Category: Coachings

SSC GD 21st Feb 2019 Shift-III 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 If A = 2 and D = 5, and SEA = 28, then COUNTRY = ……….. 

(A) 123 

(B) 132 

(C) 112 

(D) 121 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

If A = 2 and D = 5, and SEA = 20+6+2=28 

4 + 16 + 22 + 15 + 21 + 19 + 26 = 123 

Then, COUNTRY = 

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 2 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully and decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: 

1) All students in my class are active. 

2) Rohini is not active. 

Conclusions: 

I. Rohini is not a student of my class. 

II. Rohini must be active. 

(A) Both conclusions I and II follow. 

(B) Only conclusion I follows. 

(C) Only conclusion II follows. 

(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows. 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

The venn diagram for above statements is : 

Conclusions: 

I. Rohini is not a student of my class = true 

II. Rohini must be active. = false 

Thus, only conclusion I follows. 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 3 Choose the word from the given options that is similar to the given words and hence belongs to the same group. 

Lira, Dinar, Rupee 

(A) Lisbon 

(B) Cairo 

(C) Rial 

(D) Oslo 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Lira, Dinar and Rupee are all currencies of different countries, while in the options, only Rial is a currency of Saudi Arabia, rest are cities. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 4 Select the correct option to complete the following pattern. 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

If we complete the above figure, then the missing pattern is represented by the red colour. 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 5 In the following number series, two numbers have been put within brackets. Study the series carefully and select the correct alternative with respect to the series. 

0, 7, 26, 63, (124), 215, 342, (512) 

(A) The first bracketed number(from the left) is correct and the second is incorrect. 

(B) The first bracketed number (from the left) is incorrect and the second is correct. 

(C) Both the bracketed numbers are incorrect. 

(D) Both the bracketed numbers are correct. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 6 Select the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word when the mirror is placed vertically. 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

When the mirror is placed vertically, the object at right will appear at left position and vice-versa. Thus, the letter ‘U’ at left will appear at right and since it’s symmetrical, its shape will not be changed also, thus third is the correct option. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 7 Select the figure that will come next in the following series. 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

In the three figures given, the arrow has pointed to the right, top and left respectively, hence going by the symmetry, the only position left to face is the bottom one as shown in image in the second option. 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 8 Select the number that DOES NOT belong to the following group. 

0, 5, 12, 20, 32, 45 

(A) 45 

(B) 32 

(C) 20 

(D) 12 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 9 In a private school, there were five teachers. Abi and Geetha were teaching French and English. Harini and Geetha were teaching English and Science. Diva and Abi were teaching Maths and French. Hema and Geetha were teaching Social Science and French. Which subject is taught by maximum number of teachers? 

(A) Science 

(B) Maths 

(C) French 

(D) English 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Teachers who are teaching each subject are : 

Science : Geetha, Harini 

Maths : Divya, Abi 

French : Abi, Geetha, Divya, Hema [max] 

English : Abi, Geetha, Harini 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 10 L, M, N and O are to be seated in a row. However, N and O cannot be together. Moreover, M cannot be in the third place from the left. L and M are sitting beside each other. Considering the seating from left to right which of the following must be true? 

(A) N is at the third place. 

(B) L is at the third place. 

(C) N is at the first place. 

(D) O is at the third place. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 11 Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes. 

Animals, Reptiles, Snakes 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 12 Four numbers have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) 250 

(B) 95 

(C) 159 

(D) 150 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Apart from 159, all numbers are divisible by 5, hence it is the odd one. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 13 Given is a statement, followed by four conclusions. Read the statement carefully and decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statement. 

Statement: 

This book can help because all good books help. 

Conclusions: 

I. This is not a good book. 

II. This is a good book. 

III. No good book helps. 

IV. Some good books help. 

(A) Only conclusion I follows. 

(B) All the conclusions follow. 

(C) Only conclusion II follows. 

(D) Both conclusions III and IV follow. 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

The given statement indicates that the given book can help as all good books help, which can definitely conclude that this is a good book. 

The last two conclusions are not true as they are contradictory to the given statement. 

Thus, only conclusion II follows. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 14 Five friends are sitting in a circle, all facing the centre. Mohan is to the left of Raju. Vinith is to the right of Arjun and between Arjun and Naveen. Who is between Raju and Naveen? 

(A) Arjun and Vinith 

(B) Vinith 

(C) Arjun 

(D) Mohan 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 15 Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) Necklace 

(B) Bracelet 

(C) Jewellery 

(D) Anklet 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Necklace, Bracelet and Anklet are all types of jewellery, hence jewellery is the odd one. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 16 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. How will the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line? 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 17 Which two signs need to be interchanged to make the given equation correct? 

3 ÷ 2 − 4 × 5 + 5 = 1 

(A) + and ÷ 

(B) × and − 

(C) ÷ and × 

(D) + and − 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 18 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 19 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Angle : Radian :: Mass : ………. 

(A) Kilogram 

(B) Litre 

(C) Degree 

(D) Height 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Second is the unit of first, angle is measured in radian, similarly unit of mass is kilogram.

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 20 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

5, 22, 39, 56, ……? 

(A) 89 

(B) 76 

(C) 73 

(D) 87 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

17 is added in all the terms 

5 + 17 = 22 

22 + 17 = 39 

39 + 17 = 56 

56 + 17 = 73 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 21 Identify the odd one from the following. 

(A) dFh 

(B) gHj 

(C) uWy 

(D) rTv 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

(A) : d (+2 letters) = F (+2 letters) = h 

(B) : g (+1 letter) = H (+2 letters) = j 

(C) : u (+2 letters) = W (+2 letters) = y 

(D) : r (+2 letters) = T (+2 letters) = v 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 22 If CENTRAL is coded as BFMUQBK, then FRIENDS will be coded as ………… 

(A) ESHEMER 

(B) ESHFMER 

(C) ESHENER 

(D) ESHFNER 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 23 Four pairs of words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose out the odd one. 

(A) Chef : Knife 

(B) Saw : Carpenter 

(C) Sculptor : Chisel 

(D) Doctor : Stethoscope 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

In all the given pairs, except second, second item is used by the first person, while in second reverse is true, hence it is the odd one.

 => Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 24 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 

7 : 50 :: 13 : ? 

(A) 160 

(B) 144 

(C) 170 

(D) 169 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Expression = 7 : 50 :: 13 : ? 

x : x² + 1 

The pattern followed is = 

Eg :- 7² + 1 = 50 

Similarly, 

(13)² + 1 = 169 + 1 = 170 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 25 Select the term that will come next in the following series. 

YCL, MQZ, ZDM, NRA, ……, OSB

(A) AEN 

(B) BFQ 

(C) ADM 

(D) BEM 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Expression : YCL, MQZ, ZDM, NRA, ……, OSB 

The pattern followed in alternate terms is that each letter of the terms is replaced by next succeeding alphabet. 

Odd terms : YCL (+1) = ZDM (+1) = AEN 

Even terms : MQZ (+1) = NR(A) (+1) = OSB

Thus, missing term : AEN 

=> Ans – (A) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 Which of the following statements about ‘Biological Magnification’ is FALSE? 

(A) Its maximum concentration is at the top level of the food chain. 

(B) Its maximum concentration is at the bottom level of the food chain. 

(C) It differs depending on the level of ecosystem. 

(D) The chemicals enter the food chain through absorption from water or soil. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 27 The first Mughal emperor, Babur came to India from: 

(A) Syria 

(B) Greece 

(C)Ferghana 

(D) Persia 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 28 Banks were nationalised in India through an ordinance passed in the year: 

(A) 1976 

(B) 1963 

(C) 1969 

(D) 1954 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 29 Who presented the first Union Budget of Independent India? 

(A) NV Gadgil 

(B) Maulana Azad 

(C) CD Deshmukh 

(D) RK Shanmukham Chetty 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 30 ……… is the oldest mountain range in the Indian subcontinent. 

(A) Himalaya 

(B) Vindhya 

(C) Aravali 

(D) Satpura 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 31 ‘Sevasadan’, ‘Karmabhoomi’ and ‘Gaban’ are some of the masterpieces of which Hindi writer? 

(A) Bhisham Sahni 

(B) Premchand 

(C) Harishchandra 

(D) Ramdhari Singh ‘Dinkar’ 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 32 As of January 2019, the Chief Minister of Chhattisgarh is: 

(A) Shiv Dahariya 

(B) Bhupesh Baghel 

(C) Kamal Nath 

(D) Kawasi Lakhma 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 33 Which of the following diseases is caused by bacteria? 

(A) Rabies 

(B) Chicken Pox 

(C) Small Pox 

(D) Tuberculosis 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 34 Which of the following is NOT an amphibian? 

(A) Frog 

(B) Tortoise 

(C) Salamander 

(D) Toad 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 35 Life on earth began in the oceans almost ………. years ago. 

(A) 1 billion 

(B) 100 million 

(C) 500 million 

(D) 3.5 billion 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 36 Which chemical is widely used to unclog drains and sinks? 

(A) Sodium Chloride 

(B) Nitrogen Hydroxide 

(C) Hydrogen Peroxide 

(D) Sodium Hydroxide 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 37 The concept of five – year plans in the Constitution of India is borrowed from ……….. 

(A) Russia 

(B) England 

(C) The United States 

(D) Germany 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 38 The Fiscal Year in India is considered between: 

(A) 1 April – 31 March 

(B) 1 January – 31 December 

(C) 1 July – 30 June 

(D) 31 March – April 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 39 Which state hosts the annual Surajkund Crafts fair? 

(A) Rajasthan 

(B) Uttar Pradesh 

(C) Punjab 

(D) Haryana 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 40 Which of the following statements with respect to Article 22 of the Constitution and Criminal Law on fundamental rights of an arrested person is NOT correct? 

(A) The Right to be informed atthe time ofarrest of the offence for which the person is being arrested 

(B) A boy under 15 years of age and women cannot be called to the police station only for questioning 

(C) The Right to be presented before a magistrate within 24 hours ofarrest 

(D) Confessions made in police custody can be used as evidence against the accused 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 41 Which team has won the Ranji Trophy maximum number of times? 

(A) Saurashtra 

(B) Tamil Nadu 

(C) Mumbai 

(D) Vidarbha 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 42 Which country ranks first in the ‘Per Capita’ Summer Olympic medals tally? 

(A) Netherlands 

(B) Finland 

(C) Japan 

(D) Hungary 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 43 The Brahmaputra river is called ‘Tsangpo’ in Tibet. What is it called in Bangladesh? 

(A) Meghna 

(B) Padma 

(C) Karnaphuli 

(D) Jamuna 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 44 Chandragupta Maurya established the Mauryan Empire by defeating the: 

(A) Nandas 

(B) Chalukyas 

(C) Pallavas 

(D) Shungas 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 45 Victoria Memorial is located in: 

(A) Lahore 

(B) Mumbai 

(C) Kolkata 

(D) New Delhi 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 46 ‘Gidda’ is a dance form of which state? 

(A) Punjab 

(B) Assam 

(C) West Bengal 

(D) Odisha 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 47 Who was the first Indian woman president of Indian National Congress? 

(A) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit 

(B) Sarojini Naidu 

(C) Sucheta Kriplani 

(D) Aruna Asaf Ali 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 48 Which of the following statements is not a good argument in favour of a democracy? 

(A) Democracies are more accountable to the people 

(B) Democracies have better resolutions of conflicts 

(C) People feel free and equal in a democracy 

(D) Democracies are more prosperous than others 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 49 Which of the following statements about sound is FALSE? 

(A) The audible range of an average human is 20 Hz — 20 kHz. 

