Medical Entrance Exam - Vidhyarthi Darpan

NEET 2017 Previous Year Paper

NEET 2017

Q. 1 A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device to make electrical measurements of E.M.F. because the method involves :

A. cells

B. potential gradients

C. a condition of no current flow through the galvanometer

D. a combination of cells, galvanometer and resistances

Q. 2 A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O2 and 4 moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is :

A. 4 RT

B. 15 RT

C. 9 RT

D. 11 RT

Q. 3 Radioactive material ‘A’ has decay constant ‘8 x’ and material ‘B’has decay constant ‘x’. Initially they have same number of nuclei. After what time, the ratio of number of nuclei of material ‘B’ to that ‘A’ will be 1/e?

A. 1/x

B. 1/7x

C. 1/8x

D. 1/9x

Q. 4 A U tube with both ends open to the atmosphere, is partially filled with water. Oil, which is immiscible with water, is poured into one side until it stands at a distance of 10 mm above the water level on the other side. Meanwhile the water level on the other side. Meanwhile the water rises by 65 mm from its original level (see diagram). The density of the oil is:

A. 650 kg m^-3

B. 425 kg m^-3

C. 800 kg m^-3

D. 928 kg m^-3

Q. 5 A 250-turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 uA and subjected to a magnetic field of strength 0.85 T. Work done for rotating the coil by 180 degrees against the torque is :

A. 9.1 uJ

B. 4.55 uJ

C. 2.3 uJ

D. 1.15 uJ

Q. 6 The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T (Kelvin) and mass m, is:

A. h/√(mkT)

B. h/√(3mkT)

C. 2h/√(3mkT)

D. 2h/√(mkT)

Q. 7 One end of string of length l is connected to a particle of mass ‘m’ and the other end is connected to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in circle with speed ‘v’, the net force on the particle (directed towards center) will be (T represents the tension in the string)

A. T

B. T + mv^2/l

C. T – mv^2/l

D. Zero

Q. 8 Figure shows a circuit that contains three identical resistors with resistance R = 9.0 ohm each, two identical inductors with inductance L = 2.0 mH each, and an ideal battery with emf = 18 V. The current ‘i’ through the battery just after the switch closed is, …..

A. 2 mA

B. 0.2 A

C. 2 A

D. 0 ampere

Q. 9 The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time are x = 5t – 2t^2 and y = 10t respectively, where x and y are in meters and t in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at t = 2s is:

A. 0

B. 5 m/s^2

C. -4 m/s^2

D. -8 m/s^2

Q. 10 Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ slightly. One of them is -e, the other is (e + change in e). If the net of electrostatic force and gravitational force between two hydrogen atoms placed at a distance d (much greater than atomic size) apart is zero, then change in e is of the order of [Given mass of hydrogen mh = 1.67 x 10^-27 kg]

A. 10^-20 C

B. 10^-23 C

C. 10^-37 C

D. 10^-47 C

Q. 11 Two rods A and B of different materials are welded together as shown in figure. Their thermal conductivities are K1 and K2. The thermal conductivity of the composite rod will be:

A. K1+K2/2

B. 3(K1+K2)/2

C. K1+K2

D. 2(K1+K2)

Q. 12 The diagrams show regions of equipotentials. A positive charge is moved from A to B in each diagram.

A. Maximum work is required to move q in figure (c).

B. In all the four cases the work done is the same.

C. Minimum work is required to move q in figure (a).

D. Maximum work is required to move q in figure (b).

Q. 13 The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer series and the last line of Lyman series is :

A. 2

B. 1

C. 4

D. 0.5

Q. 14 Young’s double slit experiment is first performed in air and then in a medium other than air. It is found that 8th bright fringe in the medium lies where 5th dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the medium is nearly:

A. 1.25

B. 1.59

C. 1.69

D. 1.78

Q. 15 A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 3 cm. When the particle is at 2 cm from the mean position, the magnitude of its velocity s equal to that of its acceleration. Then its time period in seconds is:

A. Root of 5/pi

B. Root of 5/2pi

C. 4pi/root of 5

D. 2pi/root of 3

Q. 16 Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the given diagram. Match the following:

Column-1 Column-2

P. Process I a. Adiabatic

Q. Process II b. Isobaric

R. Process III c. Isochoric

S. Process IV d. Isothermal

A. P–>a, Q–>c, R–>d, S–>b

B. P–>c, Q–>a, R–>d, S–>b

C. P–>c, Q–>d, R–>b, S–>a

D. P–>d, Q–>b, R–>a, S–>c

Q. 17 A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is removed and another identical uncharged capacitor is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic energy of resulting system :

A. increases by a factor of 4

B. decreases by a factor of 2

C. remains the same

D. increases by a factor of 2

Q. 18 The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is 3250 x 10^-10 m. The velocity of the electron ejected from a silver surface by ultraviolet light of wavelength 2536 x 10^-10 m is :

(Given h = 4.14 x 10^-15 eVs and c = 3 x 10^8 ms^-1)

A. approximately 6 x 10^5 m/s

B. approximately 0.6 x 10^4 m/s

C. approximately 61 x 10^3 m/s

D. approximately 0.3 x 10^6 m/s

Q. 19 A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that can be formed out of c, G and e^2/4piE0 is [c is velocity of light, G is universal constant of gravitation and e is charge] :

A. 1/c^2 [G e^2/4piE0]^(1/2)

B. c^2 [G e^2/4piE0]^(1/2)

C. 1/c^2 [e^2/G4piE0]^(1/2)

D. 1/c [G e^2/4piE0]

Q. 20 Two cars moving in opposite directions approach each other with speed of 22 m/s and 16.5 m/s respectively. The driver of the first car blows a horn having a frequency 400 Hz. The frequency heard by the driver of the second car is [velocity of sound 340 m/s]:

A. 350 Hz

B. 361 Hz

C. 411 Hz

D. 448 Hz

Q. 21 In a common emitter transistor amplifier the audio signal voltage across the collector is 3 V. The resistance of collector is 3 k ohm. If current gain is 100 and the base resistance is 2 k ohm, the voltage and power gain of the amplifier is:

A. 200 and 1000

B. 15 and 200

C. 150 and 15000

D. 20 and 2000

Q. 22 Which one of the following represents forward bias diode?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 23 A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio 1:2:3. They are connected in series and the new force constant is k’.Then they are connected in parallel and force constant is k”. Then k’:k”is :

A. 1:6

B. 1:9

C. 1:11

D. 1:14

Q. 24 The given electrical network is equivalent to:

A. AND gate

B. OR gate

C. NOR gate

D. NOT gate

Q. 25 The acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 km above the earth is the same as at a depth d below the surface of earth. Then :

A. d = 1/2 km

B. d = 1 km

C. d = 3/2 km

D. d = 2 km

Q. 26 Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with the centre of gravity of the body.

(b) Centre of mass of a body is the point at which the total gravitational torque on the body is zero.

(d) Mechanical advantage greater than one means that small effort can be used to lift a

large load.

A. (b) and (d)

B. (a) and (b)

C. (b) and (c)

D. (c) and (d)

Q. 27 A carnot engine having an efficiency of 1/10 as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on the system is 10J, the amount of energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature is:

A. 1 J

B. 90 J

C. 99 J

D. 100 J

Q. 28 If x1 and x2 be the apparent angles of dip observed in two vertical planes at right angles to each other, then the true angle of dip x is given by:

A. cot^2(x) = cot^2x(1) + cot^2(x2)

B. tan^(2x) = tan^2(x1) + tan^2(x2)

C. cot^(2x) = cot^2(x1) – cot^2(x2)

D. tan^(2x) = tan^2(x1) – tan^2(x2)

Q. 29 An arrangement of three parallel straight wires placed perpendicular to plane of paper carrying same current ‘I’ along the same direction is shown in Fug. Magnitude of force per unit length on the middle wire ‘B’ is given by:

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 30 two astronauts are floating in gravitational free space after having lost contact with their spaceship. The two will:

A. keep floating at the same distance between them.

B. move towards each other.

C. move away from each other.

D. will become stationary.

Q. 31 In an electromagnetic wave in free space the root mean square value of the electric field is Erms = 6V/m. The peak value of the magnetic field is :

A. 1.41 x 10⁻⁸ T

B. 2.83 x 10⁻⁸ T

C. 0.70 x 10⁻⁸ T

D. 4.23 x 10⁻⁸ T

Q. 32 The bulk modulus of a spherical object is ‘B’. If it is subjected to uniform pressure ‘p’, the fractional decrease in

radius is :

A. p/B

B. B/3p

C. 3p/B

D. p/3B

Q. 33 The ratio of resolving powers of an optical microscope for two wavelengths x1 = 4000 A and x2 = 6000 A is :

A. 8:27

B. 9:4

C. 3:2

D. 16:81

Q. 34 Consider a drop of rain water having mass 1 g falling from a height of 1 km. It hits the ground with a speed of 50 m/s. Take ‘g’ constant with a value 10 m/s^2. The work done by the (i) gravitational force and the (ii) resistive force of air is :

A. (i) -10 J (ii) -8.25 J

B. (i) 1.25 J (ii) -8.25 J

C. (i) 100 J (ii) 8.75 J

D. (i) 10 J (ii) -8.75 J

Q. 35 A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm radiates 450 watt power at 500 K. If the radius were halved and the temperature doubled, the power radiated in watt would be :

A. 225

B. 450

C. 1000

D. 1800

Q. 36 Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m respectively are connected by a massless and inextensible string. The whole system is suspended by a massless spring as shown in figure. The magnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately after the string is cut, are respectively:

A. g, g/3

B. g/3, g

C. g, g

D. g/3, g/3

Q. 37 Two polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their axis perpendicular to each other.

Unpolarised light I0 is incident on P1. A third polaroid P3 is kept in between P1 and P2 such that its axis makes an angle 45 degrees with that of P1. The intensity of transmitted light through P2 is :

A. I0/2

B. I0/4

C. I0/8

D. I0/16

Q. 38 A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 x 10^4 turns per meter. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of 100 turns and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis coinciding with the solenoid axis. The current in the solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0A from 4A in 0.05 s. If the resistance of the coil is 10 pip^2 ohm, the total charge flowing through the coil during this time is:

A. 32 pi uC

B. 16 uC

C. 32 uC

D. 16 pi uC

Q. 39 Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about their regular axis passing through centre and perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular velocities w1 and w2. They are brought into contact face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The expression for loss of energy during this process is:

A. 1/2 I (w1+w2)^2

B. 1/4 I (w1-w2)^2

C. I (w1-w2)^2

D. I/8 (w1-w2)^2

Q. 40 Preeti reached the metro station and found that the escalator was not working. She walked up the stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, if she remains stationary on the moving escalator, then the escalator takes her up in time t2. The time taken by her to walk up on the moving escalator will be :

A. t1+t2/2

B. t1t2/t2-t1

C. t1t2/t2+t1

D. t1 – t2

Q. 41 A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30 N?

A. 25 m/s^2

B. 0.25 rad/s^2

C. 25 rad/s^2

D. 5 m/s^2

Q. 42 A beam of light from a source L is incident normally on a plane mirror fixed at a certain distance x from the source. The beam is reflected back at a spot on a scale placed just above the source L. When the mirror is rotated through a small angle x, the spot of the light is found to move through a distance y on the scale. The angle x is given by:

A. y/2x

B. y/x

C. x/2y

D. x/y

Q. 43 The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one end and open at other end are 220 Hz and 260 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of the system?

A. 10 Hz

B. 20 Hz

C. 30 Hz

D. 40 Hz

Q. 44 A thin prism having refracting angle 10 degrees is made of glass of refractive index 1.42. This prism is combined with another thin prism of glass of refractive index 1.7. This combination produces dispersion without deviation. The refracting angle of second prism should be:

A. 4 degrees

B. 6 degrees

C. 8 degrees

D. 10 degrees

Q. 45 The resistance of a wire is ‘R’ ohm. If it is melted and stretched to ‘n’ times its original length, its new resistance will be:

A. nR

B. R/n

C. n^2R

D. R/n^2

Q. 46 With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of the following statements is true?

A. Bond angle remains same but bond length changes

B. Bond angle changes but bond length remains same

C. Both bond angle and bond length change

D. Both bond angles and bond length remains same

Q. 47 Which of the following pairs of compounds is isoelectronic and isostructural?

A. BeCl2, XeI2

B. TeI2, XeF2

C. IBr2^-, XeF2

D. IF3, XeF2

Q. 48 HgCl2 and I2 both when dissolved in water containing I^- ions the pair of species formed is :

A. HgI2, I3^-

B. HgI2, I^-

C. HgI4^2-, I3^-

D. Hg2I2, I^-

Q. 49 Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as :

A. analgesic

B. antiseptic

C. antipyretic

D. antibiotic

Q. 50 Which is the incorrect statement?

A. FeO0.98 has non stoichiometric metal deficiency defect

B. Density decreases in case of crystals with Schottky’s defect

C. NaCl(s) is insulator, silicon is semiconductor, silver is conductor, quartz is piezo

electric crystal

D. Frenkel defect is favoured in those ionic compounds in which sizes of cation and

anions are not equal

Q. 51 Concentration of the Ag^+ ions in a saturated solution of Ag2C2O4 is 2.2 x 10^-4 mol L^-1. Solubility product of Ag2C2O4 is:

A. 2.42 x 10^-8

B. 2.66 x 10^-12

C. 4.5 x 10^-11

D. 3.33 x 10^-12

Q. 52 Of the following, which is the product formed when cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation followed by heating?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 53 The species, having bond angles of 120 degrees is :

A. PH3

B. ClF3

C. NCl3

D. BCl3

Q. 54 If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal depression constant (Kf) will be:

A. doubled

B. halved

C. tripled

D. unchanged

Q. 55 Which one is the most acidic compound?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 56 It is because of nability of ns^2 electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding that:

A. Sn^2+ is reducing while Pb^4+ is oxidising

B. Sn^2+ is oxidising while Pb^4+ is reducing

C. Sn^2+ and Pb^4+ are both oxidising and reducing

D. Sn^4+ is reducing while Pb^4+ is oxidising

Q. 57 Predict the correct intermediate and product in the given reaction.

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 58 Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. Catalyst does not initiate any reaction.

B. The value of equilibrium constant is changed in the presence of a catalyst in the

reaction at equilibrium.

C. Enzymes catalyse mainly bio-chemical reactions.

D. Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity of enzyme.

Q. 59 Which one is the wrong statement?

A. de-Broglie’s wavelength is given by h/mv where m = mass of the particle, v = group velocity of the particle

B. The uncertainty principle is change in E x change in t >= h/4pi

C. Half filled and fully filled orbitals have greater stability due to greater exchange

energy, greater symmetry and more balanced arrangement.

D. The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms.

Q. 60 A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated container against a constant external pressure of 2.5 atm from an initial volume of 2.50 L to a final volume of 4.50 L. The change in internal energy change in U of the gas in joules will be :

A. 1136.25 J

B. -500 J

C. -505 J

D. +505 J

Q. 61 Consider the reactions. Identify A, X, Y and Z

A. A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanoic acid, Y-Acetate ion, Z-hydrazine

B. A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanol, Y-Ethanoic acid, Z-Semicarbazide

C. A-Ethanal, X-Ethanol, Y-But-2-enal, Z-Semicarbazone

D. A-Ethanol, X-Acetaldehyde, Y-Butanone, Z-Hydrazone

Q. 62 Which one is the correct order of acidity?

A. (1)

B. (2)

C. (3)

D. (4)

Q. 63 In the electrochemical cell :

Zn|ZnSO4(0.01 M)|| CuSO4(1.0 M)|Cu, the emf of this Daniel cell is E1. When the concentration of ZnSO4 is changed to 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 is changed to 0.01 M, the emf changes to E2. From the followings, which one is the relationship between E1 and E2?

(Given, RT/F = 0.059)

A. E1 = E2

B. E1 < E2

C. E1 > E2

D. E2 = 0 is not = E1

Q. 64 The correct increasing order of basic strength for the following compounds is:

A. II < III < I

B. III < I < II

C. III < II < I

D. II < I < III

Q. 65 In which pair of ions both the species contain S – S bond?

A. S2O7^2-, S2O3^2-

B. S4O6^2-, S2O3^2-

C. S2O7^2-, S2O8^2-

D. S4O6^2-, S2O7^2-

Q. 66 The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl formed when AgNO3 in excess is treated with the complexes: CoCl3.6NH3, CoCl3.5NH3, CoCl2.4NH3 respectively is:

A. 1AGCl, 3AgCl, 2AgCl

B. 3AGCl, 1AgCl, 2AgCl

C. 3AGCl, 2AgCl, 1AgCl

D. 2AGCl, 3AgCl, 1AgCl

Q. 67 Match the interhalogen compounds of column I with the geometry in column II and assign the correct code.

Column I Column II

(a) XX (i) T-shape

(b) XX3 (ii) Pentagonal bipyramidal

(d) XX7 (iv) Square-pyramidal

(v) Tetrahedral

A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

C. (a)-(v), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Q. 68 The reason for greater range of oxidation states in actinoids is attributed to:

A. the radioactive nature of actinoids

B. actinoid contraction

C. 5d, 6d and 7s levels having comparable energies

D. 4d and 5d levels being close in energies

Q. 69 A 20 litre container at 400 K contains CO2(g) at pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of SrO (neglect the volume of solid SrO). The volume of the container is now decreased by moving the movable piston fitted in the container, when pressure of CO2 attains its maximum value, will be:

A. 5 litre

B. 10 litre

C. 4 litre

D. 2 litre

Q. 70 The correct statement regarding electrophile is:

A. Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile

B. Electrophile is a negatively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from another electrophile

C. Electrophile are generally neutral species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile

D. Electrophile can be either neutral or positively charged species and can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile

Q. 71 Which of the following is a sink for CO?

A. Haemoglobin

B. Micro organisms present in the soil

C. Oceans

D. Plants

Q. 72 The element Z = 114 has been discovered recently. It will belong to which of the following family/group and electronic configuration?

A. Halogen family, [Rn] 5f^14 6d^10 7s^2 7p^5

B. Carbon family, [Rn] 5f^14 6d^10 7s^2 7p^2

C. Oxygen family, [Rn] 5f^14 6d^10 7s^2 7p^4

D. Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5f^14 6d^10 7s^2 7p^6

Q. 73 Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region for the complexes of Co^3+ is:

A. [Co(en)3]^3+, [Co(NH3)6]^3+, [Co(H2O)6]^3+

B. [Co(H2O)6]^3+, [Co(en)3]^3+, [Co(NH3)6]^3+

C. [Co(H2O)6]^3+, [Co(NH3)6]^3+, [Co(en)3]^3+

D. [Co(NH3)6]^3+, [Co(en)3]^3+, [Co(H2O)6]^3+

Q. 74 Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. Insulin maintains sugar level in the blood of a human body

B. Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg-white

C. Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are involved in blood clotting

D. Denaturation makes the proteins more active

Q. 75 An example of a sigma bonded organometallic compound is:

A. Ruthenocene

B. Grignard’s reagent

C. Ferrocene

D. Cobaltocene

Q. 76 Which of the following is dependent on temperature?

A. Molality

B. Molarity

C. Mole fraction

D. Weight percentage

Q. 77 For a given reaction, change in H = 35.5 kJ mol^-1 and change in S = 83.6 JK^-1 mol^-1. The reaction is spontaneous at: (Assume that change in H and change in S do not vary with temperature)

A. T < 425 K

B. T > 425 K

C. all temperatures

D. T > 298 K

Q. 78 The most suitable method of separation of 1:1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is

A. Sublimation

B. Chromatography

C. Crystallisation

D. Steam distillation

Q. 79 Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order?

A. CO, NO

B. O2, NO^+

C. CN^-, CO

D. N2, O2^-

Q. 80 Identify A and predict the type of reaction

A. and substitution reaction

B. and elimination addition reaction

C. and cine substitution reaction

D. and cine substitution reaction

Q. 81 A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of 10^-2 sec^-1. How much time will it take for 20 g of the reactant to reduce to 5 g?

A. 238.6 sec

B. 138.6 sec

C. 346.5 sec

D. 693.0 sec

Q. 82 Name the gas that can readily decolourise acidified KMnO4 solution :

A. CO2

B. SO2

C. NO2

D. P2O5

Q. 83 The heating of phenyl-methyl ethers with HI produces

A. ethyl chlorides

B. iodobenzene

C. phenol

D. benzene

Q. 84 Pick out the correct statement with respect to [Mn(CN)6]^3- :

A. It is sp^3d^2 hybridised and octahedral

B. It is sp^3d^2 hybridised and tetrahedral

C. It is d^2sp^3 hybridised and octahedral

D. It is dsp^2 hybridised and square planar

Q. 85 Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali metal ions is lowest when aqueous solution of their salts are put under an electric field?

A. Na

B. K

C. Rb

D. Li

Q. 86 Using the given information, the equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction will be :

A. K1(K3)^3/K2

B. K2(K3)^3/K1

C. K2K3/K1

D. (K2)^3K3/K1

Q. 87 Which of the following reactions is appropriate for converting acetamide to methanamine?

A. Carbylamine reaction

B. Hoffmann hypobromamide reaction

C. Stephens reaction

D. Gabriels phthalimide synthesis

Q. 88 Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction X2 + Y2 —-> 2XY is given. The overall order of the reaction will be:

A. 1

B. 2

C. 0

D. 1.5

Q. 89 The IUPAC name of the compound

A. 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal

B. 5-formylhex-2-en-3-one

C. 5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al

D. 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal

Q. 90 Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with CN^- ion. Silver is later recovered by:

A. liquation

B. distillation

C. zone refining

D. displacement with Zn

Q. 91 Double fertilization in exhibited by:

A. Gymnosperms

B. Algae

C. Fungi

D. Angiosperms

Q. 92 Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions?

A. Archaebacteria

B. Eubacteria

C. Cyanobacteria

D. Mycobacteria

Q. 93 Select the mismatch:

A. Frankia – Alnus

B. Rhodospirillum – Mycorrhiza

C. Anabaena – Nitrogen fixer

D. Rhizobium – Alfalfa

Q. 94 What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel

electrophoresis?

A. The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves

B. The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves

C. Positively charged fragments move to farther end

D. Negatively charged fragments do not move

Q. 95 Attractants and rewards are required for:

A. Anemophily

B. Entomophily

C. Hydrophily

D. Cleistogamy

Q. 96 Which of the following is made up of dead cells?

A. Xylem parenchyma

B. Collenchyma

C. Phellem

D. Phloem

Q. 97 Which cells of Çrypts of Lieberkuhn’ secrete antibacterial lysozyme?

A. Argentaffin cells

B. Paneth cells

C. Zymogen cells

D. Kupffer cells

Q. 98 Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate explanation for this feature?

(a) They do not need to reproduce

(b) They are somatic cells

(d) All their internal space is available for oxygen transport

A. Only (d)

B. Only (a)

C. (a), (c) and (d)

D. (b) and (c)

Q. 99 The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from

A. Heart

B. Stomach

C. Kidneys

D. Intestine

Q. 100 The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from the experiments of:

A. Griffith

B. Hershey and Chase

C. Avery, Mcleod and McCarty

D. Hargobind Khorana

Q. 101 Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen?

A. Bacillus

B. Pseudomonas

C. Mycoplasma

D. Nostoc

Q. 102 Which of the following options gives the correct sequence of events during mitosis?

A. condensation –> nuclear membrane disassembly –> crossing over –> segregation –> telophase

B. condensation –> nuclear membrane disassembly –> arrangement at equator –>

centromere division –> segregation –> telophase

C. condensation –> crossing over –> nuclear membrane disassembly –> segregation –> telophase

D. condensation –> arrangement at equator –> centromere division –> segregation –> telophase

Q. 103 Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to enzymes?

A. Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme

B. Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme

C. Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme

D. Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor

Q. 104 During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to elongate :

A. The leading strand towards replication fork.

B. The lagging strand towards replication fork.

C. The leading strand away from replication fork.

D. The lagging strand away from replication fork.

Q. 105 Which of the following are not polymeric?

A. Nucleic acids

B. Proteins

C. Polysaccharides

D. Lipids

Q. 106 The region of Biosphere Reserve which is legally protected and where no human activity is allowed is known as :

A. Core zone

B. Buffer zone

C. Transition zone

D. Restoration zone

Q. 107 The dioecious flowering plant prevents both:

A. Autogamy and xenogamy

B. Autogamy and geitonogamy

C. Geitonogamy and xenogamy

D. Cleistogamy and xenogamy

Q. 108 A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is :

A. Pineal gland

B. Corpus cardiacum

C. Corpus luteum

D. Corpus allatum

Q. 109 Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (Column-I) with their causative agents

(Column-II) and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV

(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria

(d) AIDS (iv) Human Papilloma – Virus

A. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

C. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii, (d)-(i)

D. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Q. 110 Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient’s body. Which type of immune-response is responsible for such rejections?

A. Autoimmune response

B. Cell-mediated immune response

C. Hormonal immune response

D. Physiological immune response

Q. 111 Spliceosomes are not found in cells of:

A. Plants

B. Fungi

C. Animals

D. Bacteria

Q. 112 An example of colonial alga is:

A. Chlorella

B. Volvox

C. Ulothrix

D. Spirogyra

Q. 113 Which of the following represents order of ‘Horses’?

A. Equidae

B. Perissodactyla

C. Caballus

D. Ferus

Q. 114 Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form ATP?

A. Lysosome

B. Ribosome

C. Chloroplast

D. Mitochondrion

Q. 115 The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called:

A. Upstream processing

B. Downstream processing

C. Bioprocessing

D. Postproduction processing

Q. 116 Mycorrhizae are the example of:

A. Fungistasis

B. Amensalism

C. Antibiosis

D. Mutualism

Q. 117 Viroids differ from viruses in having:

A. DNA molecules with protein coat

B. DNA molecules without protein coat

C. RNA molecules with protein coat

D. RNA molecules without protein coat

Q. 118 Root hairs develop from the region of:

A. Maturation

B. Elongation

C. Root cap

D. Meristematic activity

Q. 119 Coconut fruit is a:

A. Drupe

B. Berry

C. Nut

D. Capsule

Q. 120 Plants which produce characteristic pneumatophores and show vivipary belong to:

A. Mesophytes

B. Halophytes

C. Psammophytes

D. Hydrophytes

Q. 121 Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ conservation of threatened animals and plants?

A. Wildlife Safari parks

B. Biodiversity hot spots

C. Amazon rainforest

D. Himalayan region

Q. 122 Select the mismatch:

A. Pinus – Dioecious

B. Cycas – Dioecious

C. Salvinia – Heterosporous

D. Equisetum – Homosporous

Q. 123 Which of the following facilitates opening of stomatal aperture?

A. Contraction of outer wall of guard cells

B. Decrease in turgidity of guard cells

C. Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells

D. Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells

Q. 124 The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates :

A. Transcription is occurring.

B. DNA replication is occurring.

C. The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin Fibre.

D. The DNA double helix is exposed.

Q. 125 The DNA fragments are:

A. Positively charged

B. Negatively charged

C. Neutral

D. Either positively or negatively charged depending on their size

Q. 126 Capacitation occurs in:

A. Rete testis

B. Epididymis

C. Vas deferens

D. Female Reproductive tract

Q. 127 Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass?

A. Forest ecosystem

B. Grassland ecosystem

C. Pond ecosystem

D. Lake ecosystem

Q. 128 A disease caused by an autosomal primary non-disjunction is:

A. Down’s Syndrome

B. Klinefelter’s Syndrome

C. Turner’s Syndrome

D. Sickle Cell Anemia

Q. 129 Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are:

A. Haplontic, Diplontic

B. Diplontic, Haplodiplontic

C. Haplodiplontic, Diplontic

D. Haplodiplontic, Haplontic

Q. 130 If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered?

A. 1

B. 11

C. 33

D. 333

Q. 131 The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of

A. fibrous joint

B. cartilaginous joint

C. synovial joint

D. saddle joint

Q. 132 A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as :

A. Selectable marker

B. Vector

C. Plasmid

D. Structural gene

Q. 133 Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical layers depending on their height can be seen in :

A. Tropical Savannah

B. Tropical Rain Forest

C. Grassland

D. Temperate Forest

Q. 134 A genotypes of a Husband and Wife are (I)^A(I)^B at (I)^Ai.

Among the blood types of their children, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?

