Category: Coachings

NEET 2015

Q. 1 If force (F ), velocity (V) and time (T) are chosen as fundamental quantities, the dimensional formula of surface tension will be

A. [E V^(−2) T^(−1)]

B. [E V^(−1) T^(−2)]

C. [E V^(−2) T^(−2)]

D. [E^(-2) V^(−1) T^(−3)]

Q. 2 A Ship A is moving westwards with a speed of 10 km h⁻¹ and a ship B 100 km south of A is moving northwards with a speed of 10 km h⁻¹. The time after which the distance between them becomes shortest is

A. 0 h

B. 5 h

C. 5√2 h

D. 10√2 h

Q. 3 A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional motion such that its velocity varies according to υ(x)=βx-2n where β and n are constants and x is the position of the particle. The acceleration of the particle as a function of x is given by

A. -2 n β^2 x^(-2n-1)

B. -2 n β^2 x^(-4n-1)

C. -2 n β^2 x^(-2n+1)

D. -2 n β^2 x^(-4n+1)

Q. 4 Three blocks A, B and C, of masses 4 kg, 2 kg and 1 kg, respectively, are in contact on a frictionless surface, as shown. If a force of 14 N is applied on the 4 kg block, then the contact force between A and B is

A. 2 N

B. 6 N

C. 8 N

D. 18 N

Q. 5 A block A of mass m1 rests on a horizontal table. A light string connected to it passes over a frictionless pulley at the edge of table and from its other end another block B of mass m2 is suspended. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the table is μk. When the block is sliding on the table, the tension in the string is

A. (m2 +μk m1 )g / (m1 + m2)

B. (m2 -μk m1 )g / (m1 + m2)

C. (m2 . m2(μk + 1))g / (m1 + m2)

D. (m2 . m2(1 – μk))g / (m1 + m2)

Q. 6 Two similar springs P and Q have spring constants KP and KQ. They are stretched, first by the same amount (case a), then y the same force (case b). The work done by the springs WP and WQ are related as in case (a) and case (b), respectively:

A. WP = WQ; WP > WQ

B. WP = WQ; WP = WQ

C. WP > WQ; WQ > WP

D. WP < WQ; WQ < WP

Q. 7 A block of mass 10 kg, moving in the x-direction with a constant speed of 10 ms⁻¹ subjected to a retarding force F = 0.1x J/m during its travel from x = 20 m to 30 m. final KE will be

A. 475 J

B. 450 J

C. 275 J

D. 250 J

Q. 8 A particle of mass m is driven by a machine that delivers a constant power k watts. If the particle starts from rest the force on the particle at time t is

A. (√mk / 2) t⁻¹/²

B. (√mk ) t⁻¹/²

C. (√2mk ) t⁻¹/²

D. 1 / (√mk ) t⁻¹/²

Q. 9 Two particles of masses m1, m2 move with initial velocities u1 and u2. On collision, one of the particles get excited to higher level, after absorbing energyε . If final velocities of particles be v1 and v2 then we must have

A. m1^(2) u1 +m2^(2) u2 -ε = m1^(2) v1 +m2^(2) v2

B. 1/2 (m1^(2) u1 +m2^(2) u2 ) = 1/2 (m1^(2) v1 +m2^(2) v2) – ε

C. 1/2 (m1 u1^(2) +m2 u2^(2) ) – ε = 1/2 (m1^ v1^(2) +m2 v2^(2))

D. 1/2 (m1^(2) u1 +m2^(2) u2 ) – ε = 1/2 (m1^(2) v1 +m2^(2) v2)

Q. 10 The rod of weight W is supported by two parallel knife edges A and B and is in equilibrium in a horizontal position. The knives are at a distance d from each other. The centre of mass of the rod is at distance x from A. The normal reaction on A is

A. Wx / d

B. Wd / x

C. W(d – x) / x

D. W(d – x) / d

Q. 11 A mass m moves in a circle on a smooth horizontal plane with velocity v0 at a radius R0. The mass is attached to a string which passes through a smooth hole in the plane as shown. The tension in the string is increased gradually and finally m moves in a circle of radius R0. The final value of the kinetic energy is

A. m v^2 R0

B. 1/4 m v^2 R0

C. 2 m v^2 R0

D. 1/2 m v^2 R0

Q. 12 Three identical spherical shells, each of mass m and radius r placed as shown in figure. Consider an axis XX’ which is touching to two shells and passing through diameter of third shell. Moment of inertia of the system consisting of these three spherical shells about XX’ axis is

A. 11/5 m r^2

B. 3 m r^2

C. 16/5 m r^2

D. 4 m r^2

Q. 13 Kepler’s third law states that square of period of revolution (T) of a planet around the Sun is proportional to third power of average distance r between Sun and planet i.e. T^2 = K r^3 here K is constant. If the masses of Sun and planet are M and m, respectively, then as per Newton’s law of gravitation, force of attraction between them is F = GMm/ r^2, here G is the gravitational constant. The relation between G and K is described as

A. GK = 4 π^2

B. GMK = 4 π^2

C. K = G

D. K = 1/G

Q. 14 Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5 M and radii R and 2 R are released in free space with initial separation between their centres equal to 12 R. If they attract each other due to gravitational force only, then the distance covered by the smaller body before collision is

A. 2.5 R

B. 4.5 R

C. 7.5 R

D. 1.5 R

Q. 15 On observing light from three different starts P, Q and R, it was found that intensity of violet colour is maximum in the spectrum of P, the intensity of green colour is maximum in the spectrum of R and the intensity of red colour is maximum in the spectrum of Q. If TP, TQ and TR are the respective absolute temperatures of P, Q and R, then it can be concluded from the above observation that

A. TP > TQ > TR

B. TP > TR > TQ

C. TP < TR < TQ

D. TP < TQ < TR

Q. 16 16. The approximate depth of an ocean is 2700 m. the compressibility of water is 45.4 x 10^(−11) Pa^(−1) and density of water is 10^3 kg/m^3. What fractional compression of water will be obtained at the bottom of the ocean?

A. 0.8 x 10^(-2)

B. 1.0 x 10^(-2)

C. 1.2 x 10^(-2)

D. 1.4 x 10^(-2)

Q. 17 The two ends of a metal rod maintained at temperatures 100 ⁰C and 110 ⁰C. The rate of heat flow in the rod is found to be 4.0 J/s. If the ends are maintained at temperatures 200 ⁰C and 210 ⁰C, the rate of heat flow will be

A. 44.0 J/s

B. 16.8 J/s

C. 8.0 J/s

D. 4.0 J/s

Q. 18 A wind with speed 40 m/s blows parallel to the roof of a house. The area of the roof is 250 m2. Assuming that the pressure inside the house is atmospheric pressure, the force exerted by the wind on the roof and the direction of the force will be (P air = 1.2 kg/m3)

A. 4.8 x 10^5 N, downwards

B. 4.8 x 10^5 N, upwards

C. 2.4 x 10^5 N, upwards

D. 2.4 x 10^5 N, downwards

Q. 19 Figure below shows two paths that may be taken by a gas to go from a state A to a state C. In process AB, 400 J of heat is added to the system and in process BC, 100 J of heat is added to the system. The heat absorbed by the system in the process AC will be

A. 380 J

B. 500 J

C. 460 J

D. 300 J

Q. 20 A Carnot engine having an efficiency of η=1/10 as heat engine is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature is

A. 100 J

B. 99 J

C. 90 J

D. 1 J

Q. 21 One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a transition from A to B along a path AB as shown in the figure,The change in internal energy of the gas during the transition is

A. 20 kJ

B. – 20 kJ

C. 20 J

D. -12 kJ

Q. 22 The ratio of the specific heats Cp / Cy =γ in terms of degrees of freedom (n) is given by

A. 1 = 1/3

B. 1 + n/3

C. 1 + 2/n

D. 1+ n/2

Q. 23 When two displacements represented by y1 = a sin (ωt) and y2 = b cos (ωt) are

superimposed the motion is

A. Not a simple harmonic

B. Simple harmonic with amplitude a/b

C. Simple harmonic with amplitude √( a^2 + b^2 )

D. Simple harmonic with amplitude (a + b)/2

Q. 24 A particle is executing SHM along a straight line. Its velocities at distances x1 and x2 from the mean position are V1 and V2, respectively. Its time period is

A. 2π √( (x1^2 + x2^2)/(v1^2 + v2^2) )

B. 2π √( (x2^2 – x1^2)/(v1^2 – v2^2) )

C. 2π √( (v1^2 + v2^2)/(x1^2 + x2^2) )

D. 2π √( (v1^2 – v2^2)/(x1^2 – x2^2) )

Q. 25 The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe of length 20 cm is equal to the second overtone of an organ pipe open at both the ends. The length of organ pipe open at both ends is

A. 80 cm

B. 100 cm

C. 120 cm

D. 140 cm

Q. 26 A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a cell of emf V and then disconnected from it. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K which can just fill the air gap of the capacitor is now inserted in it. Which of the following is incorrect?