(B) The speed of sound remains uniform irrespective of the temperature or medium. 

(C) Sound travels as a longitudinal wave. 

(D) Sound cannot travel in a vacuum. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 50 The Dadasaheb Phalke Award announced in 2018 was awarded to: 

(A) Late Yash Chopra 

(B) Late Rajesh Khanna 

(C) Late Shashi Kapoor 

(D) Late Vinod Khanna 

Answer: (D) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 If the interest on money be 1 paisa per rupee per month, what is the rate per cent per annum? 

(A) 12% 

(B) 15% 

(C) 10% 

 (D) 10½ % 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 52 The median of the data 28, 31, 42, 37, 26, 34, 18, 23 is: 

(A) 30 

(B) 29.5 

(C) 31.5 

(D) 28 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 53 Study the following graph which shows the production (in thousands)of different items, and answer these questions. 

The ratio between the number of pants produced by the company in the year 2014, 2015 and 2016 respectively is: 

(A) 3 : 4 : 6 

(B) 5 : 10 : 7 

(C) 1 : 2 : 3 

(D) 3 : 4 : 5 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 54 The area of an equilateral triangle is 173 cm² then of the perimeter the equilateral triangle (use √3 = 1.73) is: 

(A) 40 cm 

(B) 60 cm 

(C) 100 cm 

(D) 20 cm 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 55 A pen drive was sold at a price after giving two successive discounts of 30% and 20%. If the selling price of the item was ₹ 560, then what was the marked price of the pen drive? 

(A) ₹1000 

(B) ₹840 

(C) ₹1140 

(D) ₹1280 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 56 A discount of 30% on the marked price of a shirt enables a man to purchase a tie also, which costs him ₹ 210. How much did the man pay for the shirt? 

(A) ₹540 

(B) ₹490 

(C) ₹630 

(D) ₹700 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 57 The cost price of 120 bags is ₹ 15 each. 40 of them were sold for ₹18 each. At what price should the remaining be sold in order to get an overall profit of ₹ 4 per bag? 

(A) ₹19.5 

(B) ₹22.5 

(C) ₹16 

(D) ₹20 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 58 Study the following graph which shows the production (in thousands) of different items, and answer these questions.

The total number of all products produced by the company in the year 2014 and 2016 together is: 

(A) 105700 

(B) 108500 

(C) 1075 

(D) 10750 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Total number of all products produced by the company in the year 2014 and 2016 together : 

[(10 + 7.5 + 15) + (25 + 30 + 21)] × 1000 = 

108500 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 59 Seven persons have 20, 30, 40, 50, 60, 70 and 80 chocolates with them. If each of them is given 5 chocolates additionally, what will be the average number of chocolates with them? 

(A) 50 

(B) 55 

(C) 45 

(D) 60 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 60 A beats B by 125 m in a kilometer race. Find B’s speed if A’s speed is 16 m/sec.: 

(A) 18 m/sec 

(B) 14 m/sec 

(C) 7 m/sec 

(D) 21 m/sec 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 61 The ratio of the present ages of Meera and Sheela is 9 : 5. After 8 years Sheela would reach the present age of Meera. What is the present age (in years) of Sheela? 

(A) 18 

(B) 10 

(C) 5 

(D) 9 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 62 The difference between simple interest and compound interest on ₹ 2500 at 4% per annum for two years is (in ₹): 

(A) ₹40 

(B) ₹4 

(C) ₹45 

(D) ₹14 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 63 Study the following graph which shows the production (in thousands)of different items, and answer these questions.

The difference between the total number of Shoes and Shirts produced by the company in the year 2016 and the number of Pants produced by the company in the year 2014 is: 

(A) 40000 

(B) 35000 

(C) 32000 

(D) 38000 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 64 Suresh sells a pen at ₹ 120 for 33⅓% profit. At what price should he sell it to gain 40%? 

(A) ₹160 

(B) ₹120 

(C) ₹140 

(D) ₹126 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 65 If 12 men or 20 women can do a work in 54 days, then in how many days can 9 men and 12 women together do the work? 

(A) 38 

(B) 32 

(C) 40 

(D) 35 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 66 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? 

1 − [5 − {2 + (−5 + 6 − 2)2}] =? 

(A) 0 

(B) 2 

(C) -2 

(D) -4 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 67 A started running towards north direction at 6:00 a.m. B also started running towards north direction at 10:00 a.m. At what time will they meet if the speeds of A and are in the ratio 3 : 7 and they started from the same point? 

(A) 1 p.m. 

(B) 2 p.m. 

(C) 1:30 p.m. 

(D) 12:30 p.m. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 68 The area of the base of a right circular cone is 1408/7 cm² and its height is 6 cm. Taking π = 22/7 , the curved surface area of the cone is: 

(A) 1670/7 cm²

(B) 1067/7 cm²

(C) 1760/7 cm²

(D) 7160/7 cm²

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 69 The perimeter(in metres) of a semicircle is numerically equal to its area (in square meters). The length of its diameter is (Take ) 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 70 There are two numbers a² and 9. Their mean proportion is b, then (a² + b ) : (a² – b²) = ?

(A) 5 : 4 

(B) 3 : 4 

(C) 3 : 2 

(D) 1 : 1 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 71 The average number of chocolates with six children is six. If another child joined them the average number of chocolates with the seven children will become 7. What is the number of chocolates with the seventh child? 

(A) 14 

(B) 11 

(C) 12 

(D) 13 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 72 A and B working together can complete a job in 30 days. The ratio of their efficiencies is 3 : 2. In how many days can the faster person complete the job? 

(A) 50 

(B) 30 

(C) 40 

(D) 60 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 73 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? 

2 − [6 − {3 + (−4 + 5 + 1) × 8} + 12] =? 

(A) 4 

(B) 2 

(C) 3 

(D) 1 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 74 Find the least square number which is divisible by 4, 8, 2, 6 and 12? 

(A) 36 

(B) 24 

(C) 48 

(D) 144 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 75 In a class of 80 students, 60% passed in Economics and only 20% passed in History. The number of students who neither passed in Economics nor in History are: 

(A) 20 

(B) 12 

(C) 24 

(D) 16 

Answer: (D) 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Even if you did not know where I was, you can always have telephoned me to ask. 

(A) you could always have telephoned me 

(B) No improvement 

(C) you will always have telephoned me 

(D) you should always have telephoned me 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. 

Passage: 

Women have ………….(1) been held in high esteem in our country. During the Vedic period they …………(2) important positions in social and religious ………..(3) Without women, religious ceremonies were ……………(4) incomplete. Our mythological and philosophical writings bear witness to the fact that the tradition of having high regard for women was long ……………..(5) 

 

Q. 77 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) never 

(B) seldom 

(C) always 

(D) hardly 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 78 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) occupied 

(B) developed 

(C) demanded 

(D) offered 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 79 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) books 

(B) literature 

(C) life 

(D) thoughts 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 80 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) accepted 

(B) believed 

(C) performed 

(D) considered 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) awaited 

(B) maintained 

(C) valued 

(D) discontinued 

Answer: (B) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 82 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. When questioned about their laziness, almost all the boys gave the same excuse, ‘We all are tired.’ 

(A) When questioned 

(B) almost all the boys 

(C) ‘We all are tired.’ 

(D) about their laziness 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

 

Q. 83 Macbeth is the tragedy of a man who was ………. with great qualities. 

(A) endowed 

(B) conferred 

(C) empowered 

(D) advantaged 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 84 All the respondents should express their ………. views in this questionnaire. 

(A) candid 

(B) confident 

(C) convincing 

(D) contrary 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 85 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

To split hairs 

(A) To occupy one’s time in dressing 

(B) To stop the argument in between 

(C) To get angry about someone’s fashion 

(D) To engage in discussing irrelevant details 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

The government should provide attractive tax ……….. for the salaried class. 

(A) structures 

(B) documents 

(C) suggestions 

(D) bids 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 87 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

In spite of his illness, the man run a few yards before withdrawing from the race. 

(A) ran a few yards before withdrew from 

(B) ran a few yards before withdrawing from 

(C) No improvement 

(D) running a few yards before withdrawing from 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 88 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

Organisms that live on another 

(A) Bacteria 

(B) Microbes 

(C) Viruses 

(D) Parasites 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 89 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. The person at the counter when filling up my details asked me how many languages did I know. 

(A) did I know 

(B) at the counter 

(C) filling up my details 

(D) how many languages 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 90 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

To read between the lines 

(A) To ask someone to read every line 

(B) To understand more than actual words 

(C) To look for the meaning of every word 

(D) To understand the dictionary meanings 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 91 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Scisors 

(B) Scissors 

(C) Scissars 

(D) Sissors 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 92 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Allteration 

(B) Altaration 

(C) Alterashion 

(D) Alteration 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 93 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Soon I was informed byreliable sources that their parents had no any responsibilities towards the family. 

(A) towards the family 

(B) by reliable sources 

(C) Soon I was informed 

(D) no any responsibilities 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 94 Select the synonym of the given word. 

CONFLUENCE 

(A) Junction 

(B) Flow 

(C) Diversion 

(D) Stream 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 95 Select the antonym of the given word. 

Genuine 

(A) True 

(B) False 

(C) Frank 

(D) Actual 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 96 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

The City Development Council resolved at a recent meeting to take steps to controlling pollution immediately. 

(A) to take steps to control! pollution immediately 

(B) No improvement 

(C) to take steps of control pollution immediately 

(D) to take steps for control pollution immediately 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 97 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A short stay at a place 

(A) Voyage 

(B) Lodge 

(C) Sojourn 

(D) Trip 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 98 Select the synonym of the given word. 

PSEUDONYM 

(A) Family name 

(B) Alias 

(C) Namesake 

(D) First name 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 99 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

The Director has still not given his ……….. to conduct the survey of natural resources. 

(A) compliance 

(B) projection 

(C) consent 

(D) request 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 100 Select the antonym of the given word. 

Interruption 

(A) Disruption 

(B) Hinderance 

(C) Continuity 

(D) Temporary 

Answer: (C) 

SSC GD 21st Feb 2019 Shift-I 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1) Some stores are rooms. 

2) Some rooms are posters. 

Conclusion: 

I. Some rooms are stores. 

II. Some posters are rooms. 

(A) Only conclusion I follows. 

(B) Both conclusions follow. 

(C) Only conclusion II follows. 

(D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

The venn diagram for above statements is : 

Conclusion: 

I. Some rooms are stores = true 

II. Some posters are rooms = true 

Thus, both conclusion follows. 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 2 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Initial : Final :: Mourn : ? 

(A) Recall 

(B) Recap 

(C) Murmur 

(D) Rejoice 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

The given pairs are antonyms, final is opposite of initial, similarly opposite of mourn is rejoice. 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 3 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series. 

0, 8, 24, 48, ? 

(A) 81 

(B) 87 

(C) 89 

(D) 80 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Multiples of 8 are added. 

0 + 8 = 8 

8 + 16 = 24 

24 + 24 = 48 

48 + 32 = 80 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 4 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number. 

12 : 180 :: 14 : ? 

(A) 144 

(B) 221 

(C) 169 

(D) 238 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 5 Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word if the mirror is placed at the right side. 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

If the mirror is placed at right side, the object at the right will appear at left and vice-versa. Hence the first letter H will appear at right side, and since its symmetrical, its shape won’t be changed. Thus, second option is eliminated. 

Also, in the last two options, the shape of G is changed as such the mirror is placed below it, hence the correct image is shown in first option. 

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 6 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1) All customers are clients. 

2) All clients are medicines. 

Conclusion: 

I. Some medicines are customers. 

II. Some medicines are clients. 

(A) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows. 

