Category: Coachings

CLAT 2013

Questions: 1 – 10

Direction for Questions 1 to 10 : Read the given passage carefully and attempt the questions that follow and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR answer sheet.

It is an old saying that knowledge is power. Education is an instrument which imparts knowledge and therefore, indirectly controls power.Therefore, ever since the dawn of our civilisation, persons in power have always tried to supervise or control education. It has been handmaid of the ruling class. During the Christian era, the ecclesiastics controlled the institution of education and diffused among the people the gospel of the Bible and religious teachings. These gospels and teachings were no other than a philosophy for the maintenance of the existing society. It taught the poor man to be meek and to earn his bread with the sweat of his brow, while the priests and the landlords lived in luxury and fought duels for the slightest offence. During the Renaissance, education passed more from the clutches of the priest into the hands of the prince. In other words, it became more secular. Under the control of the monarch, education began to devise and preach the infallibility of its masters, the monarch or king.It also invented and supported fantastic theories like “The Divine right Theory” and that the king can do no wrong, etc. With the advent of the industrial revolution, education took a different turn and had to please the new masters. It now no longer remained the privilege of the baron class, but was thrown open to the new rich merchant class of the society. The philosophy which was in vogue during this period was that of “Laissez Faire” restricting the function of the state to a mere keeping of laws and order while on the other hand, in practice the law of the jungle prevailed in the form of free competition and the survival of the fittest.

 

Q. 1 What does the theory “Divine Right of King” stipulate?

A. The kings are God

B. That the right of governing is conferred upon the kings by God

C. They have the right to be worshipped like Gods by their subjects

D. That the right of kings are divine and therefore sacred

 

Q. 2 Who controlled education during the Renaissance?

A. The common people

B. The prince

C. The church and the priests

D. None of these

 

Q. 3 What did the ruling class in the Christian era think of the poor man?

A. That he is the beloved of God

B. That he deserves all sympathy of the rich

C. That he should be strong and lord over others

D. That he is meant for serving the rich

 

Q. 4 Who controlled the institution of education during the Christian Era?

A. The secular leaders of society

B. The church and the priests

C. The monarchs

D. The common people

 

Q. 5 What does the word “infallibility” mean?

A. That every man is open to error

B. Sensitivity

C. The virtue of not making mistake

D. That some divine power is responsible for determining the fate of the man

 

Q. 6 What do you mean by the “sweat of his brow”?

A. Very hard work

B. The tiny droplets of sweat on the forehead

C. The wrinkles visible on the forehead

D. The sign of innocence

 

Q. 7 What does the policy of “Laissez Faire” stand for?

A. Individual freedom in the economic field

B. State control over law and order in society

C. Joint control of the means of production by the state and private enterprise

D. Decontrol over law and order by the ruling class

 

Q. 8 Which of the following describes the writer?

A. Concerned

B. Unconcerned

C. Aggressive

D. Frustrated

 

Q. 9 Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given : Gospels

A. Chit chat

B. A teaching or doctrine of a religious teacher

C. Rumour

D. Guidance

 

Q. 10 Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given : Vogue

A. Uncertain

B. Out-dated

C. The prevailing fashion or style

D. Journey

 

Q. 11 Select the word that is spelt correctly.

A. paraphernalia

B. paraphrenalia

C. parapherenalia

D. paraphrennalia

 

Q. 12 Select the word that is spelt correctly.

A. enterprenuer

B. entrepreneur

C. entrepenur

D. enteruepeur

 

Q. 13 Select the word that is spelt correctly.

A. onomaetopoeia

B. onomoatopoeia

C. onomatopoeia

D. onomatopoeia

 

Q. 14 Select the word that is spelt correctly.

A. hemorhage

B. haemorhhage

C. haemorrhage

D. hemoorhage

 

Q. 15 Select the word that is spelt correctly.

A. dylexsia

B. dyslexia

C. dislexia

D. dislecsia

 

Questions: 16 – 25

Direction for questions 16 to 25 : Select the best option from the four alternatives given below and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it in the OMR answer sheet.

 

Q. 16 Unless he ______ this office, I will not say anything.

A. Left

B. Did not leave

C. Leaves

D. Had left

 

Q. 17 _________, I would help all the poor people.

A. If I am rich

B. If I was rich

C. If I were rich

D. In case I am rich

 

Q. 18 I _____ the news an hour ago.

A. Have heard

B. Heard

C. Was hearing

D. Have been hearing

 

Q. 19 He spoke _______ about his prospects.

A. Confidentially

B. Consciously

C. Confidently

D. Conscientiously

 

Q. 20 The boy is not interested in playing, ________?

A. Doesn’t he?

B. Isn’t he?

C. Didn’t he?

D. Is he?

 

Q. 21 He told us that we should never live beyond _______ means.

A. His

B. Their

C. Our

D. Her

 

Q. 22 May I request _________ you again to consider my case favourably.

A. To

B. Onto

C. Of

D. No proposition required

 

Q. 23 Known as devout and serious person, she also has ______ sense of humour.

A. Better

B. Quick

C. Good

D. Beautiful

 

Q. 24 Galileo said, “The Earth ______ around the sun”.

A. Revolved

B. Is revolving

C. Revolves

D. Is revolved

 

Q. 25 We ________ our work before the guests arrived at our house.

A. Shall finish

B. Have finished

C. Had finished

D. Shall have finished

 

Questions: 26 – 30

Direction for Questions 26 to 30: The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentenced is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph. Shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it in the OMR sheet.

 

Q. 26 a: People who start up their own business typically come from two extreme backgrounds: One is the business family background and the other is a steady professional family background.

b: Typically, people from different backgrounds face different kinds of basic problems.

c: The people from both the backgrounds find it very difficult to establish and manage an enterprise.

d: Starting up and managing a small business is no joke.

A. d b c a

B. b a c d

C. d a c b

D. c d a b

 

Q. 27 a: Venture capital is recommended as the ideal source of financing for a successfully small business.

b: Several companies including start ups have been funded by dedicated venture funds during this decade.

c: Despite this, an average Indian entrepreneur understands and appreciation of venture capital concept has been woefully inadequate.

d: In the Indian context, though venture capital has been a relatively late entrant, it has already made a reasonable impact.

A. a b c d

B. a d b c

C. a c b d

D. a d c b

 

Q. 28 a: Progress in diagnosis, in preventive medicine and in treatment, both medicinal and surgical, has been rapid and breathe taking.

b: Much in medicine which is not taken for granted was undreamt of even as recently as 20 years ago.

c: Presently small pox has been eradicated, poliomyelitis practically banished, tuberculosis has become curable and coronary artery disease surgically relievable.

d: The dramatic surge in the field of molecular biology and research by immunologists and geneticists has succeeded in controlling parasitic diseases like malaria and river blindness that affect millions of people round the world.

A. b d c a

B. b a c d

C. b c a d

D. b d a c

 

Q. 29 a: Instead, many deaths and injuries result from falling objects and the collapse of buildings, bridges and other structures.

b: Earthquakes almost never kill people directly.

c: Fire resulting from broken gas or power lines is another major danger during a quake.

d: Spills of hazardous chemicals are also a concern during an earthquake.

A. c a b d

B. d a c b

C. d c a b

D. b a c d

 

Q. 30 a: The Winchester or hard disk drives can store much more data than what can be stored on a floppy diskette.

b: Hard disks come sealed and they cannot be removed or changed like floppy diskettes.

c: Often floppy disk system is used in conjunction with the Winchester disk system.

d: This makes for an ideal system for secondary storage.

A. c a b d

B. c b d a

C. b a c d

D. a b c d

 

Q. 31 Given below is a foreign language phrase which are commonly used. Choose the correct meaning for the options

El Dorado

A. An imaginary place

B. High altitude

C. A literary man

D. A country full of gold and precious stones

 

Q. 32 Given below is a foreign language phrase which are commonly used. Choose the correct meaning for the options:

quantum ramifactus

A. The amount of damage suffered

B. The amount of damage caused

C. The amount of damage paid

D. The amount of damage received

 

Q. 33 Given below is a foreign language phrase which are commonly used. Choose the correct meaning for the options:

Corpus delicti

A. Fake evidence of an offence

B. Hearsay evidence of an offence

C. Lack of evidence of an offence

D. An evidence which constitute an offence

 

Q. 34 Given below is a foreign language phrase which are commonly used. Choose the correct meaning for the options:

Vis-a-vis

A. Direct

B. Opposite

C. Face to face

D. Agree

 

Q. 35 Given below is a foreign language phrase which are commonly used. Choose the correct meaning for the options:

Carte blanche

A. Complete authority

B. Issue the warrant

C. No authority

D. Lack of authority

 

Q. 36 Choose the explanation that catches the spirit of the idiom-

To blaze a trail

A. To set on fire

B. To blow the trumpet

C. To initiate work in a movement

D. To be hopeful

 

Q. 37 Choose the explanation that catches the spirit of the idiom-

A snake in the grass

A. A secret or hidden enemy

B. An unreliable person

C. Unforeseen happening

D. A dangerous enemy

 

Q. 38 Choose the explanation that catches the spirit of the idiom-

Have too many irons in the fire

A. Engaged in too many enterprises at the same time

B. Facing too many problems at the same time

C. Said or done too many things at the same time

D. To incite the feeling amongst the people

 

Q. 39 Choose the explanation that catches the spirit of the idiom-

A fair weather friend

A. A friend who is fair to us at all the times

B. A friend who deserts us in difficulties

C. A friend whom we love the most

D. A friend who loves us the most

 

Q. 40 Choose the explanation that catches the spirit of the idiom-

A Panacea

A. An injection that serves as a life line

B. A lecture full of precepts

C. A strong drug that induces sleep

D. A single cure for all diseases or troubles

 

Q. 41 2/3 is a rational number whereas √2/√3 is

A. Also a rational number

B. An irrational number

C. Not a number

D. A natural periodic number

 

Q. 42 Greatest number which divides 926 and 2313, leaving 2 and 3 remainders, respectively, is 

A. 52

B. 54

C. 152

D. 154

 

Q. 43 A single discount equivalent to a discount series 15% and 5% is

A. 32%

B. 20%

C. 10%

D. 8.5%

 

Q. 44 By selling a cycle for Rs 2345, a student loses 19%. His cost price is nearly

A. Rs 4000

B. Rs 5000

C. Rs 3000

D. Rs 3500

 

Q. 45 Diagonals of a rhombus are 1 meter and 1.5 meter in lengths. The area of the rhombus is 

A. 0.75 m2

B. 1.5 m

C. 1.5 m2

D. 0.375 m2

 

Q. 46 An angle in a semi circle is

A. π

B. π/4

C. π/2

D. 2π

 

Q. 47 In a school for midday meal food is sufficient for 250 students for 33 days, if each student is given 125 gm meals. 80 more students joined the school. If same amount of meal is given to each student, then the food will last for

A. 20 days

B. 40 days

C. 30 days

D. 25 days

 

Q. 48 In a school of 500 students, 102 students can read Hindi and Tamil both, 200 students can read only Hindi. The students who can read Tamil are

A. 98

B. 402

C. 302

D. 300

 

Q. 49 The value of k for which kx + 3y – k + 3 = 0 and 12x + ky = k, have infinite solutions, is 

A. 0

B. -6

C. 6

D. 1

 

Q. 50 Table shows the daily expenditure on food of 25 households in a locality: Rs 100-150 150- 200 200-250 250-300 300-350 Households 4 5 12 2 2

The mean daily expenditure on food is

A. Rs 111

B. Rs 161

C. Rs 211

D. Rs 261

 

Q. 51 A box contains 24 marbles, some are green and others are blue. If a marble is drawn at random from the jar, the probability that it is green is 2/3. The number of blue balls in the jar is

A. 13

B. 12

C. 16

D. 8

 

Q. 52 The population of a city is 250 thousand. It is increasing at the rate of 2% every year. The growth in the population after 2 years is

A. 2500

B. 10000

C. 252000

D. 10100

 

Q. 53 If a point (x, y) in a OXY plane is equidistant from (-1,1) and (4,3) then

A. 10x + 4y = 23

B. 6x + 4y = 23

C. –x + y = 7

D. 4x + 3y = 0

 

Q. 54 Sum of first 15 multiples of 8 is

A. 960

B. 660

C. 1200

D. 1060

 

Q. 55 A rod of 2 cm diameter and 30 cm length is converted into a wire of 3 meter length of uniform thickness. The diameter of the wire is

A. 2/10 cm

B. 2/√10 cm

C. 1/√10 cm

D. 1/10 cm

 

Q. 56 Two straight poles of unequal length stand upright on a ground. The length of the shorter pole is 10 meters. A pole joins the top of the two vertical poles. The distance between the two tops is 5 meters. The distance between the poles along the ground is 4 meter. The area thus formed by the three poles with the ground is

A. 52 m2

B. 46 m2

C. 20 m2

D. 50 m2

 

Q. 57 Pipe A can fill a tank in 10 hours and pipe B can fill the same tank in 12 hours. Both the pipes are opened to fill the tank and after 3 hours pipe A is closed. Pipe B will fill the remaining part of the tank in

A. 5 hours

B. 4 hours

C. 5 hours 24 minutes

D. 3 hours

 

Q. 58 A ground 100×80 meter2 has two cross roads in its middle. The road parallel to the length is 5 meter wide and the other road is 4 meter wide, both roads are perpendicular to each other. The cost of laying the bricks at the rate of Rs. 10 per m2, on the roads, will be

A. Rs 7000

B. Rs 8000

C. Rs 9000

D. Rs 10000

 

Q. 59 If selling price of 10 articles is equal to cost price of 11 articles, then gain is

A. 8%

B. 9%

C. 8.5%

D. 10%

 

Q. 60 Angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 : 8. The smallest angle is

A. 54°

B. 72°

C. 36°

D. 18°

 

Q. 61 The Headquarter of European Union is situated in

A. England

B. Germany

C. France

D. Belgium

 

Q. 62 India in 2008 successfully put CHANDRAYAAN-1 into its initial orbit by

A. PSLV- C12

B. PSLV- C11

C. PSLV-14

D. GSLV-D3

 

Q. 63 Vishwanathan Anand retained the World Chess Championship in 2012 by defeating Boris Gelfand. Mr. Gelfand belongs to

A. Israel

B. Russia

C. Poland

D. USA

 

Q. 64 Kapilvastu Relics (fragments of Lord Buddha’s bone), for the second time in 114 years, recently travelled from India to

A. China

B. Sri Lanka

C. Myanmar

D. Japan

 

Q. 65 Dr. Norman Borlaugh is famous as father of the Green Revolution in 1960s. His initial goal was to create varieties of wheat adapted to the climate of

A. Mexico

B. India

C. USA

D. China

 

Q. 66 A feature ‘Bluetooth’ now common in mobile phones, gets its name from a

A. Chinese 10th Century King

B. UK Software Company

C. Greek Goddess

D. Danish 10th Century King

 

Q. 67 Which pair of states does not touch each other

A. Meghalaya, Manipur

B. Chhattisgarh, U.P.

C. Rajasthan, Punjab

D. J.K., H.P.

 

Q. 68 Baglihar dam, is constructed on river

A. Ravi

B. Chenab

C. Indus

D. Sutlej

 

Q. 69 Navjivan Trust was instituted with the objectives of propagating peaceful means of attaining third Swaraj, by

A. Mohan Das Karam Chand Gandhi

B. Lala Lajpat Rai

C. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

D. Dr. Ambedkar

 

Q. 70 World Cup Football 2014 and Olympics 2016 will be held in

A. USA

B. Brazil

C. Russia

D. South Africa

 

Q. 71 In 2012-13, India’s target is to restrict the fiscal deficit to x % of the GDP, where x is

A. 10

B. 8.3

C. 15

D. 5.1

 

Q. 72 POSCO steel project to come up but being strongly protested by the people is located in 

A. Chhattisgarh

B. Jharkhand

C. Odisha

D. Andhra Pradesh

 

Q. 73 Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards in our country were instituted in the year

A. 1952

B. 1954

C. 1962

D. 1964

 

Q. 74 Who was crowned the Miss World 2012 on August 18, 2012?

A. Ms. Jessica Kahawaty

B. Ms. Wenxia Yu

C. Ms. Vanya Mishra

D. Ms. Sophie Moulds

 

Q. 75 Vishwaroopam is a 2013 Tamil spy thriller film written, directed and co-produced by _________ who also enacts the lead role.

A. Prakash Raj

B. Rajni Kant

C. Kamal Haasan

D. Chiranjeevi

 

Q. 76 Vijay Kumar, who clinched a silver medal in London Olympics in 2012 is associated with 

A. Boxing

B. Shooting

C. Weight Lifting

D. Wrestling

 

Q. 77 Sushil Kumar who won a silver medal in London Olympics in 2012 is associated with

A. Shooting

B. Boxing

C. Wrestling

D. Weight lifting

 

Q. 78 How many medals did India win in London Olympics 2012?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

 

Q. 79 The present Pope chosen in March 2013 hails from which country?

A. Brazil

B. Mexico

C. Argentina

D. Panama

 

Q. 80 The first person to set foot on the moon on July 20, 1969 and who died on Aug. 25, 2012 was

A. Nevil Armstrong

B. Neil Armstrong

C. Gagan Narang

D. Michael Phelps

 

Q. 81 In which place, on Feb 21, 2013, two powerful explosive devices planted on bicycles had exploded in Andhra Pradesh?

A. Dilrubnagar

B. Dilsukhnagar

C. Dilkushnagar

D. Dilshaknagar

 

Q. 82 On which date Maha Kumbh Mela started in Prayag this year?

A. 14-1-2013

B. 1-1-2013

C. 26-1-2013

D. 4-1-2013

 

Q. 83 On which date International Women’s Day is celebrated?

A. 18th March

B. 8th March

C. 28th March

D. 18th Feb

 

Q. 84 Duration of which Five Year Plan was 2007-2012

A. X

B. XII

C. IX

D. XI

 

Q. 85 As per census 2011, which State has the lowest sex ratio (877:1000)?

A. Punjab

B. Haryana

C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Bihar

 

Q. 86 Hugo Chavez who died on March 5, 2013 after losing his battle with cancer, was the President of which country?

A. Argentina

B. Cuba

C. Brazil

D. Venezuela

 

Q. 87 Carlos Slim, who tops the list of world’s wealthiest people, for the fourth year in a row, belongs to which country?

A. USA

B. England

C. Mexico

D. Germany

 

Q. 88 In the name P. Chidambaram, the present Union Finance Minister, what does ‘P’ stands for? 

A. Palghat

B. Pallakudi

C. Palaniappan

D. Perumal

 

Q. 89 The earlier name of which city was New Amsterdam?

A. Chicago

B. California

C. Washington D.C.

D. New York City

 

Q. 90 The grant of Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa is associated with

A. Nawab Shuja-ud-Daula

B. Nawab Asif-ud-Daula

C. Shah Alam I

D. Shah Alam II

 

Q. 91 Where did Kuchipudi, an eminent dance form, originate?

A. Kerala

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Tamil Nadu

 

Q. 92 Light Year is the unit of

A. Time

B. Distance

C. Light

D. None of these

 

Q. 93 The leaning tower of Pisa does not fall because

A. It is tapered at the top

B. It covers a large base area

C. Its C.G. is inside the tower

D. The vertical line passing through the C.G. of the tower falls within its base

 

Q. 94 “Paradise Regained” was written by

A. John Milton

B. Michel Angelo

C. John Keats

D. Lord Byron

 

Q. 95 Which is the richest temple in India?

A. Balaji Temple of Tirupathi

B. Padmanabha Swamy Temple of Thiruvananthapuram

C. Shirdi Sai Baba Temple

D. Jagannatha Temple of Puri

 

Q. 96 Who founded the Red Cross?

A. Henry Dunant

B. Alexander

C. James Cook

D. Bismark

 

Q. 97 World Literacy Day is celebrated on

A. 5th September

B. 6th September

C. 8th September

D. None of these

 

Q. 98 South African Paralympics icon Oscar Pistorius has been accused of killing

A. Julia Kamp

B. Reeva Steenkamp

C. Pistorius Kamp

D. Shakeera Kamp

 

Q. 99 In the month of March, 2013 the Supreme Court of India issued a notice that the

ambassador of the following country shall not leave India without the permission of the Supreme Court

A. Germany

B. Maldives

C. Italy

D. Nepal

 

Q. 100 The Constitution (One Hundred Seventeenth Amendment) Bill, 2012 makes provisions regarding

A. Reservation in matters of promotions for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

B. Reservation in matters of appointments for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

C. Reservation in matters of appointments and promotions for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

D. None of the above

 

Q. 101 The number of High Courts in India is

A. 18

B. 24

C. 21

D. 28

 

Q. 102 The last British Emperor of India was

A. King George I

B. King George III

C. King George V

D. King George VI

 

Q. 103 Palaeolithic period is also known as

A. Mesolithic Age

B. Late Stone Age

C. Old Stone Age

D. Neolithic Age

 

Q. 104 Capital of India was transferred from Calcutta to Delhi in the year

A. 1901

B. 1911

C. 1921

D. 1922

 

Q. 105 The chairman of Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee of the Constituent Assembly was 

A. Rajendra Prasad

B. B.R. Ambedkar

C. Jawaharlal Nehru

D. J.B. Kripalani

 

Q. 106 The Environment Protection Act was passed by the Parliament of India in the year

A. 1976

B. 1986

C. 1996

D. 2006

 

Q. 107 International Year of Biodiversity is/was/will be

A. 2010

B. 2011

C. 2012

D. 2014

 

Q. 108 The first Shaka king in India was

A. Rudradaman

B. Menadar

C. Maues

D. Damanrudra

 

Q. 109 Potential Energy is described by the expression:

A. PE= mgh

B. PE= ngh

C. PE= oph

D. PE= pph

 

Q. 110 Where was 16th NAM Summit held?

A. Tehran

B. Mehran

C. Turban

D. Bagdad

 

Questions: 111 – 113

Direction for Questions 111 to 113 : Answer the following questions based on the statements given below:

i. There are 3 poles on each side of the road.

ii. These six poles are labelled A, B, C, D, E and F.

iii. The poles are of different colours namely Golden, Silver, Metallic, Black, Bronze and White.

iv. The poles are of different heights.

v. E, the tallest pole, is exactly opposite to the Golden colours pole.

vi. The shortest pole is exactly opposite to the Metallic coloured pole.

vii. F, the Black coloured pole, is located between A and D.

viii. C, the Bronze coloured pole, is exactly opposite to A.

ix. B, the Metallic coloured pole, is exactly opposite to F.

x. A, the White coloured pole, is taller than C but shorter than D and B.

 

Q. 111 What is the colour of the pole diagonally opposite to the Bronze coloured pole?

A. White

B. Silver

C. Metallic

D. Golden

 

Q. 112 Which is the second tallest pole?

A. A

B. D

C. B

D. Cannot be determined

 

Q. 113 Which is the colour of the tallest pole?

A. Golden

B. Silver

C. Bronze

D. None of these

 

Questions: 114 – 115

Directions for questions 114 and 115 : Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:

The head of a newly formed Government desires to appoint five of the six elected ministers P, Q, R, S, T and U to portfolios of Foreign, Industry and Commerce, Agriculture, Rural Development and Human Resources. U does not want any portfolio if S gets one of the five. R wants either Foreign or Human Resources or no portfolio. Q says that if S gets Industry and Commerce or Rural Development then she must get the other one. T insists on a portfolio if P gets one. 

 

Q. 114 Which of the following is a valid assignment

A. P- Foreign, Q- Industry and Commerce, R- Agriculture, S- Rural Development, THuman Resources

B. R- Foreign, S- Industry and Commerce, P- Agriculture, Q- Rural Development, THuman Resources

C. P- Foreign, Q- Industry and Commerce, T- Agriculture, S- Rural Development, UHuman Resources

D. Q- Foreign, U- Industry and Commerce, T- Agriculture, R- Rural Development, PHuman Resources

 

Q. 115 If P gets Foreign and R gets Human Resources, then which is NOT a valid assignment of Agriculture and Rural Development

A. S- Agriculture, Q- Rural Development

B. U- Agriculture, Q- Rural Development

C. Q- Agriculture, T- Rural Development

D. Q- Agriculture, S- Rural Development

 

Q. 116 A related pair of words is followed by four pairs of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the question pair.

Action : Reaction

A. Introvert : Extrovert

B. Assail : Defend

C. Diseased : Treatment

D. Death : Rebirth

 

Q. 117 A related pair of words is followed by four pairs of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the question pair.

Sorrow : Misery

A. Love : Obsession

B. Amity : Harmony

C. Happiness : Joy

D. Enemy : Hatred

 

Q. 118 A related pair of words is followed by four pairs of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the question pair.

Drama : Audience

A. Brawl : Vagabonds

B. Game : Spectators

C. Art : Critic

D. Movie : Actors

 

Q. 119 A related pair of words is followed by four pairs of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the question pair.

Nuts : Bolts

A. Nitty : Gritty

B. Bare : Feet

C. Naked : Clothes

D. Hard : Soft

 

Q. 120 A related pair of words is followed by four pairs of words or phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to the one expressed in the question pair.

Book : Author

A. Rain : Flood

B. Light : Switch

C. Symphony : Composer

D. Song : Music

 

Questions: 121 – 125

Directions for questions 121 to 125 : Each question contains a statement on relationship and a question regarding relationship based on the statement. Select the correct option.

 

Q. 121 Moni is daughter of Sheela. Sheela is wife of my wife’s brother. How Moni is realted to my wife?

A. Cousin

B. Niece

C. Sister

D. Sister-in-law

 

Q. 122 Annu is daughter of my mother’s brother Abahi. Pari is grand daughter of my mother. Pari should call Annu as

A. Maternal Aunt

B. Sister

C. Cousin

D. Niece

 

Q. 123 Markandey is Rajiv’s mother’s father. Markandey is three brothers. One of them has grandson Abahi. Rajan is son of Abahi. Rajan is related to Rajiv as

A. Brother

B. Nephew

C. Cousin

D. Uncle

 

Q. 124 Deepak said to Nitin, “That boy playing with the football is the younger of the two brothers of the daughter of my father’s wife”. How is the boy playing football related to Deepak?

A. Son

B. Brother

C. Cousin

D. Brother-in-law

 

Q. 125 Pointing to a woman in the photograph, Rajesh said, “The only daughter of her grandfather is my wife”. How is Rajesh related to that woman?

A. Uncle

B. Father

C. Maternal Uncle

D. Brother

 

Questions: 126 – 130

Direction for Questions 126 to 130 : Read the information given below to answer the questions.

i. Kareena’s dieting schedule consists of having only one fruit on a given day of the week.

ii. Dietician has prescribed banana, papaya, pomegranate, apple and grape from Sunday to Friday, one day being a fasting day. Kareena cannot eat any fruit on Saturday.

iii. Pomegranate day is neither on the first day nor on the last day but earlier than the papaya day.

iv. Apple day is on the immediate next day of papaya day.

v. Banana day is on the immediate previous day of the fasting day.

vi. Apple day and grape day must have a gap of two days between them.

vii. Grape day is the day immediately following the fasting day.

 

Q. 126 Which of the following is the fasting day?

A. Monday

B. Tuesday

C. Wednesday

D. Thursday

 

Q. 127 Banana day and apple day have a gap of how many days between them?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

 

Q. 128 Which day is grape day?

A. Monday

B. Tuesday

C. Thursday

D. Sunday

 

Q. 129 Which day is pomegranate day?

A. Sunday

B. Monday

C. Tuesday

D. Wednesday

 

Q. 130 Which of the following is the correct statement?

A. Apple day is after papaya day.

B. Banana day is on Wednesday.

C. Fasting day is on Tuesday.

D. Papaya day is earlier than banana day.

 

Q. 131 The question contains one statement and two courses of action I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, decide which of the two courses of action most logically follows. Statement: Indian children are very talented but are instead weak in science and mathematics.

I: Teaching and textbooks are not available in mother language.

II: Education based on experiments in both the subjects is lacking.

A. If only I follows.

B. If only II follows.

C. If either I or II follows.

D. If neither I nor II follows.

 

Q. 132 The question contains one statement and two courses of action I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, decide which of the two courses of action most logically follows.

Statement: Despite of child labour laws, children can be seen working in hotels, shops, houses, very frequently.

I: The government should not make such laws which cannot be enforced.

II: A proper education system for the primary level particularly for lower caste community may eradicate this problem.

A. If only I follows.

B. If only II follows.

C. If either I or II follows.

D. If neither I nor II follows.

 

Q. 133 The question contains one statement and two courses of action I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, decide which of the two courses of action most logically follows. 

Statement: Kyoto protocol on environment is signed by almost every country of the world. 

I: As a result air, water and soil pollution have come down.

II: Increasing production of automobiles, refrigerators and fertilisers do not affect our environment.

A. If only I follows.

B. If only II follows.

C. If either I or II follows.

D. If neither I nor II follows.

 

Q. 134 The question contains one statement and two courses of action I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, decide which of the two courses of action most logically follows.

Statement: School dropout rate is very high in the rural areas as children support their parents in income earning activities.

I: Public awareness programme on primary education should be expanded immediately to educate parents.

II: Compensation is not a remedy.

A. If only I follows.

B. If only II follows.

C. If either I or II follows.

D. If neither I nor II follows.

 

Q. 135 The question contains one statement and two courses of action I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, decide which of the two courses of action most logically follows.

Statement: Smoking is one of those human weaknesses which tend to test the will power of the smoker of the edge.

I: It is very difficult for the smoker to give up smoking even if they want to do so.

II: Human beings have other weaknesses as well

A. If only I follows.

B. If only II follows.

C. If either I or II follows.

D. If neither I nor II follows.

 

Q. 136 Direction for Questions 136 to 140 : Complete the series by choosing the correct option. 

0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, ?

A. 34

B. 35

C. 33

D. 36

 

Q. 137 Complete the series by choosing the correct option.

A -10, E -15, I -20, M -25, …….

A. Q-5

B. Q-30

C. P-30

D. R-30

 

Q. 138 Direction for Questions 136 to 140 : Complete the series by choosing the correct option. 

17, 36, 74, 150, ? , 606

A. 250

B. 303

C. 300

D. 302

 

Q. 139 Complete the series by choosing the correct option.

2, 1, 4, 3, 6, 5, 8, ?

A. 9

B. 10

C. 7

D. 8

 

Q. 140 Complete the series by choosing the correct option.

1, 4, 27, 256. ?

A. 625

B. 3125

C. 3025

D. 1225

 

Questions: 141 – 145

Direction for Questions 141 to 145: In each question below are given two statements numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements as true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

 

Q. 141 I: All vegetables have gravy.

II: All lunch has vegetable.

A. All lunch has gravy.

B. All gravy has lunch.

C. Both (A) and (B).

D. None of the above

 

Q. 142 I: Karan Johar is a good director.

II: Directors are intelligent.

A. All intelligent are directors.

B. Karan Johar is intelligent.

C. Both (A) and (B).

D. None of the above

 

Q. 143 I: Some blues are green.

II: Pink is green

A. Some blue is pink.

B. Some green is pink.

C. If either (A) or (B) follows.

D. Some pinks are blues.

 

Q. 144 I: All boys are tall.

II: All Punjabi are tall.

A. All boys are Punjabi.

B. Some boys are Punjabi.

C. Both of the above.

D. None of the above.

 

Q. 145 I: All girls go to the college.

II: Rina does not go to the college.

A. Rina is not a girl.

B. Going to college is not essential to be a girl.

C. Rina is a girl.

D. None of the above.

 

Questions: 146 – 150

Direction for Questions 146-150 : Read the information given below to answer the questions. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H want to have a dinner on a round table and they have worked out the following seating arrangements.

i. A will sit beside C

ii. H will sit beside A

iii. C will sit beside E

iv. F will sit beside H

v. E will sit beside G

vi. D will sit beside F

vii. G will sit beside B

viii. B will sit beside D

 

Q. 146 Which of the following is wrong?

A. A will be to the immediate right of C

B. D will be to the immediate left of B

C. E will be to the immediate right of A

D. F will be to the immediate left of D

 

Q. 147 Which of the following is correct?

A. B will be to the immediate left of D

B. H will be to the immediate right of A

C. C will be to the immediate right of F

D. B will be to the immediate left of H

 

Q. 148 A and F will become neighbours if:

A. B agrees to change her sitting position

B. C agrees to change her sitting position

C. G agrees to change her sitting position

D. H agrees to change her sitting position

 

Q. 149 During sitting:

A. A will be directly facing C

B. B will be directly facing C

C. A will be directly facing B

D. B will be directly facing D

 

Q. 150 H will be sitting between:

A. C and B

B. A and F

C. D and G

D. E and G

 

Questions: 151 – 200

Each question in this section consists of legal propositions/principles (hereinafter referred to as ‘principle’) and facts. These principles have to be applied to the given facts to arrive at the most reasonable conclusion. Such principles may or may not be true in the real sense, yet you have to conclusively assume them to be true for the purposes of this section. In other words, in answering the following questions, you must not rely on any principles except the principles that are given herein. The objective of this section is to test your interest towards study of law, research aptitude and problem solving ability even if the “most reasonable conclusion” arrived at may be unacceptable for any other reason. It is not the objective of this section to test your knowledge of law. 