A. The potential difference between the plates decrease K times

B. The energy stored in the capacitor decreases K times

C. The change in energy stored is 1/2 ( C V^2)( 1/K – 1)

D. The charge on the capacitor is not conserved

Q. 27 The electric field in a certain region is acting radially outward and is given by E = Ar. A charge contained in a sphere of radius ‘a’ centred at the origin of the field, will be given by

A. 4π ε0 Aa^2

B. ε0 Aa^2

C. 4π ε0 Aa^3

D. ε0 Aa^3

Q. 28 A potentiometer wire has length 4 m and resistance 8 W. The resistance that must be connected in series with the wire and an accumulator of emf 2 V, so as to get a potential gradient 1 mV per cm on the wire is

A. 32 Ω

B. 40 Ω

C. 44 Ω

D. 48 Ω

Q. 29 A, B and C are voltmeters of resistance R, 1.5R and 3R, respectively, as shown in the figure. When some potential difference is applied between X and Y, the voltmeter readings are VA, VB and VC, respectively, then

A. VA = VB = VC

B. VA ≠ VB = VC

C. VA = VB ≠ VC

D. VA ≠ VB ≠ VC

Q. 30 Across a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross section a constant potential difference is applied. The quantity which remains constant along the conductor is

A. current density

B. current

C. drift velocity

D. electric field

Q. 31 A wire carrying current I has the shape as shown in adjoining figure. Linear parts of the wire are very long and parallel to X-axis, while semicircular portion of radius R is lying in Y–Z plane. Magnetic field at point O is

A. B = (μ0 I / 4πR) ( πi + 2k )

B. B = – (μ0 I / 4πR) ( πi – 2k )

C. B = -(μ0 I / 4πR) ( πi + 2k )

D. B = (μ0 I / 4πR) ( πi – 2k )

Q. 32 An electron moving in a circular orbit of radius r makes n rotations per second. The magnetic field produced at the centre has magnitude:

A. μ0 n e / 2πr

B. zero

C. μ0 n 2 e

D. μ0 r n e / 2r

Q. 33 A conducting square frame of side ‘a’ and a long straight wire carrying current I are located in the same plane as shown in the figure. The frame moves to the right with a constant velocity ‘V’. The emf induced in the frame will be proportional to

A. 1 / x^2

B. 1 / (2x – a)^2

C. 1 / (2x + a)^2

D. 1 / (2x + a)(2x – a)

Q. 34 A resistance ‘R” draws power ‘P’ when connected to an AC source. if an inductance is now placed in series with the resistance, such that the impedance of the circuit becomes ‘Z’, the power drawn will be

A. P ( R/Z )^2

B. P√(R/Z)

C. P ( R/Z )

D. P

Q. 35 A resistance ‘R’ draws power ‘P’ when connected to an AC source. If an inductance is now placed in series with the resistance, such that the impedance of the circuit becomes ‘Z’, the power drawn will be

A. P ( R/Z)^2

B. P √(R/Z)

C. P ( R/Z)

D. E / C^2

Q. 36 Two identical thin plano–convex glass lenses (refractive index 1.5) each having radius of curvature of 20 cm are placed with their convex surfaces in contact at the centre. The intervening space is filled with oil of refractive index 1.7. The focal length of the combination is

A. -20 cm

B. -25 cm

C. -50 cm

D. 50 cm

Q. 37 For a parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength ‘λ’, diffraction is produced by a single slit whose width ‘a’ is of the order of the wavelength of the light. If ‘D’ is the distance of the screen from the slit, the width of the central maxima will be

A. 2Dλ/a

B. Dλ/a

C. Da/λ

D. 2Da/λ

Q. 38 In a double slit experiment, the two slits are 1 mm apart and the screen is placed 1 m away. A monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is used. What will be the width of each slit for obtaining ten maxima of double slit within the central maxima of single slit pattern?

A. 0.2 mm

B. 0.1 mm

C. 0.5 mm

D. 0.02 mm

Q. 39 The refracting angle of a prism is A, and refractive index of the material of the prism is cot (A/2). The angle of minimum deviation is

A. 180° – 3A

B. 180° – 2A

C. 90° – A

D. 180°+ 2A

Q. 40 A certain metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength λ. The stopping potential for photoelectric current for this light is 3V0. If the same surface is illuminated with light of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V0. The threshold wavelength for this surface for photoelectric effect is

A. 6λ

B. 4λ

C. 4^λ

D. 6^λ

Q. 41 Which of the following figures represent the variation of particle momentum and the associated de-Broglie wavelength?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 42 Consider 3rd orbit of He+ (Helium), using non-relativistic approach, the speed of electron in this orbit will be [given K = 9 x 10^9 constant, Z = 2 and h(Planck’s constant) = 6.6 x 10^−34 Js]

A. 2.92 x 10^6 m/s

B. 1.46 x 10^6 m/s

C. 0.73 x 10^6 m/s

D. 3.0 x 10^6 m/s

Q. 43 If radius of the 27/13 Al nucleus is taken to be R(Al) then the radius of 125/53 Te nucleus is nearly:

A. (53/13)^(1/3) R

B. 5/3 R

C. 3/5 R

D. 13/53 R

Q. 44 If in a p–n junction, a square input signal of 10 V is applied, as shown

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 45 Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates?

A. OR

B. NAND

C. AND

D. NOR

Q. 46 Which of the following species contains equal number of σ and π -bonds?

A. HCO₃⁻

B. XeO₄

C. CN₂

D. CH₂ CN₂

Q. 47 The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ contain the same number of electrons. In which order do their radii increase?

A. Ar < K+ < Ca2+

B. Ca2+ < Ar <K+

C. Ca2+ < K+ < Ar

D. K+ < Ar < Ca2+

Q. 48 The function of ‘’Sodium pump’’ is a biological process operating in each and every cell of all animals. Which of the following biologically important ions is also a constituent of this pump?

A. Ca2+

B. Mg2+

C. K+

D. Fe2+

Q. 49 ‘’Metals are usually not found as nitrates in their ores’’. Out of the following two (a and b) reasons which is/are true for the above observation?(a)Metal nitrates are highly unstable (b) Metal nitrates are highly soluble in water

A. a and b are true

B. a and b are false

C. a is false but b is true

D. a is true but b is false

Q. 50 Solubility of the alkaline earth metal sulphates in water decreases in the sequence :

A. Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba

B. Ca > Sr > Ba > Mg

C. Sr > Ca > Mg > Ba

D. Ba > Mg > Sr > Ca

Q. 51 Because of lanthanoid contraction, which of the following pairs of elements have nearly same atomic radii? (Numbers in the parenthesis are atomic numbers).

A. Ti (22) and Zr (40)

B. Zr (40) and Nb (41)

C. Zr (40) and Hf (72)

D. Zr (40) and Ta (73)

Q. 52 Which of the following processes does not involve oxidation of iron?

A. Rusting of iron sheets

B. Decolourisation of blue CuSO₄ solution by iron

C. Formation of FeCO₅ from Fe

D. Liberation of H² from steam by iron at high temperature

Q. 53 Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural?

A. CO₃²⁻ , SO₃²⁻

B. ClO₃²⁻ , CO₃²⁻

C. SO₃²⁻ , NO₃⁻

D. ClO₃⁻ , SO₃²⁻

Q. 54 Which of the following options represents the correct bond order?

A. O₂⁻ >O₂ >O₂⁺

B. O₂⁻ <O₂ <O₂⁺

C. O₂⁻ >O₂ <O₂⁺

D. O₂- <O₂ >O₂⁺

Q. 55 Nitrogen dioxide and sulphur dioxide have some properties in common. Which property is shown by one of these compounds, but not by the other?

A. forms ‘acid – rain’

B. is a reducing agent

C. is soluble in water

D. is used as a food-preservative

Q. 56 Maximum bond angle at nitrogen is present in which of the following

A. NO₂

B. NO₂⁻

C. NO₂⁺

D. NO₃⁻

Q. 57 Magnetic moment 2.84 B.M. is given by: (At. nos. Ni = 28, Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27)

A. Ni₂⁺

B. Ti₃⁺

C. Cr₂⁺

D. Co₂⁺

Q. 58 Cobalt (III) Chloride forms several octahedral complexes with ammonia. Which of the following will not give test for chloride ions with silver nitrate at 25°C?

A. CoCl₃ . 3NH₃

B. CoCl₃ . 4NH₃

C. CoCl₃ . 5NH₃

D. CoCl₃ .6NH₃

Q. 59 Which of these statements about [Co(CN)₆]³⁻ is true?

A. [[Co(CN)₆]³⁻ has no unpaired electrons and will be in a low-spin configuration

B. [Co(CN)₆]³⁻ has four unpaired electrons and will be in low-spin configuration

C. [Co(CN)₆]³⁻ has four unpaired electrons and will be in a high-spin configuration

D. [Co(CN)₆]³⁻ has no unpaired electrons and will e in a high-spin configuration

Q. 60 The activation energy of a reaction can be determined from the slope of which of the following graphs?

A. In K vs. T

B. InK/T vs.T

C. InKvs. 1/T

D. T/InK vs. 1/T

Q. 61 Which one is not equal to zero for an ideal solution?

A. ΔHmix

B. ΔSmix

C. ΔVmix

D. ΔP=Pobserved -PRaoult

Q. 62 A mixture of gases contains H2 and O2 gases in the ratio of 1:4 (w/w). What is the molar ratio of the two gases in the mixture?

A. 1:4

B. 4:1

C. 16:1

D. 2:1

Q. 63 A given metal crystallizes out with a cubic structure having edge length of 361 pm. If there are four metal atoms in one unit cell, what is the radius of one atom?

A. 40 pm

B. 127 pm

C. 80 pm

D. 108 pm

Q. 64 When initial concentration of a reactant is doubled in a reaction, its half – life period is not affected. The order of the reaction is :

A. Zero

B. First

C. Second

D. More than zero but less than first

Q. 65 If the value of an equilibrium constant for a particular reaction is 1.6 × 1012, then at equilibrium the system will contain

A. All reactants

B. Mostly reactants

C. Mostly products

D. Similar amounts of reactants and products

Q. 66 A device that converts energy of combustion of fuels like hydrogen and methane, directly into electrical energy is known as :

A. Fuel cell

B. Electrolytic cell

C. Dynamo

D. Ni–Cd cell

Q. 67 The boiling point of 0.2 mol kg^−1 solution of X in water is greater than equimolal solution of Y in water. Which one of the following statements is true in this case?

A. X is undergoing dissociation in water

B. Molecular mass of X is greater than the molecular mass of Y

C. Molecular mass of X is less than the molecular mass of Y

D. Y is undergoing dissociation in water, while X undergoes no change

Q. 68 Which one of the following electrolytes has the same value of van’t Hoff’s factor (i) as that of Al₂(SO₄)₃ (if all are 100% ionized)?

