Medical Entrance Exam - Page 4 of 5

AIIMS UG 2009 Previous Year Paper

AIIMS UG 2009

Section	Questions	Marks
Physics	60 Questions (1 – 60)	60
Chemistry	60 Questions (61 – 120)	60
Biology	60 Questions (121 – 180)	60
General Knowledge	20 Questions (181 – 200)	20

Question: 1 A convex lens of refractive index 3/2 has a power of 2.5 D in air. It is placed in liquid of refractive index 2 then the new power of the lens is

A. -1.25 D

B. -1.5 D

C. 1.25 D

D. 1.5 D

Q. 2 What is the ratio of Bohr magneton to the nuclear magneton ?

A. mᵣ/mₑ

B. mᵣ²/mₑ²

C. 1

D. mₑ/mᵣ

Q. 3 When the inputs of a 2 input logic gate are 0 and 0 and the output is 1.When the inputs are 1 and 0 the output is 0 . The type of logic gate is

A. XOR

B. NAND

C. NOR

D. OR

Q. 4 de broglie wavelength λ associated with neutrons is related with absolute temperature T as

A. λ∝T

B. λ∝1/T

C. λ∝1/√T

D. λ∝T²

Q. 5 The dimensions of a specific resistance are :

A. ML²T⁻²A⁻¹

B. ML³T⁻³A⁻²

C. ML³T⁻²A⁻¹

D. ML²T⁻²A⁻²

Q. 6 Reciprocal if impedance is

A. Susceptance

B. conductance

C. admittance

D. transconductance

Q. 7 A nucleas of mass number 220 decays by α decay. The energy released in the reaction is 5 mev.The kinetic energy of α particle is :

A. 1/54 Mev

B. 22/11 Mev

C. 54/11 Mev

D. 55/54 Mev

Q. 8 Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square as shown in the figure .The direction of the electric field at the centre of the square is along

A. DC

B. BC

C. AB

D. AD

Q. 9 The wavelengths of kₐ x-rays for lead isotopes Pb²⁰⁸ Pb²⁰⁶ and Pb ²⁰⁴ are λ₁ λ₂ and λ₃

respectively . Then

A. λ₂ =√λ₁λ₃

B. λ₂ =λ₁+λ₃

C. λ₂ =λ₁λ₃

D. λ₂ =λ₁/λ₃

Q. 10 A force F acting on an object varies with distance x as shown in the figure . The force is in N and x is m . The work done by the force to move the object from x-=0 to x=6 m is

A. 13.5 J

B. 10J

C. 15 J

D. 20 J

Q. 11 Which of the following graph depicts spring constant K versus length L of the spring correctly ?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 12 A body of mass 5 kg moving with a speed 1.5 m/s on a horizontally smooth surface collides with nearly weightless spring of force constant k= 5 N/m. The maximum compression of the spring would be

A. 0.5 m

B. 0.15 m

C. 1.5 m

D. 1.12 m

Q. 13 A body is moved along a straight line by a machine delivering constant power.The distance travelled by a body in the time t is proportional to

A. t¹⁄2

B. t

C. t³⁄2

D. t²

Q. 14 Light with an energy flux of 18W/cm^2 falls on non reflecting surface at normal incidence .The pressure exerted on the surface is

A. 2 N/M²

B. 2×10⁻⁴N/M²

C. 6N/M²

D. 6×10⁻⁴ N/M²

Q. 15 The dimensional formula of Plancks constant is :

A. ML²T⁻¹

B. ML²T⁻²

C. ML⁰T²

D. MLT²

Q. 16 A body is projected horizontally with a velocity of 4√2 m/sec. The velocity of the body after 0.7 sec will be nearly.

A. 10 m/sec

B. 9 m /sec

C. 19 m /sec

D. 11 m/sec

Q. 17 Three equal weights of 3 kg each are hanging on a string passing over a frictionless pulley as shown in the figure .The tension in the string between masses II and III will be

A. 5 N

B. 6 N

C. 10 N

D. 20 N

Q. 18 A ball is bouncing down a set of stairs. the coefficient of restitution is e. the height of each step is d and the ball bounces one step at each bounce. after each bounce the ball rebounds to a height h above the next lower step.The height is large enough compared with the width of step so that the impacts are effectively head on .Find the relationship between h and d .

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 19 A conducting sphere of radius R carrying charge Q lies inside the uncharged conducting shell of radius 2R.IF they are joined by metal wire the amount of heat that will be produced is

A. 1/4∐εₒ( Q²/4R)

B. 1/4∐εₒ( Q²/2R)

C. 1/4∐εₒ( Q²/R)

D. 2/4∐εₒ( Q²/3R)

Q. 20 Black holes in orbit around a normal star are detected from the earth due to the frictional heating of infalling gas into the blackhole,which can reach temperature greater than 10⁶K. Assuming that the infalling gas can be modelled as a blackbody radiator , the wavelength of maximum power is

A. in the invisible region

B. in the x ray region

C. in the microwave region

D. in the gamma ray region in electromagnetic spectrum

Q. 21 Neglecting the density of air, the terminal velocity obtained by a raindrop of radius 0.3 mm falling through air of viscosity 1.8 x lO-s N s m2 will be

A. 10.9 m s⁻¹

B. 7.48 m s⁻¹

C. 3.7 m s⁻¹

D. 12.8m s⁻¹

Q. 22 A particle executes simple harmonic motion of period T and amplitude I along a rod AB of length •2L. The rod AB itself executes simple harmonic motion of the same period and amplitude in a direction perpendicular to its length. Initially, both the particle and the rod are in their mean positions. The path traced out by the particle will be

A. a circle of radius I

B. a straight line inclined at∐/4 to the rod

C. an ellipsea

D. figure of eight

Q. 23 What is the energy stored in the capacitor between terminals a and b of the network shown . in the figure? (Capacitance of each capacitance c = 1μF)

A. 12.5 μJ

B. 0 μJ

C. 25 μJ

D. 50 μJ

Q. 24 When a current is passed in a conductor, 3°C rise in temperature is observed. If the

strength of current is made thrice, then rise in temperature will approximately be

A. 36 °C

B. 27°C

C. 18°C

D. 9°C

Q. 25 In a metal with positive Thomson coefficient, current is passed from the lower temperature to higher temperature side. Then heat will be

A. absorbed

B. constant

C. evolved

D. either b or c

Q. 26 A moving coil galvanometer has a resistance of 900 Q. In order to send only 10% of the main current through this galvanometer, the resistance of the required shunt is

A. 0.9.Q

B. 100 Q

C. 405 Q

D. 90 Q

Q. 27 A current 11 carrying wire AB is placed near another long wire CD carrying current l₂ If wire AB is free to move, it will have

A. rotational motion only

B. translational motion only

C. rotational as well as translational motion

D. neither rotational nor translational motion

Q. 28 A coil of wire of a certain radius has 100 turns and a self inductance of 15 mH: The self inductance of a second similar coil of 500 turns will be

A. 75 mH

B. 375 mH

C. 15 mH

D. none of these

Q. 29 In a series LCR circuit the voltage across the resistance, capacitance and inductance is 10 V each. If the capacitance is short circuited the voltage across the inductance will be

A. 10 v

B. 10√2 v

C. 10/√2 v

D. 20 v

Q. 30 If Vₐ Vₓ and Vᵣn are the speeds of gamma rays, X-rays and microwaves respectively in vacuum, then.

A. Vₐ >Vₓ > Vᵣn

B. Vₐ < Vₓ < Vᵣn

C. Vₐ >Vₓ > Vᵣn

D. Vₐ = Vₓ = Vᵣn

Q. 31 Which out of following, cannot produce two coherent sources?

A. Lloyd’s mirror

B. Fresnel biprism

C. Young’s double slit

D. Prism

Q. 32 In Young’s double slit experiment, the two slits act as coherent sources of equal amplitude a and of wavelength λ. In another experiment with the same set up, the two slits are sources of equal amplitude a and wavelength A, but are incoherent. The ratio of intensities of light at the mid point of the screen in the first case to that in the second case is

A. 2:1

B. 1:2

C. 3:4

D. 4:3

Q. 33 If the kinetic energy of a particle is increased by 16 times, the percentage change in the de Broglie wavelength of the particle is

A. 25%

B. 75%

C. 60%

D. 50%

Q. 34 If the half lives of a radioactive element for α and β decay are 4 years and 12 years

respectively, the ratio of its inital activity and that after 12 years will be

A. 6.25%

B. 12.5%

C. 25%

D. 50%

Q. 35 In the given circuit, the potential difference between A and B is

A. 0

B. 5 volt

C. 10 volt

D. 15 volt

Q. 36 A ball is suspended by a thread of length L at the point O on a wall which is inclined to the vertical by α. The thread with the ball is displaced by a small angle β away from the vertical and also away from the wall. If the ball is released, the period of oscillation of the pendulum when β> α.will be

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 37 A radioactive nucleus is being produced at a constant rate α per second. Its decay constant is λ .If N₀ re the number of nuclei at time t = 0, then the maximum number of nuclei possible are

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 38 Awire of length 1 and mass m is bent in the form of a semicircle. The gravitational field intensity at the centre of semicircle is

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 39 In a concave mirror, an object is placed at a distance d1 from the focus and the image is formed at a distance dz from the focus. Then the focal length of the mirror is

A. √d₁d₂

B. d₁d₂

C. (d₁+d₂)/2

D. √d₁/d₂

Q. 40 A short linear object, of length I, lies along the axis of a concave mirror, of focal length f, at a distance d from the pole of the mirror. The size of the image is then (nearly)

A. lf/(d-f)

B. (d-f)/lf

C. l(f²)/(d-f)²

D. (d-f)²/l(f²)

Questions: 41 – 60

In the following questions (41·60), a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as :

Q. 41 Assertion: Liquid molecules have greater potential energy at the melting point.

Reason : Intermolecular spacing between molecules increases at melting point.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 42 Assertion: The bob of a simple pendulum is a ball full of water, if a fine hole is made in the bottom of the ball, the time period first increases and then decreases.

Reason : As water flows out of the bob the weight of bob decreases

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 43 Assertion: Electric potential of earth is taken zero.

Reason : No electric field exists on earth surface.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 44 Assertion: A charge, whether stationary or in motion produces a magnetic field around it.

Reason : Moving charges produce only electric. field in the surrounding space.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 45 Assertion: Magnetic susceptibillity is a pure number.

Reason : The value of magnetic susceptibility • for vacuum is one.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 46 Assertion: Transformers are used only in alternating current source not in direct current.

Reason : Only a.c, can be stepped up or down by means of transformers.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 47 Assertion: A total reflecting prism is used to erect the inverted image without deviation

Reason : Rays of light incident parallel to base of prism emerge out as parallel rays.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 48 Assertion: The edges of the images of white object formed by a concave mirror on the screen appear white.

Reason : Concave mirror does not suffer chromatic aberration.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 49 Assertion: A photon has no rest mass, yet it carries definite momentum.

Reason : Momemtum of photon is due to its energy and hence its equivalent mass.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 50 Assertion: A photocell is called an electric eye.

Reason : When light is incident on some semiconductor its electrical resistance is reduced.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 51 Assertion: Nuclei having number about 60 are most stable.

Reason : When two or more light nuclei are combined into a heavier nucleus, then the

binding energy per nucleon will increase.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 52 Assertion: The edges of the images of white object formed by a concave mirror on the screen appear white.

Reason : Concave mirror does not suffer chromatic aberration.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 53 Assertion : Most amplifiers use common emitter circuit configuration.

Reason : Its input resistance is comparatively higher.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 54 Assertion: For an isothermal process in an ideal gas, the heat obsorbed by the gas is entirely used in the work done by the gas.

Reason : During a process taking place in a system, the temperature remains constant

then the process is isothermal.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 55 Assertion: When hot water is poured in a beaker of thick glass, the beaker cracks.

Reason : Outer surface of the beaker expands suddenly.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 56 Assertion; Generally the path of a projectile from the earth is parabolic but it is elliptical for projectiles going to a very great height.

Reason : Up to ordinary height the projectile moves under a uniform gravitational force,

but for great heights, projectile moves under a variable force.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 57 Assertion: Angular speed of a planet around the sun increases, when it is closer to the sun.

Reason : Total angular momentum of the system remains constant.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 58 Assertion: The size and shape of the rigid body remains unaffected under the effect of external forces.

Reason : The distance bet”veen two particles remains constant in a rigid body.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 59 Assertion: Impulsive force is large and acts for a short time.

Reason : Finite change in momentum should be produced by the force.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 60 Assertion: The dimensional formula for product of resistance and conductance is same as for dielectric constant.

Reason : Both have dimensions of time constant.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 61 KF combines with HF to form KHF2 . This compound contains the species

A. K⁺ F⁻ and H⁺

B. K⁺ F⁻ and HF

C. K⁺ and (HF₂)⁻

D. (KHF)⁺ and F₂

Q. 62 For a dilute solution, Raoult’s law states that

A. the relative lowering of vapour pressure is proportional to the amount of solute in solution

B. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of solute

C. The lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute

D. the vapour pressure of the solution is equal to the mole fraction of the solvent

Q. 63 To a 25 ml H₂O₂ olution, excess of acidified solution of KI was added. The iodine liberated required 20 ml of 0.3 N Na₂S₂O₃ solution.The volume strength of H₂O₂ solution is

A. 1.344 g/L

B. 3.244 g/L

C. 5.4 g/L

D. 4.08 g/L

Q. 64 Which of the following shows bond in silicone?

A. Si-C-Si-C-Si

B. si-si-si-si

C. Si-O-Si-O-Si

D. Si-C-Si-0-Si

Q. 65 pH of a 0.01 M solution (Kₐ=6.6 ×10⁻⁴)

A. 7.6

B. 8

C. 2.6

D. 5

Q. 66 In a homogenous reaction A −> B + C + D the initial pressure was Po and after time t it was • P. Expression for rate constant k in terms of Po pand t will be

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 67 Which curve corresponds to the temperature dependance of the rate R of a simple one step reaction?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 68 A vessel of one litre capacity containing 1 mole of S03 is heated till a state of equilibrium is attained. At equilibrium, 0.6 moles of SO2 had formed. The value of equilibrium constant is

A. 0.18

B. 0.36

C. 0.45

D. 0.68

Q. 69 A 0.1 molal solution of an acid is 4.5% ionized. Calculate freezing point. (molecular weight of the acid is 300). Kf = 1.86 K mol⁻¹ kg.

A. -0.199°C

B. 2.00°C

C. 0°C

D. -0.269°C

Q. 70 Which of the following is an example of chain silicates?

A. Kaolinite

B. Zircon

C. Benitonite

D. Diopside

Q. 71 Which of the element shows +4 oxidation state?

A. Sn

B. Ra

C. Fr

D. Sc

Q. 72 Tincture of iodine is

A. aqueous solution of I₂

B. solution of I₂ in aqueous K

C. alcoholic solution of I₂

D. aqueous solution of KI

Q. 73 The specific conductance of a N/10 KCI at 25°C is 0.0112 ohm⁻¹ cm⁻¹The resistance of cell containing solution at the same temperature was found to be 55 ohm. The cell constant will be

A. 6.16 cm⁻¹

B. 0.616 cm⁻¹

C. 0.0616 cm⁻¹

D. 616 cm⁻¹

Q. 74 Decreasing order of stability of ions is

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 75 What is A?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 76 What is B?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 77 What is D?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 78 Mercurous chloride exists in the form of

A. Hg⁺

B. Hg²⁺

C. Hg₂²⁺

D. Hg₃²⁺

Q. 79 Formula of microcosmic salt is

A. Na₂HPO₄

B. Na(NH₄)HPO₄

C. K₂HPO₄

D. Na₂PO₄ . K₂PO₄

Q. 80 What is the molarity of H₂SO₄ solution that has a density of 1.84 g/cc at 35°C and contains 98% by weight?

A. 4.18 M

B. 8.14 M

C. 18.4 M

D. 18 M

Q. 81 A mixture of two miscible liquids A and B is distilled under equilibrium conditions at 1 atm pressure. The mole fraction of A in solution and vapour phase are 0.30 and 0.60 respectively. Assuming ideal behaviour of the solution and the vapour, calculate the ratio of the vapour pressure of pure A to that of pure B.

A. 4.0

B. 3.5

C. 2.5

D. 1.85

Q. 82 The variation of volume V, with temperature T, keeping pressure constant is called the coefficient of thermal expansion (a) of a gas. i.e. α= 1/V(∂Y/∂T)ₓ. For an ideal gas α is equal to :

A. T

B. 1/T

C. P

D. 1/P

Q. 83 The molecules having the same hybridization, shape and number of lone pairs of electrons are

A. SeF₄, XeO₂F₂

B. SF₄, XeF₂

C. XeOF₄, TeF₄

D. XeCl₄, XeF₄

Q. 84 The correct order of stability of the superoxides is

A. KO₂ > RbO₂ > CsO₂

B. KO₂ > CsO₂ > RbO₂

C. CsO₂ > RbO₂ > KO₂

D. RbO₂ > CsO₂ > KO₂

Q. 85 Schottky defect in crystals is observed when

A. unequal number cations and anions are missing from the lattice

B. equal number of cations and anions are missing from the lattice

C. an ion leaves its normal site and occupies an interstitial site

D. density of the crystal is increased

Q. 86 Consider the reaction

The correct explanation is

A. The product is formed due to nucleophilic substitution

B. The product is formed according to Saytzeff’s rule

C. The product is formed according to Saytzeff’s rule

D. (CH₃)₃CO⁻ is a better leaving group

Q. 87 2.5 g of the carbonate of a metal was treated with 100ml of IN H2S04, After the completion of the reaction, the solution was boiled off to expel CO2 and was then titrated against IN NaOH solution. The volume of alkali that would be consumed, if the equivalent weight of the metal is 20

A. 50

B. 25

C. 75

D. 100

Q. 88 In solvents like DMSO, acetonitrile, F⁻ ion of dissolved NaF is more reactive than in methyl alcohol. Explain

A. CH₃OH is more polar than DMSO and CH₃CN

B. CH₃OH is less polar than DMSO and CH₃CN

C. unsolved F⁻ ion is DMSO or CH₃CN acts more efficiently as nucleophile

D. -OH group is a better leaving group than F -ion

Q. 89 Which of the following fluorides has the lowest melting point?

A. BaF₂

B. SrF₂

C. CaF₂

D. BeF₂

Q. 90 Which of the following has the highest tendency to give the reaction

A. Na

B. Li

C. K

D. Rb

Q. 91 How many geometrical isomers are possible in the following two alkanes ?

(i) CH3 – CH =CH – CH = CH – CH3

(ii) CH3-CH= CH -CH = CH -Cl

A. 4 and 4

B. 4 and 3

C. 3 and 3

D. 3 and 4

Q. 92 The equilibrium constant for mutarotation α-D Glucose ⇔ β-D Glucose 1.8. What

percentage of α form remains at equilibrium?

A. 35.7

B. 64.3

C. 55.6

D. 44.4

Q. 93 2-phenylethylbromide when heated with NaOEt, elimination takes place. No deuterium exchange takes place when the reaction is carried out in C₂H₅OD solvent. The mechanism will be

A. E1 elimination

B. E2 elimination

C. E1cB elimination

D. E2 or E1cB

Q. 94 The M – O – M bond angles in M₂O (where M is halogen) is in the order

A. Br₂O > Cl₂O > F₂O

B. F₂O > Br₂O > Cl₂O

C. F₂O > Cl₂O > Br₂O

D. Cl₂O > F₂O > Br₂O

Q. 95 Hydroflouric acid is a weak acid. At 25°C, the molar conductivity of 0.002 M HF is 176.2 Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹. If its Λ°m = 405.2 Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹. Equilibrium constant at the given concentration is

A. 6.7 x 10⁻⁴ M

B. 3.2 x 10⁻⁴ M

C. 6.7 x 10⁻⁵ M

D. 3.2 x 10⁻⁵ M

Q. 96 In Oppenauer’s oxidation,

A. secondary alcohol is oxidised to carboxylic acid in acetone solvent using aluminium tertiary butaoxide

B. secondary alcohol is oxidised to carboxylic acid without affecting the C = C or C ≡ C bond buy aluminium tertiary butaoxide in acetone solvent

C. secondary alcohol is oxidised to ketone without affecting C = C or C ≡ C bond by aluminium tertiary butaoxide

D. secondary alcohol is oxidised to ketone by chromic acid – pyridine complex.

Q. 97 Incorrect statement about Ge is

A. GeO₂ is weakly acidic

B. Ge(OH)₂ s amphoteric

C. GeCl₂ is more stable than GeCl₄

D. Ge – Ge bond energy is lesser than that of Si – Si

Q. 98 In an isobaric process, when temperature changes from T₁ to T₂ ΔS is equal to

A. 2.303 Cp log (T₂/T₁)

B. 2.303 Cp ln (T₂/T₁)

C. Cp ln (T₁/T₂)

D. Cv ln (T₂/T₁)

Q. 99 In the given reaction A and B are ?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 100 In the following sequence of the reactions, identify the final product.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Questions: 101 – 120

In the following questions (101-120), a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as :

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

Q. 101 Assertion: Electromeric effect is brought into play only at the requirement of the reagent.

Reason : It is a temporary effect in which bond pair is shifted to one of the constituent atoms.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 102 Assertion: In fused state, calcium chloride cannot be used to dry alcohol or NH3.

Reason : CaCI2 is not a good dessicant.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 103 Assertion: Heat of neutralisation of nitric acid with NaOH is same to that of HCl and NaOH.

Reason : In both cases strong add and strong bases are neutralised.

H⁺+OH⁻ −> H₂O

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 104 Assertion: Cis-2-butene gives meso-2 ,3-butanediol with dilute alkaline KMn04 solution.

Reason : Dilute alkaline KMn04 solution gives trans addition with alkenes.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 105 Assertion: Ethers can be dried by using sodium wire.

Reason : Ethers do not react with sodium.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 106 Assertion: In rate law, unlike in the expression for equilibrium constants, the exponents for concentrations do not necessarily match the stoichiometric coefficients.

Reason : It is the mechanism and not the balanced chemical equation for the overall

change that governs the reaction rate

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 107 Assertion: The presence of Ag” enhances the solubility of alkenes in water.

Reason : Alkenes are weakly polar in nature.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 108 Assertion: A reaction which is spontaneous and accompanied by decrease of randomness must be exothermic.

Reason : All exothermic reactions are accompanied by decrease of randomness.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 109 Assertion: Compressibility factor for hydrogen varies with pressure with positive slope at all pressure.

Reason : Even at low pressure, repulsive forces dominate for hydrogen gas

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 110 Assertion: p-N,N-ditncthylaminobenzaldehyde. undergoes benzoin condensation.

Reason : The aldehydic (-CHO) group is meta directing.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 111 Assertion: The S-S-S bond angle in 58 molecule is 105!!.

Reason : S8 has a V-shape.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 112 Assertion: Sodium formate has both the C – 0 bonds have same value 1.27 A.

Reason : Equal bond length is due to the phenomenon of resonance

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 113 Assertion: C2H5Brreacts with alcoholic solution of AgN02 to form nitroethanc as the major product.

Reason : NO;’ is an ambidient ion.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 114 Assertion: Ice ~ water, if pressure is applied water will evaporate.

Reason : Increases of pressure pushes the equilibrium towards the side in which number of gilseous molecule increases

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 115 Assertion: Ebonite is highly vulcanised rubber.

Reason : Perlon is used in the manufacture of fibres

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 116 Assertion: Al forms (AlF₆)⁻³ but doesnot form (BF₆)⁻³

Reason : B does not react with fluorine

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 117 Assertion: Esters which contain a-hydrogensundergo Claisen condensation.

Reason : LiAlH4 reduction of esters gives acid

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 118 Assertion: In an acid-base titration involving strong base and a weak acid, methyl orange can be used as an indicator.

Reason : Methyl orange changes its colour in pH range of 7 to 9

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 119 Assertion: Millon’s test is a test for identification of proteins.

Reason : Millon’s reagent is a solution of mercurous nitrate and mercuric nitrate in nitrite acid containing little nitrous acid

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 120 Assertion: Cu(OH)₂ is soluble in NH40H but not in NaOH

Reason : Cu(OH)₂ forms a soluble complexwith NH

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 121 What is diapedesis?

A. a kind of amoeboid movement

B. the process of filtration of urea in kidney

C. a type of locomotion found in Hydra

D. migration of WBCs into the tissue spaces from blood capillaries

Q. 122 Which one of the following depresses brain activity and produces feelings of calmness, relaxation and drowsiness?

A. morphine

B. valium

C. amphetamines

D. hashish

Q. 123 Which of the following nerves arises from organ of Corti?

A. olfatory nerve

B. cochlear nerve

C. abducens nerve

D. none of these

Q. 124 Delicate hair-like feathers which remain sparsely distributed over the body arc

A. coverts

B. filoplumes

C. plumules

D. remiges

Q. 125 Homo erccius evolved during erccius evolved during

A. pleistocene

B. miocene

C. pliocene

D. holocene

Q. 126 Which of the following postulates is related with Neo-Darwinism?

A. mutations are believed to help form new species

B. it incorporates isolation as an essential component of evolution

C. it can explain the occurrence of unchanged forms over millions of years

D. all of the above

Q. 127 Intermediate host is absent in the infection of

A. plasmodium

B. Trypanosoma

C. entamoeba

D. filarial worm

Q. 128 Which one feature is common to leech, cockroach and scorpion?

A. nephridia

B. ventral nerve cord

C. cephalization

D. antennae

Q. 129 The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of Fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small bronchi are known a

A. squamous epithelium

B. columnar epithelium

C. ciliated epithelium

D. cuboidal epithelium

Q. 130 A person who shows unpredictable moods, outbursts of emotions, quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts with others is suffering from

A. borderline personality disorder (BPD

B. mood disorder

C. addictive disorder

D. schizophrenia

Q. 131 In humans at the end of first meiotic division, the male germ cells differentiate into the

A. primary sperrnatocytes

B. secondary spermatocytes

C. spermatids

D. spermatogonia

Q. 132 Contraceptive oral pills help in birth control by

A. killing the sperms in uterus

B. preventing implantation

C. reventing ovulation

D. both b and c

Q. 133 Which one of the following is a sesamoid bone?

A. pelvis

B. patella

C. pterygoid

D. pectoral girdle.

Q. 134 Respiration is controlled by

A. medulla oblongata

B. cerebellum

C. hypothalamus

D. cerebrum

Q. 135 Duodenum has characteristic Brunner’s gland which secretes two hormones called

A. prolactin, parathormone

B. ecretin, cholecystokinin

C. nterocrinin, duocrinin

D. gastrin, euterogastrone.

Q. 136 Which 0 f the follow ing species has the chromosome complement similar to that of Triticum aestiuum?

A. Zen mays

B. Scenic cercale

C. Gosefpium

D. egilope

Q. 137 Eugenics is the branch concerned with

A. improving the quality of human race by symptomatic treatment of genetic diseases

B. improving the quality of human populations by the application of genetic principles

C. improving the quality of human race by providing best suitable environment

D. none of these

Q. 138 What is incorrect about the following figure representing DNA replication?

A. the direction of DNA.replication in strand in (i)

B. the direction of DNA.replication in strand in (ii)

C. discontinuous replication of strand (i)

D. discontinuous replication of strand (ii)

Q. 139 Which of the following is the characteristic of PS-I.

A. it is active only upto 680 nm of light

B. the reaction centre of PS-I is P680

C. PS-I is reduced by the electrons released in photolysis of water

D. PS-I is involved in non-cyclic photophosphorylation.

Q. 140 Bark refers to

A. phellem + phellogen + phelloderm

B. periderm + cortex

C. phellem + phelloderm + secondary phloem

D. periderm + cortex + pericycle + secondary phloem

Q. 141 Cotton fibres mainly contains

A. cellulose

B. glycogene

C. protein

D. lipids

Q. 142 The outermost limiting layer of mycoplasma is made up of

A. cell wall

B. cell membrane

C. mucilaginous sheath

D. slime layer

Q. 143 Which of the following statements about Spirog’Ym is correct?

A. ateral conjugation takes place in homothallic species

B. scalariform conjugation takes place in homothallic species

C. lateral conjugation takes place in heterothallic species

D. he type of conjugation is unrelated to homothallic & heterothallic species

Q. 144 Which of the following sugars is not found in plants?

A. sucrose

B. glucose

C. lactose

D. fructose

Q. 145 The binding site of tRNA with mRNA & amino acids respectively are

A. mRNA with DHU loop & amino acid with CCAend

B. m RNA with CCA end & amino acid with anticodon loop

C. mRNA with anticodon loop & amino acid with DHU loop

D. mRNA with anticodon loop & amino acid with CCA end

Q. 146 Percentage of recombination between A and B is 9%, A and C is 17%, Band C is 26% , then the arrangement of genes is

A. ABC

B. ACB

C. BCA

D. BAC

Q. 147 Which of the following is true?

A. umbel is a racemose inflorescence where all stalked flower aggregate on the flat receptacle

B. raceme is a racemose inflorescence having main axis shortened & flower born acropetally

C. spadix is a racemose inflorescence having pendulous spike with main axis much flattened

D. spike is a racemose inflorescence having sessile flowers

Q. 148 Jute fibres deteriorate quickly because

A. cellulose content is high

B. lignin content is high

C. cellulose content is low

D. lignin content is low

Q. 149 The branched sclereids present in hydrophytes are

A. ostcosclereids

B. trichosclereids

C. macrosclereids

D. astrosclereids

Q. 150 The enzyme decarboxylase catalyses the following step

A. conversion of citric acid to cis aconitic acid

B. fumaric acid to malic acid

C. oxalosuccinic acid to a-ketoglutaric acid

D. malic acid to oxaloacetic acid

Q. 151 Which of the following is true regarding the given electron transport chain?

CoQ → Cyt c → Cyt aa₃ → O₂

A. CoQ → Cyt c is H⁺ absorbing site

B. aa₃ → O₂, H⁺ yielding site

C. CoQ → Cyt c is H⁺ yielding site and aa₃ → O₂ is H⁺ absorbing site

D. no H⁺ is absorbed or released

Q. 152 Which one of the following is not a microelernent for plants?

A. Cu

B. B

C. Zn

D. Cr

Q. 153 National bird of india is

A. Psittacula

B. Passer domesiicus

C. Pauo cristatus

D. Parakeet

Q. 154 Rain is called acid-rain when its pH is below

A. 7 pH

B. 6.5 pH

C. 6 pH

D. 5.6 pH

Q. 155 Cytokines that provide non specific immunity against virus are

A. interleukin

B. tumour necrosi

C. colony stimulating

D. interferon

Q. 156 By all of the following ways bacteria become resistant to antibiotic except

A. making enzymes that inactivate the drug

B. becoming impermeable to the drug

C. modifying the target of the drug

D. moving away from the drug

Q. 157 Specific proteins responsible for the flow of materials and information into the cell are called

A. membrane receptors

B. carrier proteins

C. integral proteins

D. none of these

Q. 158 Which of the following conditions represents a case of co-dominant genes?

A. a gene expresses itself f, suppressing the phenotypic effect of its alleles

B. genes that are similar in phenotypic effect. when present separately, but when

together interact to produce a different trait

C. alleles, both of which interact to produce a: trait, which mayor may not resemble either of the parental types

D. alleles, each of which produces an independent: effect in a heterozygous condition

Q. 159 The first bioherbicide developed in 1981 was based on

A. Phytopirthora palmiuora

B. Plrytoplrthorn in/estall

C. Bacilllls thuringiensis

D. Azadirachta indica

Q. 160 Upon fertilization, what structure develops from carpel?

A. Testa

B. tegman

C. pericarp

D. perisperm

Questions: 161 – 180

In the following questions (161-180), a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as :

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

(d) If both assertion and reason are false

Q. 161 Assertion: Secondary succession takes place in • recently denuded area.

Reason : It is caused due to baring of an . area

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 162 Assertion: Connective tissue inside the brain is essential for conduction of nerve impulse.