A. 3 genotypes; 3 phenotypes

B. 3 genotypes; 4 phenotypes

C. 4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes

D. 4 genotypes; 4 phenotypes

Q. 135 Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of :

A. Marchantia

B. Fucus

C. Funaria

D. Chlamydomonas

Q. 136 Which of the following is correctly matched for the product produced by them?

A. Acetobacter aceti : Antibiotics

B. Methanobacterium : Lactic acid

C. Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid

D. Sacchromyces cerevisiae : Ethanol

Q. 137 Frog’s heart when taken out of the body continues to beat for sometime. Select the best option from the following statements.

(a) Frog is poikilotherm.

(b) Frog does not have any coronary circulation.

(d) Heart is autoexcitable.

A. Only (c)

B. Only (d)

C. (a) and (b)

D. (c) and (d)

Q. 138 Which statement is wrong for Krebs’ cycle?

A. There are three points in the cycle where NAD^+ is reduced to NADH+H^+

B. There is one point in the cycle where FAD^+ is reduced to FADH2

C. During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised

D. The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield citric acid

Q. 139 In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called :

A. ostia

B. oscula

C. choanocytes

D. mesenchymal cells

Q. 140 Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cell?

A. r-RNA

B. t-RNA

C. m-RNA

D. mi-RNA

Q. 141 Which among these is the correct combination of aquatic mammals?

A. Seals, Dolphins, Sharks

B. Dolphins, Seals, Trygon

C. Whales, Dolphins, Seals

D. Trygon, Whales, Seals

Q. 142 With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis, which of the following statements is not correct?

A. Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% of full sunlight

B. Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration up to 0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate

C. C3 plants respond to higher temperature with enhanced photosynthesis while C4

plants have much lower temperature optimum

D. Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be grown in CO2 – enriched atmosphere for higher yield

Q. 143 Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when :

A. The value of ‘r’ approaches zero

B. K = N

C. K > N

D. K < N

Q. 144 Out of ‘X’ pairs of rivs in humans only ‘Y’ pairs are true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents values of X and Y and provides their explanation.

A. X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum

B. X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and sternum on the two ends

C. X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on

ventral side.

D. X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on

ventral side.

Q. 145 The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with :

A. Bromophenol blue

B. Acetocarmine

C. Aniline blue

D. Ethidium bromide

Q. 146 Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into :

A. Ovule

B. Endosperm

C. Embryo sac

D. Embryo

Q. 147 Among the following characters, which one was not considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea?

A. Stem – Tall or Dwarf

B. Trichomes – Glandular or non-glandular

C. Seed – Green or Yellow

D. Pod – Inflated or Constricted

Q. 148 Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because of :

A. Residual Volume

B. Inspiratory Reserve Volume

C. Tidal Volume

D. Expiratory Reserve Volume

Q. 149 GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts on :

A. anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin.

B. anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH.

C. posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH.

D. posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and relaxin.

Q. 150 In Bougainvillae thorns are the modifications of :

A. Stipules

B. Adventitious root

C. Stem

D. Leaf

Q. 151 Which from those given below is the period for Mendel’s hybridization experiments?

A. 1856 – 1863

B. 1840 – 1850

C. 1857 – 1869

D. 1870 – 1877

Q. 152 Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene-rick food.

Select the best option from the following statements.

(a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene.

(b) The photopigments are embedded in the membrane discs of the inner segment.

(d) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual photopigments.

A. (a) and (b)

B. (a), (c) and (d)

C. (a) and (c)

D. (b), (c) and (d)

Q. 153 Which one of the following statements is not valid for aerosols?

A. They are harmful to human health

B. They alter rainfall and monsoon patterns

C. They cause increased agricultural productivity

D. They have negative impact on agricultural land

Q. 154 A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause he release of :

A. Renin

B. Atrial Natriuretic Factor

C. Aldosterone

D. ADH

Q. 155 Homozygous purelines in cattle can be obtained by:

A. mating of related individuals of same breed

B. mating of unrelated individuals of same breed

C. mating of individuals of different breed

D. mating of individuals of different species

Q. 156 The vascular cambium normally gives rise to :

A. Phelloderm

B. Primary phloem

C. Secondary xylem

D. Periderm

Q. 157 Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water

B. The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water

C. The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water

D. The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes

Q. 158 Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented by the application of:

A. Cytokinins

B. Ethylene

C. Auxins

D. Gibberellic acid

Q. 159 A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play school and passes through a dental checkup. The dentist observed that the boy had twenty teeth. Which teeth were absent?

A. Incisors

B. Canines

C. Pre-molars

D. Molars

Q. 160 An important characteristic that Hemichordates share with Chordates is:

A. absence of notochord

B. ventral tubular nerve cord

C. pharynx with gill slits

D. pharynx without gill slits

Q. 161 Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents:

A. stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this character in the population

B. directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction

C. disruptive as it splits the population into two, one yielding higher output and the

other lower output

D. stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes the population to produce higher

yielding cows

Q. 162 Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs:

A. Testes –> Bidder’s canal –> Kidney –> Vasa efferentia –> Urinogenital duct –> Cloaca

B. Testes –> Vasa efferentia –> Kidney –> Seminal Vesicle –> Urinogenital duct –> Cloaca

C. Testes –> Vasa efferentia –> Bidder’s canal –> Ureter –> Cloaca

D. Testes –> Vasa efferentia –> Kidney –> Bidder’s canal –> Urinogenital duct –> Cloaca

Q. 163 Which of the following options best represents the enzyme composition of pancreatic juice?

A. amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin

B. amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase

C. peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin

D. lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase

Q. 164 Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO2 acceptor in:

A. C3 plants

B. C4 plants

C. C2 plants

D. C3 and C4 plants

Q. 165 The morphological nature of the edible part of coconut is:

A. Perisperm

B. Cotyledon

C. Endosperm

D. Pericarp

Q. 166 Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a protein degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis of animal cells. If APC is defective in a human cell, which of the following is expected to occur?

A. Chromosomes will not condense

B. Chromosomes will be fragmented

C. Chromosomes will not segregate

D. Recombination of chromosome arms will occur

Q. 167 MALT constitutes about ________ percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.

A. 50%

B. 20%

C. 70%

D. 10%

Q. 168 Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on:

A. membranes of synaptic vescicles

B. pre-synaptic membrane

C. tips of axons

D. post-synaptic membrane

Q. 169 Hypersecretion of Growth Hormone in adults does not cause further increase in height, because :

A. Growth Hormone becomes inactive in adults

B. Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence

C. Bones loose their sensitivity to Growth Hormone in adults

D. Muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth.

Q. 170 Alexander Von Humbolt described for the first time:

A. Ecological Biodiversity

B. Laws of limiting factor

C. Species area relationships

D. Population Growth equation

Q. 171 Myelin sheath is produced by:

A. Schwann Cells and Oligodendrocytes

B. Astrocytes and Schwann Cells

C. Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts

D. Osteoclasts and Astrocytes

Q. 172 In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for fertilisation?

A. Intrauterine transfer

B. Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer

C. Artificial Insemination

D. Intracytoplasmic sperm injection

Q. 173 Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell?

A. Cell wall

B. Nuclear membrane

C. Plasma mebrane

D. Glycoalyx

Q. 174 DNA replication in bacteria occurs:

A. During S phase

B. Within nucleolus

C. Prior to fission

D. Just before transcription

Q. 175 The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD’s is:

A. The suppress sperm mobility and ferilising capacity of sperms

B. They inhibit gametogenesis

C. They make uterus unsuitable for implantation

D. They inhibit ovulation.

Q. 176 Which of the following in sewage treatment removes suspended solids?

A. Tertiary treatment

B. Secondary treatment

C. Primary treatment

D. Sludge treatment

Q. 177 The water potential of pure water is:

A. Zero

B. Less than zero

C. More than zero but less than one

D. More than one

Q. 178 Identify the wrong statement in context of heartwood:

A. Organic compounds are deposited in it

B. It is highly durable

C. It conducts water and minerals efficiently

D. It comprises dead elements with highly lignified walls

Q. 179 Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select the correct statement.

A. Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis

B. Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis

C. Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules

D. Sickle cell anemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules

Q. 180 Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by:

A. Water

B. Bee

C. Wind

D. Bat

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	D	B	D	A	B	A	B	C	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	B	C	D	C	B	B	A	A	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	A	C	C	D	A	B	A	D	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	D	C	D	D	B	C	C	B	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	A	B	B	C	D	C	C	B	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	B	D	D	D	A	D	B	D	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	B	C	D	B	C	B	C	A	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	B	A	D	B	B	B	D	C	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	B	C	C	D	B	B	A	A	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	D	A	B	B	B	C	B	A	D	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	C	B	B	D	D	A	B	C	A	B
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	D	B	B	D	B	D	D	A	A	B
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	A	A	C	C	B	D	A	A	C	C
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	C	A	B	C	D	D	D	D	C	A
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	C	C	B	A	D	C	B	A	B	C
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	A	B	C	B	A	C	A	C	C	C
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	B	D	D	B	C	C	A	D	B	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	A	C	D	C	A	C	A	C	C	C

JIPMER MBBS 2013 Previous Year Paper

JIPMER MBBS 2013

Q. 1 A car of mass 1000 kg moves on a circular track of radius 40 m. If the coefficient of friction is 1.28. The maximum velocity with which the car can be moved is

A. 22.4 m/s

B. 112 m/s

C. (0.64 * 40)/ (1000 * 100) m/s

D. 1000 m/s

Q. 2 The escape velocity for the earth is 11.2 km/s. The mass of another planet 100 times mass of earth and its radius is 4 times radius of the earth. The escape velocity for the planet is

A. 280 km/s

B. 56.0 km/s

C. 112 km/s

D. 56 km/s

Q. 3 Light travels faster in air than that in glass. This is accordance with

A. wave theory of light

B. corpuscular theory of light

C. neither (a) nor (b)

D. Both (a) and (b)

Q. 4 The speed of air flow on the upper and lower surfaces of a wing of an aeroplane are v₁ and v₂ respectively. If A is the cross section area of the wing and p is the density of air, then the upward life is

A. 1/2ρA (v₂ – v₁)

B. 1/2ρA (v₂ + v₁)

C. 1/2ρA (v₁² – v₂²)

D. 1/2ρA (v₁² + v₂²)

Q. 5 A body is thrown with a velocity of 9.8 m/s making an angle of 30° with the horizontal. It will hit the ground after a time

A. 1.5 s

B. 1 s

C. 3 s

D. 2 s

Q. 6 A radioactive element ₉₀X²³⁸ decays into ₈₃Y²²². The number of β-particles emitted are

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 6

Q. 7 Minimum excitation potential of Bohr’s first orbit in hydrogen atom is

A. 3.6 V

B. 10.2 V

C. 13.6 V

D. 3.4 V

Q. 8 A gas expands 0.25 m³ at constant pressure 10³ N/m² , the work done is

A. 250 N

B. 250 W

C. 250 J

D. 2.5 erg

Q. 9 The work done in increasing the size of a soap film for 10 cm x 6 m to 10 cm x 11 cm is 3 x 10⁻⁴ J. The surface tension of the film is

A. 1.0 × 10⁻² N/m

B. 6.0 × 10⁻² N/m

C. 3.0 × 10⁻² N/m

D. 1.5 × 10⁻² N/m

Q. 10 A parallel plate condenser is filled with two dielectrics as shown in figure. Area of each pate is A m² and the separation is d metre. The dielectric constants are K₁ and K₂ respectively. Its capacitance in farad will be

A. (2ε₀A/d) * (K₁+K₂/K₁K₂)

B. (2ε₀A/d) * (K₁K₂/K₁+K₂)

C. (ε₀A/d) * (K₁+K₂/2 K₁K₂)

D. (ε₀AK₁K₂) / [2(d₂K₁ + d₁K₂)]

Q. 11 A luminous object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the convex lens of focal length 20 cm. On the other side of the lens, at what distance from the lens a convex mirror of radius of curvature 10 cm be placed in order to have an upright image of the object coincident with it.

A. 30 cm

B. 60 cm

C. 50 cm

D. 12 cm

Q. 12 A battery of emf 10 V and internal resistance of 0.5 ohm is connected across a variable resistance R. The maximum value of R is given by

A. 0.5 Ω

B. 1.0 Ω

C. 2.0 Ω

D. 0.25 Ω

Q. 13 For a R/Cᵥ gas = 0.67. This gas is made up of Cᵥ molecules which are

A. mono atomic

B. poly atomic

C. mixture of diatomic and poly atomic molecules

D. diatomic

Q. 14 A point source of light is placed 4 m below the surface of water of refractive index 5/3.The minimum diameter of a disc which should be placed over the source on the surface of water to cut-off all light coming out of water is

A. 6 m

B. 3 m

C. 4 m

D. 2 m

Q. 15 A moving body of mass m and velocity 3 km/h collides with a rest body of mass 2 m and stick to it. Now the combined mass starts to move. What will be the combined velocity?

A. 4 km/h

B. 1 km/h

C. 2 km/h

D. 3 km/h

Q. 16 A transverse wave is represented by the equation

y = y₀ sin (2π /λ ) – 27c (vt – k) π λ

For what value of X is the particle velocity equal to two times the wave velocity

A. λ = πy₀

B. λ = (πy₀/2)

C. λ = (πy₀/3)

D. λ = 2π/yₒ

Q. 17 Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Hydrogen atom on the ground state rarely excited by monochromatic radiation of photon 12.1 eV. The special line emitted by a hydrogen atom according to Bohr’s theory will be

A. one

B. two

C. three

D. four

Q. 18 The internal resistance of a primary cell is 4 Ω . It generates a current of 0.2 A in an external resistance of 21 Ω. The rate at which chemical energy to consumed in providing current is

A. 1 J/s

B. 5 J/s

C. 0.42 J/s

D. 0.8 J/s

Q. 19 The binding energy per nucleon is maximum in the case

A. ₉₂²³⁵U

B. ₅₆¹⁴¹Ba

C. ₂₆⁵⁶Fe

D. ₄²He

Q. 20 Two rigid bodies A and B rotate with rotational kinetic energies Eₓ and Eᵧ respectively. The moments of inertia of A and B about the axis of rotation are Iₓ and Iᵧ respectively.If Iₓ = Iᵧ and Eₓ = 100 = Eᵧ the ratio of 4 angular momentum (Lₓ) of X to the angular momentum(Lᵧ) of Y is

A. 25

B. 5/4

C. 5

D. 1/4

Q. 21 The working principle of a ball point pen is

A. Bernoulli’s theorem

B. surface tension

C. gravity

D. viscosity

Q. 22 Progressive waves are represented by the equation

y₁ = a sin (ωt – x)

and y₂= b cos ( ωt — x)

The phase difference between waves is

A. 0°

B. 45°

C. 90°

D. 180°

Q. 23 Two simple pendulums of length 0.5 m and 20 m respectively are given small linear displacement in one direction at the same time. They will again be in the phase when the pendulum of shorter length has completed x oscillations, where k is

A. 1

B. 3

C. 2

D. 5

Q. 24 A balloon contains 500 m³ of helium at 27°C and 1 atmosphere pressure. The volume of the helium at —3° C temperature and 0.5 atmosphere pressure will be

A. 1000 m³

B. 900 m³

C. 700³

D. 500³

Q. 25 220 V, 50 Hz, AC source is connected to an inductance of 0.2 H and a resistance of 20 Ω in series. What is the current in the circuit?

A. 3.33 m³

B. 33.3 m³

C. 5 A

D. 10 A

Q. 26 In 0.2 s, the current in a coil increases from 2.0 A to 3.0 A. If inductance of coil is 60 mH, then induced current in external resistance

A. 1 A

B. 0.5 A

C. 0.2 A

D. 0.1 A

Q. 27 Two coherent light beams of intensities I and 4I are superposed. The maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are

A. 5 / and /

B. 5 / and 3 /

C. 9 / and /

D. 9 / and 3 /

Q. 28 A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter should have

A. low resistance in series with its coil

B. low resistance in parallel with its coil

C. high resistance in series with its coil

D. high resistance in parallel with its coil

Q. 29 The equivalent resistance across A and B is

A. 2 Ω

B. 3 Ω

C. 4 Ω

D. 5 Ω

Q. 30 A black body has a wavelength of k at temperature 2000 K. Its corresponding wavelength at temperature 3000 K will be

A. 2λ/3

B. 3λ/2

C. 4λ/9

D. 9λ/4

Q. 31 At room temperature, copper has free electron density of 8.4 x 10²⁸ m⁻³. The electron drift velocity in a copper conductor of cross-sectional area of 10⁻⁶ m² and carrying a current of 5.4 A , will be

A. 4 ms⁻¹

B. 0.4 ms⁻¹

C. 4 cm s⁻¹

D. 0.4 mm s⁻¹

Q. 32 A uniform wire of resistance R and length L is cut into four equal parts, each of length L/4 which are then connected in parallel combination. The effective resistance of the combination will be

A. R

B. 4R

C. R/4

D. R/16

Q. 33 The half-life of radio isotope is 4 h. If initial mass of the isotope was 200 g, then mass remaining after 24 h will be

A. 1.042 g

B. 2.084 g

C. 3.125 g

D. 4.167 g

Q. 34 Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates?

A. OR

B. NOR

C. AND

D. NAND

Q. 35 The work function for metals A, B and C are respectively 1.92 eV , 2.0 eV and 5 eV. According to Einstein’s equation the metals which will emit photo, electrons for a radiation of wavelength 4100 Å is/are

A. none

B. A only

C. A and B only

D. All the three metals

Q. 36 Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a ground , where AB = a. The boy at B starts running in a direction perpendicular to AB with velocity v1. The boy at A starts running simultaneously with velocity u and catches the other boy in a time t , where t is

A. a / (√v² + v₁²)

B. √a² / (√v² – v₁²)

C. a / (v – v₁)

D. a / (v + v₁)

Q. 37 A 5 amp fuse wire can withstand a maximum power of 1 W in circuit. The resistance of the fuse wire is

A. 0.2 Ω

B. 5 Ω

C. 0.4 Ω

D. 0.04 Ω

Q. 38 A force F is given F = at + bt² , where, t is time. What are the dimensions of a and b?

A. [ MLT⁻¹ ] and [ MLT⁰ ]

B. [ MLT⁻³ ] and [ ML²T⁴ ]

C. [ MLT⁻⁴ ] and [ MLT¹ ]

D. [ MLT⁻³ ] and [ MLT⁻⁴ ]

Q. 39 Two equal negative charges – q are fixed at the point (0 , a) and (0 , – a) on the y-axis. A positive charge Q is released from rest at the point (2a , 0) on the x-axis. The charge will

A. execute SHM about the origin

B. move to the origin and remain at rest

C. move to infinity

D. execute oscillatory but not SHM

Q. 40 An ice-cube of density 900 kg/m³ is floating in water of density 1000 kg/m³. The percentage of volume of ice-cube outside the water is

A. 20%

B. 35%

C. 10%

D. 25%

Q. 41 Choose the correct answer

A. aromatisation

B. pyrolysis

C. isomerisation

D. oxidation

Q. 42 Number of hydrogen-bonded water molecules associated in CuSO₄ – 5H₀O is

A. one

B. two

C. three

D. all the five

Q. 43 Which of the following species do not show disproportionation on reaction?

ClO⁻, ClO₂⁻ ,ClO₃⁻ and ClO₄⁻

A. ClO₄⁻

B. ClO₃⁻

C. ClO⁻

D. none of these

Q. 44 Which one of the following acts as a nucleophile?

A. (CH₃)₃N

B. BF₃

C. N⁺0₂

D. CH₃ — C⁺ = 0

Q. 45 During estimation of nitrogen in the organic compound by Kjeldahl’s method, the

ammonia evolved from 0.5 g of the compound in Kjeldahl’s estimation of nitrogen, neutralized 10 ml of 1M H₂SO₄ . Find out the percentage of nitrogen in the compound.

A. 14%

B. 28%

C. 56%

D. 68%

Q. 46 Which of the following compounds have highest melting point ?

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. I and II

D. II and III

Q. 47 Identify the major product ‘X’ obtained in the following reaction :

A. CH₃ – C = C – CH₃ ∣ ∣ CH₃ CH₃

B. CH₃ CH₃ ∣ ∣ CH₃ – CH – C = CH₂

C. CH₂ = C – C = CH₂ ∣ ∣ CH₃ CH₃

D. CH₃ ∣ CH₃ – CH₂ – C = CH₂

Q. 48 Addition of water to alkynes occurs in acidic medium and in the presence of Hg²⁺ ions as a catalyst. Which of the following products will be formed on addition of water to but-1-yne under these conditions?

A. CH₃CH₂CH₂CHO

B. CH₃CH₂COCH₃

C. CH₃CH₂COOH + CO₂

D. CH₃COOH + HCHO

Q. 49 The correct order of increasing acidic strength is

A. phenol< ethanol < chloroacetic acid < acetic acid

B. ethanol< phenol < chloroacetic acid < acetic acid

C. ethanol< phenol < acetic acid < chloroacetic acid

D. chloroacetic acid < acetic acid < phenol < ethanol

Q. 50 KF has ccp structure. How many F⁻ ions and octahedral voids are there in this unit cell respectively?

A. 4 and 4

B. 4 and 8

C. 8 and 4

D. 6 and 6

Q. 51 The osmotic pressure of blood is 8.21 atm at 37°C. How much glucose would be used for an injection that is at the same osmotic pressure as blood?

A. 22.17 gL⁻¹

B. 58.14 gL⁻¹

C. 61.26 gL⁻¹

D. 75.43 gL⁻¹

Q. 52 At equilibrium, the rate of dissolution of a solid solute in a volatile liquid solvent is

A. less than the rate of crystallization

B. greater than the rate of crystallization

C. equal to the rate of crystallization

D. zero

Q. 53 A chelating agent has two or more than two donor atoms to bind a single metal ion. Which of the following is not a chelating agent?

A. Thiosulphato

B. Glycinato

C. Oxalato

D. Ethane – 1 , 2 – diamine

Q. 54 On addition of small amount of KMnO₄ to conc. H₂SO₄ , a green oily compound is obtained which is highly explosive in nature. Identify the compound from the following.

A. Mn₂O₇

B. MnO₂

C. MnSO₄

D. Mn₂O₃

Q. 55 The magnetic nature of elements depends on the presence of unpaired electrons. Identify the configuration of transition element, which shows highest magnetic moment

A. 3d⁷

B. 3d⁵

C. 3d⁸

D. 3d²

Q. 56 Which of the following elements can be involved in pπ — dπ bonding?

A. Carbon

B. Nitrogen

C. Phosphorus

D. Boron

Q. 57 On addition of conc. H₂SO₄ to a chloride salt, colorless fumes are evolved but in case of iodide salt, violet fumes come out. This is because.

A. H₂SO₄ reduces HI to I₂

B. HI is of violet color

C. HI gets oxidized to I₂

D. HI changes to HIO₃

Q. 58 Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the group from fluorine to iodine. Which of the halogen acids should have highest bond dissociation enthalpy?

A. HF

B. HCL

C. HBr

D. HI

Q. 59 Which of the following statement is not correct about an inert electrode in a cell?

A. It does not participate in the cell reaction.

B. It provides surface either for oxidation or for reduction reaction.

C. It provides surface for conduction of electrons.

D. It provides surface for redox reaction

Q. 60 Which of the following statement is correct?

A. E cell and Δᵣ G of cell reaction both are extensive properties.

B. E cell and Δᵣ G of cell reaction both are intensive properties.

C. E cell in the intensive property while Δᵣ G of cell reaction is an extensive property.

D. E cell is an extensive property while Δᵣ G of cell reaction is an intensive property

Q. 61 Which of the following curves is in accordance with Freundlich adsorption isotherm?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 62 A number of elements available in earth’s crust but most abundant elements are

A. Al and Fe

B. Al and Cu

C. Fe and Cu

D. Cu and Ag

Q. 63 The element which forms oxides in all oxidation states + 1 to + 5 is

A. Nitrogen

B. Phosphorus

C. Arsenic

D. Antimony

Q. 64 Which of the following is the increasing order of enthalpy of vaporization?

A. NH₃ , PH3₃ , AsH₃

B. AsH₃ , PH₃ , NH₃

C. NH₃ , AsH₃ , PH₃

D. PH₃ , AsH₃ , NH₃

Q. 65 When Br₂ is treated with aqueous solutions of NaF , NaCl , NaI separately

A. F₂ , Cl₂ and l₂ are liberated

B. only F₂ and Cl₂ are liberated

C. only l₂ is liberated

D. only Cl₂ is liberated

Q. 66 In the presence of a catalyst, the heat evolved or absorbed during the reaction

A. Increases

B. decreases

C. remains unchnaged

D. may increase or decrease

Q. 67 The rate of a gaseous reaction is given by the expression k[A][B]. If the volume of the reaction vessel is suddenly reduced to 1/4 th of the initial volume, the reaction rate relating to original rate will be

A. 1/10

B. 1/8

C. 8

D. 16

Q. 68 Which of the following is 3° amine?

A. 1 – methylcyclohexylamine

B. Triethylamine

C. Tert – butylamine

D. N – methyl aniline

Q. 69 Which of the following enhances lathering property of soap?

A. Sodium carbonate

B. Sodium rosinate

C. Sodium stearate

D. Trisodium phosphate

Q. 70 The deficiency of vitamin C causes

A. scurvy

B. rickets

C. pyrrohea

D. perniciousanaemia

Q. 71 Excess fluoride (over 10 ppm) in drinking water can cause

A. harmful effect of bones and teeth

B. methemoglobinemia

C. kidney damage

D. laxative effect

Q. 72 For the process to occur under adiabatic conditions, the correct condition is

A. ΔT = 0

B. Δp = 0

C. q = 0

D. W = 0

Q. 73 (3/2O₂ (g)) → 0₃ (g) ; Kₚ for this reaction is 2.47 x 10-29. At 298 K , ΔᵣG° for conversion of oxygen to ozone will be

A. 100 kJ mol⁻¹

B. 150 kJ mol⁻¹

C. 163 kJ mol⁻¹

D. 2303 kJ mol⁻¹

Q. 74 Which one of the following statements about C₂ molecule is wrong?

A. The bond order of C₂ is 2

B. In vapour phase , C₂ molecule is diamagnetic

C. Double bond in C₂ molecule consists of both π – bonds because of the presence of

4e⁻ₛ ; in two π – molecular orbitals

D. Double bond in C₂ molecule consists of one a – bond and It – bond

Q. 75 The type of hybridization in SF6 molecule is

A. sp³d

B. dsp³

C. sp³d³

D. d³sp³

Q. 76 Among LiCl , BeCl₂ , BCl₃ and CCl₄ , the covalent bond character follows the order

A. LiCl < BeCl₂ < BCl₃ < CCl₂

B. BCl₃ < CCl₄ < BeCl₂ < LiCl

C. BeCl₂ < LiCl < CCl₄ < BCl₃

D. CCl₄ < BCl₃ < BeCl₂ < LiCl

Q. 77 Maximum number of electrons in a sub shell of an atom determined by the following?

A. 4/ + 2

B. 2n²

C. 4/ – 2

D. 2/ + 1

Q. 78 The average kinetic energy of an ideal gas per molecule in SI units at 25°C will be

A. 6.17 x 10²¹ JK⁻¹

B. 6.17 x 10²¹ kJK⁻¹

C. 6.17 x 10²⁰ JK⁻¹

D. 7.16 x 10⁻²¹ JK⁻¹

Q. 79 pkₐ of acetic acid and pKb of ammonium hydroxide are 4.76 and 4.75 respectively. Calculate the pH of ammonium acetate solution

A. 6.02

B. 7.005

C. 8

D. 5.602

Q. 80 The value of Kₑ for the reaction , 2A B ⇔ B + C is 2 × 10⁻³. At a given time , if the composition of reaction mixture is [A] = [B]=[C]= 3 x 10⁻³ M. Which is true?