(B) Both conclusions follow. 

(C) Only conclusion II follows. 

(D) Only conclusion I follows. 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

The venn diagram for above statements is : 

Conclusion: 

I. Some medicines are customers = true 

II. Some medicines are clients = true 

Thus, both conclusion follow. 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 7 In certain code, VIROLOGY is written as LOGYVIRO. How will SEMANTIC be written in that code? 

(A) NTICSEMA 

(B) CITNAMES 

(C) NTJCSEMA 

(D) NTICSFMA 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

VIROLOGY is written as LOGYVIRO 

The pattern followed is that the word is divided into two halves, and in the final output, the two halves are interchanged. ≡ 

Eg :- VIROLOGY VIRO and LOGY 

Output : LOGY + VIRO = LOGYVIRO 

Similarly, SEMANTIC : NTICSEMA 

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 8 There is only one runway which will be used by seven flights one by one. P and Q will use the runway neither first nor last. S will use it second after R. M will use it second before O. N will use it after O and before R. Q will use it just before S. Who will use the runway in the middle? 

(A) O 

(B) N 

(C) P 

(D) Q 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

P and Q will not use the runway either first or last. 

S will use it second after R and Q will use it just before S, => Order is RQS 

N will use it after O and before R and M will use it second before O, S will be at end. Final arrangement : 

∴ N will use the runway in the middle. 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 9 Choose the odd one out of the given options. 

(A) Silicon 

(B) Magnesium 

(C) Tungsten 

(D) Aurum 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 10 Choose the odd one out of the given options. 

(A) AGD

(B) IHL 

(C) EKM 

(D) QSC 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Except for QSC, all the other letters start with a vowel, hence it is the odd one. 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 11 Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, H and G are sitting around a circular table facing each other for a group discussion. A is opposite F and second to the right of E. G is between C and A.H is to the left of E. Who is sitting to the immediate left of A? 

(A) Either G or D 

(B) B

(C) C

(D) Either B or D 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

A is opposite F and second to the right of E, => E is sitting second to the left of A. 

G is between C and A, => G is to the immediate right of A, and C is opposite of E. 

Also, H is to the left of E. Thus, final arrangement : 

∴ Either (B) or (D) is sitting to the immediate left of A. 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 12 Seven friends O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are watching a cricket match sitting in a stadium.P is sitting at one extreme end. T is sitting between Q and U,and is sitting to the immediate right of S and immediate left of Q. is sitting second to the left of P. Who is sitting between U and P? 

(A) R 

(B) O 

(C) S 

(D) Q 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 13 Choose the option that would follow next in the given figure series. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 14 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same wayas the second term is related to the first term. 

AC : CI :: GH : ? 

(A) UY 

(B) UX 

(C) UU 

(D) UV 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Expression = AC : CI :: GH : ? 

According to the numerical representation of the alphabets, we get A=1, B=2, C=3 and so on. Now, thrice of each letter of first term is equal to the subsequent letters of the second term. 

Eg :- A ≡ 1(×3) = 3 ≡ C 

C ≡ 3(×3) = 9 ≡ I 

and 

G ≡ 7(×3) = 21 ≡ U H ≡ 8(×3) = 24 ≡ X 

Similarly, and 

Thus, GH : UX 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 15 In a certain code, OPTIMIST is written as 121. How will PESSIMIST be written in that code? 

(A) 129 

(B) 105 

(C) 131 

(D) 127 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

If we add the numbers represented by the English alphabets, i.e. A=1, B=2, C=3, ….., Y=25, Z=26 ≡ 15 + 16 + 20 + 9 + 13 + 9 + 19 + 20 = 121 

OPTIMIST 

≡ 16 + 5 + 19 + 19 + 9 + 13 + 9 + 19 + 20 = 129 

=> PESSIMIST 

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 16 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series. 

PRL, QPM, RNN, SLO, ? 

(A) TIO 

(B) TKP 

(C) TJP 

(D) TIP 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Series : PRL, QPM, RNN, SLO, ? 

The pattern followed in each letter of the terms is : 

1st letter : P (+1 letter) = Q (+1 letter) = R (+1 letter) = S (+1 letter) = T 

2nd letter : R (-2 letters) = P (-2 letters) = N (-2 letters) = L (-2 letters) = J 

3rd letter : L (+1 letter) = M (+1 letter) = N (+1 letter) = O (+1 letter) = P 

Thus, missing term : TJP 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 17 Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes. 

Animals, Mammals, Deer 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 18 Choose the odd number out of the given options. 

(A) 151 

(B) 163 

(C) 157 

(D) 161 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Among the given numbers, except 161, all are prime numbers. 

161 = 7 × 23 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 19 Select a figure from amongst the four alternatives, that when placed in the blank space (?) of figure X will complete the pattern. (Rotation is not allowed). 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 20 Find out the two signs to be interchanged to make the following equation correct. 

18 + 3 × 27 − 9 ÷ 3 = 78 

(A) + and × 

(B) + and ÷ 

(C) − and ÷ 

(D) + and − 

Answer: (A) 

Q. 21 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series. 

12, 22, 42, 82, ? 

(A) 172 

(B) 182 

(C) 152 

(D) 162 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

The pattern followed is : 

12 + 10 = 22 

22 + 20 = 42 

42 + 40 = 82 

82 + 80 = 162 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 22 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the given pattern. 

(A) 6 

(B) 24 

(C) 36 

(D) 8 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 23 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. How will the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line? 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 24 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Blend : Mix :: Request : ? 

(A) Deny 

(B) Noting 

(C) Solicit 

(D) Accept 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

The first two words are synonyms of each other, similarly request and solicit have similar meanings. 

=> Ans – (C) 

 

Q. 25 Select a figure from amongst the four alternatives, that when placed in the blank space (?) of figure X will complete the pattern. (Rotation is not allowed). 

Answer: (D) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 Which of the following statements about the Indus Valley Civilization is NOT true? 

(A) It was an urban civilisation where people lived in well planned towns 

(B) Animal meat was the staple food 

(C) It flourished around 2500 BCin the present day Pakistan and Western India 

(D) The houses were made of baked bricks 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 27 Dry Ice is the solid form of: 

(A) methane 

(B) carbon dioxide 

(C) oxygen 

(D) ozone 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 28 Timur invaded India during the reign of: 

(A) Akbar 

(B) Alauddin Khilji 

(C) Feroz Shah Tughlaq 

(D) Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah Tughluq 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 29 Who wrote the book ‘War and Peace’? 

(A) Viadimir Lenin 

(B) Leo Tolstoy 

(C) Karl Marx 

(D) Anton Chekhov 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 30 India has won 8 Olympic gold medals for field hockey. When was the last time India won a gold medal for hockey in Olympics? 

(A) 1976 

(B) 1984 

(C) 1988 

(D) 1980 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 31 Which of the following statements is NOT true about angiosperms? 

(A) They have stems, leaves and roots 

(B) Conifers, Cycads and Ginkgo are examples of angiosperms 

(C) They have to undergo pollination before they can reproduce 

(D) The flowers carry the reproductive organs 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 32 The economic survey is usually presented ……… before the Union Budget. 

(A) 1 day 

(B) 15 days 

(C) 7 days 

(D) 2 days 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 33 Gita Gopinath became the first woman to occupy the position of Chief Economist of: 

(A) World Trade Organisation 

(B) UNESCO 

(C) World Bank 

(D) International Monetary Fund 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 34 The holy place of the Jains, Shravanabelagola is situated in which district of Karnataka? 

(A) ShimogaDistrict 

(B) Bellary District 

(C) Mysore District 

(D) Hassan District 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 35 The Government of India releases MSP of agricultural produce from time to time. What is the full form of MSP? 

(A) Minimum Selling Price 

(B) Minimum Support Price 

(C) Maximum Selling Price 

(D) Maximum Support Price 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 36 Golconda Fort was built in the 13^th century by the …………. Dynasty. 

(A) Kakatiya 

(B) Chola 

(C) Periyar 

(D) Chalukya 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 37 In the context of climate. what is the full form of ITCZ? 

(A) Indian Trough Conversation Zone 

(B) Inter Tropical Convergence Zone 

(C) Intra Temperate Control Zone 

(D) Islandic Tropical Climate Zone 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 38 The Indian athlete Dutee Chand is associated to which of the following sporting events? 

(A) Shotput 

(B) Javelin 

(C) Jumping 

(D) Sprinting 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 39 A special property of acids and bases is their ability to ……… each other’s properties. 

(A) Crystalize 

(B) Neutralize 

(C) Amortize 

(D) Naturalize 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 40 According to the report published by the World Health Organization (WHO)in 2017, approximately how many people in the world do NOT have access to safe drinking water at home? 

(A) 4.2 billion 

(B) 900 million 

(C) 500 million 

(D) 2.1 billion 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 41 ‘Kuchipudi’ derives its roots from: 

(A) Kerala 

(B) Andhra Pradesh 

(C) Puducherry 

(D) Tamil Nadu 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 42 Swachh Bharat Abhiyan was launched by the government of India on the birth anniversary of: 

(A) Mahatma Gandhi 

(B) Vallabhbhai Patel 

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru 

(D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 43 The Constitution of India came into force on 26 January 1950. Which act or governing document did it replace? 

(A) Government of India Act, 1858 

(B) Government of India Act, 1935 

(C) Indian Councils Act, 1892 

(D) Regulating Act, 1773 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 44 The parliament has powers to amend the provisions of the Constitution of India. Which article of the constitution confers this power on the parliament? 

(A) Article 1 

(B) Article 256 

(C) Article 55 

(D) Article 368 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 45 The first major nation wide Satyagraha launched by Mahatma Gandhi was against: 

(A) Rowlatt Act 

(B) Partition of Bengal 

(C) Tax on Khadi products 

(D) Salt tax 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 46 Which of the following is NOT true about the ‘Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005’? 

(A) Injury can be physical, emotional or economic. 

(B) It also applies to violence at workplace. 

(C) It applies in case of injury or harm or threat of injury or harm by the adult male member of the house hold. 

(D) The term ‘Domestic’ includes all women who liveor have lived in a shared household with the accused male member. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 47 The host country for 2022 FIFA World Cup is: 

(A) Japan 

(B) Germany 

(C) France 

(D) Qatar 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 48 ‘Slash and burn’ type of farming is also known as: 

(A) shifting farming 

(B) intensive subsistence farming 

(C) extensive farming 

(D) commercial farming 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 49 What is the monthly salary of the President of India as per 2018 Budget? 

(A) 4 lakhs 

(B) 2 lakhs 

(C) 5 lakhs 

(D) 3 lakhs 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 50 Which of the following is NOT a method of soil conservation? 

(A) Intercropping 

(B) Mulching 

(C) Contour Ploughing 

(D) Weathering 

Answer: (D) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 A sector is cut from a circle of diameter 42 cm. If the angle of the sector is 150^∘ then what is its area in cm². (Take π = 22/7) 

(A) 584.8 

(B) 577.5 

(C) 564.6 

(D) 580.4 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 52 The present ages of A and are in the ratio 15 : 8. After 8 years their ages will be in the ratio 17 : 10. What will be the ratio of ages of A and B after 10 years from now? 

(A) 10 : 7 

(B) 8 : 5 

(C) 5 : 3 

(D) 7 : 4 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 53 A circus tent is cylindrical to a height of 3 meters and conical above it. If the radius of the base is 52.5 m and the slant height of the cone is 52 m,then the total area of the canvas required to make it is: 

(A) 3048π 

(B) 3045π 

(C) 2730π 

(D) 2842π 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 54 The compound interest on a sum of ₹ 24500 at 10% p.a for 2⅖ years interest compounded yearly is: 

(A) ₹ 6338.40 

(B) ₹ 6342 

(C) ₹ 6330.80 

(D) ₹ 6340 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

Study the following table, which shows the number of units of a product manufactured and sold by a company in five years, and answer questions. 