Reason : Connective tissue hold together the nerve cells of brain.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 163 Assertion: Mammary glands are apocrine glands.

Reason : The distal part containing secretory granules break down and leaves as a secretion.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 164 Assertion: Cytokinins increases shelf life of fruits and vegetables.

Reason : Cytokinins induce cell division.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 165 Assertion : Angina pectoris means “pain in the chest”.

Reason : It results due to carrying of extra blood to the heart muscle.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 166 Assertion: Protandry and protogyny ensures cross fertilization.

Reason : Cross fertilization introduces variation in progeny.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 167 Assertion: Bursa fabricii lies on the ventral side of the cloaca in birds.

Reason : Bursa fabricii is related with flight adaptation.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 168 Assertion: Glycolysis is the first step of respiration in which glucose completely breaks into CO2 and H20.

Reason : In this process, there is net gain of twenty four molecules of ATP.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 169 Assertion: Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA to produce sticky ends.

Reason : Stickiness of the ends facilitates the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 170 Assertion: Excess of nitrates in drinking water are harmful for infants.

Reason : Nitrates are responsible for blue baby syndrome

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 171 Assertion: Amniocentesis is a process of foetal sex determination.

Reason : Metabolic errors and other diseases can be diagnosed prenatally by this process.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 172 Assertion: Pollen mother cells (PMCs) arc the first male gametophytic cells.

Reason : Each PMC gives rise to two pollens.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 173 Assertion: Nucleus is the controlling centre of a cell.

Reason : Pores in the nuclear envelop regulate the flow of materials in and out of the nucleus.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 174 Assertion: Hormone calcitonin has antagonistic effect to that of parathormone.

Reason : Calcitonin decreases blood calcium level while parathorrnone increases blood calcium level.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 175 Assertion: Dark reaction occurs only at night in the stroma of chloroplast.

Reason : CO2 fixation occurs only during C3 cycle.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 176 Assertion: The primitive atmosphere was reducing one i.e. without oxygen.

Reason : In the primitive atmosphere, oxygen was involved in forming ozone layer

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 177 Assertion: Jave Ape-man, Peking man and Heidelberg man are the fossils of Homo crcctus.

Reason : Homo erecius evolved from Homo hnbilie.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 178 Assertion: Loss of water produces a negative hydrostatic pressure.

Reason : Positive hydrostatic pressure is developed due to osmotic entry of water in.o it.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 179 Assertion:Mammalian ova produces hyaluronidase.

Reason : TIle eggs of mammal are microlecithal and telolecithal.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 180 Assertion: A gamete may carry either of the traits but not both.

Reason : This is Mendel’s second law or law of independent assortment.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 181 A pendulum clock is set to give correct time at the sea level. The clock is moved to a hill station at an altitude 11 above sea level. In order to keep correct time on the hill station which one of the following adjustments is required?

A. the length of the pendulum has to be reduced

B. the length of the pendulum has to be increased

C. the mass of the pendulum has to be increased

D. the mass of the pendulum has to be reduced

Q. 182 Match List I with List II (Given in the figure) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. A(4), B(1), C(2), D(3)

B. A(3), B(1), C(2), D(4)

C. A(3), B(2), C(1), D(4)

D. A(4), B(2) C(1) D(3)

Q. 183 The President of India is elected by

A. members of both Houses of Parliament

B. members of both Houses of Parliament and of State Legislatures

C. members of both Houses of Parliament and of State Legislative Assemblies

D. elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members of state Legislative Assemblies

Q. 184 Who wrote the book ‘India Wins Freedom’?

A. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

B. Mahatma Gandhi

C. Sir Mohammad Iqbal

D. Abdul Ghaffar Khan.

Q. 185 Consider the following statements about the National Anthem:

It was first sung on December 27, 1911 at the Calcutta session of the Indian National Congress. It was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on January 26, 195 Playing time of the full version of the National Anthem is approximately 52 second Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2

C. 1 and 3

D. 2 and 3

Q. 186 Match List I with List II (Given in the figure) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. A(2), B(1), C(5), D(4)

B. A(3), B(4), C(2), D(5)

C. A(3), B(2), C(4), D(1)

D. A(2), B(1), C(3), D(5)

Q. 187 The metal compound commonly found in Sindhoor or Kumkum is based on

A. tin

B. lead

C. copper

D. zinc

Q. 188 Which among the following thermometers is. preferred for measuring temperature around 1250°C?

A. mercury thermometer

B. mercury thermometer

C. optical pyrometer

D. platinum resistance thermometer

Q. 189 The term stagflation refers to a situation where

A. growth has no relation with the change in prices

B. rate of growth and prices both are decreasing

C. rate of growth is faster than the rate of price increase

D. rate of growth is slower than the rate of price increase

Q. 190 Which event brought about a profound change in Ashoka’s administrative policy?

A. the third Buddhist council

B. the Kalinga war

C. his embracing of buddhism

D. his sending of missionary to Ceylon.

Q. 191 The plant dye Henna imparts orange-red colour to skin and hair due to its reaction with which of the following?

A. proteins and amino acids

B. lipids

C. carbohydrates

D. nucleic adds.

Q. 192 Match List I with List II (Given in the figure) and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. A(2), B(3), C(4), D(1)

B. A(1), B(4), C(3), D(2)

C. A(2), B(4), C(3), D(1)

D. A(1), B(3), C(4), D(2)

Q. 193 Delingha came recently in news? What is this?

A. it is an endangered species of an Indian bird

B. it is place in Europe which was struck by an earthquake

C. China recently deployed missiles in the Delingha near Tibet sending alarming signals across political establishment in India

D. None of these

Q. 194 Octopus is an anti-terror ageny of

A. Kerela

B. Andhra Pradesh

C. Karnataka

D. Gujarat

Q. 195 Indira Gandhi Prize for peace, disarmament and development has recently been conferred on

A. Bill gates

B. Jacob Zurna

C. Asma Jahangir

D. None of the above

Q. 196 India’s Deep Joshi has recently been honoured with

A. Magsaysay Award

B. Whitely Prize

C. Right to Livelihood Award

D. None of these

Q. 197 The runner up in 2009Wimbledon Men’s Singles was

A. Roger Federer

B. Rafael Nadal

C. Andy Roddick

D. None of the above

Q. 198 Who amongst the following cricketers has been chosen for Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, 2007?

A. Rahul DravID

B. M.S Dhoni

C. Sachin Tendulkar

D. Virender Sehwag.

Q. 199 Who amongst the following became the first woman pilot in the world to fly MIG-35 fighter plane?

A. Suman Sharma

B. Saudamini Deshmukh

C. Kirsty Moore

D. Nicole Malachowski.

Q. 200 Mr. Paul Krugman whose name was in news recently is a famous

A. medical scientist

B. econimist

C. author

D. astrophysicist.

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	A	C	C	B	C	C	A	A	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	C	C	D	A	B	D	A	A	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	B	A	B	A	B	C	B	C	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	A	B	A	C	A	D	C	A	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	B	C	D	C	A	A	A	A	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	C	A	B	C	A	A	A	A	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	B	D	C	C	A	B	D	D	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	B	B	B	C	C	A	B	B	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	A	A	A	C	B	C	A	C	D	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	D	A	B	A	A	C	C	A	B	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	A	C	A	C	A	A	B	C	A	B
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	C	A	B	D	B	C	C	D	B	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	D	B	B	B	A	D	C	B	C	A
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	B	D	B	A	B	C	B	C	D	D
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	A	B	A	C	D	D	D	B	D	C
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	D	C	D	D	D	B	D	A	C
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	A	D	A	B	C	B	D	D	C	A
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	B	D	B	A	D	C	B	D	D	C
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	A	B	D	A	C	B	D	D	D	B
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	A	A	C	B	A	A	C	B	A	B

AIIMS UG 2008 Previous Year Paper

AIIMS UG 2008

Section	Questions	Marks
Physics	60 Questions (1 – 60)	60
Chemistry	60 Questions (61 – 120)	60
Biology	60 Questions (121 – 180)	60
General Knowledge	20 Questions (181 – 200)	20

Q : 1 In an electrical circuit containing L , C and R which of the following does not denote the dimensions of frequency ?

A. LC

B. 1/√(LC)

C. 1/RC

D. R/L

Q. 2 The displacement time graph of a particle moving along a straight line is drawn below.The accelerations of the particle during the regions OP, PQ and QR are :

A. OP- (-), PQ-(0),OR-(+)

B. OP,-(+)PQ-(0),QR-(+)

C. OP-(+),PQ-(0),QR-(-)

D. OP-(-),PQ-(0),QR-(-)

Q. 3 A particle of mass m moves with constant speed along a circular path of radius r under the action of force F. Its speed is:

A. √(Fr/m)

B. √(F/r)

C. √(Fmr)

D. √(F/mr)

Q. 4 A bullet is fired from a rifle and the rifle recoils.Kinetic energy of rifle is

A. less than K.E of bullet

B. greater than K.E of bullet

C. equal to K.E of buller

D. none of the above

Q. 5 Side of an equilateral triangle is l. Three point masses, each of magnitude m,are placed at the three vertices of the triangle . Moment of inertia of this system about one side of the triangle as axis is given by

A. 3ml²/4

B. 4ml²/3

C. 3ml²/2

D. 2ml²/3

Q. 6 P,Q and R are three coplanar forces acting at a point and are in equilibrium. Given P = 1.9318 kg . wt [sin θ₁ =0.9659], the value of R (in Kg wt) is

A. 0.9659

B. 2

C. 1

D. 1/2

Q. 7 Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the nth power of distance. Then the time period of a planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sun will be proportional to

A. R⁽ⁿ⁺¹⁾½

B. R⁽ⁿ⁻¹⁾½

C. Rⁿ

D. R⁽ⁿ⁻²⁾½

Q. 8 A Ge specimen is doped with Al. The concentration of acceptor atoms is 10²¹ atoms/m³. Given that the intrinsic concentration of electron hole pair is 10¹⁹/m³ the concentration of electrons in the specimen is:

A. 10¹⁷/m³

B. 10¹⁵/m³

C. 10⁴/m³

D. 10²/m³

Q. 9 A slab consists of two layers of different materials of the same thickness and having thermal conductivities K₁ and K₂ are connected in series.

A. (2K₁K₂)/(K₁+K₂)

B. √(K₁K₂)

C. (K₁K₂)/(K₁+K₂)

D. K₁+K₂

Q. 10 In Young’s double slit experiment, the distance between two slits is made three times then the fridge width will become:

A. 9 times

B. 1/9 times

C. 3 times

D. 1/3 times

Q. 11 A laser beam is used for carrying out surgery because, it

A. is highly monochromatic

B. is highly coherent

C. is highly directional

D. can be sharply focussed

Q. 12 A converging lens form a real image of an object on its principle axis. A rectangular slab refractive index and thickness x is introduced between and the lens, l will move:

A. towards the lens (μ-1)x

B. towards the lens by (1-1/μ)x

C. away from the lens by (μ-1)x

D. away from the lens by (1-1/μ)x

Q. 13 The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium permittivity and permeability is given by

A. 1/√(μ₀ε₀)

B. √(μ₀/ε₀)

C. √ε₀/√μ₀

D. √(μ₀ε₀)

Q. 14 Electric field at centre of a uniformly charged semicircle of radius a is:

A. λ/2πε₀a²

B. λ/4π²ε₀a²

C. λ²/2πε₀a

D. λ/2πε₀a

Q. 15 If frequency of R-L circuit is f then impedance will be

A. √(R²+(2πfL)²)

B. R²+(2πf²)²

C. √(R²+πf²L)

D. R²+(2πf)²

Q. 16 Two closed organ pipes of length 100 cm and 101 cm produces 16 beats in 20 sec. When each pipe is sounded in its fundamental mode calculate the velocity of sound?

A. 303 m/s

B. 332 m/s

C. 323.2 m/s

D. 300 m/s

Q. 17 A certain gas is taken to the five states represented by dots in the graph. The plotted lines are isotherms. Order of the most probable speed v of the molecules at these five states is:

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 18 N atoms of a radioactive element emit N beta particles per second. The decay constant of the element is (in /s)

A. N₁/N₂

B. N₂/N₁

C. N₁ (ln 2)

D. N₂ (ln 2)

Q. 19 Figure shows the variation of energy with the orbit radius r of a satellite in a circular motion. Mark the correct statement.

A. C is total energy, B total energy and C potential energy

B. A is kinetic energy, B total energy and C potential energy

C. A and B are the kinetic and potential energies and C the total energy of the satellite

D. C and A are kinetic and potential energy respectively and B the total energy of the satellite

Q. 20 Two charges +q and -q are attached to the two ends of light rod of length L, as shown in figure. The system is given a velocity v perpendicular to magnetic field B̅. The magnetic force on the system of charges and magnitude of force on one charge by the rod , are respectively

A. zero,zero

B. zero,qvB

C. 2qvB,0

D. 2qvB,qvB

Q. 21 If a wire is extended to a new length l, the work done is

A. YA(l-l’)/l

B. YA(l-l’)²/l

C. YA(l-l’)²/2l

D. 2YA(l-l’)²/l

Q. 22 The equivalent resistance between the points X and Y in the following circuit diagram will be:

A. 10 ohm

B. 5 ohm

C. 7 ohm

D. 3 ohm

Q. 23 The intensity of magnetic field due to an isolated pole of strength mₐ at a point distant r from it will be

A. mₐ/r²

B. mₐ/r²

C. r²/mₐ

D. mₐ/r

Q. 24 A bulb and a condenser are connected in series with an A.C source. On increasing the frequency of the source its brightness will

A. increase

B. decrease

C. sometimes increase and sometimes decrease

D. neither increase nor decrease

Q. 25 Two heater wires, made of the same material and having the same length and the same radius, are first connected in series and then parallel to a constant potential difference. If the rates of heat produced in the two cases are Hᵤ and Hᵥ, respectively. then, Hᵤ/Hᵥ will be

A. 1/2

B. 2

C. 1/4

D. 4

Q. 26 The ratio of magnetic fields on the axis of a circular current carrying coil of radius a to the magnetic field at its centre will be

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 27 Lumen is the unit of

A. luminous flux

B. luminosity

C. illumination

D. quantity of light

Q. 28 A charge q is uniformly distributed on a ring radius r. A sphere of an equal radius is constructed with its centre lying on the periphery of the ring. The flux of electric field through the surface of the sphere will be

A. q/ε₀

B. q/2ε₀

C. q/3ε₀

D. q/4ε₀

Q. 29 When 100 V d.c is applied across a coil, a current of 1A flows through it. When 100V a.c of 50 Hz is applied to the same coil only 0.5 A flows. The inductance of the coil:

A. 0.55 H

B. 5.5 mH

C. 0.55 mH

D. 55 mH

Q. 30 A bulb of 25 W, 200 V and the another bulb of 100W, 200 V are connected in series with a supply line of 220 V. Then

A. both bulbs will glow with same brightness

B. both bulbs will get fused

C. 25 W bulb will glow more brightly

D. 100 W bulb will glow more brightly

Q. 31 Which of the following is matched wrongly?

A. oil drop experiment —-> Millikan

B. dual nature of light —-> de Broglie

C. uncertainty principle —> Heisenberg

D. none of these

Q. 32 The forbidden gap in the energy bands of silicon is:

A. 2.6eV

B. 1.1 eV

C. 0.1 eV

D. 6 eV

Q. 33 When white light passes through a prism, the deviation is maximum for

A. violet light

B. green light

C. red light

D. yellow light

Q. 34 Which of the following gates correspond to the truth table given below?

A. NAND

B. OR

C. XOR

D. NOR

Q. 35 Light is incident normally on a diffraction grating through which the first diffraction is seen at 32⁰. In the case the second order diffraction will be

A. at 80⁰

B. at 64⁰

C. at 48⁰

D. there is no second order diffraction

Q. 36 If there were no atmosphere, the average temperature on earth surface on earth surface would be:

A. lower

B. higher

C. same

D. 0⁰ C

Q. 37 The current curve between logₑ J/T² and /T

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 38 An object 5 cm tall is placed 1 m from a concave spherical mirror which has a radius of curvature of 20 cm. The size of the image is

A. 0.11 cm

B. 0.50 cm

C. 0.55 cm

D. 0.60 cm

Q. 39 The magnifying power of a compound microscope increase with

A. the focal length of objective lens is increased and that of eye lens is decreased

B. the focal length of eye lens is increased and that of objective lens is decreased

C. focal lengths of both objects and eye-piece are increased

D. focal lengths of both objects and eye-piece are decreased

Q. 40 A thread is tied slightly loose to a wire frame as in figure and the frame as in figure and the frame is dropped into a soap solution and taken out. The frame is completely covered with the film. When the portion A is punctured with a pin, the thread

A. becomes concave towards A

B. becomes convex towards A

C. either (a) or (b) depending on the size of A with respect to B

D. remains in the initial position

Questions: 41 – 60

Directions : In the following questions (41-60), a statement of assertion (A) is

followed by a statement of a reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

(b) If the both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

Q. 41 Assertion : In the relation f = √(T/μ)/2l , where symbols have standard meaning, m represent linear mass density.

Reason : The frequency has the dimensions of inverse of time.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 42 Assertion : When the velocity of projection of a body is made n times, its time of flight becomes n times.

Reason : Range of projectile does not depend on the initial velocity of the body.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 43 Assertion : A needle placed carefully on the surface of water may float, whereas a ball of the same material will always sink.

Reason : The buoyancy of an object depends both on the material and shape of the shape.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 44 Assertion : The colour of the green flower seen through red glass appears to the dark.

Reason : Red glass transmits only red light.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 45 Assertion : The alternating current lags behind the e.m.f by a phase angle of π/2, when AC flows through an inductor.

Reason : The inductive resistance increases as the frequency of AC source decreases.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 46 Assertion : A spark occur between the poles of a switch when the switch is opened.

Reason : Current flowing in the conductor produces magnetic field.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 47 Assertion : X-rays can penetrate through the flesh but not through the bones.

Reason : The penetrating power of X-rays depends on voltage.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 48 Assertion : It is essential that all the lines available in the emission spectrum will also be available in the absorption spectrum.

Reason : The spectrum of hydrogen atom is only absorption spectrum

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 49 Assertion : A double convex lens(μ=1.5) has focal length 10 cm. When the lens is immersed in water (μ=4/3) its focal length becomes 77 cm.

Reason : 1/f = (μᵣ – μₐ)(1/R₁ – 1/R₂)/μₐ

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 50 Assertion : Diode lasers are used as optical sources in optical communication.

Reason : Diode lasers consume less energy.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 51 Assertion : We cannot think of magnetic field configuration with three poles.

Reason : A bar magnet does exert a torque on itself due to its own field.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 52 Assertion : In a SHM, Kinetic and potential energies become equal when the displacement is 1/√2 times the amplitude.

Reason : In SHM, Kinetic energy is zero when potential energy is maximum

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 53 Assertion : A bird perches on a high power line and nothing happens to the bird.

Reason : The level of bird is very high from the ground.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 54 Assertion : Stopping potential depends upon the frequency of incident light but is

independent of the intensity of the light.

Reason : The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is proportional to stopping

potential.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 55 Assertion : When radius of circular loop carrying current is doubles, its magnetic moment becomes four times.

Reason : Magnetic moment depends on area of the loop.

A. aa

B. bb

C. cc

D. dd

Q. 56 Assertion : When radius of circular loop carrying current is doubled , its magnetic moment becomes four times.

Reason : Magnetic moment depends on area of loop.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 57 In the following circuit in the figure , emf is 2V and internal resistance of the cell is 1 ohm and R = 1 ohm, then reading of the voltmeter is 1V.

Reason : V= E- IR where E = 2V, I= 2/2 = 1A

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 58 Assertion : It is essential that all the lines available in the emission spectrum will also be available in the absorption spectrum.

Reason : The spectrum of hydrogen

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 59 Assertion : The energy of charged particles moving in a uniform magnetic field does not change.

Reason : Work done by magnetic field on the charge is zero.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 60 Assertion : ⁹⁰Sr from the radioactive fall out from a nuclear bomb ends up in the bones of human beings through the milk consumed by them. It causes impairment of production of red blood cells.

Reason : The energies β-particles emitted in the decay of ⁹⁰Sr damage the bone marrow.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 61 Identify Z in the reaction

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 62 For the reaction, 2NO₂ + F₂ —> NO₂F + F (slow)

NO₂ + F —-> NO₂F(fast)

Thus the rate expression of the above reaction can be written as:

A. r = K [NO₂]₂ [F₂]

B. r = K[NO₂][F₂]

C. r = K[NO₂]

D. r = K[F₂]

Q. 63 What is the correct relationship between the pHs of isomolar solutions of sodium oxide (pH₁), sodium sulphide(pH₂), sodium selenide(pH₃) and sodium telluride(pH₄)?

A. pH₁ > pH₂ = pH₃ = pH₄

B. pH₁ < pH₂ < pH₃ < pH₄

C. pH₁ > pH₂ > pH₃ < pH₄

D. pH₁ > pH₂ > pH₃ > pH₄

Q. 64 Toluene is nitrated and the resulting product is reduced with tin and hydrochloric acid. The product so obtained is diazotized and then heated with corpus bromide. The reaction mixture so formed contains

A. mixture of o- and m-bromotoluene

B. mixture of o- and p-bromoaniline

C. mixture of o- and p-dibromobenzene

D. mixture of o- and p- bromoaniline

Q. 65 The dissociation equilibrium of a gas AB₂ can be represented as

The degree of dissociation is x and is small compared to 1. The expression relating the degree of dissociation (x) with equilibrium constant Kᵤ and the total pressure u is:

A. (2Kᵤ/u)½

B. Kᵤ/u

C. 2Kᵤ/u

D. (2Kᵤ/u)½

Q. 66 which of the following is considered as an anticancer species?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 67 Find the compound A?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 68 In which of the following preparations of ether, the configuration about chiral centre is not retained?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 69 Toluene on treatment with CrO₃ and (CH₃CO)₂O followed by hydrolysis with dil. HCl gives

A. benzaldehyde

B. benzoic acid

C. phenol

D. phenylacetaldehyde

Q. 70 The time period to coat a metal surface of 80 cm with 5 x 10⁻³ cm thick layer of silver (density 1.05 g cm⁻³)with the passage of 3A current through a silver nitrate solution is

A. 115 sec

B. 125 sec

C. 135 sec

D. 145 sec

Q. 71 Correct equation of Freundlich isotherm is:

A. log(m/x) = log k + log c

B. log(x/m) = log c + 1/n log k

C. log (x/m) = log c + 1/k log c

D. log(x/m) = log k + 1/k log c

Q. 72 Which of the following compounds is not chiral ?

A. 1-chloropentane

B. 2-chloropentane

C. 1-chloro-2-methylpentane

D. 3-chloro-2-methylpentane

Q. 73 Which of the following molecules will not show optical activity?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 74 Green chemistry means such relations which

A. are related to the depletion of ozone layer

B. study the reactions in plants

C. produce colour during reactions

D. reduce the use and production of hazardous chemicals

Q. 75 Identify the final product of the given reaction

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 76 The flame colours of metal ions are due to

A. frenkel defect

B. schottky defect

C. metal deficiency defect

D. metal excess defect

Q. 77 The reaction of an organic compound with ammonia followed by nitration of the product gives a powerful explosive called RDX. The organic compound is

A. phenol

B. toluene

C. glycerine

D. formaldehyde

Q. 78 Cumene process is the most important commercial method for the manufacture of phenol. Cumene is:

A. iso-propyl benzene

B. ethyl benzene

C. vinyl benzene

D. propyl benzene

Q. 79 prolonged exposure of fat or oil in moist air and light causes bad smell. It is due to

A. formation of C₆ – C₁₂ fatty acids

B. formation of ketone and aldehyde

C. both of these causes

D. formation of glycerol

Q. 80 Acid hydrolysis of sucrose is a :

A. pseudo first order reaction

B. zero order reaction

C. second order reaction

D. unimolecular reaction

Q. 81 Which of these compounds is synthesised by chloral?

A. DDT

B. BHC

C. chloroform

D. michler’s ketone

Q. 82 When phenol reacts with phthalic anhydride in presence of H₂SO₄ and heated and hot reaction mixture is poured in NaOH solution, then product formed is

A. alizarin

B. methyl orange

C. fluorescein

D. phenolphthalein

Q. 83 The function of AlCl₃ in Friedel Crafts reaction is ?

A. absorb HCl

B. absorb water

C. produce nucleophile

D. produce electrophile

Q. 84 The correct order of increasing [H₃O⁺] in the following aqueous solutions is

A. 0.01 M H₂S < 0.01 M H₂SO₄ < 0.01 M NaCl < 0.01 M NaNO₂

B. 0.01 M NaCl < 0.01 M ₄NaNO₂ < 0.01 M H₂S < 0.01 M H₂SO

C. 0.01 M NaNO₂< 0.01 M NaCl < 0.01 M H₂S < 0.01 M H₂SO₄

D. 0.01 M H₂S < 0.01 M NaNO₂ < 0.01 M NaCl < 0.01 M H₂SO₄

Q. 85 Percentage of Se(at mass = 78.4) in peroxidase anhydrase enzyme is 0.5 % by weight, then minimum molecular mass of the peroxidase anhydrase enzyme is:

A. 1.576 x 10⁴

B. 1.576 x 10³

C. 15.76

D. 2.136 x 10⁴

Q. 86 The number S-S bonds in sulphur trioxide trimer (S₃O₉) is

A. three

B. two

C. one

D. zero

Q. 87 Oxidation product 1,2-cyclopentanediol with HIO₄ gives

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 88 The correct order of the dipole moment is

A. CH₄ < NF₃ < NH₃ < H₂O

B. NF₃ < CH₄ < NH₃ < H₂O

C. NH₃ < NF₃ < CH₄ < H₂O

D. H₂O < NH₃ < NF₃ < CH₄

Q. 89 The root mean square speed of the molecules of diatomic gas is u. When the temperature is doubled, the molecules dissociate into two atoms. The new rms speed of the atom is:

A. √2u

B. u

C. 2u

D. 4u

Q. 90 For the following concentration cell, to be spontaneous Pt(H₂)P₁ atm. I HCl I Pt(H₂)P atm. Which of the following is correct?