A. The reaction will proceed in forward direction

B. The reaction will proceed in backward direction

C. The reaction will proceed in any direction

D. None of the above

Q. 81 Pellagra is caused by deficiency of vitamins

A. B₆

B. B₃

C. B₁₂

D. B₅

Q. 82 Notochord originates from

A. mesoderm

B. ectoderm

C. endoderm

D. none of these

Q. 83 Parthenogenesis is a term of

A. budding

B. asexual reproduction

C. sexual reproduction

D. regeneration

Q. 84 Bartholin’s gland is found in

A. penis

B. stomach

C. liver

D. vagina

Q. 85 Which one of the following statements best characterizes the testis?

A. The seminiferous epithelium contains only proliferative cells

B. Functional compartmentalization of the seminiferous epithelium depends on tight

junctions

C. The interstitial tissue contains few capillaries

D. The seminiferous epithelium contains numerous capillaries

Q. 86 Drugs that cause malformation in developing embryo during pregnancy are called

A. teratogens

B. nicotine

C. tranquilizers

D. alcoholic beverages

Q. 87 Which set is similar?

A. Corpus luteum – Graafian follicles

B. Sebum – Sweat

C. Vitamin B₇ – Niacin

D. Bundle of His – Pacemaker

Q. 88 Which one out of (a) to (d) given below correctly represents the structural formula of the basic amino acid?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 89 Given below is a schematic break-up of the phases/stages of cell cycle. Which one of the following is the correct indication of the stage/ phase in the cell cycle?

A. C – karytokinesis

B. S – synthetic phase

C. A – cytokinesis

D. B – metaphase

Q. 90 Which one of the following structural formula of two organic compounds is correctly identified along with its related function?

A. B-uracil – a component of DNA

B. A-triglyceride – major source of energy

C. A-lecithin – a component of cell membrane

D. B-adenine – a nucleotide that makes up nucleic

Q. 91 Which is substitution of mitochondria in E. colt?

A. Golgi body

B. Mesosome

C. Ribosome

D. Glyoxysomes

Q. 92 Animal cell differ from plant cell in possessing

A. vacuoles

B. centrosomes

C. plastids

D. mitochondria

Q. 93 Which of the following organelles does not contain RNA?

A. Plasmalemma

B. Ribosome

C. Chromosome

D. Nucleolus

Q. 94 Dutrochet has given the concept about cell in

A. 1834

B. 1814

C. 1822

D. 1824

Q. 95 The scientific name of gharial is

A. Naja bun garus

B. Gay/ails gangeticus

C. Hemidactylusflavivridis

D. None of the above

Q. 96 Which of the given option is correct regarding the statements?

Statement I : Cephalochordata bears notochord all along the body throughout life.

Statements II : Urochordate bears vertebral column only in tail region throughout the life.

A. I wrong , II correct

B. I correct , II wrong

C. Both I and II wrong

D. Both are correct

Q. 97 In which of the following haemocyanin pigment is found?

A. lower invertebrates

B. Echinodermata

C. Insecta

D. Annelida

Q. 98 Which of the following cells in earthworm play a role similar to liver in vertebrates?

A. Amoebocytes

B. Mucocytes

C. Chloragogen cells

D. Epidermal cells

Q. 99 Match the following and select the correct option.

List I List II

A. Cyclostomes 1. Hemichordata

B. Ayes 2. Urochordata

C. Tunicates 3. Agantha

D. Balanoglossus 4. Pisces

E. Osteichthyes 5. Tetrapod

Codes

A B C D E

(a) 3 5 2 1 4

(b) 3 1 5 2 4

(c ) 1 2 3 4 5

(d) 2 3 4 1 5

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 100 Chondrichthyes is characterised by

A. placoid scale

B. placoid scale and ventral mouth

C. ventral mouth

D. ctenoid scale and ventral mouth

Q. 101 Ichthyology is study of

A. aves

B. amphibians

C. reptiles

D. fishes

Q. 102 What will happen if ligaments are torn?

A. Bone will become unfixed

B. Bone will become fixed

C. Bone less movable at joint and pain

D. Bone will move freely at joint and no pain

Q. 103 Achondroplasia is a disease related with the defect in the formation of

A. membrane

B. mucosa

C. bone

D. cartilage

Q. 104 Yellow bone marrow is found specially in the medullary cavity

A. long bones

B. spongy bones

C. short bones

D. All of the above

Q. 105 Match the items of column I with column II and choose the correct option from the codes given below.

Column I Column II

A. Neuron 1. Ossein

B. Bone-matrix 2. Nissl’s bodies

C. RBCs of man 3. Antibodies

D. Lymphocytes 4. Non-nucleated

Codes

A B C D

(a) 4 1 2 3

(b) 2 1 4 3

(d) 2 3 4 1

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 106 Space in the jaw bone unoccupied by teeth is called

A. dentine

B. diastema

C. enamel

D. crown

Q. 107 Identify the correct set, which shows the name of the enzyme from where it is secreted and substrate upon which it acts.

A. Ptyalin – Intestine – Maltose

B. Ptyalin – Pancreas – Lipid

C. Pepsin – Stomach wall – Caesin

D. Chymotrypsin – Salivary gland – Lactose

Q. 108 Endemic goitre is a state of

A. normal thyroid function

B. moderate thyroid function

C. increased thyroid function

D. decreased thyroid function

Q. 109 Hormone responsible for the secretion of milk after parturition is

A. ACTH

B. LH

C. ICSH

D. Prolactin

Q. 110 What is another name for the wind pipe?

A. Trachea

B. Larynx

C. Oesophagus

D. Lungs

Q. 111 Soil salinity is measured by

A. Porometer

B. Calorimeter

C. Conductivity meter

D. Porometer

Q. 112 Predation and parasitism are which type of interactions.

A. (+, +)

B. (+, 0)

C. (−)

D. (+, −)

Q. 113 The ultimate source of energy for living being is

A. sunlight

B. ATP

C. fats

D. carbohydrates

Q. 114 Which of the following species are restricted to an area?

A. Sympatric species

B. Sibling species

C. Allopatric species

D. Endemic species

Q. 115 Select the incorrect statement

A. Stellar’s sea cow and passenger pigeon got extinct due to over exploitation by men

B. The mitotic convention on biological diversity was held in 1992

C. Species diversity increase as we move away from the equator towards the poles

D. Lantana and Eichhomia are invasive weed species in India

Q. 116 The effect of cigarette smoking and radon in combination on lungs is

A. fatal

B. synergistic

C. mutualistic

D. antagonistic

Q. 117 The thermostable enzymes, Taq and Pfu, isolated from thermophilic bacteria are

A. RNA polymerases

B. DNA ligases

C. DNA polymerases

D. restriction endonucleases

Q. 118 Biolistic technique is used in

A. gene transfer process

B. tissue culture process

C. hybridization process

D. germplasm conservation process

Q. 119 The largest gene in man is

A. insulin gene

B. tumor suppressor gene

C. beta globin gene of haemoglobin

D. dystrophin

Q. 120 Herbicide resistant gene in plant is

A. Mt

B. Gt

C. Ct

D. Bt

Q. 121 In photosynthesis carbon dioxide is converted to carbohydrates. It is a process.

A. reductive

B. oxidative

C. catabolic and exergonic

D. None of the above

Q. 122 Which of the following is not an auxin?

A. IM

B. IBA

C. Zeatin

D. NM

Q. 123 Which of the following properties is shown by cytokinins?

A. Delay leaf senescence

B. Cause leaf abscission

C. Promote seed dormacy

D. Promote stornatal closing

Q. 124 Which of the following characteristics is are exhibited by C4 -plants?

I. Kranz anatomy.

II. The first product of photosynthesis is oxaloacetic acid.

III. Both PEP carboxylates and ribulosebiphosphate carboxylate act as carboxylating

enzymes.

The correct option is

A. I and III , but not II

B. I and II , but not III

C. II and III , but not I

D. II and III

Q. 125 Which of the following plant keeps its stomata open during night and closed during the day?

A. Orchid

B. Cactus

C. Tea

D. Wheat

Q. 126 Genetic dwarfism can be overcome by

A. gibberellin

B. ethylene

C. anixin

D. ABA

Q. 127 Hormone inducing fruit ripening is

A. cytokinin

B. ethylene

C. abscissic acid

D. gibberellic acid

Q. 128 The year 1900 AD is highly significant for geneticists due to

A. discovery of genes

B. principle of linkage

C. chromosome theory of heredity

D. rediscovery of Mendelism

Q. 129 F1-generation means

A. first filial generation

B. first seed generation

C. first flowering generation

D. first fertile generation

Q. 130 Skin colour is controlled by

A. single gene

B. 3 pairs of genes

C. 2 pairs of genes

D. 2 pairs of genes with an intragene

Q. 131 Which of the following cross will produce terminal flower in garden pea?

A. AA × Aa

B. AA × aa

C. Aa × Aa

D. Aa × AA

Q. 132 Which one of the following pairs of plants are not seed producers?

A. Funaria and Ficus

B. Fern and Funaria

C. Funada and Pinus

D. Ficus and Chlamydomonas

Q. 133 Which one of the following is heterosporous?

A. Equisetum

B. Dryopteris

C. Salvinia

D. Adianturn

Q. 134 Gyms revoluta is popularly known as

A. sago palm

B. royal palm

C. date palm

D. sea palm

Q. 135 Match the following with correct combination.

Column I Column II

A. Cuscuta 1. Saprophyte

B. Eichhornia 2. Pneumatophare

C. Monotropa 3. Insectivorous plant

D. Rhizophora 4. Parasite

E. Utricularia 5. Root pocket

Codes

A B C D E

(a) 3 1 5 4 2

(b) 2 3 1 5 4

(d) 4 5 1 2 3

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 136 Bacterial endotoxin is

A. a toxic protein that stays inside the bacterial cell

B. a toxic protein that is excreted into the medium

C. lipopolysaccharide located on the surface of the bacteria

D. None of the above

Q. 137 Endosperm of gymnosperms is

A. haploid

B. tetraploid

C. diploid

D. None of these

Q. 138 First vascular plant is

A. thallophyta

B. pteridophyta

C. bryophyta

D. spermatophyta

Q. 139 Diatomaceous earth is obtained from

A. Bacillarophyceae

B. Xanthophyceae

C. Rhodophyceae

D. Chyrsophyceae

Q. 140 Which of the following is an epidermal cell containing chloroplast?

A. Stomata

B. Hydothode

C. Guard cell

D. None of these

Q. 141 The structures present in the roots to absorb water and minerals is

A. epidermal extensions

B. hypodermis

C. endodermis

D. epidermal appendages

Q. 142 Lady finger belongs to family

A. Malvaceae

B. Curcubitaceae

C. Brassicaceae

D. Liliaceae

Q. 143 The interxylary phloem is found in the stem of

A. Cucurbita

B. Salvia

C. Calotropis

D. None of these

Q. 144 Wound healing is due to

A. ventral meristem

B. secondary meristem

C. primary meristem

D. All of these

Q. 145 Angular collenchyma occurs in

A. Salvia

B. Helianthus

C. Althaea

D. Cucurbita

Q. 146 In pteridophytes, phloem is without

A. bast fibers

B. sieve tubes

C. companion cells

D. sieve cells

Q. 147 Match the following entities of column I with their respective orders of column II and choose the correct combination form the option.

Column I Column II

A. Wheat 1. Primate

B. Mango 2. Diptera

C. Housefly 3. Sapindales

D. Man 4. Poales

Codes

A B C D

(a) 4 3 2 1

(b) 1 2 4 3

(d) 2 4 1 3

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Q. 148 Agar-agar is produced by

A. fungi

B. algae

C. bacteria

D. blue-green algae

Q. 149 In DNA, when AGCT occurs, their association is as per which of the following pair

A. A – G , C – T

B. A – T , G – C

C. A – C , G – T , A – C , E – T

D. All of these

Q. 150 A segment of DNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases. The total number of

nucleotides present in the segment is

A. 60

B. 240

C. 120

D. 480

Q. 151 Lactose is composed of

A. glucose + glucose

B. glucose + galactose

C. glucose + fructose

D. fructose + galactose

Q. 152 Meiosis is best observed in dividing

A. cell of lateral meristem

B. cells of apical meristem

C. microsporocytes

D. microspores and anther wall

Q. 153 Study the following statements and select the correct option.

I. Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen grains.

II. Hilum represents the junction between ovule and funicle.

III. In aquatic plants such as water hyacinth and water lily, pollination is by water.

IV. The primary endosperm nucleus is triploid

A. I, II, and IV are correct, but III is incorrect

B. I and II are correct, but III and IV are incorrect

C. I and IV are correct, but II and III are incorrect

D. I, III and IV are correct, but II is incorrect

Q. 154 Masses of pollen grains, i.e. ,pollinia is found in

A. Gramineae

B. Solanaceae

C. Orchidaceae

D. Malvaceae

Q. 155 Morphine, which is used as an analgesic is obtained from

A. Taxusbrevifolia

B. Berberisnilghiriensis

C. Cinchona officinalis

D. Papaver somniferum

Q. 156 Pebrine is a disease of

A. fish

B. honey bee

C. silk worm

D. lac insect

Q. 157 Factor covering the earth surface is

A. topographic

B. edaphic

C. temperature

D. bitic

Q. 158 The direction of energy flow is

A. Producers > Herbivores > Decomposers > Omnivores

B. Producers > Carnivores > Herbivores > Decomposers

C. Decomposers > Carnivores > Herbivores > Producers

D. Producers > Herbivores > Carnivores > Decomposers

Q. 159 If the Bengal tiger become extinct

A. hyenas and wolves will become scarce

B. its gene pool will be lost forever

C. the wild areas will be safe far man and domestic

D. the population of beautiful animals like deers will get stabilized

Q. 160 Biological treatment of water pollution is done with the help of

A. fungi

B. lichen

C. phytoplanktons

D. None of the above

Q. 161 Directions (Q Nos. 161-165) In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word. Four alternatives are suggested for each questions. Choose the correct

alternative out of the four.

The little girl for the light switch in the dark

A. groped

B. grappled

C. gripped

D. growelled

Q. 162 The summit meeting provided him the much shot in the arm

A. required

B. desired

C. needed

D. urgent

Q. 163 We must the tickets for the movie in advance.

A. draw if

B. buy

C. remove

D. take

Q. 164 The State Transport Corporation has a loss of &8377; 5 crore this year

A. obtained

B. derived

C. incurred

D. formulated

Q. 165 One and you know who among them is the culprit

A. look

B. peep

C. sight

D. gaze

Q. 166 Directions (Q Nos. 166-170) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

GAINSAY

A. advantage

B. proposal

C. contradict

D. suggestion

Q. 167 Choose the best meaning – PROFOUND

A. profuse

B. boundless

C. deep

D. fathomless

Q. 168 Choose the best meaning – FLAK

A. adventure

B. advice

C. criticism

D. praise

Q. 169 Choose the best meaning – HOODLUM

A. pioneer

B. criminal

C. devotee

D. scholar

Q. 170 Choose the best meaning – SPASMODIC

A. continuous

B. gradual

C. intermittent

D. spontaneous

Q. 171 Directions (Q Nos. 171-175) In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

FILTHY

A. stainless

B. shining

C. sterilized

D. clean

Q. 172 Choose the opposite – CROWDED

A. deserted

B. lonely

C. empty

D. barren

Q. 173 Choose the opposite – VAGUE

A. known

B. published

C. popular

D. definite

Q. 174 Choose the opposite – SUPERVISE

A. overlook

B. misdirect

C. neglect

D. forget

Q. 175 Choose the opposite – MAGNANIMOUS

A. selfish

B. naive

C. generous

D. small

Q. 176 Directions (Q Nos. 176-180) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase printed in bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

We have to keep our fingers crossed till the final result is declared

A. keep praying

B. feel suspicious

C. wait expectantly

D. feel scared

Q. 177 The members of the group were at odds over the selection procedure.

A. acting foolishly

B. in dispute

C. unanimous

D. behaving childishly

Q. 178 The popularity of the yesteryears’ superstar is on the wane

A. growing more

B. at it’s peak

C. growing less

D. at rock-bottom

Q. 179 His father advised him to be fair and square in his dealings lest he should fall into trouble.

A. considerate

B. upright

C. careful

D. polite

Q. 180 There is no love lost between the two neighbours.

A. close friendship

B. intense dislike

C. a love-hate relationship

D. cool indifference

Q. 181 Directions (Q Nos. 181-185) In the following questions, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b), (c) which may improve the sentence.

Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).

Ravi has got many friends because he has got much money.

A. enough money

B. a lot of money

C. bags of money

D. no improvement

Q. 182 You must try making him to understand.

A. make him understand

B. to making him understand

C. to make him understand

D. no improvement

Q. 183 He has cooked that meal so often he can do it with his eyes closed

A. mind blank

B. eyes covered

C. hands full

D. no improvement

Q. 184 Not a word they spoke to the unfortunate wife about it

A. they had spoken

B. did they speak

C. they will speak

D. no improvement

Q. 185 There is sufficient fund to meet the requirement of the entire schools in our zone.

A. schools

B. all the schools

C. all of the schools

D. no improvement

Q. 186 Directions (Q Nos. 186-190) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence

Word for word reproduction.

A. copying

B. mugging

C. verbatim

D. photostat

Q. 187 A person who collects coins

A. Philatelist

B. Numismatist

C. Narcissist

D. Fatalist

Q. 188 That which is perceptible by touch

A. tangible

B. tenacious

C. contagious

D. contingent

Q. 189 One who possesses many talents.

A. versatile

B. gifted

C. exceptional

D. nubile

Q. 190 A person who studies the formation of the Earth.

A. Meteorologist

B. Anthropologist

C. Geologist

D. Seismologist

Q. 191 Directions (Q Nos. 31-35) In the following questions, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts named P, (b Rand S. These parts are not given in their proper order. Rearrange these parts in their proper order and find out

which of the given four combination is correct?

(1) In reply to a question

(P) that securing extradition

(Q) operating from the UK soil remained

(R) of anti-India elements

(S) the spokesman said

(6) New Delhi’s first priority.

A. PRQS

B. QSPR

C. RQSP

D. SPRQ

Q. 192 (1) The first component is

(P) and vocational training

(Q) so as to enable them

(R) the provision of further technical

(S) to both rural and urban youth

(6) to secure employment in industry and the services sector.

A. PRSQ

B. RPSQ

C. RSQP

D. SRPQ

Q. 193 (1) The move to revert to a six-day week

(P) among the employees

(Q) while the leaders represented to the Chief Minister

(R) that they be taken into confidence

(T) led to an animated decision

(6) before any decision was taken

A. QPSR

B. RSPQ

C. SPQR

D. SQPR

Q. 194 (1) It was obvious

(P) made by him

(Q) submitted at the meeting

(R) from the comments

(T) on the draft proposals

(6) that he was not satisfied with them

A. PSRQ

B. QRSP

C. RPSQ

D. SQRP

Q. 195 (1) The Minister of state for power

(P) laying emphasis

(Q) in conservation of electricity in industries

(R) has written to his counterparts in State Government

(T) on bringing about improvement

(6) by introduction of energy efficient equipment.

A. QPSR

B. RPSQ

C. SPQR

D. SQPR

Questions: 196 – 200

Directions (Q Nos. 196-200) Read the following passage carefully and answer the

questions given below it.

In this work of incessant and feverish activity, men have little time to think, much less to consider ideals and objectives. Yet how are we to act, even in the present, unless we know which way we are going and what our objectives are? It is only in the peaceful atmosphere of a university that these basic problems can be adequately considered. It is only when the young men and women, who are in the university today and on whom the burden of life’s problems will fall tomorrow, learn to have clear objectives and standards of values that there is hope for the next generation. The past generation produced some great men but as a generation it led the world repeatedly to disaster. World Wars II nd are the price that has been paid for the lack of wisdom on man’s part in this generation. I think that there is always a close and intimate relationship between the end we aim at and the means adopted to attain it. Even, if the end is right, but the means are wrong, it will vitiate the end or divert us in a wrong direction. Means and ends are thus intimately and inextricably connected and cannot be separated. That indeed has been the lesson of old taught us by many great men in the past, but unfortunately it seldom remembered.

Q. 196 People have little time to consider ideals and objectives because

A. they consider these ideals meaningless

B. they do not want to burden themselves with such ideas

C. they have no inclination for such things

D. they are excessively engaged in their routine activities

Q. 197 ‘The burden of life’s problems’ in the fourth sentence refers to

A. the incessant and feverish activities

B. the burden of family responsibilities

C. the onerous duties of life

D. the sorrows and sufferings

Q. 198 The World Wars lI nd are the price that man paid due to

A. the absence of wisdom and sagacity

B. his not caring to consider the life’s problems

C. his ignoring the ideals and objectives of life

D. his excessive involvement in feverish activities

Q. 199 According to the writer the adoption of wrong means even for the right end would

A. not let us attain our goal

B. bring us dishonor

C. impede our progress

D. deflect us from the right path

Q. 200 The word ‘vitiate’ used in the second paragraph means

A. negate

B. debase

C. tarnish

D. destroy

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	B	A	C	B	A	B	C	C	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	A	A	A	B	A	C	A	C	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	C	C	B	A	D	C	C	C	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	D	C	C	C	B	D	D	D	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	A	A	A	C	B	A	B	C	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	C	A	A	B	C	C	A	D	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	A	A	D	C	C	D	B	B	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	C	C	D	C	A	A	A	B	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	A	C	D	B	A	A	D	B	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	B	A	D	B	B	A	C	A	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	D	C	B	A	B	B	C	D	D	A
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	C	D	A	A	C	B	C	A	D	D
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	D	C	A	D	B	A	B	D	A	B
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	C	B	C	A	D	C	A	B	A	C
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	A	A	C	B	D	C	A	B	B	D
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	B	C	A	C	D	C	A	D	B	C
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	A	C	B	C	A	C	C	C	B	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	D	A	D	B	A	C	B	C	B	B
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	B	C	D	B	B	C	B	A	A	C
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	D	B	C	C	B	D	C	A	D	B

JIPMER MBBS 2012 Previous Year Paper

JIPMER MBBS 2012

Q. 1 The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has a cross-section of 8 cm² , one end of which has 40 fine holes each of area 10⁻⁸ m² . If the liquid flows inside the tube with a speed of 0.15 m min⁻¹, the speed with which the liquid is ejected through the holes is

A. 50 m/s

B. 5 m/s

C. 0.05 m/s

D. 0.5 m/s

Q. 2 Which one of the following graph represents the variation of maximum kinetic energy (E) of the emitted electrons with frequency v in photoelectric effect correctly?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 3 A vessel of height 2d is half filled with a liquid of refractive index √2 and the other half with a liquid of refractive index n (the given liquids are immiscible) .Then, the apparent depth of the inner surfaces of the bottom of the vessel (neglecting the thickness of the bottom of the vessel) will be

A. n/d(n+√2)

B. d(n+√2)/n√2

C. √2n/d(n+√2)

D. nd/ d+√2n

Q. 4 A shell of mass 20 Kg at rest explodes into two fragments whose masses are in ratio 2:3. the smaller fragment moves with the velocity of 6 m/s. The Kinetic energy of the larger fragment is

A. 96 J

B. 216 J

C. 144 J

D. 360J

Q. 5 An electric bulb has a rated power of 50 W at 100 V. If it is used on an AC source 200 V, 50 Hz, a choke has to be used in series with it. This choke should have an inductance of

A. 0.1 mH

B. 1 mH

C. 0.1 H

D. 1.1 H

Q. 6 In Young’s double slit experiment with sodium vapour lamp of wavelength 589 nm and the slits 0.589 mm apart, the half angular width of the central maximum is

A. sin⁻¹(0.01)

B. sin⁻¹(0.0001)

C. sin⁻¹(0.001)

D. sin⁻¹(0.1)

Q. 7 A parallel plate capacitor with air as the dielectric has capacitance C. A slab of dielectric constant K and having the same thickness as the separation between the plates is introduced so as to fill one-fourth of the capacitor as shown in the figure. The new capacitance will be

A. (K+3)C/4

B. (K +2)C/4

C. (K +1)C/4

D. KC/4

Q. 8 Three concurrent coplanar forces 1 N, 2 N and 3 N acting along different directions on a body

A. can keep the body in equilibrium if 2 N and 3 N act at right angle

B. can keep the body in equilibrium if 1 N and 2 N act at right angle

C. cannot keep the body in equilibrium

D. can keep the body in equilibrium in 1 N and 3 N act at an acute angle

Q. 9 The work done by a force acting on a body is as shown in the graph. The total work done in covering an initial distance of 20 m is

A. 225 J

B. 200 J

C. 400 J

D. 175 J

Q. 10 Horizontal tube of non-uniform cross-section has radii of 0.1 m and 0.05 m respectively at M and N. For a streamline flow of liquid, the rate of liquid flow is

A. changing continuously with time

B. greater at M than at N

C. Greater at N than at M

D. same at M and N

Q. 11 A coil of n number of turns is wound tightly in the form of a spiral with inner and outer radii a and b respectively. When a current of strength I is passed through the coil, the magnetic field at its centre is

A. μ₀ nl/(b-a) logₑa/b

B. μ₀ nl/2(b-a)

C. μ₀ nl/b

D. μ₀ nl/2(b-a) logₑa/b

Q. 12 A certain vector in the xy-plane has an x-component of 4 m and a y-component of 10 m. It is then rotated in the xy-plane sothatits x-component is doubled. Then, its new y-component is (approximately)

A. 20m

B. 7.2 m

C. 5.0 m

D. 4.5 m

Q. 13 A police party is moving in a jeep at a constant speed v. They saw a thief at a distance x on a motorcycle which is at rest. The moment the police saw the thief, the thief started at constant acceleration a Which of the following relations is true if the police is able to catch the thief?

A. v² <ax

B. v² <2ax

C. v² >= 2ax

D. v² = ax

Q. 14 If two soap bubbles of different radii are connected by tube, then

A. air flows from bigger bubble to the smaller bubble till sizes become equal

B. air flows from bigger bubble to the smaller bubble till sizes are interchanged

C. air flows from smaller bubble to bigger

D. there is 110 flow of air

Q. 15 The thermo emf of a hypothetical thermocouple v ries with the temperature e of hot junction as E = aθ + bθ² in volts, where the ratio a /b is 700°C. If the cold junction is kept at O °C, then the neutral, temperature is

A. 700°C

B. 1400°C

C. -350°C

D. no neutral temperature is possible for this thermocouple

Q. 16 A launching vehicle carrying an artificial satellite of mass m is set for launch on the surface of the earth of mass m and radius R. If the satellite is intended to move in a circular orbit of radius 7R, the minimum energy required to be spent by the launching vehicle on the satellite is (Gravitational constant =G)

A. GMm/R

B. – 13 GMm/14R

C. GMm/7R

D. -GMm/14R

Q. 17 The two lenses of an achromatic doublet should have

A. equal powers

B. equal dispersive powers

C. equal ratio of their power and dispersive power

D. sum of the product of their powers and dispersive power equal to zero

Q. 18 If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young’s modulus of steel and brass wires shown in the figure are a, b and e respectively, the ratio

between the increase in lengths of brass and steel wires would be

A. b²/2c

B. bc/2a²

C. ba²/2c

D. a/2b²c

Q. 19 A soap bubble of radius r is blown up to form a bubble of radius 2 r under isothermal conditions. If T is the surface tension of soap solution, the energy spent in the blowing

A. 3πTr²

B. 6πTr²

C. 12πTr²

D. 24πTr²

Q. 20 A current of 1.6 A is passed through solution of CuSO₄. How many Cu⁺⁺ ions are liberated in one minute?(Electric charge = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹)

A. 3 * 10²⁰

B. 3 * 10¹⁰

C. 6 * 10²⁰

D. 6 * 10¹⁰

Q. 21 A magnetic field exerts no force on

A. a magnet

B. an unmagnetised iron bar

C. a moving charge

D. stationary charge

Q. 22 In an L-C-R circuit inductance is changed from L to L/2. To keep the same resonance frequency, C should be changed to

A. 2C

B. C/2

C. 4C

D. C/4

Q. 23 The sound waves after. being converted into electrical waves are not transmitted as such because

A. they travel with the speed of sound

B. the frequency is not constant

C. they are heavily absorbed by the atmosphere

D. the height of antenna has to be increased several times

Q. 24 The tip of a needle does not give a sharp image on a screen. This is due to

A. polarisation

B. interference

C. diffraction

D. none of these

Q. 25 An engine moving towards a wall with a velocity 50 m/s emits a note of 1.2 kHz. Speed of sound in air is 350 m/s. The frequency of the note after reflection from the wall as heard by the driver of the engine is

A. 2.4 kHz

B. 0.24 kHz

C. 1.6 kHz

D. 1.2 kHz

Q. 26 The surface temperature of the sun which has maximum energy emission at 500 nm is 6000 K. The temperature of a star which has maximum energy emission at 400 nm will be

A. 8500K

B. 4500K

C. 7500K

D. 6500K

Q. 27 The truth table given below is for (A and B are the inputs, Y is the output)

A. NOR

B. AND

C. XOR

D. NAND

Q. 28 Two rectangular blocks A and B of masses 2 Kg and 3 Kg respectively are connected by a spring of spring constant 10.8 Nm⁻ and are placed on a frictionless horizontal surface. The block A was given an ‘initial velocity of 0.15 ms⁻ in the direction shown in the figure. The maximum compression of the spring during the motion is

A. 0.01m

B. 0.02m

C. 0.05m

D. 0.03m

Q. 29 0.1 m³ of water at 80°C is mixed with 0.3 m³ of water at 60°C. The final temperature of the mixture is

A. 65°C

B. 70°C

C. 60°C

D. 75°C

Q. 30 y = 3 sin π(t/2 -x/4) represents an equation of a progressive wave, where t is in second and x is in metre. The distance travelled by the wave in 5 s is

A. 8 m

B. 10 m

C. 5 m

D. 32 m

Q. 31 A body of mass m₁ = 4 kg moves at 5i m/s and another body of mass m₂ = 2 kg moves at 10 i m/ s. The kinetic energy of centre of mass is

A. 200/3 J

B. 500/3 J

C. 400/3 J

D. 800/3 J

Q. 32 A wheel of radius 0.4 m can rotate freely about its axis as shown in the figure. A string is wrapped over its rim and a mass of 4 kg is hung. An angular acceleration of 8 rad- s⁻² is produced in it due to the torque. Then, moment of inertia of the wheel is (g = 10 ms⁻²)

A. 2 Kg m⁻²

B. 1 Kg m⁻²

C. 4 Kg m⁻²

D. 8 Kg m⁻²

Q. 33 An object start sliding on a frictionless inclined plane and from same height another object start falling freely.

A. both will reach with same speed

B. both will reach with same acceleration

C. both will reach in same time

D. None of the above

Q. 34 A boy on a cycle pedals around a circle of 20 metres radius at a speed of 20 m/s, The combined mass of the body and the cycle makes with the vertical so that it may not fall is (g = 9.8 m/s² ) .

