AIIMS UG 2013
|
Section |
Questions |
Marks |
|
Physics |
60 Questions (1 – 60) |
60 |
|
Chemistry |
60 Questions (61 – 120) |
60 |
|
Biology |
60 Questions (121 – 180) |
60 |
|
General Knowledge |
20 Questions (181 – 200) |
20 |
Q : 1 For Satellite Communication which wave is used ?
A . Space Wave
B . Sky Wave
C . Ground Wave
D . Microwave
Q. 2 In nuclear fission, which of the following quantity is conserved?
A. Energy
B. Mass
C. Momentum
D. Energy and Mass
Q. 3 When a slow neutron is captured by a ²³⁵U₉₂nucleus, a fission energy releasing 200 MeV. If power of nuclear reactor is 100W then rate of nuclear fission is
A. 3.6 x 10⁶ s⁻¹
B. 3.1 x 10¹² s⁻¹
C. 1.8 x 10⁴ s⁻¹
D. 4.1 x 10⁶ s⁻¹
Q. 4 A ball of mass m is tied up with string and rotated along a horizontal circle of radius r . At an instant, its velocity is v, and tension in string is T, force required for circular motion is
A. T – mv²/r
B. T + mv²/r
C. mv²/r
D. 0
Q. 5 If modulated index is 1/2 and power of carrier wave is 2 w. Then what will be the total power in modulated wave?
A. 0.5 W
B. 1 W
C. 0.25 W
D. 2.25 W
Q. 6 If velocity of particle is 3 times of that of electron and ratio of Broglie wavelength of particle to that of electron is 1.814 x 10⁻⁴. The particle will be
A. Neutron
B. Deutron
C. Alpha
D. Tritium
Q. 7 A dipole of dipole moment ‘p’ is placed in non-uniform electric field along with x-axis, electric field is increasing at the rate of 1 V/m then the forrce on dipole is?
A. 0
B. 2p
C. p/2
D. p
Q. 8 Dimentional formula of Angular momentum is
A. ML²T⁻¹
B. M²L²T⁻²
C. ML²T⁻³
D. MLT⁻¹
Q. 9 Relation between magnetic moment and angular velocity is
A. M ∝ w
B. M ∝ w²
C. M ∝ √w
D. None of these
Q. 10 In an intrinsic semi conductor band gap is 1.2 eV then the ratio of no. of charge carriers at 600k and 300k is
A. 10⁴
B. 10⁷
C. 10⁵
D. 10³
Q. 11 Gravitation potential of mass m at height h from surface of earth of radius r is (Take g= acceleration due to gravity of earth’s surface)
A. -g(r+h)
B. -g(r-h)
C. g(r+h)
D. g(r-h)
Q. 12 Which method is best to reduce eddy current?
A. Laminating Core
B. Using thick wires
C. Using Hysterisis Loss
D. None of these
Q. 13 In a cyclic process. work done by a system is
A. 0
B. more than heat given to system
C. equal to heat given to system
D. independent of heat given to system
Q. 14 In a cylinder there are 60 g Ne and 60 g O₂. If pressure of mixture of gases in cylinder is 30 bar then in this cylinder partial pressure of O₂ is (in bar)
A. 30
B. 20
C. 15
D. 12
Q. 15 A gas mixture containing one mole of O₂ gas and 1 mole of He gas. Find ratio of specific heat at constant pressure to that at constant volume of the gaseous mixture.
A. 2
B. 1.5
C. 2.5
D. 4
Q. 16 1 mole of oxygen of volume 1 litre at 4 atm pressure to attain 1 atm pressure by result of isothermal expansion. Find work done by the gas.
A. 155 J
B. 206 J
C. 355 J
D. 552 J
Q. 17 Graph of specific heat at constant volume for a monoatomic gas is
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 18 given that force (5i + 7j – 3k) N acts on a particle at position (i+j-k) m. Find torque of this force on this particle about origin.
