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CDS(II) Exam 2017 Elementary Mathematics Previous Year Paper

CDSE 2 2017 Mathematics

Q. 1 What is the value of α (α ≠ 0) for which x²− 5x + α and x² −7x + 2α have a common factor?

A. 6

B. 4

C. 3

D. 2

Q. 2 How many numbers from 1 to 1000 are divisible by 2, 3 , 4 and 5 ?

A. 16

B. 17

C. 32

D. None of the above

Q. 3 What are the factors of x³ + 4x² − 11x − 30 ?

A. (x – 2), (x + 3) and (x + 5 )

B. (x + 2 ), (x + 3) and (x – 5 )

C. (x + 2), (x – 3) and (x + 5 )

D. (x + 2), (x – 3) and (x – 5 )

Q. 4 If x = 111…1 ( 20 digits), y = 333…3 (10 digits) and z = 222…2 ( 10 digits), then what is (x – y²) ⁄ z equal to ?

A. 1/2

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Q. 5 What is the positive value of m for which the roots of the equation 12x² + mx + 5 = 0 are in the ratio 3 : 2 ?

A. 5√10

B. 5√10/12

C. 5/12

D. 12/5

Q. 6 Let f(x) and g(x) be two polynomials ( with real coefficients ) having degrees 3 and 4 respectively. What is the degree of f(x)g(x) ?

A. 12

B. 7

C. 4

D. 3

Q. 7 If 5x³ + 5x² − 6x + 9 is divided by (x + 3), then the remainder is

A. 135

B. − 135

C. 63

D. − 63

Q. 8 The product of two non -zero expressions is (x + y + z)p³. If their HCF is p² , then their LCM is
A. (x + y + z)

B. (x + y + z)p²

C. (x + y + z)p⁵

D. (x + y + z)p

Q. 9 If the points P and Q represent the real numbers 0.83͞ and 0.62͞ on the number line, then the distance between P and Q is

A. 21/90

B. 19/90

C. 21/100

D. 56/90

Q. 10 Sudhir purchased a chair with three consecutive discounts of 20%, 12.5% and 5%.The actual deduction will be

A. 33.5%

B. 30%

C. 32%

D. 35%

Q. 11 A fruit seller has a certain number of mangoes of which 5% are rotten. He sells 75% of the remainder and he is left with 95 mangoes. How many mangoes did he have originally ?

A. 500

B. 450

C. 400

D. 350

Q. 12 If a train crosses a km-stone in 12 seconds, how long will it take to cross 91 km-stones completely if its speed is 60 km/hr?

A. 1 hr 30 min

B. 1 hr 30 min 12 sec

C. 1 hr 51 min

D. 1 hr 1 min 3 sec

Q. 13 In a 100 m race, A runs 6 km/hr. If A gives B a start of 8 m and still beats him by 9 seconds , what is the speed of B ?

A. 4.6 km/hr

B. 4.8 km/hr

C. 5.2 km/hr

D. 5.4 km/hr

Q. 14 The quotient of 8x³ − y³ when divided by 2xy + 4x² + y² is

A. 2x + y

B. x + 2y

C. 2x – y

D. 4x – y

Q. 15 If (x + 2) is common factor of x² + ax + b and x² + bx + a, then the ratio a:b is equal to

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 16 Let

ƒ(x) = a₀xⁿ + a₁xⁿ⁻¹ + a₂xⁿ⁻² +….aₙ₋₁ˣ + aₙ , where a₀,a₁,a₂,….aₙ are real numbers.

If ƒ(x) is divided by (ax-b), then the remainder is

A. f(b/a)

B. f(-b/a)

C. f(a/b)

D. f(-a/b)

Q. 17 Consider the following numbers :

1. 2222

2. 11664

3. 343343

4. 220347

Which of the above are not perfect squares ?

A. 1,2 and 3

B. 1,2 and 4

C. 2,3 and 4

D. 1,3 and 4

Q. 18 The product of the polynomials (x + 2),(x – 2),(x³ – 2x² + 4x – 8) and (x³ + 2x² + 4x + 8) is

A. x⁸ – 256

B. (x⁴-16)²

C. (x⁴+16)²

D. (x²-4)⁴

Q. 19 The factors of x (x + 2) (x + 3) (x + 5) – 72 are ?

A. x, ( x + 3), (x +4 ) and (x – 6 )

B. (x – 1 ), ( x + 6 ) and (x² – 2x – 12)

C. (x – 1 ), ( x + 6 ) and (x² + 5x +12)

D. (x + 1 ), ( x – 6 ) and(x² – 5x – 12)

Q. 20 If the HCF of polynomials

f(x) = (x – 1 )(x² + 3x + a) and

g(x) = (x +2 )(x² + 2x +b) is (x² + x – 2),

then what are the values of a and b respectively?

A. 2, 2

B. 2, – 3

C. – 1, – 3

D. – 2, – 3

Q. 21 a ,b,c,d are non-zero integers such that ( ab ) divides ( cd ). If a and c are co prime, then which one of the following is correct ?

A. a is a factor of c

B. a is a factor of b

C. a is a factor of d

D. d is a factor of a

Q. 22 If the roots of the equation a(b – c)x² + b(c – a)x +c(a – b) = 0 are equal, then which one of the following is correct?

A. 2b = a + c

B. b² = ac

C. 2/b = 1/a + 1/c

D. 1/b = 1/a + 1/c

Q. 23 The non-zero solution of the equation ((a -x²) / bx) – ((b – x)/ c) = ((c – x )/ b )) – ((b – x²) / cx )) , where b ≠ 0 ,c ≠ 0 is

A. b² + ac / b² + c²

B. b² – ac / b² – c²

C. b² – ac / b² + c²

D. b² + ac / b² – c²

Q. 24 If k is an integer, then x² + 7x – 14[k²-7/8] = 0 has

A. Both integral roots

B. At least one integral root

C. No integral root

D. Both positive integral roots

Q. 25 How many numbers between 500 and 1000 are divisible by 13?

A. 36

B. 37

C. 38

D. 39

Q. 26 To maintain 8 cows for 60 days, a milkman has to spend ₹ 6,400. To maintain 5 cows for n days, he has to spend ₹ 4,800. What is the value of n ?

A. 46 days

B. 50 days

C. 58 days

D. 72 days

Q. 27 A student has to secure 40% of marks to pass an examination. he gets only 45 marks and fails by 5 marks. The maximum marks are

A. 120

B. 125

C. 130

D. 150

Q. 28 What is the value of u in the system of equations 3(2u + v)= 7uv, 3(u + 3v) = 11 uv?

A. 0

B. 1/4

C. 1/2

D. 1

Q. 29 Five years ago, Ram was three times as old as Shyam. Four years from now, Ram will be only twice as old as Shyam. What is the present age of Ram?

A. 30 years

B. 32 years

C. 36 years

D. 40 years

Q. 30 Ram buys 4 chairs and 9 stools for ₹ 1,340. If he sells chairs at 10% profit and stools at 20% profit, he earns a total profit of ₹ 188. How much money did he have to pay for the chairs?

A. ₹ 200

B. ₹ 400

C. ₹ 800

D. ₹ 1600

Q. 31 Which of the following is a correct statement ?

A. {x : x + 5 = 5} = φ

B. {x : x + 5 = 5} = {0}

C. {x : x + 5 = 5} = 0

D. {x : x + 5 = 5} = {φ}

Q. 32 If ab + bc + ca = 0, then what is the value of a²/a² – bc +b² / b² – ca + c² / c² – ab ?

A. 3

B. 0

C. 1

D. – 1

Q. 33 In a examination, 35% students failed in Hindi , 45% students failed in English and 20% students failed in both the subjects. What is the percentage of students passing in both the subjects ?

A. 0

B. 20

C. 30

D. 40

Q. 34 What is ( x – y ) ( y – z ) ( z – x ) / ( x – y )³ + ( y – z )³ + ( z – x )³ equal to ?

A. – 1/3

B. 1/3

C. 3

D. – 3

Q. 35 The value of √[1+√[1+√[1….]]]

A. Equals to 1

B. Lies between 0 and 1

C. Lies between 1 and 2

D. Is greater than 2

Q. 36 If log₁₀ 6 = 0.7782 and log₁₀ 8 = 0.9031, then what is the value of log₁₀ 8000 + log₁₀ 600 ?

A. 4.6813

B. 5.5813

C. 1.5813

D. 6.6813

Q. 37 30 men can complete a job in 40 days. However, after 24 days some men out of the assigned 30 left the job. The remaining people took another 40 days to complete the job. The number of men who left the job is

A. 24

B. 18

C. 12

D. 6

Q. 38 4 goats or 6 sheep can graze a field in 50 days. 2 goats and 3 sheep will graze it in

A. 200 days

B. 150 days

C. 100 days

D. 50 days

Q. 39 A tap can fill a tub in 10 hours. After opening the tap for 5 hours it was found that a small outlet at the bottom of the tube was open and water was leaking through it. It was then immediately closed. It took 7 hours to fill the tub after closing the outlet. what time will be taken by the outlet to empty the full tub of water ?

A. 35 hours

B. 25 hours

C. 20 hours

D. 17 hours

Q. 40 A boy went to his school at a speed of 12km/hr and returned to his house at a speed of 8km/hr. If he has taken 50 minutes for the whole journey,what was the total distance walked?

A. 4 km

B. 8 km

C. 16 km

D. 20 km

Q. 41 If 78 is divided into 3 partss which are proportional to 1 , 1/3 , 1/6, then the middle part is

A. 28/3

B. 13

C. 52/3

D. 55/3

Q. 42 There are 350 boys in the first three standards . The ratio of the number of boys in first and second standards is 2 : 3, while that of boys is second and third standards is 4 : 5.What is the total number of boys in first and third standards ?

A. 302

B. 280

C. 242

D. 230

Q. 43 The difference between the compound interest ( compounded annually) and simple interest on a sum of money deposited for 2 years at 5% annum is ₹ 15 . What is the sum of money deposited ?

A. ₹ 6000

B. ₹ 4800

C. ₹ 3600

D. ₹ 2400

Q. 44 When price rise by 12%, if the expenditure is to be the same,what is the percentage of consumption to be reduced ?

A. 50/3%

B. 72/7%

C. 83/5%

D. 75/7 %

Q. 45 A man rows down a river 18 km in 4 hours with the stream and returns in 10 hours. Consider the following statement :

1. The speed of the man against the stream is 1.8 km/hr.

2. the speed of the man in still water is 3.15 km/hr.

3. The speed of the stream is 1.35 km/hr.

which of the following statement are correct ?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1,2 and 3

Q. 46 If a triangle has side 5,13 and 12 and θ is the acute angle of the triangle, then what is the value of ( sin θ + cos θ) ?

A. 5/13

B. 7/13

C. 12/13

D. 17/13

Q. 47 If 0 < x < π/2, then ( sin x + cosec x ) is

A. >2

B. <2

C. ≥ 2

D. ≤ 2

Q. 48 If sin θ = m² + n² / m² – n² and 0 < θ < π/2 , then what is the value of cos θ ?

A. 2mn / m² + n²

B. 2mn / m² – n²

C. m² + n² / 2mn

D. m² – n² / 2mn

Q. 49 If angle A of the triangle ABC is 30° and the circum-radius of the triangle is 10 cm, then what is the length of side BC ?

A. 5 cm

B. 10 cm

C. 5 √3 cm

D. 10 √3 cm

Q. 50 If A = sin 45° – sin 30° / cos 45° + cos 60° and B = sec 45° – tan 45° / cosec 45° + cot 45°, then which one of the following is correct?

A. A=B

B. A>B>0

C. A<B

D. B<A<0

Q. 51 If θ measured in radians is the angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock when the time is 4 : 36 pm, then which one of the following is correct?

A. 3π/5< θ <4π/5

B. 2π/5< θ <3π/5

C. π/5 ≤ θ ≤ 2π/5

D. 7π/15 ≤ θ ≤ 8π/15

Q. 52 Consider the following statement :

1. If 45°<θ<60°, then sec²θ + cosec² θ = α² for some real number α > 1.

2. If 0°<θ<45°, then 1 + cos θ / 1 – cos θ = x² for some real number x>2.

3. If 0°<θ<45°,then cos θ/1-tan θ + sin θ/ 1 – cot θ ≥2.

What is the number of true statements?

A. Zero

B. One

C. Two

D. Three

Q. 53 Let AB represent a building of height h metre with A being its top, B being its bottom. Let A’B’ represent a tower of height (h + x) metre (x >0 ) with A’ being its top and B’ being its bottom. Let BB’ = d metre. Let the angle of elevation of A’ as seen from A be 45° .

Consider the following statements :

Statement 1 : h + x > d

Statement 2 : The angle of depression of B as seen A’ is less than 45°

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

A. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.

B. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1.

C. Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.

D. Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.

Q. 54 A man , standing at a point X on the bank XY of a river that cannot be crossed , observes a tower to be N α° E on the opposite parallel bank. He then walks 200 m along the bank to the point Y towards East , and finds the tower to be N β° W. From these observations , the breadth of the river will be

( Given that tan α° = 2 and tan β° = 0.5 )

A. 60 m

B. 70 m

C. 80 m

D. 90 m

Q. 55 The value of sin 1° / sin 1c where 1c represents 1 radian is

A. Equal to 1

B. Less than 1

C. Greater than 1 but less than 2

D. Greater than 2

Q. 56 The diameters of two given circles are in the ratio 12 : 5 and the sum of their areas is equal to the area of a circle of diameter 65 cm. What are their radii ?

A. 12 cm and 5 cm

B. 24 cm and 10 cm

C. 60 cm and 25 cm

D. 30 cm and 12.5 cm

Q. 57 A hallow cube is formed by joining six identical squares. A rectangle cello tape of length 4 cm and breadth 0.5 cm is used for joining each pair of edges. What is the total area of cello tape used ?

A. 12 square cm

B. 24 square cm

C. 36 square cm

D. 48 square cm

Q. 58 Two straight lines AB and AC include an angle. A circle is drawn in this angle which touches both these lines. One more circle is drawn which touches both these lines as well as the previous circle.If the area of the bigger circle is 9 times the area of the smaller circle, then what must be the angle of A?

A. 45°

B. 60°

C. 75°

D. 90°

Q. 59 An isosceles triangle is drawn outside on one of the sides of square as base in such a way that the perimeter of the complete figure is 7/6 times the perimeter of the original square. What is the ratio of the area of the triangle to the area of the original square ?

A. 1 : 1

B. 2 : 3

C. 1 : 2

D. 1 : 3

Q. 60 What is the area of the triangle whose sides are 51 cm, 37 cm and 20 cm?

A. 300 square cm

B. 305 square cm

C. 306 square cm

D. 307 square cm

Q. 61 Segment QR of length r is a tangent at Q to a circle of radius r with centre at P. What is the area of the part of the triangle PQR, which is outside the circular region ?

A. πr²/16

B. r²/2 – πr²/8

C. r²/2 – πr²/16

D. r²/4 – πr²/8

Q. 62 In a triangle ABC,AD is perpendicular on BC,If ∠BAC = 90°,AB = c ,BC = a ,CA = b and AD=p, then which one of the following is correct ?

A. p = abc

B. p² = bc

C. p = bc/a

D. p = ab/c

Q. 63 AB and CD are parallel chords of circle 3 cm apart . If AB= 4 cm , CD = 10 cm, Then what is the radius of the circle ?

A. 7 cm

B. √19 cm

C. √29 cm

D. 14 cm

Q. 64 The diagonals of a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD intersect at P and the area of the triangle APB is 24 square cm. If AB = 8 cm and CD = 5 cm, then what is the area of the triangle CPD ?

A. 24 square cm

B. 15 square cm

C. 12.5 square cm

D. 9.375 square cm

Q. 65 In an equilateral triangle ABC,BD is drawn perpendicular to AC. What is BD² equal to ?

A. AD²

B. 2AD²

C. 3AD²

D. 4AD²

Q. 66 The distance between the centres of two circles having radii 9 cm and 4 cm is 13 cm. What is the length of the direct common tangent of these circles ?

A. 12 cm

B. 11 cm

C. 10 cm

D. 9.5 cm

Q. 67 If PL, QM and RN are the altitudes of the triangle PQR whose orthocentre is O, then Q is the orthocentre of the triangle

A. OPQ

B. OQR

C. PLR

D. OPR

Q. 68 In triangle ABC, ∠C = 90° and CD is the perpendicular from C to AB.

If (CD)⁻² = (BD)⁻² + (CA)⁻², then which one of the following is correct ?

A. BC.CD = AB.CA

B. AB.BC = CD.CA

C. CA² + CB² = 2( AD² + CD² )

D. AB.CD = BC.CA

Q. 69 If a point O in the interior of a rectangle ABCD is joined with each of the vertices A,B,C and D, the OB² + OD² will equal to

A. 2OC² + OA²

B. OC² – OA²

C. OC² + OA²

D. OC² + 2OA²

Q. 70 A cylinder of height 2x is circumscribed by a sphere of radius 2x such that the circular ends of the cylinder are two small circles on the sphere. What is the ratio of the curved surface area of the cylinder to the surface area of the sphere ?

A. √3 : 4

B. √3 : 3

C. √3 : 2

D. √3 : 1

Q. 71 A cylinder vessel 60 cm in diameter is partially filled with water. A sphere 30 cm in diameter is gently dropped into vessel and is completely immersed. To what further height will the water in the cylinder rise ?

A. 20 cm

B. 15 cm

C. 10 cm

D. 5 cm

Q. 72 The vertical angle of a right circular cone is π/2 and the slant height is √2 r cm. What is the volume of the cone in cubic cm ?

A. πr³

B. 9πr³

C. πr³/3

D. 3πr³

Q. 73 The radii of the frustum of a right circular cone are in the ratio 2 :1 . What is the ratio of the volume of the frustum of the cone to that of the whole cone ?

A. 1 : 8

B. 1 : 4

C. 3 : 4

D. 7 : 8

Q. 74 From a solid cylinder whose height is 8 cm and of base radius 6 cm , a conical cavity of height 8 cm and of base radius 6 cm is formed by hollowing out. What is the inner surface area of the cavity ?

A. 6π square cm

B. 8π square cm

C. 10π square cm

D. 60π square cm

Q. 75 A tent has been constructed which is in the form of a right circular cylinder surmounted by a right circular cone whose axis coincides with axis of the cylinder. If the radius of the base of the cylinder is 50 m , the height of the cylinder is 10 m and the total height of the tent is 15 m , then what is the capacity of the tent in cubic metres ?

A. 37500π

B. 87500π/3

C. 26500π/3

D. 25000π

Q. 76 Two rectangular sheets of sizes 2π * 4 π and π * 5 π are available. A hollow right circular cylinder can be formed by joining a pair of parallel sided of any sheet. What is the maximum possible volume of the circular cylinder that can be formed by this way ?

A. 4 π²

B. 8 π²

C. 1.25 π²

D. 6.25 π²

Q. 77 In a triangle ABC, the medians AD and BE intersect at G. A line DF is drawn parallel to BE such that F is on AC. If AC = 9 cm, then what is CF equal to ?

A. 2.25 cm

B. 3 cm

C. 4.5 cm

D. 6 cm

Q. 78 In a triangle PQR,X is a point on PR and Y is a point on QR such that PR=10 cm, RX =4 cm, YR = 2 cm , QR = 5 cm. Which one of the following is correct ?

A. XY is parallel to PQ

B. PQ = 2XY

C. PX = QY

D. PQ = 3XY

Q. 79 Consider the following statements in respect of three straight lines A,B and C on a plane :

1. If A and C are parallel and B and C are parallel; then A and B are parallel.

2. If A is perpendicular to C and B is perpendicular to C; then A and B are parallel.

3. If the acute angle between A and C is equal to the acute angle between B and C; then A and B are parallel.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1,2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Q. 80 The diagonals of a rhombus are of length 20 cm and 48 cm. What is the length of a side of the rhombus ?

A. 13 cm

B. 26 cm

C. 36 cm

D. 39 cm

Q. 81 An arc of a circle subtends an angle π at the centre. If the lenghth of the arc is 22 cm, then what is the radius of the circle ? (Take π = 22/7)

A. 5 cm

B. 7 cm

C. 9 cm

D. 11 cm

Q. 82 One – fifth of the area of a triangle ABC is cut off by line DE drawn parallel to BC such that D is on AB and E is on AC .If BC = 10 cm, then what is DE equal to ?

A. √5 cm

B. 2√5 cm

C. 3√5 cm

D. 4√5 cm

Q. 83 There are 8 lines in a plane, no two of which are parallel.What is the maximum number of points at which they can intersect?

A. 15

B. 21

C. 28

D. none of the above

Q. 84 A closed polygons has six sides and one of its angle is 30° greater than each of the other five equal angles. What is the value of one of the equal angles?

