IB ACIO Grade-II Tier-I 19 Feb 2021 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

Section : General awareness Current Affairs 

Q.1 Consider the statement in regard of Wavel Ramkalawan. 

1- He has won Seychelles’ presidential election. 

2- He has won the Ramanujan Prize for Mathematicians for the year 2020. 

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below. 

(A) Only 1 

(B) 1 and 2 both 

(C) Neither 1 nor 2 

(D) Only 2 

Answer – A

Q.2 Who has been elected as the non-executive chairman of India bulls Housing Finance in August 2020? 

(A) S.S. Mundra 

(B) M.K. Jain 

(C) B.P. Kanungo 

(D) K.K. Venugopal 

Answer – A

Q.3 In June 2019, The Indian Air Force has signed a deal with the Israeli government to 

buy as many as 100 SPICE bombs worth: 

(A) Rs. 400 crore 

(B) Rs. 100 crore 

(C) Rs. 300 crore 

(D) Rs. 200 crore 

Answer – C

Q.4 Consider the following statement in the context of Padma Award 2021 

1- Padma awards are given in three categories, namely, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri. 

2- Shri Shinzo Abe from Japan is awarded with Padma Bhushan for his contribution in the field of Public Affairs. 

3- 7 were awarded the Padma Vibhushan, 10 named for the Padma Bhushan and 102 named for Padma Shri. 

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below. 

(A) None of the above 

(B) Only 2 and 3 

(C) Only 1 and 2 

(D) Only 1 and 3 

Answer – D

Q.5 Who has been reappointed as solicitor general of India in July 2020? 

(A) Tushar Mehta 

(B) N Venkataraman 

(C) Balbir Singh 

(D) R.S. Suri 

Answer – A

Q.6 The Rockefeller Foundation announced 10 finalists for the Food System Vision 2050 Prize in August 2020. Among them how many finalists were selected from India? 

(A) 2 

(B) 1 

(C) 3 

(D) 4 

Answer – A

Q.7 How many Chinese apps had been banned by the government of India in June 2020 due to their activities which were prejudicial to sovereignty and integrity of India? 

(A) 59 

(B) 51 

(C) 53 

(D) 58 

Answer – A

Q.8 On 21st January 2021, Gujarat Chief Minister Vijay Rupani announced the “Horticulture Development Mission” in the state with an aim: 

1- to double the income of the farmers involved in horticulture and medicinal farming 

2- to provide waste land of the state government on 45 year lease for forming of horticulture and medicinal crops 

3- to cover 7 districts of the state as the part of first phase 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) 3 only 

(d) Both 1 and 2 

(A) d 

(B) b 

(C) a 

(D) c 

Answer – C

Q.9 What is Sarna Code? Consider the following statement in this regard. 

1- The Jharkhand Assembly has unanimously passed a resolution seeking the inclusion of Sarna as a separate religion in Census, 202(A) 

2- The opposition parties gave a proposal demanding a discussion on the resolution, which was rejected by assembly speaker. 

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below. 

(A) Neither 1 nor 2 

(B) 1 and 2 both 

(C) Only 1 

(D) Only 2

Answer – C

Q.10 Consider the statement in regard ‘KAPILA’ Campaign. 

1- This is a campaign for Intellectual Property Literacy and Awareness campaign which was organised on the 89th birth anniversary of former President Late Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam. 

2- This is a campaign for collection, demonstration and documentation of raw drugs from Southern Plateau region. 

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below. 

(A) Neither 1 nor 2 

(B) 1 and 2 both 

(C) Only 2

(D) Only 1

Answer – D

Q.11 Consider the statement in regard of Aditya Mehta. 

1- Aditya Mehta defeated multiple-time world champion Pankaj Advani 6-2 to win the National Snooker Championship. 

2- Aditya Mehta represented the Petroleum Sports Promotion Board (PSPB). 

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below. 

(A) Neither 1 nor 2 

(B) Only 2 

(C) 1 and 2 both 

(D) Only 1

Answer – C

Q.12 Which country has become the first African country to submit the results of Reducing 

Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) to UNFCCC? 

(A) Uganda 

(B) Burundi 

(C) Algeria 

(D) Cameroon

Answer – A

Q.13 Consider the statement in context of CMS-0(A) 

1- It is a communication satellite which is launched by PSLV-C50 from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota. 

2- It is a project which aims to monitor, track and protect space assets of India. 

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below. 

(A) 1 and 2 both 

(B) Neither 1 nor 2 

(C) Only 2 

(D) Only 1

Answer – D

Q.14 Consider the following statement in the context of Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission. 

1- It is a centrally sponsored programme that aims at eliminating rural poverty through promotion of multiple livelihoods for the rural poor households across the country. 

2- The Union Cabinet has approved a special package worth Rs. 820 crore for Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh for a period of five years till 2023-2(D) 

Select the correct answer from the options given below. 

(A) Neither 1 nor 2 

(B) 1 and 2 both 

(C) Only 1 

(D) Only 2 

Answer – C

Q.15 SVANidhi Yojana is a scheme which has been launched by Hon’ble Prime minister to. 

1- To grant collateral-free loans of up to Rs 10,000 to street vendors across the country. 

2- To provide grant to fulfill the nutritional demands of women and children in the country. 

3- This scheme was launched on June 1, 2020. 

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below. 

(A) Only 2 and 3 

(B) None of the above 

(C) Only 1 and 2 

(D) Only 1 and 3

Answer – D 

Q.16 Bharat Parv is a five-day annual event that celebrates the spirit of India is being organised virtually from January 26, 2021 till January 31, 2021 

Which of the following statements is/are NOT correct regarding the event? 

1- It was started in the year 2016. 

2- This year the event was inaugurated by the Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla. 

3- The Central theme of this year’s Bharat Parv is ‘Mera Desh Badal Raha Hai, Aage Badh Raha Hai’ 

4- The event is organized by the Ministry of defence every year 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) 3 and 4 

(d) 2 and 3 only 

(A) c 

(B) d 

(C) a 

(D) b 

Answer – A

Q.17 Prime Minister Narendra Modi was honored with which award in 2019 by Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation for his leadership and commitment to improve access to sanitation in India? 

(A) Seoul Peace Prize 

(B) Philip Kotler Presidential Award 

(C) Global Goalkeeper Award 

(D) Champions of the Earth Award 

Answer – C

Q.18 Which of the following Union ministry won the SKOCH Gold Award 2020? 

(A) Ministry of Textiles 

(B) Ministry of Women and Child Development 

(C) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare 

(D) Ministry of Tribal Affairs 

Answer – D

Q.19 Which app has been launched by Kiren Rijiju in June 2020 to keep Indian athletes 

updated about banned substances? 

(A) NADA INDIA 

(B) NADA BHARAT 

(C) INDIAN NADA 

(D) NADA INDIAN

Answer – A 

Q.20 Which institution collaborated with the Bureau of Indian Standards for cooperation in 

the areas of standardization and conformity assessment in August 2020? 

(A) IIT Madras 

(B) IIT Bombay 

(C) IIT Roorkee 

(D) IIT Kanpur 

Answer – C

Section : General studies 

Q.21 Chenab, the largest tributary of the Indus river, is also known as _______.

(A) Bhagirathi 

(B) Chandrabhaga 

(C) Kosi 

(D) Giri 

Answer – B

Q.22 With which of the following musical instruments is Ustad Ali Akbar Khan related to? (A) Sarod 

(B) Tabla 

(C) Violin 

(D) Sitar 

Answer – A

Q.23 Pellagra is caused due to the lack of which of the following vitamins? 

(A) A 

(B) B3 

(C) B1 

(D) D 

Answer – B

Q.24 As per the Union Budget 2020-21, what will be the implementation period of the National Technical Textiles Mission? 

(A) 2021-22 to 2023-24 

(B) 2020-21 to 2024-25 

(C) 2020-21 to 2023-24 

(D) 2021-22 to 2024-25

Answer – C 

Q.25 Which of the following pair is correct? 

I. 1905 – Partition of Bengal 

II. 1908 – Split in Congress 

III. 1919 – Rowlatt Satyagrah 

(A) II and III 

(B) I and II 

(C) I, II and III 

(D) I and III

Answer – D

Q.26 Which among the following books is not written by Arundhati Roy?

(A) Once Upon a Time 

(B) The Algebra of Infinite Justice 

(C) The God of Small Things 

(D) The Ministry of Utmost Happiness 

Answer – A

Q.27 Consider the following statements with reference to the Mamallapuram dance festival. 

1- It is the celebration of folk dances that are prevailing in various regions of the country. 

2- This festival is organised for about ten days in the town of Mahabalipuram. 

3- Tales from Mahabharat, Radha Krishna, Valli Muruga, Shiva Shakthi and numerous ancient lore are brought alive through delicate dance forms. 

4- Breath-taking dances are performed in an ornamented stage with the historic stone sculptures range the Arjuna Penance as the backdrop. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) Only 2, 3 and 4 

(B) Only 1 and 2 

(C) Only 1, 3 and 4 

(D) Only 1 and 3

Answer – C 

Q.28 Consider the following statements regarding Khardung La Pass. 

1- It is the highest motorable pass in India. 

2- It is the gateway to the Nubra and Shyok Valleys. 

3- It is situated to the North of Mount Godwin-Austen. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) Only 1 and 2 

(B) Only 1 

(C) Only 2 

(D) Only 2 and 3 

Answer – A

Q.29 In which of the following ways can 1 Volt be expressed?

(A) 1 Joule-Coulomb per second 

(B) 1 Joule-Coulomb 

(C) 1 Coulomb per Joule 

(D) 1 Joule per Coulomb

Answer – D 

Q.30 Which among the following soil is commonly used for bricks? 

(A) Black 

(B) Peaty 

(C) Alluvial 

(D) Laterite 

Answer – D

Q.31 Consider the following statements with reference to indirect taxes in Budget 2020. 

1- Custom duty was raised on footwear from 25% to 35% and on furniture goods from 20% to 25%. 

2- Basic customs duty on imports of newsprint and light-weighted coated paper was reduced from 10% to 5%. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) Only 2 

(B) Only 1 

(C) Neither 1 nor 2 

(D) Both 1 and 2 

Answer – D

Q.32 With which of the following sports is Nikhat Zareen related to? 

(A) Wrestling 

(B) Boxing 

(C) Badminton 

(D) Hockey 

Answer – B

Q.33 Phawngpui or the Blue Mountain is the highest peak in the state of 

(A) Mizoram 

(B) Kerala 

(C) Uttarakhand 

(D) Sikkim 

Answer – A

Q.34 Amongst the following, which state celebrates Gangaur festival? 

(A) Goa 

(B) Arunachal Pradesh 

(C) Karnataka 

(D) Rajasthan 

Answer – D

Q.35 Consider the following statements in reference to Punjab Preservation of Subsoil Water Act, 2009. 

1- As per the Act, no farmer shall sow nursery of paddy before 10th day of May of the agricultural year or such other date as may be notified by the State Government by notification in the Official Gazette for any local area. 

2- Any farmer who contravenes the provisions of this Act shall be liable to a penalty of rupees ten thousand for every month, or part thereof, per hectare of the land till the period such contravention continues. 

3- As per the Act, ‘State government’ means ‘Government of India’. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) Only 1 and 3 

(B) Only 2 and 3 

(C) Only 1 and 2 

(D) Only 3 

Answer – C

Q.36 Consider the following statements regarding Save Water Day. 

1- On 12 July 2019. the West Bengal government observed Save Water Day across the state to spread the message of water conservation. 

2- This was the first-ever Save Water Day observed across West Bengal to spread the message of water conservation. 

3- West Bengal has a water conservation programme called ‘Tal Dharo Jal Bharo’ to prevent floods and provide water during the period of scarcity. 

4- The Government of India has set a target to provide 35 lakh households in West Bengal with tap water supply by March 2021 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 

(B) Only 1 and 3 

(C) Only 2, 3 and 4 

(D) Only 1 and 2

Answer – A 

Q.37 Consider the following statements in reference to the Phylogenetic classification system. 

1- It shows an evolutionary relationship between various organisms on the basis of descent from a common ancestor. 

2- In this system, the cladistics method is used in generating phylogenetic trees. 

3- It was proposed by Swedish Botanist Carolus Linnaeus. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) 1 and 2 only 

(B) 2 only 

(C) 3 only 

(D) 1 only 

Answer – A

Q.38 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists. 

List-I (States) List-II (Sports festivals celebrated in these states) 
A. Punjab 1.  Indian Derby 
B. Gujarat 2. Kila Raipur Sports Festival 
C. Kerala 3. International Kite Festival 
D. Maharashtra 4. Champakulam Boat Race 

(A) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 

(B) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3 

(C) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 

(D) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 

Answer – A

Q.39 Consider the following statements regarding the Babbar Akali movement during the years 1921-1925. 

1- The movement included Guru Sikhs, who were against the imperialist policies of the British Government. 

2- Majority of the Babbar Akalis were returned immigrants from Canada. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(A) Neither 1 nor 2 

(B) Both 1 and 2 

(C) Only 2 

(D) Only 1 

Answer – B

Q.40 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists. 

List-I (Mahajanapadas) List-II (Capitals of Mahajanapadas) 
A. Malla1. Taxila 
B. Anga 2. Kausambi 
C. Gandhara 3. Champa 
D. Vatsa 4. Kusinara 

(A) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 

(B) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 

(C) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 

(D) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 

Answer – B

Section : Numerical aptitude 

Q.41 There are two teams I and II of workers at a bridge construction site. Each team consists of W workers. On a particular day, a worker was shifted from team I to team II. Now, if the ratio of the amount of work done by team I in (W+1) hours and by team II in (W+2) hours is 10:12, respectively, then W is equal to: 

(A) 24 

(B) 20 

(C) 16 

(D) 18 

Answer – C

Q.42 A sum of money becomes 6 times at simple interest in 15 years. What is the rate of interest? 

(A) 16.75 percent 

(B) 8.5 percent 

(C) 33.33 percent 

(D) 30.5 percent

Answer – C

Q.43 The marked price of a bicycle is Rs. 1500, which is 25 percent above the cost price. If it is sold at a discount of 10 percent, find the profit percent? 

(A) 20 percent 

(B) 15 percent 

(C) 30 percent 

(D) 12.5 percent

Answer – D

Q.44 If the volume of a room is 1680 m3 and the area of the floor is 112 m(B) Find the height of the room. 

(A) 15 m 

(B) 20 m 

(C) 10 m 

(D) 8 m

Answer – A

Q.45 Speed of train is 55 km/hr. The length of train is 800 metre. In how much time can it cross a 1400 metre long platform? 

(A) 96 seconds 

(B) 124 seconds 

(C) 144 seconds 

(D) 132 seconds

Answer – C

Q.46 The sale of different commodities in a shop in various years is given in the table. In which year did the total number of refrigerators and washing machines sold exceed the number of TVs sold by 100? 

YearTVWashing MachineRefrigeratorAC
19963202002201500
19973502201901700
19983152502001800
19994002801502000

(A) 1996 

(B) 1999 

(C) 1998 

(D) 1997

Answer – A

Q.47 What is the average of 132, 146, 218, 232, 321 and 223? 

(A) 212 

(B) 208 

(C) 218 

(D) 214

Answer – A

Q.48 Find the compound interest earned on Rs. 60,000 for 2 years at the rate of 5 percent per annum. 

(A) Rs. 6000 

(B) Rs. 66,150 

(C) Rs. 60,000 

(D) Rs. 6150

Answer – D

Q.49 Alloy A contains iron and copper in ration 4:5. Alloy B contains iron and copper in ratio 3:4 If 45 kg of alloy A and 63 kg of alloy B are mixed, then what is the final ratio of copper and iron? 

(A) 61 : 47 

(B) 57 : 41 

(C) 59 : 45 

(D) 64 : 47

Answer – A

Q.50 Find the volume of cone which has base radius as 7 cm and height as 12 cm. (The 

value of π is 22/7) 

(A) 289 cm3 

(B) 576 cm3 

(C) 512 cm3 

(D) 616 cm3

Answer – D

Q.51 In a bookshop, the average number of biology, chemistry and physics books is 360. The biology books are 180 more than the average number of chemistry and physics books. The number of physics books is 180 less than the average of biology and chemistry books. What is the number of chemistry books in the shop? 

(A) 420 

(B) 540 

(C) 480 

(D) 360

Answer – D

Q.52 A number is increased by 10 percent. Then it is decreased by 20 percent. If the final 

value of number is 528, then what is the initial value of number? 

(A) 650 

(B) 550 

(C) 600 

(D) 500

Answer – C

Q.53 Anshu takes twice as much time as Bablu and thrice as much time as Chandu to finish 

a piece of work. Together it takes 3 days to finish the work. What is the time taken by Anshu to finish the work? 

(A) 24 days 

(B) 18 days 

(C) 3 days 

(D) 12 days

Answer – B

Q.54 The pie-chart given below represents the percentage distribution of the number of eggs sold by a shopkeeper on different days of a week. 

Find the ratio of the number of eggs sold by the shopkeeper on Wednesday to that of the same on Thursday. 

(A) 2:5 

(B) 4:9 

(C) 4:7 

(D) 3:5

Answer – D

Q.55 Study the following graph to answer the question. 

India’s exports to which of the following regions increased most in terms of 

percentage between 2000-01 and 2010 – 2011? 

(A) China 

(B) Russia 

(C) Japan 

(D) Europe

Answer – D 

Q.56 Speed of a car is 45 km/hr. How much distance can it travel in 50 seconds?

(A) 575 metre 

(B) 625 metre 

(C) 650 metre 

(D) 550 metre 

Answer – B

Q.57 A milkman wants to empty a large drum full of milk with one of the four measuring jars of capacities 6, 9, 15 and 18 litres, respectively. He finds that no matter which jar he uses to empty the drum; 4 litres of milk always remains to be emptied. What is the least possible capacity of the drum if it is a multi 

(A) 191 litres 

(B) 364 litres 

(C) 94 litres 

(D) 187 litres 

Answer – B

Q.58 What is the least common multiple of 336, 528 and 240? 

(A) 17240 

(B) 16620 

(C) 18480 

(D) 19200 

Answer – C

Q.59 Ratio of milk and water in two mixtures A and B is 3 : 2 and 4:3 respectively. If A and B are mixed in the ratio of 1:2, then what is the ratio of milk and water in final mixture?

(A) 57 : 41 

(B) 61 : 44 

(C) 51 : 46 

(D) 63 : 46 

Answer – B

Q.60 The ratio of price of a mango and an apple is 3:4 If the total price of an apple and a mango is Rs. 100, then find the price of a mango. 