A. 60.25°

B. 63.90°

C. 26.12°

D. 30.00°

Q. 35 A coin is dropped in a lift. It takes time t₁ to reach the floor when lift is stationary. It takes time t₂ when lift is moving up with constant acceleration. Then,

A. t₁ >=t₂

B. t₂ > t₁

C. t₁ =t₂

D. t₁ >>t₂

Q. 36 The engine of a jet aircraft applies a thrown force of 10⁵ N during take off and causes the plane to attain a velocity of 1 km/s in 10 s. The mass of the plane is

A. 10² Kg

B. 10³ Kg

C. 10⁴ Kg

D. 10⁵ Kg

Q. 37 A stone weighing 1 kg and sliding on ice with a velocity of 2 m/s is stopped by friction in 10 s. The force of friction (assuming it to be constant) will be

A. -20 N

B. – 0.2 N

C. 0,2 N

D. 20N

Q. 38 The potential energy of a body is given by U = A – Bx² (where x is the displacement) The magnitude of force acting on the particle is

A. constant

B. proportional to x

C. proportional to x²

D. inversely proportional to x

Q. 39 When a ceiling fan is switched on, it makes 10 revolution in the first 3 s. Assuming a uniform angular acceleration , how many rotation it will make in the next 3 s

A. 10

B. 20

C. 30

D. 40

Q. 40 A hollow sphere of volume V is floating on water surface with half immersed in it. What should be the minimum volume of water poured inside the sphere so that the sphere now sinks into the water

A. V/2

B. V/3

C. V/4

D. V

Q. 41 Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers represents the highest energy level in an atom?

A. n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = + 1/2

B. n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = + 1/2

C. n = 3, l = 2, m = -2, s = + 1/2

D. n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = + 1/2

Q. 42 Here, X is

A. glycolic acid

B. a-hydroxy propionic acid

C. succinic acid

D. malonic acid

Q. 43 Acetic anhydride is prepared in the laboratory by heating sodium acetate with

A. ethyl chloride

B. acetyl chloride

C. conc. H₂SO₄

D. zinc dust

Q. 44 For the homogeneous reaction,

4NH₃ + 5O₂ ⇔4NO + 6H₂O the equilibrium constant K has the units

A. cone.⁺¹⁰

B. cone.⁺¹

C. cone.⁻¹

D. it is dimensionless

Q. 45 For the reaction,

NH₃ + OCl⁻ → N₂H₄ + Cl⁻ occurring in basic medium the coefficient of N₂H₄ in the balanced equation will be

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 46 Which one of the following has a coordinate bond?

A. NH₄Cl

B. AlCl₃

C. NaCl

D. Cl₂

Q. 47 Which of the following would exert maximum osmotic pressure ?

A. Decinormal aluminium sulphate

B. Decinormal barium chloride

C. Decinormal sodium chloride

D. A solution obtained by mixing equal volumes of (b) and (c) and filtering

Q. 48 Cow milk, an example of natural emulsion, is stabilised by

A. fat

B. water

C. casein

D. Mg⁺² ion

Q. 49 For a zero order reaction

A. t₁/2 ∝Ro

B. t₁/2 ∝II Ro

C. t₁/2 ∝Ro

D. t₁/2& prop; IIRo2

Q. 50 The extraction of which of the following metals involves bessemerisation?

A. Fe

B. Ag

C. Al

D. Cu

Q. 51 The correct order of decreasing first ionisation energy is

A. C > B > Be > Li

B. C > Be > B > Li

C. B > C > Be > Li

D. Be > Li > B > C

Q. 52 Consider the following reaction,

what is Y?

A. Acetanilide

B. Benzanilide

C. Azobenzene

D. Hydrazobenzene

Q. 53 Which of the following is most basic in nature?

A. NH₃

B. CH₃NH₂

C. (CH₃)₂NH

D. C₆H₅N(CH₃)₂

Q. 54 An example of natural biopolymer is

A. teflon

B. nylon -66

C. rubber

D. DNA

Q. 55 Which of the following is known as invert soap?

A. Pentaerythritol monostearate

B. Sodium stearyl sulphate

C. Trimethyl stearyl ammonium bromide

D. Ethoxylated nonylphenol

Q. 56 Le-blanc process is employed in the manufacture of

A. baking soda

B. washing soda

C. potash

D. plaster of paris

Q. 57 Which one of these is not true for benzene?

A. It forms only one type of monosubstituted product

B. There are three carbon -carbon single bonds and three carbon-carbon double bonds

C. Heat of hydrogenation of benzene is less than its theoretical value

D. The bond angle between carbon-carbon bonds isI20°

Q. 58 The IUPAC name of acraldehyde is

A. prop-2-en-I-al

B. propenylaldehyde

C. but-2-en-I-al

D. propenal

Q. 59 The structures of (CH₃)₃,CBr and CH₃[CH₂]₃Br represent

A. chain isomerism

B. position isomerism

C. chain as well as positional isomerism

D. functional isomerism

Q. 60 Petrol for aviation purpose must contain

A. straight chain hydrocarbons

B. aromatic hydrocarbon

C. olefinic hydrocarbon

D. highly branched chain paraffins

Q. 61 The solubility product of Hg₂I₂ is equal to

A. [Hg₂²⁺][I⁻]

B. [Hg²⁺][I⁻]

C. [Hg₂²⁺][I⁻]²

D. [Hg²⁺][I⁻]²

Q. 62 The number of atoms contained in a fcc unit cell of a monatomic substance is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 6

Q. 63 In the first order reaction, 75% of the reactant gets disappeared in 1.386 h. The rate constant of the reaction is

A. 3.0 x 10⁻³ s⁻¹

B. 2.8 x 10⁻⁴ s⁻¹

C. 17.2 x 10⁻³ s⁻¹

D. 1.8 x 10⁻³ s⁻¹

Q. 64 Moist hydrogen peroxide can not be dried over conc. H₂SO₄ because

A. it can catch fire

B. it is reduced by H₂SO₄

C. it is oxidised by H₂SO₄

D. it is decomposed by H₂SO₄

Q. 65 Glauber’s salt is

A. Na₂SO₄.10H₂O

B. Na₂S₂O₃.5H₂O

C. CuSO₄.5H₂O

D. Na₂B₄O₇.10H₂O

Q. 66 The most basic element is

A. fluorine

B. iodine

C. chlorine

D. bromine

Q. 67 Propyne on passing through red hot copper tube forms

A. benzene

B. toluene

C. chlorine

D. bromine

Q. 68 Which one of the following is mainly responsible for depletion of ozone layer?

A. Methane

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Water

D. Chlorofluorocarbons

Q. 69 On warming with silver powder, chloroform is converted into

A. acetylene

B. hexachloroethane

C. 1, 1, 2, 2-tetrachloroethane

D. ethylene

Q. 70 Ammonia is a Lewis base and it forms complexes with many cations. Which one of the following cations does not form a complex with ammonia?

A. Ag⁺

B. Cu²⁺

C. Cd²⁺

D. Pb²⁺

Q. 71 Argol, a brown crust formed during the fermentation of grape juice contains

A. CO₂

B. fused oil

C. potassium hydrogen tartrate

D. lye

Q. 72 The Structure of Compound B is

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 73 The pH value of 0.001 M aqueous solution of NaCI is

A. 7

B. 4

C. 11

D. unpredictable

Q. 74 Which buffer solution comprising of the following has its pH value greater than 7?

A. CH₃COOH + CH₃COONa

B. HCOOH + HCOOK

C. CH₃COONH₄

D. NH₄OH + NH₄Cl

Q. 75 Which of the following has sp² – hybridisation

A. C₂H₆

B. C₂H₅

C. BeCl₂

D. C₂H₂

Q. 76 Hydrogen molecule differs from chlorine molecule in the following respect

A. Hydrogen molecule is non-polar but chlorine molecule is polar

B. Hydrogen molecule is polar while chlorine molecule is nonpolar

C. Hydrogen molecule can form intermolecular hydrogen bonds but chlorine molecule

does not

D. Hydrogen molecule cannot participate in

Q. 77 The ratio of the difference in energy between the first and the second Bohr orbit to that between the second and the third Bohr orbit is

A. 1/2

B. 1/3

C. 4/9

D. 27/5

Q. 78 Graphite is a

A. molecular solid

B. covalent solid

C. ionic solid

D. metallic solid

Q. 79 Which one of the following transition metal ions is di magnetic?

A. CO⁺²

B. Ni⁺²

C. Cu⁺²

D. Zn⁺²

Q. 80 Which of the following metal carbonates decomposes on heating?

A. MgCO₃

B. Na₂CO₃

C. K₂CO₃

D. Rb₂CO₃

Q. 81 Gel electrophoresis is used for

A. cutting of DNA into fragments

B. separation of DNA fragments according to their size

C. construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors

D. isolation of DNA molecule

Q. 82 Polysome is formed by

A. several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA

B. many ribosomes attached to a strand of endoplasmic reticulum

C. a ribosome with several sub-units

D. ribosomes attached to each other in a linear arrangement

Q. 83 Which type of white blood cells are concerned with the release of histamine and the natural anticoagulant heparin?

A. Neutrophils

B. Basophils

C. Eosinophils

D. Monocytes

Q. 84 Which one of the following in birds, indicates, their reptilian ancestry?

A. Scale on their hindlimbs

B. four-chambered heart

C. Two special chambers crop and gizzard in their digestive tract

D. Eggs with a calcareous shell

Q. 85 Select incorrect pair

A. Porifera-Choanocytes

B. Coelenterata – Nematocysts

C. Annelida-Segmentation

D. Monera- Eukaryotic

Q. 86 Bilateral symmetry, metameric segmentation, coelom and open circulatory system are the feature of

A. Annelida

B. Arthropoda

C. Mollusca

D. Echinodermata

Q. 87 Ancestor of man who first stood erect was

A. Australopithecus

B. Cro-magnon

C. Java-ape man

D. Peking man

Q. 88 Core zone, buffer zone and manipulation zone are found in

A. national park

B. sanctuary

C. tiger reserve

D. biosphere reserve

Q. 89 Which insecticide is more hazardous to human health?

A. Rotenone

B. Pyrethrum

C. DDT

D. Humulin

Q. 90 Universal donor is

A. O Rh⁺

B. O Rh⁻

C. AB Rh⁺

D. AB Rh⁻

Q. 91 One of these is not concerned with wildlife conservation

A. IVF

B. IUCN

C. WWF

D. IBWL

Q. 92 Largest tiger population is found in

A. Sunderban national park

B. Corbett national park

C. Ranthambore national park

D. Kanha national park

Q. 93 Genetic material found in human Immunodeficiency Virus(HIV) is

A. double stranded RNA

B. single stranded RNA

C. double stranded DNA

D. single stranded DNA

Q. 94 Gigantism and acromegaly are due to

A. hypothyroidism

B. hyperthyroidism

C. hypopituitarism

D. hyperpituitarism

Q. 95 If a child is of O blood group and his father is of B blood group, the genotype of father is

A. IO IO

B. IA IB

C. IO IB

D. IO IA

Q. 96 Spermatogenesis is under the regulatory influence of

A. ADH

B. FSH

C. LH

D. STH

Q. 97 Which of the following can be controlled by using biopesticides

A. Insects

B. Diseases

C. Weeds

D. All of these

Q. 98 Which hormone is secreted in a woman if pregnancy has occured

A. Estrogen

B. Progesterone

C. Luteinizing hormone

D. Human chorionic gonadotropin

Q. 99 Product of biotechnology is

A. transgenic crops (GM crops)

B. humulin

C. biofertilizer

D. All of the above

Q. 100 Phase common in aerobic and anaerobic respiration is

A. Krebs` cycle

B. glycolysis

C. glycogenolysis

D. ETS

Q. 101 Oxyntic cells secretes

A. HCl

B. trypsin

C. NaOH

D. pepsinogen

Q. 102 Menstruation is due to sudden

A. reduction if FSH

B. increase of SH

C. reduction in estrogen and progesterone

D. None of the above

Q. 103 Correctly matched set of phylum, class and example is

A. Protozoa-Mastigophora-Entamoeba

B. Mollusca-Bivalvia-Pmcrcdc

C. Arthropoda-Diplopoda-Scolopendra

D. Chordata-Cyclostomata-Phrynosoma

Q. 104 Urea synthesis occur in

A. Kidney

B. liver

C. brain

D. muscles

Q. 105 Which is common to kidney and skeleton in mammals?

A. Cortex

B. Medulla

C. Pelvis

D. Radius

Q. 106 Which is regarded as urinary bladder of embryo

A. Amnion

B. Allantois

C. Chorion

D. Yolk sac

Q. 107 Deficiency of vitamin -B₁₂ causes

A. cheilosis

B. thalassemia

C. beri-beri

D. pernicious anaemia

Q. 108 Blood is kind of

A. areolar tissue

B. connective tissue

C. fluid connective tissue

D. reticular connective tissue

Q. 109 Which of these is used to control human population

A. Estrogen =progesterone

B. IUCD and MTP

C. Tubectomy and vasectomy

D. All of the above

Q. 110 Addiction to alcohol causes

A. cirrhosis

B. epilepsy

C. neurosis

D. psychosis

Q. 111 The most primitive vertebrates are

A. ostracoderms

B. cephalochordates

C. placoderms

D. cyclostomes

Q. 112 Change in the number of body parts is called

A. continuous variation

B. discontinuous variation

C. meristic variation

D. substantive variation

Q. 113 Which has an additional X-chromosome?

A. Turner’s syndrome

B. Klinefelter’s syndrome

C. Super female

D. Down’s syndrome

Q. 114 Origin of life occurred in

A. Precambrian

B. Coenozoic

C. Palaeozoic

D. Mesozoic

Q. 115 Branch of zoology dealing with the study of fishes is called

A. Arthrology

B. Ichthyology

C. Saurology

D. herpetology

Q. 116 Theory of continuity of germplasm was propounded by

A. Mendel

B. Lamarck

C. Weismann

D. Haeckel

Q. 117 Which extraembryonic membrane in humans prevents desiccation of the embryo inside the uterus?

A. Chorion

B. Allantois

C. Yolk sac

D. Amnion

Q. 118 The most active phagocytic white blood cells are

A. neutrophils and eosinophils

B. lymphocytes and macrophages

C. eosinophils and lymphocytes

D. neutrophils and monocytes

Q. 119 During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action potential results from the

movement of

A. K+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid

B. Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid

C. K+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid

D. Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid

Q. 120 Darwin’s finches are an excellent example of

A. adaptive radiation

B. seasonal migration

C. brood parasitism

D. connecting links

Q. 121 In which one of the following, the male and female gametophytes don’t have free-living independent existence?

A. Pteris

B. Funaria

C. Polytrichum

D. Cedrus

Q. 122 A transgenic food crop, which y help in solving the problem of night blindness in developing countries is

A. Flavr savr tomatoes

B. Starlink maize

C. Bt soybean

D. Golden rice

Q. 123 Vascular tissues in flowering plants develop from

A. phellogen

B. plerome

C. periblem

D. dermatogen

Q. 124 Nitrogen-fixation in root nodules of Alnus is brought about by

A. Bradyrhizobium

B. Clostridium

C. Frankia

D. Azorhizobium

Q. 125 mature pollen grain of Pinus has

A. 2 cells

B. 3 cells

C. 4 cells

D. 5 cells

Q. 126 Polyploidy can be induced by the application of

A. auxin

B. Kinetin

C. colchicine

D. ethylene

Q. 127 Quantasome are present in

A. chloroplast

B. mitochondria

C. Golgi body

D. lysosome

Q. 128 In mitochondria, enzyme cytochrome oxidase is present in

A. outer membrane

B. perimitochondrial space

C. inner membrane

D. matrix

Q. 129 Which of the following bio-engineered bacteria is utilized for cleaning of marine oil slicks?

A. Escherichia coli

B. Pseudomonas syringae

C. Pseudomonas putida

D. Rhizoctonia solani

Q. 130 Green potatoes are toxic due to

A. phytoalexins

B. solanin

C. triazine

D. hormones

Q. 131 Cells obtained from cancerous tumours are known as

A. hybridomas

B. myelomas

C. lymphocytes

D. monoclonal cells

Q. 132 The plant of Triticum aestivum is

A. haploid

B. diploid

C. tetraploid

D. hexaploid

Q. 133 Which of the following is a total root parasite?

A. Cuscuta

B. Rafflesia

C. Santalum

D. Monotropa

Q. 134 Which of the following tissues consist of living cells?

A. Vessels

B. Tracheids

C. Companion cell

D. Sclerenchyma

Q. 135 Which is a useful product of epidermal origin?

A. Saffron

B. cotton fibres

C. Clove

D. Jute

Q. 136 Fern spores are usually

A. haploid

B. diploid

C. triploid

D. tetraploid

Q. 137 When pollen tube enters through micropyle, the process is called

A. porogamy

B. chalazogamy

C. misogyny

D. apogamy

Q. 138 Outer wall of pollen grain is made up of

A. cellulose

B. sporopollenin

C. pectocellulose

D. lignin

Q. 139 Nucleotides are formed by

A. purine, sugar and phosphate

B. purine, pyrimidine and phosphate

C. purine, pyrimidine sugar and phosphate

D. pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate

Q. 140 DNA replication occurs in

A. G1-phase

B. S-phase

C. G2-phase

D. M-phase

Q. 141 Which of the following plant cells is not surrounded by a cell wall?

A. Root hair cell

B. Stem hair cell

C. Gamete cell

D. Bacterial cell

Q. 142 Which of the following cell organelles stores hydrolytic enzymes?

A. Centriole

B. Lysosome

C. Chromoplast

D. Chloroplast

Q. 143 A monocarpic plant is one, which

A. has only one carpel

B. flower once in life-time

C. produces only one seed

D. produces only one fruit

Q. 144 AIDS virus contains

A. RNA with protein

B. DNA with protein

C. DNA without protein

D. bNA only

Q. 145 Calyptra develops from

A. venter wall of archegonium

B. outgrowth of gametophyte

C. neck wall of archegonium

D. paraphysis of the archegonial branch

Q. 146 Protonema is the stage in the life cycle of

A. Cycas

B. Funaria

C. Selaginella

D. Mucor

Q. 147 A fern differs from a moss in having

A. swimming archegonia

B. swimming antherozoids

C. independent gametophytes

D. independent sporophytes

Q. 148 Female cone of Pinus is a

A. modified needles

B. modified long shoot

C. modified dwarf shoot

D. modified scale

Q. 149 Development of an embryo without fertilization is called as

A. apomixis

B. polyembryony

C. parthenocarpy

D. parthenogenesis

Q. 150 Which of the following floral parts forms pericarp after fertilization?

A. Nucellus

B. Outer integument

C. Ovary wall

D. Inner integument

Q. 151 Prothallus of the fern produces

A. spores

B. gametes

C. both a and b

D. cones

Q. 152 Which of the following cell organelles is associated with photorespiration?

A. Mitochondria

B. Peroxisome

C. Chloroplast

D. All of the above

Q. 153 The thickness of unit membrane is

A. 20 A⁰

B. 35 A⁰

C. 55 A⁰

D. 75 A⁰

Q. 154 Chromosomes are arranged along the equator during

A. prophase

B. metaphase

C. anaphase

D. telophase

Q. 155 Width of the DNA molecule is

A. 15 A⁰

B. 20 A⁰

C. 25 A⁰

D. 34 A⁰

Q. 156 In gymnosperms, the Ovule is naked because

A. ovary wall is absent

B. integuments are absent

C. perianth is absent

D. nucellus is absent

Q. 157 The rupture and fractionation do not usually occur in the water column in vessel/tracheids during the ascent of sap because of

A. lignified thick walls

B. cohesion and adhesion

C. weak gravitational pull

D. transpiration pull

Q. 158 The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig encloses number of

A. achenes

B. samaras

C. berries

D. mericarps

Q. 159 Which one of the following is linked to the discovery of bordeaux mixture as a popular fungicide?

A. Bacterial leaf blight of rice

B. Downy mildew of grapes

C. loose smut of wheat

D. Black rust of wheat

Q. 160 Unisexuality of flowers prevents

A. autogamy, but not geitonogamy

B. both geitonogamy and xenogamy

C. geitonogamy, but not xenogamy

D. autogamy and geitonogamy

Question 161

Directions (Q 1-5) Out of the four alternatives choose the one which expresses the

correct meaning of the given word and blacken the appropriate rectangle [〉] in

the Answer Sheet.

Q. 161 Out of the four alternatives choose the one which expresses the correct meaning of the given word

Irreproachable

A. remarkable

B. extraordinary

C. faultless

D. immense

Q. 162 Out of the four alternatives choose the one which expresses the correct meaning of the given word

Felicity

A. prosperity

B. honesty

C. bliss

D. sorrow

Q. 163 Out of the four alternatives choose the one which expresses the correct meaning of the given word

Knave

A. emperor

B. enchanter

C. soldier

D. scoundrel

Q. 164 Out of the four alternatives choose the one which expresses the correct meaning of the given word

Frontier.

A. edge

B. landmark

C. boundary

D. corner

Q. 165 Out of the four alternatives choose the one which expresses the correct meaning of the given word

Rout

A. death

B. defeat

C. loss

D. crash

Q. 166 Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word

Niggardly

A. hastily

B. lavishly

C. likely

D. gorgeously

Q. 167 Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word

Melodious

A. harmonious

B. tuneless

C. odious

D. mellifluous

Q. 168 Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word

Advanced

A. progressed

B. outpaced

C. receded

D. retarded

Q. 169 In these questions four words are given in each question out of which only one word. Is wrongly spelt. Find the word and. indicate it in the .Answer Sheet by blackening the appropriate rectangle

A. quadruple

B. quagmire

C. quadrangle

D. quadrant

Q. 170 In these questions four words are given in each question out of which only one word. Is wrongly spelt. Find the word and. indicate it in the .Answer Sheet by blackening the appropriate rectangle

A. poster

B. pastor

C. posture

D. pasture

Q. 171 In these questions four words are given in each question out of which only one word. Is wrongly spelt. Find the word and. indicate it in the .Answer Sheet by blackening the appropriate rectangle

A. reference

B. preference

C. difference

D. performance

Q. 172 In these questions four words are given in each question out of which only one word. Is wrongly spelt. Find the word and. indicate it in the .Answer Sheet by blackening the appropriate rectangle

A. agreeably

B. cruelly

C. doubtfully

D. fatally

Questions: 173 – 176

Four alternatives re given for the underlined or given idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the underlined of given idiom/phrase

Q. 173 His parents cut him off, without a shilling

A. disinherited him

B. snubbed him

C. gave him only a shilling

D. sent him away with a shilling

Q. 174 The carefully worked -out plan fell through because of an unexpected event

A. came out successfully

B. had a steep fall

C. was shattered

D. failed

Q. 175 He has too many irons in the fire

A. is engaged in too many enterprises at the same time

B. has several problems

C. has many ideas in his head

D. has a fire burning constantly in his house

Q. 176 We wanted to give Rita a surprise party but John let the cat out of the bag

A. spoilt the party with a cat

B. gave her a party himself

C. told her about it unintentionally

D. prevented her from attending it

Questions: 177 – 181

Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for given words/sentence

Q. 177 Study of insects is

A. Etymology

B. Entomology

C. Ecology

D. Embryology

Q. 178 Careful in the spending of money time etc.

A. Punctual

B. Economical

C. Miserly

D. Calculative

Q. 179 Reproducing or memorizing word for word

A. Verbatim

B. Verbose

C. Verbiage

D. Verbalism

Q. 180 That which cannot be captured

A. Untakable

B. Ungraspable

C. Impregnable

D. Slippery

Q. 181 One who breaks the law .

A. Aggressor

B. Politician

C. Transgressor

D. Pedestrian

Questions: 182 – 185

A part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at (a), (b) and (c). Which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed your answer is (d)

Q. 182 The only way to solve the racial problem is by education.

A. because of

B. thanks to

C. on account of

D. no improvement

Q. 183 He may be poor now but he appears to be rich.

A. to seem rich

B. rich to be

C. to have been rich

D. no improvement

Q. 184 The suspected couple was taken away from the airport through a side entrance to the police station for interrogation.

A. Whisked

B. rushed

C. guided

D. no improvement

Q. 185 She left the room feeling contrite.

A. sorry for what she had done

B. rather ill

C. extremely irritated

D. No improvement

Questions: 186 – 190

In these questions the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The , rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order.Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer

Q. 186 1. I think the essence of wisdom is emancipation as far as possible, from the tyranny of the here and now.

P. If anyone could, he would hardly be able to remain alive.

Q. But it is possible to make a continual approach towards impartiality.

R. No one can view the world with complete impartiality.

S. This is of course a matter of degree.

6. It is this approach towards impartiality that constitutes growth in wisdom.

A. QRSP

B. RQPS

C. SRPQ

D. PRSQ

Q. 187 1. But at the moment 1 glanced round at the crowd that had followed me.

P. It was immense crowd, two thousand at the least and’ growing every minute.

Q. They were watching me as they would watch a conjurer about to perform a trick.

R. I looked at the sea of yellow faces above the garish clothes-faces all happy and excited

over this -bit of fun, all certain that the elephant was going to be shot.

S. It blocked the road for a long distance on either side.

6. They did not like me, but with the magical rifle in my hands, I was momentarily worth

watching.

A. RPQS

B. QSRP

C. SRPQ

D. PSRQ

Q. 188 1. There are many roads into the world of the books, but way of fiction is probably the most common.

P. Then too the appeal of the story, whether told as poem, play, history, biography or novel is primitive and strong.

Q. The reason is plain.

R. They are to us what epic poetry was to the Greeks and Romans, what the stage was to the Elizabethans.

S. The novel and the short story come closer to the experience. If the modem reader then any other form of contemporary writing.