 

Q. 55 What percent of total units of the product manufactured in 2013 and 2015 is the total units unsold during the five years? (correct to one decimal place) 

(A) 30.8 

(B) 30.3 

(C) 29.6 

(D) 29.4 

Answer: (B) 

Q. 56 The ratio of the total number of units sold in 2014 and 2015 to the number of units manufactured in 2017 is: 

(A) 17:12 

(B) 19:14 

(C) 9:8 

(D) 14:17 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 57 The value of 

1.6 ÷ 1.6 of 1.6 + 0.6 of 1.4 ÷ 0.5 − 0.001 × 1.5 ÷ 0.075 

lies between: 

(A) 3.4 and 3.6 

(B) 3.6 and 3.8 

(C) 3.2 and 3.4 

(D) 3 and 3.2 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 58 The average of 10 numbers is 41. The average of first 3 numbers is 39.4 and the average of last 4 numbers is 43.5. 4^th number is 2 more than the 5^th number and 0.2 more than the 6^th number. What is the average of the 4^th and 6^th numbers .

(A) 38.7 

(B) 38.9 

(C) 39.6 

(D) 39.9 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 59 The average age of 24 students in a class is 15.5 years. The age of their teacher is 28 years more than the average of all twenty five. What is the age of the teacher in years? 

(A) 40⅓ 

(B) 41⅔ 

(C) 44⅔ 

(D) 42⅓ 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 60 If 12, x, 8 and 14 are in proportion, then what is the mean proportional between (x – 12) and (x + 4) ? 

(A) 12 

(B) 11 

(C) 16 

(D) 15 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 61 A 280 m long train is running at 108 km/hr. In how much time will it cross a bridge of length 170 m ? 

(A) 10 sec 

(B) 15 sec 

(C) 16 sec 

(D) 12 sec 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 62 A shopkeepers made a profit of 16% on his goods .If the price at which he buys decreases by 20% while he reduces his selling price by 23%, what is now his percentage of profit ? (correct to one decimal place) 

(A) 11.6 

(B) 15.4 

(C) 12.9 

(D) 14.6 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 63 The largest sphere is carved out of a cube of side 7 cm. What is the volume of the sphere in cm³ (Take π = 22/7 ) 

(A) 179⅔ 

(B) 182⅓ 

(C) 179⅓ 

(D) 182⅔ 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 64 Two vessels A and B contain solution of acid and water. In A and B the ratio of acid and water are 7 : 3 and 4 : 1, respectively. They are mixed in the ratio 1 : 2. What is the ratio of acid and water in the resulting solution? 

(A) 15 : 8 

(B) 16 : 7 

(C) 23 : 7 

(D) 25 : 9 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 65 Let x be the least multiple of 29 which when divided by 20, 21, 22, 24 and 28 then the remainders are 13, 14, 15, 17 and 21 respectively. What is the sum of digits of x? 

(A) 18 

(B) 22 

(C) 19 

(D) 23 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 66 At what percentage above the cost price must an article be marked so as to gain 38% after allowing a customer a discount of 8% on the marked price? 

(A) 48 

(B) 46 

(C) 50 

(D) 45 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 67 The numbers 6, 8, 11, 12, 2x – 8, 2x + 10, 35, 41, 42, 50 are written in ascending order. If their median is 25, then what is the mean of the numbers? 

(A) 24.8 

(B) 24.6 

(C) 25.5 

(D) 25.2 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 68 A takes 6 hours more than B to cover a distance of 60 km. But if A doubles his speed, he takes 3 hours less than B to cover the same distance. The speed (in km/hr) of A is: 

(A) 3⅓ 

(B) 4⅔ 

(C) 4 

(D) 5 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 69 A sum of ₹ 1518 is divided among A, B, and C, such that A receives 20% more than B and B receives 20% less than C. What is the share of C in the sum? 

(A) ₹ 528 

(B) ₹ 440 

(C) ₹ 550 

(D) ₹ 572 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 70 Study the following table, which shows the number of units of a product manufactured and sold by a company in five years, and answer questions. 

In which year the number of units of the product sold is 19000 more than the average number of units manufactured per year? 

(A) 2016 

(B) 2015 

(C) 2017 

(D) 2014 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 71 The simple interest on a certain sum is 1119% of the sum and the number of years is equal to the rate percent per annum. What will be the simple interest on a sum of ₹ 12600 at the same rate for 2⅘ years? 

(A) ₹1216 

(B) ₹1224 

(C) ₹1176 

(D) ₹1164 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 72 A can complete ⅔ of a work in 8 days. B can complete ⅗ of the same work in 12 days and C can complete 4/9 of the same work in 8 days. A and B worked together for 5 days. How much time(in days) will C alone take to complete the remaining work? 

(A) 6 

(B) 7½ 

(C) 8½

(D) 9 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 73 The ratios of efficiencies of A and B of doing a certain work is 5 : 8. Working together they can complete the work in 20 days, A alone will complete 25% of that work in: 

(A) 14 days 

(B) 12 days 

(C) 11 days 

(D) 13 days 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 74 If 20% more would be gained by selling an article for ₹ 93 than selling it for ₹ 85, then the cost price of the article is: 

(A) ₹64 

(B) ₹40 

(C) ₹56 

(D) ₹60 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 75 The value of 

35/6 ፥7/2 ✖21/10 +3/5 of 15/2 ፥2/3 – 2/3 ፥8/15 ✖6/5

(A) 8¾ 

(B) 2⅗ 

(C) 8⅗ 

(D) 1¾ 

Answer: (A) 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the antonym of the given word. 

GRANT 

(A) Refuse 

(B) Approve 

(C) Reject 

(D) Sanction 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 77 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

(A) team of doctors is focusing over treatment of cancer at an early age. 

(A) is focusing on to treatment of cancer 

(B) is focusing on treatment of cancer 

(C) No improvement 

(D) is focusing in treatment of cancer 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 78 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. As a painter he are good if not better than Suresh. 

(A) he are good 

(B) than Suresh 

(C) if not better 

(D) As a painter 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 79 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

He have been working on and off for two years to complete a book. 

(A) has work 

(B) have worked 

(C) No improvement 

(D) has been working 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 80 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

One who makes an eloquent public speech 

(A) Leader 

(B) Debater 

(C) Speaker 

(D) Orator 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Would you mind help me with these questions? 

(A) Would you mind helping 

(B) Would you mind for helping 

(C) No improvement 

(D) Would you mind to help 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 82 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

The absence of government in a country 

(A) Bureaucracy 

(B) Anarchy 

(C) Autocracy 

(D) Democracy 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 83 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

In black and white 

(A) In writing 

(B) In colour 

(C) Scanned 

(D) Photocopied 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help ofthe alternatives given. 

Passage: 

In 1893, Lokmanya Tilak converted the Ganapati festival …………(1) a national celebration. He campaigned for ………….(2) wide celebration of this public festival throughout Maharashtra. It was …………(3) this festival that he …………..(4) mobilise public support for the nationalist …………(5) 

 

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) with 

(B) into 

(C) for 

(D) to 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) a 

(B) some 

(C) the 

(D) one 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) with 

(B) through 

(C) without 

(D) throughout 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 87 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) may 

(B) can 

(C) will 

(D) could 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 88 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) movement 

(B) term 

(C) season 

(D) festival 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 89 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

‘Discovery of India’ ……… by Jawaharlal Nehru. 

(A) have been written 

(B) has written 

(C) has been written 

(D) have written 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 90 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Aquaintance 

(B) Acquantance 

(C) Acquaintance 

(D) Acquaintence 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 91 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. When I asked for directions, he gave me many wrong informations. 

(A) When I asked 

(B) for directions 

(C) wrong informations 

(D) gave me many 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 92 Select the synonym of the given word. 

ZENITH 

(A) Peak 

(B) Border 

(C) Brink 

(D) Edge 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 93 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

Hit the nail on the head 

(A) Accurately right 

(B) Hit the nail exactly 

(C) Use hammer and nail 

(D) Use some tools 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 94 Select the synonym of the given word. 

RESISTANCE 

(A) Approval 

(B) Recognition 

(C) Refusal 

(D) Enthusiasm 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 95 Select the antonym of the given word. 

HUMILITY 

(A) Cruelty 

(B) Shyness 

(C) Obedience 

(D) Modesty 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 96 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

One should be careful to check the grease and oil in ……….. car occasionally for it’s smooth functioning 

(A) ones 

(B) their 

(C) our 

(D) one’s 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 97 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Is the older person always more wiser than the younger one? 

(A) Is the 

(B) more wiser 

(C) older person always 

(D) than the younger one? 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 98 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Many tourists to India visit the beautiful valley of Kashmir ………. in spring and summer. 

(A) generally 

(B) rarely 

(C) especially 

(D) frequently 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 99 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

Our society is ………. by the evil of corruption; the integrity of even senior officials is disputed. 

(A) indicated 

(B) endangered 

(C) specified 

(D) identified 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 100 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Millennium 

(B) Milennium 

(C) Millenniam 

(D) Millenium 

Answer: (A) 

SSC GD 19th Feb 2019 Shift-III

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

5, …….., 10, 19, 35, 60 

(A) 6 

(B) 8 

(C) 9 

(D) 7 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

5 + 1² = 6 

6 + 2² = 10 

10 + 3² = 19 

19 + 4² = 35 

35 + 5² = 60 

Hence missing number series will be 6. 

5, 6, 10, 19, 35, 60…. 

 

Q. 2 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1. Some animals are tigers. 

2. All tigers are vertebrates. 

Conclusions: 

I. All vertebrates are tigers. 

II. Some vertebrates are animals. 

(A) Both conclusion I & II follow 

(B) Only conclusion II follows 

(C) Only conclusion I follows 

(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Conclusions: 

I. All vertebrates are tigers- False 

II. Some vertebrates are animals- True. 

Only Conclusion II follows. 

 

Q. 3 The numbers in the following set are related in a certain way. Choose the set that is similar to the following set: 

{128, 8, 32} 

(A) {196, 7, 14} 

(B) {122, 10, 30} 

(C) {144, 36, 72} 

(D) {64, 4, 16} 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

128+32 = 180 

180 ÷ 20 = 4 

Similarly in option D, 64+16 = 80 

80 ÷ 20 = 4 

Hence Option (D) is correct option. 

 

Q. 4 Choose the alternative which most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word when mirror is placed at right side. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 5 Which number will follow next in the given number series? 

15, 12, 19, 14, 25, 16, ? 

(A) 29 

(B) 31 

(C) 35 

(D) 33 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 6 Select the figure which when placed in the blank space of the figure marked ‘X’ would complete the pattern. 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 7 R is taller than T. Both P and Q are taller than S, whose height is between P and T. If is taller than T, who is the shortest? 

(A) P 

(B) S 

(C) Q 

(D) T 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

missing value in question 

IF ____ is taller than T, who is the 

 

Q. 8 Choose the option that would follow next in the given figure series. 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 9 Pick the odd pair out. 

(A) 17- 49 

(B) 5-13 

(C) 9-25 

(D) 15- 41 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 10 Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table facing the center. B is seated to the left of D. E is seated to the right of C. A is facing F, who is seated to the left of C. Who is seated to the left of A? 

(A) E 

(B) D 

(C) B 

(D) C 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 11 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

dmt, fkv, ihy, mdc, …….. 