A. 4i -2j +2k
B. 2i – 3j +4k
C. 5i – 2j + 3k
D. 6i – 4j +4k
Q. 19 Astronomical wavelength increase due to droppler effect known as
A. Red Shift
B. Violet Shift
C. UV
D. IR Shift
Q. 20 Long distance communication between 2 point on earth is achieved by
A. Space Wave communication
B. Sky Wave communication
C. Satellite Wave communication
D. Line of sight transmission
Q. 21 Which of the following is not a state function?
A. Work Done in adiabatic process
B. Work Done in isothermal process
C. Heat at constant pressure
D. Heat at constant volume
Q. 22 In an oscillating system, a restoring force is a must. In an LC circuit, restoring force is provided by
A. Capacitor
B. Inductance
C. Resistance
D. Both a and b
Q. 23 Polaroid glass is used in sun glasses because
A. It reduces the light intensity to half on account of polarisation
B. it is fasionable
C. it has good color
D. it is cheaper
Q. 24 Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A. Neutron is less stable than proton
B. Neutron can cause fission in nuclear reactors but proton can not.
C. A free proton can emit beta particle.
D. A bound proton can emit beta particle.
Q. 25 Electric field at a distance r from infinity log conducting sheet is proportional to
A. 1/r
B. r^2
C. r^(3/2)
D. independent of r
Q. 26 Given that the mobility of electrons in Ge is 0.4 m²V⁻¹s⁻¹ and electronic charge is 1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹C. The no. of donor atom (per m³) semiconductor of conductivity 500 mho/m is
A. 8 x 10²¹
B. 8 x 10¹⁵
C. 5 x 10²¹
D. 8 x 10¹⁶
Q. 27 In a young’s double slit experiment the spacing between the slits is 0.3 mm and the screen is kept at a distance of 1.5 m. The second bright fringe is found 6 mm from the central fringe. The wavelength of the light used in experiment is
A. 625 nm
B. 600 nm
C. 550 nm
D. 500nm
Q. 28 In beta plus decay
A. antineutrino is produced with electron
B. neutrino is produced with positron
C. neutron is produced with electron
D. none of these
Q. 29 A simple pendulum performs SHM about x= 0 with an amplitude ‘a’ and time period ‘T’. The speed of the pendulum at x = a/2 will be
A. πa/T
B. 3πa²/T
C. πa√3/T
D. πa√3/2T
Q. 30 A particle s projected from ground with an initial speed of ‘v’ at angle θ with horizontal. The average velocity of the particle between its point of projection and height point of trajectory is
A. v (√1+2cos² θ) /2
B. v (√1+cos² θ) /2
C. v (√1+3cos² θ) /2
D. v cos θ
Q. 31 The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2 x 10¹⁴ Hz and wavelength is 5000 A. The refractive index of material will be
A. 1.5
B. 3
C. 1.33
D. 1.4
Q. 32 2 solenoids of equal number of turns having their length and the radii in the same ratio 1: 2. The ratio of their self-inductance will be
A. 1:2
B. 2:1
C. 1:1
D. 1:4
Q. 33 A circuit consisting of five resistors each of resistance R, forming a Wheatstone bridge. What is equivalent resistance of circuit?
A. 2R
B. R
C. 2R/3
D. R/2
Q. 34 The gate is?
A. NOR
B. OR
C. AND
D. NAND
Q. 35 An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the temperature of sink is reduced by 62⁰ C, its efficiency is doubled. The temperature of source will be
A. 37⁰ C
B. 62⁰ C
C. 99⁰ C
D. 124⁰ C
Q. 36 If vector 2i + 3j +8k is perpendicular to the vector 4i – 4j +αk, then value of α is
A. -1
B. 1/2
C. -1/2
D. 1
Q. 37 1 g of steam is sent to 1 g of ice. At thermal equilibrium, the resultant temperature of mixture is
A. 270 C
B. 230 C
C. 100 C
D. 120 C
Q. 38 Ratio of longest wavelengths corresponding to Lyman and Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is
A. 7/29
B. 9/31
C. 5/27
D. 3/23
Q. 39 The molar specific heats of an ideal gas at constant pressure and volume are denoted by Cp and Cv respectively. If γ= Cp/Cv and R is the universal gas constant, then Cv is
A. (γ-1)/R
B. γR
C. (1+γ)/(1-γ)
D. R/(γ-1)
Q. 40 A body of mass m is taken from the earth’s surface to the height equal o twice the radius (R) of the earth. The change in potential energy of body will be
A. 3mgR
B. 1/3 mgR
C. 2 mgR
D. 2/3 mgR
Questions: 41 – 60
In the following questions (41-60), a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
A: If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B: If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C: If assertion is true but reason is false.
D: If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 41 Assertion: In a communication system based on amplitude modulation the modulation index is kept < 1.
Reason: It ensures minimum distortion of signal.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 42 A: If optical density of a substance is more then the mass density of substance can be less than water.
R: Optical density and mass density are not related.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 43 A: On going away from a point charge or a small electric dipole, electric field decreases at the same rate in both the cases.
R: Electric field is inversely proportional to square of distance from the charge or on electric dipole.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 44 A: If a conductor is given charge then no excess inner charge appears.
R: Electric field inside conductor is 0.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 45 A: Water kept in an open vessel will quickly evaporate on the surface of the moon.
R: The Temperature at the surface of the moon is much higher than boiling point of water.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 46 A:Moment of inertia is always constant.
R: Angular moment is conserved that is why moment of inertia is constant.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 47 A: Magnetic lines forms closed loops in nature.
R: Mono-magnetic pole does not exist in nature.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 48 A:Gaussian surface is considered carefully.
R: The point where electric field to be calculated should be with in the surface.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 49 A: ⁶⁰CO₂₇ is a source of gamma radiation.