(A) Rs. 80 

(B) Rs. 40 

(C) Rs.60 

(D) Rs. 30

Answer – C

Section : Reasoning Logical aptitude 

Q.61 Find the missing term in the following number series : 

1, 7, 8, ________, 23, 38, 61 

(A) 15 

(B) 10 

(C) 16 

(D) 12

Answer – A

Q.62 If ‘A’ means ‘+’, ‘B’ means ‘×’, ‘C’ means ‘÷’ and ‘D’ means ‘–’, then which of the following equation(s) is/are correct? 

I. 16 C 18 B 36 A 11 D 4 = 39 

II. 49 B 76 C 19 A 13 D 47 = 162 

(A) Both I and II 

(B) Only I 

(C) Neither I nor II 

(D) Only II 

Answer – A

Q.63 Vijay reached the office before Tony but after Vinay. Megha reached the office before Vijay but after Radha reached the office. Vinay reached the office just after Megha reached the office. Who reached the office last? 

(A) Megha 

(B) Tony 

(C) Vijay 

(D) Vinay 

Answer – B

Q.64 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the mirror image of the given figure? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer – D

Q.65 Three statements are followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem at variance from commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements. 

Statements: 

No horse is a truck. 

All carriages are scooters. 

All scooters are trucks. 

Conclusions: 

I. No truck is a scooter. 

II. All carriages are trucks. 

III. Some trucks are scooters. 

IV. No carriage is a horse. 

(A) Only either conclusions I or IV follow. 

(B) Only either conclusions I or IV follow and III follow. 

(C) All conclusions follow. 

(D) Only conclusions II, III and IV follow. 

Answer – D

Q.66 A series is given with one term wrong. Select that wrong term from the given 

alternatives. 

PNM, RQQ, TTU, VWZ, XZC 

(A) VWZ 

(B) TTU 

(C) RQQ 

(D) XZC 

Answer – A

Q.67 Three statements are followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem at variance from commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically 

follow(s) from the given statements. 

Statements: 

(A) No plant is a flower. 

(B) No flower is a leaf. 

(C) Some plants are leaves. 

Conclusions: 

I. No leaf is a plant. 

II. No leaf is a flower. 

III. Some flowers are plants. 

IV. All leaves are plants. 

(A) Only conclusion II follows. 

(B) Only conclusions I and IV follow. 

(C) Only conclusion IV follows. 

(D) Only conclusions I and II follow. 

Answer – A

Q.68 Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship between stars, 

planets and universe? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer – C

Q.69 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary. 

(1) DAKOTA 

(2) DAMAGE 

(3) DARKLE 

(4) DONKEY 

(5)DANCER 

(A) 2,1,3,5,4 

(B) 1,3,2,5,4 

(C) 1,2,5,3,4 

(D) 2,1,5,3,4

Answer – C

Q.70 Vinod, Abhi, Rachel, Samy and Pinky are sitting on a bench. Abhi is sitting to the right of Rachel, who is not sitting at extreme end of the bench. Samy is sitting in between Abhi and Vinod. Pinky is sitting at extreme left. Who is to the right of Pinky? 

(A) Samy 

(B) Rachel 

(C) Vinod 

(D) Abhi 

Answer – B

Q.71 Pointing to a boy Sameer said, he is my father-in-law’s elder son’s son. How is Sameer related to that boy? 

(A) Cousin 

(B) Uncle 

(C) Brother 

(D) Grand Father 

Answer – B

Q.72 Which answer figure will replace the question mark given in the question figure? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer – D

Q.73 A boy starts walking from point A and walks 11 km towards East and stops at point B. Now, he turns 45 degree to his right and walks 2 km to reach point C. Now, he takes  135 degree left turn and walks 1 km to reach a point D. In which direction is the point B 

with respect to point D? 

(A) South-West 

(B) North-East 

(C) South-East 

(D) North-West

Answer – D 

Q.74 Select from the following four options, the one that CANNOT be concluded from the given statements. 

Statement 1: All coats are skirts. 

Statement 2: No skirt is a shirt. 

Statement 3 : Some shirts are belts. 

(A) No coat is a shirt. 

(B) Some coats are shirts. 

(C) Some belts are not coats. 

(D) Some belts are shirts.

Answer – B 

Q.75 From the given figures, find which figure comes in the place of question marks which are in series? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer – C

Q.76 If ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘B is the brother of A’, ‘A × B’ means ‘B is the daughter of A’, ‘A @ B’ means ‘B is the wife of A’, ‘A # B’ means ‘B is the mother of A’, ‘A + B’ means ‘B is the son of A’, then which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct? 

I. ‘P ÷ Q + R + F @ J’ shows P as the aunt of R. 

II. ‘G # F ÷ L + T × R’ shows G as the brother of R. 

(A) Neither I nor II 

(B) Both I and II 

(C) Only I 

(D) Only II

Answer – B

Q.77 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the below equation mathematically 

correct? 

5 + 6-2 × 8÷4= 30 

(A) × and – 

(B) + and ÷ 

(C) × and + 

(D) ÷ and –

Answer – C

Q.78 A%B means A is the wife of B, A+B means A is the brother of B, and A*B means A is the son of B. Which of the following expression indicates that P is the son of R? 

(A) S#R*U%P 

(B) U%P#S*R 

(C) U%P#R*S 

(D) S#R*P%U 

Answer – B

Q.79 Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a row, not necessarily in the same order. If none of A, B, C and D sit at the ends and D sits two places away from E. Who sits next 

to E, given that A and B sit together.

(A) B 

(B) A 

(C) C 

(D) F

Answer – C

Q.80 Out of the given options, three are similar in a certain manner. However, one option is NOT like the other three. Select the option which is different from the rest. 

(A) Dog : Kennel 

(B) Horse : Stable 

(C) Cattle : Cave 

(D) Lion : Den 

Answer – C

Section : English

Q.81 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option. 

She decided to ______ her right to the ancestral property as she wanted to avoid conflict. 

(A) sign in 

(B) sign away 

(C) sign for 

(D) sign with

Answer – B

Q.82 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error. 

Always on the lookout for opportunities, Arun never shirked away from new assignments. 

(A) from new assignments. 

(B) for opportunities, 

(C) Arun never shirked away 

(D) Always on the lookout 

Answer – C

Q.83 Given below are four parts of a sentence which are jumbled. Pick the option that gives 

their correct order to make a grammatically correct, meaningful sentence. 

A- my attention was drawn towards a huge crowd that was forcing its way 

B- and I decided to stop in order to cover the story for my newspaper 

C- in the direction of a popular cinema hall 

D- as I reached the Metro station 

(A) DACB 

(B) DCAB 

(C) CADB 

(D) ABCD

Answer – A 

Q.84 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

“Get up on the wrong side of the bed”

(A) Not having a good night’s sleep 

(B) Someone who is having a horrible day 

(C) To move beyond something that is bothering you 

(D) Working hours from about 12:00 am to 8.00 pm 

Answer – B

Q.85 Select the word that is opposite in meaning (ANTONYM) to the word given below. 

Desolate 

(A) Empty 

(B) Untenanted 

(C) Populous 

(D) Distressed

Answer – C 

Q.86 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the word 

with the correct spelling. 

(A) Fortuitius 

(B) Fortoitus 

(C) Fortuious 

(D) Fortuitous 

Answer – D

Q.87 Select the most appropriate ‘one word’ for the expressions given below. 

The quality or action of being extremely generous. 

(A) Nascence 

(B) Reticence 

(C) Munificence 

(D) Convalescence

Answer – C 

Q.88 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option. 

Speaking ______ is sometimes considered a virtue especially when the speaker has an important point to make.

(A) out of hand 

(B) out of turn 

(C) out of date 

(D) out of control

Answer – B

Q.89 The given sentences have been jumbled up. Arrange these sentences in a meaningful 

order. 

P. there had already been abundant rainfall in Delhi 

Q. it was a tragic end of summer 

R. a strong wind began to blow and the rain came causing havoc all around 

S. one day, a cyclonic storm hit the region 

(A) PSRQ 

(B) SRPQ 

(C) QPSR 

(D) RPSQ 

Answer – A

Q.90 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error. 

Starting with cleaning the kitchen, Reema created a task list of all the odd jobs that were to do around the house. 

(A) Reema created a task list 

(B) to do around the house. 

(C) of all the odd jobs that were 

(D) Starting with cleaning the kitchen, 

Answer – B

Q.91 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence. 

Have you seen Claire lately? She’s become as thin as a stick in the last six months! 

(A) Extremely skinny 

(B) Full of enthusiasm 

(C) To be suspicious 

(D) Be extremely weak 

Answer – A

Q.92 Given below are four parts of a sentence which are jumbled. Pick the option that gives their correct order to make a grammatically correct, meaningful sentence. 

A. cultivating positive mental states 

B. I think that 

C. like kindness and compassion definitely leads to 

D. better psychological health and happiness 

(A) ACBD 

(B) BDCA 

(C) BCAD 

(D) BACD 

Answer – D

Q.93 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

“The last straw” 

(A) Make all possible efforts 

(B) To politely ask for someone’s full attention 

(C) Unable to understand 

(D) The final event in a series of unacceptable actions 

Answer – D

Q.94 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given 

sentence. In case no substitution is needed, select ‘No substitution required’. 

It is ironical that the students had to be punished because of a report submitted by a teacher who himself was not above suspicion. 

(A) ironicism 

(B) irony 

(C) No substitution required 

(D) ironically 

Answer – C

Q.95 The sentence below has been divided into three parts. Select the part of the sentence that has an error. If the sentence has no error, select the option ‘No Error’. 

(A) No error 

(B) The radiation leak from the nuclear accident 

(C) at Chernobyl effected the environment 

(D) and the surroundings irreparably. 

Answer – C

Q.96 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

The owner of the house was _____ at the watchman for letting in a stranger.

(A) impatient 

(B) indulgent 

(C) indignant 

(D) indifferent 

Answer – C

Q.97 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given 

sentence. In case no substitution is needed, select ‘No substitution required’. 

There always have been a sizeable influx of immigrants from Mexico into America. 

(A) has always been 

(B) is always being 

(C) were always been 

(D) No substitution required

Answer – A 

Q.98 Out of all the alternatives given, select the word which closely fits the given idiom/phrase. 

The best of both worlds 

(A) Understand something complicated. 

(B) To enjoy two different opportunities at the same time. 

(C) Producing similar results. 

(D) An event that happens infrequently. 

Answer – B

Q.99 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

Start from scratch 

(A) To begin from the very beginning 

(B) To decide quickly without a thought 

(C) To be unsuccessful 

(D) To take advantage of something 

Answer – A

Q.100 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. 

It is a general rule of formal E-mails that they eliminate any kind of _______________.

(A) evangelism 

(B) paternalism 

(C) colloquialism 

(D) diabolism 

Answer – C

IB ACIO Grade-II Tier-I 18 Feb 2021 Shift-III Previous Year Paper

General Awareness Current Affairs

Q.1 Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list.

List I (Author) List II (Book)

A. Jericho Brown

B. Colson Whitehead

C. W. Caleb McDaniel

D. C Pam Zhang

1. The Tradition

2. How much of these Hills is Gold

3. The Nickel Boys

4. ‘Sweet Taste of Liberty: A True Story of Slavery and Restitution in America’

Code:

(A) A-1 B-3 C-4 D-2

(B) A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4

(C) A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4

(D) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1 

Answer-  A 

 

Q.2 Dutch author Marieke Lucas has won the International Booker Prize 2020 for the book named:

(A) The wind of Evening

(B) The Beautiful of Evening

(C) The Comfort of Evening

(D) The Discomfort of Evening

Answer-  D 

 

Q.3 In June 2020, India got an opportunity of two-year tenure as a non-permanent member of the UNSC. Consider the following statement. 

1.  India won 184 votes out of the 192 ballots cast in the elections for the five non-permanent seats of the Security Council. 

2. India elected for 5th term as non-permanent UNSC member. 

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below. 

(A) 1 only 

(B) Neither 1 nor 2 

(C) 1 and 2 both 

(D) Only 1 

Answer-  D

 

Q.4 On January 15, 2021, the Government of India launched the third phase of Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana. Which of the following points is INCORRECT related to this phase?  

1. This scheme launched in 600 districts across all states of India. 

2. This scheme envisages training of 1 crore indian youth over a scheme period of 2020-2021 with an outlay of Rs. 120 billion. 

3. The third phase was spearheaded by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) 

4. Around 729 Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Kendras, empaneled non-PMKK training centers and over 200 ITIs will be rolling out training under this phase. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(A) 1 only 

(B) 2 only 

(C) 3 and 4 

(D) 4 only 

Answer-  B 

 

Q.5 The book ‘Lockdown Liaisons’ authored by Shobhaa De and Published by: 

(A) Jaico Publishing House 

(B) Harper Collins 

(C) Simon and Schuster 

(D) Arihant Books 

 Answer-  C

 

Q.6 Which of the following statement is true in regard of Flight Lieutenant Bhawana Kanth? 

1. Bhawana Kanth is the first woman fighter pilot to take part in the Republic Day parade. 

2. Kanth flies MiG-21 Bison fighter plane. 

3. She became one of the first three women to be commissioned as fighter pilots in the IAF. 

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below. 

(A) Only 1 and 2 

(B) Only 2 and 3 

(C) All 1, 2 and 3 

(D) None of the given options 

Answer-  C

 

Q.7 Which of the following statement is true in the context of the Lilavati Awards. 

1. The National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) launched the Lilavati Awards. 

2. The award will be given in sub-themes, namely, women’s health, literacy, self-defense, legal awareness, and sanitation and hygiene. 

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below. 

(A) Only 1 

(B) Neither 1 nor 2 

(C) 1 and 2 both 

(D) Only 2 

Answer-  D 

 

Q.8 In August 2020, Union Minister, Nitin Gadkari has launched a mobile app, to monitor plantation along national highways, named as: 

(A) Path Sang 

(B) Hamara Rasta 

(C) Hara Path 

(D) Harit Path 

Answer-  D 

 

Q.9 Consider the statement in the context of Amphan Cyclone. 

1. Amphan affected the Sundarbans, a mangrove area around the India-Bangladesh border. 

2. Three districts in West Bengal – South and North 24 Parganas and East Midnapore – were very badly hit. 

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below. 

(A) Neither 1 nor 2 

(B) Only 2 

(C) Only 1 

(D) 1 and 2 both 

Answer-  D

 

Q.10 Consider the statements in regard to the Sahakar Pragya initiative. 

1. It is an initiative launched by the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC). 

2. It is an ICT-based multi-modal platform for Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation, involving Central and State governments. 

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below. 

(A) 1 and 2 both 

(B) Only 1 

(C) Only 2 

(D) Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer-  B 

 

Q.11 Gudni Johannesson has been re-elected as President in July 2020 of the country named: 

(A) Ireland 

(B) Iceland 

(C) Finland 

(D) Poland 

Answer-  B 

 

Q.12 The Government of India (GoI) approved a PM WANI scheme. The purpose of this scheme is to: 

1. To elevate wireless internet connectivity in the country.  

2. To entail a complete framework involving multiple elements — Public Data Office (PDO), Public Data Office Aggregators and app providers. 

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below. 

(A) Only 2 

(B) Only 1 

(C) Neither 1 nor 2 

(D) 1 and 2 both 

Answer-  D 

 

Q.13 In June 2020 Economic corridor projects worth Rs _____crore has inaugurated in Haryana. 

(A) 20,000 

(B) 15,000 

(C) 30,000 

(D) 25,000 

Answer-  A 

 

Q.14 The new road being built in Eastern Ladakh passing through villages of Darbuk and Shyok at southern Shyok Valley connects to which of the following airstrip? 

(A) Daulat Beg Oldi airstrip  

(B) Thoise Airbase 

(C) Nyoma Advanced Landing Ground 

(D) Kushok Bakula Rimpochee Airport 

Answer-  A

 

Q.15 India accounts for 45.8 million of the world’s missing females according to the State of World Population 2020 report of: 

(A) UNDP 

(B) UNESCO 

(C) UNFPA 

(D) UNICEF 

Answer-  C

 

Q.16 On 17 January 2021, Virgin Orbit the California-based satellite launch company recently launched its LauncherOne rocket to orbit. What statements is/are CORRECT regarding the rocket? 

1. it places the satellites in Sun Synchronous Orbit 

2. It is the first all liquid-fuelled air-launched orbital rocket 

3. It is capable of carrying payloads of up to 500–600 kg to a 310-mile-high (500-km) polar orbit 

Select the correct answer using the code given below. 

(A) 1 only 

(B) 2 only 

(C) Both 1 and 2 

(D) Both 2 and 3 

Answer-  C

 

Q.17 Who has inaugurated Asia’s first continuous Galvanized Rebar Production Facility in Punjab? 

(A) Dharmendra Pradhan 

(B) Narendra Singh Tomar 

(C) Mahendra Nath Pandey 

(D) Nitin Gadkari 

Answer-  A

 

Q.18 What is Grundfos AQpure? 

1. an inbuilt packaged black (sewage) and grey water (kitchen and bath water) treatment system having an advanced anaerobic-aerobic configuration 

2. It is a solar-powered water treatment plant based on ultra-filtration technology.  

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below. 

(A) Only 2 

(B) Neither 1 nor 2 

(C) 1 and 2 both 

(D) Only 1 

Answer-  A

 

Q.19 Who has been reappointed as the 15th Attorney General of India in July 2020?  

(A) Jayant K Sud 

(B) Rupinder Singh Suri 

(C) Tushar Mehta 

(D) K.K. Venugopal 

Answer-  D

 

Q.20 Choose the incorrect statement about a missile named “Martyr Qassem Soleimani”. 

(A) This missile belongs to Iran 

(B) Range of this missile is 1400 Kilometers 

(C) This missile is jointly prepared by Iran and Russia 

(D) It is a surface to surface missile 

Answer-  C

General studies

Q.21 Which of the following is/are a biofertilizer used to add, conserve and stimulate phosphorus as a plant nutrient in the soil ?

1. Azospirillum

2. Mycorrhizal fungi

3. Azotobacter

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2  

(B)  Only 1

(C)  Only 2

(D)  Only 2 and 3

Answer-  D

 

Q.22 Kiranjeet Kaur has been banned for 4 years by World Athletics anti doping agency. She is related which sport? 

(A) Tennis 

(B) Long distance running 

(C) Weight lifting 

(D) Shooting 

Answer-  B

 

Q.23 Consider the following statements regarding ordinances.

1. Article 123 of the constitution of India grants the President certain law-making powers to promulgate when either of the two Houses of the Parliament is not in session.

2. An ordinance must be converted into legislative within 35 days of the commencement of the Parliament session or else it will lapse.