(A) ryh 

(B) rzh 

(C) qzl 

(D) rxi 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Take all the first digit of all the words 

d+2=f , f+3=i , i+4=m, Hence m+5=R 

Take all the second digit of all the words 

m-2=k , k-3=h , h-4=d , Hence d-5=Y 

Take all the third and last digit of all the words 

t+2=v, v+3=y, y+4=c, Hence c+5=H 

Let’s consolidate the whole word = RYH. 

Hence Sequence will be dmt, fkv, ihy, mdc, ryh.. 

 

Q.12 AGENDA is related to MEETING in the same way as PROGRAMME is related to: 

(A) FUNCTION 

(B) INAUGURATION 

(C) SPEECH 

(D) ORGANISATION 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Agenda is same meaning word for Meeting. 

Similarly, Programme is same meaning word for Function 

 

Q. 13 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Temple : Worship :: Court : ? 

(A) Argument 

(B) Judge 

(C) Jurisdiction 

(D) Lawyer 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

In Temple we do worship. Similarly, in Court we do argument. 

 

Q. 14 Four numbers have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) 125 

(B) 729 

(C) 1321 

(D) 343 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 15 Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly represents the relationships among the classes: 

Products, Factory, Machines 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 16 If in a code language ADVENTURES is coded as VDANEUTSER, then SYSTEMATIC would be coded as: 

(A) CITETAMSYS 

(B) SYSETAMCIT 

(C) SYSMETITAC 

(D) YSTSMETACI 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 17 If in a code language BADE = 1254 and HATE = 18520, then HEALER = ? 

(A) 58121185 

(B) 18512158 

(C) 15818512 

(D) 58112158 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 18 Six girls are sitting in a row facing West. Kim is to the left of Sima and Sony is between Piku and Ria. There are two people seated between Piku and Sima, who is separated from Neela by one person.If Piku is seated at one end of the row, who is at the other end? 

(A) Sima 

(B) Kim 

(C) Ria 

(D) Neela 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 19 Which one of the following four-letter clusters does NOT belong to the group? 

(A) PVTR 

(B) CIGE 

(C) WZXY 

(D) KQOM 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

PVTR = P+6=V 

CIGE = C+6=I 

WZXY = W+2=Y 

KQOM = K+6=Q 

Hence WZXY is odd as from first letter to second letter W-to-Z is only gapping of 2 Alphabets. 

 

Q. 20 Choose the option in which the figure marked ‘x’ is embedded. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 21 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1. All roads are streets. 

2. Some streets are avenues. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some roads are avenues. 

II. All avenues are roads. 

(A) Both conclusions I and II follow 

(B) Neither conclusion I nor II follows 

(C) Only conclusion I follows 

(D) Only conclusion II follows 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 22 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

BYWD : DWUF :: FUSH : ? 

(A) JQOL 

(B) HSJQ 

(C) HTRJ 

(D) HSQJ 

Answer: (D) 

Q. 23 Pick the odd one out. 

(A) Plate 

(B) Ring 

(C) Bangle 

(D) Tyre 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

All the shapes are round. But Plates has no hole inside circle.. But Ring,Tyre,Bangle has hole inside circle. Hence Plate is odd option. 

 

Q. 24 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation correct? 

6 × 2 + 8 − 16 ÷ 4 = 18 

(A) + and ÷ 

(B) + and × 

(C) × and ÷ 

(D) − and ÷ 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 25 How would the pattern given on the square transparent sheet marked ‘X’ look when the sheet is folded along the dotted line? 

Answer: (C) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 Which among the following is the smallest mountain range in the world? 

(A) Ural 

(B) Sutter Buttes 

(C) Alps 

(D) Sierra Nevada 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 27 Who is the founder of ‘Sulabh Sanitation and Social Reform Movement’? 

(A) Aruna Roy 

(B) Medha Patkar 

(C) Dr Bindeshwar Pathak 

(D) Baba Amte 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 28 Which of the following is regarded as the shortest river of India? 

(A) Narmada 

(B) Arvari 

(C) Kaveri 

(D) Godavari 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 29 ‘Jhumur’ a traditional dance form, is performed in which of the following states? 

(A) Odisha 

(B) Madhya Pradesh 

(C) Bengal 

(D) Assam 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 30 Aravind Adiga got the prestigious Man Booker Prize for which book? 

(A) Selection Day 

(B) The Kite Runner 

(C) The White Tiger 

(D) God of Small Things 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 31 ‘The Mousetrap’ was a famous play written by: 

(A) Agatha Christie 

(B) Caryl Churchill 

(C) William Shakespeare 

(D) George Bernard Shaw 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 32 India recognizes the Right to ………… as being part of Right to Life (Article 21). 

(A) Medication 

(B) Acceptance 

(C) Fitness 

(D) Water 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 33 Eminent economist and columnist ……….. has resigned as part time member of Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister Narendra Modi. 

(A) Surjit Bhalla 

(B) Arvind Subramanian 

(C) Raghuram Rajan 

(D) Jagdish Bhagwati 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 34 Which Indian state has the largest area under forest cover? 

(A) Kerala 

(B) Chhattisgarh 

(C) Arunachal Pradesh 

(D) Madhya Pradesh 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 35 In which year was the Right to Education Act enacted in India? 

(A) 2011 

(B) 2004 

(C) 2009 

(D) 2006 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q.36 Which country among the following options has the shortest constitution in the world? 

(A) Norway 

(B) United Kingdom 

(C) United States of America 

(D) India 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 37 Which city among the following is the most densely populated city, as of 2018? 

(A) Shanghai 

(B) Tokyo 

(C) Paris 

(D) Istanbul 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 38 What was the event that fundamentally changed Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel’s life and drove him towards politics? 

(A) Bardoli Satyagraha (year 1928) 

(B) The Gandhi Irwin Pact (year 1931) 

(C) Meeting with Mahatma Gandhi in Godhra (year 1917) 

(D) Non-Cooperation Movement (year 1922) 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 39 During whose rule was the historical Nalanda University established? 

(A) Bindusara 

(B) Dasratha 

(C) Chandragupta 

(D) Kumaragupta 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 40 In which year did Ms. Sushmita Sen became the first Indian woman to win the ‘Miss Universe’ title? 

(A) 1996 

(B) 1994 

(C) 1998 

(D) 1991 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 41 Neutral, expansionary, and contractionary strategies are related to which policy of the government? 

(A) Monetary policy 

(B) Banking policy 

(C) Budgetary policy 

(D) Fiscal policy 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 42 The famous ‘Ratnagiri Monastery’ is located in which Indian state? 

(A) Karnataka 

(B) Gujarat 

(C) Orissa 

(D) Jharkhand 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 43 Which of the following is a nocturnal animal? 

(A) Hamster 

(B) Bat 

(C) Porcupine 

(D) Murids 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 44 ‘Hemis Festival’ is celebrated in which Indian state? 

(A) Jammu and Kashmir 

(B) Karnataka 

(C) Tamil Nadu 

(D) Punjab 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 45 The ancient cities of Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro emerged along the banks of which river? 

(A) Baghmati River 

(B) Indus River 

(C) Brahmaputra River 

(D) Ganga River 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 46 Who has won Sayed Modi India Grand Prix Gold Badminton Title 2018 in Men’s Singles Titles? 

(A) Srikanth Kidambi 

(B) Ajay Jayaram 

(C) Sameer Verma 

(D) Prannoy Kumar 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 47 Baking soda, the common cooking ingredient, has which of the following chemical name? 

(A) Sodium bicarbonate 

(B) Sodium chloride 

(C) Monosodium glutamate 

(D) Sodium benzoate 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 48 Union Cabinet has decide to raise contribution of Central Government to National Pension System (NPS)corpusofits employee from 10% to ……….. 

(A) 11% 

(B) 20% 

(C) 14% 

(D) 12% 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 49 ‘Bishan Singh Bedi’ is a legendary Indian player of: 

(A) cricket 

(B) hockey 

(C) football 

(D) lawn tennis 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 50 What is the SI unit for the measurement of pressure? 

(A) Newton 

(B) Joule 

(C) Ampere 

(D) Pascal 

Answer: (D) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 A shopkeeper marks the price of an article 25 % above its cost price. After allowing 10% discount on the market price, the article is sold for ₹720. What is the difference (in ₹) between the cost price and market price of the article? 

(A) 160 

(B) 120 

(C) 180 

(D) 150 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Let the cost price be x 

marked price=1.25x 

Discount allowed=10% 

MP-discount=SP 

Therefore SP=0.9*1.25x 

Given SP=720 

(9/10)*(5/4)x=720 

x=80*8 

x=Rs 640 

MP-CP=1.25x-x=0.25x 

=640/4 

=Rs 160 

 

Q. 52 How many spherical balls each of 2cm radius can be made out of a solid metallic cube of edge 44 cm?(Take π = 22/7) 

(A) 2420 

(B) 2532 

(C) 2448 

(D) 2541 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 53 A sum of ₹6900 was lent partly at 5% and the rest at 8% simple interest. Total interest received after 3 years from both was ₹1359. What was the ratio of money lent at 5% and 8%? 

(A) 10 : 13 

(B) 11 : 12 

(C) 14 : 9 

(D) 31 : 38 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 54 The average ages of boys and girls in a class is 14.5 years and 15 years respectively. If the ratio of the number of boys and girls is 2 : 3, then what is the average age(in years) of all students in the class? 

(A) 15.2 

(B) 15.4 

(C) 14.8 

(D) 14.6 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

let the number of boys be 2x and girls be 3x 

Sum of ages of all the boys=14.5*2x 

=29x 

Sum of ages of all the girls=15*3x 

=45x 

Sum of ages all the boys and girls=29x+45x 

=74x 

Total strength of the class=2x+3x=5x 

Average=74x/5x 

=14.8 

 

Q. 55 Note-books are bought at 16 for ₹700 and sold at 11 for ₹500. How many notebooks should be sold to gain ₹450? 

(A) 272 

(B) 260 

(C) 254 

(D) 264 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Cost price of each book =Rs 700/16 

Selling price of each book=Rs 500/11 

Profit on each book=(500/11)-(700/16) 

=100(3/176) 

Total profit=450 

let the number of books required be ‘n’ 

Therefore n*300/176 =450 

n=88*3 

n=264 books 

 

Q. 56 The compound interest on a sum of ₹15800 for 2 years at 9% per annum, when the interest is compound 8 monthly,is (nearest to a rupee): 

(A) ₹2992 

(B) ₹3016 

(C) ₹3018 

(D) ₹2956 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 57 Amina saves 16% of her income. Now her income is increased by 20 % but she still saves the same amount as before. What is the percentage increase in her expenditure? 

(A) 20.4 

(B) 24.2 

(C) 23.8 

(D) 21.6 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

let the income be Rs 100 

Savings=Rs 16 

Expenditure=100-16 

=Rs 84 

New income=100*1.2 

=Rs 120 

Savings =Rs 16 

Expenditure=Rs 104 

Percentage increase in the expenditure=((104-84)/84)*100 

=2000/84 

=23.8% 

 

Q. 58 Walking at 75% of his usual speed, Raghu is 80 minutes late to his office. What is his usual time in hours to cover the same distance? 

(A) 3½  

(B) 5 

(C) 4 

(D) 4½ 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 59 A can do ⅗^th of a work in 12 days, B can do ⅓^rd of that work in 15 days. They worked together for 12 days and then A left the work , B alone will complete the remaining work  in? 

