Category: Bank Exam

IBPS Clerk 2017 Prelims

Section	Questions	Marks
English	30 Questions (1 – 30)	—
Reasoning	35 Questions	—
Mathematics	35 Questions	—

Q : 1 – 5

Direction (1 – 5) : Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

When Hurricane Harvey loomed off the coast of my home state of Texas, it seemed to fill the entire Gulf of Mexico. When it roared on land, it pummelled the towns of Rockport and Port Aransas, whose tawny beaches I’ve walked with my kids, pointing out the indigo sails of Portuguese man o’ war jellyfish. Harvey’s eye took direct aim at the University of Texas’ Marine Science Institute, flattening not just the facility itself, but priceless samples awaiting analysis. After Harvey left Port Aransas, it spun back into the Gulf of Mexico over record sea temperatures as great as 4 degrees Fahrenheit above normal. Thermodynamic laws require that warmer air holds more water vapor. The heat armed the storm with a mighty arsenal of water vapor. Then Harvey returned to land, dumping a catastrophic amount of rain on Houston. My Facebook feed filled with pleas for rescue from the rising waters. Friends’ houses flooded —houses that had always been on dry land before. A chemical plant blew up, twice. Toxic chemicals oozed from Superfund sites. Dozens died in the deluge, mostly by drowning. And all the while, alongside the heartbreak and horror, I kept thinking about a strange harbinger: jellyfish. Diaphanous in form yet menacing in sting, jellyfish have a powerful capacity to capture our imagination. They undulate in a primal rhythm, blinking open and closed like eyes that can peer into the soul of the sea. And what they are seeing are changes produced by us here on land. Because we burn fossil fuels, which release greenhouse gasses, not just the atmosphere but ocean waters are warming. At the same time, our ship traffic transports animals to new places, and sometimes these exotics find home-like conditions where in the past those conditions would have been unsuitable. That’s likely what happened off the coast of Italy, where gas platforms are thought to be the home for a new invasion of jellyfish. In the twentieth century in the Adriatic Sea, moon jellies, pinkish with their characteristic four-leafed clover on top, were a rarity. Now they are ubiquitous. And as we wash pollution into our waters, we create low oxygen environments. Some jellyfish, with their low metabolic rate due to their a-cellular jelly insides, can survive more easily there than fish, with their oxygen-guzzling muscled tissues. The fierce stings of these animals chase beach- goers out of the water. Their gooey bodies clog machinery at power plants, halting operations. Rampant coastal development provides new habitat for a jellyfish stage called a polyp that looks like a sea anemone. When it finds a hard surface like a dock or a jetty to grow on, a single polyp can proliferate into a dozen or even more medusae. And fields of polyps grow on those hard structures. And our lack of oversight of the fishing industry, which has removed more than 90% of the large fish from the seas, has depleted the predators of jellyfish as well as their competitors. Jellyfish are eaten by some fish, and jellyfish eat the same small zooplankton that fish do. The ecological vacuum left by unrestrained fishing can allow jellyfish to expand their influence in marine ecosystems. That’s what happened off the coast of Namibia, once one of the world’s most productive fisheries.

 

Q. 1 Jellyfish can survive in polluted water better than other fishes. Why?

I. They have oxygen gulping muscled tissues.

II. They have low metabolic rate.

III. They eat zooplankton for survival.

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Both I and II

D. Both II and III

E. All are correct

 

Q. 2 Why Hurricane Harvey is termed as devastating?

A. Many houses got flooded during the hurricane.

B. Many people died due to drowning.

C. Toxic chemicals got released from superfund sites.

D. Chemical plants got blown up.

E. All of the above

 

Q. 3 What is the main idea of the passage?

A. Jellyfish is an endangered species.

B. Low oxygen content due to water pollution has caused changes in aquatic ecosystem.

C. Informing some unknown facts about jellyfish.

D. Destruction caused by Hurricane Harvey.

E. How to improve ecological balance.

 

Q. 4 Pick up the fact(s) about Jellyfish that is(are) related with Namibia.

A. Low oxygen content has caused reduction in the number of jellyfish.

B. Jellyfish can extensively increase their population in case of ecological imbalance.

C. Unregulated fishing activities has led to a stark decrease in number of Jellyfish predators.

D. Both B and C.

E. All are correct

 

Q. 5 Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true in the context of the given passage?

A. Moon Jellyfish is found in Yellow sea where pollution is unchecked.

B. Hurricane Harvey with strong winds battered the entire Gulf of Mexico.

C. Jellyfish sweeping from China have afflicted Japan’s coast.

D. Jellyfish survive more than other fishes in low oxygen environment

E. Only B and D

 

Questions: 6 – 15

Direction (6-15): In the given question, one statement with a blank is given along with four words. Two of the given words can fit into the given blank. Five options with various combinations of these words is given. Pick up the combination of the words that fit into the blank.

 

Q. 6 The bank officials have been found ________ of taking bribes.

a) Receptive

b) Guilty

c) Probable

d) Accurate

A. a-c

B. b-c

C. a-d

D. c-d

E. a-b

 

Q. 7 The Defence Minister decided to give a briefing about the increased military _______ in the contemporary times.

a) Requirements

b) Threats

c) Assistance

d) Assumptions

A. a-d

B. b-c

C. a-b

D. b-d

E. a-c

 

Q. 8 The neighbours decided to come _______ after seeing the Christmas decoration being set up in the alley.

a) Across

b) On

c) Over

d) About

A. b-d

B. a-c

C. c-d

D. a-b

E. b-c

 

Q. 9 As the Governor _______ the officials to abolish the redundant act, the established system got disrupted.

a) Asked

b) Requested

c) Ordered

d) Inquired

A. b-c

B. a-c

C. b-d

D. a-b

E. a-d

 

Q. 10 The waiter came to our table and asked if we wanted _______ coffee, as it was closing time for the cafe.

a) Much

b) More

c) Small

d) Some

A. a-b

B. b-c

C. b-d

D. c-d

E. a-d

 

Q. 11 The country’s diplomatic history is filled with instances of _______ people coming together to counter challenges.

a) Powerful

b) Insightful

c) Approximate

d) Lethargic

A. b-d

B. a-c

C. a-b

D. b-c

E. a-d

 

Q. 12 In the latter decades of the last century, it was noted that racism was ________

acknowledged by those in power.

a) Virtually

b) Speculatively

c) Strongly

d) Hardly

A. a-b

B. c-d

C. a-c

D. b-d

E. b-c

 

Q. 13 Looking at the state of disorder, the veterans often _______ about the fading relevance of their sacrifices during the great war.

a) Stuff

b) Suit

c) Wonder

d) Think

A. a-c

B. b-d

C. a-d

D. c-d

E. b-c

 

Q. 14 The contract for the dam was being heavily contested _______ the major construction giants on the continent.

a) By

b) Among

c) Across

d) Over

A. a-b

B. b-c

C. b-d

D. a-c

E. a-d

 

Q. 15 The Election Commission decided to _______ its authority after receiving complaints of malpractices during the poll campaigns.

a) Ease

b) Use

c) Exercise

d) Ascertain

A. a-c

B. b-c

C. b-d

D. a-b

E. a-d

 

Questions: 16 – 20

Direction (16-20): The given question has a statement with an idiom in it, which has been mentioned in bold. The statement is followed by five options; pick the option that best explains the meaning of the idiom, as used in the statement.

 

Q. 16 The company was keen at cutting down on the employee overheads in order to make the business profitable.

A. Reduce

B. Spike

C. Ensure

D. Elongate

E. Affiliate

 

Q. 17 It was difficult to put up with the nagging relatives during the growth years.

A. Decorate

B. Issue

C. Endure

D. Richochet

E. Prioritise

 

Q. 18 The commissioner advised the fugitives to turn in themselves to get some legal respite.

A. Lessen

B. Accentuate

C. Retard

D. Liberate

E. Surrender

 

Q. 19 Aniket was willing to go overboard for receiving a scholarship to pursue higher education overseas.

A. Remove

B. Stretch

C. Incur

D. Liquidate

E. Enhance

 

Q. 20 The central bank was of the idea that it was not suitable to bail out the ailing cooperatives.

A. Depart

B. Alter

C. Entertain

D. Reverse

E. Rescue

 

Questions: 21 – 30

Direction (21-30): The given question contains one statement that is divided into five parts, out of which the first part is correct. There is some error in the three of the remaining four parts of the statement, while one part is correct. The correct part is your answer. In case all the parts are incorrect, the last option is your answer.

 

Q. 21 The trouble with/ mental illness are/ that it is rarely/ diagnosed latter than/ it should suitably be.

A. mental illness are

B. that it is rarely

C. diagnosed latter than

D. it should suitably be

E. All are incorrect

 

Q. 22 Recurrence of scams/ in the recent/ decades can be credited by/ the increasing in/ the bureaucratic lenient.

A. in the recent

B. decades can be credited by

C. the increasing in

D. the bureaucratic lenient.

E. All are incorrect

 

Q. 23 The proactive approach of/ a city authorities / have led to the reduction/ with unwanted federal expenses/ in tax collection.

A. a city authorities

B. have led to the reduction

C. with unwanted federal expenses

D. in tax collection.

E. All are incorrect

 

Q. 24 It has always been/ difficult with the political/machinery to meshing with/ the judiciary because/of the conflicts of interest.

A. difficult with the political

B. machinery to meshing with

C. the judiciary because

D. of the conflicts of interest

E. All are incorrect

 

Q. 25 My driver revved the engine/ hard in an attempt to increasing/ the available power over/ the engine, but failed/ due to the favorable weather.

A. hard in an attempt to increasing

B. the available power over

C. the engine, but failed

D. due to the favorable weather.

E. All are incorrect

 

Q. 26 There has been/ a unprecedented increase in/ the number of adoption/ requests into the last/ few years of collect statistics.

A. a unprecedented increase in

B. he number of adoption

C. requests into the last

D. few years of collect statistics.

E. All are incorrect

 

Q. 27 The incumbent Greek government/ is willing to make most sacrifices/ than their

predecessors in/ order to impress financial/ situation in the troubled economics.

A. is willing to make most sacrifices

B. than their predecessors in

C. order to impress financial

D. situation in the troubled economics.

E. All are incorrect

 

Q. 28 Removing the trash from/ the street was being always/ consideration a prerequisite/ for improvement the overall/ ambience of the city.

A. the street was being always

B. consideration a prerequisite

C. for improvement the overall

D. ambience of the city.

E. All are incorrect

 

Q. 29 Referring to the attention/ received for the pilot project,/ the district collector

commemoration / the social workers involved in/ the execution of an crucial plan.

A. received for the pilot project

B. the district collector commemoration

C. the social workers involved in

D. the execution of an crucial plan.

E. All are incorrect

 

Q. 30 Living under the shadow/ of the revolting must have/ has deteriorating effect in/ the personalities of the childrens/ growing over these years.

A. of the revolting must have

B. has deteriorating effect on

C. the personalities of the childrens

D. growing over these years

E. All are incorrect

 

Questions: 31 – 35

Direction: What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

 

Q. 31 7, 10, 16, 28, ?, 100

A. 34

B. 40

C. 52

D. 60

E. 78

 

Q. 32 9, 11, 16, 26, ?, 69

A. 31

B. 38

C. 43

D. 45

E. 46

 

Q. 33 9, 11, 16, 26, ?, 69

A. 31

B. 38

C. 43

D. 45

E. 46

 

Q. 34 3, 4, 10, 33, 136, ?

A. 150

B. 298

C. 463

D. 572

E. 685

 

Q. 35 2, 3, 6, 15, 45, ?

A. 90

B. 135

C. 157.5

D. 200

E. 225

 

Questions: 36 – 40

Directions (36-40): Study the following Table and answer the questions given below.

 

Q. 36 What was the respective ratio between the Books sold in Shop P to Shop S in the year 2005?

A. 243:250

B. 343:250

C. 204:211

D. 104:115

E. None of these

 

Q. 37 What was total number of Books sold in shop R in all the years together?

A. 84200

B. 42400

C. 71900

D. 72800

E. none of these

 

Q. 38 Which Shops sold maximum number of Books in all the years together?

A. P

B. Q

C. R

D. T

E. none of these

 

Q. 39 What was the difference between the numbers of books sold in shop T in 2001 and In Shop S in the year 2003?

A. 600

B. 900

C. 400

D. 450

E. None of these

 

Q. 40 What was the total number of books sold in Shop Q in 2003, 2004, and 2005?

A. 36500

B. 38500

C. 37500

D. 39000

E. None of these

 

Q. 41 Direction: What value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

12.5×14÷8.75+42=50+?