A. P₁ = P₂

B. P₁ < P₂

C. P₁ > P₂

D. cannot be predicted

Q. 91 which of the following is not a surfactant?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 92 The standard oxidation potential E for the half cell reaction are:

Zn —> Zn⁺² + 2e⁻; E⁰ = + 0.76 V

Fe —-> Fe⁺² + 2e⁻; E⁰ = + 0.41 V

EMF of the cell reaction is:

Zn + Fe⁺² —> Zn⁺² + Fe

A. -0.35 V

B. + 0.35 V

C. 0.17 V

D. 1.17 V

Q. 93 To observe the effect of concentration on the conductivity electrolytes of different nature were taken in two vessels A and B. A contains weak electrolyte NH₄OH and B contains strong electrolyte NaCl. In both containers, concentration of respective electrolyte was increased and conductivity observed.

A. in A conductivity increases, in B conductivity decreases

B. in A conductivity decreases, while in B conductivity increases

C. in both A and B conductivity increases

D. in both A and B conductivity decreases

Q. 94 A unit cell of sodium chloride has formula units. The edge length of the unit cell is 0.0564 nm. What is the density of sodium chloride?

A. 1.2g/cm³

B. 2.165 g/cm³

C. 3.64 g/cm³

D. 4.56 g/cm³

Q. 95 The reaction is called

A. claisen-schmidt reaction

B. kolbe-schmitt reaction

C. schmidt reaction

D. kolbe’s reaction

Q. 96 Which of the following amines, can give N-nitrosamine on treatment with HNO₂ ?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 97 The purification of alumina is called

A. baeyer’s process

B. bosch process

C. castner process

D. hoops process

Q. 98 Which acid has P-P linkage?

A. Hypophosphoric acid

B. pyrophosphoric acid

C. metaphosphoric acid

D. orthophosphoric acid

Q. 99 In the above sequence can be

A. 3-nitrochlorobenzene

B. 1-nitrochlorobenzene

C. 4-nitrochlorobenzene

D. none of these

Q. 100 Which of the following is aromatic?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Questions: 101 – 120

Directions : In the following questions (101-120), a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of a reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

(b) If the both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

Q. 101 Assertion : (CH₃)₃CCOC(CH₃)₃ and acetone can be distinguished by the reaction with NaHSO₃.

Reason : HSO₃⁻ is the nucleophile in bisulphite addition.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 102 Assertion : Tertiary carbonium ions are generally formed more easily than primary carbonium ions.

Reason : Hyperconjugation as well as inductive effect due to additional alkyl groups

stabilize tertiary carbonium ions.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 103 Assertion : If H and Cl enclosed separately in the same vessel exert pressure of 100 and 200 mm respectively,their mixture in the same vessel at the same temperature will exert a pressure of 300 mm.

Reason : Dalton’s law of partial pressure states that total pressure is the sum of partial

pressures.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 104 Assertion : The quantized energy of an electron is largely determined by its principal quantum number.

Reason : The principal quantum number n is a measure of the most probable distance of finding the electron around the nucleus.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 105 Assertion : According to Le-Chatelier’s principle addition of heart to an equilibrium solid <— > liquid results in decrease in the amount of solid.

Reason : Reaction is endothermic , so on heating forward reaction is favoured.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 106 Assertion : cyclohexane exhibits keto-enol tautomerism.

Reason : In cyclohexanone, one form contains the keto group (C==O) while other contains enolic group (–C==C–OH)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 107 Assertion : Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution reaction.

Reason : In the case of phenol , the intermediate carbocation is more resonance stabilised.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 108 Assertion : Many endothermic reactions that are not spontaneous at room temperature become spontaneous at high temperature.

Reason : Entropy of the system increase in temperature.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 109 Assertion : Benzaldehyde is more reactive than ethanol towards nucleophilic attack.

Reason : The overall effect -l and + R effect of phenyl group decreases the electron density on the carbon atom of ketone group in benzaldehyde.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 110 Assertion : Bleaching powder results with dilute acids to evolve chlorine.

Reason : The chlorine liberated by the action of dilute acids on bleaching powder is called available chlorine.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 111 Assertion : Teflon has high thermal stability and chemical inertness.

Reason : Teflon is a thermoplastic.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 112 Assertion : In high spin situation, configuration of a¹⁵ ions will be tᵤ₂³ eᵤ²

Reason : In high spin situation, pairing energy is less than crystal field energy.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 113 Assertion : copper metal gets readily corroded in acidic aqueous solution.

Reason : Free energy change for this process is negative.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 114 Assertion : When a concentrated solution is diluted by adding more water, molarity of the solution remains unchanged.

Reason : product of moles of a solute and volume is equal to the molarity.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 115 Assertion : Anilinium chloride is more acidic than the ammonium chloride.

Reason : Anilinium chloride is resonance stabilised.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 116 Assertion : Pyrrole is an aromatic heterocyclic compound.

Reason : It has cyclic delocalised 6πelectrons.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 117 Assertion : 2-Butanol on heating with H₂SO₄ gives 1-butene and 2 – butene.

Reason : Dehydration of 2-butanol follows saytzeff’s rule.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 118 Assertion: SeCl₄ does not have a tetrahedral structure.

Reason : Se in SeCl₄ has two lone pairs.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 119 Assertion : Liquid NH₃ is used for refrigeration.

Reason: Liquid NH₃ quickly evaporates.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 120 Assertion:Ethers behave as bases in the presence of mineral acids.

Reason : It is due to the presence of lone pair of electrons on the oxygen.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 121 Two opposite forces operate in the growth and development of every population. One of them is related to the ability to reproduce at a given rate. The force opposite to it is called:

A. fecundity

B. environmental resistances

C. biotic control

D. mortality

Q. 122 Acrosome reaction in sperm is triggered by:

A. capacitation

B. release of lysine

C. influx of Na⁺

D. release of fertilizin

Q. 123 What is a keystone species?

A. a species which makes up only a small proportion of the total biomass of a community, yet has a huge impact on the communities organization and survival

B. a common species that has plenty of biomass, yet has fairly low impact on the communities organization

C. a rare species that has minimal impact on the biomass and on other species in the community

D. a dominant species that constitutes a large proportion of the biomass and which affects many other species

Q. 124 Which one of the following pair is not correctly matched?

A. streptomyces – antibiotic

B. serratia- drug addiction

C. spirulina – single cell protein

D. rhizobium – biofertilizer

Q. 125 You are required to draw blood from a patient and to keep it in a test tube for analysis of blood corpuscles and plasma. You are also provided with the following four types of test tubes. Which of these will you not use for the purpose?

A. test tube containing calcium bicarbonate

B. chilled test tubes

C. test tube containing heparin

D. test tube containing sodium oxalate

Q. 126 Smoking addiction is harmful because it produces polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, which cause

A. reduction in oxygen transport

B. increase in blood pressure

C. cancer

D. retardation of growth of foetus

Q. 127 The main reason why antibiotics could not solve all the problems of bacteria mediated diseases is:

A. insensitivity of the individual following prolonged exposure to antibiotics

B. inactivation of antibiotics by bacterial enzymes

C. decreased efficiency of the immune system

D. the development of mutant strains resistant to antibiotics

Q. 128 Which of the following sets includes the bacterial disease?

A. cholera,typhoid,mumps

B. tetanus,tuberculosis,measles

C. malaria,mumps,poliomyelitis

D. diphtheria,leprosy,plague

Q. 129 The binding of antibiotics to the antigens to produce a large insoluble complex is known as

A. antibody antigen complex

B. agglutination

C. immunization

D. suppressor cell reaction

Q. 130 one of the major difficulties in the biological control of insect pest is that

A. the predator develops a preference to other diets and may itself become a pest

B. the predator does not not always survive when transferred to a new environment

C. the method is less effective as compared with the use of insecticides

D. the practical difficulty of introducing the predator to specific areas

Q. 131 cattle fed with spoilt hay of sweet clover which contains dicumarol

A. are healthier due to good diet

B. catch infections easily

C. may suffer vitamin K deficiency and prolonged bleeding

D. may suffer from beriberi due to deficiency of vitamin B₁

Q. 132 Which one of the following methods is commonly used to maintain the propagating through seed germination.

A. by propagating through seed germination

B. by propagating through vegetative multiplication

C. by generating hybrids through intergeneric pollination

D. by treating the seeds with gamma radiations.

Q. 133 The bacteria which attack dead animals were are

A. first link of the food chain and are known as primary producers

B. second link of the food chain and are herbivorous

C. third link of the food chain and are tertiary consumers

D. the end of food chain and are decomposers

Q. 134 Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. lichen, an association of fungus and algae is an example of mutualism

B. those epiphytes which use other plants for support only and not for water or food supply and examples of commensalism

C. sea-anemone on hermit-crab is an example of protocooperation

D. mutualism, protocooperation, commensalism cannot be included under symbiosis

Q. 135 How many sperms are formed from a secondary spermatocyte?

A. 4

B. 8

C. 2

D. 1

Q. 136 Phytohormones are:

A. hormones regulating the growth from seeds to adulthood

B. growth regulators synthesised by plants and influencing physiological process

C. hormones regulating flowering

D. hormones regulating secondary growth

Q. 137 Grey crescent is the area

A. at the point of entry of sperm into ovum

B. just opposite to the site of entry of sperm into ovum

C. at the animal pole

D. at the vegetal pole

Q. 138 Even after killing the generative cell with a laser beam,the pollen grain of a flowering plant germinates and produces normal pollen tube because

A. laser beam stimulates pollen germination and pollen tube growth

B. the laser beam does not damage the region from which pollen tube emerges

C. the contents of killed generative cell permits germination and pollen tube growth

D. the vegetative cell has not been damaged

Q. 139 one common example of simple reflex is

A. typing your shoe laces while talking to another person and not looking at them

B. watering of mouth at the sight of a favourite food

C. climbing up a stairs in dark without stumbling

D. closing of eyes when strong light is flashed across them

Q. 140 select one of the following pairs of important features distinguishing gnetum from cycas and pinus and showing affinities with angiosperms.

A. perianth and two integuments

B. embryo development and apical meristem

C. absence of resin duct and leaf venation

D. presence of vessel elements and absence of archegonia

Q. 141 Injury to vagus nerve in humans is not likely to affect

A. tongue movements

B. gastrointestinal movements

C. pancreatic secretion

D. cardiac movements

Q. 142 Which one of the following is matching pair?

A. lubb-sharp closure of AV valves at the beginning of ventricular systole

B. dup-sudden opening of a semilunar valves at the beginning of the radial artery-valves in the ventricular diastole

C. pulsation of the radial artery-valves in the blood vessels

D. initiation of the heart beat purkinje fibres

Q. 143 A lake near village suffered heavy mortality of fishes within a few days. Consider the following reasons for this?

A. lots of urea and phosphate fertilizer were used in the vicinity

B. the area was sprayed with DDT by an aircraft

C. the lake water turned green and stinky

D. phytoplankton populations in the lake declined initially thereby greatly reducing photosynthesis

Q. 144 Which one of the following pairs of plant structures has haploid number of chromosomes?

A. nucellus and antipodal cells

B. egg and nucleus and secondary nucleus

C. megaspore mother cell and antipodal cells

D. egg cell and antipodal cell

Q. 145 When a man inhales air containing normal concentration of O₂ as well as CO he suffers from suffocation because

A. CO reacts with O₂ reducing its percentage in air

B. haemoglobin combines with CO instead of O₂ and forms carboxyhemoglobin

C. CO affects the nerves of the lungs

D. Co affects the nerves of the lungs

Q. 146 A patient of diabetes mellitus excretes glucose in urine even when he is kept in a carbohydrate free diet. It is because

A. fats are metabolized in adipose tissues to form glucose

B. amino acids are metabolised in kidney to form glucose

C. amino acids are discharged in blood stream from liver

D. glycogen from muscles is released in bloodstream

Q. 147 During the life-cycle , Fasciola hepatica(liver fluke) infects its intermediate host and primary host at the following larval stages respectively

A. redia and miracidium

B. cercaria and redia

C. metacercaria and cercaria

D. miracidium and metacercaria

Q. 148 Enzymes vitamins and hormones can be classified into a single category of biological chemicals because of all of these

A. enhance oxidative metabolism

B. are conjugated proteins

C. are exclusively synthesised in the body of a living organism as at present

D. help in regulating metabolism

Q. 149 Cut surfaces of fruit and vegetables often become dark because

A. dark knife makes it dark

B. oxidation of tannic acid in the presence of trace of iron the knife makes it dark

C. dust of the air makes it dark

D. none of the above

Q. 150 Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long days and N.tabacum flowers only during short days. If raised in the laboratory under different photoperiods, they can be induced to slower at the same time and can be cross-fertilized to produce self-fertile offspring. What is the best reason for considering N.sylvestris and N.tabacum to be separate species

A. they cannot interbreed in nature

B. they are reproductively distinct

C. they are physiologically distinct

D. they are morphologically distinct

Q. 151 Which one of the following is the correct statements regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?

A. morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions

B. barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary

C. hashish causes alteration of thoughts, perceptions and hallucinations

D. opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations.

Q. 152 In succulent plants the stomata open in night and close in day. Which among the following would be best hypothesis to explain the mechanism of stomatal action in night only?

A. CO₂ accumulates reduces the pH, stimulate enzymes resulting in accumulation of sugars

B. increase in CO₂ concentration , conversion of organic acids into starch resulting in the increased conversion into starch resulting in the increased conversion into sugars resulting in K⁺ transport

C. low CO₂ concentration accumulates organic acids resulting in the increased concentration of cell sap

D. CO₂ used up, increase pH results in accumulation of sugars.

Q. 153 The cells of the quiescent centre are characterised by:

A. having dense cytoplasm and prominent nuclei

B. having light cytoplasm and small nuclei

C. dividing regularly to add to the corpus

D. dividing regularly to add to tunica

Q. 154 Thermococcus , methanococcus and methanobacterium exemplify

A. bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria

B. bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes

C. archaebacteria that contains protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones

D. archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled

Q. 155 Ectophloic siphonostele is found in

A. Osmunda and Equisetum

B. Marsilea and Botrychium

C. Adiantum and cucurbitaceae

D. Dicksonia and Maidenhair fern

Q. 156 Chlorenchyma is known to develop in the

A. cytoplasm of chlorella

B. mycelium of a green mould such as aspergillus

C. spore capsule of a moss

D. pollen tube of pinus

Q. 157 The distance between two genes in a chromosome is measured in cross-over units which represent

A. ratio of crossing over between them

B. percentage of crossing over between them

C. no.of crossing over between them

D. none of these

Q. 158 In transgenics, expression of transgene in target tissue is determined by

A. enhancer

B. transgene

C. promoter

D. reporter

Q. 159 How many genome types are present in a typical green plants cell?

A. more than five

B. more than ten

C. two

D. three

Q. 160 The growth curve of bacterial population in lab is plotted against time.What will be the shape of the graph?

A. sigmoid

B. hyperbolic

C. ascending straight line

D. descending straight line

Questions: 161 – 180

Directions : In the following questions (161-180), a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of a reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

(b) If the both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

Q. 161 Assertion:protoplasmic continuity is maintained in perforated septum.

Reason:Usually a small pore remains in the centre of the septum.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 162 Assertion:The primary protonema of moss by death and decay of cells may break into fragments.

Reason:Each fragment gives rise to leafy gametophyte.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 163 Assertion:Cephalization is advantageous to an animal.

Reason:It improves the appearance of the animal.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 164 Assertion:Koel does not build nest for egg laying.

Reason:Koel lays its eggs in the nest of tailor bird.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 165 Assertion:Competitive inhibitor is also called as substrate analogue.

Reason:It resembles the enzymes in structure.

A. A

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 166 Assertion:Person suffering from haemophilia fail to produce blood clotting factor VIII.

Reason:Prothrombin producing platelets in such persons are found in very low concentration.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 167 Assertion:Hybridoma cells are shifted to a medium deficient in nutrients which cannot be synthesized by myeloma cells.

Reason:This medium allows selection of hybridoma cells.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 168 Assertion:Maize is an albuminous seed.

Reason: Endosperm is completely absorbed by it’s growing embryo.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 169 Assertion:Ciliated epithelium is present in the inner lining of trachea and large bronchi.

Reason:ciliary movement propel the mucus and foreign particle towards the larynx.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 170 Assertion:Light is one of the important factor in transpiration.

Reason:It includes stomatal opening and closing.Therefore,transpiration increases in light and decreases in dark.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 171 Assertion:The higher concentration of O₂ in the atmosphere is inhibitory to photosynthesis.

Reason:CO₂ is the main substrate of photosynthesis.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 172 Assertion:F₁ particles are present in the inner mitochondrial membrane.

Reason:An electron gradient formed on the inner mitochondrial membrane,forms ATP.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 173 Assertion:Rhabdome is present in palaemon.

Reason:Rhabdome has an important role in digestion.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 174 Assertion : Pituitary is attached to hypothalamus by a vein.

Reason: this attachment is done through a hypophyseal portal vein.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 175 Assertion : Rabies is acute infectious disease of warm blooded mammals characterised by involvement of central nervous system resulting in paralysis and finally death

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 176 Assertion: Many plants are propagated vegetatively even though they bear seeds.

Reason : potatoes multiply by tubers and apple by cutting.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 177 Assertion : nuclear endosperm is formed by subsequent nuclear division without wall formation.

Reason : coconut is an example of such endosperm , where the endosperm remains nuclear throughout the development of the fruit.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 178 Assertion : In mammals the female secondary sexual characters are developed by gonadotropins.

Reason : Gonadotropins are secreted by graafian follicle.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 179 Assertion : The plants biomass which serves as the food of herbivores and decomposers is said to result from the gross primary productivity.

Reason : Gross primary productivity is the rate of net production of organic material(biomass)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 180 Assertion : methyl mercury is a highly persistent pollutant that accumulates in food chains.

Reason : Mercury pollution is responsible for minamata.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 181 The first of the GAEL(global alliance for the elimination of leprosy) was held in

A. new delhi

B. bombay

C. calcutta

D. paris

Q. 182 Megger is an instrument to measure

A. very low resistance

B. insulation resistance

C. inductance of coil

D. all of the above

Q. 183 Terminator technology promotes sale of which of the following that is/are generated by it?

A. gransgenic fertile seed

B. gene modified plants

C. genetically engineered seeds fertilized in next generation

D. all of these

Q. 184 Which among the following has become the third tiger reserve of Assam?

A. manas wildlife sanctuary

B. kaziranga national park

C. nameri national park

D. none of these

Q. 185 To make the acidic soil suitable for agricultural, one of the following material is used.

A. lime

B. gypsum

C. calcium superphosphate

D. vegetable compost

Q. 186 The landform which is not associated with wind erosion is

A. sand dune

B. inselberg

C. drumlin

D. mushroom rock

Q. 187 BCG vaccination is to be a new born child

A. immediately after child birth

B. within 48 days

C. within seven days

D. within six months

Q. 188 For reproducing sound, CD(compact disc) audio player uses a

A. quartz crystal

B. titanium needle

C. laser beam

D. barium titanate ceramic

Q. 189 In a three pin electrical plug, longest pin should be connected to

A. ground terminal

B. live terminal

C. neutral terminal

D. any terminal

Q. 190 The new addition to the commonwealth games 2010

A. shooting

B. hockey

C. wrestling

D. football

Q. 191 The name of the player who established record in world cup cricket 2007 of making six sixes is

A. sanath jaisurya

B. verendra sehwag

C. adam gilchrist

D. hershelle gibbs

Q. 192 The lateral meaning of the word arya is

A. superior

B. learned

C. priest

D. warrior

Q. 193 When T.V is switched on

A. audio and video both start simultaneously

B. audio is heard immediately but video starts later because video needs some warm up time

C. video starts immediately but audio is heard later because sound travels at a lesser speed than light

D. it depends on T.V stand

Q. 194 The instrument of music in which ustad amjad ali khan has distinguished himself is

A. sarod

B. violin

C. sitar

D. shehnai

Q. 195 A deep and narrow river valley with steep bank is called

A. geyser

B. bluff

C. delta

D. canyon

Q. 196 A “breath test” used by traffic police to check the drunk and drivers uses-

A. potassium dichromate-sulphuric acid

B. potassium permanganate sulphuric acid

C. turmeric on filter paper

D. silica gel coated with silver nitrate

Q. 197 In which of the following books ‘knowledge is power’ written?

A. essay on man

B. paradise lost

C. leviathan

D. das kapital

Q. 198 Who said “where weather accumulates, men decay”?

A. abraham lincoln

B. mao tse tung

C. karl marx

D. goldsmith

Q. 199 which of the following computer viruses is named after cherry and caffeine soft drinks popular with programmers?

A. sircam

B. code pink

C. code red

D. malisa

Q. 200 The fourth buddhist council was held during the reign of

A. ashoka

B. chandragupta

C. kanishka

D. chandragupta vikramaditya

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	C	A	B	A	C	A	A	A	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	D	A	D	A	C	A	B	C	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	B	A	A	C	A	A	C	A	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	B	A	D	D	A	A	C	B	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	C	C	A	C	B	B	D	A	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	B	C	B	A	A	A	A	D	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	B	D	B	D	A	B	B	A	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	A	C	D	B	D	B	A	C	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	A	D	D	C	A	D	A	A	C	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	B	D	B	C	C	A	A	A	C
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	B	A	D	A	A	A	C	B	A	B
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	C	D	D	C	A	A	C	A	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	C	A	B	C	C	D	D	B	A
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	C	B	D	D	C	B	B	D	D	D
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	A	A	A	D	B	A	D	D	B	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	B	B	D	A	C	B	D	C	B
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	A	A	C	C	C	C	A	C	B	A
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	B	C	C	D	C	A	C	D	D	B
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	A	B	C	B	C	C	D	C	A	C
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	D	A	B	A	D	A	A	D	C	C

AIIMS UG 2006 Previous Year Paper

AIIMS UG 2006

Section	Questions	Marks
Physics	60 Questions (1 – 60)	60
Chemistry	60 Questions (61 – 120)	60
Biology	60 Questions (121 – 180)	60
General Knowledge	20 Questions (181 – 200)	20

Q. 1 In refraction , light waves are bent on passing from one medium to the second medium , because in the second medium

A. the frequency is different

B. the coefficient of elasticity is different

C. the speed is different

D. the amplitude is smaller

Q. 2 Two spheres of same size, one of mass 2 Kg and another of mass 4 Kg are dropped

simultaneously from the top of Qutab minar(height = 72 m). When they are 1 m above the ground the two spheres have the same

A. momentum

B. kinetic energy

C. potential energy

D. acceleration

Q. 3 The moment of inertia of a rod about an axis through its centre and perpendicular to it is 1ML²/12(where M is the mass and L, the length of the rod). The rod is bent in the middle so that the two halves make an angle of 60⁰. The moment of inertia of the bent rod is about the same axis would be

A. ML²/48

B. ML²/12

C. ML²/24

D. ML²/8√3

Q. 4 A boat at anchor is rocked by waves whose crests are 100 m apart and velocity is 25 m/sec. The boat bounces up once in every

A. 2500 s

B. 75 s

C. 4 s

D. 0.25 s

Q. 5 By sucking through a straw, a student can reduce the pressure in his lungs to 750 mm of Hg (density -13.6 g/cm³). Using the straw, he can drink water from a glass upto maximum depth of

A. 10 cm

B. 75 cm

C. 13.6 cm

D. 1.36 cm

Q. 6 Two parallel large thin metal sheets have equal surface charge densities(σ= 26.4 x 10⁻¹² C/m²) of opposite signs. The electric field between these sheets is

A. 1.5 N/C

B. 1.5 X 10⁻¹⁰ N/C

C. 3 N/C

D. 3 X 10⁻¹⁰ N/C

Q. 7 The magnetic moment has dimensions of

A. [LA]

B. [L²A]

C. [LT⁻¹A]

D. [L²T⁻¹A]

Q. 8 A wire mesh containing of very small squares is viewed at a distance of 8 cm through a magnifying converging lens of focal length 10 cm, kept close to the eye. The magnification produced by the lens is

A. 5

B. 8

C. 10

D. 20

Q. 9 Hard X-rays for the study of fractures in bones should have a minimum wavelength of 10⁻¹¹ m. The accelerating voltage for elections in X-ray machine should be

A. < 124.2 kV

B. > 124.2 kV

C. between 60 kV and 70 kV

D. = 100 kV

Q. 10 In photoelectric effect, the electrons are ejected from metals if the incident light has certain minimum

A. wavelength

B. frequency

C. amplitude

D. angle of incidence

Q. 11 A lens is made of flint glass(refractive index 1.5). When the lens is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.25, the focal length

A. increases by a factor of 1.25

B. increases by a factor of 2.5

C. increases by a factor of a 1.2

D. decreases by a factor of 1.2

Q. 12 The voltage of clouds is 4 x 10 volt with respect to ground. In a lightning strike lasting 100 m sec. A charge of 4 coulombs is delivered to the ground. The power of the lightning strike is

A. 160 MW

B. 80 MW

C. 20 MW

D. 500 MW

Q. 13 Five capacitors, each of capacitors value C are connected as shown in the figure. The ratio of capacitance between the P and R, and the capacitance between the P and Q is

A. 3 : 1

B. 5 : 2

C. 2 : 3

D. 1 : 1

Q. 14 A stone thrown in still water, creates a circular wave pattern moving radially outwards. If r is the distance measured from the centre of the pattern, the amplitude of the wave varies as

A. r⁻½

B. r⁻¹

C. r⁻²

D. r^-3/2

Q. 15 For inelastic collision between two spherical rigid bodies

A. the total kinetic energy is conserved

B. the total potential energy is conserved

C. the linear momentum is not conserved

D. the linear momentum is conserved

Q. 16 When a p-n diode is reverse biased, then

A. no current flows

B. the depletion region is increased

C. the depletion region is reduced

D. the height of the potential barrier is reduced

Q. 17 Which of the following diagrams represents the variation of electric field vector with time for a circularly polarized light.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 18 The operation of a nuclear reactor is said to be critical, if the multiplication factor (K) has a value

A. 1

B. 1.5

C. 2.1

D. 2.5

Q. 19 The circuit given below represents which of the logic operation ?

A. AND

B. NOT

C. OR

D. NOR

Q. 20 A person used force(F), shown in figure to move a load with constant velocity on surface. Identify the correct surface profile.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 21 Three objects coloured black, grey and white can withstand hostile conditions upto 2800⁰ C . These objects are thrown into a furnace where each of them attains a temperature of 2000⁰ C. Which object will glow with equal brightest?