A. K₂SO₄

B. K₃[Fe(CN)₆]

C. Al(NO₃)₃

D. K₄[Fe(CN)₆]

Q. 69 The number of d-electrons in Fe2+ (Z = 26) is not equal to the number of electrons in which one of the following?

A. s-electrons in Mg (Z = 12)

B. p-electrons in Cl (Z = 17)

C. d-electrons in Fe (Z = 26)

D. p-electrons in Ne (Z = 10)

Q. 70 The correct bond order in the following species is:

A. O²⁺₂ < O₂⁺ < O₂⁻

B. O²⁺₂ <O₂⁻ < O₂⁺

C. O₂⁺ < O₂⁻ < O²⁺₂

D. O₂⁻ < O₂⁺ < O²⁺₂

Q. 71 The angular momentum of electron in ‘d’ orbital is equal to:

A. √ 6 h

B. √2 h

C. 2 √3 h

D. 0 h

Q. 72 The Ksp of Ag₂CrO₄, AgCl, AgBr and AgI are, respectively, 1.1 × 10⁻¹², 1.8 × 10⁻¹⁰, 5.0 × 10⁻¹³, 8.3 × 10⁻¹⁷. Which one of the following salts will precipitate last if AgNO₃ solution is added to the solution containing equal moles of NaCl, NaBr, NaI and Na₂CrO₄

A. AgI

B. AgCl

C. AgBr

D. AgCrO₄

Q. 73 Which property of colloidal solution is independent of charge on the colloidal particles?

A. Coagulation

B. Electrophoresis

C. Electro-osmosis

D. Tyndall effect

Q. 74 Which of the following statements is correct for a reversible process in a state of equilibrium?

A. ΔG=-2.30RTlogK

B. ΔG=2.30RTlogK

C. ΔGo =-2.30RTlogK

D. ΔGo =2.30RTlogK

Q. 75 Bithional is generally added to the soaps as an additive to function as a/an:

A. Softener

B. Dryer

C. Buffering agent

D. Antiseptic

Q. 76 The electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in strongly acidic medium produces:

A. P-Aminophenol

B. Azoxybenzene

C. Azobenzene

D. Aniline

Q. 77 In Duma’s method for estimation of nitrogen 0.25 g of an organic compound gave 40 mL if nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 725 mm pressure. If the aqueous tension at 300 K is 25 mm, the percentage of nitrogen in the compound is:

A. 17.36

B. 18.20

C. 16.76

D. 15.76

Q. 78 In which of the following compounds, the C–Cl bond ionization shall give most stable carbonium ion?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 79 The given reaction is

A. Williamson Synthesis

B. Williamson continuous etherification process

C. Etard reaction

D. Gatterman–Koch reaction

Q. 80 The reaction of C6H5CH = CHCH3 with HBr produces

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 81 A single compound of the given structure is obtainable from ozonolysis of which of the following cyclic compounds

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 82 Treatment of cyclopentanone the following species?

A. Cyclopentanonyl anion

B. Cyclopentadienyl cation

C. Cyclopentadienyl radical

D. Cyclopentanonyl biradical

Q. 83 Consider the following compounds. The hyperconjugation occurs in?

A. I only

B. II only

C. III only

D. I and III

Q. 84 Which of the following is the most correct electron displacement of a nucleophilic reaction to take place

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 85 The enolic form of ethyl acetoacetate as below has:

A. 18 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds

B. 16 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bonds

C. 9 sigma bonds and 2 pi-bonds

D. 9 sigma bonds and 1 pi-bonds

Q. 86 Given, Which of the given compounds can exhibit tautomerism?

A. I and II

B. I and III

C. II and III

D. I, II and III

Q. 87 The enthalpy of hydrogenation of these compounds will be in the order as:

A. I > II > III

B. III > II > I

C. II > III > I

D. II > I > III

Q. 88 Biodegradable polymer which can be produced from glycine and aminocaproic acid is

A. Nylon 2–nylon 6

B. PHBV

C. Buna-N

D. Nylon 6, 6

Q. 89 The total number of π- bond electrons in the following structure is:

A. 4

B. 8

C. 12

D. 16

Q. 90 An organic compound ‘X’ having molecular formula C5H10O yields phenyl hydrazone and gives negative response to the iodoform test and Tollens’ test. It produces n-pentane on reduction. ‘X’ could be:

A. pentanal

B. 2-pentanone

C. 3-pentanone

D. n-amyl alcohol

Q. 91 Which one of the following matches is correct?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 92 Read the following five statements (A to E) and select the option with all correct statements: (A) Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms to colonise a bare rock (B) Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte. (C) Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM (D) Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes is sporophytic (E) In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are present within sporangia located on sporophyte.

A. (A),(C) AND (D)

B. (B),(C) and (D)

C. (A),(D) and (E)

D. (B),(C) and (E)

Q. 93 In which of the following gametophyte is not independent free living

A. Funaria

B. Marchantia

C. Pteris

D. Pinus

Q. 94 Which one of the following statements is wrong?

A. Algin and carrageenan are products of algae

B. Agar–agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria

C. Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food

D. Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae

Q. 95 The guts of cow and buffalo possess

A. Fucus spp.

B. Chlorella spp.

C. Methanogens

D. Cyanobacteria

Q. 96 Male gametes are flagellated in

A. Polysiphonia

B. anabaena

C. Ectocarpus

D. Spirogyra

Q. 97 Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered closed because

A. A bundle sheath surrounds each bundle

B. Cambium is absent

C. There are no vessels with perforations

D. Xylem is surrounded all around by phloem

Q. 98 The given figure is the floral image of

A. Allium

B. Sesbania

C. Petunia

D. Brassica

Q. 99 A major characteristic of the monocot root is the presence of

A. Open vascular bundles

B. Scattered vascular bundles

C. Vasculature without cambium

D. Cambium sandwiched between phloem and xylem long the radius

Q. 100 Keel is the characteristic feature of flower of

A. Tulip

B. Indigofera

C. Aloe

D. Tomato

Q. 101 Perigynous flowers are found in

A. Guava

B. Cucumber

C. China rose

D. Rose

Q. 102 Leaves become modified into spines in

A. Opuntia

B. Pea

C. Onion

D. Silk Cotton

Q. 103 The structures that are formed by stacking of organised flattened membranous sacs in the chloroplasts are

A. Cristae

B. Grana

C. Stroma lamellae

D. Stroma

Q. 104 The chromosomes in which centromere is situated close to one end are

A. Metacentric

B. Acrocentric

C. Telocentric

D. Sub-metacentric

Q. 105 Select the correct matching in the following pairs

A. Smooth R – Oxidation of phospholipids

B. Smooth ER – Synthesis of lipids

C. Rough ER – Synthesis of glycogen

D. Rough ER – Oxidation of fatty acids

Q. 106 True nucleus is absent in

A. Anabaena

B. Mucor

C. Vaucheria

D. Volvox

Q. 107 Which one of the following is not an inclusion body found in prokaryotes?

A. Phosphate granule

B. Cyanophycean granule

C. Glycogen granule

D. Polysome

Q. 108 Transpiration and root pressure cause water to rise in plants by

A. Pulling it upward

B. Pulling and pushing it, respectively

C. Pushing it upward

D. Pushing and pulling it, respectively

Q. 109 Minerals known to be required in large amounts for plant growth include

A. Phosphorus, potassium, sulphur, calcium

B. Calcium, magnesium, manganese, copper

C. Potassium, phosphorus, selenium, boron

D. Magnesium, sulphur, iron, zinc

Q. 110 What causes a green plant exposed to the light on only one side to bend toward the source of light as it grows?

A. Green plants need light to perform photosynthesis

B. Green plants seek because they are phototropic

C. Light stimulates plant cells on the lighted side to grow faster

D. Auxin accumulates on the shaded side, stimulating greater cell elongation there.

Q. 111 In a ring girdled plant

A. The shoot dies first

B. The root dies first

C. The shoot and root die together

D. Neither root nor shoot will die

Q. 112 Typical growth curve in plants is

A. Sigmoid

B. Linear

C. Stair–steps shaped

D. Parabolic

Q. 113 Which one gives the most valid and recent explanation for stomatal movements?

A. Transpiration

B. Potassium influx and efflux

C. Starch hydrolysis

D. Guard cell photosynthesis

Q. 114 The hilum is a scar on the

A. Seed, where funicle was attached

B. Fruit, where it was attached to pedicel

C. Fruit, where style was present

D. Seed, where micropyle was present

Q. 115 Which one of the following may require pollinators, but is genetically similar to autogamy?

A. Geitonogamy

B. Xenogamy

C. Apogamy

D. Cleistogamy

Q. 116 Which one of the following statement is not true?

A. Pollen grains are rich in nutrients, and they used in the form of tablets and syrups

B. Pollen grains of some plants cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people

C. The flowers pollinated by flies and bats secrete four odour to attract them

D. Honey is made by bees by digesting pollen collected from flowers

Q. 117 Transmission tissue is characteristics feature of

A. Hollow style

B. Solid style

C. Dry stigma

D. Wet stigma

Q. 118 In ginger vegetative propagation occurs through

A. Rhizome

B. Offsets

C. Bulbils

D. Runners

Q. 119 Which of the following are the important floral rewards to the animal pollinators?

A. Colour and large size of flower

B. Nectar and pollen grains

C. Floral fragrance and calcium crystals

D. Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates

Q. 120 How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea plants were studied by Mendel in his experiments?

A. Five

B. Six

C. Seven

D. Eight

Q. 121 Which is the most common mechanism of genetic variation in the population of a sexually reproducing organism?

A. Transduction

B. Chromosomal aberrations

C. Genetic drift

D. Recombination

Q. 122 A technique of micropropagation is

A. Somatic hybridisation

B. Somatic embryogenesis

C. Protoplast fusion

D. Embryo rescue

Q. 123 The movement of a gene from one linkage group to another is called

A. Inversion

B. Duplication

C. Translocation

D. Crossing over

Q. 124 Multiple alleles are present

A. On different chromosomes

B. At different loci on the same chromosome

C. At the same locus of the chromosome

D. On non-sister chromatids

Q. 125 Which body of the Government of India regulates GM research and safety of introducing GM organisms for public services?