A. 18

B. 12

C. 32

D. 42

E. 65

 

Q. 42 Directions: What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following question? 150% of 460+24% of 650=?

A. 854

B. 854

C. 895

D. 825

E. 864

 

Q. 43 Directions: What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

(44)²+(21)²=(?)²⁺(4)⁴

A. 47

B. 65

C. 52

D. 41

E. 87

 

Q. 44 Direction: What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

504÷42×7-63+28=?

A. 72

B. 48

C. 62

D. 38

E. none of these

 

Q. 45 Direction: What value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

68 +√?-3421=591

A. 3249

B. 3481

C. 3364

D. 3136

E. none of these

 

Q. 46 Direction: What value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

(?)² % of 650 = (20)² + (4)²

A. 8

B. 64

C. √8

D. (64)²

E. 32

 

Q. 47 Direction: What value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

(5²×14+1450)/18=1998÷?

A. 18.25

B. 19.98

C. 34.58

D. 65.25

E. 45.85

 

Q. 48 Direction: What should come at the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

A. 2.79

B. 5.01

C. 4.29

D. 6.36

E. 3.96

 

Q. 49 Direction: What value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

325-(12)²+75=(?)²-68

A. √18

B. 324

C. 18

D. (324)²

E. √314

 

Q. 50 Direction: What value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

534.596 + 61.472 – 496.708 = ? + 27.271

A. 126.631

B. 62.069

C. 72.089

D. 132.788

E. none of these

 

Q. 51 Direction: What value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

√529* 6 / 2 * ?= 14076

A. 204

B. 251

C. 102

D. 146

E. 129

 

Q. 52 Direction: What value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

1637 + 1832 = (45)² + (?)²

A. 38

B. 42

C. 46

D. 54

E. 50

 

Q. 53 Direction: What value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

264 ÷√576+(11)²+12=(?)²

A. 44

B. 12

C. 15

D. 14

E. none of these

 

Q. 54 Directions: What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

69÷3×0.85+24.5-13.8=?

A. 31.75

B. 30.25

C. 28.95

D. 35.25

E. 37.95

 

Q. 55 Directions: What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?

A. 10550

B. 10540

C. 10580

D. 10500

E. none of these

 

Q. 56 Two items A and B have equal cost price. Item A is sold at 40% profit and item B is sold at an amount 20% less than the selling price of item A. If the total profit is 156 Rs then find the cost price of A.

A. Rs. 300

B. Rs. 350

C. Rs. 400

D. Rs. 450

E. none of these

 

Q. 57 Of three positive numbers, the ratio of the first and second numbers is 3:4 & that of the second and third numbers is 5:6. The product of the second and third numbers is 4320. What is the sum of three numbers?

A. 167

B. 177

C. 187

D. 197

E. none of these

Q. 58 The ratio of the speed of a boat downstream and speed of the stream is 9:1. If the speed of the current is 3 km per hr, find the distance travelled by the boat upstream in 5 hours.

A. 100 km

B. 98 km

C. 109 km

D. 105 km

E. 112 km

 

Q. 59 The difference between the simple interest obtained by investing Rs. ‘X’ with 8% per annum for an year and by investing Rs. ‘X+1400’ with 8% per annum for two years is 240 Rs. Find the value of X.

A. 200

B. 100

C. 400

D. 300

E. none of these

 

Q. 60 Average age of A and B, 2 years ago was 26. If the age of A, 5 years hence is 40 years, and B is 5 years younger to C, then find the difference between the age of A and C ?

A. 6

B. 9

C. 12

D. 15

E. 18

 

Q. 61 The average of X, Y, Z is 24. Also, X:Y = 2:3 and X+Y = 60, then find the value of (X-Z)

A. 9

B. 10

C. 11

D. 12

E. none of these

 

Q. 62 The length of a rectangle is 80% of the diagonal of a square of area 1225 cm², then find area of rectangle if it’s perimeter is 94√2 cm

A. 1064 cm²

B. 1077 cm²

C. 1081 cm²

D. 1090 cm²

E. none of these

 

Q. 63 The annual salary of Arun is 7.68 lac. If he spends Rs. 12000 on his children, 1/13th of rest of the salary on food and Rs. 8000 in mutual funds, then find the monthly saving he is left with.

A. Rs. 38000/-

B. Rs. 39500/-

C. Rs. 40000/-

D. Rs. 41250/-

E. Rs. 45000/-

 

Q. 64 A can do a work in 24 days. B is 20% more efficient than A. If C can do the work in 10 more days than B, find the time taken by A and C together to complete the work.

A. 43/3 days

B. 40/3 days

C. 50/3 days

D. 41/2 days

E. none of these

 

Q. 65 The ratio of milk to water is 5:4. If two litres of water is added, the ratio becomes 10:9, then find the new amount of water in the mixture.

A. 12 litres

B. 14 litres

C. 16 litres

D. 17 litres

E. 18 litres

 

Questions: 66 – 70

Direction (66-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.

A building has eight floors numbered one to eight, in such a manner that the ground floor is numbered one, the floor above it, numbered two and so on such that the topmost floor is numbered eight. One of the eight persons, viz, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W lives on each floor. R lives on third numbered floor. Only two persons live between the floors of R and V. W lives on the floor immediately above the floor of Q. Only one person lives between the floors of T and U. T lives above U. Only one person lives between the floors of R and S. S lives on any floor below the floor of T.

 

Q. 66 Who among the following lives on the fifth numbered floor?

A. S

B. Q

C. W

D. P

E. V

 

Q. 67 Who among the following lives exactly between the floors of R and S?

A. U

B. P

C. V

D. T

E. W

 

Q. 68 Who among the following lives on the topmost floor?

A. T

B. Q

C. W

D. R

E. V

 

Q. 69 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?

A. R

B. V

C. P

D. S

E. Q

 

Q. 70 How many persons live between the floors of Q and U?

A. None

B. One

C. Two

D. Three

E. Four

 

Questions: 71 – 75

Direction (71-75): The question has two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

 

Q. 71 Statements:

All buses are car.

Some buses are trucks.

Conclusions:

I. Some buses are definitely not trucks.

II. At least some trucks are cars.

A. Only conclusion I follows.

B. Only conclusion II follows.

C. Either conclusion I or II follows.

D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

E. Both conclusions I and II follow.

 

Q. 72 Statements:

Some animals are plants.

All plants are rocks.

Conclusions:

I. All plants are animals.

II. At least some rocks are animals.

A. Only Conclusion I follows

B. Only Conclusion II follows

C. Either Conclusion I or II follows

D. Neither Conclusion I or II follows

E. Both Conclusion I and II follow

 

Q. 73 Statement:

No pin is a clip.

All pins are fans.

Conclusions:

I. All fans are pins.

II. No clip is a fan.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either I or II follows

D. Neither I nor II follows

E. Both I and II follows.

 

Q. 74 Statements:

Some kites are birds.

No kite is an aeroplane.

Conclusions :

I. All aeroplanes are birds.

II. Some birds are definitely not kites.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either I or II follows

D. Neither I nor II follows.

E. Both I and II follows.

 

Q. 75 Statements:

All metals are plastics.

All plastics are fibres.

Conclusions:

I. At least some fibres are metals.

II. Some metals are not fibres.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either I or II follows

D. Neither I nor II follows.

E. Both I and II follows.

 

Questions: 76 – 80

Direction (76-80): Study the following arrangement of numbers, letters, and symbols carefully and answer the questions.

I 4 M 6 % 1 R O # 9 @ G W S 2 U $ *8 7 C E 3 © K 5

 

Q. 76 How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a vowel but not immediately preceded by a number?

A. None

B. One

C. Two

D. Three

E. more than three

 

Q. 77 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

A. M1%

B. U8*

C. G2S

D. 35K

E. C©E

 

Q. 78 Which of the following is seventh to the right of fifteenth from the right end?

A. 8

B. G

C. 7

D. C

E. None of these

 

Q. 79 How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a consonant and also immediately preceded by a number?

A. None

B. One

C. Two

D. Three

E. More than three

 

Q. 80 If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement which of the following will be eight from the left end?

A. G

B. R

C. O

D. 9

E. None of these

 

Questions: 81 – 85

Direction (81-85): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions.

 

Q. 81 Statement: P ≤ Q = R > S > T

Conclusions:

I. P < T

II. T < Q

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either conclusion I or II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

E. Both conclusion I and II follows

 

Q. 82 Statement: L ≤ M < N > O = P

Conclusion:

I. P < N

II. O < M

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either conclusion I or II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

E. Both conclusion I and II follows

 

Q. 83 Statement: J > K ≤ L = M < N

Conclusions:

I. K < N

II. K < M

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either conclusion I or II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

E. Both conclusion I and II follows

 

Q. 84 Statement: P ≤Q = R, T > R = S

Conclusions:

I. P = S

II. P < S

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either conclusion I or II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

E. Both conclusion I and II follows

 

Q. 85 Statement: P ≤ Q = R, T > R = S

Conclusions:

I. Q < T

II. P < S

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either conclusion I or II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

E. Both conclusion I and II follows

 

Questions: 86 – 90

Direction (86-90): Study the information given below and answer the question based on it.

Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table and facing the centre. They earn different salaries i.e. 12000, 15000, 17000, 18000, 21000, 22000, 26000 and 32000, but not necessarily in the same order. D sits third to the left of A who earns 12000. The one who earns 18000 is neighbor of A. F earns 4000 more than G. Two persons sit between the one who earns 18000 and H. B earns 17000 and sits immediate left of D. G and C are neighbours and earn total 33000. F is neighbor of A and the one who earns the highest. D earns more than E. The one who earns 21000 sits 2 nd to the right of the one who earns 18000.

 

Q. 86 Who among the following earns the highest?

A. F

B. C

C. H

D. G

E. D

 

Q. 87 Which of the following combination is correct?

A. D-21000

B. C-18000

C. G-18000

D. G-15000

E. F-21000

 

Q. 88 Which of the following pair is sitting opposite?

A. B and C

B. C and H

C. A and E

D. E and H

E. G and B

 

Q. 89 Who is sitting exactly between G and E?

A. The one who earns 18000.

B. A

C. F

D. The one who earns 15000

E. B

 

Q. 90 How many persons are earning more than D?

A. none

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

E. 4

 

Questions: 91 – 95

Directions (91-95): Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

OTM NSP AKG BCE LTR

 

Q. 91 If all the alphabets in each word are arranged in reverse English alphabetical order then which of the following word comes first in reverse English alphabetical order?

A. OTM

B. NSP

C. AKG

D. BCE

E. LTR

 

Q. 92 If in each of the words, the first alphabet is changed to previous alphabet according to English alphabetical series and last alphabet is changed to the next alphabet according to English alphabetical series so in how many words there is no vowel in that particular word?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

E. 4

 

Q. 93 If the second letter is replaced with an alphabet which succeeds the second alphabet is English alphabetical order and the last letter is replaced with an alphabet which precedes the last letter in English alphabetical order then how many words will have repeated alphabets?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

E. 4

 

Q. 94 If in each of the words, we sum all the alphabets number according to their position in English alphabetical series (i.e. A=1) so which of the following get the highest number?

A. OTM

B. NSP

C. AKG

D. BCE

E. LTR

 

Q. 95 If in each of the words, all the consonants are replaced with an alphabet which succeeds that consonant in English alphabetical order and all the vowels are replaced with an alphabet which precedes that vowel in English alphabetical order then how many words will be there with at least two vowels?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

E. 4

 

Questions: 96 – 100

Direction (96-100): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.

Eight persons M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a straight line. Four of them are facing north and four of them are facing south. Only three persons sit between M and N and N is sitting at one of the ends. O is 2 nd to the right of M and facing north. Q is 3 rd to the right of O. More than two persons sit between Q and R. T is 2 nd to the left of R. P is 2 nd to the right of Q. More than two persons sit between T and N. M’s neighbours are facing same direction. Q’s neighbours are facing same direction. P’s neighbours are facing opposite directions.