 

Q. 151 Principle: When an offer is accepted by a person to whom it is made, it becomes a promise. But this promise will become legally binding only when the acceptance of the offer is unconditional.

Facts: Ram makes an offer to sell his house to Shyam for Rs.50 lacs. Shyam accepts this offer but wants to pay the price of the house in five quarterly instalments. Ram does not agree to it. Thereafter Shyam agrees to pay the price of the house in the way as originally desired by Ram. But Ram does not reply to it. Can Shyam compel Ram to sell his house to him?

A. Shyam can compel Ram to sell his house because Shyam ultimately agrees to pay the price as originally desired by Ram

B. Shyam can compel Ram to sell his house because Shyam in the first instance substantially complied with the desire of Ram

C. Shyam can compel Ram to sell his house because Ram’s offer does not exclude the payment of price in instalments

D. Shyam can not compel Ram to sell his house because Shyam imposes a new condition about payment of price of the house while accepting the offer which is not ultimately accepted by Ram.

 

Q. 152 Principle: Generally an agreement without consideration is not valid. Therefore, in order to make a valid agreement, some consideration which may have some value in the eyes of law, is essentially required.

Facts: William has an old car of which he makes seldom use. He voluntarily enters into an agreement with Smith to sell this car for rupees ten thousand. Thereafter one Anson approaches William and offers to buy that car for rupees one lac as the car was one which Anson has been searching for long. Now William wants to cancel his agreement with Smith and refuses to deliver the car to him saying that consideration (price) for the car  romised by Smith is negligible and, therefore, agreement with him can not be said to be valid one. 

A. William can cancel his agreement with Smith as the consideration involved in that is really inadequate.

B. William can not cancel his agreement with Smith as the sale of car for rupees ten thousand was voluntary and this price has some value in the eyes of law.

C. William can cancel his agreement with Smith as he was ignorant about the value / price of the car for which it could be sold.

D. William can cancel his agreement with Smith as he is entitled to get full market value/price of his car.

 

Q. 153 Principle: In order to be illegible to appear in the semester examination, a student is required to attend, under all circumstances, at least 70% of the total classes held in that semester as per University rules.

Facts: Anand, an economically poor but a very brilliant student of LL.B. final semester, while going to his University by cycle received some leg injuries in road accident. Consequently Anand could not attend his classes for one week as he was advised rest by his doctor for that period. Due to this absence from the University, Anand failed to have 70% attendance essential to appear in the examination and, therefore, he was debarred from appearing in the examination by the University authorities. Anand challenges this decision in the court of law

A. Anand will succeed in the court of law as the accident was beyond his control 

B. Anand will definitely get favour of the court on humanitarian ground as he comes from a economically poor family and may not afford to take readmission

C. Anand will not succeed as he could very easily fulfill eligibility criteria for appearing in the examination by being reasonably regular in the class throughout the semester.

D. Anand will succeed as requirement of 70% attendance may be declared arbitrary and, therefore, unreasonable by the court of law.

 

Q. 154 Principle: A seller of goods cannot transfer better rights than he himself possesses in the goods sold to the buyer.

Facts: Komal leaves his watch by mistake on a seat in the park. Sonal finds that watch and immediately sells the same for good price to Monal who without inquiring whether Sonal is its owner or not. Komal later on claims that watch from Monal. Decide whether Komal can succeed?

A. Komal cannot succeed as Monal has paid good price of the watch.

B. Komal cannot succeed as Monal is unaware of the fact that Sonal is not its owner.

C. Komal can not succeed as it was his carelessness and nothing else which enabled Sonal to sell the watch to Monal.

D. Komal can not succeed as Sonal is merely finder of the watch and, therefore, cannot transfer ownership rights thereon to Monal.

 

Q. 155 Principle: All citizens shall have the Fundamental Right to carry on any occupation, trade or business. But reasonable restrictions on the exercise of such rights can be imposed by law in the interest of the general public.

Facts: A large number of persons had been carrying on the business of dyeing and printing in Rajkot area for the last 25 years providing employment to about 30000 families. From these business places untreated dirty water was being discharged on the roads thereby causing damage to the public health. A notice, therefore, was given to close this business till necessary measures to protect public health as provided under the environmental statutes were taken by those business men.

A. Notice can not be justified as it will cause loss of employment to 30000 families.

B. Notice can not be justified as it amounts to violation of the fundamental right of the persons who have been carrying on the business for the last 25 years.

C. The notice can not be justified on the ground of damage to public health as the persons in that area have been voluntarily residing for long and have become used to that environment.

D. The notice can be justified as the right to business is not absolute and reasonable restriction can be imposed by law in the interest of the public.

 

Q. 156 Principle: A Contract can not be enforced by or against a person who is not a  party to it. However, where some benefit is conferred on third party by the contract itself, there third party can be allowed to enforce that contract to get such benefit.

Facts: Dinesh is liable to pay Rs. 50000/- to Suresh. In order to discharge this liability Dinesh enters into a contract with Ramesh by which Dinesh sells his car to Ramesh for Rs. 1 lac. Ramesh takes the delivery of the car and promises/ assures to pay its price at the earliest. Dinesh separately informs Suresh about this contract for his satisfaction. Ramesh fails to pay the car’s price. Suresh wants to join Dinesh in filing suit against Ramesh for the recovery of price of the car. Whether Suresh is entitled to do so?

A. Suresh is entitled to do so because the contract was made for his benefit.

B. Suresh is entitled to do so because Dinesh is liable to him and discharge of this liability depends upon the payment of the price of the car by Ramesh.

C. Suresh is not entitled to do so because liability of Dinesh does not depand upon any assurance of Ramesh.

D. Suresh is not entitled to do because he is not a party to the contract between Dinesh and Ramesh.

 

Q. 157 Principle: If a contract is made by post between two persons living in two different cities, then the contract is said to be complete as soon as the letter of acceptance is properly posted, and the place of completion of the contract is that city where acceptance is posted. It is worth mentioning here that in every contract there is always an offer from one party and the acceptance of the offer from the other party.

Facts: Sani, a resident of Patna, gives an offer by post to sell his house for Rs. 25 lacs to Hani, a resident of Allahabad. This offer letter is posted on 1st January 2013 from Patna and reaches Allahabad on 7th January 2013. Hani accepts this offer and posts the letter of acceptance on 8th January 2013 from Allahabad which reaches Patna on 16th January 2013. But Sani presuming that Hani is not interested in accepting his offer, sells his house to Gani at same price on 15th of January, 2013. Hani files a suit against Sani for the breach of contract in the competent court of Allahabad. Whether Hani will succeed?

A. Hani can not succeed as Sani can not be compelled by law to wait for the answer from Hani for an indefinite period of time.

B. Hani can not succeed as he could use some other effective and speedy mode for communicating his acceptance in minimum possible time.

C. Hani can succeed as he properly posted the letter of acceptance and the delay was beyond his control

D. Hani can succeed as contract became complete in the eyes of law on the date of posting the letter of acceptance.

 

Q. 158 Principle: He, who goes to the court of law to seek justice, must come with clean hands. 

Facts: P enters into a contract with S under which S has to construct a house for P and has to complete the same within one year from the date of the contract. This contract includes two very important terms. According to first term if there is price hike of the materials to be used in the construction, then the escalation charges at a particular rate shall be payable by P to S. According to second term if the construction of the house is not completed within the period prescribed for it, then S will have to pay penalty at a particular rate to P. Before the completion of the construction work the workers of S go on strike and strike continues up to three months even after the expiry of one year. After that period workers return and the construction work again starts. During the last three months period of strike there was a considerable rise in the price of the building material. S claimed escalation cost from P. P did not agree to it. S filed a suit in the court of law either to order the payment of the price of the building material on the basis of escalated price or to allow him to stop the work without incurring any penal liability towards P. 

A. S will succeed as strike by his workers was unexpected and beyond his control.

B. S can succeed as there is an escalation clause in the contract

C. S can not succeed as he has failed to complete the construction work in time and strike can not be treated as a valid excuse for delay in work.

D. S can succeed if he pays penalty to P for delay.

 

Q. 159 Principle: If the object of an agreement is or becomes unlawful or immoral or opposed to public policy in the eyes of law, then the courts will not enforce such agreements. Law generally prohibits Child labour.

Facts: P enters into an agreement with T by which P has to let his house to T for two years and T has to pay Rs. 20000.00 per month to P as rent. T starts a child care centre in that house. But after some time in order to earn some money for the maintenance of the centre, T starts sending the children of the centre on the rotation basis to work for four hour a day in some nearby chemical and hazardous factories. When P comes to know about this new development, he asks T either to stop the children from working in factories or to leave his house immediately. T neither agrees to leave the house nor to stop the children from working in the factories. P files a suit in the court of law for appropriate relief/ action

A. P can not succeed as the agreement was for the two years and it can not be terminated before the expiry of that period

B. P can not succeed as the object at the time of making of the agreement was not clear C. P will succeed as the object of the agreement has become unlawful.

D. P will not succeed if T agrees to share the wages of the children with P

 

Q. 160 Principle: whosoever by his act or omission causes environmental pollution shall be held liable for any loss caused by such pollution. It shall be no defence in such cases that all due diligence or reasonable care was taken while carrying out the act or omission in question. 

Facts: Hari is carrying on a chemical and fertilizer industry near a bank of a river. In order to prevent and control any kind of harm to the environment, suitable waste treatment and disposal plants were installed in the factory. Due to some sudden mechanical/ technical problem, these plants ceased to work properly and, therefore, caused environmental pollution, which ultimately caused substantial harm to the environment and to the people living around the factory. Victims of such pollution file a suit for suitable remedy.

A. Victims can not succeed as necessary precautions to prevent any harm were taken by Hari.

B. Victims can not succeed as the mechanical/ technical problem was sudden and, therefore, beyond the control of Hari.

C. Victims can succeed as it is the duty of Hari to see that no harm is caused to the environment/ people due to his activity under any circumstances.

D. Victims could succeed if treatment/ disposal plant were not installed in the factory

 

Q. 161 Principle: If a person transfers movable or immovable property with its full ownership and without any consideration to some other person, then it is called a gift.

Facts: S, who has no child of his own, makes a gift of his house worth Rs. 25 lacs to his nephew R. After completing all the legal formalities required for a valid gift, S says to R that in case of need R will provide that house to S for use without any questions. R does not react to it. After one year of this gift, S really needs that house and request R to make the house available to him, but R refuses to do so.

A. R cannot refuse as he got the house without paying any consideration for that.

B. R cannot refuse as S is without children.

C. R can refuse as he has become full owner of the house.

D. R can refuse as he himself may be in need of that house.

 

Q. 162 Principle: An agreement to do an act impossible in itself cannot be enforced by a court of law.

Facts: Ramesh agrees with his girl friend Shilpa to pluck stars from the sky through his extraordinary will power, and bring them down on earth for her within a week. After the expiry of one week, Shilpa filed a suit for damages against Ramesh for the breach of contract as Ramesh failed to perform his promise.

A. Shilpa can succeed in getting damages as Ramesh has deceived her.

B. Ramesh cannot be held liable as he honestly believes that his love for Shilpa is true and, therefore, he will succeed in his endeavour.

C. The court cannot entertain such suits as the act promised under the agreement is impossible in itself.

D. Ramesh can be held liable for making an absurd promise.

 

Q. 163 Principle: An agreement may be oral or written. However, if a law specifically requires that an agreement must be in writing then the agreement must be in writing. A law specifically requires that the agreements relating to transfer of the copyright in novel between an author of a novel and the producer of a motion picture must be in writing.

Facts: The author of a novel, Love at Lost Sight, had several rounds of discussion with a producer of motion picture regarding making of a motion picture based on Love at Lost Sight. During the last discussion, they decided to make a motion picture on Love at Lost Sight. The producer made a motion picture on Love at Lost Sight after making a payment of Rs. 10, 00,000/- (Ten Lac Only) in cash to the author who happily accepted this amount as full and final payment. Later on, on the advice of his lawyer, the author brought a case in a court of law against the producer on the ground that there is no written agreement between the producer and him.

A. The author is likely to succeed in the case as the agreement is not in accordance with the law

B. The author cannot succeed in the case as he has given his consent to the agreement

C. The author is not likely to succeed in the case because he has already accepted the amount of Rs 10,00,000/- as full an final payment

D. The author can succeed in the case as the consideration is not adequate

 

Q. 164 Principle: A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interest.

Facts: X who is usually of sound mind, but occasionally of unsound mind enters into a contract with Y when he (X) is of unsound mind. Y came to know about this fact afterwards and now wants to file a suit against X.

A. X cannot enter into contract because he is of unsound mind when he entered into contract.

B. X can enter into contract but the burden is on the other party to prove that he was of unsound mind at the time of contract.

C. X can enter into contract but the burden is on X to prove that he was of sound mind at the time of contract.

D. None of these.

 

Q. 165 Principle: Whosoever commits any act forbidden by the Indian Penal code with a view to obtain the consent of any person to enter into an agreement, he cannot get the agreement enforced by law but the person whose consent has been so obtained may get the agreement enforced by law. The Indian Penal code defines various offences and prescribes punishments therefor.

Facts: A obtains the consent of B to enter into an agreement by an act amounting to criminal intimidation under the Indian Penal Code. A brings a case against B for performance of agreement.

A. A will succeed in the case

B. A may succeed in the case

C. B will succeed in the case

D. B will not succeed in the case

 

Q. 166 Principle: A contract between the father and his son is a contract of utmost good faith. In such a type of contract law presumes that at the time of entering into the contract the father was in a position to dominate the will of his son. Where one of the parties was in position to dominate the will of the other party, the contract is enforceable only at the option of the party whose will was so dominated.

Facts: Ram had advanced a sum of Rs. 10,000/- to his minor son Shyam. When Shyam became major, his father Ram misused his parental position and entered into an agreement with Shyam and obtained a bond from him for a sum of Rs. 30,000 in respect of the advance. Whether this agreement is enforceable?

A. The agreement is enforceable against Shyam only for Rs. 10,000/-, the actual amount of money advanced to him

B. The agreement is enforceable against Shyam for Rs. 30,000/- because he has signed the bond 

C. The agreement is enforceable against Shyam because he was major at the time of agreement.

D. The agreement is not enforceable against Shyam because Ram has misused his position as father to obtain an unfair advantage.

 

Q. 167 Principle: When at the desire of one person, any other person has done or abstained from doing something, such act or abstinence or promise is called a consideration for the promise. Only a promise coupled with consideration is enforceable by law.

Facts: X, the uncle of Y, made a promise to pay him an amount of Rs. 10,000/- as reward if Y quits smoking and drinking within one year. X also deposited the above mentioned amount in a bank and informed Y that the said amount will be paid to him if he quits smoking and drinking within one year. Within a period of six months of making the promise X died. After the expiry of one year of making the promise by X, Y made a request to the legal heirs of X demanding the promised money. The legal heirs of X declined the request of Y.

A. The promise of X to Y is enforceable by law because Y has quitted smoking and drinking.

B. The promise of X to Y is not enforceable by law because Y has benefitted by quitting smoking and drinking.

C. The promise of X to Y is enforceable by law because the amount of Rs. 10, 000/- has been deposited in a bank.

D. The promise of X to Y is enforceable by law because X has died within a period of six months of making the promise.

 

Q. 168 Principle: ‘Work’ means literary work, artistic work, dramatic work, musical work, cinematographic film and sound recording but does not include acting in a cinematographic film. Only the works, as enumerated above, can be protected under copyright law.

Facts: A very famous actor acted in a cinematographic film. The actor was also the producer and director of cinematographic film.

A. The acting of the actor can be protected under copyright law

B. The acting of the actor can be protected under copyright law only as an artistic work

C. The acting of the actor cannot be protected under copyright law

D. The acting of the actor cannot be protected under copyright law as a cinematographic film

 

Q. 169 Principle: In case where the government is a party, the government shall be the first owner of the copyright in the work unless there is an agreement to the contrary.

Facts: The Government of the State of X entered into an agreement with a retired Professor of Botany. The Professor agreed to write a text book on Botany. The Government agreed to pay a sum of Rs. Ten Lacs to the Professor for this work.

A. The Government of the State of X shall be first owner of copyright in the text book.

B. The Professor shall be first owner of copyright in the text book.

C. Both the Government of the State of X and the Professor shall be the joint owners of copyright in the text book.

D. The Professor shall be first owner of copyright in the text book only if he refuses to accept the amount of Rs Ten Lacs from the Government.

 

Q. 170 Principle: Licence is an agreement whereby the owner of the copyright agrees to grant an interest in the copyright to the licencee. Assignment is an agreement whereby the owner of the copyright transfers all the property rights to the assignee. Property right is a bundle of rights consisting of right to possess, right to use, right to alienate, and the right to exclude others.

Facts: A, an owner of copyright in a cinematographic film enters into an agreement with B, a film distributer. B agrees to distribute the film only in Mumbai. A also enters into many such agreements with other distributers for distribution of his film in other cities.

A. The agreement between A and B is more in the nature of assignment than in the nature of licence.

B. The agreement between A and B is more in the nature of licence than in the nature of assignment.

C. The agreement between A and B is both in the nature of assignment and licence.

D. The agreement between A and B is neither in the nature of assignment nor in the nature of licence.

 

Q. 171 Principle: Qui facit per alium facit per se, i.e. he who does things through others does it himself.

Facts: Nisha, the owner of a car, asked her friend Saurabh to take her car and drive the same to her office. As the car was near her office, it hit a pedestrian Srikant on account of Saurabh’s negligent driving and injured him seriously. Now Srikant files a suit for damages against Nisha.

A. Nisha is not liable as it was the negligence of Saurabh.

B. Saurabh is solely liable as Nisha was not driving the car.

C. Nisha is liable as Saurabh was driving under her authority and for her purpose.

D. Saurabh will be exempted from liability under the principle of inevitable accident.

 

Q. 172 Principle: Words describing quality of things cannot be registered as trade mark. However, such words may be registered as trade mark if they acquire a secondary meaning. Words acquire secondary meaning when people start associating the descriptive words with a person specific.

Facts: A hatchery located in Raipur is owned by ‘X’. X has been using the slogan “new laid eggs sold here” since 1970 to describe the quality of eggs sold in his hatchery. Over a period of time because of continuous use of this slogan, people started associating this slogan with X. X filed an application for registration of the words “new laid eggs” as trade mark in the year 1970.

A. The words will be registered as trade mark

B. The words will not be registered as trade mark

C. The words may be registered as trade mark

D. The words may not be registered as trade mark

 

Q. 173 Principle: Whoever takes away anything from the land of any person without that person’s consent is said to commit theft. A thing so long as it is attached to the earth is not the subject of theft; but it becomes capable of being the subject of theft as soon as it is severed from the earth.

Facts: Y cuts down a tree standing on the land of X with the intention of dishonestly taking the tree out of X’s possession without the consent of X. But Y is yet to take away the tree out of X’s possession.

A. Y has committed theft as soon as he came to the land of X

B. Y has committed theft as soon as the tree has been completely cut down by him

C. Y has committed theft as soon as he has started cutting down the tree

D. Y has not committed theft because he is yet to take away the tree out of X possession

 

Q. 174 Principle: res ipsa loquitur i.e. the thing speaks for itself.

Facts: Seema got herself operated for the removal of her uterus in the defendant’s hospital, as there was diagnosed to be a cyst in one of her ovaries. Due the negligence of the surgeon, who performed the operation, abdominal pack was left in her abdomen. The same was removed by a second surgery.

A. Surgeon cannot be held responsible because it is merely a human error.

B. Surgeon can be held responsible but Seema will have to prove in the court of law that the surgeon was grossly negligent

C. Surgeon will be responsible and Seema need not to prove surgeon’s negligence because presence of abdominal pack in her abdomen is sufficient proof therefor.

D. None of the above

 

Q. 175 Principle: Whoever takes away with him any minor person less than sixteen years of age if a male, or less than eighteen years of age if a female out of the keeping of parents of such minor person without the consent of such parent, is said to kidnap such minor person.

Facts: A female born on January 01, 1995 got admitted to an undergraduate program of a reputed University on July 01, 2012. She became friendly with one of the boys, born on June 01, 1994, of her class. The boy and the girl decided to marry. The parents of the boy agreed but the family of the girl did not agree. On December 15, 2012 the girl made a call from her Blackberry to the boy. The girl told the boy to come in his car at a particular place and time. The boy reached the stipulated place before the stipulated time. He waited there for about half an hour. The girl reached the stipulated place. She opened the door of the car and sat beside the boy who was on the driving seat. Without exchanging any pleasantries, the boy drove the car to an unknown place. The father of the girl lodged an FIR in the nearest police station on January 20, 2013.

A. The boy has committed the offence of kidnapping

B. The boy has not committed the offence of kidnapping

C. The boy has not committed the offence of kidnapping for there is a delay in filing the FIR

D. The boy has not committed the offence of kidnapping because the girl was his classmate

 

Q. 176 Principle: Whoever voluntarily has carnal intercourse against the order of nature with any man, woman or animal shall be punished.

Facts: Two adult men were found engaged in carnal intercourse by the police. The police arrested the men and produced them before the Court.

A. Court will punish the police officer who arrested the men

B. Court will not punish the men for they were adults

C. Court will punish the men

D. Court may be requested to declare the law unconstitutional

 

Q. 177 Principle: Wherever the causing of a certain effect, or an attempt to cause that effect, by an act or by an omission, is an offence, it is to be understood that the causing of that effect partly by an act and partly by an omission is the same offence.

Facts: A intentionally omitted to give food to his father. He also used to beat his father. Consequently A’s father died

A. A did not commit any offence

B. A committed only the offence of omitting to give food to his father

C. A committed only the offence of beating of his father

D. A committed the offence of killing of his father

 

Q. 178 Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age.

Facts: A, a child born on January 01, 2005 killed another child ‘B’ on December 30, 2011.

A. A has committed no offence.

B. A has committed the offence as it is heinous crime

C. Killing of one child by another child is not an offence

D. A has not committed the offence for on the date of killing of B, A was a minor

 

Q. 179 Principle: A pact, other than a pact to commit suicide, to suffer any harm is not an offence, provided the age of the person who has given his consent to suffer harm is above eighteen years.

Facts: A enters into a pact with B, a boy of less than 18 years of age, to fence with each other for amusement. They agreed to suffer any harm which, in the course of such fencing, may be caused without foul play.

A. A, while playing fairly, hurts B, A commits no offence

B. A, while playing only unfairly, hurts B, A commits an offence

C. A, while playing fairly, hurts B, A commits an offence

D. A, while playing unfairly, hurts B, A commits no offence

 

Q. 180 Principle: When an act, which would otherwise be an offence, is not that offence by reason of the youth, the want of maturity of understanding, the unsoundness of mind or the intoxication of the person doing that act, every person has the same right of private defence against that act which he would have if the act were that offence. Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence.

Facts: A, under the influence of madness, attempts to kill B. B in order to save his life causes grievous hurt to A.

A. A has committed an offence

B. A has not committed an offence

C. B has committed an offence

D. B has not committed any offence

 

Q. 181 Principle: Mere silence as to facts likely to affect the decision of a person to enter into a contract does not amount to fraud, unless his silence is in itself equivalent to speech. 

Facts: A sells to B a horse which A knows to be of unsound mind. B says to A that if A does not say anything about the state of mind of horse, then B shall presume that the horse is of sound mind. A says nothing to B about the mental condition of horse.

A. A has committed fraud

B. A has committed misrepresentation

C. There cannot be a fraud because A says nothing about the mental condition of the horse

D. There can not be a fraud because B did not ask A whether the horse is of sound mind

 

Q. 182 Principle: Whoever by words, either spoken or written brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards the Government established by law in India shall be punished. However, comments expressing disapprobation of the administrative or other action of the Government without exciting or attempting to excite hatred, contempt or disaffection, do not constitute an offence. 

Facts: A renowned professor of economics wrote a critical comment on the economic policies of the Government of India in a National Daily. This piece of writing generated academic debate not only in the print media but also on television and internet. A student of law asked the fellow Indians on a social networking website to assemble at a particular place for peaceful and silent demonstration against the said economic policies on a stipulated date and time. The crowed assembled at that venue and started shouting antigovernment slogans. Police arrested the professor.

A. The professor has committed the offence

B. The professor has not committed any offence

C. The student of law has committed the offence

D. The crowed has committed an offence

 

Q. 183 Principle: Where two or more persons have made a complaint for the grant of compulsory licence to the Copyright Board, the licence shall be granted to that complainant only who, in the opinion of the Copyright Board, would best serve the interests of the general public. 

Facts: Four persons made a complaint for the grant of compulsory licence to the Copyright Board.

A. Licence shall be granted to only one complainant

B. Licence may be granted to two complainants

C. Licence may be granted to three complainants

D. Licence must be granted to all the four complainants

 

Q. 184 Principle: Any police officer, not below the rank of a sub-inspector, may, if he is satisfied that an offence in respect of the infringement of copyright in any work has been, is being, or is likely to be, committed, seize without warrant, all copies of the work, and all plates used for the purpose of making infringing copies of the work, wherever found, and all copies and plates so seized shall, as soon as practicable, be produced before a Magistrate.

Facts: A Superintendent of Police (SP) conducted a raid on a shop and found pirated copies of books. The SP formed an opinion that infringement of copyright is taking place. He arrested the shop owner without warrant in the light of above mentioned propositions. 

A. The arrest of the shop owner was within the power of the SP

B. The arrest of the shop owner was not within the power of the SP

C. The shop owner can never be arrested

D. SP was not competent to know whether infringement of copyright has taken place

 

Q. 185 Principle: Whoever attempts to commit an offence punishable by the Indian Penal Code and in such attempt does any act towards the commission of the offence, shall be punished. Stealing is an offence punishable by the Indian Penal Code.

Facts: A makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box, and after so opening the box, finds that there is no jewel in it.

A. A has committed no offence

B. A has committed the offence of stealing

C. A has attempted to commit the offence of stealing

D. None of the above

 

Q. 186 Principle: Whoever by words either spoken or intended to be read, or by signs or by visible representations, makes or publishes any imputation concerning any person intending to harm, or knowing or having reason to believe that such imputation will harm, the reputation of such person, is said to defame that person.

Facts: In a community there is a custom of stealing shoes of bridegroom during the marriage ceremony. The shoes of the bridegroom were stolen by Y. ‘A’ announced that Z has stolen the shoes. Everyone present in the marriage party started staring at Z with great surprise. Z felt very ashamed.

A. A defamed Z

B. A did not defame Z

C. A defamed Z for Z felt very ashamed

D. A defamed the whole marriage party

 

Q. 187 Principle: An employer is liable for the negligence of his employee. But an employer is not liable for the negligence of his employee if the victim of such negligence is one of his other employees.

Facts: ‘A’ and ‘B’ were working in a factory as unskilled labourers. A was carrying a basket of stones on his head. B was sitting on the ground. When A crossed B, all of a sudden a stone fell down from the basket and hit B on his head. B died immediately.

A. The owner of the factory will be liable

B. A and the owner of the factory shall be jointly liable

C. The owner of the factory will not be liable

D. None of the above

 

Q. 188 Principle: Damages are the money recompense, as far as money can do, for the violation of a right.

Facts: A, an Indian citizen, having a right to vote, was not allowed to cast his vote on the polling booth, by the returning officer. Name of A was mentioned in the voter’s list. A has also reported at the polling booth in time. However, the candidate in whose favour A would have cast his vote won the election. A filed a suit claiming damages.

A. A will be entitled to damages

B. A will not be entitled to damages

C. A will be entitled to only nominal damages

D. A will be entitled to exemplary damages

 

Q. 189 Principle: When a party to a contract has refused to perform, or disabled himself from performing, his promise in its entirety, the other party may put an end to the contract. 

Facts: A engaged B on April 12 to enter his service on June 1, but on May 11, A wrote to B that his services would not be needed. On May 22, B joined C for employment.

A. B must wait till June 1

B. B must have joined C on May 11

C. B is not bound to wait till June 1

D. A must pay damages to B

 

Q. 190 Principle: When a person voluntarily agrees to suffer some harm, he is not allowed to complain for that.

Facts: ‘A’ was one of the spectators at a formula one car race, being held at Gurgaon, on a track owned by one ‘M’ company. During the race, there was a collision between two racing cars, one of which was thrown away amidst spectators, thereby causing an injury to ‘A’. ‘A’ claims damages for the injuries caused to him.

A. M company will be liable for damages because the injury was caused during the race organized by it

B. M company will not be liable for damages because A had come to see the race on his own will.

C. M company will not be liable for damages because the collision between the cars was beyond its control

D. M company will be liable because it has earned huge revenue by way of sale of tickets for the event

 

Q. 191 Principle: An interest which is created on a transfer of property and depends upon the fulfillment of a condition will fail if the fulfillment of the condition is impossible or is forbidden by law or is of such a nature that, if permitted, it would defeat the provisions of any law or is fraudulent or involves or implies injury to the person or property of another or the court regards it as immoral or opposed to public policy. 

Facts: A gives Rs. Ten Lacs to B on condition that B shall marry A’s daughter C. On the date on which A gave Rs. Ten Lacs to B, C was dead.

A. B’s interest in Rs Ten Lacs fails because of impossibility

B. B’s interest in Rs Ten Lacs fails because of immorality

C. B’s interest in Rs Ten Lacs fails because of prohibition by law

D. B’s interest in Rs Ten Lacs does not fail

 

Q. 192 Principle: A condition precedent must be complied with before the happening of the event to which such a condition is attached. Fulfillment of such a condition after the happening of the event is no fulfillment of condition.

Facts: A transfers Rs. 5000 to B on condition that he shall marry with the consent of C, D and E. As C, D and E had to go abroad for some business purposes and as the date of

marriage was already fixed, therefore, B marries without the consent of C, D and E, but obtains their consent after the marriage when C, D and E return to their country.

A. B has fulfilled the condition

B. B has not fulfilled the condition

C. B was free to marry any one without the consent of any body

D. B must divorce his wife as he married her without fulfilling the condition

 

Q. 193 Principle: In an agreement, a condition subsequent must be complied with, to claim the benefit of that agreement.

Facts: A agrees to transfer a farm to B, provided that, if B does not go to England within three years after the date of the agreement, his interest in the farm shall cease. B does not go to England within the term prescribed.

A. B’s interest in the farm continues

B. B’s interest in the farm does not continue

C. B has a fundamental right to go to England or not to go to England and hence the condition was illegal

D. The agreement between A and B was void

 

Q. 194 Principle: Existence of all the alleged facts is relevant whether they occurred at the same time and place or at different times and places.

Facts: A, a permanent resident in a foreign country who never visited India, is accused of waging war against the Government of India by taking part in an armed insurrection in which property is destroyed, troops are attacked and prisons are broken open.

A. The existence of all the above mentioned alleged facts is relevant

B. Only the alleged fact that A is accused of waging war against the Government of India is relevant

C. The fact that A was a permanent resident in a foreign country who never visited India is not relevant

D. Only the alleged fact of taking part by A in armed resurrection is relevant

 

Q. 195 Principle: Whoever desires any Court to give judgment about any legal right or liability which depends on the existence of those facts which he asserts, must prove that those facts exist.

Facts: A asserts that B, C and D have committed an offence of criminal conspiracy and therefore A desires a Court to give judgment that B, C and D shall be punished for that crime which A says B, C and D have committed.

A. A must prove that B, C, and D have committed the crime

B. B, C, and D must prove that they have not committed the crime

C. A must prove that B, C, and D were present at the place of crime

D. Police must prove that B, C, and D have committed the crime

 

Q. 196 Principle: The fact that any person was born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any man, or within two hundred and eighty days after its dissolution, the mother remaining unmarried, shall be conclusive proof that he is the legitimate son of that man, unless it can be shown that the parties to the marriage had no access to each other at any time when he could have been begotten.