(A) 9 days 

(B) 6 days 

(C) 4 days 

(D) 5 days 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Given A does (3/5)th of work in 12 days 

so A takes 12*5/3 =20 days for complete work 

similarly B takes 15 days for (1/3)rd work and so for complete work it takes 45 days 

LCM of 20 and 45 is 180 units 

Each day ‘A’ does 180/20 =9 units of work 

Each day ‘B’ does 180/45 = 4 units of work 

So each day both can complete 13 units of work 

In 12 days they complete 12*13=156 units of work 

So 180-156-24 units 

B can complete 24 units in 24/4 =6 days 

 

Q. 60 Study the following table, (which shows the number of units of an item manufactured and sold by 5 companies) and answer the question. 

Which Company sold the highest percentage of units as compared to manufactured by it? 

(A) B

(B) A 

(C) E 

(D) C 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Percentage of units sold compared to manufactured by A=(30/42)*100=71.42 

Percentage of units sold compared to manufactured by B=(32/45)*100=71.11 

Percentage of units sold compared to manufactured by C=(26/36)*100=72.22 

Percentage of units sold compared to manufactured by E=(40/54)*100=74.07 

Answer is E 

 

Q. 61 The volume of a right circular cone is 2464 cm³ If the radius of its base is 14 cm, then its curved surface area (in cm² ) is: 

(Take π = 22/7) 

(A) 88√58

(B) 44√58

(C) 44√85

(D) 88√85

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 62 The diagonal of a rectangle field is 15 m and its area is 108 m². What is the cost of fencing the field at ₹50.50 per m? 

(A) ₹2121 

(B) ₹2020 

(C) ₹1919 

(D) ₹2222 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 63 If x is subtracted from each other of 17, 14, 22 and 18 then these numbers are in proportion, in this order. What is the mean proportion between 9x and 5x? 

(A) 3√5 

(B) 6 

(C) 7 

(D) 6√5 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 64 The average of 15 numbers is 56. The average of first 8 numbers is 54.4 and that of last 8 numbers is 56.6. If 8^th number is excluded then what is the average of the remaining numbers? (correct to one decimal place) 

(A) 56.6 

(B) 53.8 

(C) 53.6 

(D) 56.2 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Sum of 15 numbers=15*56=840 

Sum of first 8 numbers=54.4*8=435.2 

Sum of last 8 numbers=56.6*8=452.8 

Sum of both=435.2+452.8=888 

The eight number in the series=888-840 

=48 

Sum of the other 7 numbers=840-48 

=792 

Average of 14 numbers=792/14 

=56.6 

 

Q. 65 The value of: 

3/8  of 4/5 ÷ 6/5 + 3/7 of 7/12 ÷ 1/40 of 2/5 – 11/3 ÷11/30 of 2/3

(A) 10¼ 

(B) 2¼

(C) 2½ 

(D) 3⅓ 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 66 Two trains start at the same time, P from A to B and Q from B to A. If they arrive at B and A, respectively, 2½ hours and 10 hours after they passed each other, and the speed of P is 90 km/hr, then the speed of Q in kin/hr is? 

(A) 80 

(B) 75 

(C) 45 

(D) 60 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 67 What is the average of the mean, median and range of the data: 

34, 41, 6, 13, 27, 20, 48, and 55 ? 

(A) 30 ½ 

(B) 30 ⅓ 

(C) 36 ⅔ 

(D) 36 ⅓ 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 68 Working together A, B and C can complete a piece of work in 24 days. After working together for 4 days. C left the work. A and B completed the remaining work in 30 days. The number of days taken by C alone to complete the same work is: 

(A) 60 

(B) 54 

(C) 72 

(D) 90 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

Let the total work be 48 units 

Number of units of work they together do on each day=48/24 =2 units 

In 4 days they together do 4*2=8 units of work 

So 48-8=40 units is left 

This is done by (A) and (B) in 30 days and so their combined efficiency=40/30 

=4/3 

In each day (C) can do 2-(4/3)=2/3 units 

So 48 units is done in 48*3/2=72 days 

 

Q. 69 A sum of ₹ x is divided among A, B and C such that the ratio of shares of A and B is 3 : 4 and that of B and C is 5: 6. If C receives ₹1440 more than what A receives, then the value of x is? 

(A) 9280 

(B) 9000 

(C) 9440 

(D) 9600 

Answer: (C) 

Explanation: 

A:B=3:4 

A:B=15:20 

B:C=5:6 

B:C=20:24 

A:B:C=15:20:24 

sum =15a+20a+24a=59a 

24a-15a=1440 

9a=1440 

a=160 

Total=59*160 

=9440 

 

Q. 70 Let x be the least number which when divided by 10, 12, 14 and 16 leaves the remainders 2, 4, 6 and 8, respectively, but x is divisible by 17. When x is divided by 52, the quotient is: 

(A) 96 

(B) 92 

(C) 95 

(D) 99 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

The given number leaves the same negative remainder when divided by 2,4,6 and 8 i.e 2-10,4-12,6-14,8-16=-8 So the given number will be in the form of LCM(10,12,14,16)k-8 

=1680k-8 

for k=1,2 the number obtained is not divisible by 17 

for k=3 we have 1680*3-8 

=5040-8 

=5032 

Required number is 5032/52=96.76 

 

Q. 71 Two alloys A and B contain copper and zinc in the ratio 7 : 2 and 5 : 3 respectively. How many kg of A and B must be melted in order to get an alloy of 44 kg containing copper and Zinc in the ratio 3 : 1? 

(A) 24 kg, 20 kg 

(B) 30 kg, 14 kg 

(C) 28 kg, 16 kg 

(D) 36 kg, 8 kg 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Copper in the (A) alloy=7/9 

Copper in the (B) alloy=5/8 

Copper in the resultant mixture=3/4 

let the ratio in which they are mixed is x 

By using the principle of allegation we have 

x=((3/4)-(5/8))/((7/9)-(3/4)) 

x=(1/8)/(1/36) 

x=9:2 

Given 44 kg of mixture and so zinc copper present is (3/4)*44=33 kg 

Therefore (7/9)*9y +(5/8)*2y =33 

7y+(5y/4)=33 

33y/4 =33 

y=4 

9y=36 kgs and 2y=8 kgs 

 

Q. 72 Study the following table, (which shows the number of units of an item manufactured and sold by 5 companies) and answer the question. 

The ratio of the number of units manufactured by companies C and E together and the number of units sold by A and D together is? 

(A) 15 : 11 

(B) 17 : 15 

(C) 24 : 13 

(D) 15 : 13 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

total number of units manufactured by C and E together is 36+54=90 units 

total number of units sold by A and D together is 30+36=66 units 

ratio=90/66 

=15:11 

 

Q. 73 A person bought 80 m cloth at ₹110 per m and sold 75 % of it at a gain of 6 %. At what gain percent did he sell the remaining cloth, if he gained 10% on his outlay? 

(A) 26% 

(B) 22% 

(C) 28% 

(D) 24% 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Given that 1m cost= Rs 110 

Total cost price=110*80 

=8800 

Total profit =10% 

Therefore total SP=1.1 CP 

=1.1 *8800 

=Rs 9680 

75% of cloth=80*(3/4) 

=60m 

It is sold at 6% profit so CP of 60m cloth=60*110=6600 

SP of 60m cloth=1.06*6600 

=Rs 6996 

SP of remaining cloth= 9680-6996 

=Rs 2684 

CP of 20m cloth=20*110=2200 

Profit percent=((2684-2200)/2200)*100 

=484/22 

=22% 

 

Q. 74 Study the following table, (which shows the number of units of an item manufactured and sold by 5 companies) and answer the question. 

What percent of total number of units sold by companies A, B and D is equal to the number of units manufactured by company C? (correct to one decimal place) 

(A) 33.3 

(B) 35.6 

(C) 40.9 

(D) 36.7 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Total units sold by A,(B) and D=30+32+26 

=98 units 

Total units manufactured by C=36 

Therefore 98=100% 

36=(36*100)/98 

=3600/98 

=36.7 

 

Q. 75 [9.5 ÷ (0.6 × 0.75 + 0.8 ÷ 16) + 0.75] ÷ (0.03 ÷ 0.6 of 0.01) 

The value of lies between: 

(A) 2 and 3 

(B) 1 and 2 

(C) 0 and 1 

(D) 3 and 4 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

[9.5 ÷ (0.6 × 0.75 + 0.8 ÷ 16) + 0.75] ÷ (0.03 ÷ 0.6 of 0.01) 

= [9.5 ÷ (0.6 × 0.75 + 0.05) + 0.75] ÷ (5) 

= [9.5 ÷ (0.45 + 0.05) + 0.75] ÷ (5) 

= [19 + 0.75] ÷ (5) 

=(19.75/5) 

=3.95 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

A successful entertainer ………….. the right mood before beginning a joke or story. 

(A) spreads 

(B) engages 

(C) creates 

(D) enjoys 

Answer: (C) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. 

Passage: 

After my job was over, I went to Mumbai and returned after (1)………… six months. I had barely taken (2)…………. my clothes when I saw Ratan standing (3)…………. a new baby. He was(4)…………. with joy. Even my daughter could not have (5)…………. such joy on finding her younger brother after several years. 

 

Q. 77 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) nearly 

(B) rarely 

(C) hardly 

(D) merely 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 78 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) away 

(B) over 

(C) of 

(D) off 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 79 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) with 

(B) by 

(C) near 

(D) along 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 80 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) bursting 

(B) singing 

(C) dancing 

(D) skipping 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) felt 

(B) advised 

(C) thought 

(D) understood 

Answer: (A) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

 

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank. 

The soldiers were instructed to ……….. restraint and handle the situation peacefully. 

(A) exercise 

(B) prevent 

(C) resist 

(D) control 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

The GATT Treaty,it is explained, would allow subsidised to the extent of 10% of the market price. 

(A) would allow supply 

(B) would allow support 

(C) would allow subsidy 

(D) No improvement 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 84 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. 

The speech he made on his visit to our college concerning our society’s needs have bothered me greatly. 

(A) The speech 

(B) have bothered 

(C) on his visit 

(D) concerning our 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 85 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. 

He want to finish the assignment in the last week but in fact he could not. 

(A) he could not 

(B) in the last week 

(C) want to finish 

(D) the assignment 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 86 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Equivalent 

(B) Equivelent 

(C) Equivalant 

(D) Eqivalent 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 87 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Every one of the survivor of the capsized ship has told the samestory. 

(A) the same story 

(B) Every one 

(C) capsized ship 

(D) of the survivor 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 88 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

One who knows everything 

(A) Omniscient 

(B) Omnipotent 

(C) Onmnipatient 

(D) Onmnipresent 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 89 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Throughfare 

(B) Thoroghfare 

(C) Thoroughfare 

(D) Thoroufare 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 90 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

To sound a red alert. 

(A) To wave a red flag 

(B) To press a red button 

(C) To raise an alarm 

(D) To hear an alarm 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 91 Select the synonym of the given word. 

GALLANT 

(A) Wealthy 

(B) Violent 

(C) Courageous 

(D) Wild 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 92 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Dancing around a totem pole was one of the favourite pastimes of the American Indians. 

(A) was one of the favourite pastime 

(B) are the favourite pastimes 

(C) No improvement 

(D) were one of the favourite pastimes 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q.93 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Operation Flood was started with the primary objective for linking rural producers with urban consumers. 

(A) was started with the primary objectives of 

(B) No improvement 

(C) was started with primary objective 

(D) was started with the primary objective of 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 94 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

In the good books 

(A) To be in favour of 

(B) To accompany good people 

(C) To collect good books 

(D) To do favourable things 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 95 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A city which is multicultural 

(A) Metro 

(B) Cosmopolitan 

(C) Urban 

(D) Global 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 96 Select the antonym of the given word. 