 

Q. 96 Who among the following sits at the corner?

A. R

B. Q

C. S

D. T

E. P

 

Q. 97 Who among the following is not belongs to the group?

A. R

B. M

C. S

D. Q

E. P

 

Q. 98 How many persons sit between Q and R?

A. None

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

E. 4

 

Q. 99 Who among the following is 3 rd to the left of S?

A. No one

B. M

C. Q

D. T

E. R

 

Q. 100 Who among the following exactly between M and O?

A. T

B. R

C. P

D. N

E. Q

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	E	B	C	E	B	C	C	B	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	B	D	A	B	A	C	E	B	E
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	A	D	C	C	B	B	D	C	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	C	C	E	C	B	C	A	C	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	B	A	E	B	A	B	B	C	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	A	B	B	C	A	B	D	A	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	A	C	B	E	D	A	C	B	E
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	B	D	D	A	B	E	A	C	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	A	A	C	A	C	C	B	D	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	E	E	B	E	A	A	D	E	A	A

IBPS Clerk 2016 Prelims Paper 1

 

Section Quantitative Aptitude	Questions 35 Questions (1 – 35)	Marks 35
English	30 Questions (36 – 65)	30
Logical Reasoning	35 Questions (66 – 100)	35

Q : 1 – 5

What value should come in place of question-mark (?) in the following number series?

 

Q. 1 78, 294, 419, 483, ?

A. 518

B. 505

C. 515

D. 510

E. 516

 

Q. 2 16, 26, 6, 46, -34, ?

A. 126

B. 116

C. 124

D. 118

E. 125

 

Q. 3 174, 232, 298, 372, ?

A. 544

B. 464

C. 454

D. 474

E. 445

 

Q. 4 17, 35, 109, 445, ?

A. 2214

B. 2231

C. 2411

D. 2421

E. 2241

 

Q. 5 1498, 1473, 1437, 1388, ?

A. 1342

B. 1324

C. 1314

D. 1332

E. 1334

 

Q. 6 What value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

99 × 21 – cuberoot(?) = 1968

A. 1367631

B. 111

C. 366731

D. 1367

E. None of these

 

Q. 7 What value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

572 + 38 × 0.50 – 16 = ?

A. 289

B. 305

C. 448

D. 565

E. 575

 

Q. 8 What value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

 

6269 + 0.75 × 444 + 0.8 × 185 = ? × 15

A. 448

B. 450

C. 452

D. 454

E. 455

 

Q. 9 What value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

(78.95) ² – (43.35) ² = ?

A. 4353.88

B. 4305

C. 4235.78

D. 4148

E. 4100

 

Q. 10 What value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

1/8 of 2/3 of 3/5 of 1715 =?

A. 80

B. 85

C. 90

D. 95

E. 75

 

Q. 11 What value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

1190 ÷ √7225 × ? = 3094

A. 221

B. 121

C. 214

D. 241

E. None of these

 

Q. 12 What value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?

(√5–1)² = ? – 2√5

A. 6

B. 6+2√5

C. 6√5

D. 6-2√5

E. None of these

 

Q. 13 A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes and tenrupee notes. The number of notes of each denomination is equal. What is the total number of notes that he has ?

A. 45

B. 60

C. 75

D. 90

E. None of these

 

Q. 14 There are two examinations rooms A and B. If 10 students are sent from A to B, then the number of students in each room is the same. If 20 candidates are sent from B to A, then the number of students in A is double the number of students in B. The number of students in room A is:

A. 20

B. 80

C. 100

D. 200

E. None of these

 

Q. 15 Find the value of

√(4 + √(44 + √1000))

A. 44

B. 12

C. 4

D. 2

E. none of these

 

Q. 16 √(-√(3 + √(3 + 8√(7 + 4√3))))

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 8

E. none of these

 

Q. 17 √(2√(2√(2√(2√(2))))

A. 0

B. √2

C. 2

D. 2 31/32

E. none of these

 

Q. 18 √((0.85 × (0.105 + 0.024 – 0.008)) / (0.22 × 0.25 ×17))

A. √11

B. √0.011

C. 11

D. √0.11

 

Q. 19 if x/2y = 3/2 then the value of 2x+2y/x-2y equals

A. 1/7

B. 7

C. 7.1

D. 6.8

E. None of these

 

Q. 20 If a * b = a^2 + a x b + b^2, then what is 2 * 3?

A. 29

B. 19

C. 9

D. 6

E. None of these

 

Q. 21 What is the total number of male employees taking all the banks together?

A. Other than the given options

B. 4060

C. 4120

D. 4180

E. 4280

 

Q. 22 What is the average number of female employees taking all the banks together?

A. 656

B. 686

C. 668

D. Other than the given options

E. 646

 

Q. 23 Approximately by what percent is the number of male employees working in banks A and C together more than that of the total number of female employees working in bank B and D?

A. Other than the given options

B. 9%

C. 15%

D. 11%

E. 13%

 

Q. 24 What is the ratio of female employees working in bank D to that in E?

A. 7:4

B. Other than the given options

C. 8:5

D. 7:3

E. 9:5

 

Q. 25 Approximately by what per cent is the number of total employees of bank C more than that of bank D?

A. 8%

B. 6%

C. Other than the given options

D. 4%

E. 10%

 

Q. 26 P and Q can complete a job in 24 days working together. P alone can complete it in 32 days. Both of them worked together for 8 days and then P left. The number of days Q will talk to complete the remaining work is

A. 62

B. 60

C. 65

D. 64

E. 66

 

Q. 27 A passenger sitting in a train of a certain length which is running at a speed of 60 km/hr passing through two bridges. the notices that be crossed the first bridge and second bridge in time intervals which are in the ratio of 7:4 respectively. If the length of the first bridge is 350m, then the length of the second bridge is

A. 210m

B. 220m

C. 200m

D. 190m

E. 180m

 

Q. 28 The average salary per head of all workers of an institution is Rs. 80. The average salary per head of 16 officers is Rs. 600. The average salary per head of 16 officers is Rs. 600. The average salary per head of the rest is Rs. 67. Then, the total number of workers in the institution is

A. 656

B. 665

C. 655

D. 676

E. 666

 

Q. 29 Anand finds that due to a fall in the rate of interest from 10% to 5%, his yearly income diminishes by Rs.500. His capital is ?

A. 10000

B. 12000

C. 15000

D. 18000

E. 25000

 

Q. 30 In a town, each of the 60% of families has a laptop, each of the 30% of families has a computer and each of the 15% of families has both a laptop and a computer. In all, there are 10800 families in the town. How many families in the town do not have a laptop or a computer?

A. 2600

B. 2850

C. 2900

D. 2650

E. 2700

 

Q. 31 An article of cost prince Rs. 16000 is marked at Rs. 19200. After allowing a discount of x% a profit of 15% is made. The value of x is.

A. 3.17%

B. 4.17%

C. 5.17%

D. 2.75%

E. 6.25%

 

Q. 32 464.83 + 40.14 / 7.84 + 6.26 / 0.91 = ? . Find approximate value ?

A. 375

B. 475

C. 473

D. 450

E. Other than the given options

 

Q. 33 P,Q and R started a business by investing Rs. 40,500, Rs. 45000 and Rs. 50000 respectively. After 6 months R withdrew Rs. 10,000 while P invested Rs. 4500 more. In annual profit of Rs. 53,100 the share of R will exceed that of P by

A. Rs. 1000

B. Rs. 850

C. Rs. 950

D. Rs. 800

E. Rs. 900

 

Q. 34 Three taps X,Y and Z can fill a tank in 12 hrs, 15 hrs and 20 hrs respectively. If X is open all the time and Y and Z are open for one hour each alternately, starting with Y, then the tank will be full in how many hours?

A. 10 hr

B. 6 hr

C. 8 hr

D. 7 hr

E. 9 hr

 

Q. 35 If the simple interest on a certain sum of money for 9 months at 6% is Rs. 406 less than the simple interest on the same sum for 16 months at 7% pa, then find the sum.

A. Rs 8600

B. Rs 8400

C. Rs 8800

D. Rs 8900

E. Rs 9000

 

Questions: 36 – 45

India’s tourism industry is experiencing a strong period of growth, driven by the burgeoning Indian middle class, growth in high spending foreign tourists, and coordinated government campaigns to promote ‘Incredible India’. The tourism industry in India is substantial and vibrant, and the country is fast becoming a major global destination. India’s travel and tourism industry is one of them most profitable industries in the country, and also credited with contributing a substantial amount of foreign exchange. This is illustrated by the fact that during 2006, four million tourists visited India and spent US $8.9 billion. Several reasons are cited for the growth and prosperity of India’s travel and tourism industry. Economic growth has added millions annually to the ranks of India’s middle class, a group that is driving domestic tourism growth. Disposable income in India has grown by 10.11% annually from 2001-2006, and much of that is being spent on travel. Thanks in part to its booming IT and outsourcing industry a growing number of business trips are made by foreigners to India, who will often add a weekend break or longer holiday to their trip. Foreign tourists spend more in India than almost any other country worldwide. Tourist arrivals are projected to increase by over 22% per year through till 2010, with a 33% increase in foreign exchange earnings recorded in 2004. The Tourism Ministry has also played an important role in the development of the industry, initiating advertising campaigns such as the ‘Incredible India’ campaign, which promoted India’s culture and tourist attractions in a fresh and memorable way. The campaign helped create a colorful image of India in the minds of consumers all over the world, and has directly led to an increase in the interest among tourists. The tourism industry has helped growth in other sectors as diverse as horticulture, handicrafts, agriculture, construction and even poultry. Both directly and indirectly, increased tourism in India has created jobs in a variety of related sectors. The numbers tell the story: almost 20 million people are now working in the India’s tourism industry. India’s governmental bodies have also made a significant impact in tourism by requiring that each and every state of India have a corporation to administer support issues related to tourism. A new growth sector is medical tourism. It is currently growing at around 30% per annum. Medical tourist arrivals are expected to reach one million soon. Medical tourism in Asia has grown rapidly. Medical tourism is approaching fever pitch at the tune of $4 billion US, fuelled largely by the cosmetic surgery market. One of the problems India has, despite having some world-class hospitals, is sanitation. The tourism industry of India is based on certain core nationalistic ideals and standards which are: Swaagat or welcome, Sahyog or cooperation, Soochanaa or information, Sanrachanaa or infrastructure, Suvidha or facilitation, Safaai or cleanliness and Surakshaa or security.

 

Q. 36 Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word burgeoning as used in the passage?

A. thriving

B. sprouting

C. incorporating

D. decreasing

E. growing

 

Q. 37 Find the correct statement on the basis of the given passage.

(A) The tourism industry in our country manages to attract the world tourist.

(B) India has continued to represent a place much sought after for its diversity.

(C) India has potential to emerge as one of the world’s tourist hot spots.

A. Only (A)

B. Only (C)

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. All (A), (B) and (C)

E. Other than the given option

 

Q. 38 Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word “cited” as used in the passage?

A. pointed out

B. withheld

C. inserted

D. imputed

E. sourced

 

Q. 39 Which of the following statements correctly represent (s) the reason behind the expansion of India’s travel and tourism Industry?

A. India is a vast country of great beauty and diversity

B. India’s vast cultural heritage

C. The successful launch of very penetrative ad campaign

D. Business trips to India

E. All of the above

 

Q. 40 What is the meaning of the phrase “fever pitch” as used in the passage?

A. A high degree of excitement

B. A state of suffering

C. Beyond the expectations

D. Meeting the target

E. Other than the given options

 

Q. 41 Which of the following is false in respect of India’s medical tourism?

A. India’s medical tourism sector is expected to experience an annual growth rate of 30%.

B. An estimated one million tourists will travel to India for healthcare procedures every year.

C. The advantage of medical treatment in India includes reduced costs not the availability of latest medical technologies.