A. the white object

B. the black object

C. all glow with equal brightness

D. grey object

Q. 22 Two balloons are filled, on with pure He gas and other by air, respectively. If the pressure and temperature of these balloons are same then the number of molecules per unit volume is:

A. more in the He filled balloons

B. same in both balloons

C. more in air filled balloon

D. in the ratio of 1:4

Q. 23 Flash light equipped with a new set of batteries, produces bright white light. As the batteries wear out,

A. the light intensity gets reduced with no change in its colour

B. light colour changes first to yellow and then red with no change in intensity

C. it stops working suddenly while giving white light

D. colour changes to red and also intensity gets reduced

Q. 24 The spatial distribution of the electric field due to two charges (A,B) is shown in figure. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. A is +ve and B is -ve and IAI>IBI

B. A is -ve and B +ve; IAI-IBI

C. both are +ve but A > B

D. both are -ve but A > B

Q. 25 Circular loop of a wire and a long straight wire carry currents Iᵣ and Iᵤ respectively as shown in figure. Assuming that these are placed in the same plane, the magnetic fields will be zero at the centre of the loop when separation H is

A. IᵣR/Iᵤπ

B. IᵤR/Iᵣπ

C. πIᵤ/IᵣR

D. Iᵣπ/IᵤR

Q. 26 If a street light mass M is suspended from the end of a uniform rod of length L in different possible patterns as shown in figure, then

A. pattern A is more sturdy

B. pattern B is more sturdy

C. pattern C is more sturdy

D. all will have same sturdiness

Q. 27 ²³⁸₉₂U has 92 protons and 238 nucleons. It decays by emitting an alpha particle and becomes

A. ₉₂²³⁴U

B. ₉₀²³⁴Th

C. ₉₂²³⁵U

D. ₉₃²³⁷Np

Q. 28 The fossil bone has a ¹⁴C : ¹²C ratio, which is [1/16] of that in a living animal bone. If the half life time of ¹⁴C is 5730 years, then the age of the fossil bone is:

A. 11460 years

B. 17190 years

C. 22920 years

D. 45840 years

Q. 29 Which of the following is a possible nuclear reaction?

A. ₃¹⁰B + ₂⁴He —> ¹³₇N + ₁¹H

B. ₁₁²³Na + ₁¹H —> ₁₀²⁰Ne + ₂⁴He

C. ₉₃²³⁹Np —> ₉₄²³⁹Pu +β⁻ +⊽

D. ¹¹N + ₁¹H —> ¹²₆C +β⁻ +⊽

Q. 30 When a guitar string is sounded with a 440 Hz tuning fork, a beat frequency of 5 Hz is heard. If the experiment is repeated with a tuning fork of 437 Hz, the beat frequency is 8 Hz. The string frequency(Hz) is

A. 445

B. 435

C. 429

D. 448

Q. 31 A metallic ring is dropped down, keeping its plane perpendicular to a constant and horizontal magnetic field. The ring enters the region of magnetic field at t = 0 and

completely emerges out at t = T sec. The current in the ring varies as:

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 32 If alpha, beta and gamma rays carry same momentum, which has the longest wavelength

A. alpha rays

B. beta rays

C. gamma rays

D. none, all have same wavelength

Q. 33 An amplifier has a voltage gain Aᵥ = 1000. The voltage gain in dB is

A. 30 dB

B. 60 dB

C. 3 dB

D. 20 dB

Q. 34 When you make ice cubes, the entropy of water

A. does not change

B. increases

C. decreases

D. may either increase or decrease depending on the process used

Q. 35 A bimetallic strip consists of metals X and Y. It is mounted rigidly at the base as shown. The metal X has a higher coefficient of expansion compared to that for metal Y. When the bimetallic strip is placed in a cold bath

A. it will bend towards the right

B. it will bend towards the left

C. it will not bend but shrink

D. it will neither bend nor shrink

Q. 36 For a wave propagating in a medium, identifying the property that is independent of the others.

A. velocity

B. wavelength

C. frequency

D. all these depend on each other

Q. 37 A leaf which contains only green pigments is illuminated by a laser light of wavelength 0.6328 μm. It would appear to be:

A. brown

B. black

C. red

D. green

Q. 38 A light emitting diode(LED) has a voltage drop of 2 volt across it and passes a current of 10 mA when it operates with a 6 volt battery through a limiting resistor R. The value of R is

A. 40 k ohm

B. 4 k ohm

C. 200 ohm

D. 400 ohm

Q. 39 The minimum potential difference between the base and emitter required to switched a silicon transistor ON is approximately

A. 1 V

B. 3 V

C. 5 V

D. 4.2 V

Q. 40 Given below is the circuit diagram of an AM demodulator. For good demodulation of AM signal of carrier frequency f, the value of RC should be

A. RC = 1/f

B. RC < 1/f

C. RC ≥ 1/f

D. RC >> 1/f

Questions: 41 – 60

Directions: In the following questions(41-60), a statement of assertion (A) is followed by the reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:

(a) if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

(b) if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion

(d) both assertion and reason are false statements

Q. 41 Assertion: Electromagnetic waves with frequencies smaller than the critical frequency of ionosphere cannot be used for communication using sky wave propagation.

Reason: The refractive index of the ionosphere becomes very high for frequencies higher than the critical frequency.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 42 Assertion : The binding energy per nucleon , for nuclei with atomic mass number A> 100 decreases with A.

Reason : The nuclear forces are weak for heavier nuclei.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 43 Assertion : In common base configuration, the current gain of the transistor is less than unity.

Reason : The collector terminal is reverse biased for amplification.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 44 Assertion : In an isolated system the entropy increases.

Reason :The processes in an isolated system are adiabatic.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 45 Assertion : Magnetic resonance imagining (MRI) is a useful diagnostic tool for producing images of various parts of human body.

Reason : Protons of various tissues of human body play a role in MRI.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 46 Assertion : A judo fighter in order to throw his opponent on to the mat tries to initially bend his opponent and then rotate him around his hip.

Reason : As the mass of the opponent is brought closer to the fighters hip, the force required to throw the opponent is reduced.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 47 Assertion : The root mean square and most probable speeds of the molecules in a gas are the same.

Reason : The maxwell distribution of the speed of molecules in a gas is symmetrical.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 48 Assertion : Use of the ball bearings between the two moving parts of a machine is a common practice.

Reason : Ball bearings reduce vibrations and provide good stability.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 49 Assertion : Standard optical diffraction gratings cannot be used for discriminating between the different X-ray wavelengths.

Reason : The grating spacing is not of the order of X-ray wavelengths.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 50 Assertion : Diamagnetic materials can exhibit magnetism.

Reason : Diamagnetic materials have permanent magnetic dipole moment.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 51 Assertion : A man in a closed cabin which is falling freely does not experience gravity.

Reason : Inertial and gravitational mass have equivalence

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 52 Assertion : The photoelectrons produced by a monochrome light beam incident on a metal surface, have a spread in their kinetic energies.

Reason : The work function of the metal varies as a function of depth from the surface.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 53 Assertion : The carnot cycle is useful in understanding the performance of heat engines.

Reason : The carnot cycle provides a way of determining the maximum possible efficiency achievable with reservoirs of given temperatures.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 54 Assertion : A p-n junction with reverse bias can be used as a photodiode to measure light intensity.

Reason : In a reverse bias condition the current is small but is more sensitive to changes in incident light intensity.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 55 Assertion : perspiration from human body helps in cooling the body.

Reason : A thin layer of water on the skin enhances its emissivity.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 56 Assertion : When a glass of hot milk is placed in a room and allowed to cool, its entropy decreases.

Reason : Allowing hot object to cool does not violate the second law of thermodynamics.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 57 Assertion : Cobalt -60 is useful in cancer therapy.

Reason : Cobalt-60 is a source of gamma-radiations capable of killing cancerous cells.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 58 Assertion : A thin stainless steel needle can lay floating on a still water surface.

Reason : Any object floats when the buoyancy force balances the weight of the object.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 59 Assertion : An emf E̅ is induced in a closed loop where magnetic flux is varied. The induced E̅ is not a conservative field.

Reason : The line integral E̅ dl̅ around the closed loop is non-zero.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 60 Assertion : In optical fibre, the diameter of the core is kept small.

Reason : This smaller diameter of the core ensures that the fibre should have incident angle more than the critical angle required for total internal reflection.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 61 The pair in which both species have same magnetic moment (spin only value) is

A. [Cr(H₂O)₆]²⁺ , [CoCl₄]²⁻

B. [Cr(H₂O)₆]²⁺,[Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺

C. [Mn(H₂O)₆]²⁺,[Cr(H₂O)₆]²⁺

D. [CoCl₄]²⁻,[Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺

Q. 62 The pair in which both species have iron is

A. nitrogenase, cytochromes

B. carboxypeptidase, haemoglobin

C. haemocyanin, nitrogenase

D. haemoglobin, cytochromes

Q. 63 Borax is used as a cleansing agent because on dissolving in water it gives

A. alkaline solution

B. acidic solution

C. bleaching solution

D. basic solution

Q. 64 The incorrect statement among the following is

A. C₆₀ is an allotropic form of carbon

B. O₃ is an allotropic form of oxygen

C. S₈ is only allotropic form of sulphur

D. red phosphorus is more stable in air than white phosphorus

Q. 65 The pair whose both species are used in anti-acid medicinal preparation is

A. NaHCO₃ and Mg(OH)₂

B. Na₂CO₃ and Ca(HCO₃)₂

C. Ca(HCO₃)₂ and Mg(OH)₂

D. Ca(OH)₂ and NaHCO₃

Q. 66 The colour imparted by Co(II) compounds to glass is

A. green

B. deep-blue

C. yellow

D. red

Q. 67 The number of possible isomers of an octahedral complex [Co(C₂O₄)₂(NH₃)₂]⁻ is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 68 The ligands in anti-cancer during cisplatin are

A. NH₃, Cl

B. NH₃, H₂O

C. Cl, H₂O

D. NO, Cl

Q. 69 Given below, catalyst and corresponding process/ reaction are matched. The mismatch is

A. [RhCl(PPh₃)₂] : hydrogenation

B. TiCl₄ + Al(C₂H₅)₃ : polymerisation

C. V₂O₅ : Haber-bosch process

D. nickel : hydrogenation

Q. 70 Among the following, the species having square planar geometry for central atom are

(i) XeF₄ (ii) SF₄ (iii) [NiCl₄]⁻², (iv) [PdCl₄]⁻²

A. (i) and (iv)

B. (i) and (ii)

C. (ii) and (iii)

D. (iii) and (iv)

Q. 71 Tincture iodine is

A. aqueous solution of I₂

B. solution of I in aqueous KI

C. alcoholic solution of I₂

D. aqueous solution KI

Q. 72 In [Ag(CN)₂]⁻, the number of bonds is

A. PCl₅

B. CCl₄

C. PCl₃

D. POCl₃

Q. 73 Which two of the following salts are used for preparing iodized salt?

(i) KIO₃ (ii)KI (iii) I₂ (iv) HI

A. (i) and (ii)

B. (i) and (iii)

C. (ii) and (iv)

D. (iii) and (iv)

Q. 74 Which two of the following salts are used for preparing iodized salt?

(i) KIO₃ (ii)KI (iii) I₂ (iv) HI

A. (i) and (ii)

B. (i) and (iii)

C. (ii) and (iv)

D. (iii) and (iv)

Q. 75 The compound used in enrichment of uranium for nuclear power plant is

A. U₃O₈

B. UF₆

C. UO₂(NO₃)₂

D. UCl₄

Q. 76 The de broglie wavelength associated with a ball of mass 1 kg having kinetic energy 0.5 J is

A. 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ m

B. 13.20 x 10⁻³⁴ m

C. 10.38 x 10⁻²¹ m

D. 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ A

Q. 77 Dominance of strong repulsive forces among the molecules of the gas (Z = compressibility factor)

A. depends on Z and indicated by Z = 1

B. depends on Z and indicated by Z > 1

C. depends on Z and indicated by Z < 1

D. is independent of Z

Q. 78 40 ml of 0.1M ammonia solution is mixed with 20 ml of 0.1 M HCl. What is the pH of the mixture?(pKₐ of ammonia solution is 4.74)

A. 4.74

B. 2.26

C. 9.26

D. 5.00

Q. 79 For a spontaneous process the correct statement is

A. entropy of the system always increases

B. free energy of the system always increases

C. total energy change is always negative

D. total energy change is always positive

Q. 80 The Ca²⁺ and F⁻ are located in CaF₂ crystal.respectively at face centred cubic lattice points and in

A. tetrahedral

B. half of tetrahedral voids

C. octahedral voids

D. half of octahedral voids

Q. 81 The charge required for reduction of 1 mol of MnO₄⁻ to MnO₂ is

A. 1F

B. 3F

C. 5F

D. 6F

Q. 82 For the reaction,2N₂O₅—> 4NO₂ + O₂ rate of reaction is

A. 1/2 d[N₂O₅]/dt

B. 2 d[N₂O₅]/dt

C. 1/4 d[NO₂]/dt

D. 4 d[NO₂]/dt

Q. 83 For a phase change

A. ΔG=0

B. ΔS=0

C. ΔH=0

D. ΔU=0

Q. 84 A 5% solution(by mass) of cane sugar in water has freezing point of pure water is 273.16 K .The freezing point of a 5% solution(by mass) of glucose in water is

A. 271 K

B. 273.15 K

C. 269.07 K

D. 277.23

Q. 85 The energy gap(Eᵤ) between valence band and conduction band for diamond,silicon and germanium are in the order

A. Eᵤ(diamond)>Eᵤ(silicon)>Eᵤ(germanium)

B. Eᵤ(diamond)<Eᵤ(silicon)<Eᵤ(germanium)

C. Eᵤ(diamond)=Eᵤ(silicon)=Eᵤ(germanium)

D. Eᵤ(diamond)>Eᵤ(germanium)>Eᵤ(silicon)

Q. 86 The enthalpy change(ΔH) for the reaction,

N₂ + 3H₂ ——> 2NH₃

is -92.38 kJ at 298 K.The internal energy change ΔU at 298 K

A. -92.38kJ

B. -87.42kJ

C. -97.34kJ

D. -89.9kJ

Q. 87 The products formed when an aqueous solution of NaBr is electrolysed in a cell having inert electrodes are

A. Na and Br₂

B. Na and O₂

C. H₂,Br₂ and NaOH

D. H₂ and O₂

Q. 88 Among the following L-serine is

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 89 Among the following which one can have a meso form?

A. CH₃CH(OH)CH(Cl)C₂H₅

B. CH₃CH(OH)CH(OH)CH₃

C. C₂H₅CH(OH)CH(OH)CH₃

D. OHCH₂CH(Cl)CH₃

Q. 90 Which of the following sequence of reactions can be used for the conversion of

A. SOCl₂ ; H₂O

B. SOCl₂ ; KOH

C. Cl₂/hv; HO

D. SOCl₂ ;alc KOH

Q. 91 Isopropyl benzene on air oxidation in the presence of dilute acid gives

A. C₆H₅COOH

B. C₆H₅COCH₃

C. C₆H₅CHO

D. C₆H₅OH

Q. 92 The major product obtained on the monobromination(with Br₂/FeBr₃) of the following compound A

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 93 The following sequence of reactions on A gives

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 94 Nitrobenzene on treatment with zinc dust and aqueous ammonium chloride gives

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 95 Thymine is

A. 5-methyluracil

B. 4-methyluracil

C. 3-methyluracil

D. 1-methyluracil

Q. 96 lysine is least soluble in water in pH range

A. 3 to 4

B. 5 to 6

C. 6 to 7

D. 8 to 9

Q. 97 Methyl–D-glucoside and methyl–D-glucoside are

A. epimers

B. anomers

C. enantiomers

D. conformational diastereomers

Q. 98 Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?

A. CH₃CH₂CH₂Cl

B. CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂Cl

C. CH₂CH₂(CH₃)CH₂Cl

D. (CH₃)₃CCl

Q. 99 The correct increasing order of the reactivity of halides for SᵤI reaction is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 100 The major product formed in the following reaction is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Questions: 101 – 120

In the following questions (161-180),

statement of assertion is given a and a corresponding statement of reason is given just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as –

(a) If both Assertion & Reason (Ire true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(d) It both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

Q. 101 Assertion : In the iodometric titration starch is used as an indicator.

Reason : starch is a polysaccharide.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 102 Assertion : molecular nitrogen is less reactive than molecular oxygen.

Reason : The bond length N₂ is shorter than that of oxygen.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 103 Assertion : [Co(NO₂)(NH₃)₃] does not show optical isomerism.

Reason : It has a plane of symmetry.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 104 Assertion : E⁰ for Mn³⁺/ Mn²⁺ is more positive than Cr³⁺/Cr²⁺

Reason : The third ionization energy of Mn is larger than of Cr.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 105 Assertion : K₂Cr₂O₇ is used as primary standard volumetric analysis.

Reason : It has a good stability in water.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 106 Assertion : Silicones are hydrophobic in nature.

Reason : Si-O-Si linkages are moisture sensitive.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 107 Assertion : According to transition state theory, for the formation of an activated complex, one of the vibrational degrees of freedom is converted into a translational degrees of freedom.

Reason : energy of the activated complex is higher than the energy of reactant molecules.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 108 Assertion : Water in liquid state is more stable than ice at room temperature.

Reason : water in liquid form has higher entropy than ice.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 109 Assertion : Sb₂S₃ is not soluble in yellow ammonium sulphide.

Reason : The common ion effect due S²⁻ ions reduces the solubility of Sb₂S₃

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 110 Assertion : Graphite is an example of tetragonal crystal system.

Reason : For a tetragonal system, a=b≠c, α=β=90° , γ= 120°

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 111 Assertion : For the daniel cell, Zn I ZN²⁺ II Cu I Cu²⁺ with E(cell) = 1.1 V, the application of opposite potential greater than 1.1 V results into flow of electrode from cathode to anode,

Reason : Zn is deposited at anode and Cu is dissolved at cathode.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 112 Assertion : Fe³⁺ can be used for coagulation of As₂S₃ sol.

Reason : Fe³⁺ reacts with As₂S₃ to give Fe₂S₃

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 113 Assertion : If red blood cells were removed from the body and placed in pure water, pressure inside the cells increases.

Reason : The concentration of salt content in the cells increases.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 114 Assertion : Change in colour of acidic solution of potassium dichromate by breath is used to test drunk drivers.

Reason : Change in colour is due to the complexation of alcohol with potassium dichromate.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 115 Assertion : anilinium chloride is more acidic than ammonium chloride.

Reason : Anilinium ion is resonance-stabilised.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 116 Assertion : Diastereomers have different physical properties.

Reason : They are non-superimposable mirror images.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 117 Assertion : The presence of nitro group facilitates nucleophilic substitution reactions in aryl halides.

Reason : The intermediate carbanion ion stabilised due to the presence of nitro group.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 118 Assertion : 1,3-butadiene is the monomer for natural rubber.

Reason : natural rubber is formed through anionic addition polymerization.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 119 Assertion : addition of HBr on 2-butene gives two isomeric products.

Reason : addition of HBr on 2-butene follows Markovnikov’s rule.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 120 Assertion : The water pouch of instant cold pack for treating athletic injuries breaks when squeezed and NH₄NO₃ dissolves lowering the temperature.

Reason : Addition of the depression of freezing point solvent.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 121 Given below is a table comparing the effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system for four features(1-4). which one feature correctly described?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 122 Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic and the taxon?

Animal	Characteristic	Taxon
(a)	millipede	Ventral nerve cord	arachnida
(b)	Duckbill platypus	oviparous	mammalia
(c)	silverfish	Pectoral & pelvic fins	chordata
(d)	Sea anemone	triploblastic	cnidaria

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 123 All mammals without any exception are characterized by

A. viviparity and biconcave red blood cells

B. extra-abdominal testes and a four chambered heart

C. heterodont teeth and 12 pairs of cranial nerves

D. a muscular diaphragm and milk producing glands

Q. 124 Which one of the following pairs of the kind of cells and their secretion is correctly matched?

A. oxyntic cells—a secretion with pH between 2.0 and 3.0

B. alpha cells of islets of langerhans— secretion that decreases blood sugar level

C. kupffer cells—a digestive enzyme that hydrolyzes nucleic acids

D. sebaceous glands— a secretion that evaporates for cooling

Q. 125 Examine the diagram of the two cell types A and B given below and select the correct option:

A. cell A is the rod cell found evenly all over retina

B. cell A is the cone cell more concentrated in the fovea centralis

C. cell B is concerned with colour vision in bright light

D. cell A is sensitive to low light intensities

Q. 126 Which one of the following pairs of features is a good example of polygenic inheritance?

A. human height and skin colour

B. ABO blood group in humans and flowers colour of mirabilis jalapa

C. hair pigment of mouse and tongue rolling in humans

D. human eye colour and sickle cell anaemia

Q. 127 Mating of an organism to a double recessive in order to determine whether it is homozygous or heterozygous for a nuclear under consideration is called

A. reciprocal cross

B. test cross

C. dihybrid cross

D. back cross

Q. 128 In which one of the following sets of three items each belong to the category mentioned against them?

A. lysine, glycine, thiamine—amino acids

B. myosin, oxytocin and gastrin—hormones

C. rennin, helicase and hyaluronidase—enzymes

D. optic nerve, oculomotor, vagus—sensory nerves

Q. 129 A cricket player is fast chasing a ball in the field. Which one of the following groups of bones are directly contributing in this movement.

A. femur, malleus, tibia, metatarsals

B. pelvis, ulna, patella, tarsals

C. sternum , femur, tibia, fibula

D. tarsals, femur, metatarsals, tibia

Q. 130 Given below is a higher simplified representation of the human sex chromosomes from a karyotype.

The gene a and b could be of

A. colour blindness and body height

B. attached car lobe and rhesus blood group

C. haemophilia and red-green colorblindness

D. phenylketonuria and haemophilia

Q. 131 A lizard like member of reptilia is sitting on a tree with its tail coiled around twig. This animal could be

A. hemidactylus showing sexual dimorphism

B. varanus showing mimicry

C. garden lizard(calates) showing camouflage

D. chamaeleon showing protective colouration

Q. 132 The figure given below shows three velocity-substrate concentration curves for an enzyme reaction. What to do the curves a, b and c depict respectively.

A. a-normal enzyme reaction, b-competitive inhibition, c-non-competitive inhibition

B. a-enzyme with an allosteric modulator added, b-competitive inhibition, c-competitive inhibition

C. a-enzyme with an allsteric stimulator, b-competitive inhibition added, c-normal enzyme reaction

D. a-normal enzyme reaction, b-non-competitive inhibitor added, c-allosteric inhibitor added

Q. 133 Pollution from animal excreta and organic waste from kitchen can be most profitably minimized by

A. storing them in underground storage tanks

B. using them for producing biogas

C. vermiculture

D. using them directly as biofertilizers

Q. 134 A person who shows unpredictable moods, outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts with others is suffering from

A. borderline personality disorder(BPD)

B. mood disorder

C. addictive disorder

D. schizophrenia

Q. 135 Genes are present in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic cells are found in

A. mitochondria and inherited via egg cytoplasm

B. lysosomes and peroxisomes

C. golgi bodies and smooth endoplasmic reticulum

D. plastids and inherited via male gamete

Q. 136 The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of fallopian tubes. Bronchioles and small bronchi are known as

A. squamous epithelium

B. columnar epithelium

C. ciliated epithelium

D. cubical epithelium

Q. 137 Tadpoles of frog can be made to grow as giant sized tadpoles, if they are:

A. administered antithyroid substance like thiourea

B. administered large amount of thyroxine

C. reared on a diet wich in egg yolk

D. reared on a diet rich in both egg yolk and glucose

Q. 138 When children play barefoot in pools of dirty water and flood water, they may suffer from the disease like

A. leptospirosis and bilharzia

B. malaria, amoebic dysentery and leptospirosis

C. bilharzia, infective hepatitis and diarrhoea

D. guinea worm infection, elephantiasis and amoebic dysentery

Q. 139 Which one of the following is an environment related disorder with the correct main cause?

A. black lung disease(pneumoconiosis) found mainly in workers in stone quarries and crushers

B. blue baby disease(methaemoglobinaemia) due to heavy use nitrogenous fertilizers in the area

C. non-hodgkin’s lymphoma found mainly in workers involved in manufacture of neem based pesticides

D. skin cancer mainly in people exposed to benzene and methane

Q. 140 The given figure shows an angiosperm of the coronary blood vessel.which on of the following describes correctly. what is being done?

A. it is coronary artery which has cancerous growth that is being removed

B. it is coronary artery which is blocked by a plaque and the same is being cracked

C. it is coronary vein in which the defective valves are being opened

D. it is coronary vein blocked by a parasite (blood fluke) that is being removed

Q. 141 In the following table. Identify the correct matching of the crop, its disease and the corresponding pathogen.

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 142 In which of the following combinations of the number of chromosomes is the present day hexaploid wheat correctly represented?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 143 Grafting is successful in dicots but not in monocots because the dicots have

A. vascular bundles arranged in a ring

B. cambium for secondary growth

C. vessels with elements arranged end to end

D. cork cambium

Q. 144 In the sieve elements, which one of the following is most likely function of P-proteins?

A. deposition of callose on sieve plates

B. providing energy for active translocation

C. autolytic enzymes

D. sealing mechanism on wounding

Q. 145 Myxomycetes are

A. saprobes or parasites, jhaving mycelia, asexual reproduction by fragmentation, sexual reproduction by fusion of gametes

B. slimy mass of multinucleate protoplasm, having pseudopodia-like structures for engulfing food, reproduction through fragmentation or zoospores.

C. prokaryotic organisms, cellular or acellular,saprobes or autotrophic, reproduce by binary fission

D. eukaryotic, single called or filamentous, saprobes or autotrophic,asexual reproduction by fusion of two cells or their nuclei

Q. 146 “ordines anomali” of bentham and hooker includes

A. seed plants showing abnormal forms of growth and development

B. plants described only in fossil state

C. plants described in the literature but which bentham and hooker did not see in original

D. a few orders which could not be placed satisfactory in the classification

Q. 147 Hirudin is:

A. a protein produced by hordeum vulgare, which is rich in lysine

B. a toxic molecule isolated from gossypium hirsutum, which reduces human fertility

C. a protein produced from transgenic brassica napus, which prevents blood clotting.

D. an antibiotic produced by a genetically engineered bacterium, escherichia coli.

Q. 148 A scion is grafted to a stock. the quality of fruits produced will be determined by the genotype of

A. stock

B. scion

C. both stock and scion

D. neither stock nor scion

Q. 149 In prokaryotes, chromatophores are

A. specialized granules responsible for colouration of cells

B. structures responsible for organizing the shape of the organism

C. inclusion bodies lying free the cells for carrying out various metabolic activities.

D. internal membrane systems that may become extensive and complex in photosynthetic bacteria

Q. 150 Among rust, smut and mushroom all the three

A. are pathogens

B. are saprobes

C. bear ascocarps

D. bear basidiocarps

Q. 151 The function of leg haemoglobin during biological nitrogen fixation in root nodules of legumes is to

A. convert atmospheric N2 to NH3

B. convert ammonia to nitrite

C. transport oxygen for activity of nitrogenase

D. protect nitrogenase from oxygen

Q. 152 Avena curvature test is a bioassay for examining the activity of

A. auxins

B. gibberellins

C. cytokinins

D. ethylene

Q. 153 What is common between chloroplasts, chromoplasts and leucoplasts ?

A. presence of pigments

B. possession of thylakoids and grana

C. storage of starch, proteins and lipids

D. ability to multiply by a fission-like process

Q. 154 Plants of which one of the following groups of genera arc pollinated by the same agency?

A. Triticum. Cocos, Mangifera

B. Ficus, Kigella, Casuarina

C. Salvia, Morus, Euphorbia

D. Bombax, Butea, Bauhinia

Q. 155 The Montreal Protocol refers to

A. persistent organic pollutants

B. global warming and climate change

C. substances that deplete the ozone layer

D. biosafety of genetically modified organisms

Q. 156 Keystone species deserve protection because these

A. are capable of surviving in harsh environmental conditions

B. indicate presence of certain minerals in the soil

C. have become rare due to overexploitation .

D. play an important role in supporting other species

Q. 157 In India, we find mangoes with different flavours, colours, fibre content, sugar content and even shelf- life. The large variation is on account of

A. species diversity

B. induced mutations”

C. genetic diversity

D. hybridization

Q. 158 During protein synthesis in an organism at one point the process comes to a halt. Select the group of the three codons from the following, from which, anyone of the three could bring about this halt

A. UUU, UCC, UAU

B. UUC, UUA, UAC

C. UAG, UGA, UAA

D. UUG, UCA, UCG

Q. 159 Biosphere reserves differ from National Parks and Wildlife sanctuaries because in the former

A. human beings are not allowed to enter

B. people are an integral part of the system

C. plants are paid greater attention than the animals

D. living organisms are brought from all over the world and preserved for posterity

Q. 160 Somaclonal variation is seen in

A. tissue culture grown plants

B. apornicts

C. polyploids

D. vegetatively propagated plants

Questions: 161 – 180

In the following questions (161-180),

statement of assertion is given a and a corresponding statement of reason is given just below it. Of the statements, mark the correct answer as –

(a) If both Assertion & Reason (Ire true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(b) both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

(d) It both Assertion and Reason are false statements.

Q. 161 Assertion: A person who has received a cut and is bleeding needs to be given anti-tetanus treatment.

Reason: Anti-tetanus injection provides immunity by producing antibodies for tetanus

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 162 Assertion: Cancer cells are virtually immortal until the body in which they reside dies.

Reason : Cancer is caused by damage to genes regulating the cell division cycle.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 163 Assertion : A network of food chains existing together in an ecosystem is known as a food web.

Reason: An animal like kite cannot be a part of a food web

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 164 Assertion: Inflammation of a skeletal joint may immobilize the movements of the joint.

Reason: Uric acid crystals in the joint cavity and ossification of articular cartilage lead to this.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 165 Assertion: The earliest organisms that appeared on the Earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.

Reason: The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 166 Assertion : Escherichia coli, Shigella sp. and I Salmonella sp. are all responsible for diarrhoeal I disease. 1

Reason : Dehydration is common to all types of I diarrhoeal diseases and adequate supply of fluids , I electrolytes should be ensured.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 167 Assertion : Deforestation is one main contributing to global warming.

Reason : Besides CO2, two other gases methane and CFCs are also included under greenhouse gases.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 168 Assertion: LSD and marijuana are clinically used as analgesics.

Reason: Both these drugs suppress brain function.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 169 Assertion: An organism with lethal mutation may not even develop beyond the zygote stage.

Reason: All types of gene mutations are lethal

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 170 Assertion: Our body secretes adrenaline in intense cold.

Reason: Adrenaline raises metabolic rate.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 171 Assertion: When the ambient temperature is high and soil contains excess of water, the plants tend to lose water in the form of droplets from lenticels.

Reason: Root pressure regulates the rate of loss of water form lenticels.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 172 Assertion: In angiosperms the conduction of water is more efficient because their xylem has vessels.