A. Biosafety committee

B. Indian council of agricultural research

C. Genetic Engineering Approval committee

D. Research committee on Genetic Manipulation

Q. 126 In BT cotton, the BT toxin present in plant tissue as pro-toxin is converted into active toxin due to

A. Alkaline pH of the insect gut

B. Acidic pH of the insect gut

C. Action of gut microorganisms

D. Presence of conversion factors in insect gut

Q. 127 The crops engineered for glyphosate are resistant/tolerant to

A. Fungi

B. Bacteria

C. Insects

D. Herbicides

Q. 128 DNA is not present in

A. Chloroplast

B. Ribosomes

C. Nucleus

D. Mitochondria

Q. 129 Which of the following enhances or induces fusion of protoplasts?

A. Sodium chloride and potassium chloride

B. Polyethylene glycol and sodium nitrate

C. IAA and kinetin

D. IAA and gibberellins

Q. 130 The UN conference of Parties on climate change in the year 2011 was held in

A. Poland

B. South Africa

C. Peru

D. Qatar

Q. 131 Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in a biotic community is known as

A. Divergence

B. Stratification

C. Zonation

D. Pyramid

Q. 132 In which of the following both pairs have correct combination?

A. In situ conservation : National Park Ex situ conservation : Botanical Garden

B. In situ conservation : Cryopreservation Ex situ conservation : Wildlife sanctuary

C. In situ conservation : Seed Bank Ex situ conservation : National Park

D. In situ conservation : Tissue culture Ex situ conservation : Sacred groves

Q. 133 Secondary succession takes place on/in

A. Bare rock

B. Degraded forest

C. Newly created pond

D. Newly cooled lava

Q. 134 The mass of living material at a trophic level at a particular time is called

A. Gross primary productivity

B. Standing state

C. Net primary productivity

D. Standing crop

Q. 135 In an ecosystem the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is termed

A. Net primary productivity

B. Gross primary productivity

C. Secondary productivity

D. Net productivity

Q. 136 Which of the following characteristics is mainly responsible for diversification of insects on land?

A. Segmentation

B. Bilateral symmetry

C. Exoskeleton

D. Eyes

Q. 137 Which of the following endoparasites of humans does show viviparity

A. Ancylostoma duodenale

B. Enterobius vermicularis

C. Trichinella spiralis

D. Ascaris lumbricoides

Q. 138 Which of the following represents the correct combination without any exception?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 139 Which of the following animals is not viviparous?

A. Flying fox (bat)

B. Elephant

C. Platypus

D. Whale

Q. 140 Erythropoiesis starts in

A. Kidney

B. Liver

C. Spleen

D. Red bone marrow

Q. 141 The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body are joined by

A. Cementing glue

B. Muscular tissue

C. Arthrodial membrane

D. Cartilage

Q. 142 Nuclear envelope is a derivative of

A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

B. Membrane of Golgi complex

C. Microtubules

D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Q. 143 Cytochromes are found in

A. Matrix of mitochondria

B. Outer wall of mitochondria

C. Cristae of mitochondria

D. Lysosomes

Q. 144 Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

A. A competitive inhibitor reacts reversibly with the enzyme to form an enzyme– inhibitor complex

B. In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor molecule is not chemically changed by the enzyme

C. The competitive inhibitor does not affect the rate breakdown of the enzyme– substrate complex

D. The presence of the competitive inhibitor decreases the Km of the enzyme for the substrate

Q. 145 Select the correct option for (a) (b) (c) (d)

A. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

B. (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)

C. (i) (ii) (v) (iv)

D. (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

Q. 146 A somatic cell that has just completed the S phase of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete of the same species, has

A. Twice the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA

B. Same number of chromosomes but twice the amount of DNA

C. Twice the number of chromosomes and four times the amount of DNA

D. Four times the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA

Q. 147 Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. Brunner’s glands are present in the submucosa of stomach and secrete pepsinogen

B. Goblet cells are present in the mucosa of intestine and secrete mucus

C. Oxyntic cells are present in the mucosa of stomach and secrete HCl

D. Acini are present in the pancreas and secrete carboxypeptidase

Q. 148 Gastric juice of infants contains

A. Maltase, pepsinogen, rennin

B. Nuclease, pepsinogen, lipase

C. Pepsinogen, lipase, rennin

D. Amylase, rennin, pepsinogen

Q. 149 When you hold your breath, which of the following gas changes in blood  would first lead to the urge to breathe?

A. Falling O₂ concentration

B. Rising CO₂ concentration

C. Falling CO₂ concentration

D. Rising CO₂ and falling O₂ concentration

Q. 150 Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is maximum during

A. Systole of the left atrium

B. Diastole of the right ventricle

C. Systole of the left ventricle

D. Diastole of the right atrium

Q. 151 Which one of the following is correct?

A. Plasma = Blood – Lymphocytes

B. Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen

C. Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC

D. Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets

Q. 152 Removal of proximal convoluted tubule from the nephron will result in

A. More diluted urine

B. More concentrated urine

C. No change in quality and quantity of urine

D. No urine formation

Q. 153 Sliding filament theory can best explained as

A. When filaments slide past each other actin filaments shorten, while Myosin filament do not shorten

B. Actin and Myosin filaments shorten and slide pass each other

C. Actin and Myosin filaments shorten and slide pass each other

D. When myofilaments slide pass each other, Myosin filaments shorten, while Actin filaments do not shorte

Q. 154 Glenoid cavity articulates

A. Clavicle with acromion

B. Scapula with acromion

C. Clavicle with scapula

D. Humerus with scapula

Q. 155 Which of the following regions of the brain is incorrectly paired with its function?

A. Medulla oblongata – Homoeostatic control

B. Cerebellum – Language comprehension

C. Corpus callosum – Communication between the left and right cerebral cortices

D. Cerebrum – Calculation and contemplation

Q. 156 A gymnast is able to balance his body upside down even in the total darkness because of

A. Cochlea

B. Vestibular apparatus

C. Tectorial membrane

D. Organ of Corti

Q. 157 A chemical signal that has both endocrine and neural roles is

A. Melatonin

B. Calcitonin

C. epinephrine

D. Cortisol

Q. 158 Which of the following does not favour the formation of large quantities of dilute urine?

A. Alcohol

B. Caffeine

C. Renin

D. Atrial-natriuretic factor

Q. 159 Capacitation refers to changes in the

A. Sperm before fertilisation

B. Ovum before fertilisation

C. Ovum after fertilisation

D. Sperm after fertilisation

Q. 160 Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?

A. Increase in oestrogen and progesterone ratio

B. Synthesis of prostaglandins

C. Release of oxytocin

D. Release of prolactin

Q. 161 Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an infected male?

A. Hepatitis B virus

B. Human immunodeficiency virus

C. Chikungunya virus

D. Ebola virus

Q. 162 Which of the following cells during gametogenesis is normally diploid?

A. Primary polar body

B. Spermatid

C. Spermatogonia

D. Secondary polar body

Q. 163 Hysterectomy is surgical removal of

A. Uterus

B. Prostate gland

C. Vas deferens

D. Mammary glands

Q. 164 Which of the following is not sexually transmitted disease?

A. Syphilis

B. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)

C. Trichomoniasis

D. Encephalitis

Q. 165 An abnormal human baby with ‘XXX’ sex chromosomes was born due to

A. Formation of abnormal sperms in the father

B. Formation of abnormal ova in the mother

C. Fusion of two ova and one sperm

D. Fusion of two sperms and one ovum

Q. 166 Alleles are

A. Different phenotype

B. True breeding homozygotes

C. Different molecular forms of a gene

D. Heterozygotes

Q. 167 A man with blood group ‘A’ marries a woman with blood group ‘B’. What are all the possible blood groups of their offspring?

A. A and B only

B. A, B and AB only

C. A, B, AB and O

D. O only

Q. 168 Gene regulation governing lactose operon of E. coli that involves the lac I gene product is

A. Positive and inducible because it can be induced by lactose

B. Negative and inducible because repressor protein prevents transcription

C. Negative and repressible because repressor protein prevents transcription

D. Feedback inhibition because excess of β – galactosidase can switch off transcription

Q. 169 In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The percentages of the other three bases expected to be present in the DNA are

A. G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%

B. G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%

C. G 17%, A 33%, T 33%

D. G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%

Q. 170 Which of the following had the smallest brain capacity?

A. Homo erectus

B. Homo sapiens

C. Homo neanderthalensis

D. Homo habilis

Q. 171 A population will not exist in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium is

A. Individuals mate selectively

B. There are no mutations

C. There is no migration

D. The population is large

Q. 172 Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine for (a), (b), (c) and (d) are:

A. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

B. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

C. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

D. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Q. 173 HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying

A. B-lymphocytes

B. Leukocytes

C. Helper T-lymphocytes

D. Thrombocytes

Q. 174 To active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon

A. Erythrocytes mucosa and submucosa of colon

B. Mucosa and submucosa of colon only

C. Food n intestine

D. Blood only

Q. 175 High value of BOD (biochemical oxygen demand) indicates that

A. Water is pure

B. Water is highly polluted

C. Water is less polluted

D. Consumption of organic matter in the water is higher by the microbes

Q. 176 Most animals are tree dwellers in a

A. Coniferous forest

B. Thorn woodland

C. Temperate deciduous forest

D. Tropical rainforest

Q. 177 The following graph depicts changes in two populations (A and B) of herbivores in a grassy field. A possible reason for these changes is that

A. Both plant populations in this habitat decreased

B. Population B compete more successfully for food than population A

C. Population A produced more offspring than population B

D. Population A consumed the members of population B

Q. 178 Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile condition can be referred to as

A. In situ conservation of biodiversity

B. Advanced ex situ conservation of biodiversity

C. In situ conservation by sacred groves

D. In situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity

Q. 179 Rachel Carson’s famous book ‘Silent spring’ is related to

A. Pesticide pollution

B. Noise pollution

C. Population explosion

D. Ecosystem management

Q. 180 Which of the following is not one of the prime health risks associated with greater UV radiation through the atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone?