D. All 1), 2) and 3)

E. Other than given options

 

Q. 42 Give a suitable title to the given passage.

A. Medical tourism in India

B. Tourism Industry–A special focus of India

C. Foreign tourist arrival and foreign earning in India

D. Domestic Tourism in India

E. Employment Opportunities in Tourism

 

Q. 43 The author in the given passage is

A) skeptical about the growth of India’s medical tourism

B) of the view that lots of efforts can bring about significant changes in India’s tour and travel industry.

C) not in favor of investing on various ads

A. Only A

B. Only B

C. Only C

D. Both A and C

E. Both B and C

 

Q. 44 As mentioned in this passage, in order to developing the tourism industry the role of the tourism ministry is

A. Considerable

B. Imperceptible

C. Unique

D. Ambiguous

E. Other than the given options

 

Q. 45 Which of the following statement is true about “Incredible India” campaign?

A. It is a window policy to boost the direct as well as indirect investment in tourism.

B. It promotes India as a tourism destination

C. It pledges for best services in Air India and in Indian Rail.

D. Only 1) and 2)

E. All 1), 2) and 3)

 

Questions: 46 – 55

Russia may not be the first country that comes (1) when thoughts turn to international studies. But the truth is that this oft-underestimated, increasingly innovative country boast a long list of amazing offerings for students from all over the globe. Wondering what’s waiting for you there? Let’s count down five reasons to include Russia on your list of down five reasons to include Russia on your list of (2) international study destinations. As the world’s largest country, it’s hardly (3) that Russia is home to so many universities — 950 of them, to be exact. What may come as a surprise? How many of its higher education institutions offer world-class, globally (4) educational opportunities. Russia now participates in the Bologna Process, and many of its premier universities are members of the European Universities Association. A whopping 22 Russian universities, meanwhile, earned spots on the QS World University Rankings 2016-2017. Russia recently earned a plum spot (5) Bloomberg’s roundup of the world’s most innovative economies, but its innovative spirit is not limited to the financial sector. A Russian education uniquely fuses traditional academic (6) with a commitment to innovation in the form of competency-based education across a breadth and depth of areas of study. And while we’d be lying if we didn’t say that studying in Russia was demanding, a degree (7) a Russian institution is highly (8) by the world’s employers — making it well worth the effort. There’s a reason why Russia’s best and brightest high school grads fight so (9) for sought-after spots at the country’s universities. From engineering and economics to law and medicine, Russia offers near-endless opportunities for academic (10).

 

Q. 46 Fill in the blank (1) choosing the word that is most appropriate in the context of the passage.

A. in

B. to

C. up

D. out

 

Q. 47 Fill in the blank (2) choosing the word that is most appropriate in the context of the passage.

A. conjuncture

B. specific

C. probable

D. prospective

 

Q. 48 Fill in the blank (3) choosing the word that is most appropriate in the context of the passage.

A. surprising

B. confusing

C. believable

D. ignoring

 

Q. 49 Fill in the blank (4) choosing the word that is most appropriate in the context of the passage.

A. admitted

B. accepted

C. famed

D. recognized

 

Q. 50 Fill in the blank (5) choosing the word that is most appropriate in the context of the passage.

A. in

B. at

C. on

D. out

 

Q. 51 Fill in the blank (6) choosing the word that is most appropriate in the context of the passage.

A. destitution

B. indigence

C. privation

D. rigours

 

Q. 52 Fill in the blank (7) choosing the word that is most appropriate in the context of the passage.

A. in

B. by

C. from

D. of

 

Q. 53 Fill in the blank (8) choosing the word that is most appropriate in the context of the passage.

A. prized

B. demanding

C. authorized

D. gained

 

Q. 54 Fill in the blank (9) choosing the word that is most appropriate in the context of the passage.

A. extremely

B. vicious

C. fiercely

D. flawlessly

 

Q. 55 Fill in the blank (10) choosing the word that is most appropriate in the context of the passage.

A. amendment

B. enrichment

C. melioration

D. exaltation

 

Questions: 56 – 65

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e), i.e no error. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

 

Q. 56 We shall be calling a meeting (a)/ next week to assess (b)/ the causes of frequently (c)/ delays in infrastructure projects. (d)/ No error (e)

A. We shall be calling a meeting

B. next week to assess

C. the causes of frequently

D. delays in infrastructure projects.

E. No error

 

Q. 57 The committee has made (a)/ significant changes (b)/ in the rules which(c)/ will help to banks. (d)/ No error (e)

A. The committee has made

B. significant changes

C. in the rules which

D. will help to banks

E. No error

 

Q. 58 Graduates have experience (a)/ in the IT industry (b)/are in great demand (c)/ in the finance sector. (d)/No error (e)

A. Graduates have experience

B. in the IT industry

C. are in great demand

D. in the finance sector

E. No error

 

Q. 59 Although it has received (a)/ clearance from RBI the bank(b)/ has decided not to open(c)/their office in Malaysia. (d)/ No error (e)

A. Although it has received

B. clearance from RBI the bank(

C. has decided not to open

D. Their office in Malaysia

E. No error

 

Q. 60 English is derived from the Anglo-Saxon, (a)/ a West Germanic language, (b)/ although it’s current vocabulary includes (c)/ words from many languages. (d)/ No error. (e)

A. English is derived from the Anglo-Saxon

B. a West Germanic language

C. although it’s current vocabulary includes

D. words from many languages

E. No error

 

Q. 61 Helen Keller has proved (a)/ how language could (b)/ liberate the (c)/ blind and the deaf. (d)/ No error (e)

A. Helen Keller has proved

B. how language could

C. liberate the

D. blind and the deaf

E. No error

 

Q. 62 Half of the term have passed and yet I have not done much reading. (a)/ I am afraid that I may not (b)/ catch up with others. (c)/ What is worse? I may fail. (d)/ No error (e)

A. Half of the term have passed and yet I have not done much reading

B. I am afraid that I may not

C. catch up with others

D. What is worse? I may fail

E. No error

 

Q. 63 Aggression in some teenage boys (a)/ may be linkage to overly (b)/ large glands in their brains, (c)/ a new study has found. (d)/ No error (e)

A. Aggression in some teenage boys

B. may be linkage to overly

C. large glands in their brains,

D. a new study has found

E. No error

 

Q. 64 The tennis player easy through (a)/ the opening set before her opponent, (b)/ rallied to take the final two sets (c) / for the biggest victory of her young career. (d)/ No error (e)

A. The tennis player easy through

B. the opening set before her opponent,

C. rallied to take the final two sets

D. for the biggest victory of her young career.

E. No error

 

Q. 65 In response to the growing crisis, (a)/ the agency is urgently asking for (b)/ more contributions, to make up for (c)/ its sharp decline in purchasing power. (d)/ No error (e)

A. In response to the growing crisis,

B. the agency is urgently asking for

C. more contributions, to make up for

D. its sharp decline in purchasing power

E. No error

 

Questions: 66 – 70

Following questions are based on given information below and you’ve to tell which conclusion(s) follow:

 

Q. 66 Statements: P< A ≤ C ≥ K; C ≤ O < L; R ≤ N ≤ C

Conclusions: I . A = K II. R < L

A. Only Conclusion I is true.

B. Only Conclusion II is true.

C. Either Conclusion I or II is true

D. Neither conclusion I nor II is true

E. Both conclusions I and II are true

 

Q. 67 Statements: S ≤ T ≤ K ≤ E; N ≥ E ≤ P

Conclusions: I. S ≤ N II. S ≤ P

A. Only Conclusion I is true

B. Only Conclusion II is true

C. Either Conclusion I or II is true

D. Neither conclusion I nor II is true

E. Both conclusions I and II are true

 

Q. 68 Statements: S > O ≥ U ≥ P; O ≤ T < R; T ≥ E > A

Conclusions: I. R < A II. U = A

A. Only Conclusion I is true

B. Only Conclusion II is true

C. Either Conclusion I or II is true

D. Neither conclusion I nor II is true

E. Both conclusions I and II are true

 

Q. 69 Statements: P< A ≤ C ≥ K; C ≤ O < L; R ≤ N ≤ C

Conclusions: I. O ≥ R II. P ≤ O

A. Only Conclusion I is true

B. Only Conclusion II is true

C. Either Conclusion I or II is true

D. Neither conclusion I nor II is true

E. Both conclusions I and II are true

 

Q. 70 Statements: S > O ≥ U ≥ P; O ≤ T < R; T ≥ E > A

Conclusions: I. T > P II. T = P

A. Only Conclusion I is true

B. Only Conclusion II is true

C. Either Conclusion I or II is true

D. Neither conclusion I nor II is true

E. Both conclusions I and II are true

 

Questions: 71 – 75

Study the following series of alpha-numeric-symbol combination and answer the questions that follow:

 

Q. 71 S K 6 £ Q 2 R * C F 8 E $ G 2 # 4 9 L N 3 U V 5 Y a B 7 W 9

How many symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by but not immediately followed by a letter of English alphabet?

A. Nil

B. One

C. Two

D. Three

E. None of these

 

Q. 72 What should come in place of question mark in the following series?

S 9 K 6 W £ Q 7 2 ? C a F

A. R Y *

B. *Y C

C. 2 B R

D. R B *

E. None of these

 

Q. 73 If the positions of # and $ are interchanged, so also the positions of £ and ê,Q and K and F and V are interchanged, which of the following will be the ninth element to the left of eighteenth element from the left?

A. C

B. V

C. 8

D. *

E. None of these

 

Q. 74 Four of the following five are alike in respect of their positions in the above series. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

A. Q * 8

B. £ R F

C. 6 2 C

D. 2 * 8

E. R F $

 

Q. 75 S K £ is related to 9 W B in the same way as Q 2 * is related to

A. a V U

B. a Y 5

C. 7 B Y

D. B Y V

E. a Y V

 

Questions: 76 – 81

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

There are eight persons viz, A, B, C, D, E, F, H and J are sitting around a circle. Five of them are facing towards the centre. They read different newspapers viz, Hindustan Times (H.T), The Indian Express, The Hindu, The Economic Times, Navbharat Times, Washington Post, The Herald and The Dawn, but not necessarily in the same order. D is facing away from the centre but reads neither “The Hindus ‘nor’ The Indian Express.’ The one who reads The Washington post sits exactly between F and B. C is on the immediate right of H, who is not facing away from the centre. The one who reads The Indian Express is not the neighbour of B. The one who reads The Economic Times is on the immediate right of C. There are three persons between H and B. E sits second to the left of D and he reads The Indian Express. F is an immediate neighbour of both C and the one who reads The Washington Post. The Economics Times is read by either H or B. The one who read ‘The Herald’ is facing towards the centre. D sits on the immediate right of the one who read Navbharat Times. The one who reads The Dawn sits exactly between J and the one who reads The Hindu. A does not read The Washington Post. The one who is on the immediate right of H read the Hindu and is not facing the centre.

 

Q. 76 Which of the following papers is read by the one who sits on the immediate right of J?

A. The Hindu

B. The Herald

C. The Dawn

D. Navbharat Times

E. The Economic Times

 

Q. 77 Which of the following is matched correctly?

A. A- Hindustan Times

B. H- The Dawn

C. C- The Economic Times

D. B- The Herald

E. E- The Hindu

 

Q. 78 Which of the following groups is facing away from the centre?

A. A, B, D

B. A, C, D

C. E, A, D

D. J, C, D

E. H, D, B

 

Q. 79 If D is related to A and in the same way H is related to C in a certain way, then F is related to

A. J

B. C

C. None

D. A

E. B

 

Q. 80 How many persons sit between the one who reads The Dawn and the one who reads Navbharat Times?

A. Three

B. Two

C. One

D. None

E. Other than the given options

 

Q. 81 Who among the following reads The Dawn?

A. A

B. H

C. F

D. B

E. E

 

Questions: 82 – 86

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Eight person K,C,V,D,M,O,T and L are sitting around a square table, The Persons sitting at the corner are facing the center and the persons sitting in the middle are facing away from the centre. Each one of them like a different subjects away from the centre. Each one of them like a different subjects viz, English, Hindi, Civics, Geography, Physics, Biology, History and Chemistry but not necessary in the name order.

V is facing outward and sits third to the left of C, who likes Geography.

K is not facing towards the table and he sits between the persons who like Civics and Hindi.

sits opposite K and likes English

C and L are opposite each other. their favorite subjects are geography and

Civics respectively.