Reason: Conduction of water by vessel clements is an active process with energy supplied by xylem parenchyma rich in mitochondria.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 173 Assertion: Polytene chromosomes have a high amount of DNA:

Reason: Polytene chromosomes arc formed by repeated replication of chromosomal DNA without separation of chromatids.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 174 Assertion: UV radiation causes photodissociation of ozone into 02 and 0, thus causing damage to the stratospheric ozone layer.

Reason: Ozone hole is resulting in global warming and climate change.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 175 Assertion: The concentration of methane in the atmosphere has more than doubled in the last 250 years.

Reason: Wetlands and rice fields arc (he major sources of methane.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 176 Assertion: In tropical rainforests, O-horizon and A-horizon of soil profile are shallow and nutrient poor.

Reason : Excessive growth of microorganisms in the soil depletes its organic content.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 177 Assertion: Gram-negative bacteria do not retain the stain when washed with alcohol.

Reason: The outer face of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria contains lipopolysaccharides, a part of which is integrated into the membrane lipids.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 178 Assertion: Under conditions of high light intensity and limited CO2 supply, photorespiration has a ‘useful role in protecting the plants from photooxidative damage.

Reason : If Enough CO2 is not available to utilize light energy for carboxylation to proceed. the excess energy may not cause damage to plants

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 179 Assertion: Photosynthetically C, plants are less efficient than C] plants.

Reason: The operation of C, pathway requires the involvement of only bundle-sheath cells.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 180 Assertion : Eukaryotic cells have the ability to adopt a variety of shapes and carry out directed movements.

Reason : There are three principal types of protein filaments – microfilaments, microtubules and i ntcrmcd iatc fi laments, which constitute the cytoskeleton

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 181 The term’ CPR’ often used in first aid stands for

A. Clinic for Pulmonary Rehabilitation

B. Chemical Prevention of Rhinitis

C. Chemo-Prophylaxis response

D. Cardio-Pulmonary resuscitation

Q. 182 Alzheimer’s disease affects

A. childhood

B. adolescent

C. young people

D. elderly people

Q. 183 Central Council for Research in Yoga and Naturopathy (CCRYN) is an organization that funds research in the given field in om country. It is located in

A. New Delhi

B. Rishikesh

C. Bangalore

D. Hyderabad

Q. 184 The vaccination for which one of the following diseases is not covered in the immunization schedule so far?

A. tuberculosis

B. diphtheria

C. measles

D. pneumonia

Q. 185 Which one of the following is true and is not a misconception?

A. cutting the top of a bitter cucumber and Rubbing it with the corresponding surface removes bitterness

B. pearl is produced from a drop of rain water fitting into the oyster in Swati Nakshatra

C. while dreaming during sleep at night the eyes move rapidly

D. peahen gets conceived from the tears that drop from the peacock’s eye and she drinks them

Q. 186 A drug called reserpine was discovered by

A. Jal Vakil

B. Paul Ehrlich

C. Hansen

D. Alexander Wood

Q. 187 Biometry refers to

A. identification of humans by scanning face and fingerprints

B. measurement of mechanical displacement in humans

C. a method of lie detection

D. body length relationships across the evolutionary scale

Q. 188 Which one of the following is one of the two days when the sun rises exactly in the east?

A. 14th January

B. 21st March

C. 21st June

D. 23nd December

Q. 189 X-Wilhelm rays were discovered b

A. K. Roentgen

B. H. Kissinger

C. Sir C. V. Raman

D. Meghnad Saha

Q. 190 Which one of the following literary titles is, correctly matched with its author ‘

A. Rumayana – Tulsidas

B. Mahabharat – Vedvyas

C. Kumarasambhava – Ravidas

D. Shakuntala -Bhushan

Q. 191 A very much publicized treatment method “DOTS” is being adopted for the cure of

A. dementia

B. tetanus

C. tuberculosis

D. sexually transmitted disease

Q. 192 Which of the following Indian cricket player after India-Pakistan 001 (One-day International) at : Abudhabi became no.1 001 batsman

A. Rahul Dravid

B. Yuvraj

C. Sachin Tendulkar

D. M.S dhoni

Q. 193 The Jungle in Rudyard Kipling’s Jungle book. describes which part of Indian forest ?

A. central Indian forest ncar Satpura range

B. Uttaranchal thick forest

C. Himalayan forest in Himachal

D. Nilgiri jungles

Q. 194 Sardar Sarovar Dam is built on the river

A. jhelam

B. Narmada

C. Tapti

D. vyas

Q. 195 One ream of paper equals to

A. 100-IIOsheets

B. 256 sheets

C. 80-500 sheets

D. 1000 sheets

Q. 196 Which of the following honour is given by UNESCO?

A. the Kalinga prize

B. Magsaysay award

C. Pulitzer prize

D. order of the Golden Ark award

Q. 197 Bodyline’ in cricket refers to

A. bowling that hits the body

B. the line of body close to wicket line

C. he white line on ground within which the player stands

D. he line of moving ball

Q. 198 Hindu view of life’ is written by

A. S. Radhakrishnan

B. .K. Narayan

C. V.D. Savarkar

D. John Ruskin

Q. 199 Lagoon refers to

A. a full moon

B. the sea breaking into the land and then separated by sand dunes

C. a spot in a desert made fertile by presence of water

D. horseshoe shaped coral reef

Q. 200 Ecology deals with

A. the earth and planets

B. the relationship between organism and their environments

C. he life under the sea

D. economical growth of poor people

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	D	B	C	C	C	B	A	B	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	A	C	A	D	B	B	A	A	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	B	D	A	A	A	B	C	C	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	D	B	C	B	C	B	D	A	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	B	C	B	A	A	D	C	A	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	C	A	A	C	B	A	B	A	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	D	A	C	A	B	C	A	C	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	C	A	A	A	A	B	C	D	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	C	A	C	A	B	C	C	B	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	D	B	C	D	A	D	B	B	A	D
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	B	A	A	B	C	C	A	A	D	D
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	C	C	A	C	C	A	D	D	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	B	D	D	B	A	B	C	D	C
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	D	A	B	A	A	C	A	A	B	B
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	C	D	B	D	B	D	C	B	D	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	D	A	D	D	C	D	C	C	B	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	A	B	C	A	B	B	B	D	C	A
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	D	C	A	A	A	B	A	C	D	A
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	D	D	A	D	C	A	D	B	A	B
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	C	D	A	B	C	A	A	A	B	B

NEET 2018 Previous Year Paper

NEET 2018

Section	Questions	Marks
Chemistry	45 Questions (1 – 45)	180
Biology	90 Questions (46 – 135)	360
Physics	45 Questions (136 – 180)	180

Q. 1 Which of the following statements is “not” true for the halogens?

A. All form monobasic oxyacids

B. Chlorine has the highest electron gain enthalpy

C. All but fluorine show positive oxidation states

D. All are oxidizing agents

Q. 2 The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 elements are:

A. B < Al < In < Ga < Tl

B. B < Ga < Al < In < Tl

C. B < Ga < Al < Tl < In

D. B < Al < Ga < In < Tl

Q. 3 In the structure of CIF₃ , the number of lone pairs of electrons on the central atom “Cl” is:

A. One

B. Three

C. Four

D. Two

Q. 4 The correct order of the N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is:

A. HNO₃, NO, N₂, NH₄Cl

B. NH₄Cl, N₂, NO, HNO₃

C. HNO₃, NH₄Cl, NO, N₂

D. HNO₃, NO, NH₄Cl, N₂

Q. 5 Which one of the following elements is unable to form MF₆⁻³ ion:

A. Ga

B. In

C. B

D. Al

Q. 6 Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the following metals can be used to reduce alumina?

A. Fe

B. Cu

C. Mg

D. Zn

Q. 7 The compound A on treatment with Na gives B, and with PCl₅ gives C. B and C react together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are in the order

A. C₂H₅OH, C₂H6, C₂H₅Cl

B. C₂H₅OH, C₂H₅ONa, C₂H₅Cl

C. C₂H₅Cl, C₂H6, C₂H₅OH

D. C₂H₅OH, C₂H₅Cl, C₂H₅ONa

Q. 8 Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon atoms (A) is :

A. CH = CH

B. CH₄

C. CH₃ – CH₃

D. CH₂ = CH₂

Q. 9 The compound C₇H₈ undergoes the following reactions given in the figure. The product ‘C’ is:

A. m-bromotoluene

B. p-bromotoluene

C. 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene

D. o-bromotoluene

Q. 10 Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both due to natural and human activity?

A. N₂O₅

B. NO

C. N₂O

D. NO₂

Q. 11 Following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different concentrations:

a. 60mL M/10 HCl + 40mL M/10 NaOH

b. 55mL M/10 HCl + 45mL M/10 NaOH

c. 75mL M/5 HCl + 25mL M/5 NaOH

d. 100mL M/10 HCl + 100mL M/10 NaOH

pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?

A. b

B. c

C. d

D. a

Q. 12 On which of the following properties does the coagulating power of an ion depend?

A. The magnitude of the charge on the ion alone

B. The sign of charge on the ion alone

C. Both magnitude and sign of the charge on the ion

D. Size of the ion alone

Q. 13 The solubility of BaSO₄ in water is 2.42 x 10⁻³ gL⁻¹ at 298K.The value of its solubility product (Ksp) will be (Given molar mass of BaSO₄=233g/mol⁻¹)

A. 1.08 x 10⁻¹⁰ mol²/L⁻²

B. 1.08 x 10⁻⁸ mol²/L⁻²

C. 1.08 x 10⁻¹⁴ mol²/L⁻²

D. 1.08 x 10⁻¹² mol²/L⁻²

Q. 14 Given van der Waals constant for NH₃, H₂, O₂ and CO₂ are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and 3.59, which one of the following gases is most easily liquefied?

A. NH₃

B. CO₂

C. O₂

D. H₂

Q. 15 Match the metal ions given in column I with the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in column II (Given in figure (1)) and assign the correct code:

A. a(iv), b(v), c(ii), d(i)

B. a(iii), b(v), c(i), d(ii)

C. a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

D. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

Q. 16 Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)₅ is:

A. tetranuclear

B. dinuclear

C. trinuclear

D. mononuclear

Q. 17 The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)₄] are:

A. square planar geometry and diamagnetic

B. tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic

C. square planar geometry and paramagnetic

D. tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic

Q. 18 Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d transition and paramagnetism as well?

A. CrO₄⁻²

B. MnO₄⁻²

C. MnO₄⁻

D. Cr₂O₇⁻²

Q. 19 The type of isomerism shown by the complex [CoCl₂(en)₂] is:

A. geometrical isomerism

B. linkage isomerism

C. ionisation isomerism

D. coordination isomerism

Q. 20 Identify the major products P, Q and R (Among options (1), (2), (3), (4)) in the following sequence of reaction given in the figure:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 21 Which of the following compounds can form a zwitterion?

A. Aniline

B. Glycine

C. Benzoic acid

D. Acetanilide

Q. 22 Which of the following molecules represent the order of hybridisation sp², sp², sp, sp from left to right atoms?

A. HC ≡ C – C ≡ CH

B. CH₃ – CH = CH – CH₃

C. CH₂ = CH – CH = CH₂

D. CH₂ = CH – C = CH

Q. 23 Which of the following carbocations is expected to be most stable (Among options (1), (2), (3), (4)):

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 24 Which of the following is correct with respect to -I effect of the substituents?(R = alkyl)

A. -NH₂ < -OR < -F

B. -NR₂ > -OR > -F

C. -NH₂ > -OR > -F

D. -NR₂ < -OR < -F

Q. 25 Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound. If the ground state electronic configuration of (X) is 1s² 2s² 2p³, the simplest formula for this compound is:

A. Mg₂X₃

B. Mg₃X₂

C. Mg₂X

D. MgX₂

Q. 26 Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains constant with temperature) is:

A. √3/√2

B. 1/2

C. 3√3/4√2

D. 4√3/3√2

Q. 27 Which of the following statement is wrong (Among (1), (2), (3), (4))?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 28 Consider the following species:

CN⁺, CN⁻, NO and CN

Which one of these will have the highest bond order?

A. NO

B. CN

C. CN⁺

D. CN⁻

Q. 29 In the reaction given in the figure, the electrolyte involved is:

A. dichloromethyl cation (CHCl₂)

B. dichlorocarbene (:CCl₂)

C. dichloromethyl anion (CHCl₂)

D. formyl cation (CHO)

Q. 30 Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular mass. It is due to their:

A. formation of intramolecular H-bonding

B. formation of intermolecular H-bonding

C. more extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der Waals force of attraction

D. formation of carboxylate ion

Q. 31 Compound A, C₈H₁₀O is found to react with NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic smell.

A and Y are respectively (Among (1), (2), (3), (4)):

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 32 The correct difference between first and second order reactions is that:

A. The rate of first order reaction does not depend on the reactant concentrations; the rate of a second order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations.

B. The rate of first order reaction does depend on the reactant concentrations; the rate of a second order reaction does not depend on the reactant concentrations.

C. a first order reaction can be catalyzed; a second order reaction cannot be catalyzed.

D. the half time of a first order reaction does not depend on the [A]0; the half life of a second order reaction does not depend on the [A]0

Q. 33 Among the CaH₂, BeH₂, BaH₂, the order of the ionic character is:

A. BeH₂ < CaH₂ < BaH₂

B. BaH₂ < BeH₂ < CaH₂

C. BeH₂ < BaH₂ < CaH₂

D. CaH₂ < BeH₂ < BaH₂

Q. 34 Consider the change in oxidation state of Bromine corresponding to different emf values as shown in the diagram.

Then the species undergoing disproportionation is:

A. BrO₃⁻

B. HBrO

C. Br₂

D. BrO₄⁻

Q. 35 In which case is the number of molecules of water maximum?

A. 18 mL of water

B. 10⁻³ mol of water

C. 0.00224L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K

D. 0.18 g of water

Q. 36 Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. They contains covalent bonds between various linear polymer chains.

B. They contains strong covalent bonds in their polymer chains

C. Examples are bakelite and melamine

D. They are formed from bi and tri functional monomers.

Q. 37 Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also gives m-nitroaniline because:

A. In spite of substitutions nitro group always goes to only m-position

B. In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present as anilinium ion

C. In absence of substituents nitro groups always goes to m-position

D. In electrophilic substitution reactions amino group is meta directive

Q. 38 Which of the following oxides is most acidic in nature?

A. MgO

B. CaO

C. BaO

D. BeO

Q. 39 The difference between amylose and amylose and amylopectin is:

A. Amylopectin have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 α-linkage

B. Amylose is made up of glucose and galactose

C. Amylopectin have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1→ 6 β-linkage

D. Amylose have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1 → 6 β-linkage

Q. 40 A mixture of 2:3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid is treated with conc. H₂SO₄. The evolved gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pallets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP will be:

A. 1.4

B. 4.4

C. 2.8

D. 3.0

Q. 41 For redox reaction given in the figure, what is the correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced equation are:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 42 The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas equation corresponds to:

A. density of the gas molecules

B. forces of attraction between the gas molecules

C. electric field present between the gas molecules

D. volume of the gas molecules

Q. 43 Which one of the following conditions will favour maximum formation of the product in the reaction:

A₂(g) + B₂(G) ⇔ X₂(g) ΔrH = – X kJ?

A. low temperature and high pressure

B. high temperature and low temperature

C. high temperature and high pressure

D. low temperature and low pressure

Q. 44 The bond dissociation energies of X₂, Y₂ and XY of in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. ΔH for the formation of XY is -200 KJ/mol⁻¹.The bond dissociation energy of X₂ will be:

A. 200KJ mol⁻¹

B. 400 KJ mol⁻¹

C. 800 KJ mol⁻¹

D. 100 KJ mol⁻¹

Q. 45 When initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the half life period of a zero order reaction.

A. is halved

B. remains unchanged

C. is tripled

D. is doubled

Q. 46 Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder?

A. anthracis

B. emphysema

C. botulism

D. silicosis

Q. 47 Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it:

A. binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin

B. prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament

C. detaches the myosin head from the actin filament

D. activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it

Q. 48 Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis?

A. chief cells

B. parietal cells

C. goblet cells

D. mucous cells

Q. 49 Match the items given in column I with those in column II (Given in the figure) and select the correct option:

A. a(iii), b(ii), c(i)

B. a(ii), b(iii), c(i)

C. a(i), b(iii), c(ii)

D. a(i), b(ii), c(iii)

Q. 50 Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?

A. Aldosterone and Prolactin

B. Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin

C. Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone

D. Progesterone and Aldosterone

Q. 51 Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?

A. epinephrine

B. estriol

C. estradiol

D. ecdysone

Q. 52 Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function?

A. Medulla oblongata: It controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes

B. Corpus callosum: band of fibres connecting the left and right cerebral hemispheres

C. Hypothalamus: production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and thirst

D. Limbic system: consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movements.

Q. 53 The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by

A. ligaments attached to ciliary body

B. smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body

C. smooth muscles attached to the iris

D. ligaments attached to the iris

Q. 54 Among the following set of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option.

A. forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah

B. eye of octopus, bat and man

C. brain of bat, man and cheetah

D. heart of bat, man and cheetah

Q. 55 In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?

A. Elephantiasis

B. Amoebiasis

C. Ringworm disease

D. Ascariasis

Q. 56 Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

A. Psoriasis

B. Vitiligo

C. Alzheimer’s disease

D. Rheumatoid arthritis

Q. 57 Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of:

A. Vitamin D

B. Vitamin E

C. Vitamin B12

D. Vitamin A

Q. 58 Which of the following characters represent ‘inheritance of blood groups’ in human:

a. Dominance

b. Co-dominance

c. Multiple allele

d. Incomplete dominance

e. Polygenic inheritance

A. b, c and e

B. a, c and e

C. b, d and e

D. a, b and c

Q. 59 The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of:

A. homology

B. adaptive radiation

C. convergent evolution

D. analogy

Q. 60 Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis?

A. earthworm

B. starfish

C. moth

D. tunicate

Q. 61 Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm?

A. Macropus

B. Psittacula

C. Camelus

D. Chelone

Q. 62 Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach?

A. Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th abdominal segment

B. Presence of anal cerci

C. Forewings with darker tegmina

D. Presence of caudal styles

Q. 63 Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans?

A. Dinoflagellates

B. Euglenoids

C. Cyanobacteria

D. Diatoms

Q. 64 Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in

A. using flagella for locomotion

B. having two types of nuclei

C. using pseudopodia for capturing prey

D. having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water

Q. 65 Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system

A. Amphibia

B. Osteichthyes

C. Aves

D. Reptilia

Q. 66 The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from:

A. ectoderm and mesoderm

B. ectoderm and endoderm

C. mesoderm and trophoblast

D. endoderm and mesoderm

Q. 67 Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are:

A. hCG, hPL , progestogens, prolactin

B. hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids

C. hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens

D. hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin

Q. 68 The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’

A. blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted

B. is a post coital contraceptive

C. is an IUD

D. increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.

Q. 69 The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is:

A. In spermatogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed

B. In spermatogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules

C. In spermatogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed

D. In spermatogenesis spermatozoa are formed while in spermiation spermatids are formed

Q. 70 In a growing population of a country:

A. pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals

B. pre-reproductive individuals are less than the reproductive individuals

C. reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number

D. reproductive individuals are less than the post reproductive individuals

Q. 71 Match the items given in the column I with those in column II (Given in the figure) and select the correct option given below:

A. a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)

B. a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)

C. a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

D. a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)

Q. 72 Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug ‘smack’ ?

A. flowers

B. leaves

C. roots

D. latex

Q. 73 Which of the following population interactions widely used in medical sciences for the production of antibiotics?

A. Commensalism

B. Amensalism

C. Parasitism

D. Mutualism

Q. 74 All of the following are included in “ex-situ conservation” except

A. wildlife safari parks

B. seed banks

C. botanical gardens

D. sacred groves

Q. 75 Match the items given in column I with those column II (Given in the figure) and select the correct option given below:

A. a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

B. a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

C. a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

D. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

Q. 76 Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option given below:

A. a(iv), b(v), c(ii), d(iii)

B. a(v), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

C. a(v), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

D. a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

Q. 77 A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by:

A. only daughters

B. both sons and daughters

C. only grandchildren

D. only sons

Q. 78 AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?

A. AGGUAUCGCAU

B. UCCAUAGCGUA

C. ACCUAUGCGAU

D. UGGTUTCGCAT

Q. 79 Match the items given in column I with those in column II (Given in the figure) and select the correct option given below:

A. a(iii), b(ii), c(i)

B. a(iii), b(i), c(ii)

C. a(ii), b(iii), c(i)

D. a(i), b(iii), c(ii)

Q. 80 According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is:

A. multiple step mutations

B. minor mutations

C. phenotypic variations

D. saltation

Q. 81 All of the following are part of an operon except

A. an operator

B. a promoter

C. an enhancer

D. structural genes

Q. 82 Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum?

A. protein folding

B. phospholipid synthesis

C. cleavage of signal peptide

D. protein glycosylation

Q. 83 Which of these statements is incorrect?

A. enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix

B. oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane

C. glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms

D. glycolysis occurs in cytosol

Q. 84 Select the incorrect match:

A. lampbrush chromosome – diplotene bivalents

B. polytene chromosome – oocytes of amphibians

C. submetacentric chromosome – L-shaped chromosomes

D. allosomes – sex chromosomes

Q. 85 Which of the following terms describe human dentition?

A. thecodont, diphyodont, homodont

B. pleurodont, diphyodont, heterodont

C. pleurodont, monophyodont, homodont

D. thecodont, diphyodont, heterodont

Q. 86 Nissil bodies are mainly composed of

A. proteins and lipids

B. free ribosomes and RER

C. nucleic acids and SER

D. DNA and RNA

Q. 87 Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as:

A. Polysome

B. Nucleosome

C. Plastidome

D. Polyhedral bodies

Q. 88 Match the items given in the column I with those in column II (Given in figure) and select the correct option given below:

A. a(iii), b(i), c(ii)

B. a(ii), b(i), c(iii)

C. a(i), b(ii), c(iii)

D. a(i), b(iii), c(ii)

Q. 89 Match the item in the column I with the column II (Given in the figure) and select the correct option given below:

A. a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

B. a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

C. a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)

D. a(iii), b(i), c(iv0, d(ii)

Q. 90 Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema , respectively.

A. inflammation of bronchioles, decreased respiratory surface

B. decreased respiratory surface, inflammation of bronchioles

C. increased respiratory surface, inflammation of bronchioles

D. increased number of bronchioles, increased respiratory surface

Q. 91 The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is

A. Pachytene

B. Zygotene

C. Diakinesis

D. Diplotene

Q. 92 Which of the following is true for nucleolus?

A. Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.

B. It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.

C. It takes part in spindle formation.

D. It is a membrane-bound structure.

Q. 93 Stomatal movement is not affected by

A. Temperature

B. CO₂ concentration

C. O₂ concentration

D. Light

Q. 94 Which among the following is not a prokaryote ?

A. Saccharomyces

B. Oscillatoria

C. Nostoc

D. Mycobacterium

Q. 95 Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis ?

A. ATP

B. Oxygen

C. NAPDH

D. NADH

Q. 96 Stomata in grass leaf are

A. Dumb-bell shaped

B. Barrel shaped

C. Rectangular

D. Kidney shaped

Q. 97 The Golgi complex participates in

A. Fatty acid breakdown

B. Activation of amino acid

C. Respiration in bacteria

D. Formation of secretory vesicles

Q. 98 The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are

A. hydroxyl and methyl

B. carbonyl and hydroxyl

C. carbonyl and phosphate

D. carbonyl and methyl

Q. 99 A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to

A. Co-667

B. Basmati

C. Lerma Rojo

D. Sharbati Sonora

Q. 100 Select the correct match:

A. Ribozyme – Nucleic acid

B. G. Mendel – Transformation

C. T.H. Morgan – Transduction

D. F₂ x Recessive parent – Dihybrid cross

Q. 101 Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human lymphocytes ?

A. Retrovirus

B. pBR 322

C. λ phage

D. Ti plasmid

Q. 102 In India, the organisation responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is

A. Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)

B. Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)

C. Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)

D. Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)

Q. 103 The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is

A. Extension, Denaturation, Annealing

B. Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

C. Denaturation, Extension, Annealing

D. Annealing, Extension, Denaturation

Q. 104 Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organisations without authorisation from the concerned country and its people is called

A. Bio-infringement

B. Bioexploitation

C. Biodegradation

D. Biopiracy

Q. 105 Winged pollen grains are present in

A. Mustard

B. Pinus

C. Mango

D. Cycas

Q. 106 After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in

A. Neurospora

B. Saccharomyces

C. Agaricus

D. Alternaria

Q. 107 Which one is wrongly matched ?

A. Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia

B. Unicellular organism – Chlorella

C. Gemma cups – Marchantia

D. Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae

Q. 108 Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II (Given in figure) and select the correct option given below:

A. a → i, b → iv, c → iii, d → ii

B. a → iii, b → iv, c → i, d → ii

C. a → ii, b → iv, c → iii, d → i

D. a → iii, b → ii, c → i, d → iv

Q. 109 What is the role of NAD⁺ in cellular respiration ?

A. It functions as an enzyme.

B. It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.

C. It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.

D. It functions as an electron carrier.

Q. 110 Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by

A. Green sulphur bacteria

B. Chara

C. Cycas

D. Nostoc

Q. 111 Double fertilization is

A. Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs

B. Syngamy and triple fusion

C. Fusion of two male gametes with one egg

D. Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei

Q. 112 In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants ?

A. Ferric

B. Both ferric and ferrous

C. Free element

D. Ferrous

Q. 113 Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells?

A. Magnesium

B. Calcium

C. Potassium

D. Sodium

Q. 114 Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other ?

A. Hydrilla

B. Voila

C. Banana

D. Yucca

Q. 115 Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
A. -120°C

B. -160°C

C. -196°C

D. -80°C

Q. 116 Niche can be defined as:

A. All the biological factors in the organism’s environment

B. The functional role played by the organism where it lives

C. The range of temperature that the organism needs to live

D. The physical space where an organism lives

Q. 117 Which of the following is a secondary pollutant ?

A. CO

B. O₃

C. SO₂

D. CO₂

Q. 118 World Ozone Day is celebrated on

A. 5th June

B. 22nd April

C. 16th September

D. 21st April

Q. 119 In stratosphere, which of the following elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and release of molecular oxygen ?

A. Carbon

B. Oxygen

C. Fe

D. Cl

Q. 120 What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data ?

Secondary consumer : 120 g

Primary consumer: 60 g

Primary producer: 10 g

A. Inverted pyramid of biomass

B. Upright pyramid of biomass

C. Upright pyramid of numbers

D. Pyramid of energy

Q. 121 Natality refers to

A. Death rate

B. Number of individuals entering a habitat

C. Number of individuals leaving a habitat

D. Birth rate

Q. 122 Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollen as fossils ?

A. Pollenkitt

B. Sporopollenin

C. Oil Content

D. Cellulosic intine

Q. 123 Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched ?

A. Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles

B. T.H. Morgan : Linkage

C. XO type sex determination : Grasshopper

D. ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance

Q. 124 Select the correct match:

A. Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus pneumoniae

B. Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod – Lac operon

C. Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Pisum sativum

D. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – TMV

Q. 125 Which of the following flowers only once in its lifetime ?

A. Bamboo species

B. Papaya

C. Mango

D. Jackfruit

Q. 126 Select the correct statement:

A. Franklin Stahl coined the term “linkage”.

B. Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.

C. Spliceosomes take part in translation.

D. Punnett square was developed by a British scientist.

Q. 127 Offsets are produced by

A. Meiotic divisions

B. Parthenogenesis

C. Parthenocarpy

D. Mitotic divisions

Q. 128 The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a

A. Fungus

B. Virus

C. Plant

D. Bacterium

Q. 129 Select the wrong statement:

A. Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae.

B. Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except Monera.

C. Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans.

D. Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes.

Q. 130 Casparian strips occur in

A. Epidermis

B. Endodermis

C. Cortex

D. Pericycle

Q. 131 Which of the following statements is correct ?

A. Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms.

B. Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus.

C. Horsetails are gymnosperms.

D. Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous

Q. 132 Pneumatophores occur in

A. Halophytes

B. Submerged hydrophytes

C. Carnivorous plants

D. Free-floating hydrophytes

Q. 133 Sweet potato is a modified

A. Stem

B. Rhizome

C. Tap root

D. Adventitious root

Q. 134 Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by

A. Apical meristems

B. Axillary meristems

C. Phellogen

D. Vascular cambium

Q. 135 Plants having little or no secondary growth are

A. Grasses

B. Cycads

C. Conifers

D. Deciduous angiosperms

Q. 136 The power radiated by a black body is P and it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, λ0. If the temperature of the black body is now changed so that it radiates maximum energy at wavelength 3/4λ0 , the power radiated by it becomes nP.The value of n is

A. 3/4

B. 81/256

C. 256/81

D. 4/3

Q. 137 Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. The first wire has cross-sectional area A and the second wire has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the first wire is increased by ΔI on applying a force F, how much force is needed to stretch the second wire by the same amount ?