A. Increased skin cancer

B. Reduced immune system

C. Damage to eyes

D. Increased liver cancer

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	B	B	B	C	C	A	A	C	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	D	B	C	B	C	D	C	C	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	C	C	B	C	D	C	A	A	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	D	D	A	B	C	A	A	B	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	B	B	D	C	B	C	C	C	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	C	D	B	D	C	A	A	A	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	B	B	B	C	A	A	D	B	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	D	D	C	D	A	C	C	A	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	A	A	C	C	A	D	B	A	B	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	C	D	D	C	C	B	C	C	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	D	A	B	B	B	A	D	B	A	D
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	A	B	A	A	D	B	A	B	D
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	D	B	C	C	C	A	D	B	B	B
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	B	A	B	D	B	C	C	B	C	D
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	C	D	C	D	B	C	A	C	B	C
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	D	A	C	D	B	B	C	C	A	D
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	C	C	A	D	B	C	C	B	C	D
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	A	C	C	A	B	D	B	B	A	D

NEET 2014

Q. 1 If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are take As fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are :

A. [F V F⁻¹]

B. [F V T⁻²]

C. [F V⁻¹ T⁻¹]

D. [F V⁻¹ T]

Q. 2 A projectile is fired from the surface of the earth with a velocity of 5ms⁻¹ and angle θ with the horizontal. Another projectile fired another planet with a velocity of 3 ms⁻¹ at the same angle follows a trajectory which is identical with the trajectory of the projectile fired from the earth. The value of the acceleration due to gravity on the planet is (in ms⁻²) is: (given g = 9.8 ms⁻²)

A. 3.5

B. 5.9

C. 16.3

D. 110.8

Q. 3 A particle is moving such that its position coordinates (x,y)are (2 m, 3 m) at time t = 0, (6 m, 7 m) at time t = 2 s and (13 m, 14 m) at time t = 5s

Average velocity vector Vav from t = 0 to t = 5 s is: 

A. 1/5 * (13 i ̂ +14 i ̂ )

B. 7/3 * (i ̂ + i ̂)

C. 2 * (i ̂ + i ̂)

D. 11/5 * (i ̂ + i ̂)

Q. 4 A system consists of three masses m1, m2 and m3 connected by a strings passing over a pulley P. The mass m1 hangs freely and m2 and m3 are on a rough horizontal table (the coefficient of friction = u) the pulley if frictionless and of negligible mass. The downward acceleration of mass m1 is :

A. g(1-gμ)/9

B. 2gμ/3

C. g(1-2μ)/3

D. g(1-2μ)/2

Q. 5 The force ‘F’ acting on a particle of mass ‘m’ is indicated by the force — time graph shown below. The change in momentum of the particle over the time interval from zero

A. 24 Ns

B. 20 Ns

C. 12 Ns

D. 6 Ns

Q. 6 A balloon with mass ‘m’ descends down with an acceleration ‘a’ (where a < g). How much mass should be removed from it so that it starts moving up with an acceleration ‘a’?

A. 2ma/(g+a)

B. 2ma/(g-a)

C. ma/(g+a)

D. ma/(g-a)

Q. 7 A body of mass (4m) is laying in x-y plane at rest. It suddenly explodes into three pieces. Two pieces each of mass (m) move perpendicular to each other with equal speeds (v). The total kinetic energy generated due to explosion is :

A. Mv²

B. 3/2 mv²

C. 2 mv²

D. 4 mv²

Q. 8 The oscillation of a body on a smooth horizontal surface is represented by the  equation, Where, X = A cos (ωt); X = displacement at time t; ω = frequency of oscillation. Which one of the following graphs shows correctly the variation ‘a’ with ‘t’? Here a = acceleration at time t 

T = time period

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 9 A solid cylinder of mass 50 g and radius 0.5 m is free to rotate about the horizontal axis. A massless string is wound round the cylinder with one end attached to it and other hanging freely. Tension in the string required to produce an angular acceleration of 2 revolutions s⁻² is :

A. 25 N

B. 50 N

C. 78.5 N

D. 157 N

Q. 10 The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere (mass ‘m’ and radius ‘R’ rolling down an incline of angle ‘θ’ Without slipping and slipping down the incline with rolling is :

A. 5:7

B. 2:3

C. 2:5

D. 7:5

Q. 11 A black hole is an object whose gravitational field is so strong that even light cannot escape from it. To what approximate radius would earth (mass = 5.98 x 10²⁴ kg) have to be compressed to be a black hole ?

A. 10⁻⁹ m

B. 10⁻⁶ m

C. 10⁻² m

D. 100 m

Q. 12 Dependence of intensity of gravitational field (E) of earth with distance (r) from centre of earth is correctly represented by :

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 13 Copper of fixed volume ‘V’ is drawn into wire of length ‘l’. When the wire is subjected to a constant force ‘F’ the extension produced in the wire is ‘Δl’. Which of the following graphs is a straight line?

A. Δl versus 1/l

B. ΔI versus l²

C. ΔI versus 1/l²

D. ΔI versus l

Q. 14 A certain number of spherical drops of liquid of radius ‘r’ coalesce to form a single drop of radius ‘R’ and volume ‘V’. If ‘T’ is the surface tension of the liquid, then :

A. Energy = 4VT (1/e – 1/R) is released.

B. Energy = 3VT (1/r + 1/R) is absorbed

C. Energy = 3VT (1/r – 1/R) is released

D. Energy is neither released nor absorbed

Q. 15 Steam at 100°C is passed into 20 g of water at 10°C. When water acquires a temperature of 80°C the mass of water present will be :

[Take specific heat of water = 1 cal g⁻¹ °C⁻¹ and latent heat of steam = 540 cal g⁻¹]

A. 24 g

B. 31.5 g

C. 42.5 g

D. 22.5 g

Q. 16 Certain quantity of water cools from 70°C to 60°C in the first 5 minutes and to 54°C in the next 5 minutes. The temperature of the surroundings is :

A. 45°C

B. 20°C

C. 42°C

D. 10°C

Q. 17 A monatomic gas at pressure P, having a volume V expands isothermally to a volume 2V and then adiabatically to a volume 16 V. The final pressure if the gas is : (take y: 5/3)

A. 64 P

B. 32 Po

C. P/ 64

D. 16 P

Q. 18 A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic process ABCDA as shown in Fig. The work done by the system in the cycle is :

A. P0V0

B. 2 P0V0

C. P0V0/2

D. Zero

Q. 19 The mean free path of molecules of a gas, (radius is inversely proportional to :

A. r³

B. r²

C. r

D. √r

Q. 20 If n₁,n₂ and n₃ are the fundamental frequencies three segments into which a string is divided, the original fundamental frequency n of the string is given by :

A. 1/n = 1/n₁ + 1/n₂ + 1/n₃

B. 1/sqrt(n) = 1/sqrt(n₁) + 1/sqrt(n₂) + 1/sqrt(n₃)

C. sqrt(n) = sqrt(n₁) + sqrt(n₂) + sqrt(n₃)

D. n = n₁ + n₂ + n₃

Q. 21 The number of possible natural oscillations of column in a pipe closed at one end of length 85 cm whose frequencies lie below 1250 Hz are :

(velocity of sound = 340 ms⁻¹)

A. 4

B. 5

C. 7

D. 6

Q. 22 A speeding motorcyclist sees traffic jam ahead him. He slows down to 36 km/hour. He finds the traffic has eased and a car moving ahead of him 18 km/hour is honking at a frequency of 1392 Hz. The speed of sound is 343 m/s, the frequency of the honk as heard by him will be :

A. 1332 Hz

B. 1372 Hz

C. 1412 Hz

D. 1454 Hz

Q. 23  Two thin dielectric slabs of dielectric constants K1 and K2 (K1

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 24 A conducting sphere of radius R is given a charge Q. The electric potential and the electric field at the centre of the sphere respectively are

A. Zero and Q/(4 π ε R^2)

B. Q/(4 π ε R) and Zero

C. Q/(4 π ε R) and Q/(4 π ε R^2)

D. Both are Zero

Q. 25 In a region the potential is represented by V (x,y,z) = 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz, where v is in volts and x, y, z are in meters. The electric force experienced by a change of 2 coulomb situated at point (1,1,1) is :

A. 6√5 N

B. 30 N

C. 24 N

D. 4√35 N

Q. 26 Two cities are 150 km apart. Electric power is sent from one city to another city through copper wires. The fall of potential per km is 8 volt and the average resistance per km is 0.5 Ω. The power loss in the wire is :

A. 19.2 w

B. 19.2 kW

C. 19.2 J

D. 12.2 kW

Q. 27 The resistances in the two arms of the meter bridge are 5 Ω and R Ω respectively. When the resistance R is shunted with an equal resistance; the new balance point is at 1.6l₁. The resistance ‘R’ is:

A. 10 Ω

B. 15 Ω

C. 20 Ω

D. 25 Ω

Q. 28 A potentiometer circuit has been set up for finding the internal resistance of given cell. The main battery, used across the potentiometer wire, has an emf of 2.0 V and a negligible internal resistance. The potentiometer wire itself is 4 m long. When the resistance R connected across the given cell, has values of.