3. Article 213 of the Constitution of India grants the Governor of India the power to issue ordinances when the state legislative is not in session 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A) Only 1 and 2 

(B)  1, 2 and 3

(C)  Only 1 and 3

(D)  Only 1

Answer-  C

 

Q.24 Amongst the following, an example of algae is ___________. 

(A) Amoeba 

(B) Funaria 

(C) Diatoms 

(D) Rhizopus 

Answer-  C

 

Q.25 Who authored “We are Displaced”? 

(A) Chitra Banerjee 

(B) Elizabeth Gilbert 

(C) Balli Kaur Jaswal 

(D) Malala Yousafzai 

Answer-  D

 

Q.26 Which among the following is the largest phylum of Animalia? 

(A) Arthropoda 

(B) Mollusca 

(C) Ctenophora 

(D) Platyhelminthes 

Answer-  A

 

Q.27 Which of the following rivers flow westward in India? 

(A) Krishna 

(B) Mahanadi 

(C) Narmada 

(D) Godavari 

Answer-  C

 

Q.28 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists

List-I (Neolithic Sites) List-II (Locations of these Neolithic sites)
A. Utnur 1. Tamil Nadu
B. Chirand 2. Kashmir
C. Gufkral 3. Telangana
D. Paiyampalli 4. Bihar

(A) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 

(B)  A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

(C)  A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

(D)  A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

Answer-  A

 

Q.29 Which of the following is the classical dance form of the state of Assam? 

(A) Sattriya 

(B) Chhau 

(C) Rouf 

(D) Gotipua 

Answer-  A

 

Q.30 Which city is called as mini-Harappa? 

(A) Sohgura 

(B) Lothal 

(C) Kot Diji 

(D) Desalpur 

Answer-  B

 

Q.31 Consider the following statements with reference to the healthcare sector in Budget 2020.

1. Out of the total amount allocated for Healthcare, ₹ 6,400 crore was assigned to ‘PM Jan Arogya Yojana’.

2. In this budget, ₹ 79,000 crore was allocated for Healthcare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A) Only 1 

(B)  Both 1 and 2

(C)  Only 2

(D)  Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer-  A

 

Q.32 Where will the training of astronauts be conducted for Gaganyaan Mission? 

(A) Russia 

(B) USA 

(C) China 

(D) Germany 

Answer-  A

 

Q.33 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. 

List-I (Arjuna Awardee 2020) List-II (Sports Discipline)
A. Atanu Das 1. Rowing
B. Sawant Ajay Anant 2. Kho kho
C. Kale Sarika Sudhakar 3. Archery
D. Dattu Baban Bhokanal 4. Equestrian

(A) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 

(B) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

(C)  A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

(D)  A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

Answer-  B

 

Q.34 Consider the following statements in reference to Harballabh Sangeet Sammelan.

1. It is one of the oldest festivals of Indian classical music in the world.

2. It has been declared as a national festival by the Ministry of Tourism afte completing 130 years of success.

3. It is celebrated at the Samadhi of Baba Harballabh at Ludhiana in Punjab. 

4. It is held from 27-30 November every year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A) Only 1, 2 and 3  

(B)  Only 2, 3 and 4

(C)  Only 1 and 3 

(D)  Only 1 and 2 

Answer-  D

 

Q.35 Who among the following was the first Chairman of the Order of Business Committee of the Constituent Assembly? 

(A) Harendra Coomar Mookerjee 

(B) Jawaharlal Nehru 

(C) Sachchidananda Sinha 

(D) Kanaiyalal Maneklal Munshi 

Answer-  D

 

Q.36 Consider the following statements in reference to World Meteorological Day.

1- It is celebrated on 23 march as world meteorological organization was established on that day in 1950.

2- The organisation comprises 150 members.

3- It is being observed by the world meteorological organization (WMO) and the united nations.

4- The theme of 2020 world meteorological day was ‘climate and water’.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct ?

(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 

(B)  Only 1 and 3

(C)  Only 1, 3 and 4

(D)  Only 1 and 2

Answer-  D

 

Q.37 With which of the following anchor banks were Oriental Bank of Commerce and United Bank of India merged ? 

(A) Union Bank of India 

(B) Canara Bank 

(C) Indian Bank 

(D) Punjab National Bank 

Answer-  A 

 

Q.38 Which of the following statements is/are correct in the context of river Brahmaputa ?

1- It is known as Tsangpo in Tibet and Yarlung Zangbo in China.

2- Its source is the Chemayungdung Glacier.

3- From the Farakka Barrage, it flows into Bangladesh where it is known as padma.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) Only 1 and 2 

(B)  Only 2

(C)  Only 1 and 3

(D)  Only 3

Answer-  D

 

Q.39 Consider the following statements with reference to Max Theodor Felix von Laue.

1- He was the German recipient of the Nobel Prize for Physics in 1914.

2- He discovered the diffraction of X-rays.

3- He discovered X-rays.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A) Only 2 

(B)  Only 3

(C)  Only 1

(D)  Only 1 and 2

Answer-  D

 

Q.40 Consider the following statements regarding subhash chandra bose when he endeavored to consolidate the Muslim League Party in 1940.

1- The agitation to remove the Holwell Monument erected by G Holwell during the short tenure of his calcutta governorship in 1760 to commemorate those deceased in the Black Hole.

2- The Holwell Mounment was a symbol representing the alleged savagery of the last Nawab of Bangal, Sirajuddowla and the bravery of the British soldiers who sacrificed their lives.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A) Only 2 

(B)  Both 1 and 2 

(C)  Only 1

(D)  Neither 1 nor 2

Answer-  D

Numerical aptitude 

Q.41 The pie-chart given below represents the percentage distribution of the number of eggs sold by a shopkeeper on different days of a week. 

If total number of eggs sold in the whole week is 1600, then find the number of eggs sold on Monday. 

(A) 180 

(B) 204 

(C) 288 

(D) 312 

Answer-  C

 

Q.42 An amount of money is to be divided between Paras, Ramesh and Aarav in the ratio of 5 : 8 : 15. If the difference between Ramesh and Aarav’s share is Rs. 6000, then find the total amount of money? 

(A) Rs. 63995 

(B) Rs. 52003 

(C) Rs. 24000 

(D) Rs. 28361 

Answer-  C

 

Q.43 A girl buys a cycle for Rs. 7500 and sells it at a loss of 25 percent. What is the selling price of the cycle? 

(A) 5755 

(B) 5625 

(C) 6300 

(D) 4895 

Answer-  B

Q.44 Find the simple interest on Rs. 2000 for 2 years at the rate of 5% per annum. 

(A) Rs. 200 

(B) Rs. 100 

(C) Rs. 500 

(D) Rs. 400 

Answer-  A

Q.45 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? 

I. 3/7 < 5-9 < 7/11

II. √6 > 3√12

(A) Only II 

(B) Only I 

(C) Both I and II 

(D) Neither I nor II 

Answer-  C

Q.46 The given graph shows the population of a country (in lakhs) in some years. Calculate the percentage increase in population from 2006 to 2008. 

(A) 30 percent 

(B) 25 percent 

(C) 15 percent 

(D) 20 percent 

Answer-  B

Q.47 Find the volume of a cylinder with radius as 7 cm and height as 10 cm. (The value of π is 22/7) 

(A) 1800 cm3 

(B) 1540 cm3 

(C) 1000 cm3 

(D) 512 cm3 

Answer-  B

Q.48 A student multiplied a number by 2/7 instead of 5/7. What is the percentage of error? 

(A) 45 percent 

(B) 54 percent 

(C) 30 percent 

(D) 60 percent 

Answer-  D

Q.49 Sides of a triangle are 6 cm, 6 cm and 8 cm. What is its area? 

(A) 4√5 cm2 

(B) 8√5 cm2 

(C) 12√5 cm2 

(D) 16√5 cm2 

Answer-  B

Q.50 Monika is twice as efficient as Ritu and takes 60 days less than Ritu to complete a job. Find the time in which they can finish the job together. 

(A) 70 days 

(B) 40 days 

(C) 22 days 

(D) 50 days 

Answer-  B

Q.51 The adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 36 cm and 27 cm in length. If the 

perpendicular distance between shorter sides is 12 cm, then what is the perpendicular distance between the longer sides? 

(A) 16 cm 

(B) 12 cm 

(C) 10 cm 

(D) 9 cm 

Answer-  A

Q.52 P, Q and R together have 180 candies among them. P gives Q and R each as many candies as they already have. After this, R gives Q half as many candies as Q already has, and R also gives P twice as many candies as P already has. Now each of them has the same number of candies with them. What is the ratio of the respective number of candies P and R had initially ?

(A) 2:1 

(B)  3:2

(C)  1:2

(D)  5:3

Answer-  D

Q.53 Find the greatest number of 4 digits which is exactly divisible by 12 

(A) 9994 

(B) 9999 

(C) 9996 

(D) 9998 

Answer-  C

Q.54 Which of the following statement is correct? 

I. If amount = Rs. 26500, time = 5 years, and rate of interest = 16.5 percent per annum, then the principal is Rs. 14000 on simple interest. 

II. If principal = Rs. 22000, amount = Rs. 39160 and time = 6 years, then at simple 

interest rate of interest is 13 percent per annum. 

(A) Only II 

(B) Neither I nor II 

(C) Both I and II 

(D) Only I 

Answer-  A

Q.55 What value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question? 

(92 × 23 + 73 × 8 + ?)½ = 87 

(A) -2971 

(B) 2947 

(C) 2968 

(D) -4433 

Answer-  D

Q.56 The average weight of 7 people increases by 5 kg when a new person comes in place of one of them weighing 55 kg. What is the weight of the new person? 

(A) 85 kgs 

(B) 90 kgs 

(C) 100 kgs 

(D) 75kgs 

Answer-  B

Q.57 In a contest, a participant secured 30 percent but failed to proceed to the next round by 30 points. Another candidate securing 30 points more than the qualifying marks secured 45 percent. What is the qualifying point in the contest? 

(A) 200 

(B) 150 

(C) 145 

(D) 120 

Answer-  B

Q.58 How many days are required by Priya to clean the house, if Mona can do it in 5 days and together they can complete it in 3 days. 

(A) 7.5 days 

(B) 9 days 

(C) 5.5 days 

(D) 12 days 

Answer-  A

Q.59 The given table shows quantities of commodities consumed by a family in a year. By what percentage is consumption of millets more than bajra? 

Commodities  Consumption in Kg
Wheat  200
Bajra 50
Rice 150
Millets 100

(A) 50 percent 

(B) 1 percent 

(C) 200 percent 

(D) 100 percent 

Answer-  D

Q.60 Two workers A and B can complete a work is 35 days and 45 days, respectively. Initially, both A and B started working together. However, A left after some days and B alone completed the remaining work in 29 days. Find the number of days that A and B worked together.

(A) 6 Days 

(B)  7 Days

(C)  9 Days 

(D)  5 Days 

Answer-  B

Section : Reasoning Logical aptitude 

Q.61 In the following question, a group of letters is given. The letters of each group are related with the letters of the same group by some Logic/Rule/Relation. From the given alternatives, select a group of letters which follows the same Logic/Rule/Relation. 

(AG, BK, CP) 

(A) (PC, QG, RK) 

(B) (FM, GQ, HV) 

(C) (JF, LJ, KO) 

(D) (TA, SE, RJ) 

Answer-  B

Q.62 In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from 

commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any, 

follows from the given statements. 

Statement 1 : Some milk is Paneer. 

Statement 2 : All paneer is Curry. 

Conclusion I : Some curry is milk. 

Conclusion II : Some paneer is milk. 

(A) Only conclusion I follows 

(B) Neither I nor II follows 

(C) Only conclusion II follows 

(D) Both I and II follows 

Answer-  D

Q.63 6 board of directors A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting around a round table at equal distance between each other, but not necessarily in the same order. B is diagonally opposite to D but left of F, and D is between C and E. Who is 120 degrees apart from A in the anticlockwise direction? 

(A) F 

(B) B 

(C) E 

(D) C 

Answer-  A

Q.64 Which of the answer figures is the exact mirror image of the given problem figure when the mirror is held at the right side ?

(A) 

(B)

(C) 

(D) 

Answer-  B

Q.65 Pointing to a photo Sunita said, she is my brother-in-law’s only sister. How is that women in photo related to Sunita? 

(A) Mother-in-law 

(B) Sister-in-law 

(C) Sister 

(D) Daughter-in-law 

Answer-  B

Q.66 In a certain code if ‘M’ denotes ‘÷’, ‘N’ denotes ‘×’, ‘O’ denotes ‘+’ and ‘P’ denotes ‘-‘, then what will be the value of 27M3N5P6O9? 

(A) 52 

(B) 48 

(C) 50 

(D) 53 

Answer-  B

Q.67 Out of the given options, three are similar in a certain manner. However, one option is NOT like the other three. Select the option which is different from the rest. 

(A) 30 → 41 → 54 

(B) 23 → 34 → 49 

(C) 41 → 52 → 65 

(D) 47 → 58 → 71 

Answer-  B

Q.68 Find the wrong number in the following number series: 

10, 17, 26, 36, 50 

(A) 26 

(B) 17 

(C) 50 

(D) 36 

Answer-  D

Q.69 Find the missing number in the series given below. 

2, 6, 30, 210, ? , 30030 

(A) 2200 

(B) 2730 

(C) 2310 

(D) 2100 

Answer-  C

Q.70 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some 

conclusions based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if 

they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements. 

Statements: 

I. Some K are M. 

II. No L is A. 

III. No A is K. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some K are not A. 

II. Some M are not A. 

III. Some L are not A. 

(A) Both conclusion I and II follows 

(B) Both conclusion I and III follows 

(C) Both conclusion II and III follows 

(D) All conclusion follows 

Answer-  D

Q.71 Complete the following series. 

Z1, Y4, X9, _____ 

(A) D25 

(B) W25 

(C) W16 

(D) D16 

Answer-  C

Q.72 Two statements are given followed by four conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seen at variance form commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements.

Statements: 

  1. Some sharpeners are pencils 
  2. Some pencils are mats.

Conclusion:

  1. No sharpener is a mat.
  2. Some mats are pencils.
  3. Some mats are sharpeners.
  4. No pencil is a sharpener.

(A) Only conclusion II and either conclusion I and III follow

(B)  Only conclusions III and IV follow

(C)  Only conclusions I and III follow

(D)  Only conclusions I and IV follow

Answer-  A

Q.73 Select the missing number from the given series. 

41, 83, 168, 339, ? 

(A) 672 

(B) 680 

(C) 682 

(D) 674 

Answer-  C

Q.74 Find the missing term in the following number series :  

4, 9, 25, 49, 121, ______. 

(A) 196 

(B) 144 

(C) 169 

(D) 225 

Answer-  C

Q.75 Find the missing figure in the series from the given answer figures.  

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer-  B

Q.76 The given Venn diagram shows the number of students who can read English, Hindi and French. How many of them can read French? 

(A) 38 

(B) 39 

(C) 30 

(D) 41 

Answer-  D

Q.77 Which figure does not belong to the group in the following options? 

Answer-  A

Q.78 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is 

hidden/embedded. 

Answer-  B

Q.79 Select the option that is related to the third term on the same basis as the second term is related to the first term. 

DAX : WZC :: VKO : ? 

(A) FPL 

(B) EQL 

(C) FQL 

(D) EPL 

Answer-  D

Q.80 A group of seven students A, B, C, D, E, F and G are going to from two teams. Each teach can have a maximum of four members. A and B cannot be in the same team. C cannot be with E. D and G have to be together. F and D cannot be together. E and D have to be together. A has to be with F. Which of the following is one of the two teams formed according to the given data ?

(A) FAD 

(B)  GBFD

(C)  GDC

(D)  EDGB

Answer-  D

Section : English 

Q.81 Select the most appropriate ‘one word’ for the expression given below. 

Harmful, poisonous, or very unpleasant. 

(A) Unanxious 

(B) Innoxious 

(C) Palpable 

(D) Noxious 

Answer-  D

Q.82 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error. 

There were some team members who do not agreed to the coach’s suggestions about 

changing their strategy. 

(A) to the coach’s suggestions 

(B) who do not agreed 

(C) There were some team members 

(D) about changing their strategy. 

Answer-  B

Q.83 Select the word that is opposite in meaning (ANTONYM) to the word given below. 

Apathetic 

(A) Impassive 

(B) Eager 

(C) Unmoved 

(D) Passive 

Answer-  B

Q.84 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

Gradient 

(A) Flag 

(B) Learn 

(C) Ramp 

(D) Manifest 

Answer-  C

Q.85 The question below consists of a set of labelled sentences. Out of four options given, select the most logical order of the sentences which forms a coherent paragraph. 

Joseph Stalin was born Iosif Vissarionovich Dzhugashvili in the village of Gori, in the Russian province of Georgia, on Dec. 21, 1879. 

P. It was she who directed his education, first in the local Gori Church School and 

then, thanks to a scholarship, at the Tiflis Theological Seminary. 

Q. There, she hoped, he would train to become a priest. 

R. Thus Joseph’s mother, Yekaterina, made the more profound impact on his life 

S. His father was a shoemaker with a penchant for drunkenness, who left Gori when 

Stalin was young to seek employment in the city of Tiflis. 

Instead, the young Stalin became a devoted advocate for Marxist revolution. 

(A) SRQP 

(B) SPQR 

(C) SRPQ 

(D) SQRP 

Answer-  C

Q.86 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

The police ________ mute spectators to the entire incident which took place right 

outside the KEM hospital. 

(A) are 

(B) was 

(C) were 

(D) is 

Answer-  C

Q.87 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error.  

I knew that something was amissed in the plan submitted by the supplier. 

(A) I knew that 

(B) submitted by the supplier 

(C) in the plan 

(D) something was amissed 

Answer-  D

Q.88 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word. 

Accumulate 

(A) Scatter 

(B) Gather 

(C) Dissemble 

(D) Distribute 

Answer-  B

Q.89 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error.  

His main argument was not to be consulted before the decision was taken by the committee. 

(A) His main argument 

(B) before the decision 

(C) was taken by the committee 

(D) was not to be consulted 

Answer-  D

Q.90 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No improvement’. 

In journals, writers records his experiences and reflect on their value or importance. 

(A) recording their experience 

(B) No improvement 

(C) recorded his experience 

(D) record their experiences 

Answer-  D

Q.91 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

“Hit the nail on the head” 

(A) To have a dispute with someone 

(B) Raise controversy 

(C) When you already have it good and get something on top of what you already have 

(D) Do something exactly right or say something exactly right 

Answer-  D

Q.92 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error. 