A. 9 F

B. F

C. 4 F

D. 6 F

Q. 138 A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and normal pressure (1.013×10⁵ Nm⁻²) requires 54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at 100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is 167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the sample, is

A. 104.3 J

B. 84.5 J

C. 42.2 J

D. 208.7 J

Q. 139 A small sphere of radius ‘r’ falls from rest in a viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due to viscous force. The rate of production of heat when the sphere attains its terminal velocity, is proportional to

A. r³

B. r⁴

C. r⁵

D. r²

Q. 140 An electron falls from rest through a vertical distance h in a uniform and vertically upward directed electric field E. The direction of electric field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it through the same vertical distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of fall of the proton is

A. smaller

B. equal

C. 10 times greater

D. 5 times greater

Q. 141 A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s² at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is

A. 2 π s

B. 1 s

C. 2 s

D. π s

Q. 142 The electrostatic force between the metal plate of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having charge Q and area A, is

A. independent of the distance between the plates.

B. inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.

C. proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates.

D. linearly proportional to the distance between the plates.

Q. 143 A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in glass tube. The length of the air column in the tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At room temperature of 27°C two successive resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27°C

A. 330 m/s

B. 300 m/s

C. 350 m/s

D. 339 m/s

Q. 144 The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom. is

A. 1 : 1

B. 1 : -2

C. 2 : -1

D. 1 : -1

Q. 145 When the light of frequency 2v0 (where v0 is threshold frequency), is incident on a metal plate, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted is v1. When the frequency of the incident radiation is increased to 5v0, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is

A. 1 : 2

B. 2 : 1

C. 4 : 1

D. 1 : 4

Q. 146 For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is

A. 20

B. 15

C. 30

D. 10

Q. 147 An electron of mass m with an initial velocity V⃗ =V₀î(V₀ > 0) enters an electric field E⃗ = −E₀î (E₀ = constant > 0) at t=0. If λ₀ is its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-Broglie wavelength at time t is

A. λ₀/(1 + (eE₀/mV₀)t)

B. λ₀

C. λ₀t

D. λ₀(1 + (eE₀/mV₀)t)

Q. 148 An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 μF and a resistor 50 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in the circuit is

A. 0.79 W

B. 1.13 W

C. 2.74 W

D. 0.43 W

Q. 149 A metallic rod of mass per unit length 0.5 kg m⁻¹ is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide down by flowing a current through it when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is acting on it in the vertical direction. The current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary is

A. 7.14 A

B. 11.32 A

C. 14.76 A

D. 5.98 A

Q. 150 A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically between the poles of an electromagnet. When the current in the electromagnet is switched on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains gravitational potential energy. The work required to do this comes from

A. the current source

B. the induced electric field due to the changing magnetic field

C. the lattice structure of the material of the rod

D. the magnetic field

Q. 151 Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the galvanometer is

A. 40 Ω

B. 500 Ω

C. 250 Ω

D. 25 Ω

Q. 152 A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling motion a body possesses translational kinetic energy (Kt) as well as rotational kinetic energy (Kr) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is

A. 7 : 10

B. 2 : 5

C. 10 : 7

D. 5 : 7

Q. 153 The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are KA, KB and KC respectively. AC is the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of the Sun S as shown in the figure. Then

A. KA < KB < KC

B. KB > KA > KC

C. KB < KA < KC

D. KA > KB > KC

Q. 154 If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller and the universal gravitational constant were ten times larger in magnitude, which of the following is not correct ?

A. Raindrops will fall faster

B. g’ on the Earth will not change

C. Time period of a simple pendulum on the Earth would decrease.

D. Walking on the ground would become more difficult.

Q. 155 A solid sphere is rotating freely about its symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the sphere is increased keeping its mass same. Which of the following physical quantities would remain constant for the sphere ?

A. Angular velocity

B. Angular momentum

C. Rotational kinetic energy

D. Moment of inertia

Q. 156 Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane surface of a material of refractive index ′μ′. At a particular angle of incidence ′i′, it is found that the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other. Which of the following options is correct for this situation ?

A. Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector parallel to the plane of incidence

B. i = tan⁻¹(1/μ)

C. i = sin⁻¹(1/μ)

D. Reflected light is polarised with its electric vector perpendicular to the plane of incidence

Q. 157 In Young’s double slit experiment the separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength λ of the light used is 5896 Å and distance D between the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe angular width to 0.21° (with same λ and D) the separation between the slits needs to be changed to

A. 1.8 mm

B. 1.7 mm

C. 2.1mm

D. 1.9 mm

Q. 158 An astronomical refracting telescope will have large angular magnification and high angular resolution, when it has an objective lens of

A. small focal length and large diameter

B. small focal length and small diameter

C. large focal length and large diameter

D. large focal length and small diameter

Q. 159 A carbon resistor of (47±4.7) kΩ is to be marked with rings of different colours for its identification. The colour code sequence will be

A. Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver

B. Green – Orange- Violet- Gold

C. Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold

D. Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver

Q. 160 A set of ‘n’ equal resistors, of value R each, are connected in series to a battery of emf E and internal resistance ‘R’ The current drawn is I. Now, the ‘n’ resistors are connected in parallel to the same battery. Then the current drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of ‘n’ is

A. 10

B. 9

C. 20

D. 11

Q. 161 A battery consists of a variable number ‘n’ of identical cells (having internal resistance ‘r’ each) which are connected in series. The terminals of the battery are short-circuited and the current I is measured. Which of the graphs shows (among (1), (2), (3), (4)) the correct relationship between I and n ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 162 A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in the figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to

A. 3/2 D

B. 5/4 D

C. 7/5 D

D. D

Q. 163 Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have the same mass M and radius R. They all spin with the same angular speed ω to about their own symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the relation

A. WC > WB > WA

B. WA > WC > WB

C. WB > WA > WC

D. WA > WB > WC

Q. 164 Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?

A. Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction

B. Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions of length

C. Frictional force opposes the relative motion

D. Limiting value of static friction is directly proportional to normal reactions

Q. 165 A moving block having mass m, collides with another stationary block having mass 4m. The lighter block comes to rest after collision. When the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be

A. 0.5

B. 0.4

C. 0.8

D. 0.25

Q. 166 An em wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity V⃗ = Vî. The instantaneous oscillating electric field of this em wave is along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of the em wave will be along :-

A. –z direction

B. –x direction

C. –y direction

D. +z direction

Q. 167 The refractive index of the material of a prism is √2 and the angle of the prism is 30°. One of the two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from the other face will retrace its path (after reflection from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on the prism is :-

A. 60°

B. zero

C. 30°

D. 45°

Q. 168 The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance

A. 0.138 H

B. 13.89 H

C. 1.389 H

D. 138.88 H

Q. 169 An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards the mirror, the displacement of the image will be:-

A. 30 cm away the mirror

B. 36 cm towards the mirror

C. 30 cm towards the mirror

D. 36 cm away the mirror

Q. 170 In the circuit shown in the figure, the input voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The values of IB, IC and β are given by :-

A. IB = 40 μA, IC = 10 mA, β = 250

B. IB = 40 μA, IC = 5 mA, β = 125

C. IB = 20 μA, IC = 5 mA, β = 250

D. IB = 25 μA, IC = 5 mA, β = 200

Q. 171 In a p-n junction diode , change in temperature due to heating

A. affects only reverse resistance

B. affects the overall V-I characteristics of p-n junction

C. does not affect resistance of p-n junction

D. affects only forward resistance

Q. 172 In the combination of the following gates output Y can be written in terms of input A and B as :

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 173 A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless horizontal plane surface under the influence of a uniform electric field E⃗ . Due to the force q E⃗ , its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At that instant the direction of the field is reversed. The car continues to move for two more seconds under the influence of this field. The average velocity and the average speed of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are respectively

A. 2 m/s , 4 m/s

B. 1.5 m/s , 3 m/s

C. 1 m/s , 3.5 m/s

D. 1 m/s , 3 m/s

Q. 174 A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination θ as shown in the figure. The wedge is given an acceleration ‘a’ towards right .The relation between a and θ for the block to remain stationary on the wedge is

A. a= g/cosec θ

B. a= g tan θ

C. a= g cos θ

D. a= g/sin θ

Q. 175 A student measured the diameter of the small steel ball using the screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm .The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular scale division coincides with 25 divisions above the reference level. If screw gauge has a zero error of -0.004 cm , the correct diameter of the ball is :

A. 0.521 cm

B. 0.529 cm

C. 0.053 cm

D. 0.525 cm

Q. 176 The moment of the force F = 4î + 5ĵ – 6k̂ at (2,0,-3) about the point (2, -2,-2) is given by

A. -8î – 4ĵ – 7k̂

B. -7î – 4ĵ – 8k̂

C. -7î – 8ĵ – 4k̂

D. -4î – ĵ – 8k̂

Q. 177 The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from state A to state B, is

A. 2/5

B. 2/7

C. 1/3

D. 2/3

Q. 178 The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm , the length of the open organ pipe is :

A. 13.2 cm

B. 16 cm

C. 12.5 cm

D. 8 cm

Q. 179 The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water, is:

A. 26.8 %

B. 12.5%

C. 6.25%

D. 20%

Q. 180 At what temperature will the rms speed of oxygen molecules become just sufficient from escaping from Earth’s atmosphere?

Given: Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 x 10⁻²⁶ kg

Boltzmann’s constant kB = 1.38 x 10⁻²³ J K⁻¹)

A. 2.508 x 10⁴ K

B. 1.254 x 10⁴ K

C. 5.016 x 10⁴ K

D. 8.360 x 10⁴ K

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	B	D	A	C	C	B	B	A	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	C	A	A	A	D	D	B	A	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	D	C	A	B	C	C	D	B	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	D	A	B	A	B	B	D	A	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	D	B	A	C	D	D	A	B	B	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	D	A	B	A	C	C	D	A	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	D	D	B	C	A	C	A	B	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	C	D	B	D	B	D	B	A	C	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	B	B	B	D	B	A	A	D	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	D	B	C	A	D	A	D	B	B	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	A	B	B	D	B	C	A	B	D	A
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	A	C	D	C	B	B	C	D	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	D	B	A	B	A	D	D	D	C	B
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	A	A	D	D	A	C	A	D	C	A
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	D	A	D	D	A	A	A	A	B	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	D	D	B	B	D	D	C	D	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	A	B	A	B	D	D	D	B	D	B
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	B	D	D	B	B	B	A	A	A	D

NEET 2013 Previous Year Paper

NEET 2013

Section	Questions	Marks
Physics	45 Questions (1 – 45)	180
Chemistry	45 Questions (46 – 90)	180
Biology	90 Questions (91 – 180)	360

Q. 1 In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows : P = (a^3)(b^2)/cd. % error in P is —

A. 14%

B. 10%

C. 7%

D. 4%

Q. 2 The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is (2i + 3j) m/s. Its velocity (in m/s) at point B is —

A. – 2i – 3j

B. – 2i + 3j

C. 2i – 3j

D. 2i + 3j

Q. 3 A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers distances h1, h2 and h3 in the first 5 seconds, the next 5 seconds and the next 5 seconds respectively. The relation between h1, h2 and h3 is —

A. h1 = 2(h2) = 3(h3)

B. h1 = (h2)/3 = (h3)/5

C. h2 = 3(h1) and h3 = 3(h2)

D. h1 = h2 = h3

Q. 4 Three blocks with masses m, 2m and 3m are connected by strings, as shown in the figure. After an upward force F is applied on block m, the masses move upward at constant speed v. What is the net force on the block of mass 2m? (g is the acceleration due to gravity)

A. zero

B. 2 mg

C. 3 mg

D. 6 mg

Q. 5 The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination x is perfectly smooth while lower half is rough. A block starting from rest at the top of the plane will again come to rest at the bottom, if the coefficient of friction between the block and lower half of the plane is given by —

A. 1/tan(x)

B. 2/tan(x)

C. 2tan(x)

D. tan(x)

Q. 6 A uniform force of (3i + j) newton acts on a particle of mass 2kg. Hence the particle is displaced from position (2i + k) meter to position (4i + 3j – k) meter. The work done by the force on the particle is —

A. 9 J

B. 6 J

C. 13 J

D. 15 J

Q. 7 An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a horizontal plane. Two of them go off at right angles to each other. The first part of mass 1 kg moves with a speed of 12 m/s and the second part of mass 2 kg moves with 8 m/s speed. If the third part flies off with 4 m/s speed, then its mass is —

A. 3 kg

B. 5 kg

C. 7 kg

D. 17 kg

Q. 8 A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged at end P. The rod is kept horizontal by a massless string tied to point Q as shown in figure. When string is cut, the initial angular acceleration of the rod is —

A. 3g/2L

B. g/L

C. 2g/L

D. 2g/3L

Q. 9 A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity ‘v’. It reaches upto a maximum height of 3v^2/4g with respect to the initial position. The object is —

A. Ring

B. Solid sphere

C. Hollow sphere

D. Disc

Q. 10 A body of mass ‘m’ is taken from the earth’s surface to the height equal to twice the radius (R) of the earth. The change in potential energy of body will be —

A. mg2R

B. (2/3)mgR

C. 3mgR

D. (1/3)mgR

Q. 11 Infinite number of bodies, each of mass 2 kg are situated on x-axis at distances 1 m, 2 m, 4 m, 8 m, respectively, from the origin. The resulting gravitational potential due to this system at the origin will be —

A. -G

B. -8/3 G

C. -4/3 G

D. -4G

Q. 12 The following four wires are made of the same material. Which of these will have the largest extension when the same tension is applied?

A. length = 50 cm, diameter = 0.5 mm

B. length = 100 cm, diameter = 1 mm

C. length = 200 cm, diameter = 2 mm

D. length = 300 cm, diameter = 3 mm

Q. 13 The wettability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on —

A. viscosity

B. surface tension

C. density

D. angle of contact between the surface and the liquid

Q. 14 The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at constant pressure and volume are denoted by C and c, respectively. If ratio of specific heats = C/c and R is the universal gas constant, then c is equal to —

A. 1+(ratio of specific heats)/1-(ratio of specific heats)

B. R/[(ratio of specific heats)-1]

C. [(ratio of specific heats)-1]/R

D. (ratio of specific heats)R

Q. 15 A piece of iron is heated in a flame. It first becomes dull red then becomes reddish yellow and finally turns to white hot. The correct explanation for the above observation is possible by using —

A. Stefan’s law

B. Wien’s displacement law

C. Kirchoff’s law

D. Newton’s law of cooling

Q. 16 A gas is taken through the cycle A —> B —> C —> A, as shown. What is the network done by the gas?

A. 2000 J

B. 1000 J

C. zero

D. -2000 J

Q. 17 During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its temperature. The ratio of Cp/Cv for the gas is —

A. 4/3

B. 2

C. 5/3

D. 3/2

Q. 18 In the given (V – T) diagram, what is the relation between pressures P1 and P2?

A. P2 = P1

B. P2 > P1

C. P2 < P1

D. cannot be predicted

Q. 19 The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 g of Helium at NTP, from (T1)K to (T2)K is —

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 20 A wave travelling in the +ve x-direction having displacement along y-direction as 1 m, wavelength 2(pi)m and frequency of 1/pi Hz is represented by —

A. y = sin(x – 2t)

B. y = sin(2pix – 2(pi)t)

C. y = sin(10(pi)x – 20(pi)t)

D. y = sin(2(pi)x + 2(pi)t)

Q. 21 If we study the vibration of a pipe open at both ends, then the following statement is not true —

A. Open end will be antinode

B. Odd harmonies of the fundamental frequency will be generated

C. All harmonies of the fundamental frequency will be generated

D. Pressure change will be maximum at both ends

Q. 22 A source of unknown frequency gives 4 beats/s, when sounded with a source of known frequency 250 Hz. The second harmonic of the source of unknown frequency gives five beats per second, when sounded with a source of frequency 513 Hz. The unknown frequency is —

A. 254 Hz

B. 246 Hz

C. 240 Hz

D. 260 Hz

Q. 23 Two pith balls carrying equal charges are suspended from a common point by strings of equal length, the equilibrium separation between them is r. Now the strings are rigidly clamped at half the height. The equilibrium separation between the balls now become —

A. (1/root of 2)^2

B. (r/cube root of 2)

C. (2r/root of 3)

D. (2r/3)

Q. 24 A, B and C are three points in a uniform electric field. The electric potential is —

A. maximum at A

B. maximum at B

C. maximum at C

D. same at all the three points A, B and C

Q. 25 A wire of resistance 4 ohm is stretched to twice its original length. The resistance of stretched wire would be —

A. 2 ohm

B. 4 ohm

C. 8 ohm

D. 16 ohm

Q. 26 he internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which gives a current of 0.2A through a resistance of 10 ohm is —

A. 0.2 ohm

B. 0.5 ohm

C. 0.8 ohm

D. 1.0 ohm

Q. 27 The resistances of the four arms P, Q, R and S in a Wheatstone’s bridge are 10 ohm, 30 ohm, 30 ohm and 90 ohm, respectively. The e.m.f and internal resistance of the cell are 7 volt and 5 ohm respectively. If the galvanometer resistance is 50 ohm, the current drawn from the cell will be —

A. 1.0 A

B. 0.2 A

C. 0.1 A

D. 2.0 A

Q. 28 When a proton is released from rest in a room, it starts with an initial acceleration a towards west . When it is projected towards north with a speed v it moves with an initial accelration 3a toward west. The electric and magnetic fields in the room are —

A. ma/e west, 2ma/ev up

B. ma/e west, 2ma/ev down

C. ma/e east, 3ma/ev up

D. ma/e east, 3ma/ev down

Q. 29 A current loop in a magnetic field —

A. experiences a torque whether the field is uniform or non-uniform in all orientations

B. can be in equilibrium in one orientation

C. can be in equilibrium in two orientations, both the equilibrium states are unstable

D. can be in equilibrium in two orientations, one stable while the other is unstable

Q. 30 A bar magnet of length ‘l”and magnetic dipole moment ‘M’ is bent in the form of an arc as shown in figure. The new magnetic dipole moment will be —

A. M

B. 3/pi M

C. 2/pi M

D. M/2

Q. 31 A wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field. The frequency of change of direction of the induced e.m.f. is —

A. once per revolution

B. twice per revolution

C. four times per revolution

D. six times per revolution

Q. 32 A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series with a bulb B and an AC source. Brightness of the bulb decreases when —

A. frequency of the AC source is decreased

B. number of turns in the coil is reduced

C. a capacitance of reactance X of C = X of L is included in the same circuit

D. an iron rod is inserted in the coil

Q. 33 The condition under which a microwave oven heats up a food item containing water molecules most efficiently is —

A. The frequency of the microwaves must match the resonant frequency of water molecules

B. The frequency of the microwaves has no relation with natural frequency of water molecules

C. Microwaves are heat waves, so always produce heating

D. Infra-red waves produce heating in a microwave oven

Q. 34 Ratio of longest wave lengths corresponding to Lyman and Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is —

A. 5/27

B. 3/23

C. 7/29

D. 9/31

Q. 35 The half-life of a radioactive isotope ‘X’ is 20 years. It decays to another element ‘Y’ which is stable. The two elements ‘X’ and ‘Y’ were found to be in the ratio 1:7 in a sample of a given rock. The age of the rock is estimated to be —

A. 40 years

B. 60 years

C. 80 years

D. 100 years

Q. 36 A certain mass of Hydrogen is changed to Helium by the process of fusion. The mass defect in fusion reaction is 0.02866 u. The energy liberated per u is — (Given 1 u = 931 MeV)

A. 2.67 MeV

B. 26.7 MeV

C. 6.675 MeV

D. 13.35 MeV

Q. 37 For photoelectric emission from certain metal the cutoff frequency is v/ If radiation of frequency 2v impinges on the metal plate, the maximum possible velocity of the emitted electron will be (m is the electron mass) —

A. Root of (hv/2m)

B. Root of (hv/m)

C. Root of (2hv/m)

D. 2[root of (hv/m)]

Q. 38 The wavelength of an electron and wavelength of a photon of same energy E are related by —

A. Wavelength of photon is proportional to (wavelength of electron)^2

B. Wavelength of photon is proportional to wavelength of electron

C. Wavelength of photon is proportional to root of wavelength of electron

D. Wavelength of photon is proportional to 1/(root of wavelength of electron)

Q. 39 A piano convex lens fits exactly into a piano concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each other. If lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices u1 and u2 and R is the radius of curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then the focal length of the combination is —

A. R/2(u1 + u2)

B. R/2(u1 – u2)

C. R/(u1 – u2)

D. 2R/(u2 u1)

Q. 40 For a normal eye, the cornea of eye provides a converging power of 40D and the least converging power of the ye lens h=behind the cornea is 20D. Using this information, the distance between the retina and the cornea-eye lens can be estimated to be —

A. 5 cm

B. 2.5 cm

C. 1.67 cm

D. 1.5 cm

Q. 41 In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 2mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two wavelengths 12000 A and 10000 A respectively. At what minimum distance from the common central bright fringe on the screen 2m from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a bright fringe from the other?

A. 8 mm

B. 6 mm

C. 4 mm

D. 3 mm

Q. 42 A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent screen is placed at a large distance from the slit. If the speed of the electrons is increased, which of the following statements is correct?

A. Diffraction pattern is not observed on the screen in the case of electrons

B. The angular width of the central maximum of the diffraction pattern will increase

C. The angular width of the central maximum will decrease

D. The angular width of the central maximum will be unaffected

Q. 43 In a n-type semiconductor, which of the following statements is true —

A. Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants

B. Electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants

C. Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants

D. Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants

Q. 44 In a common emitter (CE) amplifier having a voltage gain G, the transistor used has transconductance 0.03 ho and current gain 25. If the above transistor is replaced with another one with transconductance 0.02 mho and current gain 20, the voltage gain will be —

A. 2/3 G

B. 1.5 G

C. 1/3 G

D. 5/4 G

Q. 45 The output (X) of the logic circuit shown in figure will be —

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 46 The value of Planck’s constant is 6.63 x 10^(-34) Js. The speed of light is 3 x 10^17 nm/s. Which value is closest to the wavelength in nanometer of a quantum of light with frequency of 6 x 10^15/s?

A. 10

B. 25

C. 50

D. 75

Q. 47 What is the maximum number of electrons that can be associated with the following set of numbers?

n = 3, l = 1 and m = -1

A. 10

B. 6

C. 4

D. 2

Q. 48 What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the temperature is raised from 20 degrees C to 35 degrees C? (R = 8.314 J/molK)

A. 342 kJ/mol

B. 269 kJ/mol

C. 34.7 kJ/mol

D. 15.1 kJ/mol

Q. 49 A hydrogen gas electrode is made by dipping platinum wire in a solution of HCl of pH = 10 and by passing hydrogen gas around the platinum wire at one atm pressure. The oxidation potential of electrode would be?

A. 0.059 V

B. 0.59 V

C. 0.118 V

D. 1.18 V

Q. 50 A reaction having equal energies of activation for forward and reverse reactions has —

A. Change in S = 0

B. Change in G = 0

C. Change in H = 0

D. Change in H = Change in G = Change in S = 0

Q. 51 At 25 degrees C, molar conductance of 0.1 molar aqueous solution of ammonium hydroxide is 9.54 (ohm)^-1 (cm)^2 (mol)^-1 and at infinite dilution its molar conductance is 238 (ohm)^-1 (cm)^2 (mol)^-1 . The degree of ammonium hydroxide at the same concentration and temperature is —

A. 2.080%

B. 20.800%

C. 4.008%

D. 40.800%

Q. 52 Based on equation E = -2.178 x 10^18J(Z^2/n^2), certain conclusions are written. Which of them is not correct?

A. The negative sign in equation simply means that the energy of electron bound to the nucleus is lower than it would be if the electrons were at the infinite distance from the nucleus.

B. Larger the value of n, the larger is the orbit radius.

C. Equation can be used to calculate the change in energy when the electron changes orbit.

D. For n = 1, the electron has a more negative energy than it does for n = 6 which means that the electron is more loosely bound in the smallest allowed orbit.

Q. 53 A button cell used in watches functions as following.

The cell potential will be —

A. 1.10 V

B. 0.42 V

C. 0.84 V

D. 1.34 V

Q. 54 How many grams of concentrated nitric acid solutions should be used to prepare 250 mL of 2.0 M HNO3? The concentrated acid is 70% HNO3.

A. 45.0 g conc. HNO3

B. 90.0 g conc. HNO3

C. 70.0 g conc. HNO3

D. 54.0 g conc. HNO3

Q. 55 The number of carbon atoms per unit cell of diamond unit cell is —

A. 4

B. 8

C. 6

D. 1

Q. 56 Maximum deviation from ideal gas is expected from :

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 57 A metal has a fee lattice. The edge length of the unit cell is 404 pm. The density of the metal is 2.72 g cm^-1. The molar mass of the metal is :

[Avogadro’s constant = 6.02 x 10^23 mol^-1]

A. 40 g mol^-1

B. 30 g mol^-1

C. 27 g mol^-1

D. 20 g mol^-1

Q. 58 Dipole-induced dipole interactions are present in which of the following pairs :

A. H20 and alcohol

B. Cl2 and CCl4

C. HCl and He atoms

D. SiF4 and He atoms

Q. 59 A magnetic moment of 1.73 BM will be shown by one among the following –

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 60 Roasting of sulphides gives the gas X as a byproduct. This is colorless gas with choking smell of burnt sulphur and causes great damage to respiratory organs as a result of acid rain. Its aqueous solution is acidic , acts as a reducing agent and its acid has never been isolated. The gas X is —

A. H2S

B. SO2

C. CO2

D. SO3

Q. 61 Which is the strongest acid in the following?

A. H2SO4

B. HClO3

C. HClO4

D. H2SO3

Q. 62 Which of the following is paramagnetic?

A. CO

B. O2^-

C. CN^-

D. NO^+

Q. 63 Which of the following structure is similar to graphite?

A. BN

B. B

C. B4C

D. B2H6

Q. 64 The basic structural unit of silicates is —

A. SiO^-

B. SiO4^4-

C. SiO3^2-

D. SiO4^2-

Q. 65 Reaction by which Benzaldehyde cannot be prepared —

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 66 Which of the following does not give oxygen on heating?

A. KClO3

B. Zn(ClO3)2

C. K2Cr2O7

D. (NH4)2Cr2O7

Q. 67 Which of the following lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic? (At. No. Ce = 58, Sm = 62, Eu = 63, Yb = 70)

A. Ce^2+

B. Sm^2+

C. Eu^2+

D. Yb^2+

Q. 68 Identify the correct order of solubility in aqueous medium —

A. CuS > ZnS > Na2S

B. ZnS > Na2S > CuS

C. Na2S > CuS > ZnS

D. Na2S > ZnS > CuS

Q. 69 XeF2 is isostructural with —

A. TeF2

B. ICl2^-

C. SbCl3

D. BaCl2

Q. 70 An excess of AgNo3 is added to 100mL of a 0.01 M solution of dichlorotetra aquachrominum (III) chloride. The number of moles of AgCl precipitated

would be —

A. 0.001

B. 0.002

C. 0.003

D. 0.01

Q. 71 Which of these is least likely to act as a Lewis base?

A. CO

B. F^-

C. BF3

D. PF3

Q. 72 KMnO4 can be prepared from K2MnO4 as per the given reaction.

The reaction can go to completion by removing OH^- ions by adding —

A. HCl

B. KOH

C. CO2

D. SO2

Q. 73 Which of the following is electron-deficient?

A. (CH3)2

B. (SiH3)2

C. (BH3)2

D. PH3

Q. 74 Structure of the compound whose IUPAC name is 3-Ethyl-2hydroxy-4-methylhex-3-en-5- ynoic acid is —

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 75 Which of these is not a monomer for a high molecular mass silicone polymer?

A. MeSiCl3

B. Me2SiCl2

C. Me3SiCl

D. PhSiCl3

Q. 76 Which of the following statements about the interstitial compounds is incorrect?

A. They retain metallic conductivity

B. They are chemically reactive

C. They are much harder than the pure metal

D. They have higher melting points than the pure metal

Q. 77 Which one of the following molecules contains no pi bond?

A. CO2

B. H2O

C. SO2

D. NO2

Q. 78 Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent growth of microrganisms. Identify which of the following statements is not true —

A. A 0.2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic while 1% solution acts as a disinfectant

B. Chlorine and Iodine are used as strong disinfectants

C. Dilute solutions of boric acid and hydrogen peroxide are strong antiseptics

D. Disinfectants harm the living tissues

Q. 79 Among the following ethers, which one will produce methyl alcohol on treatment with hot concentrated HI?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 80 Nylon is an example of —

A. Polyester

B. Polysaccharide

C. Polyamide

D. Polythene

Q. 81 The structure of isobutyl group in an organic compound is —

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 82 Nitrobenzene on reaction with conc. HNO3/H2SO4 at 80-100 degrees C forms which one of the following products?