T likes Biology and he is second to the left of O.

The person who likes History is not next to M or O.

The person who likes Physics sits fifth to the left of D, who likes Hindi.

 

Q. 82 Which of the following pairs sit between L and T when counted in anti-clockwise direction, starting from T?

A. C,O

B. K,D

C. V,C

D. M,O

E. Other than the given options

 

Q. 83 Who likes Physics?

A. O

B. T

C. V

D. D

E. Other than the given options

 

Q. 84 Four of the following five are alike a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

A. M

B. T

C. L

D. D

E. C

 

Q. 85 Who sits second to the left of the one who likes ‘History’?

A. V

B. M

C. One who likes Physics

D. Both 1) and 3)

E. Other than the given options

 

Q. 86 Which of the following does not match correctly?

A. V-Facing towards the centre – Physics

B. T- Facing outward the centre – Biology

C. C- Facing towards the centre – Civics

D. O- Facing outwards the cenntre – History

E. All except 2)

 

Questions: 87 – 90

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Eight friends Seema, Suresh, Mahesh, Sudhir, Karan, Geeta, Raj and Sushil are sitting around a circular table. Three of them are facing outward the centre and five are facing towards the centre. Each one of them likes a different colour viz, Blue, green, Violet, White, Yellow, Pink, Red and Black. Suresh and Raj are facing towards the centre and the person who likes Green is second to the left of Raj.

Seema and Raj are facing each other and facing the same direction as Suresh.

Sudhir faces outward and sits opposite Suresh, who likes Black colour.

Geeta and Seema sit next to each other.

Geeta who faces outward sits opposite to one who likes Blue colour.

Yellow is liked by one of the two girls.

Mahesh sits third to the right of Geeta and likes Violet colour.

Geeta likes Pink colour

Sushil sits opposite Mahesh and Sudhir, second to the right of the one who likes Blue colour.

Raj likes Red colour and Sudhir likes whited.

Suresh sits between Seema and Mahesh.

 

Q. 87 Who sits fifth to the right of Geeta?

A. Mahesh

B. Karan

C. Raj

D. Suresh

E. Other than the given options

 

Q. 88 Three are alike in a certain way while one is not, find the odd one.

A. Raj-Seema

B. Suresh-Sudhir

C. Karan-Geeta

D. Seema-Mahesh

E. Other than the given options

 

Q. 89 Who among the following likes ‘Blue’ colour?

A. Geeta

B. Raj

C. Mahesh

D. Sushil

E. Karan

 

Q. 90 How many person sit between the person who likes White colour and the person who likes Black colour?

A. Two

B. Three

C. Four

D. None

E. Other then the given options

 

Questions: 91 – 95

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

There are eight persons viz. D, E, R, N, P, T, V and A sitting around a square table. They have a different professions viz. Engineer, Soldier, Teacher, Pilot, Artist, Doctor, Politician and Player but not necessarily in the same order. Four of them sit on the middle of the four sides while four of them sit on the four corners of the square table. All persons who sit at the four corners are facing the centre except one, while those who sit in the middle of the sides are facing outward the centre except one. T is neither Politician nor a Pilot. E is immediate left to the Player. N is not facing towards the centre. Soldier and Engineer are the neighbours of Doctor. D is a Teacher but not facing towards the centre. The Politician is the neighbour of both E and Soldier. Doctor is not facing towards the centre. R and A are facing each other but none of them is at middle of the sides. The Player is facing towards the centre but not sitting in the middle of the any side of the table. E sits second to the right of P, who is Soldier. Z is not the neighbour of either E or P and sits second to the right of N.V is between Artist and teacher.

 

Q. 91 Who among the following is a Pilot?

A. T

B. N

C. R

D. D

E. Z

 

Q. 92 Who among the following sits exactly between the Player and Politician?

A. E

B. Teacher

C. P

D. Both 1) and 2)

E. Artist

 

Q. 93 The profession of N is

A. Artist

B. Pilot

C. Doctor

D. Teacher

E. Player

 

Q. 94 How many person (s) sit (s) between V and the Doctor?

A. None

B. Three

C. Two

D. One

E. Other than the given options

 

Q. 95 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way, Find the odd man out?

A. ZT

B. PR

C. VE

D. ZD

E. RE

 

Questions: 96 – 100

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

In a certain code language “all players are energetic” is written as “zee dp zn nt” . “are they really energetic” is written as “mb nt re zn”, “related to all players” is written as “st zee dp ta” , discipline is related to game”, is written as “gt ta no st np” , ‘game is really to enjoy is written as ‘np re gt ta fr’.

 

Q. 96 Which of the following is the code for ‘enjoy’?

A. ta

B. st

C. gt

D. fr

E. no

 

Q. 97 Which of the following does ‘dp zn nt’ stand for?

A. all are energetic

B. players are energetic

C. they are players

D. all are players

E. Cannot be determined

 

Q. 98 Which of the following is the code for ‘discipline’?

A. no

B. st

C. gt

D. re

E. mb

 

Q. 99 If ‘the discipline is enjoyed’ is written as ‘kp no np fr’ then what is the code for ‘ the game to enjoy’?

A. no fr ta kp

B. kp gt ta fr

C. ta fr no gt

D. mb st gt nt

E. kp gt tec fr

 

Q. 100 Which of the following stand for ‘zee’?

A. all

B. player

C. energetic

D. players

E. Either 1 or 4

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	A	C	E	B	A	E	B	A	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	A	D	C	C	B	D	A	B	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	A	E	B	B	D	C	A	A	E
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	C	E	D	B	D	B	A	E	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	B	B	A	B	C	D	A	D	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	D	C	A	C	B	C	D	A	D	E
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	E	A	B	A	E	B	E	D	A	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	D	A	D	E	B	D	B	C	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	B	C	B	D	E	C	D	E	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	E	D	C	B	B	D	E	A	B	E

IBPS Clerk 2016 Mains

Section Logical Reasoning	Questions 40 Questions (1 – 40)	Marks 40
English	40 Questions (41 – 80)	40
Quantitative Aptitude	30 Questions (81 – 110)	30
Data Interpretation	10 Questions (111 – 120)	10
General Knowledge	40 Questions (121 – 160)	40
Computer Aptitude	40 Questions (161 – 200)	40

Q. 1 How many such vowels are there in the given arrangement which are immediately preceded as well as immediately followed by a consonant?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

E. More than four

 

Q. 2 If all the vowels are deleted from the given arrangement, which of the following will be thirteenth from the right end?

A. K

B. G

C. M

D. D

E. None of these

 

Q. 3 How many letters are there between the letter that is twentieth from the left end and the letter that is sixteenth from the right end, in the English alphabetical series?

A. Five

B. Four

C. Six

D. Three

E. None of these

 

Q. 4 Which of the following is fifth to the right of the seventeenth from the left end of the given arrangement?

A. L

B. U

C. H

D. D

E. None of these

 

Q. 5 If all the vowels are changed to the next letter of the English alphabetical series, how many Bs will be there in the above arrangement? (Including the Bs already given in the arrangement)

A. Three

B. Two

C. Four

D. Six

E. Five

 

Q. 6 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

A. 49

B. 36

C. 16

D. 27

E. 25

 

Q. 7 The positions of the first and fourth letters of the word ABSENT are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and fifth letters and third and sixth letters are interchanged. In the new arrangement thus formed, how many letters are there between the letter which is third from the right and the letter which is first from the left, in the English alphabetical order?

A. Two

B. Four

C. Five

D. Three

E. None of these

 

Q. 8 Which of the following will come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the English alphabetical order?

BZ WU RP ? HF CA

A. LJ

B. MK

C. NL

D. KI

E. KJ

 

Q. 9 ‘Bricks’ are related to ‘Walls’ in the same way as ‘Trees’ are related to

A. Roots

B. Branches

C. Forests

D. Plants

E. Green

 

Q. 10 In a class of 40 children, Saurabh’s rank is eighth from the top. Mamta is five ranks below Saurabh. What is Mamta’s rank from the bottom?

A. 27th

B. 29th

C. 28th

D. 26th

E. Cannot be determined

 

Questions: 11 – 15

Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions.

J, K, L, M, N and O are sitting in a straight line facing North, not necessarily in the same order.

J is sitting fourth to the left of O and O is sitting at the extreme end of the line. M is sitting third to the right of N. K is not an immediate neighbour of J.

 

Q. 11 If all the persons are made to sit in an alphabetical order from left to right, the positions of how many will remain unchanged as compared to their original seating position?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. More than three

E. None of these

 

Q. 12 What is the position of N with respect to J?

A. Second to the left

B. Third to the right

C. Second to the right

D. Immediate right

E. Immediate left

 

Q. 13 How many people are sitting between L and O?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. More than three

E. None of these

 

Q. 14 Which of the pairs represent the people sitting at the extreme ends of the line?

A. JL

B. KJ

C. ML

D. MJ

E. None of these

 

Q. 15 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the given arrangement and so form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?

A. LJ

B. OM

C. KN

D. OK

E. NJ

 

Q. 16 Starting from point X, Joy walked 15 m towards the West. He turned left and walked 20 m. He took another left and walked 15 m. After which he took a right turn and walked for another 12 m. How far is Joy from point X, if he faces North?

A. 27 m

B. 35 m

C. 32 m

D. 42 m

E. None of these

 

Q. 17 How many such pairs of letters are there in the word DECAYS, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. None

E. More than three

 

Q. 18 In the question given below, two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statements:

All animals are birds.

All birds are crows.

Conclusions:

I. All animals are crows.

II. All crows are birds.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either conclusion I or II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

E. Both conclusions I and II follow

 

Q. 19 In the question given below, two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some tricks are magic.

All magic are true.

Conclusions:

I. There is a possibility that are tricks are true.

II. There is a possibility that all magic are tricks.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either conclusion I or II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

E. Both conclusions I and II follow

 

Q. 20 In the question given below, two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statements:

All e-mails are messages.

Some messages are letters.

Conclusions:

I. At least some letters are e-mails.

II. Some messages are not e-mails.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either conclusion I or II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

E. Both conclusions I and II follow

 

Q. 21 In the question given below, two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some threads are cottons.

Some cottons are nylons.

Conclusions:

I. All nylons are threads.

II. At least some nylons are threads.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either conclusion I or II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

E. Both conclusions I and II follow

 

Q. 22 In the question given below, two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statements:

Some clocks are watches.

No clock is a wall.

Conclusions:

I. All walls are watches.

II. There is a possibility that all watches are clocks.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either conclusion I or II follows

D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

E. Both conclusions I and II follow

 

Questions: 23 – 27

These questions are based on the following three-digit numbers:

437 254 829 147 563

 

Q. 23 If all the digits of each of the numbers are arranged in an ascending order (within the number) which number will be the second highest?

A. 254

B. 437

C. 563

D. 147

E. 829

 

Q. 24 If all the three digits of each of the numbers are added, the total of which of the following will be the second lowest?

A. 437

B. 829

C. 147

D. 254

E. 563

 

Q. 25 If 1 is subtracted from the third digit of each of the numbers, how many numbers will be completely divisible by 3?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. More than three

E. None

 

Q. 26 Which of the following is the product of the third digit of the lowest number and the second digit of the second highest number?

A. 42

B. 21

C. 35

D. 24

E. 6

 

Q. 27 If 1 is added to the second digit of each of the numbers, how many numbers will have more than one even digit (same or different even digit)?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. More than three

E. None

 

Questions: 28 – 32

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. G is sitting third to the right of F. H is not an immediate neighbour of F and G. A is sitting second to the right of H. B is sitting third to the right of C and C is not an immediate neighbour of G. D is not an immediate neighbour of H or C.

 

Q. 28 Who is sitting exactly between H and A?

A. B

B. G

C. C

D. E

E. None of these

 

Q. 29 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their seating positions in the given arrangement and so form a group. Which one does not belong to the group?

A. FD

B. HG

C. FC

D. BG

E. EA

 

Q. 30 What will come in place of the question mark (?) based upon the given seating

Arrangement?

AF DG CA ?