R: Gamma emission is due to nuclear decay.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 50 A: When light ray is incident at polarizing angle on glass, refracted light is partially polarized.
R: The intensity of light decreases in polarization
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 51 A: A laser beam of 0.2 W power can drill holes through a metal sheet, whereas a 1000 W torch-light can’t.
R: The frequency of laser light is much higher than that of torch light.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 52 A: Electromagnetic radiations exert pressure.
R: Electromagnetic- waves carry both momentum and energy.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 53 A: Electric appliances with metallic body e.g. heaters, presses etc, have three pin connections, whereas light bulb has a two pin connection.
R: Three pin connection reduce heating of connecting cables.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 54 A: Total current entering a circuit is equal to leaving the circuit by Kirchhoff’s law.
R: It is based on conservation of energy.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 55 A: The sun rises some time before the actual sun-rise.
R: Because of refraction through the different layers of atmosphere.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 56 A: Centre of mass of a system does not move under the action of internal forces.
R: Internal forces are non conservative forces.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 57 A: Total energy is negative for a bound system.
R: Potential energy of a bound system is negative and more than kinetic energy.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 58 A: A undamped spring mass system is simplest free vibration system.
R: It has 3 degrees of freedom.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 59 A: Magnetic field is useful in producing parallel beam of charged particle.
R: Magnetic field inhibits the motion of charged particle moving across it.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 60 A: Resolving power of a telescope depends only on wavelength.
R: This is proportional to square of wavelength
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 61 The plot of a concentration of reactant versus time for a reaction is a straight line with a negative slope. The reaction follows
A. First order rate equation
B. Zero order rate equation
C. Second order rate equation
D. Third order rate equation
Q. 62 Which of the following element has lowest melting point?
A. Cr
B. Fe
C. Ni
D. Cu
Q. 63 Maximum number of unpaired electrons are present in
A. Gd 3+
B. Yb 2+
C. Tb 2+
D. Pm 3+
Q. 64 The first ionization enthalpy of Na, Mg and Si are 496 737, 776 KJ/mol respectively. What will be the first ionization enthalpy potential of Al in KJ/ mol?
A. > 766
B. ?496 and < 737
C. >737 and <766
D. > 496
Q. 65 When calomel is treated with ammonium hydroxide, a black substance is formed. The black substance is
A. Hg + HgO
B. HgO.HgCl2
C. H2N-Hg-Cl +Hg
D. Hg(NH2)2 + HgO
Q. 66 total no. of antibonding electrons present in O2 will be
A. 6
B. 8
C. 4
D. 2
Q. 67 If BF3, the B- F bond length is 1.30A, when BF3 is allowed to be treated with Me3N, it forms an adduct, Me3N-BF3, the bond length of B – F in the adduct is
A. greater than 1.3 A
B. smaller than 1.3 A
C. equal to 1.3 A
D. None of these
Q. 68 Oxidation state of iron in haemoglobin is
A. 0
B. 2
C. -2
D. 3
Q. 69 Which of the following statement is not true for hydrolysis of XeF6?
A. XeOF4 is formed
B. XeO2F2
C. It is a redox reaction
D. XeO3 is formed.
Q. 70 Which is most basic?
A. Al(OH)3
B. Cr(OH)3
C. La(OH)3
D. Fe(OH)3
Q. 71 Bleaching powder does not contain
A. CaCl2
B. Ca(OH)2
C. Ca(OCl)2
D. Ca(ClO3)2
Q. 72 Which of the following metal ion forms unstable complex with CN?
A. Ag(I)
B. Zn(II)
C. Cu(II)
D. Cr(II)
Q. 73 Which of the following ion does not exist?
A. [CuI4]^2-
B. [VO4 ]^3-
C. [WO4]^2-
D. [CrO4]^2-
Q. 74 K2Cr2O7 in acidic medium converts into
A. Cr^2+
B. Cr^3+
C. Cr^4+
D. Cr^5+
Q. 75 Which of the following is not a green house gas?
A. Hydrogen
B. Carbon Dioxide
C. Methane
D. Nitrous Oxide or N2O
Q. 76 Major Product?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 77 Which is non reducing sugar?
A. Sucrose
B. Maltose
C. Lactose
D. Mannose
Q. 78 Arrange compounds in increasing order of reactivity towards nucleophilic addition reaction.
i. C6H5COCH3
ii. CH3CO-C2H5
iii. C6H5CHO
iv. Cl-CH2-CHO
A. IV>III>II>I
B. IV>II>III>I
C. I>II>III>IV
D. III>IV>II>I
Q. 79 Product A is?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 80 The Product ?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 81 Which of the following reaction among (1), (2), (3), (4) will not produce ethylene glycol?