6. Mankind’s delight in stories is as timeless and universal as the art of the story teller.

A. QSRP

B. SRPQ

C. RSQP

D. PRSQ

Q. 189 1. Nehru spent most part of his childhood in studies.

P. He rushed back to India and led an active political life joining hands with Gandhi.

Q. His studies went on uninterrupted abroad until he received a call from India.

R. He went to Cambridge to study.

S. But now and them, he could not help listening to political discussions in his house.

6. Till the end of his career, he made Gandhi his political master.

A. RSQP

B. SRQP

C. PQRS

D. SRPQ

Q. 190 1. Venice is a strange and beautiful city in the North of Italy.

P. There are about four hundred old stone bridges joining the Islands of Venice.

Q. In this city, there are no motor-cars, no horses and no buses.

R. These small Islands are near one another.

S. It is not one Island but a hundred and seventeen Islands.

6. This is because Venice has no streets.

A. PQRS

B. RSPQ

C. SRPQ

D. PSQR

Questions: 191 – 195

Sentences are given which blanks to be filled in with an appropriate and suitable word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four

Q. 191 We warande her the danger

A. from

B. about

C. against

D. of

Q. 192 We all laughed the affair

A. over

B. about

C. for

D. on

Q. 193 The chairman, as well as the members, to blame for this misfortune.

A. are

B. were

C. is

D. has

Q. 194 The streets are lighted electricity

A. with

B. by

C. on

D. in

Q. 195 Homeopathic treatment, they say, cuts ….. the need for operation and risk from surgery.

A. off

B. out

C. down

D. away

Questions: 196 – 200

You have two brief passages with five questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and blacken the appropriate rectangle in the Answer Sheet. . “The beauty of the Japanese landscape is that it conveys philosophical messages through each feature. The use of curving pathways rather than straight lines, for instance. This feature springs from the belief that only evil travels in straight lines, good forces tend to wander. Then odd numbers of plants on trees are used in these gardens because these numbers are considered auspicious. Even the plants used are symbolic. For example, the cyprus represents longevity and the bamboo symbolisms abundance,” says Sadhana Roy Choudhary. In Japan, nature is “said to be so closely intertwined with human life that parents actually plant a sapling in their garden when a child is born in the family, letting the growth of the child coincide with the growth of the plant.

Q. 196 They prefer curving pathways because

A. they are inauspicious

B. they can walk easily

C. they stumble over straight ones

D. good spirits walk in them

Q. 197 ‘Abundance’ means

A. long life

B. happiness

C. plenty

D. permanent

Q. 198 The Japanese parents plant a sapling at the time of birth of a child because

A. it is auspicious to plant a sapling

B. it is closely associated with the growth of the child

C. it gives longevity to the child

D. it gives happiness to the child

Q. 199 According to the passage the Japanese are

A. superstitious

B. philosophical

C. lovers of nature

D. lovers of numerology

Q. 200 The Japanese pathways tend to be

A. Symbolic

B. beautiful

C. curved

D. straight

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	D	B	A	D	C	A	C	B	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	B	C	C	C	B	D	D	D	A
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	A	C	C	C	C	D	C	A	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	A	A	B	A	B	B	B	C	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	B	B	A	A	A	C	A	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	B	C	D	C	C	B	A	C	D
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	C	C	B	D	A	B	C	D	A	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	C	A	A	D	B	D	B	B	D	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	A	B	D	D	B	A	D	C	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	A	B	D	C	B	D	D	D	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	B	C	B	B	C	B	D	B	A	A
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	A	C	B	A	B	C	D	D	D	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	A	D	B	C	C	C	A	C	C	B
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	B	D	B	C	B	A	A	B	C	B
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	C	B	B	D	A	B	D	B	D	C
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	D	D	D	B	A	B	A	B	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	B	B	A	C	D	C	A	C	C	D
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	D	B	A	D	B	C	A	D	B	C
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	C	B	C	C	C	C	B	A	A	C
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	B	D	C	A	C	C	C	D	C	D

JIPMER MBBS 2011 Previous Year Paper

JIPMER MBBS 2011

Q. 1 The physical quantity having the dimensions [M⁻¹L⁻³T³A²] is

A. resistance

B. resistivity

C. electrical conductivity

D. electromotive force

Q. 2 In the circuit shown the value of 1 in ampere is

A. 1

B. 0.60

C. 0.4

D. 1.5

Q. 3 The specific charge of a proton is 9.6 x The specific charge of an alpha panic

A. 9.6 x 10⁷ C/ kg

B. 19.2 x 10⁷ C/ kg

C. 4.8 x 10⁷ C/kg

D. 2.4 x 10⁷ C/ kg

Q. 4 If λ₁ and λ₂ are the wavelengths of the first member of the Lyman and Paschen series respectively, then λ₁:λ₂ is

A. 1 : 3

B. 1 : 30

C. 7 : 50

D. 7 : 108

Q. 5 Activity of a radioactive sample decreases to (1/3)rd of its original value in 3 days. Then, in 9 days its activity will become

A. (1/27) of the original value

B. (1/9) of the original value

C. (1/18) of the original value

D. (1/3) of the original value

Q. 6 A tuning fork A produces 4 beats/s with another tuning fork B of frequency 320 Hz. On filing one of the prongs of A, 4 beasts are again heard when sounded with the same fork B. Then, the frequency of the fork A before filing is

A. 328 Hz

B. 316 Hz

C. 324 Hz

D. 320 Hz

Q. 7 If there were no gravity, which of the following will not be there for a fluid?

A. Viscosity

B. Surface tension

C. Pressure

D. Archimedes’ upward thrust

Q. 8 A choke is preferred to a resistance for limiting current in AC circuit because

A. choke is cheap

B. there is no wastage of power

C. choke is compact in size

D. choke good absorber of heat

Q. 9 velocity-time curve for a body projected vertically is

A. parabola

B. ellipse

C. hyperbola

D. straight line

Q. 10 If r1 and r2 are the radii of the atomic nuclei of mass numbers 64 and 125 respectively, then the ratio (r1/r2) is

A. 64/125

B. √64/125

C. 5/4

D. 4/5

Q. 11 The ionization energy of Li⁺² is equal to

A. 9Rhc

B. 6hcR

C. 2hcR

D. hcR

Q. 12 A current of 5 A is passing through a metallic wire of cross-sectional area 4 x10⁻⁶ m². If the density of charge carriers of the wire is 5 x 10²⁶ m⁻³, then the drift velocity of the electrons will be

A. 1 x 10² m/s

B. 1.56 x 10⁻² m/s

C. 1.56 x 10⁻³ m/s

D. 1 x 10⁻² m/s

Q. 13 The numerical ratio of displacement to the distance covered is always

A. less than one

B. equal to one

C. equal to or less than one

D. equal to or greater than one

Q. 14 In Young’s double slit experiment with sodium vapour lamp of wavelength 589 nm and the slits 0.589 mm apart, the half angular width of the central maximum is

A. sin⁻¹ (0.01)

B. sin⁻¹ (0.0001)

C. sin⁻¹ (0.001)

D. sin⁻¹ (0.1)

Q. 15 The principle of LASER action involves

A. amplification of particular frequency emitted by the system

B. population inversion

C. stimulated emission

D. All of the above

Q. 16 A train is moving towards east and a car is along north, both with same speed. The observed direction of car to the passenger in the train is

A. east-north direction

B. west-north direction

C. south-east direction

D. None of the above

Q. 17 Which of the following is unipolar transistor?

A. p-n-p transistor

B. n-p-n transistor

C. Field effect transistor

D. Point contact transistor

Q. 18 A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of the same material and of a same size can be distinguished without weighing

A. by determining their moments of inertia about their coaxial axes

B. by rolling them simultaneously on an inclined plane

C. by rotating them about a common axis of rotation

D. by applying equal torque on them

Q. 19 Point masses 1, 2, 3 and 4 kg are lying at the (0, 0, 0), (2, 0, 0), (0, 3, 0) and (-2, -2, 0) respectively. The moment of inertia 9 tem about X-axis will be

A. 43 kg-m²

B. 34 kg-m²

C. 27 kg-m²

D. 72 kg-m²

Q. 20 The radius of gyration of distance 6 cm from its centre an axis at a mass is 10 cm. Then, its radius of gyration about a parallel axis through its centre of mass will be

A. 80 cm

B. 8 cm

C. 0.8 cm

D. 80 m

Q. 21 A galvanometer can be changed into an ammeter by using

A. low resistance shunt in series

B. low resistance shunt in parallel

C. high resistance shunt in series

D. high resistance shunt in parallel

Q. 22 A bullet of mass 20 g and moving with 600 m/s collides with a block of mass 4 kg hanging with the string. What is velocity of bullet when it comes out of block, if block rises to height 0.2 m after collision?

A. 200 m/s

B. 150 m/s

C. 400 m/s

D. 300 m/s

Q. 23 Voltage in the secondary coil of a transformer does not depend upon

A. frequency of the source

B. voltage in the primary coil

C. ratio of number of turns in the two coils

D. Both (b) and (c)

Q. 24 In Carnot engine efficiency is 40% at hot reservoir temperature T. For efficiency 50%, what will be temperature of hot reservoir?

A. T/5

B. 2T/5

C. 6T

D. 6T/5

Q. 25 A ball of mass 2 kg moving with velocity 3 m/s, collides with spring of natural length 2 m and force constant 144 N/m. What will be length of compressed spring?

A. 2 m

B. 1.5 m

C. 1 m

D. 0.5 m

Q. 26 A proton moving vertically downward enters a magnet pointing towards north. In which direction proton on will deflect?

A. east

B. west

C. north

D. south

Q. 27 Induced emf in the coil depends upon conductivity of coil

A. conductivity of coil

B. amount of flux

C. rate of change of linked flux

D. resistance of coil

Q. 28 X-rays are used in determining the molecular structure of crystalline because

A. its energy is high

B. it can penetrate the material

C. its wavelength is comparable to interatomic distance

D. its frequency is low

Q. 29 Light of frequency v falls on material of threshold frequency vo. Maximum kinetic energy of emitted electron is proportional to

A. v-v₀

B. v

C. √v-v₀

D. v₀

Q. 30 A light moves from denser to rarer medium, which of the following is correct?

A. Energy increases

B. Frequency increases

C. Phase changes by 90°

D. Velocity increases

Q. 31 Which one of the following statements is true?

A. Both light and sound waves in air are transverse

B. The sound waves in air are longitudinal while the light waves are transverse

C. Both light and sound waves in air are longitudinal

D. Both light and sound waves can travel in vacuum

Q. 32 A metro train starts from rest and in 5 s achieves 108 km/h. After that it moves with constant velocity and comes to rest after travelling 45 m with uniform retardation. If total distance travelled is 395 m, find total time of travelling.

A. 12.2 s

B. 15.3 s

C. 9 s

D. 17.2 s

Q. 33 A closed organ pipe of length 20 cm is sounded with tuning fork in resonance. What is frequency of tuning fork? (v = 332 m/s)

A. 300 Hz

B. 350 Hz

C. 375 Hz

D. 415 Hz

Q. 34 The temperature of the sun can be found out by using

A. Wien’s displacement law

B. Kepler’s law of motion

C. Stefan’s Boltzmann law

D. Planck’s law

Q. 35 Pressure of an ideal gas is increased by keeping temperature constant. What is effect on kinetic energy of molecules?

A. Increase

B. Decrease

C. No change

D. Cannot be determined

Q. 36 Kirchhoff’s law of junction, E I = 0, is based on

A. conservation of energy

B. conservation of charge

C. conservation of energy as well as charge

D. conservation of momentum

Q. 37 A transverse wave is expressed as, Y=Y₀ sin 2πft For what value of X., maximum particle velocity equals to 4 times the wave velocity?

A. y₀ π/2

B. 2y₀ π

C. y₀ π

D. y₀ π/4

Q. 38 For a given lens, the magnification was found to be twice as large as when the object was 0.15 m distant from it as when the distance was 0.2 in. The focal length of the lens is

A. 1.5 m

B. 0.20 m

C. 0.10 m

D. 0.05 m

Q. 39 When sound waves travel from air to water which one of the following remains constant ?

A. time period

B. frequency

C. velocity

D. wave length

Q. 40 the bulk modulus for an incompressible liquid is

A. zero

B. unity

C. infinity

D. between 0 and 1

Q. 41 10⁻⁶ M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of diluted base is

A. between 7 and 8

B. between 5 and 6

C. between 6 and 7

D. between 10 and 11

Q. 42 An sp³-hybrid orbital contains

A. 1/4 s-character

B. 1/2 s-character

C. 2/3 s-character

D. 3/4 s-character

Q. 43 Leaching is a process of

A. reduction

B. concentration

C. refining

D. oxidation

Q. 44 Electrolysis of fused NaCI will give

A. Na

B. NaOH

C. NaCIO

D. NaCIO₃

Q. 45 Which of the following fluorides does not exist?

A. NF₅

B. PF₅

C. AsF₅

D. SbF₅

Q. 46 Red lead is

A. PbO

B. Pbo₂

C. Pb₃o₄

D. Pb₂o₃

Q. 47 Hybridisation states of C in CH₃⁺ and CH₃⁻ are

A. sp² , sp³

B. sp³ , sp²

C. sp, sp²

D. sp² , sp

Q. 48 which one of the following complexes is outer orbital complex?

A. [Co(NH₃)]⁺³

B. [Mn(CN₆)]₃₆⁻⁴

C. [Fe(CN)₆]⁻⁴

D. [Ni(NH₃)₆]⁺²

Q. 49 A solution made by dissolving 40 g NaOH in 1000g of H₂O is

A. 1 molar

B. 1 normal

C. 1 molal

D. none of these

Q. 50 0.1 mol HCl is equal to

A. 3.65 g

B. 36.5 g

C. 18 g

D. 1.8 g

Q. 51 which will liberate bromine from a solution of potassium bromide ?

A. I₂

B. Cl₂

C. SO₂

D. HI

Q. 52 which one of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons ?

A. V⁺³

B. Fe⁺²

C. Mn⁺²

D. Cu⁺

Q. 53 The geometry of XeF₆ is

A. planar hexagon

B. regular octahedron

C. distorted octahedron

D. square bipyramid

Q. 54 The correct statement with regard to H₂⁺ and H₂⁻ is

A. both H₂⁺ an H₂⁻ are equally stable

B. both H₂⁺ and H₂⁻ do not exist

C. H₂⁻ is more stable than H₂⁺

D. H₂⁺ is more stable than H₂⁻

Q. 55 2 g of a radioactive sample having half-life of 15 days was synthesised on 1st jan 2009. The amount of the sample left behind on the 1st march, 2009 (including both the days) is

A. 0 g

B. 0.125 g

C. 1 g

D. 0.5 g

Q. 56 The rate equation for a reaction, A —> B is r = k[A]⁰. If the initial concentration of the reactant is a mol dm⁻³, the half-life period of the reaction is

A. a/2k

B. k/a

C. a/k

D. 2a/k

Q. 57 for the reaction, at 373 K and 1 atm pressure

A. ΔH = 0

B. Δ E = 0

C. Δ H = T ΔS

D. ΔH = ΔE

Q. 58 in electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it

A. decreases electron density at ortho and para positions

B. decreases electron density at meta position

C. increases electron density at meta position

D. increases electron density at ortho and positions

Q. 59 The best method for the conversion of into an alkyl chloride is by treating the

A. PCI₃

B. PCI₅

C. SOCl₂ in presence of pyridine

D. dry HCl in the pre dross ZnCl₂

Q. 60 The compound which is not formed during the dry distillation of a mixture calcium formate and calcium acetate is

A. methanal

B. propanal

C. propanone

D. ethane

Q. 61 The compound which forms acetaldehyde when heated with dilute NaOH, is

A. 1,1-clichloroethane

B. 1,1,1-trichloroethane

C. 1-chloroethane

D. 1,2-dichloroethane

Q. 62 The one which has least iodine value is

A. sunflower oil

B. ginger oil

C. ghee

D. groundnut oil

Q. 63 IUPAC name of (CH₃)₃CCI is

A. n-butyl chloride

B. 3- chloro butane

C. 2-chloro-2-methylpropane

D. t-butyl chloride

Q. 64 The condensation polymer among the following is

A. rubber

B. protein

C. PVC

D. polyethene

Q. 65 In which of the following, NH3 is not used?

A. Tolien’s reagent

B. Nessler’s reagent

C. Group reagent for the analysis of IV group basic radicals

D. Group reagent for the analysis of III group basic radicals

Q. 66 Argon is used

A. in filling airships

B. to obtain low temperature

C. in high temperature welding

D. in radiotherapy for treatment of cancer

Q. 67 Hyperconjugation is most useful for stabilising which of the following carbocations?

A. Neo-pentyl

B. Tert-butyl

C. Iso-propyl

D. Ethyl

Q. 68 The isomerism that arises due to restricted bond rotation is

A. metamerism

B. optical isomerism

C. position isomerism

D. geometrical isomerism

Q. 69 amine that cannot be prepared by Gabriel pthalimide synthesis is

A. aniline

B. benzylamine

C. methylamine

D. iso-butylamine

Q. 70 Lactose is made of

A. α-D-glucose only

B. α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose

C. α-D-galactose and β-D-glucose

D. α-D-galactose and β-D-glucose

Q. 71 Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide is a popular

A. anionic detergent

B. cationic detergent

C. non-ionic detergent

D. sweetener

Q. 72 The number of electrons, neutrons and protons in a species are equal to 10, 8 and 8 respectively. The proper symbol of the species is

A. ¹⁶₈O

B. ¹⁸₈O

C. ¹⁸₁₀Ne

D. ¹⁶₈O²⁻

Q. 73 56 g of nitrogen and 96 g of oxygen are mixed isothermally and at a total pressure of 10 atm. The partial pressures of oxygen and nitrogen (in atm) are respectively

A. 4,6

B. 5,5

C. 2,8

D. 6,4

Q. 74 Which of the following undergoes reduction with hydrogen peroxide in alkaline medium?

(a) Mn2+ (b) 12 (d) Fee.

A. Mn⁺²

B. I₂

C. Mg⁺²

D. Fe⁺²

Q. 75 The metal that produces red-violet colour in the non-luminous flame is

A. Ba

B. Ag

C. Rb

D. Pb

Q. 76 According to the first law of the thermodynamics. which of the following quantities represents the change in a state function ?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 77 The maximum oxidation state exhibited by actinide ions is

A. +5

B. +4

C. +7

D. +8

Q. 78 The dispersed phase and dispersion medium in soap lather are respectively.

A. gas and liquid

B. liquid and gas

C. solid and gas

D. solid and liquid

Q. 79 The expression for the solubility product of Ag₂CO₃ will be

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 80 A 600 W mercury lamp emits monochromatic radiation of wave length 331.3 nm. How many photons are emitted from the lamp per second ? (h = 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J-s; velocity of light = 3 x 10⁸ m/s)

A. 1 x 10¹⁹

B. 1 x 10²⁰

C. 1 x 10²¹

D. 1 x 10²³

Q. 81 In mammals, histamine is secreted by

A. fibroblasts

B. histocytes

C. lymphocytes

D. mast cells

Q. 82 The layer of cells that secrete enamel of tooth is

A. dentoblast

B. ameloblast

C. osteoblast

D. odontoblast

Q. 83 Which important green house gas, other than carbon dioxide, is being produced from the agricultural fields?

A. Arsine

B. Sulphur dioxide

C. Ammonia

D. Nitrous oxide

Q. 84 The exchange of gases in the alveoli of the takes place by

A. osmosis

B. simple diffusion

C. passive transport

D. active transport

Q. 85 Carbon monoxide is a pollution

A. reacts with oxygen

B. inhibits glycolysis

C. reacts with haemoglobin

D. makes nervous system inactive

Q. 86 Total number of bones in the hind limb of a man is

A. 14

B. 21

C. 24

D. 30

Q. 87 Calcitonin is a thyroid hormone which

A. elevates potassium level in blood

B. lowers calcium level in blood

C. elevates calcium level in blood

D. has no effect on calcium

Q. 88 A condition of failure of kidney to form urine is called (a) (b) (c) (d)

A. deamination

B. entropy

C. anuria

D. None of these

Q. 89 Solenocytes are the main excretory structures in

A. annelids

B. molluscs

C. echinodermates

D. ularyhelmir

Q. 90 A woman genes (one on each X-chromoso e mophilia and one gene for colour blindness on X-chromosome marries a normal man. how will the progeny be?

A. all sons and daughters are haemophilic and colour blind

B. haemophilic and colour blind daughters

C. 50% haemophilic colour blind sons and 50% haemophilic sons

D. 50% haemophilic daughters and 50% colour blind daughters

Q. 91 The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is

A. cross birdge

B. myofibril

C. sacromere

D. Z-band

Q. 92 The contraction of gall bladder is due to

A. gastrin

B. secretin

C. cholecystokinin

D. enterogastrone

Q. 93 The diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted to different feeding habits on the Galapagos islands, as observed by Darwin, provides evidence for

A. origin of species by natural selection

B. intraspecific variations

C. intraspecific competition

D. interspecific competition

Q. 94 the most important component of the oral contraceptive pills is

A. progesterone

B. growth harmone

C. thyroxine

D. luteinising harmone

Q. 95 The most important component of the oral contraceptive pills is

A. progesterone

B. growth hormone

C. thyroxine

D. luteinising hormone

Q. 96 The middle piece of the sperm contains

A. proteins

B. centriole

C. nucleus

D. mitochondria

Q. 97 The term ‘aquaculture’ means

A. aspergillosis

B. inland fisheries

C. marine fisheries

D. Both (b) and (c)

Q. 98 Active immunity means

A. resistance developed after disease

B. increasing quantity of blood

C. resistance developed before disease

D. increasing rate of heart-beat

Q. 99 The canal system is a characteristic feature of

A. echinoderms

B. helminthes

C. coelenterates

D. sponges

Q. 100 Which cranial nerve has the highest number of branches?

A. Facial nerve

B. Trigeminal

C. Vagus nerve

D. None of these

Q. 101 The problem due to Rh- factor arises when the blood of two (Rh’ and Rh-) mixup

A. during pregnancy

B. through transfusion

C. in a test tube

D. Both (a) and (b)

Q. 102 Which of the following is mismatched?

A. Vitamin-K — Beri-beri

B. Vitamin-D — Rickets

C. Vitamin-C — Scurvy

D. Vitamin-A — Xerophthalmia

Q. 103 The joint between atlas aril/axis is called

A. pivot joint

B. saddle joint

C. saddle joint

D. angular joint

Q. 104 The blood group with antibody-a and antibody-b is

A. B

B. A

C. 0

D. AB

Q. 105 Rate of heart beat is determined by

A. Purkinje fibres

B. papillary muscles

C. SA-node

D. AV-node

Q. 106 The junction between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of the next is called

A. junction point

B. a synapse

C. a joint

D. constant bridge

Q. 107 Chondrichthyes is characterised by

A. placoid scale

B. ventral mouth

C. ctenoid scale and ventral mouth

D. placoid scale and ventral mouth

Q. 108 Secondary body cavity with segmente mesodermal lining is called

A. haemocoel

B. neurocoel

C. true coelom

D. pseudocoelom

Q. 109 Stratified epithelium is found in

A. seminiferous tubule

B. fallopian tube

C. nasal cavity

D. kidney tubules

Q. 110 Dead space air in man is

A. 500 mL

B. 150 mL

C. 250 mL

D. 1.5 L

Q. 111 Vetebrate brain differentiates from

A. endoderm

B. mesoderm

C. ectoderm

D. blastoderm

Q. 112 animals of class mammalia have

A. seven cervical vertebrae

B. seven cranial nerve

C. single ventricular chamber

D. fourteen cervical vertevrae

Q. 113 Vaccine for tuberculosis is known as

A. PAS vaccine

B. BCG vaccine

C. OPV

D. DPT

Q. 114 Sir Godfrey Hounsfield developed the diagonostic technique of

A. CT scanning

B. MRI

C. endoscopy

D. bronchoscopy

Q. 115 Alcoholism may leads to

A. skin cancer

B. liver cirrhosis

C. viral disease

D. eye infections

Q. 116 The basic unit of classification is

A. species

B. genus

C. family

D. phylum

Q. 117 Age of fishes is also known as

A. Permian Era

B. Silurian Era

C. Devonian Era

D. Ordovician Era

Q. 118 A hereditary disease which is never passed on from father to son is

A. X-chromosomal linked disease

B. Autosomal linked disease

C. Y-chromosomal linked disease

D. None of the above

Q. 119 One animal that does not perform locomotion is

A. Sycon

B. Nereis

C. Sepia

D. Euglena

Q. 120 Amount of CO₂ in expired air is about

A. 0.04%

B. 0.03%

C. 10%

D. 21%

Q. 121 The codon for anticodon 3′-UUUA-5′ is

A. 3′-AAU-5′

B. 5′-UAAA-3′

C. 5′-AAAU-3′

D. 3′-UAAU-S’

Q. 122 A kind of biotechnology involving manipulation of DNA is

A. DNA replication

B. genetic engineering

C. denaturation

D. renaturation

Q. 123 Minamata disease is caused due to presence of in water.

A. cadmium

B. lead

C. arsenic

D. mercury

Q. 124 The phrase `Omnis cellula e cellula’ was given by

A. Virchow

B. Pasteur

C. Schleiden

D. Brown

Q. 125 Intermediate community between pioneer and climax communities is called

A. seral community

B. biotic community

C. temporary community

D. ecosere

Q. 126 Ten percent law of energy transfer in a food chain is given by

A. Schimper

B. Elton

C. Haeckel

D. Lindemann

Q. 127 Apoenzyme is

A. protein

B. carbohydrate

C. vitamin

D. amino acid

Q. 128 Glycogenolysis involves

A. conversion of sugar into glycogen

B. oxidation of sugar

C. conversion of glycogen into sugar

D. conversion of glycogen into fat

Q. 129 A polygenic inheritance in human beings is

A. skin colour

B. sickle cell anaemia

C. colour blindness

D. phenylketonuria

Q. 130 Nucleic acid segment tagged with a radioactive molecule is called

A. clone

B. probe

C. plasmid

D. vector

Q. 131 Powdery mildew of wheat is caused by a species of

A. Puccinia

B. Erysphe

C. Ustilago

D. Albugo

Q. 132 Nucleic acid is absent in

A. virus

B. viroid

C. prion

D. Atteziol

Q. 133 In most fungi, cell wall is chiefly made of

A. cellulose

B. chitin

C. protein

D. lipid

Q. 134 Heterocysts are present in

A. Riccia

B. Ulothrix

C. Albugo

D. Nostoc

Q. 135 Double fertilization occurs in

A. Riccia

B. Pteridium

C. Cycas

D. Capsella

Q. 136 In Ruscus, the stem is a

A. phyllode

B. cladode

C. offset

D. sucker

Q. 137 Catkin inflorescence is found in

A. wheat

B. oat

C. mulberry

D. fig

Q. 138 Epigynous flowers are present in

A. mustad

B. brinjal

C. china rose

D. cucumber

Q. 139 In Dianthus, placemenation is

A. basal

B. free central

C. axile

D. marginal

Q. 140 The term keel is used for special type of

A. sepals

B. petals

C. stamens

D. carpels

Q. 141 Coffee and quinine are obtained from the

A. Leguminosae

B. Asteraceae

C. Rubiaceae

D. Poaceae

Q. 142 Kranz anatomy can be observed in leaves of

A. sorghum

B. spinach

C. mustrad

D. tulip

Q. 143 The term ‘bark’ refers to

A. phellem, phelloderm and vascular cambium

B. periderm and secondary xylem

C. cork cambium and cork

D. phellogen, phellem, phelloderm and secondary phloem

Q. 144 Light reaction in stroma lamellae of the chloroplast results in the formation of

A. NADPH₂

B. ATP + NADPH₂

C. ATP

D. O₂

Q. 145 In leaves of C₄ plants malic acid synthesis during CO₂ fixation occurs in

A. bundle sheath

B. mesophyll

C. epidermis

D. guard cells

Q. 146 Membrane is absent in

A. nucleous

B. nucleolus

C. chromosome

D. lysosome

Q. 147 The quiescent centre in root meristem serves as a

A. site for storage of food, which is utilised during maturation

B. reservoir of growth hormones

C. reserve for replenishment of damaged cells of the meristem

D. region for absorption of water

Q. 148 An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of

A. succinic dehydrogenase by malonic acid

B. cytochrome oxidase by cyanide

C. hexokinse by glucose-6-phosphate

D. carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide

Q. 149 Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure of

A. industrial wastes poured into water bodies

B. extent to which water is polluted with organic compound

C. amount of carbon monoxide inseparably combined with haemoglobin

D. amount of oxygen needed by green plants during night

Q. 150 In prokaryotes, chromatophores are

A. specialised granules responsible for colouration of cells

B. structures responsible for organising the shape of the organism

C. inclusion bodies lying free inside the cell carrying out various metabolic activities

D. internal membrane systems that may become extensive and complex in

photosynthesis bacteria

Q. 151 The Montreal Protocol refers to

A. persistent organic pollutants

B. global warming and climate change

C. substances that deplete the ozone layer

D. biosafety of genetic

Q. 152 In the sieve elements, which of the following is the most likely function of P-proteins?

A. Deposition of callose on sieve plates

B. Providing energy for active translocation

C. Autolytic enzymes

D. Sealing off mechanism on wounding

Q. 153 Which one of the following precedes ye-formation of the nuclear envelope during M-phase of the cell cycle?

A. Decondensation from chromosome and. reassembly of the nuclear lamina

B. Transcription from chromosome and reassembly of the nuclear lamina

C. Formation of the contractile ring and formation of the phragmoplast

D. Formaltion of the contractile ring and transcription from chromosome

Q. 154 viruses that infect bacterimal multiplication and cause their lysis, are called

A. lysozymes

B. lipolytic

C. lytic

D. lysogenic

Q. 155 A plant require magnesium(Mg) for

A. holding cells together

B. protein synthesis

C. chlorophyll synthesis

D. cell wall development

Q. 156 which one of the following pairs , is not correctly matched?

A. abscisic acid – stomatal closure

B. gibberellic acid – leaf fall

C. cytokinin – cell division

D. IAA – cell wall elongation

Q. 157 Two cells A and B are contigous. cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure-7 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result of water from cell B to A

A. movement of water from cell B to A

B. no movement of water

C. equilibrium between the two

D. movement of water from cell A to B

Q. 158 The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth

A. results in transcription

B. polymerise in the 3′ to 5′ direction and forms replication fork

C. prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication

D. polymerise in the 5′ to 3′ direction and explain 3′ to 5′ DNA replication

Q. 159 One gene•one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in

A. Neurospora crassa

B. Salmonella typhimuriurn

C. Escherichia coli

D. Diplococcus pneumoniae

Q. 160 In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents

A. a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are formed

B. a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination

C. an opening in the megagametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the

egg

D. the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop

Questions: 161 – 165

Directions (Q. Nos. 161 to 165) Four alternatives are given for the underlined idiom/phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the word in capitals idiom/phrase.