The government of India has allowed field trials of two new varieties of indigenous 

develop GM brinjals in eight states of the country. 

(A) two new varieties 

(B) of the country. 

(C) has allowed field trials 

(D) of indigenous develop 

Answer-  D

Q.93 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom. 

“Idle hands are the devil’s tools” 

(A) You are more likely to get in trouble if you have nothing to do 

(B) Uncomfortable or worried in a situation 

(C) When one thing goes wrong, then another, and another 

(D) Before the time necessary to do something 

Answer-  A

Q.94 Some parts of a sentence have been jumbled up, and labelled P, Q, R and S. Select the option that gives the correct sequence in which these parts can be rearranged to form a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. 

Regardless of the highly unstable  

P. mutual funds are still considered  

Q. nature of high risk and rewards,  

R. as a viable investment opportunity  

S. to make substantial gains  in short term. 

(A) QSPR 

(B) QSRP 

(C) QRPS 

(D) QPRS 

Answer-  D

Q.95 Select the word that is opposite in meaning (ANTONYM) to the word given below. 

Clandestine 

(A) Furtive 

(B) Futile 

(C) Covert 

(D) Overt 

Answer-  D

Q.96 Choose the most appropriate idiom to complete the sentence.  

The contract manager was told that the quality of construction was poor and he 

should ______ or face the consequences. 

(A) get some shut – eye 

(B) get his goat 

(C) get his act together 

(D) get his nose out of joint 

Answer-  C

Q.97 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

In the wake of the recent cross-border tensions, forces have been ________ at strategic locations for immediate action, if required. 

(A) deported 

(B) deposited 

(C) deployed 

(D) departed 

Answer-  C

Q.98 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.  

The national debt ______ at an alarming rate thereby causing concern among economists. 

(A) is grown 

(B) has been growing 

(C) has to be growing 

(D) had been grown 

Answer-  B

Q.99 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.  

I would have waited for you ______ you were coming. 

(A) if I would have known 

(B) had I known 

(C) because I was knowing 

(D) when it was known 

Answer-  B

Q.100 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the word with the correct spelling. 

(A) Magananimous 

(B) Magnanamos 

(C) Magnanamous 

(D) Magnanimous 

Answer-  D

SSC GD 18 Feb 2019 Shift-III Previous Year Paper

SSC GD 18th Feb 2019 Shift-III 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

CGEI : XTVR :: FJHL : ? 

(A) UOQS 

(B) UQSO 

(C) TNRP 

(D) OUQS 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 2 How would the pattern given on the square transparent sheet marked ‘X° look when the sheet is folded along the dotted line? 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 3 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 1, 3, 8, 19, 42, ……… 

(A) 89 

(B) 93 

(C) 85 

(D) 77 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

The Correct Logic in above number series is. 

1, 3, 8,19, 42, ……… 

1*2+1 =3 

3*2+2=8 

8*2+3=9 

19*2+4=42 

42*2+5=89 

 

Q. 4 Which one of the following four-letter clusters does NOT belong to the group? 

(A) SOPQ 

(B) WTUV 

(C) HEFG 

(D) NKLM 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

All three follow same pattern WTUV, HEFG, NKLM 

But SOPQ does not follow same pattern. 

Hence Correct Answer is Option (A) – SOPQ is odd one. 

 

Q. 5 If in a code language, MACE = 5 and MASTER = 7, then SOLUTION = ? 

(A)

(B) 11 

(C)

(D) 10 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

MACE = 5 (No. of Alphabet in word 4 + 1) = 5 

MASTER = 7 (No. of Alphabet in word 6 + 1) =7 

Similarly, SOLUTION =9 (No. of Alphabet in word 8 + 1) =9 

Answer is 9. 

 

Q. 6 Pinky is taller than Priya but shorter than Reena.Riya is taller than Sheela, who is shorter than Priya. Reena is taller than Riya, who is taller than Pinky. Who is the shortest? 

(A) Priya 

(B) Sheela 

(C) Riya 

(D) Pinky 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

1) Pinky is taller than Priya but shorter than Reena. 

Pinky > Riya 

2) Riya is taller than Sheela, 

Riya > Sheela 

3) (Sheela)who is shorter than Priya. 

Priya > Sheela 

4) Reena is taller than Riya, 

Reena> Riya 

5) (Riya)who is taller than Pinky. 

Riya > Pinky 

After consolidating all the sentence the Final Sequence of from Tallest to Shortest is Reena > Riya > Pinky > Priya > Sheela Hence Sheela is Shortest. 

 

Q. 7 Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table facing the center. C is seated between A and B, who is to the immediate left of D. If C is facing E, who is facing F? 

(A)

(B) A

(C)

(D)

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

1) B(who) is to the immediate left of D. 

2) C is seated between A and B 

3) C is facing E. 

4) Lets place F in Empty Space. 

Hence in (B) is facing F. 

 

Q. 8 Select the figure which when placed in the blank space of the figure marked ‘X’ would complete the pattern. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 9 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation correct? 

12 + 18 × 24 ÷ 6 − 3 = 19 

(A) × and ÷ 

(B) ÷ and + 

(C) + and × 

(D) − and ÷ 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Original Statement 

12 + 18 × 24 ÷ 6 − 3 = 19 

Let’s interchange symbols 

÷and+ 

12 ÷ 18 × 24 + 6 − 3 = 19 

4 ÷ 6 × 24 + 6 − 3 = 19 

4 × 4 + 6 − 3 = 19 

4 × 4 + 3 = 19 

16 + 3 = 19 

19 = 19 

Hence Option (B) is correct Answer. 

 

Q. 10 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. pmtz, rkvx, tixv, vgzt, ……… 

(A) xebr 

(B) zdcw 

(C) xeyv 

(D) yerb 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

First digit of all number sequence is P+1,R+1,T+1,V+1 = X 

Second digit of all number sequence is M-1,K-1,I-1,G-1 = E 

Third digit of all number sequence is T+1,V+1,X+1,Z+1= (B) 

Fourth digit of all number sequence is Z-1,X-1,V-1,T-1 = R 

Hence last Sequence will have XEBR. 

 

Q. 11 The statement below is followed by three conclusions labeled I, II and III. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the three suggested conclusions logically follows for pursuing. 

Statements: 

1.) No school is an institution. 

2.) All establishments that are not institutions have buildings. 

Conclusions: 

I. Schools are not establishments. 

II. All schools have buildings. 

III. Schools do not have buildings. 

(A) Only conclusion III follows 

(B) Either conclusionI or II follow 

(C) Only conclusion I follows 

(D) Only conclusion II follows 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 12 P, Q, R, S, T and U are standing in a queue. Q is just ahead of P. S is just behind T. U is NOT near R, who is separated from Q by two persons. Who is standing at the front of the queue? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 13 Choose the figure from the options that would follow next in the given series. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 14 Four numbers have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) 33 

(B) 73 

(C) 53 

(D) 23 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

73,53,23 are Prime Numbers. 

But 33 is not a prime number hence it is odd one. 

 

Q. 15 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Heart : Veins :: River : ? 

(A) Water 

(B) Current 

(C) Ocean 

(D) Tributaries 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Heart contains Veins. 

Similarly, River contains Tributaries. 

 

Q. 16 Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly represents the relationships among the classes: 

Women, Mothers, Engineers 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 17 Pick the odd one out. 

(A) Rome 

(B) Paris 

(C) London 

(D) Spain 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Rome is capital of Italy, 

Paris is capital of France, 

London is capital of United Kingdom, 

But Spain is a country name of European it is not and capital. Hence Option (D) is correct Option. 

 

Q. 18 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1.) All cups are mugs. 

2.) All mugs are utensils. 

Conclusions: 

I. All cups are utensils. 

II. Some utensils are cups. 

(A) Only conclusion I follows 

(B) Neither conclusion I nor II follows 

(C) Both conclusions I and II follow 

(D) Only conclusion II follows 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 19 TIME is related to CLOCK in the same way as DISTANCE is related to: 

(A) KILOMETRE 

(B) ODOMETER 

(C) DESTINATION 

(D) SPACE 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Clock is use to display Time. 

Similarly, Odometer is use to measure Distance. 

Hence Option (B) is correct Option. 

 

Q. 20 If in a code language, MOTHER is coded as OMHTRE,then THURSDAY would be coded as: 

(A) HTRUDSYA 

(B) HTRUSDYA 

(C) HTRUSDAY 

(D) UHTDSRYA 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

MOTHER is coded as OMHTRE (First alphabet is exchanged with second, Third is exchanged with fourth, fixth is exchanged with sixth) THURSDAY will be coded as ‘HTRUDSYA’ 

 

Q. 21 Pick the odd pair out. 

(A) 5-31 

(B) 3-23 

(C) 12-86 

(D) 8-58 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 22 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

6, 9, 18, 27, …., 81 

(A) 62 

(B) 36 

(C) 48 

(D) 54 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 23 The numbers in the following set are related in a certain way. Choose the set that is similar to the following set: {4, 6, 9} 

(A) {6, 8, 12} 

(B) {9, 15, 18} 

(C) {6, 12, 24} 

(D) {12, 14, 18} 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 24 Choose the figure from the options in which the given figure is embedded. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 25 Choose the alternative which most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word when mirror is placed at XY line. 

Answer: (B) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 Who was the first Indian woman player to reach the Olympics badminton singles quarterfinals? 

(A) PV Sindhu 

(B) Ashwini P 

(C) Aparna Popat 

(D) Saina Nehwal 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 27 Why is it important to have iodised salt in our diet? 

(A) It improves eye sight 

(B) It helps in smooth functioning of the thyroid gland 

(C) It helps in building bones 

(D) It helps in gaining height 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 28 As per the interim Budget 2019, the 22nd AIIMS is proposed to come up in ……… 

(A) Haryana 

(B) Assam 

(C) Maharashtra 

(D) Jharkhand 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 29 The Simon Commission which was sent by the British Government was boycotted because: 

(A) The Commission curbed financial independence of India. 

(B) The Commission did not have any Indian member. 

(C) There were differences amongst the members. 

(D) It gave special powers to the Princely states. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 30 ‘Moonwalk’, the famous dance move,is associated with: 

(A) Michael Jackson 

(B) Adele 

(C) Misha Bryan 

(D) Fred Astaire 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 31 Who amongst the following founded the Bharatiya Jana Sangh (BJS) in 1977? 

(A) Ashutosh Mukherjee 

(B) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee 

(C) Vinayak Savarkar 

(D) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 32 The Finance Minister of India, in his budget speech announced the launching of the indigenously developed semi high speed train named as ……… 

(A) Vikramsheela Express 

(B) Vande Bharat Express 

(C) Veer Jawan Express 

(D) Vaicom Express 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 33 The ………. movement was led by Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali. 

(A) Khilafat Movement 

(B) Badshahi Movement 

(C) Deoband Movement 

(D) Sultaniya Movement 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 34 Which of the following is not a Greenhouse gas? 

(A) Nitrous Oxide 

(B) Methane 

(C) Carbon Dioxide 

(D) Argon 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 35 Who called dams as the ‘Temples of Modern India’? 

(A) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi 

(B) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 

(C) T Krishnanchari 

(D) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 36 Name the place where the Olympic Games originated? 

(A) Latvia 

(B) Baghdad 

(C) Greece 

(D) Aden 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 37 Fundamental duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution by: 

(A) 56th Amendment 

(B) 42nd Amendment 

(C) 25th Amendment 

(D) 14th Amendment 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 38 The Right to Property was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by which of the Amendment of Indian Constitution? 

(A) 43rd Amendment 

(B) 41st Amendment 

(C) 42nd Amendment 

(D) 44th Amendment 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 39 Acidity in stomach after overeating can be remedied by consuming: 

(A) vegetables 

(B) fruit juice 

(C) lemon juice 

(D) baking soda 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 40 Where is the Konark Sun Temple situated? 

(A) Kedarnath 

(B) Odisha 

(C) Madurai 

(D) Tirupati 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 41 Sanjhi, the paper craft is said to have originated in which of the following places of India? 

(A) Bhubaneshwar 

(B) Coimbatore 

(C) Mathura 

(D) Indore 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 42 Name the acid present in tamarind. 

(A) Tartaric acid 

(B) Lactic acid 

(C) Amino acid 

(D) Citric acid 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 43 The objective of the 12th 5 year Plan was ………… 

(A) Faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth 

(B) Reducting poverty and exploitation of women 

(C) Growth with stability and progressive achievement 

(D) Faster and more inclusive growth 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 44 Which is the first Indian state to start rooftop rainwater harvesting? 

(A) Assam 

(B) Kerala 

(C) Tamil Nadu 

(D) Rajasthan 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 45 The Lahore session of the Indian National Congress declared to celebrate 26th January as the Independence day in the year ……… 

(A) 1942 

(B) 1935 

(C) 1930 

(D) 1920 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 46 Milk becomes sour if kept outside the refrigerator in summers because of: 

(A) its colour 

(B) the conversion of lactose sugar to lactic acid 

(C) the breakdown of proteins 

(D) the calcium present in it 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 47 Which of the following soils is found in the northern plains of India? 

(A) Arid soil 

(B) Alluvial soil 

(C) Laterite soil 

(D) Black soil 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 48 Robben Island, the world heritage site is associated to which of the following figures? 

(A) Nelson Mandela 

(B) Winston Churchill 

(C) Jimmy Carter 

(D) John F. Kennedy 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 49 Who replaced Sachchidananda Sinha as Chairman of the Constituent Assembly of India? 

(A) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru 

(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad 

(C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 

(D) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 50 Who played a decisive role is the integration of the princely states of India? 

(A) Motilal Nehru 

(B) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 

(C) APJ Abdul Kalam 

(D) TT Krishnamurthy 

Answer: (B) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 The compound interest on a certain sum at a certain rate percent per annum for the second year and the third year are ₹3300 and ₹3630, respectively. The sum is: 

(A) ₹32000 

(B) ₹28400 

(C) ₹30000 

(D) ₹25000 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 52 A boat can cover 36 km downstream and 16 km upstream in 10 hours. It can cover 3 km downstream and 1.2 km upstream in 48 minutes. What is the speed (in km/hr) of the boat when going upstream? 

(A)

(B) 2.5 

(C) 3.5 

(D)

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

let the speed of the boat=b 

speed of the stream=s 

Given (36)/(b+s) +(16)/(b-s) =10 

(36b-36s+16b+16s)/((b-s)(b+s))=10 

52b-20s=10(b-s)(b+s) 

Also given (3)/(b+s) +(1.2)/(b-s) =4/5 

(3b-3s+1.2b+1.2s)/((b-s)(b+s))=4/5 

4.2b-1.8s=(4/5)(b+s)(b-s) 

dividing both the equations we have 

104b-40s=105b-45s 

-b=-5s 

b=5s 

Substituting in the above equation 

(3)/(5s+s) +(1.2)/(5s-s) =4/5 

(1/2s)+(3/10s)=4/5 

8/10s =4/5 

s=1 km/hr 

b=5 km/hr 

Upstream speed=5-1 

=4 km/hr 

 

Q. 53 The value of [0.08 ÷ 1.2 of (3.4 − 2.6) × 0.8 of 3.2] of 9/16 lies between: 

(A) 0.11 and 0.13 

(B) 0.13 to 0.15 

(C) 0.09 and 0.11 

(D) 0.07 and 0.09 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 54 Study the following table and answer questions: 

Number of students studying in five schools of a city 

In how many schools, the number of girls is more than the average number of boys per school? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Total number of boys in all the schools is 

(9/17)*680=360 

(4/9)*720=320 

(5/18)*540=150 

(2/3)*660=440 

(13/25)*900=468 

Sum=1838 

average=1838/5 =367 

Number of girls in each school=680-360=320 

720-320=400 

540-150=390 

660-440=220 

900-468=432 

Therefore three schools have the girls more than average boys per school. 

 

Q. 55 Two solutions of acid and water containing acid and water in the ratio 2 : 7 and 4 : 5, respectively are mixed in the ratio 2 : 5. What is the ratio of acid and water in the resulting solution? 

(A) 8 : 13 

(B) 3 : 7 

(C) 8 : 17 

(D) 2 : 1 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

acid content in 1st solution 2/9 

acid content in second solution=4/9 

They are mixed in the ratio 2:5 

x is the acid present in the final mixture 

By using the principle of allegations we have 

((4/9)-x)/(x-(2/9))=2/5 

(20/9)-5x=2x-(4/9) 

7x=24/9 

x=8/21 

8 parts of acid and 13 parts of water. 

Ratio=8/13 

 

Q. 56 What is the mean of the range, median and mode of the data: 

2, 3, 1, 1, 3, 4, 2, 1, 1, 4, 5, 2, 4, 2, 2, 1, 3, 3, 2, 5 

(A) 3 ⅓ 

(B) 4 ½ 

(C) 2 ⅔ 

(D) 4

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 57 Suman sold an article for 882 after allowing 16% discount on its marked price. Had she not allowed any discount, she would have gained 20% on the cost price. What is the cost price ofthe article? 

(A) 875 

(B) 850 

(C) 890 

(D) 880 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

MP-discount=SP 

MP-0.16MP=882 

0.84MP=882 

MP=882*100/84 

Given in the second case MP=SP 

Therefore 1.2CP=SP 

CP=SP/1.2 

CP=(882*100)/(84*1.2) 

CP=875 

 

Q. 58 Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 15 minutes, respectively. When an outlet pipe C is also opened, then the three pipes together can fill the tank in 10 minutes. In how many minutes can C alone empty the full tank? 