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 82 Salicylic acid can be easily prepared by reaction between
A. phenol and CO₂
B. benzoic acid and H₂O₂
C. benzoic diazonium chloride and CO₂
D. phenol and formic acid
Q. 83 Reaction of aniline with HNO₂ followed by treatment of dilute acid gives
A. C₆H₅NHOH₂
B. C₆H₅OH
C. C₆H₅NHNH₂
D. C₆H₅
Q. 84 Which of the following will give carbylamine test?
A. CH₃NH₂
B. CH₃NHCH₃
C. CH₃N(CH₃)CH₃
D. CH₃CONH₂
Q. 85 When trans-2-butene is reacted with Br₂ then product formed is (among (a), (b), (c), (d)):
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 86 Which of the following does not give nitroalkane?
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 87 A compound containing two -OH groups attached with one carbon atom is unstable but which one of the following (a), (b), (c), (d) is stable?
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 88 Which of the following is true for an ideal solution?
A. ΔH(mix) = 0
B. ΔS(mix) = 0
C. ΔG(mix) = 0
D. None of these
Q. 89 Boiling point of benzene is 353.23 K. When 1.8 g of non-volatile solute is dissolved in 90 g of benzene. Then boiling point is raised to 354.11 K. Given Kb (benzene) = 2.53 mol^-1. The molecular mass of non-volatile substance is
A. 58 g mol^-1
B. 120 g mol^-1
C. 116 g mol^-1
D. 60 g mol^-1
Q. 90 In a solid, atom M occupies ccp lattice and 1/3rd of tetrahedral voids are occupied by atom N. Find the formula of solid formed by M and N.
A. M₃N₂
B. M₂N₃
C. M₄N₃
D. M₃N₄
Q. 91 Hair cream is
A. gel
B. emulsion
C. solid sol
D. sol
Q. 92 A particle is moving 3 times faster than the speed of electron. If the ratio of wavelength of particle and electron is 1.8 x 10⁻¹, then particle is
A. Neutron
B. α – particle
C. Deuteron
D. Tritium
Q. 93 Electrode potential of hydrogen electrode is 18 mV, then [H⁺] is
A. 0.2
B. 1
C. 2
D. 5
Q. 94 What will be the solubility product of AX₃?
A. 27S⁴
B. 4S³
C. 36⁴
D. 9S³
Q. 95 Which thermodynamics parameter is not a state function?
A. q at constant pressure
B. q at constant volume
C. W at adiabatic
D. W at isothermal
Q. 96 According to Hardy schulze law, the flocculation power of an ion increases with
A. decrease in size
B. increase in size
C. decrease in charge
D. increase in charge
Q. 97 Strength of H₂O₂ is 15.18 g L⁻¹, then it is equal to
A. 1 volume
B. 10 volume
C. 5 volume
D. 7 volume
Q. 98 Enthalpy of activation of forward reaction for an endothermic process is 50 kJ. If enthalpy change for forward reaction is 20kJ then enthalpy change for backward reaction will be
A. 30 kJ
B. 20 kJ
C. 70 kJ
D. 50 kJ
Q. 99 What is the role of aniline or cresol when added in a froth floatation process?
A. Stabilizer
B. Depressant
C. Wetting agent
D. All of these
Q. 100 Non-stick cookwares generally have a coating of a polymer, whose monomer is
A. CH₂ = CH₂
B. CH₂ = CHCN
C. CH₂ = CHCl
D. CF₂ = CF₂
Q. 101 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Bond dissociation energy is F₂ > Cl₂
Reason: Cl₂ has more electronic repulsion than F₂
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 102 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Bond lengths of P-Cl bonds in gaseous PCl₅ and solid PCl₅ are not equal.
Reason: Because in solid state two PCl₅ molecules are associated
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 103 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: EDTA forms complex with divalent metals of 3d – series in the ratio of 1 : 1
Reason: EDTA has 4- COOH groups
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 104 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: In a mixture of Cd(II) and Cu(II), Cd²⁺ gets precipitated in presence of KCN by H₂S
Reason: The stability constant of [Cu(CN)₄]³⁻ is greater than [Cd(CN)₄]²⁻
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 105 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Aq. solution of CoCl₂ is pink in colour. It turns blue in presence of conc. HCl.
Reason: It is due the formation of [CoCl₄]²⁻
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 106 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Acetamide on reaction with KOH and Bromide gives acetic acid
Reason: Bromide catalyses hydrolysis of acetamide
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 107 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Mixture of benzaldehyde and acetaldehydde in hot alkaline medium gives cinnamaldehyde
Reason: Benzaldehyde is strong electrophile than acetaldehyde
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 108 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: cis-3-chloroprop-2-enoic-acid is less stable than its trans-form.
Reason: Dipole moment of cis-form is greater than trans-form
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 109 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Aryl sulphonic acid gives phenol on reacting with NaOH at high temperature.
Reason: This reaction is electrophilic substitution reaction.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 110 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: All enzymes are made up of proteins and all proteins have three dimensional structures.