HOSTILE 

(A) Friendly 

(B) Optimistic 

(C) Negative 

(D) Serene 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 97 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

Invite everyone in the group to ……….. us for a weekend party. 

(A) join 

(B) join together 

(C) join them 

(D) join each other 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 98 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

If you listened carefully, you ……….. 

(A) would understand 

(B) will understand 

(C) would have understood 

(D) understand 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 99 Select the antonym of the given word. 

DUBIOUS 

(A) Docile 

(B) Certain 

(C) Doubtful 

(D) Faithful 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 100 Select the synonym of the given word. 

IMPAIR 

(A) Improve 

(B) Combine 

(C) Introduce 

(D) Weaken 

Answer: (D) 

 SSC GD 19th Feb 2019 Shift-I 

Reasoning 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 1 How would the pattern given on the square transparent sheet marked ‘X’ look when the sheet is folded along the dotted line? 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

When we fold the sheet along the dotted line, the resulting figure will be the mirror image of the original figure, thus the triangle originally pointing to the left will now point to the right, hence last option is eliminated. 

As there is only a circle inside the triangle, thus in the answer figure there will only be a circle along the horizontal line (which is already present on the left side of X), thus only possible answer is the first one. 

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 2 Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one 

(A) Joy 

(B) Fear 

(C) Anger 

(D) Calm 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

All the words except calm are emotions, hence calm is the odd one out. 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 3 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1. Some flowers are white. 

2. Some white objects are round. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some flowers are round. 

II. Every round object is either white or a flower. 

(A) Only conclusion II follows 

(B) Both conclusions I and II follow 

(C) Only conclusion I follows 

(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

The venn diagram for above statements is : 

Conclusions: 

I. Some flowers are round = false 

II. Every round object is either white or a flower = false 

Thus, neither conclusion I nor II follows. 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 4 If in a code language, HEAD = 4158 and PASTE = 52019116, then TRICK = ? 

(A) 11391820 

(B) 31191820 

(C) 11391718 

(D) 11932018 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 5 DAWN is related to DUSK in the same way as INAUGURATION is related to: 

(A) MEETING 

(B) VALEDICTION 

(C) CONCLUSION 

(D) INVITATION 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Dawn is opposite of Dusk, similarly antonym of Inauguration is Valediction. 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 6 Six houses A, B, C, D, E and F are located in two rows facing each other with three houses in each row. F is opposite C, which is to the left of E. D is to the right of A. Which house is facing B? 

(A) (D) 

(B) (A) 

(C) (C) 

(D) E 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

House C is to the left of E and F is opposite of C. 

This means that FDA are in same row and BCE are in another row. 

D is to the right of A, i.e. F is at one of the ends. Thus pattern is : 

=> House (A) is facing B. 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 7 Select the correct mirror image of the following figure when the mirror is placed to its right. 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

When a vertical mirror is placed, object on the left will appear on the right inversed, and vice-versa. So, the trapezium on the right will appear on the left, but the longer un parallel side will remain on the top, thus first option is eliminated. 

Similarly, the square at top left will still have vertical lines inside it, but will now appear at top right, as shown in the last image. => 

Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 8 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

2, 3, 4, 8, 16, 25, 52, ……. 

(A) 114 

(B) 85 

(C) 68 

(D) 79 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 9 Choose the figure from the options that would follow next in the given series. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 10 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

BDFH : AFCL :: FHJL : ? 

(A) EIGP 

(B) EJFO 

(C) HFGN 

(D) EJGP 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 11 Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly represents the relationships among the classes: 

Educated, Mothers, Employed 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 12 Four numbers have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one. 

(A) 84 

(B) 91 

(C) 42 

(D) 55 

Answer: (D) 

Explanation: 

Apart from 55, all other numbers are multiples of 7, hence it is the odd one. 

=> Ans – (D) 

 

Q. 13 If in a code language SYMPHONY is coded as ZOPIQNZT, then THURSDAY would be coded as: 

(A) UIVSTEBZ 

(B) ZBETSIVU 

(C) XZCRQTGS 

(D) ZBETSVIU 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 14 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

2, 5, 7, 12, ?, 31, 50 

(A) 18 

(B) 19 

(C) 25 

(D) 21 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

The above series is an example of fibonacci series, where the next term is the sum of previous 2 terms. 

2 + 5 = 7 

5 + 7 = 12 

7 + 12 = 19 

12 + 19 = 31 

19 + 31 = 50 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 15 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements. 

Statements: 

1. Some mangoes are fruits. 

2. All fruits are sweet. 

Conclusions: 

I. Some sweet objects are mangoes. 

II. All sweet objects are fruits. 

III. Some mangoes are neither fruits nor sweet. 

(A) Only conclusions I and III follow 

(B) Only conclusions II and III follow 

(C) Only conclusions I and II follow 

(D) Only conclusion I follows 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 16 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term. 

Torture : Cruelty :: Forgiveness : ? 

(A) Politeness 

(B) Generosity 

(C) Gratitude 

(D) Excuse 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

Expression = Torture : Cruelty :: Forgiveness : ? 

Torture and cruelty have similar meanings, hence synonym of forgiveness is gratitude.

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 17 Choose the figure from the options in which the figure marked ‘X’ is embedded. 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 18 Pick the odd pair out. 

(A) 14-41 

(B) 17-52 

(C) 23-32 

(D) 12-21 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

In all the pairs except 17-52, the digits of the first number are reversed to form the second number, hence it is the odd one. 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 19 V, X, Y and Z are playing cards. X is to the left of Y and V is to the right of Z. If X is facing West, which direction is V facing? 

(A) North 

(B) South 

(C) West 

(D) East 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 20 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation correct? 

12 + 16 ÷ 8 × 4 − 8 = 24 

(A) − and ÷ 

(B) × and − 

(C) ÷ and × 

(D) + and × 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 21 Which one of the following four-letter clusters does NOT belong to the group? 

(A) CXWD 

(B) FUSG 

(C) DWTG 

(D) BYWD

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

The pattern followed is that there are 2 pairs of symmetrically opposite alphabets in each term. Eg :- A and Z, B and Y, C and X, D and W and so on. 

But in the second option, (FU) and (SG) does not belong to that series, hence it is the odd one.

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 22 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series. 

cab, gef, ljk, rpq, ………. 

(A) ywx 

(B) yxw 

(C) zxy 

(D) wvu 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Expression : cab, gef, ljk, rpq, ………. 

The pattern followed in each letter of the terms is : 

1st letter : c (+4 letters) = g (+5 letters) = l (+6 letters) = r (+7 letters) = y 

2nd letter : a (+4 letters) = e (+5 letters) = j (+6 letters) = p (+7 letters) = w 

3rd letter : b (+4 letters) = f (+5 letters) = k (+6 letters) = q (+7 letters) = x 

Thus, missing term = ywx 

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 23 Select the figure which when placed in the blank space of the figure marked ‘X’ would complete the pattern. 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 24 Among six objects P, Q, R, S, T and U, Q is heavier than R but lighter than T. S is lighter than T but heavier than U.P is lighter than Q but heavier than S. Which is the second heaviest object? 

(A) Q 

(B) T 

(C) P 

(D) S 

Answer: (A) 

Explanation: 

Q is heavier than R but lighter than T, = T > Q > R 

S is lighter than T but heavier than U, = T > S > U 

P is lighter than Q but heavier than S, = Q > P > S 

Thus, final arrangement : T > Q > R, P > S > U 

∴ Q is the second heaviest. 

=> Ans – (A) 

 

Q. 25 The numbers in the following set are related in a certain way. Choose the set that is similar to the following set: 

{6, 10, 8} 

(A) {8, 12, 9} 

(B) {5, 13, 12} 

(C) {13, 17, 16} 

(D) {3, 6, 4} 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

The numbers in the set {6, 10, 8} are sides of right angled triangle, the middle number being the hypotenuse.

(6)² + (8)² = (10)² 

(5)² + (12)² = (13)² 

Similarly, only in the set {5, 13, 12}, => , the numbers represent sides of right angled triangle.

=> Ans – (B) 

General knowledge 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 26 The famous playback singer ……….. is a recipient of the Bharat Ratna Award. 

(A) Shubha Mudgal 

(B) Asha Bhonsale 

(C) Shreya Ghoshal 

(D) Lata Mangeshkar 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 27 Which day is celebrated as the World Environment Day? 

(A) 5^th June 

(B) 1^st December 

(C) 5^th August 

(D) 1^st May 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 28 Who is an ‘indentured labourer’? 

(A) A slave from Africa 

(B) A labour bought in a market 

(C) An unpaid labourer 

(D) A bonded labourer, working to pay off his passage to a new country 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 29 ………….. is known as the Eastern Mountain Range. 

(A) Patkai Range 

(B) Aravalli 

(C) Karakoram 

(D) Shivalik 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 30 What do banks utilize a major portion of the deposits for? 

(A) Loans 

(B) Guarantee 

(C) Interest 

(D) Collaterals 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 31 In the context of Indian National Movement, who was known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’? 

(A) Maghfoor Ahmad Ajazi 

(B) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan 

(C) Udham Singh 

(D) Ashfaquila Khan 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 32 What is diluted acetic acid commonly known as? 

(A) Oleum 

(B) Blue vitriol 

(C) Vinegar 

(D) Alum 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 33 The slogan “Workers of the world unite” was associated to: 

(A) French revolution 

(B) American revolution 

(C) Russian revolution 

(D) Japanese revolution 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 34 The ICC Emerging Player of the Year 2018 was awarded to ………… 

(A) Hardik Pandya 

(B) K.L. Rahul 

(C) Rishabh Pant 

(D) Shikhar Dhawan 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 35 The first amendment to the Indian Constitution was made in ………… 

(A) 1947 

(B) 1948 

(C) 1951 

(D) 1950 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 36 Which type of micro-organism causes typhoid? 

(A) Virus 

(B) Bacteria 

(C) Fungi 

(D) Protozoa 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 37 The Constitution of India contains ……….. schedules. 

(A) 11 

(B) 12 

(C) 14 

(D) 13 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 38 When a force resists the relative motion between two surfaces, it is called ……….. 

(A) Resistance 

(B) Convection 

(C) Friction 

(D) Induction 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 39 What is the movement of a plant due to the stimulus of light known as? 

(A) Respiration 

(B) Geotaxis 

(C) Geotropism 

(D) Phototropism 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 40 Malgudi Days was written by ……….. 

(A) Shashi Tharoor 

(B) Vikram Seth 

(C) Amish Tripathi 

(D) R.K. Narayan 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 41 Who won the National Squash 2018 Women’s Singles title? 

(A) Dipika Pallikal 

(B) Bhuvaneshkumari 

(C) Urwashi Joshi 

(D) Joshna Chinappa 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 42 River Yamuna does NOT pass through which of the following states? 

(A) Uttarakhand 

(B) Haryana 

(C) Gujarat 

(D) Uttar Pradesh 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 43 What is an annual statement of receipts and expenditure of the government over a fiscal year is known as? 

(A) Capital 

(B) Revenue 

(C) Tax 

(D) Budget 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 44 Which of the following pair correctly represents a state and the corresponding art form associated with it? 

(A) Assam — Kathakali 

(B) Tamil Nadu — Odissi 

(C) Uttar Pradesh — Kathak 

(D) Punjab — Mohiniyattam 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 45 Which one of the following is a labour intensive industry? 

(A) Pulses 

(B) Tea 

(C) Maize 

(D) Wheat 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 46 Under which of the following situations, the Fundamental Right to Freedom is curtailed in India? 