(A) 18 

(B) 20 

(C) 16 

(D) 24 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Time taken for Pipe A to fill the tank=12 minutes 

Time taken for Pipe B to fill the tank=15 minutes 

Time taken for Pipe C to empty the tank=x minutes 

Therefore (1/12)+(1/15)-(1/x)=(1/10) 

(1/x)=(1/12)+(1/15)-(1/10) 

(1/x)=(5+4-6)/60 

(1/x)=3/60 

x=20 minutes 

 

Q. 59 A person covered a distance of 250 km at a certain speed. If his speed is 20% less, he would have covered the same distance in 1¼ hours more time. His speed (in km/hr), initially was: 

(A) 45 

(B) 50 

(C) 52½ 

(D) 47½ 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 60 When 32% of a number X was added to another number y , then y increases by 24%. The value of (2x+y)/3x−y is: 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 61 The average weight of a certain number of persons in a group was 75.5 kg. Later on, 4 persons weighing (2x+y)/3x−y joined the group. As a result, the average weight of all persons in the group reduced by 500g. The number of persons in the group, initially, was: 

(A) 20 

(B) 16 

(C) 18 

(D) 24 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Let the number of people be ‘x’ 

Sum of the weights=75.5x 

72.6 kg. 74 kg, 73.4 kg and 70 kg were added and average decreased to 75 

Sum=290 kgs 

Total sum=75.5x+290 

Average=(75.5x+290)/(x+4) 

(75.5x+290)/(x+4)=75 

75.5x+290=75x+300 

0.5x=10 

x=20 people 

 

Q. 62 Two numbers are in the ratio 5 : 6. If 16 is subtracted from each, the numbers will be in the ratio 3 : 4. If 8 is added to the first number and 3 is subtracted from the second, then they will be in the ratio: 

(A) 14 : 13 

(B) 16 : 15 

(C) 15 : 16 

(D) 13 : 14 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

let the two numbers be 5x and 6x 

Given (5x-16)/(6x-16)=3/4 

20x-64=18x-48 

2x=16 

x=18 

Numbers are 40 and 48 

8 is added it becomes 48 and 3 is subtracted it becomes 45 

Ratio 48:45 

=16:15 

 

Q. 63 If the radius of a sphere is decreased by 25%, then the percentage decrease in its surface area is: 

(A) 42 

(B) 43.75 

(C) 37.50 

(D) 40 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 64 The area of an equilateral triangular park is equal to 5√3 times the area of a triangular field with sides 18 m, 80 m and 82 m. What is the side of the triangular park? 

(A) 125 m 

(B) 120 m 

(C) 140 m 

(D) 100 m 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 65 The value of is: 

 

(A) 1 ⅖ 

(B) 1 ⅘ 

(C) 3 ⅖ 

(D) 3 ⅕ 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 66 A sold an article to B at 25% profit. B sold it to C at a profit of 10% and C sold it to D at 40% loss. If I bought it for ₹46.20, then the difference between the profits of A and B is: 

(A) ₹8.50 

(B) ₹15 

(C) ₹6 

(D) ₹7 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Let the A’s CP=x 

A’s SP=1.25x 

B’s CP=1.25x 

B’s SP=1.1*1.25x 

C’s CP=1.1*1.25x 

C’s SP=0.6*1.1*1.25x 

D’s CP=0.6*1.1*1.25x=46.20 

0.825x=46.20 

x=46.20/0.825 

x=Rs 56 

A’s profit=0.25x=56/4=14 

B’s profit=0.125x=7 

Difference=14-7=Rs 7 

 

Q. 67 The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder of height 28 cm is 176 cm2 . The volume(in cm3 ) of cylinder is (Take π = 22/7) 

(A) 66 

(B) 110 

(C) 88 

(D) 176 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 68 Study the following table and answer questions: 

Number of students studying in five schools of a city 

The ratio of the number of boys in school (A) to the number of girls in school E is: 

(A) 3 : 4 

(B) 5 : 6 

(C) 8 : 13 

(D) 5 : 12 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

the number of boys in school (A) =(9/17)*680 

=360 

the number of girls in school E =(12/25)*900 

=36*12 

=432 

Ratio=360:432 

=5:6 

 

Q. 69 Working together, A, B and C can complete a work in 36 days. If the efficiency of A, B and are C in the ratio 5: 6: 9, then B alone will complete the same work in: 

(A) 120 days 

(B) 100 days 

(C) 60 days 

(D) 90 days 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Given the ratios of efficiencies 5:6:9 and so 

A can do the work in (x/5) days 

B can do the work in (x/6) days 

C can do the work in (x/9) days 

Therefore 1/(x/5) + 1/(x/6)+ 1/(x/9) =1/36 

(5/x)+(6/x)+(9/x)=(1/36) 

20/x =1/36 

x=36*20 

x=720 

(B) can alone do in 720/6 =120 days 

 

Q. 70 A person sells a watch at a profit of 26%. If he had bought it at 20% less and sold for ₹81.60 less, he would have gained 32%. What is the original cost price (in ₹) of the watch? 

(A) 400 

(B) 480 

(C) 450 

(D) 360 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Let the cost price =x 

then selling price=1.26x 

Given that if he purchased for 20% less then cost price will be 0.8x 

Selling price is 81.6 less and so new selling price=1.26x-81.6 

given profit percent=32 

Therefore 1.32(0.8x)=1.26x-81.6 

1.056x=1.26x-81.6 

0.204x=81.6 

x=81.6/0.204 

x=400 

 

Q. 71 Let x be the greatest number such that when 12085, 16914 and 13841 are divided by it, the remainder in each case is same. The sum of digits of x is: 

(A) 14 

(B) 19 

(C) 13 

(D) 16 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

As in this case each number leaves the same remainder we have to find the HCF of differences of the three numbers i.e 13841-12085=1756 

16914-13841=3073 

16914-12085=4829 

HCF of these three numbers is 439 

sum=4+3+9=16 

 

Q. 72 The simple interest on a certain sum in 5½ years at 6% p.a. is ₹ 2541. what will be the amount of the same sum in 5⅔ years at 817% p.a.? 

(A) ₹13125 

(B) ₹11235 

(C) ₹12153 

(D) ₹11253 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

I=PTR/100 

2541=P*(11/2)*(6)/100 

P=(2541*200)/(66) 

P=Rs 7700 

I=PTR/100 

I=7700*(17/3)*(57/7)/100 

I=(7700*17*57)/(3*7*100) 

I=RS 3553 

A=P+I 

A=7700+3553 

A=11253 

 

Q. 73 Study the following table and answer questions: 

Number of students studying in five schools of a city 

The total number of girls in schools B and C is what percent less than the total number of boys in schools A and D? 

(A) 1.25 

(B) 11.25 

(C)

(D) 10 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

The total number of girls in schools B and C=720*(5/9)+540*(13/18) 

=400+390 

=790 

the total number of boys in schools A and D=680*(9/17)+660*(2/3) 

=360+440 

=800 

percentage required=(10/800)*100 

=1.25% 

 

Q. 74 A sum of ₹4107 is divided between A, B, C and D such that the ratio of shares of A and B is 3 :4, that of B and C is 2: 1 and that of C and D is 3 : 5. The share of B is: 

(A) ₹1443 

(B) ₹1003 

(C) ₹1223 

(D) ₹1332 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Given a:b=3:4 

b:c=2:1 

b:c=4:2 

a:b:c=3:4:2 

c:d=3:5 

a:b:c=9:12:6 

c:d=6:10 

a:b:c:d=9:12:6:10 

Sum=9x+12x+6x+10x 

=37x 

Therefore 37x=4107 

x=4107/37 

x=111 

Share of (B) is 111*12=1332 

 

Q. 75 The average of 41 numbers is 63. The average of first 21 number is 61.5 and that of last 21 numbers is 65.5. if 21st number is excluded then the average of remaining numbers is: 

(A) 62.475 

(B) 63.5 

(C) 62.5 

(D) 63.575 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Sum of 41 numbers=63*41 

=2583 

Sum of first 21 numbers=21*61.5 

=1291.5 

Sum of last 21 numbers=21*65.5 

=1375.5 

Sum of 41 numbers and the 21st number=1291.5+1375.5 

=2667 

21st number in the series is =2667-2583 

=84 

Sum of 40 numbers=2583-84 

=2499 

Average=2499/40 

=62.475 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Exaggeration 

(B) Exeggeration 

(C) Exaggaration 

(D) Exageration 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 77 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

Scientists tried to find out the ……….. behind the occurrence of the phenomenon. 

(A) interpretation 

(B) cause 

(C) clarification 

(D) illustration 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 78 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Accomodate 

(B) Accommodate 

(C) Acommodate 

(D) Accommadate 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 79 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

The Indian forces are known for their bravery. 

(A) No improvement 

(B) force are known for 

(C) forces are known of 

(D) forces is known for 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 80 From the given options,identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Nowadays spectacles are costly than they used to be. 

(A) spectacles are 

(B) costly than 

(C) they used to be 

(D) Nowadays 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 81 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. We must visit this ancient temple which are a hundred years old. 

(A) We must visit 

(B) this ancient temple 

(C) a hundred years old 

(D) which are 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Dinosaurs are an ………. species now. 

(A) age-old 

(B) extinct 

(C) antique 

(D) ancient 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Regular exercise lead to fitness of the body. 

(A) No improvement 

(B) leads to fitness of the body 

(C) leading to fitness of the body 

(D) will leads to fitness of the body 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Apart from cows, buffaloes are also ………. for mass milk production for humans. 

(A) reared 

(B) grown 

(C) produced 

(D) developed 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. 

Passage: 

The neglect of one half of mankind costs the world a great deal both, in economic and social(1)…….. (A) family (2)………….. an educated motheris, in most cases, a poorer family than one in which everyone is educated and can (3)…………. a living. (A) family with an uneducated mother may(4)………….. in other ways too, because the mother is (5)…………. to help the children in their education. 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) terms 

(B) aspects 

(C) areas 

(D) values 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) with 

(B) of 

(C) without 

(D) including 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 87 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) Manage 

(B) eam 

(C) create 

(D) plan 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 88 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) suffer 

(B) destroy 

(C) fail 

(D) prosper 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 89 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) qualified 

(B) eligible 

(C) able 

(D) unable 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

The baby bird was ……….. by its mother. 

(A) sacrificed 

(B) abandoned 

(C) thrown 

(D) renounced 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 91 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

(A) stone’s throw away 

(A) At a short distance 

(B) Many miles away 

(C) At a remote location 

(D) Very far off 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 92 Select the antonym of the given word. 

LATENT 

(A) Forbidding 

(B) Obvious 

(C) Hidden 

(D) Artificial 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 93 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Dr. Rana is our teacher of English since this semester. 

(A) of English since 

(B) this semester. 

(C) Dr.Rana is 

(D) our teacher 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 94 Select the synonym of the given word. 

HANDY 

(A) Funny 

(B) Convenient 

(C) Nice 

(D) Easy 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 95 Select the synonym of the given word. 

NOMADIC 

(A) Wild 

(B) Barbaric 

(C) Brave 

(D) Roving 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 96 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

We should offer due respects to all elderly persons. 

(A) offers due respects to 

(B) No improvement 

(C) offer due respects for 

(D) offer due respect to 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 97 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

The grass is greener on the other side 

(A) Only green grass grows well 

(B) Green grass grows everywhere 

(C) Many things looks like green grass 

(D) Things appear better for others 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 98 Select the antonym of the given word. 

MALEVOLENT 

(A) Well-mannered 

(B) Positive 

(C) Kind 

(D) Cruel 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 99 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

One who speaks many languages 

(A) Multilingual 

(B) Linguist 

(C) Bilingual 

(D) Monolingual 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 100 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

Something which gets broken easily 

(A) Fragile 

(B) Feeble 

(C) Soft 

(D) Weak 

Answer: (A) 

SSC GD 18 Feb 2019 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC GD 18th Feb 2019 Shift-II

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Select a figure from amongst the four alternatives that when placed in the blank space (?) of figure X will complete the pattern. (Rotation is not allowed). 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

If we complete the above figure, then the missing pattern is represented by the red colour. 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 2 Choose the option in which the figure marked ‘X’ is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed) 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

The question figure is embedded in following figure and is represented by red colour. 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 3 Choose the odd one out of the given options. 

(A) KJL 

(B) FIL 

(C) GIK 

(D) DKL 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Among the given options, only in KJL, there are consecutive letters from English alphabetical order. 

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 4 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. How will the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line? 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 5 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 

36 : 324 :: 11 : ? 

(A) 259 

(B) 121 

(C) 22 

(D) 221 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Expression = 36 : 324 :: 11 : ? 

The pattern followed is that the number on the left is multiplied by the sum of its digits. 

Eg :- 

36 × (3 + 6) = 324 

Similarly, 

11 × (1 + 1) = 11 × 2 = 22 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 6 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1) All toads are frogs. 

2) All frogs are snakes. 

Conclusion: 

I. Some snakes are toads. 

II. Some frogs are toads. 

(A) Only conclusion I follows. 

(B) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. 

(C) Both conclusions follow. 

(D) Only conclusion II follows. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 7 Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around circular table facing each other for a lunch. A is opposite D and third to the right of B. G is between A and F. H is to the right of A. E is between C and D. Who is sitting opposite B? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 8 Seven friends O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are watching a movie sitting in a row. P is sitting at one extreme end. Q is sitting to the immediate left of S. P is sitting second to the right of T. U is not sitting at any extreme end. O is sitting between R and T. Who is sitting at the extreme left end? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 9 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Ichthyology : Fishes :: Hematology : ? 

(A) Ligaments 

(B) Blood 

(C) Tissue 

(D) Bone 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Ichthyology is the branch of zoology that deals with fishes while Hematology is the branch of medicine involving study and treatment of the blood. 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 10 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series. 

5, 17, 34, 61, ? 

(A) 105 

(B) 103 

(C) 115 

(D) 125 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

The pattern followed is that numbers with successive multiples of 5 between them are added. 

5 + 12 = 17 

17 + 17 = 34 

34 + 27 = 61 

61 + 42 = 103 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 11 Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes. 

Paragraph, Word, Sentence 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 12 Choose the option that would follow next in the given figure series. 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

The pattern followed is that the little gap between the two triangles in the first figure is pointing at top left and is moving in anti clockwise direction, i.e. in the second figure is pointing at left side, then bottom left and then at bottom, thus in the missing figure, it will face bottom right as shown in second figure. 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 13 Find out the two signs to be interchanged to make the following equation correct. 

25 + 25 × 25 − 25 ÷ 25 = −599 

(A) + and × 

(B) × and ÷ 

(C) − and × 

(D) − and ÷ 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Expression : 

25 + 25 × 25 − 25 ÷ 25 = −599 

+ × 

(A) : and 

L.H.S. 

≡ 25 × 25 + 25 − 25 ÷ 25 

625 + 25 − 1 = 649 = 

× ÷ 

(B) : and 

L.H.S. 

≡ 25 + 25 ÷ 25 − 25 × 25 

25 + 1 − 625 = −599 = 

= R.H.S. 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 14 Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given figure. 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

The last image is same as the question figure, hence it is eliminated, moreover the shape of the ring will remain vertical, hence the 

second and third options are also not possible. Only the position of stars will be changed as shown in first figure. => Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 15 Choose the odd number out of the given options. 

(A) 65 

(B) 52 

(C) 26 

(D) 97 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Among the given numbers, except for 97, all the numbers are divided by 13. Also, 97 is the only prime number given. => Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 16 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series. 

102, 98, 82, 46, ? 

(A) 20 

(B) 18 

(C) -20 

(D) -18 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Squares of consecutive even natural numbers are subtracted. 

(2)2 

102 – = 98 

(4)2 

98 – = 82 

(6)2 

82 – = 46 

(8)2 

46 – = -18 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 17 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Famous : Renowned : Ban : ? 

(A) Use 

(B) Packet 

(C) Allow 

(D) Prohibition 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Expression = Famous : Renowned : Ban : ? 

Famous and renowned are synonyms, similarly synonym of ban is prohibition

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 18 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1) Some manure are ammonia. 

2) Some ammonia are potash. 

Conclusion: 

I. Some ammonia are manure. 

II. Some potash are ammonia. 

(A) Only conclusion I follows. 

(B) Both conclusions follow. 

(C) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. 

(D) Only conclusion II follows. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 19 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

LEVEL : MFVDK :: FENCE 😕 

(A) GFND(B) 

(B) FGND(B) 

(C) GFNB(D) 

(D) FGNB(D) 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 20 In a certain code, ABOVE is written as ABEOV. How will QUESTION be written in that code? 

(A) EINOQSTU 

(B) EINQOSTU 

(C) EINOQTSU 

(D) USINVSIN 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

ABOVE is written as ABEOV. 

The pattern followed is that the letters are arranged in increasing order as per English alphabetical order. Thus, QUESTION : EINOQSTU 

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 21 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the given pattern. 

(A) 13 

(B)

(C) 50 

(D) 49 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

If we start from 5 and move anti clockwise, we get the pattern that consecutive odd numbers are added. 

5 + 5 = 10 

10 + 7 = 17 

17 + 9 = 26 

26 + 11 = 37 

37 + 13 = 50 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 22 J, K L, M, N and are six teachers. Each one teaches a different subject out of Hindi, English, Math, Science, Social Science and Arts, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them teaches on only one day, from Monday to Saturday. not necessarily in the same order. 

J teaches Science on Wednesday. O teaches Math second after J. K teaches on the first day of the week, but teaches neither Hindi nor English. M teaches English before N and L teaches Arts before J. Which subject is taught on Saturday? 

(A) Hindi 

(B) English 

(C) Social Science 

(D) Science 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 23 Choose the odd one out of the given options. 

(A) Ear 

(B) Kidney 

(C) Eye 

(D) Nose 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

The organs ear, eyes and nose can be seen from outside and can be touched, but kidney being inside the human body is the odd one. => Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 24 In a certain code. DIG is written as 20. How will FEED be written in that code? 

(A) 80 

(B) 60 

(C) 20 

(D) 90 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

If all the alphabets in the English alphabetical order are written sequentially, then A=1, B=2, C=3, D=4 and so on. ≡ 4 + 9 + 7 = 20 

Then, DIG 

≡ 6 + 5 + 5 + 4 = 20 

Similarly, FEED

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 25 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series. 

QFM, OHL, MJK, ? 

(A) KJL 

(B) KLJ 

(C) JKL 

(D) LKJ 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Series : QFM, OHL, MJK, ? 

The pattern followed in each letter of the terms is : 

1st letter : Q (-2 letters) = O (-2 letters) = M (-2 letters) = K 

2nd letter : F (+2 letters) = H (+2 letters) = J (+2 letters) = L 

3rd letter : M (-1 letter) = L (-1 letter) = K (-1 letter) = J 

Thus, missing term = KLJ 

=> Ans – (B) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 26 The Himalayas are an example of ……….. mountains. 

(A) block 

(B) plateau 

(C) volcanic 

(D) fold 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 27 The raga ‘Miya Malhar’ was created by: 

(A) Tansen 

(B) Mira Bai 

(C) Amir Khusro 

(D) Pandit Jasraj 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 28 Pokkalli, a unique variety of rice which can sustain in salinity is endemic to which state of India? 

(A) Goa 

(B) Andhra Pradesh 

(C) Kerala 

(D) Telangana 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 29 With reference to the Kangra School of Painting, which of the following statements is correct? 

(A) Its theme is prosaic in nature 

(B) It uses strong colours with deep Red and Black 

(C) It was inspired by the Vaishnavite traditions 

(D) It was developed during the reign of Samudragupta 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 30 When the government’s total revenue, excluding borrowings, is less than the planned expenditure,it is called: 

(A) revenue deficit 

(B) budget shortfall 

(C) fiscal deficit 

(D) deficit financing 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 31 “Sanitation is more important than independence” — Who said this? 