Reason: Secondary structures or protein are sequence of amino acids.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 111 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: The presence of a large number of Schottky defects in NaCl lowers its density.
Reason: In NaCl, there are approximately 10⁶ pairs per cm³ at room temperature.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 112 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: For an isolated system, q is zero.
Reason: In an isolated system, change in U and V is zero
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 113 Assertion: At critical point the densities of substances in gaseous and liquid states are same.
Reason: Critical temperature is the temperature at which the real gas exhibit ideal behaviour for considerable range of pressure.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 114 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Entropy of system increases for a spontaneous reaction.
Reason: Enthalpy of reaction always decreases for spontaneous reaction.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 115 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Catalyst changes Gibbs free energy of system.
Reason: Catalyst changes pre-exponential factor of a chemical reaction.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 116 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: A process is called adiabatic if the system does not exchange heat with the surroundings.
Reason: It does not involve increase or decrease in temperature of the system.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 117 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Number of radial and angular nodes for 3p-orbital are 1, 1 respectively.
Reason: Number of radial and angular nodes depends only on principal quantum number.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false
Q. 118 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Cu is stronger reducing agent than H₂.
Reason: E° of Cu²⁺/Cu is negative.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 119 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Magnesium is extracted by the electrolysis of fused mixture of MgCl₂, NaCl and CaCl₂.
Reason: Phosphoric acid does not contain P-H bonds.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 120 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Phosphoric acid has no reducing properties.
Reason: Phosphoric acid does not contain P-H bonds
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 121 Stinging capsules (nematocysts) are found in
A. wasp and honeybee
B. scorpion and cobra
C. sea pen and sea fan
D. cactus and Venus flytrap
Q. 122 Which of the following is a cloning vector?
A. DNA of Salmonella typhimurium
B. Ti plasmid
C. Amp ‘and Tet’ loci
D. Ori minus pBR322
Q. 123 India is one of the twelve megadiversity countries with _________________ of genetic resources of the world.
A. 12.1%
B. 18.1%
C. 38.1%
D. 8.1%
Q. 124 Which of the following is not an invasive species?
A. Parthenium hysterophorus
B. Nelumbo (lotus)
C. Lantana camara
D. Eichhornia crassipes
Q. 125 Intercalated discs are characteristic of muscles found in
A. heart
B. thigh
C. urinary bladder
D. stomach
Q. 126 In which of the following sets of organisms, does the external fertilisation occur?
A. Echinodermata and mosses
B. Hemichordata and ferns
C. Amphibians and algae
D. Reptiles and gymnosperms
Q. 127 Starting from the maximum, arrange the following male reproductive accessory organs in the correct order, based on the amount of secretion poured into urethra
(i) Prostrate gland
(ii) Seminal vesicle
(iii) Bulbourethral gland
A. (i) > (ii) > (iii)
B. (iii) > (ii) > (i)
C. (ii) > (iii) > (i)
D. (ii) > (i) . (iii)
Q. 128 Which of the following contraceptive devices make uretus unsuitable for implantation?
A. Progestasert
B. CuT
C. Lippe’s loop
D. Multiload
Q. 129 In Miller’s experiment, he used a mixture of CH₄, NH₃, H₂ and water vapour in a closed flask to mimic early earth conditions. What was kept the temperature at which this flask was kept?