A. HC

B. DG

C. GE

D. BD

E. EH

 

Q. 31 How many persons are sitting between B and E starting from B in an anti-clockwise direction?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

E. None

 

Q. 32 What is the position of E with respect to A?

A. Third to the left

B. Third to the right

C. Second to the left

D. Second to the right

E. Immediate left

 

Q. 33 If it is possible to make only one meaningful word from the fourth, sixth, ninth and eleventh letters of the word CONTAMINATE, then the second letter from the left is your answer. If o such word can be formed then your answer is X and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is Y.

A. X

B. T

C. M

D. A

E. Y

 

Q. 34 In a certain code language, BRIDGE is written as DUKGIH and NUMBER is written as PXOEGU. How will CUSTOM be written in the same code language?

A. EWUVQO

B. EXUWQP

C. FXVWRP

D. EZUYQR

E. None of these

 

Q. 35 In the question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions.

Statements:

F>=K>G>+H=IConclusions

I. F>=H

II. G>J

A. Only conclusion I is true

B. Only conclusion II is true

C. Either conclusion I or II is true

D. Neither conclusion I nor II is true

E. Both conclusions I and II are true

 

Q. 36 In the question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions.

Statements:

F>=K>G>+H=IConclusions

I. G>=J

II. I<=K

A. Only conclusion I is true

B. Only conclusion II is true

C. Either conclusion I or II is true

D. Neither conclusion I nor II is true

E. Both conclusions I and II are true

 

Q. 37 In the question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions.

Statements:

J>K>=M>=R=T

Conclusions

I. T>K

II. M

A. Only conclusion I is true

B. Only conclusion II is true

C. Either conclusion I or II is true

D. Neither conclusion I nor II is true

E. Both conclusions I and II are true

 

Questions: 38 – 40

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

In a certain code language,

‘want to start business’ is written as ‘tu ja na re’.

‘ business difficult to begin’ is written as ‘la re ke tu’.

‘business difficult and demanding’ is written as ‘ba tu da la’

‘demanding business risky start’ is written as ‘tu ja da sa’

 

Q. 38 What is the code for ‘begin’?

A. re

B. ke

C. la

D. tu

E. Cannot be determined

 

Q. 39 Which of the following represents ‘difficult start’?

A. na la

B. la tu

C. ke ja

D. ja la

E. da ja

 

Q. 40 What is the code for ‘want’?

A. na

B. tu

C. ja

D. re

E. Either ‘na’ or ‘ja’

 

Questions: 41 – 50

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it in the context of the passage.

If the Central Advisory Board on Education was hasty in congratulating itself on its clarion call to the government to raise the expenditure on education to 6% of the national income, it ought to remember that this demand was first raised by the Kothari Commission an entire quarter of a century ago. At present, only a little more than 3% of GNP is spent on this vital need and it is unrealistic to expect that it can be doubled overnight. For that matter the decline in allocations for education is mirrored in the Five Year Plans. While the First devoted on all-time high of 7.86%, it had progressively declined to 2.59% in the Sixth Plan and rose marginally to 3.55% in the next. As the advisory board recognises a paucity of funds will render it impossible to meet long overdue targets like the universalisation of primary education and the eradication of illiteracy. At the same time, when the allocation in the Eighth Plan is decided later this year, there will be several conflicting claims on scarce resources and in all likelihood education, like health and family welfare, will get short shrift. And yet, there is ‘no room for despair’. Founds are an essential requisite, but by no means the only one. Even within existing constraints, there is a lot that both the Centre and State governments can do. For example, each State can reduce the amount it spends out of its total education budget on staff, which has reached as much as 92% in some instances. Besides, there is a strong case for revising fees in some professional education institutions. Both medical colleges and IITs could charge a great deal more than they now do and most entrants would be happy to bear the increased burden, considering what they would otherwise spend on similar education abroad or in colleges charging capitation fees. IITs now charge a measly Rs. 500 a year from students, presumably in the belief that these institutions are engaged in an altogether nobler mission that in the pursuit of greater financial independence, although surveys show almost all such students hail from reasonably well-off families. Another reform, which many institutions could consider an many already do, is to hold morning and evening classes, which amounts to shifts. Given the pressure on all resources, physical as well as financial, there is no reason why all such innovations should not be experimented with – provided, of course, poor students do not suffer as a consequence and standards as a whole are maintained.

 

Q. 41 Which of the following is the recommendation of the Central Advisory Board regarding allocations on education?

A. 6% increase from that of the Seventh Plan

B. 3% of GNP

C. Reduction of amount spent on staff

D. Increase in fee in professional institutions

E. None of the above

 

Q. 42 Which of the following conveys the meaning of ‘no room for despair’?

A. No scope for improvement

B. Not much need to worry

C. No place for hope

D. No need to panic

E. No chance for increase

 

Q. 43 Which of the following is false in the context of the passage?

A. Some innovations in educations should be tried out.

B. A high percentage out of the total budget of education is spent on staff.

C. IITs, should charge capitation fees.

D. Professional education in foreign countries is expensive.

E. None of the above

 

Q. 44 According to the passage, which sector, apart from education, gets small budgetary allocation?

A. Adult literacy

B. Child welfare

C. Health and family welfare

D. Not mentioned in the passage

E. None of the above

 

Q. 45 The need for 6% of the national income to be spent on education was earlier raised around which of the following years?

A. 1950

B. 1955

C. 1960

D. 1965

E. 1970

 

Q. 46 Which of the following is one of the long overdue target of education?

A. Free primary education

B. Higher education

C. 100% literacy

D. Spread of education in rural areas

E. Higher allocation for education

 

Q. 47 Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

A. The demand for 6% allocation for education is unrealistic.

B. Funds are not essential for education.

C. Medical colleges charge less fee than IITs.

D. Most of the students in IITs are from poor families

E. There are few two shifts institutions in our country.

 

Q. 48 In which of the Five Year Plans was the allocation for education the highest?

A. First

B. Second

C. Sixth

D. Seventh

E. None of these

 

Q. 49 According to the passage, in the Eighth Plan, which of the following is the likelihood regarding allocation on education?

A. It would be drastically reduced.

B. It would be substantially increased.

C. 6% of the national income will be allocated.

D. There may not be any increase.

E. The expenditure on staff would be reduced.

 

Q. 50 Within the budgetary constraint, which of the following has been recommended to be done?

A. Spend less on professional education

B. Discontinue some programmes

C. Admit less number of students

D. Charge capitation fee

E. Increase fee for professional education

 

Questions: 51 – 55

Rearrange the following five sentences A, B, C, D and E in the proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the questions given below them.

A. Many consider it wrong to blight youngsters by recruiting them into armed forces at a young age.

B. It is very difficult to have an agreement on an issue when emotions run high.

C. The debate has come up whether is right or wrong.

D. In many countries military service is compulsory for all.

E. Some of these detractors of compulsory draft are even very angry.

 

Q. 51 Which sentence should come FOURTH in the paragraph?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

 

Q. 52 Which sentence should come FIRST in the paragraph?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

 

Q. 53 Which sentence should come LAST in the paragraph?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

 

Q. 54 Which sentence should come THIRD in the paragraph?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

 

Q. 55 Which sentence should come SECOND in the paragraph?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

 

Q. 56 Given below are sentences in which two spaces have been left blank. You are to choose from among the given choices, the pair of words which would fit the two blanks in the given order.

He was initially __________ at the suggestion but was soon ___________ it himself.

A. frowning; rejecting

B. thrilled; propogating

C. shocked; advocating

D. impressed; negating

E. suspicious; trusting

 

Q. 57 Given below are sentences in which two spaces have been left blank. You are to choose from among the given choices, the pair of words which would fit the two blanks in the given order.

The Minister felt that the _______ made by the Committee was ________ even though similar schemes had worked earlier.

A. election; acceptable

B. choice; profitable

C. decision; gainful

D. recommendation; infeasible

E. acceptance; approved

 

Q. 58 Given below are sentences in which two spaces have been left blank. You are to choose from among the given choices, the pair of words which would fit the two blanks in the given order.

Nabeesa was not _______ by the criticism and paid no _______ even when her best friend talked against her.

A. threatened; warning

B. troubled; mind

C. deterred; heed

D. bothered; attention

E. shaken; indication

 

Q. 59 Given below are sentences in which two spaces have been left blank. You are to choose from among the given choices, the pair of words which would fit the two blanks in the given order.

The activities of the association have ________ from the _________ objectives set for it in the initial years.

A. emerged; total

B. deviated; original

C. grown; simple

D. details; grand

E. increased; perverse

 

Q. 60 Given below are sentences in which two spaces have been left blank. You are to choose from among the given choices, the pair of words which would fit the two blanks in the given order.

The _______ imposed for non-payment was too ________ for it to bring in improvement in collection.

A. penalty; low

B. fine; severe

C. punishment; harsh

D. toll; simple

E. damage; cruel

 

Q. 61 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

No hill station (a)/is as beautiful (b)/as Darjeeling (c)/with its scenic beauty. (d)

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

E. (e)

 

Q. 62 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

The chief idea of (a)/a very common type of traveller (b)/is to see as many objects (c)/of interest as he possibly could. (d)

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

E. (e)

 

Q. 63 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

These Acts were (a)/pushed through the Parliament (b)/in spite of opposition (c)/but with little modification. (d)

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

E. (e)

 

Q. 64 Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

One of the most (a)/widely spread (b)/bad habit (c)/is the use of tobacco. (d)

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

E. (e)

 

Q. 65 Pick out the word that is most nearly the same in meaning to the given words.

Mirrored

A. Image

B. Imitated

C. Reflected

D. Copied

E. Followed

 

Q. 66 Pick out the word that is most nearly the same in meaning to the given words.

Hail from

A. Greet with

B. Born in

C. Admitted from

D. Come from

E. Are known as

 

Q. 67 Pick out the word that is most nearly the same in meaning to the given words.

Progressively

A. Promoting

B. Liberally

C. Intermittently

D. Continuously

E. Constantly

 

Q. 68 Pick out the word that is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the given words.

Unrealistic

A. Reasonable

B. Actual

C. Visionary

D. Intelligent

E. Natural

 

Q. 69 Pick out the word that is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the given words.

Vital

A. Dead

B. Unimportant

C. Lead

D. Outer

E. Peripheral

 

Q. 70 Pick out the word that is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the given words.

Paucity

A. Want

B. Richness

C. Presence

D. Scarcity

E. Surplus

 

Questions: 71 – 80

In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate words. Conventional medical wisdom does not advise taking (71) vitains as pills and capsules. On the contrary, there was a strong lobby which (72) the supplementary intake of vitamins. This used to leave the (73) person confused. However, modern research is (74) a surprise. More and more scientists are beginning to (75) that (76) medical views on vitamins have been (77). Evidence shows that (78) extra vitamins play a role in assuring vitality and (79) health than was (80) thought.

 

Q. 71 Find the appropriate word to fit the corresponding blank in the passage.

A. some

B. extra

C. insoluble

D. strong

E. all

 

Q. 72 Find the appropriate word to fit the corresponding blank in the passage.

A. facilitated

B. criticised

C. communicated

D. projected

E. advocated

 

Q. 73 Find the appropriate word to fit the corresponding blank in the passage.

A. medical

B. sick

C. scientific

D. average

E. educated

 

Q. 74 Find the appropriate word to fit the corresponding blank in the passage.

A. trying

B. manufacturing

C. practicing

D. holding

E. inventing

 

Q. 75 Find the appropriate word to fit the corresponding blank in the passage.

A. trust

B. consider

C. refute

D. forget

E. suspect

 

Q. 76 Find the appropriate word to fit the corresponding blank in the passage.

A. indigent

B. all

C. traditional

D. modern

E. allopathic

 

Q. 77 Find the appropriate word to fit the corresponding blank in the passage.

A. practical

B. limited

C. feasible

D. correct

E. confusing

 

Q. 78 Find the appropriate word to fit the corresponding blank in the passage.

A. marketing

B. manufacturing

C. swallowing

D. taking

E. buying

 

Q. 79 Find the appropriate word to fit the corresponding blank in the passage.

A. pleasurable

B. manly

C. optimal

D. stronger

E. useful

 

Q. 80 Find the appropriate word to fit the corresponding blank in the passage.

A. previously

B. occasionally

C. seriously

D. even

E. now

 

Q. 81 What should come at the place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

7059 – 2350 + 1936 = ? x 50

A. 123.6

B. 132.3

C. 132.6

D. 123.9

E. 132.9

 

Q. 82 What should come at the place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

E. (e)

 

Q. 83 What should come at the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

E. (e)

 

Q. 84 What should come at the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

683.46 – 227.39 – 341.85 = ?