A. 1,2-Dinitrobenzene

B. 1,3-Dinitrobenzene

C. 1,4-Dinitrobenzene

D. 1,2,4-Trinitrobenzene

Q. 83 Some meta-directing substitution in aromatic substitution are given. Which one is most deactivating?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 84 6.02 x 10^20 molecules of urea are present in 100mL of its solution. The concentration of solution is —

A. 0.02 M

B. 0.01 M

C. 0.001 M

D. 0.1 M

Q. 85 Which of the following is a polar molecule?

A. BF3

B. SF4

C. SiF4

D. XeF4

Q. 86 Which is the monomer of Neoprene in the following?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 87 In the reaction, A is —

A. HgSO4/H2SO4

B. Cu2Cl2

C. H3PO2 and H2O

D. H^+/H2O

Q. 88 The given radical is aromatic because it has —

A. 6 p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons

B. 7 p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons

C. 7 p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons

D. 6 p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons

Q. 89 The order of stability of the following tautomeric compounds is —

A. I>II>III

B. III>II>I

C. II>I>III

D. II>III>I

Q. 90 Which of the following compounds will not undergo Friedal-Craft reaction easily —

A. Cumene

B. Xylene

C. Nitrobenzene

D. Toluene

Q. 91 Select the wrong statement:

A. Isogametes are similar in structure, function and behaviour

B. Anisogametes differ either in structure, function of behaviour

C. In Oomycetes female gamete is smaller and motile, while male gamete is larger and non-motile

D. Chlamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy

Q. 92 Which one of the following is not a correct statement?

A. Herbarium houses dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens

B. Botanical gardens have collection of living plants for reference

C. A museum has collection of photographs of plants and animals

D. Key is a taxonomic aid for identification of specimens

Q. 93 Isogamous condition with non-flagellated gametes is found in:

A. Chlamydomonas

B. Spirogyra

C. Volvox

D. Fucus

Q. 94 Besides paddy fields, cyanobacteria are also found inside vegetative part of:

A. Pinus

B. Cycus

C. Equisetum

D. Psilotum

Q. 95 Megasporangium is equivalent to :

A. Embryo sac

B. Fruit

C. Nucellus

D. Ovule

Q. 96 Read the following (A-E) and answer the question which follows them :

(A) In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free-living

(B) Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous

(D) The sporophytes in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses

(E) Both, Pinus and Marchentia are dioecious

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

Q. 97 Among bitter gourd, mustard, brinjal, pumpkin, china rose, lupin, cucumber, sunnhemp, gram, guava, bean, chilli, plum, petunia, tomato, rose, withania, potato, onion, aloe and tulip how many plants have hypogynous flower?

A. Six

B. Ten

C. Fifteen

D. Eighteen

Q. 98 Interfascicular cambium develops from the cells of :

A. Medullary rays

B. Xylem parenchyma

C. Endodermis

D. Pericycle

Q. 99 In china rose the flowers are :

A. Actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted aestivation

B. Actinomorphic, epigynous with valvate aestivation

C. Zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate aestivation

D. Zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted aestivation

Q. 100 Lenticels are involved in

A. Transpiration

B. Gaseous exchange

C. Food transport

D. Photosynthesis

Q. 101 Age of a tree can be estimated by :

A. Its height and girth

B. Biomass

C. Number of annual rings

D. Diameter of its heartwood

Q. 102 Seed coat is not thin membranous in :

A. Maize

B. Coconut

C. Groundnut

D. Gram

Q. 103 Transition state structure of the substate formed during an enzymatic reaction is

A. Transient but stable

B. Permanent but unstable

C. Transient and unstable

D. Permanent and stable

Q. 104 A phosphoglyceride is always made up of :

A. Only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached

B. Only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached

C. A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached

D. A saturated or unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate group which is also attached to a glycerol molecule

Q. 105 Pigment-containing membranous extensions in some cyanobacteria are

A. Heterocysts

B. Basal bodies

C. Pneumatophores

D. Chromatophores

Q. 106 A major site for synthesis of lipids is :

A. RER

B. SER

C. Symplast

D. Nucleoplasm

Q. 107 The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called :

A. Equatorial plate

B. Kinetochore

C. Bivalent

D. Axoneme

Q. 108 The three boxes in this diagram represent thee three major biosynthetic pathways in aerobic respiration. Arrows represent net reactants or products.

Arrows numbered 4, 8, and 12 can all be

A. NADH

B. ATP

C. H2O

D. FAD^+ or FADH2

Q. 109 The most abundant intracellular cation is :

A. Na^+

B. Ca^++

C. H^+

D. K^+

Q. 110 During seed germination its stored food is mobilized by :

A. Ethylene

B. Cytokinin

C. ABA

D. Gibberellin

Q. 111 Which of the following criteria does not pertain to facilitated transport?

A. Requirement of special membrane proteins

B. High selectivity

C. Transport saturation

D. Uphill transport

Q. 112 The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous plants is :

A. NO2^-

B. Ammonia

C. NO3^-

D. Glutamate

Q. 113 Which of the metabolites is common to respiration mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins?

A. Glucose-6-phosphate

B. Fructose1, 6-bisphosphate

C. Pyruvic acid

D. Acetyl CoA

Q. 114 Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine

B. Sporogenous tissue is haploid

C. Endothecium produces the mocrosphores

D. Tapetum nourishes the devloping pollen

Q. 115 Product of sexual reproduction generally generates :

A. Longer viability of seeds

B. Prolonged dormancy

C. New genetic combination leading to variation

D. Large biomass

Q. 116 Meiosis takes place in :

A. Meiocyte

B. Conidia

C. Gemmule

D. Megaspore

Q. 117 Advantage of cleistogamy is :

A. Higher genetic variability

B. More vigorous offspring

C. No dependence on pollinators

D. Vivipary

Q. 118 Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of :

A. Antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the same plant

B. Stamen and carpel on the same plant

C. Upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the same plant

D. Upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same plant

Q. 119 Perisperm differs from endosperm in :

A. Being a haploid tissue

B. Having no reserve food

C. Being a diploid tissue

D. Its formation by fusion of secondary nucleus with several sperms

Q. 120 Which of the following statements is not true of two genes that show 50% recombination frequency?

A. The genes may be on different chromosomes

B. The genes are tightly linked

C. The genes show independent assortment

D. If the genes are present on the same chromosome, they undergo more than one crossovers in every meiosis.

Q. 121 Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This is referred to as :

A. Genetic flow

B. Genetic drift

C. Random mating

D. Genetic load

Q. 122 If two persons with ‘AB’ blood group marry and have sufficiently large number of children, these children could be classified as ‘A’ blood group : ‘AB’ blood group : ‘B’ blood group in 1:2:1 ratio. Modern technique of protein electrophoresis reveals presence of both ‘A’ and “B’ type proteins in ‘AB’ blood group individuals. This is an example of :

A. Codominance

B. Incomplete dominance

C. Partial dominance

D. Complete dominance

Q. 123 The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge is called :

A. Natural selection

B. Convergent evolution

C. Non-random evolution

D. Adaptive radiation

Q. 124 The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by :

A. random mating

B. lack of migration

C. lack of mutations

D. lack of random mating

Q. 125 Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in India by the farmers?

A. Maize

B. Cotton

C. Brinjal

D. Soybean

Q. 126 A good product of citric acid is :

A. Aspergillus

B. Pseudomonas

C. Clostridium

D. Saccharomyces

Q. 127 DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by :

A. Centrifugation

B. Polymerase chain reaction

C. Electrophoresis

D. Restriction mapping

Q. 128 Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme?

A. Bacteria-Lysozyme

B. Plant cells- Cellulase

C. Algae-Methylase

D. Fungi – Chitinase

Q. 129 The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of nonrecombinant bacteria because of :

A. Non-recombinant bacteria containing betagalactosidase

B. Insertional inactivation of alphagalactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria

C. Insertional inactivation of alphagalactosidase in recombinant bacteria

D. Inactivation of glycosidase in recombinant bacteria

Q. 130 Which of the following are likely to be present in deep sea water?

A. Archaebacteria

B. Eubacteria

C. Blue-green algae

D. Saprophytic fungi

Q. 131 Natural reservoir of phosphorus is :

A. Sea water

B. Animal bones

C. Rock

D. Fossils

Q. 132 Secondart productivity is rate of formation of new organic matter by :

A. Producer

B. Parasite

C. Consumer

D. Decomposer

Q. 133 Which one of the following is not used for ex situ plant conservation?

A. Field gene banks

B. Seed banks

C. Shifting cultivation

D. Botanical Gardens

Q. 134 Kyoto-Protocol was endorsed at :

A. CoP-3

B. CoP-5

C. CoP-6

D. CoP-4

Q. 135 Which of the following represent maximum number of species among global biodiversity?

A. Algae

B. Lichens

C. Fungi

D. Mosses and Ferns

Q. 136 Match the name of the animal, with one characteristic, and the phylum/class to which it belongs :

A. Petromyson – ectroparasite – Cyclostomata

B. Ichthyophis – terrestrial – Reptilia

C. Limulus – body covered by chitinous exoskeleton – Pisces

D. Adamsia – radially symmetrical – Porifera

Q. 137 Which of the following are correctly matched with respect of their taxonomic classification?

A. Flying fish, cuttlefish, silverfish – Pisces

B. Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpion – Insecta

C. House fly, butterfly, tsetsefly, silverfish – Insecta

D. Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea cucumber-Echinodermata

Q. 138 Which group of animals belong to the same phylum?

A. Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito

B. Earthworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm

C. Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta

D. Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish

Q. 139 One of the representatives of Phylum Arthropoda is :

A. cuttlefish

B. silverfish

C. pufferfish

D. flying fish

Q. 140 The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to —

A. the absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A-band

B. the central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band

C. the central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the Aband

D. extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A-band

Q. 141 What external changes are visible after the last moult of a cockroach nymph?

A. Mandibles become harder

B. Anal cerci develop

C. Both fore wings and hind wings develop

D. Labium develops

Q. 142 The Golgi complex plays a major role :

A. in trapping the light and transforming it into chemical energy

B. in digensting proteins and carbohydrattes

C. as energy transferring organelles

D. in post translational modification of proteins and glycosidation of lipids

Q. 143 Which one of the following organelle in the figure correctly matches with its function?

A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation of glycoproteins

B. Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis

C. Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids

D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein synthesis

Q. 144 Macro molecule chitin is :

A. nitrogen containing polysaccharide

B. phosphorus containing polysaccharide

C. sulphur containing polysaccharide

D. simple polysaccharide

Q. 145 The essential chemical components of many coenzymes are :

A. Proteins

B. Nucleic acids

C. Carbohydrates

D. Vitamins

Q. 146 A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which gives correct identification of the stage with its characteristics.

A. Telophase – nuclear envelop reforms, golgi complex reforms

B. Late anaphase – chromosomes move away from equatorial plate, golgi complex not present

C. Cytokinesis – cell plate formed, mitochondria distributed between two daughter cells

D. Telophase – endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus not reformed yet

Q. 147 Select the correct match of the digested products in humans with their absorption site and mechanism.

Column I	Column II
(1)	Glycine, glucose	Small intestine, active
(2)	Fructose, Na*	Small instestine, passive absorption
(3)	Glycerol, fatty acids	Duodemum, move as chilomicrons
(4)	Cholesterol, maltose	Large intestine, active absorption

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 148 A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low intelligence quotient and abnormal skin.

This is the result of :

A. Deficiency of iodine in diet

B. Low secretion of growth hormone

C. Cancer of the thyroid gland

D. Over secretion of pars distalis

Q. 149 The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, B, C and D. Select the option which gives correct identification and main function and/or characteristic.

A. A-trachea long tube supported by complete cartilaginous rings for conducting inspired air

B. B-pleural membrane — surround ribs on both sides to provide cushion against rubbing.

C. C-Alveoli — thin walled vascular bag like structures for exchange of gases.

D. D-Lower end of lungs — diaphragm pulls it down during inspiration.

Q. 150 Figure shows schematic plant of blood circulation in humans with labels A to D. Identify the label and give its function/s.

A. A-Pulmonary vein — takes impure blood from body parts, PO2 = 60 mm Hg

B. B-Pulmonary artery — takes blood from heart to lungs, PO2 = 90 mm Hg

C. C-Vena Cava — takes blood from body parts to right auricle, PCO2 = 45 mm Hg

D. D-Dorsal aorta — takes blood from heart to body parts, PO2 = 95 mm Hg

Q. 151 The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the :

A. Contraction of both the atria

B. Initiation of the ventricular contraction

C. Beginning of the systole

D. End of systole

Q. 152 Figure shows human urinary system with structures labeled A to D. Select option which correctly identifies them and given their characteristics and/or functions.

A. A-Adrenal gland-located at the anterior part of Kidney. Secrete Catecholamines which stimulate glycogen breakdown

B. B-Pelvis= broad funnel shaped space inner to hilum, directly connected to loops of Henle.

C. C-Medulla-inner zone of kidney and contains complete nephrons.

D. D-Cortex-outer part of kidney and do not contain any part of nephrons.

Q. 153 Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans :

A. A decreased level of progesterone causes osteoporosis in old people.

B. Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints causes their inflammation

C. The vertebral column has 10 thoracic vertebrae.

D. The joint between adjacent vertebrae is a fibrous joint.

Q. 154 The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint in humans is :

A. Fluid cartilage between two bones, limited movements — Knee joint

B. Fluid filled between two joints, provide cushion — Skull bones

C. Fluid filled synovial cavity between two bones — Joint between atlas and axis

D. Lymph filled between two bones, limited movement — Gilding joint between carpals

Q. 155 A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse is given. Identify correctly at least two of AD.

A. A-Receptor ; C-Synaptic vesicles

B. B-Synaptic connection ; D-K^+

C. A-Neurotransmitter ; B-Synaptic cleft

D. C-Neurotransmitter ; D-Ca^++

Q. 156 Parts A, B, C and D of the human eye are shown in the diagram. Select the option which gives correct identification along with its functions/characteristics :

A. A-Retina-contains photo receptors-rods and cones

B. B-Blind spot-has only a few rods and cones

C. C-Aqueous chamber-reflects the light which does not pass through the lens

D. D-choroid-its anterior part forms ciliary body

Q. 157 Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the endocrine system?

A. Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus

B. Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do not produce any hormones

C. Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace amount that act as intercellular messenger are known as hormones

D. Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland

Q. 158 Select the answer which correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and its function/deficiency symptom :

A. Anterior pituitary — Oxytocin — Stimulates uterus contraction during child birth

B. Posterior pituitary — Growth Hormone (GH) — Oversecretion stimulates abnormal growth

C. Thyroid gland — Thyroxine — Lack of iodine in diet results in goitre

D. Corpus luteum — Testosterone — stimulates spermatogenesis

Q. 159 What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?

A. Spermatid, spermatocyte, spermatogonia, spermatozoa

B. Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatozoa, spermatid

C. Spermatogonia, spermatozoa, spermatocyte, spermatid

D. Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoa

Q. 160 Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of :

A. Progesterone

B. FSH

C. Oxytocin

D. Vasopressin

Q. 161 Which one of the following is not the function of placenta? It :

A. facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo

B. secretes estrogen

C. Facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste material from embryo

D. Secretes oxytocin during parturition

Q. 162 One of the legal methods of birth control is :

A. abortion by taking an appropriate medicine

B. by abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle

C. by having coitus at the time of day break

D. by a premature ejaculation during coitus

Q. 163 Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?

A. Klinefelter syndrome

B. Sex of the foetus

C. Down syndrome

D. jaundice

Q. 164 Artificial insemination means “

A. transfer of sperms pf a healthy donor to a test tube containing ova

B. transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube containing ova

C. artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor into the vagina

D. introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly into the ovary

Q. 165 Which mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1 generation resembles both the parents?

A. incomplete dominance

B. law of dominance

C. inheritance of one gene

D. co-dominance

Q. 166 The incorrect statement with regard to Haemophilia is :

A. It is a sex-linked disease

B. It is a recessive disease

C. It is a dominant disease

D. A single protein involved int eh clotting of blood is affected

Q. 167 If both parents are carriers for thalessemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child?

A. no chance

B. 50%

C. 25%

D. 100%

Q. 168 The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A to C.

A. A-transcription, B-replication, C-James Watson

B. A-translation, B-transcription, C-Erevin Chargaff

C. A-transcription, B-translation, C-Francis Crick

D. A-translation, B-extension, C-Rosalind Franklin

Q. 169 Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a non-sense in the lac Y gene?

A. b-galactosidase

B. Lactose permease

C. Transacetylase

D. Lactose permease and transacetylase

Q. 170 According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to —

A. Intraspecific competition

B. Interspecific competition

C. Competition within closely related species

D. Reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species

Q. 171 The ye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar function. This is an example of :

A. Homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution

B. Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution

C. Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution

D. Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution

Q. 172 Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by :

A. drinking water containing eggs of Adcaris

B. eating imperefectly cooked pork

C. Tse-tse fly

D. mosquito bite

Q. 173 The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by :

A. T-lymphocytes

B. B-lymphocytes

C. Thrombocytes

D. Erythrocytes

Q. 174 In plant breeding programmes, the entire collection (of plants/seeds) having all the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is called :

A. selection of superior recombinants

B. cross-hybridisation among the selected parents

C. evaluation and selection of parents

D. germplasm collection

Q. 175 During sewage treatment, biogases are produced which include :

A. methane, hydrogensulphide, carbon dioxide

B. methane, oxygen, hydrogensulphide

C. hydrogensulphode, methane, sulphur dioxide

D. hydrogensulphide nitrogen, methane

Q. 176 A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn, he found that the average natality was 250, average mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net increase in population is :

A. 10

B. 15

C. 05

D. zero

Q. 177 Which one of the following processes during decomposition is correctly described?

A. Frangmentation – carried out by organisms such as earthworm

B. Humification – Leads o the accumuation of a dark coloured substance humus which undergoes microbial action at a very fast rate

C. Catabolism – Last step in he decomposition under fully amaerobic condition

D. Leaching – Water soluble inorganic nutrients rise to the top layers of soil

Q. 178 A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the shell lining of hermit crab. The association is :

A. Ectoparasitism

B. Symbiosis

C. Commensalism

D. Amensalism

Q. 179 Global warming can be controlled Y :

A. Reducing deforestation, cutting down use fossil fuels

B. Reducing deforestation, increasing the use of fossil fuel

C. Increasing deforestation, slowing down the growth of human population

D. Increasing deforestation, reducing efficiency of energy usage

Q. 180 The Air Prevention and Control of Pollution act came into force in

A. 1975

B. 1981

C. 1985

D. 1990

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	C	B	A	C	A	B	A	D	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	A	D	B	B	B	D	C	A	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	A	B	B	D	B	B	B	D	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	D	A	A	B	C	C	A	C	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	C	C	A	C	C	D	C	B	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	D	A	A	B	D	C	C	A	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	B	A	B	D	D	D	D	B	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	C	C	C	B	C	B	B	B	C	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	D	B	D	B	B	C	C	A	B	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	C	B	B	D	C	C	A	A	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	C	D	C	C	D	B	C	B	D	D
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	D	B	C	D	C	A	C	D	C	B
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	A	B	D	B	A	C	C	C	A
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	C	C	C	A	C	A	C	C	B	C
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	C	D	D	A	D	A	A	A	C	C
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	A	A	B	C	A	A	C	C	D	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	D	A	D	C	B	C	C	C	A	B
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	C	A	A	D	A	D	A	B	A	B

NEET 2016 Phase-II Previous Year Paper

NEET 2016 Phase-II

Section	Questions	Marks
Physics	45 Questions (1 – 45)	180
Chemistry	45 Questions (46 – 90)	180
Biology	90 Questions (91 – 180)	360

Q. 1 Planck’s constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c) and Newton’s gravitational constant (G) are three fundamental constants. Which of the following combinations of these has the dimension of length?

A. √(hG)/c^(3/2)

B. √hG/c^(5/2)

C. √(hc/G)

D. √Gc/h^(3/2)

Q. 2 Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same time in a straight line and their positions are represented by xP(t) = at + bt² and xQ(t) = ft – t². At what time do the cars have the same velocity?

A. (a – f)/(1 + b)

B. (a + f)/(2b – 1)

C. (a + f)/(21 + b)

D. (f – a)/(2 + 2b)

Q. 3 In the given figure, a = 15 m/s² represents the total acceleration of a particle moving in the clockwise direction in a circle of radius R = 2.5 m at a given instant of time. The speed of the particle is

A. 4.5 m/s

B. 5.0 m/s

C. 5.7 m/s

D. 6.2 m/s

Q. 4 A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at 60⁰ and gets reflected without loss of speed as shown in the figure below. The value of impulse imparted by the wall on the ball will be

Image result for A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at 60â° and gets reflected without loss of speed as shown in the figure below. The value of impulse imparted by the wall on the ball will be

A. mV

B. 2mV

C. mV/2

D. mV/3

Q. 5 A bullet of mass 10 g moving horizontally with a velocity of 400 m/s strikes a wooden block of mass 2 kg which is suspended by a light inextensible string of length 5 m. As a result, the centre of gravity of the block is found to rise a vertical distance of 10 cm. The speed of the bullet after it emerges out horizontally from the block will be

A. 100 m/s

B. 80 m/s

C. 120 m/s

D. 160 m/s

Q. 6 Two identical balls A and B having velocities of 0.5 m/s and -0.3 m/s, respectively collide elastically in one dimension. The velocities of B and A after the collision respectively will be

A. -0.5 m/s and 0.3 m/s

B. 0.5 m/s and -0.3 m/s

C. -0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s

D. 0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s

Q. 7 A particle moves from a point -2iˆ + 5jˆ to 4jˆ + 3kˆ when a force of 4iˆ + 3jˆ N is applied. How much work has been done by the force?

A. 8 J

B. 11 J

C. 5 J

D. 2 J

Q. 8 Two rotating bodies a and ᵦ of masses m and 2m with moments of inertia Iₐ and Iᵦ (Iᵦ > Iₐ) have equal kinetic energy of rotation. If Lₐ and Lᵦ be their angular momenta respectively, then

A. Lₐ = Lᵦ/2

B. Lₐ = 2Lᵦ

C. Lᵦ > Lₐ

D. Lₐ > Lᵦ

Q. 9 A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is rotating about its diameter. A solid cylinder of the same mass and same radius is also rotating about its geometrical axis with an angular speed twice that of the sphere. The ratio of their kinetic energies of rotation (Esphere / Ecylinder) will be

A. 2:3

B. 1:5

C. 1:4

D. 3:1

Q. 10 A light rod of length L has two masses m₁ and m₂ attached to its two ends. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis perpendicular to the rod and passing through the centre of mass is

A. √m₁ √m₂ (L²)

B. m₁ m₂ (L²) / (m₁ + m₂)

C. (m₁ + m₂) / m ₁m₂ (L²)

D. (m₁ + m₂) L²

Q. 11 Starting from the centre of the Earth having radius R, the variation of g (acceleration due to gravity) is shown by

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 12 A satellite of mass m is orbiting the Earth (of radius R) at a height h from its surface. The total energy of the satellite in terms of g₀, the value of acceleration due to gravity at the Earth’s surface, is

A. -2mg₀R² / (R+h)

B. mg₀R² / 2(R+h)

C. -mg₀R² / 2(R+h)

D. Rmg₀R² / (R+h)

Q. 13 A rectangular film of liquid is extended from (4 cm x 2 cm) to (5 cm x 4 cm). If the work done is 3 x 10⁴ J, the value of the surface tension of the liquid is

A. 0.250 Nm-1

B. 0.125 Nm-1

C. 0.2 Nm-1

D. 8.0 Nm-1

Q. 14 Three liquids of densities ρ1, ρ2 and ρ3 (with ρ1 > ρ2 > ρ3), having the same value of surface tension T, rise to the same height in three identical capillaries. The angles of contact θ1, θ2 and θ3 obey

A. 2^Π > θ1 > θ2 > θ3 ≥ 0

B. 0 ≤ θ1 < θ2 < θ3 < 2^Π

C. 2^Π < θ1 < θ2 < θ3 < Π

D. Π > θ1 > θ2 > θ3 > 2^Π

Q. 15 Two identical bodies are made of a material for which the heat capacity increases with temperature. One of these is at 100 °C, while the other one is at 0 °C. If the two bodies are brought into contact, then, assuming no heat loss, the final common temperature is

A. 50 °C

B. More than 50 °C

C. Less than 50 °C but greater than 0 °C

D. 0 °C

Q. 16 A body cools from a temperature 3T to 2T in 10 minutes. The room temperature is T. Assume that Newton’s law of cooling is applicable. The temperature of the body at the end of next of 10 minutes will be

A. 7/4 T

B. 3/2 T

C. 4/3 T

D. T

Q. 17 One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a process described by the equation PV³ = constant. The heat capacity of the gas during this process is

A. (3/2) R

B. (5/2) R

C. 2R

D. R

Q. 18 The temperature inside a refrigerator is t₂ °C and the room temperature is t₁ °C. The amount of heat delivered to the room for each joule of electrical energy consumed ideally will be

A. t₁/ (t₁ – t₂)

B. (t₁ + 273) / (t₁ – t₂)

C. (t₂ + 273) / (t₁ – t₂)

D. (t₁ + t₂) / (t₁ + 273)

Q. 19 A given sample of an ideal gas occupies a volume V at a pressure P and absolute temperature T. The mass of each molecule of the gas is m. Which of the following gives the density of the gas?

A. P/(kT)

B. Pm/(kT)

C. P/(kTV)

D. mkT

Q. 20 A body of mass m is attached to the lower end of a spring whose upper end is fixed. The spring has negligible mass. When the mass m is slightly pulled down and released, it oscillates with a time period of 3 s. When the mass m is increased by 1 kg, the time period of oscillations becomes 5 s. The value of m in kg is :

A. 3/4

B. 4/3

C. 16/9

D. 9/16

Q. 21 The second overtone of an open organ pipe has the same frequency as the first overtone of a closed pipe L meter long. The length of the open pipe will be

A. L

B. 2L

C. L/2

D. 4L

Q. 22 Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have frequencies (n – 1), n, (n + 1). They superimpose to give beats. The number of beats produced per second will be

A. 1

B. 4

C. 3

D. 2

Q. 23 An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field intensity 2 × 10^5 N/C. It experiences a torque equal to 4 Nm. The charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm, is

A. 8 mC

B. 2 mC

C. 5 mC

D. 7 μC

Q. 24 A parallel- plate capacitor of area A, plate separation d and capacitance C is filled with four dielectric materials having dielectric constant k1, k₂, k₃, and k₄ as shown in the figure below. If a single dielectric material is to be used to have the same capacitance C in this capacitor, then its dielectric constant k is given by

Image result for A parallel- plate capacitor of area A, plate separation d and capacitance C is filled with four dielectric materials having dielectric constant k1, kâ, kâ, and kâ as shown in the figure below. If a single dielectric material is to be used to have the same capacitance C in this capacitor, then its dielectric constant k is given by

A. k = k₁ + k₂ + k₃ + 3 (k₄)

B. k = (2/3)(k₁ + k₂ + k₃) + 2 (k₄ )

C. 2/k = 3/(k₁ + k₂ + k₃) + 1/k₄

D. 1/k = 1/k₁ + 1/k₂ + 1/k₃ + 3/2 (k₄ )

Q. 25 The potential difference (VA – VB) between the points A and B in the given figure is

A. – 3 V

B. + 3 V

C. + 6 V

D. + 9 V

Q. 26 A filament bulb (500 W, 100 V) is to be used in a 230 V main supply. When a resistance R is connected in series, it works perfectly and the bulb consumes 500 W. The value of R is

A. 230 Ω

B. 46 Ω

C. 26 Ω

D. 13 Ω

Q. 27 A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a circular loop of one turn. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is B. It is then bent into a circular coil of n turns. The magnetic field at the centre of this coil of n turns will be

A. nB

B. n²B

C. 2nB

D. 2n²B

Q. 28 A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread in a uniform horizontal magnetic field and is in equilibrium state. The energy required to rotate it by 60° is W. Now the torque required to keep the magnet in this new position is

A. W/√3

B. √3 W

C. √3/2 W

D. 2W / √3

Q. 29 An electron is moving in a circular path under the influence of a transverse magnetic field of 3.57 × 10^(–2) T. If the value of e/m is 1.76 × 10^(11) C/kg, the frequency of revolution of the electron is

A. 1 GHz

B. 100 MHz

C. 62.8 MHz

D. 6.28 MHz

Q. 30 Which of the following combinations should be selected for better tuning of an L-C-R circuit used for communication?

