. Rude
C. Simple
D. Terse
Questions: 61 – 64
A management institute was established on January 1, 2000 with 3, 4, 5, and 6 faculty members in the Marketing, Organisational Behaviour (OB), Finance, and Operations Management (OM) areas respectively, to start with. No faculty member retired or joined the institute in the first three months of the year 2000. In the next four years, the institute recruited one faculty member in each of the four areas. All these new faculty members, who joined the institute subsequently over the years, were 25 years old at the time of their joining the institute. All of them joined the institute on April 1. During these four years, one of the faculty members retired at the age of 60. The diagram shown in figure (1) gives the areawise average age (in terms of number of completed years) of faculty members as on April 1 of 2000, 2001, 2002, and 2003.
Q. 61 From which area did the faculty member retire?
A. Finance
B. Marketing
C. OB
D. OM
Q. 62 Professors Naresh and Devesh, two faculty members in the Marketing area, who have been with the Institute since its inception, share a birthday, which falls on 20th November. One was born in 1947 and the other one in 1950. On April 1 2005, what was the age of the third faculty member, who has been in the same area since inception?
A. 47
B. 50
C. 5
D. 52
Q. 63 In which year did the new faculty member join the Finance area?
A. 2000
B. 2001
C. 2002
D. 2003
Q. 64 What was the age of the new faculty member, who joined the OM area, as on April 1, 2003?
A. 25
B. 26
C. 27
D. 28
Questions: 65 – 67
The table given in figure (1) reports annual statistics related to rice production in select states of India for a particular year.
Q. 65 Which two states account for the highest productivity of rice (tons produced per hectare of rice cultivation)?
A. Haryana and Punjab
B. Punjab and Andhra Pradesh
C. Andhra Pradesh and Haryana
D. Uttar Pradesh and Haryana
Q. 66 How many states have a per capita production of rice (defined as total rice production divided by its population) greater than Gujarat?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Q. 67 An intensive rice producing state is defined as one whose annual rice production per million of population is at least 400,000 tons. How many states are intensive rice producing states?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Questions: 68 – 70
The table given in figure (1) reports the gender, designation and age-group of the employees in an organization. It also provides information on their commitment to projects coming up in the months of January (Jan), February (Feb), March (Mar) and April (Apr), as well as their interest in attending workshops on: Business Opportunities (BO), Communication Skills (CS), and E-Governance (EG). For each workshop, exactly four employees are to be sent, of which at least two should be Females and at least one should be Young. No employee can be sent to a workshop in which he she is not interested in. An employee cannot attend the workshop on.
1. Communication Skills, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of January.
2. Business Opportunities, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of February.
3. E-governance, if he/she is committed to internal projects in the month of March.
Q. 68 Assuming that Parul and Hari are attending the workshop on Communication Skills (CS), then which of the following employees can possibly attend the CS workshop?
A. Rahul and Yamini
B. Dinesh and Lavanya
C. Anshul and Yamini
D. Fatima and Zeena
Q. 69 How many Executives (Exe) cannot attend more than one workshop?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 15
D. 16
Q. 70 Which set of employees cannot attend any of the workshops?
A. Anshul, Charu, Eashwaran and Lavanya
B. Anshul, Bushkant, Gayatri, and Urvashi
C. Charu, Urvashi, Bushkant and Mandeep
D. Anshul, Gayatri, Eashwaran and Mandeep
Questions: 71 – 74
In the table given in figure (1) is the listing of players, seeded from highest (#1) to lowest (#32), who are due to play in an Association of Tennis Players (ATP) tournament for women. This tournament has four knockout rounds before the final, i.e., first round, second round, quarterfinals, and semi-finals. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player (seed #32) which is designated match No. 1 of first round; the 2nd seeded player plays the 31st seeded player which is designated match No. 2 of the first round, and so on. Thus, for instance, match No. 16 of first round is to be played between 16th seeded player and the 17th seeded player. In the second round, the winner of match No. 1 of first round plays the winner of match No. 16 of first round and is designated match No. 1 of second round. Similarly, the winner of match No. 2 of first round plays the winner of match No. 15 of first round, and is designated match No. 2 of second round. Thus, for instance, match No. 8 of the second round is to be played between the winner of match No. 8 of first round and the winner of match No. 9 of first round. The same pattern is followed for later rounds as well.
Q. 71 If there are no upsets (a lower seeded player beating a higher seeded player) in the first round, and only match Nos. 6, 7, and 8 of the second round result in upsets, then who would meet Lindsay Davenport in quarter finals, in case Davenport reaches quarter finals?
A. Justine Henin
B. Nadia Petrova
C. Patty Schnyder
D. Venus Williams
Q. 72 If Elena Dementieva and Serena Williams lose in the second round, while Justine Henin and Nadia Petrova make it to the semi-finals, then who would play Maria Sharapova in the quarterfinals, in the event Sharapova reaches quarterfinals?
A. Dinara Safina
B. Justine Henin
C. Nadia Petrova
D. Patty Schnyder
Q. 73 If, in the first round, all even numbered matches (and none of the odd numbered ones) result in upsets, and there are no upsets in the second round, then who could be the lowest seeded player facing Maria Sharapova in semi-finals?
A. Anastasia Myskina
B. Flavia Pennetta
C. Nadia Petrova
D. Svetlana Kuznetsova
Q. 74 If the top eight seeds make it to the quarterfinals, then who, amongst the players listed below, would definitely not play against Maria Sharapova in the final, in case Sharapova reaches the final?
A. Amelie Mauresmo
B. Elena Dementieva
C. Kim Clijsters
D. Lindsay Davenport
Questions: 75 – 78
Venkat, a stockbroker, invested a part of his money in the stock of four companies — A, B, C and D. Each of these companies belonged to different industries, viz., Cement, Information Technology (IT), Auto, and Steel, in no particular order. At the time of investment, the price of each stock was Rs. 100. Venkat purchased only one stock of each of these companies. He was expecting returns of 20%, 10%, 30% and 40% from the stock of companies A, B, C and D, respectively. Returns are defined as the change in the value of the stock after one year, expressed as a percentage of the initial value. During the year, two of these companies announced extraordinarily good results. One of these two companies belonged to the Cement or the IT industry, while the other one belonged to either the Steel or the Auto industry. As a result, the returns on the stocks of these two companies were higher than the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Cement or the IT industry with extraordinarily good results, the returns were twice that of the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Steel or the Auto industry, the returns on announcement of extraordinarily good results were only one and a half times that of the initially expected returns. For the remaining two companies which did not announce extraordinarily good results, the returns realized during the year were the same as initially expected.
Q. 75 What is the minimum average return Venkat would have earned during the year?
A. 30%
B. 31(1/4)%
C. 32(1/2)%
D. Cannot be determined
Q. 76 If Venkat earned a 35% return on average during the year, then which of these statements would necessarily be true?
I. Company A belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.
II. Company B did not announce extraordinarily good results.
III. Company A announced extraordinarily good results.
IV. Company D did not announce extraordinarily good results.
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. III and IV only
D. II and IV only
Q. 77 If Venkat earned a 38.75% return on average during the year, then which of these statement(s) would necessarily be true?
I. Company C belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.
II. Company D belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.
III. Company A announced extraordinarily good results.
IV. Company B did not announce extraordinarily good results.
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and IV only
D. II and IV only
Q. 78 If Company C belonged to the Cement or the IT industry and did announce extraordinarily good results, then which of these statement(s) would necessarily be true?
I. Venkat earned not more than 36.25% return on average.
II. Venkat earned not less than 33.75% return on average.
III. If Venkat earned 33.75% return on average, Company A announced extraordinarily good results.
IV. If Venkat earned 33.75% return on average, Company B belonged either to Auto or to Steel industry.
A. I and II only
B. II and IV only
C. II and III only
D. III and IV only
Questions: 79 – 82
The year is 2089. Beijing, London, New York, and Paris are in contention to host the 2096 Olympics. The eventual winner is determined through several rounds of voting by members of the IOC with each member representing a different city. All the four cities in contention are also represented in IOC. (a) In any round of voting, the city receiving the lowest number of votes in that round gets eliminated. The survivor after the last round of voting gets to host the event.
(b) A member is allowed to cast votes for at most two different cities in all rounds of voting combined. (Hence, a member becomes ineligible to cast a vote in a given round if both the cities (s)he voted for in earlier rounds are out of contention in that round of voting.) (c) A member is also ineligible to cast a vote in a round if the city (s)he represents is in contention in that round of voting.
(d) As long as the member is eligible, (s)he must vote and vote for only one candidate city in any round. The incomplete table given in figure (1) shows the information on cities that received the maximum and minimum votes in different rounds, the number of votes cast in their favour, and the total votes that were cast in those rounds.
It is also known that:
1. All those who voted for London and Paris in round, 1 continued to vote for the same cities in subsequent rounds as long as these cities were in contention. 75% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2 as well.
2. Those who voted for New York in round 1, voted either for Beijing or Paris in round 2.
3. The difference in votes cast for the two contending cities in the last round was 1.
4. 50% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Paris in round 3.
Q. 79 What percentage of members from among those who voted for New York in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2?
A. 33.33
B. 50
C. 66.67
D. 75
Q. 80 What is the number of votes cast for Paris in round 1?
A. 16
B. 18
C. 22
D. 24
Q. 81 What percentage of members from among those who voted for Beijing in round 2 and were eligible to vote in round 3, voted for London?
A. 33.33
B. 38.10
C. 50
D. 66.67
Q. 82 Which of the following statements must be true?
I. IOC member from New York must have voted for Paris in round 2.
II. IOC member from Beijing voted for London in round 3.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
Questions: 83 – 86
The table given in figure (1) presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. and Profitable Ltd. are disguised in the table as A, B, C and D, in no particular order. Further, it is known that:
1. In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. has the highest market share.
2. Aggressive Ltd.’s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.’s by Rs. 5 million.
Q. 83 What can be said regarding the following two statements?
Statement 1: Profitable Ltd. has the lowest share in MP market.
Statement 2: Honest Ltd.’s total revenue is more than Profitable Ltd.
A. If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is necessarily true.
B. If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is necessarily false.
C. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true.
D. Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is true.
Q. 84 What can be said regarding the following two statements?
Statement 1: Aggressive Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from MP.
Statement 2: Honest Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from Bihar.
A. If Statement 2 is true then Statement 1 is necessarily false.
B. If Statement 1 is false then Statement 2 is necessarily true.
C. If Statement 1 is true then Statement 2 is necessarily true.
D. None of the above.
Q. 85 What can be said regarding the following two statements?
Statement 1: Honest Ltd. has the highest share in the UP market.
Statement 2: Aggressive Ltd. has the highest share in the Bihar market.
A. Both statements could be true.
B. At least one of the statements must be true.
C. At most one of the statements is true.
D. None of the above
Q. 86 If Profitable Ltd.’s lowest revenue is from UP, then which of the following is true?
A. Truthful Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from MP
B. Truthful Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from Bihar.
C. Truthful Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from UP.
D. No definite conclusion is possible.
Questions: 87 – 90
Help Distress (HD) is an NGO involved in providing assistance to people suffering from natural disasters. Currently, it has 37 volunteers. They are involved in three projects: Tsunami Relief (TR) in Tamil Nadu, Flood Relief (FR in Maharashtra, and Earthquake Relief (ER) in Gujarat. Each volunteer working with Help Distress has to be involved in at least one relief work project.
1. A maximum number of volunteers are involved in the FR project. Among them, the number of volunteers involved in FR project alone is equal to the volunteers having additional involvement in the ER project.
2. The number of volunteers involved in the ER project alone is double the number of volunteers involved in all the three projects.
3. 17 volunteers are involved in the TR project.
4. The number of volunteers involved in the TR project alone is one less than the number of volunteers involved in ER project alone.
5. Ten volunteers involved in the TR project are also involved in at least one more project.
Q. 87 Based on the information given above, the minimum number of volunteers involved in both FR and TR projects, but not in the ER project is
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Q. 88 Which of the following additional information would enable to find the exact number of volunteers involved in various projects?
A. Twenty volunteers are involved in FR.
B. Four volunteers are involved in all the three projects.
C. Twenty three volunteers are involved in exactly one project.
D. No need for any additional information.
Q. 89 After some time, the volunteers who were involved in all the three projects were asked to withdraw from one project. As a result, one of the volunteers opted out of the TR project, and one opted out of the ER project, while the remaining ones involved in all the three projects opted out of the FR project. Which of the following statements, then, necessarily follows?
A. The lowest number of volunteers is now in TR project
B. More volunteers are now in FR project as compared to ER project.
C. More volunteers are now in TR project as compared to ER project.
D. None of the above
Q. 90 After the withdrawal of volunteers, as indicated in Question 89, some new volunteers joined the NGO. Each one of them was allotted only one project in a manner such that, the number of volunteers working in one project alone for each of the three projects became identical. At that point, it was also found that the number of volunteers involved in FR and ER projects was the same as the number of volunteers involved in TR and ER projects. Which of the projects now has the highest number of volunteers?
Directions for the following three questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below
In the adjoining figure I and II are circles with centres P and Q respectively, The two circles touch each other and have common tangent that touches them at points R and S respectively. This common tangent meets the line joining P and Q at O. The diameters of I and II are in the ratio 4: 3. It is also known that the length of PO is 28 cm.
Q. 1 What is the ratio of the length of PQ to that of QO?
A. 1 : 4
B. 1 : 3
C. 3 : 8
D. 3 : 4
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Triangles PRO and QSO are similar.
PR/QS = 4/3.
Therefore, PO/QO = 4/3 =>
Let the radius of 2 circles be 4R and 3R respectively.
28/(28-7R) = 4/3
4-R = 3
R = 1
Required ratio of PQ/QO = (4R+3R)/(28-7R) = 7R/(28-7R) = 7/21 = 1:3
Q. 2 What is the radius of the circle II?
A. 2 cm
B. 3 cm
C. 4 cm
D. 5 cm
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Let the radius of circles I and II be 4R and 3R respectively. Triangles PRO and QSO are similar.
PR/QS = 4/3.
Therefore, PO/QO = PR/QS
=> PO/QO = 4/3
=> 28/(28-7R) = 4/3
=> 4-R = 3
=> R = 1
Radius of smaller circle = 3R = 3
Q. 3 The length of SO is
A. 8√3cm
B. 10√3cm
C. 12√3cm
D. 14√3 cm
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Triangles PRO and QSO are similar.
PR/QS = 4/3.
Therefore, PO/QO = 4/3 =>
Let the radius of 2 circles be 4R and 3R respectively. 28/(28-7R) = 4/3
4-R = 3
R = 1
Therefore, SO =√(21 2 − 3 2 ) =√432 =12√3 cm
Instructions
Directions for the following two questions:
Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
f1(x) = x if 0 ≤ x ≤ 1 f1(x) = 1 if x >= 0 otherwise
f2(x) = f1(−x) for all x
f3(x) = −f2(x) for all x
f4(x) = f3(−x) for all x
Q. 4 How many of the following products are necessarily zero for every x:
f1(x)f2(x), f2(x)f3(x), f2(x)f4(x)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Checking for different values of x . Suppose x= -0.5 we get
f1(x)f2(x) = 0 ∗ 0.5 = 0
f2(x)f4(x) = 0.5 ∗ 0 = 0 .
But f2(x)f3(x) is not equal to zero.
Hence two functions are necessarily equal to zero and two products given above are equal to zero.
Q. 5 Which of the following is necessarily true?
A. f4(x) = f1(x) for all x
B. f1(x) = −f3(−x) for all x
C. f2(−x) = f4(x) for all x
D. f1(x) + f3(x) = 0 for all x
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Relation between f3 and f1 would be
f3(x) = −f1(−x).
Put x= –x we get
f3(−x) = −f1(x) so multiply by -1 we get
−f3(−x) = f1(x).
Instructions
Directions for the following two questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In an examination, there are 100 questions divided into three groups A, B. and C. such that each group contains at least one question. Each question in group A. carries 1 mark, each question in group B. carries 2 marks and each question in group C. carries 3 marks. It is known that the questions in group A. together carry at least 60% of the total marks.
Q. 6 If group B contains 23 questions, then how many questions are there in group C?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. Cannot be determined
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Group B contains 23 questions => Marks of group B = 46
Let the number of questions in A be x and in C be 77-x.
Marks of group A = x
So, x/(x+46+3*77-3x) >= 60%
=> 5x >= 3(277-2x)
=> 11x >= 831
=> x >= 75.54
=> x = 76 (min)
So, the possible number of questions in group C = 1.
Q. 7 If group C contains 8 questions and group B carries at least 20% of the total marks, which of the following best describes the number of questions in group B?
A. 11 or 12
B. 12 or 13
C. 13 or 14
D. 14 or 15
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Let the number of questions in group B be x.
So, number of questions in group A = 92-x
Marks of group B = 2x
2x/(92-x+2x+24) >= 20%
=> 10x >= 116+x
=> 9x >= 116
=> x >= 12.88
From the options, x can be 13 or 14
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 8 Two boats, traveling at 5 and 10 kms per hour, head directly towards each other. They begin at a distance of 20 kms from each other. How far apart are they (in kms) one minute before they collide?
A. 1/12
B. 1/6
C. 1/4
D. 1/3
Answer: C.
Explanation:
The relative speed is 15 km/hr = 15 km/60 min = 0.25 km/min = 250 m/min.
Therefore, one minute before they collide, they are at a distance of 250m.
Q. 9 A rectangular sheet of paper, when halved by folding it at the midpoint of its longer side, results in a rectangle, whose longer and shorter sides are in the same proportion as the longer and shorter sides of the original rectangle. If the shorter side of the original rectangle is 2, what is the area of the smaller rectangle?
A. 4√2
B. 2√2
C. √2
D. None of the above
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Let the longer side of the original rectangle be x. Therefore, breadth of the modified rectangle = x/2.
=> x:2 = 2:(x/2)
=>x2= 8
Area of smaller rectangle = (x/2)*2 = x = 2√2
Q. 10 If the sum of the first 11 terms of an arithmetic progression equals that of the first 19 terms, then what is the sum of the first 30 terms?
A. 0
B. -1
C. 1
D. Not unique
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Sum of the first 11 terms = 11/2 ( 2a+10d)
Sum of the first 19 terms = 19/2 (2a+18d)
=> 22a+110d = 38a+342d => 16a = -232d
=> 2a = -232/8 d = -29d
Sum of the first 30 terms = 15(2a+29d) = 0
Q. 11 If a man cycles at 10 km/hr, then he arrives at a certain place at 1 p.m. If he cycles at 15 km/hr, he will arrive at the same place at 11 a.m. At what sped must he cycle to get there at noon?
A. 11 km/hr
B. 12 km/hr
C. 13 km/hr
D. 14 km/hr
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Let the distance to be travelled be D
In the first case, D/10 = t
In the second case, D/15 = t-2
=> D/15 = D/10 – 2
=> 2D = 3D – 60
=> D = 60 km and T = 6 hours
Therefore, to get there at noon, he has to travel at 60/5 = 12 km/hr
Q. 12 On January 1, 2004 two new societies S1 and S2 are formed, each n numbers. On the first day of each subsequent month, S1 adds b members while S2 multiples its current numbers by a constant factor r. Both the societies have the same number of members on July 2, 2004. If b = 10.5n, what is the value of r?
A. 2.0
B. 1.9
C. 1.8
D. 1.7
Answer: A.
Explanation:
According to given condition we have ,
n+6b =nr6 and b=10.5n ,
63n+n = nr6
r6 = 64
r = 2
Q. 13 If f(x) = x3 − 4x + p, and f(0) and f(1) are of opposite signs, then which of the following is necessarily true
A. -1 < p < 2
B. 0 < p < 3
C. -2 < p < 1
D. -3 < p < 0
Answer: B.
Explanation:
f(1) = 1-4+p = p-3
f(0) = p
Since they are of opposite signs, p(p-3) < 0
=> 0 < p < 3
Q. 14 Suppose n is an integer such that the sum of digits on n is 2, and 1010 < n < 1011. The number of different values of n is
A. 11
B. 10
C. 9
D. 8
Answer: A.
Explanation:
The sum of digits should be 2. The possibilities are 1000000001, 1000000010, 10000000100,..these 10 cases . Also additional 1 case where 20000000000.
Hence option A .
Q. 15 A milkman mixes 20 litres of water with 80 litres of milk. After selling one-fourth of this mixture, he adds water to replenish the quantity that he had sold. What is the current proportion of water to milk?
A. 2 : 3
B. 1 : 2
C. 1 : 3
D. 3 : 4
Answer: A.
Explanation:
After selling 1/4th of the mixture, the remaining quantity of water is 15 liters and milk is 60 liters. So the milkman would add 25 liters of water to the mixture. The total amount of water now is 40 liters and milk is 60 liters. Therefore, the required ratio is 2:3.
Q.16 Let y = 1/(2+ 1/(3 +1/(2 + 1/(3+…)))). Then y equal?
A. {(√11)+3}/2
B. {(√11)-3}/2
C. {(√15)+3}/2
D. {(√15)-3}/2
Answer: D.
Explanation:
y = 1/(2+ 1/(3 +1/(2 + 1/(3+…))))
which is equal to y=1/(2+ 1/(3+y)) solving we get
y = (3+y) /(7+2y) we get
2y2 + 6y − 3 = 0 .
Solution of this equation is {(√15)-3}/2.
Q. 17 N persons stand on the circumference of a circle at distinct points. Each possible pair of persons, not standing next to each other, sings a two-minute song one pair after the other. If the total time taken for singing is 28 minutes, what is N?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. None of the above
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Total number of pairs is NC2. Number of pairs standing next to each other = N. Therefore, number of pairs in question
= NC2 – N
= 28/2 = 14.
If N = 7,
7C2 – 7 = 21 – 7 = 14.
N = 7.
Q. 18 A father and his son are waiting at a bus stop in the evening. There is a lamp post behind them. The lamp post, the father and his son stand on the same straight line. The father observes that the shadows of his head and his son’s head are incident at the same point on the ground. If the heights of the lamp post, the father and his son are 6 metres, 1.8 metres and 0.9 metres respectively, and the father is standing 2.1 metres away from the post then how far (in metres) is son standing form his father?
A. 0.9
B. 0.75
C. 0.6
D. 0.45
Answer: D.
Explanation:
The three triangles are similar.
Let the distance of the tip of the shadow from the child be y. Let the child be standing at distance x from the father. So, 6/(2.1+x+y) = 1.8/(x+y) = 0.9/y
=> 2y = x+y => x = y
=> 6/(2.1 + 2x) = 0.9/x
=> 6x = 0.9*(2.1+2x)
=> 6x = 1.89 + 1.8x
=> 4.2x = 1.89
=> x = 1.89/4.2 = 0.45
Q. 19 Let f(x) = ax2 − b∣x∣ , where a and b are constants. Then at x = 0, f(x) is
A. maximized whenever a > 0, b > 0
B. maximized whenever a > 0, b < 0
C. minimized whenever a > 0, b > 0
D. minimized whenever a > 0, b< 0
Answer: D.
Explanation:
f(x) = ax2 − b∣x∣ . When x = 0, f(x) = 0
When a > 0 and b < 0,
For x > 0, f(x) = ax2 − bx, will be greater than 0 as ax2 > 0 and bx < 0 as b is negative and x is positive.
For x < 0, f(x) = ax2 + bx will again be greater than 0 as ax2 > 0 and bx > 0 as both b and x are negative.
Therefore, the function f(x) is positive when x < 0 and x > 0 when but becomes 0 when x = 0.
Therefore, for a > 0 and b < 0, f(x) will attain its minimum value at x = 0.
Q. 20 Each family in a locality has at most two adults, and no family has fewer than 3 children.
Considering all the families together, there are adults than boys, more boys than girls, and more girls than families.
Then the minimum possible number of families in the locality is
A. 4
B. 5
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Consider 3 family. Let 1st one have 2 A , 1B and 2 G , 2nd one have 2 A , 2B and 1 G, 3rd one have 2 A , 2B and 1 G . SO total A-6 , B – 5 , g – 4 , F – 3 .
Hence minimum is 3 .
Q. 21 Let C be a circle with centre P0 and AB be a diameter of C. Suppose P1 is the mid point of the linesegment P0B, P2, is the mid point of the line segment P1B and so on. Let C1, C2, C3, … be circles withdiameters P0P1, P1P2, P2P3… respectively. Suppose the circles C1, C2, C3, … are all shaded. The ratio of the C area of the unshaded portion of to that of the original circle is
A. 8 : 9
B. 9 : 10
C. 10 : 11
D. 11 : 12
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Radius of the circles C1, C2, C3, … would be in GP with (R/4),(R/8),(R/16) and so on. Radii of circles are in the ratio 1:4.
Ratio of unshaded region to the ratio of original circle = 1- [Ratio of shaded region / Ratio of original circle]
=>1- [πr2 /16+πr2 /64+….. / πr2]
=>1- [1/16 / 1-¼ ]
=> 1-1/12
=>11/12
=> 11:12
Q. 22 Consider the sequence of numbers a1, a2, a3 ……. to infinity where a1 = 81.33 and a2 = −19 andaj = aj−1 − aj−2for j > 3. What is the sum of the first 6002 terms of this sequence?
A. -100.33
B. -30.00
C. 62.33
D. 119.33
Answer: C.
Explanation:
According to given conditions the terms are 81.33, -19, -100.33, -81.33, 19, 100.33, 81.33,-19,.. Hence the series repeats after every 6 terms . Also summation of these 6 terms is 0. Hence summation is 60002 terms will we sum of first 2 terms which is 62.33.
Q. 23 A sprinter starts running on a circular path of radius r metres. Her average speed (in metres/minute) is πr during the first 30 seconds, πr/2 during next one minute, πr/4 during next 2 minutes, πr/8 during next 4 minutes, and so on. What is the ratio of the time taken for the nth round to that for the previous round?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Let radius be 1 units and p = 3.14 or π. So circumference is 2 * π.
According to given condition distance covered in first 1/2 mins = π/2 km, distance covered in next 1 min = π/2 km,
distance covered in next 2 mins =π/2 km and finally distance covered in next 4 minutes = π/2km.
Time taken to cover first round = 1/2 + 1 + 2 + 4 = 7.5 minutes.
Now time taken to cover π/2 is in GP.
For the second round the time taken is = 8+16+32+64 = 120
Ratio = 120/7.5 = 16
Q. 24 Let u = (log2 x)2 − 6log2 x + 12 where x is a real number. Then the equation xu = 256, has
A. no solution for x
B. exactly one solution for x
C. exactly two distinct solutions for x
D. exactly three distinct solutions for x
Answer: B.
Explanation:
xu = 256
Taking log to the base 2 on both the sides,
u ∗ log2x = log2 256
=>[(log2x)2 − 6log2x + 12] ∗ log2x = 8
=>(log2x)3 − 6(log2x)2 + 12log2x = 8
Let log2x = t
t3 − 6t2 + 12t − 8 = 0
(t − 2)3 = 0
Therefore, log2x = 2
=> x = 4 is the only solution
Hence, option B. is the correct answer.
Q. 25 If the lengths of diagonals DF, AG and CE of the cube shown in the adjoining figure are equal to the three sides of a triangle, then the radius of the circle circumscribing that triangle will be?
A. equal to the side of the cube
B. √3 times the side of the cube
C. 1/√3 times the side of the cube
D. impossible to find from the given information
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Consider side of the cube as x.
So diagonal will be of length √3* x.
Now if diagonals are side of equilateral triangle we get area = 3*√3 ∗ x2 /4 .
Also in a triangle
4 * Area * R = Product of sides
4* 3*√3 ∗ x2 /4 * R = .3* √3 ∗ x3
R = x
Q. 26 In the adjoining figure, the lines represent one-way roads allowing travel only northwards or only westwards. Along how many distinct routes can a car reach point B from point A?
A. 15
B. 35
C. 120
D. 336
Answer: B.
Explanation:
The person has to take 3 steps north and 4 steps west, in whatever way he travels.
Total steps = 7, 3 north and 4 west.
Number of ways = 7!/(4!3!) = 35
Q. 27 On a semicircle with diameter AD, chord BC is parallel to the diameter. Further; AD and BC are separated by 2cm, while AD has length 8. What is the length of BC?
A. 2√3
B. 4√3
C. 8.6
D. None of the above
Answer: B.
Explanation:
In the triangle BEO, BE =√42 − 22 = 2√3
=> BC = 4√3
Q. 28 A circle with radius 2 is placed against a right angle. Another smaller circle is also placed as shown in the adjoining figure. What is the radius of the smaller circle?
A. 3 − 2√2
B. 4 − 2√2
C. 7 − 4√2
D. 6 − 4√2
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Using pythagoras we can find diagonal of small square shown in fig. = 2*√2 . Now this is equal to 2 + r + √2*r.
Equating we get r = 6 − 4√2.
Q. 29 In the adjoining figure, chord ED is parallel to the diameter AC of the circle. If angle CBE = 65°, then what is the value of angle DEC?
A. 35
B. 55
C. 45
D. 25
Answer: D.
Explanation:
If EBC = 65 then EOC = 130 then OEC = OCE = 25 NOw since OC and ED are parallel we have OCE = OED = 25 Hence option D
Q. 30 The remainder, when (1523 + 23 ) is divided by 19, is
A. 4
B. 15
C. 0
D. 18
Answer: C.
Explanation:
The remainder when 1523 is divided by 19 equals (−4)23
The remainder when 2323 is divided by 19 equals 423
So, the sum of the two equals (−4)23 + (4)23 = 0
Q. 31 A new flag is to be designed with six vertical stripes using some or all of the colours yellow, green, blue and red. Then, the number of ways this can be done such that no two adjacent stripes have the same colour is
A. 12 × 81
B. 16 × 192
C. 20 × 125
D. 24 × 216
Answer: A.
Explanation:
The number of ways of selecting a colour for the first stripe is 4. The number of ways of selecting a colour for the second stripe is 3. Similarly, the number of ways of selecting colours for the third, fourth, fifth and sixth stripes are 3, 3, 3 and 3 respectively.
The total number of ways of selecting the colours is, therefore, 4*3*3*3*3*3 = 12*81.
Q. 32 If a/b+c =b/a+c =c/b+a = r, then r cannot take any value except
A. 1/2
B. -1
C. 1/2 or -1
D. -1/2 or -1
Answer: C.
Explanation:
a = r(b+c)
b = r(a+c)
c = r(a+b)
On adding all the equations,
a+b+c = 2r(a+b+c)
If r = 1/2, a+b+c = a+b+c (valid)
If r = -1, a+b+c = -2(a+b+c) => a+b+c = 0 => b+c = -a and a/(b+c) = a/(-a) = -1 (valid)
So, r can take the values 1/2 or -1
Q. 33 Karan and Arjun run a 100-meter race, where Karan beats Arjun 10 metres. To do a favour to Arjun, Karan starts 10 metres behind the starting line in a second 100 metre race. They both run at their earlier speeds. Which of the following is true in connection with the second race?
A. Karan and Arjun reach the finishing line simultaneously.
B. Arjun beats Karan by 1 metre
C. Arjun beats Karan by 11 metres.
D. Karan beats Arjun by 1 metre.
Answer: D.
Explanation:
The speeds of Karan and Arjun are in the ratio 10:9. Let the speeds be 10s and 9s.
Time taken by Karan to cover 110 m = 110/10s = 11/s
Time taken by Arjun to cover 100 m = 100/9s = 11.11/s
Therefore, Karan reaches the finish line before Arjun. From the options, the only possible answer is d).
Q. 34 In NutsAndBolts factory, one machine produces only nuts at the rate of 100 nuts per minute and needs to be cleaned for 5 minutes after production of every 1000 nuts.
Another machine produces only bolts at the rate of 75 bolts per minute and needs to be cleaned for 10 minutes after production of every 1500 bolts. If both the machines start production at the same time, what is the minimum duration required for producing 9000 pairs of nuts and bolts?
A. 130 minutes
B. 135 minutes
C. 170 minutes
D. 180 minutes
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Machine A takes 15 min to produce 1000 nuts with clean time. machine b takes 30 min to make 1500 nuts with clean time . So B is slower. So with B 900 nuts will be made in 180 mins but at last round cleaning time of 10 min no need to count hence 170 mins
Q. 35 The total number of integers pairs (x, y) satisfying the equation x + y = xy is
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. None of the above
Answer: C.
Explanation:
xy = x + y
=> xy – x – y = 0
=> xy – x – y + 1 = 1
=> (x – 1) (y – 1) = 1
=> Both x – 1 and y – 1 have to be equal to 1 or -1.
So, values taken by (x,y) are (2,2) and (0,0).
=> 2 solutions
Data Interpretation
Instructions
Directions for the following four questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The Dean’s office recently scanned student results into the central computer system. When their character reading software cannot read something, it leaves the space blank. The scanner output read as follows:
In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2, and 0 grade points respectively. The Grade Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade points obtained in the five subjects. For example Nisha’s GPA. is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0) / 5 = 3.6. Some additional facts are also known about the students’ grades. These are
(i) Vipul obtained the same grade in Marketing as Aparna obtained in Finance and Strategy. (ii) Fazal obtained the same grade in Strategy as Utkarsh did in Marketing.
(iii) Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses.
Q. 36 What grade did Preeti obtain in Statistics?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Let preeti obtain x and y in statistics and operation respectively.
Now we know that GPA. = 3.2 . So (x+y+2+2) = 16 .
So x+y = 12. for this only one value is possible x=y=6 .
So A grade .
Q. 37 In operations, Tara could have received the same grade as
A. Ismet
B. Hari
C. Jagdeep
D. Manab
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Since tara received the same grade in exactly 3 subjects , only one possibility is getting B. in 3 subjects and F in other 2. So in operation her grade would be either B or F.Among options only manab has B in operations . hence option D
Q. 38 In Strategy, Gowri’s grade point was higher than that obtained by
A. Fazal
B. Hari
C. Nisha
D. Rahul
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Knowing the GPA. we can find gawrys grade in strategy as
16 + x=19; x=3. So her grade was C.
Now considering hari’s grade 12+x+y=14 ; so x+y=2.
So he must have got D or F in strategy. Hence in Strategy, Gowri’s grade point was higher than that obtained by hari.
Q. 39 What grade did Utkarsh obtain in Finance?
A. B
B. C
C. D
D. F
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Considering utkarsh grades we get , x+y = 6, So possibilities of his missing grades are (4,2) or (6,0). Now according to given condition, his grades in marketing are same as faizal’s in strategy and faizal got grade B in strategy . hence utkarsh got 4 in marketing and 2 in finance i.e. grade D . Hence option C
Instructions
Directions for the following four questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The data points in the figure below represent monthly income and expenditure data of individual members of the Ahuja family, the Bose family, the Coomar family, and the Dubey family.
The X axis represents Expenditure and the Y axis represents the Income of the individual members. For these questions, savings is defined as Savings = Income – Expenditure
Q. 40 Which family has the lowest average income?
A. Ahuja
B. Bose
C. Coomar
D. Dubey
Answer: C.
Explanation:
SInce the Y-axis gives the income, to find minimum average income see if any family has income in different months as below as possible in the graph.
From the graph we can see that coomar has lowest average income. Hence option C.
Q. 41 Which family has the highest average expenditure?
A. Ahuja
B. Bose
C. Coomar
D. Dubey
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Since X axis gives expenditure we have to see if average is as right as possible. Average expenditure of dubey family is rightmost. Hence, option D.
Q. 42 Which family has the lowest average savings?
A. Ahuja
B. Bose
C. Coomar
D. Dubey
Answer: D.
Explanation:
From the graph we can clearly make out that for dubey family in both the months income is nearly equal to expenditure, thus hey have lowest savings.
Q. 43 The highest amount of savings accrues to a member of which family?
A. Ahuja
B. Bose
C. Coomar
D. Dubey
Answer: A.
Explanation:
To have highest amount of savings, income should be high and expenditure should be low. For ahuja family the gap is highest . Hence they have highest amount of savings
Instructions
Directions for the following four questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage? His service provider has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to.
Q. 44 To which country does University 5 belong?
A. India or Netherlands but not USA.
B. India or USA. but not Netherlands
C. Netherlands or USA. but not India
D. India or USA. but not UK
Answer: A.
Explanation:
According to given conditions there are following possibilities of university belonging from specific country .
We can clearly make out that University 5 belongs to India or Netherlands but not USA. Hence option A.
Q. 45 University 1 can belong to
A. UK
B. Canada
C. Netherlands
D. USA.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
According to given conditions there are following possibilities of university belonging from specific country .
We can see that University 1 can belong to Netherlands out of the given options.
Q. 46 Which among the listed countries can possibly host three of the eight listed universities?
A. None
B. Only UK
C. Only India
D. Both India and UK
Answer: A.
Explanation:
According to given conditions there are following possibilities of university belonging from specific country .
Thus we can see that no country can can possibly host three of the eight listed universities.
Q. 47 Visitors from how many universities from UK visited Prof. Singh’s homepage in the three days?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B.
Explanation:
On day 3, there were 2 visitors from UK and 1 from USA. On the same day, the site was visited by 2 persons from University 4 and 1 from University 6. So University 4 is located in UK and University 6 is in USA. Similar reasoning for day 2 gives us the conclusion that University 3 is located in Netherlands and University 8 is in India. On day 1, the number of visitors from USA. is 1 and that from University 6 is 1. University 6 is in USA. (derived above), which implies no other university is in USA. The number of visitors from India on day 1 is 1. Also, no visitor from University 8, which is in India has visited the site on day 1. This implies that one of University 1 and University 5 is in India and the other in Netherlands. A. similar logic gives us that one of University 2 and University 6 is in UK and the other in Canada.
We can see that university 4 and university 7 from UK visited prof. Singh’s homepage in the three days.
Instructions
Directions for the following four questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Purana and Naya are two brands of kitchen mixer-grinders available in the local market. Purana is an old brand that was introduced in 1990, while Naya was introduced in 1997. For both these brands, 20% of the mixer-grinders bought in a particular year are disposed off as junk exactly two years later. It is knows that 10 Purana mixer-grinders were disposed off in 1997. The following figures show the number of Purana and Naya mixer-grinders in operation from 1995 to 2000, as at the end of the year.
Q. 48 How many Naya mixer-grinders were purchased in 1999?
A. 44
B. 50
C. 55
D. 64
Answer: B.
Explanation:
There were 30 naya mixture in 97′ which will also work in 98′ ,thus we have 50 new mixtures in 98′ . Now in 99′ 20% of 30 i.e. 6 are thrown in junk . So in 99′ we have 24 + 50 = 74 naya mixtures of previous years. So naya mixture grinder purchased in 99′ is 124-74 = 50. Hence option b.
Q. 49 How many Naya mixer-grinders were disposed off by the end of 2000?
A. 10
B. 16
C. 22
D. Cannot be determined from the data
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Number of Naya mixer-grinders were disposed off by the end of 1999 are 6 and at the end of 2000 are 10. So in total 16 naya mixer disposed off.
Q. 50 How many Purana mixer-grinders were disposed off in 2000?
A. 0
B. 5
C. 6
D. Cannot be determined from the data
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Since 10 purana were disposed off in 1997, it means 50 new have been bought in 1995, which implies that 70 were already in use. The breakup of 70 purana cannot be determined. So the number of purana disposed in 2000 cannot be calculated.
Q. 51 How many Purana mixer-grinders were purchased in 1999?
A. 20
B. 23
C. 50
D. Cannot be determined from the data
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Purana mixer-grinders were purchased in 1999 = 236 – 222 +Disposed in 1999
= 236-222 + 20%(Purana mixer-grinders were purchased in 1997)
Directions for the following four questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A. study was conduced to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.
Q. 52 Which of the following pairs of countries are most dissimilar?
A. China and Japan
B. India and China
C. Malaysia and Japan
D. Thailand and Japan
Answer: D.
Explanation:
The maximum difference of the ranks between all traits is largest for Japan and Thailand which is 4. Hence option D.
Q. 53 Which of the following countries is least dissimilar to India?
A. China
B. Japan
C. Malaysia
D. Thailand
Answer: A.
Explanation:
If we find maximum of difference in ranks for all traits between India and others we find that the difference is least for India and china with just 2 points. Hence china is least dissimilar to India.
Q. 54 Which amongst the following countries is most dissimilar to India?
A. China
B. Japan
C. Malaysia
D. Thailand
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Maximum difference in ranks between Japan and India is 4 which is highest when compared to other countries. hence option B.
Q. 55 Three of the following four pairs of countries have identical levels of dissimilarity. Which pair is the odd one out?