(1) Infinity

(2) 9.5 Ω

The ‘balancing lengths’ on the potentiometer wire are found to be 3 m and 2.85 m, Respectively. The value of internal resistance of the cell is:

A. 0.25 Ω

B. 0.95 Ω

C. 0.5 Ω

D. 0.75 Ω

Q. 29 Following figures show the arrangement of bar magnets in different configurations. Each magnet has magnetic dipole moment⃗ m . Which configuration has highest net magnetic dipole moment?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 30 In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes through the galvanometer. If resistance of galvanometer is G, the resistance of ammeter will be:

A. (1/499) * G

B. (499/500) * G

C. (1/500) * G

D. (500/499) * G

Q. 31 Two identical long conducting wires AOB and COD are placed at right angle to each other, with one above other such that ‘O’ is their common point for the two. The wires carry I1 and I2 currents, respectively. Point ‘P’ is lying at distance‘d’ from ‘O’ along a direction perpendicular to the plane containing the wires. The magnetic field at the point ‘P’ will be: 

A. μ/2πd * (I1 / I2)

B. μ/2πd * (I1 + I2)

C. μ/2πd * (I1^2 – I2^2)

D. μ/2πd * sqrt (I1^2 + I2^2)

Q. 32 A thin semicircular conducting ring (PQR) of radius ‘r’ is falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal magnetic field B, as shown in figure. The potential difference developed across the ring when its speed is v, is:

A. Zero

B. Bvπr²/2 and P is at higher potential

C. πrBv and R is at higher potential

D. 2rBv and R is at higher potential

Q. 33 A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If the current in the secondary coil is 6A, the voltage across the secondary coil and the current in the primary coil respectively are :

A. 300 V, 15 A

B. 450 V, 15 A

C. 450 V, 13.5 A

D. 600 V, 15 A

Q. 34 Light with an energy flux of 25 x 10⁴ Wm⁻² falls on a perfectly reflecting surface at normal incidence. If the surface area is 15 cm², the average force exerted on the surface is :

A. 1.25 x 10⁻⁶ N

B. 2.50 x 10⁻⁶ N

C. 1.20 x 10⁻⁶ N

D. 3.0 x 10⁻⁶ N

Q. 35 A beam of light of λ = 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is :

A. 1.2 cm

B. 1.2 mm

C. 2.4 cm

D. 2.4 mm

Q. 36 In the Young’s double — slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is λ is K, (λ being the wavelength of light used). The intensity at point where the path difference is λ/4 will be:

A. K

B. K/4

C. K/2

D. Zero

Q. 37 If the focal length of objective lens is increased then magnifying power of:

A. Microscope will increase but that of telescope decrease.

B. Microscope and telescope both will increase

C. Microscope and telescope both will decrease

D. Microscope will decrease but that of telescope will increase.

Q. 38 The angle of prism is ‘A’ One of its refracting surfaces is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incidence 2A on the first surface returns back through the same path after suffering reflection at the silvered surface. The refractive index μ of the prism is

A. 2 sin A

B. 2 cos A

C. 1/2 cos A

D. Tan A

Q. 39 When the energy of the incident radiation is increased by 20% the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work function of the metal is

A. 0.65 eV

B. 1.0 eV

C. 1.3 eV

D. 1.5 eV

Q. 40 If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to 16 times its previous value, the percentage change in the de-Broglie wavelength of the particle is :

A. 25

B. 75

C. 60

D. 50

Q. 41 Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a monochromatic radiation of λ = 975 A. Number of spectral lines in the resulting spectrum emitted will be :

A. 3

B. 2

C. 6

D. 10

Q. 42 The Binding energy per nucleon of ⁷₃Li and ⁴₂He nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV respectively. In the nuclear reaction ⁷₃Li + ¹₁H → ⁴₂He + ⁴₂He +Q, the value of energy Q released is :

A. 19.6 MeV

B. -2.4 MeV

C. 8.4 MeV

D. 17.3 MeV

Q. 43 A radio isotope ‘X’ with a half life 1.4 x 10⁹ years decays to ‘Y’ which is stable. A sample of the rock from a cave was found to contain ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in the ratio 1:7. The age of the rock is : 

A. 1.96 x 10⁹ years

B. 3.92 x 10⁹ years

C. 4.20 x 10⁹ years

D. 8.40 x 10⁹ years

Q. 44 The given graph represents V — I characteristics for semiconductor device.

Which of the following statement is correct?

A. It is V — I characteristics for solar cell where point A represents open circuit voltage and point b short circuit current.

B. It is for s solar cell and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively.

C. It is for a photodiode and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively

D. It is for LED and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and short circuit current, respectively

Q. 45 The barrier potential of a p – n junction depends on :

(a) Type of semiconductor material

(b) Amount of doping

(c) Temperature

Which one of the following is correct?

A. (a) and (b) only

B. (c) only

C. (b) and (c) only

D. (a), (b) and (c)

Q. 46 What is the maximum number of orbitals that can be identified with the following quantum numbers?

n=3, l=1, m₁=0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 47 Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light of wavelength 45 nm :

(Planck’s constant h = 6.63 x 10⁻³⁴ Js ; speed of light c = 3 x 10⁸ ms⁻¹)

A. 6.67 x 10¹⁵

B. 6.67 x 10¹¹

C. 4.42 x 10⁻¹⁵

D. 4.42 x 10⁻¹⁸

Q. 48 Equal masses of H₂, 0₂ and methane have been taken in a container of volume V at temperature 27° C in identical conditions. The ratio of the volumes of gases H₂ : O₂ : methane would be :

A. 8 : 16 : 1

B. 16 : 8 : 1

C. 16: 1 : 2

D. 8 : 1 : 2

Q. 49 If a is the length of the side of a cube, the distance between the body centered atom and one corner atom in the cube will be

A. 2/√3 a

B. 4/√3 a

C. √3/4 a

D. √3/2 a

Q. 50 Which property of colloids is not dependent on the charge on colloidal particles ?

A. Coagulation

B. Electrophoresis

C. Electro — osmosis

D. Tyndall effect

Q. 51 Which of the following salts will give highest pH in water ?

A. KCl

B. NaCl

C. Na₂CO₃

D. CuSO₄

Q. 52 Of the following 0.10 aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the largest freezing point depression?

A. KCl

B. C₆H₁₂O₆

C. Al₂(SO₄)₃

D. K₂SO₄

Q. 53 When 22.4 liters of H₂ (g) is mixed with 11.2 liters of Cl₂ (g), each at S.T.P, the moles of HCl (g) formed is equal to :

A. 1 mol of HCl (g)

B. 2 mol of HCl (g)

C. 0.5 mol of HCl (g)

D. 1.5 mol of HCl (g)

Q. 54 When 0.1 mol MnO²₄⁻ is oxidized the quantity of electricity required to completely oxidize MnO ²₄⁻ to MnO⁻₄ is :

A. 96500 c

B. 2 x 96500 c

C. 9650 c

D. 96.50 c

Q. 55 Using the Gibbs energy change, ΔG° = +63.3 kJ, for the following reaction,

Ag₂CO₃ (s) ↔ 2Ag⁺ (aq) + CO₃²⁻ (aq)

The Ksp of Ag₂CO₃(s) in water at 25°C is:

(R = 8.314 J K⁻¹ mol⁻¹)

A. 3.2 x 10⁻²⁶

B. 8.0 x 10⁻¹²

C. 2.9 x 10⁻³

D. 7.9 x 10⁻²

Q. 56 The weight of silver (at.wt = 108) displaced by a quantity of electricity which displaces 5600 mL of 0₂ at STP will be :

A. 5.4 g

B. 10.8 g

C. 54.0 g

D. 108.0 g

Q. 57 Which of the following statements is correct for the spontaneous adsorption of a gas?

A. S is negative and, therefore, H should be highly positive.

B. S is negative and therefore, H should be highly negative.

C. S is positive and therefore, H should be negative.

D. S is positive and, therefore, H should also be highly positive.

Q. 58 For the reversible reaction :

N₂ (g) + 3H₂(g) ↔ 2NH₃ (g) + heat

The equilibrium shifts in forward direction :

A. By increasing the concentration of NH₃ (g)

B. By decreasing the pressure

C. By decreasing the concentration of N₂ (g) and H₂ (g)

D. By increasing pressure and decreasing temperature

Q. 59 For the reaction :

X₂O₄ → 2X0₂ (g)

U = 2.1 k cal, S = 20 cal K⁻¹ at 300 K

Hence, G is

A. 2.7 k cal

B. -2.7 k cal

C. 9.3 k cal

D. -9.3 k cal

Q. 60 For a given exothermic reaction, Kp and K’p are the equilibrium constants at temperatures T₁ and T₂, respectively. Assuming that heat of reaction is constant in temperature range between T₁ and T₂, it is readily observed that :

A. Kp > K’p

B. Kp < K’p

C. KP =K’p

D. Kp = 1/K’p

Q. 61 Which of the following orders of ionic radii is correctly represented ?

A. H⁻ > H⁺ > H

B. Na⁺ > F⁻ > 0²⁻

C. F⁻ > 0²⁻ > Na⁺

D. Al³⁺ > Mg²⁺ > N³⁻

Q. 62 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O₂ in a closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and how much?

(At.wt.Mg = 24; O = 16)

A. Mg, 0.16 g

B. O₂ , 0.16 g

C. Mg, 0.44 g

D. O₂, 0.28 g

Q. 63 The pair of compounds that can exist together is :

A. FeCl₃, SnCl₂

B. HgCl₂, SnCl₂

C. FeCl₂, SnCl₂

D. FeCl₃, KI

Q. 64 Be²⁺ is isoelectronic with which of the following ions?

A. H⁺

B. Li⁺

C. Na⁺

D. Mg²⁺

Q. 65 Which of the following molecules has the maximum dipole moment ?

A. CO₂

B. CH₄

C. NH₃

D. NF₃

Q. 66 Which one of the following species has plane triangular shape?

A. N₃

B. NO₃⁻

C. NO₂⁻

D. CO₂

Q. 67 Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solutions increase in the order

A. H₂S < H₂Se < H₂Te

B. H₂Se < H₂S > H₂Te

C. H₂Te < H₂S < H₂Se

D. H₂Se < H₂Te < H₂S

Q. 68 (a) H₂O₂ + O3 → H₂O + 2O₂

(b) H₂O₂ + Ag₂O → 2Ag + H₂O + O₂

Role of hydrogen peroxide in the above reactions is respectively:

A. Oxidizing in (a) and reducing in (b)

B. Reducing in (a) and oxidizing in (b)

C. Reducing in (a) and (b)

D. Oxidizing in (a) and (b)

Q. 69 Artificial sweetener which is stable under cold conditions only is :

A. Saccharine

B. Sucralose

C. Aspartame

D. Alitame

Q. 70 In acidic medium, H₂O₂ changes Cr₂O₇⁻² to CrO₅ which has two (-O-O-) bonds. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO₅ is :