Facts: X and Y married on January 15, 1995. Y, the wife of X, never left her parental home and never went to her husband’s home. A boy was born to Y on July 15, 1995. For the Court: 

A. There shall be a conclusive proof that the boy is the legitimate son of X

B. There shall be no conclusive proof that the boy is the legitimate son of X

C. There shall be a conclusive proof that the boy is the illegitimate son of X

D. There shall be no evidence at all.

 

Q. 197 Principle: An unlawful interference with a person’s use or enjoyment of land, or some right over, or in connection with it, is a nuisance in law of tort.

Facts: During the scarcity of onions, long queues were made outside the defendant’s shop who having a license to sell fruits and vegetables used to sell only 1 Kg. of onion per ration card. The queues extended on to the highway and also caused some obstruction to the neighbouring shops. The neighboring shopkeepers filed a suit for nuisance against the defendant. Which one of the following decisions will be correct in this suit?

A. The defendant is liable for nuisance

B. The defendant is not liable for nuisance

C. The defendant is liable under the principle of strict liability

D. The plaintiff’s suit should be decreed in favour of the neighbouring shopkeeper

 

Q. 198 Principle: Every agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person, other than a minor, is void

Facts: Qadir Khan died in a road accident. Two co-widows, Sultana and Marjina enter into an agreement that if any of them will remarry, would forfeit her right to her share in the deceased husband’s property.

A. The agreement is void because it was restraint of marriage

B. The agreement is not void because no restraint was imposed upon either of two widows for remarriage.

C. The restraint was partial so agreement is valid

D. None of the above

 

Q. 199 Principle: Nothing is an offence merely by reason of its being done with the knowledge that it is likely to cause harm, if it be done without any criminal intention to cause harm, and in good faith for the purpose of preventing or avoiding other harm to a person or property.

Facts: Mr. Sharman, the Italian captain of a steam vessel, suddenly and without any fault or negligence on his part, finds himself near the Kochi coast in such a position that before he can stop his vessel, he must inevitably run down a boat B with twenty or thirty passengers on board, unless he changes the course of his vessel, and that by changing his course, he must incur risk of running down a boat C with only two passengers on board, which he may possibly clear. Whether Sharman has committed an offence? 

A. Sharman has committed no offence because this was done out of necessity

B. Sharman can be held responsible for the act of criminal negligence

C. Sharman can be held responsible for culpable homicide

D. This is a clear case of accident so Sharman cannot be held responsible

 

Q. 200 Principle: Only the Parliament or the State Legislatures have the authority to enact laws on their own. No law made by State can take away a person’s fundamental right. 

Facts: Parliament enacted a law, which according to a group of lawyers is violating the fundamental rights of traders. The group of lawyers filed a writ petition against the Parliament for enacting such law and requests the court to quash the law and to direct the Parliament to make a new law.

A. No writ would lie against the Parliament, as the Court has no authority to direct the Parliament to enact or re-enact a law.

B. The Court can quash the existing law if it violates fundamental right and can direct to make a new law.

C. The Court can quash the existing law if it violates fundamental right but cannot direct the Parliament to make a new law.

D. None of these.

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	B	D	B	C	A	A	B	B	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	B	C	C	C	C	C	B	C	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	C	C	C	C	C	B	B	D	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	B	D	C	A	C	A	A	B	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	D	B	C	A	A	D	D	C	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	D	A	A	C	B	C	B	D	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	B	A	B	B	D	A	B	A	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	C	B	B	C	B	C	D	C	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	A	B	D	B	D	C	C	D	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	B	D	A	A	A	C	B	C	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	B	D	C	B	D	B	A	C	A	A
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	D	D	B	B	D	B	C	B	C	C
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	A	B	B	A	A	D	B	D	A
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	B	B	D	A	D	A	B	D	C	B
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	A	B	B	D	A	C	B	D	C	B
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	D	B	C	B	D	D	D	C	C	C
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	C	C	A	A	C	D	A	C	A	B
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	C	B	D	C	A	C	D	A	C	D
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	A	B	A	B	C	B	C	A	C	B
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	A	B	B	A	A	A	A	B	A	C

 

CLAT 2012

Questions: 1 – 10

The work which Gandhiji had taken up was not only regarded the achievement of political freedom but also the establishment of a new social order based on truth and non-violence, unity and peace, equality and universal brotherhood and maximum freedom for all. This unfinished part of his experiment was perhaps even more difficult to achieve than the achievement of political freedom. In the political struggle, the fight was against a foreign power and all one could do was either join it or wish it success and give it his/her moral support. In establishing a social order on this pattern, there was a strong possibility of a conflict arising between diverse groups and classes of our own people. Experience shows that man values his possessions even more than his life because in the former he sees the means for perpetuation and survival of his descendants even after his body is reduced to ashes. A new order cannot be established without radically changing the mind and attitude of men towards property and, at some stage or the other, the ‘haves’ have to yield place to the ‘have-nots’. We have seen, in our time, attempts to achieve a kind of egalitarian society and the picture of it after it was achieved. But this was done, by and large, through the use of physical force. In the ultimate analysis it is difficult, if not impossible, to say that the instinct to possess has been rooted out or that it will not reappear in an even worse form under a different guise. It may even be that, like a gas kept confined within containers under great pressure, or water held back by a big dam, once the barrier breaks, the reaction will one day sweep back with a violence equal in extent and intensity to what was used to establish and maintain the outward egalitarian form. This enforced egalitarianism contains, in its bosom, the seed of its own destruction. The root cause of class conflict is possessiveness or the acquisitive instinct. So long as the ideal that is to be achieved is one of securing the maximum material satisfaction, possessiveness is neither suppressed nor eliminated but grows on what it feeds. Nor does it cease to be possessiveness, whether it is confined to only a few or is shared by many. If egalitarianism is to endure, it has to be based not on the possession of the maximum material goods by a few or by all but on voluntary, enlightened renunciation of those goods which cannot be shared by others or can be enjoyed only at the expense of others. This calls for substitution of material values by purely spiritual ones. The paradise of material satisfaction, which is sometimes equated with progress these days, neither spells peace not progress. Mahatma Gandhi has shown us how the acquisitive instinct inherent in man can be transmuted by the adoption of the ideal of trusteeship by those who ‘have’ for the benefit of all those who ‘have not’ so that, instead of leading to exploitation and conflict, it would become a means and incentive for the amelioration and progress of society respectively. 

 

Q. 1 According to the passage, egalitarianism will not survive if

A. It is based on voluntary renunciation

B. It is achieved by resorting to physical force

C. Underprivileged people are not involved in its establishment.

D. People’s outlook towards it is not radically changed.

 

Q. 2 According to the passage, why does man value his possessions more than his life?

A. He has inherent desire to share his possession with others.

B. He is endowed with the possessive instinct.

C. Only his possession helps him earn love and respect from his descendants.

D. Through his possessions he can preserve his name even after his death.

 

Q. 3 According to the passage, which was the unfinished part of Gandhi’s experiment?

A. Educating people to avoid class conflict.

B. Achieving total political freedom for the country

C. Establishment of an egalitarian society

D. Radically changing the mind and attitude of men towards truth and non-violence.

 

Q. 4 Which of the following statements is ‘not true’ in the context of the passage?

A. True egalitarianism can be achieved by giving up one’s possessions under compulsion.

B. Man values his life more than his possessions.

C. Possessive instinct is a natural desire of human beings.

D. In the political struggle, the fight was against alien rule.

 

Q. 5 According to the passage, true egalitarianism will last only if

A. It is thrust upon people.

B. It is based on truth and non-violence.

C. People inculcate spiritual values instead of material values.

D. ‘Haves’ and ‘have-nots’ live together peacefully

 

Q. 6 According to the passage, people ultimately overturn a social order ——-

A. which is based on coercion and oppression.

B. which does not satisfy their basic needs

C. which is based upon conciliation and rapprochement.

D. which is not congenital to the spiritual values of the people

 

Q. 7 According to the passage, the root cause of class conflict is

A. The paradise of material satisfaction.

B. Dominant inherent acquisitive instinct in man.

C. Exploitation of the ‘have-nots’ by the ‘haves’.

D. A Social order where the unprivileged are not a part of the establishment.

 

Q. 8 Which of the following statements is ‘not true’ in the context of the passage?

A. A new order can be established by radically changing the outlook of people towards it

B. Adoption of the ideal of trusteeship can minimize possessive instinct.

C. Enforced egalitarianism can be the cause of its own destruction

D. Ideal of new order is to secure maximum material satisfaction

 

Q. 9 Which of the following conclusions can be deduced from the passage?

A. A social order based on truth and non-violence alone can help the achievement of political freedom.

B. After establishing the social order of Gandhiji’s pattern, the possibility of a conflict between different classes of society will hardly exist.

C. It is difficult to change the mind and attitude of men towards property.

D. In an egalitarian society, material satisfaction can be enjoyed only at the expense of others.

 

Q. 10 According to the passage, what does “adoption of the ideal of trusteeship” mean?

A. Equating peace and progress with material satisfaction.

B. Adoption of the ideal of the ‘haves’ for the benefit of ‘have-nots’.

C. Voluntary enlightened remuneration of the possessive instinct by the privileged class.

D. Substitution of spiritual values by material ones by those who live in the paradise of material satisfaction.

 

Q. 11 Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given.

Lethargy

A. Serenity

B. listlessness

C. impassivity

D. laxity

 

Q. 12 Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given.

Emaciated

A. tall

B. languid

C. very thin

D. wise

 

Q. 13 Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given.

Latent

A. concealed

B. apparent

C. lethargic

D. prompt

 

Q. 14 Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given.

Sporadic

A. epidemic

B. whirling

C. occasional

D. stagnant

 

Q. 15 Choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given.

Compendium

A. summary

B. index

C. reference

D. collection

 

Q. 16 Choose the correct option out of the four choices given.

Give an example pertinent ________________ the case.

A. with

B. on

C. for

D. to

 

Q. 17 Choose the correct option out of the four choices given.

My voice reverberated __________ the walls of the castle.

A. with

B. from

C. in

D. on

 

Q. 18 Choose the correct option out of the four choices given.

The reward was not commensurate __________ the work done by us.

A. for

B. on

C. with

D. order

 

Q. 19 Choose the correct option out of the four choices given.

Our tragic experience in the recent past provides an index __________ the state of

lawlessness in this region.

A. of

B. in

C. at

D. by

 

Q. 20 Choose the correct option out of the four choices given.

Your conduct smacks __________ recklessness.

A. of

B. with

C. from

D. in

 

Q. 21 Choose the correct option out of the four choices given.

A good judge never gropes __________ the conclusion.

A. to

B. at

C. on

D. for

 

Q. 22 Choose the correct option out of the four choices given.

Nobody in our group is a genius __________ winning friends and in convincing people.

A. for

B. in

C. of

D. at

 

Q. 23 Choose the correct option out of the four choices given.

If you are averse __________ recommending my name, you should not hesitate to admit it.

A. about

B. for

C. to

D. against

 

Q. 24 Choose the correct option out of the four choices given.

Religious leaders should not delve __________ politics.

A. in

B. with

C. at

D. into

 

Q. 25 Choose the correct option out of the four choices given.

What you say has hardly any bearing __________ the lives of tribals.

A. about

B. for

C. on

D. with

 

Q. 26 Select the correct meaning of the idioms and phrases in single quotes out of the four choices given.

He ‘burnt his fingers’ by interfering in his neighbor’s affair.

A. got himself into trouble

B. burnt himself

C. got himself insulted

D. got rebuked

 

Q. 27 Select the correct meaning of the idioms and phrases in single quotes out of the four choices given.

Mr. Gupta, who is one of the trustees of a big charity, is suspected of ‘feathering his own nest’.

A. being lazy in doing his work

B. being too generous

C. neglecting his job

D. making money unfairly

 

Q. 28 Select the correct meaning of the idioms and phrases in single quotes out of the four choices given.

Mrs. Hashmi has been ‘in the blues’ for the last several weeks.

A. abroad

B. unwell

C. depressed

D. penniless

 

Q. 29 Select the correct meaning of the idioms and phrases in single quotes out of the four choices given.

For the first week, the apprentice felt like ‘a fish out of water’.

A. frustrated

B. homeless

C. disappointed

D. uncomfortable

 

Q. 30 Select the correct meaning of the idioms and phrases in single quotes out of the four choices given.

His friends failed to see why he should ‘ride the high horse’ just because he had won an election.

A. become abnormal

B. appear arrogant

C. indulge in dreams

D. hate others

 

Q. 31 Given below are the jumbled sentences of a paragraph. The first and the last sentence of the jumbled paragraph are given in the correct order. Arrange the middle sentences in the correct sequence.

i. On one hand we are proud of being Indians,

ii. on the other hand we behave as if we still at the dawn of our civilization

iii. murders of our own brothers and sisters is no the way to please Ram or Rahim

iv. the citizens of the land where Buddha and Gandhi taught

v. the principles of love and non-violence,

vi. nor does it fetch us any prosperity.

A. ii, iii, iv, v

B. iii, iv, v, ii

C. iv, v, iii, ii

D. iv, v, ii, iii

 

Q. 32 Given below are the jumbled sentences of a paragraph. The first and the last sentence of the jumbled paragraph are given in the correct order. Arrange the middle sentences in the correct sequence.

i. On the basis of experiments with rats

ii. health experts here say that

iii. exercise more and consume vitamins,

iv. they will live up to 100 years or more

v. if humans eat less,

vi. and be vigorous in their eighties and nineties.

A. ii, iii, v, iv

B. ii, v, iii, iv

C. ii, v, iv, iii

D. v, ii, iii, iv

 

Q. 33 Given below are the jumbled sentences of a paragraph. The first and the last sentence of the jumbled paragraph are given in the correct order. Arrange the middle sentences in the correct sequence.

i. The release of atomic energy is the greatest achievement which science has yet attained

ii. but the first invention to which their discoveries were applied was a bomb

iii. the atom was split by physicists whose minds were set on the search for knowledge

iv. it was more deadly than any other weapon invented so far

v. it is with dread that scientists regard the first use to which their greatest discovery was put

vi. however, they are gratified by the numerous applications of atomic energy for peaceful and constructive population.

A. ii, iii, iv, v

B. v, iii, ii, iv

C. iii, ii, iv, v

D. iv, v, iii, ii

 

Q. 34 Given below are the jumbled sentences of a paragraph. The first and the last sentence of the jumbled paragraph are given in the correct order. Arrange the middle sentences in the correct sequence.

i. The problem of food is intimately connected with population

ii. wages will seldom rise in proportion to the rising prices

iii. the market is governed by demand and supply

iv. without enough food, such people lack health, strength of efficiency

v. if too many people demand goods to go round, prices will rise and poor classes will starve

vi. they fall an easy prey to all sorts of diseases.

A. iii, v, ii, iv

B. ii, iii, iv, v

C. iv, ii, v, iii

D. v, iii, iv, ii

 

Q. 35 Given below are the jumbled sentences of a paragraph. The first and the last sentence of the jumbled paragraph are given in the correct order. Arrange the middle sentences in the correct sequence.

i. India’s message has always been one of love and peace.

ii. our Buddha was the light of Asia

iii. it has been a source of light and wisdom to the rest of the world

iv. Ashoka, moved by the horrors of Kalinga War, adopted the message of non-violence

v. the greatest apostle of non-violence in recent years was Mahatma Gandhi

vi. he shook the foundation of the British rule in India through non-violence.

A. ii, v, iii, iv

B. iv, ii, iii, v

C. v, iv, iii, ii

D. iii, ii, iv, v

 

Q. 36 Given below are a few commonly used foreign language phrases, select the correct answer from the four options given below.

Mala fide

A. generous

B. bad intention

C. trustworthy

D. genuine

 

Q. 37 Given below are a few commonly used foreign language phrases, select the correct answer from the four options given below.

Tabula rasa

A. clean slate

B. agitated

C. deprived

D. creative

 

Q. 38 Given below are a few commonly used foreign language phrases, select the correct answer from the four options given below.

Carte blanche

A. slavery

B. complete discretion

C. anarchy

D. dependent

 

Q. 39 Given below are a few commonly used foreign language phrases, select the correct answer from the four options given below.

De jure

A. illegal

B. heir

C. concerning law

D. forbidden

 

Q. 40 Given below are a few commonly used foreign language phrases, select the correct answer from the four options given below.

Raison d’etre

A. logical conclusion

B. reason for existence

C. free choice

D. dubious argument

 

Q. 41 Who said that, ‘Man is a social animal’?

A. Socrates

B. Aristotle

C. Kahn

D. Plato

 

Q. 42 World Computer Literacy day is celebrated on

A. November 14

B. November 3

C. December 2

D. July 5

 

Q. 43 Whose teaching inspired the French Revolution?

A. Rousseau

B. Locke

C. Hegel

D. Wagner

 

Q. 44 The II Africa-India Summit was held in May 2011 in

A. New Delhi

B. Lagos

C. Nairobi

D. Addis Ababa

 

Q. 45 The famous Akshardham temple is situated in the city of

A. Jamnagar

B. Gandhinagar

C. Jammu

D. Madurai

 

Q. 46 Who out of the following was the recipient of Dhyan Chand Award in 2011?

A. Satish Pillai

B. Hukam Singh

C. Shabbir Ali

D. Mukh Bain Singh

 

Q. 47 Name the annumal fair of Rajasthan that is famous for its camel trading event.

A. Maru Mela

B. Pushkar Mela

C. Suraj Kund Mela

D. Sonepur Mela

 

Q. 48 The 38th G-8 summit will be held in 2012 in

A. USA

B. UK

C. Germany

D. Canada

 

Q. 49 Who was awarded the Nobel Prize for literature in 2011?

A. Paul Lauterbur

B. Bill Clinton

C. Tomas Transtromer

D. Shirin Ebadi

 

Q. 50 Who was awarded the UNESCO King Sejong Literacy Prize in 2011?

A. Nelson Mandela

B. National Literacy Service, Burundi

C. Medha Patkar

D. National Literacy Mission, India

 

Q. 51 December 10 is observed as

A. World Health Day

B. U.N. Day

C. Red Cross Day

D. Human Rights Day

 

Q. 52 Which is the largest gland in human body?

A. Pancreas

B. Liver

C. Thyroid

D. Pituitary

 

Q. 53 The book titled ‘The Google Story’ has been authored by

A. David A. Vice

B. Shobha Dey

C. Fredrick Forsyth

D. Vikram Seth

 

Q. 54 Which strait separates Europe from Africa

A. Mallaica

B. Gibralter

C. Berring

D. Palk

 

Q. 55 Taiwan was earlier known as

A. Fuchow

B. Marshall Island

C. Formosa

D. Macau

 

Q. 56 Identify the Indian Tennis player who has turned Hollywood filmmaker?

A. Vijay Amritraj

B. Mahesh Bhupathi

C. Leander Paes

D. Ashok Amritraj

 

Q. 57 Where will the next Olympic Games be held in 2012?

A. Tokyo

B. Berlin

C. London

D. Toronto

 

Q. 58 Which of the following teams has won the Santosh Trophy Football Championship in 2011?

A. Punjab

B. West Bengal

C. Goa

D. Railways

 

Q. 59 Excess of money supply as compared to supply of goods results in

A. Depression

B. Deflation

C. Trade deficit

D. Inflation

 

Q. 60 The largest living flightless bird is

A. Emu

B. Kiwi

C. Ostrich

D. Penguin

 

Q. 61 Which of the following oceans has the shape of the English letter ‘S’?

A. Atlantic

B. Pacific

C. Indian

D. Arctic

 

Q. 62 Which is the longest shipping canal in the world?

A. Panama Canal

B. Suez Canal

C. White Sea-Baltic Canal

D. Kiel Canal

 

Q. 63 Le Corbusier, the architect of Chandigarh was a national of

A. Britain

B. Portugal

C. France

D. Netherlands

 

Q. 64 India became a member of UNO in

A. 1945

B. 1947

C. 1950

D. 1952

 

Q. 65 To which country does India export the largest quantity of iron ore?

A. USA

B. Japan

C. Egypt

D. Germany

 

Q. 66 The longest highway in India runs from

A. Kolkata to Jammu

B. Shillong to Amritsar

C. Ambala to Nagercoil

D. Varanasi to Kanyakumari

 

Q. 67 The longest irrigation canal in India is called

A. Upper Bari Doab Canal

B. Indira Gandhi Canal

C. Sirhind Canal

D. Yamuna Canal

 

Q. 68 Leukemia is a disease related to

A. Kidney

B. Throat

C. Blood

D. Eyes

 

Q. 69 In which city was Osama Bin Laden killed in May 2011?

A. Islamabad

B. Abbottabad

C. Faisalabad

D. Peshawar

 

Q. 70 The XI Five Year Plan envisaged the highest growth in the sector of

A. Industry

B. Agriculture

C. Services

D. Manufacturing

 

Q. 71 Light year is a unit of

A. Distance

B. Time

C. Sound

D. Light intensity

 

Q. 72 The IV summit of BRICS was held in New Delhi on

A. 11th January 2012

B. 1st April 2012

C. 29th March 2012

D. 28th February 2012

 

Q. 73 An indigenous nuclear submarine still under construction has been named as

A. Chakra

B. Sudarshan

C. Arihant

D. Ghaatak

 

Q. 74 Government of India has launched a publicity campaign for census 2011 in association with which of the following UN organization?

A. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

B. World Health Organization (WHO)

C. United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF)

D. United Nations Population Fund (UNPF)

 

Q. 75 Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) completed how many years of operation in 2011?

A. 3 years

B. 4 years

C. 5 years

D. 6 years

 

Q. 76 The first ever formula one race in India was held in

A. Greater Noida

B. New Delhi

C. Faridabad

D. Pune

 

Q. 77 Name the actor who has been honoured with the Dadasaheb Phalke Award in 2012.

A. Naseerudin Shah

B. Kamal Hasan

C. Soumitra Chatterjee

D. Amol Palekar

 

Q. 78 In which city was the Arab Summit held in the last week of March 2012?

A. Bagdad

B. Cairo

C. Beirut

D. Riyadh

 

Q. 79 The two Supreme Court Judges who delivered the famous 2-G judgement in February 2012 were

A. Justice G.S. Singhvi and Justice Gyan Sudha Mishra

B. Justice G.S. Singhvi and Justice A.K. Ganguly

C. Justice S.H. Kapadia and Justice A.K. Ganguly

D. Justice Chandramauli Kumar Prasad and Justice H.L. Gokhale

 

Q. 80 Who presides over the joint sitting of both houses of Parliament?

A. Speaker of Lok Sabha

B. President

C. Chairman of Rajya Sabha

D. Prime Minister

 

Q. 81 Christian Lagarde heads the

A. World Bank

B. UNICEF

C. International Monetary Fund

D. WHO

 

Q. 82 The seat of International Criminal Court is at

A. The Hague

B. Geneva

C. Washington

D. Tokyo

 

Q. 83 First Indian to ski to North Pole is

A. Arun Nayyar

B. Ajeet Bajaj

C. Sq. Ldr. Sanjay Thapar

D. Neal Paramjeet

 

Q. 84 First woman Director General of Police in India was

A. Kanchan Choudhary

B. Kavitha Choudhary

C. Kiran Bedi

D. Aswathy Tonge

 

Q. 85 Which countries co-hosted the One-day cricket World Cup in 2011?

A. India, Bangladesh and Sri Lanka

B. India, Bangladesh and Pakistan

C. India, Sri Lanka and Pakistan

D. India, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh and Pakistan

 

Q. 86 Priyanka Chopra has been named National Ambassador of

A. WHO

B. UNICEF

C. UNESCO

D. International Red Cross Society

 

Q. 87 Who is leading in the Republican primaries to contest the American Presidential election scheduled in November 2012?

A. Sara Palin

B. Newt Gingrich

C. Rick Santorum

D. Mitt Romney

 

Q. 88 Supreme Court recently declared ‘Salva Judum’ unconstitutional. What is ‘Salva Judam’?

A. A terrorist outfit

B. An armed civilian group to combat Maoists

C. A money-chain business

D. Custom of killing a girl for inter-caste marriage in the name of honour

 

Q. 89 As per the Indian Union Budget of 2012-13, the income-tax exemption limit for persons below 65 years of age is

A. Rs. 175000

B. Rs. 200000

C. Rs. 250000

D. Rs. 190000

 

Q. 90 The U.N. Climate Change Conference 2011 was held in

A. New Delhi

B. Doha

C. Durban

D. Geneva

 

Q. 91 P sells a table to Q at a profit of 10% and Q sells it to R at a profit of 12%. If R pays Rs. 246.40 for it, then how much had P paid for it?

A. 200.00

B. 300.00

C. 248.00

D. 346.00

 

Q. 92 The least value of x, for which the expression x^2 + x + 17 will not give a prime number, is 

A. 7

B. 11

C. 13

D. 17

 

Q. 93 A train 300 meters long is running at a speed of 25 meters per second, it will cross a bridge 200 meters long in

A. 5 seconds

B. 10 seconds

C. 20 seconds

D. 25 seconds

 

Q. 94 If 0.06% of a number is 84, the 30% of that number is

A. 25.2

B. 420

C. 42000

D. 2520

 

Q. 95 A sum was divided among P, Q & R. R got double than P who got than Q. If the difference between the shares of Q and R is Rs. 3675.00, then the sum in rupees is

A. 4900

B. 8575

C. 11025

D. 7350

 

Q. 96 If the ratio of the areas of two squares is 25:36, then the ratio of their perimeters is

A. 5:6

B. 25:36

C. 6:5

D. 36:25

 

Q. 97 The denominator of a fraction is greater than its numerator by 11. If 8 is added to both its numerator and denominator, then it becomes 3/4. The fraction is

A. 25/26

B. 35/26

C. 26/35

D. 25/36

 

Q. 98 The value of 1/x^2 + 1/y^2, where x= 2+3^1/2 and y= 2-3^1/2, is

A. 12

B. 16

C. 14

D. 10

 

Q. 99 If the volume of a sphere is divided by its surface area, we obtain 27 cm. The radius of the sphere is

A. 9 cm

B. 81 cm

C. 27 cm

D. 24 cm

 

Q. 100 One-third of one fourth of a number is 12. Then the number is

A. 96

B. 144

C. 108

D. 36

 

Q. 101 In the number series 4, 10, 23, 50, 104, 216, 439 the wrong number is 

A. 10

B. 23

C. 104

D. 50

 

Q. 102 The price of 2 trousers and 4 shirts is Rs. 1,600. With the same amount one can buy 1 trouser and 6 shirts. If one wants to buy 12 shirts, he has to pay

A. Rs. 2400

B. Rs. 4800

C. Rs. 1200

D. Rs. 3700

 

Q. 103 If x = (3/2)^2(2/3)^-4, the value of x^-2 is

A. (2/3)^12

B. (3/2)^12

C. (6/5)^-12

D. (5/6)^-12

 

Q. 104 A dealer buys an article for Rs. 380.00. What price should he mark so that after allowing a discount of 5% he still makes a profit of 25% on the article?

A. Rs. 500

B. Rs. 475

C. Rs. 95

D. Rs. 465

 

Q. 105 In a factory, the production of scooters rose to 48400 from 40000 in 2 years. The rate of growth per annum is

A. 20%

B. 10%

C. 30%

D. 8%

 

Q. 106 If x + 1/x = 3, then x^2 + 1/x^2 will be

A. 9

B. 10

C. 27

D. 7

 

Q. 107 When 16x^4 + 12x^3 – 10x^2 +8x +20 is divided by 4x-3, the quotient and the remainder are, respectively

A. 4x^3 + 6x^2 and 61/2

B. 4x^3 + 6x^2 + 7/2 and 51/2

C. 6x^2 + 2x + 2/7 and 61/2

D. 4x^3 + 6x^2 + 2x + 7/2 and 61/2

 

Q. 108 The sum of two numbers is 2490. If 6.5% of one number is equal to 8,5% of the other, the numbers are

A. 1411 and 1079

B. 1412 and 1080

C. 1141 and 1709

D. 1214 and 1800

 

Q. 109 120 men had food provision for 200 days. After 5 days, 30 men died of an epidemic. The food will last for further

A. 280 days

B. 260 days

C. 290 days

D. 252 days

 

Q. 110 Out of the total income, X spends 20% on house rent and 70% of the remaining amount on household expenditure. If X saves Rs. 1800, the total income is

A. Rs. 8000

B. Rs. 9500

C. Rs. 7500

D. Rs. 8500

 

Q. 111 Given below is a statement followed by two arguments. Read carefully and decide which of the arguments strongly support the statement.

Statement: Should the pay scale and conditions of service of government employees be made applicable to private sector employees?

Argument:

(i) No, this will develop inertia, inefficiency and would adversely affect spirit of competition.

(ii) Yes, this will enhance dedication to work and institutional loyalty

A. Argument (i) is strong.

B. Argument (ii) is strong.

C. Both (i) and (ii) are strong.

D. Neither (i) nor (ii) is strong.

 

Q. 112 Given below is a statement followed by two arguments. Read carefully and decide which of the arguments strongly support the statement.

Statement: Should a strong institution of ombudsman be created in India?

Arguments:

(i) Yes, this will bring transparency and accountability in the administration

(ii) No, this will develop lack of initiative and flexibility in the administration.

A. Argument (i) is strong

B. Argument (ii) is strong.

C. Both (i) and (ii) are strong.

D. Neither (i) nor (ii) is strong.

 

Q. 113 Given below is a statement followed by two arguments. Read carefully and decide which of the arguments strongly support the statement.

Statement: Should internal assessment in colleges and universities be abolished?

Arguments:

(i) Yes, this will eliminate the possibility of favoritism.

(ii) No, teaching faculty will lose control over the students and this would adversely affect their academic growth.

A. Argument (i) is strong.

B. Argument (ii) is strong.

C. Both (i) and (ii) are strong.

D. Neither (i) nor (ii) is strong.

 

Q. 114 Given below is a statement followed by two arguments. Read carefully and decide which of the arguments strongly support the statement.

Statement: Should military training be made compulsory for all college and university

students?

Arguments:

(i) Yes, this will develop in them a sense of punctuality and discipline

(ii) No, military training should be given only to those students who are physically fit.

A. Argument (i) is strong.

B. Argument (ii) is strong.

C. Both (i) and (ii) are strong.

D. Neither (i) nor (ii) is strong.

 

Q. 115 Given below is a statement followed by two arguments. Read carefully and decide which of the arguments strongly support the statement.

Statement: Should students’ union in colleges and universities be abolished?

Arguments:

(i) Yes, it detracts students from academic and career development.

(ii) No, all great leaders have been students’ union leaders.

A. Argument (i) is strong.

B. Argument (ii) is strong.

C. Both (i) and (ii) are strong.

D. Neither (i) nor (ii) is strong.

 

Q. 116 Given below is a statement followed by two arguments. Read carefully and decide which of the arguments strongly support the statement.

Statement: Should the age of marriage be raised to 25 years for boys and 21 for girls?

Arguments:

(i) No, it is difficult to change a social practice in Indian conditions.

(ii) Yes, by that age people develop a sense of responsibility and also complete their

education.

A. Argument (i) is strong.

B. Argument (ii) is strong.

C. Both (i) and (ii) are strong.

D. Neither (i) nor (ii) is strong.

 

Q. 117 The question contains six statements followed by four sets of combination of three. 

Choose the set in which the statements are logically related.

Statements:

(i) X and Y are siblings.

(ii) X and Y do not quarrel.

(iii) Siblings are known to quarrel often.

(iv) X and Y quarrel often.

(v) All those who quarrel are siblings.

(vi) X and Y cannot be siblings.

A. ii, iv, v

B. i, iv, vi

C. i, iii, iv

D. i, ii, v

 

Q. 118 The question contains six statements followed by four sets of combination of three.

Choose the set in which the statements are logically related.

Statements:

(i) All mangoes are fruits.

(ii) All mangoes are green.

(iii) All mangoes are oval shaped.

(iv) All fruits are sweet.

(v) All mangoes are sweet.

(vi) All fruits are expensive

A. i, ii, iii

B. i, iv, v

C. ii, iii, iv

D. iv, v, vi

 

Q. 119 The question contains six statements followed by four sets of combination of three.

Choose the set in which the statements are logically related.

Statements:

(i) All frogs are amphibians.