A. Malaysia and China
B. China and Thailand
C. Thailand and Japan
D. Japan and Malaysia
Answer: D.
Explanation:
The maximum difference in ranks in any of the parameters is termed to be dissimilarity. Difference between the ranks of Malaysia and China in Vision (V) = 5-1 =4 Difference between the ranks of China and Thailand in Vision (V) = 5-1 = 4 Difference between the ranks of Thailand and Japan in Decisiveness (D) = 5 -1 =4 The maximum rank difference between Japan and Malaysia is in Vision (V) and Negotiation skills (N). The maximum difference in rank is 4. Therefore, option D. is the odd one.
Instructions
Directions for the following four questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Coach John sat with the score cards of Indian players from the 3 games in a one-day cricket tournament where the same set of players played for India and all the major batsmen got out. John summarized the batting performance through three diagrams, one for each games. In each diagram, the three outer triangles communicate the number of runs scored by the three top scores from India, where K, R, S, V, and Y represent Kaif, Rahul, Saurav, Virender, and Yuvraj respectively. The middle triangle in each diagram denotes the percentage of total score that was scored by the top three Indian scorers in that game. No two players score the same number of runs in the same game. John also calculated two batting indices for each player based on his scores in the tournaments; the R-index of a batsman is the difference between his highest and lowest scores in the 3 games while the M-index is the middle number, if his scores are arranged in a non-increasing order.
Q. 56 For how many Indian players is it possible to calculate the exact M-index?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. More than 2
Answer: C.
Explanation:
We can clearly see that m index of only saurav and rahul is possible.Hence option C.
Q. 57 Among the players mentioned, who can have the lowest R-index from the tournament?
A. Only Kaif, Rahul or Yuvraj
B. Only Kaif or Rahul
C. Only Kaif or Yuvraj
D. Only Kaif
Answer: A.
Explanation:
We can find out that R- index can be lowest of any one out of Kaif, Rahul or Yuvraj.
Q. 58 How many players among those listed definitely scored less than Yuvraj in the tournament?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. More than 2
Answer: B.
Explanation:
If we calculate total possible runs scored by each player we find that 1 player which is rahul definately scores below yuvraj.
Q. 59 Which of the players had the best M-index from the tournament?
A. Rahul
B. Saurav
C. Virender
D. Yuvraj
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Saurav has the best M-index .
Instructions
Directions for the following four questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Twenty one participants from four continents (Africa, Americas, Australasia, and Europe) attended a United Nations conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields, labour, health, population studies, and refugee relocation. The following five facts about the participants are given.
(a) The number of labour experts in the camp was exactly half the number of experts in each of the three other categories.
(b) Africa did not send any labour experts. Otherwise, every continent, including Africa, sent at least one expert for each category.
(c) None of the continents sent more than three experts in any category.
(d) If there had been one less Australasian expert, then the Americas would have had twice as many experts as each of the other continents.
(e) Mike and Alfanso are leading experts of population studies who attended the conference. They are from Australasia.
Q. 60 Which of the following combinations is NOT possible?
A. 2 experts in population studies from the Americas and 2 health experts from Africa attended the conference.
B. 2 experts in population studies from the Americas and 1 health expert from Africa attended the conference.
C. 3 experts in refugee relocation from the Americas and 1 health expert from Africa attended the conference.
D. Africa and America each had 1 expert in population studies attending the conference.
Answer: D.
Explanation:
According to given conditions, the possible solutions are as given in the tables below:
From the above tables we can see that there was no possible case in which Africa and America had 1 expert each in population studies. Thus, statement D. is false.
Q. 61 If Ramos is the lone American expert in population studies, which of the following is NOT true about the numbers of experts in the conference from the four continents?
A. There is one expert in health from Africa.
B. There is one expert in refugee relocation from Africa.
C. There are two experts in health from the Americas.
D. There are three experts in refugee relocation from the Americas.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
According to given conditions, the possible solutions are as given in the tables below:
From the tables we can see that when there is only 1 population expert from America, there are 3 American Health Experts. Hence option C. is not true.
Q. 62 Alex, an American expert in refugee relocation, was the first keynote speaker in the conference. What can be inferred about the number of American experts in refugee relocation in the conference, excluding Alex?
i. At least one
ii. At most two
A. Only i and not ii
B. Only ii and not I
C. Both i and ii
D. Neither i nor ii
Answer: C.
Explanation:
According to given conditions, the possible solutions are as given in the tables below:
If an American expert in refugee relocation, was the first keynote speaker in the conference. Then apart from him there is atleast 1 and atmost 2 american expert in refugee relocation. Hence option C.
Q. 63 Which of the following numbers cannot be determined from the information given?
A. Number of labour experts from the Americas.
B. Number of health experts from Europe.
C. Number of health experts from Australasia.
D. Number of experts in refugee relocation from Africa.
Answer: D.
Explanation:
According to given conditions, the possible solutions are as given in the tables below:
We can see that there are 2 possibilities for number of experts in refugee relocation from Africa.Hence it cannot be
determined.
Instructions
Directions for the following four questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The year was 2006. All six teams in Pool A. of World Cup hockey, play each other exactly once.
Each win earns a team three points, a draw earns one point and a loss earns zero points. The two teams with the highest points qualify for the semifinals. In case of a tie, the team with the highest goal difference (Goal For . Goals Against) qualifies.
In the opening match, Spain lost to Germany.
After the second round (after each team played two matches), the pool table looked as shown below.
In the third round, Spain played Pakistan, Argentina played Germany, and New Zealand played South Africa. All the third round matches were drawn. The following are some results from the fourth and fifth round matches
(a) Spain won both the fourth and fifth round matches.
(b) Both Argentina and Germany won their fifth round matches by 3 goals to 0.
(c) Pakistan won both the fourth and fifth round matches by 1 goal to 0.
Q. 64 Which one of the following statements is true about matches played in the first two rounds?
A. Germany beat New Zealand by 1 goal to 0.
B. Spain beat New Zealand by 4 goals to 0.
C. Spain beat South Africa by 2 goals to 0.
D. Germany beat South Africa by 2 goals to 1.
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Germany and Argentina have 2 games each and Spain and Pakistan have won 1 game each. We also know that Germany beat Spain.
So Germany won its second game against one among SA/ NZ.
Similarly Argentina must have won one game against Pakistan and another against SA/ NZ. Argentina scored 2 goals and conceded 0 goals. So it must have won both the games 1-0. NZ conceded 6 goals. The only possibility is it lost 5-1 to Spain and lost 1-0 to Argentina. As Spain conceded 2 goals it must have lost its opening game to Germany by 1-0.
Now, the results of all the games can be known.
Following are the possible match result after 2 rounds :
HENCE OPTION D. IS THE CORRECT ANSWER.
Q. 65 Which one of the following statements is true about matches played in the first two rounds?
A. Pakistan beat South Africa by 2 goals to 1.
B. Argentina beat Pakistan by 1 goal to 0.
C. Germany beat Pakistan by 2 goals to 1.
D. Germany beat Spain by 2 goals to 1.
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Following are the possible match result of 2 rounds :
Hence option D. is the correct answer.
Q. 66 If Pakistan qualified as one of the two teams from Pool A, which was the other team that qualified?
A. Argentina
B. Germany
C. Spain
D. Cannot be determined
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Data is inconsistent as from the statements we can infer that Spain, Germany, Argentina and Pakistan won their 5th round matches. But only 3 teams can win any round.Hence the following question can’t be answered.
Q. 67 Which team finished at the top of the pool after five rounds of matches?
A. Argentina
B. Germany
C. Spain
D. Cannot be determined
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Data is inconsistent as from the statements we can infer that Spain, Germany, Argentina and Pakistan won their 5th round matches. But only 3 teams can win any round as there are a total of 6 teams.Hence the following question can’t be answered.
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 68 Zakib spends 30% of his income on his children’s education, 20% on recreation and 10% on healthcare. The corresponding percentage for Supriyo are 40%, 25%, and 13%. Who spends more on children’s education?
A. Zakib spends more on recreation than Supriyo.
B. Supriyo spends more on healthcare than Zakib.
A. The question can be answered by using one of the statements alone but not by using the other statement alone.
B. The question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
C. The question can be answered by using both statements together but not by either statement alone.
D. The question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.
Answer: A.
Explanation:
We have to find out if 3Z > 4S => Z > 1.33S
According to statement 1, Z/5 > S/4 => Z > 1.25S
According to statement 2, 13S > 10Z => Z < 1.3S
So, using statement 2 alone, we can answer the question
Q. 69 Four candidates for an award obtain distinct scores in a test. Each of the four casts a vote to choose the winner of the award. The candidate who gets the largest number of votes wins the award. In case of a tie in the voting process, the candidate with the highest score wins the award. Who wins the award?
A. The candidates with top three scores each vote for the top score amongst the other three.
B. The candidate with the lowest score votes for the player with the second highest score.
A. The question can be answered by using one of the statements alone but not by using the other statement alone.
B. The question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
C. The question can be answered by using both statements together but not by either statement alone.
D. The question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Let the persons be A,B,C and D in order of the scores that is, A scores the highest and D the least.
Statement A: A votes for B , B and C votes for A
Even if D votes for B,then also A wins as A has higher score as compared to B
A alone is sufficient.
Statement B: D votes for B
Nothing can be inferred from this statement.
Q. 70 In a class of 30 students, Rashmi secured the third rank among the girls, while her brother Kumar studying in the same class secured the sixth rank in the whole class. Between the two, who had a better overall rank?
A. Kumar was among the top 25% of the boys merit list in the class in which 60% were boys.
B. There were three boys among the top five rank holders, and three girls among the top ten rank holders.
A. The question can be answered by using one of the statements alone but not by using the other statement alone.
B. The question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
C. The question can be answered by using both statements together but not by either statement alone.
D. The question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.
Answer: A.
Explanation:
We know that Rashmi secured the third rank among the girls, while her brother Kumar studying in the same class secured the sixth rank in the whole class.
Considering statement A. we have 18 B. and 12 G and out of 18 boys kumar is among top 4 . But in this case we can’t get the relative posiiton of rashmi and kumar.
Consider statement B. We know that among top 5 , 3 are boys and 2 are girls .So rashmi is not among top5 and we know that Kumar’s rank is 6 . So Rashmi is definately below Kumar. Hence, the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone but not by using the other statement alone.
Q. 71 Tarak is standing 2 steps to the left of a red mark and 3 steps to the right of a blue mark. He tosses a coin. If it comes up heads, he moves one step to the right; otherwise he moves one step to the left. He keeps doing this until he reaches one of the two marks, and then he stops.
At which mark does he stop?
A. He stops after 21 coin tosses.
B. He obtains three more tails than heads.
A. The question can be answered by using one of the statements alone but not by using the other statement alone.
B. The question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
C. The question can be answered by using both statements together but not by either statement alone.
D. The question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Consider Statement A:
B_ _x_R
If the person has to reach red, then he has to take 2 steps in the most simplest manner. Now suppose he first takes left step and then takes a right step. He has taken 2 steps and has to take further 2 steps in order to reach red. In this way, a person has to take even number of steps to reach red. In the similar manner, a person has to take three steps to reach blue in the simplest manner. It means he would have to take odd number of steps to reach blue and since 21 is an odd number, therefore the person would reach blue step.
Consider Statement B,
It is given that the person obtains 3 more tails as compared to heads. Take the case of 1 head and four tails. In this case, he would reach blue step.Now take the case of 2 heads and 5 tails. In this case 2 heads are neutralised by 2 tails. The ramaining portion is 3 tails which would help to reach blue steps. In this manner, no matter how many heads are, three more tails would make sure that the person reaches blue corner.
Q. 72 Ravi spent less than Rs. 75 to buy one kilogram each of potato, onion, and gourd. Which one of the three vegetables bought was the costliest?
A. 2 kg potato and 1 kg gourd cost less than 1 kg potato and 2 kg gourd.
B. 1 kg potato and 2 kg onion together cost the same as 1 kg onion and 2 kg gourd.
A. The question can be answered by using one of the statements alone but not by using the other statement alone.
B. The question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
C. The question can be answered by using both statements together but not by either statement alone.
D. The question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Using statement 1 alone, 2P + G < P + 2G
=> P < G
Using statement 2 alone, P + 2O = O + 2G
=> P + O = 2G
So, using either statement alone, we cannot find the answer to the question.
However, by using both the statements together, we can determine that P < G < O
So, option c) is the answer.
Q. 73 Nandini paid for an article using currency notes of denominations Re. 1, Rs. 2, Rs. 5, and Rs. 10 using at least one note of each denomination. The total number of five and ten rupee notes used was one more than the total number of one and two rupee notes used. What was the price of the article?
A. Nandini used a total of 13 currency notes.
B. The price of the article was a multiple of Rs. 10.
A. The question can be answered by using one of the statements alone but not by using the other statement alone.
B. The question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
C. The question can be answered by using both statements together but not by either statement alone.
D. The question cannot be answered on the basis of the two statements.
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Let the no. of 1,2,5,10 Rs notes be x,y,z,w.
According to given condition we have z+w=x+y+1 .
Now considering statement A.
The possible values are 4+3=3+3+1 .
But in this case the data is not sufficient to find price of article as the both 5 and 10 rs can have any of the 4 or 3 notes.
Hence statement A. is not sufficient.
Now considering statement B. ,
The price of the article was a multiple of Rs. 10.
For this, more than 1 possibility of no. of notes of a particular value is there. Also 2 statements together can’t give the total price of the article.
Verbal
Instructions
Directions for the following ten questions: Fill up the blanks, numbered [1], [2] up to [10], in the two passages below with most appropriate word from the options given for each blank.
First Passage:
“Between the year 1946 and the year 1955, I did not file any income tax returns.” With that [1] statement, Ramesh embarked on an account of his encounter with the income tax department. “I originally owned Rs. 20,000 in unpaid taxes. With [2] and [3], the 20,000 became 60,000. The Income tax Department then went into action, and I learned first hand just how much power the Tax Department wields. Royalties and trust funds can be [4]; automobiles may be [5], and auctioned off. Nothing belongs to the [6] until the case is settled.”
Second Passage:
“At that time the white house was as serene as a resort hotel out of season. The corridors were [7]. In the various offices, [8] gray men in waistcoats talked to one another in low-pitched voices. The only color, or choler, curiously enough, was provided by President Eisenhower himself. Apparently, his [9] was easily set off; he scowled when he [10] the corridors.
Q. 74 Blank Number [1]
A. devious
B. blunt
C. tactful
D. pretentious
Answer: B.
Explanation:
The most appropriate option is blunt. Ramesh has made direct statement which can be said to be blunt.
Q. 75 Blank Number [2]
A. interest
B. taxes
C. principal
D. returns
Answer: A.
Explanation:
The principal is mentioned as 20,000. Since he hasn’t paid this amount, he has to pay the interest.
Q. 76 Blank Number [3]
A. sanctions
B. refunds
C. fees
D. fines
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Due to late payments, there were fines.
Q. 77 Blank Number [4]
A. closed
B. detached
C. attached
D. impounded
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Of the given options, only option C and D mean take hold of. Between the two, option C is used for funds and sources of income. Impounded is used for taking possession of physical assets and thus cannot be used for sources of income. Thus, the right answer is option C.
Q. 78 Blank Number [5]
A. smashed
B. seized
C. dismantled
D. frozen
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Before auctioning, automobiles are seized and not smashed or dismantled.
Q. 79 Blank Number [6]
A. purchaser
B. victim
C. investor
D. offender
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Those who evade income tax are offenders rather than a victim, purchaser or an investor.
Q. 80 Blank Number [7]
A. striking
B. hollow
C. empty
D. white
Answer: C.
Explanation:
The best word attached with the corridor is empty rather than hollow, striking or white because in the previous line it is mentioned that white house was serene.
Q. 81 Blank Number [8]
A. quiet
B. faded
C. loud
D. stentorian
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Since low-pitched voice is mentioned, the most appropriate word is quiet.
Q. 82 Blank Number [9]
A. laughter
B. curiously
C. humour
D. temper
Answer: D.
Explanation:
“Choler” means anger. The most appropriate word which goes with choler is temper.
Q. 83 Blank Number [10]
A. paced
B. strolled
C. stormed
D. prowled
Answer: A.
Explanation:
When someone is in a temper, he usually moves fast. “Paced” is the most appropriate word in this context.
Instructions
The painter is now free to paint anything he chooses. There are scarcely any forbidden subjects, and today everybody is prepared to admit that a painting of some fruit can be as important as painting of a hero dying. The Impressionists did as much as anybody to win this previously unheard of freedom for the artist. Yet, by the next generation, painters began to abandon tie subjects altogether, and began to paint abstract pictures. Today the majority of pictures painted are abstract.
Is there a connection between these two developments? Has art gone abstract because the artist is embarrassed by his freedom? Is it that, because he is free to paint anything, he doesn’t know what to paint? Apologists for abstract art often talk of it as Inc art of maximum freedom. But could this be the freedom of the desert island? It would take too long to answer these questions properly. I believe there is a connection. Many things have encouraged the development of abstract art. Among them has been the artists’ wish to avoid the difficulties of finding subjects when all subjects are equally possible.
I raise the matter now because I want to draw attention to the fact that the painter’s choice of a subject is a far more complicated question than it would at first seem. A. subject does not start with what is put in front of the easel or with something which the painter happens to remember. A. subject starts with the painter deciding he would like to paint such-and-such because for some reason or other he finds it meaningful. A. subject begins when the artist selects something for special mention. (What makes it special or meaningful may seem to the artist to be purely visual — its colours or its form.) When the subject has been selected, the function of the painting itself is to communicate and justify the significance of that selection.
It is often said today that subject matter is unimportant. But this is only a reaction against the excessively literary and moralistic interpretation of subject matter in the nineteenth century. In truth the subject is literally the beginning and end of a painting. The painting begins with a selection (I will paint this and not everything else in the world); it is finished when that selection is justified (now you can see all that I saw and felt in this and how it is more than merely itself).
Thus, for a painting to succeed it is essential that the painter and his public agree about what is significant. The subject may have a personal meaning for the painter or individual spectator; but there must also be the possibility of their agreement on its general meaning. It is at this point that the culture of the society and period in question precedes the artist and his art. Renaissance art would have meant nothing to the Aztecs — and vice versa. If, to some extent, a few intellectuals can appreciate them both today it is because their culture is an historical one: its inspiration is history and therefore it can include within itself, in principle if not in every particular, all known developments to date.
When culture is secure and certain of its values, it presents its artists with subjects. The general agreement about what is significant is so well established that the significance of a particular subject accrues and becomes traditional. This is true, for instance, of reeds and water in China, of the nude body in Renaissance, of the animal in Africa. Furthermore in such cultures the artist is unlikely to be a free agent: he will be employed for the sake of particular subjects, and the problem, as we have just described it, will not occur to him.
When a culture is in a state of disintegration or transitions the freedom of the artist increases — but the question of subject matter becomes problematic for him: he, himself, has to choose for society. This was at the basis of all the increasing crises in European art during the nineteenth century. It is too often forgotten how any of the art scandals of that time were provoked by the choice of subject (Gericault, Courbet, Daumier, Degas, Lautrec, Van Gogh, etc.).
By the end of the nineteenth century there were, roughly speaking, two ways in which the painter could meet this challenge of deciding what to paint and so choosing for society. Either he identified himself with the people and so
allowed their lives to dictate his subjects to him or he had to find his subjects within himself as painter. By people I mean everybody except the, bourgeoisie. Many painters did of course work for the bourgeoisie according to their copy book of approved subjects, but all of them, filling the Salon and the Royal Academy year after year, are now forgotten, buried under the hypocrisy of those they served so sincerely.
Q. 84 When a culture is insecure, the painter chooses his subject on the basis of:
A. The prevalent style in the society of his time.
B. Its meaningfulness to the painter.
C. What is put in front of the easel.
D. Past experience and memory of the painter
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Refer to the lines:”When a culture is in a state of disintegration or transitions the freedom of the artist increases — but the question of subject matter becomes problematic for him: he, himself, has to choose for society.” This implies option 2.
Q. 85 In the sentence, “I believe there is a connection” (second paragraph), what two developments is the author referring to?
A. Painters using a dying hero and using a fruit as a subject of painting.
B. Growing success of painters and an increase in abstract forms.
C. Artists gaining freedom to choose subjects and abandoning subjects altogether.
D. Rise of Impressionists and an increase in abstract forms.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
In first para we find the 2nd last sentence as ‘… by the next generation, painters began to abandon tie subject altogether, and began to paint abstract pictures…’ Then second para is continued on connection between these 2 developments. Hence option C is the correct answer.
Q. 86 Which of the following is NOT necessarily among the attributes needed for a painter to succeed:
A. The painter and his public agree on what is significant.
B. The painting is able to communicate and justify the significance of its subject selection.
C. The subject has a personal meaning for the painter.
D. The painting of subjects is inspired by historical developments.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Refer to the lines of the para:”The subject may have a personal meaning for the painter or individual spectator; but there must also be the possibility of their agreement on its general meaning. It is at this point that the culture of the society and period in question precedes the artist and his art.” This implies that the subject need not necessarily have a personal meaning for the painter.
Q. 87 In the context of the passage, which of the following statements would NOT be true?
A. Painters decided subjects based on what they remembered from their own lives.
B. Painters of reeds and water in China faced no serious problem of choosing a subject.
C. The choice of subject was a source of scandals in nineteenth century European art.
D. Agreement on the general meaning of a painting is influenced by culture and historical context.
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Refer to the lines of the third paragraph:”A subject does not start with what is put in front of the easel or with something which the painter happens to remember.”
Q. 88 Which of the following views is taken by the author?
A. The more insecure a culture, the greater the freedom of the artist.
B. The more secure a culture, the greater the freedom of the artist.
C. The more secure a culture, more difficult the choice of subject.
D. The more insecure a culture, the less significant the choice of the subject.
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Refer to the following lines of the paragraph:”When a culture is in a state of disintegration or transitions the freedom of the artist increases — but the question of subject matter becomes problematic for him: he, himself, has to choose for society.”
Instructions
Recently I spent several hours sitting under a tree in my garden with the social anthropologist William Ury, a Harvard University professor who specializes in the art of negotiation and wrote the bestselling book, Getting to Yes. He captivated me with his theory that tribalism protects people from their fear of rapid change. He explained that the pillars of tribalism that humans rely on for security would always counter any significant cultural or social change. In this way, he said, change is never allowed to happen too fast. Technology, for example, is a pillar of society. Ury believes that every time technology moves in a new or radical direction, another pillar such as religion or nationalism will grow stronger in effect, the traditional and familiar will assume greater importance to compensate for the new and untested. In this manner, human tribes avoid rapid change that leaves people insecure and frightened.
But we have all heard that nothing is as permanent as change. Nothing is guaranteed. Pithy expressions, to be sure, but no more than cliches. As Ury says, people don’t live that way from day-to-day. On the contrary, they actively seek certainty and stability. They want to know they will be safe.
Even so we scare ourselves constantly with the idea of change. An IBM CEO once said: ‘We only re-structure for a good reason, and if we haven’t re-structured in a while, that’s a good reason.’ We are scared that competitors, technology and the consumer will put us Out of business — so we have to change all the time just to stay alive. But if we asked our fathers and grandfathers, would they have said that they lived in a period of little change? Structure may not have changed much. It may just be the speed with which we do things.
Change is over-rated, anyway, consider the automobile. It’s an especially valuable example, because the auto industry has spent tens of billions of dollars on research and product development in the last 100 years. Henry Ford’s first car had a metal chassis with an internal combustion, gasoline-powered engine, four wheels with rubber types, a foot operated clutch assembly and brake system, a steering wheel, and four seats, and it could safely do 1 8 miles per hour. A. hundred years and tens of thousands of research hours later, we drive cars with a metal chassis with an internal combustion, gasoline-powered engine, four wheels with rubber tyres a foot operated clutch assembly and brake system, a steering wheel, four seats – and the average speed in London in 2001 was 17.5 miles per hour!
That’s not a hell of a lot of return for the money. Ford evidently doesn’t have much to teach us about change. The fact that they’re still manufacturing cars is not proof that Ford Motor Co. is a sound organization, just proof that it takes very large companies to make cars in great quantities — making for an almost impregnable entry barrier.
Fifty years after the development of the jet engine, planes are also little changed. They’ve grown bigger, wider and can carry more people. But those are incremental, largely cosmetic changes.
Taken together, this lack of real change has come to man that in travel — whether driving or flying — time and technology have not combined to make things much better. The safety and design have of course accompanied the times and the new volume of cars and flights, but nothing of any significance has changed in the basic assumptions of the final product.
At the same time, moving around in cars or aero-planes becomes less and less efficient all the time Not only has there been no great change, but also both forms of transport have deteriorated as more people clamour to use them. The same is true for telephones, which took over hundred years to become mobile or photographic film, which also required an entire century to change.
The only explanation for this is anthropological. Once established in calcified organizations, humans do two things: sabotage changes that might render people dispensable, and ensure industry-wide emulation. In the 960s, German auto companies developed plans to scrap the entire combustion engine for an electrical design. (The same existed in the 1970s in Japan, and in the 1980s in France.) So for 40 years we might have been free of the wasteful and ludicrous dependence on fossil fuels. Why didn’t it go anywhere? Because auto executives understood pistons and carburettors, and would be loath to cannibalize their expertise, along with most of their factories
Q. 89 According to the above passage, which of the following statements is true?
A. Executives of automobile companies are inefficient and ludicrous.
B. The speed at which an automobile is driven in a city has not changed much in a century.
C. Anthropological factors have fostered innovation in automobiles by promoting use of new technologies.
D. Further innovation in jet engines has been more than incremental.
Answer: B.
Explanation:
In the fourth paragraph it is clearly mentioned that change is over-rated. Refer to the following lines:”Change is over rated, anyway, consider the automobile. It’s an especially valuable example, because the auto industry has spent tens of billions of dollars on research and product development in the last 100 years.”
Q. 90 Which of the following views does the author fully support in the passage?
A. Nothing is as permanent as change.
B. Change is always rapid.
C. More money spent on innovation leads to more rapid change.
D. Over decades, structural change has been incremental.
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Refer to the following lines of the paragraph:”But if we asked our fathers and grandfathers, would they have said that they lived in a period of little change? Structure may not have changed much. It may just be the speed with which we do things.”
Q. 91 Which of the following best describes one of the main ideas discussed in the passage?
A. Rapid change is usually welcomed in society.
B. Industry is not as innovative as it is made out to be.
C. We should have less change than what we have now.
D. Competition spurs companies into radical innovation.
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Clearly the second option is the main idea of the passage. In this passage the author talks about the over-exaggeration made by automobile industry and airplane industry while on the whole there are not many changes which have taken place.
Q. 92 According to the passage, the reason why we continues to be dependent on fossil fuels is that:
A. Auto executives did not wish to change.
B. No alternative fuels were discovered.
C. Change in technology was not easily possible
D. German, Japanese and French companies could not come up with new technologies.
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Refer to the following lines of the passage:”Why didn’t it go anywhere? Because auto executives understood pistons and carburettors, and would be loath to cannibalize their expertise, along with most of their factories”. This indicates that the auto executives do not want to change themselves.
Instructions
The viability of the multinational corporate system depends upon the degree to which people will tolerate the unevenness it creates. It is well to remember that the ‘New Imperialism’ which began after 1870 in a spirit of Capitalism Triumphant, soon became seriously troubled and after 1914 was characterized by war, depression, breakdown of the international economic system and war again, rather than Free Trade, Pax Britannica and Material Improvement. A. major reason was Britain’s inability to cope with the byproducts of its own rapid accumulation of capital; i.e., a class-conscious labour force at home; a middle class in the hinterland; and rival centres of capital on the Continent and in America. Britain’s policy tended to be atavistic and defensive rather than progressive — more concerned with warding off new threats than creating new areas of expansion. Ironically, Edwardian England revived the paraphernalia of the landed aristocracy it had just destroyed. Instead of embarking on a ‘big push’ to develop the vast hinterland of the Empire, colonial administrators often adopted policies to arrest the development of either a native capitalist class or a native proletariat which could overthrow them.
As time went on, the centre had to devote an increasing share of government activity to military and other unproductive expenditures; they had to rely on alliances with an inefficient class of landlords, officials and soldiers in the hinterland to maintain stability at the cost of development. A. great part of the surplus extracted from the population was thus wasted locally.
The New Mercantilism (as the Multinational Corporate System of special alliances and privileges, aid and tariff concessions is sometimes called) faces similar problems of internal and external division. The centre is troubled: excluded groups revolt and even some of the affluent are dissatisfied with the roles. Nationalistic rivalry between major capitalist countries remains an important divisive factor. Finally, there is the threat presented by the middle classes and the excluded groups of the underdeveloped countries. The national middle classes in the underdeveloped countries came to power when the centre weakened but could not, through their policy of import substitution manufacturing, establish a viable basis for sustained growth. They now face a foreign exchange crisis and an unemployment (or population) crisis—the first indicating their inability to function in the international economy and the second indicating their alienation from the people they are supposed to lead. In the immediate future, these national middle classes will gain a new lease of life as they take advantage of the spaces created by the rivalry between American and non-American oligopolists striving to establish global market positions.
The native capitalists will again become the champions of national independence as they bargain with multinational corporations. But the conflict at this level is more apparent than real, for in the end the fervent nationalism of the middle class asks only for promotion within the corporate structure and not for a break with that structure. In the last analysis their power derives from the metropolis and they cannot easily afford to challenge the international system. They do not command the loyalty of their own population and cannot really compete with the large, powerful, aggregate capitals from the centre. They are prisoners of the taste patterns and consumption standards’ set at the centre.
The main threat comes from the excluded groups. It is not unusual in underdeveloped countries for the top 5 per cent to obtain between 30 and 40 per cent of the total national income, and for the top one-third to obtain anywhere from 60 to 70 per cent. At most, one-third of the population can be said to benefit in some sense from the dualistic growth that characterizes development in the hinterland. The remaining two-thirds, who together get only one-third of the income, are outsiders, not because they do not contribute to the economy, but because they do not share in the benefits. They provide a source of cheap labour which helps keep exports to the developed world at a low price and which has financed the urban-biased growth of recent years. In fact, it is difficult to see how the system in most underdeveloped countries could survive without cheap labour since removing it (e.g. diverting it to public works projects as is done in socialist countries) would raise consumption costs to capitalists and professional elites.
Q. 93 According to the author, the British policy during the “New Imperialism” period tended to be defensive because
A. it was unable to deal with the fallouts of a sharp increase in capital.
B. its cumulative capital had undesirable side-effects.
C. its policies favoured developing the vast hinterland.
D. it prevented the growth of a set-up which could have been capitalistic in nature.
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Refer to the following lines of the paragraph:”A. major reason was Britain’s inability to cope with the byproducts of its own rapid accumulation of capital; i.e., a class-conscious labour force at home; a middle class in the hinterland; and rival centres of capital on the Continent and in America. Britain’s policy tended to be atavistic and defensive rather than progressive — more concerned with warding off new threats than creating new areas of expansion.”
Hence, the answer is either A. or B. Option B. incorrectly places the blame on the capital – instead of on Britain’s inability to deal with it. Britain was defensive because it could not effectively deal with the problems that arose. Hence, option A. is better.
Q. 94 Under New Mercantilism, the fervent nationalism of the native middle classes does not create conflict with the multinational corporations because they (the middle classes)
A. negotiate with the multinational corporations
B. are dependent on the international system for their continued prosperity.
C. are not in a position to challenge the status quo.
D. do not enjoy popular support.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Consider the second last paragraph for the answer:”In the last analysis their power derives from the metropolis and they cannot easily afford to challenge the international system. They do not command the loyalty of their own population and cannot really compete with the large, powerful, aggregate capitals from the centre. They are prisoners of the taste patterns and consumption standards’ set at the centre.” This implies that they are not in position to challenge the status-quo.
Q. 95 In the sentence, “They are prisoners of the taste patterns and consumption standards set at the center.” (fourth paragraph), what is the meaning of “centre”?
A. National government
B. Native capitalists.
C. New capitalists.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Throughout the passage, the author uses the term “centre” to refer to the multinational corporations that are at the centre of power in the multi-national corporate system. Hence, the answer is none of the above.
Q. 96 The author is in a position to draw parallels between New Imperialism and New Mercantilism because
A. both originated in the developed Western capitalist countries.
B. New Mercantilism was a logical sequel to New Imperialism
C. they create the same set outputs . a labour force, middle classes and rival centers of capital.
D. both have comparable uneven and divisive effects.
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Through the first two paragraphs, the author highlights how New Imperialism created uneven systems which in turn created class divisions. The author then goes on to say that New Mercantilism suffers from the same issues. Hence, option D correctly captures the parallels between the two systems.
Options A and B have not been implied in the passage. Thus, we can eliminate these options.
Option C is partly true. It was true for New Imperialism but in the case of New Mercantilism there are divisions along multiple lines – nationalistic rivalries between countries, difference between middle classes and underdeveloped groups in developing vs developed countries etc. Moreover, these divisions are issues presented by the system. They are not outputs of the system. Hence, option C is incorrect.
Thus, option D is the right answer.
Instructions
Fifty feet away three male lions lay by the road. They didn’t appear to have a hair on their heads. Noting the color of their noses (leonine noses darken as they age, from pink to black), Craig estimated that they were six years old — young adults. “This is wonderful!” he said, after staring at them for several moments. “This is what we came to see. They really are maneless.” Craig, a professor at the University of Minnesota, is arguably the leading expert on the majestic Serengeti lion, whose head is mantled in long, thick hair. He and Peyton West, a doctoral student who has been working with him in Tanzania, had never seen the Tsavo lions that live some 200 miles east of the Serengeti. The scientists had partly suspected that the maneless males were adolescents mistaken for adults by amateur observers.
Now they knew better.
The Tsavo research expedition was mostly Peyton’s show. She had spent several years in Tanzania, compiling the data she needed to answer a question that ought to have been answered long ago: Why do lions have manes? It’s the only cat, wild or domestic, that displays such ornamentation. In Tsavo she was attacking the riddle from the opposite angle. Why do its lions not have manes? (Some “maneless” lions in Tsavo East do have partial manes, but they rarely attain the regal glory of the Serengeti lions.) Does environmental adaptation account for the trait? Are the lions of Tsavo, as some people believe, a distinct subspecies of their Serengeti cousins?
The Serengeti lions have been under continuous observation for more than 35 years, beginning with George Schaller’s pioneering work in the 1960s. But the lions in Tsavo, Kenya’s oldest and largest protected ecosystem, have hardly been studied. Consequently, legends have grown up around them. Not only do they look different, according to the myths, they behave differently, displaying greater cunning and aggressiveness. “Remember too,” Kenya: The Rough Guide warns, “Tsavo’s lions have a reputation of ferocity.” Their fearsome image became well-known in 1898, when two males stalled construction of what is now Kenya Railways by allegedly killing and eating 135 Indian and African laborers. A British Army officer in charge of building a railroad bridge over the Tsavo River, Lt. Col. J. H. Patterson, spent nine months pursuing the pair before he brought them to bay and killed them. Stuffed and mounted, they now glare at visitors to the Field Museum in Chicago. Patterson’s account of the leonine reign of terror, The Man-Eaters of Tsavo, was an international best seller when published in 1907. Still in print, the book has made Tsavo’s lions notorious. That annoys some scientists. “People don’t want to give up on mythology,” Dennis King told me one day. The zoologist has been working in Tsavo off and on for four years. “I am so sick of this maneater business. Patterson made a helluva lot of money off that story, but Tsavo’s lions are no more likely to turn man-eater than lions from elsewhere.”
But tales of their savagery and wiliness don’t all come from sensationalist authors looking to make a buck. Tsavo lions are generally larger than lions elsewhere, enabling them to take down the predominant prey animal in Tsavo, the Cape buffalo, one of the strongest, most aggressive animals of Earth. The buffalo don’t give up easily: They often kill or severely injure an attacking lion, and a wounded lion might be more likely to turn to cattle and humans for food.
And other prey is less abundant in Tsavo than in other traditional lion haunts. A. hungry lion is more likely to attack humans. Safari guides and Kenya Wildlife Service rangers tell of lions attacking Land Rovers, raiding camps, stalking tourists. Tsavo is a tough neighborhood, they say, and it breeds tougher lions.
But are they really tougher? And if so, is there any connection between their manelessness and their ferocity? An intriguing hypothesis was advanced two years ago by Gnoske and Peterhans: Tsavo lions may be similar to the unmaned cave lions of the Pleistocene. The Serengeti variety is among the most evolved of the species — the latest model, so to speak — while certain morphological differences in Tsavo lions (bigger bodies, smaller skulls, and maybe even lack of a mane) suggest that they are closer to the primitive ancestor of all lions. Craig and Peyton had serious doubts about this idea, but admitted that Tsavo lions pose a mystery to science.
Q. 97 The book Man-Eaters of Tsavo annoys some scientists because
A. it revealed that Tsavo lions are ferocious.
B. Patterson made a helluva lot of money from the book by sensationalism.
C. it perpetuated the bad name Tsavo lions had.
D. it narrated how two male Tsavo lions were killed.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Refer to the following lines of the third para:”Patterson’s account of the leonine reign of terror, The Man-Eaters of Tsavo, was an international best seller when published in 1907. Still in print, the book has made Tsavo’s lions notorious.”
Q. 98 The sentence which concludes the first paragraph, “Now they knew better”, implies that:
A. The two scientists were struck by wonder on seeing maneless lions for the first time.
B. Though Craig was an expert on the Serengeti lion, now he also knew about the Tsavo lions.
C. Earlier, Craig and West thought that amateur observers had been mistaken.
D. Craig was now able to confirm that darkening of the noses as lions aged applied toTsavo lions as well.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Refer to the line just behind the given phrase:”The scientists had partly suspected that the maneless males were adolescents mistaken for adults by amateur observers. Now they knew better.” This implies option c.
Q. 99 According to the passage, which of the following has NOT contributed to the popular image of Tsavo lions as savage creatures?
A. Tsavo lions have been observed to bring down one of the strongest and most aggressive animals . the Cape buffalo.
B. In contrast to the situation in traditional lion haunts, scarcity of non-buffalo prey in the Tsavo makes the Tsavo lions more aggressive.
C. The Tsavo lion is considered to be less evolved than the Serengeti variety.
D. Tsavo lions have been observed to attack vehicles as well as humans.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
All other choices are there in 4th and 5th paragraph: Refer to these lines “But tales of their savagery and wiliness don’t all come from sensationalist authors looking to make a buck. Tsavo lions are generally larger than lions elsewhere, enabling them to take down the predominant prey animal in Tsavo, the Cape buffalo, one of the strongest, most aggressive animals of Earth. The buffalo don’t give up easily: They often kill or severely injure an attacking lion, and a wounded lion might be more likely to turn to cattle and humans for food.
And other prey is less abundant in Tsavo than in other traditional lion haunts. A. hungry lion is more likely to attack humans. Safari guides and Kenya Wildlife Service rangers tell of lions attacking Land Rovers, raiding camps, stalking tourists. Tsavo is a tough neighborhood, they say, and it breeds tougher lions.”
Q. 100 Which of the following, if true, would weaken the hypothesis advanced by Gnoske and Peterhans most?
A. Craig and Peyton develop even more serious doubts about the idea that Tsavo lions are primitive.
B. The maneless Tsavo East lions are shown to be closer to the cave lions.
C. Pleistocene cave lions are shown to be far less violent than believed.
D. The morphological variations in body and skull size between the cave and Tsavo lions are found to be insignificant.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Option c satisfies the criteria the most. If cave lions are far less violent, then Tsavo would also be less violent whereas in the paragraph, tsavo lions are shown to be more violent.
Instructions
Throughout human history the leading causes of death have been infection and trauma, Modem medicine has scored significant victories against both, and the major causes of ill health and death are now the chronic degenerative diseases, such as coronary artery disease, arthritis, osteoporosis, Alzheimer’s, macular degeneration, cataract and cancer. These have a long latency period before symptoms appear and a diagnosis is made. It follows that the majority of apparently healthy people are pre-ill.
But are these conditions inevitably degenerative? A truly preventive medicine that focused on the pre-ill, analyzing the metabolic errors which lead to clinical illness, might be able to correct them before the first symptom. Genetic risk factors are known for all the chronic degenerative diseases, and are important to the individuals who possess them. At the population level, however, migration studies confirm that these illnesses are linked for the most part to lifestyle factors — exercise, smoking and nutrition. Nutrition is the easiest of these to change, and the most versatile tool for affecting the metabolic changes needed to tilt the balance away from disease.