Q. 161 The principal has to CARRY OUT the orders issued by the higher authorities.

A. obey

B. communicate

C. execute

D. modify

Q. 162 The young engineer was hauled up for SPILLING THE BEANS about the new project to the competitor.

A. suppressing the information

B. hiding the details

C. revealing the information indiscreetly

D. spoiling the plans

Q. 163 The Government claims that Indian industry is progressing BY LEAPS AND BOUNDS.

A. intermittently

B. leisurely

C. at a rapid pace

D. at a desired pace

Q. 164 LAYING OFF of thousands of workers is inevitable under the new economic policy.

A. Dismissal from jobs of

B. Offering new jobs to

C. Reduction of worker’s wages of

D. Sending on leave

Q. 165 “I TAKE THEE AT THY WORD”, said Romeo to Juliet.

A. Listen to you carefully

B. Do not believe you

C. Feel angry with you

D. Truly believe you

Questions: 165 – 169

Directions (Q. Nos. 165 to 170)out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substitued for the given words/sentence.

Q. 165 To be biased against

A. partial

B. objective

C. prejudiced

D. predestined

Q. 166 Motion of head, hand etc, as a mode of expression indicating attitude

A. Gesture

B. Grin

C. Gestation

D. Grimace

Q. 167 Bitter and violet attack in words

A. Diaspora

B. piacriticism

C. Diadem

D. Diatribe

Q. 168 Treatment by means of exercise and massage

A. Chemotherapy

B. Hydrotherapy

C. Physiotherapy

D. Psychotherapy

Q. 169 The abandonment of one’s country or cause

A. Defection

B. Disloyalty

C. Desertion

D. Migration

Questions: 171 – 175

Directions (Q. Nos. 171 to 175) A part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the capital words at (a), (b) and (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is (d).

Q. 171 He DECLINED all the allegations against him.

A. spurned

B. refused

C. refuted

D. no improvement

Q. 172 It is time we LEAVE.

A. left

B. have to leave

C. would leave

D. no improvement

Q. 173 We spent an hour discussing ABOUT HIS CHARACTER.

A. on his character

B. of his character

C. his character

D. no improvement

Q. 174 AFTER THE LETTER REACHED me, I shall know the result.

A. After the letter reaches

B. After the let will reach

C. After the letter has reached

D. No improvement

Q. 175 i HAVE RETURNED library books yesterday.

A. has returned

B. have had returned

C. returned

D. no improvement

Questions: 176 – 180

Directions (Q. Nos. 176 to 180) The first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 to 6, the rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct.

Q. 176 1. Early to bed, early to rise, makes a man healthy, wealthy and wise.

P. But for the morning tea, I had to wait for someone to get up before me.

Q. This saying inspired me to rise early.

R. That day I was the first to get up.

S. One day I got up early in the morning.

6.Then I realised that it was a waste of time to get up early and wait for the morning tea.

A. QSRP

B. QPRS

C. PQRS

D. SPQR

Q. 177 1. A wood-cutter was cutting a tree on a river bank.

P. He knelt down and prayed.

Q. His axe slipped and fell into the water.

R. God Mercury appeared before him and asked about the matter.

S. He could not get it back as the river was very deep.

6. He dived into the water and came up with an axe of gold.

A. RPQS

B. RPSQ

C. OSRP

D. QSPR

Q. 178 1. A dog stole a piece of meat from a butcher’s shop.

P. He barked in anger.

Q. He ran to the jungle with the place of meat.

R. He saw his reflection.

S. He crossed a river on the way.

6. He lost his piece of meat.

A. QPSR

B. QSRP

C. QPRS

D. SRPQ

Q. 179 1. Ramai and Samai were two poor young men.

P. On market day they sold their labour.

Q. They lived near Mahespu.

R. On other days, they remained in the village looking for work.

S. They wanted regular work.

6. The headman gave them two plots.

A. QPRS

B. RPQS

C. SPQR

D. PQRS

Q. 180 1. Roger wanted to become a doctor.

P. He put away enough money to pay his first year fees.

Q. They could not afford the fees.

R. Undaunted, he got himself a job in the dockyard.

S. However, he came from a poor family.

6. Once enrolled, he was recognised as a gifted student, and scholarships took care of the rest his studies.

A. SRPQ

B. PRSQ

C. SQRP

D. QRSP

Questions: 181 – 185

Directions (Q. Nos. 181 to 185): out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the right meaning of the given word.

Q. 181 word :Dubious

A. Doubtful

B. disputable

C. duplicate

D. dangerous

Q. 182 word : Flabbergasted

A. Scared

B. Embarrassed

C. Dumbfounded

D. Humiliated

Q. 183 word : Eternal

A. Innumerable

B. Unmeasurable

C. Prolonged

D. Perpetual

Q. 184 word : Genuine

A. Authentic

B. Legitimate

C. Reliable

D. Pure

Q. 185 word : Obscene

A. Indecent

B. Incorrigible

C. Ridiculous

D. Intolerable

Questions: 186 – 190

Directions (Q. Nos. 186 to 190) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

Q. 186 word : Despair

A. Belief

B. Trust

C. Hope

D. Faith

Q. 187 word : In toto

A. Bluntly

B. partially

C. Entirely

D. Strongly

Q. 188 word : Protean

A. Amateur

B. Catholic

C. Unchanging

D. Rapid

Q. 189 word : Predilection

A. Acceptance

B. Attraction

C. Dislike

D. Choice

Q. 190 word : Admonish

A. Condemn

B. Praise

C. Bless

D. Congratulate

Questions: 191 – 195

Directions (Q. Nos. 191 to 195) Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate and suitable word. Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

Q. 191 Are you really desirous_______visiting Japan?

A. of

B. in

C. to

D. about it

Q. 192 when indians from the south move north, they find certain aspects of life quite ________from their own.

A. strange

B. separate

C. different

D. divergent

Q. 193 the sky is overcast, we ________the storm will soon burst.

A. expect

B. hope

C. trust

D. suspect

Q. 194 Population increase with depletion of foreign reserves has led to great daily hardships.

A. joined

B. mixed

C. added

D. coupled

Q. 195 The National Anthem is at every official function.

A. uttered

B. sung

C. whispered

D. chanted

Questions: 196 – 200

Directions (Q. Nos. 196 to 200) Four words are given in each question, out of which only one word is wrongly spelt. Find the wrongly spelt word and indicate it in the answer sheet by blackening the appropriate rectangle.

Q. 196 which of the following is wrongly spelt?

A. Accomplice

B. Accompaniment

C. Accomplishment

D. Accomodation

Q. 197 which of the following is wrongly spelt?

A. Replaceable

B. Replaceing

C. Replacement

D. Replaced

Q. 198 which of the following is wrongly spelt?

A. Relieve

B. Protein

C. Deceit

D. Frieght

Q. 199 which of the following is wrongly spelt?

A. Labrinth

B. Laboratory

C. Laborious

D. Library

Q. 200 which of the following is wrongly spelt?

A. Comit

B. Comedian

C. comittee

D. Comunication

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	C	C	D	A	B	D	B	D	D
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	B	C	C	D	B	C	B	A	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	A	A	D	B	A	C	C	A	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	D	D	C	C	B	A	B	B	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	A	B	A	A	C	A	D	C	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	C	C	A	B	A	C	A	C	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	C	C	B	B	C	B	D	A	D
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	D	D	B	C	D	C	A	B	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	D	D	D	B	C	D	B	C	D	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	C	A	A	A	D	D	A	D	C
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	D	A	A	C	C	B	D	A	D	C
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	C	A	B	A	B	A	C	A	A	C
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	C	A	D	A	A	D	A	C	A	A
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	B	C	B	D	D	B	C	D	B	D
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	C	A	D	C	B	B	C	A	B	D
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	D	A	C	C	B	D	A	A	B
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	C	C	C	A	D	C	A	D	C	A
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	D	A	C	A	C	A	D	B	A	C
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	B	C	D	A	A	C	B	C	C	C
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	A	C	D	D	B	D	B	D	A	D

JIPMER MBBS 2010 Previous Year Paper

JIPMER MBBS 2010

Q. 1 The potential energy of a particle varies with distance x from a fixed origin as v = (A√x/x+B); where, A and B are constants. The dimensions of AB are

A. [ML^(5/2)T⁻²]

B. [ML²T⁻²]

C. [M^(3/2)L^(3/2)T⁻²]

D. [ML^(7/2)T⁻²]

Q. 2 A weightless thread can bear tension upto 37N. A stone of mass 500g is tied to it and revolved in a circular path of radius 4m in a vertical plane. If g = 10 ms⁻², then the maximum angular velocity of the stone will be

A. 2 rad s⁻¹

B. 4 rad s⁻¹

C. 8 rad s⁻¹

D. 16 rad s⁻¹

Q. 3 Two spherical bodies of masses M and 5M and radii R and 2R respectively are released in free space with initial separation between their centres equal to 12R. If they attract each other due to gravitational force only, then the distance covered by the smaller body just before collision,

A. 1.5 R

B. 2.5 R

C. 4.5 R

D. 7.5 R

Q. 4 The amount of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius R and mass M about an axis passing from the edge of the disc and normal to the disc is

A. MR²

B. 1/2 MR²

C. 3/2 MR²

D. 7/2 MR²

Q. 5 A satellite orbiting the earth in a circular orbit of radius R completes one revolution in 3h. If orbital radius of geostationary satellite is 36000 km, orbital radius of earth is

A. 6000 km

B. 9000 km

C. 12000 km

D. 15000 km

Q. 6 A wire can be broken by applying load of 200N. The force required to break another wire of the same length and same material, but double in diameter is

A. 200 N

B. 400 N

C. 600 N

D. 800 N

Q. 7 A cube of side 40mm has its upper face displaced by 0.1mm by a tangential force of 8kN. The shearing modulus of the cube is

A. 2 × 10⁹ Nm⁻²

B. 4 × 10⁹ Nm⁻²

C. 8 × 10⁹ Nm⁻²

D. 16 × 10⁹ Nm⁻²

Q. 8 The neck and bottom of a bottle are 3 cm and 15 cm in radius respectively. If the cork is pressed with a force 12 N in the neck of the bottle, then force exerted on the bottom of the bottle is

A. 30 N

B. 150 N

C. 300 N

D. 600 N

Q. 9 A square wire frame of size L is dipped in a liquid. On taking out a membrane is formed. If the surface tension of liquid is T, then force acting on a frame will be

A. 2T L

B. 4T L

C. 8T L

D. 16T L

Q. 10 64 spherical rain drops of equal size are falling vertically through air with a terminal velocity 1.5 ms⁻¹. If these drops coalesce to form a bog spherical drop, then terminal velocity of big drop is

A. 8 ms⁻¹

B. 16 ms⁻¹

C. 24 ms⁻¹

D. 32 ms⁻¹

Q. 11 The equation of a wave is y = 5 sin(t/0.04 – x/4); where x is in cm and t is in second. The maximum velocity of the wave will be

A. 1 ms⁻¹

B. 2 ms⁻¹

C. 1.5 ms⁻¹

D. 1.25 ms⁻¹

Q. 12 Two vibrating strings of the same material but lengths L and 2L have radii 2r and r

respectively. They are stretched under the same tension. Both the strings vibrate in their fundamental modes, the one of length L and with frequency ν₁ and the other with frequency ν₂. The ratio ν₁/ν₂ is

A. 2

B. 4

C. 8

D. 1

Q. 13 1 mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature of T K does 6R joule of work adiabatically. If the ratio of specific heats of this gas at constant pressure and at constant volume is 5/3, then final temperature of the gas will be

A. (T – 4)K

B. (T + 4)K

C. (T – 2.4)K

D. (T + 2.4)K

Q. 14 Consider a compound slab consisting of two different materials having equal lengths, thicknesses and thermal conductivities K and 2K respectively. The equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab is

A. √2 K

B. 3 K

C. 4/3 K

D. 2/3 K

Q. 15 A black body has a wavelength of λ at temperature 2000 K. Its corresponding wavelength at temperature 3000 K will be

A. 2λ/3

B. 3λ/2

C. 4λ/9

D. 9λ/4

Q. 16 A plane mirror produces a magnification of

A. zero

B. -1

C. +1

D. between 0 and +1

Q. 17 Two coherent light beams of intensities I and 4I are superposed. The maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are

A. 5I and I

B. 5I and 3I

C. 9I and I

D. 9I and 3I

Q. 18 If Young’s double slit experiment is performed in water instead of air, then

A. no fringe would be seen

B. fringe width would decrease

C. fringe width would increase

D. fringe width would remain unchanged

Q. 19 A charge q is located at the centre of a cube. the electric flux through any face is

A. 4πq/6(4πε₀)

B. πq/6(4πε₀)

C. q/6(4πε₀)

D. 2πq/6(4πε₀)

Q. 20 Figure shows three spherical equipotential surfaces A, B and C around a point charge q. The potential difference VA – VB = VB – VC. If t₁ and t₂ be the distances between them, then

A. t₁ = t₂

B. t₁ > t₂

C. t₁ < t₂

D. t₁ ≤ t₂

Q. 21 Three capacitors of capacitances 1μF, 2μF and 4μF are connected first in series

combination, and then in a parallel combination. The ratio of their equivalent capacities will be

A. 2 : 49

B. 49 : 2

C. 4 : 49

D. 49 : 4

Q. 22 AT room temperature, copper has free electron density of 8.4×10²⁸m⁻³. The electron drift velocity in a copper conductor of cross-sectional area of 10⁻⁶m² and carrying a current of 5.4 A,

A. 4 ms⁻¹

B. 0.4 ms⁻¹

C. 4 cm s⁻¹

D. 0.4 mm s⁻¹

Q. 23 A uniform wire of resistance R and length L is cut into four equal parts, each of length L/4, which are then connected in parallel combination. The effective resistance of the combination will be

A. R

B. 4R

C. R/4

D. R/16

Q. 24 A capacitor 5μF is connected as shown in the figure. The internal resistance of the cell is 0.5Ω. The amount of charge on the capacitor plates is

A. 80μC

B. 40μC

C. 20μC

D. 10μC

Q. 25 The equivalent resistance across A and B is

A. 2Ω

B. 3Ω

C. 4Ω

D. 5Ω

Q. 26 An electric current passes through a long straight wire. At a distance 5cm from the straight wire, the magnetic field is B. The magnetic field at 20cm from the straight wire would be

A. B/6

B. B/4

C. B/3

D. B/2

Q. 27 AN electron of mass m and charge q is travelling with a speed v along a circular path of radius r at right angles to a uniform magnetic field B. If speed of the electron is doubled and the magnetic field is halved, then resulting path would have a radius of

A. r/4

B. r/2

C. 2r

D. 4r

Q. 28 A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter should have

A. low resistance in series with its coil

B. low resistance in parallel with its coil

C. high resistance in series with its coil

D. high resistance in parallel with its coil

Q. 29 A frog can be leviated in magnetic field produced by a current in a vertical solenoid placed below the frog. This is possible because the body of the frog behaves as

A. paramagnetic

B. diamagnetic

C. ferromagnetic

D. anti-ferromagnetic

Q. 30 The magnetic flux linked with a coil at any instant t is given by the equation φ = 5t³ − 100t + 300. The magnitude of emf induced in the coil after 3s is

A. 10 V

B. 20 V

C. 35 V

D. 70 V

Q. 31 In 0.1s, the current in a coil increases from 1A to 1.5A. If the inductance of coil is 60mH, then induced current in external resistance of 3Ω will be

A. 1 A

B. 0.5 A

C. 0.2 A

D. 0.1 A

Q. 32 The impedance of a circuit, when a resistance R and an inductance L are connected in series in an AC circuit of frequency f, is

A. √R + 2π²f²L²

B. √R + 4π²f²L²

C. √R² + 4π²f²L²

D. √R² + 2π²f²L²

Q. 33 In a series L-C-R circuit, resistance R = 10Ω and the impedance Z = 10Ω. The phase difference between the current and the voltage is

A. 0°

B. 30°

C. 45°

D. 60°

Q. 34 Which of the following electromagnetic waves have the smallest wavelength?

A. γ-rays

B. X-rays

C. UV waves

D. Infrared rays

Q. 35 The kinetic energy of an electron, which is accelerated in the potential difference of 100 V, is

A. 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁷ J

B. 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁴ J

C. 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁰ J

D. 1.6 × 10⁻⁸ J

Q. 36 J. J. Thompson’s cathode ray tube experiment demonstrated that

A. cathode rays are streams of negatively charged ions

B. all the mass of an atom is essentially in the nucleus

C. the e/m of electrons is much greater than the e/m of protons

D. thee/m ratio of the cathode ray particles changes when a different gas is placed in the

discharge tube

Q. 37 Wavelength of light emitted from second orbit to first orbit in a hydrogen atom is

A. 6563 A°

B. 4102 A°

C. 4861 A°

D. 1215 A°

Q. 38 The half-life of a radio-isotope is 4h. If initial mass of the isotope was 200g, then mass remaining after 24h will be

A. 1.042 g

B. 2.084 g

C. 3.125 g

D. 4.167 g

Q. 39 If ₉₂U²³⁸ emits 8 α-particles and 6 β-particles, then the resulting nucleus is

A. ₈₂U²⁰⁶

B. ₈₂Pb²⁰⁶

C. ₈₂U²¹⁰

D. ₈₂U²¹⁴

Q. 40 Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates?

A. OR

B. NOR

C. AND

D. NAND

Q. 41 In the electron dot structure of H₂SO₄, the total number of unshared electrons is

A. 20

B. 16

C. 12

D. 8

Q. 42 The general molecular formula for disaccharide is

A. C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁

B. C₁₀H₂₀O₁₀

C. C₁₂H₂₀O₁₀

D. C₁₂H₂₂O₁₀

Q. 43 The correct order towards bond angle is

A. sp³ < sp² < sp

B. sp < sp² < sp³

C. sp < sp³ < sp²

D. sp² < sp³ < sp

Q. 44 The vapour pressure of 100g water reduces from 3000 Nm⁻² to 2985 Nm⁻² when 5g f substance ‘X’ is dissolved in it. Substance ‘X’ is

A. methanol

B. glucose

C. carbon dioxide

D. Cannot predict

Q. 45 Which of the following relation is correct?

A. Ist IE of C > Ist IE of B

B. Ist IE of C < Ist IE of B

C. IInd IE of C > IInd IE of B

D. Both (b) and (c)

Q. 46 The complex ion which has no d-electrons in the central atom is

A. [MnO₄]⁻

B. [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺

C. [Fe(CN)₆]³⁻

D. [Cr(H₂O)₆]³⁺

Q. 47 Which of the following configurations corresponds to element of highest ionisation energy?

A. 1s², 2s¹

B. 1s², 2s², 2p³

C. 1s², 2s², 2p²

D. 1s², 2s², 2p⁶, 3s¹

Q. 48 White P reacts with caustic soda, the products are PH₃ and NaH₂PO₂. This reaction is an example of

A. hydrolysis

B. reduction

C. disproportionation

D. neutraalisation

Q. 49 The solubility of saturated solution of Ag₂CrO₄ is s mol L⁻¹. What is its solubility product?

A. 4s³

B. s³

C. 2s³

D. 16s²

Q. 50 Which of the following has a bond formed by overlap of sp – sp³ hybrid orbitals?

A. CH₃−C≡C−CH₃

B. CH₃−CH=CH−CH₃

C. CH₂=CH−CH=CH₂

D. HC=CH

Q. 51 Which of the following proteins transports oxygen in the blood stream?

A. Myoglobin

B. Insulin

C. Albumin

D. Haemoglobin

Q. 52 The only o-p-directing group which is deactivating in nature is

A. −NH₂

B. −OH

C. −X (halogens)

D. −R (alkyl groups)

Q. 53 Which of the organic compounds will give red colour in Lassaigne test?

A. C₆H₅NH₂

B. S ∥ NH₂ − C − NH₂

C. O ∥ NH₂ − C − NH₂

D. None of these

Q. 54 For a reaction, A+B −> Product, the rate is given by,

r=k[A]^(1/2)[B]².

What is the order of the reaction?

A. 0.5

B. 2

C. 2.5

D. 1

Q. 55 The density of a gas is found to be 1.56 g/L at 745 mm pressure and 65°C. What is the molecular mass of the gas?

A. 44.2 u

B. 4.42 u

C. 2.24 u

D. 22.4 u

Q. 56 Considering H₂O as weak field ligand, the number of unpaired electrons in [Mn(H₂O)₆]²⁺ will be (Atomic number of Mn = 25)

A. five

B. two

C. four

D. three

Q. 57 Ethyl alcohol reacts with thionyl chloride to give

A. CH₃CH₂Cl + HCl

B. CH₃CH₂Cl + H₂O + SO₂

C. CH₃CH₂Cl + HCl + SO₂

D. CH₃CH₂Cl + SO₂ + Cl₂

Q. 58 The quantum numbers +1/2 and -1/2 for the electron spin represent

A. rotation of the electron in clockwise and anticlockwise direction respectively

B. rotation of the electron in anticlockwise and clockwise direction respectively

C. magnetic moment of the electron pointing up and down respectively

D. two quantum mechanical spin states which have no classical analogues

Q. 59 How long will ti take to deposit 1.0 g of chromium when a current of 1.25 A flows through a solution of chromium (III) sulphate? (Molar mass of Cr = 52)

A. 1.24 min

B. 1.24 h

C. 1.24 s

D. None of these

Q. 60 Gabriel phthalimide reaction is used for the preparation of

A. primary aromatic amines

B. secondary amines

C. primary aliphatic amines

D. tertiary amines

Q. 61 The monomers of terylene are

A. phenol and formaldehyde

B. ethylene glycol and phthalic acid

C. adipic acid and hexamethylenediamine

D. ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid

Q. 62 If a be the edge length of the unit cell and r be the radius of an atom then for fcc

arrangement, the correct relation is

A. 4a = √3 r

B. 4r = √3 a

C. 4r = √2 a

D. 4r = a/√2

Q. 63 CaC₂ and H₂O react to produce

A. CH₄

B. C₂H₄

C. C₂H₂

D. C₂H₆

Q. 64 Primary alcohols can be obtained from the reaction of R MgX with

A. CO₂

B. HCHO

C. CH₃CHO

D. H₂O

Q. 65 Proteins are composed of

A. α-amino acids

B. carbohydrates

C. vitamins

D. mineral salts

Q. 66 The IUPAC name of the following compound, is

A. 1,2-dimethyl-2-butenol

B. 3-methylpent-3-en-2ol

C. 3,4-dimethyl-2-buten-4-ol

D. None of the above

Q. 67 Ammonia gas can be dried over

A. CaCl₂

B. Conc. H₂SO₄

C. P₂O₅

D. quick lime

Q. 68 The number of phase in a colloidal system is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 69 Which of the following has the highest bond order?

A. N₂

B. O₂

C. He₂

D. H₂

Q. 70 Inorganic benzene is

A. B₃N₆H₃

B. B₃N₃H₆

C. Al₃N₃H₆

D. None of these

Q. 71 In long form of Periodic Table, the properties of the elements are a periodic function of their

A. atomic size

B. ionisation energy

C. atomic mass

D. atomic number

Q. 72 Which of the following is a wrong statement?

In a given period of the Periodic Table, the s-block element has, in general, a higher value of

A. electronegativity

B. atomic radius

C. ionisation energy

D. electron affinity

Q. 73 What is the ΔH of the reaction

H ∣ H − C − Cl (g) −> C(g) + 2H(g) + 2Cl(g)?

The average bond energies of C − Cl bond and C − H bond are 416 kJ and 325 kJ mol⁻¹

Respectively.

∣

A. 1482 kJ

B. 1482 J

C. 1492 kJ

D. 1492 J

Q. 74 Which of the following is a Lewis acid?

A. OH⁻

B. H⁺

C. F⁻

D. NH₃

Q. 75 Heating of rubber with sulphur is called

A. vulcanisation

B. galvanisation

C. sulphonation

D. bessemerisation

Q. 76 Which of the following statement is correct?

A. +I group stabilises a carbocation

B. +I group stabilises a carbanion

C. -I group stabilises a carbocation

D. -I group stabilises a free radical

Q. 77 Dihedral angle between two methyl groups of n-butane in the gauche and anti forms are

A. 60°, 0°

B. 0°, 60°

C. 60°, 180°

D. 180°, 60°

Q. 78 A solid AB has the NaCl structure. If radius of cation A⁺ is 120 pm, the maximum possible value of the radius of the anion B⁻ is

A. 240 pm

B. 60 pm

C. 49.6 pm

D. 290 pm

Q. 79 Common alum is

A. K₂SO₄.Al₂(SO₄)₃.24H₂O

B. (NH₄)₂.FeSO₄.6H₂O

C. K₂SO₄.Cr₂(SO₄)₃.24H₂O

D. K₂SO₄.Fe₂(SO₄)₃.24H₂O

Q. 80 The bond length of HCl bond is 2.29×10⁻¹⁰m. The percentage ionic character of HCl, if measured dipole moment is 6.626×10⁻³⁰C-m, is

A. 8%

B. 20%

C. 17%

D. 50%

Q. 81 Which part of an animal virus is not reproduced in multiple copies?

A. Caspid

B. Protein

C. Envelope

D. Ribosome

Q. 82 The echinoderms are

A. arborial insects

B. marine insects

C. terrestrial insects

D. freshwater forms

Q. 83 The blood of cockroach contains no respiratory pigment. It means that

A. respiration is anearobic

B. cockroach does not respire

C. oxygen goes directly into tissues by diffusion

D. oxygen goes into tissue by intracelllular capillary system

Q. 84 Tube feet is the locomotory organ in

A. starfish

B. jelly fish

C. silver fish

D. Scoliodon

Q. 85 Follicle stimulating hormone is secreted by

A. anterior lobe of pituitary

B. hypothalamus

C. gonads

D. posterior lobe of pituitary

Q. 86 Which of the following amino acids is not optically active?

A. Glycine

B. Valine

C. Leucine

D. Isoleucine

Q. 87 Which of the following vitamins is water soluble as well as an antioxidant?

A. Vitamin-B₁

B. Vitamin-A

C. Vitamin-D

D. Vitamin-C

Q. 88 Human ear ossicles are

A. incus and stapes

B. stapes

C. incus, malleus and stapes

D. incus and malleus

Q. 89 During strenuous exercise, glucose is converted into

A. glycogen

B. pyruvic acid

C. starch

D. lactic acid

Q. 90 ‘Adaptation’ of eyes in dark is due to

A. depletion of vision pigment in rods

B. depletion of vision pigment in cones

C. repletion of vision pigment in rods

D. repletion of vision pigment in cones

Q. 91 Human ancestors who left cave paintings were

A. Neanderthal man

B. Cro-magnon man

C. Java ape man

D. Peking man

Q. 92 Entamoeba histolytica differs from Amoeba in absence of

A. pseudopodia

B. contractile vacuole

C. nucleus

D. ectoplasm

Q. 93 Heparin is synthesised in

A. liver

B. kidney

C. saliva

D. pancreas

Q. 94 Sea gulls excrete excess of NaCl from

A. liver

B. lungs

C. nasal cavity

D. kidney

Q. 95 Which of the following is important for muscle contraction and nerve impulse

transmission?