(ii) All amphibians are not frogs.

(iii) All amphibians are cold blooded.

(iv) All frogs lay eggs.

(v) All amphibians lay eggs.

(vi) Frogs are cold blooded.

A. i, iii, vi

B. i, iv, v

C. i, ii, v

D. ii, v, iv

 

Q. 120 The question contains six statements followed by four sets of combination of three. Choose the set in which the statements are logically related.

Statements:

(i) Some men are of short- height.

(ii) Short-heighted men are intelligent.

(iii) Sudhir is a man.

(iv) Sudhir is of short-height.

(v) Sudhir is intelligent.

(vi) All men are intelligent.

A. i, ii, vi

B. iii, iv, ii

C. ii, iv, v

D. ii, iv, vi

 

Q. 121 Of the four alternatives given in the following question, find the one which is different from the rest.

A. Fast-Slow

B. Bright-Dark

C. Day-Night

D. Valley-Depth

 

Q. 122 Of the four alternatives given in the following question, find the one which is different from the rest.

A. Body-Hand

B. Foot-Ankle

C. Eye-Ear

D. Wrist-Finger

 

Q. 123 Of the four alternatives given in the following question, find the one which is different from the rest.

A. Snake-Frog

B. Goat-Hen

C. Dog-Cat

D. Tiger-Deer

 

Q. 124 The question below has two statements followed by four conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to accept the given statements to be true, even if they appear to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements.

Statement One: All girls are students.

Statement Two: All doctors are students.

Conclusions:

I. All girls are students.

II. Some students are girls.

III. Some students are doctors.

IV. All doctors are girls.

A. Only I follows

B. Only I and II follows.

C. Only II and IV follow.

D. Only I and II and III follows.

 

Q. 125 The question below has two statements followed by four conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to accept the given statements to be true, even if they appear to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements.

Statement One: All researchers are sociologists

Statement Two: Some researchers are professors.

Conclusions:

I. All researchers are professors.

II. Some researchers are professors.

III. Some professors are sociologists.

IV. Some sociologists are researchers.

A. Only III and II follow.

B. Only II and IV follow.

C. Only III follows.

D. None follows.

 

Q. 126 The question below has two statements followed by four conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to accept the given statements to be true, even if they appear to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements.

Statement One: Some democracies are dictatorship.

Statement Two: No dictatorship is a monarchy.

Conclusions:

I. No democracy is a monarchy.

II. No dictatorship is a monarchy.

III. Some democracies are monarchy.

IV. Some dictatorships are democracies.

A. None follows

B. Only IV follows.

C. II and III follow.

D. I and IV follow.

 

Q. 127 The following question comprises of one or more statements. Answer the questions on the basis of the given statement(s). Accept the factual assumptions required by the question, even if you believe that the statement is false.

Statements:

I. Cheese is bad for people with high cholesterol.

II. Sumeet does not eat cheese.

Assuming that (i) and (ii) are true, which of the following statement follows?

A. Sumeet has high-cholesterol.

B. Cheese is bad for Sumeet.

C. People with high-Cholesterol do not eat cheese.

D. None of the above.

 

Q. 128 The following question comprises of one or more statements. Answer the questions on the basis of the given statement(s). Accept the factual assumptions required by the question, even if you believe that the statement is false.

Statement:

I. Democrats are secularists.

Which of the following statements, if true, would show that the above statement is false?

A. My father is a secularist but he is not a democrat.

B. My father is a democrat but he is not secularist.

C. My father is a democrat and he is secularist.

D. My father is neither a democrat nor a secularist.

 

Q. 129 The following question comprises of one or more statements. Answer the questions on the basis of the given statement(s). Accept the factual assumptions required by the question, even if you believe that the statement is false.

Statement:

“Where there is a cloud, there is a rain.”

Which of the following statements, if true, would show that the above statement is false?

A. Sometimes there is cloud, but there is no rain.

B. Sometimes there is rain, but there is no cloud.

C. There is no rain where there is no cloud.

D. None of the above.

 

Questions: 130 – 132

Four friends W, X, Y and Z are students of Class 10th. W and X are good in Hindi but poor in English. W and Y are good in Science but poor in Mathematics. Y and Z are good in English but poor in Social Studies. Z and X are good in Mathematics as well as in Science.

 

Q. 130 Who amongst the following friends is not good in Mathematics but good in Hindi?

A. W

B. Y

C. X

D. Z

 

Q. 131 Which of the following pairs of friends are good, both in English and Science?

A. W and Y

B. W and Z

C. Y and Z

D. Z and X

 

Q. 132 Which of the following statements is definitely true?

A. Y and Z are good in English as well as in Hindi

B. All four friends are good in Science

C. W is good in Social Studies, Hindi and Science

D. Y is not good in Mathematics, Hindi and Social Studies

 

Q. 133 Select the statement which logically follows the two given statements.

Statements:

I No athletes are vegetarians.

II All players are athletes

III Therefore —————–

A. no players are vegetarians

B. all players are vegetarian

C. some players are vegetarian

D. all vegetarians are players

 

Q. 134 Select the statement which logically follows the two given statements.

Statements:

I All persons who have done any creative work can be responsible critics

II Z has not done any creative work

III Therefore ————————

A. Z can be a responsible critic

B. Z cannot be a responsible critic

C. Z can become a responsible critic

D. Z cannot become a responsible critic

 

Q. 135 Select the statement which logically follows the given statement

Statement:

I One who has squared a circle is not a mathematician

II Therefore ——————

A. No one who has squared a circle is a mathematician

B. All non-mathematicians have squared a circle

C. Some mathematicians have squared a circle

D. All mathematicians square a circle

 

Q. 136 Statement: The Supreme Court of India is encouraging Public Interest Litigation

Reasons: I To increase the reach of justice to the disadvantaged sections of society

II To quicken the pace of justice

Identify the correct reason for the aforementioned statement.

A. Both I and II are correct reasons of the statement

B. I is the correct reason of the statement

C. Both I and II are not correct reasons of the statement

D. II is the correct reason of the statement

 

Q. 137 Yoga has become a very popular exercise, but it may not be for everyone. If you are interested in high energy and fast workouts, yoga may not be the best choice. Therefore, evaluate your fitness requirement before joining yoga classes.

This paragraph best supports the statement that:

A. Yoga is more popular than high energy exercise

B. Yoga is changing the concept of fitness in various ways

C. Before opting for Yoga, assess your fitness requirements

D. Yoga is a holistic fitness regime

 

Q. 138 Statistics allows us to understand the reality. It indicates developmental directions. Statistics is good for exposing reality, but it can also be manipulated to perpetuate untruth and misunderstanding. Data has power to mislead people.

This paragraph best supports the statement that:

A. Words are more truthful than numbers

B. Study of statistics is more important than any other discipline

C. Numbers never lie

D. Numbers can be used to mislead people

 

Q. 139 Technology has developed out of stone tools which were used in ancient times. At first, development of new technology was slow, but after neo-liberal economic policy was adopted there has been a tremendous growth in technology sector.

This paragraph best supports the statement that:

A. Stone tools were not really technology

B. Stone tools were in use in Ancient India

C. Today new technologies are developing at a fast pace

D. New technology has nothing in common with the stone tools

 

Q. 140 Given below is a pair of events I and II. You have to decide their mature of relationship. Assume that the given information is correct and final.

I Prices of toys in the market have gone down

II Government has reduced import duty on toys.

A. I is the main cause and II is the main effect

B. I is the effect but II is not the main cause

C. II is the main cause and I is the main effect

D. II is an effect but I not the main cause.

 

Q. 141 Given below is a pair of events I and II. You have to decide their mature of relationship. Assume that the given information is correct and final.

I Inflation rate in India has come down

II Reserve Bank of India has increased interest rate.

A. I is the main cause and II is the main effect

B. I is effect but II is not the main cause

C. II is the main cause and I is the main effect

D. II is an effect but I is not the main cause

 

Q. 142 Given below is a pair of events I and II. You have to decide their mature of relationship. Assume that the given information is correct and final.

I More and more students are opting for legal education

II Bar Council of India has introduced Bar Examination

A. I is the main cause and II is the main effect

B. I is main effect but II is not the main cause

C. II is the main cause and I is the main effect

D. II is an effect but I is not the main cause

 

Q. 143 Given below is a pair of events I and II. You have to decide their mature of relationship. Assume that the given information is correct and final.

I Sea level is steadily rising

II Global warming is a serious problem which the world is facing

A. I is the main cause and II is the main effect

B. I is effect but II is not the main cause

C. II is the main cause and I is the main effect

D. II is an effect but I is not the main cause

 

Q. 144 Given below is a pair of events I and II. You have to decide their mature of relationship. Assume that the given information is correct and final.

I Financial Institutions are largely unregulated

II Today, world is passing through a serious phase of economic crisis

A. I is the main cause and II is the main effect

B. I is effect but II is not the main cause

C. II is the main cause and I is the main effect

D. II is an effect but I is not the main cause

 

Q. 145 An argument is given below, on the basis of that argument; find out the parallel argument from the given list of subsequent arguments

Argument: Himalayan Sparrows are disappearing. This bird is an Indian bird; therefore,

Indian birds are disappearing.

Subsequent Arguments:

A. Industrialists pay most of the taxes. ‘Z’ is a wealthy man therefore ‘Z’ must pay most taxes

B. A pineapple is a fruit, a mango is a fruit therefore pineapple is a mango

C. Snow tigers are an endangered species; all endangered species must be protected; therefore snow-tiger must be protected

D. John is his father’s favorite son, and John knows this must be true because his father told him this; and no father would lie to his favorite son

 

Q. 146 The question below is followed by arguments. Choose the most appropriate choice from the options given

Question: Should Judicial Activism be discouraged?

Argument I: No, it would lead to executive dictatorship

Argument II: Yes, Judiciary should stay in the constitutional limits

A. Argument I is strong

B. Argument II is strong

C. Both the arguments are strong

D. Both the arguments are weak

 

Q. 147 The question below is followed by arguments. Choose the most appropriate choice from the options given

Question: Should the Judiciary be independent of Executive and Legislature?

Argument I: Yes, this is necessary to ensure impartiality in the administration of Justice

Argument II: No, it will develop inertia in Executive and Legislature

A. Argument I is strong

B. Argument II is strong

C. Both the arguments are strong

D. Both the arguments are weak

 

Q. 148 The question below is followed by arguments. Choose the most appropriate choice from the options given

Question: Should E-Governance be introduced at every level of public administration?

Argument I: Yes, it will reduce corruption

Argument II: No, it will lead to unemployment

A. Argument I is strong

B. Argument II is strong

C. Both the arguments are strong

D. Both the arguments are weak

 

Q. 149 The question below is followed by arguments. Choose the most appropriate choice from the options given

Question: Should there be a world Government?

Argument I: Yes, it will eliminate inter-state conflicts

Argument II: No, Rich and Powerful countries will dominate it

A. Argument I is strong

B. Argument II is strong

C. Both the arguments are strong

D. Both the arguments are weak

 

Q. 150 “Some philosophers believe that a concept which cannot be verified can still be valid because of its inner logic which ennobles it.”

In the light of the above statement, decide the status of the statement given below.

Statement: “Every person has certain inherent and inalienable rights which must be

protected by Rule of Law.”

A. True

B. False

C. Difficult to determine

D. Both True and False

 

Q. 151 Principle: Only Parliament or State Legislatures have the authority to enact laws on their own. No law made by the State can take away a person’s fundamental right.

Facts: Parliament enacted a law, which according to a group of lawyers is violating the fundamental rights of traders. A group of lawyers files a writ petition challenging the Constitutional validity of the statute seeking relief to quash the statute and further direct Parliament to enact a new law.

A. No writ would lie against Parliament, as the court has no authority to direct Parliament to enact or re-enact a law

B. The court can quash existing law if it violates fundamental rights and can direct Parliament to make a new law

C. The court can quash the existing law if it violates fundamental rights but cannot direct Parliament to make a new law.

D. None of these

 

Q. 152 Principle: When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that person to such an act or abstinence, he is said to have made a proposal.

Fact: “Ramanuj telegraphed to Shyam Sunder, writing: “Will you sell me your Rolls Royce CAR? Telegram the lowest cash price.” Shyam Sunder also replied by telegram: “Lowest price for CAR is Rs. 20 lakh.” Ramanuj immediately sent his consent through telegram stating: “I agree to buy the CAR for Rs. 20 lakh asked by you.” Shyam Sunder refused to sell the car.

A. He cannot refuse to sell the CAR because the contract has already been made.

B. He can refuse to sell the CAR because it was only invitation to offer and not the real offer

C. It was not a valid offer because willingness to enter into a contract was absent

D. None of these

 

Q. 153 Principle: Every person, who is of the age of majority, is competent to contract according to the law to which he is subject.

Facts: A minor mortgaged his house in favour of Thakur Das, a money lender, to secure a loan of Rs. 20000. A part of this, i.e. Rs. 10500 was actually advanced to him. While considering the proposed advance, the attorney who was acting for the money lender, received information that that the plaintiff was still a minor. Subsequently the minor commenced an action stating that he was underage when he executed the mortgage and the same should, therefore, be cancelled. He prayed for setting aside the mortgage. The mortgagee money lender prayed for the refund of Rs. 10500 from the minor. 

A. A minor’s contract is void, any money advanced to a minor can be recovered.

B. A minor’s contact is void ab initio, any money advanced to a minor cannot be recovered.

C. A minor’s contract is voidable; any money advanced to a minor can be recovered

D. Advanced money can be recovered because minor has given wrong information about his age.

 

Q. 154 Principle: A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interests.

Facts: Mr. X who is usually of sound state of mind, but occasionally of unsound state of mind, enters into a contract with Mr. Y when he was of unsound state of mind. Mr. Y having come to know about this fact afterwards, wants to file a suit against Mr. X.

A. Mr. X cannot enter into contract because he is of unsound state of mind when he entered into contract.

B. Mr. X can enter into contract but the burden is on the other party to prove that he was of unsound state of mind at the time of contract.

C. Mr. X can enter into contract but the burden is on Mr. X to prove that he was of sound state of mind at the time of contract

D. None of these

 

Q. 155 Principle:

(1). The state shall not deny to any person equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.

(2). The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex and place of birth or any of them.

Facts: The Government of Rajasthan, passed an order providing for reservations for the

Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes and Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (including Muslims), and Women, in all institutions of higher education, including private educational institutions, both aided as well as unaided, in the following manner: Scheduled Caste- 15%; Scheduled Tribe- 7.5%, Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (including Muslims) – 27%

I. The reservation policy of the government is violative of the principle of equality envisaged in the Constitution

II. The reservation policy is unconstitutional because it is based on ‘caste’ which is a prohibited marker

III. Reservation does not violate equality clause as it entails “like should be treated like and unlike should be treated differently.”

IV. Reservation does not violate equality clause as the Constitution itself enables the State to make special provision for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

A. I is correct

B. I and II are both correct answers

C. III is correct answer

D. III and IV both are correct answers

 

Q. 156 Principle: Nothing is an offence merely by reason of its being done with the knowledge that it is likely to cause harm, if it be done without any criminal intention to cause harm, and in good faith for the purpose of preventing or avoiding other harm to a person or property. 

Facts: Mr. Sharman, the Captain of a steam vessel suddenly and without any fault or negligence on his part, finds himself in such a position that, before he can stop his vessel, he must inevitably run down a boat B, with twenty or thirty passengers on board, unless he changes the course of his vessel, and that, by changing his course, he must incur the risk of running down a boat C with only two passengers on board and which he may possibly clear.

A. Sharman has committed no offence because this was done out of necessity

B. Sharman can be held responsible for the act of criminal negligence

C. Sharman can be held responsible for culpable homicide

D. This is a clear case of accident so Sharman cannot be held responsible

 

Q. 157 Principle: Willful rash driving is an offense.

Facts: Mr. Tiwari was driving his car after drinking alcohol. Police books him for willful negligent driving. Is the act of the police lawful?

A. No, because Mr. Tiwari was not driving rashly; he was drunk while driving.

B. No, because this is not a negligent act.

C. Yes, because Mr. Tiwari was driving rashly.

D. Yes, because the police has the power to arrest a person driving rashly.

 

Q. 158 Principle: Whoever, intending o take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent, moves that property with an intention to take it, is said to commit theft. 

Facts: Y cuts down a tree on Z’s ground, with the intention of dishonestly taking it out of Z’s possession without Z’s consent. Y could not take away the tree.

A. Y can be prosecuted for theft

B. Y cannot be prosecuted for theft

C. Y can be prosecuted for attempt to theft

D. Y has neither committed theft nor attempted to commit theft

 

Q. 159 Principle: Injuria Sine Damnum i.e. Injury (violation of legal right) without damage Facts: X, who was the returning officer at a polling booth in Amethi, wrongly refused to register a duly tendered vote of Y in the recent UP elections, even though Y was an eligible voter. The candidate in whose favour Y wanted to vote, was declared elected. Give the appropriate answer-

A. Y can sue X on the ground that he was denied the right to cast vote, which is a fundamental right.

B. Y can sue X on the ground that he was denied the right to cast vote, which is a legal Right

C. Y cannot sue X because there is no injury or damage caused to Y

D. Y cannot sue X because the candidate in whose favor he wanted to vote was declared elected.

 

Q. 160 Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsound state of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or something that he is doing is either wrong or contrary to law.

Fact: X takes his son Y who is three years old, for bathing to the well. He throws his son inside the well so that the son can have a good bath. After 10 minutes he also jumps into the well to take bath and get his son out of the well. Both were rescued by the villagers but his son was found dead.

A. X has committed culpable homicide amounting to murder

B. X has committed murder

C. X has done no offence as he can plead the defense of unsound state of mind

D. X’s family should be held responsible for allowing him to take the child to the well

 

Q. 161 Principle: Ignorance of Fact is excused but ignorance of law is no excuse

Fact: X was a passenger from Zurich to Manila in a Swiss Plane. When the plane landed at the Airport of Bombay on 28 Nov. 1962 it was found on searching that X carried 34 kg of Gold Bars on his person and that he had not declared it in the ‘Manifest for Transit’. On 26th Nov. 1962 the Government of India had issued a notification modifying its earlier exemption, making it mandatory now that the gold must be declared in the “Manifest” of the aircraft.

A. X cannot be prosecuted because he had actually no knowledge about the new notification issued two days ago

B. X cannot be prosecuted because ignorance of fact is excusable

C. X can be prosecuted because ignorance of law is not excusable

D. X’s liability would depend on the discretion of the court

 

Q. 162 Principle: Proposal (communication) + Acceptance (communication) + Consideration = Contract. The communication of a proposal is complete when it comes to the knowledge of the person to whom it is made.

Facts: X’s nephew absconded from home. He sent his servant in search of the boy. After the servant has left, X by handbills offered to pay Rs. 501 to anybody finding his nephew. The servant came to know of this offer only after he had already traced the missing child. He, therefore, brought an action to recover the reward.

A. His action would fail because he was not aware of the offer

B. His action would not fail because it was a general offer

C. The fact that he was not aware of the offer does not make any difference and hence it was a valid contract. It is a mere formality

D. None of the above

 

Q. 163 Principle: Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or not capable of being made certain, are void.

Facts: A horse was bought for a certain price coupled with a promise to give rs. 500 more if the horse is proved lucky.

A. This is a valid agreement.

B. This agreement is void for uncertainty because it is very difficult to determine what luck, bad or good, the horse has brought to the buyer.

C. The agreement is partially valid and partially void.

D. None of the above.

 

Q. 164 Principle: Mere silence as to the facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to enter into a contract is not a fraud, unless the circumstances of the case are such that, on close examination it is found to be the duty of the person keeping silent to speak, or unless his silence is, in itself, equivalent to speech.

Facts: X sells by auction to Y, a horse which X knows to be of unsound state of mind. X says nothing to Y about the horse’s unsound state of mind. Give the correct answer-

A. X can be held liable for fraud.

B. X can be held liable for misrepresentation

C. X cannot be held liable, because he did not say anything positive about the mental state of the horse

D. X cannot be held liable because it is the buyer who must be aware of the things.

 

Q. 165 Principle: Any direct physical interference with goods in somebody’s possession without lawful justification is called trespass of goods.

Facts: Z purchased a car from a person who had no title to it and sent it to a garage for

repair. X believing wrongly that the car was his, removed it from the garage.

A. X can be held responsible for trespass of goods

B. X cannot be held responsible for trespass of goods as he was under a wrong belief.

C. X has not committed any wrong.

D. None of the above.

 

Q. 166 The question below consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion’ (A) and other as ‘Reason’ (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.

Assertion (A): A void contract is not necessarily illegal

Reason (R): Every illegal contract is void.

A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

 

Q. 167 The question below consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion’ (A) and other as ‘Reason’ (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.

Assertion (A): The Indian Constitution was adopted on 26th November, 1949.

Reason (R): Law Day is celebrated in India on 26th November every year.

A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

 

Q. 168 The question below consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion’ (A) and other as ‘Reason’ (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.

Assertion (A): The state shall not make any law, which takes away or abridges the rights

conferred by Part III (Fundamental Rights) and any law made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.

Reason (R): The fundamental rights are the rights reserved by the people and for this reason they are eternal and sacrosanct.

A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

 

Q. 169 The question below consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion’ (A) and other as ‘Reason’ (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.

Assertion (A): Directive Principles of State Policy contained in Part IV shall not be enforceable by any court, but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.

Reason (R): Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Rights are both complementary to each other but in case of any controversy fundamental rights will prevail.

A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are individually correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

 

Q. 170 The question below consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion’ (A) and other as ‘Reason’ (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.

Assertion (A): All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

Reason (R): Institutions established by the minorities are not entitled to governmental aid and government is not under an obligation to give aid.

A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

 

Q. 171 The question below consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion’ (A) and other as ‘Reason’ (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.

Assertion: The right to move the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the fundamental rights is guaranteed as a fundamental right.

Reason (R): Supreme Court of India has been appointed as the guardian of the Constitution.

A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

 

Q. 172 The question below consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion’ (A) and other as ‘Reason’ (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.

Assertion (A): If the budget presented to the Rajya Sabha in not passed in the stipulated period, the budget proposals are not affected.

Reason (R): The Lok Sabha is more powerful, in financial matters, than the Rajya Sabha.

A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

 

Q. 173 The question below consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion’ (A) and other as ‘Reason’ (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.

Assertion (A): In the Event of violation of any legal right (tort) the aggrieved party is entitled to recover unliquidated damages.

Reason (R): The object of awarding damages to the aggrieved party is to put him in the

same position in which he would have been if the wrong would not have been committed. Damages are therefore, assessed on that basis.

A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

 

Q. 174 The question below consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion’ (A) and other as ‘Reason’ (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.

Assertion (A): During inflation, there is increase in money supply and rise in price level.

Reason (R): The rise in prices is due to shortage in supply of essential consumer goods.

A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

 

Q. 175 The question below consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion’ (A) and other as ‘Reason’ (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer.

Assertion (A): X, because of unsound state of mind and not knowing the nature of the act, attacks Y, who in self defense and in order to ward off the attack, hits him thereby injuring him. Y has not committed an offence.

Reason (R): Y had a right of private defense against X under Section 98 of the Indian Penal code.

A. Both A and R are individually true an R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

 

Q. 176 The question below consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion’ (A) and other as ‘Reason’ (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers.

Assertion (A): X and Y independently entertained the idea to kill Z. Accordingly, each of them separately inflicted wounds on Z who died as a consequence. X and Y are liable for murder under 341 IPC.

Reason (R): When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of common intention of all, each of such persons is liable as if the whole act was done by him alone.

A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

 

Q. 177 The question below consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion’ (A) and other as ‘Reason’ (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answers,

Assertion (A): A person claims compensation for his non-gratuitous act.

Reason (R): A person who enjoys benefit from lawful, non-gratuitous act of another must compensate him even though there is no contract.

A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is is false

D. A is false but R is true

 

Q. 178 The question below consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion’ (A) and other as ‘Reason’ (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer.

Assertion (A): Freedom of Speech is the most important civil liberty of people in a democratic polity.

Reason (R): State can regulate free speech in the interest of public order.

A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

 

Q. 179 The question below consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion’ (A) and other as ‘Reason’ (R).You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer.

Assertion (A): Austin’s concept of law is known as imperative theory

Reason (R): Austin emphasized on the commanding character of law.

A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

 

Q. 180 The question below consists of two statements, one labeled as ‘Assertion’ (A) and other as ‘Reason’ (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer.

Assertion (A): The essence of joint liability under section 149 of the IPC is that the criminal act must have been done with a view to fulfill the common object of an unlawful assembly. 

Reason (R): Any sudden and provocative act done by a member of an unlawful assembly would render the other members of that assembly liable.

A. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

B. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

 

Q. 181 The following are enshrined in the Preamble of the Constitution of India

I. Equality of status and of opportunity

II. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship

III. Justice-social, economic and political

IV. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual

V. Unity and Integrity of the nation

Which of the following is the correct order in which they appear in the preamble?

A. V-I-II-IV-III

B. III-II-I-IV-V

C. III-I-II-V-IV

D. I-II-IV-III-V

 

Q. 182 Which one of the following statements is correct?

Right to free and compulsory education for all children of the age of 6 to 14 years is:

A. a fundamental right enforceable in law

B. a fundamental duty

C. a directive principle of state policy

D. a fundamental right which, however, can be enforced only if the state makes an enabling legislation

 

Q. 183 Affirmative action connotes:

I. Measures taken by the state to help the socially disadvantaged groups

II. Positive discrimination

III. Strict quotas for the socially and educationally backward class in school/college

admissions and jobs.

Which of the above mentioned is true?

A. I and II only

B. II only

C. I, II and III

D. II and III only

 

Q. 184 Identify the correct statement:

A. Federalism implies a system of government which embodies a division of powers between a central and a number of regional authorities

B. Federalism implies a system of government which embodies a division of powers between Legislature, Executive and Judiciary

C. Federalism implies a system of Government which embodies Parliamentary supremacy

D. None of these

 

Q. 185 Consider the following statements:

I. In a recent Supreme Court verdict pronounced by Justice Markandeya Katju and Justice Gyan Sudha Mishra, the court upheld the constitutionality of the Haj subsidy

II. Muslims are not the only beneficiaries of the secular state’s generosity. Hindus have also received substantial financial support from the Government With reference to the statements mentioned above, which of the following is correct?

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

 

Q. 186 X, a married woman, agreed to live in adultery with B and also agreed to serve him as his housekeeper. In return, B agreed to pay X Rs. 500 per month for living in adultery and Rs. 500 per month for housekeeping. The agreement is

A. Valid

B. Void

C. Void as to the first object but valid with respect to the second object

D. Unlawful as being opposed to public policy

 

Q. 187 Ramu applied for the post of Director in an organization. The governing body of the organization passed a resolution appointing him to the post. After the meeting, one of members of the governing body informed him privately of the resolution. Subsequently, the resolution was rescinded. Ramu claims damages. Which one of the following is the correct legal proposition in the case?

A. Ramu cannot claim damages as he had not resigned from his existing post in anticipation of getting the appointment letter

B. Ramu cannot claim damages as there was no formal communication

C. Ramu can claim damages as governing body cannot rescind the resolution once passed

D. Ramu can claim damages as there was a private communication

 

Q. 188 The Railway authorities allowed a train to be over crowded. In consequence, a legitimate passenger Mr. X got his pocket picked. Choose the appropriate answer:

A. Mr. X can sue the Railway authorities for the loss suffered

B. Mr. X cannot sue because he had given his consent to travel in a over-crowded train

C. Mr. X cannot sue railway authorities because here was no infringement of his legal right and mere fact that the loss was caused does not give rise to a cause of action

D. None of these

 

Q. 189 Z is carried off by a tiger. X fires at the tiger, knowing that the shot might kill Z, but with no intention to kill Z, and in good faith trying to save Z. X’s shot, however, gives Z a mortal wound. Choose he correct option –

A. X has committed an offence of a grievous nature.

B. X has no moral duty to save Z therefore he can be held liable.

C. X has not committed any offence, as the act was in good faith and for the benefit of Z.

D. None of the above

 

Q. 190 Ms. Usha wants to file a suit against Bhagyalaxmi Theatre praying for a permanent injunction (stay order) restraining the theatre from running the film named “Jair Santoshi Maa”. Her contention is that the film hurt her religious feelings and sentiments as Goddess Saraswati, Laxmi and Parvati were depicted as jealous and were ridiculed.

A. She cannot file a suit because injury to religious feelings is not a legally recognized right.

B. She cannot file a suit because the Theatre has a fundamental right to speech and expression.

C. She can file a suit as injury to religious feelings has been legally recognized as a right (injuria sine damnum)

D. It is a case of complete judicial discretion.

 

Q. 191 Match schedule one and two and choose the appropriate answer-

Schedule I Schedule II

i. Concurrent list 1. Constitution of Japan

ii. Rule of Law 2. Constitution of Ireland

iii. Directive Principle of State Policy 3. British Constitution

iv. Procedure established by law 4. Constitution of Australia

A. i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4

B. i-2, ii-4, iii-3, iv-1

C. i-1, ii-3, iii-4, iv-2

D. i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1

 

Q. 192 P, Q and R made a joint promise to give S a sum of Rs.3000. S recovered the whole amount from P. Q was declared insolvent and cannot give anything. Which statement out of the following is correct?

A. P cannot get anything from R.

B. P can recover Rs.1000 from R.

C. P can recover Rs.1500 from R

D. P can recover Rs.2000 from R.

 

Q. 193 X went to Y’s house and forgot his bag which contained 1 kg sweets. Y’s children consumed the sweets. Decide the liability of Y.

A. Y is bound to pay the price of sweets to X

B. Y is not bound to pay anything

C. Y is bound to pay half the price of sweets.

D. Y would not have to pay anything because X loves Y’s children.

 

Q. 194 Which one of the following is not correct?

A. Freedom of speech and expression includes freedom of press.

B. Right to life and personal liberty includes right to carry on any trade and profession

C. Right to equality includes the principles of natural justice

D. Freedom of conscience includes the wearing and carrying of kirpans by the Sikhs

 

Q. 195 Y makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box and finds, after opening the box, that there is no jewel in it. Choose the appropriate answer.

A. Y is not guilty of attempt to theft because the box was empty.

B. Y is guilty of attempt to commit theft.

C. Y is guilty of trespass.

D. Y is not guilty of any offence.

 

Q. 196 A lady wanted to get a railway ticket but finding a crowd near the ticket window at the station, asked Raju, who was near the window, to get a ticket for her and handed him money for the same. Raju took the money and instead of getting the ticket, ran away with it. What offence has been committed by Raju?