A. +5

B. +3

C. +6

D. -10

Q. 71 The reaction of aqueous KMnO₄ with H₂O₂ in acidic conditions gives :

A. Mn⁴⁺ and O₂

B. Mn²⁺ and O₂

C. Mn²⁺ and O₃

D. Mn⁴⁺ and MnO₂

Q. 72 Among the following complexes the one which shows zero crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) is :

A. [Mn(H₂O)₆]³⁺

B. [Fe(H₂O)₆]³⁺

C. [Co(H₂O)₆]²⁺

D. [Co(H₂O)₆]³⁺

Q. 73 Magnetic moment 2.83 BM is given by which of the following ions?

(At.nos. Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Ni = 28)

A. Ti³⁺

B. Ni²⁺

C. Cr³⁺

D. Mn²⁺

Q. 74 Which of the following complexes is used to be as anticancer agent ?

A. mer — [Co(NH₃)₃Cl]

B. cis — [PtCl₂(NH₃)₂]

C. cis — K₂[PtCl₂Br₂]

D. Na₂COCl₄

Q. 75 Reasons of lanthanoid contraction is :

A. Negligible screening effect of ‘f’ orbitals

B. Increasing Nuclear charge

C. Decreasing nuclear charge

D. Decreasing screening effect

Q. 76 In the following reaction, the product (A)

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 77 Which of the following will be most stable diazonium salt RN₂⁺X⁻ ?

A. CH₃N₂⁺X⁻

B. C₆H₅N₂⁺X⁻

C. CH₃CH₂N₂⁺X⁻

D. C₆H₅CH₂N₂⁺X⁻

Q. 78 D (+) glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine and yields an oxime. The structure of the oxime would be :

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 79 Which of the following hormones is produced under the condition of stress which stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver of human beings ?

A. Thyroxine

B. Insulin

C. Adrenaline

D. Estradiol

Q. 80 Which one of the following is an example of a thermosetting polymer?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 81 Which of the following organic compounds polymerizes to form the polyester Dacron?

A. Propylene and para HO — (C₆H₄) — OH

B. Benzoic acid and ethanol

C. Terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol

D. Benzoic acid and para HO —(C₆H₄) — OH

Q. 82 Which one of the following is not a common component of photochemical smog ?

A. Ozone

B. Acrolein

C. Peroxyacetyl nitrate

D. Chlorofluorocarbons

Q. 83 In the Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of nitrogen present in a soil sample, ammonia evolved from 0.75 g sample neutralized 10 mL of 1M H₂SO₄. The percentage of nitrogen in the soil is :

A. 37.33

B. 45.33

C. 35.33

D. 43.33

Q. 84 What products are formed when the following compound is treated with Br in the presence of FeBr₃ ?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 85 Which of the following compounds will undergo racemisation when solution of KOH hydrolyses?

A. (i) and (ii)

B. (ii) and (iv)

C. (iii) and (iv)

D. (i) and (iv)

Q. 86 Among the following sets of reactants which one produces anisole?

A. CH₃CHO;RMgX

B. C₆H₅OH;NaOH;CH₃I

C. C₆H₅OH;neutral FeCl₃

D. C₆H₅ — CH₃;CH₃COCl;AlCl₃

Q. 87 Which of the following will not be soluble in sodium hydrogen carbonate?

A. 2,4,6 — trinitrophenol

B. Benzoic acid

C. o — Nitrophenol

D. Benzenesulfonic acid

Q. 88 Which one is most reactive towards Nucleophilic addition reaction?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 89 Identity Z in the sequence of reactions :

CH₃CH₂CH = CH₂ _______ Hbr/H₂O₂ → Y → C₃H₅ONaZ

A. CH₃ — (CH₂)₃ — O — CH₂CH₃

B. (CH₃)2CH₂ — O — CH₂CH₃

C. CH₃(CH₂)₄ — O — CH₃

D. CH₃CH₂ — CH (CH₃) — O — CH₂CH₃

Q. 90 Which of the following organic compounds has same hybridization as its combustion product — (CO₂)?

A. Ethane

B. Ethyne

C. Ethene

D. Ethanol

Q. 91 Which one of the following shows isogamy with non — flagellated garnets ?

A. Sargassum

B. Ectocarpus

C. Ulothrix

D. Spirogyra

Q. 92 Five kingdom system of classification suggested by R.H. Whittaker is not based on :

A. Presence or absence of a well defined nucleus

B. Mode of reproduction

C. Mode of nutrition

D. Complexity of body organization

Q. 93 Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens ?

A. Morchella esculenta

B. Amanita muscaria

C. Neurospora sp.

D. Ustilago sp.

Q. 94 Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in :

A. Cell membrane structure

B. Mode of nutrition

C. Cell shape

D. Mode of reproduction

Q. 95 Which one of the following is wrong about Chara?

A. Upper oogonium and lower round antheridium

B. Globule and nucule present on the same plant

C. Upper antheridium and lower oogonium

D. Globule is male reproductive structure

Q. 96 Which of the following is responsible for peat formation ?

A. Marchantia

B. Riccia

C. Funaria

D. Sphagnum

Q. 97 Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in:

A. Apple

B. Banana

C. Tomato

D. Potato

Q. 98 When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another without any particular direction, the condition is termed as :

A. Vexillary

B. Imbricate

C. Twisted

D. Valvate

Q. 99 You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a dicot root. Which of the following anatomical structures will you use to distinguish between the two?

A. Secondary xylem

B. Secondary phloem

C. Protoxylem

D. Cortical cells

Q. 100 Which one of the following statement is correct ?

A. The seed in grasses is not endospermic

B. Mango is parthenocarpic fruit

C. A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in maize grain

D. A sterile pistil is called a stainamode

Q. 101 Tracheids differ from other tracheary elements in :

A. Having casparian strips

B. Being imperforate

C. Lacking nucleus

D. Being lignified

Q. 102 An example of edible underground stem is :

A. Carrot

B. Groundnut

C. Sweet potato

D. Potato

Q. 103 Which structure performs the function of mitochondria in bacteria?

A. Nucleoid

B. Ribosomes

C. Cell wall

D. Mesosomes

Q. 104 The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having a diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type of monomer are known as :

A. Microtubules

B. Microfilaments

C. Intermediate filaments

D. Lamins

Q. 105 The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by:

A. Mitochondria

B. Vacuoles

C. Plastics

D. Ribosomes

Q. 106 During which phase (s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial amount is denoted as 2C?

A. G₀ and G₁

B. G₁ and S

C. Only G₂

D. G₂ and M

Q. 107 Match the following and select the correct answer :

(a) Centriole (i) Infoldings in mitochondria

(b) Chlorophyll (ii) Thylakoids

(c) Cristae (iii) Nucleic acids

(d) Ribozymes (iv) basal body cilia or flagella

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 108 Dr. F went noted that if coleptile were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would produce a bending when placed on one side of freshly-cut-coleoptile stumps. Of what significance is this experiment ?

A. It made possible the isolation and exact identification of auxin

B. It is the basis for quantitative determination of small amounts of growth — promoting substances

C. It supports the hypothesis that IAA is auxin

D. It demonstrated polar movement of auxins

Q. 109 Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen and potassium are visible first in :

A. Senescent leaves

B. Young leaves

C. Roots

D. Buds

Q. 110 In which one of the following processes CO₂ is not released ?

A. Aerobic respiration in plants

B. Aerobic respiration in animals

C. Alcoholic fermentation

D. Lactate fermentation

Q. 111 Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristics of :

A. Rhodospirillum

B. Spirogyra

C. Chlamydomonas

D. Ulva

Q. 112 A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in a dark room. After a few days they were found to have become while — colored like albinos. Which of the following terms will you use to describe them?

A. Mutated

B. Embolized

C. Etiolated

D. Defoliated

Q. 113 Which one of the following growth regulators is known as ‘ stress hormone’?

A. Abscisic acid

B. Ethylene

C. GA₃

D. Indole acetic acid

Q. 114 Geitonogamy involves

A. Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from another flower of the same plant

B. Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from the same flower

C. Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant in the same population

D. Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower of another plant belonging to a distant population

Q. 115 Male gametophyte with least number of cells is present in:

A. Pteris

B. Funaria

C. Lilium

D. Pinus

Q. 116 An aggregate fruit is one which develops from:

A. Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium

B. Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium

C. Complete inflorescence

D. Multicarpellary superior ovary

Q. 117 Pollen tablets are available in the market for:

A. In vitro fertilization

B. Breeding programs

C. Supplementing food

D. Ex situ conservation

Q. 118 Function of filiform apparatus is to

A. Recognize the suitable pollen at stigma

B. Stimulate division of generative cell

C. Produce nectar

D. Guide the entry of pollen tube

Q. 119 Non — albuminous seed is produced in :

A. Maize

B. Castor

C. Wheat

D. Pea

Q. 120 Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres ?

A. Poliovirus

B. Tobacco mosaic virus

C. Measles virus

D. Retrovirus

Q. 121 Which one of the following is wrongly matched ?

A. Transcription — Writing information From DNA to t — RNA

B. Translation — Using information in m — RNA to make protein

C. Repressor protein — Binds to operator to stop enzyme synthesis

D. Operon – Structural genes, operator and promoter

Q. 122 Transformation was discovered by :

A. Meselson and stahl

B. Hershey and chase

C. Griffith

D. Watson and Crick

Q. 123 Fruit color in squash is an example of:

A. Recessive epistasis

B. Dominant epistasis

C. Complementary genes

D. Inhibitory genes

Q. 124 Viruses here :

A. DNA enclosed in a protein coat

B. Prokaryotic nucleus

C. Single chromosome

D. Both DNA and RNA

Q. 125 The first human hormone produced by recombinant DNA technology is :

A. Insulin

B. Estrogen

C. Thyroxine

D. Progesterone

Q. 126 An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the southern hybridization technique does not use:

A. Electrophoresis

B. Blotting

C. Autoradiography

D. PCR

Q. 127 In vitro propagation in plants is characterized by :

A. PCR and RAPD

B. Northern blotting

C. Electrophoresis and HPLC

D. Microscopy

Q. 128 An alga which can be employed as food for human being is :

A. Ulothrix

B. Chlorella

C. Spirogyra

D. Polysiphonia

Q. 129 Which vector can clone only small fragment of DNA ?

A. Bacterial artificial chromosome

B. Yeast artificial chromosome

C. Plasmid

D. Cosmid

Q. 130 An example of ex situ conservation is :

A. National park

B. Seed Bank

C. Wildlife Sanctuary

D. Sacred Grove

Q. 131 A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the trees indicates that the

A. Trees are very healthy

B. Trees are heavily infested

C. Location is highly polluted

D. Location is not polluted

Q. 132 Match the following and select the correct option :

(a) Earthworm (i) Pioneer species

(b) Succession (ii) Detritivore

(c) Ecosystem service (iii) Natality

(d) Population growth (iv) Pollination

A. (1) 

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 133 A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called:

A. Vulnerable

B. Endemic

C. Critically Endangered

D. Extinct

Q. 134 The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone layer is present is called :

A. Ionosphere

B. Mesosphere

C. Stratosphere

D. Troposphere

Q. 135 The organization which publishes the Red list of species is :

A. ICFRE

B. IUCN

C. UNEP

D. WWF

Q. 136 Select the Taxon mentioned that represents both marine and freshwater species :

A. Echinoderms

B. Ctenophora

C. Cephalochordata

D. Cnidaria

Q. 137 Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks of cells wall ?

A. Cyanobacteria

B. Sea — Fan (Gorgonia)

C. Saccharomyces

D. Blue — Green algae

Q. 138 Planaria possess high capacity of:

A. Metamorphosis

B. Regeneration

C. Alternation of generation

D. Bioluminescence

Q. 139 A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is :

A. Pristis

B. Trygon

C. Trygon

D. Scoliodon

Q. 140 Choose the correctly matched pair :

A. Tendon – Specialized connective tissue

B. Adipose tissue — Dense connective tissue

C. Areolar tissue — Loose connective tissue

D. Cartilage — Loose connective tissue

Q. 141 Choose the correctly matched pair :

A. Inner lining of salivary ducts — Ciliated epithelium

B. Moist surface of buccal cavity – Glandular epithelium

C. Tubular parts of nephrons — Cuboidal epithelium

D. Inner surface of bronchioles — squamous epithelium

Q. 142 In ’s’ phase of the cell cycle

A. Amount of DNA doubles in each cell

B. Amount of DNA remains same in each cell.

C. Chromosome number is increased

D. Amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell

Q. 143 The motile bacteria are able to move by :

A. Fimbriae

B. Flagella

C. Cilia

D. Pili

Q. 144 Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action :

A. Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site

B. Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate

C. A non — competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that which binds the substrate

D. Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase

Q. 145 Which one of the following is a non — reducing carbohydrate?

A. Maltose

B. Sucrose

C. Lactose

D. Ribose 5 — phosphate

Q. 146 The enzyme recombines is required at which stage of meiosis :

A. Pachytene

B. Zygotene

C. Diplotene

D. Diakinesis

Q. 147 The initial step in the digestion of milk in human is carried out by ?

A. Lipase

B. Trypsin

C. Rennin

D. Pepsin

Q. 148 Fructose is absorbed bed into the blood through mucosa cells of intestine by the process called :

A. Active transport

B. Facilitated transport

C. Simple diffusion

D. Co-transport mechanism

Q. 149 Approximately seventy percent of carbon — dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs :

A. As bicarbonate ions

B. In the form of dissolved gas molecules

C. By binding to R.B.C

D. As carbamino — hemoglobin

Q. 150 Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has :

A. Both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma

B. Both A and B antibodies in the plasma

C. No antigen on RBC and no antibody in the plasma

D. Both A and antigens in the plasma but no antibodies

Q. 151 How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart ?

A. Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output

B. Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output.

C. Both heart rate and cardiac output increase

D. Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases.

Q. 152 Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule ?

A. Increase in aldosterone levels

B. Increase in antidiuretic hormone levels

C. Decrease in aldosterone levels

D. Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels

Q. 153 Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal system :

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 154 Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at :

A. The neuromuscular junction

B. The transverse tubules

C. The myofibril

D. The sarcoplasmic reticulum

Q. 155 Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt:

A. Short — term memory

B. Co-ordination during locomotion

C. Executive function, such as decision making

D. Regulation of body temperature

Q. 156 Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

A. Retinal is the light absorbing portion of visual photopigments

B. In retina the rods have the photopigment rhodopsin while cones have three different photopigments

C. Retinal is a derivative of vitamin C.

D. Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein present in rods only.

Q. 157 Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function :

A. Oxytocin — posterior pituitary, growth and maintenance of mammary glands

B. Melatonin — pineal gland, regulates the normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle.

C. Progesterone — corpus — luteum, stimulation of growth and activities of female secondary sex organs

D. Atrial natriuretic factor — ventricular wall increases the blood pressure.

Q. 158 Fight — or — flight reactions cause activation of:

A. The parathyroid glands, leading to increased metabolic rate.

B. The kidney, leading to suppression of renin angiotensin — aldosterone pathway

C. The adrenal medulla, leading to increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine

D. The pancreas leading to a reduction in the blood sugar levels

Q. 159 The shared terminal duct of the productive and urinary system in the human ale is :

A. Urethra

B. Ureter

C. Vas deferens

D. Vasa efferentia

Q. 160 The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce :

A. Estrogen only

B. Progesterone

C. Human chorionic gonadotropin

D. Relaxin only

Q. 161 Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female :

A. High level of FSH and LH stimulates the thickening of endometrium

B. High level of FSH and LH facilitate implantation of the embryo

C. High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of estrogen and progesterone.

D. High level of hCG stimulates the thickening of endometrium.

Q. 162 Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which :

A. Small party of fallopian tube is removed or tied up

B. Ovaries are removed surgically

C. Small party of vas deferens is removed or tied up.

D. Uterus is removed surgically

Q. 163 Which of the following is a hormone releasing intraUterine Device (IUD)

A. Multiload 375

B. LNG — 20

C. Cervical cap

D. Vault

Q. 164 Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of :

A. Ovum into fallopian tube

B. Zygote into the fallopian tube

C. Zygote into the uterus

D. Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian tube

Q. 165 A man whose father was color blind marries a woman who had a color blind mother and normal father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be color blind ?

A. 25%

B. 0%

C. 50%

D. 75%

Q. 166 In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. Based on this date, the frequency of allele a in the population is :

A. 0.4

B. 0.5

C. 0.6

D. 0.7

Q. 167 A human female with Turner’s syndrome :

A. Has 45 chromosomes with XO

B. Has one additional X chromosome

C. Exhibits male characters

D. Is able to produce children with normal husband

Q. 168 Select the correct option :

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 169 Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are :

A. T — DNA

B. BAC and YAC

C. Expression Vectors

D. T/A Cloning Vectors

Q. 170 Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking forelimbs of whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used in flying are an example of:

A. Analogous organs

B. Adaptive radiation

C. Homologous organs

D. Convergent evolution

Q. 171 Which one of the following are analogous structures ?

A. Wings of Bat and wings of Pigeon

B. Gills of Prawn and Lungs of Man

C. Thorns of Bougainvillea and Tendrils of Cucurbita

D. Flippers of Dolphin and Legs of Horse

Q. 172 Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown below?

A. Hallucinogen

B. Depressant

C. Stimulant

D. Pain — killer

Q. 173 At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS ?

A. Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person

B. When the infected retro virus enters host cells

C. When HIV damages large number of helper T—Lymphocytes

D. When the viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase

Q. 174 To obtain virus—free healthy plants from a diseased one by tissue culture technique, which part/parts of the diseased plant will be taken?

A. Apical meristem only

B. Palisade parenchyma

C. Both apical and axillary meristem

D. Epidermis only

Q. 175 What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters ?

A. Methane and CO₂ only

B. Methane, Hydrogen, sulphide and CO₂

C. Methane, Hydrogen sulphide and O₂

D. Hydrogen sulphide and CO₂

Q. 176 Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla to escape the heat for the duration of hot summer, thousands of migratory birds from Siberia and other extremely cold northern regions move to :

A. Western Ghat

B. Meghalaya

C. Corbett National Park

D. Keoladeo National Park

Q. 177 Given below is a simplified model of phosphorus cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem with four blanks (A-D) identify the blanks.

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 178 Given below is the representation of the extent of global diversity of invertebrates. What groups the four portions (A-D) represent respectively?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 179 A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial plant removes:

A. Gases like sulphur dioxide

B. Particulate matter of the size 5 micrometer or above

C. Gases like ozone and methane

D. Particulate matter of the size 2.5 micrometer or less

Q. 180 If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to peacock as food in the following chain?

Plant → mice → snake → peacock

A. 0.02 J

B. 0.002 J

C. 0.2 J

D. 0.0002 J

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	A	D	C	C	A	B	C	D	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	A	B	C	D	A	C	D	B	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	C	C	B	D	B	B	C	C	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	D	B	B	D	C	D	B	B	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	C	A	D	A	D	C	D	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	C	A	C	B	D	B	D	B	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	A	C	B	C	B	A	C	C	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	B	B	B	A	D	B	D	C	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	D	C	D	A	C	A	B	D	A	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	D	A	B	A	C	D	C	B	C	C
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	B	D	D	B	B	C	A	A	A	D
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	A	C	A	A	C	B	C	D	D	B
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	A	C	B	D	A	D	D	B	C	B
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	D	D	C	C	B	D	B	B	B	C
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	C	A	B	B	B	A	C	B	A	C
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	A	A	D	A	D	C	B	C	A	B
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	C	A	B	B	C	C	A	A	B	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	A	A	C	C	B	D	C	D	D	A