A. Ca²⁺ ions

B. Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ ions

C. Mg²⁺ ions

D. Fe²⁺ ions

Q. 96 Which one is component of Ornithine cycle?

A. Ornithine, citrulline and alanine

B. Ornithine, citrulline andarginine

C. Amino acid are not used

D. Ornithine, citrulline and fumaric acid

Q. 97 Bull semen is stored in

A. liquid carbon dioxide

B. liquid oxygen

C. liquid nitrogen

D. ice

Q. 98 In parasympathetic nervous system, which of the following is released?

A. Epinephrine

B. Norepinephrine

C. Serotionin

D. Acetylcholine

Q. 99 Pneumatic bones are expected to be found in

A. house lizard

B. flying fish

C. pigeon

D. tadpole of frog

Q. 100 Which compound has very important role in prebiotic evolution?

A. Sulphur dioxide

B. Nitric oxide

C. Methane

D. Sulphur trioxide

Q. 101 A man of blood group-A marries a woman of blood group-AB, which type of progeny would indicate that man is heterozygous?

A. O

B. B

C. A

D. AB

Q. 102 Balbiani rings are the structural features of

A. allosomes

B. polytene chromosomes

C. autosomes

D. lampbrush chromosomes

Q. 103 How many sperms are present in an average(3 mL) ejaculation?

A. 200 million

B. 300 million

C. 400 million

D. 500 million

Q. 104 The permanent decrease in population number occurs due to

A. migration

B. natality

C. emigration

D. mortality

Q. 105 Which of the following is not a vestigial structural in Homo sapiens?

A. Third molar

B. Epiglottis

C. Plica semilunaris

D. Pyramidalis muscle

Q. 106 The velocity of conduction of nerve impulse in frog is

A. 300 m/s

B. same as of electricity

C. faster than sound

D. 30 m/s

Q. 107 Connecting link between annelids and molluscs is

A. Neopilina

B. Peripatus

C. Periplaneta

D. Limulus

Q. 108 The extra structure that provides nutrition to the embryo is

A. umbilicus

B. amnion

C. chorion

D. placenta

Q. 109 Ruminants belong to order

A. Proboscida

B. Artiodactyla

C. Marsupials

D. Edentata

Q. 110 Which of the following is a respiratory disease?

A. Polio

B. Arthritis

C. Asthma

D. Cancer

Q. 111 Sciatic vein of frog opens in

A. heart

B. kidney

C. pelvic region

D. liver

Q. 112 Aspirin is a/an

A. antibiotic

B. antipyretic

C. antiseptic

D. None of the above

Q. 113 Which of the following have notochord throughout life?

A. Birds

B. Fish

C. Snake

D. Amphioxus

Q. 114 First National Park developed in India is

A. Gir

B. Kaziranga

C. Jim Corbett

D. None of these

Q. 115 During unfavourable condition, the sponges form

A. cyst

B. encyst

C. spicule

D. gemmule

Q. 116 Tree of life is

A. arbor vitae

B. pons Varoli

C. organ of Corti

D. diencephalon

Q. 117 Which is common between earthworm, leech and centipede?

A. They have Malpigian tubules

B. They are hermaphrodite

C. They have ventral nerve cord

D. None of the above

Q. 118 Eustachian canal connects

A. middle ear with external ear

B. middle ear with internal ear

C. external ear with internal ear

D. pharynx with middle ear

Q. 119 Shell of molluscs is derived from

A. foot

B. mantle

C. ctenidia

D. placoid

Q. 120 Sporogony of malarial parasite occurs in

A. liver of man

B. RBCs of man

C. salivary glands of mosquito

D. stomach of mosquito

Q. 121 Bacteria are considered plant because they

A. are green in colour

B. have rigid cell wall

C. have chlorophyll

D. have stomata

Q. 122 Solarisation is

A. formation of chlorophyll

B. destruction of chlorophyll

C. utilisation of sunlight

D. effects of solar light

Q. 123 Which is essential for root hair growth?

A. Zinc

B. Calcium

C. Molybdenum

D. Sulphur

Q. 124 A fern prothallus is bisexual. If fertilisation takes place between their gametes than it is known as

A. cross-fertilisation

B. self-fertilisation

C. isogamous

D. viviparous

Q. 125 In Pisum sativum, there are 14 chromosomes. How many types of homologous pairs can be prepared?

A. 14

B. 7

C. 2¹⁴

D. 2¹⁰

Q. 126 CHicory powder which is mixed with coffee powder is obtained from

A. root

B. leaf

C. stem

D. seeds

Q. 127 Which of the following is not the feature of gymnosperms?

A. Parallel venation

B. Perennial plants

C. Distinct branches(long and short branches)

D. with vessels

Q. 128 In callus culture, roots can be induced by the supply of

A. auxin

B. cytokinin

C. gibberellin

D. ethylene

Q. 129 Stem cuttings are commonly used for the propagation of

A. banana

B. rose

C. mango

D. cotton

Q. 130 Pure tall plants are crossed with pure dwarf plants. In the F₁ generation, all plants were tall. These tall plants of F₁ generation were selfed and the ratio of tall to dwarf plants obtained was 3:1. This is called

A. dominance

B. inheritance

C. codominance

D. heredity

Q. 131 Edible part in ‘sorosis’, a composite fruit, is

A. cotyledons

B. endosperm

C. perianth and peduncle

D. fleshy thalamus

Q. 132 Which of the following is a true nut?

A. Walnut

B. Cashewnut

C. Groundnut

D. Pistachio

Q. 133 Most primitive member, in which roots are not present, is

A. Psilotum

B. Rhynia

C. Lycopodium

D. Selaginella

Q. 134 Botanical name of ‘chana’ is

A. Cicer arietinum

B. Phaseolus aureus

C. Lablab purpureus

D. Dolichos

Q. 135 The edible dry fruit ‘chilgoza’ is

A. fruit of Cycas

B. fruit of Pinus gerardiana

C. seed of Cycas

D. seed of Pinus gerardiana

Q. 136 Ubisch bodies are present in

A. pollen tube

B. pollen grain

C. microscope

D. tapetum

Q. 137 An obligate root parasite is

A. Rafflesia

B. Loranthus

C. Viscum

D. Striga

Q. 138 Lady finger belongs to family

A. Malvaceae

B. Cucurbitaceae

C. Lilaceae

D. Brassicaceae

Q. 139 What differentiates leaf of dicots from monocots?

A. Parallel venation

B. Differentiation of palisade and spongy parenchyma

C. Stomata only on upper side

D. Stomata both on upper and lower sides

Q. 140 The presence of diversity at the junction of territories to two different habitats is known as

A. bottleneck effect

B. edge effect

C. junction effect

D. Pasteur effect

Q. 141 Endoplasmic reticulum is in continuation with

A. Golgi body

B. nuclear wall

C. mitochondria

D. cell wall

Q. 142 In which form does the food transported in plants?

A. Sucrose

B. Fructose

C. Glucose

D. Lactose

Q. 143 Pappus is modified

A. calyx

B. corolla

C. bractus

D. gynoecium

Q. 144 Trimerous flower, superior ovary and axile placentation is characteristics of

A. Liliaceae

B. Cucurbitaceae

C. Solanaceae

D. Compositae

Q. 145 In Cycas, pollination takes place in

A. 3-celled stage

B. 4-celled stage

C. 2-celled stage

D. 1-celled stage

Q. 146 During the meiotic division, the

A. homologous chromosomes are separated

B. linkage is disturbed

C. homologous chromosomes do not segregate

D. All of the above

Q. 147 During the G₁ – phase of cell division

A. RNA and proteins are synthesised

B. DNA and proteins are synthesised

C. cell prepares for M-phase

D. cell undergoes duplication

Q. 148 Chromosome complement with 2n – 1 is called as

A. monosomy

B. nullisomy

C. trisomy

D. tetrasomy

Q. 149 The bioassay of auxin is

A. avena curvature test

B. callus formation

C. culture of fungus

D. seed dormancy

Q. 150 Clinging roots are found in

A. orchids

B. Trapa

C. Podostemon

D. screwpine

Q. 151 Benthic organisms are found in

A. surface of marine water

B. middle of water in sea

C. bottom of sea

D. on ground

Q. 152 Water bloom is generally caused by

A. green algae

B. blue-green algae

C. bacteria

D. Hydrilla

Q. 153 The process which cannot take place in the absence of viruses is

A. transformation

B. conjugation

C. translocation

D. transduction

Q. 154 Molybdenum causes

A. mottling

B. wilting

C. reclamation

D. chlorosis

Q. 155 Ozone depletion in stratosphere would result in

A. forest fires

B. global warming

C. skin cancer

D. None of the above

Q. 156 From which of the following plant is a medicine for respiratory disorders obtained?

A. Ephedra

B. Eucalyptus

C. Cannabis

D. Saccharum

Q. 157 Decarboxylation is involved in

A. electron transport system

B. glycolysis

C. Krebs’ cycle

D. lactic acid fermentation

Q. 158 Osmotic pressure of a solution is

A. greater than pure solution

B. less than pure solvent

C. equal to pure solvent

D. less than or greater than pure solvent

Q. 159 In Whittaker’s system of classification, prokaryotes belong to the kingdom

A. Monera

B. Protista

C. Animalia

D. Fungi

Q. 160 Expanded green stem of Opuntia is called

A. phylloclade

B. tendril

C. bulb

D. cladode

Q. 161 Choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.

Guerillas “infiltrated” into the region during the severe winter of 1997.

A. entered

B. expelled

C. penetrated

D. filtered

Q. 162 Choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.

He has always been “fastidious” while examining answer scripts.

A. amiable

B. discriminating

C. critical

D. judicious

Q. 163 Choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.

The professor had to share a hotel room with a “garrulous” tax collector.

A. dumb

B. speechless

C. tongue-tied

D. sile

Q. 164 Choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.

It was “fortuitous” that I met her in that party.

A. unlucky

B. bad

C. distressing

D. abominable

Q. 165 Choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.

He is “zealous” only in the initial stages of a project.

A. absent-minded

B. distraught

C. inattentive

D. indifferent

Q. 166 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.

Various/(P) leading a productive/(Q) disabilities stand in/(R) and personally satisfying life/(S) the way of millions of Indians.

A. Q R P S

B. P S Q R

C. Q S P R

D. P R Q S

Q. 167 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.

Farmers/(P) whether or not water will be available/(Q) land use plans only/(R) can prepare alternative/(S) if they know in advance.

A. R S Q P

B. P Q S R

C. R Q S P

D. P S Q R

Q. 168 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.

No amount/(P) poor countries if they do/(Q) of direct/(R) aid will help not develop the capacity/(S) to generate wealth for themselves

A. Q P R S

B. R S Q P

C. Q S R P

D. R P Q S

Q. 169 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.

Having achieved success/(P) to ride the next big/(Q) outsourcing wave I software exports and information technology areas,/(R) this time in manufacturing from the U. S./(S) Indian manufacturers-exporters are well equipped.

A. P S Q R

B. Q R P S

C. P R Q S

D. Q S P R

Q. 170 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.

The majority of/(P) Britons believe that there/(Q) if the increasing problem/(R) must be

restrictions on cheap air travel/(S) of global warming is going to be tackled.

A. S R Q P

B. P Q R S

C. S Q R P

D. P R Q S

Q. 171 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.

He ended his speech on a “supercilious” note which was quite unexpected of a person of

balanced and stable temperament.

A. defamatory

B. contemptuous

C. superfluous

D. irrelevant

Q. 172 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.

Graduation day is “momentous” day for most students.

A. memorable

B. melancholy

C. important

D. hectic

Q. 173 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.

The two opposing parties have reached a “stalemate”.

A. dilemma

B. deadlock

C. exhaustion

D. settlement

Q. 174 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.

The Prime Minister delivered an “impromptu” speech to the students.

A. important

B. impressive

C. inspiring

D. off hand

Q. 175 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in quotes in the sentence.

This is a “lucrative” business.

A. profitable

B. dangerous

C. challenging

D. questionable

Q. 176 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

Made a clean breast of

A. confessed

B. took off his shirt

C. suffered

D. spoke ill

Q. 177 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

A man of letters

A. a man who wrote many letters

B. a leader who received more letters

C. a scholar with literary taste

D. a good reader of letters

Q. 178 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

Reading between the lines

A. reading slowly and haltingly

B. understanding the sense rather than the actual words

C. understanding the meaning of words and not the sense

D. superficially

Q. 179 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

Cheek by jowl

A. very near

B. tongue tied

C. very far

D. irritated

Q. 180 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

Talking through one’s hat

A. talking nonsense

B. talking ignorantly

C. talking irresponsibly

D. talking insultingly

Questions: 181 – 185

Goldfish can be kept easily in small ponds and aquariums, they make good pets, but like many other pets, they must have proper care and the right kind of place to live.

A two inch fish requires a minimum of two gallons of water containing sufficient oxygen to support life. Some oxygen will make its way into the water of an aquarium from the air that touches the surface. Plants in an aquarium also help to furnish oxygen. Snails help to keep an aquarium clean. Thus, with plenty of plants and snail, the water in an aquarium does not have to be changed frequently. A large lake may prove to be a quite unsuitable abode for goldfish. It is important that the goldfish should not be overfed. They can be fed such things as dried insects in addition to commercially prepared goldfish food, but they should never be fed more than once a day. Even then, they should not be given more food than can be consumed in about five minutes. This ensures prolonged life.

Q. 181 Which of the following statements is true?

A. Goldfish should be given food only once a day

B. Snails eat up the goldfish in an aquarium.

C. Plants provide food to the snails

D. Goldfish comes above the surface of water to get oxygen from air

Q. 182 Which of the following statements is not true?

A. Snails make the aquarium clean by eating up goldfish

B. Two gallons of water with sufficient oxygen is enough for two inch fish

C. Goldfish can be made good pets

D. Plants in aquarium provide oxygen to goldfish

Q. 183 Which of the following helps supply goldfish with oxygen?

A. Snails

B. Plants

C. Dried insects

D. Aquarium

Q. 184 Water in an aquarium needs to be changed if

A. there are plenty of snails and plants in it

B. there is no sufficient oxygen in it

C. it is very clean and contains suffcient oxygen

D. it does not contain goldfish food and dried insects

Q. 185 What is important to remember when feeding goldfish?

A. They should be fed more than once a day

B. They should be fed at five-minute intervals

C. They should be fed with plants and snails

D. They should be fed only once a day

Q. 186 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given sentence.

The study of sound

A. Aeronautics

B. Aesthetics

C. Acoustic

D. Astrology

Q. 187 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given sentence.

Murder of one’s parents.

A. Parricide

B. Patricide

C. Uxoricide

D. Matricide

Q. 188 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given sentence.

Government by the gods.

A. Theocracy

B. Thearchy

C. Neocracy

D. Monarchy

Q. 189 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given sentence.

A place for bees.

A. Hive

B. Hutch

C. Lair

D. Den

Q. 190 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given sentence.

One who studies the evolution of mankind.

A. Somnambulist

B. Cartographer

C. Prephologist

D. Anthropologist

Q. 191 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is quoted. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. Choose the one which proves the quoted part. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is (d). “All his answers” were correct.

A. His all answers

B. His every answers

C. All of his answers

D. No improvement

Q. 192 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is quoted. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. Choose the one which proves the quoted part. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is (d). It was quite clear that the runner “could be able” to improve upon his own record.

A. should be able

B. would be able

C. will be bale

D. No improvement

Q. 193 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is quoted. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. Choose the one which proves the quoted part. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is (d). Within last few years most of the fertile land “had undergone” Indigo cultivation.

A. had underwent

B. has undergone

C. was undergone

D. No improvement

Q. 194 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is quoted. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. Choose the one which proves the quoted part. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is (d). His “powerful desire” brought about his downfall.

A. his intense desire

B. his desire for power

C. his fatal desire

D. No improvement

Q. 195 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is quoted. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. Choose the one which proves the quoted part. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is (d). If he “had time” he will call you.

A. would have

B. would have had

C. has

D. No improvement

Q. 196 Four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given under each sentence, you are required to select the most suitable alternative to fill in the blank in the sentence to make it meaningful.

He is too …………. to be deceived easily.

A. strong

B. modern

C. intelligent

D. kind

Q. 197 Four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given under each sentence, you are required to select the most suitable alternative to fill in the blank in the sentence to make it meaningful.

There has been a ……………….. lack of efficiency in all the crucial areas of the working of Public Sector Undertakings.

A. positive

B. surprising

C. conspicuous

D. stimulative

Q. 198 Four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given under each sentence, you are required to select the most suitable alternative to fill in the blank in the sentence to make it meaningful.

The shepherd was looking after the ………………. of sheep.

A. crew

B. gang

C. fleet

D. flock

Q. 199 Four alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d) are given under each sentence, you are required to select the most suitable alternative to fill in the blank in the sentence to make it meaningful.

The Managing Director treated the employees to a ……………. lunch at an expensive hotel.

A. precious

B. thriving

C. stupendous

D. sumptuous

Q. 200 Satish was ……………….. with a natural talent for music.

A. given

B. found

C. endowed

D. entrusted

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	B	D	C	B	D	A	C	C	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	D	D	A	C	A	C	C	B	A	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	D	D	D	C	B	D	C	B	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	C	A	A	A	C	D	C	B	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	A	A	A	B	A	A	B	C	A	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	C	B	C	A	A	C	A	B	C
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	C	C	B	A	B	D	B	A	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	D	B	A	B	A	A	C	D	A	C
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	D	B	C	A	A	A	D	C	D	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	B	A	C	B	B	C	D	B	C
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	B	B	B	D	B	D	A	D	B	C
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	B	D	C	D	A	C	A	B	D
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	B	B	B	B	A	D	A	B	A
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	C	B	B	A	D	D	A	A	B	B
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	B	A	A	A	A	A	A	A	A	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	C	B	D	A	C	A	C	A	A	A
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	B	A	C	A	D	C	C	A	D	D
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	B	C	B	D	A	A	C	B	A	A
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	A	A	B	B	D	C	B	B	A	D
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	D	B	D	B	C	C	C	D	D	C

JIPMER MBBS 2009 Previous Year Paper

JIPMER MBBS 2009

Q. 1 In radioactivity decay process, the negativity charged emitted β-particles are

A. the electrons present inside the nucleus

B. the electrons produced as a result of the decay of neutrons inside the nucleus

C. the electrons produced as a result of collisions between atoms

D. the electrons orbiting around the nucleus

Q. 2 The maximum number of possible interference maxima for slit-separation equal to twice the wavelength in Young’s double-slit experiment, is

A. infinite

B. five

C. three

D. zero

Q. 3 Two spherical conductors B and C having equal radii and carrying equal charges in them repel each other with a force F when kept apart at some distance. A third spherical conductor having same radius as that of B but uncharged, is brought in contact with B, then brought in contact with C and finally removed away from both. The new force of repulsion between B and C is

A. F/4

B. 3F/4

C. F/8

D. 3F/8

Q. 4 In gamma ray emission from particles

A. both the neutron number and the proton number change

B. there is no change in the proton number and the neutron number

C. only the neutron number changes

D. only the proton number changes

Q. 5 A particle starting from the origin (0,0) moves in a straight line in the (x,y) plane. Its coordinates at a later time are (√3,3). The path of the particle makes with the x-axis an angle of

A. 30°

B. 45°

C. 60°

D. 0°

Q. 6 A wheel has an angular acceleration of 3.0 rad/s² and an initial angular speed of 2.00 rad/s. In a time of 2s it has rotated through an angle(in radians) of

A. 6

B. 10

C. 12

D. 4

Q. 7 The resistance of an ammeter is 13Ω and its scale is graduated for a current up to 100A. After an additional shunt has been connected to this ammeter it becomes possible to measure currents up to 750A by this meter. The value of shunt resistance is

A. 20Ω

B. 2Ω

C. 0.2Ω

D. 2kΩ

Q. 8 Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field a charged particle is moving in a circle of radius R with constant speed v. The time period of the motion

A. depends on v and not on R

B. depends on both R and v

C. is independent of both R and v

D. depends on R and not on v

Q. 9 The primary and secondary coils of a transformer have 50 and 1500 turns respectively. If the magnetic flux φ linked with the primary coil is given by φ = φ₀ + 4t, where φ is in weber, t is time in second and φ₀ is a constant, the output voltage across the secondary coil is

A. 90V

B. 120V

C. 220V

D. 30V

Q. 10 The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2×10¹⁴Hz and wavelength is 5000A⁰. The refractive index of material will be

A. 1.40

B. 1.50

C. 3.00

D. 1.33

Q. 11 A car moves from X to Y with a uniform speed vᵤ and returns to Y with a uniform speed . The average speed for this round trip is

A. 2vᵤ/vᵤ

B. √vᵤ

C. vᵤ/√vᵤ

D. √vᵤ/2

Q. 12 A particle executes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude a. The period of oscillation is T. The minimum time taken by the particle to travel half of the amplitude from the equilibrium position is

A. T/4

B. T/8

C. T/12

D. T/2

Q. 13 A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity v. If μ is the coefficient of sliding friction between B and the surface, block B will come to rest after a time

A. v/gμ

B. gμ/v

C. g/v

D. v/g

Q. 14 Two radioactive substances A and B have decay constant 5λ and λ respectively. At t = 0 they have the same number of nuclei. The ratio of number of A to those of B will be (1/e)² after a time interval

A. 1/4λ

B. 4λ

C. 2λ

D. 1/2λ

Q. 15 A transformer is used to light a 100W and 110V lamp from a 220V mains. If the main current is 0.5A, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately

A. 30%

B. 50%

C. 90%

D. 10%

Q. 16 A charged particle(charge q) is moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed v. The associated magnetic moment μ is given by

A. qvR/2

B. qvR²

C. qvR²/2

D. qvR

Q. 17 A steady current of 1.5A flows through a copper voltameter for 10min. If the electrochemical equivalent of copper is 30 × 10⁻⁵ gC⁻¹, the mass of copper deposited on the electrode will be

A. 0.40 g

B. 0.50 g

C. 0.67 g

D. 0.27 g

Q. 18 In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the masses of ions, the ions are initially accelerated by an electric potential V and then made to describe semicircular paths of radius R using a magnetic field B. If V and B are kept constant, the ratio (charge of ion/mass of ion) will be proportional to

A. 1/R

B. 1/R²

C. R²

D. R

Q. 19 Three resistances P, Q, R each of 2Ω and an unknown resistance S form the four arms of a Wheatstone’s bridge circuit. When a resistance of 6Ω is connected in parallel to S the bridge gets balanced. What is the value of S?

A. 2Ω

B. 3Ω

C. 6Ω

D. 1Ω

Q. 20 Two satellites of earth S₁ and S₂, are moving in the same orbit. The mass of S₁ is four times the mass of S₂. Which one of the following statements is true?

A. The time period of S₁ is four times that of S₂

B. The potential energies of earth and satellite in the two cases are equal

C. S₁ and S₂ are moving with the same speed

D. The kinetic energies of the two satellites are equal

Q. 21 An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound, with a velocity one-fifth of the velocity of sound. What is the percentage increase in the apparent frequency?

A. Zero

B. 0.5%

C. 5%

D. 20%

Q. 22 A coil of inductance 300mH and resistance 2Ω is connected to a source of voltage 2V. The current reaches half of its steady state value in

A. 0.05 s

B. 0.1 s

C. 0.15 s

D. 0.3 s

Q. 23 The refractive index of glass is 1.520 for red light and 1.525 for blue light. Let D₁ and D₂ be angles of minimum deviation for red and blue light respectively in a prism of this glass. then,

A. D₁ < D₂

B. D₁ = D₂

C. D₁ can be less than or greater than D₂ depending on the angle of prism

D. D₁ > D₂

Q. 24 A particle of mass 100g is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 5m/s. The work done by the force of gravity during the time the particle goes up is

A. -0.5 J

B. -1.25 J

C. 1.25 J

D. 0.5 J

Q. 25 A mass of M kg is suspended by a weightless string. The horizontal force that is required to displace it until the string makes an angle of 45° with the initial vertical direction is

A. Mg(√2 + 1)

B. Mg√2

C. Mg/√2

D. Mg(√2 – 1)

Q. 26 A force of -Fk acts on O, the origin of the coordinate system. The torque about the point (1, -1) is

A. F(i – j)

B. -F(i + j)

C. F(i + j)

D. -F(i – j)

Q. 27 If Mₒ is the mass of an oxygen isotope ₈O¹⁷, Mp and Mn are the masses of a proton and a neutron, respectively, the nuclear binding energy of the isotope is

A. (Mₒ – 8Mp)c²

B. (Mₒ – 8Mp – 9Mn)c²

C. Mₒc²

D. (Mₒ – 17Mn)c²

Q. 28 A sound absorber attenuates the sound level by 20dB. The intensity decreases by a factor of

A. 1000

B. 10000

C. 10

D. 100

Q. 29 Which of the following parameters characterise the thermodynamic state of matter?

A. Temperature

B. Pressure

C. Work

D. Volume

Q. 30 A charged oil drop is suspended in uniform field of 3 × 10⁴V/m so that it neither falls nor rises. The charge on the drop will be(Take the mass of the charge = 9.9 × 10⁻¹⁵ kg and g = 10 m/s²)

A. 3.3 × 10⁻¹⁸ C

B. 3.2 × 10⁻¹⁸ C

C. 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁸ C

D. 4.8 × 10⁻¹⁸ C

Q. 31 Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuit, in terms of dimension of mass M, of length L, of time T and of current I, would be

A. [ML²T⁻³I⁻¹]

B. [ML²T⁻²]

C. [ML²T⁻¹I⁻¹]

D. [ML²T⁻³I⁻²]

Q. 32 An alpha particle of energy 1/2 mv² bombards a heavy nucleus target of charge Ze. Then the distance of closest approach for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to

A. v²

B. 1/m

C. 1/v⁴

D. 1/Ze

Q. 33 The work of 146kJ is performed in order to compress one kilo mole of gas adiabatically and in this process the temperature of the gas increases by 7°C. The gas is

A. diatomic

B. triatomic

C. a mixture of monoatomic and diatomic

D. monoatomic

Q. 34 Diwali rocket is ejecting 50g of gases/s at a velocity of 400m/s. The accelerating force on the rocket will be

A. 22 dyne

B. 20 N

C. 20 dyne

D. 100 N

Q. 35 A frame made of metallic wire enclosing a surface area A is covered with a soap film. If the area of the frame of metallic wire is reduced by 50%, the energy of the soap film will be changed by

A. 100%

B. 75%

C. 50%

D. 25%

Q. 36 Mercury boils at 367°C. However, mercury thermometers are made such that they can measure temperature upto 500°C. This is done by

A. maintaining vacuum above mercury column in the steam of the thermometer

B. filling nitrogen gas at high pressure above the mercury column

C. filling oxygen gas at high pressure above the mercury column

D. filling nitrogen gas at low pressure above the mercury column

Q. 37 In a laboratory four convex lenses L₁, L₂, L₃ and L₄ of focal lengths 2, 4, 6 and 8cm, respectively are available. Two of these lenses form a telescope of length 10 cm and magnifying power 4. The objective and eye lenses are respectively

A. L₂, L₃

B. L₁, L₄

C. L₁, L₂

D. L₄, L₁

Q. 38 A symmetrical double convex lens is cut in two equal parts by a plane perpendicular to the principal axis. If the power of the original lens is 4D, the power of a cut lens will be

A. 2D

B. 3D

C. 4D

D. 5D

Q. 39 For a metallic wire, the ratio V/i (V = applied potential difference and i = current flowing) is

A. independent of temperature

B. increases as the temperature rises

C. decreases as the temperature rises

D. increases or decreases as the temperature rises depending upon the metal

Q. 40 The potential energy of a molecule on the surface of a liquid compared to one inside the liquid is

A. zero

B. lesser

C. equal

D. greater

Q. 41 Which of the following is not correct?

A. Hydrolysis of NaCl₃ gives NH₃ and HOCl

B. NH₃ is less stable than PH₃

C. NH₃ is a weak reducing reagent compared to PH₃

D. Nitric oxide in solid state exhibits diamagnetic property

Q. 42 SiO₂ is reacted with sodium carbonate. What is the gas liberated?

A. CO

B. O₂

C. CO₂

D. O₃

Q. 43 The compounds formed at anode in the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of potassium acetate, are

A. C₂H₆ and CO₂

B. C₂H₄ and CO₂

C. CH₄ and H₂

D. CH₄ and CO₂

Q. 44 Which of the following is not correct regarding the electrolytic preparation of H₂O₂?

A. Lead is used as cathode

B. 50% H₂SO₄ is used

C. Hydrogen is liberated at anode

D. Sulphuric acid undergoes oxidation

Q. 45 Which of the following is correct?

A. The pH of one litre solution containing 0.49g of H₂SO₄ is 2.0

B. The conjugate base of H₂S is S²⁻

C. BF₃ is a Lewis base

D. Phenolphthalein is colourless in basic medium

Q. 46 Which of the following is correct?

A. Catalyst undergoes permanent chemical change

B. Particle size of solute in true solution is 10⁻³m

C. Starch solution is a hydrosol

D. Hydrolysis of liquid ester is an example of heterogeneous catalysis reactions

Q. 47 In an oxidation-reduction reaction, MnO₄⁻ ion is converted to Mn²⁺. What is the number of equivalents of KMnO₄(mol. wt. = 158) present in 250mL of 0.04M KMnO₄ solution?