A. 800°C
B. 1200°C
C. 200°C
D. 400°C
Q. 130 Sexual stage (gametocytes) of Plasmodium occurs in
A. Salivary glands of mosquito
B. Human RBC
C. Intestine of mosquito
D. Human liver
Q. 131 Occurrence of triploid (3n) primary endoderm nucleus is a characteristic feature of
A. Algae
B. Gymnosperms
C. Angiosperms
D. Bryophytes
Q. 132 From the following groups, select the one which has only secondary metabolites?
A. Arbrin, cellulose, arginine, tyrosine
B. Glycine, gums, serine, tyrosine
C. Carotenoids, phenylalnine, curcumin, rubber
D. Conclavein-A, morphine, codeine, vinblastin
Q. 133 In a diploid cell at which stage of cell cycle, the amount of DNA is doubled?
A. G₁ and G₂ phase
B. G₀ phase
C. S, G₂ and M phase
D. S phase
Q. 134 Sporopollenin is a constituent of pollen exine. It can be degraded by the action of
A. enzymes
B. high temperatures
C. strong acids
D. cannot be degraded
Q. 135 The pollen grains of rice and wheat lose their viability in ________ minutes of their release
A. 30
B. 10
C. 60
D. 90
Q. 136 After double fertilisation, a mature ovule has
A. 1 diploid and 1 haploid cell
B. 1 diploid and 1 triploid cell
C. 2 haploid and 1 triploid cell
D. 1 haploid and 1 triploid cell
Q. 137 Genetically modified (GM) crops can be produced by
A. recombinant DNA technology
B. somatic hybridisation
C. cross breeding
D. micropropagation
Q. 138 Which of the following is a palindromic sequence?
A. 5′- CGTATG -3′ 3′- GCATAC -5′
B. 5′- CGAATG -3′ 3′- CGAATG -5′
C. 5′- GAATTC -3′ 3′- CITAAG – 5′
D. 5′- GACTAC -3′ 3′- TACGAC -5′
Q. 139 C₄ plants have better productivity because
A. C₄ plants absorb more light
B. C₄ plants absorb more CO₂
C. C₄ plants does not carry photorespiration
D. C₄ plants have more amount of RuBisCO
Q. 140 Match the source gland with its respective hormone and function given in the figure and select the correct option among (a), (b), (c), (d):
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 141 Which off the following microbes is correctly paired with its function?
A. Aspergillus niger – Production of lactic acid
B. Trichoderma polysporum – Lowers blood cholesterol
C. Saccharomyces cerevisiae – Production of citric acid
D. Methanogenic – Gobar gas formation bacteria
Q. 142 Match Column – I with Column – II (Given in figure) and select the correct option from the codes given:
A. A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i)
B. A – (iv), B – (i), C – (ii), D – (iii)
C. A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (iv)
D. A – (iv), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (ii)
Q. 143 Which of the following gastric secretions is correctly matched with its source?
A. Pepsin – Chief cells
B. Chymotrypsin – Parietal cells
C. HCl – Goblet cells
D. Mucus – Oxyntic cells
Q. 144 Which of the following is true for a recessive disease in family A and B (Given in figure)?
A. In family A, both the parents are homozygous recessive
B. In family B, both the parents are homozygous dominant.
C. In family B, both the parents are heterozygous recessive.
D. In family A, both the parents are heterozygous recessive.
Q. 145 Which of the following is true for excretion in humans?
A. Glucose ad amino acids are reabsorbed in PCT by simple diffusion.
B. DCT is impermeable to water.
C. On an average, 25-30 gm of urea is excreted out per day.
D. Maximum reabsorption occurs in the loop of Henle.
Q. 146 Which of the following is not true for inbreeding?
A. It causes inbreeding depression after a few generations.
B. It always increases the productivity.
C. It is used to produce a pure line.
D. It leads to homozygosity.
Q. 147 Which of the following is the correct floral formula (among (a), (b), (c), (d)) for the floral diagram.
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 148 Which of the following is true for the function of labelled parts in the diagram?
A. A – Blind spot – Image is formed here
B. B – Fovea – No visual activity is present
C. C – Cornea – Helps to hold lens in place
D. D – Iris – Visible coloured portion of eye
Q. 149 Which of the following is true for the labelled parts in the figure?
A. A – Z – line – located at centre of I – band
B. B – Thin filament – occurs in A – band only
C. C – Thick filament – confined to I – band
D. D – H – zone – located at centre of M – line
Q. 150 Which of the following is correctly matched without exception in regard to plant classification?
A. Family – Poaceae – ae
B. Division – Pteridophyta – phyta
C. Class – Bryosida – sida
D. Genus – Solanum – um
Q. 151 What is the oxidation state of iron in haemoglobin ?
A. Fe⁻
B. Fe²⁺
C. Fe³⁺
D. Fe⁴⁺
Q. 152 In the table given in the figure, some organisms are classified into categories. However, there is one exception. Select the option with correctly mentioned exceptional organism.
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 153 Select the correct pair amongst the following:
A. Spring wood – light colour, high density
B. Spring wood – dark colour, low density
C. Autumn wood – light colour, high density
D. Autumn wood – dark colour, high density
Q. 154 Which of the following organelles contains DNA?
(i) Mitochondria
(ii) Chloroplast
(iii) Chloroplasts
(iv) Golgi bodies
(v) Ribosomes
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (i) only
D. (iv) only
Q. 155 Carbon dioxide (CO₂) diffuses into blood from tissue site and passes to alveolar site in the form of
A. bicarbonates; 70%
B. bicarbonate; 20 – 25%
C. carbaminohaemiglobin; 60 – 70%
D. carbaminohaemoglobin; 7%
Q. 156 Select the option having all the correct characteristic among (a), (b), (c), (d):
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 157 Chromatin is made up of:
A. DNA and protein
B. DNA and histone
C. DNA, RNA, protein
D. RNA, histone and oil bodies
Q. 158 A large quantity of urban sewage is drained to nearby village river. Which among the given conditions would happen after mixing of sewage into the river?
(i) Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of receiving water body increases.
(ii) Dissolved oxygen of receiving water body decreases.
(iii) It will not cause mortality among fishes and other aquatic creatures.
(iv) It will lead to nutrient enrichment of receiving water body.