Many national surveys reveal that malnutrition is common in developed countries. This is not the calorie and/or micronutrient deficiency associated with developing nations (type A. malnutrition); but multiple micronutrient depletion, usually combined with calorific balance or excess (Type B. malnutrition). The incidence and severity of Type B. malnutrition will be shown to be worse if newer micronutrient groups such as the essential fatty acids, xanthophylls and falconoid are included in the surveys. Commonly ingested levels of these micronutrients seem to be far too low in many developed countries.
There is now considerable evidence that Type B malnutrition is a major cause of chronic degenerative diseases. If this is the case, then t is logical to treat such diseases not with drugs but with multiple micronutrient repletion, or pharmaco-nutrition’. This can take the form of pills and capsules — ‘nutraceuticals’, or food formats known as ‘functional foods’, This approach has been neglected hitherto because it is relatively unprofitable for drug companies — the products are hard to patent — and it is a strategy which does not sit easily with modem medical interventionism. Over the last 100 years, the drug industry has invested huge sums in developing a range of subtle and powerful drugs to treat the many diseases we are subject to. Medical training is couched in pharmaceutical terms and this approach has provided us with an exceptional range of therapeutic tools in the treatment of disease and in acute medical emergencies. However, the pharmaceutical model has also created an unhealthy dependency culture, in which relatively few of us accept responsibility for maintaining our own health. Instead, we have handed over this responsibility to health professionals who know very little about health maintenance, or disease prevention.
One problem for supporters of this argument is lack of the right kind of hard evidence. We have a wealth of epidemiological data linking dietary factors to health profiles/ disease risks, and a great deal of information on mechanism: how food factors interact with our biochemistry. But almost all intervention studies with micronutrients, with the notable exception of the omega 3 fatty acids, have so far produced conflicting or negative results. In other words, our science appears to have no predictive value. Does this invalidate the science? Or are we simply asking the wrong questions?
Based on pharmaceutical thinking, most intervention studies have attempted to measure the impact of a single micronutrient on the incidence of disease. The classical approach says that if you give a compound formula to test subjects and obtain positive results, you cannot know which ingredient is exerting the benefit, so you must test each ingredient individually. But in the field of nutrition, this does not work. Each intervention on its own will hardly make enough difference to be measured. The best therapeutic response must therefore combine micronutrients to normalise our internal physiology. So do we need to analyse each individual’s nutritional status and then tailor a formula specifically for him or her? While we do not have the resources to analyze millions of individual cases, there is no need to do so. The vast majority of people are consuming suboptimal amounts of most micronutrients, and most of the micronutrients concerned are very safe. Accordingly, a comprehensive and universal program of micronutrient support is probably the most cost-effective and safest way of improving the general health of the nation.
Q. 101 The author recommends micronutrient-repletion for large-scale treatment of chronic degenerative diseases because
A. it is relatively easy to manage.
B. micronutrient deficiency is the cause of these diseases.
C. it can overcome genetic risk factors.
D. it can compensate for other lifestyle factors.
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Refer to the starting of the fourth paragraph:”There is now considerable evidence that Type B malnutrition is a major cause of chronic degenerative diseases.”
Q. 102 Tailoring micronutrient-based treatment plans to suit individual deficiency profiles is not necessary because
A. it very likely to give inconsistent or negative results.
B. it is a classic pharmaceutical approach not suited to micronutrients.
C. most people are consuming suboptimal amounts of safe-to-consume micronutrients.
D. it is not cost effective to do so.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Refer to the start of the fifth paragraph:”While we do not have the resources to analyze millions of individual cases, there is no need to do so. The vast majority of people are consuming suboptimal amounts of most micronutrients, and most of the micronutrients concerned are very safe.”
Hence, the correct option is option ‘C’
Q. 103 Type-B malnutrition is a serious concern in developed countries because
A. developing countries mainly suffer from Type-A malnutrition.
B. it is a major contributor to illness and death.
C. pharmaceutical companies are not producing drugs to treat this condition.
D. national surveys on malnutrition do not include newer micronutrient groups.
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Refer to the first line of the fourth paragraph:”There is now considerable evidence that Type B. malnutrition is a major cause of chronic degenerative diseases. If this is the case, then this logical to treat such diseases not with drugs but with multiple micronutrient repletion, or pharmaco-nutrition’.”
Hence, the correct option is option ‘B’
Q. 104 Why are a large number of apparently healthy people deemed pre-ill?
A. They may have chronic degenerative diseases.
B. They do not know their own genetic risk factors which predispose them to diseases.
C. They suffer from Type-B. malnutrition.
D. There is a lengthy latency period associated with chronically degenerative diseases.
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Refer to the first paragraph. Here the author says that a large number of people may have chronic degenerative diseases but due to their latency period, they are not detected easily. That eliminates options B and C Options A and D are close. But as the question asks why the people are considered as pre-ill, the answer should be because they may have chronically degenerative diseases they don’t know about. Hence, A. is the better option.
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 105 Identify the incorrect sentence or sentences
A. It was a tough situation and Manasi was taking pains to make it better.
B. Slowly her efforts gave fruit and things started improving.
C. Everyone complemented her for her good work.
D. She was very happy and thanked everyone
A. A
B. D
C. B and C
D. A and C
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Sentence B. should be “Her efforts bore fruit…”
The word in sentence C should be “complimented” instead of “complemented”.
The correct answer choice is c).
Q. 106 Identify the incorrect sentence or sentences
A. Harish told Raj to plead guilty.
B. Raj pleaded guilty of stealing money from the shop.
C. The court found Raj guilty of all the crimes he was charged with.
D. He was sentenced for three years in jail
A. A and C
B. B and D
C. A, C, and D
D. B, C, and D
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Sentences B and D are incorrect.
B should be “plead guilty to…”
D should be “sentenced to three years…”
Q. 107 Identify the incorrect sentence or sentences
A. Last Sunday, Archana had nothing to do.
B. After waking up, she lay on the bed thinking of what to do.
C. At 11 o’clock she took shower and got ready.
E. She spent most of the day shopping
A. B and C
B. C
C. A and B
D. B, C, and D
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Sentences B and C are incorrect.
Sentence B should be “…thinking what to do”.
Sentence C should be “..took a shower…”.
Q. 108 Fill in the Blanks: Many people suggest _______ and still other would like to convince people not to buy pirated cassettes.
A. to bring down audiocassette prices to reduce the incidence of music piracy, others advocate strong legal action against the offenders,
B. bringing down audiocassette prices to reduce the incidents of music piracy, others are advocating strong legal action against offenders,
C. bringing down audiocassette prices to reduce the incidents of music piracy, others advocate strong legal action against offenders,
D. audio cassette prices to be brought down to reduce incidents of music piracy, others advocate that strong legal action must be taken against offenders,
Answer: C.
Explanation:
The structure of the sentence should be “suggest bringing down…”. This eliminates options a) and d). In the second part of the sentence, the structure should be “others advocate” and not “others are advocating”. So, option c) is the correct answer.
Q. 109 Fill in the Blanks: The ancient Egyptians believed ______ so that when these objects were magically reanimated through the correct rituals, they would be able to functions effectively.
A. that it was essential that things they portrayed must have every relevant feature shown as clearly as possible
B. it was essential for things they portray to have had every relevant feature shown as clearly as possible,
C. it was essential that the things they portrayed had every relevant feature shown as clearly as possible.
D. that when they portrayed things, it should have every relevant feature shown as clearly as possible
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Options a), b) and d) are grammatically incorrect.
Option A – In the sentence, “that it was essential that things they portrayed” ,definite article (the) should be used in front of the noun(things).
Option B- This sentence implies that having every relevant detail shown as clearly as possible is important for the things that Egyptians portray. However, having every detail shown was important for the effective functioning of the things Egyptians portray. Hence this is grammatically incorrect.
Option D – Consider the phrase “that when they portrayed things, it should have”. The correct phrasing would be “that when they portrayed things, they should have” or “that when they portrayed a thing, it should have”. There is a singular plural mismatch occurring here. Hence this option is incorrect as well.
The correct sentence is “The ancient Egyptians believed it was essential that the things they portrayed had every relevant feature shown as clearly as possible, so that when these objects were magically reanimated through the correct rituals, they would be able to function effectively.”
Q. 110 Fill in the Blanks: Archaeologists believe that the pieces of red-ware pottery excavated recently near Bhavnagar and ______ shed light on a hitherto dark 600-year period in the Harappan history of Gujarat.
A. estimated with a reasonable certainty as being about 3400 years old,
B. are estimated reasonably certain to be about 3400 years old,
C. estimated at about 3400 years old with reasonable certainty,
D. estimated with reasonable certainty to be about 3400 years old,
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Option b) is wrong because because of the use of the word “are”. Option c) is wrong because it implies that the pieces are “3400 years old with reasonable certainty”. Option a) is incorrect because of the use of the phrase “as being about”. Option d) is grammatically correct.
Q. 111 Choose the option in which the usage of BOLT is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE?
A. The shopkeeper showed us a bolt of fine silk.
B. As he could not move, he made a bolt for the gate.
C. Could you please bolt the door?
D. The thief was arrested before he could bolt from the scene of the crime.
Answer: B.
Explanation:
In the second sentence, the correct usage would be “As he could not move, he couldn’t make a bolt for the gate.”
Q. 112 Choose the option in which the usage of FALLOUT is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE?
A. Nagasaki suffered from the fallout of nuclear radiation.
B. People believed that the political fallout of the scandal would be insignificant.
C. Who can predict the environmental fallout of the WTO agreements?
D. The headmaster could not understand the fallout of several of his good students at the public examination.
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Fallout generally means adverse results that occur due to a situation. It’s usage is wrong in the last sentence, and the correct sentence would be “The headmaster could not understand the failure of several of his good students at the public examination.”.
Q. 113 Choose the option in which the usage of PASSING is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE?
A. She did not have passing marks in mathematics.
B. The mad woman was cursing everybody passing her on the road.
C. At the birthday party all the children enjoyed a game of passing the parcel.
D. A passing taxi was stopped to rush the accident victims to the hospital.
Answer: A.
Explanation:
She did not have PASS marks is the correct usage in this sentence.
Q. 114 Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph?
A. The two neighbours never fought each other.
B. Fights involving three male fiddler crabs have been recorded, but the status of the participants was unknown
C. They pushed or grappled only with the intruder.
D. We recorded 17 cases in which a resident that was fighting an intruder was joined by an immediate neighbour, an ally.
E. We therefore tracked 268 intruder males until be saw them fighting a resident male.
A. BEDAC
B. DEBAC
C. BDCAE
D. BCEDA
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement B is the perfect starting sentence. Also sentences D,A and C are connected. Hence DAC is mandatory. There is only one option with the above requirement. Hence option A.
Q. 115 Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph?
A. In the west, Allied Forces had fought their way through southern Italy as far as Rome.
B. In June 1944 Germany’s military position in World War two appeared hopeless
C. In Britain, the task of amassing the men and materials for the liberation of northern Europe had been completed.
D. Red Army was poised to drive the Nazis back through Poland.
E. The situation on the eastern front was catastrophic.
A. EDACB
B. BEDAC
C. BDECA
D. CEDAB
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Statement B seems most logical starting sentence, as it introduces to the topic on position of germany in WW2 Statement A or E should follow B Also sentences ED and AC are pair. Only option B fulfils these conditions.
Q. 116 Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph?
A. He felt justified in bypassing Congress altogether on a variety of moves.
B. At times he was fighting the entire Congress.
C. Bush felt he had a mission to restore power to the presidency.
D. Bush was not fighting just the democrats.
E. Representatives democracy is a messy business, and a CEO of the white House does not like a legislature of second guessers and time wasters.
A. CAEDB
B. DBAEC
C. CEADB
D. ECDBA
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Among given sentences E seems most perfect starting sentences as it introduces the topic and other options take it forward. Also statement B. should follow D thus we have DB as the pair. Option D is the only option which fulfils these requirements.
Q. 117 Choose the option which summarizes the passage the best.
The human race is spread all over world, from the polar regions to the tropics. The people of whom it is made up eat different kinds of food, partly according to the climate in which they live, and partly according to the kind of food which their country produces.
In hot climates; meat and fat are not much needed; but in the Arctic regions they seem to be very necessary for keeping up the heat of the body. Thus, in India, People live chiefly on different kinds of grains, eggs, milk, or sometimes fish and meat. In Europe people eat more meat and less gain. In the Arctic regions, where no grains and fruits are produced, the Eskimo and others races live almost entirely on meat and fish.
A. Food eaten by people in different regions of the world depends on the climate and produce of the region, and varies from meat and fish in the Arctic to predominantly grains in the tropics.
B. Hot climates require people to eat grains while cold regions require people to eat meat and fish.
C. In hot countries people eat mainly grains while in the Arctic, they eat meat and fish because they cannot grow grains.
D. While people in Arctic regions like meat and fish and those in hot regions like India prefer mainly grains, they have to change what they eat depending on the local climate and the local produce.
Answer: A.
Explanation:
The main idea of the paragraph is the different type of foods which is primarily consumed depending upon the climate.Option A clearly summarises this perfectly.
Option B is incorrect as the climate doesn’t compel the people to eat different food.
Option C doesn’t indicate the the main idea of the paragraph. It only states the facts given in the paragraph. Option D is incorrect as it is not mentioned in the paragraph that the people are required to change their food depending upon their location.
Q. 118 Choose the option which summarizes the passage the best.
You seemed at first to take no notice of your school-fellows, or rather to set yourself against them because they were strangers to you. They knew as little of you as you did of them; this would have been the reason for their keeping aloof from you as well, which you would have felt as a hardship. Learn never to conceive a prejudice against others because you know nothing of them. It is bad reasoning, and makes enemies of half the world. Do not think ill of them till they behave ill to you; and then strive to avoid the faults, which you see in them. This will disarm their hostility sooner than pique or resentment or complaint.
A. The discomfort you felt with your school fellows was because both sides knew little of each other. You should not complain unless you find others prejudiced against you and have attempted to carefully analyze the faults you have observed in them.
B. The discomfort you felt with your school fellows was because both sides knew little of each other. Avoid prejudice and negative thoughts till you encounter bad behavior from others, and then win them over by shunning the faults you have observed.
C. You encountered hardship amongst your school fellows because you did not know then well. You should learn not to make enemies because of your prejudices irrespective of their behaviour towards you.
D. You encountered hardship amongst your school fellows because you did not know them well. You should learn to not make enemies because of your prejudices unless they behave badly with you.
Answer: B.
Explanation:
The paragraph begins with the experience of a 2nd person and then gives the advice.
Option A is incorrect because it doesn’t tell anything about complaining and analysing
Option C is incomplete as it only talks about the experience.
Option D is incorrect as it is written”you did not know them well”. The para talks about both sides not knowing each other.
Q. 119 Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph?
A. But this does not mean that death was the Egyptians only preoccupation.
B. Even papyri come mainly from pyramid temples.
C. Most of our traditional sources of information about the Old Kingdom are monuments of the rich like pyramids and tombs.
D. Houses in which ordinary Egyptian lived have not been preserved, and when most people died they were buried in simple graves.
E. We know infinitely more about the wealthy people of Egypt than we do about the ordinary people, as most monuments were made for the rich.
A. CDBEA
B. ECDAB
C. EDCBA
D. DECAB
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Out of statement C, E and D, E perfectly opens the topic . Also statement B should come after statement C, as C talks about how pyramids and temples are sources of information and B takes it forward by saying that even papyrus came from pyramids. SO we have C pair. Hence, Option C .
Q. 120 Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph?
A. Experts such as Larry Burns, head of research at GM, reckon that only such a full hearted leap will allow the world to cope with the mass motorization that will one day come to China or India.
B. But once hydrogen is being produced from biomass or extracted from underground coal or made from water, using nuclear or renewable electricity, the way will be open for a huge reduction in carbon emissions from the whole system.
C. In theory, once all the bugs have been sorted out, fuel cells should deliver better total fuel economy than any existing engines.
D. That is twice as good as the internal combustion engine, but only five percentage points better than a diesel hybrid.
E. Allowing for the resources needed to extract hydrogen from hydrocarbon, oil coal or gas, the fuel cell has an efficiency of 30%.
A. CEDBA
B. CEBDA
C. AEDBC
D. ACEBD
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Befor finding the opening statement, first see if there is any link between sentences. We can clearly see that statement D should follow E Thus link ED is compulsary pair. Also statement A should follow B , as statement B infers from A . Thus only logical sequence is CEDBA.
Q. 121 Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.
Local communities have often come in conflict with agents trying to exploit resources, at a faster pace, for an expanding commercial-industrial economy. More often than not, such agents of resource intensification are given preferential treatment by the state, through the grant of generous long leases over mineral or fish stocks, for example, or the provision of raw material at an enormously subsidized price. With the injustice so compounded, local communities at the receiving end of this process have no recourse expect direct action, resisting both the state and outside exploiters through a variety of protest techniques. These struggles might perhaps be seen as a manifestation of a new kind of class conflict.
A. A new kind of class conflict arises from preferential treatments given to agents of resource-intensification by the state, which the local community sees as unfair.
B. The grant of long leases to agents of resource-intensification for an expanding commercial-industrial economy leads to direct protests from the local community, which sees it as unfair.
C. Preferential treatment given by the state to agents of resource-intensification for an expanding commercial industrial economy exacerbates injustice to local communities and leads to direct protests from them, resulting in a new type of class conflict.
D.Local communities have no option but to protest against agents of resource intensification and create a new type of class conflict when they are given raw material at subsidized prices for an expanding commercial-industrial economy.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
The main idea of the paragraph is the reasons behind the generation of class conflict.Option C correctly summarises this para.Option A and B talks nothing about the class conflict.
Option D is incorrect as it does not mention the role of state in generation of class conflict.
Q. 122 Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.
Although almost all climate scientists agree that the Earth is gradually warming, they have long been of two minds about the process of rapid climate shifts within larger periods of change. Some have speculated that the process works like a giant oven or freezer, warming or cooling the whole planet at the same time. Others think that shifts occur on opposing schedules in the Northern and Southern Hemisphere, like exaggerated seasons. Recent research in Germany examining climate patterns in the Southern Hemisphere at the end of the last Ice Age strengthens the idea that warming and cooling occurs at alternate times in the two hemispheres. A. more definitive answer to this debate will allow scientists to better predict when and how quickly the next climate shift will happen.
A. Scientists have been unsure whether rapid shifts in the Earth’s climate happen all at once or on opposing schedules in different hemispheres; research will help find a definitive answer and better predict climate shifts in future.
B. Scientists have been unsure whether rapid shifts in the Earth’s climate happen all at once or on opposing schedules in different hemispheres; finding a definitive answer will help them better predict climate shifts in future.
C. Research in Germany will help scientists find a definitive answer about warming and cooling of the Earth and predict climate shifts in the future in a better manner.
D. More research rather than debates on warming or cooling of the Earth and exaggerated seasons in its hemisphere will help scientists in Germany predict changes better in future.
Answer: B.
Explanation:
No where is in mentioned in the paragraph that “a definitive answer” can be found. So, statement a) which says “research will help find a definitive answer”, option c) which says “Research will help scientists find a definitive answer” are ruled out. Option d) is misleading because the para doesn’t talk about more research than debates helping scientists. So, this option can also be ruled out. Option b) is the best summary.
Q. 123 Choose the option that best captures the essence of the text.
Modern bourgeois society, said Nietzsche, was decadent and enfeebled – a victim of the excessive development of the rational faculties at the expense of will and instinct.
Against the liberal-rationalist stress on the intellect, Nietzsche urged recognition of the dark mysterious world of instinctual desires . the true forces of life. Smother the will excessive intellectualizing and you destroy the spontaneity that sparks cultural creativity and ignites a zest for living. The critical and theoretical outlook destroyed the creative instincts. For man’s manifold potential to be realized, he must forego relying on the intellect and nurture again the instinctual roots of human existence.
A. Nietzsche urges the decadent and enfeebled modern society to forego intellect and give importance to creative instincts.
B. Nietzsche urges the decadent and enfeebled modern society to smother the will with excessive intellectualizing and ignite a zest for living.
C. Nietzsche criticizes the intellectuals for enfeebling the modern bourgeois society by not nurturing man’s creative instincts.
D. Nietzsche blames excessive intellectualization for the decline of modern society and suggests nurturing creative instincts instead.
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Option B,C and D doesn’t capture the essence as well the idea what the passage is about. OPtion A is clearly in line with the essence and also follows the last sentence of the passage. Hence option A
DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: In each question, there are two statements: A and B, either of which can be true or false on the basis of the information given below.
A research agency collected the following data regarding the admission process of a reputed management school in India.
Q. 1 Statement A: The success rate of moving from written test to interview stage for males was worse than for females in 2003.
Statement B: The success rate of moving from written test to interview stage for females was better in 2002 than in 2003.
A Only Statement A is true.
B Only Statement B is true.
C Both the Statements are true.
D Neither of the two Statements is true.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The success rate of moving from written test to interview stage for males in 2003 can be given by 637/60133 and for females in the same year can be given by 399/40763 . We can see that the rate of males is clearly more that that of females. hence statement A is false.
Now the success rate of moving from written test to interview stage for females in 2002 was 138/15389 and for females in the year 2003 was 399/40763.So the rate in 2002 is less than that in 2003. . Hence both statements are false.
Q. 2 Statement A: In 2002, the number of females selected for the course as a proportion of the number of females who bought application forms, was higher than the corresponding proportion for males.
Statement B: In 2002, among those called for interview, males had a greater success rate than females.
A Only Statement A is true.
B Only Statement B is true.
C Both the Statements are true.
D Neither of the two Statements is true.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In 2002, the number of females selected for the course as a proportion of the number of females who bought application forms was 48/19236 and for males was 171/61205. So rate for males was higher than that of female. Hence option A is false.
In 2002, among those called for interview, the success rate for females was 48/138 and for males 171/684. So the rate was higher for females .Both are false. Hence option D.
Q. 3 Statement A: The percentage of absentees in the written test among females decreased from 2002 to 2003.
Statement B: The percentage of absentees in the written test among males was larger than among females in 2003.
A Only Statement A is true.
B Only Statement B is true.
C Both the Statements are true.
D Neither of the two Statements is true.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The percentage of absentees in the written test among females in 2002 was 3847/19236 and in 2003 was 4529/45292. Thus percentage of absentees decreased from 02 to 03. Hence statement A is true.
The percentage of absentees in the written test among males in 2003 is 3065/63298 which is clearly less than that of female in 2003. Hence statement b is false . Hence option A.
Instructions
DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. The length of an infant is one of the measures of his/her development in the early stages of his/her life. The figure below shows the growth chart of four infants in the first five months of life.
Q. 4 After which month did Seeta’s rate of growth start to decline?
A Second month
B Third month
C Fourth month
D Never
Answer: B
Explanation:
The rate of growth is the slope of the line. In the second and third months, there is an increase in the slope of the line. After the third month, there is a fall in the slope of the line i.e., the rate of growth is declining. Therefore, option b) is the correct answer.
Q. 5 Who grew at the fastest rate in the first two months of life?
A Geeta
B Seeta
C Ram
D Shyam
Answer: A
Explanation:
The rate of growth is the slope of the line.
From the graphs, we can see that the slope of the line is maximum for Geeta (red line) in the first two months. So, option a) is the correct answer.
Q. 6 The rate of growth during the third month was the lowest for
A Geeta
B Seeta
C Ram
D Shyam
Answer: A
Explanation:
The rate of growth is the slope of the line. During the third month, Geeta has a negative slope whereas all the others have a positive slope. So, the rate of growth of Geeta is the least. Option a) is the correct answer.
Q. 7 Among the four infants, who grew the least in the first five months of life? (in %)
DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The table below provides certain demographic details of 30 respondents who were part of a survey. The demographic characteristics are: gender, number of children, and age of respondents. The first number in each cell is the number of respondents in that group. The minimum and maximum age of respondents in each group is given in brackets. For example, there are five female respondents with no children and among these five, the youngest is 34 years old, while the oldest is 49.
Q. 8 The percentage of respondents aged less than 40 years is at least
A 10%
B 16.67%
C 20.0%
D 30%
Answer: D
Explanation:
The number of people with age less than 40 are at least:
In no of children 0 category => 1 male and 1 female
In no of children 1 category => 1 male and 1 female
In no of children 2 category => 1 male and 1 female
In no of children 3 category => 2 male and 1 female
There are at least 9 people who are less than 40.
9 people out of 30 people => 30%
Q. 9 Given the information above, the percentage of respondents older than 35 can be at most
A 30%
B 73.33%
C 76.67%
D 90%
Answer: C
Explanation:
There are at most 23 people with age greater than 35 . Hence (23/30)*100 = 76.67 . So option C.
Q. 10 The percentage of respondents that fall into the 35 to 40 years age group (both inclusive) is at least
A 6.67%
B 10%
C 13.33%
D 26.67%
Answer: C
Explanation:
There are at least 4 respondents that fall into the 35 to 40 years age group (both inclusive) . So 400/30 = 13.333 % . Hence , the percentage of respondents that fall into the 35 to 40 years age group (both inclusive) is at least 13.333%.
Instructions
DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Spam that enters our electronic mailboxes can be classified under several spam heads. The following table shows the distribution of such spam worldwide over time. The total number of spam emails received during December 2002 was larger than the number received in June 2003. The total number of spam emails received during September 2002 was larger than the number received in March 2003. The figures in the table represent the percentage of all spam emails received during that period, falling into those respective categories.
Q. 11 In which category was the percentage of spam emails increasing but at a decreasing rate?
A Financial
B Scams
C Products
D None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation:
It is clear from the table that for the products category the percentage of spam mail is increasing from sep02 to June 03 . But the rate at which it is growing is decreasing. Hence option c .
Q. 12 In the health category, the number of spam emails received in December 2002 as compared to June 2003.
A was larger
B was smaller
C was equal
D cannot be determined
Answer: A
Explanation:
In dec 2002 , 19 % of all spam mails were from the health category and In jun 2003 , 18 % of all spam mails were from the health category. Now since the total spam mails received in dec 02 were greater than that in jun 03 . Number of spam mails in the health category in dec 02 will be greater than that in jun 03.
Q. 13 In the financial category, the number of spam emails received in September 2002 as compared to March 2003.
A was larger
B was smaller
C was equal
D cannot be determined
Answer: D
Explanation:
Since we don’t know by how much more total spam mails were received in Sep 02 as compared to mar 03 we can’t compare the number of spam emails in the financial category received in September 2002 as to that in March 2003. Hence option D.
Instructions
DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
One of the functions of the Reserve Bank of India is to mobilize funds for the Government of India by issuing securities. The following table shows details of funds mobilized during the period July 2002 – July 2003. Notice that on each date there were two rounds of issues, each with a different maturity.
Q. 14 How many times was the issue of securities under-subscribed, i.e., how often did the total amount mobilized fall short of the amount notified?
A 0
B 1
C 2
D 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
Only one security issued on 17 July 2002 was undersubscribed.
Q. 15 Which of the following is true?
A The second round issues have a higher maturity than the first round for all dates.
B The second round issue of any date has a lower maturity only when the first round notified amount exceeds that of the second round.
C On at least one occasion, the second round issue having lower maturity received a higher number of competitive bids.
D None of the above three statements is true.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The security issued in June 2003 had lower maturity in 2nd round but no. of bids were more . Hence option C.
Q. 16 Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A Competitive bids received always exceed non-competitive bids received.
B The number of competitive bids accepted does not always exceed the number of non-competitive bids accepted.
C The value of competitive bids accepted on any particular date is never higher for higher maturity.
D The value of non-competitive bids accepted in the first round is always greater than that in the second round.
Answer: D
Explanation:
For the security issued in 4th June 2003 , the value of non-competitive bids accepted in the first round islesas than that in the second round Hence option D is not true.
Instructions
DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Each point in the graph below shows the profit and turnover data for a company. Each company belongs to one of the three industries: textile, cement and steel.
Q. 17 For how many companies does the profit exceed 10% of turnover?
A 8
B 7
C 6
D 5
Answer: B
Explanation:
There are in total 7 companies – 3 steels , 2 cement , 2 textile for which the profit is more than 10% of the turnover.
Q. 18 For how many steel companies with a turnover of more than 2000 is the profit less than 300?
A 0
B 1
C 2
D 7
Answer: C
Explanation:
There are 2 steel companies with turnover of more than 2000 and having profit less than 300.
Q. 19 An investor wants to buy stock of only steel or cement companies with a turnover more than 1000 and profit exceeding 10% of turnover. How many choices are available to the investor?
A 4
B 5
C 6
D 7
Answer: B
Explanation:
There are 3 steel and 2 cement companies with a turnover more than 1000 and profit exceeding 10% of turnover. hence there are 5 choices for the investor.
Instructions
DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. Details of the top 20 MBA schools in the US as ranked by US News and World Report, 1997 are given below.
Q. 20 Madhu has received admission in all schools listed above. She wishes to select the highest overall ranked school whose annual tuition fee does not exceed $23,000 and median starting salary is at least $70,000. Which school will she select?
A University of Virginia.
B University of Pennsylvania
C Northwestern University
D University of California – Berkeley
Answer: D
Explanation:
From table it is clear that for University of California – Berkeley annual tuition fee does not exceed $23,000 and median starting salary is at least $70,000. Hence option D.
Q. 21 In terms of staring salary and tuition fee, how many schools are uniformly better (higher median starting salary AND lower tuition fee) than Dartmouth College?
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
Answer: B
Explanation:
There are only 2 colleges – New York university and stanford university which are uniformly better (higher median starting salary AND lower tuition fee) than Dartmouth College.
Q. 22 How many schools in the list above have single digit rankings on at least 3 of the 4 parameters (overall ranking, ranking by academics, ranking by recruiters and ranking by placement)?
A 10
B 5
C 7
D 8
Answer: D
Explanation:
We can clearly make out from the given table that there are 8 schools in the list which have single digit rankings on at least 3 of the 4 parameters.
Instructions
DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Table A below provides data about ages of children in a school. For the age given in the first column, the second column gives the number of children not exceeding the age. For example, first entry indicates that there are 9 children aged 4 years or less. Tables B and C provide data on the heights and weights respectively of the same group of children in a similar format. Assuming that an older child is always taller and weighs more than a younger child, answer the following questions.
Q. 23 What is the number of children of age 9 years of less whose height does not exceed 135 cm?
A 48
B 45
C 3
D Cannot be determined
Answer: B
Explanation:
Number of children of age 9 years or less are 48 and those whose height does not exceed 135 cm are 45 . 45 is lesser, hence the answer is 45.
Q. 24 How many children of age more than 10 years are taller than 150 cm and do not weigh more than 48 kg?
A 16
B 40
C 9
D Cannot be determined
Answer: A
Explanation:
There are 40 children of age more than 10 years and 25 children that are taller than 150 cm. Considering 25 which is less than 40 . Also there are 9 children whose weight is more than 48 kg. Hence there are 25-9 = 16 children whose weight will be less than 48 kg and all other requirements.
Q. 25 Among the children older than 6 years but not exceeding 12 years, how many weigh more than 38 kg.?
A 34
B 52
C 44
D Cannot be determined
Answer: C
Explanation:
Number of children older than 6 years but not exceeding 12 years are 55 and number older than 12 years are 23 . Also children weighing more than 38 kgs are 67. Out of these 67 , 23 will have age more than 12 . Hence we have 67 – 23 = 44 childrens will the given requirement. Hence option C.
Instructions
DIRECTIONS for the following two questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
An industry comprises four firms (A, B, C, and D). Financial details of these firms and of the industry as a whole for a particular year are given below. Profitability of a firm is defined as profit as a percentage of sales.
Q. 26 Which firm has the highest profitability?
A A
B B
C C
D D
Answer: D
Explanation:
From the table we can see that , profitability in A , B ,C , D (4914)/(24568) , (4075)/(25468) , (4750)/(23752) , (3946)/(15782) . So clearly D has the highest profitability.
Q. 27 If firm A acquires firm B, approximately what percentage of the total market (total sales) will they corner together?
A 55%
B 45%
C 35%
D 50%
Answer: A
Explanation:
If A acquires firm B , the total sales of 2 firms is 50036 . now the percent market share can be given by 50036*100/89576 which is equal to around 55% . Hence option A.
Instructions
DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A, B, C, D, E, and F are a group of friends. There are two housewives, one professor, one engineer, one accountant and one lawyer in the group. There are only two married couples in the group. The lawyer is married to D, who is a housewife. No woman in the group is either an engineer or an accountant. C, the accountant, is married to F, who is a professor. A is married to a housewife. E is not a housewife.
Q. 28 Which of the following is one of the married couples?
A A & B
B B & E
C D & E
D A & D
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to given conditions, we are able to infer following relations
So A and D are married couples.
Q. 29 What is E’s profession?
A Engineer
B Lawyer
C Professor
D Accountant
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to given conditions we are able to infer,
Hence E is an engineer.
Q. 30 How many members of the group are males?
A 2
B 3
C 4
D Cannot be determined
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to given conditions we are able to infer,
Thus, there are 3 males.
Instructions
DIRECTIONS for the following two questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
The Head of a newly formed government desires to appoint five of the six elected members A, B, C, D, E and F to portfolios of Home, Power, Defence, Telecom and Finance. F does not want any portfolio if D gets one of the five. C wants either Home or Finance or no portfolio. B says that if D gets either Power or Telecom then she must get the other one. E insists on a portfolio if A gets one.
Q. 31 Which is a valid assignment?
A A-Home, B-Power, C-Defence, D-Telecom, E-Finance.
B C-Home, D-Power, A-Defence, B-Telecom, E-Finance.
C A-Home, B-Power, E-Defence, D-Telecom, F-Finance.
D B-Home, F-Power, E-Defence, C-Telecom, A-Finance.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Since C wants either home or finance or none so options A and D are eliminated.
Since F does not want any portfolio if D gets one, Option C is eliminated.
Q. 32 If A gets Home and C gets Finance, then which is NOT a valid assignment of Defense and Telecom?
A D-Defence, B-Telecom.
B F-Defence, B-Telecom.
C B-Defence, E-Telecom.
D B-Defence, D-Telecom.
Answer: D
Explanation:
B says that if D gets power or telecom then he must get the other one.Option D clearly violates that. Instructions
DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Rang Barsey Paint Company (RBPC) is in the business of manufacturing paints. RBPC buys RED, YELLOW, WHITE, ORANGE, and PINK paints. ORANGE paint can be also produced by mixing RED and YELLOW paints in equal proportions. Similarly, PINK paint can also be produced by mixing equal amounts of RED and WHITE paints. Among other paints, RBPC sells CREAM paint, (formed by mixing WHITE and YELLOW in the ratio 70:30) AVOCADO paint (formed by mixing equal amounts of ORANGE and PINK paint) and WASHEDORANGE paint (formed by mixing equal amounts of ORANGE and WHITE paint). The following table provides the price at which RBPC buys paints.
Q. 33 The cheapest way to manufacture AVOCADO paint would cost
A Rs. 19.50 per litre.
B Rs. 19.75 per litre
C Rs. 20.00 per litre.
D Rs. 20.25 per litre.
Answer: B
Explanation:
AVOCADO paint can be manufactured by adding orange and pink in equal quantity. 0.5 ltr of orange would cost 11 and the cheapest way to make pink would be by mixing white and red , so the cost for 0.5 ltr of pink comes out to be 8.75 . SO total cost becomes 11+8.75 = 19.75 Rs. which is the cheapest.
Q. 34 WASHEDORANGE can be manufactured by mixing
A CREAM and RED in the ratio 14:10.
B CREAM and RED in the ratio 3:1.
C YELLOW and PINK in the ratio 1:1.
D RED, YELLOW, and WHITE in the ratio 1:1:2.
Answer: D
Explanation:
WASHEDORANGE can be made by mixing orange and white , orange can be made by mixing equal quantities red and yellow which would be 1/2 of white quantity. Thus RED, YELLOW, and WHITE in the ratio 1:1:2 are needed.
Q. 35 Assume that AVOCADO, CREAM and WASHEDORANGE each sells for the same price. Which of the three is the most profitable to manufacture?
A AVOCADO
B CREAM
C WASHEDORANGE
D Sufficient data is not available.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cream would undoubtedly be the most profitable as the maximum amount of white paint is used in it and white is the cheapest out of all other paints. Hence option B.
Instructions
DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Seven varsity basketball players (A, B, C, D, E, F, and G) are to be honoured at a special luncheon. The players will be seated on the dais in a row. A and G have to leave the luncheon early and so must be seated at the extreme right. B will receive the most valuable player’s trophy and so must be in the centre to facilitate presentation. C and D are bitter rivals and therefore must be seated as far apart as possible.
Q. 36 Which of the following cannot be seated at either end?
A C
B D
C F
D G
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to given conditions we can conclude ,
Hence , F cannot be seated at either end.
Q. 37 Which of the following pairs cannot be seated together?
A B & D
B C & F
C D & G
D E & A
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to given conditions following arrangements are possible,
Hence E and A cannot be seated together.
Q. 38 Which of the following pairs cannot occupy the seats on either side of B?
A F & D
B D & E
C E & G
D C & F
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to given conditions possible arrangement is as,
Hence E and G cannot occupy seats on either sides of B .
Instructions
DIRECTIONS for the following two questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Some children were taking free throws at the basketball court in school during lunch break. Below are some facts about how many baskets these children shot.
i. Ganesh shot 8 baskets less than Ashish.
ii. Dhanraj and Ramesh together shot 37 baskets.
iii. Jugraj shot 8 baskets more than Dhanraj.
iv. Ashish shot 5 baskets more than Dhanraj.
v. Ashish and Ganesh together shot 40 baskets.
Q. 39 Which of the following statements is true?
A Dhanraj and Jugraj together shot 46 baskets.
B Ganesh shot 18 baskets and Ramesh shot 21 baskets.
C Dhanraj shot 3 more baskets than Ramesh.
D Ramesh and Jugraj together shot 29 baskets.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let a,d,j,g be the shots put by ashish,dhanraj,ganesh and jugraj respectively. According to given conditions we have , g=a-8;
d+r=37;
j=d+8;
a=5+d;
a+g=40 .
Solving we have a=24, d=19 and j=27.so d+j=45
Instructions
DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Five women decided to go shopping in M.G. Road, Bangalore. They arrived at the designated meeting place in the following order:
1. Archana,
2. Chellamma,
3. Dhenuka,
4. Helen, and
5. Shahnaz.
Each woman spent at least Rs. 1000. Below are some additional facts about how much they spent during their shopping spree.
i. The woman who spent Rs. 2234 arrived before the lady who spent Rs. 1193.
ii. One woman spent Rs. 1340 and she was not Dhenuka.
iii. One woman spent Rs. 1378 more than Chellamma.
iv. One woman spent Rs. 2517 and she was not Archana.
v. Helen spent more than Dhenuka.
vi. Shahnaz spent the largest amount and Chellamma the smallest.
Q. 40 What was the amount spent by Helen?
A Rs. 1193
B Rs. 1340
C Rs. 2234
D Rs. 2517
Answer: B
Explanation:
From the given statements, we can infer that the amounts spent by the women are Rs.2234, Rs.1193, Rs.1340, and Rs.2517. Also, we know that one of the 5 women spent Rs.1378 more than Chellamma. Also, we know that each woman spent at least Rs.1000.
The person who spent Rs.2234 cannot be the person who spent Rs.1378 more than Chellamma. Also, we know that Chellamma spent the least among the five women.
Case 1:
Chellamma spent Rs.1193.
=> One of the 5 women spent 1193+1378 = Rs.2571.
We know that Shahnaz spent the most. Therefore, Shahnaz should have spent Rs.2571.
Archana didn’t spend Rs.2517. Also, Helen spent more than Dhenuka.
Therefore, Helen should have spent Rs.2517.
Dhenuka didn’t spend Rs.1340.
Therefore, Dhenuka should have spent Rs. 2234 and Archana should have spent Rs.1340.
However, it has been given that the woman who spent Rs. 2234 arrived before the lady who spent Rs. 1193. According to the given order, Archana arrived before Dhenuka. Therefore, we can eliminate this case.
Case 2:
Rs.2517 is the highest amount spent. Shahnaz spent Rs.2517.
Dhenuka didn’t spend Rs.1340. Helen spent more than Dhenuka. Therefore, Dhenuka should have spent Rs.1193.
Now, we know that the woman who spent Rs. 2234 arrived before the lady who spent Rs. 1193. Helen did not arrive before Dhenuka but Archana did. Therefore, Archana should have spent Rs.2234 and Helen should have spent Rs.1340.