A. 55°

B. 115°

C. 150°

D. 175°

Q. 85 Consider the following statements :

1. The point of intersection of the perpendicular bisectors of the sides of a triangle may lie outside the triangle.

2.The point of intersection of the perpendicular drawn from the vertices to the opposite sides of a triangle may lie two sides.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Questions: 86 – 90

In a university there are 1200 students studying four subjects, Mathematics, Statistics,Physics and Chemistry. 20% of the total number of students are studying Mathematics, one – fourth of the total number of students are studying Physics , 320 students are studying Statistics and remaining students are studying Chemistry.Three-fifth of the total number of the students studying Chemistry are girls. 150 boys are studying Mathematics. 60% of students studying Physics are boys. 250 girls are studying Statistics.

Q. 86 What is the total number of boys studying Statistics and Physics ?

A. 180

B. 240

C. 250

D. 310

Q. 87 The number of girls studying Statistics is what percent ( approximate ) of the total number of students studying Chemistry ?

A. 58.8

B. 73.5

C. 78.7

D. 80.6

Q. 88 In which subjects is the difference between the number of boys and girls equal?

A. Mathematics and Chemistry

B. Statistics and Chemistry

C. Mathematics and Physics

D. Mathematics and Statistics

Q. 89 What is the difference between the number of boys studying Mathematics and the number of girls studying Physics ?

A. 20

B. 80

C. 60

D. 80

Q. 90 What is the ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls?

A. 67:83

B. 17:26

C. 27:19

D. 189:179

Q. 91 Frequency density of class is computed by the ratio

A. Class frequency to the class width

B. Class frequency to total frequency

C. Class frequency to total number of classes

D. Cumulative frequency upto that class to total frequency

Q. 92 A small company pays each of its 5 category ‘C’ workers ₹20,000, each of its 3 category ‘B’ workers ₹25,000 and a category ‘A’ worker ₹65,000. The number of workers earning less than the mean salary is

A. 8

B. 5

C. 4

D. 3

Q. 93 A man travelled 12 km at a speed of 4 km/hr and further 10 km at a speed of 5 km/hr. What was his average speed?

A. 4.4 km/hr

B. 4.5 km/hr

C. 5.0 km/hr

D. 2.5 km/hr

Q. 94 The pie diagrams on the monthly expenditure of two families A and B are drawn with radii of the two circles taken in the ratio 16 : 9 to compare their expenditures. Which one of the following is the appropriate data used for the above mentioned pie diagrams?

A. ₹ 16000 and ₹ 9000

B. ₹ 8000 and ₹ 4500

C. ₹ 25600 and ₹ 8100

D. ₹ 4000 and ₹ 3000

Q. 95 Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: The value of a random variable having the highest frequency is mode.

Statement 2 : Mode is unique.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statement ?

A. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.

B. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1.

C. Statement 1 is true but Statement 2 is false.

D. Statement 1 is false but Statement 2 is true.

Q. 96 Which of the following is not correct ?

The proportion of various items in a pie diagram is proportional to the

A. Areas of slices

B. Angles of slices

C. Lengths of the curved arcs of the slices

D. Perimeters of the slices

Q. 97 The geometric mean of x and y is 6 and the geometric mean of x,y and z is also 6.Then the value of z is

A. 12

B. √6

C. 6

D. ∛6

Q. 98 The total number of live births in a specific locality during different months of a specific year was obtained from the office of the Birth Registrar.This set of data may be called

A. Primary data

B. secondary data

C. Recorded data

D. countable data

Q. 99 The height (in cm ) of 5 students are 150,165,161,144 and 155. What are the values of mean and median (in cm ) respectively ?

A. 165 and 161

B. 155 and 155

C. 160 and 155

D. 155 and 161

Q. 100 The average height of 22 students of a class is 140 cm and the average height of 28 students of another class is 152 cm. What is the average height of students of both the classes ?

A. 144.32 cm

B. 145. 52 cm

C. 146.72 cm

D. 147.92 cm

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	C	B	A	A	B	A	C	A	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	D	D	B	C	D	A	B	C	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	A	C	D	D	D	C	B	A	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	B	A	C	B	B	C	C	C	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	D	A	C	B	C	C	A	C	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	D	A	C	A	D	B	C	A	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	A	A	A	C	D	A	C	B	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	B	CD	B	C	C	D	C	B	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	D	C	B	B	A	C	B	B	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	A	C	C	B	C	C	C	D	B

CDS(I) Exam 2017 Elementary Mathematics Previous Year Paper

CDSE 1 2017 Mathematics

Q. 1 What is √[ (0.064 x 6.25) ∕ (0.081 x 4.84)] equal to?

A. 10/99

B. 100/99

C. 9

D. 99

Q. 2 If α and β are the roots of the quadratic equation 2x² + 6x + k = 0, where k < 0, then what is the minimum value of α / β + β / α ?

A. 2

B. -2

C. 9

D. -9

Q. 3 (x+4) is a factor of which one of the following expressions?

A. x²-7x+44

B. x²+7x-44

C. x²-7x-44

D. x²+7x+44

Q. 4 Consider the following statements:

If a=b,c with HCF(b,c)= 1, then HCF(c,bd)=HCF(c,d)

If a=b,c with HCF(b,c)= 1, then HCF(a,d)=HCF(c,bd)

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 or 2

Q. 5 What is the square root of (0.35)²+0.70+1/2.25+0.19?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 6 What is the number of digits in 2⁴⁰ expressions (Given that log₁₀ 2 = 0·301)

A. 14

B. 13

C. 12

D. 11

Q. 7 If one ‘root of (a² – 5a + 3) x² + (3a- 1) x + 2 = 0 is twice the other, then what is the value of’a’?

A. 2/3

B. -2/3

C. 1/3

D. -1/3

Q. 8 What is the remainder when the number ( 4444)⁴⁴⁴⁴ is divided by 9 ?

A. 4

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8

Q. 9 If x =[(√(a+b)-√(a-b))/(√(a+b)+√(a-b))] , then what is bx²- 2ax + b equal to (b * 0)?

A. 0

B. 1

C. ab

D. 2ab

Q. 10 What is the value of

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Q. 11 If x = (t)^ (1/(t -1)) and y = (t)^(t/(t-1)) , t > 0, t ≠ 1, then what is the relation between x and y?

A. y^x = (x)^(1/y)

B. x^(1/y) = y^(1/x)

C. x^y = y^x

D. x^y = y^(1/x)

Q. 12 If A : B = 3 : 4, then what is the value of the expression [(3A²+4B)/(3A-4B²)]

A. 43/55

B. -43/55

C. 47/55

D. cannot be determined

Q. 13 If A= {x : xis a multiple of 7},

B = {x : x is a multiple of 5} and

C = {x: x is a multiple of35}, then which one of the following is a null set ?

A. (A-B) U C

B. (A-B)-C

C. (A∩B)∩C

D. (A∩B)-C

Q. 14 If x = 2 + 2^⅔ + 2^⅓, then what is the value of x³ -6x² + 6x?

A. 3

B. 2

C. 1

D. 0

Q. 15 If √x/y = 24/5 +√y/x and x+y =26 , then what is the value of xy ?

A. 5

B. 15

C. 25

D. 30

Q. 16 What is the solution of the equation x log₁₀(10/3) + log₁₀3 = log₁₀(2 + 3ⁿ) + n ?

A. 10

B. 3

C. 1

D. 0

Q. 17 If α and β are the roots of the equation x2 + px + q = 0, then what is α2 + β2 equal to?

A. p² – 2q

B. q² – 2p

C. p² + 2q

D. q² – q

Q. 18 If a³ = 335 + b³ and a = 5 + b, then what is the value of a + b (given that a > 0 and b > 0)?

A. 7

B. 9

C. 16

D. 49

Q. 19 If 9ⁱ 3ⁿ = 2187 and 2³ⁱ 2²ⁿ – 4ⁱ ⁿ = 0 then what is the value of (i + n) ?

A. 1

B. 3

C. 5

D. 7

Q. 20 The pair of linear equations kx+3y+1 = 0 and 2x+y+3 =0 intersect each other if :

A. k= 6

B. k is not equal to 6

C. k =0

D. k is not equal to 0

Q. 21 The number of prime numbers which are less than 100 is

A. 24

B. 25

C. 26

D. 27

Q. 22 The cost of a diamond varies directly as the square of its weight. A diamond broke into four pieces with their weights in the ratio of 1:2:3:4. If the loss in total value of the diamond was the ₹ 70,000, what was the price of the original diamond?

A. ₹ 1,00,000

B. ₹ 1,40,000

C. ₹ 1,50,000

D. ₹ 1,75,000

Q. 23 In a 100 m race , A runs at speed 5/3 m/s .If A gives a start of 4m to B and still beats him by 12 sec what is the speed of B?

A. 5/4 m/s

B. 7/5 m/s

C. 4/3 m/s

D. 6/5 m/s

Q. 24 If 15 men take 21 days of 8 hours each to do a piece of work, then what is the number of days of 6 hours each that 21 women would take, if 3 women would do as much work as 2 men?

A. 18

B. 20

C. 25

D. 30

Q. 25 What number must be substracted from both the numerator and denominator of the fraction 27/35 so that it becomes 2/3

A. 6

B. 8

C. 9

D. 11

Q. 26 A sum of Rs 8,400 was taken as a loan. This is to be paid in two equal instalments. If the rate of interest is 10% per annum, compounded annually, then the value of each instalment is

A. Rs 4,200

B. Rs 4,480

C. Rs 4,840

D. none of the above

Q. 27 Leela got married 6 years ago .Today her age is 1(1/4) times at the age of her mariage .Her sons age is 1/10 times her age .What is the present age of her son ?

A. 1 year

B. 2 years

C. 3 years

D. 4 years

Q. 28 A and B working together can finish a piece of work in 12 days while B alone can finish it in 30 days. In how many days can A alone finish the work?

A. 18 days

B. 20 days

C. 24 days

D. 25 days

Q. 29 The value of i which satisfy the equation 5¹ ⁺ ⁱ + 5 ¹ ⁻ ⁱ = 26?

A. -1, 1

B. 0, 1

C. 1, 2

D. -1, 0

Q. 30 If 5 men can do a piece of work in 10 days and 12 women can do the same work in 15 days, the number of days required to complete the work by 5 men and 6 women is

A. 7 (1/2 ) days

B. 8 days

C. 9 (1/2 ) days

D. 12 days

Q. 31 A passenger train departs from Delhi at 6 p.m. for Mumbai. At 9 p.m., an express train, whose average speed exceeds that of the passenger train by 15 km/hour leaves Mumbai for Delhi. Two trains meet each other mid-route. At what time do they meet, given that the distance between the cities is 1080 km?

A. 4 p.m.

B. 2 a.m

C. 12 midnight

D. 6 a.m

Q. 32 In a class of 49 students, the ratio of girls to boys is 4 : 3. If 4 girls leave the class, the ratio of girls to boys would be

A. 11:7

B. 8:7

C. 6:5

D. 9:8

Q. 33 If a + b = 5 and ab = 6, then what is the value of a³ + b³ ?

A. 35

B. 40

C. 90

D. 125

Q. 34 Rajendra bought a mobile with 25% discount on the selling price. If the mobile cost him Rs 4,875, what is the original selling price of the mobile?

A. Rs 6,300

B. Rs 6,400

C. Rs 6,500

D. Rs 6,600

Q. 35 A 225 m long train is running at a speed of 30 km/hour. How much time does it take to cross a man running at 3 km/hour in the same direction?

A. 40 seconds

B. 30 seconds

C. 25 seconds

D. 15 seconds

Q. 36 Which one among the following is the largest?

A. 7/9

B. 11/14

C. 3/4

D. 10/13

Q. 37 The difference between the simple and the compound interest on a certain sum of money at 4% per annum in 2 years is Rs 10. What is the sum?

A. Rs 5,000

B. Rs 6,000

C. Rs 6,250

D. Rs 7,500

Q. 38 If a% of a + b% of b = 2% of ab, then what percent of a is b?

A. 50%

B. 75%

C. 100%

D. Cannot be determined

Q. 39 5/9th part of a village are males .If 30% males are married , the percentage of unmarried females in the population is ?

A. 20(2/9)

B. 27(2/9)

C. 27(7/9)

D. 29(2/9)

Q. 40 Sunil wants to spend Rs 200 on two types of sweets, costing Rs 7 and Rs 10 respectively. What is the maximum number of sweets he can get so that no money is left over?

A. 25

B. 26

C. 27

D. 28

Q. 41 What is the LCM of x³ + 8, x² + 5x + 6 and x³ + 4x² + 4x

A. x(x + 2)² (x + 3) (x² – 2x + 4)

B. x(x – 2)² (x – 3) (x² + 2x + 4)

C. (x + 2)² (x + 3) (x² – 2x + 4)

D. (x – 2)² (x – 3) (x² – 2x + 4)

Q. 42 The HCF of two expressions p and q is 1. What is the reciprocal of their LCM?

A. p + q

B. p – q

C. pq

D. (pq)⁻¹

Q. 43 What is the value of ∛4(12/125)?

A. 1(3/5)

B. 1(2/5)

C. 1(4/5)

D. 2(2/5)

Q. 44 A thief is spotted by a policeman from a distance of 100 m. When the policeman starts the chase, the thief also starts running. If the speed of the thief is 8 km/hour and that of the policeman is 10 km/hour, then how far will the thief have to run before he is overtaken?

A. 200 m

B. 300 m

C. 400 m

D. 500 m

Q. 45 Aman and Alok attempted to solve a quadratic equation. Aman made a mistake in writing down the constant term and ended up in roots (4, 3) . Alok made a mistake in writing down the coefficient of x to get roots (3, 2). The correct roots of the equation are

A. -4, -3

B. 6,1

C. 4. 3

D. -6, -1

Q. 46 Consider the following statements:

1. Of two consecutive integers, one is even.

2. Square of an odd integer is of the form 8n + 1.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. neither 1 nor 2

Q. 47 The system of equations 2x + 4y = 6 and 4x + 8y = 8 is

A. Consistent with a unique solution

B. Consistent with infinitely many solutions

C. Inconsistent

D. None of the above

Q. 48 (N^p─1 ─1) is a multiple of p, if N is prime to p and p is a

A. Prime number

B. rational number

C. real number

D. composite number

Q. 49 The ratio of two numbers is 1 : 5 and their product is 320. What is the difference between the squares of these two numbers?

A. 1024

B. 1256

C. 1536

D. 1640

Q. 50 25 kg of alloy X is mixed with 125 kg of alloy Y. If the amount of lead and tin in the alloy X is in the ratio 1 : 2 and the amount of lead and tin in the alloy Y is in the ratio 2 : 3, then what is the ratio of lead to tin in the mixture?

A. 1:2

B. 2:3

C. 3:5

D. 7 :11

Q. 51 The mean of 5 numbers is 15. If one more number is included, the mean of the 6 numbers becomes 17. What is the included number?

A. 24

B. 25

C. 26

D. 27

Q. 52 The mean marks obtained by 300 students in a subject are 60. The mean of top 100 students was found to be 80 and the mean of last 100 students was found to be 50. The mean marks of the remaining 100 students are

A. 70

B. 65

C. 60

D. 50

Q. 53 Consider the following distribution:

If the mean of the above distribution is 50, what is the value of f?

A. 24

B. 34

C. 56

D. 96

Q. 54 In a pie diagram, there are four slices with angles 150°, 90°, 60° and 60°. A new pie diagram is formed by deleting one of the slices having angle 60° in the given pie diagram. In the new pie diagram

A. The largest slice has angle 150°

B. The smallest slice has angle 70°

C. The largest slice has angle 180°

D. The smallest slice has angle 90°

Q. 55 In an asymmetrical distribution, if the mean and median of the distribution are 270 and 220 respectively, then the mode of the data is

A. 120

B. 220

C. 280

D. 370

Q. 56 Let a,b,c,d,e,f,g be consecutive even number and j,k,l,m,n be consecutive odd number. What is the average of all the numbers

A. 3(a + n)/2

B. (5l + 7d)/4

C. (a + b + m + n)/4

D. None of the above

Q. 57 An individual purchases three qualities of pencils. The relevant data is given below: It is known that the average price per pencil is Rs 1.25. What is the value of x?

A. Rs 10

B. Rs 30

C. Rs 40

D. Rs 60

Q. 58 Consider the following frequency distribution:

What are the value of f1 and f2 respectively?

A. 10 and 17

B. 17 and 10

C. 11 and 16

D. 16 and 11

Q. 59 If D is the number of degrees and R is the number of radius is an angle θ,then which one of the follwoing is correct ?

A. πD= 180 R

B. πD= 90 R

C. πR= 180D

D. πR= 90D

Q. 60 What is the minimum value of 9 tan ²θ + 4 cot ²θ

A. 6

B. 9

C. 12

D. 13

Q. 61 If , for the given value , what is the valur of 4z²(x²+y²) eqaul to ?

A. (x²+y²)³

B. (x²-y²)²

C. (x²-y²)³

D. (x²+y²)²

Q. 62 If cosθ₁+cosθ₂+cosθ₃= 3 then what is the value of sinθ₁+sinθ₂+sinθ₃ equal to ?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Q. 63 What is the value of the θ which satisfies cos θ + tan θ = 1?

A. 0°

B. 30°

C. 45°

D. 60°

Q. 64 What is the value of the given eqaution?

A. √2

B. 2√2

C. √2 tan x

D. 0

Q. 65 What is the given value(in the figure) equal to?

A. cos²A – sin² A

B. cosA – sin A

C. 1

D. 2

Q. 66 If 7 sin²x + 3 cos²x = 4, 0 < x < 90° , then what is the value of tan x ?

A. √2

B. 1

C. √3/2

D. 1/√3

Q. 67 An aeroplane flying at a height of 300 m above the ground passes vertically above another plane at an instant when the angles of elevation of the two planes from the same point on the ground are 60° and 45° respectively. What is the height of the lower plane from the ground?

A. 100 √3 m

B. 100/√3 m

C. 50 √3 m

D. 150 (√3+1) m

Q. 68 If x = a cos θ + b sin θ and y = a sin θ – b cos θ, then what is x^2 + y^2 equal to?

A. 2ab

B. a + b

C. a² + b²

D. a² – b²

Q. 69 From the top of a building 90 m high, the angles of depression of the top and the bottom of a tree are 30° and 45° respectively. What is the height of the tree?

A. 30√3 m

B. 90 -30√3 m

C. 90 + 30√3 m

D. 60+ 30√3 m

Q. 70 Which one of the following triples does not represent the sides of a triangle?

A. (3, 4, 5)

B. (4, 7, 10)

C. (3, 6, 8)

D. (2, 3, 6)

Q. 71 If the perimeter of a rectangle is 10 cm and the area is 4 cm2, then its length is

A. 6 cm

B. 5 cm

C. 4.5 cm

D. 4 cm

Q. 72 The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2 : 4 : 3. The smallest angle of the triangle is

A. 20°

B. 40°

C. 50°

D. 60°

Q. 73 A ball of radius 1 cm is put into a cylindrical pipe so that it fits inside the pipe. If the length of the pipe is 14 m, what is the surface area of the pipe?

A. 2200 square cm

B. 4400 square cm

C. 8800 square cm

D. 17600 square cm

Q. 74 The areas of two circular fields are in the ratio 16 : 49. If the radius of the bigger field is 14 m, then what is the radius of the smaller field?

A. 4 m

B. 8 m

C. 9 m

D. 10 m

Q. 75 Let ABCD be a rectangle. Let P, Q, R, S be the mid-points of sides AB, BC, CD, DA respectively. Then the quadrilateral PQRS is a

A. Square

B. Rectangle, but need not be a square

C. Rhombus, but need not be a square

D. Parallelogram, but need not be a rhombus

Q. 76 Let P , Q , R be the mid points of AB, BC and CA of a triangle ABC .If the area of the trianfgle ABC is 5 units , what is the area of traingle PQR ?

A. 5/3 sqaure units

B. 5/2√2 sqaure units

C. 5/4 sqaure units

D. 1 sqaure units

Q. 77 If each of the dimensions of a rectangle is increased by 200%, the area is increased by

A. 300%

B. 400%

C. 600%

D. 800%

Q. 78 Three circles each of radius 3.5 cm touch one another . The area subtended between them is :

A. 6(√3π−2)

B. 6(2π−√3)

C. 49/ 8 (2√3 – π )

D. 49/ 8 (√3 – π )

Q. 79 The area of regular hexagon of side ‘a’ is equal to

A. (√2/3) a² square units

B. (3√3/2) a² square units

C. (1/2) a² square units

D. (√3/2) a² square units

Q. 80 ABCDEF is a regular polygon. Two poles at C and D are standing vertically and subtend angles of elevation 30° and 60° at A respectively. What is the ratio of the height of the pole at C to that of the pole at D?