A. 114.22

B. 141.22

C. 144.22

D. 112.22

E. None of these

 

Q. 85 What is 786 times of 964?

A. 759276

B. 7498

C. 75416

D. 75770

E. None of these

 

Q. 86 What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value).

16.003 x 27.998 – 209.010 = ?

A. 150

B. 200

C. 75

D. 240

E. 110

 

Q. 87 What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value).

125.009 + 69.999 + 104.989 = ?

A. 420

B. 300

C. 285

D. 415

E. 325

 

Q. 88 What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value).

840.003/23.999 = ?

A. 47

B. 8

C. 35

D. 18

E. 23

 

Q. 89 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?

2 4 10 ? 82 244

A. 30

B. 48

C. 28

D. 46

E. 34

 

Q. 90 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?

7 8 4 13 -3 22 ?

A. -7

B. -10

C. -12

D. -14

E. -9

 

Q. 91 The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the two digits of the number is 18. The sum of the two digits of the number is 12. What is the product of the digits of two-digit number?

A. 35

B. 27

C. 32

D. Can’t be determined

E. None of these

 

Q. 92 The average height of the basketball team A is 5 ft 11 inches and that of B is 6 ft 2 inches. There are 20 players in team A and 18 players in team B. The overall average height is

A. 72.42 inches

B. 72 inches

C. 70.22 inches

D. 70 inches

E. None of these

 

Q. 93 A water pipe is cut into two pieces. The longer piece is 70% of the length of the pipe. By how much percentage is the longer piece longer than the shorter piece?

A. 140%

B. 400/3%

C. 40%

D. 300/4%

E. None of these

 

Q. 94 In an examination, the marks obtained by Shantanu is 40% less than the marks obtained by Kamal, then marks obtained by Kamal is how much percent more than the marks obtained by Shantanu?

A. 55 2/3 %

B. 44 3/5 %

C. 33 1/3 %

D. 66 2/3 %

E. None of these

 

Q. 95 Neeta got profit of 10% on selling an article in Rs. 220. To get the profit of 30%, she should sell the article in how many rupees?

A. 220

B. 230

C. 260

D. 280

E. None of these

 

Q. 96 While selling, a businessman allows 40% discount on the marked price and there is a loss of 30%. If it is sold at the marked price, profit percent will be

A. 10%

B. 20%

C. 16 2/3%

D. 16 1/3%

E. None of these

 

Q. 97 In a certain time, a sum becomes 4 times at the rate of 5% per annum. At what rate of simple interest, the same sum becomes 8 times in the same duration?

A. 12 2/3%

B. 11 3/5%

C. 11 2/3%

D. 12 3/5%

E. None of these

 

Q. 98 A woman bought eggs at Rs. 30 per dozen. The selling price per hundred so as to gain 12% will be

A. Rs. 280

B. Rs. 250

C. Rs. 300

D. Rs. 360

E. None of these

 

Q. 99 A certain sum at compound interest amounts to Rs. 12960 in 2 years and Rs. 13176 in 3 years. Find the rate percent per annum.

A. 1 1/3%

B. 2 1/3%

C. 1 2/3%

D. 2 2/3%

E. None of these

 

Q. 100 Vandana bought a watch for Rs. 600 and sold it the same day for Rs. 688.50 at a credit of 9 months and this way she gained 2%. Find the rate of interest per annum.

A. 16 2/3%

B. 15 2/3%

C. 11 2/3%

D. 5 2/3%

E. None of these

 

Q. 101 35% of a number is two times 75% of another number. What is the ratio between the first and the second number, respectively?

A. 35:6

B. 31:7

C. 23:7

D. 32:9

E. 30:7

 

Q. 102 Amit and Sudesh have invested in the ratio of 4:7. If both invested a total amount of Rs. 49500, then find the investment of Sudesh.

A. Rs. 31500

B. Rs. 1800

C. Rs. 31000

D. Rs. 18500

E. None of these

 

Q. 103 300 g of salt solution has 40% salt in it. How much salt should be added to make it 50% in the solution?

A. 40 g

B. 60 g

C. 70 g

D. 80 g

E. None of these

 

Q. 104 A tree is 12 m tall and casts an 8 m long shadow. At the same time, a flag pole casts a 100 m long shadow. How long is the flag pole?

A. 150 m

B. 200 m

C. 125 m

D. 115 m

E. None of these

 

Q. 105 If 5 boys take 7 hours to pack 35 toys, how many boys can pack 66 toys in 3 hours?

A. 26

B. 39

C. 45

D. 65

E. None of these

 

Q. 106 Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 18 and 6 hours, respectively. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously, how much time will be taken to fill the tank?

A. 4.5 h

B. 7 h

C. 6 h

D. 10 h

E. 9 h

 

Q. 107 A bus covers a certain distance in 16 hours. It covers half the distance at 40 km/h and the rest at 60 km/h. Find the length of the journey.

A. 520 km

B. 448 km

C. 384 km

D. 768 km

E. None of these

 

Q. 108 If two trains start at the same time from points x and y towards each other and after crossing, they take 9 hours and 4 hours in reaching points y and x, respectively. Find the ratio of speeds of the first train to that of the second train.

A. 2:3

B. 3:2

C. 2:5

D. 5:3

E. None of these

 

Q. 109 A car runs at the speed of 50 km/h when not serviced and runs at 60 km/h, when serviced. After servicing, the car covers a certain distance in 6 h. How much time will the car take to cover the same distance when not serviced?

A. 8.2 h

B. 6.5 h

C. 8 h

D. 7.2 h

E. None of these

 

Q. 110 At present, Kavita is twice Sarita’s age. 8 years hence, the respective ratio between Kavita’s and Sarita’s ages will be 22:13. What is Kavita’s present age?

A. 26 yr

B. 18 yr

C. 42 yr

D. 36 yr

E. None of these

 

Questions: 111 – 115

The circle graph given here shows the spendings of a country on various sports during a particular year. Study the graph carefully and answer the questions given below it.

 

Q. 111 What percent of the total spendings is spent on Tennis?

A. 12.5%

B. 22.5%

C. 25%

D. 45%

E. None of these

 

Q. 112 How much percent more is spent on Hockey than that on Golf?

A. 27%

B. 35%

C. 37.5%

D. 75%

E. None of these

 

Q. 113 How much percent less is spent on Football than that on Cricket?

A. 22 2/9%

B. 27%

C. 33 1/3%

D. 75%

E. None of these

 

Q. 114 If the total amount spent on sports during the year was Rs. 2 crore, the amount spent on Cricket and Hockey together was

A. Rs. 800000

B. Rs. 8000000

C. Rs. 12000000

D. Rs. 16000000

E. None of these

 

Q. 115 If the total amount spent on sports during the year be Rs. 18000000, the amount spent on Basketball exceeds that on Tennis by

A. Rs. 250000

B. Rs. 360000

C. Rs. 375000

D. Rs. 410000

E. None of these

 

Questions: 116 – 120

Study the bar-graph and answer the questions.

 

Q. 116 In the year 2006, the people preferring to play Tennis is what percent of the people preferring to play Cricket, Football and Tennis together in that year?

A. 25 1/3%

B. 24 3/7%

C. 21 1/3%

D. 22 2/9%

E. 23 1/3%

 

Q. 117 From 2001 to 2006, what was the total number of people who preferred to play Football (in millions)?

A. 1525

B. 1620

C. 1730

D. 1800

E. 1925

 

Q. 118 The number of people preferring to play Tennis in 2006, is how many millions fewer than the number of people preferring to play Tennis in 2005?

A. 115

B. 120

C. 100

D. 97

E. 95

 

Q. 119 What is the respective ratio of the number of people preferring to play Cricket to the number of people, preferring to play Tennis in the year 2003?

A. 14:15

B. 15:13

C. 15:17

D. 13:15

E. 17:14

 

Q. 120 How many people (in millions) have preferred to play Cricket in all the years together?

A. 2050

B. 2000

C. 1850

D. 1750

E. 1600

 

Q. 121 The first Indian State to have Defence Industrial Park, is

A. Karnataka

B. Kerala

C. Maharashtra

D. Andhra Pradesh

E. Bihar

 

Q. 122 Professor Maurice Obstfeld will become Economic Counsellor and Director of the ______ research department in September.

A. IMF

B. City Bank

C. ADB

D. PNB

E. ICICI Bank

 

Q. 123 A 20-year old Indian-American ________ won the junior title at the latest United States Powerlifting Association National Championships in Las Vegas.

A. Jitesh Chhabra

B. Amitoj Chhabra

C. Amitoj Singh

D. Raj Singh

E. Jitesh Singh

 

Q. 124 Ambati Rayudu is related to

A. cricket

B. tennis

C. shooting

D. snooker

E. None of these

 

Q. 125 To safeguard small investors from high-risk products, the market regulator SEBI made a steep hike in the minimum investment size for any equity derivative product to Rs. 5 lakh from ______ currently.

A. Rs. 2 lakh

B. Rs. 1 lakh

C. Rs 3 lakh

D. Rs. 4 lakh

E. Rs. 4.5 lakh

 

Q. 126 _______ won the South Asian Basketball (SABA) Championship title 2015.

A. Germany

B. The USA

C. India

D. France

E. South Korea

 

Q. 127 Kotak Mahindra Bank has got a go-ahead from the Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB) for its proposal to increase Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the bank to

A. 25%

B. 35%

C. 55%

D. 75%

E. 95%

 

Q. 128 Indian pair of Jwala Gutta and Ashwini Ponappa won the women’s doubles of

A. Canada Open Badminton Tournament 2015

B. Norway Chess Tournament 2015

C. World Railways Championship 2015

D. Tennis Championships 2015

E. Aegon Tennis Championships

 

Q. 129 President Pranab Mukherjee has nominated two Anglo-Indian Community members to the Lower House as per the provisions of Article-331 of Indian Constitution namely

I. Professor Richard Hay

II. Professor Richard Rostra

III. George Baker

IV. G. Richard

Which of the above are correct?

A. I and III

B. I and II

C. II and III

D. III and IV

E. I and IV

 

Q. 130 eMudhra offers variety of other services including

I. tax filing services

II. digital signing solutions

III. PAN Card online applications

IV. digital certificate authentication system

V. trusted cheap stamping

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. I, II, III and IV

B. II, III, IV and V

C. I, III, IV and V

D. I, IV and V

E. All of these

 

Q. 131 Choose the correct statement(s):

A. YK Sabharwal was former Chief Justice of India

B. Justice Sabharwal was Chief Justice of India from November 1, 2005 to January 13, 2007

C. Justice Sabharwal was honoured with Padma Bhushan in 2006

D. Both (a) and (b)

E. All of the above

 

Q. 132 Arrange the following world’s biggest employers in chronological order (According to World Hunger List):

I. Walmart

II. McDonald’s

III. Indian Railways

IV. Indian Army

A. I, II, IV and III

B. III, II, IV and I

C. I, II, III and IV

D. II, III, I and IV

E. II, I, IV and III

 

Q. 133 First-time MLA ______, was sworn-in as a Cabinet Minister in the Delhi government on June, 2015 and given charge of the Law Department.

A. Jitendra Singh Tomar

B. Kapil Mishra

C. Arvind Kejriwal

D. Sanjay Singh

E. Intzar Pervez

 

Q. 134 China has permitted events to celebrate the first UN Yoga Day on

A. June 21

B. June 18

C. June 15

D. June 9

E. June 3

 

Q. 135 Satish Dhawan Space Centre or Sriharikota Range (SHAR) is a rocket launch centre operated by

A. IRSO

B. VSSC

C. SHAR

D. ISRO

E. IORS

 

Q. 136 Asian Development Bank (ADB) has appointed ______ and Bambang Susantono as Vice- President in two different roles.