(A) Financial Emergency 

(B) Epidemic Emergency 

(C) State Emergency 

(D) National Emergency 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 47 Nalanda was an ancient center of learning for which religion? 

(A) Islam 

(B) Christianity 

(C) Jainism 

(D) Buddhism 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 48 Which of the following statement is NOT correct in the context of rising importance of tertiary sector in India? 

(A) Growth of information and technology 

(B) Growth in per capita income 

(C) Growth of service providing industries 

(D) Growth of political awareness in rural areas 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 49 Ustad Amjad Ali Khan is famous for playing the ………… 

(A) tabla 

(B) violin 

(C) veena 

(D) sarod 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 50 RK Laxman is famous for ……….. 

(A) wall painting 

(B) classical music 

(C) films 

(D) cartoons 

Answer: (D) 

Quant 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 51 When a person goes to his office from his house with a speed of 10 km/hr, he is late by 20 minutes. When he goes with speed of 15 km/hr, he is late by 5 minutes. What is the distance (in km) between his office and house? 

(A) 8 

(B) 7.5 

(C) 7 

(D) 8.5 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 52 The value of: 

(A) 1/4

(B) 8

(C) 4 

(D) 1/16 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 53 What is the sum of digits of the least number which when divided by 21, 28, 30 and 35 leaves the same remainder 10 in each case but is divisible by 17? 

(A) 11 

(B) 13 

(C) 14 

(D) 10 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

L.C.M. (21,28,30,35) = 420 

Least number that will leave remainder 10 will be of the form = n = 1 

Now, if , number = 430, which is not divisible by 17 n = 2 

But, when , number = 850, which is divisible by 17 

420n + 10 

Thus, sum of digits of number 850 = => Ans – (B) 

8 + 5 + 0 = 13 

 

Q. 54 A park is in the shape of a rectangle. Its length and breadth 240 m and 100 m, respectively. At the center of the park, there is a circular lawn. The area of the park, excluding the lawn is 3904 m². What is the perimeter (in m) of the lawn? (use π = 3.14) 

(A) 502.4 

(B) 516.2 

(C) 508.6 

(D) 512.8 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 55 The value of: 1.25 − [1 ÷ {3 + (2 − 0.4 × 2.5)}] 

(A) 2 

(B) 1 

(C) 0 

(D) ½ 

Answer: (B) 

Explanation: 

1.25 − [1 ÷ {3 + (2 − 0.4 × 2.5)}] 

Expression = 

1.25 − [1 ÷ {3 + (2 − 1)}] 

= 1.25 − [1 ÷ (4)] 

= 1.25 − 0.25 = 1 

=> Ans – (B) 

 

Q. 56 The profit on selling 35 mangoes is equal to the cost price of 7 mangoes. What is the profit percentage? 

(A) 33⅓ 

(B) 20 

(C) 25 

(D) 16⅔ 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 57 A train takes 3 hours less time for a journey of 360 km, if its speed is increased by 10 km/hr from its usual speed. What is its increased speed (in km/ hr)? 

(A) 40 

(B) 42 

(C) 36 

(D) 30 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 58 After allowing a discount of 12½% on the marked price of an article. it was sold for ₹700. Had the discount NOT been given, the profit would have been 60%.The cost price of the article is: 

(A) ₹500 

(B) ₹540 

(C) ₹600 

(D) ₹480 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 59 If (x + 4), (x + 12), (x – 1), and (x + 5) are in proportion then the mean proportional between x and (x – 7)is: 

(A) 9 

(B) 16 

(C) 15 

(D) 12 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 60 Three positive number are given. If the average of any two of them is added to the third number, the sums obtained are 172, 216 and 180. What is the average of the given three numbers? 

(A) 93 

(B) 95 ⅓ 

(C) 94 ⅔ 

(D) 96

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 61 The selling price of an article is 84% of its cost price. If the cost price is increased by 20% and the selling price is increased by 25%, what is the percentage increase/decrease in the loss with respect to the earlier loss? 

(A) 6¼ %, decrease 

(B) 6⅔ %, decrease 

(C) 6¼%, increase 

(D) 6⅔ %, increase 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 62 2 men and 7 women can do a piece of work in 14 days whereas 3 men and 8 women can do it in 11 days. In how many days 5 men and 4 women can do the same work? 

(A) 11 

(B) 12 

(C) 14 

(D) 10 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 63 A metallic sphere of radius 4 cm is melted and the cast into small spherical balls, each of diameter 0.4 cm. The number of small balls will be: 

(A) 1000 

(B) 8000 

(C) 4000 

(D) 2000 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 64 A sum of ₹14460 is divided among A, B, C and D such that the ratio of share of A and B is 3 : 5, that of B and C is 6 : 7 and that of C and D is 14 : 15. What is the difference between the shares of A and C? 

(A) ₹1440 

(B) ₹1500 

(C) ₹2100 

(D) ₹2040 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 65 A pipe can fill a tank in 10 minutes while another pipe can empty it in 12 minutes. If the pipes are opened alternately each for 1 minute, beginning with the first pipe, the tank will be full after (in minutes): 

(A) 90 

(B) 109 

(C) 108 

(D) 120 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 66 Renu saves 30% of her income. If her savings increases by 30% and the expenditure increases by 25%, then the percentage increase in her income is: 

(A) 30 

(B) 25.8 

(C) 26.5 

(D) 15 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 67 Study the following table and answer questions: 

Number of employees working in five different companies. 

The ratio of the number of male employees in company C to the number of female employees in the company D is: 

(A) 3 : 2 

(B) 5 : 2 

(C) 4 : 3 

(D) 8 : 9 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 68 The compound interest on a sum of ₹15625 for years at 16% per annum, the interest compound annually is : 

(A) ₹6661 

(B) ₹5400 

(C) ₹7932 

(D) ₹7923 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 69 A and B are two cones. The curved surface area of A is twice that of B. The slant height of B is twice that of A. What is the ratio of radii of A to B? 

(A) 3:2 

(B) 1:4 

(C) 4:1 

(D) 2:1 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 70 Study the following table and answer questions: 

Number of employees working in five different companies. 

The number of female employees in company C is what percent more than the number of male employees in company E? 

(A) 55 

(B) 60 

(C) 48 

(D) 54 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 71 Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5. If 9 is subtracted from each, the numbers so obtained are in the ratio 12 : 23. If 3 is added to the smaller number and 7 is subtracted from the other number, then they will be in the ratio: 

(A) 5 : 6 

(B) 4 : 5 

(C) 3 : 4 

(D) 5 : 8 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 72 Study the following table and answer questions: 

Number of employees working in five different companies. 

What percent of total male employees in companies A and B is the number of female employees in E? 

(A) 35 

(B) 36 

(C) 30 

(D) 32 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 73 What is the mean of the range, median and mode of the data given below ? 

1, 2, 5, 9, 6, 3, 9, 7, 4, 3, 9, 1, 9, 6, 8, 1 

(A) 7½ 

(B) 8 

(C) 8½ 

(D) 7

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 74 The simple interest on a certain sum at 14% per annum for 3¼ years is ₹3731. What will the amount of the same sum for 5½ years at half the earlier rate?  

(A) ₹11931 

(B) ₹11913 

(C) ₹11537 

(D) ₹11357 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 75 The average height of a certain number of persons in a group is 155.5 cm. Later on 4 persons of height 154.6 cm, 158.4 cm, 152.2 cm and 153.8 cm leave the group. As a result the average height of the remaining persons increases by 0.15 cm. What was the number of persons initially in the group? 

(A) 18 

(B) 20 

(C) 22 

(D) 24 

Answer: (D) 

English 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 76 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Had you told me that you were in Mumbai I could have certainly contacted you instead of waiting here. 

(A) you were 

(B) Had you 

(C) could have 

(D) instead of 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 77 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Contemparary 

(B) Contemporary 

(C) Comtemporary 

(D) Contempory 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 78 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

One who loves mankind 

(A) Humanist 

(B) Philologist 

(C) Philanthropist 

(D) Philosopher 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 79 Select the synonym of the given word. 

ABILITY 

(A) Disposition 

(B) Outlook 

(C) Instinct 

(D) Capacity 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 80 Select the antonym of the given word. 

VIRTUOUS 

(A) Worthy 

(B) Honest 

(C) Kind 

(D) Vicious 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. 

Passage: 

Fundamentally, all human beings possess a combination of fixed inherited traits. All individuals possess the ………….(1) highly developed nervous system, backbones, erect posture, hair,etc. Therefore, ………..(2) among human beings arise only in …………..(3) changes of this basic pattern. Racial differences …………..(4) one of the finest distinctions and are based only on ……….(5) slight differences. 

 

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1. 

(A) natural 

(B) large 

(C) same 

(D) different 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2. 

(A) similarities 

(B) naturalness 

(C) sameness 

(D) variations 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3. 

(A) minor 

(B) complete 

(C) large 

(D) fundamental 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4. 

(A) show 

(B) represent 

(C) give 

(D) present 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5. 

(A) hidden 

(B) possible 

(C) clear 

(D) certain 

Answer: (D) 

Instructions 

For the following questions answer them individually 

Q. 86 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option. 

Devika is the most ……….. of them all and has managed to do well in her profession. 

(A) intelligent 

(B) simple 

(C) insolent 

(D) audacious 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 87 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

Have several irons in the fire 

(A) Doing iron related work 

(B) Having too many engagements at a time 

(C) Burning unwanted pieces of iron 

(D) Talking to many persons simultaneously 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 88 Select the synonym of the given word. 

CHARACTER 

(A) Performance 

(B) Spirit 

(C) Mannerism 

(D) Trait 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 89 Select the antonym of the given word. 

TRANSPARENT 

(A) White-coloured 

(B) Translucent 

(C) Milky 

(D) Opaque 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

The rules of chess require that one has to makes only one move at time. 

(A) made 

(B) has to make 

(C) will make 

(D) No improvement 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 91 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given. 

A person who is more than hundred years old 

(A) Centurial 

(B) Centuriator 

(C) Centurion 

(D) Centenarian 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 92 Select the correctly spelt word. 

(A) Incorigible 

(B) Incorrigible 

(C) Incourrigible 

(D) Incorrigibel 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 93 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

He has been ………. my birthday all week! 

(A) celebrate 

(B) celebrating 

(C) celebrated 

(D) celebrates 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 94 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option. 

Suresh is ………… in collecting stamps. 

(A) habitual 

(B) interested 

(C) customary 

(D) habituated 

Answer: (B) 

 

Q. 95 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

He decided to leave very quickly the hotel. 

(A) leave the hotel quickly. 

(B) leave quickly the hotel. 

(C) quickly leave hotel. 

(D) No improvement 

Answer: (A) 

 

Q. 96 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. If the report did not have the information need edit could not be used by them. 

(A) be used by them 

(B) it could not 

(C) If the 

(D) information needed 

Answer: (C) 

 

Q. 97 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. The errors for the typed reports were so numerous that they could hardly be overlooked. 

(A) typed reports 

(B) could hardly be 

(C) so numerous 

(D) errors for 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 98 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank. 

………….. in Nagpur, we are unwilling to move to another city. 

(A) Since we have lived 

(B) Since we were living 

(C) Being that we are living 

(D) Since we have been living 

Answer: (D) 

 

Q. 99 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom. 

In high spirits 

(A) Become successful 

(B) Feel joyful 

(C) Create confusion 

(D) Remain calm 

Answer: (B) 

Q. 100 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement. 

Though a hero, he acted a coward. 

(A) like a coward 

(B) cowardly 

(C) No improvement 

(D) as coward 

Answer: (A)