According to given conditions amount spent by everyone is,
Hence, option B is the right answer.
Q. 41 Which of the following amounts was spent by one of them?
A Rs. 1139
B Rs. 1378
C Rs. 2571
D Rs. 2718
Answer: A
Explanation:
From the given statements, we can infer that the amounts spent by the women are Rs.2234, Rs.1193, Rs.1340, and Rs.2517. Also, we know that one of the 5 women spent Rs.1378 more than Chellamma. Also, we know that each woman spent at least Rs.1000.
The person who spent Rs.2234 cannot be the person who spent Rs.1378 more than Chellamma. Also, we know that Chellamma spent the least among the five women.
Case 1:
Chellamma spent Rs.1193.
=> One of the 5 women spent 1193+1378 = Rs.2571.
We know that Shahnaz spent the most. Therefore, Shahnaz should have spent Rs.2571.
Archana didn’t spend Rs.2517. Also, Helen spent more than Dhenuka.
Therefore, Helen should have spent Rs.2517.
Dhenuka didn’t spend Rs.1340.
Therefore, Dhenuka should have spent Rs. 2234 and Archana should have spent Rs.1340.
However, it has been given that the woman who spent Rs. 2234 arrived before the lady who spent Rs. 1193. According to the given order, Archana arrived before Dhenuka. Therefore, we can eliminate this case.
Case 2:
Rs.2517 is the highest amount spent. Shahnaz spent Rs.2517.
Dhenuka didn’t spend Rs.1340. Helen spent more than Dhenuka. Therefore, Dhenuka should have spent Rs.1193.
Now, we know that the woman who spent Rs. 2234 arrived before the lady who spent Rs. 1193. Helen did not arrive before Dhenuka but Archana did. Therefore, Archana should have spent Rs.2234 and Helen should have spent Rs.1340.
According to given conditions amount spent by everyone is,
Hence, option A is the right answer.
Q. 42 The woman who spent Rs. 1193 is
A Archana
B Chellamma
C Dhenuka
D Helen
Answer: C
Explanation:
From the given statements, we can infer that the amounts spent by the women are Rs.2234, Rs.1193, Rs.1340, and Rs.2517. Also, we know that one of the 5 women spent Rs.1378 more than Chellamma. Also, we know that each woman spent at least Rs.1000.
The person who spent Rs.2234 cannot be the person who spent Rs.1378 more than Chellamma. Also, we know that Chellamma spent the least among the five women.
Case 1:
Chellamma spent Rs.1193.
=> One of the 5 women spent 1193+1378 = Rs.2571.
We know that Shahnaz spent the most. Therefore, Shahnaz should have spent Rs.2571.
Archana didn’t spend Rs.2517. Also, Helen spent more than Dhenuka.
Therefore, Helen should have spent Rs.2517.
Dhenuka didn’t spend Rs.1340.
Therefore, Dhenuka should have spent Rs. 2234 and Archana should have spent Rs.1340.
However, it has been given that the woman who spent Rs. 2234 arrived before the lady who spent Rs. 1193. According to the given order, Archana arrived before Dhenuka. Therefore, we can eliminate this case.
Case 2:
Rs.2517 is the highest amount spent. Shahnaz spent Rs.2517.
Dhenuka didn’t spend Rs.1340. Helen spent more than Dhenuka. Therefore, Dhenuka should have spent Rs.1193.
Now, we know that the woman who spent Rs. 2234 arrived before the lady who spent Rs. 1193. Helen did not arrive before Dhenuka but Archana did. Therefore, Archana should have spent Rs.2234 and Helen should have spent Rs.1340.
According to given conditions amount spent by everyone is,
Hence, option C is the right answer.
Instructions
DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Five friends meet every morning at Sree Sagar restaurant for an idli-vada breakfast. Each consumes a different number of idlis and vadas. The number of idlis consumed are 1, 4, 5, 6, and 8, while the number of vadas consumed are 0, 1, 2, 4, and 6. Below are some more facts about who eats what and how much.
i. The number of vadas eaten by Ignesh is three times the number of vadas consumed by the person who eats four idlis. ii. Three persons, including the one who eats four vadas eat without chutney.
iii. Sandeep does not take any chutney.
iv. The one who eats one idli a day does not eat any vadas or chutney. Further, he is not Mukesh. v. Daljit eats idli with chutney and also eats vada.
vi. Mukesh, who does not take chutney, eats half as many vadas as the person who eats twice as many idlis as he does. vii. Bimal eats two more idlis than Ignesh, but Ignesh eats two more vadas than Bimal.
Q. 43 Which one of the following statements is true?
A Daljit eats 5 idlis
B Ignesh eats 8 idlis
C Bimal eats 1 idli.
D Bimal eats 6 idlis.
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to given conditions , we get
Hence , diljit eats 5 idlis.
Q. 44 Which of the following statements is true?
A Sandeep eats 2 vadas.
B Mukesh eats 4 vadas.
C Ignesh eats 6 vadas.
D Bimal eats 2 vadas.
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to given conditions , we get
Hence, ignesh eats 6 wadas.
Q. 45 Which of the following statements is true?
A Mukesh eats 8 idlis and 4 vadas but no chutney.
B The person who eats 5 idlis and 1 vada does not take chutney.
C The person who eats equal number of vadas and idlis also takes chutney.
D The person who eats 4 idlis and 2 vadas also takes chutney.
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to given conditions , we get
Hence ignesh is the person who eats equal number of vadas and idlis also takes chutney.
Instructions
DIRECTIONS for the following two questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A certain perfume is available at a duty-free shop at the Bangkok international airport. It is priced in the Thai currency Baht but other currencies are also acceptable. In particular, the shop accepts Euro and US Dollar at the following rates of exchange:
US Dollar 1 = 41 Bahts
Euro 1= 46 Bahts
The perfume is priced at 520 Bahts per bottle. After one bottle is purchased, subsequent bottles are available at a discount of 30%. Three friends S, R and M together purchase three bottles of the perfume, agreeing to share the cost equally. R pays 2 Euros. M pays 4 Euros and 27 Thai Bahts and S pays the remaining amount in US Dollars.
Q. 46 How much does R owe to S in Thai Baht?
A 428
B 416
C 334
D 324
Answer: D
Explanation:
Total to be paid = 1248 Baht
Each has to pay 1248/3 = 416 Baht
R paid 92 Baht
M paid 184+27 = 211 Baht
So, R owes S 416 – 92 = 324 Baht
Q. 47 How much does M owe to S in US Dollars?
A 3
B 4
C 5
D 6
Answer: C
Explanation:
Total to be paid = 1248 Baht
Each has to pay 1248/3 = 416 Baht
R paid 92 Baht
M paid 184+27 = 211 Baht
So, R owes S 416 – 92 = 324 Baht
M owes S 416-211 Baht = 205 Baht = 5 US Dollars
Instructions
DIRECTIONS for the following two questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
New Age Consultants have three consultants Gyani, Medha and Buddhi. The sum of the number of projects handled by Gyani and Buddhi individually is equal to the number of projects in which Medha is involved. All three consultants are involved together in 6 projects. Gyani works with Medha in 14 projects. Buddhi has 2 projects with Medha but without Gyani, and 3 projects with Gyani but without Medha. The total number of projects for New Age Consultants is one less than twice the number of projects in which more than one consultant is involved.
Q. 48 What is the number of projects in which Gyani alone is involved?
A Uniquely equal to zero.
B Uniquely equal to 1.
C Uniquely equal to 4.
D Cannot be determined uniquely.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The total number of projects = 2(3+6+8+2) – 1 = 38 – 1 = 37
So, 19 + 2(x+y) – 16 = 37
=> x+y = 17
The number of projects in which Medha alone is involved is 17-16 = 1
But the number of projects in which Gyani alone is involved cannot be uniquely determined
Q. 49 What is the number of projects in which Medha alone is involved?
A Uniquely equal to zero.
B Uniquely equal to 1.
C Uniquely equal to 4.
D Cannot be determined uniquely.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The total number of projects = 2(3+6+8+2) – 1 = 38 – 1 = 37
So, 19 + 2(x+y) – 16 = 37
=> x+y = 17
The number of projects in which Medha alone is involved is 17-16 = 1
But the number of projects in which Gyani alone is involved cannot be uniquely determined
Instructions
DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below. A city has two perfectly circular and concentric ring roads, the outer ring road (OR) being twice as long as the inner ring road (IR). There are also four (straight line) chord roads from E1, the east end point of OR to N2, the north end point of IR; from N1, the north end point of OR to W2, the west end point of IR; from W1, the west end point of OR, to S2, the south end point of IR; and from S1 the south end point of OR to E2, the east end point of IR. Traffic moves at a constant speed of 30π km/hr on the OR road, 20π km/hr on the IR road, and 15√5 km/hr on all the chord roads.
Q. 50 The ratio of the sum of the lengths of all chord roads to the length of the outer ring road is
A √5 : 2
B √5 : 2π
C √5 : π
D None of the above.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let the radius of outer circle be 2R and the centre of both the circles be O.
Triangle ON2E1 and all the other 3 similar triangles form a right angle at the centre . SO using pythagoras theorem the value of chords come out to be √5* R so total length of the chords 4 *√5 * R And circumference is equal to 2 *Pi*2R . Ratio gives option C.
Quant
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 51 F and M are father and mother of S, respectively. S has four uncles and three aunts. F has two siblings. The siblings of F and M are unmarried. How many brothers does M have?
A. F has two brothers.
B. M has five siblings.
A The questions can be answered by one of the statements, but not by the other
B The Q. can be answered using either of the two statements alone.
C The questions can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be answered using either statement alone.
D The Q. cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement B is redundant. We already know that M has 5 siblings from the question. From statement A alone, we know that F has 2 brothers and M has 2 brothers and 3 sisters.
Q. 52 A game consists of tossing a coin successively. There is an entry fee of Rs. 10 and an additional fee of Re. 1 for each toss of coin. The game is considered to have ended normally when the coin turns heads on two consecutive throws. In this case the player is paid Rs. 100. Alternatively, the player can choose to terminate the game prematurely after any of the tosses. Ram has incurred a loss of Rs. 50 by playing this game. How many times did he toss the coin?
A. The game ended normally.
B. The total number of tails obtained in the game was 138.
A The questions can be answered by one of the statements, but not by the other
B The Q. can be answered using either of the two statements alone.
C The questions can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be answered using either statement alone.
D The Q. cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Considering statement A. The game ended normally. Here we know that last 2 results were heads and the person receives 100 Rs. and since there was overall loss of 50 Rs we can calculate no. of matches which ended in tails or non consecutive heads . hence , statement a is sufficient to answer.
Considering statement B. The total number of tails obtained in the game was 138. So we know person lost here rs.138 and we can add any no. of single heads in between those tails such that the overall loss will be 50Rs. Hence this statement is also sufficient to answer.
Q. 53 Each packet of SOAP costs Rs. 10. Inside each packet is a gift coupon labelled with one of the letters S, O, A and P. If a customer submits four such coupons that make up the word SOAP, the customer gets a free SOAP packets. Ms. X kept buying packet after packet of SOAP till she could get one set of coupons that formed the word SOAP. How many coupons with label P did she get in the above process?
A. The last label obtained by her was S and the total amount spent was Rs. 210.
B. The total number of vowels obtained was 18.
A The questions can be answered by one of the statements, but not by the other
B The Q. can be answered using either of the two statements alone.
C The questions can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be answered using either statement alone.
D The Q. cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Considering statements we can deduce that she got letter S in her 21st purchase. In the previous 20 purchases she had either A, O or P . Hence statement a is not enough to answer. If we consider statement b we will know that out of 20 purchases 18 are vowel so 2 purchases contained letter P . So both statements are necessary to answer the question.
Q. 54 If A and B run a race, then A wins by 60 seconds. If B and C run the same race, then B wins by 30 seconds. Assuming that C maintains a uniform speed what is the time taken by C to finish the race?
A. A and C run the same race and A wins by 375 metres.
B. The length of the race is 1 km.
A The questions can be answered by one of the statements, but not by the other
B The Q. can be answered using either of the two statements alone.
C The questions can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be answered using either statement alone.
D The Q. cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let the distance be x. Time taken by A is T, so time taken by B is T+60 and time taken by C is T+90. From statement A, we know that the ratio of speeds of A and C is x:(x-375) = x/T : x/(T+90)
We have only 1 equation and 2 unknows. We need the second statement to find the values. So, the Q. can be answered by using both the statements together.
Q. 55 The number of non-negative real roots of 2x − x − 1 = 0 equals
A 0
B 1
C 2
D 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
2x − x − 1 = 0 for this equation only 0 and 1 i.e 2 non-negative solutions are possible. Or we can plot the graph of 2x and x+1 and determine the number of points of intersection and hence the solution.
Q. 56 When the curves y = log10x and y = x−1 are drawn in the x-y plane, how many times do they intersect for x ≥ 1 values ?
A Never
B Once
C Twice
D More than twice
Answer: B
Explanation:
Graph of log x goes on increasing in 1st quadrant and graph of 1/x goes no decreasing with both intersecting only once
Q. 57 Let A and B be two solid spheres such that the surface area of B is 300% higher than the surface area of A. The volume of A is found to be k% lower than the volume of B. The value of k must be
A 85.5
B 92.5
C 90.5
D 87.5
Answer: D
Explanation:
Surface area of sphere A (of radius a) is 4π ∗ a2
Surface area of sphere B (of radius b) is 4π ∗ b2
=> 4π ∗ a2/4π ∗ b2 = 1/4 => a:b = 1:2
Their volumes would be in the ratio 1:8
Therefore, k = 7/8 * 100% = 87.5%
Q. 58 Which one of the following conditions must p, q and r satisfy so that the following system of linear simultaneous equations has at least one solution, such that p + q + r ≠ 0?
x+ 2y – 3z = p
2x + 6y – 11z = q
x – 2y + 7z = r
A 5p -2q – r = 0
B 5p + 2q + r = 0
C 5p + 2q – r = 0
D 5p – 2q + r = 0
Answer: A
Explanation:
Substitute value of p,q,r in the options only option A satisfies .
Q. 59 A leather factory produces two kinds of bags, standard and deluxe. The profit margin is Rs. 20 on a standard bag and Rs. 30 on a deluxe bag. Every bag must be processed on machine A and on Machine B. The processing times per bag on the two machines are as follows:
The total time available on machine A is 700 hours and on machine B is 1250 hours. Among the following production plans, which one meets the machine availability constraints and maximizes the profit?
A Standard 75 bags, Deluxe 80 bags
B Standard 100 bags, Deluxe 60 bags
C Standard 50 bags, Deluxe 100 bags
D Standard 60 bags, Deluxe 90 bags
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let x be no. of standard bags and y be no. of deluxe bags. According to given conditions we have 2 equations 4x+5y<=700 and 6x+10y<=1250. Here option A satisfies both the equations.
Q. 60 The sum of 3rd and 15th elements of an arithmetic progression is equal to the sum of 6th, 11th and 13th elements of the same progression. Then which element of the series should necessarily be equal to zero?
A 1st
B 9th
C 12th
D None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation:
The sum of the 3rd and 15th terms is a+2d+a+14d = 2a+16d
The sum of the 6th, 11th and 13th terms is a+5d+a+10d+a+12d = 3a+27d
Since the two are equal, 2a+16d = 3a+27d => a+11d = 0
So, the 12th term is 0
Q. 61 A test has 50 questions. A student scores 1 mark for a correct answer, -1/3 for a wrong answer, and -1/6 for not attempting a question. If the net score of a student is 32, the number of questions answered wrongly by that student cannot be less than
A 6
B 12
C 3
D 9
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let the number of questions answered correctly be x and the number of questions answered wrongly be y. So, number of questions left unattempted = (50-x-y)
So, x – y/3 – (50-x-y)/6 = 32
=> 6x – 2y – 50 + x + y = 192 => 7x – y = 242 => y = 7x – 242
If x = 35, y = 3
If x = 36, y = 10
So, min. the value of y is 3.
The number of wrongly answered questions cannot be less than 3.
Q. 62 Twenty-seven persons attend a party. Which one of the following statements can never be true?
A There is a person in the party who is acquainted with all the twenty-six others.
B Each person in the party has a different number of acquaintances.
C There is a person in the party who has an odd number of acquaintances.
D In the party, there is no set of three mutual acquaintances.
Answer: B
Explanation:
From the options a, c and d all can possibly occur. Hence option b. Besides, if all people have different number of acquaintances, then first person will have 26 acquaintance, second person will have 25 acquaintance, third person will have 24 and so on till 27 th person will have 0 acquaintance. 0 acquaintance is practically not possible.
Q. 63 Let g(x) = max(5 – x, x + 2). The smallest possible value of g(x) is
A 4.0
B 4.5
C 1.5
D None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Smallest possible value would be at 5-x = x+2 i.e. x= 1.5 as shown
Substituting we get the smallest value as 3.5.
Q. 64 The function f(x) = |x – 2| + |2.5 – x| + |3.6 – x|, where x is a real number, attains a minimum at
A x = 2.3
B x = 2.5
C x = 2.7
D None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
f(x) = |x – 2| + |2.5 – x| + |3.6 – x|
For x belonging to (-infinity to 2), f(x) = 2-x + 2.5-x + 3.6-x = 8.1-3x
This attains the minimum value at x=2. Value = 2.1
For x belonging to (2 to 2.5), f(x) = x-2 + 2.5-x + 3.6-x = 4.1-x
Attains the minimum value at x = 2.5. Value = 1.6
For x belonging to (2.5 to 3.6), f(x) = x-2 + x-2.5 + 3.6-x = x-0.9
Attains the minimum at x=2.5, value = 1.6
For x > 3.6, f(x) = x-2+x-2.5+x-3.6 = 3x – 8.1
Attains the minimum at x= 3.6, value = 2.7
So, min value of the function is 1.6 at x=2.5
Q. 65 How many even integers n, where 100 ≤ n ≤ 200, are divisible neither by seven nor by nine?
A 40
B 37
C 39
D 38
Answer: C
Explanation:
Between 100 and 200 both included there are 51 even nos. There are 7 even nos which are divisible by 7 and 6 nos which are divisible by 9 and 1 no divisible by both. hence in total 51 – (7+6-1) = 39
There is one more method through which we can find the answer. Since we have to find even numbers, consider the numbers which are divisible by 14, 18 and 126 between 100 and 200. These are 7, 6 and 1 respectively.
Q. 66 A positive whole number M less than 100 is represented in base 2 notation, base 3 notation, and base 5 notation. It is found that in all three cases the last digit is 1, while in exactly two out of the three cases the leading digit is 1. Then M equals
A 31
B 63
C 75
D 91
Answer: D
Explanation:
Since in all three cases the last digit is 1, the number should give remainder 1 when divided individually by 2,3,5 . So the no. may be 31 or 91 . Now 31 in base 2,3 and 5 give the first digit as 1 in all the 3 cases while 91 gives exactly two out of the three cases the leading digit as 1. Hence option D.
Q. 67 In a 4000 meter race around a circular stadium having a circumference of 1000 meters, the fastest runner and the slowest runner reach the same point at the end of the 5th minute, for the first time after the start of the race. All the runners have the same starting point and each runner maintains a uniform speed throughout the race. If the fastest runner runs at twice the speed of the slowest runner, what is the time taken by the fastest runner to finish the race?
A 20 min
B 15 min
C 10 min
D 5 min
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let A , B and f,s be the distance traveled and speed of the fastest and the slowest person respectively. Also f=2s so in the given time A=2B. Since the ration of the speeds is 2:1, they will meet at 2-1 points = 1 point.
Both meet each other for the first time at the starting point . let b travel distance equal to 1 circumference i.e. 1000m so A=2000m . Both meet after 5 min so the slowest is 1000/5=200m/min . So the speed of the fastest is 400m/min. So time taken by A to complete race 4000/400 = 10 min
Q. 68 Is a44 < b11, given that a = 2 and b is an integer?
A. b is even
B. b is greater than 16
A The questions can be answered by one of the statements, but not by the other
B The Q. can be answered using either of the two statements alone.
C The questions can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be answered using either statement alone.
D The Q. cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Answer: A
Explanation:
If b = 4, then the answer to the Q. is no. If b = 32, then the answer is yes. So, using statement A alone, we cannot answer the question.
Using statement B alone, we can conclude that a44 < b11
Q. 69 What are the unique values of b and c in the equation 4x2 + bx + c = 0 if one of the roots of the equation is (- 1/2)?
A. The second root is 1/2.
B. The ratio of c and b is 1.
A The questions can be answered by one of the statements, but not by the other
B The Q. can be answered using either of the two statements alone.
C The questions can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be answered using either statement alone.
D The Q. cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Using statement A, sum of roots = 0 and product of roots = 0, so b = c = 0.
Using statement B, sum of roots = x – 1/2 = -b/4 and product of roots = c/4 = b/4 = -x/2
So, we can calculate the values of b and c using either statement alone
Q. 70 AB is a chord of a circle. AB = 5 cm. A tangent parallel to AB touches the minor arc AB at E. What is the radius of the circle?
A. AB is not a diameter of the circle.
B. The distance between AB and the tangent at E is 5 cm.
A The questions can be answered by one of the statements, but not by the other
B The Q. can be answered using either of the two statements alone.
C The questions can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be answered using either statement alone.
D The Q. cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let the radius be r. Using statement B alone, r, r-5 and 2.5 form a right-angled triangle. So, we can answer the Q. using statement B alone.
B. One of the roots of the equation 4x2 − 4x + 1 = 0 is a
A The questions can be answered by one of the statements, but not by the other
B The Q. can be answered using either of the two statements alone.
C The questions can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be answered using either statement alone.
D The Q. cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Consider the first statement:
When the common ratio is less than 1 we can apply the formula of sum of infinite terms.
So, LHS = 1/(a2 − 1)
RHS = a/(a2 − 1)
If a<1 then LHS<RHS
If a = 1,then LHS = RHS
So, we cannot answer the Q. using statement 1 alone
Using statement 2 alone, we know that a = 1/2. So, RHS > LHS
Hence, option a)
Q. 72 D, E, F are the mid points of the sides AB, BC and CA of triangle ABC respectively. What is the area of DEF in square centimeters?
A. AD = 1 cm, DF = 1 cm and perimeter of DEF = 3 cm
B. Perimeter of ABC = 6 cm, AB = 2 cm, and AC = 2 cm.
A The questions can be answered by one of the statements, but not by the other
B The Q. can be answered using either of the two statements alone.
C The questions can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be answered using either statement alone.
D The Q. cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
Answer: B
Explanation:
From statement 1 alone, we can infer that the triangle ABC is an equilateral triangle with side = 2 cm Similarly, from statement 2 alone, we can infer that the triangle ABC is an equilateral of side 2 cm So, the Q. can be answered using either statement alone
Q. 73 At the end of year 1998, Shepard bought nine dozen goats. Henceforth, every year he added p% of the goats at the beginning of the year and sold q% of the goats at the end of the year where p > 0 and q > 0. If Shepard had nine dozen goats at the end of year 2002, after making the sales for that year, which of the following is true?
A p = q
B p < q
C p > q
D p = q/2
Answer: C
Explanation:
By the end of the year 2002, Shepard bought 4 times and sold 4 times. He is left with the initial number of goats that he had in 1998. If the percentage of goats bought is equal to or lesser than the percentage of goats sold, then there would be a net decrease in the total number of goats. For the number of goats to remain the same, p has to be greater than q, because p% is being calculated in a lesser number and q% is being calculated on a greater number. Hence, p > q.
Q. 74 Each side of a given polygon is parallel to either the X or the Y axis. A corner of such a polygon is said to be convex if the internal angle is 90° or concave if the internal angle is 270°. If the number of convex corners in such a polygon is 25, the number of concave corners must be
A 20
B 0
C 21
D 22
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let the total number of sides be x.
Sum of internal angles in a polygon = (x-2)*180 where x is the number of sides.
It is given that the polygon has 25 convex sides, then the number of concave sides = x-25 (25*90)+(x-25)*270 = (x-2)180
x = 46
Number concave corners = x-25 = 46-25 = 21
Q. 75 The 288th term of the series a,b,b,c,c,c,d,d,d,d,e,e,e,e,e,f,f,f,f,f,f… is
A u
B v
C w
D x
Answer: D
Explanation:
1, 2, 3, 4,….n such that the sum is greater than 288
If n = 24, n(n+1)/2 = 12*25 = 300
So, n = 24, i.e. the 24th letter in the alphabet is the letter at position 288 in the series
So, answer = x
Q. 76 Let p and q be the roots of the quadratic equation x2 − (α − 2)x − α − 1 = 0 . What is the minimum possible p2 + q2
value of ?
A 0
B 3
C 4
D 5
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let α be equal to k.
=> f(x) = x2 − (k − 2)x − (k + 1) = 0
p and q are the roots
=> p+q = k-2 and pq = -1-k
We know that (p + q)2 = p2 + q2 + 2pq
=>(k − 2)2 = p2 + q2 + 2(−1 − k)
=>p2 + q2 = k2 + 4 − 4k + 2 + 2k
=>p2 + q2 = k2 − 2k + 6
This is in the form of a quadratic equation.
The coefficient of k2 is positive. Therefore this equation has a minimum value.
We know that the minimum value occurs at x = −b/2a
Here a = 1, b = -2 and c = 6
=> Minimum value occurs at k =2/2 = 1
If we substitute k = 1 in k2 − 2k + 6 , we get 1 -2 + 6 = 5.
Hence 5 is the minimum value that p2 + q2 can attain.
Q. 77 There are two concentric circles such that the area of the outer circle is four times the area of the inner circle. Let A, B and C be three distinct points on the perimeter of the outer circle such that AB and AC are tangents to the inner circle. If the area of the outer circle is 12 square centimeters then the area (in square centimeters) of the triangle ABC would be
A π√12
B 9/π
C 9√3/π
D 6√3/π
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let R ,r be radius of big and small circles respectively. We know that R=2r. And since area = 12 ;
R2 = 12/π .
By pythagoras theorem in the small triangle with side ‘x’ we have x = 3 /√π. This triangle is a 30-60-90 right triangle. => Triangle ABC is an equilateral triangle.
So side of triangle ABC = 2x = 6 /√π.
Also Angle OAB = 30 (as the side opposite to the angle is half of the hypotenuse ).
Hence Angle CAB = 60.
Hence the required triangle is an equilateral triangle. So area =√3 * (2x)2 / 4 . Substituting we get .
Area = 9√3/π.
Q. 78 Let a, b, c, d be four integers such that a+b+c+d = 4m+1 where m is a positive integer. Given m, which one of the following is necessarily true?
A The minimum possible value of is a2 + b2 + c2 + d2 4m2 − 2m + 1
B The minimum possible value of is a2 + b2 + c2 + d2 4m2 + 2m + 1
C The maximum possible value of is a2 + b2 + c2 + d2 4m2 − 2m + 1
D The maximum possible value of is a2 + b2 + c2 + d2 4m2 + 2m + 1
Answer: B
Explanation:
Taking lowest possible positive value of m i.e. 1 . Such that a+b+c+d=5 , so at least one of them must be greater than 1 , take a=b=c=1 and d=2
we get a2 + b2 + c2 + d2 = 7 which is equal to 4m2 + 2m + 1 for other values it is greater than 4m2 + 2m + 1 . so option B
Q. 79 Three horses are grazing within a semi-circular field. In the diagram given below, AB is the diameter of the semi-circular field with center at O. Horses are tied up at P, R and S such that PO and RO are the radii of semi-circles with centers at P and R respectively, and S is the center of the circle touching the two semi circles with diameters AO and OB. The horses tied at P and R can graze within the respective semi-circles and the horse tied at S can graze within the circle centred at S. The percentage of the area of the semicircle with diameter AB that cannot be grazed by the horses is nearest to
A 20
B 28
C 36
D 40
Answer: B
Explanation:
Let R be radius of big circle and r be radius of circle with centre S. Radius of 2 semicircles is R/2.
From Right angled triangle OPS, using pythagoras theorem we get
(r + 0.5R)2 = (0.5R)2 + (R − r)2 . We get R=3r .
Now the area of big semicircle that cannot be grazed is Area of big S.C – area of 2 semicircle – area of small circle = π ∗ R2 /2 – 2*π* (0.5R)2/2- π∗r2
= π ∗ R2 /2 – 2* π ∗(0.5R)2 π /2 – π ∗(R/3)2
= π ∗ R2 /2 – π ∗R2/4 – π ∗(R)2/9
= 5*π * R2/36. this is about 28 % of the area π ∗ R2/2 . Hence option B.
Q. 80 In the figure below, ABCDEF is a regular hexagon and ∠AOF= 90° . FO is parallel to ED. What is the ratio of the area of the triangle AOF to that of the hexagon ABCDEF?
A 1/12
B 1/6
C 1/24
D 1/18
Answer: A
Explanation:
When the hexagon is divided into a number of similar triangles AOF we get 12 such triangles . Hence the required ratio of area is 1/12.
Q. 81 How many three digit positive integers, with digits x, y and z in the hundred’s, ten’s and unit’s place
respectively, exist such that x < y, z < y and x ≠ 0 ?
A 245
B 285
C 240
D 320
Answer: C
Explanation:
x, y and z in the hundred’s, ten’s and unit’s place. So y should start from 2
If y=2 , possible values of x=1 and z = 0,1 .So 2 cases 120,121.
Also if y=3 , possible values of x=1,2 and z=0,1,2.
Here 6 three digit nos. possible .
Similarly for next cases would be 3*4=12,4*5=20,5*6=30,…..,8*9=72 . Adding all we get 240 cases.
Q. 82 A vertical tower OP stands at the center O of a square ABCD. Let h and b denote the length OP and AB respectively. Suppose ∠APB = 60° then the relationship between h and b can be expressed as
A 2b2 = h2
B 2h2 = b2
C 3b2 = 2h2
D 3h2 = 2b2
Answer: B
Explanation:
Consider the triangle APB. ∠P = 600 and AP = BP => APB is an equilateral triangle.
Hence AP = b…(1)
AC2 = AB2 + BC2
AC2 = b2 + b2 => AC = √2 × b => AO = AC/2 = b/√2
AP2 = AO2 +OP2
b2 =b2 /2 + h2 …From (1)
2h2 = b2
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Q. 83 In the triangle ABC, AB = 6, BC = 8 and AC = 10. A perpendicular dropped from B, meets the side AC at D. A circle of radius BD (with center B) is drawn. If the circle cuts AB and BC at P and Q respectively, the AP:QC is equal to
A 1:1
B 3:2
C 4:1
D 3:8
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let BD = x .Semi-perimeter of triangle ABC = 12. Now by herons formula area of ABC is 24. Also Area = 0.5*x*10 . We get x = 24/5 . AP = 6/5 and CQ = 16/5 . Hence the required ratio is 3:8.
Q. 84 In the diagram given below, ∠ABD = ∠CDB = ∠PQD = 90° . If AB:CD = 3:1, the ratio of CD: PQ is
A 1 : 0.69
B 1 : 0.75
C 1 : 0.72
D None of the above.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Let BQ = z , QD = y , PQ = x.
From similar triangles PQD and ABD we have
(y/x) = (z+y)/3 .
Also from similar triangles PQB and CBD we have
(z/x) = z+y .
Solving we get z = 3*y.
Now the required ratio is (z+y)/z.
We get equal to 4/3 which is equal to 1:0.75.
Q. 85 There are 8436 steel balls, each with a radius of 1 centimeter, stacked in a pile, with 1 ball on top, 3 balls in the second layer, 6 in the third layer, 10 in the fourth, and so on. The number of horizontal layers in the pile is
A 34
B 38
C 36
D 32
Answer: C
Explanation:
For the given problem ,
∑n(n + 1)/2 = 8436 which is
∑n2/2 + ∑n/2 = 8436 which is equal to
n*(n+1)(2n+1)/12 + n*(n+1)/4 = 8436 , solving we get n=36.
Solving the equation might be lengthy. you can substitute the values in the options to arrive at the answer.
Q. 86 If the product of n positive real numbers is unity, then their sum is necessarily
A a multiple of n
B equal to n + 1/n
C never less than n
D a positive integer
Answer: C
Explanation:
Let a1, a2….an.the numbers be
Since the numbers are positive,
AM ≥ GM
(a1+a2+a3….+an )/ n ≥(a1 ∗ a2…. ∗ an)1/n
a1 + a2 + a3…. + an ≥ n
Q. 87 If log32, log3(2x − 5), log3(2x − 7/2) are in arithmetic progression, then the value of x is equal to
A 5
B 4
C 2
D 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
2log(2x − 5) = log2 + log(2x − 7/2)
Let 2x = t
=> (t − 5)2 = 2(t − 7/2)
=> t2 + 25 − 10t = 2t − 7
=> t2 − 12t + 32 = 0
=> t = 8, 4
Therefore, x = 2 or 3, but 2x > 5, so x = 3
Q. 88 In the figure below, AB is the chord of a circle with center O. AB is extended to C such that BC = OB. The straight line CO is produced to meet the circle at D. If ∠ACD= y degrees and ∠AOD= x degrees such that x = ky, then the value of k is
A 3
B 2
C 1
D None of the above.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Since Angle BOC = Angle BCO = y.
Angle OBC = 180-2y .
Hence Angle ABO = z = 2y = Angle OAB.
Now since x is the exterior angle of triangle AOC .
We have x = z + y = 3y.
Hence option A.
Q. 89 In the figure below, the rectangle at the corner measures 10 cm × 20 cm. The corner A of the rectangle is also a point on the circumference of the circle. What is the radius of the circle in cm?
A 10 cm
B 40 cm
C 50 cm
D None of the above.
Answer: C
Explanation:
As seen in the fig. we have a right angled triangle with sides r ,r-10 , r-20.
r2 = (r − 10)2 + (r − 20)2
Using pythagoras we have .
Solving the equation, we get r = 10 or 50.
But 10 is not possible , so r = 50.
Hence the radius is 50.
Q. 90 Given that −1 ≤ v ≤ 1, −2 ≤ u ≤ −0.5 and −2 ≤ z ≤ −0.5 and w = vz/u , then which of the following is necessarily true?
A −0.5 ≤ w ≤ 2
B −4 ≤ w ≤ 4
C −4 ≤ w ≤ 2
D −2 ≤ w ≤ −0.5
Answer: B
Explanation:
We know w = vz/u so taking max value of u and min value of v and z to get min value of w which is -4. Similarly taking min value of u and max value of v and z to get max value of w which is 4
Take v = 1, z = -2 and u = -0.5, we get w = 4
Take v = -1, z = -2 and u = -0.5, we get w = -4
Q. 91 There are 6 boxes numbered 1,2,… 6. Each box is to be filled up either with a red or a green ball in such a way that at least 1 box contains a green ball and the boxes containing green balls are consecutively numbered. The total number of ways in which this can be done is
A 5
B 21
C 33
D 60
Answer: B
Explanation:
If there is only 1 green ball, it can be done in 6 ways
If there are 2 green balls, it can be done in 5 ways.
If there are 6 green balls, it can be done in 1 way.
So, the total number of possibilities is 6*7/2 = 21
Q. 92 Consider the following two curves in the x-y plane:
y = x3 + x2 + 5
y = x2 + x + 5
Which of the following statements is true for −2 ≤ x ≤ 2 ?
A The two curves intersect once.
B The two curves intersect twice.
C The two curves do not intersect
D The two curves intersect thrice.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Equate the 2 equations we get the value of x = 1 and -1 . Also we notice that there is an intersection at x=0 . hence D
Q. 93 In a certain examination paper, there are no questions. For j = 1,2 …n, there are 2n−j students who answered j or more questions wrongly. If the total number of wrong answers is 4095, then the value of n is
A 12
B 11
C 10
D 9
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let there only be 2 questions.
Thus there are 22−1= 2 students who have done 1 or more questions wrongly, 22−2 = 1 students who have done all 2 questions wrongly .
Thus total number of wrong answers = 2 + 1 = 3= 2n − 1.
Now let there be 3 questions. Then j = 1,2,3
Number of students answering 1 or more questions incorrectly = 4
Number of students answering 2 or more questions incorrectly = 2
Number of students answering 3 or more questions incorrectly = 1
Total number of incorrect answers = 1(3)+(2-1)*2+(4-2)*1 = 7 = 23 − 1
According to the Q. , the total number of wrong answers = 4095 = 212 − 1 .
Hence Option A.
Q. 94 If x, y, z are distinct positive real numbers the (x2(y + z) + y2(x + z) + z2(x + y))/xyz would be
A greater than 4
B greater than 5
C greater than 6
D None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation:
For the given expression value of x,y,z are distinct positive integers . So the value of expression will always be greater than value when all the 3 variables are equal . substitute x=y=z we get minimum value of 6 .
Applying AM greater than or equal to GM, we get minimum sum = 6
Q. 95 A graph may be defined as a set of points connected by lines called edges. Every edge connects a pair of points. Thus, a triangle is a graph with 3 edges and 3 points. The degree of a point is the number of edges connected to it. For example, a triangle is a graph with three points of degree 2 each. Consider a graph with 12 points. It is possible to reach any point from any point through a sequence of edges. The number of edges, e, in the graph must satisfy the condition
A 11 ≤ e ≤ 66
B 10 ≤ e ≤ 66
C 11 ≤ e ≤ 65
D 0 ≤ e ≤ 11
Answer: A
Explanation:
Take any 12 points.
The maximum number of edges which can be drawn through these 12 points are 12C2 = 66
The minimum number of edges which can be drawn through these 12 points are 12-1 = 11 as the resulting figure need not be closed. It might be open.
Q. 96 The number of positive integers n in the range 12 ≤ n ≤ 40 such that the product (n -1)*(n – 2)*…*3*2*1 is not divisible by n is
A 5
B 7
C 13
D 14
Answer: B
Explanation:
positive integers n in the range 12 ≤ n ≤ 40 such that the product (n -1)*(n – 2)*…*3*2*1 is not divisible by n, implies that n should be a prime no. So there are 7 prime nos. in the given range. Hence option B.
Q. 97 Let T be the set of integers {3,11,19,27,…451,459,467} and S be a subset of T such that the sum of no two elements of S is 470. The maximum possible number of elements in S is
A 32
B 28
C 29
D 30
Answer: D
Explanation:
No. of terms in series T , 3+(n-1)*8 = 467 i.e. n=59.
Now S will have at least 59 terms i.e 29 .
Also the sum of 29th term and 30th term is less than 470.
Hence, the maximum possible elements in S is 30.
Instructions
DIRECTIONS for the following two questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Some children were taking free throws at the basketball court in school during lunch break. Below are some facts about how many baskets these children shot.
i. Ganesh shot 8 baskets less than Ashish.
ii. Dhanraj and Ramesh together shot 37 baskets.
iii. Jugraj shot 8 baskets more than Dhanraj.
iv. Ashish shot 5 baskets more than Dhanraj.
v. Ashish and Ganesh together shot 40 baskets.
Q. 98 Which of the following statements is true?
A Ramesh shot 18 baskets and Dhanraj shot 19 baskets
B Ganesh shot 24 baskets and Ashish shot 16 baskets
C Jugraj shot 19 baskets and Dhanraj shot 27 baskets
D Dhanraj shot 11 baskets and Ashish shot 16 baskets
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let a,d,j,g be the shots put by Ashish, Dhanraj, Ganesh and Jugraj respectively.
According to given conditions we have ,
g = a-8; d + r = 37; j = d + 8; a = 5 + d; a + g = 40
Solving these equations, we have a = 24, d = 19 and j = 27 and r = 18. Hence option A is the correct answer.
Instructions
DIRECTIONS for the following three questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
A city has two perfectly circular and concentric ring roads, the outer ring road (OR) being twice as long as the inner ring road (IR). There are also four (straight line) chord roads from E1, the east end point of OR to N2, the north end point of IR; from N1, the north end point of OR to W2, the west end point of IR; from W1, the west end point of OR, to S2, the south end point of IR; and from S1 the south end point of OR to E2, the east end point of IR. Traffic moves at a constant speed of 30π km/hr on the OR road, 20π km/hr on the IR road, and 15√5 km/hr on all the chord roads.
Q. 99 Amit wants to reach N2 from S1. It would take him 90 minutes if he goes on minor arc S1 – E1 on OR, and then on the chord road E1 – N2. What is the radius of the outer ring road in kms?
A 60
B 40
C 30
D 20
Answer: C
Explanation:
We know that the total time taken is 1.5 hrs. Calculating the individual time taken and the adding and then equating to 1.5.