(A) C Rajagopalachari 

(B) Mahatma Gandhi 

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru 

(D) Subhash Chandra Bose 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 32 “Sattriya” is a dance form which has its origins in which state of India? 

(A) Karnataka 

(B) Andhra Pradesh 

(C) Tamil Nadu 

(D) Assam 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 33 With which sport is Durand Cup associated? 

(A) Football 

(B) Hockey 

(C) Tennis 

(D) Cricket 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 34 Ozone depletion is greatest near: 

(A) tropics 

(B) equator 

(C) poles 

(D) oceans 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 35 Which institution is responsible for calculating the GDP of India? 

(A) Ministry of Finance 

(B) Reserve Bank of India 

(C) Central Statistics Office 

(D) Chief Economic Advisor 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 36 When you heat a China dish containing 1gm of Copper powder, a Black substance is formed on the surface of the powder due to: 

(A) Atomization 

(B) Carbonization 

(C) Oxidation 

(D) Desalinization 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 37 Bedaquiline drug was developed to treat which of the following diseases? 

(A) Acute Myeloid Leukemia 

(B) Cholera 

(C) MDR-TB 

(D) Osteoarthritis 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 38 Which of the following features are used by Protista organisms for locomotion? 

(A) Maxillia 

(B) Flagella 

(C) Ephemera 

(D) Chimera 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 39 Andal, a Bhakti saint was associated to which of the following religious sects? 

(A) Vaishnavism 

(B) Shaivism 

(C) Shaktism 

(D) Buddhism 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 40 When were the first modern Olympic Games held? 

(A) 1896 

(B) 1935 

(C) 1943 

(D) 1921 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 41 Which of the following rivers flows into the Arabian Sea? 

(A) Narmada 

(B) Kaveri 

(C) Krishna 

(D) Godavari 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 42 Which is the highest peace time gallantry award in India? 

(A) Ashok Chakra 

(B) Kirti Chakra 

(C) Mahavir Chakra 

(D) Param Vir Chakra 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 43 Who is the author of the book ‘The Discovery of India’? 

(A) Atal Bihari Vajpayee 

(B) Indira Gandhi 

(C) Mahatma Gandhi 

(D) Jawaharlal Nehru 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 44 The Planning Commission was set up by the Government of India in the year: 

(A) 1948 

(B) 1950 

(C) 1949 

(D) 1951 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 45 Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Constitution of India? 

(A) Separation of Powers 

(B) Unitary System 

(C) Fundamental Rights 

(D) Federalism 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 46 As per 2011 census, which of the following states in India has the lowest population density? 

(A) Sikkim 

(B) Chhattisgarh 

(C) Arunachal Pradesh 

(D) Himachal Pradesh 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 47 A loan becomes a Non-Performing Asset (NPA) when the interest or principal becomes overdue for a period of: 

(A) 5 years 

(B) 90 days 

(C) 180 days 

(D) 365 days 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 48 A Eukaryotic cell has membrane bound organelles, including a nucleus, which allow cellular processes to be carried out in ……… 

(A) Bifurcation 

(B) Isolation 

(C) Inclusion 

(D) Cassation 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 49 The ‘Gandhara School of Art’ was developed under the ……… Dynasty. 

(A) Kushana 

(B) Maurya 

(C) Nanda 

(D) Chola 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 50 The Constituent Assembly met for the first time in ……….. 

(A) 1945 

(B) 1946 

(C) 1947 

(D) 1948 

Answer: (B) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 Three persons A, B and C started a business with their shares in the ratio 3 : 4: 5. After 4 months B withdrew his 50% share and C withdrew his 20% share 4 months prior to completion of the year. If total profit in the year is ₹ 31,000 then find the share of A in the profit. 

(A) ₹7750 

(B) ₹9000 

(C) ₹9300 

(D) ₹10330 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 52 Marked price of an article is ₹ 8840. If discount of 35% is given on the article, then what will be the selling price of the article? 

(A) ₹6324 

(B) ₹6176 

(C) ₹6548 

(D) ₹5746 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 53 Anil, Dinesh and Deepak together can complete a work in 40 days. Anil and Dinesh together can complete the same work in 50 days. In how many days Deepak alone can complete the same work? 

(A) 90 days 

(B) 200 days 

(C) 150 days 

(D) 75 days 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 54 Suraj covers a distance of 18 km in 12 minutes. If his speed is decreases by 30 km/hr, then how much time will Suraj take to cover the same distance? 

(A) 12 minutes 

(B) 16 minutes 

(C) 20 minutes 

(D) 18 minutes 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 55 The difference between the simple interest and compound interest(interest is compounded half yearly) on a sum at the rate of 25% per annum for one year is ₹ 4375. What will be the principal? 

(A) ₹ 280000 

(B) ₹ 85000 

(C) ₹ 80000 

(D) ₹ 75000 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 56 A shopkeeper sells two articles, one of them with a profit of 10% for ₹ 1100 and another with a loss of 10% for ₹ 900. What will be the profit or loss percent? 

(A) 10% profit 

(B) Neither profit nor loss 

(C) 20% profit 

(D) 20% loss 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 57 A bag has ₹ 785 in the denomination of ₹ 2, ₹ 5 and ₹ 10 coins. The coins are in the ratio of 6 : 9 : 10. How many coins of ₹ 5 are in the bag? 

(A) 60 

(B) 12 

(C) 45 

(D) 24 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 58 The table given below shows the number of students enrolled in different courses of different colleges. 

Which college has the highest average number of students per course? 

(A) C4 

(B) C2 

(C) C3 

(D) C5 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Total number of students per course in : 

C4 : 76 + 52 + 75 + 120 = 323 

C2 : 68 + 58 + 71 + 112 = 309 

C3 : 72 + 54 + 88 + 125 = 339 [max] 

C5 : 69 + 60 + 79 + 126 = 334 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 59 In the table given below Marks of 4 students in 5 different Subjects are given. Total Marks of each subject is 100. 

What is the difference in average marks of students S1 and S4? 

(A) 1.4 

(B) 3.4 

(C)

(D) 2.4 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 60 If 30% of x is the same as 40% of y then what is y : x ? 

(A) 4 : 3 

(B) 3 : 4 

(C) 7 : 4 

(D) 4 : 7 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 61 Three cubes each of sides 7 cm are joined end to end. Find the surface area of the resulting solid. 

(A) 686 cm2 

(B) 866 cm 

(C) 882 cm2 

(D) 343 cm 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 62 If a 32 year old man is replaced by a new man,then the average age of 42 men increases by 1 year. What is the age of the new man? 

(A) 72 years 

(B) 75 years 

(C) 74 years 

(D) 73 years 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 63 A solid toy is in the form of hemisphere surmounted by right circular cone. Height of the cone is 4 cm and diameter of the base is 6 cm. What will be the surface area of the toy? 

(A) 660/7 cm 

(B) 528/7 cm 

(C) 726/7 cm 

(D) 66/7 cm 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 64 What is the value of [100 ÷ 50 − 25 − 55 of (⅓ × 11/9 )] ? 

(A) -1156/27

(B) -1382/27

(C) -1321/27

(D) -1226/27

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 65 From solid cylinder with base diameter 14 cm and height 20 cm hemispherical parts were cut from both the ends of the cylinder. Find the volume of the resultant object? 

(A) 4312/3 cm3

(B) 4928/3 cm3

(C) 9240/3 cm3

(D) 13552/3 cm3

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 66 A sum of ₹ 4000 is lent on simple interest at the rate of 10% per annum. Simple interest for 5 years is how much more than the simple interest for 3 years? 

(A) ₹ 400 

(B) ₹ 600 

(C) ₹ 800 

(D) ₹ 1200 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 67 14 observations are 10, 11, 11, 12, 13, 14, 12, 13, 10, 12, 12, 14, 14 and 15. What is the median of the given observations? 

(A) 12 

(B) 13 

(C) 14 

(D) 10 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 68 If Vijay is travelling at the speed of 17.5 m/s, then how much distance will Vijay cover in 26 hours? 

(A) 1474 km 

(B) 1562 km 

(C) 1572 km 

(D) 1638 km 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 69 The table given below shows the number of students enrolled in different courses of different colleges. 

What is the average number of students per college enrolled in course B2? 

(A) 60 

(B) 56 

(C) 58 

(D) 53 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 70 Product of Highest Common Factor and Least Common Multiple of two numbers is 216. If one of the numberis 12, then what will be the ratio of these two numbers? 

(A) 3 : 5 

(B) 1 : 6 

(C) 2 : 3 

(D) 1 : 2 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 71 What is the value of 28 ÷ (11 − 4) + 384 ÷ (15 + 16 ÷ 4 + 4) ? 

(A) 472/23 

(B) 476/23 

(C) 512/23 

(D) 524/23 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 72 If 40% of a number is 105 more than the one-fourth of that number, then what will be the difference between the number and 35% of the number? 

(A) 315 

(B) 495 

(C) 455 

(D) 375 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 73 P alone can complete a work in 16 days and Q alone can complete the same work in 20 days. P and Q start the work together but Q leaves the work 7 days before the completion of work. In how many days the total work will be completed? 

(A) 9 days 

(B) 14 days 

(C) 12 days 

(D) 18 days 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 74 The average monthly income of P and Q is ₹ 20000. The average monthly income of Q and R is ₹ 40000. Monthly income of R is how much more than monthly income of P? 

(A) ₹40000 

(B) ₹80000 

(C) ₹20000 

(D) ₹25000 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 75 Raju purchased glasses at the rate of ₹ 15 per glass and sold them at the rate of ₹ 12 per glass. On selling 42 glasses, what will be the loss percentage? 

(A) 33.33% 

(B) 25% 

(C) 20% 

(D) 14.28% 

Answer: (C) 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

To miss the boat 

(A) To miss an opportunity 

(B) To miss the journey by boat 

(C) To fail to complete the work 

(D) To decide to travel by air 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 77 Select the antonym of the given word 

CONTRARY 

(A) Predetermined 

(B) Agreeable 

(C) Balanced 

(D) Neutral 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 78 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

India’s Republic Day Parade had, among the main …………., an all-women’s marching contingent. 

(A) displays 

(B) spectacle 

(C) demonstrations 

(D) attractions 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 79 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Having worked for the whole day, you shall have taken some rest and begun again. 

(A) Having worked for 

(B) some rest and begun again 

(C) the whole day 

(D) you should have taken 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 80 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

In the interview held recently, I answer the questions as best as I could. 

(A) I answer the question as bestas I could. 

(B) I answered the questions as best as I could. 

(C) I answered the question as best as Lean. 

(D) No improvement. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 81 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. The researchers have found that all species makes a constructive contribution to the ecology of the earth. 

(A) a constructive contribution to 

(B) that all species makes 

(C) the ecology of the earth. 

(D) The researchers have found 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 82 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

The method and practice of teaching 

(A) Psychology 

(B) Methodology 

(C) Pedagogy 

(D) Philosophy 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

As you can see from my resume, I am working in Mumbai since 2016. 

(A) No improvement. 

(B) I am work in Mumbai since 2016. 

(C) I am working in Mumbai from 2016. 

(D) I have been working in Mumbai since 2016. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 84 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. One could argue that these are the compulsions of parliamentary democracy for smooth functioning for the State. 

(A) these are the compulsions 

(B) of parliamentary democracy 

(C) functioning for the State. 

(D) One could argue that 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 85 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

(A) person who presents a radio/television programme 

(A) Alchemist 

(B) Reporter 

(C) Anarchist 

(D) Anchor 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. 

Passage: 

Given That the availability of safe drinking water touches the lives of everyone, the ………(1) of Safe Drinking Water Mission can hardly be underestimated. Undoubtedly, this is one of the most ………(2) public goods problems to solve. The private solution of reaching out for bottled water due to risks posed by tap water is a ………….(3) one. Even the poor are forced to choose between risking hospital expenses and buying bottled water. Taking into consideration the ………..(4) scenario, it is the duty of every citizen to find out possible and inexpensive means to ………….(5) that safe drinking water is available to all. 

 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) significance 

(B) safety 

(C) progress 

(D) consequence 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 87 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) difficult 

(B) complete 

(C) whole 

(D) ready 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 88 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) simple 

(B) material 

(C) factual 

(D) costly 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 89 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) public 

(B) present 

(C) general 

(D) rural 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) ensure 

(B) endorse 

(C) confirm 

(D) assure 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 91 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Buraucracy 

(B) Bureaucrasy 

(C) Bureucracy 

(D) Bureaucracy 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 92 Select the synonym of the given word. 

MITIGATE 

(A) Improve 

(B) Excuse 

(C) Lessen 

(D) Moderate 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 93 Select the synonym of the given word. 

INDUSTRIOUS 

(A) Prompt 

(B) Fruitful 

(C) Diligent 

(D) Practical 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 94 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

The river is flooded and it has overflown its banks. 

(A) it overflowing its banks. 

(B) it has overflow its banks. 

(C) No improvement. 

(D) it overflow its banks. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 95 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

We need not worry about anything ……….. his commitment to the work he is assigned. 

(A) access 

(B) accept 

(C) expect 

(D) except 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 96 Select the antonym of the given word 

SERENE 

(A) Splendid 

(B) Superb 

(C) Showy 

(D) Stressed 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 97 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

If an individual keeps his fingers crossed he ……… for the best. 

(A) reacts 

(B) suspects 

(C) hopes 

(D) responds 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 98 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Mathmetics 

(B) Mathamatics 

(C) Mathametics 

(D) Mathematics 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 99 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

Sometimes it is necessary for an author to know what is going on in the minds of his ……….. 

(A) listeners 

(B) viewers 

(C) audience 

(D) characters 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 100 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

To set aside 

(A) To move side ways 

(B) to reject an offer 

(C) To stop temporarily 

(D) To finish a work 

Answer: (C) 

SSC GD 18 Feb 2019 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC GD 18th Feb 2019 Shift-I 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Find out the two signs to be interchanged to make the following equation correct. 

10 + 10 × 10 − 10 ÷ 10 = −89 

(A) − and × 

(B) × and ÷ 

(C) + and × 

(D) − and ÷ 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 2 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1.) All owls are horses. 

2.) Some horses are hares. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some owls are hares. 

II. Some hares are horses. 

(A) Only conclusion II follows. 

(B) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. 

(C) Both conclusions follow. 

(D) Only conclusion I follows. 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

The venn diagram for above statements is : 

Conclusions: 

I. Some owls are hares = may or may not be true 

II. Some hares are horses = true 

Thus, only conclusion II follows. 

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 3 Select the option that will correctly replace the Q. mark (?) in the series. 

13, 25, 42, 69, ? 

(A) 111 

(B) 105 

(C) 95 

(D) 125 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

The pattern followed is : 

13 + 12 = 25 

25 + 17 = 42 

42 + 27 = 69 

69 + 42 = 111 

The difference between the numbers is 5,10,15 respectively. 

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 4 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1.) All pens are frogs. 

2.) Some crows are frogs. 

Conclusions: 

I. No pen is a crow. 

II. Some pens are crows. 

(A) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. 

(B) Only conclusion II follows. 

(C) Both conclusions follow. 

(D) Only conclusion I follows. 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

The venn diagram for above statements is : 

Conclusions: 

I. No pen is a crow = may or may not be true 

II. Some pens are crows = may or may not be true 

Thus, either conclusion I or II follows. 

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 5 Select the option that will correctly replace the Q. mark (?) in the series. 

112, 108, 92, 56, ? 

(A) -8 

(B) -7 

(C) -6 

(D)

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 6 Choose the option in which the figure marked ‘X’ is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed) 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

The Q. figure is embedded in following figure and is represented by red colour. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 7 Choose the odd one out of the given options. 

(A) CEM 

(B) BHI 

(C) DFH 

(D) CFI 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 8 Select the option that will correctly replace the Q. mark (?) in the series.

SHO, QJN, OLM, ? 

(A) LWV 

(B) LWL 

(C) MNL 

(D) MML 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Expression : SHO, QJN, OLM, ? 

The pattern followed in each letter of the terms is : 

1st letter : S (-2) = Q (-2) = O (-2) = M 

2nd letter : H (+2) = J (+2) = (+2) = N 

3rd letter : O (-1) = N (-1) = M (-1) = L 

Thus, missing term : MNL 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 9 Select a figure from amongst the four alternatives that when placed in the blank space (?) of figure X will complete the pattern. (Rotation is not allowed). 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

If we complete the above figure, then the missing pattern is represented by the red colour. 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 10 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 

22 : 88 :: 37 : ? 

(A) 221 

(B) 144 

(C) 169 

(D) 370 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

The number on the left is multiplied by the sum of its digits. 

Eg :- 

22 × (2 + 2) = 22 × 4 = 88 

Similarly, 

37 × (3 + 7) = 37 × 10 = 370 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 11 Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing each other for a lunch. A is opposite D and third to the right of B. G is between A and F.H is to the right of A. E is between C and D. Who is sitting between B and E? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) (C) 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 12 Seven friends O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are watching a movie sitting in a row.P is sitting at one extreme end.Q is sitting to the immediate left of S. P is sitting second to the right of T. U is not sitting at any extreme end and is sitting between R and T. Who is sitting between Q and R? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 13 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Ichthyology : Fishes :: Pedology : ? 

(A) Shells 

(B) Names 

(C) Soil 

(D) Moon 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Ichthyology is a branch of zoology that deals with fishes, similarly Pedology means the study of soils. => Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 14 Select the option that will correctly replace the Q. mark (?) in the given pattern. 

(A) 343 

(B)

(C) 37 

(D) 49 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 15 Choose the option that would follow next in the given figure series. 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

In the given figure, the little gap between the two triangles is first pointing at top left, and then is moving in clockwise direction. Thus in 

the next figure, it is facing top, then top right followed by right direction. 

Thus, in the next figure, it will point towards bottom right as shown in third figure. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 16 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. How will the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line? 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 17 J, K L, M, N and O are six teachers. Each one teaches a different subject out of Hindi, English, Math, Science, Social Science and Arts, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them teaches on only one day, from Monday to Saturday, not necessarily in the same order. 

J teaches Science on Wednesday. O teaches Math second after J. K teaches on the first day of the week, but teaches neither Hindi nor English. M teaches English before N and L teaches Arts before J. Who teaches on Tuesday? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 18 Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given figure when mirror is placed at the right side. 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

When a mirror is placed at the right side, the shape of the circle will not change, hence the last two options are eliminated. Also, the position of the stars will be shifted towards right side, hence first option is the correct image. => Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 19 In a certain code, POTATO is written as AOOPTT. How will BARBER be written in that code? 