A. (i), (ii) and (iii)
B. (i), (ii) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (iii) and (iv)
Q. 159 Which of the following plant growth regulators (PGRs) promotes root initiation, flowering and induced parthenocarpy?
A. Gibberellin
B. Auxin
C. Cytokinin
D. Ethylene
Q. 160 Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Nitrogen oxides
C. Peroxyacyl nitrates
D. All of these
Q. 161 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: A mutual exchange of sperms occur between two earthworms during mating.
Reason: Mature sperms and egg cells and nutritive fluid are deposited in cocoons produced by gland cells of clitellum.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 162 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: On plotting the length of the root against time, a linear curve is obtained.
Reason: An elongation root exemplifies arithmetic progression.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 163 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Small intestine is the principal organ for absorption of nutrients.
Reason: Absorption of water, simple sugars and alcohol etc takes place in small intestine.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 164 Assertion: On touching radial artery in our wrist, we feel pulse waves.
Reason: The heart beats originate from the sinoatrial node (SA node) on the right atrium.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 165 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: In a regular medical examination of a small population, a 35 years old lady was found to have higher levels of oestrogens, progesterone in her blood.
Reason: The lady is 12 weeks pregnant.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 166 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: While working on Staphylococci, Alexander Fleming observed that Penicillium notatum inhibits the growth of the bacteria.
Reason: This inhibiting chemical was commercially extracted and its full potential was established by Alexander Fleming.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 167 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Saccharomyces cerevisiae produces acetic acid.
Reason: Trichoderma polysporum produces blood cholestrol lowering agent.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 168 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Protostele is the simplest stele.
Reason: Protostele is the most advanced type of stele.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 169 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Rice field is an ecosystem for plants and animals.
Reason: Gut of human/animals is an ecosystem for flora and fauna.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 170 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own genome.
Reason: Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi body are the cell org
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 171 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Now-a-days, the biodiversity is declining with an accelerated rate.
Reason: Exotic’s species are confused to be a major cause of extinction of species.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 172 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Meiosis II is similar to mitosis.
Reason: Meiosis I cannot occur in haploid cells.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 173 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Periodic abstinence is a natural method where couples abstain from coitus.
Reason: Coitus from day 5-10 should be avoided because this is the time of ovulation.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 174 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Corpus callosum connects the two cerebral hemispheres.
Reason: Association areas are responsible for complex functions like intersensory
association of memory and communication
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 175 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Only a boy child could be born with a substituon of glutamic acid by valine on 6th codon of beta-chain of haemoglobin.
Reason: The gene for the above mutation is found on Y-chromosome .
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 176 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: The efficiency of C₄ plant is more than those of C₃ plant
Reason: C₄ plants are more efficient in picking CO₂
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 177 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Cattles feed on leaves of maize to get nutrition for growth and development.
Reason: A number of symbiotic bacteria are present in rumen of cattle
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 178 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: All proteinecous enzymes have a three-dimensional structures.
Reason: The secondary structure of protein is according to amino acid present inside the polypeptides.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 179 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Glutamine contains amide group.
Reason: Isoelectric point of glutamine is 7.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 180 In the following question, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Mark the correct choice:
Assertion: Duodenum is the main organ of small intestine.
Reason: In duodenum, digestion and absorption mainly occurs.
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 181 From whom does the Indian government take advice on legal issues?