(π∗R)/(2∗30∗π) + (√5∗R)/ 2∗15∗√5 = 1.5
solving we get R=30.
Q. 100 Amit wants to reach E2 from N1 using first the chord N1 – W2 and then the inner ring road. What will be his travel time in minutes on the basis of information given in the above question?
A 60
B 45.
C 90
D 105
Answer: D
Explanation:
Let the radii of 2 circles be R and r respectively such that R=2*r. Triangle O $$N_2E_1 And all the other 3 similar triangles form a right angle at the centre. So using pythagoras theorem the value of chords come out to be 52∗R/2.Hence the total distance traveled is 52* R/2 + 0.5*R*pi. Total time required can be calculated by distance / speed which comes out to be 3.5*R. Among options only 105 is integral multiple of 3.5.
Verbal
Instructions
At the heart of the enormous boom in wine consumption that has taken place in the English speaking world over the last two decades or so is a fascinating, happy paradox. In the days when wine was exclusively the preserve of a narrow cultural elite, bought either at auctions or from gentleman wine merchants in wing collars and bow-ties, to be stored in rambling cellars and decanted to order by one’s butler, the ordinary drinker didn’t get a look-in. Wine was considered a highly technical subject, in which anybody without the necessary ability could only fall flat on his or her face in embarrassment. It wasn’t just that you needed a refined aesthetic sensibility for the stuff if it wasn’t to be hopelessly wasted on you. It required an intimate knowledge of what came from where, and what it was supposed to taste like.
Those were times, however, when wine appreciation essentially meant a familiarity with the great French classics, with perhaps a smattering of other wines — like sherry and port. That was what the wine trade dealt in. These days, wine is bought daily in supermarkets and high-street chains to be consumed that evening, hardly anybody has a cellar to store it in and most don’t even possess a decanter. Above all, the wines of literally dozens of countries are available on our market. When a supermarket offers its customers a couple of fruity little numbers from Brazil, we scarcely raise an eyebrow.
It seems, in other words, that the commercial jungle that wine has now become has not in the slightest deterred people from plunging adventurously into the thickets in order to taste and see. Consumers are no longer intimidated by the thought of needing to know their Pouilly-Fume from their Pouilly-Fuisse, just at the very moment when there is more to know than ever before.
The reason for this new mood of confidence is not hard to find. It is on every wine label from Australia, New Zealand, South Africa and the United States: the name of the grape from which the wine is made. At one time that might have sounded like a fairly technical approach in itself. Why should native English-speakers know what Cabernet Sauvignon or Chardonnay were? The answer lies in the popularity that wines made from those grape varieties now enjoy. Consumers effectively recognize them as brand names, and have acquired a basic lexicon of wine that can serve them even when confronted with those Brazilian upstarts.
In the wine heartlands of France, they are scared to death of that trend—not because they think their wine isn’t as good as the best from California or South Australia (what French winemaker will ever admit that?) but because they don’t traditionally call their wines Cabernet Sauvignon or Chardonnay. They call them Château Ducru Beaucaillou or Corton Charlemagne, and they aren’t about the change. Some areas, in the middle of southern France, have now produced a generation of growers using the varietal names on their labels and are tempting consumers back to French wine. It will be an uphill struggle, but there is probably no other way if France is to avoid simply becoming a specialty source of old fashioned wines for old fashioned connoisseurs.
Wine consumption was also given a significant boost in the early 1990s by the work of Dr. Serge Renaud, who has spent many years investigating the reasons for the uncannily low incidence of coronary heart disease in the south of France. One of his major findings is that the fat-derived cholesterol that builds up in the arteries and can eventually lead to heart trouble, can be dispersed by the tannins in wine. Tannin is derived from the skins of grapes, and is therefore present in higher levels in red wines, because they have to be infused with their skins to attain the red colour. That news caused a
huge upsurge in red wine consumption in the United States. It has not been accorded the prominence it deserves in the UK, largely because the medical profession still sees all alcohol as a menace to health, and is constantly calling for it to be made prohibitively expensive. Certainly, the manufacturers of anticoagulant drugs might have something to lose if we all got the message that we would do just as well by our hearts by taking half a bottle of red wine every day!
Q. 101 The tone that the author uses while asking “what French winemaker will ever admit that?” is best described as
A caustic
B satirical
C critical
D hypocritical
Answer: B
Explanation:
The tone which the author uses while asking “what French winemaker will ever admit that? ” is not at all harsh , so option a) is out . Also the author doesn’t criticize while asking the Q. ,so Option c ) is clearly not the answer. We don’t find any author professing any feelings which he doesn’t have , hence the tone is not hypocritical. Option b ,suits the best i.e. his tone is satirical.
Q. 102 What according to the author should the French do to avoid becoming a producer of merely old fashioned wines?
A Follow the labeling strategy of the English-speaking countries
B Give their wines English names
C Introduce fruity wines as Brazil has done
D Produce the wines that have become popular in the English-speaking world
Answer: A
Explanation:
Refer to the part of the passage which says ‘ …not because they think their wine isn’t as good as the best from California …and they aren’t about the change…probably no other way if France is to avoid simply becoming a specialty source of old fashioned wines for old fashioned connoisseurs. ‘ .
From this, we can see that the author feels that the French should adopt the labeling strategy of the English-speaking countries to avoid becoming a producer of merely old-fashioned wines.
Option a) is the correct answer.
Q. 103 The development which has created fear among winemakers in the wine heartland of France is the
A tendency not to name wines after the grape varieties that are used in the wines
B ‘education’ that consumers have derived from wine labels from English speaking countries. C new generation of local winegrowers who use labels that show names of grape varieties
D ability of consumers to understand a wine’s qualities when confronted with “Brazilian upstarts”.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Consider the following part of the passage ‘ .. Consumer effectively recognize them as brand names, and have acquired a basic lexicon of wine …. with those Brazilian upstarts. In the wine heartlands of France, they are scared to death of that trend.. ‘. So, above all, French winemakers fear the knowledge or education that the consumers have derived from wine labels from the English speaking countries. Option b) is the correct answer.
Q. 104 Which one of the following, if true, would provide most support for Dr. Renaud’s findings about the effect of tannins?
A A survey showed that film celebrities based in France have a low incidence of coronary heart disease.
B Measurements carries out in southern France showed red wine drinkers had significantly higher levels of coronary heart incidence than white wine drinkers did.
C Data showed a positive association between sales of red wine and incidence of coronary heart disease.
D Long-term surveys in southern France showed that the incidence of coronary heart disease was significantly lower in red wine drinkers than in those who did not drink red wine.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Dr. Renaud findings suggest that fat-derived cholesterol can be dispersed by the tannins in wine. So, a survey that validates this finding would provide the most support. The survey in option d) is precisely one such survey. Option d) is the correct answer.
Q. 105 Which one of the following CANNOT be reasonably attributed to the labeling strategy of followed by wine producers in English speaking countries?
A Consumers buy wines on the basis of their familiarity with a grape variety’s name.
B Even ordinary customers now have more access to technical knowledge about wine.
C Consumers are able to appreciate better quality wines.
D Some non-English speaking countries like Brazil indicate grape variety names on their labels. Answer: C
Explanation:
Consumers’ appreciation of better quality wines is something that does not come because of the labeling or branding. So, this appreciation cannot be attributed to the labeling strategy followed by wine producers in English speaking countries.
Option c) is the correct answer.
Instructions
Right through history, imperial powers have clung to their possessions to death. Why, then, did Britain in 1947 give up the jewel in its crown, India? For many reasons. The independence struggle exposed the hollowness of the white man’s burden. Provincial self-rule since 1935 paved the way for full self-rule. Churchill resisted independence, but the Labour government
of Atlee was anti-imperialist by ideology. Finally, the Royal Indian Navy mutiny in 1946 raised fears of a second Sepoy mutiny, and convinced British waverers that it was safer to withdraw gracefully. But politico-military explanations are not enough. The basis of empire was always money. The end of empire had much to do with the fact that British imperialism had ceased to be profitable. World War II left Britain victorious but deeply indebted, needing Marshall Aid and loans from the World Bank. This constituted a strong financial case for ending the no-longer profitable empire.
Empire building is expensive. The US is spending one billion dollars a day in operations in Iraq that fall well short of full scale imperialism. Through the centuries, empire building was costly, yet constantly undertaken because it promised high returns. The investment was in armies and conquest. The returns came through plunder and taxes from the conquered.
No immorality was attached to imperial loot and plunder. The biggest conquerors were typically revered (hence titles like Alexander the Great, Akbar the Great, and Peter the Great). The bigger and richer the empire, the more the plunderer was admired. This mindset gradually changed with the rise of new ideas about equality and governing for the public good, ideas that culminated in the French and American revolutions.
Robert Clive was impeached for making a little money on the side, and so was Warren Hastings. The white man’s burden came up as a new moral rationale for conquest. It was supposedly for the good of the conquered. This led to much muddled hypocrisy. On the one hand, the empire needed to be profitable. On the other hand, the white man’s burden made brazen loot impossible.
An additional factor deterring loot was the 1857 Sepoy Mutiny. Though crushed, it reminded the British vividly that they were a tiny ethnic group who could not rule a gigantic subcontinent without the support of important locals. After 1857, the British stopped annexing one princely state after another, and instead treated the princes as allies. Land revenue was fixed in absolute terms, partly to prevent local unrest and partly to promote the notion of the white man’s burden. The empire proclaimed itself to be a protector of the Indian peasant against exploitation by Indian elites. This was denounced as hypocrisy by nationalists like Dadabhoy Naoroji in the 19th century, who complained that land taxes led to an enormous drain from India to Britain. Objective calculations by historians like Angus Maddison suggest a drain of perhaps 1.6 percent of Indian Gross National Product in the 19th century. But land revenue was more or less fixed by the Raj in absolute terms, and so its real value diminished rapidly with inflation in the 20th century. By World War II, India had ceased to be a profit center for the British Empire.
Historically, conquered nations paid taxes to finance fresh wars of the conqueror. India itself was asked to pay a large sum at the end of World War I to help repair Britain’s finances. But, as shown by historian Indivar Kamtekar, the independence movement led by Gandhiji changed the political landscape, and made mass taxation of India increasingly difficult. By World War II, this had become politically impossible. Far from taxing India to pay for World War II, Britain actually began paying India for its contribution of men and goods. Troops from white dominions like Australia; Canada and New Zealand were paid for entirely by these countries, but Indian costs were shared by the British government. Britain paid in the form of nonconvertible sterling balances, which mounted swiftly. The conqueror was paying the conquered, undercutting the profitability on which all empire is founded. Churchill opposed this, and wanted to tax India rather than owe it money. But he was overruled by Indian hands who said India would resist payment, and paralyze the war effort. Leo Amery, Secretary of State for India, said that when you are driving in a taxi to the station to catch a life-or-death train, you do not loudly announce that you have doubts whether to pay the fare. Thus, World War II converted India from a debtor to a creditor with over one billion pounds in sterling balances. Britain, meanwhile, became the biggest debtor in the world. It’s not worth ruling over people you are afraid to tax.
Q. 106 Why didn’t Britain tax India to finance its World War II efforts?
A Australia, Canada and New Zealand had offered to pay for Indian troops.
B India has already paid a sufficiently large sum during World War I.
C It was afraid that if India refused to pay, Britain’s war efforts would be jeopardized.
D The British empire was built on the premise that the conqueror pays the conquered.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Consider the following lines from the passage: “But he was overruled by Indian hands who said India would resist payment and paralyse the war effort”. From this, we can understand the reason why the British didn’t tax India to finance its war efforts. It was afraid that if India refused to pay, Britain’s war efforts would be jeopardized. Option c) is the correct answer.
Q. 107 What was the main lesson the British learned from the Sepoy Mutiny of 1857.
A That the local princes were allies, not foes.
B That the land revenue from India would decline dramatically.
C That the British were a small ethnic group.
D That India would be increasingly difficult to rule.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Refer to the 5th paragraph. It says “Though crushed, it reminded the British vividly that they were a tiny ethnic group who could not rule a gigantic subcontinent without the support of the important locals”. From this, we can understand that the main lesson that the British learnt from the Sepoy Mutiny of 1857 was that they were a small ethnic group. Option c) is the correct answer
Q. 108 Which of the following was NOT a reason for the emergence of the ‘white man’s burden’ as a new rationale for empire-building in India?
A The emergence of the idea of the public good as an element of governance.
B The decreasing returns from imperial loot and increasing costs of conquest.
C The weakening of the immorality attached to an emperor’s looting behaviour.
D A growing awareness of the idea of equality among peoples.
Answer: B
Explanation:
If the returns from conquest decreased and the costs increased, it wouldn’t make sense to continue empire-building in India. So, the sentence in option b) is not a reason for the emergence of the ‘white man’s burden’ as a new rationale for empire-building in India.
Q. 109 Which of the following best captures the meaning of the ‘white man’s burden’, as it is used by the author?
A The British claim to a civilizing mission directed at ensuring the good of the natives.
B The inspiration for the French and American revolutions.
C The resource drain that had to be borne by the home country’s white population.
D An imperative that made open looting of resources impossible.
Answer: A
Explanation:
White man’s burden refers to the claim made by the British that the natives of the conquered countries were in need of the ‘good’ provided by them. This was a justification for their conquests. Option a) captures this idea succinctly.
Q. 110 Which one of the following best expresses the main purpose of the author?
A To present the various reasons that can lead to the collapse of an empire and the granting of independence of the subjects of an empire.
B To point out the critical role played by the ‘white man’s burden’ in making a colonizing power give up its claims to native possessions.
C To highlight the contradictory impulse underpinning empire building which is a costly business but very attractive at the same time.
D To illustrate how erosion of the financial basis of an empire supports the granting of independence to an empire’s constituents.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Throughout the passage, the author talks about the various financial reasons for conquest and explains how the British
were forced to grant independence when their returns from India diminished after the war. The main idea of the passage is to illustrate how the erosion of the financial basis of an empire supports the granting of independence to an empire’s constituents. Option d) is the correct answer.
Instructions
The controversy over genetically modified food continues unabated in the West. Genetic modification (GM) is the science by which the genetic material of a plant is altered, perhaps to make it more resistant to pests or killer weeds, or to enhance its nutritional value. Many food biotechnologists claim that GM will be a major contribution of science to mankind in the 21st century. On the other hand, large numbers of opponents, mainly in Europe, claim that the benefits of GM are a myth propagated by multinational corporations to increase their profits, that they pose a health hazard, and have therefore called for government to ban the sale of genetically-modified food.
The anti-GM campaign has been quite effective in Europe, with several European Union member countries imposing a virtual ban for five years over genetically-modified food imports. Since the genetically-modified food industry is particularly strong in the United States of America, the controversy also constitutes another chapter in the US-Europe skirmishes which have become particularly acerbic after the US invasion of Iraq.
To a large extent, the GM controversy has been ignored in the Indian media, although Indian biotechnologists have been quite active in GM research. Several groups of Indian biotechnologists have been working on various issues connected with crops grown in India. One concrete achievement which has recently figured in the news is that of a team led by the former vice-chancellor of Jawaharlal Nehru university, Asis Datta — it has successfully added an extra gene to potatoes to enhance the protein content of the tuber by at least 30 percent. It is quite likely that the GM controversy will soon hit the headlines in India since a spokesperson of the Indian Central government has recently announced that the government may use the protato in its midday meal programme for schools as early as next year.
Why should “scientific progress”, with huge potential benefits to the poor and malnourished, be so controversial? The anti GM lobby contends that pernicious propaganda has vastly exaggerated the benefits of GM and completely evaded the costs which will have to be incurred if the genetically-modified food industry is allowed to grow unchecked. In particular, they allude to different types of costs.
This group contends that the most important potential cost is that the widespread distribution and growth of genetically modified food will enable the corporate world (alias the multinational corporations – MNCs) to completely capture the food chain. A “small” group of biotech companies will patent the transferred genes as well as the technology associated with them. They will then buy up the competing seed merchants and seed-breeding centers, thereby controlling the production of food at every possible level. Independent farmers, big and small, will be completely wiped out of the food industry. At best, they will be reduced to the status of being subcontractors.
This line of argument goes on to claim that the control of the food chain will be disastrous for the poor since the MNCs, guided by the profit motive, will only focus on the high-value food items demanded by the affluent. Thus, in the long run, the production of basic staples which constitute the food basket of the poor will taper off. However, this vastly overestimates the power of the MNCs. Even if the research promoted by them does focus on the high-value food items, much of biotechnology research is also funded by governments in both developing and developed countries. Indeed, the protato is a by-product of this type of research. If the protato passes the field trials, there is no reason to believe that it cannot be marketed in the global potato market. And this type of success story can be repeated with other basic food items.
The second type of cost associated with the genetically modified food industry is environmental damage. The most common type of “genetic engineering” involved gene modification in plants designed to make them resistant to applications of weed-killers. This then enables farmers to use massive dosages of weedkillers so as to destroy or wipe out all competing varieties of plants in their field. However, some weeds through genetically-modified pollen contamination may acquire resistance to a variety of weed-killers. The only way to destroy these weeds is through the use of ever stronger herbicides which are poisonous and linger on in the environment.
Q. 111 The author doubts the anti-GM lobby’s contention that MNC control of the food chain will be disastrous for the poor because
A MNCs will focus on high-value food items.
B MNCs are driven by the motive of profit maximization.
C MNCs are not the only group of actors in genetically-modified food research.
D Economic development will help the poor buy MNC-produced food.
Answer: C
Explanation:
By the line “Even if the research promoted by them ………………. in both developing and developed countries”, we can say that not only MNCs but also governments are involved in the research development.
So, MNCs are not the only group actors that are involved in genetically modified food research. Hence, option C is the answer.
Q. 112 Using the clues in the passage, which of the following countries would you expect to be in the forefront of the anti-GM campaign?
A USA and Spain.
B India and Iraq.
C Germany and France.
D Australia and New Zealand.
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to the passage, European nations are anti GM. So, among the given options we must select those countries that are present in Europe.
USA is not in Europe => option A is wrong.
India is not in Europe => option B is wrong.
Australia is not in Europe => option D is wrong.
Both Germany and France are in Europe => option C is the answer.
Q. 113 Genetic modification makes plants more resistant to killer weeds. However, this can lead to environmental damage by
A wiping out competing varieties of plants which now fall prey to killer weeds.
B forcing application of stronger herbicides to kill weeds which have become resistant to weak herbicides. C forcing application of stronger herbicides to keep the competing plants weed-free.
D not allowing growth of any weeds, thus reducing soil fertility.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Refer to the last lines of the passage:”However, some weeds through genetically-modified pollen contamination may acquire resistance to a variety of weed-killers. The only way to destroy these weeds is through the use of ever-stronger herbicides which are poisonous and linger on in the environment.” This line indicates the point made in 2 that once the weeds acquire resistance to weak herbicides, we have to apply stronger ones to eradicate them.
Q. 114 According to the passage, biotechnology research
A is of utility only for high value food items.
B is funded only by multinational corporations.
C allows multinational corporations to control the food basket of the poor.
D addresses the concerns of developed and developing countries.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Refer to the lines made in the paragraph:”Even if the research promoted by them does focus on the high-value food items, much of biotechnology research is also funded by governments in both developing and developed countries. Indeed, the protato is a by-product of this type of research. If the protato passes the field trials, there is no reason to believe that it cannot be marketed in the global potato market. And this type of success story can be repeated with other basic food items.” Here the author wants to illustrate that biotechnology resarch helps to address the concerns of the developing countries. For this illustration, the author gives the exmaple of potatoes.
Q. 115 Which of the following about the Indian media’s coverage of scientific research does the passage seem to suggest?
A Indian media generally covers a subject of scientific importance when its mass application is likely.
B Indian media’s coverage of scientific research is generally dependent on MNCs interests.
C Indian media, in partnership with the government, is actively involved in publicizing the results of scientific research.
D Indian media only highlights scientific research which is funded by the government.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Refer to the following lines in the passage:”It is quite likely that the GM controversy will soon hit the headlines in India since a spokesperson of the Indian Central government has recently announced that the government may use the protato in its midday meal programme for schools as early as next year. Why should “scientific progress”, with huge potential benefits to the poor and malnourished, be so controversial?” Here the author wants to highlight that the scientific progress which has a huge impact on large number of people is likely to be covered by the media.
Instructions
Social life is an outflow and meeting of personality, which means that its end is the meeting of character, temperament, and sensibility, in which our thoughts and feelings, and sense perceptions are brought into play at their lightest and yet keenest.
This aspect, to my thinking, is realized as much in large parties composed of casual acquaintances or even strangers, as in intimate meetings of old friends. I am not one of those superior persons who hold cocktail parties in contempt, looking upon them as barren or at best as very tryingly kaleidoscopic places for gathering, because of the strangers one has to meet in them; which is no argument, for even our most intimate friends must at one time have been strangers to us. These large gatherings will be only what we make of them if not anything better, they can be as good places to collect new friends from as the slave markets of Istanbul were for beautiful slaves or New Market for race horses.
But they do offer more immediate enjoyment. For one thing, in them one can see the external expression of social life in appearance and behaviour at its widest and most varied where one can admire beauty of body or air, hear voices remarkable either for sweetness of refinement, look on elegance of clothes or deportment. What is more, these parties are schools for training in sociability, for in them we have to treat strangers as friends. So, in them we see social sympathy in widest commonalty spread, or at least should. We show an atrophy of the natural human instinct of getting pleasure and happiness out of other human beings if we cannot treat strangers as friends for the moment. And I would go further and paraphrase Pater to say that not to be able to discriminate every moment some passionate attitude in those about us, even when we meet them casually, is on this short day of frost and sun which out life is, to sleep before evening.
So, it will be seen that my conception of social life is modest, for it makes no demands on what we have, though it does make some on what we are. Interest, wonder, sympathy, and love, the first two leading to the last two, are the psychological prerequisites for social life; and the need for the first two must not be underrated. We cannot make the most even of our intimate social life unless we are able to make strangers of our oldest friends everyday by discovering unknown areas in their personality, and transform them into new friends. In sum, social life is a function of vitality.
It is tragic, however, to observe that it is these very natural springs of social life which are drying up among us. It is becoming more and more difficult to come across fellow-feeling for human beings as such in our society and in all its strata.
In the poor middle class, in the course of all my life. I have hardly seen any social life properly so-called. Not only has the grinding routine of making a living killed all desire for it in them, it has also generated a standing mood of peevish hostility to other human beings. Increasing economic distress in recent years has infinitely worsened this state of affairs, and has also brought a sinister addition class hatred. This has become the greatest collective emotional enjoyment of the poor middle class, and indeed they feel most social when they form a pack, and snarl or howl at people who are better off than they.
Their most innocent exhibition of sociability is seen when they spill out from their intolerable homes into the streets and bazaars. I was astonished to see the milling crowds in the poor suburbs of Calcutta. But even there a group of flippant young loafers would put on a conspiratorial look if they saw a man in good clothes passing by them either on foot or in a car. I had borrowed a car from a relative to visit a friend in one of these suburbs, and he became very anxious when I had not returned before dusk. Acid and bombs, he said, were thrown at card almost every evening in that area. I was amazed. But I also know as a fact that my brother was blackmailed to pay five rupees on a trumped up charge when passing in a car through one such locality.
The situation is differently inhuman, but not a whit more human, among the well-to-do. Kindliness for fellow human beings has been smothered in them, taken as a class, by the arrogance of worldly position, which among the Bengalis who show this snobbery is often only a third-class position.
Q. 116 The word ‘they’ in the first sentence of the third paragraph refers to
A Large parties consisting of casual acquaintances and strangers.
B Intimate meetings of old friends.
C New friends.
D Both (1) and (2).
Answer: A
Explanation:
Refer to the last lines of the second paragraph:”These large gatherings will be only what we make of them if not anything better, they can be as good places to collect new friends from as the slavemarkets of Istanbul were for beautiful slaves or New Market for race horses.”
Here “They” refers to the large gatherings of casual acquaintances as illustrated in these lines
Q. 117 In this passage the author is essentially
A showing how shallow our social life is.
B poking fun at the lower middle class people who howl at better off people.
C lamenting the drying up of our real social life.
D criticizing the upper class for lavish showy parties.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The passage starts with the author’s perception of social life. In the whole passage the author criticises the fact that we do not possess any social life. The author also gives his opinions of social life and then moves on to lament our little social life we have left. Option b and d are not clearly the main subject of the author. Option a is inappropriate as the author do not highlight our real social life but rather complaints of the social life.
Q. 118 The author’s conception of ‘social life’ requires that
A People attend large gatherings.
B People possess qualities like wonder and interest.
C People do not spend too much time in the company of intimate friends.
D Large parties consist of casual acquaintances and intimate friends.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The author’s conception of social life is mentioned in the fourth paragraph where he says wonder and interest. Hence B is the correct answer.
Q. 119 The word ‘discriminate’ in the last sentence of the third paragraph means
A recognize.
B count.
C distinguish.
D analyse.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The author is trying to say that people are not able to recognize the passionate attitude.
So, the word “discriminate” in this context means “recognize”.
Q. 120 What is the author trying to show through the two incidents in the paragraph beginning, “Their most innocent exhibition of sociability…”?
A The crowds in poor Calcutta suburbs can turn violent without any provocation.
B Although poor, the people of poor Calcutta suburbs have a rich social life.
C It is risky for rich people to move around in poor suburbs.
D Achieving a high degree of sociability foes not stop the poor from hating the rich.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The author has not mentioned that crowd in poor Calcutta can turn violent => option A is wrong. B negates the statements said by the author in the passage.
C is too generalized to be the answer for this question.
Hence, option D is the answer.
Instructions
Modern science, exclusive of geometry, is a comparatively recent creation and can be said to have originated with Galileo and Newton. Galileo was the first scientist to recognize clearly that the only way to further our understanding of the physical world was to resort to experiment. However obvious Galileo’s contention may appear in the light of our present knowledge, it remains a fact that the Greeks, in spite of their proficiency in geometry, never seem to have realized the importance of experiment. To a certain extent this may be attributed to the crudeness of their instruments of measurement. Still an excuse of this sort can scarcely be put forward when the elementary nature of Galileo’s experiments
and observations is recalled. Watching a lamp oscillate in the cathedral of Pisa, dropping bodies from the leaning tower of Pisa, rolling balls down inclined planes, noticing the magnifying effect of water in a spherical glass vase, such was the nature of Galileo’s experiments and observations. As can be seen, they might just as well have been performed by the Greeks. At any rate, it was thanks to such experiments that Galileo discovered the fundamental law of dynamics, according to which the acceleration imparted to a body is proportional to the force acting upon it.
The next advance was due to Newton, the greatest scientist of all time if account be taken of his joint contributions to mathematics and physics. As a physicist, he was of course an ardent adherent of the empirical method, but his greatest title to fame lies in another direction. Prior to Newton, mathematics, chiefly in the form of geometry, had been studied as a fine art without any view to its physical applications other than in very trivial cases. But with Newton all the resources of mathematics were turned to advantage in the solution of physical problems. Thenceforth mathematics appeared as an instrument of discovery, the most powerful one known to man, multiplying the power of thought just as in the mechanical domain the lever multiplied our physical action. It is this application of mathematics to the solution of physical problems, this combination of two separate fields of investigation, which constitutes the essential characteristic of the Newtonian method. Thus problems of physics were metamorphosed into problems of mathematics.
But in Newton’s day the mathematical instrument was still in a very backward state of development. In this field again Newton showed the mark of genius by inventing the integral calculus. As a result of this remarkable discovery, problems, which would have baffled Archimedes, were solved with ease. We know that in Newton’s hands this new departure in scientific method led to the discovery of the law of gravitation. But here again the real significance of Newton’s achievement lay not so much in the exact quantitative formulation of the law of attraction, as in his having established the presence of law and order at least in one important realm of nature, namely, in the motions of heavenly bodies. Nature thus exhibited rationality and was not mere blind chaos and uncertainty. To be sure, Newton’s investigations had been concerned with but a small group of natural phenomena, but it appeared unlikely that this mathematical law and order should turn out to be restricted to certain special phenomena; and the feeling was general that all the physical processes of nature would prove to be unfolding themselves according to rigorous mathematical laws.
When Einstein, in 1905, published his celebrated paper on the electrodynamics of moving bodies, he remarked that the difficulties, which surrouned the equations of electrodynamics, together with the negative experiments of Michelson and others, would be obviated if we extended the validity of the Newtonian principle of the relativity of Galilean motion, which applies solely to mechanical phenomena, so as to include all manner of phenomena: electrodynamics, optical etc. When extended in this way the Newtonian principle of relativity became Einstein’s special principle of relativity. Its significance lay in its assertion that absolute Galilean motion or absolute velocity must ever escape all experimental detection. Henceforth absolute velocity should be conceived of as physically meaningless, not only in the particular ream of mechanics, as in Newton’s day, but in the entire realm of physical phenomena. Einstein’s special principle, by adding increased emphasis to this relativity of velocity, making absolute velocity metaphysically meaningless, created a still more profound distinction between velocity and accelerated or rotational motion. This latter type of motion remained absolute and real as before. It is most important to understand this point and to realize that Einstein’s special principle is merely an extension of the validity of the classical Newtonian principle to all classes of phenomena.
Q. 121 According to the author, why did the Greeks NOT conduct experiments to understand the physical world?
A Apparently they did not think it necessary to experiment.
B They focused exclusively on geometry.
C Their instruments of measurement were very crude.
D The Greeks considered the application of geometry to the physical world more important. Answer: A
Explanation:
Options B and D negate the information given in the passage => B and D are incorrect.
C is stated in the passage but does not answer the question.
Option A is the correct answer.
Q. 122 The statement “Nature thus exhibited rationality and was not mere blind chaos and uncertainty” suggests that
A problems that had baffled scientists like Archimedes were not really problems.
B only a small group of natural phenomena was chaotic.
C physical phenomena conformed to mathematical laws.
D natural phenomena were evolving towards a less chaotic future.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the second line after the line mentioned in the question, the author says that “the feeling was general that all the physical processes of nature would prove to be unfolding themselves according to the rigorous mathematical laws”.
Option C is the answer.
Q. 123 Newton may be considered one of the greatest scientists of all time because he
A discovered the law of gravitation.
B married physics with mathematics.
C invented integral calculus.
D started the use of the empirical method in science.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The author says that “The next advance was due to Newton, the greatest scientist of all time if account be taken of his joint contributions to mathematics and physics.”
Joint contributions is metaphorically said as married in option B. Hence, option B is the answer.
Q. 124 Which of the following statements about modern science best captures the theme of the passage?
A Modern science rests firmly on the platform built by the Greeks.
B We need to go back to the method of enquiry used by the Greeks to better understand the laws of dynamics.
C Disciplines like Mathematics and Physics function best when integrated into one.
D New knowledge about natural phenomena builds on existing knowledge.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The author says that Einstein’s principle is merely an extension of classical Newtonian principle. Option D agrees with this saying that new knowledge about natural phenomena builds on existing knowledge. Hence, option D is the answer.
Q. 125 The significant implication of Einstein’s special principle of relativity is that
A absolute velocity was meaningless in the realm of mechanics.
B Newton’s principle of relativity needs to be modified.
C there are limits to which experimentation can be used to understand some physical phenomena.
D it is meaningless to try to understand the distinction between velocity and accelerated or rotational motion.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The author says that “Its SIGNIFICANCE lay in its assertion that absolute Galilean motion or absolute velocity must ever escape all experimental detection.”
Here, “it” refers to Einstein’s principle.
The meaning of the sentence is that it is not always possible to experiment.
Option C gives a similar meaning. Hence, C is the answer.
Instructions
As you set out for Ithaka
hope the journey is a long one,
full of adventure, full of discovery.
Laistrygonians and Cyclops,
angry Poseidon – don’t be afraid of them:
you’ll never find things like that on your way
as long as you keep your thoughts raised high,
as long as a rare excitement
stirs your spirit and your body.
Laistrygonians and Cyclops,
wild Poseidon – you won’t encounter them
unless you bring them along inside your soul,
unless your soul sets them up in front of you.
Hope the voyage is a long one,
may there be many a summer morning when,
with what pleasure, what joy,
you come into harbours seen for the first time;
may you stop at Phoenician trading stations
to buy fine things,
mother of pearl and coral, amber and ebony,
sensual perfume of every kind –
as many sensual perfumes as you can;
and may you visit many Egyptian cities
to gather stores of knowledge from their scholars.
Keep Ithaka always in your mind.
Arriving there is what you are destined for.
But do not hurry the journey at all.
Better if it lasts for years,
so you are old by the time you reach the island,
wealthy with all you have gained on the way,
not expecting Ithaka to make you rich.
Ithaka gave you the marvelous journey,
without her you would not have set out.
She has nothing left to give you now.
And if you find her poor, Ithaka won’t have fooled you.
Wise as you will have become, so full of experience,
you will have understood by then what these Ithakas mean.
Q. 126 Which of the following best reflects the central theme of this poem?
A If you don’t have high expectations, you will not be disappointed.
B Don’t rush to your goal; the journey is what enriches you.
C The longer the journey the greater the experiences you gather.
D You cannot reach Ithaka without visiting Egyptian ports.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The four lines “Better if it last for years ………… not expecting Ithaka to make you rich” gives us the central theme of the poem.
It says that the journey is more important than the goal.
This meaning is conveyed in option B.
Hence, option B is the answer.
Q. 127 The poet recommends a long journey. Which of the following is the most comprehensive reason for it?
A You can gain knowledge as well as sensual experience.
B You can visit new cities and harbours.
C You can experience the full range of sensuality.
D You can buy a variety of fine things.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option A gives the big picture of why the poet recommends a long journey.
The remaining options are short-sighted and the poet was not much concerned about them.
Q. 128 In the poem, Ithaka is a symbol of
A the divine mother.
B your inner self.
C the path to wisdom.
D life’s distant goal.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The whole poem was about the goal and the journey to reach the goal.
If we see the lines “Better if it lasts for years …………. not expecting Ithaka to make your rich”, we can see that the poet is comparing Ithaka to life’s distant goal.
Option D is the answer.
Q. 129 What does the poet mean by ‘Laistrygonians’ and ‘Cyclops’?
A Creatures which, along with Poseidon, one finds during a journey.
B Mythological characters that one should not be afraid of.
C Intra-personal obstacles that hinder one’s journey.
D Problems that one has to face to derive the most from one’s journey.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The poet is trying to say that one who pursues the journey to one’s goal must not be afraid of hindrances in that journey. Option C is similar to our conclusion.
Hence, option C is the answer.
Q. 130 Which of the following best reflects the tone of the poem?
A Prescribing.
B Exhorting.
C Pleading.
D Consoling.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The poet says that Ithaka is the reason for one’s journey.
So, he is trying to be encouraging.
Among the given options, only exhorting fits the be correct answer.
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 131 Choose the option that conforms most closely to Standard English usage.
A The running of large businesses consist of getting somebody to make something that somebody else sold to somebody else for more than its cost.
B The running of a large business consists of getting somebody to make something that somebody else will sell to somebody else for more than it costs.
C The running of a large business consists of getting somebody to sell something that somebody else made for more than it cost.
D The running of large businesses consist of getting somebody to make something else that somebody else will sell to somebody else for more than it costs.
E None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option a and d are grammatically incorrect as “The running of large business” is singular and hence should be followed by “consists.” Option c doesn’t make any sense as it is contextually incorrect. Option b is the most appropriate.
Q. 132 Choose the option that conforms most closely to Standard English usage.
A From the sixteenth century onwards, people started feeling disdainful and self-conscious about their body and its products that led to a heightened focus on emotional and bodily regulations.
B The heightened focus on controlling the body and emotions comes from disdain and selfconsciousness about the body and its products, found in the sixteenth century.
C From the sixteenth century onwards, a growing disdain for and self-consciousness about the body and its products took hold, leading to a heightened focus on emotional and bodily regulation.
D The heightened focus on emotional and bodily regulations started from the sixteenth century onwards, when people felt disdain and self-consciousness about the body and its products.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option a is incorrect as the usage of “feeling disdainful” is incorrect. Option d is also incorrect due to the usage of “felt disdain.” Option b is having a tense error as there is a present form used in the sentence.
Q. 133 Choose the option that conforms most closely to Standard English usage.
A We are forced to fall back on fatalism as an explanation of irrational events.
B We are forced to falling back on the fatalism as an explanation of irrational events.
C We are forced to fall back on fatalism as explanations of irrational events.
D We are forced to fall back to fatalism as an explanation of irrational events.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option d is incorrect as “to fatalism” is incorrect, option b is incorrect as the usage of “falling back” is incorrect. Option c is incorrect as “falling back on fatalism” is singular and hence the correct usage should be “explanation” rather than “explanations.”
Q. 134 Choose the option that conforms most closely to Standard English usage.
A Creativity in any field is regarded not only as valuable for itself but also as a service to the nation.
B Creativity in any field is not regarded only as valuable on its own, but also as a service to the nation.
C Creativity, in any field, is not only regarded as valuable, but also as a service to the nation.
D Creativity in any field is regarded not only as valuable in itself but also as a service to the nation.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct usage would be “The creativity is regarded not only as”
Or in order to infer the correct usage we would break the sentence into 2 parts “Creativity in any field is regarded as valuable in itself and also regarded as a service to the nation”.
Q. 135 Choose the option that conforms most closely to Standard English usage.
AIf precision of thought had facilitated precision of behaviour, and if reflection had preceded action, it would be ideal for humans.
B It would be ideal for humans if reflection preceded action and precision of thought facilitated precision of behaviour.
C It would be ideal for humans if precedence of reflection was followed by action and precision of thought, by precise behaviour.
D It would have been ideal for humans, if precise action and behaviour preceded precise reflection.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In this sentence, the ideal situation is satisfactory. “Reflection” should precede action and thought should facilitate behaviour.
Q. 136 Choose the most logical order of sentences among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A. A few months ago I went to Princeton University to see what the young people who are going to be running our country in a few decades are like.
B. I would go to sleep in my hotel room around midnight each night, and when I awoke, my mailbox would be full of replies—sent at 1:15 a.m., 2:59 a.m., 3:23 a.m.
C. One senior told me that she went to bed around two and woke up each morning at seven; she could afford that much rest because she had learned to supplement her full day of work by studying in her sleep.
D. Faculty members gave me the names of a few dozen articulate students, and I sent them e mails, inviting them out to lunch or dinner in small groups.
E. As she was falling asleep she would recite a math problem or a paper topic to herself; she would then sometimes dream about it, and when she woke up, the problem might be solved.
A DABCE
B DACEB
C ADBCE
D AECBD
Answer: C
Explanation:
A is the best opening sentence. It introduces the author’s trip to Princeton University.
This is followed by D, which talks about how the author prepared for his trip by gathering the email ids of a few Princeton students.
B then follows and describes what happened when the author emailed the students of Princeton. The situation is then explained in sentence C and followed by sentence E.
Q. 137 Choose the most logical order of sentences among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. A. Four days later, Oracle announced its own bid for PeopleSoft, and invited the firm’s board to a discussion.
B. Furious that his own plans had been endangered, PeopleSoft’s boss, Craig Conway, called Oracle’s offer “diabolical”, and its boss, Larry Ellison, a “sociopath”.
C. In early June, PeopleSoft said that it would buy J.D. Edwards, a smaller rival.
D. Moreover, said Mr. Conway, he “could imagine no price nor combination of price and other conditions to recommend accepting the offer.”
E. On June 12th, PeopleSoft turned Oracle down.
A CABDE
B CADBE
C CEDAB
D CAEBD
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best opening sentence is C. It gives an introduction to the paragraph saying that Peoplesoft offered to by J.D.Edwards. This is followed by A, which talks about how Oracle wanted to buy Peoplesoft just 4 days later. Statement B then follows, by introducing Peoplesoft’s boss Craig Conway and quoting his statements. D follows B as it continues the statements of Mr.Craig.
E is the concluding sentence.
Q. 138 Choose the most logical order of sentences among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A. Surrendered, or captured, combatants cannot be incarcerated in razor wire cages; this ‘war’ has a dubious legality.
B. How can then one characterize a conflict to be waged against a phenomenon as war? C. The phrase ‘war against terror’, which has passed into the common lexicon, is a huge misnomer.
D. Besides, war has a juridical meaning in international law, which has codified the laws of war, imbuing them with a humanitarian content.
E.Terror is a phenomenon, not an entity—either State or non-State.