(A) ABBERR 

(B) ABBRER 

(C) ARBERB 

(D) ABRBER 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

POTATO is written as AOOPTT. 

The pattern followed is that the letters are arranged in ascending order according to the English alphabetical order. Hence BARBER is written as ABBERR 

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 20 Choose the odd number out of the given options. 

(A) 97 

(B) 89 

(C) 83 

(D) 63 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Except for 63, all are prime numbers, hence 63 is the odd one. 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 21 Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes. 

Wheat, Crops, Farmers 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 22 Choose the odd one out of the given options. 

(A) Yellow 

(B) Pink 

(C) Violet 

(D) Orange 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

All except Pink are the colours seen in a rainbow, hence pink is the odd one. 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 23 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Achieve : Fail :: Gloomy : ? 

(A) Chalk 

(B) Chant 

(C) Chase 

(D) Cheerful 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

In the given pair, Fail is the opposite of Achieve, similarly antonym of gloomy is cheerful. 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 24 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same wayas the second term is related to the first term. 

BFH : DHJ :: GKM : ? 

(A) MKI 

(B) IMO 

(C) KMG 

(D) MKG 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 25 In a certain code, SAW is written as 38. How will FEED be written in that code? 

(A) 70 

(B) 45 

(C) 88 

(D) 30 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

If the alphabets are of the English alphabetical order are written in reverse order and numbered sequentially, i.e. Z=1, Y=2, X=3, W=4 and so on. 

Thus, SAW = 8+26+4 = 38 

21 + 22 + 22 + 23 = 88 

Similarly, FEED = 

=> Ans – (C) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 Which articles of the Indian Constitution cover the fundamental right against exploitation? 

(A) Articles 29-30 

(B) Articles 19-22 

(C) Articles 14-18 

(D) Articles 23-24 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 27 Where and against which country did Sachin Tendulkar score his 100th century? 

(A) Perth stadium, against West Indies 

(B) Shere Bangla stadium, against Bangladesh 

(C) Edenpark, against New Zealand 

(D) Sydney cricket ground, against Australia 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 28 In which state is Kaziranga National Park situated? 

(A) Assam 

(B) Madhya Pradesh 

(C) Rajasthan 

(D) Bihar 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 29 Which of these languages is declared ‘classical’ by the Government of India? 

(A) Marathi 

(B) Hindi 

(C) Odia 

(D) Pali 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 30 Arrange the following events in correct chronology: 

1) Champaran Satyagraha against indigo plantation 

2) Starting of non-cooperation Khilafat movement 

3) Rowlatt Satyagraha 

4) Arrival of Simon commission in India 

(A) 1-3-2-4 

(B) 3-4-2-1 

(C) 4-2-1-3 

(D) 1-2-3-4 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 31 What was the amendment done to the Indian Constitution by 52nd amendment done in 1985? 

(A) Anti-defection law was included 

(B) Amendment to the Union and State lists with respect to raising of taxes 

(C) The words ‘socialist secular’ added to the preamble 

(D) Formation of Sikkim as a state within the Indian Union 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 32 The Metturdam is built on which river and is in which state? 

(A) Tungabhadra river, Karnataka 

(B) Kali river, Karnataka 

(C) Kaveri river, Tamilnadu 

(D) Narmada river, Madhya Pradesh 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 33 Which of these personalities is popularly known as the ‘father of the Indian film industry’? 

(A) Amitabh Bachchan 

(B) Dadasaheb Phalke 

(C) Dev Anand 

(D) Rajesh Khanna 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 34 The silver coin introduced by Sher Shah Suri was called: 

(A) Tankah 

(B) Rupiya 

(C) Mohar 

(D) Dinar 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 35 The Kani Shaw! handicraft variety belongs to which of the following states of India? 

(A) Jammu & Kashmir 

(B) Arunachal Pradesh 

(C) Himachal Pradesh 

(D) Uttar Pradesh 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 36 Which of the following is not a term associated with credit? 

(A) Necessary documents 

(B) Collateral 

(C) Interest rate 

(D) Stamp by finance minister 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 37 Which of the following competitions is not associated with Indian football? 

(A) Ranji Trophy 

(B) Federation Cup 

(C) Santosh Trophy 

(D) Durand Cup 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 38 Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of which vitamin? 

(A) Vitamin C 

(B) Vitamin A 

(C) Vitamin D 

(D) Vitamin K 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 39 In which Indian state is bamboo drip irrigation system a very old practice? 

(A) Chattisgarh 

(B) Meghalaya 

(C) Telangana 

(D) Maharashtra 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 40 Which is the highest quality hard coal of the below? 

(A) Peat 

(B) Lignite 

(C) Bituminous 

(D) Anthracite 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 41 The Treaty of Purandar was signed between: 

(A) Afghans and Portuguese 

(B) Nawab of Bengal and Rajputs 

(C) Eastern Gangas and Cholas 

(D) Mughals and Marathas 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 42 Which of the motions is passed in the parliament to remove the President of India? 

(A) Impeachment Motion 

(B) Censure Motion 

(C) Cut Motion 

(D) No Confidence Motion 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 43 Which of these is an organisation that promotes sustainable management and conservation of tropical forests? 

(A) United Nations Forum on Forests 

(B) Greenpeace 

(C) World Wide Fund for Nature 

(D) International Tropical Timber Organization 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 44 Which of the following issues currency notes in India? 

(A) PNB 

(B) RBI 

(C) SBI 

(D) ICICI 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 45 What is the neutral value of the pH scale? 

(A) Equal to 14 

(B) Less than 7 

(C) Equal to 7 

(D) Above 7 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 46 Bananas turn brown in color because: 

(A) an enzyme converts starch into sugar 

(B) the air reacts with the enzymes in the banana 

(C) Bisphosphonates reacts with the enzymes in the banana 

(D) an enzyme converts sugarinto starch 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 47 On which of the below can an excise duty charged? 

(A) A company’s revenue 

(B) Export of goods and services 

(C) Import of goods and services 

(D) Goods manufactured 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 48 Who is the author of the book ‘India’s Export Trends and Prospects for Self-Sustained Growth’? 

(A) Shashi Tharoor 

(B) Manmohan Singh 

(C) Atal Bihari Vajpayee 

(D) Narendra Modi 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 49 In which Indian state is the Hornbill festival celebrated? 

(A) Nagaland 

(B) Manipur 

(C) Sikkim 

(D) Tripura 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 50 What is the name of Malala Yousafzai’s biopic? 

(A) The Aviator 

(B) Frida 

(C) The social network 

(D) Gul Makai 

Answer: (D) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 What is the median of the given data? 

2, 3, 2, 3, 6, 5, 4, 7 

(A)

(B) 4.5 

(C) 3.5 

(D)

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 52 A sum becomes five times of itself in 8 years at simple interest. What is the rate of interest per annum? 

(A) 37.5% 

(B) 25% 

(C) 62.5% 

(D) 50% 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 53 The table given below shows the marks obtained by 4 students in 5 subjects. The maximum marks of each subject is 100.

What is the difference in the average marks per student for subjects S5 and S2? 

(A) 12 

(B) 15 

(C) 17.5 

(D) 19.5 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 54 The length breadth and height of a cuboid are in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2. If the volume of cuboid is 1536 cm, then what will be the total surface area of the cuboid? 

(A) 868 cm2 

(B) 416 cm2 

(C) 624 cm2 

(D) 832 cm

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 55 The length, breadth and height of a solid cuboid is 20 cm, 16 cm and 12 cm respectively. If cuboid is melted to form identical cubes of side 4 cm, then what will be the number of identical cubes? 

(A) 56 

(B) 72 

(C) 90 

(D) 60 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 56 A bike covers a certain distance at a speed of 56 km/hr in 16 hours. How much time it will take to cover the same distance at the speed of 64 km/hr? 

(A) 14 hr 

(B) 18 hr 

(C) 16 hr 

(D) 12 hr 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 57 What is the value of (3 × 1500 ÷ 40 + 5 ÷ 2/7 of 70) ? 

(A) 433/4

(B) 435/4

(C) 451/4

(D) 473/4

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 58 Curved surface area of a cylinder is 110 cm2. If the height of cylinder is 5 cm, then what will be the diameter of its base? 

(A) 14 cm 

(B) 7 cm 

(C) 3.5 cm 

(D) 10.5 cm 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 59 Mohit and Sumit start a business with investment of ₹ 74000 and ₹ 96000 respectively. If at the end of the year they earn profit in the ratio of 5 : 8, then what will be ratio of the time period for which they invest their money? 

(A) 37 : 32 

(B) 13 : 18 

(C) 25 : 32 

(D) 30 : 37 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 60 The value of discount of 18% on first article is equal to the value of discount of 13% on second article. What is the ratio of the marked price of two articles? 

(A) 17:24 

(B) 39:50 

(C) 13:18 

(D) 13:19 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 61 What will be the Highest Common Factor of 5, 10 and 20? 

(A)

(B) 10 

(C)

(D) 15 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 62 The average weight of 12 boxes is 63 kg. If four boxes having an average weight of 70 kg are removed, then what will be new average weight of the remaining boxes? 

(A) 60 kg 

(B) 59 kg 

(C) 60.5 kg 

(D) 59.5 kg 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 63 F alone can complete a work in 24 days and G alone can complete the same work in 32 days. F and G start the work together but G leaves the work 8 days before the completion of work. In how many days the total work will be completed? 

(A) 130/5 days 

(B) 106/7 days 

(C) 114/7 days 

(D) 120/7 days 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 64 Working 2 hours in a day, P can complete a work in 10 days and working 5 hours in a day, Q can complete the same work in 6 days. Working 3 hours in a day, in how many days both P and Q together can complete the same work? 

(A) 3 days 

(B) 6 days 

(C) 4 days 

(D) 5 days 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 65 Mohit purchases eggs at the rate of ₹ 3 per egg and sells them at the rate of ₹ 5 per egg. On selling 35 eggs, what will be the profit percentage? 

(A) 33.33% 

(B) 40% 

(C) 60% 

(D) 66.67% 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 66 A bag has white and yellow balls in the ratio 7 : 11 respectively. If the total number of balls is 108, then how many balls are yellow? 

(A) 66 

(B) 44 

(C) 64 

(D) 77 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 67 Varun purchases 75 articles for ₹ 3150 and sells them at a profit equal to the cost price of 15 articles. What will be the selling price of one article? 

(A) 42 

(B) 51.5 

(C) 50.4 

(D) 46.5 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 68 The average age of students is A and the average age of teachers is B. The number of the students is 45 times of the number of teachers. What is average age of students and teachers together? 

(A) 45A+8B/7 

(B) 45A+B/46 

(C) 45A+B/8 

(D) 45A+4B/23 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 69 The table given below shows the number of students enrolled in different courses of different colleges. 

What is the difference in the total number of students enrolled in colleges C3 and C4? 

(A) 13 

(B) 11 

(C) 12 

(D) 16 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 70 Ram, Sita and Salma invest ₹ 16000, ₹ 22000 and ₹ 18000 respectively to start a business. If the profit at the end of the year is ₹ 26600, then what is share of Ram? 

(A) ₹ 10450 

(B) ₹ 8550 

(C) ₹ 9650 

(D) ₹ 7600 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 71 A student got 24% marks in an exam and he failed by 56 marks. If he got 60% marks, then his marks are 70 more than the minimum passing marks. What is the maximum marks for the exam? 

(A) 350 

(B) 260 

(C) 380 

(D) 280 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 72 What is the value of [75 ÷ 25 of (4/3 − ½ + ⅙)]?

(A) ⅚ 

(B)

(C) 7/6 

(D)

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 73 Raju travels at ¾ of his usual speed and reaches his office 24 minutes late than his usual time. If Raju travels at his usual speed, then what will be the time taken by him to reach his office? 

(A) 64 minutes 

(B) 72 minutes 

(C) 48 minutes 

(D) 56 minutes 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 74 Compound interest received on a sum in 5th year is ₹ 1200 (interest is compounded annually).If the rate of interest is 22.5% per annum, then what will be the interest in 6th year? 

(A) ₹ 1470 

(B) ₹ 1270 

(C) ₹ 1200 

(D) ₹ 270 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 75 The table given below shows the production of rice and the area under rice cultivation of a country for 5 consecutive years Y1, Y2, Y3, Y4 and Y5. 

What is the yield per square meter for the year Y3? 

(A) 37.66 kg 

(B) 63.33 kg 

(C) 45.33 kg 

(D) 52.50 kg 

Answer: (C) 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

We should always remember not to ………. any problems and issues that may affect our career in any organisation. 

(A) affect 

(B) undertake 

(C) inflict 

(D) create 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 77 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

After you will return from Bangalore, I will come and meet you. 

(A) After you will be returning from 

(B) No improvement 

(C) After you returned from 

(D) After you return from 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 78 Select the antonym of the given word 

AWKWARD

(A) Problematic 

(B) Convenient 

(C) Difficult 

(D) Matchless 

Answer: (B) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. 

Passage: 

Seafood exports from India …………(1) yet to gather momentum as ……………(2) prices, adverse weather conditions and …………..(3) continue to affect stocking of shrimps, which account for about threefourths of the ………….(4) from export of marine products. This apart, seafood exporters are facing …………….(5) from the Seafood Import Monitoring Programme (SIMP) being implemented by the USandit is one of the largest buyers of Indian shrimps. 

 

Q. 79 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) be 

(B) has 

(C) are 

(D) was 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 80 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) low 

(B) little 

(C) small 

(D) high 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) diseases 

(B) viruses 

(C) bugs 

(D) maladies 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) takings 

(B) income 

(C) cash 

(D) revenue 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) rapture 

(B) pleasure 

(C) capture 

(D) pressure 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 84 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. 

The government’s interim budget from this financial year contained several measures which have the forthcoming elections in mind. 

(A) from this financial year 

(B) Government’s interim budget 

(C) which have the 

(D) contained several measures 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

While learning to drive , one of the most of important things is to know the traffic rules first. 

(A) No improvement 

(B) When learned to drive 

(C) When learn driving 

(D) When learn to drive 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 86 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. 

Soon after returning to office, the CBI chief transfer five officers. 

(A) returning to office, 

(B) the CBI chief 

(C) transfer five officers 

(D) Soon after 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 87 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Substitushion 

(B) Substitution 

(C) Substituition 

(D) Sabstitution 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 88 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

To cut both ends 

(A) To reject all arguments 

(B) To argue in support of both sides 

(C) To consider the truth and untruth 

(D) To argue against both sides of an issue 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 89 Select the antonym of the given word. 

EUPHORIA 

(A) Folklore 

(B) Lethargy 

(C) Song 

(D) Music 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 90 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Magnanemous 

(B) Magnanomous 

(C) Magnanimous 

(D) Magnonimus 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 91 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. The Builders’ Associations want GST exemption for government projects which have already proposed. 

(A) which have already proposed. 

(B) want GST exemption 

(C) for government projects 

(D) The Builders’ Associations 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 92 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

Is it true that the students from the Space Research Centre ………. this evening? 

(A) are arriving 

(B) is arriving 

(C) has arriving 

(D) have arriving 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 93 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. 

These flowers smell sweetly and are sold at high prices in the market. 

(A) These flowers will smell sweetly 

(B) These flowers smelt sweetly 

(C) No improvement 

(D) These flowers smell sweet 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 94 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

One who studies antique things 

(A) Historian 

(B) Sociologist 

(C) Archaeologist 

(D) Antiquarian 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 95 Select the synonym of the given word. 

INCORRIGIBLE 

(A) Reliable 

(B) Unwise 

(C) Intelligible 

(D) Unalterable 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 96 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Although I was ………….. of his new plans for growth of the company, I relied on him as he was very honest. 

(A) persuaded 

(B) committed 

(C) convinced 

(D) sceptical 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 97 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

One who offers one’s services without anything in return 

(A) Volunteer 

(B) Entrepreneur 

(C) Businessman 

(D) Investor 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 98 Select the synonym of the given word. 

DISHEVELLED 

(A) Unsafe 

(B) Unclean 

(C) Uncertain 

(D) Untidy 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 99 Choose the correct meaning of the following idiom. 

To get away with 

(A) To escape from something 

(B) To go away from home 

(C) To finish an assignment 

(D) To go to an unknown place 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 100 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

……………… example helps understand a concept better. 

(A) Few 

(B) (A) 

(C) An 

(D) One 

Answer: (C) 

SSC GD 15 Feb 2019 Shift-III Previous Year Paper

SSC GD 15th Feb 2019 Shift-III 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes. 

Stationery, Pen, Eraser 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Pen and Eraser are both parts of stationary but are completely different from each other, hence the venn diagram that best describes above relationship is : 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 2 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the given pattern. 

(A)

(B) 216 

(C) 217 

(D) 36 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

(n3 + 1) n 

Starting from 2 and going in anti clockwise direction, the pattern followed is , where is a natural number. (1)3 + 1 = 2 

(2)3 + 1 = 9 

(3)3 + 1 = 28 

(4)3 + 1 = 65 

(5)3 + 1 = 126 

(6)3 + 1 = 217 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 3 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series. 

7, 19, 36, 63, ? 

(A) 125 

(B) 105 

(C) 115 

(D) 95 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

The pattern followed is that numbers with successive multiples of 5 between them are added. 7 + 12 = 19 

19 + 17 = 36 

36 + 27 = 63 

63 + 42 = 105 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 4 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series. 

107, 103, 87, 51, ? 

(A) -13 

(B) 15 

(C) 13 

(D) -15 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 5 In a certain code, COMPUTER is written as CEMOPRTU. How will CUPBOARD be written in that code? 

(A) ABCDOPRU 

(B) ABCDORPU 

(C) ABCDOQRU 

(D) ABDCOPRU 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

COMPUTER is written as CEMOPRTU 

The pattern followed is that the letters are arranged in ascending order as they appear in the English alphabetical order. Similarly, CUPBOARD : ABCDOPRU 

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 6 Choose the option that would follow next in the given figure series. 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

The pattern followed is that the little gap between the two triangles in the first figure is pointing at top left and is moving in anti clockwise direction, i.e. in the second figure is pointing at left side, then bottom left and then at bottom, thus in the missing figure, it will face bottom right as shown in third figure. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 7 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1) Some tables are sofas. 

2) Some sofas are papers. 

Conclusion 

I. Some sofas are tables. 

II. Some papers are sofas. 

(A) Only conclusion I follows. 

(B) Only conclusion II follows. 

(C) Both conclusions follow. 

(D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

The venn diagram for above statements is : 

Conclusion 

I. Some sofas are tables = true 

II. Some papers are sofas = true 

Thus, both conclusions follow. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 8 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series. 