A. 1 :1

B. 1 :2√3

C. 2√3 : 1

D. 2 : √3

Q. 81 Two parallel chords of a circle whose diameter is 13 cm are respectively 5 cm and 12 cm in length. If both the chords are on the same side of the diameter, then the distance between these chords is

A. 5. 5 cm

B. 5 cm

C. 3.5 cm

D. 3 cm

Q. 82 If the radius of a right circular cone is increased by p% without increasing its height, then what is the percentage increase in the volume of the cone?

A. p²

B. 2p²

C. p²/100

D. p(2+p²/100)

Q. 83 A copper wire when bent in the form of a square encloses an area of 121 cm². If the same wire is bent in the form of a circle, it encloses an area equal to

A. 121 cm².

B. 144 cm².

C. 154 cm².

D. 168 cm².

Q. 84 ABC is a triangle and D is the point on the side BC .IF BC = 12 cm ,BD= 9 cm and ∠ADC = ∠BAC then the length of AC is equal to

A. 5 cm

B. 6 cm

C. 8 cm

D. 9 cm

Q. 85 If the surface area of a sphere is reduced to one-ninth of the area, its radius reduces to

A. 1/4th

B. 1/3rd

C. 1/5th

D. 1/9th

Q. 86 In a trapezium ABCD, AB is parallel to CD and the diagonals intersect each other at O. What is the ratio of OA to OC equal to?

A. Ratio of OB to OD

B. Ratio of BC to CD

C. Ratio of AD to AB

D. Ratio of AC to BD

Q. 87 Ice-cream, completely filled in a cylinder of diameter 35 cm and height 32 cm, is to be served by completely filling identical disposable cones of diameter 4 cm and height 7 cm. The maximum number of persons that can be served in this way is

A. 950

B. 1000

C. 1050

D. 1100

Q. 88 The radius of a circle is increased so that its circumference increases by 15%. The area of the circle will increase by

A. 31.25%

B. 32.25%

C. 33.25%

D. 34.25%

Q. 89 ABCD is a rectangle. The diagonals AC and BD intersect at O. If AB = 32 cm and AD = 24 cm, then what is OD equal to?

A. 22 cm

B. 20 cm

C. 18 cm

D. 16 cm

Q. 90 A field is divided into four regions as shown in the given figure. What is the area of the field in square metres?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 91 In the figure given below, D is the diameter of each circle. What is the diameter of the shaded circle?

A. D(√2−1)

B. D(√2+1)

C. D(√2+2)

D. D(2-√2)

Q. 92 In the figure given below, AC is parallel to ED and AB = DE = 5 cm and BC = 7 cm. What is the area ABDE : area BDE : area BCD equal to?

A. 10 : 5 : 7

B. 8 : 4 : 7

C. 2 : 1 : 2

D. 8 : 4 : 5

Q. 93 In the figure given below, PQRS is a parallelogram. PA bisects angle P and SA bisects angle S. What is angle PAS equal to?

A. 60°

B. 75°

C. 90°

D. 100°

Q. 94 In thefigure given below ∠A = 80° and ∠ABC = 60° BD and CD bisect angels B and C resectively .What are the values of X and y respectively /?

A. 10 and 130

B. 10 and 125

C. 20 and 130

D. 20 and 125

Q. 95 In the figure given below , PQR is the non -isoceles right angled triangle , right angled at Q .If LM and QT are parellel and QT = PT , thenwhats is ∠RLM equals to ?

A. ∠PQT

B. ∠LRM

C. ∠RML

D. ∠QPT

Q. 96 In the figure given below, PQ is parellelto Rs and PR is parellel to QS .IF ∠LPR = 35° and ∠UST= 70° ,then what is MTP equal to ?

A. 55°

B. 70°

C. 75°

D. 80°

Q. 97 In the figure given below, ABC is a triangle with AB=BC and D is the interoir point of traingle ABC such that ∠DAC = ∠DCA

Consider the following statements:

1. Triangle ADC is an isosceles triangle.

2. D is the centroid of the triangle ABC.

3. Triangle ABD is congruent to the triangle CBD.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 98 In the figure given below , M is the mid point of AB and ∠DAB = ∠CBA and ∠AMC = ∠BMD then the traingle ADM is congruent to the traingle BCM by

A. SAS rule

B. SSS rule

C. ASA rule

D. AAA rule

Q. 99 ABCD is a sqaure and x is the mid point of AB and Y is the mid poin of Bc..Consider the following statements .

I.Triangles ADX and BAY are congreunet

II. ∠DXA = ∠AYB

III.DX is inclined to angle 60 deg at AY

IV.DX is perpendicular to AY

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 2, 3 and 4 only

B. 1, 2 and 4 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, and \ 2 only

Q. 100 From an aeroplane vertically over a straight horizontal road, the angles of depression of two consecutive kilometer-stones on the opposite sides of the aeroplane are observed to be α and β. The height of the aeroplane above the road is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	B	B	A	A	B	A	C	A	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	D	D	B	C	D	A	B	C	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	A	C	D	D	C	C	B	A	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	B	A	C	B	B	C	C	C	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	D	A	C	B	C	C	A	C	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	D	A	C	A	D	B	C	A	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	A	A	A	C	D	A	C	B	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	B	C	B	C	C	D	C	B	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	D	C	B	B	A	C	B	B	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	A	C	C	B	C	C	C	D	B

CDS(II) Exam 2017 General Knowledge Previous Year Paper

CDSE 2 2017 General Knowledge

Q. 1 Which tribal groups is dominantly found in the ‘Blue mountains’?

A. lambasdas

B. gonds

C. Jarawas

D. Todas

Q. 2 Which geographer relate to ‘primate city’ concept?

A. August Losch

B. Mark Jefferson

C. Griffith Taylor

D. W. Christaller

Q. 3 Which island is the largest?

A. Borneo

B. Madagascar

C. New Guinea

D. Sumatra

Q. 4 Arrange and select following Tiger Reserves of India from North to South:

1. Dudhwa

2. Panna

3.Pench

4.Indravati

A. 4, 3, 2, 1

B. 2, 1, 4, 3

C. 1, 2, 3, 4

D. 1, 3, 2, 4

Q. 5 Which proteins give lustrous shiny appearence to silk fibre?

A. fibrin

B. sericin

C. collagen

D. nectin

Q. 6 Blue Baby Syndrome is caused by the contamination of

A. nitrite (NO₂⁻)

B. sulphite ( SO₃²⁻)

C. nitrate(NO₃⁻)

D. sulphate(S0₄²⁻)

Q. 7 Match list I and list II and select correct code:

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 8 Human insulin molecule is composed of one chain having α-21 amino acids and one chain having β-30 amino acids. How many functional insulin genes occur in adult humans?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 9 Pearl is a hard object produced within the soft tissues of a mollusk. Which is main constituent of pearl?

A. calcium carbonate

B. calcium oxide

C. calcium nitrate

D. calcium sulphate

Q. 10 A biological community in its environment such as a pond, an ocean , a forest, even an aquarium is known as

A. biome

B. community

C. abiotic environment

D. ecosystem

Q. 11 An electron and a proton starting from rest are accelerated through a potential difference of 1000 V. Which one is correct statement?

A. The kinetic energy of both the particles will be different.

B. The speed of the electron will be higher than that of the proton.

C. The speed of the proton will be higher than that of the electron.

D. The speed of the electron and the proton will be equal.

Q. 12 Two wires are made having same length l and area of cross-section A. Wire 1 is made of copper and wire 2 is made of aluminium. It is given that the electrical conductivity of copper is more than that of aluminium. In this context, which is correct?

A. the resistance of wire 1 will be higher than that of wire 2.

B. the resistance of wire 2 will be higher than that of wire 1.

C. the resistance will be same for both wires.

D. if same current is flown through both the wires, the power dissipated will be same.

Q. 13 A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of 40° with respect to surface normal. When it gets reflected from the mirror, it undergoes a deviation of

A. 40°

B. 100°

C. 90°

D. 80°

Q. 14 Infrared, visible and ultraviolet radiations/light have different properties. Which statement is incorrect?

A. the wavelength of infrared is more than that of ultraviolet radiation.

B. The wavelength of ultraviolet is smaller than that of visible light.

C. the photon energy of visible light is more than that of infrared light.

D. the photon energy of ultraviolet is lesser than that of visible light.

Q. 15 After using for some time, big transformers get heated up. This is due to fact that:

1. current produces heat in the transformers.

2. hysteresis loss occurs in the transformers.

3. liquid used for cooling gets heated.

A. 1

B. 2 , 3

C. 1, 2

D. 1, 2, 3

Q. 16 A person is standing on a frictionless horizontal ground. How can he move by a certain distance on this ground?

A. by sneezing

B. by jumping

C. by running

D. by rolling

Q. 17 In the reaction between hydrogen sulphate ion and water, water acts as

A. an acid

B. a base

C. a salt

D. an inert medium

Q. 18 How many hydrogen atoms are contained in 1.50g of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) ?

A. 3.01 X 10²²

B. 1.20 X 10²³

C. 2.40 X 10²³

D. 6.02 X 10²²

Q. 19 The paste of a white material in water is used to maintain a fractures bone fixed in place. The white material used is called

A. bleaching powder

B. plaster of paris

C. powder of zinc oxide

D. lime powder

Q. 20 Which glass is used for making optical instruments?

A. pyrex glass

B. soft glass

C. hard glass

D. flint glass

Q. 21 Most ozone gas ( about 90%) is located in the atmospheric layer of

A. ionosphere

B. troposhere

C. stratosphere

D. mesosphere

Q. 22 What are the main constituents of biogas?

A. methane, sulphur dioxide

B. methane , carbon dioxide

C. methane, hydrogen , nitric oxide

D. methane , nitric oxide

Q. 23 Which two Indian states of the four mentioned below, it is necessary to hold certain minimum educational qualifications to be eligible to contest Panchayat Elections?

1. Punjab

2. Haryana

3. Karnataka

4. Rajasthan

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 4

C. 2 and 3

D. 1 and 4

Q. 24 Which statements are true about delegation?

1. It is the abdication of responsibility.

2. It means conferring of specified authority by a lower authority to a higher one.

3. It is subject to supervision and review.

4. It is a method of dividing authority in the organization.

A. 3

B. 2, 4

C. 3, 4

D. 1, 2, 4

Q. 25 Which features were borrowed by the constitution of India from British Constitution?

1. Rule of Law

2. Law – making Procedure

3. Independence of Judiciary

4. Parliamentary System

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 , 3, 4

C. 1 and 4

D. 1 , 2, 4

Q. 26 Which Schedules of the Constitution of India has fixed the number of Members of Rajya Sabha to be elected from each state?

A. fifth schedule

B. third schedule

C. sixth schedule

D. fourth schedule

Q. 27 Which statements about various horticulture crop of India for year 2016-17 is not correct?

A. The area under horticulture crops has increased over precious year.

B. Fruit production during the current year is higher than the previous year.

C. Rate of increase in onion production is more than potato production in the current year in comparison to previous year.

D. The major tomato – growing states are Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Odisha and Gujarat.

Q. 28 The phenomenon of demographic dividend of a country relates to

A. a sharp decline in the total population

B. an increase in working age population

C. a decline in infant mortality rate

D. an increase in sex ratio

Q. 29 Arrange events in sequential order as they happened in India:

1. Mahalanobis Model

2.Plan Holiday

3. Rolling Plan

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 3, 2, 1

C. 2, 3, 1

D. 1,3, 2

Q. 30 The monetary policy in India uses which of the tools?

A. Bank rate

B. open market operations

C. public debt

D. public revenue

Q. 31 Devaluation of currency will be more beneficial if prices of

A. domestic good remain constant

B. exports become cheaper to importers

C. imports remain constant

D. exports rise proportionately

Q. 32 Examine the two statements and select correct code for answer.

Code:

A. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is correct explanation of Statement I.

B. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is not correct explanation of Statement I.

C. Statement I is true but statement II is false.

D. Statement I is false but statement II is true.

Statement I : Skin cancer is generally caused by the ultraviolet radiation.

Statement II: Stratosphere allows ultraviolet radiation to enter the earth from the sun.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 33 Examine the two statements and select correct code for answer.

Code:

A. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is correct explanation of Statement I.

B. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is not correct explanation of Statement I.

C. Statement I is true but statement II is false.

D. Statement I is false but statement II is true.

STATEMENT I: The interior part of Maharashtra does not receive adequate rain in the summer season.

STATEMENT II : The interior part of Maharashtra lies in the rain shadow of the Western Ghat.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 34 Examine the two statements and select correct code for answer.

Code:

A. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is correct explanation of Statement I.

B. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is not correct explanation of Statement I.

C. Statement I is true but statement II is false.

D. Statement I is false but statement II is true.

STATEMENT I : Global warming signifies the rise in global surface temperature.

STATEMENT II: The increase of concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere causes the rise in global surface temperature.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 35 Examine the two statements and select correct code for answer.

Code:

A. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is correct explanation of Statement I.

B. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is not correct explanation of Statement I.

C. Statement I is true but statement II is false.

D. Statement I is false but statement II is true.

STATEMENT I: The communists left the All India Trade Union Congress in 1931.

STATEMENT II: By 1928, the communists were no longer working with the mainstream national movement.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 36 Examine the two statements and select correct code for answer.

Code:

A. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is correct explanation of Statement I.

B. Both the statements are individually true and statement II is not correct explanation of Statement I.

C. Statement I is true but statement II is false.

D. Statement I is false but statement II is true.

STATEMENT I: The early Aryans, who were essentially pastoral, did not develop any political structure which could measure up to a state in either ancient or modern sense.

STATEMENT II: Kingship was the same as tribal chiefship; the term Rajan being used for tribal chief who was primarily a military leader and who ruled over his people and not over any specified area.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 37 Which peasant struggle was an outcome of British opium policy?

A. Phulaguri Dhawa ( 1861)

B. Birsaite Ulgulan ( 1899 – 1900)

C. Pabna Revolt ( 1873)

D. Maratha Peasant Uprising (1875)

Q. 38 Which statement about Sayyid brothers during period of Later Mughals is not true?

A. They brought Jahandar Shah to power.

B. They wielded administrative power.

C. They followed a tolerant religious policy.

D. They reached an agreement with King Shahu.

Q. 39 Which statements are correct with regard to the heterdix sect between sixth and fourth century BC?

1. The Jain ideas were already being circulated in the seventh century BC by Parshva.

2. Although Buddhism, and to a lesser extent Jainism, took account of the changes in material life and reacted against orthodoxy, neither of these sought to abolish the caste system.

3. The first female disciple of Mahavira is said to have been a captures slave woman.

4. Buddha held that nuns could attain spiritual liberation just like a monk and granted them an equal status in the mendicant order.

A. 1, 2, 3, 4

B. 1, 2, 3

C. 1, ,2 ,4

D. 3, 4

Q. 40 Which combinations of year and event concerning the French Revolution is correct?

A. 1789 : Napoleonic Code

B. 1791 : Tennis Court Oath

C. 1792 : National Convention

D. 1804 : New Constitution of France

Q. 41 Who among is the author of the book ‘The Social Contract’?

A. Voltaire

B. Hobbes

C. Locke

D. Rousseau

Q. 42 Who is the recipient of Jnanpith Award, 2016 ?

A. Shankha Ghosh

B. Raghuveer Chaudhari

C. Pratibha Ray

D. Rehman Rahi

Q. 43 The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), which are adopted by the UNO in place of the Millenium Development Goals (MDGs), 2015 aim to achieve the 17 goals by the year

A. 2020

B. 2030

C. 2040

D. 2050

Q. 44 Teejan Bai, a recipient of the M.S. Subbulakshmi Centenary Award ,2016 is an exponent of

A. Kannada classical vocal

B. Kajari dance

C. Bihu dance

D. Pandvani, a traditional performing art

Q. 45 Who is recipient of Dadasaheb Phalke Award, 2016?

A. Nana Patekar

B. Manoj Kumar

C. Javed Akhtar

D. K. Viswanath

Q. 46 The Nobel Prize in Physics for the year 2016 was given to

A. David J. Thouless

B. F. Duncan M. Haldane

C. J. Michael Kosterlitz

D. All of them

Q. 47 Which political parties was launched by Irom Sharmila in Manipur?

A. People’s Resurgence and Justice Alliance

B. Manipur Resistance Alliance

C. Tribal Resistance Party

D. Revolutionary People’s Party

Q. 48 Which planet was explored by Cassini Mission launched by NASA, which ended in September 2017?

A. SUN

B. NEPTUNE

C. SATURN

D. JUPITER

Q. 49 Match list I with list II and select correct code

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 50 Match list I with list II and select the code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 51 Match list I with list II and select the code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 52 Match list I with list II and select the code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 53 One carbon credit is accepted as equivalent to

A. 100 kg of carbon

B. 100 kg of carbon dioxide

C. 1000 kg of carbon

D. 1000 kg of carbon dioxide

Q. 54 An emulsion consists of

A. one liquid and one solid

B. one liquid and one gas

C. two liquids

D. two solids

Q. 55 Which radioactive substances enter the human body through food chain and cause many physiological disorders?

A. strontium – 90

B. iodine – 131

C. cesium – 137

D. all of above

Q. 56 ‘ Xeriscaping’ is a concept related to

A. landscaping related to save water

B. landscaping related to save soil erosion

C. weathering of rock surface

D. all

Q. 57 Joule – Thomson is extremely useful and economical for attaining low temperature. The process can be categorized as

A. isobaric process

B. isenthalpic process

C. adiabatic process

D. isochoric process

Q. 58 Ultrasonic waves are produced by making use of

A. ferromagnetic material

B. ferrimagnetic material

C. piezoelectric material

D. pyroelectric material

Q. 59 A person throws an object on a horizontal frictionless plane surface. It is noticed that there are two forces acting on this object –

1. gravitational pull and

2. normal reaction of the surface .

According to the third law of motion, the net resultant force is zero. Which can be said for the motion of the object?

A. the object will move with acceleration

B. the object will move with deceleration.

C. the object will move with constant speed, but varying direction.

D. the object will move with constant velocity

Q. 60 Select correct statements about principal of a nuclear reactor and a nuclear bomb.

1. The chain reaction process is used in nuclear bombs to release a vast amount of energy, but in nuclear reactors, there is no chain reaction.

2. In a nuclear reactor, the reaction is controlled, while in nuclear bombs, the reaction is uncontrolled.

3. In a nuclear reactor, all operating reactors are ‘critical’ while there is no question of critically in case of a nuclear bomb.

4.Nuclear reactors do not use moderators, while nuclear bombs use them.

A. 1 , 3

B. 2, 3

C. 4

D. 1, 4

Q. 61 The foul smell of a urine of a healthy man having healthy food, when spilled on floor, is mainly due to bacterial decomposition of

A. urea into sulphur dioxide

B. sugar into carbon dioxide

C. lipids into methane

D. urea into ammonia

Q. 62 Desalination of seawater is done by using reverse osmosis. The pressure applied to the solution is

A. larger than osmotic pressure

B. smaller than osmotic pressure

C. equal to osmotic pressure

D. equal to atmospheric pressure

Q. 63 Which polymers does not contain glucose units?

A. glycogen

B. starch

C. cellulose

D. rubber

Q. 64 Tincture of iodine is an antiseptic for fresh wounds. It is a dilute solution of elemental iodine, which does not contain

A. water

B. acetone

C. alcohol

D. potassium iodine

Q. 65 The Fundamental Rights guaranteed in the Constitution of India can be suspended only by

A. a proclamation of National Emergency

B. an Act passed by the Parliament

C. an amendment to the Constitution of India

D. the judicial decisions of Supreme Court

Q. 66 Which statements are correct about 73th and 74th Constitution Amendment Act?

1. It makes it mandatory for all States to establish a three – tier system of Government.

2. Representatives should be directly elected for five years.

3. There should be mandatory reservation of one third of all seats in all Panchayats at all levels for women.

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1, 2, 3

D. 3

Q. 67 A Joint Sitting of the Parliament is reported to, for resolving the deadlock between two Houses of the Parliament for passing which of the Bills?

1. Money Bill

2. Constitutional Amendment Bill

3. Ordinary Bill

A. 1

B. 2 , 3

C. 3

D. 1, 2, 3

Q. 68 Which statements is/are correct?

1. The Directive Principles of State Policy are meant for promoting social and economic democracy in India.

2. The Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III of the Constitution of India are ordinarily subject to reasonable restrictions.