A. No offence

B. Criminal breach of trust

C. Criminal misappropriation

D. Theft

 

Q. 197 The Right to Equality is guaranteed by-

A. Article 14 to 18

B. Article 14

C. Article 14 and 15

D. Article 14, 15 and 16

 

Q. 198 Mr. Samay was severely hurt while working in his factory and fell unconscious. He was rushed to a hospital by his fellow workers. In the hospital (at emergency/casualty ward) the doctors opined that he should be operated immediately. While conducting preliminary examinations, he was found to be HIV positive. The doctors are in a dilemma regarding what should they do first-

A. Doctors should operate first

B. Doctors should inform his family members

C. Doctors should inform his employers

D. Doctors should not inform anyone because it would violate patient’s right of privacy.

 

Q. 199 Match the schedule I and II and choose the appropriate answer-

Schedule I Schedule II

i. Republic 1. Head of the state is elected by the people

ii. Secular 2. State does not recognize any religion as religion of the state

iii. Democracy 3. The government which gets authority from the will of the people

A. i-1, ii-2, iii-3

B. i-1, ii-3, iii-2

C. i-2, ii-3, iii-1

D. i-3, ii-2, iii-1

 

Q. 200 In which of the following cases can a Constitutional amendment be passed just by a simple majority in Parliament?

A. Election matters

B. Change in the name and boundaries of states

C. Powers of the President

D. None of the above

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	D	C	B	C	A	B	D	B	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	C	A	C	D	D	B	C	A	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	D	C	D	C	A	D	C	D	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	B	C	A	D	B	A	B	C	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	C	A	D	B	C	B	A	C	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	B	A	B	C	A	C	B	D	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	C	C	A	B	D	B	C	B	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	C	C	C	D	A	C	A	B	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	A	B	A	A	C	D	B	B	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	A	C	C	B	A	D	C	B	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	C	A	A	A	B	D	D	A	B	C
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	A	A	C	B	A	B	D	B	A	C
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	D	C	B	D	B	B	C	B	A	A
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	C	B	B	B	B	B	C	D	C	C
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	C	D	C	A	C	D	A	C	B	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	B	B	C	D	A	A	A	B	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	C	A	B	C	A	B	B	A	A	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	A	D	A	A	A	D	A	A	A	C
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	B	D	C	A	C	D	B	C	C	A
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	D	C	B	B	B	B	D	A	A	D

 

CLAT 2011

Questions: 1 – 10

Passage – 1:

In 1954 , a Bombay economist named A. D. Shroff began a Forum of Free Enterprise, whose ideas on economic development were somewhat at odds with those then influentially articulated by the Planning Commission of the Government of India. Shroff complained against the ‘indifference, if not discouragement’ with which the state treated entrepreneurs. At the same time as Shroff, but independently of him, a journalist named Philip Spratt was writing a series of essays in favour of free enterprise. Spratt was a Cambridge communist who was sent by the party in 1920s to foment revolution in the subcontinent. Detected in the act, he spent many years in an Indian jail. The books he read in the prison, and his marriage to an Indian woman afterwards, inspired a steady move rightwards. By the 1950s, he was editing a pro-American weekly from Bangalore, called MysIndia. There he “inveighed” against the economic policies of the government of India. These, he said, treated the entrepreneur ‘as a criminal who has dared to use his brains independently of the state to create wealth and give employment’. The state’s chief planner, P.C. Mahalanobis, had surrounded himself with Western leftists and Soviet academicians, who reinforced his belief in ‘rigid control by the government over all activities’. The result, said Spratt, would be ‘the smothering of free enterprise, a famine of consumer goods, and the tying down of millions of workers to soul deadening techniques.’ The voices of men like Spratt and Shroff were drowned in the chorus of popular support for a model of heavy industrialization funded and directed by the governments. The 1950s were certainly not propitious times for free marketers in India. But from time to time their ideas were revived. After the rupee was devalued in 1966, there were some moves towards freeing the trade regime, and hopes that the licensing system would also be liberalized. However, after Indira Gandhi split the Congress Party in 1969, her government took its ‘left turn’, nationalizing a fresh range of industries and returning to economic autarky.

 

Q. 1 Which of the following statements can most reasonably be inferred from the information available in the passage:

A. P.C. Mahalanobis believed in empowering private entrepreneurs and promoting free market.

B. Philip Spratt preferred plans that would create economic conditions favourable for a forward march by the private enterprise.

C. Restrictions on free markets enriched large Indian companies.

D. Philip Spratt opposed the devaluation of rupee in 1966

 

Q. 2 Which of the following statements is least likely to be inferred from the passage.

A. Acceptance of A.D. Shroff’s plans in the official circles smothered free enterprise in India.

B. The views of the Forum of Free Enterprise ran against the conception of development then prevalent among the policy makers.

C. A.D. Shroff believed that state should actively support the private sector.

D. Philip Spratt had been educated in Cambridge.

 

Q. 3 Select the statement that best captures the central purpose of this passage.

A. Highlight that even though there were advocates for free-market and private enterprise in the early years of independent India, they were crowded out by others who supported a dominant role for state over private enterprise.

B. Explain the politics behind Indira Gandhi’s decision to nationalize the banks.

C. Demonstrate with the help of statistics how the preference of policy makers for Soviet-style economic policies prevented India’s economic growth.

D. Establish that devaluation of rupee in 1966 was vindicated by subsequent experience.

 

Q. 4 Philip Spratt came to India because he:

A. Fell in love with an Indian woman

B. Wanted to protest against the economic policies of the Indian government.

C. Was offered the editorship of Mysindia.

D. Had been instructed to work towards the goal of inciting a revolution in India.

 

Q. 5 The author that A.D. Shroff’s ideas were somewhat at odds with the views of Planning Commission because:

A. A.D. Shroff was in favour of rigid governmental control over all economic activities.

B. Shroff had opposed government’s decision to devalue Indian rupee.

C. The hostility of the government to private entrepreneurs was complained against by A.D. Shroff.

D. Shroff had been critical of the influence of Soviet academicians over India’s economic policy.

 

Q. 6 The ideological shift of Philip Spratt to the right was caused by:

A. The demise of the Soviet Union

B. The start of the weekly called MysIndia.

C. The books that he encountered in the prison.

D. The dissolution of his first marriage to his college friend.

 

Q. 7 Select the statement that could be most plausibly inferred from this passage.

A. Philip Spratt and A.D. Shroff were members of the Forum for Free Enterprise.

B. The first two Five Year Plans emphasized on the importance of private enterprise as the spearhead of economic growth.

C. P.C. Mahalanobis had mooted the expulsion of foreign firms like Coca Cola and IBM from India.

D. The hopes that the licensing regime would be liberalized after the devaluation of India rupee were belied in the aftermath of the split in the Congress Party.

 

Q. 8 The author alludes to nationalization of industries in 1969 in order to:

A. Show the contradictions between AD Shroff’s economic views and the official economic policies of he government of India.

B. Exemplify the shift of the Indira Gandhi led government to the ‘left’

C. Demonstrate the ideological changes in the worldview of Philip Spratt.

D. Highlight the negative political repercussions of the decision to devalue the Indian currency.

 

Q. 9 “Neither Philip Spratt nor A.D. Shroff______ able to convince Mahalanobis.” Select the most appropriate phrase out of the four options for filling the blank space in the aforesaid sentence.

A. Were

B. Are

C. Was

D. Is

 

Q. 10 The word ‘inveighed’ in this passage means:

A. Praised

B. Recited

C. Proclaimed

D. Remonstrated

 

Questions: 11 – 20

In Manu Joseph’s debut novel Serious Men, the protagonist, Ayyan Mani; is a sly, scheming Dalit-Buddhist who almost gets away with passing off his partially deaf son, Adi, as a prodigy, a genius who can recite the first 1,000 prime numbers. The garb of satire—where almost every character cuts a sorry figure—gives the author the licence to offer one of the most bleak and pessimistic portrayals of urban Dalits. Despite his savage portrayal of Dalit (and female) characters—or perhaps because of it? —Serious Men has won critical appreciation from a crosssection of readers and critics. At a time when a formidable body of Dalit literature—writing by Dalits about Dalit lives—has created a distinct space for itself, how and why is it that a novel such as Serious Men, with its gleefully skewed portrayal of an angry Dalit man, manages to win such accolades? In American literature—and particularly in the case of African-American authors and character—these issues of representation have been debated for decades. But in India, the sustained refusal to address issues related to caste in everyday life—and the continued and unquestioned predominance of a Brahminical stranglehold over cultural production—have led us to a place where non-Dalit portrayal of Dalits in literature, cinema and art remains the norm. The journey of modern Dalit literature has been a difficult one. But even though it has not necessarily enjoyed the support of numbers we must engage with what Dalits are writing—not simply for reasons of authenticity, or as a concession to identity politics, but simply because of the aesthetic value of this body of writing, and for the insights it offers into the human condition. In a society that is still largely unwilling to recognize Dalits as equal, rights-bearing human beings, in a society that is inherently indifferent to the everyday violence against Dalits, in a society unwilling to share social and cultural resources equitably with Dalits unless mandated by law (as seen in the “anti-reservation discourse”), Dalit literature has the potential to humanize non-Dalits and sensitise them to a world into which they have no insight. But before we can understand what Dalit literature is seeking to accomplish, we need first to come to terms with the stranglehold of non-Dalit representations of Dalits. Rohinton Mistry’s A Fine Balance, publishe  15 years ago, chronicles the travails of two Dalit characters— uncle Ishvar and nephew Omprakash—who migrate to Bombay and yet cannot escape brutality. While the present of the novel is set at the time of the Emergency, Ishvar’s father Dukhi belongs to the era of the anticolonial nationalist movement. During one of Dukhi’s visits to the town, he chances upon a meeting of the Indian National Congress, where speakers spread the “Mahatma’s message regarding the freedom struggle, the struggle for justice,” and wiping out “the disease of untouchability, ravaging us for centuries, denying dignity to our fellow human beings.” Neither in the 1940s, where the novel’s past is set, nor in the Emergency period of the 1970s—when the minds and bodies Ishvar and Omprakash, are savaged by the state—do we find any mention of a figure like BR Ambedkar or of Dalit movements. In his ‘nationalist’ understanding of modern Indian history, Mistry seems to have not veered too far from the road charted by predecessors like Mulk Raj Anand and Premchand. Sixty years after Premchand, Mistry’s literary imagination seems stuck in the empathy-realism mode, trapping Dalits in abjection. Mistry happily continues the broad stereotype of the Dalit as a passive sufferer, without consciousness of caste politics.

 

Q. 11 Which of the following is the closest description of the central argument of this passage:

A. Manu Joseph’s novel presents a scathing portrayal of Dalits.

B. Contemporary American literature is very cautious on politically correct representation of minorities.

C. The last two decades have witnessed the rise of a very vibrant Dalit literature.

D. Portrayal of Dalits by non-Dalits merely as passive victims has been the dominant norm in Indian Literature, cinema and art.

 

Q. 12 According to this passage, Premchand and Mulk Raj Anand:

A. Presented a stereotyped version of Dalit characters in their writings.

B. Excelled in writing satires on social inequality

C. Were politically opposed to the views of B.R. Ambedkar

D. Were closely involved with the leadership of the nationalist movement.

 

Q. 13 The writer refers to the ‘anti-reservation discourse’ in order to argue that:

A. Dalit literature has had a very difficult journey since its origins.

B. Manu Joseph is viscerally opposed to Dalits.

C. Persons belonging to the upper castes are inherently indifferent to routine violence against Dalits

D. Indian society is not yet ready to equitably share, on its own, social, cultural and political space with Dalits.

 

Q. 14 Which of the following statements is least likely to be inferred from this passage.

A. The author of Serious Men has used the literary device of satire to present an unflattering picture of women characters.

B. Issues of representation of minorities have been debated extensively in American literature.

C. The writer of this passage believes that engagement with Dalits is necessary only because such engagement affirms the importance of identity politics.

D. The writer believes that Rohinton Mistry presented a stereotypical representation of Dalits character in his book.

 

Q. 15 According to the information available in the passage, the writer attributes the prevalence of representation of Dalits by non-Dalits in literature, art and media to:

A. The nationalist understanding of Indian history.

B. Marginalization of B.R. Ambedkar from nationalist movement.

C. The anti-reservation discourse

D. Brahminical control over cultural production.

 

Q. 16 Which of the following is not among the reasons suggested by the writer for engaging with Dalit writing:

A. Dalit literature has the potential to sensitize non-Dalits about the experiences of the former.

B. Dalit writing is more authentic than representation of Dalits by non – Dalits.

C. Dalit literature does not have the support of numbers.

D. The aesthetic value of Dalit writing.

 

Q. 17 Which of the following statement cannot be inferred from the passage:

A. Upper-castes have dominated the instruments of cultural production in Indian society.

B. Indian society is unwilling to recognize Dalits as equal, rights bearing human beings.

C. Dalit writers have carved out a space for writings on Dalit experience and world view

D. The judiciary in India, in its opposition to reservation, has betrayed its unwillingness to acknowledge Dalits as equal bearer of rights.

 

Q. 18 The writer of this passage is critical of Rohinton Mistry’s A Fine Balance for the reason that:

A. It is an example of a book of Dalit characters by a Non-Dalit

B. The book suggests that Dalits are nothing more than passive sufferers without any agency

C. The book ignores the everyday violence that Dalits have to confront with.

D. It bares the passive literary style of the author, Rohinton Mistry.

 

Q. 19 Which of the following words would be the best substitute for the word ‘sly’ in this passage.

A. Bright

B. Wise

C. Devious

D. Dim

 

Q. 20 “It is not as if Dalit movements________ not active during the periods that form A Fine Balance’s backdrop.” Select the most appropriate choice to fill in the blank in the above sentence:

A. is

B. was

C. were

D. are

 

Questions: 21 – 30

Passage – 1:

In recent weeks the writers William Dalrymple and Patrick French, among others, have come before a “fusillade” of criticism in India, much of it questioning not their facts, not their interpretations, but their foreignness. “Who gets to write about India?” The Wall Street Journal asked on Wednesday in its own report on this Indian literary feuding. It is a complicated question, not least because to decide who gets to write about India, you would need to decide who gets to decide who gets to write about India. Rather than conjecturing some Committee for the Deciding of the Deciding of Who Gets to Write About India, it might be easier to let writers write what they please and readers read what they . The accusations pouring forth from a section of the Indian commentariat are varied. Some criticism is of a genuine literary nature, fair game, customary, expected. But lately a good amount of the reproaching has been about identity. In the case of Mr. Dalrymple, a Briton who lives in New Delhi, it is—in the critics’ view—that his writing is an act of re-colonization. In the case of Mr. French, it is that he belongs to a group of foreign writers who use business-class lounges and see some merit in capitalism and therefore do not know the real India, which only the commentarial member in question does. What is most interesting about these appraisals is that their essential nature makes reading the book superfluous, as one of my Indian reviewers openly admitted. (His review was not about the book but about his refusal to read the book). The book is not necessary in these cases, for the argument is about who can write about India, not what has been written. For critics of this persuasion, India surely seems a lonely land. A country with a millennial history of Hindus, Christians, Jews, Muslims and Buddhists living peaceably together; a country of hundreds of dialects in which so many. Indians are linguistic foreigners to each other, and happily, tolerantly so; a country that welcomes foreign seekers (of yoga poses, of spiritual wisdom, of ancestral roots) with open arms; a country where, outside the elite world of South Delhi and South Bombay, I have not heard an Indian ask whether outsiders have a right to write, think or exist on their soil. But it is not just this deep-in-the-bones pluralism that challenges the “who-getsto – write-about-India contingent”. It is also that at the very heart of India’s multifarious changes today is this glimmering idea: that Indians must be rewarded for what they do, not who they are. Identities you never chose—caste, gender, birth order—are becoming less important determinants of fate. Your deeds—how hard you work, what risks you take—are becoming more important. It is this idea, which I have found pulsating throughout the Indian layers, that leaves a certain portion of the intelligentsia out of sync with the surrounding country. As Mr. French has observed, there is a tendency in some of these writers to value social mobility only for themselves. When the new economy lifts up the huddled masses, then it becomes tawdry capitalism and rapacious imperialism and soulless globalization. Fortunately for those without Indian passports, the nativists’ vision of India is under demographic siege. The young and the relentless are India’s future. They could not think more differently from these literatis. They savour the freedom they are gaining to seek their own level in the society and to find their voice; and they tend to be delighted at the thought that some foreigners do the same in India and love their country as much as they do.

 

Q. 21 Which of the following statements is least likely to be inferred from the passage:

A. Younger generations of Indians are more tolerant of foreign scribes who write about their country.

B. The writer believes that a section of Indian intelligentsia is very hostile to upward economic mobility.

C. Mr. William Dalrymple has been accused of recolonising India through his writings.

D. Most of the criticism that has been recently directed at Patrick French has emphasized mainly on the writer’s underwhelming literary style.

 

Q. 22 Which of the following would be the best substitute for the word, ‘fusillade’ in the passage?

A. Barrage

B. Breach

C. Temper

D. Row

 

Q. 23 The writer uses the phrase, ‘who gets to write about India contingent’ in this passage to refer to:

A. Foreign writers who have written books on India.

B. Critics who have attacked foreign writers writing on India for their mere foreignness.

C. Elite residents of South Delhi and South Bombay.

D. Cultural pluralists.

 

Q. 24 The writer believes that the most peculiar aspect of the criticisms that Patrick French and William Dalaymple have received is that:

A. Most such condemnation has emerged from elite Indians.

B. Such critics are hostile to upward immobility.

C. These censures are not centered on the books of such writers or their literary styles but are targeted at their identity instead.

D. These critics ignore the plural ethos of India.

 

Q. 25 Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage:

A. Ascriptive identities like caste, tribe, etc. are becoming more and more important with the passage of time.

B. Patrick French believes that the new market friendly economic policies followed for the last decades have resulted in the rise of tawdry capitalism and rapacious imperialism.

C. The writer is of the opinion that a section of the intelligentsia is divorced from the views of their compatriots.

D. While India has historically been very hospitable to a variety of religions, it has not been equally open to linguistic foreigners.

 

Q. 26 According to the information available in the passage, the writer is of the opinion that:

A. Writers like Patrick French do not know the real India.

B. Most of the condemnation heaped on Dalrymple, French and himself has been on expected lines.

C. India’s reputation of pluralism is cosmetic at best, one that hides deep rooted hatred towards foreigners.

D. The new generation of Indians have internalized the idea that people should be rewarded for what they do and not who they are.

 

Q. 27 The writer refers to the history of Hindus, Christians, Jews, Muslims and Buddhists living peaceably together in India for millions of years in order to:

A. Show India’s openness to foreigners who have visited Indian in the quest for yoga.

B. Argue that India is a country of hundreds of dialects.

C. Demonstrate the religiosity pervading in an average Indian.

D. India’s deep in the bones pluralism.

 

Q. 28 The writer argues that the nature of criticism he, Dalrymple and French have received for their books renders reading their books superfluous because:

A. Such criticism has been limited to a very small minority of Indians.

B. These writers are popular among Indian youth, even among those who have not read their books.

C. The literary styles of these writers are not the sole focus of such criticism.

D. Such criticism is less about what has been written in their books than about who can write on India.

 

Q. 29 According to the passage, the question ‘who gets to write about India’ is complicated because:

A. India has been historically open to and tolerant of foreign writers and artists.

B. This issue can be satisfactorily resolved only if we can decide who gets to decide who gets to write about India.

C. Ascriptive identities are becoming more and more important in a globalized world.

D. This would result in a shift of attention from what has been written to who has written.

 

Q. 30 “But with many outsiders’ India-related books recently hitting bookstores there, the sensitivity—flared into a bout of vigorous literary nativism, with equally vigorous counterpunches.” Select the most appropriate choice to fill in the blank in the above sentence:

A. Has

B. Have

C. Was

D. Did

 

Questions: 31 – 40

Passage – 1:

If religion and community are associated with global violence in the minds of many people, then so are global poverty and inequality. There has, in fact, been an increasing tendency in recent years to justify policies of poverty removal on the ground that this is the surest way to prevent political strife and turmoil. Basing public policy—international as well as domestic—on such an understanding has some evident attractions. Given the public anxiety about wards and disorders in the rich countries in the world, the indirect justification of poverty removal-not for its own sake but for the sake of peace and quiet in the world—provides an argument that appeals to self-interest for helping the needy. It presents an argument for allocating more resources on poverty removal because of its presumed political, rather than moral relevance. While the temptation to go in that direction is easy to understand, it is a “perilous” route to take even for a worthy cause. Part of the difficulty lies in the possibility that if wrong, “economic reductionism” would not only impair our understanding of the world, but would also tend to undermine the declared rationale of the public commitment to remove poverty. This is a particularly serious concern, since poverty and massive inequality are terrible enough in themselves, and deserve priority even if there were no connection whatsoever with violence. Just as virtue is its own reward, poverty is at least its own penalty. This is not to deny that poverty and inequality can-and do-have far reaching consequences with conflict and strife, but these connections have to be examined and investigated with appropriate care and empirical scrutiny, rather than being casually invoked with unreasoned rapidity in support of a ‘good cause’. Destitution can, of course, produce provocation for defying established laws and rules. But it need not give people the initiative, courage, and actual ability to do anything very violent. Destitution can be accompanied not only by economic debility, but also by political helplessness. A starving wretch can be too frail and too dejected to fight and battle, and even to protest and holler. It is thus not surprising that often enough intense and widespread suffering and misery have been accompanied by unusual peace and silence. Indeed, many famines have occurred without there being much political rebellion or civil strife or intergroup warfare. For example, the famine years in the 1840s in Ireland were among the most peaceful, and there was title attempt by the hungry masses to intervene even as ship after ship sailed down the river Shannon with rich food. Looking elsewhere, my own childhood memories in Calcutta during the Bengal famine of 1943 include the sight of starving people dying in front of sweetshops with various layers of luscious food displayed behind the glass windows, without a single glass being broken, or law or order being disrupted.

 

Q. 31 Select the statement that can be most plausibly inferred from the aforesaid passage.

A. A society plagued by recurrent famines can never witness political revolution.

B. Religious discrimination inevitably leads to violence and strife.

C. Destitution of the masses leads to peace and social stability.

D. Famines and starvation do not necessarily result in political rebellion.

 

Q. 32 The author believes that it may not be advisable to emphasise on the connection between poverty and violence as:

A. Emphasis on such connection appeals only to self-interest of persons.

B. Linking poverty and violence undermines the moral character of anti-poverty measures.

C. The absence of any essential connection between poverty and violence may then weaken the very rationale of anti-poverty policies.

D. There is no necessary link between poverty and inequality.

 

Q. 33 Which of the following best captures the central argument of this passage.

A. Religion is inextricably linked with violence.

B. Famines may not necessarily result in civil unrest.

C. Global poverty and inequality are one of the fundamental causes of global violence and strife.

D. Basing anti-poverty programmes on the need for avoidance of violence and strife is dotted with many pitfalls.

 

Q. 34 In the given passage, the word ‘perilous’ means:

A. Scared

B. Costly

C. Futile

D. Dangerous

 

Q. 35 The author refers to his own experience as a child during the Bengal famine of 1943 in order to.

A. Illustrate how religiosity may instill passive acceptance of even the worst forms of starvation among people.

B. Repudiate the argument that religious discrimination usually tends to inspire violent protests.

C. Substantiate his assertion that it is not unusual to have the most intense suffering and misery coexist with complete peace.

D. Demonstrate that people confronted with acute starvation are rendered too helpless to protest ever at all.

 

Q. 36 The word ‘destitution’ in this passage can be best substituted by:

A. Dejection

B. Indigence

C. Default

D. Dereliction

 

Q. 37 Which of the following statement is least likely to be inferred from the passage:

A. History is replete with instance of famines that have occurred without there being much violent protest.

B. Many writers and critics are increasingly advocating for stronger policies on poverty removal on the ground that this would help prevent political turmoil.

C. The author believes that the links between poverty and violence must never be emphasized at all.

D. Economic debility in turn inhibits political freedom.

 

Q. 38 The author asserts that basing anti-poverty measures on the avowed connections between poverty and violence has certain apparent benefits because:

A. Poverty is similar to religious exploitation in terms of the potential violent consequences.

B. It leads to allocation of more resources on anti-poverty policies.

C. The widespread concern about war and violence provides a rationale for poverty removal that appeals to the ‘self-interest’ of persons.

D. Otherwise, there would not have been the tendency to justify anti-poverty policies on the ground that they prevent political turmoil.

 

Q. 39 ‘Economic reductionism’ in this passage means:

A. Neglecting the economic connection between poverty and violence.

B. Excessive accent on poverty and inequality.

C. Emphasizing on the linkage between violence, poverty and economic equality.

D. The view that every conflict is caused by underlying economic tensions.

 

Q. 40 “A sense of encroachment, degradation and humiliation can be even easier-mobilize for rebellion and revolt.” Select the most appropriate word out of the four options for filling the blank space in the aforesaid sentence.

A. for

B. as

C. into

D. to

 

Q. 41 Why was Arundhati Roy investigated in sedation?

A. For committing contempt of court

B. For saying that Kashmir is not an integral part of India

C. For sympathizing with the Maoists

D. For condemning nuclear tests conducted by India

 

Q. 42 Damon Galgut’s ‘In a Strange Room’ was recently in news for:

A. Man Booker Prize shortlist

B. Winning the Pulitzer Prize

C. Winning the Orange Prize for fiction

D. None of the above

 

Q. 43 Who was recently in the news when the Supreme Court of India rejected her plea for Euthansia, but paved the way for legalization of passive euthanasia?

A. Aruna Shanbaug

B. Aruna Roy

C. Mary Roy

D. Medha Patkar

 

Q. 44 Nagoya Protocol, signed by India on 30th October, 2010 is:

A. an international treaty of bilateral investment between India and Japan

B. an international treaty to ensure that local produce are exploited only under license and for the common good of the mankind

C. an international treaty to ensure that the benefits of natural resources and their commercial derivatives are shared with local communities

D. None of the above

 

Q. 45 Julian Assange, the founder of WikiLeaks, was arrested in which of the following nations?

A. U.K.

B. Sweden

C. U.S.A.

D. Denmark

 

Q. 46 Which of the following are the five countries that have decided to bid for 2017 World Athletics Championship?

A. Qatar, USA, China, Sri Lanka and Brazil

B. Germany, Britain, Hungary, Qatar and Spain

C. Germany, Qatar, India, Spain and China

D. Germany, Britain,, China, Qatar and Spain

 

Q. 47 The recent Tunisian revolution is known as:

A. Orange Revolution

B. Jasmine Revolution

C. Purple Revolution

D. Crescent Revolution

 

Q. 48 “The Naive and the Sentimental Novelist’ is a 2010 publication of Harvard University Press of which of the following authors?

A. Orhan Pamuk

B. J M Coetzie

C. Partha Chatterjee

D. Ben Okri

 

Q. 49 Who replaced Lalit Modi as the IPL Chairman and Commissioner from this year’s edition of the IPL?

A. Chirayu Amin

B. Rajiv Shukla

C. Ratnakar Shetty

D. Shashank Manohar

 

Q. 50 Which one of the following films was officially selected to compete in the Uncertain Regard (A Certain Glance) category at the 2010 Cannes Film Festival?

A. Udaan

B. My name is Khan

C. Wednesday

D. Dhobi Ghat

 

Q. 51 Rani Kumudini Devi, whose birth centenary is being celebrated in 2011, was the :

A. First woman barrister of India

B. First woman Mayor of Hyderabad

C. First woman photographer in India

D. First woman doctor of India

 

Q. 52 The Supreme Court in 2010 upheld an order of the Bombay High Court to line a four-year old ban imposed by the Maharashtra government on publication and circulation of a  controversial book, authored by American scholar James Laine. Identify the book from the following.

A. Chatrapati Shivaji

B. Shivaji – The Warrior King

C. Shivaji – The Hindu King in Muslim India

D. None of the above

 

Q. 53 In which case did the Nagpur Bench of the Bombay High Court on July 14, 2010 commute the death sentence of six accused to rigorous life imprisonment?

A. Khairlanji case

B. Bhopal Gas Leak case

C. Bhagalpur case

D. Nithari case

 

Q. 54 The Shunglu panel was constituted for which of the following issues?

A. Investigate the 2G Spectrum Scam

B. Suggest Civil Service Reform

C. Probe the Commonwealth Game Scam

D. Suggest reforms on centre-state relationship

 

Q. 55 Who was appointed as the Chairman of the National Innovation Council in August 2010?
A. Shashi Tharoor

B. Chetan Bhagat

C. Arindam Choudhary

D. Sam Pitroda

 

Q. 56 Name the Kenya-born political lobbyist who runs a firm called Vaishnavi Corporate Communications, and has recently been in news?

A. Barkha Dutt

B. Vir Sanghavi

C. Vina Ramani

D. Niira Radia

 

Q. 57 Irom Sharmila has been fasting for the last 10 years to protest against which of the following issues?

A. Rape cases against Indian Army in Manipur

B. Emergency in Manipur

C. Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005

D. Application of the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act 1958 in Manipur

 

Q. 58 Thein Sein is the newly-appointed President of which of the following nations?

A. Indonesia

B. Malaysia

C. Myanmar

D. Thailand

 

Q. 59 Baglihar dam has been a matter of dispute between which nations?

A. Bangladesh and Myanmar

B. Myanmar and China

C. India and China

D. India and Pakistan

 

Q. 60 Who is the author of the book “TINDERBOX-The Past and Future of Pakistan”?

A. Husain Haqqani

B. Yasmeen Niaz Mohiuddin

C. Ishrat Husain

D. M. J. Akbar

 

Q. 61 On 25th January 2011, BJP leaders Sushma Swaraj and Arun Jaitley were prevented from entering Srinagar and unfurl the national flag. What was that Rath Yatra called?

A. Swabhimaan Yatra

B. Ekta Yatra

C. Mukti Yatra

D. Swaraj Yatra

 

Q. 62 Who is chairing the Joint Parliamentary Committee (UPC) on the 2G Spectrum allocation issue?

A. Murli Manohar Joshi

B. A. Raja

C. M. Thambi Durai

D. P. C. Chacko

 

Q. 63 Saina Nehwal recently defeated Ji Hyun Sung of South Korea to win which of the following titles?

A. Swiss Open Grand Prix Gold Badminton

B. Commonwealth Games

C. Singapore Open

D. Hong Kong Open

 

Q. 64 ‘Moner Manush’, the film to win the ‘Golden Peacock at the 41th International Film Festival of India was based on the life of which legendary 19th century folk singer and spiritual Leader?

A. Kabir

B. Surjya Sen

C. Kabir Suman

D. Lalan Fakir

 

Q. 65 Justice P.C. Phukan Commission of Inquiry was constituted to enquire into which of the following incidents?

A. Clashes between Nagas and Lepchas in Nagaland on 14th August 2008

B. Clashes between Bodos and Muslims in Northern Assam’s Udalguri district on August 14th 2008

C. Clashes between Assamese and Bengalis in Guwahati on August 14th 2008

D. None of the above

 

Q. 66 The first woman Secretary General of SAARC is from which country?

A. Maldives

B. Bhutan

C. Sri Lanka

D. India

 

Q. 67 Under whose premiership was the Women’s Reservation Bill (to secure quotas for women in Parliament and state legislative assemblies) first introduced in Parliament?

A. Rajiv Gandhi

B. HD Deve Gowda

C. Atul Bihari Vajpayee

D. Manmohan Singh

 

Q. 68 Which Irish player scored the fastest Century in the history of World Cup Cricket?

A. Niall O’Brien

B. Kevin O’Brien

C. A. Cusack

D. Ed Joyce

 

Q. 69 Which of the following report brought out the 2G spectrum scam?

A. CBI report

B. WikiLeaks

C. CAG report

D. None of the above

 

Q. 70 In February 2011, Gopa Sabharwal was appointed as the first Vice Chancellor of which University of international stature?

A. Jawaharlal Nehru University

B. Azim Premji University

C. Visva-Bharati University

D. Nalanda International University

 

Q. 71 With which Hindutva association are Sadhvi Pragya Singh Thakur and Swami Aseemanand allegedly associated?

A. Vishwa Hindu Parishad

B. Shri Ram Sena

C. Abhinav Bharat

D. Arya Samaj

 

Q. 72 With which of the following do you associate the name P. J. Thomas?

A. Central Vigilance Commission

B. Lokpal

C. Anti Corruption Ombudsman

D. Banking Ombudsman

 

Q. 73 The 17th Commonwealth Law Conference was held in which city?

A. Delhi

B. Bangalore

C. Kolkata

D. Hyderabad

 

Q. 74 Gustavo Santaolall who composed the music to the song “Stranger Lives” in the movie “Dhobi Ghat” is from which of the following nations?

A. Chile

B. Peru

C. Argentina

D. Mexico

 

Q. 75 Which one of the following was not awarded a portion of the contested land by the judgment of the Allahabad High Court in 2010 pertaining to the Ayodhya dispute?

A. Nirmohi Akhada

B. Sunni Central Board of Waqfs

C. Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh

D. Bhagwan Sri Ram Lala Virajman

 

Q. 76 Sania Mirza claimed silver in the Tennis mixed doubles category in the Asian Games in Guanzhou in November 2010. Who was her partner?

A. Mahesh Bhupati

B. Somdev Devvarman

C. Leander Paes

D. Vishnu Vardhan

 

Q. 77 China objected to the Dalai Lama’s recent visit to Tawang in Arunachal Pradesh. What was he visiting in Tawang?

A. A Buddhist monastery

B. A memorial to Tibetans massacred by the Chinese army

C. The residence of Panchen Lama

D. None of the above

 

Q. 78 Which one of the following tribes lives in the Niyamgiri Hills, which is at the heart of the controversy surrounding Vedanta Resources mining operations?

A. Manna Dhora

B. Dongria Kondh

C. Pardhan

D. Mal Pahariya

 

Q. 79 Which prominent Barrister politician, who was closely linked with the emergency proclamation of 1975, breathed his last in Kolkata on 6th November 2010?