A ECDBA
B BECDA
C EBCAD
D CEBDA
Answer: D
Explanation:
C opens the paragraph brilliantly. E follows C and explains why the phrase “war on terror” is a misnomer. B continues the explanation started in E. D then follows, and gives another reason why the phrase doesn’t hold water. A concludes the paragraph aptly.
Q. 139 Choose the most logical order of sentences among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A. I am much more intolerant of a human being’s shortcomings than I am of an animal’s, but in this respect I have been lucky, for most of the people I have come across have been charming.
B. Then you come across the unpleasant human animal—the District Officer who drawled, ‘We chaps are here to help you chaps,’ and then proceeded to be as obstructive as possible.
C. In these cases of course, the fact that you are an animal collector helps; people always seem delighted to meet someone with such an unusual occupation and go out of their way to assist you.
D. Fortunately, these types are rare, and the pleasant ones I have met more than compensated for them—but even so, I think I will stick to animals.
E. When you travel round the world collecting animals you also, of necessity, collect human beings.
A EACBD
B ABDCE
C ECBDA
D ACBDE
Answer: A
Explanation:
BD is a link. This is because B talks about “the unpleasant human animal” that the author has met and D says that such types are fortunately rare. Similarly, AC is a link. A says that the author is intolerant of human shortcomings, but that he has been lucky in meeting mostly charming people. C explains why this might be the case. E is the best opening sentence. The order of sentences is, therefore, EACBD.
Q. 140 Choose the most logical order of sentences among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A.To avoid this, the QWERTY layout put the keys most likely to be hit in rapid succession on opposite sides. This made the keyboard slow, the story goes, but that was the idea.
B. A different layout, which had been patented by August Dvorak in 1936, was shown to be much faster.
C. The QWERTY design (patented by Christopher Sholes in 1868 and sold to Remington in 1873) aimed to solve a mechanical problem of early typewriters.
D.Yet the Dvorak layout has never been widely adopted, even though (with electric typewriters and then PCs) the anti-jamming rational for QWERTY has been defunct for years.
E. When certain combinations of keys were struck quickly, the type bars often jammed.
A BDACE
B CEABD
C BCDEA
D CAEBD
Answer: B
Explanation:
C is the best opening sentence. It says that the Qwerty keyboard was designed for solving a specific problem. E follows and talks about what that problem is. This is followed by A which talks about how the Qwerty design solved this problem. It also talks about the shortcoming of the Qwerty design. This is followed by B which talks about a different design which tried to solve the same problem.
The last sentence is D, which says the second design was never widely adopted even though, with the advent of electrical typewriters and PCs, the original problem of the typrewriters ceased to be a problem anymore.
Q. 141 Choose the option in which the usage of the word ‘Bundle’ is Incorrect or Inappropriate.
A newborn baby was a bundle of joy for the family.
B Mobile operators are offering a bundle of additional benefits.
C He made a bundle in the share market.
D It was sheer luck that brought a bundle of boy-scouts to where I was lying wounded.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option 1 is correct as “bundle of joy” refers to the baby. Option 2 is correct as bundle refers to “a collection of benefits” wrapped together. Option 3 is correct as “made a bundle” means “earning a lot of money.” Option 4 is incorrect usage.
Q. 142 Choose the option in which the usage of the word ‘Distinct’ is Incorrect or Inappropriate.
A He is distinct about what is right and what is wrong.
B Mars became distinct on the horizon in the month of August.
C The distinct strains of Ravi’s violin could be heard above the general din.
D Ghoshbabu’s is a distinct case of water rising above its own level.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option a is incorrect as the correct usage would be “He is distinctive about what is right and what is wrong” Q. 143
Choose the option in which the usage of the word ‘Implication’ is Incorrect or Inappropriate.
A Everyone appreciated the headmaster’s implication in raising flood relief in the village. B This letter will lead to the implication of several industrialists in the market scam.
C Several members of the audience missed the implication of the minister’s promise.
D Death, by implication, is the only solution the poem offers the reader.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option a is incorrect as the correct usage would be “Everyone appreciated the headmaster’s efforts.” “Implication” is the incorrect usage here.
Q. 144 Choose the option in which the usage of the word ‘Host’ is Incorrect or Inappropriate.
A If you host the party, who will foot the bill?
B Kerala’s forests are host to a range of snakes
C Ranchi will play the host to the next national film festival.
D A virus has infected the host computer.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct usage would be “Ranchi will play host”
Q. 145 Choose the option in which the usage of the word ‘Sort’ is Incorrect or Inappropriate.
A What sort of cheese do you use in pizza?
B Farmers of all sort attended the rally.
C They serve tea of a sort on these trains.
D Let’s sort these boys into four groups.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct usage would be “Farmers of all sorts”
Q. 146 Fill in the Blanks:
The British retailer, M&S, today formally ______ defeat in its attempt to ______ King’s, its US subsidiary, since no potential purchasers were ready to cough up the necessary cash.
A admitted, acquire
B conceded, offload
C announced, dispose
D ratified, auction
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option c is incorrect as we never dispose subsidiaries. The usage of dispose is flawed. Option d is incorrect as “formally ratified defeat” is incorrect usage. Option a is incorrect as “acquire” is an incorrect usage because no purchasers are required while acquiring. Option b correctly fits the sentence.
Q. 147 Fill in the Blanks:
Early ______ of maladjustment to college culture is ______ by the tendency to develop friendship networks outside college which mask signals of maladjustment.
A treatment, compounded
B detection, facilitated
C identification, complicated
D prevention, helped
Answer: C
Explanation:
The detection of maladjustment to college culture becomes complicated when we develop friendships outside the college. Hence option c is correct.
Q. 148 Fill in the Blanks:
The ______ regions of Spain all have unique cultures, but the ______ views within each region make the issue of an acceptable common language of instruction an even more contentious one.
A different, discrete
B distinct, disparate
C divergent, distinct
D different, competing
Answer: A
Explanation:
The answer to the first blank is “different”. There are always different regions in a country. On the other hand views can be “discrete” or “distinct.” Hence option a is the most appropriate option.
Q. 149 Fill in the Blanks:
A growing number of these expert professionals ______ having to train foreigners as the students end up ______ the teachers who have to then unhappily contend with no jobs at all or new jobs with drastically reduced pay packets.
A resent, replacing
B resist, challenging
C welcome, assisting
D are, supplanting
Answer: A
Explanation:
The second part of the sentence says that the expert professionals will end up with no jobs. Hence replace is the correct word for the second blank and the answer is option A. “Resent” is the correct answer for the first blank.
Q. 150 Fill in the Blanks:
Companies that try to improve employees’ performance by ______ rewards encourage negative kinds of behavior instead of ______ a genuine interest in doing the work well.
A giving, seeking
B bestowing, discouraging
C conferring, discrediting
D withholding, fostering
Answer: D
Explanation:
In order to complement the phrase “in doing the work well” the second blank must have a positive word hence eliminating options B and C. “Seeking” is a wrong usage in this sentence. Author of this sentence is trying to say that the performance is not improved by withholding the rewards. Hence the answer is option D.
A boy is asked to put one mango in a basket when ordered ‘One’, one orange when ordered ‘Two’, one apple when ordered ‘Three’, and is asked to take out from the basket one mango and an orange when ordered ‘Four’.
A sequence of orders is given as: 1 2 3 3 2 1 4 2 3 1 4 2 2 3 3 1 4 1 1 3 2 3 4
Q. 1 How many total oranges were in the basket at the end of the above sequence?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
Answer: D.
Explanation:
First counting only nos. 1,2 and 3.
So, we have 6 mangoes, 6 oranges and 7 apples.
We have 4 times 4 so finally we have 2 mangoes, 2 oranges and 7 apples, which is a total of 11 fruits.
Q. 2 How many total fruits will be in the basket at the end of the above order sequence?
A. 9
B. 8
C. 11
D. 10
Answer: C.
Explanation:
On counting only numbers 1,2 and 3, we have 6 mangoes, 6 oranges and 7 apples.
We have 4 times number 4 => Finally we have 2 mangoes , 2 oranges and 7 apples. So, a total of 11 fruits.
Instructions
Directions for the next two questions: Answer the questions based on the following information.
Each of the 11 letters A, H, I, M, O, T, U, V, W, X and Z appears same when looked at in a mirror. They are called symmetric letters. Other letters in the alphabet are asymmetric letters.
Q. 3 How many four-letter computer passwords can be formed using only the symmetric letters (no repetition allowed)?
A. 7,920
B. 330
C. 14,640
D. 4,19,430
Answer: A.
Explanation:
The number of ways in which this can be done is 11*10*9*8 = 7920
Q. 4 How many three-letter computer passwords can be formed (no repetition allowed) with at least one symmetric letter?
A. 990
B. 2,730
C. 12,870
D. 15,600
Answer: C.
Explanation:
If there are 3 symmetric letters, it can be formed in 11*10*9 ways
If there are 2 symmetric letters, it can be formed in 11C2 * 15C1 * 3! ways
If there is only 1 symmetric letter, the password can be formed in 15C2*11C1*3! ways Total = 990+330*15+630*11 = 12870 ways
Instructions
Directions for the next two questions: Answer the questions based on the following diagram.
In the following diagram, ∠ABC= 90° = ∠DCH=∠DOE=∠EHK=∠FKL=∠GLM=∠LMN AB = BC = 2CH = 2CD = EH = FK = 2HK = 4KL = 2LM = MN
Q. 5 The magnitude of ∠FGO =
A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. None of these
Answer: D.
Explanation:
The length of FI is twice the length of IG.
So, the sides of the triangle FIG are in the ratio 2:1: √5.
So, angle FGO = angle FGI, which is definitely not equal to 30 or 45 or 60.
Hence, option D. is the answer.
Q. 6 What is the ratio of the areas of the two quadrilaterals ABCD. to DEFG?
A. 1 : 2
B. 2 : 1
C. 12 : 7
D. None of these
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Area of ABCD. = Area of triangle + Area of rectangle = Let AB = x.
So, area = 3/2 ∗ x2/2 =¾ * x2
Area of ODE =½ ∗ x/2 ∗ x/2 = x2/8
Area of OEFI = x/2 ∗ x/2 = x2/4
Area of FGI = x2 /16
Total area of DEFG = 7x2 /16
Required ratio = 12:7
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 7 How many numbers greater than 0 and less than a million can be formed with the digits 0, 7 and 8?
A. 486
B. 1,084
C. 728
D. None of these
Answer: C.
Explanation:
According to given conditions,
number of 1 digit nos. =2,
number of 2 digit nos. =2 ∗ 3,
number of 3 digit nos. = 2 ∗ 32
number of 4 digit nos. =2 ∗ 33 ,
number of 5 digit numbers. =2 ∗ 34,
Number of 6 digit nos. = 2 ∗ 35.
Total summation 2*(1+3+9+27+81+243) = 728 .
Q. 8 If there are 10 positive real numbers n1 < n2 < n3… < n10 , how many triplets of these numbers (n1, n2, n3),(n2, n3, n4) can be generated such that in each triplet the first number is always less than the second number, and the second number is always less than the third number?
A. 45
B. 90
C. 120
D. 180
Answer: C.
Explanation:
For any selection of three numbers, there is only one way in which they can be arranged in ascending order.
So, the answer is 10C3 = 120
Q. 9 In triangle ABC, the internal bisector of ∠A meets BC at D. If AB = 4, AC = 3 and ∠A= 60° , then the length of AD is
A. 2√3
B. 12√3 /7
C. 15√3 / 8
D. 6√3/ 7
Answer: B.
Explanation:
By using cosine rule we can find BC = √13. By angle bisector theorem we have BA. / BD = AC / DC. Also BD + DC = √13.
So by substitution we get we get BD. = 4* √13/7 . Now using cosine rule in triangle ABD. taking AD. = x, we get 12 3
x2 − 4 ∗ √13 ∗ x + 16 ∗ (36/49) = 0.
Solving the equation we get x =12√3 /7.
Q. 10 The length of the common chord of two circles of radii 15 cm and 20 cm, whose centres are 25 cm apart, is
A. 24 cm
B. 25 cm
C. 15 cm
D. 20 cm
Answer: A.
Explanation:
The radii of both the circles and the line joining the centers of the two circles form a right angled triangle. So, the length of the common chord is twice the length of the altitude dropped from the vertex to the hypotenuse.
Let the altitude be h and let it divide the hypotenuse in two parts of length x and 25-x
So, h2 + x2 = 152 and h2 + (25 − x)2 = 202
=>225 − x2 = 400 − x2 + 50x − 625
=> 50x = 450 => x = 9 and h = 12
So, the length of the common chord is 24 cm.
Q. 11 If f(x) = log [(1+x)/(1−x)], then f(x) + f(y) is
A. f(x + y)
B. f(x + y)/(1 +xy)
C. (x + y) f 1/(1+xy)
D. f(x) +f(y) / (1 +xy)
Answer: B.
Explanation:
If f(x)= log [(1+x)/(1-x)] then f(y)= log [(1+y)/(1-y)]
Also Log (A*B)= Log A + Log B
f(x)+f(y) =log [(1+x)(1+y)/(1-x)(1-y)] solving we get log [1+(1+xy) (x+y)/ 1−(1+xy) (x+y)]
Hence option B.
Q. 12 Four horses are tethered at four corners of a square plot of side 14 m so that the adjacent horses can just reach one another. There is a small circular pond of area 20m2 at the centre. Find the ungrazed area.
A. 22m2
B. 42m2
C. 842m2
D. 168m2
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Length of the rope tied to each horse = 7 m.
Total area of the portion that the horses can graze = 4*π72 /4 = 49π
Area of the circular pond = 20 m2
So, area left ungrazed =142 − 20 − 49πm2 = 22m2 (approx)
Q. 13 On a straight road XY, 100 m long, five heavy stones are placed 2 m apart beginning at the end X. A worker, starting at X, has to transport all the stones to Y, by carrying only one stone at a time. The minimum distance he has to travel is
A. 472 m
B. 422 m
C. 744 m
D. 860 m
Answer: D.
Explanation:
The weights are at distances of 0 m, 2 m, 4 m, 6 m and 8 m from X.
Let us first keep all the weights at a distance of 8 m from X. This would be 8 + 6*2 + 4*2 + 2*2 = 32 m.
Now from the point where all the weights are kept is at a distance of 92 m from Y. So total distance required = 184+184+184+184+92 = 828 m.
So in all 860 m
Q. 14 In the figure given below, ABCD is a rectangle. The area of the isosceles right triangle ABE = 7cm2 ; EC = 3(BE). The area of ABCD (in cm2 ) is
A. 21 cm2
B. 28 cm2
C. 42 cm2
D. 56 cm2
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Let AB. = BE = x
Area of triangle ABE =x2/2 = 14; we get x = √14
So we have side BC = 4*√14
Now area is AB*BC = 14 *4 = 56
Q. 15 The area of the triangle whose vertices are (a,a), (a + 1, a + 1) and (a + 2, a) is
A. a3
B. 1
C. 2a
D. 21/2
Answer: B.
Explanation:
The length of three sides is √2,√2 and 2.
This is a right-angled triangle.
Hence, it’s area equals 1/2 ∗ √2 ∗ √2 = 1
So, the correct answer is b)
Q. 16 Instead of walking along two adjacent sides of a rectangular field, a boy took a short cut along the diagonal and saved a distance equal to half the longer side. Then the ratio of the shorter side to the longer side is
A. 1/2
B. 2/3
C. 1/4
D. 3/4
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Let x be the shorter side and y be the longer one. The shortcut route would be of length √(x2 + y2). According to given condition we know that (x+y)- √(x2 + y2)= y/2 . Solving, we get 1=(x/y)+(1/4)
=> x : y = 3 : 4. Hence option D. is the correct answer.
Q. 17 Only a single rail track exists between stations A. and B. on a railway line. One hour after the northbound super fast train N leaves station A. for station B, a south-bound passenger train S reaches station A. from station B. The speed of the super fast train is twice that of a normal express train E, while the speed of a
passenger train S is half that of E. On a particular day, N leaves for B. from A, 20 min behind the normal schedule. In order to maintain the schedule, both N and S increased their speeds. If the super fast train doubles its speed, what should be the ratio (approximately) of the speeds of the passenger train to that of the super fast train so that the passenger train S reaches exactly at the scheduled time at A. on that day?
A. 1 : 3
B. 1 : 4
C. 1 : 5
D. 1 : 6
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Let the speed of an express train be 4x, normal train be 2x and passenger train be x.
Let the distance between the 2 stations be D.
Since there is only 1 railway track, train N must reach station B. before train S leaves.
Therefore, D/4x + D/x = 60
5D/4x = 60
D/x = 48
Train N leaves 20 minutes late. Therefore, the 2 trains must have covered the distance within 40 minutes on this particular day.
Train N doubles its speed. Therefore, speed of train N will be 8x. Let the new speed of the passenger train be y.
D/8x + D/y = 40
48/8 + D/y = 40
D/y = 34.
Speed of super fast train = D/8x = 6
Speed of passenger train = D/y = 34
Ratio of the speeds = 6/34 = 3/17.
The ratio is approximately equal to 1:6. Therefore, option D. is the right answer.
Q. 18 On a 20 km tunnel, connecting two cities A and B, there are three gutters (1, 2 and 3). The distance between gutters 1 and 2 is half the distance between gutters 2 and 3. The distance from city A to its nearest gutter, gutter 1, is equal to the distance of city B from gutter 3. On a particular day, the hospital in city A receives information that an accident has happened at gutter 3. The victim can be saved only if an operation is started within 40 min. An ambulance started from city A at 30 km/hr and crossed gutter 1 after 5 min. If the driver had doubled the speed after that, what is the maximum amount of time would the doctor get to attend the patient at the hospital. Assume 1 min is elapsed for taking the patient into and out of the ambulance?
A. 4 min
B. 2.5 min
C. 1.5 min
D. The patient died before reaching the hospital
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Let the distance between gutter 1 and A. be x and between gutter 1 and 2 be y.
Hence, x + y + 2y + x = 20 => 2x+3y=20
Also x = 30kmph * 5/60 = 2.5km
Hence, y = 5km
After the ambulance doubles its speed it goes at 60kmph i.e. 1km per min. Hence, time taken for the rest of the journey = 15*2 + 2.5 = 32.5
It takes 1 min to load and unload the patient.
Hence, total time = 5 + 32.5 + 1 = 38.5 mins
So, the doctor would get 1.5 min to attend to the patient.
Q. 19 Number S is obtained by squaring the sum of digits of a two-digit number D. If difference between S and D. is 27, then the two-digit number D. is
A. 24
B. 54
C. 34
D. 45
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Consider the options:
24: (Square of sum of digits – the number) = 36 – 24 = 12
54: (Square of sum of digits – the number) = 81 – 54 = 27
34: (Square of sum of digits – the number) = 49 – 34 = 15
45: (Square of sum of digits – the number) = 81 – 45 = 36
So, option b) is the correct answer.
Q. 20 The nth element of a series is represented as Xn = (−1)nXn−1
If X0 = x and x > 0, then which of the following is always true?
A. Xnis positive if n is even
B. Xnis positive if n is odd
C. Xnis negative if n is even
D. None of these
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Let x = 1, so, X0= 1
X1 = -1
X2 = -1
X3= 1
X4 = 1
X5 = -1
X6 = -1
So,Xn need not be positive when n is even, Xnneed not be positive when n is odd, Xnneed not be negative when n is even. So, none of the first three options are correct.
Q. 21 If x, y and z are real numbers such that x + y + z = 5 and xy + yz + zx = 3, what is the largest value that x can have?
A. 5/3
B. √19
C. 13/3
D. None of these
Answer: C.
Explanation:
The given equations are x + y + z = 5 — (1) , xy + yz + zx = 3 — (2)
xy + yz + zx = 3
x(y + z) + yz = 3
=> x ( 5 -x ) +y ( 5 – x – y) = 3
=> −y2 − y(5 − x) − x2 + 5x = 3
=> −y2 + y(x − 5) + (x2 − 5x + 3) = 0
The above equation should have real roots for y, => Determinant >= 0
=>(x − 5)2 − 4(x2 − 5x + 3) ≥ 0
=>3x2 − 10x − 13 ≤ 0
=>−1 ≤ x ≤ 13/3
Hence maximum value x can take is 13/3, and the corresponding values for y,z are ⅓ , ⅓
Q. 22 Neeraj has agreed to mow a lawn, which is a 20 m × 40 m rectangle. He mows it with 1 m wide strip. If Neeraj starts at one corner and mows around the lawn toward the centre, about how many times would he go round before he has mowed half the lawn? (Round off the answer to two decimal digits)
A. 2.5
B. 3.5
C. 3.75
D. None of these
Answer: D.
Explanation:
To mow half of lawn is to mow 400 squares of 1m width each. Neeraj mows 40+18+40+18 = 116 squares of 1m width each in 1st round, in 2nd round he mows 38+16+38+16 = 108 squares and in 3rd round, he mows 36+14+36+14 = 100 squares. So, in total, he mows 324 squares; but he needs 400-324 = 76 more.
If he covers the 4th round completely, he mows 92 squares, to cover only 76, he needs to cover 76/92 = 0.826 rounds.
So in total 3.826≈3.83 rounds are required.
Q. 23 The owner of a local jewellery store hired three watchmen to guard his diamonds, but a thief still got in and stole some diamonds. On the way out, the thief met each watchman, one at a time. To each he gave 1/2 of the diamonds he had then, and 2 more besides. He escaped with one diamond. How many did he steal originally?
A. 40
B. 36
C. 25
D. None of these
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Suppose the thief stole ‘x’ diamonds.
After giving the share to the first watchman, the thief has (x/2)-2 diamonds.
After giving to the second watchman, the thief has (x/4)-3 diamonds.
After giving to the third watchman, the thief has (x/8)-(7/2) diamonds.
This is equal to 1. So, (x/8) – 7/2 = 1
Solving this equation, we get x = 36
Q. 24 Mayank, Mirza, Little and Jaspal bought a motorbike for $60. Mayank paid one-half of the sum of the amounts paid by the other boys. Mirza paid one-third of the sum of the amounts paid by the other boys. Little paid one-fourth of the sum of the amounts paid by the other boys. How much did Jaspal have to pay?
A. $15
B. $13
C. $17
D. None of these
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Let the amount paid by Mayank be x. So, amount paid by the other three = 2x
=> Total bill = x+2x = 3x = 60 => x = 20. So, Mayank paid 20
Similarly, amount paid by Mirza + 3*Amount paid by Mirza = 60
=> Amount paid by Mirza = 15
Amount paid by Little + 4*Amount paid by Little = 60
=> Amount paid by Little = 12
So, amount paid by Jaspal = 60 – (20+15+12) = 60 – 47 = $13
Q. 25 A rich merchant had collected many gold coins. He did not want anybody to know about him. One day, his wife asked, ” How many gold coins do we have?” After a brief pause, he replied, “Well! if I divide the coins into two unequal numbers, then 48 times the difference between the two numbers equals the difference between the squares of the two numbers.” The wife looked puzzled. Can you help the merchant’s wife by finding out how many gold coins the merchant has?
A. 96
B. 53
C. 43
D. None of these
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Let x = y+z such that z > y.
We know that 48 ∗ (z − y)2 = z2 − y2
Solving the above equation, we get z + y = 48
So, option d) is the correct answer.
Q. 26 Shyam visited Ram during his brief vacation. In the mornings they both would go for yoga. In the evenings they would play tennis. To have more fun, they indulge only in one activity per day, i.e. either they went for yoga or played tennis each day. There were days when they were lazy and stayed home all day long. There were 24 mornings when they did nothing, 14 evenings when they stayed at home, and a total of 22 days when they did yoga or played tennis. For how many days Shyam stayed with Ram?
A. 32
B. 24
C. 30
D. None of these
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Let the number of lazy days=x
They played tennis for 24-x days
They did yoga for 14-x days
So, they did yoga or played tennis for 24-x+14-x = 38-2x days
38-2x=22
x = 8
Number of lazy days=8
Number of days where they played yoga or tennis = 22
Number of Shyam stayed with Ram = 22+8=30
Q. 27 Let S denotes the infinite sum 2 + 5x + 9x2 + 14x3 + 20x4 + … xn−1, where |x| < 1 and the coefficient of is n( n + 3 )/2 , ( n = 1, 2 , . . . ) . Then S equals:
So, S = [2(1 − x) + x]/(1 − x)3 => S = (2 − x)/(1 − x)3
Q. 28 If x2 + 5y2 + z2 = 2y(2x + z), then which of the following statements is(are) necessarily true? A. x = 2y B. x = 2z C. 2x = z
A. Only A
B. B and C
C. A and B
D. None of these
Answer: C.
Explanation:
The equation is not satisfied for only x = 2y.
Using statements B. and C, i.e., x = 2z and 2x = z, we see that the equation is not satisfied.
Using statements A. and B, i.e., x = 2y and x = 2z, i.e., z = y = x/2, the equation is satisfied.
Option c) is the correct answer.
Q. 29 Amol was asked to calculate the arithmetic mean of 10 positive integers, each of which had 2 digits. By mistake, he interchanged the 2 digits, say a and b, in one of these 10 integers. As a result, his answer for the arithmetic mean was 1.8 more than what it should have been. Then |b – a| equals
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. None of these
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Let the actual average be n. So, the new average is n + 1.8
Actual total = 10n
New total = 10n + 18
Let the number which was miswritten = ab(a is the tenth’s digit and b is the units digit) = 10a+b and reversed number ba = 10b+a
So, 10b + a – (10a + b) = 18
=> 9(b-a) = 18
=> b-a = 2
Q. 30 A car rental agency has the following terms. If a car is rented for 5 hr or less, then, the charge is Rs. 60 per hour or Rs. 12 per kilometre whichever is more. On the other hand, if the car is rented for more than 5 hr, the charge is Rs. 50 per hour or Rs. 7.50 per kilometre whichever is more. Akil rented a car from this agency, drove it for 30 km and ended up playing Rs. 300. For how many hours did he rent the car?
A. 4 hr
B. 5 hr
C. 6 hr
D. None of these
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Suppose Akil drove the car for less than 5 hrs. In this case, by distance basis, Rs 360 should be charged. This is not the case.
So he dove for more than 5 hrs. Cost comes more using time basis; which is Rs 300, i.e. he used the car for 6 hours.
Q. 31 A child was asked to add the first few natural numbers (i.e. 1 + 2 + 3 + …) so long his patience permitted. As he stopped, he gave the sum as 575. When the teacher declared the result wrong, the child discovered he had missed one number in the sequence during addition. The number he missed was
A. less than 10
B. 10
C. 15
D. more than 15
Answer: D.
Explanation:
If the child adds all the numbers from 1 to 34, the sum of the numbers would be 1+2+3+…+34 = 34*35/2 = 595 Since the child got the sum as 575, he would have missed the number 20.
Q. 32 Suppose for any real number x, [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x. Let L(x, y) = [x] + [y] + [x + y] and R(x, y) = [2x] + [2y]. Then it is impossible to find any two positive real numbers x and y for which
A. L(x, y) = R(x, y)
B. L(x, y) ≠ R(x, y)
C. L(x, y) < R(x, y)
D. L(x, y) > R(x, y)
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Consider different values of x and y:
x = -1.5 and y = -1.5; x = 1.5 and y = -1.5; x = -1.5 and y = 1.5; x = 1.5 and y = 1.5.
For these possibilities, options A,B. and C. gets satisfied , but it is impossible to find any two positive real numbers x and y for which L(x, y) > R(x, y).
Q. 33 Ten straight lines, no two of which are parallel and no three of which pass through any common point, are drawn on a plane. The total number of regions (including finite and infinite regions) into which the plane would be divided by the lines is
A. 56
B. 255
C. 1024
D. not unique
Answer: A.
Explanation:
If there are ‘m’ non-parallel lines, then the maximum number of regions into which the plane is divided is given by [m(m+1)/2]+1
In this case, ‘m’ = 10
So, the number of regions into which the plane is divided is (10*11/2) + 1 = 56
Q. 34 When 2256 is divided by 17, the remainder would be
A. 1
B. 16
C. 14
D. None of these
Answer: A.
Explanation:
24 = 16 = −1(mod 17)
So, 2256 = (−1)64 (mod 17)
= 1 (mod 17)
Hence, the answer is 1. Option a).
Q. 35 The number of real roots of the equation A2/x + B2/(x − 1) = 1 , where A and B are real numbers not equal to zero simultaneously, is
A. 3
B. 1
C. 2
D. Cannot be determined
Answer: D.
Explanation:
(x − 1) + B. ∗
The given equation can be written as : A2 ∗ (x − 1) +B2 ∗ x = x2 − x
=> x2 + x(−1 − A2 − B2) + A2 = 0
Discriminant of the equation = (−1 − A2 − B2)2 − 4A2
= A4 + B4 + 1 − 2A2 + 2B2 + 2A2B2
= A4 + B4 + 1 − 2A2 − 2B2 + 2A2B2 + 4B2
= (A2 + B2 − 1)2 + 4B2
=> 0, 0 when B =0 and A =1
Hence, the number of roots can be 1 or 2.
Option d) is the correct answer.
Q. 36 At a bookstore, ‘MODERN BOOK STORE’ is flashed using neon lights. The words are individually flashed at the intervals of 2.5 s, 4.25 s and 5.125 s respectively, and each word is put off after a second. The least time after which the full name of the bookstore can be read again for a full second is
A. 49.5 s
B. 73.5 s
C. 1744.5 s
D. 855 s
Answer: B.
Explanation:
In this problem, the lights are flashed at the intervals 2.5, 4.25 and 5.125 seconds and put off after one second each. The total duration of intervals of these lights are (2.5+1) = 3.5 s, (4.25+1) = 5.25 s and (5.125+1) = 6.125 s.
We have to find the minimum duration. It would be the LCM of these three numbers.
Since each word is put after a second. So LCM [(5/2 +1)(17/4+1)(41/8+1)] = LCM of numerator / HCF of denominator = 49*3/2 = 73.5.
Q. 37 Three pieces of cakes of weights 4.5 lb, 6.75 lb and 7.2 lb respectively are to be divided into parts of equal weight. Further, each part must be as heavy as possible. If one such part is served to each guest, then what is the maximum number of guests that could be entertained?
A. 54
B. 72
C. 20
D. None of these
Answer: D.
Explanation:
HCF of [(9/2), (27/4), (36/5)] = HCF of numerators / LCM of denominators = 9/20
Total weight = 18.45 lb
So no. of parts = 18.45 / (9/20) = 18.45*20/9 = 41
Hence option d) is the correct answer.
Q. 38 After the division of a number successively by 3, 4 and 7, the remainders obtained are 2, 1 and 4 respectively. What will be the remainder if 84 divides the same number?
A. 80
B. 75
C. 41
D. 53
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Since after division of a number successively by 3, 4 and 7, the remainders obtained are 2, 1 and 4 respectively, the number is of form ((((4*4)+1)*3)+2)k = 53K
Let k = 1; the number becomes 53
If it is divided by 84, the remainder is 53.
Option d) is the correct answer.
Alternative Solution.
Consider only for 3 and 4 and the remainders are 2 and 1 respectively.
So 5 is the first number to satisfy both the conditions. The number will be of the form 12k+5. Put different integral values of k to find whether it will leave remainder 5 when divided by 7. So the first number to satisfy such condition is 48×4+5= 53
Q. 39 Six people are playing a card game sitting around a circular table. Suresh is facing Raghubir who is to the left of Ajay and to the right of Pramod. Ajay is to the left of Dhiraj. Yogendra is to the left of Pramod. If Dhiraj exchanges his seat with Yogendra and Pramod exchanges with Raghubir, who will be sitting to the left of Dhiraj?
A. Yogendra
B. Raghubir
C. Suresh
D. Ajay
Answer: C.
Explanation:
The correct original circular arrangement sequence in clockwise manner is Suresh, Dhiraj, Ajay, Raghuveer, Pramod, Yogendra.
So after the changes, Suresh is to the left of Dhiraj.
Q. 40 A train approaches a tunnel AB. Inside the tunnel is a cat located at a point that is 3/8 of the distance AB measured from the entrance A. When the train whistles the cat runs. If the cat moves to the entrance of the tunnel A, the train catches the cat exactly at the entrance. If the cat moves to the exit B, the train catches the cat at exactly the exit. What is the ratio of speed of train and cat ?
A. 3 : 1
B. 4 : 1
C. 5 : 1
D. None of these
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Let the length of the tunnel be x and distance of the train to entrance A. be y. Let the speeds of train and cat be t and c respectively.
Hence, when the cat runs 3x/8, the train covers y.
=> (3x/8)/c = y/t — (1)
When the cat runs 5x/8 to the other end, the train covers x+y
=>(5x/8)/c = (x+y)/t —(2)
Taking ratio of (1) to (2)
3/5 = y/(x+y) => 3x = 2y —(3)
Substituting (3) in (1)
(2y/8)/c = y/t
=> t = 4c
Hence the ratio t:c is 4:1.
Q. 41 A piece of string is 40 cm long. It is cut into three pieces. The longest piece is three times as long as the middle-sized and the shortest piece is 23 cm shorter than the longest piece. Find the length of the shortest piece.
A. 27
B. 5
C. 4
D. 9
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Let the longest piece be x
Shortest piece = x – 23
Middle-sized piece = x/3
So, x + x – 23 + x/3 = 40 => 7x/3 = 63 => x = 27
Shortest piece = 27 – 23 = 4
Q. 42 Three travellers are sitting around a fire, and are about to eat a meal. One of them has 5 small loaves of bread, the second has 3 small loaves of bread. The third has no food, but has 8 coins. He offers to pay for some bread. They agree to share the 8 loaves equally among the three travellers, and the third traveller will pay 8 coins for his share of the 8 loaves. All loaves were the same size. The second traveller (who had 3 loaves) suggests that he will be paid 3 coins, and that the first traveller be paid 5 coins. The first traveller says that he should get more than 5 coins. How much should the first traveller get?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 1
D. None of these
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Suppose A, B. and C. have 5 pieces of bread, 3 pieces of bread and 8 coins respectively. Since in total there are 8 pieces of bread, each one should get around 2.66 bread. So A. must give 2.33 part of his bread to C. and B. must give 0.33. Distributing the amount in the same ratio of bread contribution, A. must get 7 coins and B. must get 1 coin.
Q. 43 In the following figure, ACB. is a right-angled triangle. AD. is the altitude. Circles are inscribed within the triangle ACD. and triangle BCD. P and Q are the centers of the circles. The distance PQ is
A. 7 m
B. 4.5 m
C. 10.5 m
D. 6 m
Answer: A.
Explanation:
By Pythagoras theorem we get BC. = 25 . Let BD. = x;Triangle ABD. is similar to triangle CBA. => AD/15 = x/20 and also triangle ADC. is similar to triangle ACB=> AD/20 = (25-x)/15. From the 2 equations, we get x = 9 and DC. = 16
We know that AREA. = (semi perimeter ) * inradius
For triangle ABD, Area = 1/2 x BD. X AD. = 1/2 x 12 x 9 = 54 and semi perimeter = (15 + 9 + 12)/2 = 18. On using the above equation we get, inradius, r = 3.
Similarly for triangle ADC. we get inradius R = 4 .
PQ = R + r = 7 cm
Q. 44 If u, v, w and m are natural numbers such that um + vm = wm, then which one of the following is true?
A. m >= min(u, v, w)
B. m >= max(u, v, w)
C. m < min(u, v, w)
D. None of these
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Substitute value of u = v = 2, w = 4 and m = 1. Here the condition holds and options A. and B. are false. Hence, we can eliminate options A. and B.
Substitute u = v = 1, w=2 and m= 1. Here m=min(u, v, w). Hence, option C. also does not hold. Hence, we can eliminate option C.
Option d) is the correct answer.
Q. 45 In how many ways is it possible to choose a white square and a black square on a chessboard so that the squares must not lie in the same row or column?
A. 56
B. 896
C. 60
D. 768
Answer: D.
Explanation:
First a black square can be selected in 32 ways. Out of remaining rows and columns, 24 white squares remain. 1 white square can them be chosen in 24 ways. So total no. of ways of selection is 32*24 = 768.
Q. 46 76n − 66n, where n is an integer > 0, is divisible by
A. 13
B. 127
C. 559
D. All of these
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Consider n=1 we have 76 − 66 which is =(73 + 63)(73 − 6 )3 = 13 * 127 * 43 which is divisible by all the 3 options. Option d) is the correct answer.
Q. 47 If pqr = 1, the value of the expression 1/(1 + p + q−1) + 1/(1 + q + r−1) + 1/(1 + r + p ) −1
A. p+q+r
B. 1/(p+q+r)
C. 1
D. p−1 + q−1 + r−1
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Let p = q = r = 1
So, the value of the expression becomes 1/3 + 1/3 + 1/3 = 1
If we substitute these values, options a), b) and d) do not satisfy.
Option c) is the answer.
Q. 48 It takes six technicians a total of 10 hr to build a new server from Direct Computer, with each working at the same rate. If six technicians start to build the server at 11 am, and one technician per hour is added beginning at 5 pm, at what time will the server be completed?
A. 6.40 pm
B. 7 pm
C. 7.20 pm
D. 8 pm
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Let the work done by each technician in one hour be 1 unit.
Therefore, total work to be done = 60 units.
From 11 AM to 5 PM, work done = 6*6 = 36 units.
Work remaining = 60 – 36 = 24 units.
Work done in the next 3 hours = 7 units + 8 units + 9 units = 24 units.
Therefore, the work gets done by 8 PM.
Q. 49 Davji Shop sells samosas in boxes of different sizes. The samosas are priced at Rs. 2 per samosa up to 200 samosas. For every additional 20 samosas, the price of the whole lot goes down by 10 paise per samosa. What should be the maximum size of the box that would maximise the revenue?
A. 240
B. 300
C. 400
D. None of these
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Let the optimum number of samosas be 200+20n
So, price of each samosa = (2-0.1*n)
Total price of all samosas = (2-0.1*n)*(200+20n) =400 − 20n + 40n − 2n2 = 400 + 20n − 2n2
This quadratic equation attains a maximum at n = -20/2*(-2) = 5
So, the number of samosas to get the maximum revenue = 200 + 20*5 = 300
Q. 50 Three small pumps and a large pump are filling a tank. Each of the three small pumps works at 2/3 the rate of the large pump. If all four pumps work at the same time, they should fill the tank in what fraction of the time that it would have taken the large pump alone?
A. 4/7
B. 1/3
C. 2/3
D. 3/4
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Let the work done by the big pump in one hour be 3 units.
Therefore, work done by each of the small pumps in one hour = 2 units.
Let the total work to be done in filling the tank be 9 units.
Therefore, time taken by the big pump if it operates alone = 9/3 = 3 hours.
If all the pumps operate together, the work done in one hour = 3 + 2*3 = 9 units.
Together, all of them can fill the tank in 1 hour.
Required ratio = 1/3
Data Interpretation
Instructions
Four students — Ashish, Dhanraj, Felix and Sameer sat for the Common Entrance Exam for Management (CEEM). One student got admission offers from three NIMs (National Institutes of Management), another from two NIMs, the third from one NIM, while the fourth got none. Below are some of the facts about who got admission offers from how many NIMs and what is their educational background.
I. The one who is an engineer didn’t get as many admissions as Ashish.
II. The one who got offer for admissions in two NIMs isn’t Dhanraj nor is he a chartered accountant. III. Sameer is an economist.
IV. Dhanraj isn’t an engineer and received more admission offers than Ashish.
V. The doctor got the most number of admission offers.
Q. 51 Which one of the following statements is necessarily true?
A. Ashish is a chartered accountant and got offer for admission in three NIMs.
B. Dhanraj is a doctor and got admission offer in one NIM.
C. Sameer is an economist who got admission offers in two NIMs.
D. Felix who is not an engineer did not get any offer for admission.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
According to given information, we finally know that ashish is a CA. and will get 1 or no offers. dhanraj is doctor and gets 3 offers felix is an engineer and can get 2 offers.
Sameer is an economist and can get 2 offers.
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 52 Five boys went to a store to buy sweets. One boy had Rs. 40. Another boy had Rs. 30. Two other boys had Rs. 20 each. The remaining boy had Rs. 10. Below are some more facts about the initial and final cash positions.
I. Alam started with more than Jugraj.
II. Sandeep spent Rs. 1.50 more than Daljeet.
III. Ganesh started with more money than just only one other person.
IV. Daljeet started with 2/3 of what Sandeep started with.
V. Alam spent the most, but did not end with the least.
VI. Jugraj spent the least and ended with more than Alam or Daljeet.
VII.Ganesh spent Rs.3.50.