3. Secularism is one of the basic features of Constitution of any country.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 1 , 2

D. 1, 2, 3

Q. 69 The President of India is elected by an Electoral College comprising of elected members of which of following?

1. Both the Houses of the Parliament.

2. The Legislative Assemblies of States

3. The Legislative Councils of States

4. The Legislative Assemblies of NCT of Delhi and Puducherry

A. 1, 2

B. 1, 2,3

C. 1, 2, 4

D. 3, 4

Q. 70 Which statement are correct about the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes under the provisions of the Constitution of India:

1. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the Government educational institutions.

2. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational aided by the State.

3. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational not aided by the State.

4. State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the minority educational institutions as described in Article 30.

A. 1 , 2

B. 3, 4

C. 1, 2, 3

D. 1, 2, 3, 4

Q. 71 Article 21 of the Constitution of India includes

1. Right of transgenders

2. Rights of craniopagus twins

3. Rights of mentally retarded women to bear a child

A. 1

B. 1, 2

C. 2, 3

D. 1, 2, 3

Q. 72 Who among was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

A. N. G. Ayyangar

B. K. M. Munshi

C. B. N. Rau

D. Muhammad Saadullah

Q. 73 Due to which following factors, the Industrial Revolution took place in England in the 18th century?

1. The discovery of coal and iron deposits.

2. The discovery of steam power.

3. The introduction of railways.

4. The regular supply of raw materials.

A. 1, 2

B. 2, 3, 4

C. 1, 3

D. 1, 2,3 , 4

Q. 74 Which indicators have been used by the World Economic Forum to calculate Global Competitiveness Index for 2016 -17?

1. Efficiency enhancer subindex

2. Innovation and sophistication factors subindex

3. Life expectancy enhancer subindex

A. 1, 2

B. 2, 3

C. 1, 3

D. 1, 2, 3

Q. 75 In India, the base year of the new GDP series has been shifted from 2004 – 05 to

A. 2007 -08

B. 2008 -09

C. 2010 -11

D. 2011 -12

Q. 76 Match list I with list II and select correct code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 77 Which chronological order is correct ?

1. Tughlaqabad Fort

2. Bada Gumbad in Lodhi Garden

3. Qutub Minar

4. Fatehpur Sikri

A. 3, 1, 4, 2

B. 3, 1, 2, 4

C. 1, 3, 2, 4

D. 1, 3, 4, 2

Q. 78 With regard to nature of Mughal State, who among scholars that ‘ the peculiar feature of the State in Mughal India was that it served not merely as the protective arm of the exploiting classes, but was itself the principal instrument of exploitation’?

A. Irfan Habib

B. Satish Chandra

C. Athar Ali

D. J . F. Richards

Q. 79 Match list I with list II and select correct code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 80 Who was editor of the journal Indian Social Reformer that was started in 1890?

A. K. T. Telang

B. Veeresalingam

C. N. G. Chandavarkar

D. K. N. Natarajan

Q. 81 Match list I with list II and select correct code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 82 Match list I with list II and select correct code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 83 Which statements are correct with respect to the Indian Peninsular Plateau?

1. The Deccan Plateau gradually rises from North to South.

2. The Malwa Plateau dominates the Vindhyan scarps, forming the Eastern flank of the plateau.

3. The Western Satpuras separate the Narmada and Tapi rivers.

4. The Chota Nagpur Plateau is composed of Archaeon granite and gneiss rocks.

A. 1, 2, 3, 4

B. 1, 3, 4

C. 2, 4

D. 1, 3

Q. 84 Which criteria got the highest weight for determination of shares of States in the formula given by the 14th Finance Commission?

A. population

B. income distance

C. area

D. Tax effort

Q. 85 A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha can be held up by the Rajya Sabha for how many weeks?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

Q. 86 Constitutional safeguards available to Civil Servants are ensured by

A. Article 310

B. Article 311

C. Article 312

D. Article 317

Q. 87 A writ issued to secure the release of a person found to be detained illegally is

A. Mandamus

B. Habeas corpus

C. Certiorari

D. Prohibition

Q. 88 Which cannot be introduced first in Rajya Sabha?

A. constitutional Amendment

B. CAG Report

C. Annual Financial Statement

D. Bill to alter the boundaries of any State

Q. 89 The National Commision for Women was created by

A. an amendment in the Constitution of India

B. a decision of the Union Cabinet

C. an Act passed by the Parliament

D. an order of President of India

Q. 90 Who was the Chief Justice of India when Public Interest Litigation ( PIL) was introduced in the Indian Judicial System?

A. M. Hidayatullah

B. A. S. Anand

C. A. M. Ahmadi

D. P. N. Bhagwati

Q. 91 Which 12th century Sanskrit scholar was responsible for the compilation of ‘Nibandhas’ or digests of epic and Puranic texts?

A. Harsha

B. Govinda Chandra

C. Lakshmidhara

D. Kalidasa

Q. 92 Which scholar argued that ‘capital created underdevelopment not because it exploited the underdeveloped world, but because it did not exploit it enough’?

A. Bill Warren

B. Paul Baran

C. Geoffrey Kay

D. Lenin

Q. 93 Which river is praised in 5ht century Tamil epic, Silappadikaram?

A. Cauvery

B. Godavari

C. Saraswati

D. GANGES

Q. 94 Which statements about Harappan Culture is not correct?

A. it witnessed the first cities in the subcontinent.

B. it marks the first use of script, written from right to left.

C. it marks the earliest known use of iron as a medium for the art of sculpting.

D. it marks the earliest known use of stone as a medium for the art of sculpting.

Q. 95 Harshacharita has references to various presents sent by a ruler named Bhaskara to Harshavardhana. Bhaskara belonged to

A. Haryanka Dynasty of Magadha

B. Varman Dynasty of Assam

C. Nanda Dynasty of North India

D. None of above

Q. 96 Which lake are situated in Ladakh?

1. Tso Kar

2. Pangong Tso

3. Tsomgo

4. Tso Moriri

A. 1

B. 2, 3

C. 1, 2, 4

D. 2, 4

Q. 97 ‘ Tuvala’ has become a point of discussion recently. Why?

A. potato plant that could grow in high altitude

B. place in equatorial Africa, where snow is found.

C. New innovative technology to meet global warming.

D. A country under threat of submergence due to ice melting and sea level rise.

Q. 98 Which statements related to latitude are true?

1. Rainfall , temperature and vegetation vary with latitude.

2. The difference between the longest day and shortest day increases with latitude.

3. Indira Point is located approximately at 6° 45′ N latitude.

A. 1,2

B. 1, 3

C. 2, 3

D. 1, 2, 3

Q. 99 Match list I with list II and select correct code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 100 Which statements are correct?

1.Himalayan rivers have their origin in the snow covered areas, hence are dry in winter season.

2. Rivers of the Peninsular Plateau have reached maturity.

3. Himalayan rivers depict all the three stages of normal cycle of erosion.

A. 2

B. 1, 3

C. 2, 3

D. 1, 2,3

Q. 101 Match list I with list II and select correct code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 102 Which statements regarding Uniform Civil Code as provided under Article 44 of the Constitution Of India is not correct?

A. it is a Fundamental Right of every Indian Citizen.

B. The State shall endeavour to secure it for citizens throughout the territory of India.

C. it is not enforceable by any court

D. it is not enforceable by a court yet the Constitution requires that as a principle it should be fundamental in the governance of our country.

Q. 103 Which was founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy?

1. Atmiya Sabha

2. Brahmo Samaj

3. Prarthana Samaj

4. Arya Samaj

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 2

C. 1, 2

D. 1, 3. 4

Q. 104 Match list I with list II and select correct code.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 105 Which statements about the Gupta period in Indian History is not correct?

A. Sanskrit language and literature, after centuries of evolution, reached what has been described as a level of classical excellence through royal patronage.

B. The status of women was redefined. They were entitled to formal education and hence there were women teachers, philosophers and doctors. Early marriage was prohibited by law and they were given the right to property.

C. Decentralization of administrative authority was impacted by increased grants of land and villages with fiscal and administrative immunities to priests and temples.

D. Land grants paved the way for feudal developments and emergence of serfdom in India, resulting in the depression of the peasantry.

Q. 106 Which statements about All India Services is correct?

A. The All India Services may be created by an Act of Parliament.

B. The endorsement of the Rajya Sabha is not essential for the creation of the All India Services.

C. The rules of recruitment to be the All India Services are determined by the UPSC.

D. The conditioned of service to the All India Services may be altered by the UPSC.

Q. 107 Which statement about emergency provisions under the Constitution of India is not correct?

A. The powers of the union executive extend to giving directions to the States concerning the exercise of their powers.

B. The Union Executive can issue a provision relating to reduction of salaries of employees of the State Governments.

C. Governors have no emergency powers like the President of India

D. If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the State is threatened, he ay declare financial emergency in the State.

Q. 108 The National Handloom Day is observed on

A. 7 June

B. 17 July

C. 7 August

D. 17 September

Q. 109 Venus, the first environmental research satellite, was launched in August 2017 by which country?

A. India

B. Russia

C. China

D. Israel

Q. 110 Which was the theme of the World Environment Day, 2017?

A. Green Economy : Doe it include you ?

B. Connecting People to Nature

C. Think, Eat, Save

D. Many Species, one planet, one future

Q. 111 The all – women expedition of Indian Navy to circumnavigate the globe on the sailing vessel, INSV Tarini, is scheduled to have four stopovers. Which is not one of them?

A. Fremantle

B. Lyttelton

C. Port Stanley

D. Durban

Q. 112 Why was constitutional amendment needed for introducing GST?

A. States were not willing to agree with the Union for introduction of GST without amendment in the Constitution.

B. GST was to be implemented on concurrent base and Article 240 was inadequate for such a case.

C. The Empowered Committee of Finance Ministers had recommended for constitutional amendment.

D. The GST Council had recommended for constitutional amendment so that its power enhances.

Q. 113 Where is world’s first Partition Museum inaugurated recently?

A. New Delhi

B. Lahore

C. Amritsar

D. Islamabad

Q. 114 The Setu Bharatam Programme of the Government of India is a programme for

A. building bridges across major rivers for transport of goods

B. building bridges for safe and seamless travel on national highways

C. building roads to connect coastal areas

D. training of highway engineers at the entry level and service level

Q. 115 Which statement is not correct about the Global Environment Facility Grant Agreement, signed by India in August 2017 with the World Bank for ‘Ecosystems Service Improvement Project’ ?

A. The size of the project is about USD 25million.

B. The duration of the project is 15 years.

C. The project will entirely be financed by the World Bank out of its GEF Trust Fund.

D. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change will implement the Project.

Q. 116 UBI, as an alternative for subsidies in poverty alleviation stands for

A. union basic income

B. undefined basic income

C. unconditional basic income

D. universal basic income

Q. 117 Which authorities has recently launched the mobile apps ‘MyFASTag’ and ‘FASTag Partener’ ?

A. Telecom Regulatory Authority

B. National Highways Authority

C. Airports Economic Regulatory Authority

D. National Disaster Management Authority

Q. 118 ‘ Pragati’ scholarship scheme of Government of India is meant for

A. higher education of girls

B. technical education of girls

C. secondary education of girls

D. elementary education of girls

Q. 119 Which is not a feature of the Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana ( SAGY) ?

A. it focuses on community participation.

B. it is to be guided by a member of the Parliament

C. it aims at creating infrastructure for the village

D. a village development plan would be prepared for every identified Gram Panchayat.

Q. 120 Which is not included in the National Air Quality Index?

A. sulphur

B. nitrogen dioxide

C. lead

D. methane

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	B	C	C	B	C	C	B	A	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	B	B	D	C	A	B	D	B	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	B	B	C	D	D	C	B	A	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	C	A	A	A	A	A	A	A	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	D	A	B	D	D	D	A	C	A	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	D	D	C	D	A	B	C	D	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	A	D	B	A	B	C	C	C	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	C	D	A	D	A	B	A	D	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	C	B	B	A	B	B	C	C	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	C	A	C	B	C	D	D	A	C
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	D	A	C	C	B	A	D	C	D	B
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	D	B	C	B	B	D	B	B	C	D

CDS(I) Exam 2017 General Knowledge Previous Year Paper

CDSE 1 2017 General Knowledge

Q. 1 Polynucleotide chain of DNA contains

A. a nitrogenous base, deoxyribose sugar and phosphate group

B. a nitrogenous base, ribose sugar and phosphate group

C. deoxyribose sugar , ribose sugar and phosphate group

D. a nitrogenous base, and phosphate group only

Q. 2 The process of copying genetic information from one strand of DNA into RNA is termed as

A. translation

B. transcription

C. replication

D. mutation

Q. 3 AIDS can be caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). The transmission of HIV infection generally occurs through

A. eating contaminated food and water

B. transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products

C. inhaling polluted air

D. shaking hand with infected person

Q. 4 In human body, the cell growth and differentiation are highly controlled and regulated, but in cancer cells

A. there is a breakdown of these regulatory mechanism leading to formation of benign and malignant tumors

B. controlled cell division and over production of genetic material occur

C. RNA is mutated and produced in less amount

D. DNA is mutated and produced in less amount

Q. 5 Most viruses that infect plant possess

A. single stranded DNA

B. single stranded RNA

C. double stranded DNA and RNA

D. double stranded RNA only

Q. 6 Syngamy results in formation of

A. haploid zygote

B. diploid zygote

C. non-motile male gametes

D. motile male gametes

Q. 7 Bleeding of gums, falling of teeth, fragile bones and delayed wound healing occurs due to the deficiency of which one of the following vitamins

A. VitaminC

B. Vitamin K

C. Vitamin D

D. Vitamin B

Q. 8 When a piece of pure silicon is doped with aluminium, then

A. the conductivity of the doped silicon piece will remain the same

B. the doped silicon piece will become n-type

C. the doped silicon piece will become p-type

D. the resistivity of the doped silicon piece will increase

Q. 9 Suppose voltage V is applied across a resistance R. The power dissipated in the resistance is P. Now the same voltage V is applied across a parallel combination of three equal resistors each of resistance R. Then the power dissipated in the second case will be

A. P

B. 3P

C. P/3

D. 2P/3

Q. 10 Which one of the following is not a semiconductor

A. Silicon

B. Germanium

C. Quartz

D. Gallium arsenide

Q. 11 A parallel-plate capacitor, with air in between the plates, has capacitance C. Now the space between the two plates of capacitor is filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant 7. Then the value of the capacitance will become

A. C

B. C/7

C. 7C

D. 14C

Q. 12 For which one of the following does the centre of mass is outside the body

A. A fountain pen

B. A cricket ball

C. A ring

D. A book

Q. 13 Which one of the following is a physical change

A. Burning of coal

B. Burning of wood

C. Heating of a platinum crucible

D. Heating of potassium chlorate

Q. 14 The pH value of a sample of multiple distilled water is

A. zero

B. 14

C. very near to zero

D. very near to seven

Q. 15 Which one of the following is the most characteristic property of an element

A. Density

B. Boiling point

C. Mass number

D. atomic number

Q. 16 There are two elements- calcium (atomic number 20) and argon (atomic number 18). The mass number of both the elements is 40. They are therefore known as

A. isotones

B. isochores

C. isobars

D. isotopes

Q. 17 ‘Plum Pudding Model’ for an atom was proposed by

A. Antoine Lavoisier

B. Robert Boyle

C. Ernest Rutherford

D. J. J. Thomson

Q. 18 What is the number of atoms in 46 g of sodium-23 (N= Avogadro constant)

A. N/2

B. N

C. 2N

D. 23N

Q. 19 Which one of the following statements is correct. For the purpose of Census 2011

A. a person aged seven and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treating as a literate

B. a person aged eight and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treating as a literate

C. a person aged nine and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treating as a literate

D. a person aged ten and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is treating as a literate

Q. 20 In which one of the following States is Loktak Lake situated

A. Sikkim

B. Himachal Pradesh

C. Manipur

D. Meghalaya

Q. 21 The ratio of gross cropped area to the net sown area is called

A. croping intensity

B. intensity of crop rotation

C. crop productivity

D. cropping diversity

Q. 22 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of occurrences of rivers from Chennai to Kolkata when travelled by road (shortest distance)

A. Krishna, Kaveri, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha

B. Krishna, Periyar, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha

C. Pennru, Krishna, Godavari, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha

D. Penneru, Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Godavari, Krishna

Q. 23 Which one of the following statements with regard to volcanoes is not correct

A. Stratovolcanoes produce lava flows that initially follow valleys but are highly resistant erosion

B. The surrounding areas can be remain highlands, lava ridges or mesas

C. Hawaiian shield volcanoes are eroded by streams that flow from deeply carved valleys with steeply sloping heads

D. The system of streams on a dissected volcano cone is not a radial drainage pattern

Q. 24 Kwashiorkor disease in children is caused by

A. sufficient carbohydrates but less fats in diet

B. sufficient carbohydrates and fats but deficient proteins in diet

C. sufficient vitamins but deficient fats in diet

D. sufficient fats but deficient vitamins in diet

Q. 25 The mammalian heart is myogenic and it is regulated by nerves. The heartbeat originates from

A. sinoatrial node

B. QRS wave

C. T wave

D. hepatic portal system

Q. 26 The plant growth regulators are small, simple molecules of diverse chemical composition. They are

A. carbohydrates, fats and proteins

B. indole compounds, adenine derivatives, carotenoids and terpense

C. fatty acids, glucose and vitamins

D. vitamin C, vitamin D and glucose

Q. 27 Consider the electromagnetic radiations having wavelengths 200nm, 500nm and 1000nm. Which wavelength(s) of the following can make visual sensation to a human eye.

A. 200 nm and 500 nm

B. 500 nm and 1000 nm

C. 500 nm only

D. 200 nm and 1000nm

Q. 28 A copper wire of radius r and length l has a resistance of R. A second copper wire with radius 2r and length l is taken and the two wires are joined in a parallel combination. The resultant resistance of the parallel combination of the two wires will be

A. 5R

B. 5/4 R

C. 4/5 R

D. R/5

Q. 29 A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C₁ is made using two gold plates. Another parallelplate capacitor of capacitance C₂ is made using two aluminium plates with same plate separation, and all the four plates are of same area. If pᵤ and pᵦ are respectively the electrical resistivities of gold and aluminium, then which one of the following relations is correct

A. C₁ > C₂

B. C₂ > C₁

C. C₁ pᵦ = C₂ pᵤ

D. C₁= C₂

Q. 30 A photon of X- ray has energy of 1 keV. A photon of visible radiation has energy of 3 eV. In this context, which one of the following statements is not correct

A. The Wavelength of X- ray photon is less than the wavelength of visible radiation photon

B. both the photons have different energies

C. The speeds of both the photons in vacuum are different

D. The frequency of X- ray photon is higher than the frequency of visible radiation photon.

Q. 31 The optical phenomenon that is primarily responsible for the observation of rainbow on a rainy day is

A. diffraction

B. interference

C. dispersion

D. reflection

Q. 32 With regard to ‘Project Tiger’, which one of the following statements is not correct

A. It was launched in the year 1973

B. The objective of the project is to preserve the habitats and tigers therein as natural heritage

C. The project emphasized to ensure viable population of tigers in India

D. There are no Tiger Reserves in north-eastern part of India

Q. 33 Which one of the following is not a biosphere reserve of India

A. Agasthyamalai

B. Nokrek

C. Great Nicobar

D. Great Himalayan

Q. 34 Which of the following statements with regard to the Indian Railways is not correct

A. The Indian rail networks have been developed throughout the Konkan coast

B. There is very low density of railway lines in the Himalayan region

C. The north Indian plain has a dense network of railway

D. At present, India has the largest railway network in the world

Q. 35 Which of the following statements with regard to the Mediterranean agriculture is/are correct

1- The Mediterranean agriculture is highly specialized commercial agriculture.

2- It is intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation.

3- It is a primitive subsistence agriculture.

4- Viticulture is a speciality of the M Mediterranean region.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 4 only

D. 1, 3 and 4

Q. 36 Which one of the following statements with regard to the winter solsticc is correct

A. The South Pole experiences 24 hours of darkness

B. It occurs on June 21

C. The North Pole experiences 24 hours of darkness

D. The Sun is at aphelion

Q. 37 Tropical evergreen rainforest biome provides optimum environmental conditions for the growth of plants and animals. Which one among the following statements regarding this is not correct

A. It has heavy rainfall and high temperature throughout the year

B. The biome is also called mega thermal biome

C. The evergreen rain forest biome extends between 10⁰ N and 10⁰ S latitudes

D. The maximum development of this biome has taken place in central and southern California and north-western coastal lands of Africa

Q. 38 Tsunami waves are the undersea occurrence of earthquake exceeding 7.5 on Richter scale. Which one of the following statements regarding this is not correct

A. It often generates strong waves

B. The pacific coasts are most vulnerable to Tsunami waves.

C. Tsunami waves are also called high energy tidal waves or sesmic sea waves.

D. Tsunami is a Latin word

Q. 39 Which of the following statements with regard to cloudburst is/are correct

1- It is defined as sudden localized very heavy downpour with cloud thunder and lightning.