A. Jyoti Basu

B. Siddhartha Shanker Ray

C. Hiren Mukherjee

D. Indrajit Gupta

 

Q. 80 Who is the author of the book ‘Great Soul: Mahatma Gandhi and his Struggle with India’, criticized for its content?

A. Nirad C. Chaudhary

B. Joseph Lelyveld

C. Khushwant Singh

D. Hermann Kallenbach

 

Q. 81 Which Gharana of Classical singing did Late Pandit Bhimsen Joshi belong to?

A. Dhrupad

B. Maihar

C. Kirana

D. Etawah

 

Q. 82 14th March 2011 was the 80th Anniversary of the first Indian sound Film (talkie). Which movie was it?

A. Jahan Ara

B. Alam Ara

C. Noorjehan

D. None of the above

 

Q. 83 Which internationally renowned musician collaborated with Rahul Sharma to release a music album titled ‘Namaste India’?

A. Richard Clayderman

B. Kenny G

C. Yanni

D. Ricky Martin

 

Q. 84 “War on Terrorism or American Strategy for Global Dominance” is authored by which of the following authors?

A. Noam Chomsky

B. Demetrios Caraley

C. Lea Brilamayer

D. Mansoor Alam

 

Q. 85 Mohammad Asif, Mohammad Amir and Salman Butt (Cricket players of Pakistan) have been banned for being found guilty of spot fixing. To which of the following institutions have they appealed?

A. Pakistan Cricket Board

B. Anti-Corruption Tribunal of the Asian Cricket Council

C. Court of Arbitration for Sport

D. Anti-Corruption Tribunal of the International Cricket Council

 

Q. 86 Indian driver Karun Chandok was recently in the news for which of the following?

A. Being selected as a reserve driver by Team Force India for the 2011 Formula one season.

B. Being selected as a reserve driver by Team Lotus for the 2011 Formula one season

C. Being selected as a reserve driver by Team Ferrari for the 2011 Formula one season.

D. None of the above

 

Q. 87 The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change meeting of 2010 December was held in which of the following places?

A. Colorado

B. Canberra

C. Cancun

D. None of the above

 

Q. 88 Which of the following pairings is correct?

A. Muammar Gaddafi – Syria

B. Fidel Castro – Cuba

C. Pol Pot – Cambodia

D. Hosni Mubarak – Egypt

 

Q. 89 The Right of Children to Full and Compulsory Education Act 2009 requires private schools to ensure that ____________ percent of their students come from weaker sections and disadvantaged groups?

A. 2

B. 15

C. 25

D. 40

 

Q. 90 Srikrishna Committee, which recently submitted its report, was constituted for which of the following issues?

A. Mumbai bomb blast case

B. Malegaon blast case

C. Telengana issue

D. 2G Spectrum corruption issue

 

Q. 91 Akbar will turn 50 when his son Jehangir turns 18. What will be Akbar’s age when it will be exactly 5 times that of Jehangir?

A. 36

B. 40

C. 44

D. 48

 

Q. 92 Arun can climb a Coconut tree by 1.5 feet by each lift; however he slips 0.5 feet every time he makes the next lift. How many individual lifts he will have to reach the top of the Coconut tree of 18.5 feet?

A. 20

B. 19

C. 18

D. 17

 

Q. 93 Jogen’s taxable income for 2010-11 is Rupees 5, 00,000. The tax rates are (i) nil for first 1, 50,000, (ii) 10% for 1, 50,001—3, 00,000, and (iii) 20% for the remaining. His Tax liability is:

A. Rs. 45,000

B. Rs. 50,000

C. Rs. 55,000

D. Rs. 60,000

 

Q. 94 The ratio of two numbers is 4 : 5. But, if each number is increased by 20, the ratio becomes 6 : 7. The sum of such numbers is:

A. 90

B. 95

C. 100

D. 60

 

Q. 95 During the academic session 2009-10, in Banaras Hindu University, Varanasi, the number of students studying Arts, Law and Commerce was in the ratio of 5:6:7. If during the academic session 2010-11 the number of students studying Arts, Law and Commerce increased by 20%, 30% and 40% respectively, what will be new ratio?

A. 26 : 42 : 63

B. 36 : 44 : 73

C. 26 : 39 : 49

D. 30 : 39 : 49

 

Q. 96 A customized jewellery was sold at Rs 1000 with 90% discount on the ‘making charges’. If the payment made for making charges was Rs 100, what is the approximate rate of discount on the product?

A. 35

B. 45

C. 47

D. 90

 

Q. 97 A man walks from his house to the Railway station to catch a train, which is running as per schedule. If he walks at 6 km/h, he misses the train by 9 minutes. However, if he walks at 7 km/h, he reaches the station 6 minutes before the departure of train. The distance of his home to the Railway Station is:

A. 2 km

B. 1.5 km

C. 1.05 km

D. 1. 25 km

 

Q. 98 Difference between two numbers is 9 and difference between their squares is 981. Lowest of the two numbers is:

A. 40

B. 50

C. 55

D. 59

 

Q. 99 Ms. Jhulan Goswami scores 102 runs in the 18th innings of her career and thus increases her average by 5. After the 18th innings, her average is:

A. 17

B. 21

C. 26

D. 28

 

Q. 100 In a staff room of 25 teachers, 13 drink black coffee, 7 milk coffee, 9 drink both tea and either type of coffee, and everyone drinks either of the beverages. How many teachers drink only tea?

A. Insufficient information

B. 5

C. 6

D. 9

 

Q. 101 A box contains 90 discs which are numbered from 1 to 90. If one disc is drawn at random from the box, the probability that it bears a perfect square number is:

A. 1/10

B. 1/11

C. 1/90

D. 1/9

 

Q. 102 Two coins are tossed simultaneously. The probability of getting at the most one head is:

A. 1/4

B. 1/2

C. 3/4

D. 1

 

Q. 103 A flag pole 18m high casts a shadow 9.6m long. What is the distance of the top of the pole from the far end of the shadow?

A. 20 metres

B. 20.04 metres

C. 20.4 metres

D. 24 metres

 

Q. 104 The 10th term of the series 5, 8, 11, 14, ………………. is

A. 32

B. 35

C. 38

D. 185

 

Q. 105 A bag contains 19 red balls, 37 blue balls and 27 green balls. If a ball is picked up from this bag at random, what is the probability of picking a blue ball?

A. 19/83

B. 37/87

C. 34/81

D. None of the above

 

Q. 106 A cylindrical tennis ball container can contain maximum three balls stacked on one another. The top and bottom balls also touch the lid and the base of the base of the container respectively. If the volume of a tennis ball is 240 cm^3, then what is the volume of the container?

A. 1080 cm^3

B. 840 cm^3

C. 1440 cm^3

D. 720 cm^3

 

Q. 107 Rajneetha walks around the circular park in 15 minutes. If she walks at the rate of 5 km/hr, how much distance would she have to travel, at the minimum, to reach the center of the park from any point on its perimeter?

A. 100 metre

B. 200 metre

C. 250 metre

D. 300 metre

 

Q. 108 If (9/7)^3 x (49/81)^2x-6 = (7/9)^9, then the value of x is:

A. 12

B. 9

C. 8

D. 6

 

Q. 109 Francis has 18 eggs out of which 12 eggs were sold at 10% loss than the cost price. At what mark up should be sell the remaining eggs to cover his losses?

A. 5%

B. 10%

C. 15%

D. 20%

 

Q. 110 If the length and height of a brick increases by 10% each respectively, and the breadth reduces by 20%, what is the percentage change in the volume of the brick?

A. 28

B. 30

C. 32

D. 36

 

Q. 111 ‘Where there is smoke, there is fire’.

Which of the following statements, if true, would show that the above statement is false?

A. There is sometimes smoke where there is no fire.

B. There is sometimes fire where there is no smoke.

C. There is no fire where there is no smoke.

D. None of the above.

 

Q. 112 ‘Where there is poverty, there are always thieves.’

Which of the following statements, if true, would show that the above statement is false?

A. America is a rich country and there are thieves in America.

B. Bhutan is a poor country and there are no thieves in Bhutan.

C. Bangladesh is a poor country and there are many thieves in Bangladesh.

D. Nepal is a rich country and there are no thieves in Nepal.

 

Q. 113 Statement 1: Sugar is bad for people with diabetes.

Statement 2: Leela does not eat sugar.

Assuming that Statements 1 and 2 are true, which of the following statements follows?

A. Leela has diabetes

B. Sugar is bad for Leela

C. People with diabetes do not eat sugar

D. None of the above

 

Q. 114 Statement 1: People who read fashion magazines do no like to read fiction.

Statement 2: Tenzin does not read fashion magazines.

Assuming that Statements 1 and 2 are true, which of the following conclusions might be said to follow?

A. Tenzin likes to read fiction

B. Tenzin may or may not like to read fiction

C. Tenzin does not like to read fiction

D. Tenzin does not like fashion magazines.

 

Q. 115 Suleiman: All Communists are atheists.

Sheeba: That is not true.

Which of the following, if true, would make Sheeba’s reply the most convincing?

A. My uncle is an atheist but he is not a Communist

B. My uncle is a Communist but he is not an atheist

C. My uncle is a Communist and an atheist

D. My uncle is a neither a Communist nor an atheist

 

Q. 116 Statement 1: All pingos are Byronic.

Statement 2: Shalisto is byronic.

Statement 3: Therefore _________ .

Fill in the blanks:

A. Shalisto is a pingo

B. Shalisto is not a pingo

C. Shalisto is not byronic

D. None of the above

 

Q. 117 A, B, D, G, K, P, _____________

Which is the last alphabet in this sequence?

A. Z

B. Y

C. V

D. X

 

Q. 118 B, C, E, G, K, M, Q, S, _______________

What is the next alphabet in this sequence?

A. T

B. U

C. V

D. W

 

Q. 119 Z, X, T, N, __________

What is the next alphabet in this sequence?

A. E

B. F

C. G

D. H

 

Q. 120 ‘Apple, Application, _______________, Approval, Apricot, April’

Which of the following best fits in the blank?

A. Arrogant

B. April

C. Appropriate

D. Apiary

 

Q. 121 ‘Sunday, Monday, Wednesday, Saturday, Wednesday, Monday, Sunday, __________, Which of the following best fits in the blank?

A. Sunday

B. Tuesday

C. Saturday

D. Thursday

 

Q. 122 ‘387924, _______, 3724, 423, 32, 2’.

Which number is missing?

A. 42978

B. 42789

C. 42983

D. 42783

 

Q. 123 ‘Gym, hymn, lynx, pygmy, rhythm’

Which of the following words does not belong to the above set?

A. Myrrh

B. Mythic

C. Flyby

D. Syzygy

 

Q. 124 Aadvark, Eerie, Iiwi, Oolong, ________

Which of the following words follows the pattern of this series?

A. Uvula

B. Uulium

C. Uranium

D. Uranus

 

Q. 125 ‘China has a higher literacy rate than India. This is due to the greater efficiency of the Communist system. Efficiency is sorely lacking in India’s democratic system. Therefore, democracy is the biggest obstacle to India’s achieving 100% literacy.’

Which of the following, if true, would directly undermine the above argument?

A. Inefficiency is equally a problem in democracies and Communist countries.

B. Communist systems do not respect human rights.

C. Freedom is more important than literacy.

D. China is slowly making the transition to democracy.

 

Q. 126 ‘In 399 BC, a jury in Athens condemned Socrates to death for impiety and corrupting the morals of the youth. Socrates’ friends offered to help him escape, but Socrates refused. Socrates argued that the fact that he had lived in Athens for so many years meant that he had committed himself to obeying its laws. It would therefore be wrong for him to break those very laws he was implicitly committed to obeying.’

Which one of the following claims constitutes the most plausible challenge to Socrates’ argument?

A. Long residence only commits someone to obeying just laws and Socrates was convicted under an unjust law.

B. Long residence by itself does not imply a commitment to obeying laws since one never made any explicit commitment.

C. Obedience to the law is not always required.

D. There is no point in escaping from prison since one will anyway be captured again.

 

Q. 127 ‘Soft drinks have been shown by scientists to be bad for the teeth. Therefore, the government would be justified in banning all soft drinks from the Indian market. Assuming that the factual claim in the above argument is true, what else needs to be assumed for the conclusion to follow?

A. The government is justified in banning anything that is bad for dental health.

B. Soft drinks are also bad for gastric health

C. Dental hygiene is a matter of great concern.

D. No further assumptions are necessary.

 

Q. 128 ‘In order to be eligible for election to the Lok Sabha, a person must be at least 25 years of age. Moreover, one must not be bankrupt. Therefore, Jatinder Singh, over 50 years of age and without any criminal convictions, cannot be the Speaker of the Lok Sabha since he has just filed for bankruptcy.

Which of the following must be assumed for the conclusion to follow logically?

A. Anyone over 50 years of ago is eligible to be Speaker of the Lok Sabha as long as he or she has no criminal convictions.

B. People without criminal convictions cannot be elected to the Lok Sabha even if they

are not bankrupt.

C. Only those eligible for election to the Lok Sabha are eligible to be the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

D. There is no minimum age requirement for the Speaker of the Lok Sabha

 

Q. 129 ‘As a century draws to a close, people start behaving much like people coming to the end of a long life. People approaching death often start reflecting on the events of their lives. Similarly, people alive in 1999_______’

Which of the following most logically completes the paragraph above?

A. …..started reflecting on the events of the twentieth century.

B. …..started to reflect on the events of their lives.

C. ……started to fear death.

D. ……started to wonder what the year 2000 would bring.

 

Q. 130 ‘The Roman poet and philosopher Lucretius proposed the following thought experiment. If the universe has a boundary, we can throw a spear at this boundary. If the spear flies through, then it is not a boundary. If the spear bounces back, there must something beyond this boundary that is itself in space, which means it is not a boundary at all. Either way, it turns out that the universe has no boundary.’ How best can the form of Lucretius’ argument for the infinity of space be described?

A. Lucretius shows that positing finite space leads to a contradiction.

B. Lucretius shows that finite space is inconsistent with physics.

C. Lucretius shows that finite space is inconsistent with mathematics.

D. Lucretius shows that finite space is inconceivable.

 

Q. 131 ‘Utilitarians believe that the right action is that which produces the most happiness.’ Which of the following claims is incompatible with the utilitarian view?

A. The right thing to do is to make the consequences of our actions as good as possible

B. The right thing to do is to do our duty, whatever the consequences

C. The right thing to do is to act on a rule which, if followed widely, produces the most

happiness.

D. The right thing to do is to act from motivations which produce the most happiness.

 

Q. 132 ‘Senthil goes to Ambala for the first time in his life. On the way from the railway station to his hotel, sees twelve people, all of them male. He concludes that there are no women in Ambala. As a matter of fact, there are many thousands of women in Ambala.’

Which of the following best describes Senthil’s error?

A. Senthil was misled by irrelevant details

B. Senthil generalized on the basis of insufficient evidence.

C. Senthil was biased against women.

D. Senthil was bad at counting

 

Q. 133 ‘It took many centuries before the countries of Europe could resolve their internal problems of violence and corruption to become the stable nation-states they are.

Therefore, it will take many centuries for India to achieve internal stability.’

Assuming that the factual claims in the argument above are true, what must be assumed in order for the conclusion to follow?

A. Countries everywhere must follow the same paths towards stability.

B. India is gradually progressing towards internal stability.

C. India can learn how to achieve stability by studying Europe’s example

D. India has no hope of achieving in the near future

 

Q. 134 Which one of the following statements is best described as an assertion of opinion rather than an assertion of fact?

A. Brazil, China and India are now among the largest emitters of greenhouse gases.

B. Scientists agree that human activity is an important cause of climate change.

C. The Indian government’s policy on climate change is misguided.

D. The Indian government’s policy on climate change has changed significantly in the last five years.

 

Q. 135 (A) The number of people migrating into Bengaluru has increased significantly in recent years.

(B) This is because Bengaluru provides more economic opportunities than the towns and villages from which these migrants come.

(C) This sudden influx of migrants has made the city less pleasant to live in.

(D) The success of the government’s rural employment guarantee act might have the effect of stemming some rural-urban migration.

Which one of the above statements is best described as an assertion of opinion rather than an assertion of fact?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 136 Which one of the following statements, if true, is best described as an assertion of opinion rather than an assertion of fact?

A. Mumbai is larger than Pune.

B. Mumbai is smaller than Pune.

C. Mumbai is more cultured than Pune.

D. Mumbai is more crowded than Pune.

 

Q. 137 In the following question, there are two or more statements along with few conclusions deduced from the statements. You are required to answer on the basis of the statements and the conclusions. Make the factual assumptions required by the question even if you believe the statement is actually false.

Statement 1: Some aeroplanes are balloons.

Statement 2: Some balloons are rockets.

Conclusions:

(a) Some aeroplanes are rockets.

(b) Some rockets are tables.

(c) All the rockets are balloons.

(d) All the balloons are aeroplanes.

Assuming the statements 1 and 2 are true, which conclusion follows:

A. Only (b) and (d)

B. Only (a) and (c)

C. Only (d)

D. None of the above

 

Q. 138 In the following question, there are two or more statements along with few conclusions deduced from the statements. You are required to answer on the basis of the statements and the conclusions. Make the factual assumptions required by the question even if you believe the statement is actually false.

Statement 1: All whales are fish.

Statement 2: Some fish are not amphibians.

Statement 3: All whales are amphibians.

Statement 4: Some amphibians are not fish.

Conclusions:

(a) Some fish are amphibians.

(b) Some amphibians are fish.

(c) Only whales are both fish and amphibians.

(d) All amphibians are fish.

Assuming the statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are true, which conclusion follows:

A. Only (a) and (b)

B. Only (c)

C. Only (d)

D. None of the above

 

Q. 139 In the following question, there are two or more statements along with few conclusions deduced from the statements. You are required to answer on the basis of the statements and the conclusions. Make the factual assumptions required by the question even if you believe the statement is actually false.

Statement 1: All libraries are laboratories.

Statement 2: No laboratories are hostels.

Conclusions:

(a) All laboratories are libraries.

(b) Some hostels are libraries.

(c) Some libraries are hostels.

(d) No library is a hostel.

Assuming the statements 1 and 2 are true, which conclusion follows:

A. Only (a) and (b)

B. Only (b) and (c)

C. Only (c) and (d)

D. Only (d)

 

Questions: 140 – 142

Passage – 1:

‘Instead of being concerned with what actually happens in practice….(economics) is increasingly preoccupied with developing pseudo-mathematical formulas. These provide models of behavior which never quite fit what actually happens, in a way which resembles the physical sciences gone wrong: instead of equations describing reality, economics produces equations describing ideal conditions and theoretical clarity of a type which never occurs in practice’.

 

Q. 140 Which of the following best summarizes the argument of this paragraph?

A. Economics ought to be more like the physicals.

B. Theoretical clarity is undesirable in economics.

C. The physical sciences are wrong to emphasise mathematic formulae.

D. The mathematical equations used by economists do not accurately describe the real world.

 

Q. 141 Which of the following claims is not implied in the paragraph above?

A. Economists should stop using mathematics models.

B. Equations describing ideal conditions should not be mistaken for equations describing reality.

C. Theoretical clarity should not come at the expense of accuracy.

D. Models of human behavior should be true to the complexity of human nature.

 

Q. 142 Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument of the passage above?

A. The physical sciences are themselves reducing their reliance on mathematical formulae.

B. The real world in fact closely approximates ideal theoretical conditions.

C. We do not at present have the mathematical expertise to model the full complexity of the world economy.

D. Academic economists need to be more sensitive to human nature.

 

Questions: 143 – 144

‘Religion, like camel caravans, seem to avoid mountain passes. Buddhism spread quickly south from Buddha’s birth-place in southern Nepal across the flat Gangetic plain to Sri Lanka. But it took a millennium to reach China….. The religious belt stretched eventually to Mongolia and Japan, but in Afghanistan Buddhism filled only a narrow belt that left pagans among the valleys to the east and west in Kailash and Ghor’.

 

Q. 143 Which of the following best summarises the subject of this paragraph?

A. The Afghan people were hostile to Buddhism.

B. Geography has considerable impact on the spread of religions.

C. Buddhism does not flourish in mountainous regions.

D. Religion has a considerable impact on geography.

 

Q. 144 Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the conclusion to the above argument?

A. Christianity took several centuries to cross the Atlantic Ocean to America.

B. The Hindukush mountains made no difference to the speed with which Islam spread.

C. Buddhism is strongest in mountainous regions.

D. Jainism is less popular in cold climates.

 

Questions: 145 – 146

Friendship was indeed a value for the villagers, more for men than for women. Two good friends were said to be ‘like brothers’ (literally, ‘like elder brotheryounger brother’, annatammandirahage). I heard this expression several times and I could not help recalling the statement of an elderly English colleague who had told me that he and his brother were very close and had written to each other every week. He had added, ‘We are very good friends.’ That is, friendship connoted intimacy in England while in Rampura (as in rural India everywhere), brotherhood conveyed intimacy’.

 

Q. 145 Which of the following best summarizes the conclusion of the argument of this paragraph?

A. Friendship has greater value for men than for women.

B. People in England have different attitudes to brotherhood and friendship than people in rural India.

C. Brotherhood has greater value in rural India than in England.

D. Friendship has greater value in England than in India.

 

Q. 146 Which of the following, if true, would directly contradict the conclusion of the above argument?

A. People are less likely to have large families in England.

B. People in England are no longer close to their family members.

C. People in England do not think that friendship connotes intimacy.

D. People in rural India think that sisters cannot be intimate.

 

Questions: 147 – 148

‘A language is most easily learnt when it is an tune with the social context. To teach an Indian child in English at the primary stage ………. strengthens distinctions of class and status and wraps the mind. Failure to resort to regional languages in literacy campaigns also hampers their success’.

 

Q. 147 Which of the following best summarizes the argument of the passage above?

A. Learning English wraps the mind.

B. Language policy should be devised with an eye to social context.

C. Literacy campaigns in India have failed

D. English should be taught at the secondary school level.

 

Q. 148 Which of the following claims, if true, would weaken the argument in the passage above?

A. Literacy campaigns are more successful when conducted in English

B. Learning English at an early age has been found to weaken class distinctions.

C. Children who learn English at the primary school stage have been found to show greater intellectual ability than those who learn English only at the secondary level.

D. All of the above.

 

Questions: 149 – 151

‘The tribes should develop their own culture and make their contribution to the cultural richness of the country. It is unnecessary to cause them to change their customs, habits or diversions so far as to make themselves indistinguishable from other classes. To do so would be rob rural and pastoral life of its colour and stimulating diversity’.

 

Q. 149 Which of the following conclusions in not implied by the passage above?

A. It is good for India’s tribal people to develop their culture.

B. Tribal customs should not be allowed tochange in any respect.

C. Forcing tribal people to change their customs reduces the diversity of rural life.

D. Tribal culture is part of the cultural richness of India.

 

Q. 150 Which of the following claims runs directly counter to the spirit of the passage above?

A. Tribal people should be able to decide what elements of the modern world to adopt.

B. The government should make modern science and medicine available to tribal people.

C. Tribal people should not be subjected to any coercion to conform to non-tribal cultural norms as long as they do not violate the law.

D. The tribals should assimilate as far possible into non-tribal culture as a condition of full citizenship.

 

Q. 151 Which of the following is not an assumption required by the above argument?

A. Colour and diversity are desirable things.

B. Tribal people are capable of contributing to India’s cultural diversity.

C. Changing tribal customs is a necessary condition of making modern medicine available to tribal people.

D. Rural life is presently full of colour and diversity.

 

Questions: 152 – 153

‘India is the only country in the world where, in the States which are governed by the Communist party, human rights are fully respected – and that is only because the Bill of Rights is firmly entrenched in our national Constitution. We can proudly say that our Constitution gave us a flying start and equipped us adequately to meet the challenges of the future’.

 

Q. 152 Which of the following conclusions is not implied by the passage above?

A. Communist states often do not respect human rights.

B. Communist states never respect human rights.

C. The entrenchment of the Bill of Rights is what ensures that even Communistgoverned states respect human rights.

D. The Indian Constitution prepared India for the challenges of independence.

 

Q. 153 Which of the following, if true, would weaken the above argument?

A. Communist governments are motivated to respect human rights out of Communist principles, not Constitutional ones.

B. The Constitution of India is itself sympathetic to Communist principle.

C. Human rights need to be enforceable to have any meaning.

D. Countries without a strong culture of human rights are prone to oppressing minorities.

Questions: 154 – 155

Passage – 1:

‘Poverty is – more restrictive and limiting than anything else. If poverty and low standards continue then democracy, for all its fine institutions and ideals, ceases to be a liberating force. It must therefore aim continuously at the eradication of poverty and its companion unemployment. In other words, political democracy is not enough. It must develop into economic democracy also’.

 

Q. 154 Which of the following is not implied by the following passage?

A. Democracy has ceased to be a liberating force.

B. Democracy should aim to eliminate poverty.

C. Poverty and unemployment go hand in hand

D. Political democracy should develop into economic democracy.

 

Q. 155 Which of following views, if true, would weaken the argument of the above passage?

A. Political democracy is inseparable from economic democracy.

B. Poverty does not in fact restrict freedom.

C. Democracy flourishes most in poor societies.

D. Economic democracy is a necessary condition for the elimination of unemployment

 

Questions: 156 – 160

Each problem consists of a set of rules and facts. Apply the specified rules to the set of facts and answer the questions.

Rules:

(A) The fundamental right to freedom of association includes the right to form an association as well as not join an association.

(B) The fundamental right to freedom of association also includes the freedom to decide with whom to associate.

(C) The fundamental right to freedom of association does not extend to the right to realize the objectives of forming the association.

(D) Fundamental rights are applicable only to laws made by or administrative actions of the State and do not apply to actions of private persons.

(E) Any law in contravention of fundamental rights is unconstitutional and therefore cannot bind any person.

Facts:

Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals, a private company, offered an employment contract of two years to Syed Monirul Alam. One of the clauses in the employment contract provided that Syed Monirul Alam must join Gajodhar Mazdoor Singh (GMS), one of the trade unions active in Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals.

 

Q. 156 Decide which of the following propositions can be most reasonably inferred through the application of the stated legal rules to the facts of this case:

A. The employment contract offered to Monirul Alam to join GMS is legal as it does not restrict his freedom not to join any association.

B. The condition requiring Monirul Alam to join GMS cannot bind him as it impinges on his freedom not to join any association.

C. Syed Monirul Alam cannot claim a fundamental right to freedom of association against Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals and therefore, the contract would bind him even though his freedom of association is restricted.

D. The employment contract infringes Syed Monirul Alam’s freedom to decide with whom to associate and therefore is legally not enforceable.

 

Q. 157 If Parliament enacts a law which requires every employee to join the largest trade union in their workplace mandating Syed Monirul Alam to join GMS, then:

A. Such a law would merely govern private action to which fundamental rights do not apply.

B. Such a law would not curtail any individual’s right to freedom of association.

C. Neither the employment contract, nor the law of the parliament would be enforceable as they would curtail the freedom of association.

D. The law of parliament would violate an individual’s freedom not to join any association and therefore be unconstitutional.

 

Q. 158 If Parliament enacts is law that requires a trade union to open its membership to all the employees, then

A. Such a law would not infringe any fundamental right to freedom of association.

B. The law of the parliament would curtail an individual’s right not to join any association.

C. Such a law would curtail the union members’ right to decide with whom they would like to associate.

D. Such a law would render the employment contract offered by Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals to Syed Monirul Alam unenforceable.

 

Q. 159 If Gajodhar Pharmaceuticals enter into an agreement with GMS wherein the former agrees to hire only the existing members of GMS as employees, then:

A. The agreement would be illegal as it would curtail the union members’ right to decide with whom they would like to associate.

B. Such an agreement would infringe the union’s right to decide with whom to associate and therefore is legally not enforceable.

C. The agreement would not be enforceable as it would infringe upon the employer’s right not to join an association.

D. The constitutionality of this agreement cannot be contested on grounds of contravention of fundamental rights as such rights are not applicable to private persons.

 

Q. 160 If Parliament enacts a legislation prohibiting strikes by trade unions of employees engaged in pharmaceutical industry, then:

A. The legislation would not violate the right to freedom of association.

B. The legislation would curtail the right of trade unions to strike, and therefore violate freedom of association.

C. Since strike is only one of the objectives with which a trade union is formed, right to strike is not protected by the right to freedom of association.

D. None of the above.

 

Questions: 161 – 163

Each problem consists of a set of rules and facts. Apply the specified rules to the set of facts and answer the questions.

Rule:

Whoever finds an unattended object can keep it unless the true owner claims that object. This does not affect the property owner’s right to the ownership of the property on which the object is found. The right to ownership of a property does not include the right to ownership of unattended objects on that property.

Facts:

Elizabeth is the CEO of global management services company in Chennai and is on her way to Ranchi to deliver the convocation address at India’s leading business school on the outskirts of Ranchi. Flying business class on Dolphin Airlines, she is entitled to use the lounge owned by the airline in Chennai Airport while waiting for her flight. She finds a diamond ear-ring on the floor of the lounge and gives it to the staff of Dolphin Airlines expressly stating that in the event of nobody claiming the ear-ring within six months, she would claim it back. The airline sell the ear-ring after eight months and Elizabeth files a case to recover the value of the ear-ring from the airline when she is informed about its sale.

 

Q. 161 As a judge you would order that:

A. Elizabeth is not entitled to compensation because the ear-ring was found on the property of the airline and therefore, the airline is entitled to sell it.

B. The airline must compensate Elizabeth because owning the lounge does not give the airline the right over all things that might be found on it.

C. The airline must compensate Elizabeth because while accepting the ear-ring from Elizabeth they had agreed to return it if nobody claimed it within six months.

D. Elizabeth is not entitled to compensation because she did not claim the ear-ring after the expiry of six months and the airline waited for a couple more months before selling it.

 

Q. 162 Assume how that Elizabeth was only an economy class passenger and was not entitled to use the airline’s lounge. However, she manages to gain entry and finds the ear-ring in the lounge. The rest of the above facts remain the same. Will her illegal entry into the Lounge affect Elizabeth’s right to keep the ear-ring (or be compensated for its value)?

A. Yes, the airline claims that Elizabeth’s entry into the lounge was illegal and therefore she has no right over anything she found there.

B. No, because Elizabeth’s class of travel has no bearing on the outcome in this case.

C. Cannot be determined as we need to know how Elizabeth was able to access the airline’s lounge.

D. None of the above.

 

Q. 163 To the original fact scenario, the following fact is added: In the lounge there are numerous signboards which proclaim ‘Any unattended item will be confiscated by Dolphin Airlines’. In this case, you would:

A. Order the airline to pay compensation to Elizabeth because the board in the lounge cannot grant property rights over unattended objects to the airline.

B. Deny Elizabeth compensation because the signboard makes it evident that the airline, as owner of the lounge, is exercising all rights over all unattended items in the lounge and the ear-ring is one such item.

C. Deny Elizabeth compensation because she knew any unattended item belonged to the airline.

D. Order the airline to pay compensation to Elizabeth because the property rights of the airline are relevant only if the item is unattended. The moment Elizabeth found the ear-ring, it belonged to her.

 

Questions: 164 – 168

Each problem consists of a set of rules and facts. Apply the specified rules to the set of facts and answer the questions.

Rule A:

The State shall not discriminate, either directly or indirectly, on the grounds of sex, race, religion, caste, creed, sexual orientation, marital status, disability, pregnancy, place of birth, gender orientation or any other status.

Rule B:

Direct discrimination occurs when for a reason related to one or more prohibited grounds a person or group of persons is treated less favourably than another person or another group of persons in a comparable situation.

Rule C:

Indirect discrimination occurs when a provision, criterion or practice which is neutral on the fact of it would have the effect of putting persons having a status or a characteristic associate with one or more prohibited grounds at a particular disadvantage compared with other persons.

Rule D:

Discrimination shall be justified when such discrimination is absolutely necessary in order to promote the well-being of disadvantaged groups, such as women, dalits, religions minorities, sexual minorities or disabled persons.

Facts:

On 2nd October 2010, the Governor of the state of Bihar ordered the release of all women prisoners who were serving sentence of less than one year imprisonment to mark the occasion of Mahatma Gandhi’s birthday.