VIII. Alam spent 10 times more than what Ganesh did.
In the choices given below, all statements except one are false. Which one of the following statements can be true?
A. Alam started with Rs. 40 and ended with Rs. 9.50
B. Sandeep started with Rs. 30 and ended with Re. 1
C. Ganesh started with Rs. 20 and ended with Rs. 4
D. Jugraj started with Rs. 10 and ended with Rs. 7
Answer: D.
Explanation:
According to given condition we know that Alam started with 40 spent 35 and saved 5 , Daljeet started with 20 , ganesh started with 20 and saved 16.5 , Jugraj started with 10 and spent less than 3 rs , sandeep started with 30 and spent more than 1.5 rs. So among the options only option D. satisfies given requirements.
Q. 53 In a hospital there were 200 diabetes, 150 hyperglycaemia and 150 gastro-enteritis patients. Of these, 80 patients were treated for both diabetices and hyperglycaemia. Sixty patients were treated for gastro enteritis and hyperglycaemia, while 70 were treated for diabetes and gastroenteritis. Some of these patients have all the three diseases. Dr. Dennis treats patients with only gastro-enteritis. Dr. Paul is a generalist. Therefore, he can treat patients with multiple diseases. Patients always prefer a specialist for their disease. If Dr. Dennis had 80 patients, then the other three doctors can be arranged in terms of the number of patients treated as:
A. Paul > Gerard > Hormis
B. Paul > Hormis > Gerard
C. Gerard > Paul > Hormis
D. Cannot be determined
Answer: D.
Explanation:
We don’t know out of 2 other doctors which doctor is specialist in which disease.
So it is not possible to find out the exact order.
Q. 54 Three children won the prizes in the Bournvita Quiz contest. They are from the schools: Loyola, Convent and Little Flowers, which are located at different cities. Below are some of the facts about the schools, the children and the city they are from.
I. One of the children is Bipin.
II. Loyola School’s contestant did not come first.
III. Little Flower’s contestant was named Riaz.
IV. Convent School is not in Hyderabad.
V. The contestant from Pune is not from Loyola School.
VI. The contestant from Bangalore did not come first.
VII. Convent School’s contestant’s name is not Balbir.
From given condition we can find out that Balbir is from loyola and came 2nd , Bipin is from banglore and came 3rd , Riaz is from little flower and came 1st .
Q. 55 Two boys are playing on a ground. Both the boys are less than 10 years old. Age of the younger boy is equal to the cube root of the product of the age of the two boys. If we place the digit representing the age of the younger boy to the left of the digit representing the age of the elder boy, we get the age of father of the younger boy. Similarly, if we place the digit representing the age of the elder boy to the left of the digit representing the age of the younger boy and divide the figure by 2, we get the age of the mother of the younger boy. The mother of the younger boy is younger to his father by 3 years. Then, what is the age of the younger boy?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. None of these
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Let x and y be the age of the older and younger boy respectively(both single digit). According to given condition we know that y2 = x .
Also Father’s age = 10y + x and Mother’s age = (10x+y)/2.
Only value which satisfies the above equations is x=4 and y=2 .
Q. 56 Flights A and B are scheduled from an airport within the next one hour. All the booked passengers of the two flights are waiting in the boarding hall after check-in. The hall has a seating capacity of 200, out of which 10% remained vacant. 40% of the waiting passengers are ladies. When boarding announcement came, passengers of flight A. left the hall and boarded the flight. Seating capacity of each flight is two third of the passengers who waited in the waiting hall for both the flights put together. Half the passengers who boarded flight A are women. After boarding for flight A, 60% of the waiting hall seats became empty. For every twenty of those who are still waiting in the hall for flight B, there is one air hostess in flight A What is the ratio of empty seats in flight B to the number of air hostesses in flight A?
A. 10 : 1
B. 5 : 1
C. 20 : 1
D. 1 : 1
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Out of 200 of the seating capacity, 180 seats are filled out of which 108 are males and 72 are females. Remaining 20 seats are vacant. According to given condition seating capacity in both the planes is 120 . Considering flight A – we can find that 100 passenger in waiting hall will be taking fight A . So 80 people remain in in the waiting hall who will be taking flight B . Now for every 20 people taking flight B we have a air hostess in flight A . So in total there are 4 air hostess in flight A Flight B having 120 as seating capacity, 40 remain vacant. So required ratio 40:4 = 10:1 .
Instructions
A. country has the following types of traffic signals.
3 red lights = stop
2 red lights = turn left
1 red light = turn right
3 green lights = go at 100 km/hr speed
2 green lights = go at 40 km/hr speed
1 green light = go at 20 km/hr speed
A. motorist starts at a point on a road and follows all traffic signals. His car is heading towards the north. He encounters the following signals (the time mentioned in each case below is applicable after crossing the previous signal).
Starting point – 1 green light
After half an hour, 1st signal – 2 red and 2 green lights
After 15 min, 2nd signal – 1 red light
After half an hour, 3rd signal – 1 red and 3 green lights
After 24 min, 4th signal – 2 red and 2 green lights
After 15 min, 5th signal – 3 red lights
Q. 57 The total distance travelled by the motorist from the starting point till the last signal is
A. 90 km
B. 100 km
C. 120 km
D. None of these
Answer: A.
Explanation:
The distance traveled by the car in particular direction is as follows : First 10 km in north then 10 km in west then 20 km north then 40 km east then again 10 km north.
So in all total distance traveled is 10+10+20+40+10 = 90 kms.
Q. 58 What is the position (radial distance) of the most motorist when he reaches the last signal?
A. 45 km directly north of the starting point
B. 30 km directly to the east of the starting point
C. 50 km away to the north-east of the starting point
D. 45 km away to the north-west of the starting point
Answer: C.
Explanation:
According to given conditions, the car first travels 10 km north then 10 km to west then gain 20 km north then further travels east for 40 km then travel north for another 10 km before finally stopping. So in all the car travels 30 km to the east and 40 km north. Hence, calculating the distance radially we get 50 km in North-East direction.
Q. 59 After the starting point if the 1st signal were 1 red and 2 green lights, what would be the final position of the motorist?
A. 30 km to the west and 20 km to the south
B. 30 km to the west and 40 km to the north
C. 50 km to the east and 40 km to the north
D. Directly 30 km to the east
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Now if after starting point at first point the 1st signal were 1 red and 2 green lights then distance traveled by the car would be as follows : 10 km in north then 10 km east then 20 km south then 40 km to west then 10 km to south . So overall the position of car is 30 km to the west and 20 km to south as compared to original position.
Q. 60 If at the starting point, the car was heading towards south, what would be the final position of the motorist?
A. 30 km to the east and 40 km to the south
B. 50 km to the east and 40 km to the south
C. 30 km to the west and 40 km to the south
D. 50 km to the west and 20 km to the north
Answer: C.
Explanation:
If at the starting point, the car was heading towards south then following would have occured : 1st 10 km in south ,2nd 10 km east, 3rd 20 km in south ,4th 40 km west, 5tht 10 km in south so overall 30 km to the west and 40 km to the south from starting point.
Instructions
The following table provides data on the different countries and location of their capitals. (the data may not match the actual Latitude, Longitudes) Answer the following questions on the basis of this table.
Q. 61 What percentage of cities located within 10 E° and 40 E° (10° East and 40° East) lie in the Southern Hemisphere?
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 30%
Answer: B.
Explanation:
There are 5 countries which lie from 10 Deg E to 40 Deg E , but out of those only 1 lie in southern hemisphere. hence 1*100/5 = 20%.
Q. 62 The number of cities whose names begin with a consonant and are in the Northern Hemisphere in the table
A. exceeds the number of cities whose names begin with a consonant and are in the southern hemisphere by 1
B. exceeds the number of cities whose names begin with a consonant and are in the southern hemisphere by 2
C. is less than the number of cities whose names begin with a consonant and are in the east of the meridian by 1
D. is less than the number of countries whose name begins with a consonant and are in the east of the meridian by 2
Answer: D.
Explanation:
There are 11 cities whose names begin with a consonant and are in the Northern Hemisphere in the table and there are 13 number of countries whose name begins with a consonant and are in the east of the meridian. Hence option D.
Q. 63 The ratio of the number of countries whose name starts with vowels and located in the southern hemisphere, to the number of countries, the name of whose capital cities starts with a vowel in the table above is
A. 3 : 2
B. 3 : 3
C. 3 : 1
D. 4 : 3
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Number of countries whose name starts with vowels and located in the southern hemisphere are 3 and number of countries, the name of whose capital cities starts with a vowel in the table is 2.
Hence the ratio 3:2.
Instructions
The following table gives details regarding the total earnings of 15 employees and the number of days they have worked on complex, medium and simple operation in the month of June 2002. Even though the employees might have worked on an operation, they would be eligible for earnings only if they have a minimum level of efficiency.
Q. 64 The number of employees who have earned more than Rs. 50 per day in complex operations is
A. 4
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Average income can be found by dividing the total income by total number of days.
The average income is calculated as show in the table given below.
Using this formula, we can find that there are 5 employees (Employee IDs: 1151, 1158, 1164, 1172, and 1173) who earned more than Rs 50 per day.
Q. 65 The number of employees who have earned more than Rs. 600 and having more than 80% attendance (there are 25 regular working days in June 2002; some might be coming on overtime too) is
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: D.
Explanation:
80% of attendance comes out to 20 days.
We can see from the table that there are 7 such employees who have earned more than Rs. 600 and having more than 80% of attendance.
Hence option D.
Q. 66 The employee number of the person who has earned the maximum earnings per day in medium operation is
A. 2001180
B. 2001164
C. 2001172
D. 2001179
Answer: A.
Explanation:
We need to find the person who has the highest average per-day earnings in medium operations. So, we divide the total income in medium operations by the total number of day in these operations. Employee no. 2001180 earned 1262.9 by working 19 daysfor medium operation which is highest. Hence option A.
Q. 67 Among the employees who were engaged in complex and medium operations, the number of employees whose average earning per day in complex operations is more than average earning per day in medium operations is
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: D.
Explanation:
The average income is calculated as show in the table given below.
From the table given we can make out that number of employees whose average earning per day in complex
operations is more than average earning per day in medium operations for 8 employees (2001148, 2001149, 2001150, 2001151, 2001158, 2001164, 2001171, 2001172)
Instructions
The following table shows the revenue and expenses in millions of Euros (European currency) associated with REPSOL YPF company’s oil and gas producing activities in operations in different parts of the world for 1998-2000.
Q. 68 How many operations (Spain, North Africa and Middle East,..) of the company accounted for less than 5% of the total revenue earned in 1999?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. None of these
Answer: C.
Explanation:
5% of total revenue in the year 1999 is 168.7 . Manually counting number of countries where the revenue is less than 168.7, we see that 4 countries have revenue less than 168.7
Q. 69 How many operations (Spain, North Africa and Middle East…) of the company witnessed more than 200% increase in revenue from 1999 to 2000?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. None of these
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Spain and rest of latin america has witnessed more than 200% increase in revenue from 1999 to 2000 for the company.
Q. 70 How many operations registered a sustained yearly increase in income before taxes and charges from 1998 to 2000?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. None of these
Answer: B.
Explanation:
There are 4 such operations – North Africa & Middle East, Argentina, Rest of Latin America and Far East – that registered a sustained yearly increase in income before taxes and charges from 1998 to 2000.
Q. 71 Ignoring the loss making operations of the company in 1998, for how many operations was the percentage increase in net income before taxes and charges higher than the average from 1998 to 1999?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. None of these
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Percentage increase in net income before tax and
charges for total world (1998-99)
=1375−248/248 *100 = 454.4%
Spain is making loss.
Percentage increase for North Africa and Middle-East =341−111/111*100 = 207.2%
Percentage increase for Argentina =838−94/94*100=791.5%
From the table one can directly say that there is no operation other than Argentina, whose percentage increase in net income before taxes and charges is higher than the average (world).
Q. 72 If profitability is defined as the ratio of net income after taxes and charges to expense, which of the following statements is true?
A. The Far East operations witnessed its highest profitability in 1998
B. The North Sea operations increased its profitability from 1998 to 1999
C. The operations in Argentina witnessed a decrease in profitability from 1998 to 1999
D. Both 2 and 3 are true
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Profitability for the North Sea operations in 1998 was 20/52 and in the year 1999 was 54/65 . Hence we can clearly see that the profitability increased. hence option B.
Q. 73 In 2000, which among the following countries had the best profitability?
A. North Africa and Middle East
B. Spain
C. Rest of Latin America
D. Far East
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Profitability= Net Income After Taxes / Expenses
In 2000, Spain had the best profitability of 225/43.
Hence option B.
Q. 74 If efficiency is defined as the ratio of revenue to expenses, which operation was the least efficient in 2000?
A. Spain
B. Argentina
C. Far East
D. None of these
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Efficiency = revenue / expenses
In 2000, except Rest of the world, all the other operations had an efficiency of greater than 1.
Efficiency of Rest of the Word =20/33 , which is the least.
Q. 75 Of the following statements, which one is not true?
A. The operations in Spain had the best efficiency in 2000
B. The Far East operations witnessed an efficiency improvement from 1999 to 2000
C. The North Sea operations witnessed an efficiency improvement from 1998 to 1999
D. In 1998, the operations in Rest of Latin America were the least efficient
Answer: D.
Explanation:
In 1998, the efficiency in Rest of Latin America was 34/57.
In 1998, the efficiency in Rest of the world was 5/15, which is less than 34/57.
Hence, the efficiency of rest of latin america was not the least.
Instructions
Chart 1 shows the distribution by value of top 6 suppliers of MFA. Textiles in 1995.
Chart 2 shows the distribution by quantity of top 6 suppliers of MFA. Textiles in 1995.
The total value is 5760 million Euro (European currency). The total quantity is 1.055 million tonnes.
Q.76 The country which has the highest average price is
A. USA.
B. Switzerland
C. Turkey
D. India
Answer: B.
Explanation:
The country which has the highest average price would have low quality and high value when compared to other countries..
Switzerland fits the above description.
Hence, option B. is the answer.
Q. 77 The average price in Euro per kilogram for Turkey is roughly
A. 6.20
B. 5.60
C. 4.20
D. 4.80
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Turkey has a value of 16% and a quantity of 15%.
The average price in Euro per kilogram for Turkey is (16*5.760)/(15*1.055) which is nearly equal to 5.6. Hence option B.
Instructions
There are 6 refineries, 7 depots and 9 districts. The refineries are BB, BC, BD, BE, BF and BG. The depots are AA, AB, AC, AD, AE, AF and AG. The districts are AAA, AAB, AAC, AAD, AAE, AAF, AAG, AAH, and AAI. Table A. gives the cost of transporting one unit from refinery to depot. Table B. gives the cost of transporting one unit from depot to a district.
Q. 78 What is the least cost of sending one unit from any refinery to any district?
A. 95.2
B. 0
C. 205.7
D. 284.5
Answer: B.
Explanation:
The least cost of sending one unit is from BC to AC and Then to AAC which is 0 . Hence option B.
Q. 79 What is the least cost of sending one unit from any refinery to the district AAB?
A. 0
B. 284.5
C. 95.2
D. None of these
Answer: A.
Explanation:
The least cost of sending one unit from any refinery to the district AAB is from BD to AE and then from AE to AAB. The whole cost is 0.
Hence option A.
Q. 80 What is the least cost of sending one unit from refinery BB. to any district?
A. 284.5
B. 311.8
C. 451.1
D. None of these
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Route for least cost of sending one unit from refinery BB to any district, would be first from BB to AB and then from AB to AAC
Hence total cost 311.8 + 0 = 311.8
Q. 81 What is the least cost of sending petrol from refinery BB. to district AAA?
A. 765.6
B. 1137.3
C. 1154.3
D. None of these
Answer: D.
Explanation:
From the table, we can observe that the minimum cost of sending oil fro BB. to AAA. is via AB. Hence the total cost is 311.8+205 = 516.8
Q. 82 How many possible ways are there for sending petrol from any refinery to any district?
A. 63
B. 42
C. 54
D. 378
Answer: D.
Explanation:
1 refinery can be selected among 7 in 7 ways, depots can be further selected in 6 ways and any district ca be selected in 9 different ways.
So, answer is 7*6*9 = 378
Q. 83 The largest cost of sending petrol from any refinery to any district is
A. 2172.6
B. 2193.0
C. 2091.0
D. None of these
Answer: B.
Explanation:
The costliest route would be from either BE or BF to AE then AE to AAH i.e 1157.7+1035.3 = 2193
Instructions
The chart given below indicates the annual sales tax revenue collections (in rupees in crores) of seven states from 1997 to 2001.
The values given at the top of each bar represents the total collections in that year
Q. 84 If for each year, the states are ranked in terms of the descending order of sales tax collections, how many states do not change the ranking more than once over the five years?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B.
Explanation:
We have to consider the ranking of that state that doesn’t change throughout or changes only once. The rankings of the states are as follows:
So, the states West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh do not change their rankings more than once. There are 5 states in total under the criteria.
Q. 85 Which of the following states has changed its relative ranking most number of times when you rank the states in terms of the descending volume of sales tax collections each year?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Karnataka
D. Tamil Nadu
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Ranking of UP changed 2 times which is highest among other states.
Q. 86 The percentage share of sales tax revenue of which state has increased from 1997 to 2001?
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Karnataka
C. Gujarat
D. Andhra Pradesh
Answer: D.
Explanation:
The overall revenue has increased by a ratio of 49639 / 29870 = 1.67.
So, the state whose revenue ratio increases by more than 1.67 is the answer.
Among the given options, only AP’s sales tax revenue ratio has increased.
Q. 87 Which pair of successive years shows the maximum growth rate of tax revenue in Maharashtra?
A. 1997 to 1998
B. 1998 to 1999
C. 1999 to 2000
D. 2000 to 2001
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Max growth rate can be calculated by finding percentage growth over previous year.
We can see a significant increase in the year 1999-2000.
On calculating the ratio, we get 10284 / 8067 = 1.275, which is more than any other year.
Hence, 1999-2000 is the answer.
Q. 88 Identify the state whose tax revenue increased exactly by the same amount in two successive pairs of years?
A. Karnataka
B. West Bengal
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Tamil Nadu
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Simple calculations show difference in values of sales for karnataka over 2 successive pair of years – 1999-2000 and 2000-2001 – same.
The increase in 1999-2000 = 4839 – 4265 = 574
The increase in 2000-2001 = 5413 – 4839 = 574
Q. 89 Which state below has been maintaining a constant rank over the years in terms of its contribution to total tax collections?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Karnataka
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Uttar Pradesh
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Tamilnadu has maintained the ranking of second highest tax revenue throughout the five years. Hence, option C. is the answer.
Instructions
The table below gives information about four different crops, their different quality, categories and the regions where they are cultivated. Based on the information given in the table answer the questions below.
Q. 90 How many regions produce medium qualities of Crop-1 or Crop-2 and also produce low quality of Crop-3 or Crop-4?
A. Zero
B. One
C. Two
D. Three
Answer: B.
Explanation:
It can be seen that region 9 produces medium qualities of Crop-1 or Crop-2 and also produce low quality of Crop-3 or Crop-4.
Q. 91 Which of the following statements is true?
A. All medium quality Crop-2 producing regions are also high quality Crop-3 producing regions.
B. All high quality Crop-1 producing regions are also medium and low Crop-4 producing regions.
C. There are exactly four Crop-3 producing regions, which also produce Crop-4 but not Crop-2.
D. Some Crop-3 producing regions produce Crop-1, but not high quality Crop-2.
Answer: D.
Explanation:
High quality crop 2 is produced by R5, R8 and R12.
None of these regions produce crop 3.
Hence, option D is true.
None of the other options are true.
Q. 92 How many low quality Crop-1 producing regions are either high quality Crop-4 producing regions or medium quality Crop-3 producing regions?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Zero
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Take a look at the table,
The low producing areas corresponding to Crop 1 is R9, R10, R11
Now medium yield area corresponding to Crop 3 is R9 and high yield are corresponding to crop 4 are R10 and R11. Hence all three area are mentioned in the above two categories.
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 93 In a hockey match, the Indian team was behind by 2 goals with 5 min remaining. Did they win the match? A. Deepak Thakur, the Indian striker, scored 3 goals in the last 5 min of the match. B. Korea scored a total of 3 goals in the match.
A. The question can be answered by one of the statement alone but not by the other.
B. The question can be answered by using either statement alone.
C. The question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone.
D. The question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Considering statement B there are 2 possible score values before last 5 mins possible. Korea 3:1 India or Korea 2:0 India. Now considering statement A , in one case India wins (as the score becomes India 4:3 Korea) and in other there is a draw(as the score becomes India 3:3 Korea). Hence, The question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Q. 94 Four students were added to a dance class. Would the teacher be able to divide her students evenly into a dance team (or teams) of 8?
A. If 12 students were added, the teacher could put everyone in teams of 8 without any leftovers.
B. The number of students in the class earlier was not divisible by 8.
A. The question can be answered by one of the statement alone but not by the other.
B. The question can be answered by using either statement alone.
C. The question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone.
D. The question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Considering statement A 12 students can be written as 4 students + 8 students. Hence Even if only 4 students are added the teacher can divide students in teams of 8. Now considering statement B , we cant perfectly tell if after adding teacher can divide in teams of 8 . Hence only A is enough to answer the question. Hence , The question can be answered by one of the statement alone but not by the other.
Q. 95 Is x = y?
A. (x + y)(1/x + 1/y) = 4
B. (x − 50)2 = (y − 50)2
A. The question can be answered by one of the statement alone but not by the other.
B. The question can be answered by using either statement alone.
C. The question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone.
D. The question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Consider statement 1: (x + y)(1/x + 1/y) = 4
(x + y)2/xy = 4
x2 + y2 + 2xy = 4xy
x2 + y2 + 2xy − 4xy = 0
(x − y)2 = 0
x = y.
Consider statement 2: (x − 50)2 = (y − 50)2
(x-y)(x+y-100) = 0
Either x = y or x+y = 100.
Statement 1 is sufficient whereas statement 2 is not sufficient to answer the question.
Q. 96 A dress was initially listed at a price that would have given the store a profit of 20% of the wholesale cost. What was the wholesale cost of the dress?
A. After reducing the listed price by 10%, the dress sold for a net profit of $10.
B. The dress is sold for $50.
A. The question can be answered by one of the statement alone but not by the other.
B. The question can be answered by using either statement alone.
C. The question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone.
D. The question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Let the initial selling price be s1 and changed value be s2, also wholesale cost price be c. According to the given condition we have s1=1.28*c. By statement A. we have s2=0.9*s1 and s2-c = 10 . Hence, wholesale cost price can be found out.
Considering statement B. we have just s2=50. Using this we can’t find c. Hence, the question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Q. 97 Is 500 the average (arithmetic mean) score in the GMAT?
A. Half of the people who take the GMAT score above 500 and half of the people score below 500. B. The highest GMAT score is 800 and the lowest score is 200.
A. The question can be answered by one of the statement alone but not by the other.
B. The question can be answered by using either statement alone.
C. The question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone.
D. The question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Consider statement A. alone and assume that half of the people scored 600 and half of the people scored 499, so average is not 500
Also there is a possibility that average can be 500 when half of the people score about 500 and the other half score below 500.
Hence we won’t get unique answer using A.
Consider statement B. alone: We can’t find average just by knowing the highest and the lowest score. Even by using both the statements, we cannot find the answer to the question. Option d) is the correct answer.
Q. 98 Is |x – 2| < 1?
A. |x| < 1
B. |x – 1| < 2
A. if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
B. if the question can be answered by one of the statement alone but not by the other.
C. if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone.
D. if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Statement A: -1<x<1
-3<x-2<-1
So 1<mod(x-2)<3
It is definitely greater than 1
Statement B: -2<x-1<2
-3<x-2<1
which implies mod(x-2) might be greater than or less than 1
So only one statement is sufficient.
Q. 99 People in a club either speak French or Russian or both. Find the number of people in a club who speak only French.
A. There are 300 people in the club and the number of people who speak both French and Russian is 196.
B. The number of people who speak only Russian is 58.
A. if the question can be answered by one of the statement alone but not by the other.
B. if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
C. if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone.
D. if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Let x,y,z be the no. of people speaking only French, only Russian and both respectively. By statement A. we have x+y+z = 300 and z = 196. Using this we can’t find number of people in a club who speak only French. Now considering statement B. we have x = 58. So using both the statements together we can find number of people in a club who speak only French. Hence, option C. is the correct answer.
Q. 100 A sum of Rs. 38,500 was divided among Jagdish, Punit and Girish. Who received the minimum amount?
A. Jadgish received 2/9 of what Punit and Girish received together.
B. Punit received 3/11 of what Jadgish and Girish received together.
A. if the question can be answered by one of the statement alone but not by the other.
B. if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
C. if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone.
D. if the question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Let amount received by Jagdish, Punit and Girish be j,p,g rs. such that j+p+g = 38500. According to statement A , j= 2* (p+g)/9 . Using this alone we can’t answer the question.
Now consider statement B , we have p = 3*(j+g)/11. Using this alone we can’t answer the question. But considering both statements together we can answer the question. Hence, option C. is the correct answer.
Verbal
Instructions
Directions for the next 3 questions: Fill the gaps in the passages below with the most appropriate word from the options given for each gap. The right words are the ones used by the author. Be guided by the author’s overall style and meaning when you choose the answers.
Von Nuemann and Morgenstern assume a decision framework in which all options are thoroughly considered, each option being independent of the others, with a numerical value derived for the utility of each possible outcome (these outcomes reflecting, in turn, all possible combinations of choices). The decision is then made to maximize the expected utility. (…1…) such a model reflects major simplifications of the way divisions are made in the real world. Humans are not able to process information as quickly and effectively as the model assumes; they tend not to think (…2…) as easily as the model calls for; they often deal with a particular option without really assessing its (…3…) and when they do assess alternatives, they may be extremely nebulous about their criteria of evaluation.
Q. 101 Fill the gaps in the passages (…1…)
A. Regrettably
B. Firstly
C. Obviously
D. Apparently
Answer: A.
Explanation:
The first two sentences of the paragraph start of with the description of the Von Nuemann framework on a positive note. The third sentence, however, points out the flaw in such a framework. The correct word that goes into the blank 1 is, therefore, ‘Regrettably’.
Q. 102 Fill the gaps in the passages (…2…)
A. quantitatively
B. systematically
C. scientifically
D. analytically
Answer: A.
Explanation:
The first part of the sentence, ‘Humans are not able to process information as quickly and effectively as the model assumes;’ hints that that the word in the blank should be ‘quantitatively’.
Q. 103 Fill the gaps in the passages (…3…)
A. implications
B. disadvantages
C. utility
D. alternatives
Answer: D.
Explanation:
The usage of the phrase “particular option” complements the word “alternatives”.
Hence, option D. is the answer.
Instructions
Directions for the next 3 questions: Fill the gaps in the passages below with the most appropriate word from the options given for each gap. The right words are the ones used by the author. Be guided by the author’s overall style and meaning when you choose the answers.
In a large company, (…1…) people is about as common as using a gun or a switch-blade to (…2…) an argument. As a result, most managers have little or no experience of firing people, and they find it emotionally traumatic; as result, they often delay the act interminably, much as an unhappy spouse will prolong a bad marriage. And when the firing is done, it’s often done clumsily, with far worse side effects than are necessary. Do the world-class software organizations have a different way of firing people? No, but they do the deed swiftly, humanely, and professionally. The key point here is to view the fired employee as a ‘failed product’ and to ask how the process (…3…). such a phenomenon in the first place.
Q. 104 Fill in the blank at (…1…).
A. dismissing
B. punishing
C. firing
D. admonishing
Answer: C.
Explanation:
The second sentence ‘As a result, most managers have little or no experience of firing people,…’ gives us the hint that the word in the first blank should be firing.
Q. 105 Fill in the blank at (…2…).
A. resolve
B. thwart
C. defeat
D. close
Answer: A.
Explanation:
An argument is resolved and not thwarted or defeated or closed. So, the word in the second blank is ‘resolve’.
Q. 106 Fill in the blank at (…3…).
A. derived
B. engineered
C. produced
D. allowed
Answer: D.
Explanation:
According to the statement, a fired employee is a ‘failed product’ by itself and is not something that has been produced or trained by the organization. Therefore, a failure of the process is not likely to derive or engineer or produce such a product but it is likely to allow such a product. Therefore, the correct answer is ‘allowed’.
Instructions
Choose the best answer for each question.
The production of histories of India has become very frequent in recent years and may well call for some explanation. Why so many and why this one in particular? The reason is a two-fold one: changes in the Indian scene requiring a re interpretation of the facts and changes in attitudes of historians about the essential elements of Indian history. These two considerations are in addition to the normal fact of fresh information, whether in the form of archeological discoveries throwing fresh light on an obscure period or culture, or the revelations caused by the opening of archives or the release of private papers. The changes in the Indian scene are too obvious to need emphasis. Only two generations ago British rule seemed to most Indian as well as British observers likely to extend into an indefinite future; now there is a teenage generation which knows nothing of it. Changes in the attitudes of historians have occurred everywhere, changes in attitudes to the content of the subject as well as to particular countries, but in India there have been some special features. Prior to the British, Indian historiographers were mostly Muslims, who relied, as in the case of Sayyid Ghulam Hussain, on their own recollection of events and on information from friends and men of affairs. Only a few like Abu’l Fazl had access to official papers. These were personal narratives of events, varying in value with the nature of the writer. The early British writers were officials. In the 18th century they were concerned with some aspect of Company policy, or like Robert Orme in his Military Transactions gave a straight narrative in what was essentially a continuation of the Muslim tradition. In the early 119th century the writers were still, with two notable exceptions, officials, but they were now engaged in chronicling, in varying moods of zest, pride, and awe, the rise of the British power in India to supremacy. The two exceptions were James Mill, with his critical attitude to the Company and John Marchman, the Baptist missionary. But they, like the officials, were anglo-centric in their attitude, so that the history of modern India in their hands came to be the history of the rise of the British in India.
The official school dominated the writing of Indian history until we get the first professional historian’s approach. Ramsay Muir and P. E. Roberts in England and H. H. Dodwell in India. Then Indian historians trained in the English school joined in, of whom the most distinguished was Sir Jadunath Sarkar and the other notable writers: Surendranath Sen, Dr Radhakumud Mukherji, and Professor Nilakanta Sastri. They, it may be said, restored India to Indian history, but their bias was mainly political. Finally have come the nationalists who range from those who can find nothing good or true in the British to sophisticated historical philosophers like K. M. Panikker.
Along the types of historians with their varying bias have gone changes in the attitude to the content of Indian history. Here Indian historians have been influenced both by their local situation and by changes of thought elsewhere. It is this field that this work can claim some attention since it seeks to break new ground, or perhaps to deepen a freshly turned furrow in the field of Indian history. The early official historians were content with the glamour and drama of political history from Plassey to the Mutiny, from Dupleix to the Sikhs. But when the raj was settled down, glamour departed from politics, and they turned to the less glorious but more solid ground of administration. Not how India was conquered but how it was governed was the theme of this school of historians. It found its archpriest in H. H. Dodwell, its priestess in Dame Lilian Penson, and its chief shrine in the Volume VI of the Cambridge History of India. Meanwhile, in Britain other currents were moving, which led historical study into the economic and social fields. R. C. Dutt entered the first of these currents with his Economic History of India to be followed more recently by the whole group of Indian economic historians. W. E. Moreland extended these studies to the Mughal Period. Social history is now being increasingly studied and there is also of course a school of nationalist historians who see modern Indian history in terms of the rise and the fulfillment of the national movement.
All these approaches have value, but all share in the quality of being compartmental. It is not enough to remove political history from its pedestal of being the only kind of history worth having if it is merely to put other types of history in its place. Too exclusive an attention to economic, social, or administrative history can be as sterile and misleading as too much concentration on politics. A. whole subject needs a whole treatment for understanding. A. historian must dissect his subject into its elements and then fuse them together again into an integrated whole. The true history of a country must contain all the features just cited but must present them as parts of a single consistent theme.
Q. 107 Which of the following may be the closest in meaning to the statement ‘restored India to Indian history’?
A. Indian historians began writing Indian history.
B. Trained historians began writing Indian history.
C. Writing India-centric Indian history began.
D. Indian history began to be written in India
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Refer to the lines where it is written that “Then Indian Historians trained in the English school joined in, of whom the most distinguished was Sir Jadunath Sarkar and the other notable writers: Surendranath Sen, Dr. Radhakumud Mukerji, and Professor Nilakanta Shastri. They, it may be said, restored India to Indian history, but their bias was mainly political.”
Also refer the last lines of the 1st para”But they, like the officials, were anglo-centric in their attitude, so that the history of modern India in their hands came to be the history of the rise of the British in India.”
This clearly indicates option C.
Q. 108 Which of the following is the closest implication of the statement ‘to break new ground, or perhaps to deepen a freshly turned furrow’?
A. Dig afresh or dig deeper.
B. Start a new stream of thought or help establish a recently emerged perspective.
C. Begin or conduct further work on existing archeological sites to unearth new evidence.
D. Begin writing a history free of any biases.
Answer: B.
Explanation:
The second paragraph is about changes in historians throughout British era. Then author mentioned historians and their work post British era.
In the third paragraph author mentioned
“Along the types of historians with their varying bias have gone changes in the attitude to the content of Indian history. Here Indian historians have been influenced both by their local situation and by changes of thought elsewhere. It is this field that this work can claim some attention since it seeks to break new ground, or perhaps to deepen a freshly turned furrow in the field of Indian history.” Here author mentioned that modern historians come with varying bias, change in their attitude. This can also result in new or in depth discoveries, perspectives.
Hence, option B. is correct.
Option A. is not a complete representation of what author said, or what he intended to. Option B. is a closer implication than option A.
By the line ‘‘to break new ground, or perhaps to deepen a freshly turned furrow’ author do not imply to begin writing a history free of any biases. It is because of historians free of bias we can find new perspective or start a new stream of thought. Hence, option D. is incorrect.
Between B. and C, B. is more appropriate as compared to C. because option C. only talks about further work rather than starting from new.
Q. 109 Historians moved from writing political history to writing administrative history because
A. attitudes of the historians changed.
B. the raj was settled down.
C. politics did not retain its past glamour.
D. administrative history was based on solid ground.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Refer to the 2nd last para where it is written “The early official historians were content with the glamour and drama of political history: Plassey to the Mutiny, from Dupleix to the Sikhs. But when the raj was settled down, glamour departed from politics, and they turned to the less glorious but more solid ground of administration.” Using this line, we can say that option C. is the answer.
Q. 110 According to the author, which of the following is not among the attitudes of Indian historians of Indian origin?
A. Writing history as personal narratives.
B. Writing history with political bias.
C. Writing non-political history due to lack of glamour.
D. Writing history by dissecting elements and integrating them again.
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Refer to the following lines
“Only a few like Abul Fazl had access to official papers. These were personal narrative of events varying in value with the nature of the writer.”-1st para – This line eliminates option A.
“Then Indian Historians trained in the English school joined in, of whom the most distinguished was Sir Jadunath Sarkar and the other notable writers: Surendranath Sen, Dr. Radhakumud Mukerji, and Professor Nilakanta Shastri. They, it may be said, restored India to Indian history, but their bias was mainly political.”-2nd para – This line eliminates option B.
“The early official historians were content with the glamour and drama of political history: Plassey to the Mutiny, from Dupleix to the Sikhs. But when the raj was settled down, glamour departed from politics, and they turned to the less glorious but more solid ground of administration.”-3rd para – This line eliminates option C.
Option D. is not mentioned in the passage. Hence, option D. is the answer.
Q. 111 In the list given below, match the historians to the approaches taken by them.
A. – Administrative
B. -Political
C. – Narrative
D. – Economic
E – Robert Orme
F – H.H. Dodwell
G – Radha Kumud Mukherji
H – R.C. Dutt
A. A. – F, B. – G, C. – E, D. – H
B. A. – G, B. – F, C. – E, D. – H
C. A. – E, B. – F, C. – G, D. – H
D. A. – F, B. – H, C. – E, D. – G
Answer: A.
Explanation:
“Robert Orme in his Military Transactions gave a straight narrative” => C – E
“Then Indian historians trained in the English school joined in, of whom the most distinguished was Sir Jadunath Sarkar and the other notable writers: Surendranath Sen, Dr Radhakumud Mukherji, and Professor Nilakanta Sastri. They, it may be said, restored India to Indian history, but their bias was mainly political” => B – G
“R. C. Dutt entered the first of these currents with his Economic History” => D – H
=> Option A. is the answer.
Instructions
There are a seemingly endless variety of laws, restrictions, customs and traditions that affect the practice of abortion around the world. Globally, abortion is probably the single most controversial issue in the whole area of women’s rights and family matters. It is an issue that inflames women’s right groups, religious institutions, and the self-proclaimed ‘guardians’ of public morality. The growing worldwide belief is that the right to control one’s fertility is a basic human right. This has resulted in a worldwide trend towards liberalization of abortion laws. Forty per cent of the world’s population live in countries where induced abortion is permitted on request. An additional 25 per cent live in countries where it is allowed if the women’s life would be endangered if she went to full term with her pregnancy. The estimate is that between 26 and 31 million legal abortions were performed in that year. However, there were also between 10 and 22 million illegal abortions performed in that year.
Feminists have viewed the patriarchal control of women’s bodies as one of the prime issues facing the contemporary women’s movement. They observe that the definition and control of women’s reproductive freedom have always been the province of men. Patriarchal religion, as manifest in Islamic fundamentalism,traditionalist Hindu practice, orthodox Judaism, and Roman Catholicism, has been an important historical contributory factor for this and continues to be an important presence in contemporary societies. In recent times, govenments, usually controlled by men, have ‘given’ women the right to contraceptive use and abortion access when their countries were perceived to have an overpopulation problem. When these countries are perceived to be underpopulated, that right had been absent. Until the 19th century, a woman’s rights to an abortion followed English common law; it could only be legally challenged if there was a ‘quickening’, when the first movements of the fetus could be felt. In 1800, drugs to induce abrotions were widely advertised in local newspapers. By 1900, abortion was banned in every state except to save the life of the mother. The change was strongly influenced by medical profession, which focussed its campaign ostensibly on health and safety issues for pregnant women and the sanctity of life. Its position was also a means of control of non-licensed medical practitioners such as midwives and women healers who practiced abortion.
The anti-abortion campaign was also influenced by political considerations. The large influx of eastern and southern European immigrants with their large families was seen as a threat to the population balance of the future United States. Middle and upper-classes Protestants were advocates of abortion as a form of birth control. By supporting abortion prohibitions the hope was that these Americans would have more children and thus prevent the tide of immigrant babies from overwhelming the demographic characteristics of Protestant America.
The anti-abortion legislative position remained in effect in the United States through the first 65 years of the 20th century. In the early 1960s, even when it was widely known that the drug thalidomide taken during pregnancy to alleviate anxiety was shown to contribute to the formation of deformed ‘flipper-like’ hands or legs of children, abortion was illegal in the United States. A second health tragedy was the severe outbreak of rubella during the same time period, which also resulted in major birth defects. These tragedies combined with a change of attitude towards a woman’s right to privacy led a number of states to pass abortion permitting legislation.
On one side of the controversy are those who call themselves ‘pro-life’. They view the foetus as a human life rather than as an unformed complex of cells; therefore, they hold to the belief that abortion is essentially murder of an unborn child. These groups cite both legal and religious reasons for their opposition to abortion. Pro lifers point to the rise in legalised abortion figures and see this as morally intolerable. On the other side of the issue are those who call themselves ‘pro-choice’. They believe that women, not legislators or judges, should have the right to decide whether and under what circumstances they will bear children. Pro-choicers are of the opinion that laws will not prevent women from having abortions and cite the horror stories of the past when many women died at the hands of ‘backroom’ abortionists and in desperate attempts to self-abort. They also observe that legalized abortion is especially important for rape victims and incest victims who became pregnant. They stress physical and mental health reasons why women should not have unwanted children.
To get a better understanding of the current abortion controversy, let us examine a very important work by Kristin Luker titled Abortion and the Politics of Motherhood. Luker argues that female pro-choice and prolife activists hold different world views regarding gender, sex, and the meaning of parenthood. Moral positions on abortions are seen to be tied intimately to views on sexual bahaviour, the care of children, family life, technology, and the importance of the individual. Luker identified ‘pro-choice’ women as educated, affluent, and liberal. Their contrasting counterparts, ‘pro life’ women, support traditional concepts of women as wives and mothers. It would be instructive to sketch out the differences in the world views of these two sets of women. Luker examines California, with its liberalized abortion law, as a case history. Public documents and newspaper accounts over a 26-year period were analysed and over 200 interviews were held withheld with both pro-life and pro-choice activists.