2- It mostly occurs in the hilly areas.

3- It result into very high intensity of rainfall i.e. 250 mm – 300 mm in a couple of hours

4- It occurs only during daytime

A. 1 , 2 and 3

B. 1 , 3 and 4

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 2 only

Q. 40 Which one of the following with regard to Aridisol, one of the soil orders, is not correct

A. Lack of water for plants during most part of the year

B. High organic matter

C. Large accumulation of carbonates at depth

D. Absence of deep wide crackers

Q. 41 What is the maximum number of states of matter

A. Three

B. Four

C. Five

D. Variable

Q. 42 The chemical properties of an element depend on

A. the number of isotopes of the element

B. the mass number of the element

C. the total number of neutrons in the element

D. the number of electrons in the outermost shell of the element

Q. 43 Which one of the following statements is not correct

A. The cathode rays originate from cathode and proceed towards the anode in a cathode ray discharge tube

B. The television picture tubes are nothing but cathode ray tubes

C. the cathode rays themselves are not visible

D. the characteristics of cathode rays depend upon the nature of the gas present in the cathode ray tube

Q. 44 The molecular mass of sulphuric acid is 98. If 49 g of the acid is dissolved in water to make one litre of solution, what will be the strength of the acid

A. Two normal

B. One normal

C. 0.5 normal

D. Four normal

Q. 45 Which one of the following statements with regard to Jetstream, an upper level tropospheric waves, is not correct

A. It is a narrow band of high-velocity wind

B. It follows the wave path near the tropopause at elevations of 8 km to 15km

C. Jet streams are typically continuous over long distances

D. In summer, the polar front jet achieves its maximum force

Q. 46 The Gulf Stream is a poleward flowing current in the Atlantic ocean. which one of the following statements with regard to this is not correct.

A. It is similar to the Kuroshio current in the North Pacific Ocean

B. It transport warms, tropical water towards polar region

C. This current is a major factor in weather along the east coast of the USA

D. The warm water of the Gulf stream sustains the coral reefs of West Pacific Coast

Q. 47 Which one of the following about sugar industry of Peninsular India is not correct

A. High yield per hectare of sugarcane

B. Higher sucrose content

C. Long crushing season

D. Most of the mills in the Peninsula are located mainly along the east coast

Q. 48 ‘Rand/ZAR’ is the currency of

A. Burundi

B. Libya

C. Sudan

D. South Africa

Q. 49 Which one of the following ports is located on estuary

A. Kandala

B. Marmagao

C. Kolkata – Haldia

D. Tuticorin

Q. 50 Which one of the following statements is not correct

A. Pavo cristatus is the national bird of India

B. Nelumbo nucifera Gaertn is the national flower of India

C. Ficus benghalensis is the national tree on India

D. Mangifera indica is the national animal of India

Q. 51 Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to the GST bill passed by the Rajya Sabha in August 2016

A. It will replace all central taxes, duties etc only by a single tax

B. It will subsume central as well as state taxes duties etc

C. GST will be levied on alcoholic liquor of human consumption at a uniform rate of 25 percent

D. Petroleum and petroleum products shall not be subjected to the levy of GST

Q. 52 The sensitive information leaked in August 2016 concerns which one of the following defence platforms of India

A. Fifth Generator Fighter Aircraft

B. Combat Helicopters

C. Submarines

D. Unmanned Aerial Vehicles

Q. 53 How many medals were won by India in 2016 Summer Olympics

A. One Silver and One Bronze

B. Two Gold

C. Two Bronze

D. None

Q. 54 India became a member of which one the following in 2016

A. Non – Proliferation Treaty

B. Missile Technology Control Regime

C. Nuclear Suppliers Group

D. Wassenaar Arrangement

Q. 55 India signed an agreement in 2016 to develop a strategic port in one of its neighbouring countries. What is the name of the port

A. Chabahar

B. Gwadar

C. Hambantota

D. Mongla

Q. 56 Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)

A. Its headquarters is located in Kathmandu

B. China is the only country with an Observer status in SAARC

C. The First SAARC Summit was held in Dhaka

D. The Eighteen SAARC Summit was held in Nepal

Q. 57 Which of the following statements about the Ilbert Bill (1883) is/are correct

1- It proposed to grant limited criminal jurisdiction to native officials.

2- It proposed to grant complete civil and criminal jurisdiction to native officials.

3- The proposed bill generated opposition from England’s European subjects in India

4- In spite of opposition to the bill, it was passed without any modifications.

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3

D. 3 and 4

Q. 58 Consider the following statements about Second Five Year Plan;

1- It was drafted under the leadership of K.N. Raj

2- It proposed that industries like electricity, railways, steel, machineries and communication could be developed in the public sector.

3- The drafters found balancing industry and agriculture very difficult.

4- The drafters found balancing industry and agriculture really easy .

which of the statements given above is/are correct

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2

C. 2 and 3

D. 3 and 4

Q. 59 Consider the following statements about the different meanings of ‘SWARAJ’ as articulated by Mahatma Gandhi;

1- Swaraj is intimately linked with Ahimsa (Non-Violence) and Satyagraha (Adherence to truth).

2- Swaraj has two senses- one political and one beyond the realm of politics

3- Swaraj is something that requires time and patience to acquire

4- With determination, Swaraj could be obtained easily and quickly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 3 and 4

D. 1 , 2 and 3

Q. 60 Which was/were the formative influence(s) on the philosophy of Mahatma Gandhi

1- Gandhiji was influenced by the 18th century Pranami sect that advocated the unity of faiths.

2- Gandhiji was influenced by the theosophists

3- Gandhiji was an admirer of the writings of Romantics like Wordsworth

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 , 2 and 3

D. 1 only

Q. 61 Which of the following statements about the Shiromani Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee (SGPC) are correct

1- It began as the political wing of the Singh Sabhas in the late 19th century.

2- It was formed in 1920 as part of the upcoming Akali movement.

3- It was founded to reclaim control of the Sikh shrines from the government manipulated loyalist committees.

4- It formed the Akali Dal to coordinate groups (Jathas) to reclaim control of the shrines

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 , 3 and 4

B. 2, 3 and 4

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Q. 62 Which of the following statements with regards to the speech of Mahatma Gandhi at the opening of the Banaras Hindu University are correct;

1- He charged the Indian elite with a lack of concern for the labouring poor.

2- He asserted that our salvation can come only through the farmers.

3- He highlighted the plight of the untouchables.

4- He promised to take up the cause of the mill owners of Ahmedabad.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 , 2 , 3 and 4

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1, 2 and 3 only

D. 3 and 4 only

Q. 63 To be eligible to contest election under the Haryana Panchayati Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015, a candidate should

1- have a functional toilet at home

2- have payment slips of power bills

3- not be a cooperative loan defaulter

4- have studied minimum matriculation irrespective of category.

select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 , 2 and 3 only

B. 1 , 2 and 4 only

C. 1 , 2 , 3 and 4

D. 3 and 4 only

Q. 64 Arrange the following Commissions chronologically on the basis of their date of setting;

1- The second administrative reforms commission

2- The eleventh finance commission

3- Punchii Commission

4- Sarkaria Commision

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 4 , 2 , 1 , 3

B. 4 , 3 , 2 , 1

C. 3 , 2 , 4 , 1

D. 3 , 4 , 1 , 2

Q. 65 Who among the following won a Gold medal for India in Men’s Javelin Throw event at the 2016 Rio Paralympic games

A. Rinku Hooda

B. Devendra Jhajharia

C. Sundar Singh Gurjar

D. Mariyappan Thangavelu

Q. 66 Which of the following statements with regard to Panchayatas in India are correct;

1- Seats in a Panchayat are filled by direct election from the territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area.

2- The Gram Sabha is the body of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village within the Panchayat area.

3- The Panchayats work on the principle of constititional autonomy.

4- The State Legislature may by Law endow the Panchayats with the power and authority to enable them to function.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 , 2 and 3

B. 2 , 3 and 4

C. 1 , 2 and 4

D. 1 and 4 only

Q. 67 Which of the following statements regarding Indian federal system is/are correct;

1- All states have equal representation in the Rajya Sabha.

2- Consent of a state is not required for altering its boundaries

3- There is no dual citizenship in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 , 2 and 3

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 only

Q. 68 Which of the following are the powers of the Supreme Court of India

1- Original jurisdiction in a dispute between the Government of India and one more States.

2- The power to hear appeals from the High Courts

3- Passing decrees and orders for doing justice in any matter before it

4- Render advice to the President of India in matters of law.

Select the correct answer using the code below

A. 1 , 2 , 3 and 4

B. 1 , 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 3 and 4 only

Q. 69 Which one of the following is not a component if Revenue Receipts of the Union Government

A. Corporate tax receipts

B. Dividends and profits

C. Disinvestment receipts

D. Interest receipts

Q. 70 TRIPS agreement pertains to

A. international tariff regime

B. intellectual property protection

C. international practices on trade facilitation

D. international taxation of property

Q. 71 The 7.6 % growth rate registered by Indian economy during the year 2015-16 is based on

A. Gross National Product at market prices

B. Gross value Added at constant prices

C. Gross Domestic Product at market price

D. Gross Domestic Product at constant price

Q. 72 Which of the following statements about Trans- Pacific Partnership (TPP) is/are correct

1- The TPP was signed by 12 Pacific Rim nations in the year 2015.

2- The TPP is likely to be a game-changer in global trade as member countries account for about 40 percent of global GDP.

3- India is a founder member of TPP.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 , 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 only

Q. 73 Which of the following statements about Bitcoin is/are correct

1- It is a decentralized virtual currency.

2- It is generated through complex computer software systems

3- The Reserve Bank Of India recognized it as a legal tender in January 2016

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 , 2 and 3

Q. 74 Hindustan Aeronautics Limited handed over the first two indigenously designed and manufactured light combat aircraft to the Indian Air Force 2016. What is the name of these new combat aircraft.

A. Marut

B. Garud

C. Tejas

D. Pushpak

Q. 75 Consider the following statements about a famous football player;

‘He was diagnosed with a growth hormone deficiency during his childhood but went on to win three European Golden Shoes in his career .’ Who is that player

A. Andres Iniesta

B. Lionel Messi

C. Cristiano Ronaldo

D. Zinedine Zidane

Q. 76 Which of the following is/are correct

1- In June 2016, the LIGO group of scientist announced the detection of a second set of gravitational waves.

2- Gravitational waves were generated due to merger of two black holes at about 1.4 billion light years distant.

3- Gravitational waves were inserted due to a collision of two white dwarf stars at about 1.4 billion light-years distant,.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 , 2 and 3

Q. 77 In the year 2016, the Government of India announced a 6000 crore rupees special package for the textile and apparel sector to

1- create one crore jobs within three years

2- create jobs equally for men and women

3- provide tax and production incentive for the entrepreneurs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1 , 2 and 3

Q. 78 Which one of the following is not an Inter-Service Establishment

A. Officers Training Academy

B. National Defence Academy

C. National Defence College

D. Armed Forces Medical College

Q. 79 Which one of the following is a Peacetime Gallantry Award

A. Shaurya Chakra

B. Vir Chakra

C. Yudh Seva Medal

D. Param Vir Chakra

Q. 80 The Headquarters of the Southern Naval Command of the Indian Navy is located at which one of the following places

A. Karwar

B. Kochi

C. Thiruvananthapuram

D. Chennai

Q. 81 Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

A. A – 4 B – 3 C – 1 D – 2

B. A – 3 B – 1 C – 4 D – 2

C. A – 4 B – 3 C – 2 D – 1

D. A – 3 B – 4 C – 2 D – 1

Q. 82 Consider the following statement about the Salt March

1- The Salt March was deliberately ignored by the European media.

2- The Salt March was widely covered by the American and European press.

3- The Salt March was the first nationalist activity in which women participated in large numbers.

4- The Salt March impressed upon the British the urgent need to devolve more power to Indians.

which of the statements given above are correct

A. 1 , 2 and 4

B. 2 , 3 and 4

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Q. 83 In the elections to the provincial legislatures in 1937 in British India

1- only about 10 to 1 2 percent of the population had the right to vote

2- the untouchables had no right to vote

3- the Congress won an absolute majority in five out of eleven provinces

4- the Muslim League won more than 80 percent of the seats reserved for Muslims.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 , 3 and 4

B. 1 and 4 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 , 3 and 4

Q. 84 Which of the following statements about the social base of the Arya Samaj in British India is/are correct

1- It was located mainly in Punjab and western Uttar Pradesh.

2- It mainly comprised the trading castes.

3- It was much more limited than that of the Brahmo Samaj.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q. 85 Who among the following is the author of the book A comparison between Women and Men

A. Pandita Ramabai

B. Sarojini Niadu

C. Tarabai Shinde

D. Rameshwari Nehru

Q. 86 The fact that the planets moves around the Sun, not in circles but in ellipses, was first demonstrated by

A. Galileo

B. Martin Luther

C. Johannes Kepler

D. Copenicus

Q. 87 During the mid 19th century Industrial Revolution, the average lifespan of workers in Manchestar was

A. 17 years

B. 30 years

C. 55 years

D. 62 years

Q. 88 George Washington was made the Commander in Chief of the American forces

A. in December 1773, after the Boston Tea Party

B. at the First Continental Congress in September 1774

C. at the Second Continental Congress in 1775

D. by the Continental Congress at the Declaration of Independence on 4th July, 1776

Q. 89 Alexander Kerensky was

A. the head of the Provisional Government in Russia before the October Revolution

B. a close confidant of Lenin, with whose help the Czar was dethroned

C. the head of the Czar’s army

D. an advisor of Joseph Stalin

Q. 90 The 12th five-year plan focussed on inclusive growth. Which of the following were considered as challenges for inclusiveness

1- Poverty

2– Group inequality

3- Regional imbalance

4- Unemployment

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 , 3 and 4 only

B. 1 , 2 , 3 and 4

C. 1 , 2 and 4 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Q. 91 Which of the following statements are correct about Saakshar Bharat scheme

1- It is a centrally sponsored scheme which was launched during the 11th five-year plan.

2- The scheme applies to women in particular and disadvantaged groups in general

3- The above applies to persons above the age of 10 years

4- The scheme is anchored with Panchayati Raj Institutions and Local Self Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 , 2 and 3

B. 2 , 3 and 4

C. 1 , 2 and 4

D. 1 , 3 and 4

Q. 92 BRICS Summit, 2016 was held in

A. Brazil

B. China

C. India

D. South Africa

Q. 93 Which country signed a Memorandum Of Understanding with India for promoting the production of Pigeon/Tur ad other pulses in July 2016

A. South Africa

B. Syria

C. Egypt

D. Mozambique

Q. 94 Which of the following statements relating to the powers of the President of India is/are correct

1- The executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President.

2- The executive power shall be exercised by the President only through officers subordinate to him

3- The supreme command of the defence forces of the Union shall be vested in the President

Select the correct answer using the code give below

A. 1 , 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 3 only

Q. 95 Which of the following statements regarding Article 21 of the Constitution if Indi is/are correct

1- Article 21 is violated when the under-trial prisoners are detained under judicial custody for an indefinite period.

2- Right to life is one of the basic human rights and not even the State has the authority to violate that right

3- Under Article 21, the right of a woman to make reproductive choices is not a dimension of personal liberty.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 , 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 only

Q. 96 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Right to Education in India

1- Free and compulsory education should be proved to all children of the age of six to fourteen years.

2- The imperative of the provision of the Right to Education Act, 2009 is that schools must have qualified teachers and basic infrastructure.

3- There should be quality education without any discrimination on the ground of economic, social and cultural background.

Select the correct answer using code given below

A. 1 , 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 3 only

Q. 97 Which one of the following statements regarding freedom to manage religious affairs as per the Constitution of India is not correct

A. Every religious denomination shall have the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion except some minor communities

B. Every religion or any section thereof shall have the right to own and acquire movable and immovable property

C. Every religious community has the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purpose

D. Every community has the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion

Q. 98 Which one of the following statements relating to protection against arrest and detention of individuals under Article 22 is not correct

A. No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed of the grounds of such arrest

B. No person shall be denied the right to consult, and be defended by a legal practitioner of his/her choice

C. Every person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of one week of such arrest

D. The right to protection against arrest is not available to a person jail pursuant to a judicial order

Q. 99 Which one of the following intellectual property right is protected without making any registration

A. Copyright

B. Patent

C. Industrial design

D. Trademark

Q. 100 Which one of the following indices is now used by the Reserve Bank of India to measure the rate of inflation in India

A. NASDAQ Index

B. BSE Index

C. Consumer Price Index

D. Wholesale Price Index

Q. 101 The Most Favoured Nation (MFN) clause under WTO regime is based on the principle of

A. non-discrimination between nations

B. discrimination between nation

C. differential treatment between locals and foreigners

D. uniform tariff across commodities

Q. 102 Goods and Service Tax likely to be levied in India is not a

A. gross value tax

B. value-added tax

C. consumption tax

D. destination-based tax

Q. 103 Amartya Sen was awarded the Nobel Prize for his contribution to

A. Monetary Economics

B. Welfare Economics

C. Environmental Economics

D. Development Economics

Q. 104 The rank of Captain of the Indian Navy is equivalent to which one of the following

A. Captain of the Indian Army

B. Group Captain in the Indian Air Force

C. Lieutenant Colonel of the Indian Army

D. Wing Commander of the Indian Air Force

Q. 105 Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to the Indian Air Force

A. It has been in many friendly countries

B. It does not carry out joint exercise with any country

C. It has a separate Maintenance Command

D. No officer has ever been elevated to the rank of Marshal of the Indian Air Force

Q. 106 The Indian Navy in October 2016 commissioned the highly manoeuvrable fast attack craft INS Tihayu. INS Tihayu would be based in

A. Kochi

B. Panaji

C. Visakhapatnam

D. Mumbai

Q. 107 Which one of the following sectors is not affected by the changes made in the Foreign Direct Investment Policy in June 2016

A. Multi-brand retailing

B. Defence

C. Private security agencies

D. Manufacturing of small arms and ammunition cover under the Arms Act, 1959

Q. 108 BREXIT refers to Great Britain leaving which one of the following

A. International Monetary Fund

B. Commonwealth

C. World Trade Organisation

D. European Union

Q. 109 In which one of the following cities are the Summer Olympics 2020 going to be held

A. London

B. Paris

C. Tokyo

D. Moscow

Q. 110 Who among the following is the President of Republic of the Union of Myanmar

A. Aung San Suu Kyi

B. Htin Kyaw

C. Myint Swe

D. Henry Van Thio

Q. 111 The following consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below;

Statement I – The passing of the Coercive Acts made reconciliation between Britain and her American colonies virtually impossible.

Statement II – The British Parliament, having issued the Stamp Act in 1765, repealed it later

A. Both the statement are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

B. Both the statement are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I

C. Statement I is true but statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but statement II is true

Q. 112 The following consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below-

Statement I – The Poona Act provided for 151 reserved seats for the scheduled castes to be elected by a joint, not separate, electorate.

statement II – Dr. B. R. Ambedkar withdrew from active politics for almost a deacde when the Communal Awardwas revoked.

A. Both the statement are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

B. Both the statement are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I

C. Statement I is true but statement II is false

D. Statement I is false but statement II is true

Q. 113 Which one of the following statements about the All India Depressed Classes Association is not correct

A. The All India Depressed Classes Association was formed in Nagpur with M. C. Rajah as its first elected president

B. The All India Depressed Classes Association was not attended by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar in 1926

C. Ambedkar resigned from the All India Depressed Classes Association and formed his own All India Depressed Classes Congress in 1930

D. The All India Depressed Classes Association favoured Ambedkar’s demand for seperate electorate for the depresses classes

Q. 114 Which one of following statements about the Justice Party is not correct

A. It clamored for the same kind of separate communal representation for the Non- Brahmins as had been granted to the muslims by the Morley-Minto Reforms.

B. It was patronized mainly by richer landowning and urban middle class Non-Brahmins

C. It succeeded in getting the provision for 28 reserved seats for the Non-Brahmins in the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms

D. It supported the call given by the Congress to boycott elections in 1920

Q. 115 The Ryotwari experiment in land revenue was started by

A. Henry Dundas

B. Alexander Reed

C. David Ricardo

D. Mountstuart Elphinstone

Q. 116 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution

1- The Preamble by itself is not enforceable in a Court of Law.

2- The Preamble states the objectives which the Constitution seeks to establish and promote.