 

Q. 164 Which of the following is correct with respect to the Governor’s order?

A. It discriminates directly on the ground of sex.

B. It discriminates indirectly on the ground of sex.

C. It does not discriminate on the ground of sex.

D. It discriminates directly as well as indirectly on the ground of sex.

 

Q. 165 Is the governor’s order justified under Rule D?

A. Yes, because it is for the well-being of women prisoners.

B. No, because it is not absolutely necessary for the well-being of women prisoners.

C. No, because it does not promote the well-being of women prisoners of the society.

D. None of the above.

 

Q. 166 Assume that the Governor also made a second order requiring the release of all persons under the age of 25 and over the age of 65 who were serving a sentence of less than one year’s imprisonment. Under the Rules, this order is:

A. Directly discriminatory

B. Indirectly discriminatory

C. Not discriminatory

D. Discriminatory, but justifiable.

 

Q. 167 Assume further that the government made a third order, releasing all graduate prisoners who are serving a sentence of less than one year’s imprisonment. Which of the following statistics would have to be true for this order to be indirectly discriminatory?

A. Only 13% of the prison population in Bihar have a graduation degree

B. Of the graduate prisoners, 89% belong to upper castes.

C. Only 25% women in Bihar get a graduation degree.

D. All of the above.

 

Q. 168 Rule E:

‘A discriminatory act shall be justified if its effect is to promote the well-being of disadvantaged groups, such as women, dalits, religious minorities, sexual minorities or disabled persons’.

Would you first Order of release of all women prisoners be justified under Rule E?

A. Yes, because it promotes the well-being of women.

B. No, because it does not promote the well-being of women prisoners.

C. No, because it does not promote the well-being of all disadvantaged groups equally.

D. None of the above

 

Questions: 169 – 173

Each problem consists of a set of rules and facts. Apply the specified rules to the set of facts and answer the questions.

Rules:

A. A minor is a person who is below the age of eighteen. However, where a guardian administers the minor’s property the age of majority is twenty one.

B. A minor is not permitted by law to enter into a contract. Hence, where a minor enters into a contract with a major person, the contract is not enforceable. This effectively means that neither the minor nor the other party can make any claim on the basis of the contract.

C. In a contract with a minor, if the other party hands over any money or confers any other benefit on the minor, the same shall not be recoverable from the minor unless the other party was deceived by the minor to hand over money or any other benefit. The other party will have to show that the minor misrepresented her age, he was ignorant about the age of the minor and that he handed over the benefit on the basis of such representation.

Facts:

Ajay convinces Bandita, a girl aged 18 that she would sell her land to him. Bandita’s mother Chaaru is her guardian. Nonetheless Bandita, without the permission of Chaaru, sells the land to Ajay for a total sum of rupees fifty lakh, paid in full and final settlement of the price. Chaaru challenges this transaction claiming the Bandita is a minor and hence the possession of the land shall not be given to Ajay. Thus Ajay is in a difficult situation and has no idea how to recover his money from Bandita.

 

Q. 169 Chaaru is justified in challenging the sale transaction because:

A. Bandita is of unsound mind and is not in a position to make rational decisions.

B. Though Bandita is eighteen year old, she will be treated as a minor, as Chaaru is her guardian.

C. Though Bandita is eighteen year old, she cannot sell the land without the permission of her mother.

D. Though Bandita is eighteen year old she should not be treated like a person who has attained the age of majority.

 

Q. 170 Ajay can be allowed to recover the money only if he can show that:

A. He was deceived by Bandita who misrepresented her age.

B. He honestly believed that Bandita was empowered under the law to sell the land.

C. He was an honest person who had paid the full price of the land to Bandita.

D. Both (a) and (b)

 

Q. 171 In order to defend the sale, Bandita will need to show that:

A. Bandita has attained the age of maturity.

B. Bandita is mature enough to make rational decisions regarding her own affairs.

C. The sale transaction was beneficial to her interest and will enhance her financial status.

D. None of the above.

 

Q. 172 Which of the following is correct?

A. Ajay should be allowed to recover the money because even though there is no contract, Bandita and Chaaru should not be allowed to unjustly benefit from Ajay’s money.

B. Ajay should be allowed the possession of the land because Chaaru can always decide to approve the transaction between Ajay and Bandita.

C. Ajay should not be allowed to recover because he induced Bandita, a minor, to sell the land.

D. None of the above.

 

Q. 173 Which of the following is correct?

A. If Ajay is allowed to recover the money, that will defeat the law framed for protecting the minors against fraudulent persons.

B. If Ajay is not allowed to recover that will cause him injustice as he has not paid off the entire sale price.

C. If Ajay is allowed to recover, Chaaru will benefit from both the money and the land

D. None of the above.

 

Questions: 174 – 177

Each problem consists of a set of rules and facts. Apply the specified rules to the set of facts and answer the questions.

Rules:

A. The act of using threats to force another person to enter into a contract is called coercion.

B. The act of using influence on another and taking undue advantage of that person is called undue influence.

C. In order to prove coercion, the existence of the use of threat, in any form and manner, is necessary. If coercion is proved, the person who has been so threatened can refuse to abide by the contract

D. In order to prove undue-influence, there has to be a pre-existing relationship between the parties to a contract. The relationship has to be of such a nature that one is in a position to influence the other. If it is proven that there has been undue influence, the party who has been so influenced need not enforce the contract or perform his obligations under the contract.

Facts:

Aadil and Baalu are best friends. Aadil is the son of multi millionaire business person, Chulbul who owns Maakhan Pharmaceuticals. Baalu is the son of a bank employee, Dhanraj. One day, Aadil is abducted from his office by Baalu. Chulbul receives a phone call from Dhanraj telling him that if he does not make Baalu the CEO of Maakhan Pharmaceuticals, Aadil will be killed. Chulbul reluctantly agrees to make the Baalu the CEO. Subsequently Chulbul and Baalu sign an employment contract. However as soon as Aadil is released and safely returns home, Chulbul tells Baalu that he shall not enforce the employment contract. Baalu and Dhanraj are not sure as to what is to be done next.

 

Q. 174 As per the rules and the given facts, who coerces whom:

A. Aadil coerces Baalu

B. Baalu coerces Chulbul

C. Dhanraj coerces Chulbul

D. None of the above

 

Q. 175 In the above fact situation:

A. There is undue influence exercised by Dhanraj on Baalu.

B. There is undue influence exercised by Aadil on Chulbul.

C. There is no undue influence.

D. None of the above.

 

Q. 176 Chulbul is:

A. Justified in refusing to enforce the employment contract as Chulbul was coerced by Dhanraj.

B. Justified in refusing to enforce the employment contract as Baalu was complicit in the coercive act.

C. No justified in refusing to enforce the employment contract as Baalu was an innocent

person and has not coerced Chulbul.

D. Both (a) and (b).

 

Q. 177 Baalu will succeed in getting the employment contract enforced if he can show thay:

A. He is the best friend of Aadil.

B. It was his father, and not he, who used coercion against Chulbul.

C. Chulbul has promised his father to employ him.

D. None of the above.

 

Questions: 178 – 181

Each problem consists of a set of rules and facts. Apply the specified rules to the set of facts and answer the questions.

Rule A:

When a State undertakes any measure, the effects of the measure must be the same for all those who are affected by it.

Rule B:

When a State undertakes any measure, everyone affected must have an equal them to be benefit from it.

Facts:

100 mountaineers embarked on an extremely risky climbing expedition in Leh. Weather conditions worsened five days into the expedition and the mountaineers are trapped under heavy show. The government received information of this tragedy only two weeks after the unfortunate incident and has only 24 hours in which to send rescue helicopters. Weather stations across the world confirm that this particular region of Leh will experience blizzards of unprecedented intensity for almost two weeks after this 24 hour window rendering any helicopter activity in the region impossible and certain death for anyone left behind. The government has only five rescue helicopters with a maximum capacity of 50 people (excluding pilots and requisite soldiers) and these helicopters can fly only once in 24 hours to such altitudes. As the Air Force gets ready to send the helicopters, an emergency hearing is convened in the Supreme Court to challenge this measure as this would leave 50 people to die.

 

Q. 178 If f you were the judge required to apply Rule A, you would decide that:

A. As many lives must be saved as possible

B. If everyone cannot be rescued, then everyone must be left behind

C. A measure cannot be upheld at the cost of 50 lives

D. It must be left to those who are trapped to decide if they want half amongst them to

be saved and leave the rest to die.

 

Q. 179 As the government prepares to send in rescue helicopters, which option would be acceptable only under Rule B and not Rule A:

A. A lottery to choose the 50 survivors excluding those diagnosed with terminal illnesses from participating in the lottery.

B. A lottery to decide the 50 survivors with single parents of children below five years of age automatically qualifying to be rescued.

C. The 50 youngest people should be rescued.

D. None of the above.

 

Q. 180 Choosing 50 survivors exclusively by a lottery would be:

A. Permissible under Rules A and B

B. Impermissible under Rule A and B

C. Permissible only under Rule B

D. Permissible only under Rule A

 

Q. 181 If the government decides that it will either save everyone or save none, it would be:

A. Permissible under rules A and B

B. Impermissible under Rule A and B

C. Permissible only under Rule A

D. Permissible only under Rule B

 

Questions: 182 – 186

Each problem consists of a set of rules and facts. Apply the specified rules to the

set of facts and answer the questions.

Rules:

A. A person is an employee of another if the mode and the manner in which he or she carries out his work is subject to control and supervision of the latter.

B. An employer is required to provide compensation to his or her employees for any injury caused by an accident arising in the course of employment. The words ‘in the course of the employment’ mean in the course of the work which the employee is contracted to do and which is incidental to it.

Facts:

Messrs. Zafar Abidi and Co. (Company) manufactures bidis with the help of persons known as ‘pattadars’. The pattadars are supplied tobacco and leaves by the Company and are required to roll them into bidis and bring the bidis back to the Company. The pattadars are free to roll the bidis either in the factory or anywhere else they prefer. They are not bound to attend the factory for any fixed number of bidis. The Company verifies whether the bidis adhere to the specified instructions or not the pays the pattadars on the basis of the number of bidis that are found to be of right quality. Aashish Mathew is one of the pattadars of the Company. He was hit by a car just outside the precinct of the factory while he was heading to have lunch in a nearby food-stall. Aashish Mathew has applied for compensation from the Company.

 

Q. 182 Which of the following statements can most plausibly be inferred from the application of the rules to the give facts:

A. Aashish Mathew is an employee of the Company because the latter exercises control

over the manner in which Aashish Mathew carries out his work.

B. Aashish Mathew is not an employee but an independent contractor as he does not have a fixed salary.

C. Aashish Mathew is an employee because the Company exercises control over the final quality of the bidis.

D. Verification of the quality of bidis amounts to control over the product and not control over the mode and method of work and therefore, Aashish Mathew is not an employee of the Company.

 

Q. 183 In case the pattadars were compulsorily required to work in the factory for a minimum number of hours every day, then it would be correct to state that:

A. The injury was not caused by an accident in the course of employment

B. Aashish Mathew would not be an employee as the Company would have still not exercised control over the manner of work

C. The injury suffered by Aashish Mathew could not be held to be one caused by an accident

D. Stipulations on place and hours of work relate to manner and mode of work and therefore, Aashish Mathew would be held to be an employee of the Company.

 

Q. 184 According to the facts and the rules specified, which of the following propositions is correct:

A. The Company is not liable to pay compensation as the injury to Aashish Mathew was not caused by an accident arising in the course of employment.

B. The Company is liable to pay the compensation.

C. Since the injury did not arise in the course of employment, the Company would not be liable to pay the compensation even though Aashish Mathew is an employee of the Company.

D. The Company is liable to pay the compensation as Aashish Mathew is a contracted pattadar with the company.

 

Q. 185 Select the statement that could be said to be most direct inference from specified facts:

A. The injury to Aashish Mathew did not arise in the course of employment as he was not rolling bidis at the time when he was hit by the car.

B. Since the Ashish Mathew is a contracted pattadar with the Company, it shall be presumed that the injury was caused by an accident in the course of employment.

C. Since there was no relationship of employment between Aashish Mathew and the Company, the injury suffered by Aashish Mathew could not be held to be one arising in the course of employment notwithstanding the fact that the concerned injury was caused while he was involved in an activity incidental to his duties.

D. As the concerned injury was caused to Aashish Mathew while he was involved in an activity incidental to his duties, the injury did arise in the course of employment.

 

Q. 186 If the pattadars were compulsory required to work in the factory for a minimum number of hours every day, then the Company would have been liable to pay compensation to Aashish Mathew if the latter:

A. Had been assaulted and grievously hurt by his neighbour inside the factory precincts over a property dispute.

B. Had slipped and fractured his arm while trying to commute on a city bus from his home to the factory.

C. Had been injured while commenting on a bus provided by the Company and which he was required by his contract to use every day.

D. Had been caught in the middle of a cross-fire between police and a gang of robbers while travelling to work on a city bus.

 

Questions: 187 – 191

Each problem consists of a set of rules and facts. Apply the specified rules to the set of facts and answer the questions.

Rules:

A. Whoever intending to take any moveable property out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent, moves that property out of his or her possession, is said to commit theft.

B. A person who, without lawful excuse, damages any property belonging to another intending to damage any such property shall be guilty of causing criminal damage.

C. Damage means any impairment of the value of a property.

Facts:

Veena, an old lady of 78 years, used to live with her granddaughter Indira. Veena was ill and therefore bed-ridden for several months. In those months, she could not tolerate any noise and it ‘became quite difficult to clean her room. After she died, Indira hired a cleaner, Lucky, to clean the room and throw away any rubbish that may be there. There was a pile of old newspapers which Veena had stacked in a corner of her room. Lucky asked Indira if he should clear away the pile of old newspapers, to which she said yes, Lucky took the pile to a municipality rubbish dump. While Lucky was sorting and throwing away the newspapers, he was very surprised to find a beautiful painting in between two sheets of paper. He thought that Indira probably wouldn’t want this old painting back, especially because it was torn in several places and the colour was fading. He took the painting home, mounted it on a wooden frame and hung it on the wall of his bedroom. Unknown to him, the painting was an old ‘masterpiece, and worth twenty thousand rupees. Before mounting the painting, Lucky pasted it on a plain sheet of paper so that it does not tear any more. By doing so, he made its professional ‘restoration very difficult and thereby reduced its value by half. Lucky’s neighbour Kamala discovered that the painting belonged to Indira. With the motive of returning the painting to Indira, Kamala climbed through an open window into Lucky’s room when he was away one afternoon and removed the painting from his house.

 

Q. 187 Has Lucky committed theft?

A. Yes, Lucky has committed theft of the newspapers and the painting.

B. No, Lucky has not committed theft because he had Veena’s consent.

C. Yes, Lucky has committed theft of the painting, but not of the newspaper.

D. No, Lucky has not committed theft because he has not moved the painting out of Veena’s possession.

 

Q. 188 Is Lucky guilty of criminal damage?

A. No, Lucky is not guilty of criminal damage as he did not intentionally impair the value of the painting.

B. Yes, Lucky is guilty of criminal damage as he intentionally stuck the paper on to the painting

C. No, Lucky is not guilty of criminal damage as he does not have the painting in his possession anymore.

D. No, Lucky is not guilty of criminal damage as he has not destroyed the painting

 

Q. 189 If Lucky had discovered the painting before leaving Indira’s house rather than at the rubbish dump, would he have been guilty of theft in this case?

A. Yes, he would be guilty of theft of the newspapers and the paintings.

B. No, he would not be guilty of theft.

C. Yes, he would be guilty of theft of the painting.

D. None of the above.

 

Q. 190 Is Kamala guilty of theft?

A. No, Kamala is now guilty of theft since the person she took the painting from (Lucky) was not its lawful owner.

B. No, Kamala is not guilty of theft since she took the painting only with the motive of returning it to Indira.

C. Yes, Kamala is guilty of theft as she took the painting out of Lucky’s possession without his consent.

D. None of the above.

 

Q. 191 Which of the following propositions could be inferred from the facts and the rules specified.

A. Kamala is guilty of criminal damage as the person she took the painting from (Lucky) was not its lawful owner.

B. Kamala is guilty of criminal damage as she took the painting without Lucky’s consent.

C. Kamala is not guilty of criminal damage as the painting has not been completely destroyed.

D. None of the above.

 

Questions: 192 – 195

Each problem consists of a set of rules and facts. Apply the specified rules to the set of facts and answer the questions.

Rules:

A. When land is sold, all ‘fixtures’ on the land are also deemed to have been sold.

B. If a moveable thing is attached to the land or any building on the land, then it becomes a ‘fixture’.

Facts:

Khaleeda wants to sell a plot of land she owns in Beghmara, Meghalaya and the sale value decided for the plot includes the fully-furnished palatial six-bedroom house that she has built on it five years ago. She sells it to Gurpreet for sixty lakh rupees. After completing the sale, she removes the expensive Iranian carpet which used to cover the entire wooden floor of one of the bedrooms. The room had very little light and Khaleeda used this light-coloured radiant carpet to negate some of the darkness in the room. Gurpreet, after moving in, realizes this and files a case to recover the carpet from Khaleeda.

 

Q. 192 As a judge you would decide in favour of

A. Gurpreet because when the price was agreed upon, Khaleeda did not inform her about removing carpet.

B. Gurpreet because the carpet was integral to the floor of the bedroom and therefore attached to the building that was sold.

C. Khaleeda because a fully-furnished house does not entail the buyer to everything in the house

D. Khaleeda because by virtue of being a carpet it was never permanently fixed to the floor of the building.

 

Q. 193 Assume that in the above fact scenario, Khaleeda no longer wants the carpet. She removes the elaborately carved door to the house after the sale has been concluded and claims that Gurpreet has no claim to the door. The door in question was part of Khaleeda’s ancestral home in Nagercoil, Tamil Nadu for more than 150 years before she had it fitted as the entrance to her Baghmara house.

As a judge you would decide in favour of:

A. Khaleeda because while the rest of the building belongs to Khaleeda exclusively, the door is ancestral property and therefore the decision to sell it cannot be Khaleeda’s alone.

B. Gurpreet because the door is an integral part of the building as it is attached to it.

C. Khaleeda because the door can be removed from the building and is therefore not attached to it.

D. Gurpreet because the contract is explicitly for the whole house and since the door is part of house, it cannot be removed subsequent to the sale.

 

Q. 194 Amongst the following options, the most relevant consideration while deciding a case on the basis of the above two principles would be:

A. Whether the moveable thing was included in the sale agreement

B. Whether the moveable thing was merely placed on the land or building

C. Whether the moveable thing had become an inseparable part of the land or building.

D. Whether the moveable thing could be removed.

 

Q. 195 Rule C: If a moveable thing is placed on land with the intention that it should become an integral part of the land or any structure on the land it becomes a fixture.

Applying Rules A and C, to the fact situations in questions 192 and 193, as a judge you would decide in favour of:

A. Khaleeda in both situtions

B. Gurpreet only in 192

C. Khaleeda only in 195

D. Gurpreet in both situations

 

Questions: 196 – 200

Each problem consists of a set of rules and facts. Apply the specified rules to the set of facts and answer the questions.

Rule A: An owner of land has the right to use the land in any manner he or she desires. The owner of land also owns the space above and the depths below it.

Rule B: Rights above the land extend only to the point they are essential to any use or enjoyment of land.

Rule C: An owner cannot claim infringement of her property right if the space above his or her land is put to reasonable use by someone else at a height at which the owner would have no reasonable use of it and it does not affect the reasonable employment of his or her land.

 

Q. 196 Ramesh’s case: Ramesh owns an acre of land on the outskirts of Sullurpeta, Andhra Pradesh. The Government of India launches its satellites into space frequently from Sriharikota, near Sullurpeta. The Government of India does not deny that once the satellite launch has traveled the distance of almost 7000 km it passes over Ramesh’s property. Ramesh files a case claiming that the Government of India has violated his property rights by routing its satellite over his property, albeit 7000 km directly above it.

Applying only Rule A to Ramesh’s case, as a judge you would decide:

A. In favour of the Government of India because the transgression was at a height at which Ramesh could not possibly have any use for.

B. That ownership of land does not mean that the owner’s right extends infinitely into space above the land

C. In favour of Ramesh because he has the right to infinite space above the land he owns.

D. In favour of the Government of India because it would lead to the absurd result that Ramesh and most other property owners would have a claim against airline companies and other countries of the world whose satellites orbit the earth.

 

Q. 197 Shazia Case:

Shazia owns a single storeyed house in Ahmedabad which has been in her family for more than 75 years. The foundation of the house cannot support another floor and Shazia has no intention of demolishing her family home to construct a bigger building. Javed and Sandeep are business partners and own three storey houses on either side of Shazia’s house. Javed and Sandeep are also Ahmedabad’s main distributors for a major soft drinks company. They have erected a huge hoarding advertising their products, with the ends supported on their roofs but the hoarding also passes over Shazia’s house at 70 feet and casts a permanent shadow on her terrace. Shazia decides to hoist a huge Indian flag, going up to 75 feet, on her roof. She files a case, asking the court to order Javed and Sandeep to remove the hoarding for all these reasons.

Applying only Rule B to Shazia’s case, you would decide in favour of:

A. Javed and Sandeep because Shazia can easily hoist a flag below 70 feet

B. Shazia because she has the right to put her land to any use and the court cannot go into her intentions for hoisting a flag at 75 feet

C. Shazia because she has the absolute right to the space above her land

D. Javed and Sandeep because hoisting a flag 75 feet above one’s roof is not essential to

the use and enjoyment of the land.

 

Q. 198 Applying only Rules A and B to Shazia’s case, you would decide:

A. In favour of Shazia only under Rule A

B. In favour of Shazia under Rule A as well as B

C. Against Shazia only under Rule B

D. Against Shazia under Rule A as well as B

 

Q. 199 Applying only Rule B and C to Ramesh’s case, you would decide

A. In favour of Ramesh only under Rule B

B. In favour of Ramesh under Rule B as well as C.

C. Against Ramesh only under Rule B

D. Against Ramesh under Rule B as well as C.

 

Q. 200 Applying Rule C to Shazia’s case, you would decide:

A. In her favour because hoisting a 75 feet high flag is reasonable.

B. Against her because a 75 feet high flag is not reasonable.

C. Against her because the hoarding is a reasonable use of the space above her land.

D. In her favour because the permanent shadow cast by the hoarding affects the reasonable enjoyment of her land.

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	D	A	D	C	C	D	B	C	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	A	D	C	D	A	D	B	C	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	A	B	D	B	C	D	D	D	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	D	C	D	A	B	C	C	C	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	A	A	D	A	B	B	A	A	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	C	A	C	D	D	D	C	D	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	A	A	D	D	A	B	B	C	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	C	A	D	C	C	C	C	B	B	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	B	B	D	C	B	C	C	C	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	B	C	A	D	C	C	B	A	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	A	C	C	A	D	A	B	D	D	C
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	A	B	D	B	B	D	C	B	B	C
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	A	A	D	B	A	B	A	C	A	D
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	B	B	B	B	D	C	D	D	D	D
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	D	B	D	B	B	C	B	D	D	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	B	A	C	C	C	D	C	D	C
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	B	B	A	A	C	A	B	B	B	A
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	A	C	A	C	C	D	B	D	A	C
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	A	D	A	C	A	C	B	A	C	C
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	B	B	B	B	C	C	B	B	D	D

 

CLAT 2010

Question: 1 – 3

Directions (Q 1 – 3) : Substitute the quoted phrases with any of the given choices to express the opposite meaning in the given sentences.

 

Q. 1 She always “praises” everything I say.

A. Picks holes in

B. Dislikes

C. Rebukes

D. Picks holes to

 

Q. 2 He often “says how wonderful” his school is?

A. Says he is unworthy

B. Appreciates

C. Runs up

D. Runs down

 

Q. 3 She said I was the best boss they’d ever had. It was obvious she was “praising me sincerely”.

A. Not appreciating me

B. Befooling me

C. Buttering me up

D. Disliking me

 

Questions: 4 – 6

Directions (Q 4-6) :

Identify the part of speech of the quoted words in the given sentences.

 

Q. 4 I must “perfect” the operation to make the perfect robot.

A. Verb

B. Adverb

C. Adjective

D. Noun

 

Q. 5 A kindly person is one who behaves “kindly”.

A. Noun

B. Preposition

C. Adverb

D. Verb

 

Q. 6 He is not normally a “very” fast runner, but he runs fast in major events.

A. Adverb

B. Adjective

C. Verb

D. Noun

 

Questions: 7 – 16

Directions (Q 7-16) :

Read the following passage carefully and answer the following.

Antigone was one of the daughters of Oedipus, that tragic figure of male power who had been cursed by Gods for mistakenly his father and subsequently marrying his mother and assuming the throne of Thebes. After the death of Oedipus, civil war broke out and a battle was waged in front of the seventh gate of Thebes – his two sons led opposing factions and at the height of the battle fought and killed each other. Oedipus’ brother Creon, uncle of Antigone, was now undisputed master of the city. Creon resolved to make an example of the brother who had fought against him, Polynices, by refusing the right of honourable burial. The penalty of death was promulgated against any who would defy this order. Antigone was distraught. Polynices had been left unburied, unwept, a feast of flesh for keen eyed carrion birds. Antigone asks her sister Ismene, for it was a challenge to her royal blood. “Now it is time to show whether or not you are worthy of your royal blood. Is he not my brother and yours? Whether you like it or not? I shall never desert him – never!” But Ismene responds, “How could you dare – when Creon has expressly forbidden it? Antigone, we are women, it is not for us to fight against men.” With a touch of bitterness, Antigone releases her sister from the obligation to help her, but argues she cannot shrug off the burden. “If I die for it, what happiness! Live, if you will live, and defy the holiest of laws of heaven.”

 

Q. 7 What is the main theme of the story of Antigone?

A. One must be truthful and honest

B. There is a conflict between the laws of men and heavenly laws

C. One must be true to one’s kins

D. War is an evil

 

Q. 8 Why did Antigone decide to defy the orders of Creon?

A. She loved her brother

B. She was to give an honourable burial to her brother

C. She felt she was bound by her heavenly obligation

D. To teach Creon a lesson

 

Q. 9 What, in your opinion, would have been the logical end of the story?

A. Antigone might have agreed with her sister and refrained from giving a burial to Polynices

B. Antigone might have been allowed by Creon to give a decent burial to her brother

C. Antigone might have defied the order of Creon but forgiven by him

D. Antigone might have been executed for defying the order of the king

 

Q. 10 What was the status of women in the contemporary society? They

A. Were liberated

B. Could have taken their own decisions

C. Considered themselves inferior and subordinate to men

D. Claimed equality with men

 

Q. 11 Why did a civil war break out in Thebes? The war broke out because

A. Of the curse of the Gods

B. The brothers of Antigone were greedy

C. There was a fight among sons of Oedipus for the inheritance of the kingdom

D. There was a conflict between a son of Oedipus and Creon

 

Q. 12 A carrion bird is a bird

A. Of prey

B. Which eats human flesh

C. Which eats dead bodies

D. Which eats only grain

 

Q. 13 Why did Creon deny decent burial to Polynices? He did so because

A. He did not love Polynices

B. Polynices fought against Creon

C. Polynices was disobedient to Creon

D. Polynices did not show bravery

 

Q. 14 Why did Ismene not support Antigone? Ismene

A. Was weak and did not have the courage to defy orders of the powerful king

B. Did not consider it right to defy the king

C. Did not think it fit to defy her uncle especially after the death of her father

D. Did not believe that Polynices deserved better treatment

 

Q. 15 Why did the Gods curse Oedipus? Because Oedipus

A. Killed his father and married his mother

B. Killed his father

C. Married his mother

D. Committed an unknown sin

 

Q. 16 Does the story approve the principle of vicarious liability? If so how?

A. No, it does not

B. Yes, it does, because of the acts of Oedipus his children suffered

C. Yes, it does because his father was killed by Oedipus

D. Yes, it does, because he married his mother

 

Questions: 17 – 22

Directions (Q 17-22) :

Select the meaning of the quoted idioms and phrases in sentences in questions given below.

 

Q. 17 I have “hit upon” a good plan to get rid of him.

A. Found

B. Chanced upon

C. Decided to beat him

D. Borrowed

 

Q. 18 He is “sticking out for” better terms.

A. Threatens to take action

B. Insists on using the force

C. Decides to give concessions

D. Persists in demanding

 

Q. 19 He “broke off” in the middle of the story.

A. Failed

B. Began crying

C. Stopped suddenly

D. Felt uneasy

 

Q. 20 He refused to be “led by the nose.”

A. To follow like an animal

B. To be treated as a fool

C. To follow submissively

D. To be treated violently

 

Q. 21 The new cotton mill is mortgaged “up to the eye.”

A. Apparently

B. Completely

C. Deceptively

D. Actually

 

Q. 22 When they embraced a new religion, it is safe to say they did it for “loaves and fishes.”

A. Selflessly

B. Honest reasons

C. Material benefits

D. Because of fear

 

Questions: 23 – 27

Directions (Q 23-27) :

Choose the correct spelling for each of the words form the choices given below.

 

Q. 23 Which of the following is the correct spelling for the word?

A. Misogynists

B. Mysogynists

C. Mysoginists

D. Mysagynists

 

Q. 24 Which of the following is the correct spelling for the word?

A. Arachnophobia

B. Aranchophobia

C. Arochnophobia

D. Aranchnophobia

 

Q. 25 Which of the following is the correct spelling for the word?

A. Cinamon

B. Cinnamon

C. Cinnaman

D. Cinaman

 

Q. 26 Which of the following is the correct spelling for the word?

A. Alcohol

B. Alchohol

C. Alchohal

D. Alchohel

 

Q. 27 Which of the following is the correct spelling for the word?

A. Bioclymatalogy

B. Bioclimatalogy

C. Bioclimatology

D. Biclimatelogy

 

Questions: 28 – 32

Directions (Q 28-32) :

Select the correct meaning of the words from the choices given below.

 

Q. 28 The word is – Lexicon

A. Number

B. Legal document

C. Dictionary

D. Captain’s dog

 

Q. 29 The word is – Hex

A. Crude person

B. Herb

C. Parrot

D. Evil spell

 

Q. 30 The word is – Seminary

A. Chapel

B. College

C. Convocation hall

D. Hostel

 

Q. 31 The word is – Liturgy

A. Prayer

B. Priest

C. Ritual

D. Church

 

Q. 32 The word is – Laity

A. Church members not baptized

B. Church members baptized

C. Priests

D. Church members who are not ordained priests

 

Questions: 33 – 37

Directions (Q 33-37) :

Fill in the blanks in the questions given below.

 

Q. 33 Slavery was not done away _______ until the last century.

A. With

B. For

C. To

D. Off

 

Q. 34 Does he not take _______his father?

A. Before

B. For

C. After

D. Like

 

Q. 35 We will have to take _______more staff if we are to take on more work.

A. Up

B. Onto

C. Into

D. On

 

Q. 36 Mother takes everything in her ______.

A. Steps

B. Face

C. Stride

D. Work

 

Q. 37 Sale have really taken _______ now.

A. Up

B. On

C. Of

D. Off

 

Questions: 38 – 40

Directions (Q 38-40) :

The constituent phrases of a sentence are jumbled up in question numbers 38- 40. Select the most appropriate sequence to make the sentence meaningful.

 

Q. 38 (i) built on the site of a church destroyed

(ii) in the hilly area of the city is the famous Shandon Steeple

(iii) the bell tower of St. Anne’s Church

(iv) when the city was besieged by the Duke of Marlborough

A. ii, iii, i, iv

B. ii, i, iii, iv

C. iv, iii, i, ii

D. iii, ii, i, iv

Q. 39 (i) no law giving effect to the policy of the state towards securing all or any of the principles laid in part IV

(ii) not withstanding anything contained in Article 13

(iii) and no law containing a declaration that it is for giving effect to such policy shall be

called in question in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such policy

(iv) shall be deemed to be void on the ground that it is inconsistent with or takes away or abridges any of the rights conferred by Article 14 or 19

A. ii, i, iii, iv

B. iv, i, ii, iii

C. ii, i, iv, iii

D. i, ii, iii, iv

 

Q. 40 (i) neither House shall proceed further with the Bill,

(ii) if he does so, the Houses shall meet accordingly

(iii) but the President may at any time after the date of his notification summon the Houses to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose specified in the notification and,

(iv) where the President has under clause (1) notified his intention of summning the Houses to meet in a joint sitting.