RGN, PIM, NKL, ? 

(A) LMK 

(B) LMJ 

(C) LVW 

(D) LWU 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Expression : RGN, PIM, NKL, ? 

The pattern followed in each term of the series is : 

1st term : R (-2) = P (-2) = N (-2) = L 

2nd term : G (+2) = I (+2) = K (+2) = M 

3rd term : N (-1) = M (-1) = L (-1) = K 

Thus, missing term is : LMK 

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 9 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 

54 : 6 :: 42 : ? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 10 In a certain code, JOY is written as 150. How will FEED be written in that code? 

(A) 80 

(B) 90 

(C) 50 

(D) 20 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 11 Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing each other for a lunch. A is opposite D and third to the right of B. G is between A and F.H is to the right of A. E is between C and D. Who is sitting opposite G? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

A is opposite D and third to the right of B. Also, E is between C and D. 

=> B is to the immediate right of D. 

G is between A and F, => G is to the immediate left of A. 

H is to the immediate right of A. 

Thus, E is sitting opposite G. 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 12 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1) All spiders are snails. 

2) All molars are snails. 

Conclusion 

I. No spider is a molar. 

II. Some spiders are molars. 

(A) Only conclusion II follows. 

(B) Only conclusion I follows. 

(C) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. 

(D) Both conclusions follow. 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

The venn diagram for above statements is : 

Conclusion 

I. No spider is a molar = may or may not be true 

II. Some spiders are molars = may or may not be true 

Thus, either conclusion I or II follows. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 13 Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed at the right side.

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Image in third option is the exact replica of question figure, hence it is eliminated. Now, the vertical shape of circular will remain intact, hence second and fourth options are also not possible. Thus, first option is the correct mirror image. 

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 14 Choose the odd number out of the given options. 

(A) 17 

(B) 89 

(C) 63 

(D) 37 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

17, 89 and 37 are prime numbers, hence 63 is the odd one. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 15 Choose the odd one out of the given options. 

(A) Legs 

(B) Stomach 

(C) Heart 

(D) Kidneys 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Apart from legs, all other body parts are internal organs (which cannot be seen), hence legs are the odd one. => Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 16 Seven friends O, P, Q. R, S, T and U are watching a movie sitting in a row. P is sitting at one extreme end. Q is sitting to the immediate left of S. P is sitting second to the right of T. U is not sitting at any extreme end. O is sitting between R and T. Who is sitting in the middle? 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 17 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. How will the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line? 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 18 Choose the odd one out of the given options. 

(A) CJK 

(B) EHK 

(C) FHJ 

(D) KOJ 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

In the first three options, the letters are in increasing order, i.e. as they appear in the English alphabetical order, but in last option, O appears after both J and K, hence it is the odd one. 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 19 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same wayas the second term is related to the first term. 

Ichthyology : Fishes :: Palaeography : ? 

(A) Writings 

(B) Soil 

(C) Shells 

(D) Moon 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Ichthyology is the branch of zoology that deals with fishes. Similarly, Palaeography is the study of ancient writing systems. => Ans – A 

 

Q. 20 Find out the two signs to be interchanged to make the following equation correct. 

27 + 27 × 27 − 27 ÷ 27 = −701 

(A) ÷ and × 

(B) + and ÷ 

(C) − and ÷ 

(D) × and − 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 21 Choose the option in which the figure marked ‘x’ is embedded. (Rotation is not allowed) 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 22 Select a figure from amongst the four alternatives that when placed in the blank space (?) of figure X will complete the pattern. (Rotation is not allowed). 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 23 J, K L, M, N and O are six teachers. Each one teachesa different subject out of Hindi, English, Math, Science, Social Science and Arts, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them teaches on only one day, from Mondayto Saturday, not necessarily in the same order. J teaches Science on Wednesday. O teaches Math second after J. K teaches on the first day of the week, but teaches neither Hindi nor English. M teaches English before N and L teaches Arts before J. Which subject is taught on Thursday? 

(A) Science 

(B) Arts 

(C) English 

(D) Social Science 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 24 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

BFH : EIK :: GKM : ? 

(A) JNP 

(B) KMG 

(C) MKG 

(D) IKM 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 25 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Innocent : Guilty :: Moisten : ? 

(A) Drench 

(B) Dried 

(C) Desire 

(D) Wet 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Expression = Innocent : Guilty :: Moisten : ? 

The first two words are opposite to each other, similarly antonym of moisten is dried. => Ans – (B) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 Who started the newspaper Mook Nayak in the year 1920? 

(A) Dadabhai Naoroji 

(B) Jyotiba Phule 

(C) B. R Ambedkar 

(D) Mahadeo Govind Ranade 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 27 What was the official mascot of the third Asian Para Games 2018? 

(A) Momo 

(B) Appu 

(C) Ezomon 

(D) Chim Yen 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 28 Which part protects an unopened flower? 

(A) Sepal 

(B) Stamen 

(C) Petal 

(D) Anther 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 29 Which schedule was added to the Indian Constitution in 1992 as a result of 73rd amendment? 

(A) 12th 

(B) 9th 

(C) 8th 

(D) 11th 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 30 Which of the following is a Maharatna that is a central public sector enterprise? 

(A) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited 

(B) ONGC Videsh Limited 

(C) NTPC Limited 

(D) PEC Limited 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 31 The 2009 Nobel Peace prize was awarded to ………… for his extraordinary efforts to strengthen International Diplomacy. 

(A) Justin Trudeau 

(B) Kofi Annan 

(C) Barack Obama 

(D) Dalai Lama 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 32 What is the party symbol of Communist Party of India (M)? 

(A) Elephant 

(B) Lotus flower 

(C) Broom 

(D) Hammer and Sickle 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 33 Name the bacteria that causes dysentery. 

(A) Shigella 

(B) Vibrio Cholerae 

(C) Streptococcus pyogenes bacteria 

(D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 34 Which of the below is an alloy of mercury? 

(A) Brass 

(B) Nichrome 

(C) Stellite 

(D) Amalgam 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 35 Who founded the Swaraj Party? 

(A) C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru 

(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Lala Lajpat Rai 

(C) Mahatma Gandhi and B.R. Ambedkar 

(D) Jawaharlal Nehru and Motilal Nehru 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 36 When did the Indian Constituent assembly adopt the constitution? 

(A) 26 November 1949 

(B) 26 January 1950 

(C) 26 November 1950 

(D) 26 January 1949 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 37 Liquefied petroleum gas consists of: 

(A) Hexane and benzene 

(B) Nitrogen and ethane 

(C) Propane and butane 

(D) Nonane and octane 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 38 Who led the revolt of 1857 in the city of Kanpur? 

(A) Rani Lakshmi Bai 

(B) Nana Sahib 

(C) Begum Hazrat Mahal 

(D) Kunwar Singh 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 39 Which of the following is NOT the role of Food Corporation of India? 

(A) Ensuring that farmers are not forced to sell their produce below MSP 

(B) Making laws related to agricultural credit and indebtedness 

(C) Procurement of buffer stock 

(D) Setting up purchase centres to buy produce from the farmers 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 40 Who is the winner of Man Booker Award 2018 for the book Milkman? 

(A) Anna Burns 

(B) Daisy Johnson 

(C) Richard Powers 

(D) Robin Robertson 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 41 Which Chinese business tycoon(also the richest man of China) recently stepped down from Alibaba, the company he co-founded? 

(A) Jack Ma 

(B) Lei Jun 

(C) Daniel Zhang 

(D) Guo Guangchang 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 42 Which major cities of the country are connected by the Golden quadrilateral super highways? 

(A) Delhi-Varanasi-Chennai-Pune-Delhi 

(B) Delhi-Dhanbad-Vishakapatnam-Surat-Delhi 

(C) Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai-Mumbai-Delhi 

(D) Delhi-Kolkata-Angola-Mumbai-Delhi 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 43 The new year celebrated by Maharashtra Hindus is referred to by which name? 

(A) Ugadi 

(B) Puthando 

(C) Vishu 

(D) Gudi Padwa 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 44 What does road density indicate? 

(A) The length of road per 100 sq. km of land area 

(B) The length of road per 1000 km of land area 

(C) The length of road per 1000 sq. km of land area 

(D) The length of road per 100 km of land area 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 45 Out of the given options, which crop grows in black soil? 

(A) Cashewnut 

(B) Sugarcane 

(C) Tea 

(D) Cotton 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 46 Pandavani is a folk singing style popular in the state of: 

(A) Bihar 

(B) Jharkhand 

(C) Chhattisgarh 

(D) Uttar Pradesh 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 47 The southern most Jyotirlinga temple is located in which Indian state? 

(A) Andhra Pradesh 

(B) Karnataka 

(C) Tamil Nadu 

(D) Kerala 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 48 Setting up of which of these is associated with White Revolution in India? 

(A) Mother Dairy 

(B) Paras 

(C) Saras 

(D) Amul 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 49 ………. is a chemical process or a reaction between fuel (hydrocarbon) and oxygen. producing heat and light energy resulting in a flame. 

(A) Convection 

(B) Carbonisation 

(C) Combustion 

(D) Conduction 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 50 Who was awarded the ‘FIFA Player of the Year 2018’? 

(A) Mohammed Salah 

(B) Christiano Ronaldo 

(C) Luka Modric 

(D) Lionel Messi 

Answer: (C) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 The value of 

is equal to 7 + k, where k = 

(A) ⅗ 

(B) ⅕ 

(C) 1/20 

(D) 19/20 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 52 A can complete 33⅓% of a work in 5 days and B can complete 40% of the same work in 10 days. They work together for 5 days and then B left the work. A alone will complete the remaining work in: 

(A) 7½ days 

(B) 5 days 

(C) 7 days 

(D) 5½ days 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 53 The value of [5.7÷1.9of0.4]÷1.5 / 1.5÷[12.5−(7.5−2.5)] is: 

(A) 0.25 

(B) 0.5 

(C) 25 

(D)

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 54 If A is 75% more than B, C is 40% less than D and D is 20% more than A, then which one of the following is true? 

(A) 63C = 50B 

(B) 25B = 21C 

(C) 21B = 25C 

(D) 50C = 63B 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 55 The average weight of all the students in a class was 45.5 kg. Later on 5 students weighing 44.6 kg 43.4 kg, 44 kg, 45.5 kg and 43.5 kg leave the class. As a result, the average weight of the remaining students increases by 500g. What was the number of students in the class, initially? 

(A) 18 

(B) 20 

(C) 16 

(D) 21 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 56 In finding the HCF of two numbers by division method,the last divisor is 174 and the quotient are 1, 7 and 2, respectively. If the sum of the two numbersis divided by. the remainder is: 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 57 A person sells an article at a certain price. What is his gain percent, if by selling it at 80% of that price, he loses 16%? 

(A)

(B) 4.5 

(C)

(D)

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 58 Study the following table and answer questions: 

Number of candidates appeared in an examination from five cities: 

The number of candidates appearing for the examination from city D is what percent of the total number of candidates failed in cities A and B? 

(A) 72 

(B) 87 

(C) 80 

(D) 90 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 59 A shopkeeper allows 20% discount on the marked price of an article and still makes a profit of 28%. If he sells it at 12.5% discount on the marked price, then his gain percent is: 

(A) 20.5 

(B) 24.6 

(C) 36 

(D) 40 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 60 A boat goes 2 km upstream and 3 km downstream in 45 minutes while it goes 3 km upstream and 9 km downstream in 90 minutes. What is the speed (in km/hr) of boat when going down stream? 

(A)

(B) 10.5 

(C) 12 

(D) 9.5 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 61 What is the compound interest on a sum of ₹7500 for 2¾ years at 8% p.a., the interest being compounded yearly? (nearest to an integer) 

(A) ₹1248 

(B) ₹1773 

(C) ₹1348 

(D) ₹1783 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 62 If x is the fourth proportional to 36, 48 and 15, and 4.2, y, 9 and 13.5 are in proportion, then the difference between y and x is: 

(A) 13.7 

(B) 16.4 

(C) 15.6 

(D) 14.8 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 63 The driver of a mini bus driving at 82 km/hr locates a motor bike 150 m ahead of him. After 20 seconds, the motor bike was 100 m behind the bus. The speed (in km/hr) of the motor bike is: 

(A) 39 

(B) 37 

(C) 35 

(D) 40 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 64 9 men and 12 women can complete a work in 4 days, whereas 3 men and 6 women can complete it in 10 days. The number of days in which 15 women will complete the work is: 

(A)

(B) 10 

(C) 12 

(D)

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 65 The average of 13 numbers is 65. The average of first three numbers is 63 and that of next numbers is 64.5. The 11th number is 2 more than the 12th number but less than the 13th by 2.5. What is the average of 11th and 12th number? 

(A) 67.5 

(B) 67 

(C) 65.5 

(D) 65 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 66 An alloy X contains by weight copper and tin in the ration 7 : 3 and alloy Y contain copper and tin in the ratio 3 : 2. X and Y are taken in the ratio 4 : 1 and melted to form alloy Z. The percentage of copper in alloy Z is: 

(A) 70 

(B) 56 

(C) 65 

(D) 68 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

 

Q. 67 The radius of the base of a conical tent is 5 m and its height is 12 m. how many metres of canvas of width 5 metres will be required to  make it?(use π = 22/7) 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 68 The area of a circular park is 37 times the area of a triangular field with sides 20 m, 20 m and 24 m. What is the perimeter (nearest to an integer) of the circular park? 

(A) 300 

(B) 150 

(C) 290 

(D) 350 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 69 Study the following table and answer questions: 

Number of candidates appeared in an examination from five cities:

The number of cities, in which pass percentage of candidates is more than 55%,is: 

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 70 The median of the observations 10, 11, 13, 17, x + 2, x + 4, 31, 33, 36, 42, arranged in ascending order 24. What is the mean of the data? 

(A) 25.2 

(B) 24.1 

(C) 25.4 

(D) 23.9 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 71 A certain sum amounts to ₹11760 in 2½ years at 9% p.a. simple interest. What will be the simple interest on the same sum for 4⅖ years at 15% p.a? 

(A) ₹6336 

(B) ₹6363 

(C) ₹6436 

(D) ₹6433 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 72 Water in a canal 3 m wide and 1.2 m deep,is flowing with the velocity of 10 km/h. how much area (in hectares) will it irrigate in half an hour, if 9 cm of standing water is needed? 

(A) 20 

(B) 18.8 

(C) 21 

(D) 20.4 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 73 Study the following table and answer questions: 

Number of candidates appeared in an examination from five cities: 

The ratio of the total number of candidates who passed from cities A and C to that who failed in cities B and E is: 

(A) 7 : 9 

(B) 53 : 66 

(C) 27 : 35 

(D) 4 : 7 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 74 Ritu sold an article at a loss of 12%. Had she sold it for ₹55.80 more, she would have gained 13%. To gain 10%, she must sell it for ₹: 

(A) 274.80 

(B) 280.46 

(C) 245.52 

(D) 271.60 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 75 A sum of 3392 is divided among A, B, C and D such that the ratio for shares of A and B is 2: 5, that of B and C is 3 : 7 and that of C and D is 5 : 8. What is the share of C? 

(A) ₹1060 

(B) ₹1696 

(C) ₹848 

(D) ₹840 

Answer: (A) 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Fortunately, only a few ………… were hurt in the train accident. 

(A) customers 

(B) passengers 

(C) clients 

(D) vendors 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 77 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

State-of-the-art 

(A) Very large 

(B) Scientific 

(C) Creatively made 

(D) Most advanced 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 78 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

One who does not drink alcohol. 

(A) vegetarian 

(B) faithful 

(C) religious 

(D) teetotaler 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 79 Select the antonym of the given word. 

MAJOR 

(A) Significant 

(B) Leading 

(C) Powerless 

(D) Minor 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 80 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

I wish to travel the whole world, but I ………… afford it. 

(A) shouldn’t 

(B) wouldn’t 

(C) can’t 

(D) won’t 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 81 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. I know the most easiest way to solve this problem. 

(A) I know 

(B) most easiest 

(C) to solve 

(D) this problem 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 82 Select the synonym of the given word. 

RARELY 

(A) Usually 

(B) Often 

(C) Seldom 

(D) Frequently 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 83 Select the synonym of the given word. 

ANNUAL 

(A) Timely 

(B) Routine 

(C) Yearly 

(D) Basic 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 84 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Eveluasion 

(B) Evaluation 

(C) Evaluasion 

(D) Evaluetion 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

The Constitution of India was prepared after a thorough study of constitutions of various countries. 

(A) with a thorough 

(B) before a thorough 

(C) in a thorough 

(D) No improvement 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

………….. you hurry up, you will be late. 

(A) Unless 

(B) Although 

(C) If 

(D) Since 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 87 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Much of the people in the train were asleep at the time of the accident. 

(A) Little of the people 

(B) No improvement 

(C) Most of the people 

(D) More of the people 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 88 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

He is six feet ……… 

(A) long 

(B) high 

(C) tall 

(D) short 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 89 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

The terrain of India is make of mountains, plateaus and plains. 

(A) No improvement 

(B) is made of 

(C) is making of 

(D) is makes of 

Answer: (B) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. 

Passage: 

The sky was always a deep sapphire blue. The snow washard and only by cutting steps in ………..(1) we were able towalk. (A) false move would have been …………..(2) . Stopping at every step, ………….(3) on our axes, wetried to …………..(4) down our hearts, which were ……….. (5) as though they would burst. 

 

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) this 

(B) that 

(C) them 

(D) it 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 91 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) danger 

(B) fatal 

(C) disaster 

(D) final 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 92 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) leans 

(B) leaned 

(C) leaning 

(D) lean 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 93 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) compose 

(B) calm 

(C) pacify 

(D) soothe 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 94 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) thumping 

(B) crushing 

(C) thrashing 

(D) moving 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 95 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

One who cannot read or write. 

(A) ignoble 

(B) illegible 

(C) illiterate 

(D) ignorant 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 96 Select the antonym of the given word. 

URBAN 

(A) Developed 

(B) Rural 

(C) Modern 

(D) Backward 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 97 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. He is a young man about twenty-five years but very learned. 

(A) He is 

(B) a young man 

(C) but very learned. 

(D) about twenty-five years 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 98 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

To keep one’s fingers crossed 

(A) To wish for the best 

(B) To be very happy 

(C) To try very hard 

(D) To be frightened 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 99 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Clarence 

(B) Clearance 

(C) Clearence 

(D) Cleerance 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 100 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. My sister tried to tempt me with sweets so that I ought not tell our parents about the vase she broke. 

(A) with sweets 

(B) ought not tell 

(C) tried to tempt me 

(D) about the vase 

Answer: (B) 

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