3- The Preamble indicates the source from which the Constitution derives its authority

A. 1 , 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 only

Q. 117 Which one of the following statements relating to cultural and educational rights in India is not correct

A. Every section of the citizen has the right to conserve its language, script or culture

B. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institutions maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds of religion, race or language

C. The State shall in granting aid to educational institutions, discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of a majority community

D. All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice

Q. 118 Which one of the following statements relating to the Directive Principles of State Policy is not correct

A. The provisions contained in Part 4 IV of the Constitution of India shall not be enforceable by any Court

B. The Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental in the governance of the country

C. It shall be the duty of the State to apply the Directive Principles in making laws

D. The Directive Principles are directed in making India an advanced capitalist country of the world.

Q. 119 Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the Office of the Vice President of India

A. The Vice President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the House of the Parliament.

B. The Vice President is elected in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.

C. The Vice President shall not be a member of either House of the Parliament or of a House of the Legislature of any State

D. The Vice President of India shall be ex officio Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any office of profit

Q. 120 Which one of the following constitutional authorities inquires and decides in case of doubts and disputes arising out of election of the President and Vice President of India

A. The Supreme Court of India

B. The Election Commission of India

C. The Parliamentary Committe

D. The High Court of Delhi

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	B	B	A	B	B	A	C	B	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	C	C	D	D	C	D	D	A	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	C	D	B	A	B	C	D	D	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	D	D	D	C	C	D	D	A	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	D	B	D	D	D	D	B	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	C	A	B	A	B	C	C	D	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	B	A	A	B	C	B	A	C	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	B	B	C	B	B	C	A	A	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	A	B	C	A	C	D	A	C	A	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	C	D	C	B	A	A	C	A	C
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	A	A	B	B	C	C	A	D	C	B
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	C	D	D	B	A	C	D	A	A

CDS(II) Exam 2017 English Previous Year Paper

CDSE 2 2017 English

Questions: 1 – 20

Directions : In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as SI and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

Q. 1 S1 : Egypt lies in the north-rant corner of Africa.

S6: The whole country depends on the water of the Nile.

P : Most of it is desert or semi-desert.

Q : It has very little rainfall.

R : It is four times as big as Great Britain in size.

S : Only a twenty-fifth of the total area is cultivable.

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. SRPQ

C. RPSQ

D. QPRS

Q. 2 S1 : In mechanical efforts, you improve by perpetual practice.

S6: There is neither excuse nor tempta-tion for the latter.

P : He cannot go on shooting wide or falling short, and still fancy that he is making progress.

Q : This is so because the object to be attained is a matter of actual experiment in which you either succeed or fail.

R: He must either correct his aim, or persevere in his error with his eyes open.

S : If a man aims at a mark with bow and arrow, he must either hit it or aim it.

The correct sequence should be

A. PSQR

B. RPSQ

C. SQRP

D. QSPR

Q. 3 S1 : Isaac’s tnuthet nianied again.

S6 : He had a set of little tools and saw of various sizes made by himself.

P : But he was known to be very clever at making things.

Q : She sent him to school.

R : Isaac was left to the care of his good old grandmother.

S : In his early years Isaac did not appear to be a very bright student. The correct sequence should be

A. RQSP

B. QRSP

C. SQRP

D. RPQS

Q. 4 S1 : The examination system must be regarded as the chief wrecker of young nerves.

S6: If I become a Vice-Chancellor, my first act would be to abolish all examinations in my university.

P : It makes me jump out of the bed, all in a sweat.

Q : It does this by building up a tension, for a part of the year, all through one’s youth.

R : And after four decades, the same nervousness sometimes recurs to me in nightmares.

S : I remember the desperate nervous-ness that used to grip me from January to April every year. The correct sequence should be

A. RPQS

B. RSPQ

C. RQPS

D. QSRP

Q. 5 S1 : History is a subject that is so little valued today that it is almost impossible to win world fame as a historian; yet that is exactly what Toynbec was able to.

S6: Among the civilizations that he studied was that of India.

P : We usually think of history as a chronological account of the development of various states and empires under ruler.

Q : Toynbec’s view of history was different.

R : He tries to find the pattern behind the birth, growth and decay of civilization.

S : Though he used the recorded history of mankind, but he was interested not merely in the chronology of single states or group but in the rise and fall of whole civilizations. The correct sequence should be

A. PSQR

B. QSPR

C. SQRP

D. PQSR

Q. 6 S1 : Science first began to become important after A.D. 1500.

S6: Men read them, became inquisitive again, and began to want to find things out.

P : As a result of this, books came to be circulated.

Q: During the Middle Ages the coming of Science was hindered by the Church.

R : In the middle of the fifteenth century, however, the Turks cap-tured the city of Constantinople and the Greek books were scattered far and wide.

S : It considered free inquiry into the nature of things to be wicked. The correct sequence should be

A. PQSR

B. QSRP

C. SRPQ

D. RPQS

Q. 7 S1 : Phatik was a mischievous boy of fourteen.

S6: Ultimately he distinguished himself as a scholar.

P : It was then that Phatik’s uncle offered to take the boy to Kolkata.

Q : She was much worried about his education.

R : His mother found it difficult to bring him up.

S : Away from his home Phatik became sober and industrious. Thc correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. SRQP

C. RSPQ

D. RQPS

Q. 8 S1 : Whenever I met Baba Amte I was reminded of an anecdote my grand-mother used to tell me.

S6: He forgot that he had made it. P : He once made an idol of God.

Q : As the idol was nearing completion, the sculptor was becoming more and more withdrawn into himself.

R : And the moment it was complete, he threw away his chisel and hammer and bowed to the idol of God he had just created.

S : There was a sculptor.

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. SRPQ

C. SPQR

D. QPRS

Q. 9 S1 : Ross sent an account of his work, together with slide and specimens to Manson.

S6: Ross was elected a fellow of the Royal Society in 1901.

P : They produced a profound sensa-tion.

Q : In July 1898, Manson described Ross’s results to the British Medical Association.

R : The President of the Royal Society came to Manson’s house and inspected Ross’s materials and said that ‘it was of remarkable interest and value’.

S : When Manson had finished, the whole audience rose and cheered.

ThE correct sequence should be

A. RSPQ

B. PSRQ

C. QPSR

D. SPQR

Q. 10 S1 : Civilization dawned when early man learnt how to produce heat and energy by burning wood.

S6: When they have been used, they cannot be replaced.

P : Then steam was used to produce electricity.

Q : In this century great use has been made of oil and natural gas and the use of atomic reactors also bas provided another source of energy.

R : Much later, the first industrial revolution was based on the production of steam by burning coal.

S : But none of these fuels is renewable. The correct sequence should be

A. PRQS

B. RQSP

C. RPQS

D. RPSQ

Q. 11 S1 : Ghost is a subject which battles everyone everywhere throughout the world.

S6: Yet it is a subject which has held people spellbound and the belief in them continues to flourish.

P : But human beings have always been curious to know more about them.

Q : Needless to say, such attempts have proved to be useless.

R : There have been attempts even to photograph these creatures of darkness.

S : Even after the advancement of science, the reality of ghosts remains a mystery till this day. The correct sequence should be

A. QRPS

B. SQPR

C. SPRQ

D. SQRP

Q. 12 S1 : There have been two schools of thought which deal with the errors of learners.

S6: Both views are popular today but the second is gaining wound fast.

P : The philosophy of the second school is that errors are natural and they will occur in any learning.

Q : So. errors, they say, is a sign of faulty teaching methods.

R : The first school maintains that if teaching methods are perfect, errors will never occur.

S : They argue that we should con-centrate on how to deal with errors, instead of on

method of teaching. The correct sequence should be

A. QSRP

B. PSQR

C. QPSR

D. RQPS

Q. 13 S1 : Down the stairway of the Holiday Inn hotel, I. enter the conference hall.

S6: Some are leaning against the sidewall.

P : I take a scat in the back row as more chairs are quietly slipped in for late comers.

Q : The hall is already packed with delegates. It

R: Still quite a few people are left standing.

S : Most of the delegates arc execu-tives of Indian or Indo-US com-panies. The correct sequence should be

A. SQRP

B. PRQS

C. SRQP

D. QSPR

Q. 14 SI : A sportsman is noted for his sense of discipline.

S6: Once discipline is accrued in the play field, it can be applied and practised in other spheres of life.

P : The first lesson in discipline is to win without pride and to lose Without bitterness.

Q : One is no longer swayed by the sudden gusts of passion.

R : Then, one must learn that error or selfishness will disgrace and endanger the rest.

S : A sense of equanimity brings order and method into the life of the People. The correct sequence should be

A. QPRS

B. RQSP

C. PQSR

D. PRSQ

Q. 15 S1 : Mr. and Mrs. Robert went home late last night.

S6: Mr. Robert rushed to the police station immediately.

P : Somebody had broken open the lock.

Q : To their dismay they found all their things missing.

R : They got into the house with a lot of fear.

S : When they reached home they found the front door open. The correct sequence should be

A. RSPQ

B. SPRQ

C. QSRP

D. RQPS

Q. 16 S1 : The miseries of the world cannot be cured by physical help only.

S6: Then alone will misery ease in the world.

P : Let men have light, let them be strong and educated.

Q : No amount of physical help will remove them completely.

R :,Until nun’s nature changes, his physical needs will always rise, and miseries will always be felt.

S : The only solution is to make mankind enlightened.

The correct sequence should be

A. QPRS

B. RQSP

C. SPQR

D. PQRS

Q. 17 S1 : Aristotle worked under limitations.

S6: The age was not a period of experiment.

P : Physical events were mostly attributed to the intervention of God.

Q : There had been little industrial invention in Greece, perhaps because slave labour was cheap and plentiful.

R: The only equipment he had for his study was a ruler and compass and some crude instruments.

S : The facts on which modem theories of science have been based had not been discovered.

The correct sequence should be

A. RPQS

B. RSPQ

C. QSRP

D. SQRP

Q. 18 S1 : The bus sped along the road.

S6: The dog wailed for a long time.

P : But the bus could stop only after covering a few yards.

Q : It injured the dog in the leg. It

R : The driver applied the brake.

S : Suddenly a stray dog ran on to the middle of the road.

The correct sequence should be

A. SPRQ

B. SRPQ

C. RPQS

D. PRSQ

Q. 19 S1 : The status of women in our country is, on the whole, far from high.

S6: Education can lift women out of the depths of misery and ignorance into which they have sunk.

P : But the plight of women in villages is still miserable.

Q : The educated women in cities enjoy equality with the men folk.

R: The movement for the Cnxdom and right of women has certainly been steadily gaining momentum.

S : Their education has been thoroughly neglected.

The correct sequence should be

A. RPQS

B. RQPS

C. SQPR

D. SPQR

Q. 20 S1 : Hiuen-tsang became a Buddhist monk at the age of twelve and soon discovered that the Buddhist texts available in China were insufficient.

S6: But he was on a quest and returned after a while to his motherland with a rich

collection of texts, documents and relics.

P : Wherever he went, he was asked by the local rulers and monks to stay in the place.

Q : He entered India through Kashmir, where he spent some time in Srinagar.

R : He therefore decided to go on a pilgrimage to India to collect further material.

S : From India, he attempted to go to Ceylon, but gave up the attempt. The correct sequence should be

A. PQSR

B. RSPQ

C. QSRP

D. RQSP

Questions: 21 – 30

Directions : Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. 21 With the less rapid expansion of the economy, we should make ___________ progress toward stable price levels.

A. detailed

B. substantial

C. definite

D. infinite

Q. 22 At times he gets very angry, and then no one can ___________ him.

A. prevent

B. humour

C. mollify

D. satisfy

Q. 23 Many people today have fallen into utter confusion of values with the result that they cannot __________ the bad the good from

A. divide

B. differentiate

C. see

D. alter

Q. 24 If Mohan ___________ at 5 a.m., he would not have missed the train

A. started

B. had started

C. would start

D. has started

Q. 25 His property was divided___________his daughters and sons.

A. between

B. among

C. from

D. with

Q. 26 His persistence in his misdemeanours has lowered him in the _____________ of everyone who knows him.

A. eyes

B. estimation

C. estimated

D. esteem

Q. 27 The clouds of suspicion will clear_________soon.

A. up

B. away

C. off

D. by

Q. 28 The teachers said that they were no longer prepared to ___________ the ways of the new Headmaster.

A. put over with

B. put on with

C. put up with

D. put up to

Q. 29 _____________the construction of new housing units at the rate of one every month, there is still a shortage of accommodation.

A. Through

B. Despite

C. By

D. For

Q. 30 Democracy requires the equal right of all to the development of such capacity for good as nature has ___________ them with.

A. presented

B. endowed

C. fortified

D. replenished

Questions: 31 – 50

Directions :

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the pans of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P. Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Q. 31 My unmarred aunt P. is creating a lot of problems for us Q. who stays with us R. because of her interfering nature in our personal lives S. and there is a misunderstanding among family mambas. The correct sequence should be

A. QSRP

B. QPSR

C. PQSR

D. SPQR

Q. 32 No criminal proceeding P.in any Court during his term of office Q. whatsoever shall be initiated R. or continued against the President S. or a Governor The correct sequence should be

A. QRSP

B. PQRS

C. QPSR

D. SQPR

Q. 33 The dentist P. with a severe tooth-ache Q. when he was brought to hospital R. extracted Manish’s tooth S. and relieved his pain

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. QPRS

C. RSPQ

D. RQPS

Q. 34 The actress P. has been selected Q. as the best heroine R. who is the daughter S. of a famous nude singer of the year

The correct sequence should be

A. RPQS

B. QPSR

C. RSPQ

D. QSRP

Q. 35 Last summer P. everyday Q. kept pestering a pretty girl R.one persistent admirer S. with phone calls.

The correct sequence should be

A. QRSP

B. RSQP

C. RQSP

D. PQRS

Q. 36 In many cultures P. to make wishes come true Q. that blue has the power R. people believe S. and be successful in life.

select the correct sequence should be

A. PSRQ

B. RSPQ

C. RQPS

D. SQPR

Q. 37 From a picnic table P. through the playground Q. while we unpacked a basket R. we watched them laugh and leap S. bulging with sandwiches and cookies.

The correct sequence should be

A. RSQP

B. QPRS

C. RPQS

D. QSRP

Q. 38 My father retired at the age of 68, P. where he had served, Q. in South Carolina R. as Pastor for 12 years, S. from a Baptist Church.

The correct sequence should be

A. PRSQ

B. SQPR

C. SPQR

D. QPRS

Q. 39 the completion P. it enables employees to feel a sense of accomplishment Q. and makes them take pride in their work R. of high quality products S. also enhances employee satisfaction, because

The correct sequence should he

A. PQRS

B. RQPS

C. PSRQ

D. RSPQ

Q. 40 But, Kuala Lumpur P. where modem Malay executives Q. but will never miss Friday prayers R. might have a cellular phone in hand, S. is a city firmly rooted in tradition The comm sequence should be

A. RQSP

B. SPKQ

C. RPSQ

D. SQRP

Q. 41 Perhaps the most significant factor P. is a failure of planning and Q. in the growth of all metropolitan crimes, R. governance in the urban sprawl S. including crimes against the elderly,

The correct sequence should be

A. QSPR

B. PRQS

C. QRPS

D. PSQR

Q. 42 He said that P. a small college Q. he’d rather go to R. not studying at all S. instead of The correct sequence should be

A. QSPR

B. PRQS

C. QPRS

D. QPSR

Q. 43 Teaching a child P. since there are few Q. is becoming difficult and expensive R.open ponds around S. how to swim.

The correct sequence should be

A. SQPR

B. QRSP

C. SRQP

D. PRQS

Q. 44 The doctor P. able to find out Q. what had caused R. the food poisoning S. had not been. The correct sequence should be

A. SPRQ

B. PRQS

C. PRSQ

D. SPQR

Q. 45 The officer P. was suspended Q. being corrupt R. from service S. before his dismissal The correct sequence should be

A. QPSR

B. QPRS

C. RSQP

D. RSPQ

Q. 46 She gave P. her old coat Q. to a beggar R. the one with the brown fur on it S. shivering with cold.

The correct sequence should be

A. PRQS

B. SQPR

C. PQRS

D. RPQS

Q. 47 The medical teams P. at the ground said that the injured Q. by the surging crowds, R. included women and children S. who were trampled.

The correct sequence should be

A. PRQS

B. PQRS

C. QPRS

D. PSQR

Q. 48 He P. at the hurdles on his way Q. who has his eyes R. does not look S. fixed on the goal. The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. SRPQ

C. QSRP

D. RQPS

Q. 49 We do not know when P. but we know R. the exact date or his death R. for certain S. Shakespeare was born S The correct sequence should be

A. SPRQ

B. PQRS

C. PSQR

D. SRQP

Q. 50 P. The purpose is to advance knowledge Q. the two have to work together R. and disseminate it S. a university is essentially a community of students and teachers. The correct sequence should be

A. SRQP

B. SPQR

C. PQRS

D. SQPR

Questions: 51 – 54

Directions :

In this section you have few short passages. After each passage, you will find sonic items basal on the passage. first, read a passage and answer the items basal on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only. Passage For many years, ship captains navigating the waters of Antarctica have been intrigued by sightings of anciald icebergs. Scientists have now explained their mystery. There icebags arc turned upside down. Icebergs are blocks of ice that have broken off huge slabs of frozen snow called ice shelves. Their green appearance results from sea water that has frozen at the bottom over hundreds of years. The frozen sea water has dissolved organic matter which gives it a yellow tone and the (nab antes ‘ice shell’ above has a blue tinge. When the iceberg turns upside down, it appears green through the visual mix of yellow with the blue from below.

Q. 51 What is the meaning of ‘intrigued’ ?

A. Surprised

B. Fascinated

C. Muffled

D. Repulsed

Q. 52 What are ice shelves ?

A. They are huge pieces of chunks of ire

B. They are frozen sea water

C. They arc pieces of ice which look like shelves

D. They are huge pieces of ice which are very old

Q. 53 What are icebergs ?

A. Huge chunks of ice floating on water

B. Frozen sea water

C. Green ice

D. Green yellow water below and blue above

Q. 54 When the iceberg sums upside down, it appears

A. green

B. yellow

C. blue

D. white

Questions: 55 – 59

In its simple form. science has helped man to protect himself from Nature and to overcome natural obstacles to movement. But with the advance of science, a situation has arisen in which Nature need to be protected from man. He has used Nature’s own gifts, nut only of metal but even the human brain, to attack Nature. Forests are being destroyed not only to satisfy need but to provide luxuries. The evil effects of deforestation are already making themselves clearly felt in climatic changes and soil erosion. Man has at last begun to learn that he has to protect if he wants Nature to protect him.

Q. 55 The use of science in its simple form has helped man to

A. do such things as building shelter and make CartS, boats. etc

B. make bombs and missiles

C. build factories using machinery

D. make planes

Q. 56 Nature now needs to be protected from man because

A. nature has become weak

B. man is rapidly destroying Nature

C. man is cruel to animals

D. man has become irrational

Q. 57 Forests arc being destroyed in order to

A. provide land for agriculture

B. provide wood for fuel

C. kill dangerous animals

D. provide necessities as well as need-less comforts and pleasures

Q. 58 The evil effect of destroying Nature instead of using it is seen in

A. the fall in production of our factories

B. the fall in our standard of living

C. the unfavourable changes in climate

D. frequent occurrence of epidemics

Q. 59 Climatic changes and soil erosion are results of

A. scientific developments

B. nuclear explosion

C. natural calamity

D. deforestation

Questions: 60 – 63

According to the civil laws of most countries obedience is no longer the duty of a wife; every woman has the political right to vote; but these liberties remain theoretical as long as she does not have economic freedom. A woman supported by a man is not liberated from the male. It is through gainful employment that woman has travelled most of the distance that separated her from the male; and nothing else can guarantee her liberty in practice. I once heard a maidservant declare, while cleaning the stone Boor of a hotel lobby, “I never asked anybody for anything; I succeeded all by myself.” She was as proud of her self-sufficiency as a Rockefeller. Ford or Birla. However, the mere combination of the right to vote and a job does not mean complete liberation : working, today, is not a liberty. A recent study of women workers in a car factory shows that they would prefer to stay in the home rather than work in the factory. The majority of women do not escape from the traditional feminine world. Their jobs at the factory do not relieve them of housekeeping burdens; they get from neither society nor their husbands, the assistance they need to become in concrete fact the equals of men.