Luker found that pro-life and pro-choice activists have intrinsically different views with respect to gender. Pro-life women have a notion of public and private life. The proper place for men is in the public sphere of work; for women, it is the private sphere of the home. Men benefit through the nurturance of women; women benefit through the protection of men. Children are seen to be the ultimate beneficiaries of this arrangement of having the mother as a full time loving parent and by having clear role models. Pro-choice advocates reject the view of separate spheres. They object to the notion of the home being the ‘women’s sphere’. Women’s reproductive and family roles are seen as potential barriers to full equality. Motherhood is seen as a voluntary, not a mandatory or ‘natural’ role. In summarizing her findings, Luker believes that women become activists in either of the two movements as the end result of lives that centre around different conceptualizations of motherhood. Their beliefs and values are rooted to the concrete circumstances of their lives, their educations, incomes, occupations, and the different marital and family choices that they have made. They represent two different world views of women’s roles in contemporary society and as such the abortion issues represent the battleground for the justification of their respective views.
Q. 112 According to your understanding of the author’s arguments, which countries are more likely to allow abortion?
A. Over populated countries like India and China
B. Underpopulated countries like Australia and Mongolia
C. Cannot be inferred from the passage
D. Both (1) and (2)
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Refer to the lines of the 2nd para “In recent times, governments, usually controlled by men, have ‘given’ women the right to contraceptive use and abortion access when their countries were perceived to have an overpopulation problem, when these countries are perceived to be under-populated, that right has been absent.”
According to this, we can say that option A. is the answer.
Q. 113 Which amongst these was not a reason for banning of abortions by 1900?
A. Medical professionals stressing the health and safety of women
B. Influx of eastern and sourthern European immigrants
C. Control of unlicensed medical practitioners
D. A. tradition of matriarchal control
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Refer to the 2nd para and the 3rd para “The change was strongly influenced by the medical profession, which focused its campaign ostensibly on health and safety issues for pregnant women and the sanctity of life. Its position was also means of control of non-licensed medical practitioners such as midwives and women healers who practiced abortion.” “The large influx of eastern and southern European immigrants with their large families was seen as threat to the population balance of the future United States.”
Options A, B. and C. are stated in these lines. Hence, option D. is the answer.
Q. 114 A pro-life woman would advocate abortion if
A. the mother of an unborn child is suicidal.
B. bearing a child conflicts with a woman’s career prospects.
C. the mother becomes pregnant accidentally.
D. None of these
Answer: D.
Explanation:
In the paragraph, it is not mentioned when the pro-life would advocate abortion.
Hence, none of these is the answer.
Q. 115 Pro-choice women object to the notion of the home being the ‘women’s sphere’ because they believe
A. that home is a ‘joint sphere’ shared between men and women.
B. that reproduction is a matter of choice for women
C. that men and women are equal
D. Both (2) and (3)
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Refer to the lines of the last para where it is written ” Pro-choice advocates reject the view of separate spheres. They object to the notion of the home being the ‘women’s sphere’. Women’s reproductive and family roles are seen as potential barriers to full equality. Motherhood is seen as a voluntary, not a mandatory or ‘natural’ role.” Both option B. and option C. are stated in these lines.
Hence, option D. is the answer.
Q. 116 Two health tragedies affecting the US society in the 1960s led to
A. a change in attitude to women’s right to privacy.
B. retaining the anti-abortion laws with some exceptions.
C. scrapping of anti-abortion laws.
D. strengthening of the pro-life lobby.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Refer to the lines “In the early 1960s, even when it was widely known that the drug thalidomide taken during pregnancy to alleviate anxiety was shown to contribute to the formation of deformed ‘flipper-like’ hands or legs of children, abortion was illegal in the United States. A. second health tragedy combined with a change of attitude towards a woman’s right to privacy led a number of states to pass abortion-permitting legislation.”
As some abortion permitting laws are passed, it can be inferred that some of the anti abortion laws must have been scrapped in those states. Hence, option C. is the right answer.
Q. 117 Historically, the pro-choice movements has got support from, among others,
A. major patriarchal religions.
B. countries with low population density.
C. medical profession.
D. None of these
Answer: D.
Explanation:
It is nowhere mentioned in the paragraph about the support of pro-choice group. Likewise, it is mentioned that the banning of abortion was influenced by medical profession. Patriarchial religions always observed that the women reproductive freedom is always in the domain of men. Hence the correct answer is option D.
Instructions
The conceptions of life and the world which we call ‘philosophical’ are a product of two factors: one inherited religious and ethical conceptions; the other, the sort of investigation which may be called ‘scientific’, using this word in its broadest sense. Individual philosophers have differed widely in regard to the proportions in which these two factors entered into their systems, but it is the presence of both, in some degree, that characterizes philosophy.
‘Philosophy’ is a word which has been used in many ways, some wider, some narrower. I propose to use it in a very wide sense, which I will now try to explain.
Philosophy, as I shall understand the word, is something intermediate between theology and science. Like theology, it consists of speculations on matters as to which definite knowledge has, so far, been unascertainable; but like science, it appeals to human reason rather than to authority, whether that of tradition or that of revelation. All definite knowledge so I should contend belongs to science; all dogma as to what surpasses definite knowledge belongs to thelogy. But between theology and science there is a ‘No man’s Land’, exposed to attack from both sides; this ‘No Man’s Land’ is philosophy. Almost all the questions of most interest to speculative minds are such as science cannot answer, and the confident answers of theologians no longer seem so convincing as they did in former centuries. Is the world divided into mind and matter, and if so, what is mind and what is matter? Is mind subject to matter, or is it possessed of independent powers? Has the universe any unity or purpose? It is evolving towards some goal? Are there really laws of nature, or do we believe in them only because of our innate love of order? Is man what he seems to the astronomer, a tiny lump of carbon and water impotently crawling on a small and unimportant planet? Or is he what he appears to
Hamlet? Is he perhaps both at once? Is there a way of living that is noble and another that is base, or are all ways of living merely futile? If there is a way of living that is noble, in what does it consist, and how shall we achieve it? Must the good be eternal in order to deserve to be valued, or is it worth seeking even if the universe is inexorably moving towards death? Is there such a thing as wisdom, or is what seems such merely the ultimate refinement of folly? To such
questions no answer can be found in the laboratory. Theologies have professed to give answers, all too definite; but their definiteness causes modern minds to view them with suspicion. The studying of these questions, if not the answering of them, is the business of philosophy.
Why, then, you may ask, waste time on such insoluble problems? To this one may answer as a historian, or as an individual facing the terror of cosmic loneliness.
The answer of the historian, in so far as I am capable of giving it, will appear in the course of this work. Ever since men became capable of free speculation, their actions in innumerable important respects, have depended upon their theories as to the world and human life, as to what is good and what is evil. This is as true in the present day as at any former time. To understand an age or a nation, we must understand its philosophy, and to understand its philosophy we must ourselves be in some degree philosophers. There is here a reciprocal causation: the circumstances of men’s lives do much to determine their philosophy, but, conversely, their philosophy does much to determine their circumstances.
There is also, however, a more personal answer. Science tells us what we can know, but what we can know is little, and if we forget how much we cannot know we may become insensitive to many things of very great importance. Theology, on the other hand, induces a dogmatic belief that we have knowledge, where in fact we have ignorance, and by doing so generates a kind of impertinent insolence towards the universe. Uncertainty, in the presence of vivid hopes and fears, is painful, but must be endured if we wish to live without the support of comforting fairy tales. It is good either to forget the questions that philosophy asks, or to persuade ourselves that we have found indubitable answers to them. To teach how to live without certainty, and yet without being paralyzed by hesitation, is perhaps the chief thing that philosophy, in our age, can still do for those who study it.
Q. 118 The purpose of philosophy is to
A. reduce uncertainty and choas.
B. help us to cope with uncertainty and ambiguity.
C. help us to find explanations for uncertainty.
D. reduce the terror of cosmic loneliness.
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Refer to the last lines of the last para “To teach how to live without certainly, and yet without being paralyzed by hesitation, is perhaps the chief things that philosophy, in our age, can still do for those who study it.”
Q. 119 Based on the passage, what can be concluded about the relation between philosophy and science?
A. The two are antagonistic.
B. The two are complementary.
C. There is no relation between the two.
D. Philosophy derives from science.
Answer: B.
Explanation:
A. and C. are incorrect as there are no references to these options.
Between B and D, B is more suitable if we are the lines of 3rd para ” All definite knowledge-so I should contend-belongs to science; all dogma as to what surpass definite knowledge to theology. But between theology and science there is a ‘No man’s Land’ exposed to attack from both sides; this ‘No Man’s Land’ is philosophy. Almost all the questions of most interest to speculative minds are such as science cannot answer, and the confident answers of theologians no longer seem so convincing as they did in former centuries. Is the world divided into mind and matter, and if so, what is mind and what is matter? ”
Q. 120 From reading the passage, what can be concluded about the profession of the author? He is most likely not to be a
A. historian.
B. philosopher.
C. scientist.
D. theologian.
Answer: D.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D as the author does not give the positive views about theologians throughout the passage. For eg. refer to the given lines:”Almost all the questions of most interest to speculative minds are such as science cannot answer, and the confident answers of theologians no longer seem so convincing as they did in former centuries.” There are many examples in the passage in which the author does not present the favourable views about theologians.
Q. 121 According to the author, which of the following statements about the nature of universe must be definitely true?
A. The universe has unity.
B. The universe has a purpose.
C. The universe is evolving towards a goal.
D. None of these
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Refer to the lines of the 3rd para ” Is mind subject matter, or is it possessed of independent powers? Has the universe any unity or purpose? Is it evolving towards some goal? Are there really laws of nature, or do we believe in them only because of our innate love of order? ”
All options are covered in these lines. According to the author, there are no definite answers to these questions. Hence, none of these statements is definitely true.
Instructions
Cells are the ultimate multi-taskers: they can switch on genes and carry out their orders, talk to each other, divide in two, and much more, all at the same time. But they couldn’t do any of these tricks without a power source to generate movement. The inside of a cell bustles with more traffic than Delhi roads, and, like all vehicles, the cell’s moving parts need engines. Physicists and biologists have looked ‘under the hood’ of the cell and laid out the nuts and bolts of molecular engines.
The ability of such engines to convert chemical energy into motion is the envy nanotechnology researchers looking for ways to power molecule-sized devices. Medical researchers also want to understand how these engines work. Because these molecules are essential for cell division, scientists hope to shut down the rampant growth of cancer cells by deactivating certain motors. Improving motor-driven transport in nerve cells may also be helpful for treating diseases such as Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s or ALS, also known as Lou Gehrig’s disease.
We wouldn’t make it far in life without motor proteins. Our muscles wouldn’t contract. We couldn’t grow, because the growth process requires cells to duplicate their machinery and pull the copies apart. And our genes would be silent without the services of messenger RNA, which carries genetic instructions over to the cell’s protein-making factories.
The movements that make these cellular activities possible occur along a complex network of threadlike fibers, or polymers, along which bundles of molecules travel like trams. The engines that power the cell’s freight are three families of proteins, called myosin, kinesin and dynein. For fuel, these proteins burn molecules of ATP, which cells make when they break down the carbohydrates and fats from the foods we eat. The energy from burning ATP causes changes in the proteins’ shape that allow them to heave themselves along the polymer track. The results are impressive: In one second, these molecules can travel between 50 and 100 times their own diameter. If a car with a five-foot-wide engine were as efficient, it would travel 170 to 340 kilometres per hour.
Ronald Vale, a researcher at the Howard Hughes Medical Institute and the University of California at San Francisco, and Ronald Milligan of the Scripps Research Institute have realized a long-awaited goal by reconstructing the process by which myosin and kinesin move, almost down to the atom. The dynein motor, on the other hand, is still poorly understood. Myosin molecules, best known for their role in muscle contraction, form chains that lie between filaments of another protein called actin. Each myosin molecule has a tiny head that pokes out from the chain like oars from a canoe. Just as rowers propel their boat by stroking their oars through the water, the myosin molecules stick their heads into the actin and hoist themselves forward along the filament. While myosin moves along in short strokes, its cousin kinesin walks steadily along a different type of filament called a microtubule. Instead of using a projecting head as a lever, kinesin walks on two ‘legs’. Based on these differences, researchers used to think that myosin and kinesin were virtually unrelated. But newly discovered similarities in the motors’ ATP-processing machinery now suggest that they share a common ancestor — molecule. At this point, scientists can only speculate as to what type of primitive cell-like structure this ancestor occupied as it learned to burn ATP and use the energy to change shape. “We’ll never really know, because we can’t dig up the remains of ancient proteins, but that was probably a big evolutionary leap,” says Vale.
On a slightly larger scale, loner cells like sperm or infectious bacteria are prime movers that resolutely push their way through to other cells. As L. Mahadevan and Paul Matsudaira of the Massachusetts Institute of Technology explain, the engines in this case are springs or ratchets that are clusters of molecules, rather than single proteins like myosin and
kinesin. Researchers don’t yet fully understand these engines’ fueling process or the details of how they move, but the result is a force to be reckoned with. For example, one such engine is a spring-like stalk connecting a single-celled organism called a vorticellid to the leaf fragment it calls home. When exposed to calcium, the spring contracts, yanking the vorticellid down at speeds approaching three inches (eight centimetres) per second.
Springs like this are coiled bundles of filaments that expand or contract in response to chemical cues. A. wave of positively charged calcium ions, for example, neutralizes the negative charges that keep the filaments extended. Some sperm use spring-like engines made of actin filaments to shoot out a barb that penetrates the layers that surround an egg. And certain viruses use a similar apparatus to shoot their DNA. into the host’s cell. Ratchets are also useful for moving whole cells, including some other sperm and pathogens. These engines are filaments that simply grow at one end, attracting chemical building blocks from nearby. Because the other end is anchored in place, the growing end pushes against any barrier that gets in its way.
Both springs and ratchets are made up of small units that each move just slightly, but collectively produce a powerful movement. Ultimately, Mahadevan and Matsudaira hope to better understand just how these particles create an effect that seems to be so much more than the sum of its parts. Might such an understanding provide inspiration for ways to power artificial nano-sized devices in the future? “The short answer is absolutely,” says Mahadevan. “Biology has had a lot more time to evolve enormous richness in design for different organisms. Hopefully, studying these structures will not only improve our understanding of the biological world, it will also enable us to copy them, take apart their components and recreate them for other purpose.”
Q. 122 According to the author, research on the power source of movement in cells can contribute to
A. control over the movement of genes within human systems.
B. the understanding of nanotechnology.
C. arresting the growth of cancer in a human being.
D. the development of cures for a variety of diseases.
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Statements A and B are not given as aims of research on the power source of movement in cells. Hence, we can eliminate the options.
Refer to the lines:”Because these molecules are essential for cell division, scientists hope to shut down the rampant
growth of cancer cells by deactivating certain motors. Improving motor-driven transport in nerve cells may also be helpful for treating diseases such as Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s or ALS, also known as Lou Gehrig’s disease.”
Between C and D, D is directly inferable from the information given above. C. requires the additional assumption that stopping rampant growth would be the same as stopping all growth.
Q. 123 The author has used several analogies to illustrate his arguments in the article. Which of the following pairs of words are examples of the analogies used?
A. Cell activity and vehicular traffic
B. Polymers and tram tracks
C. Genes and canoes
D. Vorticellids and ratchets
A. A and B
B. B and C
C. A and D
D. A and C
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Refer to the lines of the 1st para where it is written that “the inside of the cell bustles with more traffic than Delhi Road”.
Also refer to the middle of 3rd para “The movements that make these cellular activities possible occur along a complex network of threadlike fibers, or polymers, along which bundles of molecules travel like tram”
Q. 124 Read the five statements below: A, B, C, D, and E. From the options given, select the one which includes a statement that is not representative of an argument presented in the passage.
A. Sperms use spring like engines made of actin filament.
B. Myosin and kinesin are unrelated.
C. Nanotechnology researchers look for ways to power molecule-sized devices.
D. Motor proteins help muscle contraction.
E. The dynein motor is still poorly understood.
A. A, B and C
B. C, D and E
C. A, D and E
D. A, C and D
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Refer to the 2nd last para ” Some sperm use spring like engines made of actin filaments to shoot out a barb that penetrates the layers that surround an egg.” This makes the argument A. correct.
Refer to the 4th para “Each myosin molecule has a tiny head that pokes out from the chain like oars from a canoe. Just as rowers propel their boat by stroking their oars through the water, the myosin molecules stick their heads into the
action and hoist themselves forward along the filament. While myosin moves along in short strokes, it cousin Kinesin walks steadily along a different type of filament called a microtubule. Instead of using a projecting head as lever, kinesin walks on two ‘legs’. Based on these differences, researchers used to think that myosin and kinesin were virtually unrelated. But newly discovered similarities in the motors’ ATP processing machinery now suggest that they share a common ancestor-molecule.” Hence, we can infer that Myosin and Kinesin are in fact related. Therefore, statement B. is False.
Refer to the 1st line of 2nd para “The ability of such engines to convert chemical energy into motion is the envy of the nanotechnology researchers looking for ways to power molecule-sized devices.”This makes C correct.
The third para states that “We wouldn’t make it far in life without motor proteins. Our muscles wouldn’t contract.” Hence, statement D is true.
Statement E is directly given in para 4, line 2.
Hence, only statement B is incorrect. Thus, the only option that includes a statement that is not representative of an argument presented in the passage is option A which includes statement B
Q. 125 Read the four statements below: A, B, C and D From the options given, select the one which includes only statements that are representative of arguments presented in the passage.
A. Protein motors help growth processes.
B. Improved transport in nerve cells will help arrest tuberculosis and cancer.
C. Cells, together, generate more power than the sum of power generated by them separately.
D. Vorticellid and the leaf fragment are connected by a calcium engine.
A. A and B but not C
B. A and C but not D
C. A and D but not B
D. C and D but not B
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Refer 1st lines of 3rd para “We wouldn’t make it far in life without motor proteins. Our muscles wouldn’t contract. We couldn’t grow because the growth process requires cells to duplicate their machinery and pull the copies apart “This makes A correct.
Refer to the last para”Both springs and ratchets are made up of small units that each move just slightly, but collectively produce a powerful movement. Ultimately, Mahadevan and Matsudaira hope to better understand just how these particles create an effect that seems to be so much more than the sum of its parts.” This makes C correct.
Q. 126 Read the four statements below: A, B, C and D From the options given, select the one which includes statements that are representative of arguments presented in the passage.
A. Myosin, kinesin and actin are three types of protein.
B. Growth processes involve a routine in a cell that duplicates their machinery and pulls the copies apart.
C. Myosin molecules can generate vibrations in muscles.
D. Ronald and Mahadevan are researchers at Massachusetts Institute of Technology.
A. A and B but not C and D
B. B and C but not A
C. B and D but not A and C
D. A, B and C but not D
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Refer to the 3rd para”The engines that power the cell’s freight are three families of proteins, called myosin, kinesin and dynein.” It is given that Actin is a protein in the sentence, “Myosin molecules, best known for their role in muscle contraction, form chains that lie between filaments of another protein called actin”. Hence, argument A is true.
Statement B is given in para 3 in the third line.
Statement C is not given – we know that Myosin causes contractions but not vibrations.
Statement D is not true according to the paragraph.
Instructions
If translated into English, most of the ways economists talk among themselves would sound plausible enough to poets, journalists, businesspeople, and other thoughtful though non-economical folk. Like serious talk anywhere — among boat designers and baseball fans, say — the talk is hard to follow when one has not made a habit of listening to it for a while. The culture of the conversation makes the words arcane. But the people in the unfamiliar conversation are not Martians. Underneath it all (the economist’s favourite phrase) conversational habits are similar. Economics uses mathematical models and statistical tests and market arguments, all of which look alien to the literary eye. But looked at closely they are not so alien. They may be seen as figures of speech-metaphors, analogies, and appeals to authority.
Figures of speech are not mere frills. They think for us. Someone who thinks of a market as an ‘invisible hand’ and the organization of work as a ‘production function’ and his coefficients as being ‘significant’, as an economist does, is giving the language a lot of responsibility. It seems a good idea to look hard at his language.
If the economic conversation were found to depend a lot on its verbal forms, this would not mean that economics would be not a science, or just a matter of opinion, or some sort of confidence game. Good poets, though not scientists, are serious thinkers about symbols; good historians, though not scientists, are serious thinkers about data. Good scientists also use language. What is more (though it remains to be shown) they use the cunning of language, without particularly meaning to. The language used is a social object, and using language is a social act. It requires cunning (or, if you prefer, consideration), attention to the other minds present when one speaks.
The paying of attention to one’s audience is called ‘rhetoric’, a word that I later exercise hard. One uses rhetoric, of course, to warn of a fire in a theatre or to arouse the xenophobia of the electorate. This sort of yelling is the vulgar meaning of the word, like the president’s ‘heated rhetoric’ in a press conference or the ‘mere rhetoric’ to which our enemies stoop. Since the Greek flame was lit, though, the word has been used also in a broader and more amiable
sense, to mean the study of all the ways of accomplishing things with language: inciting a mob to lynch the accused, to be sure, but also persuading readers of a novel that its characters breathe, or bringing scholars to accept the better argument and reject the worse.
The question is whether the scholar- who usually fancies himself an announcer of ‘results’ or a stater of ‘conclusions’ free of rhetoric — speaks rhetorically. Does he try to persuade? It would seem so. Language, I just said, is not a solitary accomplishment. The scholar doesn’t speak into the void, or to himself. He speaks to a community of voices. He desires to be heeded, praised, published, imitated, honoured, en-Nobeled. These are the desires. The devices of language are the means. Rhetoric is the proportioning of means to desires in speech.
Rhetoric is an economics of language, the study of how scarce means are allocated to the insatiable desires of people to be heard. It seems on the face of it a reasonable hypothesis that economists are like other people in being talkers, who desire listeners whey they go to the library or the laboratory as much as when they go to the office or the polls. The purpose here is to see if this is true, and to see if it is useful: to study the rhetoric of economic scholarship.
The subject is scholarship. It is not the economy, or the adequacy of economic theory as a description of the economy, or even mainly the economist’s role in the economy. The subject is the conversation economists have among themselves, for purposes of persuading each other that the interest elasticity of demand for investment is zero or that the money supply is controlled by the Federal Reserve.
Unfortunately, though, the conclusions are of more than academic interest. The conversations of classicists or of astronomers rarely affect the lives of other people. Those of economists do so on a large scale. A. well known joke describes a May Day parade through Red Square with the usual mass of soldiers, guided missiles, rocket launchers. At last come rank upon rank of people in gray business suits. A. bystander asks, “Who are those?” “Aha!” comes the reply,
”those are economists: you have no idea what damage they can do!” Their conversations do it.
Q. 127 According to the passage, which of the following is the best set of reasons for which one needs to ‘look hard’ at an economist’s language?
A. Economists accomplish a great deal through their language.
B. Economics is an opinion-based subject.
C. Economics has a great impact on others lives.
D. Economics is damaging.
A. A and B
B. C and D
C. A and C
D. B and D
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Option A and C are correct.Refer to the words”they think for us” and “giving a language a lot of responsibility”
Q. 128 In the light of the definition of rhetoric given in the passage, which of the following will have the least element of rhetoric?
A. An election speech
B. An advertisement jingle
C. Dialogues in a play
D. Commands given by army officers
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Option A,B and C clearly qualifies for the rhetoric as they persuade people to be heard.Option D does not fit the criteria. it is giving orders and not persuading people to be heard.
Q. 129 As used in the passage, which of the following is the clolsest meaning to the statement ‘The cultural of the conversation makes the words arcane’?
A. Economists belong to a different culture.
B. Only mathematicians can understand economicsts.
C. Economists tend to use terms unfamiliar to the lay person, but depend on familiar linguistic forms.
D. Economists use similes and adjectives in their analysis.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Only option C correctly depicts the meaning of the statement.Rest of the options are deviating.”Arcane” means unfamiliar to the layman. Hence option c correctly depicts the meaning.
Q. 130 As used in the passage, which of the following is the closest alternative to the word ‘arcane’?
A. Mysterious
B. Secret
C. Covert
D. Perfidious
Answer: A.
Explanation:
The dictionary meaning of arcane is deceptive.
Q. 131 Based on your understanding of the passage, which of the following conclusions would you agree with?
A. The geocentric and the heliocentric views of the solar system are equally tenable.
B. The heliocentric view is superior because of better rhetoric.
C. Both views use rhetoric to persuade.
D. Scientists should not use rhetoric.
Answer: C.
Explanation:
If you refer these line:”Since the Greek flame was lit, though, the word has been used also in a broader and more amiable sense, to mean the study of all the ways of accomplishing things with language: inciting a mob to lynch the accused, to be sure, but also persuading readers of a novel that its characters breathe, or bringing scholars to accept the better argument and reject the worse.”, it suggests that both views persuade people through rhetoric.
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Q. 132 Out of the four possibilities given, select the one that has all the definitions and their usages most closely matched.
“Measure”
A. Size or quantity found by measuring
B. Vessel of standard capacity
C. Suitable action
D. Ascertain extent or quantity
E. A. measure was instituted to prevent outsiders from entering the campus
F. Sheila was asked to measure each item that was delivered.
G. The measure of the cricket pitch was 22 yards.
H. Ramesh used a measure to take out one litre of oil.
A. A-H, B-F, C-E, D-G
B. A-G, B-E, C-F, D-H
C. A-G, B-H, C-E, D-F
D. A-F, B-H, C-E, D-G
Answer: C.
Explanation:
In point E, a certain action was taken in order to prevent outsiders from entering the campus. (C-E) In point F, Sheila had to gauge the capacity. “Ascertain extent or quantity” makes a good fit. (D-F) In point G, the size of cricket pitch was gauged as 22 yards. (A-G)
In point H, Ramesh used a vessel marked with 1 litre capacity to take out the oil. (B-H)
Q. 133 Out of the four possibilities given, select the one that has all the definitions and their usages most closely matched.
“Bound”
A. Obliged, constrained
B. Limiting value
C. Move in a specified direction
D. Destined or certain to be
E. Dinesh felt bound to walk out when the discussion turned to kickbacks.
F. Buffeted by contradictory forces he was bound to lose his mind.
G. Vidya’s story strains the bounds of credulity.
H. Bound for a career in law, Jyoti was reluctant to study Milton.
A. A-F, B-H, C-G, D-E
B. A-E, B-G, C-H, D-F
C. A-E, B-H, C-F, D-G
D. A-F, B-G, C-E, D-H
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Point E says Dinesh had to leave walk out due to kickbacks. It was out of constrain by force of necessity. (A-E)
Point F says it was certain that the contradictory forces would mess up his mind. (D-F)
According to point G, Vidya’s story was not readily believable. (B-G)
Point H stresses on Jyoti’s affinity towards a career in law, hence she was moving in a specific direction towards her goal. (C-H)
Q. 134 Out of the four possibilities given, select the one that has all the definitions and their usages most closely matched.
“Catch”
A. Capture
B. Grasp with senses of mind
C. Deception
D. Thing or person worth trapping
E. All her friends agreed that Prasad was a good catch.
F. The proposal sounds very good but where is the catch?
G. Hussain tries to catch the spirit of India in this painting.
H. Sorry, I couldn’t catch you.
A. A-H, B-F, C-E, D-G
B. A-F, B-G, C-E, D-H
C. A-G, B-F, C-E, D-H
D. A-G, B-H, C-F, D-E
Answer: D.
Explanation:
Point E says, Prasad is a good catch, meaning a good person worth trapping. (D-E) is a clear match and hence option D. is the answer as it is the only option with (D-E) pair. For reference sake, we’ll look at the other points. Point F senses a bit of deception as the proposal was too good to not be deceptive. (C-F)
In point G, Hussain tries to capture the spirit of India in his painting. (A-G)
In point H, one person was not able to make out what the other person was trying to say. The word “grasp” fits in well. (B-H)
Q. 135 Out of the four possibilities given, select the one that has all the definitions and their usages most closely matched.
“Deal”
A. Manage, attend to
B. Stock, sell
C. Give out to a number of people
D. Be concerned with
E. Dinesh insisted on dealing the cards.
F. This contract deals with handmade cards.
G. My brother deals in cards.
H. I decided not to deal with handmade cards.
A. A-F, B-E, C-G, D-H
B. A-H, B-G, C-E, D-F
C. A-F, B-H, C-G, D-E
D. A-H, B-E, C-G, D-F
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Point E says Dinesh wanted to give out the cards. So (C-E) is a pair.
Point F implies that the contract is related to (concerned with) handmade cards. So, (D-F) is a pair. From the options, we can see that only B. has this combination.
Q. 136 Out of the four possibilities given, select the one that has all the definitions and their usages most closely matched.
“Turn”
A. Give new direction to
B. Send
C. Change in form
D. Opportunity coming successively for each person
E. It was now his turn to be angry.
F. Leena never turned away a beggar.
G. Ashish asked Laxman to turn his face to the left.
H. The old school building has been turned into a museum.
A. A-H, B-E, C-F, D-G
B. A-G, B-F, C-E, D-H
C. A-G, B-E, C-F, D-H
D. A-G, B-F, C-H, D-E
Answer: D.
Explanation:
In point E, it was his chance to be angry, so E-D. is a pair.
Point F means that Leena never sent the beggar away, so F-B. is a pair.
In point G, Ashish asked Lakshman to change the direction of his face, so G-A. is a pair.
In point H, the school changed its form to a museum, so H-C. is a pair.
Option d) is the correct answer.
Q. 137 The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A. Branded disposable diapers are available at many supermarkets and drug stores.
B. If one supermarket sets a higher price for a diaper, customers may buy that brand elsewhere.
C. By contrast, the demand for private-label products may be less price sensitive since it is available only at a corresponding supermarket chain.
D. So the demand for branded diapers at any particular store may be quite price sensitive. E. For instance, only SavOn Drugs stores sell SavOn Drugs diapers.
F. Then stores should set a higher incremental margin percentage for private label diapers.
A. ABCDEF
B. ABCEDF
C. ADBCEF
D. AEDBCF
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Among the statements we can see that the AD. is the pair as A starts the topic and D continues with saying that demand is price sensitive asbranded diapers are available at many stores. Also there is visible link between EF as E gives an example and F continues with saying what should be done if E happens. Hence correct sequence is ADBCEF.
Q. 138 The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A. Having a strategy is a matter of discipline.
B. It involves the configuration of a tailored value chain that enables a company to offer unique value.
C. It requires a strong focus on profitability and a willingness to make tough tradeoffs in choosing what not to do.
D. Strategy goes far beyond the pursuit of best practices.
E. A company must stay the course even during times of upheaval, while constantly improving and extending its distinctive positioning.
F. When a company’s activities fit together as a self-reinforcing system, any competitor wishing to imitate a strategy must replicate the whole system.
A. ACEDBF
B. ACBDEF
C. DCBEFA
D. ABCEDF
Answer: A.
Explanation:
A introduces the main idea of the para – having a strategy.
C and E extend this idea in that order. So, ACE is a sequence.
DB is a mandatory pair. The ‘it’ in sentence B. refers to ‘the strategy’ in sentence D
F is the concluding sentence.
So, the correct order of sentences is ACEDBF
Q. 139 The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A. As officials, their vision of a country shouldn’t run too far beyond that of the local people with whom they have to deal.
B. Ambassadors have to choose their words.
C. To say what they feel they have to say, they appear to be denying or ignoring part of what they know.
D. So, with ambassadors as with other expatriates in black Africa, there appears at a first meeting a kind of ambivalence.
E. They do a specialized job and it is necessary for them to live ceremonial lives.
A. BCEDA
B. BEDAC
C. BEADC
D. BCDEA
E. BCEAD
Answer: C.
Explanation:
Statement B introduces the subject of the paragraph – “Ambassadors”. Hence, it should be the opening sentence of the paragraph.
The main point of the paragraph is that Ambassadors need to carefully weigh their words so that their vision is acceptable to the locals of the country.
Statement A says that the ambassador’s vision of the country should not run beyond that of the local people and D adds to this thought by saving as a result of this necessity there is an ambivalence in their behaviour. C explains how this ambivalence is exhibited by them. Hence, A-D-C are logically connected.
Statement E which introduces the specialized nature of their job acts a connecting line between B and ADC Hence, the order is BEADC
Q. 140 The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A. “This face-off will continue for several months given the strong convictions on either side,” says a senior functionary of the high-powered task force on drought.
B. During the past week-and-half, the Central Government has sought to deny some of the earlier apprehensions over the impact of drought.
C. The recent revival of the rains had led to the emergence of a line of divide between the two.
D. The state governments, on the other hand, allege that the Centre is downplaying the crisis only to evade its full responsibility of financial assistance that is required to alleviate the damage.
E. Shrill alarm about the economic impact of an inadequate monsoon had been sounded by the Centre as well as most of the states, in late July and early August.
A. EBCDA
B. DBACE
C. BDCAE
D. ECBDA
Answer: D.
Explanation:
E is the opening sentence since it introduces the topic. This is followed by sentence C. The ‘two’ in C. refers to the ‘Center and states’ mentioned in E. B-D. is a pair. B. talks about the actions of Central Government whereas D. contrasts it with the actions of the State Governments. A. is the concluding sentence. The correct order of sentences is ECBDA.
Q. 141 The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
A. This fact was established in the 1730s by French survey expenditions to Equador near the Equator and Lapland in the Arctic, which found that around the middle of the earth the arc was about a kilometer shorter.
B. One of the unsettled scientific questions in the late 18th century was that exact nature of the shape of the earth.
C. The length of one-degree arc would be less near the equatorial latitudes than at the poles.
D. One way of doing that is to determine the length of the arc along a chosen longitude or meridian at one degree latitude separation.
E. While it was generally known that the earth was not a sphere but an ‘oblate spheroid’, more curved at the equator and flatter at the poles, the question of ‘how much more’ was yet to be established.
A. BECAD
B. BEDCA
C. EDACB
D. EBDCA
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Statement B is the first sentence of the paragraph. It introduces the topic. This is followed by E, which dwells more on the ‘unsettled scientific questions’ talked about in B. Also there is link between statements E and D as D provides the solution to the question asked in E This is followed by sentence C and A is the closing sentence of the paragraph.
Option b) is the correct answer.
Q. 142 Choose the best way of writing the sentence.
A. The main problem with the notion of price discrimination is that it is not always a bad thing, but that it is the monopolist who has the power to decide who is charged what price.
B. The main problem with the notion of price discrimination is not that it is always a bad thing, it is the monopolist who has the power to decide who is charged what price.
C. The main problem with the notion of price discrimination is not that it is always a bad thing, but that it is the monopolist who has the power to decide who is charged what price.
D. The main problem with the notion of price discrimination is not it is always a bad thing, but that it is the monopolist who has the power to decide who is charged what price.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: C.
Explanation:
The idiom used in these sentences is “not __, but __”. So, the two phrases that follow ‘not’ and ‘but’ must be parallel.
In sentence A, the phrase after ‘but’ starts with the subject but the phrase after ‘not’ doesn’t. Hence, sentence A. has a parallelism error. There are no other errors in sentence A. Option A. is wrong.
All the options that have the same error can be eliminated. In sentence B, “not that it is” and “but it is” are not parallel. Hence, option B. is wrong.
Similarly, option D. is also wrong because the phrases “not it is” and “but that it is” are not parallel.
This error is corrected in option C. “Not that it is” and “but that it is” are parallel and hence option C. is the correct answer.
Q. 143 Choose the best way of writing the sentence.
A. A symbiotic relationship develops among the contractors, bureaucracy and the politicians, and by a large number of devices costs are artificially escalated and black money is generated by underhand deals.
B. A symbiotic relationship develops among contractors, bureaucracy and politicians, and costs are artificially escalated with a large number of devices and black money is generated through underhand deals.
C. A symbiotic relationship develops among contractors, bureaucracy and the politicians, and by a large number of devices costs are artificially escalated and black money is generated on underhand deals.
D. A symbiotic relationship develops among the contractors, bureaucracy and politicians, and by large number of devices costs are artificially escalated and black money is generated by underhand deals.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B.
Explanation:
Contractors, bureaucracy and politicians are being talked about for the first time in the sentence. So, the definite article ‘the’ should not be placed before any of them. Option b) is the grammatically correct sentence.
Q. 144 Choose the best way of writing the sentence.
A. The distinctive feature of tariffs and export subsidies is that they create differences in prices at which goods are traded on the world market and their price within a local market.
B. The distinctive feature of tariffs and export subsidies is that they create a difference of prices at which goods are traded with the world market and their prices in the local market.
C. The distinctive feature of tariffs and export subsidies is that they create a difference between prices at which goods are traded on the world market and their prices within a local market.
D. The distinctive feature of tariffs and export subsidies is that they create a difference across prices at which goods are traded with the world market and their prices within a local market.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: C.
Explanation:
There are two prices that are being compared – prices at which goods are traded on the world market and prices at which goods are sold in the local market. So, the difference is created ‘between’ the two prices. Also, goods are traded ‘on’ the world market and not ‘with’ the world market. So, the grammatically correct sentence is option c).
Q. 145 Choose the best way of writing the sentence.
A. Any action of government to reduce the systemic risk inherent in financial markets will also reduce the risks that private operators perceive and thereby encourage excessive hedging.
B. Any action by government to reduce the systemic risk inherent in financial markets will also reduce the risks that private operators perceive and thereby encourage excessive gambling.
C. Any action by government to reduce the systemic risk inherent in financial markets will also reduce the risks that private operators perceive and thereby encourages excessive gambling.
D. Any action of government to reduce the systemic risk inherent in financial markets will also reduce the risks that private operators perceive and thereby encourages excessive gambling.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: B.
Explanation:
The correct preposition to be used before government is ‘by’ and not ‘of’. So, options a) and d) are incorrect.
In the second part of the sentence, which is in simple future tense, the grammatically correct form is “thereby encourage” and not “thereby encourages”. So, option b) is the correct answer.
Q. 146 From the alternatives given pick the word or phrase that is closest in meaning in the given context.
Opprobrium: The police officer appears oblivious to the opprobrium generated by his blatantly partisan conduct.
A. Harsh criticism
B. Acute distrust
C. Bitter enmity
D. Stark oppressiveness
Answer: A.
Explanation:
The meaning of ‘opprobrium’ is ‘criticize scornfully’.
Only option a) brings out this meaning. None of the other options are applicable.
Q. 147 From the alternatives given pick the word or phrase that is closest in meaning in the given context. Portend: It appears to many that the US ‘war on terrorism’ portends trouble in the Gulf.
A. Introduces
B. Bodes
C. Spells
D. Evokes
Answer: C.
Explanation:
In the given context, “to portend” is ‘to mean’ something. It doesn’t mean ‘to start’ something, hence options A and D can be eliminated. Between “bodes” and “spells”, “spells” fits better in this context. Option c) is the correct answer.
Q. 148 From the alternatives given pick the word or phrase that is closest in meaning in the given context.
Prevaricate: When a videotape of her meeting was played back to her and she was asked to explain her presence there, she started prevaricating.
A. Speaking evasively
B. Speaking violently
C. Lying furiously
D. Throwing a tatrum
Answer: A.
Explanation:
Option A. is correct.
‘To prevaricate’ is ‘to mislead deliberately’. In other words, it is to speak evasively.
Other options talk about furiousness and violence, which are wrong in this context.
Q. 149 From the alternatives given pick the word or phrase that is closest in meaning in the given context.
Restive: The crowd became restive when the minister failed to appear even by 10 pm.
A. Violent
B. Angry
C. Restless
D. Distressed
Answer: C.
Explanation:
The correct option is ‘restless’.
‘Restive’ means impatient or restless and doesn’t imply the presence of anger and violence. So, option c) is the correct answer.
Q. 150 From the alternatives given pick the word or phrase that is closest in meaning in the given context. Ostensible: Manohar’s ostensible job was to guard the building at night.
A. Apparent
B. Blatant
C. Ostentatious
D. Insidious
Answer: A.
Explanation:
The correct option is “apparent”.
The meaning of the word ‘ostensible’ is ‘clearly evident’ and does not hint any kind of pretense or deceit. So, the word ‘apparent’ is the suitable word in this context.
Option a) is the correct answer.
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CAT 2007
CAT 2006