A. iv, i, iii, ii

B. iv, i, ii, iii

C. iv, ii, iii, i

D. i, ii, iii, iv

 

Q. 41 Lumbini is the place where the Buddha

A. Attained nirvana

B. Attained enlightenment

C. Was born

D. Was married

 

Q. 42 Galvanometer is an instrument to measure

A. Relative density of liquids

B. Electric currents

C. Pressure of gases

D. Distances

 

Q. 43 Who wrote ‘Mudra Rakshasa’?

A. Vishakadatta

B. Bana Bhatt

C. Kalidasa

D. Jaya Dev

 

Q. 44 The venue of Asian Games in 1970 was

A. Beijing

B. Jakarta

C. Bangkok

D. New Delhi

 

Q. 45 1929 is known for

A. Visit of Simon Commission to India

B. Congress resolution for complete independence of India

C. Coming of India National Congress under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi

D. Burma was made a part of India

 

Q. 46 INS Airavat is India’s

A. Amphibious ship

B. Submarine

C. Destroyer

D. Frigate

 

Q. 47 Astra-Missile is

A. Surface to surface missile

B. Surface to air missile

C. Air to surface missile

D. Air to air missile

 

Q. 48 Nehru Institute of Mountaineering is situated at

A. Nainital

B. Darjeeling

C. Shimla

D. Uttarakshi

 

Q. 49 The chief guest on the 60th Republic day of India was the President of

A. Uzbekistan

B. Tajikistan

C. Kazakhstan

D. South Africa

 

Q. 50 Which of the following was not the base of LTTE before being captured by Sri Lankan Forces?

A. Elephant Pass

B. Kilinochchi

C. Mullaithivu

D. Muridke

 

Q. 51 Who was given Col. CK Nayadu Life Time Achievement Award for 2007-08 for exemplary contribution of cricket?

A. Kapil Dev

B. Gundappa Vishwanath

C. Sunil Gavaskar

D. Vijay Hazare

 

Q. 52 Who is the foreign minister of European Union?

A. Baroness Ashlon

B. Massimo D’ Alema

C. David Millband

D. Carl Bildt

 

Q. 53 Who is the author of ‘Godan’?

A. Bhishma Sahni

B. Prem Chand

C. Manohar Shyam Joshi

D. Sharat Chandra Chattopadhyay

 

Q. 54 Which political party does Raj Babbar belong to?

A. Samajwadi Party

B. Bharatiya Janta Party

C. Congress

D. Bhujan Samaj Party

 

Q. 55 In which year Bastille fell on 14th of July?

A. 1879

B. 1789

C. 1787

D. None of them

 

Q. 56 Alberto Fujimori is the former President of

A. Japan

B. Peru

C. South Korea

D. Vietnam

 

Q. 57 Which of the following is the national river of India?

A. Brahmaputra

B. Narmada

C. Ganga

D. Cauveri

 

Q. 58 The highest number of telephone users are in

A. China

B. USA

C. Canada

D. India

 

Q. 59 The President of Maldives is

A. Maumoon Abdul Gayoom

B. Mohmmad Ashraf

C. Mahmood Alam

D. Mohammed Nasheed

 

Q. 60 Arabinda Rajkhowa is a member of

A. BJP

B. Assam Gana Parishad

C. Maoist Centre

D. ULFA

 

Q. 61 The breakthrough in the ideas of Darwin on the evolution of species came after his visit to a cluster of islands where he was that each island supported its own form of finch. Name the islands?

A. Iceland

B. Greenland

C. Galapagos

D. Christian Islands

 

Q. 62 Mahatma Gandhi never became a Nobel Laureate, but he was nominated five times. In which of the following years was he not nominated?

A. 1937

B. 1939

C. 1948

D. 1940

 

Q. 63 Which of the following countries has not, till the end of 2009, decoded the entire genome of a human being?

A. China

B. Russia

C. Zimbabwe

D. Canada

 

Q. 64 When was the University of Bombay established?

A. 1861

B. 1857

C. 1909

D. 1890

 

Q. 65 Harare is the capital of

A. Zambia

B. Zaire Republic

C. Zimbabwe

D. Yemen

 

Q. 66 Before the Indian team left for Conference on Climate Change of Copenhagen, Jairam Ramesh announced that India would work voluntary reduction of

A. 40 to 45 percent

B. 20 to 25 percent

C. 30 to 35 percent

D. 10 to 15 percent

 

Q. 67 Which is the largest island in the world (if Australia is not considered an island)?

A. Iceland

B. Borneo

C. Sumatra

D. Greenland

 

Q. 68 Indo-Pak summit between Parvez Musharraf and Atal Bihari Vajpayee was held in 2001 at

A. Delhi

B. Shimla

C. Agra

D. Mumbai

 

Q. 69 In May 2008, in the final to Sultan Azian Shah Championship Indian men’s Hockey team was defeated by

A. Pakistan

B. Argentina

C. New Zealand

D. Canada

 

Q. 70 Which of the following is not a union territory?

A. Tripura

B. Daman and Diu

C. Lakshadweep

D. Pondicherry

 

Q. 71 Who was the founder editor of ‘Kesari’?

A. Lala Lajput Rai

B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

C. Gopal Krishnan Gokhale

D. Dadabhai Naroji

 

Q. 72 With whose permission did the English set up their first factory at Surat?

A. Akbar

B. Shahjahan

C. Jahangir

D. Aurangzeb

 

Q. 73 The group of nations known as G-8 started as G-7. Which among the following was not one of them?

A. Canada

B. Italy

C. Russia

D. Japan

 

Q. 74 Emperor Akbar the Great, died in the year

A. 1505

B. 1605

C. 1606

D. 1590

 

Q. 75 What was the name of emperor Shahjahan before he became the Emperor?

A. Khusrau

B. Khurram

C. Parvez

D. Shaheryar

 

Q. 76 Which one of the following trees has medicinal value?

A. Pine

B. Teak

C. Oak

D. Neem

 

Q. 77 Identify the main principle on which the Parliamentary system operates?

A. Responsibility of executive of legislature

B. Supremacy of democracy

C. Rule of law

D. Supremacy of the Constitution

 

Q. 78 Great tennis player Bjorn Borg belongs to which country?

A. Italy

B. Latvia

C. USA

D. Sweden

 

Q. 79 Which of the following is the national song of India?

A. Vande Mataram

B. Jana gana mana adhinayak

C. Ye mera chaman, ye mera chaman

D. Sare Jahan se accha

 

Q. 80 Which country was known as sick man of Europe?

A. Greece

B. Latvia

C. Turkey

D. Australia

 

Q. 81 In Malaysia, the word ‘bhumiputra’ refers to

A. Malayas

B. Chinese

C. Indians

D. Buddhists

 

Q. 82 What was the real name of Munshi Premchand?

A. Nawab Rai

B. Dhanpat Rai

C. Ram Chandra Srivastava

D. Hari Shankar

 

Q. 83 Who is the author of ‘Old Man and the Sea’?

A. John Ruskin

B. Raja Rao

C. Gunter Grass

D. Ernest Hemingway

 

Q. 84 Prophet Mohammed was born in

A. 570 AD

B. 720 AD

C. 620 AD

D. 510 AD

 

Q. 85 When was the First World War declared?

A. 1914

B. 1915

C. 1918

D. 1913

 

Q. 86 Deodhar trophy is given for the game of

A. Cricket

B. Football

C. Hockey

D. Golf

 

Q. 87 Preiyar Wild-life sanctuary is situated in the state of

A. Tamil Nadu

B. Karnataka

C. Kerala

D. Andhra Pradesh

 

Q. 88 Nepanagar in Madhya Pradesh is known for

A. Steel mill

B. Sugar mills

C. Potteries

D. News print factory

 

Q. 89 Who destroyed the Somnath temple in Gujarat?

A. Mohammad Ghouri

B. Mahmud Ghaznavi

C. Changhez Khan

D. Taimur Lang

 

Q. 90 In Cape Trafalgar, the famous battle of Trafalgar was fought in 1805. Where is Cape Trafalgar situated?

A. Italy

B. Greece

C. Spain

D. Portugal

 

Q. 91 The manager of waqf is known as

A. Sajjadanshin

B. Khadim

C. Mutawalli

D. Mujawar

 

Q. 92 ‘Ispo facto’ means

A. In place of

B. By reason of first fact

C. By the same sources

D. By the way

 

Q. 93 ‘Acquisition’ means

A. Permanent transfer of the title of property

B. Supervision of property

C. Taking control of property temporarily

D. Taking possession permanently

 

Q. 94 ‘Corroborative evidence’ means

A. Main evidence in case

B. Evidence which supports other evidence

C. Evidence that proves the guilt of an accused person

D. Evidence of a person who supports the accused

 

Q. 95 Exparte decision means a decision is given

A. After hearing both the parties

B. Without proper procedure

C. After observing proper procedure

D. Without hearing the opponent

 

Q. 96 Which of the following constitutions is a unitary Constitution?

A. US

B. British

C. Indian

D. Australian

 

Q. 97 Which of the following is not a fundamental right in India?

A. Right to form association

B. Freedom of religion

C. Right to property

D. Right to move throughout the territory of India

 

Q. 98 Which of the following marriages is approved by Islamic law? Between a Muslim

A. male and a Christian female

B. female and a Hindu male

C. female and a Christian male

D. female and a Jew male

 

Q. 99 Which of the following constitutions when framed did not provide for judicial review?

A. Indian

B. Pakistani

C. US

D. Australian

 

Q. 100 Ratio decidendi means

A. A judicial decision

B. Part of the judgement which possesses authority

C. Any observation made by the court which goes beyond the requirement of the case

D. An observation made by the judge

 

Q. 101 ‘Dyarchy’ under the government of India Act 1919 meant

A. Division of powers between the central and provincial government

B. Separation of judiciary from executive

C. Division of executive department under elected ministers and the members of the Governors Executive Council

D. Separation between legislature and executive

 

Q. 102 Fringe benefit tax is a tax

A. Paid by an employee in respect of the fringe benefits provided or deemed to have been provided by an employer to his employee

B. Paid by an employer for the benefits which he enjoys

C. Paid by a person for the benefits which he gets from his employer

D. Paid by a member of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes for benefits they receive from the government

 

Q. 103 Which of the following is not true about a criminal proceeding?

A. The court may ask to pay a fine

B. The court may order the transfer of their ownership of the property

C. There is prosecution

D. The court may discharge an accused

 

Q. 104 In Ram v/s Shyam, Ram cannot be a

A. Plaintiff

B. Appellants

C. Defendant

D. Prosecutor

 

Q. 105 Cr. PC stands for

A. Criminal Proceedings Code

B. Criminal Proceedings Court

C. Crime Prevention Code

D. Criminal Procedure Code

 

Q. 106 Medical Science used for Investigation crimes is known as

A. Criminal Medicine

B. Epistemological Science

C. Forensic Science

D. Ontological Science

 

Q. 107 A pusine judge of a High Court is

A. A judge other than a Chief Justice

B. The Chief Justice

C. A temporary judge

D. A retired judge

 

Q. 108 Intra vires means

A. Within the powers

B. Outside the powers

C. Within the scope of fundamental rights

D. Regular

 

Q. 109 X, the servant of Y, takes a hundred rupee note from Y’s pocket and hides it under the carpet in the house of Y. X tells Z another servant of Y, about the currency note and both agree to share the money when the currency note is taken by X from the hiding place. Before X could recover the note it was found by Y. Decide if an offence was committed and if so who committed the offence?

A. No offence was committed

B. Only X committed the offence

C. Both X and Z committed the offence

D. Only Z committed the offence

 

Q. 110 Moots, in law schools, are

A. Exercises of law teaching

B. Legal problems in the form of imaginary cases, argued by two opposing students before a bench pretending to be a real court

C. Imaginary class room where a student acts as a teacher

D. A debate on a legal problem

 

Q. 111 Scheduled Tribe status is

A. Restricted to Hindus

B. Religiously neutral

C. Restricted to Hindus and Christians

D. Restricted to Hindus and Muslims

 

Q. 112 Which of the following has not been a woman judge of the Supreme Court of India, till 2009?

A. Justice Gyan Sudha Mishra

B. Justice Sujata Manohar

C. Justice Ruma Pal

D. Justice Fathima Beevi

 

Q. 113 What is the meaning of Chattel?

A. Any property

B. Immovable property

C. Movable property

D. Cattle

 

Q. 114 In a civil suit, the person who files the suit and the person against whom the suit is filed are called

A. Accused, prosecutor

B. Accuser, defendant

C. Appellant, respondent

D. Plaintiff, defendant

 

Q. 115 In a criminal case, an accused person, who in consideration of his non-prosecution, offers to give evidence against other accused, is called

A. Accomplice

B. Hostile witness

C. Approver

D. Hostile accomplice

 

Q. 116 The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of

A. All the members of both the Houses of Parliament and all the members of all the Legislative Assemblies

B. All the elective members of both the Houses of Parliament and all the members of the Legislative Assemblies

C. All the members of both the Houses of Parliament and all the elected members of all the Legislative Assemblies

D. All the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and all the elected members of all the Legislative Assemblies

 

Q. 117 Which of the following is not a fundamental right?

A. Freedom of speech

B. Right to life

C. Right to equality

D. Right to work

 

Q. 118 International Labour Organization has its headquarters at

A. The Hague

B. Geneva

C. New York

D. London

 

Q. 119 The Child Marriage Restraint Act, 2006 is applicable to

A. Only Hindus

B. All Indians except Muslims as the minimal marriage age among Muslims girls is puberty (beginning of menstruation) in Muslim personal law

C. All irrespective of religion

D. All except Muslim, Christian and Jews

 

Q. 120 X, a shopkeeper, leaves a sealed 5 kilogram bag of a branded wheat flour at the door of Y with a note you will like this quality wheat flour and pay Rupees 100 for this bag without being asked to do so. Y on coming back, collects the bag from his door, opens the seal of the bag, and uses a quarter of kilogram for making chapattis (unleavened bread). But next day returns the bad, is he bound to pay for the bag? He is

A. Not bound to pay as he did not ask shopkeeper to deliver the bag

B. Bound to pay as he has opened the bag

C. Bound to pay only for the quantity used

D. Neither bound to pay nor return the bag

 

Q. 121 Within the jurisdiction of which High Court does Lakshadweep fall

A. Bombay High Court

B. Kerala High Court

C. Madras high court

D. Delhi court

 

Q. 122 Which of the following is not the function of the International Court of Justice? It

A. Gives advisory opinion at the request of general Assembly

B. Gives advisory opinion at the request of Security Council

C. Interprets treaties when considering legal disputes brought before it by nations

D. Decides international crimes

 

Q. 123 Bank nationalization case relates to the nationalization of

A. Some banks by the government of India after economic liberalisation in 1991

B. Some banks under a law during the Prime Ministership of Mrs. Indira Gandhi

C. All the private Indian banks during the Prime Ministership of Narasimha Rao

D. All the private Indian banks during the Prime Ministersip of Mrs. Indira Gandhi

 

Q. 124 Which of the following is not included within the meaning of intellectual property?

A. Patents

B. Copyrights

C. Trade Mark

D. Property of an intellectual

 

Q. 125 The main aim of the competition Act 2002 is to protect the interests of

A. The multinational corporation

B. The Indian companies

C. The consumers

D. The market

 

Q. 126 Which of the following judges had never been the chairman of the Law Commission of India?

A. Justice RC Lahoti

B. Justice AR Lakshamanan

C. Justice Jeevan Reddy

D. Justice Jagnnatha Rao

 

Q. 127 Who among the following was the first Chief information Commissioner of India?

A. Wajahat Habibullah

B. Irfan Habibi

C. Tahir Mahmood

D. Najma Heptullah

 

Q. 128 RTI stands for

A. Revenue transactions in India

B. Research and Technology Institute

C. Rural and transparency Infrastructure

D. Right to Information

 

Q. 129 Fiduciary relationship is based on

A. Contract

B. Trust

C. Blood relationship

D. Money

 

Q. 130 Human Rights day is observed on

A. 14th February

B. 26th November

C. 2nd October

D. 10th December

 

Q. 131 ‘No fault liability’ means

A. Liability for damaged caused through negligence

B. Liability for damage caused through fault

C. Absolute liability even without any negligence or fault

D. Freedom from liability

 

Q. 132 An ‘encumbrance’ in legal parlance is a

A. Liability on property

B. Grant of property

C. Gift of property

D. Restriction on property

 

Q. 133 A husband and wife have a right to each others company. This right is called

A. Matrimonial right

B. Consortium right

C. Martial right

D. Conjugal right

 

Q. 134 Release of prisoner before completion of his sentence is called

A. Release

B. Parole

C. Acquittal

D. Lease

 

Q. 135 Result of successful prosecution is

A. Acquittal

B. Discharge

C. Conviction

D. Charge sheeting

 

Q. 136 Six students A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting. A and B are from Mumbai, rest are from Delhi. D and F are tall but others are short. A, C and D are girls, others are boys. Which is the tall girl from Delhi?

A. F

B. D

C. E

D. C

 

Q. 137 P is the brother of Q. R is the sister of Q. S is the sister of R. How is Q related to S?

A. Brother

B. Sister

C. Brother or sister

D. Son

 

Questions: 138 – 140

Directions (Q 138-140) :

Two sets of words have certain relation. Select a word to replace the question mark so as to make a similar relational pair with the other word in the third set.

 

Q. 138 Cat-Kitten; Goat-Kid; Sheep-?

A. Colt

B. Filly

C. Lamb

D. Wool

 

Q. 139 Cataract-Eye; Jaundice-liver; Pyorrhea-?

A. Breath

B. Tongue

C. Ears

D. Teeth

 

Q. 140 Blue-Moon; Blue-Black; Black-?

A. Sheep

B. Goat

C. Sky

D. Star

 

Questions: 141 – 145

Directions (Q 141-145) :

A principle(s) and a fact situation are given in question number 141-145. Decide only on the basis of principle(s).

 

Q. 141 Principles – (i) Neighbour principle-A is liable if he harms his neighbour. A neighbour is one whose action affects anoher

(ii) One is liable only for contractual relations

Facts – X manufactures a food item and sells his food item to Y, a wholesaler. Y appoints Z, a retailer to retail these items. Z sells the food item to a consumer who after eating them, falls ill. X is liable to the consumer because

A. Of contractual relations

B. Of the Food adulteration Act

C. The consumer is the neighbour of X

D. Of the consumer protection law

 

Q. 142 Principles –

(i) Freedom consists in making choices out of two or more alternative

(ii) Everyone has freedom to speak

Facts –

X says his freedom to speech includes freedom not to speak. X’s assertion is

A. Wrong

B. Right

C. Wrong because the freedom to speak cannot mean freedom not to speak

D. Right because X may opt to speak or not to speak

 

Q. 143 Principles –

(i) A master is liable for the wrongful acts of his servant

(ii) A person can be called a servant only if there is a relation of employment and he acts under the order and behalf of his master

Facts –

X bank launched a facing scheme for poor sections of the society and the customers can deposit Rs. 10 per day. Y an unemployed youth collected money from several customers, and on behalf of them deposited the money at the Bank every day. The bank gave to Y a

small commission. After sometime, Y disappeared without depositing the money given by the customers. The customers bring a suit alleging that the Bank is liable. Decide

A. The bank is liable because it paid commission to Y

B. The bank is liable because Y was their servant

C. The bank was not liable because Y was not their servant

D. No one is liable

 

Q. 144 Principles – X propounds the principle that everyone in this world always speaks lies.

Facts – X wants to know whether this principle is logically true or false.

A. Logically the principle may be true

B. Everyone in the whole of this world does not always speak lies

C. Logically X is also speaking lies

D. Everyone is basically an honest person

 

Q. 145 Principles –

Whosoever enters into or upon the property in the possession of another, with intent to commit an offence or to intimidate or annoy any person in possession of the property, and remains there with intent thereby to intimidate or annoy another person or with intent, to commit an offence is guilty of criminal trespass.

Facts –

The accused entered at night into a house to carry on intimate relations with an umarried major girl on her invitation and information that her family members are absent. However, he was caught by her uncle before he could get away. Is the accused guilty of criminal trespass? He is

 

A. Guilty of criminal trespass as he annoyed the uncle

B. Guilty because he entered the house to commit a crime against the girl

C. Guilty because no one should enter into the house of another at night

D. Not guilty of criminal trespass

 

Q. 146 In a code every letter of the alphabet is replaced by some other letter. The code for the name Ram Kumar is

A. Ten Ronet

B. Len Finol

C. Pen Sinet

D. Elephant

 

Questions: 147 – 148

Directions (Q 147-148) :

Four of the given five are alike in a certain way and form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

 

Q. 147 (I) 217

(II) 143

(III) 214

(IV) 157

(V) 131

A. I

B. V

C. II

D. III

 

Q. 148 (I) Gourd

(II) Radish

(III) Spinach

(IV) Cucumber

(V) Beetroot

A. Radish

B. Beetroot

C. Potatoes

D. Spinach

 

Questions: 149 – 151

Directions (Q 149-151) :

Point out the entry which does not form a class with the other entries in the following questions.

 

Q. 149 The odd one out in the following is –

A. House

B. Mortgage

C. Hypothecation

D. Immovable property

 

Q. 150 The odd one out in the following is –

A. Law

B. Court

C. Morality

D. Judge

 

Q. 151 The odd one out in the following is –

A. Freedom of speech

B. Right to equality

C. Freedom of religion

D. Right to make contract

 

Questions: 152 – 156

Directions (Q 152-156) :

In the following questions, a question and two arguments are given. Arguments in relation to the questions are either weak or strong. Use this key to give your answer.

 

Q. 152 Questions : Should there be complete ban on manufacture of fire crackers in India?

Argument I : No, this will render thousands of workers jobless

Argument II : Yes, the fire crackers manufacturers use child labour

A. Argument I is strong

B. Argument II is strong

C. Both I and II are strong

D. Both I and II are weak

 

Q. 153 Questions : Should private operators be allowed to operate passengers train service in India?

Argument I : No, private sectors do not agree to operate on non-profitable sectors

Argument II : yes, it will improve the quality of Indian Railway service

A. Argument I is strong

B. Argument II is strong

C. Both I and II are strong

D. Both I and II are weak

 

Q. 154 Question : Should the system of reservation of posts for scheduled castes be introduced in private sector?

Argument I : Yes, this would give more opportunity of development to these groups

Argument II : No, this would affect merit

A. Argument I is strong

B. Argument II is strong

C. Both I and II are strong

D. Both I and II are weak

 

Q. 155 Question : Would the problem of old parents be solved if children are made legally responsible to take care of their parents in old age?

Argument I : Yes, such problems can be solved only through law

Argument II : Yes, this will bring relief to old parents

A. Argument I is strong

B. Argument II is strong

C. Both I and II are strong

D. Both I and II are weak

 

Q. 156 Question : Should right to primary education be made as fundamental right>

Argument I : We should first complete other development project, education of children

may wait

Argument II : Yes, without primary education for all, there cannot be inclusive development

A. Argument I is strong

B. Argument II is strong

C. Both I and II are strong

D. Both I and II are weak

 

Q. 157 Pramesh is heavier than Jairam but lighter than Gulab. Anand is heavier than Gulab. Mohan is lighter than Jairam. Who among them is the heaviest?

A. Jairam

B. Anand

C. Gulab

D. Pramesh

 

Q. 158 Ravi is the brother of Amit’s son. How is Amit related to Ravi?

A. Cousin

B. Father

C. Son

D. Grandfather

 

Q. 159 If CABLE is coded ZCDAY, then STABLE will be coded as

A. TPADAY

B. TPCDCY

C. TPCDAY

D. TPCYAY

 

Q. 160 If CHAPTER is coded UMOEPYE then PARTNER will be coded as

A. AONPCYE

B. AEEPCYE

C. AOEACYE

D. AOEPCYE

 

Questions: 161 – 170

Directions (Q 161-170) :

In each of the questions given below, two words are paired and have a certain relation. Select a correct option to substitute the question mark so as to make a similar relationship pair with the words given.

 

Q. 161 Constituent Assembly : Constitution :: Parliament : ?

A. Statute

B. Legislative bills

C. Speaker

D. Prime Minister

 

Q. 162 Right : Duty : : Power : ?

A. Wrong

B. Weak

C. Powerless

D. Liability

 

Q. 163 Elephant : Calf : : Tiger : ?

A. Pup

B. Tigress

C. Cub

D. Baby tiger

 

Q. 164 Patient : Doctor : : Litigant : ?

A. Advisor

B. Help

C. Legal aid

D. Lawyer

 

Q. 165 Prosecutor : Accused : : Plaintiff : ?

A. Appellant

B. Defendant

C. Plaint

D. Suit

 

Q. 166 Lok Sabha : Meera Kumar : : Rajya Sabha : ?

A. Hameed Ansari

B. Najma Heptullah

C. Sushma Swaraj

D. Arun Jaitley

 

Q. 167 President of India : 35 : : Member of Parliament (Rajya Sabha) : ?

A. 18

B. 21

C. 25

D. 30

 

Q. 168 India : Parliamentary System : : USA : ?

A. Democratic System

B. Presidential System

C. Federal System

D. Republican System

 

Q. 169 Executive : President : : Judiciary : ?

A. Supreme Court

B. Chief Justice

C. Constitutional

D. Government of India

 

Q.170 World War II : United Nations : : World War I : ?

A. Treaty of Versailles

B. International Commission of Jurists

C. League of Nations

D. International Court of Justice

 

Questions: 171 – 175

Directions (Q 171-175) :

In each of the questions, two statements are given. There may or may not be cause and effect relationship between the two statements. Choose your answer based on the statements given.

 

Q. 171 Statement I : School education has been made free for children of poor families

Statement II : Literacy rate among the poor is steadily growing

A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect

B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect

C. Both the statements are independent causes

D. Both the statements are independent effects

 

Q. 172 Statement I : Hallmarking of gold jewellery has been made compulsory

Statement II : many persons do not prefer to buy Hallmarked jewellery

A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect

B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect

C. Both the statements are independent causes

D. Both the statements are independent effects

 

Q. 173 Statement I : Many vegetarians are suffering from stomach ailments

Statement II : Many dead fish were found near the lake shore

A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect

B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect

C. Both the statements are independent causes

D. Both the statements are independent effects

 

Q. 174 Statement I : Ahmed is a healthy boy

Statement II : His mother is very particular about the food he eats

A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect

B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect

C. Both the statements are independent causes

D. Both the statements are independent effects

 

Q. 175 Statement I : Rate of crime is very low in this city

Statement II : The police is efficient in this city

A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect

B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect

C. Both the statements are independent causes

D. Both the statements are independent effects

 

Questions: 176 – 180

Directions (Q 176-180) :

In each of these questions, a statement is followed by two assumptions. These assumptions may or may not be implicit in the statement. Choose your answer accordingly.

 

Q. 176 Statement : If Ram has finished reading the instructions, let him begin activities

accordingly.

Assumption I : Ram has understood the instructions

Assumption II : Ram would be able to act accordingly

A. Only assumption I is implicit

B. Only assumption II is implicit

C. Both assumptions I and II are implicit

D. Neither of the assumption I and II is implicit

 

Q. 177 Statement : Children below the age of seven should not be prosecuted for crimes

Assumption I : Generally children below seven cannot distinguish between right and wrong

Assumption II : Children below the age of seven are generally mentally unsound

A. Only assumption I is implicit

B. Only assumption II is implicit

C. Both assumptions I and II are implicit

D. Neither of the assumption I and II is implicit

 

Q. 178 Statement : The employer has a right to reject the application of any candidate for

employment without assigning any reason while short listing for interview

Assumption I : The employer is impartial and believes in transparency in employment practices

Assumption II : The employer wants to call only those candidates for interview, who in his opinion are eligible

A. Only assumption I is implicit

B. Only assumption II is implicit

C. Both assumptions I and II are implicit

D. Neither of the assumption I and II is implicit

 

Q. 179 Statement : The government has decided to reduce custom duty on computers

Assumption I : The government wants to make computer accessible to larger number of

people

Assumption II : Prices in domestic market may go up in near future

A. Only assumption I is implicit

B. Only assumption II is implicit

C. Both assumptions I and II are implicit

D. Neither of the assumption I and II is implicit

 

Q. 180 Statement : You can win over new friends by your warm smile

Assumption I : It is necessary to win over new friends

Assumption II : It is always better to smile warmly to new persons

A. Only assumption I is implicit

B. Only assumption II is implicit

C. Both assumptions I and II are implicit

D. Neither of the assumption I and II is implicit

 

Q. 181 Average age of ten persons learning yoga is 32 years. When the age of their instructor is added, the average age becomes 34 years. The age of their instructor is

A. 54

B. 52

C. 46

D. 56

 

Q. 182 Find 12% of 5000

A. 620

B. 600

C. 680

D. 720

 

Q. 183 Square root of 400 is

A. 40

B. 25

C. 20

D. 100

 

Q. 184 What is the place (location) value of 5 in 3254710?

A. 10000

B. 5

C. 54710

D. 50000

 

Q. 185  6 x 3(3-1) is equal to

A. 53

B. 36

C. 20

D. 19

 

Q. 186 Y travels 15 km due South, then 5 km due west, then 18 km due North then 3 km due South, then 5 km due East. How far is he from the starting point?

A. 6 km

B. 3 km

C. 0 km

D. 9 km

 

Questions: 187 – 188

Directions (Q 187-188) :

Select the appropriate options to fill in the blanks in the series.

 

Q. 187  3, 9, ……, 6561

A. 18

B. 27

C. 81

D. 61

 

Q. 188  100, 50, 33, ….., 20

A. 25

B. 30

C. 22

D. 21

 

Q. 189 Which of the following fractions has the highest value?

3/5, 4/3, 2/5, 1/2

A. 3/5

B. 4/3

C. 2/5

D. 1/2

 

Q. 190 Four gardeners with four grass mowers mows 400 square metres of ground in four hours. How long would it take for eight gardeners with eight grass mowers to mow 800 square meters of ground?

A. 8 hours

B. 6 hours

C. 2 hours

D. 4 hours

 

Questions: 191 – 193

Directions (Q 191-193) :

Select one of the given numbers to replace question mark in the series in the following questions.

 

Q. 191  2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, ?

A. 22

B. 23

C. 24

D. 25

 

Q. 192  117, 104, 91, 78, ?

A. 39

B. 60

C. 65

D. 36

 

Q. 193  88, 96, 104, ?

A. 100

B. 110

C. 120

D. 112

 

Q. 194 Ram borrows Rs. 520 from Govind at a simple interest of 13% per annum. What amount of money should Ram pay to Govind after 6 months to be absolved of debt?

A. Rs. 552.80

B. Rs. 553.80

C. Rs. 453.80

D. Rs. 353.80

 

Q. 195 Which of the following is a prime number?

A. 19

B. 20

C. 21

D. 22

 

Q. 196 The square root of 289 is

A. 13

B. 17

C. 27

D. 23

 

Q. 197 Find the factors of 330

A. 2 x 4 x 5 x 11

B. 2 x 3 x 7 x 13

C. 2 x 3 x 5 x 13

D. 2 x 3 x 5 x 11

 

Q. 198 Find the factors of 1122

A. 3 x 9 x 17 x 2

B. 3 x 11 x 17 x 2

C. 9 x 9 x 17 x 2

D. 3 x 11 x 17 x 3

 

Q. 199 Which of the following is not a prime number?

A. 23

B. 29

C. 43

D. 21

 

Q. 200 If the numbers from 1 to 24, which are divisible by 2 are arranged in descending order, which number will be at the 8th place from the bottom?

A. 10

B. 12

C. 16

D. 18

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	D	B	A	C	A	C	C	D	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	C	B	A	A	B	A	C	C	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	C	A	A	B	A	C	C	D	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	B	A	C	A	C	C	B	A	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	B	A	C	B	A	D	D	C	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	A	B	C	B	B	C	A	D	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	C	C	B	C	B	D	C	B	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	C	C	B	B	D	D	D	A	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	A	B	D	AA	A	A	C	D	B	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	B	A	B	D	B	C	A	B	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	A	A	B	C	D	C	A	A	C	B
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	A	A	D	D	D	D	B	C	D
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	D	B	D	C	A	A	D	B	D
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	C	D	D	B	C	B	C	C	D	A
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	A	D	B	C	D	A	D	A	C	C
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	D	A	B	C	C	B	B	B	C	D
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	A	D	C	D	B	A	D	B	B	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	A	C	B	B	B	C	A	B	A	C
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	A	B	C	D	B	C	C	A	B	C
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	A	C	D	B	A	B	D	B	D	C