Q. 60 Which of the following helps women most to achieve equality with men ?

A. The right to vote

B. Civil liberties

C. A job

D. Wealthy husbands

Q. 61 Why does the writer talk about the maidservant in the hotel lobby ?

A. The servants of today will one day he freed from their rich masters

B. A servant can become as rich as Rockefeller or Birla

C. Even with a low paid job women can achieve equality

D. Economic independence is necessary for women’s liberation

Q. 62 In which paragraph does the writer say that it is revealed that some women would not like to work in the factory ?

A. In paragraph tour

B. In paragraph three

C. In paragraph two

D. In paragraph one

Q. 63 “These liberties” in the first paragraph refer to

A. The right to vote, not to obey and right to a job

B. The right to vote and not to obey

C. The rights of servants to disobey their master and the right of the master to punish them

D. Women’s right to vote and earn money

Questions: 64 – 66

During the past three generations the diseases affecting western societies have undergone dramatic changes. Polio, diphtheria, tuberculosis, commonly known as TB, are vanishing; one injection of an antibiotic often cures deadly diseases such as pneumonia or syphilis; and so many mass killers have come under control that two-thirds of all death are now associated with the diseases of old age. Those who die young are more often than not victims of accidents, violence, or suicide. These changes in health status are generally equated with the decrease in suffering and attributed to more or better medical care. Almost everyone kvdievet that at least one of his friends would not be alive and well except for the skill of a doctor. But there is in fact no evidence of any direct relationship between this change in the pattern or nature of sicknesses on the one hand and the so-called progress of medicine on the other hand. These changes are the results of political technological changes. They are not related to the activities that require the preparation and status of doctors or the costly equipment in which doctors take pride. In addition, an increase in the number of new diseases in the last fifteen years are themselves the result for medical intervention. They are doctor-made or iatmgenic.

Q. 64 In the western societies, the occurrence of polio, diphtheria and tuberculosis has (a) (b) (c) (d)

A. increased

B. completely stopped

C. decreased

D. continued without changes

Q. 65 More death are now associated with old age than in the past because

A. iatrogenic diseases are spreading faster now

B. deadly diseases affecting the young have been well controlled

C. accidents, violence and suicide that killed many youths in the past are now under control

D. political and technological changes now take better care of the young than the old

Q. 66 The writer probably is arguing for

A. stopping the practice of western medicines completely

B. stopping the use of costly equipment and medicines

C. rethinking about the successes and failures of the western medicines

D. giving greater attention to new. iatrogenic diseases than to the old diseases such as polio, diphtheria and pneumonia

Questions: 67 – 71

Poverty is a complex problem. It is far more than an economical condition. We measure it usually in terms of income but forget that poverty embraces a whole range of circumstances, including lack of access to information and to basic services like nutritional diet, health care and education. It results into a loss of cultural identity and destroys traditional knowledge. Poor people become marginalised and suffer from exploitation and loss of human dignity.

Q. 67 Which of the following sentences comes close to the lured g of the sentence, “Poverty embraces a whole range of circumstances.”

A. There are lot of angles to poverty

B. There are several section in the society which are poor

C. There are several types of poverty

D. Poverty is solely an economic issue

Q. 68 What way do you think ‘lack of access to information’ affects poor people ?

A. They don’t get information about how to improve their conditions

B. They didn’t get newspapers to read at all

C. They can’t go to school and read books

D. They don’t get information about schemes of getting rich

Q. 69 Why do you think ‘cultural identity’ is important ?

A. A sense of cultural identity gives people self-respect and confidence

B. Cultural identity defines the character of poor people

C. It is important to have cultural identity to get jobs

D. It is useful to have cultural identity because it brings your success

Q. 70 Which of the following sentences comes closest to the sentence ‘Poor people become marginalised’ ?

A. They ale not given any benefit of any government schemes

B. They are ignored by the rich people

C. They are the most ignored elements of the society

D. They are the most disposed elements of the society

Q. 71 What do you think is the tone of the passage ?

A. Objective but querulous

B. Descriptive and impassioned

C. Argumentative and critical

D. Objective and critical

Questions: 72 – 96

Directions :

Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Q. 72 (a)It is identification with the audience (b) that makes one come home from the play so much mom (c) satisfied than one ever is after merely passive enjoyment of the show No error. (d)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 73 (a) CV Raman was one of the greatest sons of India (b)who has earned everlasting fame (c) for scientific researches.(d) No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 74 (a)This box (b)is heavy than (c)the other one.(d) No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 75 The (a)writer does not have the freedom (b) to choose his own themes, (c) society thrusts them on him. (d) No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 76 (a)No one knows (b)as to why he did it,(c) or who was behind his dub% it.(d) No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 77 (a)How long (b)you are (c)in this profession. (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 78 (a)I know that (b)ignorance is not bliss, (c)yet l am ignorant in many things. (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 79 (a)You are (b)just sixteen years old, (c)isn’t it ? .(d) No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 80 (a)The old widower, (b)living in remittances from his sons, (d)could not make both ends meet. (d) No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 81 (a)Debate about biotechnology and genetic engineering (b)is under way around the world, (c)and India is fully engrossed with the discussion. (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 82 (a)I like to (b)listen the song of the nightingale (c)in the evening. (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 83 (a)Each student (b)from amongst the hundred students in the class (c)want to watch this movie.(d) No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 84 (a)Although there is virtually no production in India, (b)the Encyclopaedia Britannica estimate (c)that India has perhaps the largest accumulated stocks of silver in the world. (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 85 (a)We have to reach (b)there at ten (c)will you please walk little faster. (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 86 (a)It is almost difficult,(b) in case impossible, (c)to keep awake late after dinner.(d) No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 87 (a)What most students need, above all else (b)is practice in writing (c) and particularly in writing things that matter to them. (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 88 (a)She was out of the mind, (b)when she made that plan to go abroad (c)without taking into consideration ha present family position.(d) No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 89 (a)Are you (b)through with (c)that newspaper? (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 90 (a)My college (b)is besides (c)the lake.(d) No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 91 (a)The Department of Fine Arts has been criticised (b)for not having much required courses (c)scheduled for this semester. (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 92 (a)If you have thought about the alternatives, (b)you would not have chosen (c)such a difficult topic for the term paper.(d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 93 (a)The duties of the secretary an (b)to take the minutes, mailing the correspondence, (c) and calling the members before meeting.(d) No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 94 (a)If I was you, (b)I would not go to film (c)in my mother’s absence. (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 95 (a)Those of us who have a family history of heart disease (b)should make a yearly appointment (c)with their doctors. (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 96 (a)The old fumitures (b)was disposed of (c)and the new ones were placed. (d)No error.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Questions: 97 – 106

Directions :

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space with four words or group of words given. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. 97 Whenever I go into a hank. I feel scared. Everybody and everything that I see there .

(a) pleases me.

(b) frightens

(d) terrifies

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 98 As for the manager the sight (a) of him simply (b) at (c) by (d) on

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 99 terrifies me and (a) shapes (b)makes (c)shields (d) asks

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 100 (a) as slow as (b) as fast as (c) as steadily as (d) as actively as I can.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 101 As soon as I (a) open the door of the bank I lose my head (b) close (c) shut (d) sec

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 102 (a) or (b) and (c) either (d) neither when I try to do any

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 103 (a) service there, (b) business (c) deed (d)act I behave like an idiot. I cannot explain

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 104 (a) the reasons for this but that (b) the responses (c) the answers (d) the causes

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 105 is how it _ (a) always (b) no time (c) any time (d) many times has been that is how it is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 106 has been that is how it is (a) then. (b) now (c) later (d) after

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Questions: 107 – 112

Directions : For the expression which has been kept in between // in each of the following sentences, choose the response (a), (b). (c) or (d) which most nearly expresses its meaning.

Q. 107 The institution decided to give Mrs. Roy’s 110. Though he was arrogant, I could not job to her son not because she was a social dispense with his services. worker, but because the /had died in harness/.

A. died alter retirement

B. died before retirement

C. died while riding a horse

D. died for a great cause

Q. 108 Your ambition should be /in consonance with/ your capabilities.

A. parallel to

B. in accordance with

C. in harmony with

D. in tune with

Q. 109 I could not go up in life /for want of/ proper guidance.

A. for lack of

B. for need of

C. for the desire of

D. for the necessity of

Q. 110 Though he was arrogant, I could not /dispense with/ his services.

A. terminate

B. align with

C. claim

D. disregard with

Q. 111 In spite of his hard work, he was /made a scapegoat/ for the failure of the project.

A. freed from any responsibility for

B. lamed without reason for

C. suspected of causing b

D. was severely punished for

Q. 112 If food supply fails /to keep pace with/ population, civilization will collapse.

A. to grow along with

B. to walk side by side

C. to gain momentum

D. to move at the same speed as

Questions: 113 – 120

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with a word in between // followed by four words. Select the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Q. 113 Whether the rewards are /in commensurate with/ the efforts or not, a society will always have workaholics and the shirk work groups.

A. disproportionate

B. equal to

C. matched

D. unparalleledWars leave behind a large number of emaciated soldiers in the camps of both the (a) trivial victorious and the vanquished. (b) futile (a) hefty (c) vain (b) thin (d) useless (c) disillusioned

Q. 114 Wars leave behind a large number of /emaciated/ soldiers in the camps of both the victorious and vanquished.

A. hefty

B. thin

C. disillusioned

D. determined

Q. 115 There was a /mammoth/ gathering to listen involvement in the case, but how he feels to the leader. about it.

A. negligible

B. lifty

C. poor

D. large

Q. 116 The audience thoroughly enjoyed the /hilarious/ drama.

A. amusing

B. delightful

C. serious

D. momentous

Q. 117 The writer’s /erudition/ in science is revealed in every page of the book.

A. unenlighted

B. ignorence

C. intelligence

D. hollowness

Q. 118 The seminar which Ravi organised proved to be /momentous/ event.

A. trivial

B. futile

C. vain

D. useless

Q. 119 The question is not whether the court /vindicates/ him with regard to his involvement in the case, but how he feels about it.

A. reprieves

B. absolves

C. indicts

D. summons

Q. 120 In those days many monarchs enjoyed vast /ecclesiastical/ powers.

A. permanent

B. temporal

C. contemporary

D. constitutional

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	D	D	C	C	B	D	C	C	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	C	A	B	B	C	A	C	A	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	C	A	C	B	C	B	C	A	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	D	C	D	D	B	D	C	D	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	D	B	B	B	C	C	D	B	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	C	B	C	D	C	A	B	C	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	B	B	D	B	A	A	D	D	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	D	C	D	A	A	A	B	B	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	D	B	B	B	C	C	A	B	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	D	D	A	C	A	A	C	B	D
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	D	A	A	B	B	D	A	C	A	D
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	A	C	D	D	D	D	C	D	D	B

CDS(I) Exam 2017 English Previous Year Paper

CDSE 1 2017 English

Q. 1 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: he

Q: almost

R: planned the entire strategy of operation

S: single-handed

The correct sequence should be

A. RSPQ

B. PRQS

C. SQRP

D. QPSR

Q. 2 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: it is a fact that rice is one of the most prolific

Q: than almost any other crop

R: yielding a greater return per acre

S: of food crops

The correct sequence should be

A. SRQP

B. RPSQ

C. QRSP

D. PSRQ

Q. 3 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: up to the end of the eighteenth century, not only because it was often fatal,

Q: smallpox was a particularly dreaded disease,

R: but also because those who recovered

S: were permanently disfigured

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. QRSP

C. PRSQ

D. QPRS

Q. 4 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: a person bitten by a rabid dog

Q: would be seized by violent symptoms

R: after an incubation period of a month or two

S: and die an agonizing death

The correct sequence should be

A. PRSQ

B. SRQP

C. PRQS

D. PQRS

Q. 5 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

The traveller,

P: sat down

Q: to rest

R: by the roadside

S: being weary,

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. RSPQ

C. SPQR

D. RPQS

Q. 6 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: the house was

Q: away

R: with its liveliest member

S: gloomy

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. PSRQ

C. RSPQ

D. QRPS

Q. 7 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: he was a tiny man

Q: with a sprinkly walk

R: tall

S: barely five feet

The correct sequence should be

A. RSQP

B. SRQP

C. QSPR

D. PSRQ

Q. 8 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: rules and regulations

Q: he cheerfully ignored its demands

R: a life of

S: unaccustomed to

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. QRPS

C. SRPQ

D. QSRP

Q. 9 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

The man

P: for a moment,

Q: looked at me

R: and thus emptied my pockets

S: turned me upside down

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. QPRS

C. QPSR

D. PQSR

Q. 10 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

The lady

P: today

Q: is visiting

R: us

S: who composed this poem

The correct sequence should be

A. RQPS

B. PRQS

C. QRPS

D. SQRP

Q. 11 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

Animals

P: able to measure

Q: the passing of seasons

R: changes in day-length

S: by recognizing

The correct sequence should be

A. PQSR

B. SQPR

C. PRSQ

D. SRPQ

Q. 12 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

Many people

P: inaudible to others

Q: in the ears or head

R: suffer persistent noises

S: with hearing problems

The correct sequence should be

A. RQSP

B. PSQR

C. SRQP

D. RSQP

Q. 13 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

Researchers

P: found that allergic reactions are brought about

Q: in the bloodstream

R: in the 1940s

S: by the liberation of small quantities of a substance called histamine

The correct sequence should be

A. RPSQ

B. QRPS

C. RQSP

D. PSQR

Q. 14 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

Attempts at transplanting other organs,

P: but that which most caught the public fancy

Q: was the heart transplant

R: such as the lungs or the liver,

S: have been made

The correct sequence should be

A. SRQP

B. RSPQ

C. RPSQ

D. QRPS

Q. 15 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: sports cars

Q: appeal

R: to some motorists only

S: with noisy exhausts

The correct sequence should be

A. RQSP

B. PSQR

C. RSPQ

D. PQSR

Q. 16 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

Friendship has its place

P: in

Q: truth and justice

R: but it cannot override

S: life,

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. RSPQ

C. PSRQ

D. RQPS

Q. 17 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: the workaholic often

Q: becomes a prisoner of success

R: inadvertently

S: reaping greater and greater rewards

The correct sequence should be

A. SPRQ

B. SPQR

C. RPQS

D. PQRS

Q. 18 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: the schoolmasters and the professors tend to believe

Q: that innate intelligence is a quality

R: but that you can’t do much about it except measure it

S: which varies very gently from one individual to another

The correct sequence should be

A. PSQR

B. PRSQ

C. PQSR

D. QSRP

Q. 19 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

People

P: do not realize

Q: that modern society

R: who object to driver education

S: is built around the automobile

The correct sequence should be

A. RPQS

B. QRSP

C. RSPQ

D. SPQR

Q. 20 Rearrange these parts labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark the answer accordingly.

P: with an idea to reach the deprived child

Q: by the United Nations Organization

R: the year 1979 has been declared as

S: the International Year of the Child

The correct sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. PSQR

C. PRSQ

D. RSPQ

Q. 21 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option

subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error

I waited for her return with growing unease.

A. I waited

B. for her return

C. with growing unease.

D. No error

Q. 22 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option

subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

I do not understand why in spite of my best efforts to please him my boss is so angry at me.

A. I do not understand why

B. in spite of my best efforts to please him

C. my boss is so angry at me.

D. No error

Q. 23 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option

subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Being a rainy day, we did not feel like going out or doing anything except playing chess in our room.

A. Being a rainy day,

B. we did not feel like going out or doing anything

C. except playing chess in our room.

D. No error

Q. 24 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option

subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

It is not difficult to believe that a man who has lived in this city for a long time he will never feel at home anywhere else in the world.

A. It is not difficult to believe that a man

B. who has lived in this city for a long time

C. he will never feel at home anywhere in the world.

D. No error

Q. 25 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Although we reached his house on time he was left for the airport.

A. Although we reached his house on time

B. he was left

C. for the airport.

D. No error

Q. 26 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option

subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

If a thing is worth doing at all it is worth done well.

A. If a thing

B. is worth doing at all

C. it is worth done well.

D. No error

Q. 27 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

All the boys returned back home well in time for lunch.

A. All the boys

B. returned back home

C. well in time for lunch.

D. No error

Q. 28 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Tell me the name of a country where every citizen is law-abiding and no trouble is there.

A. Tell me the name of

B. a country where every citizen is law-abiding

C. and no trouble is there.

D. No error

Q. 29 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Considering about these acts the principal has offered him a seat.

A. Considering about these facts

B. the principal has offered

C. him a seat.

D. No error

Q. 30 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

His friends feel that he will be suspended unless he does not report for duty immediately.

A. His friends feel that

B. he will be suspended

C. unless he does not report for duty immediately.

D. No error

Q. 31 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

One of the most interesting feature of travel in Himachal Pradesh is the large number of travellers’ lodges provided by the State Government.

A. One of the most interesting feature of travel in Himachal Pradesh is

B. the large number of travellers’ lodges

C. provided by the State Government.

D. No error

Q. 32 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

It was raining cats and dogs.

A. It

B. was raining

C. cats and dogs.

D. No error

Q. 33 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option

subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

I prefer this book than that one.

A. I prefer

B. this book

C. than that one.

D. No error

Q. 34 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Their belongings were lost in the fire.

A. Their belongings

B. were lost

C. in the fire.

D. No error

Q. 35 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Tell him to take another photograph of the group.

A. Tell him to take

B. another photograph

C. of the group.

D. No error

Q. 36 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

I courteously asked him where he was going but he did not reply.

A. I courteously asked him

B. where he was going

C. but he did not reply.

D. No error

Q. 37 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

The memoranda are on the table.

A. The memoranda

B. are

C. on the table.

D. No error

Q. 38 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Nandita asked me if I was working hardly these days.

A. Nandita asked me

B. if I was working

C. hardly these days.

D. No error

Q. 39 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

He couldn’t find an answer.

A. He couldn’t

B. find

C. an answer.

D. No error.

Q. 40 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Whom you think will be dismissed first?

A. Whom you think

B. will be dismissed

C. first?

D. No error

Q. 41 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Of the many problems that confront the leaders of the world none are of grave consequence than the problem of saving the normal human race from extinction.

A. Of the many problems that confront the leaders of the world

B. none are of grave consequence

C. than the problem of saving the normal human race from extinction.

D. No error

Q. 42 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

All of them speak good English.

A. All of them

B. speak

C. good English.

D. No error

Q. 43 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

The peon has not sweeped the floor today.

A. The peon

B. has not sweeped

C. the floor today.

D. No error

Q. 44 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Her parents has not permitted her to marry Sunil.

A. Her parents

B. has not permitted her

C. to marry Sunil.

D. No error

Q. 45 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Emperor Ashoka have conquered Kalinga before he embraced Buddhism.

A. Emperor Ashoka

B. have conquered KAlinga

C. before he embraced Buddhism.

D. No error

Q. 46 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any error in the mentioned option subparts. If you find no error, your response should be indicated as No Error.

Every student should be asked to give their ideas on the subject.

A. Every student

B. should be asked

C. to give their ideas on the subject.

D. No error

Q. 47 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: According to the legend it was during a famine in China many thousands of years ago that rice first came into the lives of the Asians.

S6: And the little girl gathered a harvest of rice.

P: the golden sunbeams dropped through the meshes and transformed themselves into golden grains.

Q: A little girl went fishing.

R: But instead of catching fish she netted the King of Frogs.

S: The King told her to hold out the net to the sunbeams while he sang a magic song.

The proper sequence should be

A. PSQR

B. RPSQ

C. QRSP

D. PQSR

Q. 48 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: Ramu was in a great hurry.

S6: Fortunately, it wasn’t a very serious one.

P: As a result of this carelessness, he met with an accident.

Q: The examination was to begin in five minutes time.

R: He just rushed across the road

S: So he forgot to look to the left or right as he always did.

The proper sequence should be

A. RQSP

B. SRPQ

C. RSPQ

D. QSRP

Q. 49 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: Chandran was terribly angry.

S6: Saro ran screaming.

P: His pen was in her hand and Chandran rushed at her.

Q: Just then his sister, Saro, appeared at the door-step.

R: His pen was missing from the place where he had left it.

S: He thought it was lost

The proper sequence should be

A. PRSQ

B. RSQP

C. PSQR

D. SQPR

Q. 50 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: One fine morning, I heard a sound of fire engines with loud alarm bells.

S6: It was a terrible scene, as huge flames of fire were coming out of the house.

P: I thought, perhaps a house was on fire.

Q: They were regulating the crowd.

R: The policemen were standing around a big house.

S: I immediately rushed out to see what was happening.

The proper sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. RSQP

C. SRPQ

D. PSRQ

Q. 51 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: The sun-dried stalks of rice had caught fire and burst into flames.

S6: Even those who were too feeble to keep up with the first rush were on their feet, eager to join the fire-fighters.

P: Then came most of the older people, and mothers with babies at their backs.

Q: And all the active women and girls followed them to assist them in fighting the fire.

R: All the young men and boys were soon on the spot.

S: Staring wildly at the blazing fire, the people of the village ran to extinguish the fire.

The proper sequence should be

A. PSQR

B. QPRS

C. SRPQ

D. SRQP

Q. 52 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: People’s fear of snakes seems to be based on a series of misconceptions.