A. Chief Justice of Court apex
B. Solicitor General
C. Chairman of Planning Commission
D. Attorney General
Q. 182 The Vice President of India is the Chairman of
A. Lok Sabha
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Vidhan Sabha
D. Legislative Assembly
Q. 183 Which of the following players won Miami Men’s Double Tennis – 2012 title?
A. Daniel Nestor and Radek Stepanek
B. Radek Stepanek and Leander Paes
C. Daniel Nestor and Max Mirnyi
D. Rohan Bopanna and Mahesh Bhupathi
Q. 184 Which ancient Indian sage authored ‘Yog Sutra’?
A. Patanjali
B. Kapil Muni
C. Saatchi Dananda
D. Gautam
Q. 185 Which Indian Mathematician first time in the world used zero as a number and showed its mathematical operation?
A. Aryabhatt
B. Ramanuja
C. Bhaskaracharya
D. Brahmagupta
Q. 186 Which Indian freedom fighter was popularly called ‘Mahamana’?
A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
B. Madan Mohan Malviya
C. Jawahar lal Nehru
D. Mahatma Gandhi
Q. 187 The book “Big Egos, Small Men” is written by
A. Mani Shankar Aiyr
B. Kapil Sibal
C. Ram Jethmalani
D. Soli Sorabjee
Q. 188 Which is the largest buddhist monastery in India?
A. Rumtek Monastery, Sikkim
B. Tawang Monastery, Arunachal Pradesh
C. Thisksey Monastery, Jammu and Kashmir
D. Ghoom Monastery, West Bengal
Q. 189 ‘Van Mahotsav Day’ is observed on
A. 1st December
B. 1st July
C. 23rd February
D. 14th March
Q. 190 The famous Kashi Vishwanath temple at Varanasi is dedicated to which Hindu god?
A. Lord Shiva
B. Lord Vishnu
C. Lord Brahma
D. Lord Krishna
Q. 191 Which Indian State celebrated its 77the foundation day on 1st April, 2013?
A. Gujarat
B. Odisha
C. Rajasthan
D. Tamil Nadu
Q. 192 According to Mahabharat who constructed the unparalled palace of the Pandavas?
A. Vishwakarma
B. Krishna
C. Indra
D. Manya Danava
Q. 193 Where was first share market of India established?
A. Mumbai
B. Kolkata
C. Delhi
D. Chennai
Q. 194 Garampani Sanctuary is located at
A. Diphu, Assam
B. Junagarh, Gujrat
C. Kohima, Nagaland
D. Gangtok, Sikkim
Q. 195 Maximum sugarcane production occurs in which country?
A. India
B. China
C. Brazil
D. Indonesia
Q. 196 Which of the following is not a green house gas?
A. Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
B. Nitrous oxide (N₂O)
C. Methane (CH₄)
D. Hydrogen (H₂)
Q. 197 Which first woman singer got the Bharat Ratna award and is also known as nightinagle of carnatic music?
A. M. S. Subbulaxmi
B. Shubha Mudgal
C. N. Rajam
D. Vasundhara Devi
Q. 198 For seeing objects on the surface of water from submarine, the instrument used is
A. kaleidoscope
B. periscope
C. telescope
D. spetroscope
Q. 199 Under the tenure of which Prime Minister did Indo-Pak war (1965) take place which ended with Tashkent Treaty?
A. Lal Bahadur Shastri
B. Jawaharlal Nehu
C. Gulzarilal Nanda
D. Morarji Desai
Q. 200 A famous writer who travelled to India with Mahmood Ghazni and wrote a book “Tareekhal- Hind”.
A. Abdul Hai Lakhnawi
B. Al- Biruni
C. Riyad-us-Saliheen
D. Ibn Kathir
| Answer Sheet |
||||||||||
| Question | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| Answer | A | D | B | C | D | A | D | A | A | C |
| Question | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| Answer | B | A | C | D | B | D | C | A | A | B |
| Question | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| Answer | D | B | A | C | D | A | B | B | C | C |
| Question | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| Answer | B | A | B | A | C | B | C | C | D | D |
| Question | 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| Answer | A | A | D | B | C | D | C | A | C | D |
| Question | 51 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 55 | 56 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 |
| Answer | C | B | C | A | A | D | A | C | A | D |
| Question | 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 |
| Answer | B | D | A | C | C | A | A | B | C | C |
| Question | 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 |
| Answer | D | A | A | B | A | A | A | A | D | B |
| Question | 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 |
| Answer | C | A | B | A | D | A | C | A | A | A |
| Question | 91 | 92 | 93 | 94 | 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 | 99 | 100 |
| Answer | B | A | C | A | D | D | C | A | A | D |
| Question | 101 | 102 | 103 | 104 | 105 | 106 | 107 | 108 | 109 | 110 |
| Answer | D | A | B | A | A | D | A | B | C | D |
| Question | 111 | 112 | 113 | 114 | 115 | 116 | 117 | 118 | 119 | 120 |
| Answer | B | B | C | A | D | C | C | D | C | A |
| Question | 121 | 122 | 123 | 124 | 125 | 126 | 127 | 128 | 129 | 130 |
| Answer | C | D | D | B | A | C | D | A | A | B |
| Question | 131 | 132 | 133 | 134 | 135 | 136 | 137 | 138 | 139 | 140 |
| Answer | C | D | D | D | A | B | A | C | C | C |
| Question | 141 | 142 | 143 | 144 | 145 | 146 | 147 | 148 | 149 | 150 |
| Answer | D | A | A | D | C | B | C | D | A | A |
| Question | 151 | 152 | 153 | 154 | 155 | 156 | 157 | 158 | 159 | 160 |
| Answer | B | C | D | A | A | B | C | B | B | C |
| Question | 161 | 162 | 163 | 164 | 165 | 166 | 167 | 168 | 169 | 170 |
| Answer | B | A | C | B | A | C | D | C | B | C |
| Question | 171 | 172 | 173 | 174 | 175 | 176 | 177 | 178 | 179 | 180 |
| Answer | B | B | C | B | D | A | A | B | C | D |
| Question | 181 | 182 | 183 | 184 | 185 | 186 | 187 | 188 | 189 | 190 |
| Answer | D | B | B | B | D | B | C | B | B | A |
| Question | 191 | 192 | 193 | 194 | 195 | 196 | 197 | 198 | 199 | 200 |
| Answer | B | D | A | A | C | D | A | B | A | B |