A. R = 20 Ω, L = 1.5 H, C = 35μF

B. R = 25 Ω, L = 2.5 H, C = 45μF

C. R = 15 Ω, L = 3.5 H, C = 30μF

D.R = 25 Ω, L = 1.5 H, C = 45μF

Q. 31 A uniform magnetic field is restricted within a region of radius r. The magnetic field changes with time at a rate dB/dt . Loop 1 of radius R > r encloses the region r and loop 2 of radius R is outside the region of magnetic field as shown in the figure below. Then the e.m.f. generated is

Image result for A uniform magnetic field is restricted within a region of radius r. The magnetic field changes with time at a rate dB/dt . Loop 1 of radius R > r encloses the region r and loop 2 of radius R is outside the region of magnetic field as shown in the figure below. Then the e.m.f. generated is

A. Zero in loop 1 and zero in loop 2

B. -dB/dt ( πr² ) in loop 1 and -dB/dt ( πr² ) in loop 2

C. -dB/dt ( πr² ) in loop 1 and zero in loop 2

D. -dB/dt ( πR² ) in loop 1 and zero in loop 2

Q. 32 The potential differences across the resistance, capacitance and inductance are 80 V, 40 V and 100 V respectively in an L-C-R circuit. The power factor of this circuit is

A. 0.4

B. 0.5

C. 0.8

D. 1.0

Q. 33 A 100 Ω resistance and a capacitor of 100 Ω reactance are connected in series across a 220 V source. When the capacitor is 50% charged, the peak value of the displacement current is

A. 2.2 A

B. 11 A

C. 4.4 A

D. 11 √2 A

Q. 34 Two identical glass (μg = 3/2) equiconvex lenses of focal length f each are kept in contact. The space between the two lenses is filled with water (μw = 4/3). The focal length of the combination is

A. f/3

B. f

C. 4f/3

D. 3f/4

Q. 35 An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index 1.5 (near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when viewed from one surface and 3 cm deep when viewed from the opposite face. The thickness (in cm) of the slab is

A. 8

B. 10

C. 12

D. 16

Q. 36 The interference pattern is obtained with two coherent light sources of intensity ratio n. In the interference pattern, the ratio (Imax – Imin)/ (Imax + Imin), will be

A. √n/(n + 1)

B. √n/(n + 1)

C. √n/(n + 1)²

D. 2√n/(n + 1)²

Q. 37 A person can see clearly objects only when they lie between 50 cm and 400 cm from his eyes. In order to increase the maximum distance of distinct vision to infinity, the type and power of the correcting lens, the person has to use, will be

A. Convex, + 2.25 diopter

B. Concave, – 0.25 diopter

C. Concave, – 0.2 diopter

D. Convex, + 0.15 diopter

Q. 38 A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm is placed immediately in front of a lens of focal length 60 cm. The aperture is illuminated normally by a parallel beam of wavelength 5 × 10^(-5) cm. The distance of the first dark band of the diffraction pattern from the centre of the screen is

A. 0.10 cm

B. 0.25 cm

C. 0.20 cm

D. 0.15 cm

Q. 39 Electrons of mass m with de-Broglie wavelength λ fall on the target in an X-ray tube. The cutoff wavelength (λ0) of the emitted X-ray is :-

A. λ0 = 2mcλ2/h

B. λ0 = 2h/mc

C. λ0 = 2m²c²λ³/h²

D. λ0 = λ

Q. 40 Photons with energy 5 eV are incident on a cathode C in a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of emitted photoelectrons is 2 eV. When photons of energy 6 eV are incident on C, no photoelectrons will reach the anode A, if the stopping potential of A relative to C is:-

A. +3 V

B. +4 V

C. -1 V

D. 3 V

Q. 41 If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the 3rd orbit to the 2nd orbit, it emits a photon of wavelength λ . When it jumps from the 4th orbit to the 3rd orbit, the corresponding wavelength of the photon will be :-

A. (16/25) λ

B. (9/16)/λ

C. (20/7) λ

D. (20/13) λ

Q. 42 The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30 minutes. The time (in minutes) taken between 40% decay and 85% decay of the same radioactive substance is :-

A. 15

B. 30

C. 45

D. 60

Q. 43 For CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of 2kΩ is 4 V. If the current amplification factor of the transistor is 100 and the base resistance is 1 kΩ, then the input signal voltage is :-

A. 10 mV

B. 20 mV

C. 30 mV

D. 15 mV

Q. 44 The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in the figure below. The current flowing through the resistance R1 will be

A. 2.5 A

B. 10.0 A

C. 1.43 A

D. 3.13 A

Q. 45 What is the output Y in the following circuit, when all the three inputs A, B, C are first 0 and then 1?

A. 0, 1

B. 0, 0

C. 1, 0

D. 1, 1

Q. 46 Which one of the following compounds shows the presence of intramolecular hydrogen bond?

A. H2O2

B. HCN

C. Cellulose

D. Concentrated acetic acid

Q. 47 The molar conductivity of a 0.5 mol/dm³ solution of AgNO3 with electrolytic conductivity of 5.76 × 10^(-3) S cm–1 at 298 K is

A. 2.88 S cm²/mol

B. 11.52 S cm²/mol

C. 0.086 S cm²/mol

D. 28.8 S cm²/mol

Q. 48 The decomposition of phosphine (PH3) on tungsten at low pressure is a first-order reaction. It is because the

A. rate is proportional to the surface coverage

B. rate is inversely proportional to the surface coverage

C. rate is independent of the surface coverage

D. rate of decomposition is very slow

Q. 49 The coagulation values in millimoles per litre of the electrolytes used for the coagulation of As₂S₃ are given below:

I. (NaCl) = 52,

II. (BaCl₂) = 0.69,

III. (MgSO₄) = 0.22

The correct order of their coagulating power is

A. I > II > III

B. II > I > III

C. III > II > I

D. III > I > II

Q. 50 During the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the time required to produce 0.10 mol of chlorine gas using a current of 3 amperes is

A. 55 minutes

B. 110 minutes

C. 220 minutes

D. 330 minutes

Q. 51 How many electrons can fit in the orbital for which n = 3 and l = 1?

A. 2

B. 6

C. 10

D. 14

Q. 52 For a sample of perfect gas when its pressure is changed isothermally from pᵢ to p􀀁, the entropy change is given by

A. Δ S =nR ln ( p􀀁 / pᵢ )

B. Δ S =nR ln ( pᵢ / p􀀁 )

C. Δ S =nRT ln ( p􀀁 / pᵢ )

D. Δ S =RT ln ( pᵢ / p􀀁 )

Q. 53 The van’t Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution of the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Q. 54 The percentage of pyridine (C₅H₅N) that forms pyridinium ion (C₅H₅N⁺H) in a 0.10 M aqueous pyridine solution (Kᵦ for C₅H₅N = 1.7 × 10⁻⁹) is

A. 0.0060%

B. 0.013%

C. 0.77%

D. 1.6%

Q. 55 In calcium fluoride, having the fluorite structure, the coordination numbers for calcium ion Ca²⁺ and fluoride ion F⁻ are

A. 4 and 2

B. 6 and 6

C. 8 and 4

D. 4 and 8

Q. 56 If the E°cell for a given reaction has a negative value which of the following gives the correct relationships for the values of G° and Keq?

A. ΔG° > 0; Keq < 1

B. ΔG° > 0; Keq > 1

C. ΔG° < 0; Keq > 1

D. ΔG° < 0; Keq < 1

Q. 57 Which one of the following is incorrect for ideal solution?

A. ΔHmix = 0

B. ΔUmix = 0

C. ΔP = Pobs – P(calculated by Raoult’s law) = 0

D. ΔGmix = 0

Q. 58 The solubility of AgCl(s) with solubility product 1.6 × 10^(–10) in 0.1 M NaCl solution would be

A. 1.25 × 10^(-5) M

B. 1.6 × 10^(-9) M

C. 1.6 × 10^(-11) M

D. zero

Q. 59 Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 mole of XY2 weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are

A. 40, 30

B. 60, 40

C. 20, 30

D. 30, 20

Q. 60 The number of electrons delivered at the cathode during electrolysis by a current of 1 ampere in 60 seconds is (charge on electron = 1.60 ×10^(–19) C)

A. 6 × 10^(23)

B. 6 × 10^(20)

C. 3.75 × 10^(20)

D. 7.48 × 10^(23)

Q. 61 Boric acid is an acid because its molecule

A. contains replaceable H+ ion

B. gives up a proton

C. accepts OH– from water releasing proton

D. combines with proton from water molecule

Q. 62 AlF₃ is soluble in HF only in presence of KF. It is due to the formation of

A. K₃ [ AlF₃H₃ ]

B. K₃ [ AlF₆ ]

C. AlH₃

D. K [ AlF₃H ]

Q. 63 Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanized iron but the reverse is not possible. It is because

A. zinc is lighter than iron

B. zinc has lower melting point than iron

C. zinc has lower negative electrode potential than iron

D. zinc has higher negative electrode potential than iron

Q. 64 The suspension of slaked lime in water is known as

A. Lime water

B. Quicklime

C. Milk of lime

D. Aqueous solution of slaked lime

Q. 65 The hybridizations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO2+, NO3- and NH4+ respectively are

A. sp, sp³ and sp²

B. sp², sp³ and sp

C. sp, sp² and sp³

D. sp², sp and sp³

Q. 66 Which of the following fluoro-compounds is most likely to behave as a Lewis base?

A. BF3

B. PF3

C. CF4

D. SiF4

Q. 67 Which of the following pairs of ions is isoelectronic and isostructural?

A. (CO₃)²⁻, (NO₃)⁻

B. (ClO₃)⁻, (CO₃)²⁻

C. (SO₃)²⁻, (NO₃)⁻

D. (ClO₃)⁻, (SO₃)²⁻

Q. 68 In context with beryllium, which one of the following statements is incorrect?

A. It is rendered passive by nitric acid.

B. It forms Be2C.

C. Its salts rarely hydrolyze.

D. Its hydride is electron-deficient and polymeric.

Q. 69 Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a moderately strong oxidizing agent. Which of the following reactions does not show oxidizing behavior?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 70 Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have electron density along the axes?

A. dz², dxz

B. dxz, dyz

C. dz² , dx²-y²

D. dxy , dx²-y²

Q. 71 The correct geometry and hybridization for XeF4 are :

A. Octahedral, sp3d2

B. Trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d

C. Planar triangle, sp3d3

D. Square planar, sp3d2

Q. 72 Among the following which one is a wrong statement?

A. PH5 and BiCl5 do not exist

B. pπ-dπ bonds are present in SO2

C. SeF4 and CH4 have same shape

D. I3+ has bent geometry

Q. 73 The correct increasing order of trans-effect of the following species is :

A. (NH3) > (CN–) > (Br–) > (C6H5–)

B. (CN–) > (C6H5–) > (Br–) > (NH3)

C. (Br–) > (CN–) > (NH3) > (C6H5–)

D. (CN–) > (Br–) > (C6H5–) >(NH3)

Q. 74 Which one of the followng statements related to lanthanons is incorrect?

A. Europium shows +2 oxidation state.

B. The basicity decreases as the ionic radius decreases from Pr to Lu.

C. All the lanthanons are much more reactive than aluminium

D. Ce(+4) solutions are widely used as oxidizing agent in volumetric analysis

Q. 75 Jahn-Teller effect not observed in high spin complexes of :-

A. d7

B. d8

C. d4

D. d9

Q. 76 Which of the following can be used as halide component for Friedel-Crafts reaction?

A. Chlorobenzene

B. Bromobenzene

C. Chloroethene

D. Isopropyl chloride

Q. 77 In which of the following molecules, atoms are coplanar?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 78 Which one of the following structures represents nylon 6,6 polymer?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 79 In pyrrole, the electron density is maximum on

A. 2 and 3

B. 3 and 4

C. 2 and 4

D. 2 and 5

Q. 80 Which of the following compounds shall not produce propene by reaction with HBr followed by elimination or direct only elimination reaction?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 81 Which one of the following nitro-compounds does not react with nitrous acid?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 82 The central dogma of molecular genetics states that the genetic information flows from

A. Amino acids → Proteins → DNA

B. DNA → Carbohydrates → Proteins

C. DNA → RNA → Proteins

D. DNA → RNA → Carbohydrates

Q. 83 The correct corresponding order of names of following aldoses with configuration given below, respectively, is

A. L-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose, D-threose

B. D-threose, D-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose

C. L-erythrose, L-threose, D-erythrose, D-threose

D. D-erythrose, D-threose, L-erythrose, L-threose

Q. 84 In the given reaction, the product P is,

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 85 A given nitrogen containing aromatic compound aromatic A reacts with Sn/HCl, followed by HNO2 to give an unstable compound B. B, on treatment with phenol, forms a beautiful coloured compound C with the molecular formula C12H10N 2O. The structure of the compound A is

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 86 Consider the reaction

CH3-CH2-CH2-Br + NaCN → CH3 –CH2 – CH2 –CN + NaBr

The reaction will be the fastest in

A. ethanol

B. methanol

C. N, N’ –dimethylformamide (DMF)

D. water

Q. 87 The correct structure of the product A formed in the reaction

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 88 Which among the given molecules can exhibit tautomerism?

A. III only

B. Both I and III

C. Both I and II

D. Both II and III

Q. 89 The correct order of the strengths of the carboxylic acids

A. I> II >III

B. II > III > I

C. III > II > I

D. II > I > II

Q. 90 The compound that will react most readily with gaseous bromine has the formula?

A. C3H6

B. C2H2

C. C4H10

D. C2H4

Q. 91 Which one of the following is wrong for fungi?

A. They are eukaryotic.

B. All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall.

C. They are heterotrophic.

D. They are both unicellular and multicellular.

Q. 92 Methanogens belong to

A. Eubacteria

B. Archaebacteria

C. Dinoflagellates

D. Slime moulds

Q. 93 Select the wrong statement

A. The walls of diatoms are easily destructible.

B. ‘Diatomaceous earth’ is formed by the cell wall of diatoms.

C. Diatoms are chief producers in the ocean.

D. Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water

Q. 94 The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry information on

A. date of collection

B. name of collector

C. local names

D. height of the plant

Q. 95 Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental conditions because of

A. broad hardy leaves

B. superficial stomata

C. thick cuticle

D. presence of vessels

Q. 96 Which one of the following statements is wrong?

A. Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in the immediate environment.

B. Algin is obtained from red algae, and carrageenan from brown algae.

C. Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria

D. Laminaria and Sargassum are used as food.

Q. 97 The term ‘polyadelphous’ is related to

A. gynoecium

B. androecium

C. corolla

D. calyx

Q. 98 How many plants among Indigofera, Sesbania, Salvia, Allium, Aloe, mustard, groundnut, radish, gram and turnip have stamens with different lengths in their flowers?

A. Three

B. Four

C. Five

D. Six

Q. 99 Radial symmetry is found in the flowers of

A. Brassica

B. Trifolium

C. Pisum

D. Cassia

Q. 100 Free-central placentation is found in

A. Dianthus

B. Argemone

C. Brassica

D. Citrus

Q. 101 Cortex is the region found between

A. epidermis and stele

B. pericycle and endodermis

C. endodermis and pith

D. endodermis and vascular bundle

Q. 102 The balloon-shaped structures called tyloses

A. lysozyme

B. ribozyme

C. ligase

D. deoxyribonuclease

Q. 103 A non-proteinaceous enzyme is

A. Stroma

B. Lumen of thylakoids

C. Inter membrane space

D. Antennae complex

Q. 104 Select the mismatch

A. Gas vacuoles – Green bacteria

B. Large central vacuoles – Animal cells

C. Protists – Eukaryotes

D. Methanogens – Prokaryotes

Q. 105 Select the wrong statement.

A. Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan.

B. Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of bacterial cells.

C. Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells.

D. Mycoplasma is a wall-less microorganism.

Q. 106 A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzymes is

A. lysosome

B. microsome

C. ribosome

D. mesosome

Q. 107 During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in

A. S Phase

B. G1 phase

C. G2 phase

D. M phase

Q. 108 Which of the following biomolecules is common to respiration-mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins?

A. Glucose-6-phosphate

B. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate

C. Pyruvic acid

D. Acetyl CoA

Q. 109 A few drops of sap were collected by cutting across a plant stem by a suitable method. The sap was tested chemically. Which one of the following test results indicates that it is phloem sap?

A. Acidic

B. Alkaline

C. Low refractive index

D. Absence of sugar

Q. 110 You are given a tissue with its potential for differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the following pairs of hormones would you add to the medium to secure shoots as well as roots?

A. IAA and gibberellins

B. Auxin and cytokinin

C. Auxin and abscisic acid

D. Gibberellin and abscisic acid

Q. 111 Phytochrome is a

A. flavoprotein

B. glycoprotein

C. lipoprotein

D. chromoprotein

Q. 112 Which is essential for the growth of root tip?

A. Zn

B. Fe

C. Ca

D. Mn

Q. 113 The process which makes major difference between C3 and C4 plants is

A. glycolysis

B. Calvin cycle

C. photorespiration

D. respiration

Q. 114 Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. Offspring produced by the asexual reproduction are called clone.

B. Microscopic, motile asexual reproductive structures are called zoospores.

C. In potato, banana and ginger, the plantlets arise from the internodes present in the modified stem.

D. Water hyacinth, growing in the standing water, drains oxygen from water that leads to the death of fishes.

Q. 115 Which one of the following generates new genetic combinations leading to variation?

A. Vegetative reproduction

B. Parthenogenesis

C. Sexual reproduction

D. Nucellar polyembryony

Q. 116 Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 117 In majority of angiosperms

A. egg has a filiform apparatus

B. there are numerous antipodal cells

C. reduction division occurs in the megaspore mother cells

D. a small central cell is present in the embryo sac

Q. 118 Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought about by the agency of

A. water

B. insects or wind

C. birds

D. bats

Q. 119 The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent

A. megasporangium

B. megasporophyll

C. megaspore mother cell

D. megaspore

Q. 120 Taylor conducted the experiments to prove semiconservative mode of chromosome replication on

A. Vinca rosea

B. Vicia faba

C. Drosophila melanogaster

D. E. coli

Q. 121 The mechanism that causes a gene to move from one linkage group to another is called

A. Inversion

B. Duplication

C. Translocation

D. Crossing over

Q. 122 The equivalent of a structural gene is

A. Mutation

B. Cistron

C. Operon

D. Recon

Q. 123 A true breeding plant is

A. One that is able to breed on its own

B. Produced due to cross pollination among unrelated plants

C. Near homozygous and produces offspring of its own kind

D. Always homozygous recessive in its genetic constitution

Q. 124 Which of the following rRNAs acts as structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria?

A. 5S rRNA

B. 18S rRNA

C. 23S rRNA

D. 5.8S rRNA

Q. 125 Stirred tank bioreactors have been designed for

A. Purification of product

B. Addition of preservatives to the product

C. Availability of oxygen throughout the process

D. Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel

Q. 126 A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using

A. Eco R1

B. Taq Polymerase

C. Polymerase III

D. ligase

Q. 127 Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing?

A. Separation

B. Purification

C. Preservation

D. Expression

Q. 128 Which of the following restriction enzymes produce blunt ends?

A. Sal I

B. Eco RV

C. Xho I

D. Hind III

Q. 129 Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four year old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency?

A. Gene therapy

B. Chemotherapy

C. Immunotherapy

D. Radiation therapy

Q. 130 How many hot spots of biodiversity in the world have been identified till date by Norman Myers?

A. 17

B. 25

C. 34

D. 43

Q. 131 The primary producers of deep-sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem are

A. Green algae

B. Chemosynthetic bacteria

C. Blue green algae

D. Coral reefs

Q. 132 Which of the following is corrent for r-selected species?

A. Large number of progeny with small size

B. Large number of progeny with large size

C. Small number of progeny with small size

D. Small number of progeny with large size

Q. 133 If ‘+’ sign is assigned to beneficial interactions, ‘-’ sign to detrimental and ‘0’ sign to neutral interactions, then the population interaction represented by ‘+’ ‘-’ refers to

A. Mutualism

B. Amensalism

C. Commensalism

D. Parasitism

Q. 134 Which of the following is correctly matched?

A. Aerenchyma – Opuntia

B. Age pyramid – Biome

C. Parthenium hysterophorus – Threat to biodiversity

D. Stratification – population

Q. 135 Red list contains data or information

A. all economically important plants

B. Plants whose products are in international trade

C. threatened species

D. marine vertebrates only

Q. 136 Which of the following sets of diseases is caused by bacteria?

A. Cholera and tetanus

B. Typhoid and smallpox

C. Tetanus and mumps

D. Herpes and influenza

Q. 137 Match Column-I with Column-II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Image result for Match Column-I with Column-II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given below:

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 138 Choose the correct statement

A. All mammals are viviparous

B. All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins

C. All reptiles have a three chambered heart

D. All Pisces have gills covered by an operculum

Q. 139 Study the four statements (A-D) given below and select the two correct ones out of them:

A. Definition of biological species was given by Ernst Mayr

B. Photoperiod does not affect reproduction in plants

C. Binomial nomenclature system was given by R. H. Whittaker

D. In unicellular organisms, reproduction is synonymous with growth The two correct statements are

A. B and C

B. C and D

C. A and D

D. A and B

Q. 140 In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which part of the reproductive system?

A. Seminal vesicles

B. Mushroom glands

C. Testes

D. Vas deferens

Q. 141 Smooth muscles are

A. Involuntary, fusiform, non-striated

B. Voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical

C. Involuntary, cylindrical, striated

D. Voluntary, spindle shaped, uninucleate

Q. 142 Oxidative phosphorylation is

A. Formation of ATP by transfer of phosphate group from a substrate to ADP

B. Oxidation of phosphate group in ATP

C. Addition of phosphate group to ATP

D. Formation of ATP by energy released from electrons removed during substrate oxidation

Q. 143 Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in stabilizing the three dimensional folding of most proteins?

A. Hydrogen bonds

B. Electrostatic interaction

C. Hydrophobic interaction

D. Ester bonds

Q. 144 Which of the following describes the given graph correctly?

A. Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme

B. Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme

C. Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme

D. Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme

Q. 145 When cell has stalled DNA replication fork, which checkpoint should be predominantly activated?

A. G1/S

B. G2/M

C. M

D. Both G2/M and M

Q. 146 Match the stages of meiosis in column I to their characteristic feature in column II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Image result for Match Column-I with Column-II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given below:

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 147 Which hormones do stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?

A. Angiotensin and epinephrine

B. Gastrin and insulin

C. Cholecystokinin and secretin

D. Insulin and Glucagon

Q. 148 The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs is

A. equal to that in the blood

B. more than that in the blood

C. less than that in the blood

D. less than that of the carbon dioxide

Q. 149 Choose the correct statement.

A. Nociceptors respond to changes in pressure

B. Meissner’s corpuscles are thermoreceptors

C. Photoreceptors in the human eye are depolarized during darkness and become hyperpolarized in response to the light stimulus

D. Receptors do not produce graded potentials

Q. 150 Grave’s disease is caused due to

A. hyposecretion of thyroid gland

B. hypersecretion of thyroid gland

C. hyposecretion of adrenal gland

D. hypersecretion of adrenal gland

Q. 151 Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin for cross-bridge activity during muscle contraction

A. Calcium

B. Magnesium

C. Sodium

D. Potassium

Q. 152 Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood from the body.

A. Erythrocytes

B. Leucocytes

C. Neutrophils

D. Thrombocytes

Q. 153 Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilization.

A. Insulin

B. Glucagon

C. Secretin

D. Gastrin

Q. 154 Osteoporosis, age-related disease of skeletal system, may occur due to

A. immune disorder affecting neuro-muscular junction leading to fatigue

B. high concentration of Ca++ and Na+

C. decreased level of estrogen

D. accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation of joints

Q. 155 Serum differs from blood in

A. lacking globulins

B. lacking albumins

C. lacking clotting factors

D. lacking antibodies

Q. 156 Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lungs which can never be expelled because

A. there is a negative pressure in the lungs

B. there is negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls

C. there is a positive intrapleural pressure

D. pressure in the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure

Q. 157 The posterior pituitary gland is not a ‘true’ endocrine gland because

A. it is provided with a duct

B. it only stores and release hormones

C. it is under the regulation of hypothalamus

D. it secretes enzymes

Q. 158 The part of nephron involved in active reabsorption of sodium is

A. distal convoluted tubule

B. proximal convoluted tubule

C. Bowman’s capsule

D. descending limb of Henle’s loop

Q. 159 Which of the following is hormone-releasing IUD?

A. LNG-20

B. Multiload 375

C. Lippes loop

D. Cu7

Q. 160 Which of following incorrect regarding vasectomy?

A. No sperm occurs in seminal fluid

B. No sperms occurs in epididymis

C. Vasa deferentia is cut and died

D. Irreversible sterility

Q. 161 Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilization is transferred into

A. uterus

B. fallopian tube

C. fimbriae

D. cervix

Q. 162 Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of transport of sperms?

A. Rete testis → Efferent ductules → Epididymis → Vas deferens

B. Rete testis → Epididymis → Efferent ductules → Vas deferens

C. Rete testis → Vas deferens → Efferent ductules → Epididymis

D. Efferent ductules → Rete testis → Vas deferens → Epididymis

Q. 163 Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Column I	Column II
a. Mons pubis	(i) Embyo formation
b. Antrum	(ii) Sperm
c. Trophectoderm	(iii)Female external genitalia
d. Nebenkern	(iv) Graafin follicle

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 164 Several hormones likes hCG, hPL, estrogen, progesterone are produced by

A. Ovary

B. Placenta

C. Fallopian tube

D. Pituitary

Q. 165 If a colour-blind man marries a woman who is homozygous for normal vision, the probability of their son being colour blind is

A. 0

B. 0.5

C. 0.75

D. 1

Q. 166 Genetic drift operates in:

A. Small isolated population

B. Large isolated population

C. Non-reproductive population

D. Slow reproductive population

Q. 167 In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individuals is represented by

A. p²

B. 2pq

C. pq

D. q²

Q. 168 The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is

A. Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus

B. Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus

C. Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Australopithecus → Homo erectus

D. Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus

Q. 169 Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life?

I. Formation of protobionts

II. Synthesis of organic monomers

III. Synthesis of organic polymers

IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic systems

A. I, II, III, IV

B. I, III, II, IV

C. II, III, I, IV

D. II, III, IV, I

Q. 170 A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill the traits given below, except

A. It should be able to express itself in the form of ‘Mendelian characters’

B. It should be able to generate its replica

C. It should be unstable structurally and chemically

D. It should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for evolution

Q. 171 DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes transcription on one strand of the DNA which is called the

A. template strand

B. coding strand

C. alpha strand

D. antistrand

Q. 172 Interspecific hybridization is the mating of

A. animals within same breed without having common ancestors

B. two different related species

C. superior males and females of different breeds

D. more closely related individuals within same breed for 4—6 generations

Q. 173 Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?

A. HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptase

B. HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase

C. HIV is unenveloped virus

D. HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response

Q. 174 Among the following edible fishes, which one is a marine fish having rich source of omega-3 fatty acids?

A. Mystus

B. Mangur

C. Mrigala

D. Mackerel

Q. 175 Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Column I Column II
a. Citric acid (i) Trichoderma

b. Cyclosporin A (ii) Clostridium

c. Statins (iii) Aspergillus

d. Butyric acid (iv) Monascus

A. a – (III), b – (I), c – (II), d – (IV)

B. a – (III), b – (I), c – (IV), d – (II)

C. a – (I), b – (IV), c – (II), d – (III)

D. a – (III), b – (IV), c – (I), d – (II)

Q. 176 Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be a good index for pollution for water bodies receiving effluents from

A. Domestic sewage

B. Dairy industry

C. Petroleum industry

D. Sugar industry

Q. 177 The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by

A. C. Darwin

B. G. F. Gause

C. MacArthur

D. Verhulst and Pearl

Q. 178 Which of the following National Parks is home to the famous musk deer or hangul?

A. Keibul Lamjao National Park, Manipur

B. Bandhavgarh National Park, Madhya Pradesh

C. Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary, Arunachal Pradesh

D. Dachigam National Park, Jammu & Kashmir

Q. 179 A lake which is rich in organic waste may result in

A. Increased population of aquatic organisms due to minerals

B. Drying of the lake due to algal bloom

C. Increased population of fish due to lots of nutrients

D. Mortality of fish due to lack of oxygen

Q. 180 The highest DDT concentration in aquatic food chain shall occur in

A. Phytoplankton

B. Seagull

C. Crab

D. Eel

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	D	C	A	C	B	C	C	B	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	C	B	D	B	B	D	B	B	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	D	B	C	D	C	B	B	A	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	C	A	D	C	B	B	D	A	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	B	A	C	C	B	A	C	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	B	D	B	C	A	D	B	A	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	B	D	C	C	B	A	C	D	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	C	B	C	B	D	A	D	C	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	C	D	C	B	C	B	A	B	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	B	A	D	C	B	B	B	A	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	A	C	B	B	B	A	A	D	B	B
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	D	C	C	C	C	D	C	B	A	B
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	C	B	C	C	C	D	D	B	A	C
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	B	A	D	C	C	A	A	B	C	A
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	A	D	D	B	B	A	C	B	C	B
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	A	D	A	C	C	B	B	B	A	B
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	A	A	B	B	A	A	B	B	C	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	A	B	B	D	B	C	B	D	D	B