S6: Yet people will insist that they cannot touch a snake because of its sliminess.

P: The most common one is the conviction that all the creatures are poisonous.

Q: Another very popular idea is that these reptiles are slimy to touch.

R: Snakes are really dry and cold; not slimy like a wet cake of soap but rather like a

crocodile-skin handbag to the touch.

S: In fact, the non-poisonous ones outnumber the poisonous ones by about ten to one.

The proper sequence should be

A. RQPS

B. PRQS

C. PSQR

D. RQSP

Q. 53 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: The first great discovery that man probably made was that of fire.

S6: The animals were not clever enough to learn anything from this.

P: Fires sometimes occur by themselves in the forests perhaps by rubbing together of flints or something else.

Q: We light a fire now by a match.

R: In olden times fires were made by striking two flints against each other till a spark came for setting fire to a dry thing.

S: But matches are quite recent things.

The proper sequence should be

A. PRSQ

B. QSPR

C. PQSR

D. RPQS

Q. 54 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: A common disease of the eye is conjunctivitis or ‘pink eye’, which often occurs in school-children.

S6: Students with this condition should be sent to the doctor.

P: This disease spreads rapidly among school-children.

Q: A white discharge also appears in the corner of the eyes.

R: One or both eyeballs turn quite red and have a feeling of irritation.

S: This discharge forms a crust which can often be seen in the morning after the eyes have been shut all night.

The proper sequence should be

A. PSQR

B. RSPQ

C. RQSP

D. QSRP

Q. 55 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: My office sent a message with a terrific urgency asking me to return.

S6: It was the evening before I could sit and write to my parents that I would join them soon.

P: I immediately sent a message requesting a few days of grace as I had to book the return ticket and attend sundry matters before winding up my establishment here.

Q: On the way, I went to the laundry and made sure I would get my clothes in time.

R: Then I rushed to the bank, collected all my money and made reservations for my return journey.

S: From the shop next to it, I bought a strong box to dump my books and other odd articles so that I could send them away in advance.

The proper sequence should be

A. QRSP

B. RQPS

C. SPQR

D. PRQS

Q. 56 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: Harsten’s theory was that plants definitely react to music.

S6: He found that this plant grew faster and 70 percent taller than the other plant.

P: In his experiment, he used two banana plants.

Q: The music was, in fact, a high-pitched humming sound.

R: He gave both plants the same light, heat, and water.

S: But for about an hour a day, one of the plants ‘listened’ to some music.

The proper sequence should be

A. QSRP

B. PQRS

C. PRSQ

D. QRPS

Q. 57 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: Some students may feel that fast readers do not understand as much as slow readers.

S6: This statement, however, needs to be made with caution.

P: Some slow readers will have good comprehension and others poor.

Q: A quick glance at the scores will show that fast readers sometimes have very good comprehension and sometimes poor.

R: This fallacy can easily be disproved when you give the first reading test in a class.

S: In short, there is little relation between reading speed and comprehension.

The proper sequence should be

A. RQPS

B. SQRP

C. PQRS

D. QSRP

Q. 58 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: There isn’t a cricketer worth his salt who does not aspire for captaincy.

S6: It is against this background that any emotions surrounding the captaincy should be viewed.

P: Even parents are proud when their sons become the captain.

Q: At lower levels, it is the best players who gets to lead the team.

R: In cricket, the greatest honour any player can get is the captaincy.

S: Right from school days, boys dream of leading the team.

The proper sequence should be

A. PQRS

B. SRQP

C. PQSR

D. SQPR

Q. 59 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: Systematic and ceaseless efforts are being made to tap scientifically the abundant solar energy available in the country.

S6: Installation of solar thermal systems and devices has helped to save or generate energy to the extent of 350kWh per annum.

P: These include cooking, water heating, water desalination, space heating, etc.

Q: A large number of applications in the area have already become commercial.

R: Efforts are also afoot to develop economically viable solar collectors for high temperature applications.

S: A simple and common mode in solar energy utilization is solar thermal conversion.

The proper sequence should be

A. QSRP

B. QPRS

C. SQPR

D. RQSP

Q. 60 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: The houses in the Indus Valley were built of baked bricks.

S6: They led outside into covered sewers which ran down the side of the streets.

P: This staircase sometimes continued upwards on to the roof.

Q: Access to the upstairs rooms was by a narrow stone staircase at the back of the house.

R: The drains were built in the walls.

S: The houses had bathrooms and water closets, rubbish chutes and excellent drainage systems.

The proper sequence should be

A. SPQR

B. PSQR

C. QRPS

D. QPSR

Q. 61 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: I remember, some years ago, the library of a famous divine and literary critic, who had died, being sold.

S6: Yet, he was a holy man and preached admirable sermons.

P: Multitudes of the books had the marks of libraries all over the country.

Q: It was a splendid library of rare books, chiefly concerned with seventeenth-century writers.

R: Evidently, he was very possessive about the books he borrowed.

S: He had borrowed them and never found a convenient opportunity of returning them.

The proper sequence should be

A. RPQS

B. QPSR

C. SPQR

D. PSRQ

Q. 62 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: Of course, it is silly to try to overcome fears that keep us from destroying ourselves.

S6: The only fears you need to avoid are silly fears which prevent you from doing what you should do.

P: This is sensible.

Q: You wait until it is out of the way before crossing.

R: You need some fears to keep you from doing foolish things.

S: You are afraid of an automobile coming rapidly down the street you wish to cross.

The proper sequence should be

A. PRSQ

B. RSQP

C. RPSQ

D. PQRS

Q. 63 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: Nobody likes staying at home on a public holiday-especially if the weather is fine.

S6: It was very peaceful in the cool grass-until we heard bells ringing at the top of the hill.

P: We had brought plenty of food with us and we got it out of the car.

Q: The only difficulty was that millions of other people had the same idea.

R: Now everything was ready so we sat down near a path at the foot of a hill.

S: We moved out of the city slowly behind a long line of cars but at last we came to a quiet country road and after some time, stopped at a lonely farm.

The proper sequence should be

A. PSQR

B. QSPR

C. PQRS

D. SPQR

Q. 64 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: The teaching work for the term is over.

S6: For this, weekend trips do not suffice, and a longer stay is necessary.

P: That will end on October 13 and the Diwali vacation will begin from October 14.

Q: After I complete the assessment of examination papers, I plan to go and stay at our

house in Lonavla for at least a week.

R: Next week the terminal examination begins.

S: There is a lot of repair work that needs to be carried out in the house.

The proper sequence should be

A. SQRP

B. QSPR

C. RPSQ

D. RPQS

Q. 65 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: A proposal to remove from circulation 5 paise coins has been given up by the Centre on the advice of the Reserve Bank of India.

S6: It is, however, proposed to reduce the costs of minting these coins by changing their metallic content.

P: The Government had been thinking of removing from circulation even the 10 paise coin.

Q: The cost of minting a 5 paise coin is said to be 7 paise while the cost of minting a 10 paise coin in 10.5 paise.

R: Moreover their removal would cause tremendous hardship to some people.

S: The RBI had opposed this saying that they figure largely in public transactions.

The proper sequence should be

A. SRQP

B. QPSR

C. PSRQ

D. PQSR

Q. 66 Below are six sentences of a passage. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. Find the proper sequence of the four sentences and answer accordingly.

S1: It is common knowledge that people go after different objects in the world to get

happiness.

S6: He is conscious of the fact that happiness is within and not without.

P: The wise man with a properly attuned mind is happy with them, in spite of them and without them too.

Q: Can a condemned prisoner, awaiting execution on the morrow, relish food, however delicious?

R: But a little reflection will prove that in reality these sense-objects, by themselves, can never make a person happy.

S: It is a folly to equate objects with happiness.

The proper sequence should be

A. RQSP

B. SQRP

C. SPQR

D. RSQP

Q. 67 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. Go north-east across the mountains till you ‘will reach’ an island.

A. reached

B. reach

C. have reached

D. No improvement

Q. 68 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. It is hard these days to ‘cope with’ the rising prices.

A. cope by

B. cope up with

C. to be coped with

D. No improvement

Q. 69 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. He took a ‘loan’ of hundred rupees from me.

A. debt

B. demand

C. advance

D. No improvement

Q. 70 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. ‘From the last’ five days it has been raining torrentially.

A. Since the last

B. For the last

C. Since last

D. No improvement

Q. 71 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. The teacher, along with her three children, ‘were taken’ to hospital.

A. was taken

B. had taken

C. had being taken

D. No improvement

Q. 72 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. The Prime Minister had ‘wide-ranging’ discussions on the international situation.

A. widely-ranging

B. wide-ranged

C. wide-range

D. No improvement

Q. 73 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. The man disappeared after he ‘was rescuing’ a boy from drowning.

A. was rescued

B. has been rescued

C. had rescued

D. No improvement

Q. 74 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. I shall be obliged if you ‘could grant’ me an interview.

A. give

B. allow

C. permit

D. No improvement

Q. 75 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. By 8.00 in the morning he ‘wrote’ four letters to his friends.

A. had written

B. had been writing

C. was writing

D. No improvement

Q. 76 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. But for one witness the accused ‘ought to have’ ben sent to jail.

A. would have

B. had

C. should have

D. No improvement

Q. 77 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. He is now looking ‘about’ a job.

A. for

B. after

C. into

D. No improvement

Q. 78 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet. He did not abide ‘with’ my decision.

A. to

B. by

C. for

D. No improvement

Q. 79 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

I ‘was living’ in Chennai for ten years when I was a child.

A. had lived

B. lived

C. had been living

D. No improvement

Q. 80 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

I didn’t feel like going out yesterday, but on account of my son’s illness I ‘had’ to go to the doctor.

A. have

B. might have

C. ought

D. No improvement

Q. 81 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

Your services are dispensed ‘for’.

A. from

B. with

C. off

D. No improvement

Q. 82 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

I didn’t go to office because I ‘was’ ill.

A. felt

B. had become

C. had felt

D. No improvement

Q. 83 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

The angry neighbours never ‘passed from’ each other without making rude remarks.

A. passed on

B. passed against

C. passed

D. No improvement

Q. 84 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

The chairman with the other members of the board ‘are touring’ Europe these days.

A. have been on touring

B. is touring

C. have toured

D. No improvement

Q. 85 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

Mahatma Gandhi is ‘called as the Father of the Nation’.

A. called Father of the Nation

B. called the Father of the Nation

C. Father of the Nation

D. No improvement

Q. 86 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

Poor Tom ‘laid’ in the shade of a tree before he could walk further.

A. lied

B. lain

C. lay

D. No improvement

Q. 87 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

You must ‘accustom yourself with’ new ideas.

A. accustomed with

B. accustom to

C. accustom yourself to

D. No improvement

Q. 88 Look at the given sentence. Below it are given three possible substitutions for the text in quotes. Select the best improvement of the quoted portion. If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate ‘No improvement’ as your response on the Answer Sheet.

This telephone number ‘is not existing’.

A. does not exist

B. has not been existing

C. has had no existence

D. No improvement

Questions: 89 – 92

Directions: Read the passage given below. After the passage, you will find some questions based on it. First, read the passage and answer the questions based on its contents. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only. When Jonathan (the seagull) came, it was well after dark, and he floated in moonlight on the surface of the ocean. His wings were ragged bars of lead, but the weight of failure was even heavier on his back. He wished, feebly, that the weight would be just enough to drag him gently down to the bottom, and end it all. But soon he came back to normal. He pushed wearily away from the dark water and he flew towards the land, grateful for what he had learned about worksaving low-altitude flying.

Q. 89 The word ‘wearily’ means

A. tireless

B. exhausted

C. sadly

D. unconscious

Q. 90 The seagull suffered because

A. he had tried to do something that other seagulls had not done.

B. probably he had been attacked by a stronger bird.

C. probably he had been attacked by some strong creatures in the sea.

D. he had swooned and fallen into the water

Q. 91 ‘His wings were ragged bars of lead’ means that

A. his wings were damaged and supported by bars of lead.

B. his wings were damaged and therefore very heavy.

C. he had rags and bars of lead on his wings.

D. his wings were broken like pieces of lead.

Q. 92 The lesson that he had learnt that day was about

A. not fighting with stronger birds.

B. flying carrying bars of lead on his wings.

C. diving too deep into the sea.

D. flying at low altitudes.

Questions: 93 – 97

Vacationing on a motorcycle, you see things in a way that is completely different from any other. In a car you are always in a compartment, and because you are used to it you do not realize that through that car window everything you see is just more TV. You are a passive observer and it is all moving by you boringly in a frame. On a motorcycle, however, the frame is gone. You are completely in contact with it all. You are in the scene, not just watching it anymore, and the sense of presence is overwhelming.

Q. 93 The writer likes traveling on the motorcycle. What is the most likely reason for this?

A. The motorcycle has no windows.

B. The motorcycle does not go as fast as a car.

C. As the traveller is used to cars, travelling by motorcycle is a change.

D. Travelling by motorcycle, the writer feels that he is a part of the scenery.

Q. 94 Which of the following statements is closest to the truth?

A. The writer does not like TV as it gives a narrow view of things.

B. The writer likes TV but he does not like watching it from car windows.

C. The writer does not like TV because the picture is in a frame.

D. The writer does not like TV because the programs are boring.

Q. 95 “In a car, you are always in a compartment, and because you are used to it you do not realize that…… .” In this sentence, ‘it’ refers to

A. travelling in a car.

B. always being in a compartment, e.g. one’s room, office.

C. seeing the scenery through the window frame.

D. seeing so much TV at home.

Q. 96 In the last sentence, the writer talks of a ‘sense of presence’. He is referring to the presence of

A. his own self as part of the scene.

B. the time that is now passing.

C. the scene and the beauty.

D. senses with which one feels.

Q. 97 The word ‘overwhelming’ means

A. very strong

B. unavoidable

C. interesting

D. humorous

Questions: 98 – 100

I was lying down in a dark, lonely compartment of the speeding train, trying to sleep. But, quite unusually, sleep eluded me. A vague uneasiness gripped me. It was pitch dark outside. A few points of light flashed by as we sped through a small station and in the dim light I thought I saw a hand gripping the bars of my window. Once again the train was swallowed up by the impenetrable darkness. My heart pounded. My mouth was parched. I could not get up. I do not know how long I remained thus before the train began to slow down. The reassuring bright lights of the station we were entering revealed no intruder. I breathed again.

Q. 98 The narrator could not sleep because

A. he usually found it difficult to fall asleep.

B. he could not find a place to lie down.

C. he was disturbed by some unspecified thoughts.

D. the people near him were disturbing him.

Q. 99 In the dim light he saw

A. someone trying to climb into the train.

B. someone clinging to the bars of the window.

C. someone was attempting to steal his bag.

D. someone standing outside the window.

Q. 100 Which of the following words best describes the condition of the traveler?

A. Cautious

B. Imaginative

C. Observant

D. Nervous

Questions: 101 – 103

I was abruptly awakened by a noisy scuffle. The sun, a mere fringe over the horizon, immediately chased away the gray half-darkness. I was too sleepy to notice what was happening. Yuri was rolling over on the ground. I ran up to him but was struck dumb. With his right hand, he was holding a cobra by the neck. Two sharp fangs showed from its jaws. The battle was over in a few minutes. A hollow hissing and convulsive jerks were then only reminders of a just-ended tussle. The catcher half-opened the lid of the box and calmly put the quarry in.

Q. 101 When the writer saw Yuri holding a cobra by the neck, he was ‘struck dumb’. This means that he was

A. extremely delighted.

B. very much helpless.

C. rather surprised.

D. absolutely shocked.

Q. 102 From the passage, Yuri appears to be a man who is

A. calm and courageous.

B. cunning and crafty.

C. noisy and dangerous

D. active and jumpy.

Q. 103 With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. The incident took place early in the morning.

2. Yuri threw the snake away.

Which of these assumptions is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 and 2

Questions: 104 – 107

Urbanization and industrialization have often resulted in whole areas of forests being cleared to gain new land and to obtain timber for the various building projects. Large areas of fields and forests have disappeared to make way for concrete jungles many of which are fitted with huge plants and chimney stacks. Industrial growth has necessitated the increased demand for fuel oil to run the machines and in doing so produces industrial gases and fumes which belch through the chimney and pollute the atmosphere. The most evident elements in the contamination of the atmosphere are dust, sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide and nitrous oxide.

Q. 104 The writer expresses the belief that

A. there is plenty of scope for further industrialization.

B. unplanned growth of industry has done more harm than good.

C. the change from rural to urban growth is a change for the better.

D. the timber obtained from the forests has been beneficially used.

Q. 105 The effect on forest areas produced by the activity described in the first sentence is called

A. devastation

B. deforestation

C. disfiguration

D. devaluation

Q. 106 The results of industrial development, according to the writer, are

A. urbanization.

B. no shortage of fuel oil.

C. greater availability of domestic gas.

D. greater fuel consumption and pollution.

Q. 107 The phrase ‘concrete jungle’ in the paragraph refers to the factories and houses built as a result of urbanization and industrialization. This phrase suggests that the author

A. regrets that fields and forests have been replaced by city buildings.

B. believes that too much cement has been used in building factories.

C. disapproves of modern industrial expansion.

D. would like to back to life in the jungle.

Questions: 108 – 110

I must say a word about the Eiffel Tower. I do not know what purpose it serves today. But I then heard it greatly disparaged as well as praised. I remember that Tolstoy was the chief among those who disparaged it. He said that the Eiffel Tower was a monument of man’s folly, not of his wisdom. Tobacco, he argued, was the worst of all intoxicants, in as much as a man addicted to it was tempted to commit crimes which a drunkard never dared to do; liquor made a man mad, but tobacco clouded his intellect and made him build castles in the air. The Eiffel Tower was one of the creations of a man under such influence. There is no art about the Eiffel Tower. In no way can it be said to have contributed to the real beauty of the Exhibition. Men flocked to see it and ascended it as it was a novelty and of unique dimensions. It was the toy of the Exhibition. So long as were are children we are attracted by toys, and the Tower was a good demonstration of the fact that we are children attracted by trinkets. That may be claimed to be the purpose served by the Eiffel Tower.

Q. 108 Why did Tolstoy disparage Eiffel Tower?

1. Man was foolish to build it.

2. Huge man-made structure did not appeal to him.

3. Men flocked to see it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Q. 109 Why did Tolstoy believe that tobacco was the worst of all intoxicants?

A. Man lost his intellectual abilities under the influence of tobacco.

B. Tobacco kept man in a state of inebriation.

C. People who commit crimes are invariably addicted to tobacco.

D. Statements (a) and (b) above are correct in this context.

Q. 110 Why did men flock to the Eiffel Tower?

A. Men were attracted to the castles built in the air.

B. Men lost their wisdom under the influence of intoxicants.

C. Men were attracted to childish things.

D. Men were attracted to things of no value.

Q. 111 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

In this University, there is no ____________ for awarding scholarships on the basis of merit in examination alone.

A. precedent

B. opportunity

C. chance

D. possibility

Q. 112 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Can you pay ____________ all these articles?

A. out

B. of

C. for

D. off

Q. 113 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

He may not come, but we’ll get ready in case he __________.

A. may

B. will

C. shall

D. does

Q. 114 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

He is quite ____________; you can never count on him in matters of secrecy.

A. unjust

B. unbearable

C. inefficient

D. unreliable

Q. 115 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The Governor will ____________ the oath of office to the thirty-five new ministers at 9.30 p.m. tomorrow.

A. confer

B. present

C. execute

D. administer

Q. 116 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Most of the students have forgotten to bring their certificates; they will be ____________ by the Principal for this reason.

A. reproached

B. abused

C. accused

D. reprimanded

Q. 117 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The consequences of economic growth have now __________ to the lowest level.

A. drawn

B. slipped

C. percolated

D. crept

Q. 118 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Mrs. Ramsay did not know whether Miss Jane knew ____________.

A. swimming

B. to swim

C. how to swim

D. how to swimming

Q. 119 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

He ____________ the role of the organization in creating environmental awareness among the people.

A. collaborated

B. commanded

C. contrasted

D. commended

Q. 120 The following sentence has a blank space and four words are given below it. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

We should give everyone training in citizenship but we have __________ this aspect till now.

A. denied

B. neglected

C. refused

D. disallowed

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	D	D	C	C	B	D	C	C	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	C	A	B	B	C	A	C	A	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	C	A	C	B	C	B	C	A	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	D	C	D	D	B	D	C	D	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	D	B	B	B	C	C	D	B	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	C	B	C	D	C	A	B	C	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	B	B	D	B	A	B	D	D	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	D	C	D	A	A	A	B	B	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	D	C	B	B	C	C	A	B	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	D	D	A	C	A	A	C	B	D
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	D	A	A	B	B	D	A	C	A	D
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	A	C	D	D	D	D	C	C	D	B