A. 0.02

B. 0.05

C. 0.04

D. 0.07

Q. 48 Which of the following reagents converts both acetaldehyde and acetone to alkanes?

A. Ni/H₂

B. LiAlH₄

C. I₂/NaOH

D. Zn-Hg/conc.HCl

Q. 49 The heat information of CO(g) and CO₂(g) are ΔH = -110 and ΔH = -393kJmol⁻¹ respectively. What is the heat of reaction(ΔH) (in kJmol⁻¹) for the following reaction?

CO(g) + 1/2 O₂(g) → CO₂(g)

A. -504

B. -142.5

C. -283

D. 504

Q. 50 What is the wavelength_in m) of a particle of mass 6.62 × 10⁻²⁹ g moving with a velocity of 10³ ms⁻¹?

A. 6.62 × 10⁻⁴

B. 6.62 × 10⁻³

C. 10⁻⁵

D. 10⁵

Q. 51 What is the electrode potential(in V) of the following electrode at 25°C?

Ni²⁺(0.1M)|Ni(s) (Standard reaction potential of Ni²⁺| Ni is -0.25V, 2.303RT/F = 0.06)

A. -0.28 V

B. -0.34 V

C. -0.82 V

D. -0.22 V

Q. 52 What is the equation for the equilibrium for the constant(Kc) for the following reaction?

A. Kc = [A]^½[B]^⅓/[C]^3/2

B. Kc = [C]^3/2/[A]²[B]³

C. Kc = [C]^⅔/[A]^½[B]^⅓

D. Kc = [C]^⅔/[A]^½[B]^⅓

Q. 53 Which of the following can give Grignard reagent when reacted with magnesium in dry ether?

A. C₂H₆

B. C₂H₅Cl

C. C₂H₅OH

D. C₂H₅CN

Q. 54 Which of the following is not correct?

A. Al reacts with NaOH and liberate H₂

B. AlCl₃ is a Lewis acid

C. Al is used in the manufacture of electrical cables

D. NaOH is used during Hall’s process of purification of bauxite

Q. 55 A 0.5g/L solution of glucose is found to be isotonic with a 2.5 g/L solution of an organic compound. What will be the molecular weight of that organic compound?

A. 300

B. 600

C. 900

D. 200

Q. 56 t-butyl chloride preferably undergo hydrolysis by

A. 1 mechanism

B. 2 mechanism

C. Any of (a) and (b)

D. None of these

Q. 57 Oxidation state of oxygen in F₂O is

A. +1

B. -1

C. +2

D. -2

Q. 58 To dissolve argentine ore which of the following is used?

A. Na[Ag(CN)₂]

B. NaCN

C. NaCl

D. HCl

Q. 59 If 50% of a radioactive substance dissociates in 15 min, then the time taken by substance to dissociate 99% will be

A. 50 min

B. 100 min

C. 99 min

D. 150 min

Q. 60 H – O – H bond angle is 104.5° and not 109° 28′ because of

A. lone pair-lone pair repulsion

B. lone pair-bond pair repulsion

C. bond pair-bond pair repulsion

D. high electronegativity of oxygen

Q. 61 The reaction,

C₆H₅CHO + CH₃COOC₂H₅ → C₆H₅CH = CHCOOC₂H₅, is called

A. Benzoin condensation

B. Claisen condensation

C. Cannizaro’s reaction

D. Perkin reaction

Q. 62 The best method to separate the mixture of ortho and para nitrophenol (1:1) is

A. vaporisation

B. colour spectrum

C. distillation

D. crystallisation

Q. 63 Iodoform gives a precipitate with AgNO₃ on heating but chloroform does not because

A. C – I bond in iodoform is weak and C – Cl bond in chloroform is strong

B. chloroform is covalent

C. iodoform is ionic

D. None of the above

Q. 64 What are the values of n₁ and n₂ respectively for Hᵦ line in the Lyman series of hydrogen atomic spectrum 44?

A. 3 and 5

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3

D. 2 and 4

Q. 65 The homologue of ethyne is

A. C₂H₂

B. C₂H₆

C. C₃H₈

D. C₃H₄

Q. 66 A 0.1 aqueous solution of a weak acid is 2% ionised. If the ionic product of water is 1 × 10⁻⁴, the [OH⁻] is

A. 5 × 10⁻¹² M

B. 2 × 10⁻³ M

C. 1 × 10⁻¹⁴ M

D. None of these

Q. 67 Which of the following does not have coordinate bond?

A. SO₂

B. HNO₃

C. H₂SO₄

D. HNO₂

Q. 68 The total number of orbitals in the fifth energy

A. 5

B. 10

C. 18

D. 25

Q. 69 The most probable velocity(in cm/s) of hydrogen molecule at 27°C will be

A. 19.3 × 10⁴

B. 17.8 × 10⁴

C. 24.93 × 10⁹

D. 17.8 × 10⁸

Q. 70 In III group precipitation, NH₄Cl is added before adding NH₄OH to

A. decrease conc. of OH⁻

B. prevent interference of PO₄³⁻

C. increase conc. of Cl⁻

D. increase conc. of OH⁻ ion

Q. 71 Steel is heated to below red heat and then, cooled slowly. The process refers to

A. hardening

B. annealing

C. tempering

D. nitriding

Q. 72 What is the wave number of 4th line in Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum?(R = 1,09,677 cm⁻¹)

A. 24,630 cm⁻¹

B. 24,360 cm⁻¹

C. 24,730 cm⁻¹

D. 24,372 cm⁻¹

Q. 73 9.2g N₂O₄ is heated in a 1L vessel till equilibrium state is established

N₂O₄(g) ⇌ 2NO₂

In equilibrium state 50% N₂O₄ was dissociated, equilibrium constant will be (mol. wt. of N₂O₄ = 92)

A. 0.1

B. 0.4

C. 0.3

D. 0.2

Q. 74 Disperse phase and dispersion medium in butter are respectively

A. solid and liquid

B. liquid and solid

C. liquid and liquid

D. solid and solid

Q. 75 Which of the following carbonates decomposes readily at low temperatures?

A. Na₂CO₃

B. K₂CO₃

C. Li₂CO₃

D. Rb₂CO₃

Q. 76 The atomic number of an element M is 26. How many electrons are present in the M-shell of the element in its M³⁺ state?

A. 11

B. 15

C. 14

D. 13

Q. 77 In which of the following pairs, both molecules possess dipole moment?

A. CO₂, SO₂

B. BCl₃, PCl₃

C. H₂O, SO₂

D. CO₂, CS₂

Q. 78 Which one of the following reactions is called Rosemund reaction?

A. Aldehydes are reduced to alcohols

B. Acids are converted to acid chlorides

C. Alcohols are reduced to hydrocarbons

D. Acid chlorides are reduced to aldehydes

Q. 79 During acetylation of amines, what is replaced by acetyl group?

A. Hydrogen atom attached to nitrogen atom

B. One or more hydrogen atoms attached to carbon atom

C. One or more hydrogen atoms attached to nitrogen atom

D. Hydrogen atoms attached to either carbon atom or nitrogen atom

Q. 80 Which is used in alcoholic beverages?

A. Methanol

B. Ethanol

C. Phenol

D. Glycerol

Q. 81 The trisomy for 21st chromosome is called

A. Down’s syndrome

B. Turner’s syndrome

C. Sickle cell anemia

D. Klinefelter’s syndrome

Q. 82 Which of the following is the largest gland in an adult human?

A. Taymus

B. Liver

C. Thyroid

D. Pancreas

Q. 83 In Pheretima, septa are absent between which segment?

A. 3/4 and 9/10

B. 4/5 and 8/9

C. 5/6 and 7/8

D. 7/8 and 6/7

Q. 84 During emergency which of the following hormones is secreted?

A. Aldosterone

B. Thyroxine

C. Adrenaline

D. Calcitonin

Q. 85 In cockroach, larval and nymphal characters are maintained by

A. ecdysone

B. salivary glands

C. parotid gland

D. juvenile hormone

Q. 86 Which of the following is a transparent tissue?

A. Tendon

B. Fibrous cartilage

C. Hyaline cartilage

D. All of these

Q. 87 Rh factor is present in

A. all vertebrates

B. all mammals

C. all reptiles

D. man and rhesus monkey only

Q. 88 In a rabbit, end of a long bone is connected in another by

A. tendon

B. ligaments

C. muscle

D. cartilage

Q. 89 Which of the following cell type is capable of giving rise to other cell types in sponges?

A. Thesocytes

B. Pinacocytes

C. Cindocytes

D. Archaeocytes

Q. 90 Thigmotaxis is not shown by

A. Paramecium

B. Amoeba

C. Ascaris

D. Hydra

Q. 91 Which is correctly matched?

A. Apiculture – Honey bee

B. Pisciculture – Silk moth

C. Sericulture – Fish

D. Aquaculture – Mosquito

Q. 92 Animals having a built in thermostat to maintain constant body temperature are known as

A. biothermic

B. poikilothermic

C. oligothermic

D. homeothermic

Q. 93 The intermediate host of Schistosoma is

A. snail

B. mosquito

C. housefly

D. sheep

Q. 94 The vitamin which is essential for blood clotting is

A. Vitamin-A

B. Vitamin-B

C. Vitamin-C

D. Vitamin-K

Q. 95 The female genital pore of Pheretima posthuma located upon the segment

A. 14th

B. 16th

C. 18th

D. 15th

Q. 96 Polyp phase is absent in

A. Hydra

B. Aurelia

C. Physilia

D. Obelia

Q. 97 In frog heart, there are cardiac muscles which consists of fibres called

A. Purkinje fibres

B. myonemes

C. telodendria

D. columnae carnae

Q. 98 Malphigian tubes are

A. excretory organs of insects

B. excretory organs of frogs

C. respiratory organs of insects

D. endocrine glands of insects

Q. 99 LH and FSH are collectively called

A. oxytocin

B. somatotropins

C. luteotropic

D. gonadotropins

Q. 100 Which of the following provides most evident proof of evolution?

A. Fossils

B. Morphology

C. Embryo

D. Vestigial organs

Q. 101 In Mollusca, eye is present over a stalk, called

A. ostracum

B. operculum

C. ommatophores

D. osphradium

Q. 102 Turbellarians are free living

A. nematodes

B. cestodes

C. flat worms

D. trematodes

Q. 103 The characteristic larva of phylum – ‘Coelenterata’ is

A. planula

B. cysticercus

C. rhabiform

D. wriggler

Q. 104 In rabbit, head of epididymis present at the head of the testis called

A. vas deferens

B. cauda epididymis

C. gubernaculum

D. caput epididymis

Q. 105 In blood, CO₂ is transported majorly as

A. sodium carbonate

B. carboxyhaemoglobin

C. bicarbonate

D. CO₂ as such

Q. 106 Animals undergo inactive stage during winter, is known as

A. aestivation

B. hibernation

C. adaptation

D. acclimatization

Q. 107 Kupffer cells are present in

A. liver

B. small intestine

C. pancreas

D. thyroid gland

Q. 108 The embryo at 16 celled stage is known as

A. morula

B. gastrula

C. blastula

D. blastomere

Q. 109 Contractile vacuole in protozoan Amoeba is meant for

A. respiration

B. excretion

C. locomotion

D. osmoregulation

Q. 110 Which of the following is important for muscle contraction and nerve impulse

transmission?

A. Ca²⁺ ions

B. Mg²⁺ ions

C. Both (1) and (2)

D. Fe²⁺ ions

Q. 111 Which one is component of ornithine cycle?

A. Ornithine, citrulline and alanine

B. Ornithine, citrulline and arginine

C. Amino acid are not used

D. Ornithine, citrulline and fumaric acid

Q. 112 Chromosomes complement with 2n -1 is called

A. monosomy

B. nullisomy

C. trisomy

D. tetrasomy

Q. 113 Which of the following is not vestigial in man?

A. Tail vertebrae

B. Nails

C. Nictitating membrane

D. Vermiform appendix

Q. 114 Small fish stuck near the bottom of a shark and derives its nutrition from it. This kind of association is called as

A. antibiosis

B. commensalism

C. predation

D. parasitism

Q. 115 The group of Anamniota includes

A. reptiles and birds

B. birds and mammals

C. fishes and amphibians

D. reptiles and mammals

Q. 116 The excretory material of bony fish is

A. urea

B. protein

C. ammonia

D. amino acid

Q. 117 The leucocytes contain which of the following in large quantity?

A. Basophils

B. Neutrophils

C. Eosinophils

D. Monocytes

Q. 118 During inspiration, the diaphram

A. expands

B. shows no change

C. contracts and flattens

D. relaxes to become dome-shaped

Q. 119 The function of pineal body is to

A. lighten the skin colours

B. control sexual behaviour

C. regulates the period of puberty

D. All of the above

Q. 120 Synsacrum of fowl consists of about

A. 28 vertebrae

B. 3 vertebrae

C. 16 vertebrae

D. single vertebrae

Q. 121 Jumping genes in maize were discovered by

A. Hugo de Varies

B. Barbara McClintock

C. T H Morgan

D. Mendel

Q. 122 Streptomycin is obtained from

A. Streptomyces griseus

B. S. aureofaciens

C. S. venezuelae

D. S. rmosus

Q. 123 Indusium is found in

A. algae

B. ferns

C. moss

D. Cycas

Q. 124 The vacuole is lined by a membrane called

A. tonoplast

B. jacket

C. cell membrane

D. tonoplasm

Q. 125 Agar-agar is obtained from

A. Chlorella

B. Spirogyra

C. Ulothrix

D. Gelidium

Q. 126 DNA element with the ability to change position is called

A. cistron

B. transposon

C. intron

D. recon

Q. 127 Initiation codon is

A. UUU

B. UGA

C. AUG

D. UAG

Q. 128 DNA multiplication is called

A. translation

B. replication

C. transduction

D. transcription

Q. 129 Duramen is present in

A. inner region of secondary wood

B. part of sap wood

C. outer region of secondary wood

D. region of pericycle

Q. 130 In plants, water supply is due to

A. osmosis

B. imbibition

C. guttation

D. adhesion force

Q. 131 Most of the economically important five yielding plants belong to family

A. Malvaceae

B. Solanaceae

C. Cruciferae

D. Poaceae

Q. 132 Parrafin wax is

A. ester

B. acid

C. monohydric alcohol

D. cholestrol

Q. 133 Which is always present in photochemical smog?

A. O₃

B. CO₂

C. SO₂

D. CH₄

Q. 134 In a cell, cycle during which phase chromosomes are arranged in equatorial plate?

A. Metaphase

B. Anaphase

C. Telophase

D. Prophase

Q. 135 The soil which is transported by wind is known as

A. colluvial

B. eolian

C. aluvial

D. glacial soil

Q. 136 SPindle fibre is made up of

A. tubulin

B. humulin

C. intermediate filament

D. flagellin

Q. 137 Lichen is the pioneer vegetation on which succession?

A. Hydrosere

B. Lithosere

C. Psammosere

D. Xerosere

Q. 138 In pinus, male cone bears a large number of

A. ligules

B. anthers

C. micro-sporophylls

D. macro-sporophylls

Q. 139 Induction of flowering by low temperature treatment is

A. vernalization

B. cryobiology

C. photoperiodism

D. prunning

Q. 140 Decomposers are

A. autotrophs

B. autoheterotrophs

C. organotrophs

D. heterotrophs

Q. 141 Cleavage polyembryony occurs in

A. Pinus

B. Mini Cycas

C. Cycas

D. Ephedra

Q. 142 Edible part of mushroom is

A. basidiocarp

B. secondary mycelium

C. primary mycelium

D. tertiary mycelium

Q. 143 Calyptra is derived from

A. archegonia

B. capsule

C. antheridia

D. columella

Q. 144 ‘Clamp connections’ are observed in

A. Basidiomycetes

B. Zygomycetes

C. Ascomycetes

D. Oomycetes

Q. 145 What is the main cause for the extinction of some species in tropical forest?

A. Deforestation

B. Afforestation

C. Pollution

D. Soil erosion

Q. 146 Most accepted theory for ascent of sap is

A. capillarity theory

B. root pressure theory

C. pulsation theory

D. transpiration pull

Q. 147 Which of the following is not the feature of gymnosperms?

A. Parallel venation

B. Perenial plants

C. Distinct branches(long and short branches)

D. Xylem with vessels

Q. 148 The presence of diversity at the junction of territories of two different habitats is known as

A. bottleneck effect

B. edge effect

C. junction effect

D. Pasteur effect

Q. 149 In which form does food transported in plants?

A. Sucrose

B. Fructose

C. Glucose

D. Lactose

Q. 150 In cycas, pollination takes place in

A. 3 celled stage

B. 4 celled stage

C. 2 celled stage

D. 1 celled stage

Q. 151 The biossay of auxin is

A. avena curvature test

B. calculus formation

C. culture of fungus

D. seed of dormancy

Q. 152 A eukaryotic gene contains two kinds of base sequences. Which of these plays an important role in protein synthesis?

A. Introns

B. Exons

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. None of these

Q. 153 L-shaped chromosomes are also called

A. acrocentric

B. telecentric

C. sub-metacentric

D. None of these

Q. 154 Which of the following is/are grouped under phanerogams?

A. Angiosperms

B. Gymnosperms

C. Pteridophytes

D. Both (a) and (b)

Q. 155 A bacterium divides after every 35 min., if a culture containing

A. 175 × 10⁵

B. 125 × 10⁵

C. 48 × 10⁵

D. 32 × 10⁵

Q. 156 Which of the following theory gives the latest explanation for the closure of stomata?

A. ABA theory

B. Munch theory

C. Starch glucose theory

D. Active K⁺ transport theory

Q. 157 Biological concept of species is mainly based on

A. reproductive isolation

B. morphological features only

C. methods of reproduction

D. morphology and methods of reproduction

Q. 158 In the treatment of waste water discharge, which treatment stage involves biological treatment?

A. Primary treatment

B. Secondary treatment

C. Tertiary treatment

D. Reverse osmosis stage

Q. 159 Nucellus forms which of the following part of fruit?

A. Seed coat

B. Perisperm

C. Seed

D. Raphe

Q. 160 If the root of a flowering plant has 24 chromosomes, then its gamete has how many chromosomes?

A. 24

B. 12

C. 4

D. 8

Q. 161 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

A pipe dream

A. A pleasant dream

B. A bad dream

C. An impractical dream

D. A foolish idea

Q. 162 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

To give up the ghost

A. To die

B. To make false appearance

C. To terrify others by acting in suspicious manner

D. To leave useless pursuits

Q. 163 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

To disabuse one’s mind

A. To conceal something

B. To remove a misapprehension

C. To banish from one’s mind a thought

D. To proceed cautiously so as to avoid risks and dangers

Q. 164 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

To wrangle over an ass’s shadow

A. To act in a foolish way

B. To quarrel over trifles

C. To waste time from petty things

D. To do something funny

Q. 165 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

To be at daggers drawn

A. To be frightened

B. To be ready to face danger

C. To threaten one

D. To be bitter enemy

Q. 166 Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank.

According to corporate circles, Datta is pushing through the merger to create a financially ________ company in the processed foods business, the group’s thrust area for the 1990s.

A. straight

B. powerful

C. leading

D. acceptable

Q. 167 Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank.

A man who is well-bred and honourable in-variably shows ________ for the feelings of other people.

A. complacence

B. concern

C. consideration

D. contempt

Q. 168 Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank.

You will have to face some practical problems when you start ___________ this plan.

A. prosecuting

B. projecting

C. prescribing

D. proscribing

Q. 169 Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank.

Speeding and blocking are traffic offences which lead to ____________ accidents.

A. winsome

B. arban

C. gruesome

D. minor

Q. 170 Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank.

The more your action and thought are allied and _________________, the happier you grow.

A. invincible

B. divergent

C. integrated

D. unravelled

Q. 171 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.

Around the world, painful terminal diseases/ (P), the question of human death/ (Q), people are wrestling with /(R), especially in the face of /(S)

A. R S Q P

B. P Q R S

C. R Q S P

D. P S Q R

Q. 172 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.

The specific, ability requirements of the job/(P), depend on the/ (Q), required for adequate job performance/(R), intellectual or physical abilities/ (S)

A. P Q R S

B. S R Q P

C. P R Q S

D. S Q R P

Q. 173 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.

Freedom is the restricted kind in the sense/(P), the rich and the poor woman/(Q), that a

wide gulf separates/(R), which a modern woman enjoys/(S)

A. P S R Q

B. S R Q P

C. R Q P S

D. S P R Q

Q. 174 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.

In life, some rules are/ (P), as in business/ (Q), they seem almost instinctive/ (R), learnt so early/ (S)

A. R S P Q

B. Q P S R

C. R P S Q

D. Q S P R

Q. 175 In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence. Kapil, left in an aeroplane/ (P), after reading a sailing magazine/ (Q), had decided/ (R), to build his own boat nine years earlier/ (S)

A. P R Q S

B. R S Q P

C. R Q P S

D. P S R Q

Q. 176 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is in quotes. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is 4.

I would “gladly accompany your sister” if you had asked me.

A. would have gladly accompanied

B. was to have gladly accompanied

C. will gladly accompany

D. No improvement

Q. 177 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is in quotes. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is 4.

The indecisive man “was readily persuaded” to change his mind again.

A. was persuaded ready

B. was ready to persuade

C. was ready persuaded

D. No improvement

Q. 178 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is in quotes. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is 4.

He enjoys “to tell stories” to children.

A. how to tell stories

B. telling stories

C. to narrate stories

D. No improvement

Q. 179 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is in quotes. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is 4.

It is unreasonable to “distort” the statement of a man simply because he does not agree

with your opinions.

A. discourage

B. denounce

C. bend

D. No improvement

Q. 180 In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is in quotes. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the quoted part are given. If none of the substitutions improves the quoted part, your answer is 4.

“Would” you find me absent, please don’t forget to leave a message behind.

A. As

B. Should

C. Unless

D. No improvement

Q. 181 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given capitals in the sentence.

The RANCOUS shouts of the audience forced the management to call off the show.

A. unpleasant

B. loud

C. harsh

D. harmful

Q. 182 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given capitals in the sentence.

At the Hardy house there was great CONSTERNATION when Aunt Gertrude saw Joe helping Frank up the stairs.

A. surprise

B. panic

C. gaity

D. anxiety

Q. 183 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given capitals in the sentence.

Methods of spreading the family planning message have been as FECUND as they have been abortive.

A. fruitful

B. failing

C. peculiar

D. false

Q. 184 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given capitals in the sentence.

Now, the FURY of the demonstrators turned against the machines.

A. asperity

B. passion

C. rage

D. acrimony

Q. 185 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given capitals in the sentence.

Everyone who has worked for him HAMMERS home that point because they feel that it is widely unappreciated.

A. hints

B. stresses

C. strikes

D. directs

Q. 186 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals in the sentence.

Here DEBONAIR manners were noticed by everyone present in the city.

A. stiff

B. cheerless

C. courteous

D. pleasant

Q. 187 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals in the sentence.

Like poverty, AFFLUENCE can sometimes create its own problems.

A. sorrow

B. indigence

C. exuberance

D. opulence

Q. 188 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals in the sentence.

It is surprising to find her CONDONING such an act.

A. disparaging

B. condemning

C. disliking

D. forbidding

Q. 189 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals in the sentence.

He proved utterly CAPRICIOUS in his dealings with his friends.

A. helpful

B. steadfast

C. understanding

D. obstinate

Q. 190 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals in the sentence.

A long as he remained in that office, he maintained his HEGEMONY.

A. predominance

B. poverty

C. subordination

D. chaos

Q. 191 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

Medical study of the skin and its diseases

A. Dermatology

B. Orthopaedics

C. Venereology

D. Homeopathy

Q. 192 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

Code of diplomatic etiquette and precedence

A. Formalism

B. Statesmanship

C. Protocol

D. Hierachy

Q. 193 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

The branch of medical science which deals with the problems of the old

A. Oncology

B. Geriatric

C. Obstetrics

D. Endocrinol

Q. 194 One who promotes the idea of absence of government of any kind, when every man should be a law upto himself.

A. Anarchist

B. Belligerent

C. Iconoclast

D. Agnostic

Q. 195 In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

Design made by putting together coloured pieces of glass or stones

A. Oleograph

B. Mosaic

C. Tracery

D. Relief

Questions: 196 – 200

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it:1

Most of us use the products of science-railways, aeroplanes, electricity, wireless and thousands of others-without thinking how they came into existence. We take them granted, as if we were entitled to take them for granted, as if we were entitled to them as a matter of light. And we are very proud of the fact that we live in an advanced age and are ourselves so very ‘advanced’. Now, there is no doubt that our age is a very different one from previous age and I think it is perfectly correct to say that it is far more advanced. But that is a different thing fro saying that we as individuals or groups are more advanced. It would be the height of absurdry to say that because an engine-driver can run an engine and Plato or Socrates could not, the engine-driver is more advanced than, or is superior to Plato or Socrates. But it would be perfectly correct to say that the engine itself is a move advanced method locomotion than Plato’s chariot was.

Q. 196 Which one of the following statements is true?

A. An engine-driver is cleverer than Plato or Socrates.

B. Plato or Socrates is in no way inferior to engine-driver.

C. Plato and Socrates surpassed the engine-driver in every respect.

D. The engine-driver cannot be compared to Plato or Aristotle.

Q. 197 In this passage the author mentions Plato and/or Socrates to emphasise that

A. they are/were men of great scholarship.

B. people as individuals in the modern age are not more advanced than their predecessors.

C. the engine is better mode of locomotion than Plato’s chariot.

D. Plato and Aristotle had greater respect for learning.

Q. 198 According to the author, the present age is far more advanced than

A. all the previous ages in some respect.

B. the age of Socrates and Aristotle in some respects.

C. some of the previous ages in all respects.

D. all the previous ages in all respects.

Q. 199 Many of us make use of machines

A. with very little knowledge of their mechanism

B. without any knowledge of their historical significance.

C. with full knowing of their genesis.

D. without knowing how they were invented.

Q. 200 People today are very proud because they live

A. in a philosophically advanced age.

B. in a materially advanced age.

C. in a scientifically advanced age.

D. in a spiritually advanced age.

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	B	B	D	B	C	B	B	C	B	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	C	A	D	C	A	D	B	B	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	B	A	B	D	C	B	D	C	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	D	B	A	B	C	B	D	A	B	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	C	A	C	A	C	B	D	C	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	B	B	D	C	A	C	B	C	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	C	A	C	D	A	C	D	B	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	D	D	B	C	D	C	D	C	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	A	B	A	C	D	C	D	B	D	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	D	A	D	A	B	A	A	D	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	C	C	A	D	C	B	A	A	D	A
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	A	B	B	C	A	B	C	D	C
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	A	B	A	D	B	C	B	A	D
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	A	A	A	A	B	A	B	C	A	C
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	A	A	A	A	A	D	D	B	A	A
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	A	B	C	D	D	D	A	B	B	B
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	C	A	B	B	D	B	C	B	C	C
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	C	B	D	B	B	A	D	B	D	B
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	C	A	A	C	B	B	B	B	B	C
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	A	C	B	A	B	B	B	A	D	C