A. Vijai Sharma

B. KV Chowdary

C. Diwakar Gupta

D. Sanjay Singh

E. Vijay Singh

 

Q. 137 Serena Williams (USA), won French Open 2015 women’s singles title. This was her _______ French Open title and overall 20th Grand Slam title.

A. first

B. second

C. third

D. fourth

E. fifth

 

Q. 138 Consider the following statements:

I. Axis Bank will issue co-branded cards to the users of Kochi Metro for paying the fares as well as using them for all kinds of merchandise including e-commerce.

II. An Agreement in this regard was signed in June, 2015 between KMRL and Axis Bank.

III. CMD of KMRL, Elias George and MD and CEO of Axis Bank Shikha Sharma signed the agreement.

Choose the correct statement(s).

A. I and II

B. II and III

C. All of these

D. I and III

E. Only III

 

Q. 139 According to Forbes magazine’s highest-paid athletes in the world, arrange the following in chronological order :

I. Floyd Mayweather

II. Mahendra Singh Dhoni

III. Roger Federer

A. II, III, I

B. I, III, II

C. I, II, III

D. II, I, III

E. III, II, I

 

Q. 140 Arrange the following country in chronological order (According to the World Hunger List) :

I. Pakistan

II. India

III. China

IV. Nigeria

A. I, II, IV, III

B. III, II, IV, I

C. I, III, IV, II

D. II, III, I, IV

E. II, I, IV, III

 

Q. 141 National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) in May, 2015 signed a pact with which State government for setting-up a 4000 MW power plant in the State?

A. Bihar

B. Jharkhand

C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Uttarakhand

E. Gujarat

 

Q. 142 GMR Infrastructure Limited has signed a Memorandum of Understandings (MoU) with Guizhou International Investment Corporation (GIIC) for developing Kakinada Special Economic Zone (SEZ) in

A. Rajasthan

B. Karnataka

C. Tamil Nadu

D. Madhya Pradesh

E. Andhra Pradesh

 

Q. 143 FDI in Railway Infrastructure sector has been opened to _____ FDI under automatic route.

A. 49%

B. 50%

C. 60%

D. 75%

E. 100%

 

Q. 144 A record number of ______ Indian-origin candidates including Keith Vaz, Priti Patel and Infosysy co-founder Narayana Murthy;s son-in-law were elected on May 8, 2015, to the British Parliament.

A. seven

B. eight

C. nine

D. ten

E. fifteen

 

Q. 145 MoneyGram is the second largest provider of money _____ in the world.

A. saving account

B. transfers

C. calculation software

D. payment way

E. None of these

 

Q. 146 Future Group is an Indian private conglomerate, headquartered in

A. Mumbai

B. Delhi

C. Hyderabad

D. Bangalore

E. Gwalior

 

Q. 147 The Indian government raised the limit of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the pension sector to _____ in line with the FDI cap raised recently in the insurance sector.

A. 25%

B. 35%

C. 49%

D. 59%

E. 64%

 

Q. 148 Choose the correct statements regarding the Soil Health Card Scheme (SHC).

A. SHC has in it all basic and crop wise recommendations of fertilizers and nutrients.

B. Punjab has become the first ever State in the country to issue Soil Health Cards.

C. Checking of soil health on quarterly basis.

D. Both (a) and (b)

E. All of the above

 

Q. 149 Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojna (PMJJBY) and Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojna (PMSBY) will cover

A. PMJJBY – all the savings account holders of the age group 18-50 for death due to any cause.

B. PMSBY will cover all the savings account holders of the age group 18 to 70 for accidental disability or death

C. The premium for PMJJBY is Rs. 330 per year.

D. The premium for PBSBY is Rs. 12

E. All of the above

 

Q. 150 The World Snooker Championship is a leading professional snooker tournament in terms of

I. Prize money

II. Ranking points

III. Prestige

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. Only I

B. Only III

C. I and II

D. All of these

E. None of these

 

Q. 151 Cincinnati Masters, started on September 18, 1899, is the oldest ______ tournament in the United States (US) played in its original city.

A. football

B. tennis

C. chess

D. snooker

E. golf

 

Q. 152 India’s Aditi Chauhan has become the country’s _______ woman to play English league football.

A. first

B. second

C. third

D. fourth

E. fifth

 

Q. 153 Country’s largest lender State Bank of India launched a mobile wallet app in August, 2015, ________, in collaboration with Accenture and Mastercard.

A. SBI Amast

B. SBI Buddy

C. SBI Card M

D. SBI Mcard

E. SBI Dubby

 

Q. 154 Indian sociobiologist Raghavendra Gadagkar was awarded ______ highest civilian honour, the Cross of Order of the Merit.

A. Singapore’s

B. Bhutan’s

C. China’s

D. Germany’s

E. Britain’s

 

Q. 155 SBI Life Insurance has launched a new product, ______ on August 7, 2015, a plan which offers multiple benefits of savings and insurance cover for husband and wife under a single policy.

A. Smart Family

B. Smart Humsafar

C. Smart Policy

D. Smart Safar

E. Smart Insurance

 

Q. 156 Pakistan is the ______ in the world after Turkey and Serbia to get the status of CERN’s associate membership.

A. First

B. Second

C. Third

D. Fourth

E. Fifth

 

Q. 157 Choose the correct statement(s) regarding portal feature of Vidya Lakshmi :

A. Facility to apply to multiple Banks for Educational Loans.

B. Facility for Banks to download Students’ Loan Applications.

C. Facility for Banks to upload loan processing status.

D. Facility for Students to e-mail grievances/queries relating to Educational.

E. All of the above

 

Q. 158 Choose the correct statement(s) regarding six-nation SAFF Under-16 Championship :

A. Bangladesh Under-16 Football team win 3rd edition title of this trophy by India by 4-2 goals in tie breaker at the Sylhet Stadium.

B. The first edition of the tournament took place in Nepal in August, 2011.

C. Besides India and Bangladesh, the tournament was participated by Nepal, Sri Lanka, Afghanistan and the Maldives.

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

 

Q. 159 Subsidy is a benefit given by the government to groups or individuals usually in the form of

A. a cash payment

B. tax reduction

C. Discount rate

D. Both (a) and (b)

E. Both (b) and (c)

 

Q. 160 The Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) announced on August 7, 2015 the formation of an ad-hoc committee for cricket administration (CA) in the State(s) of

A. Bihar

B. Uttarakhand

C. Rajasthan

D. Both (a) and (b)

E. Both (b) and (c)

 

Q. 161 A telephone number, a birth date, and a customer name are all examples of

A. a record

B. data

C. a file

D. a database

E. a folder

 

Q. 162 Which key is used in combination with another key to perform a specific task?

A. Function

B. Control

C. Arrow

D. Space bar

E. Shift

 

Q. 163 In addition to keying data directly into a data directly into a database, data entry can be done from a(n)

A. input form

B. table

C. field

D. data dictionary

E. tuple

 

Q. 164 If a new device is attached to a computer, such as a printer or scanner, its _______ must be installed before the device can be used.

A. buffer

B. driver

C. pager

D. server

E. maker

 

Q. 165 The software that allows users to surf the internet is called a/an

A. Search engine

B. Internet Service Provider (ISP)

C. Multimedia application

D. Browser

E. Cookie

 

Q. 166 ______ provides a common address space and routes the packets of data across the entire internet.

A. IP

B. TCP

C. UDP

D. ALU

E. FTP

 

Q. 167 What menu is selected to change the font and style?

A. Tools

B. File

C. Format

D. Edit

E. Insert

 

Q. 168 Primary memory is used by the

A. user

B. input device

C. CPU

D. output device

E. programmer

 

Q. 169 A ________ is a computer connected to two networks.

A. link

B. server

C. gateway

D. bridge way

E. client

 

Q. 170 Which of the following is not an operating system?

A. DOS

B. Oracle

C. Linux

D. Windows

E. Unix

 

Q. 171 A small amount of memory included in the processor for high speed access ID called

A. Register

B. Cache

C. RAM

D. ROM

E. Virtual

 

Q. 172 The ______ enables you to simultaneously keep multiple webpages open in one browser window.

A. Tab bar

B. pop-up helper

C. Tab row

D. Address bar

E. Tab column

 

Q. 173 The ________ button on the quick access toolbar allows you to cancel your recent commands or action.

A. Search

B. Cut

C. Document

D. Undo

E. Redo

 

Q. 174 What type of virus use computer hosts to reproduce it?

A. Time bomb

B. Worm

C. Melissa virus

D. Macro virus

E. Trojan

 

Q. 175 _____ is a signalling method that handles a relatively wide range of frequencies.

A. Broadband

B. DLF

C. Dial-up

D. Both (a) and (c)

E. Wireless

 

Q. 176 A disk content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and that cannot be changed or erased by the user

A. Read only

B. Memory only

C. Run only

D. Writes only

E. Search only

 

Q. 177 The OCR is used for the preparation of

A. electricity bills

B. insurance premium

C. telephone bills

D. gas bills

E. All of these

 

Q. 178 Which of the following unit is not used to count the speed of a printer?

A. CPM

B. DPI

C. PPM

D. BIT

E. LPM

 

Q. 179 The binary equivalent of decimal number 98 is

A. 1110001

B. 1110100

C. 1100010

D. 1111001

E. 0110110

 

Q. 180 This part of operating system manages the essential peripherals, such as the keyboard, screen, disk drives, and parallel and serial ports.

A. basic input/output system

B. secondary input/output system

C. peripheral input/output system

D. marginal input/output system

E. primary input/output system

 

Q. 181 Which of the following is not a type of key?

A. Alphabetic keys

B. Numeric keys

C. Function keys

D. Toggle keys

E. None of these

 

Q. 182 If a previously saved file is edited

A. it cannot be saved again

B. the changes will automatically be saved in the file

C. the file will only have to be saved again if it is more than one page in length

D. its name must be changed

E. the file must be saved again to store the changes

 

Q. 183 Which of the following statements is false concerning file names?

A. Files may share the same name or the same extension but not both.

B. Every file in the same folder must have a unique name.

C. File extension is another name for file type

D. The file extension comes before the dot (.) followed by the file name.

E. None of the above

 

Q. 184 What is gutter margin?

A. Margin that is added to the left margin when printing.

B. Margin that is added to right margin when printing.

C. Margin that is added to the binding side of page when printing.

D. Margin that is added to the outside of the page when printing

E. None of the above

 

Q. 185 By default, your document will print in _______ mode.

A. landscape

B. portrait

C. page set-up

D. print view

E. page preview

 

Q. 186 _____ is a procedure that requires users to enter an identification code and a matching password.

A. Paging

B. Logging on

C. Time sharing

D. Multitasking

E. Logging off

 

Q. 187 Computer programs are written in a high-level programming language; however, the human-readable version of a program is called

A. Cache

B. Instruction set

C. Source code

D. Word size

E. Object code

 

Q. 188 Which of the following refers to the memory in your computer?

A. RAM

B. DSL

C. USB

D. LAN

E. CPU

 

Q. 189 A series of instructions that tells a computer what to do and how to do it is called a

A. Program

B. Command

C. User response

D. Processor

E. Server response

 

Q. 190 Name of the executable file of MS Word is

A. MSWord

B. MSWord.exe

C. WinWord

D. WinWord.exe

E. Word.exe

 

Q. 191 _____ are viruses that are triggered by the passage of time or on a certain date.

A. Boot-sector viruses

B. Macro viruses

C. Time bombs

D. Worms

E. Trojan Horse

 

Q. 192 What is a backup?

A. Restoring the information backup

B. An exact copy of a system’s information

C. The ability to get a system up and running in the event of a system crash or failure

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

 

Q. 193 In a rung topology, the computer in possession of the _____ can transmit data.

A. packet

B. data

C. access method

D. token

E. hob

 

Q. 194 _______ is the act of copying or downloading a program from a network and making multiple copies of it.

A. Network piracy

B. Plagiarism

C. Software piracy

D. Site-license piracy

E. Hardware piracy

 

Q. 195 A device operating at the physical layer is called a

A. Bridge

B. Router

C. Repeater

D. Gateway

E. Network

 

Q. 196 Which of the following terms is just the connection of networks that can be joined together?

A. Virtual Private Network

B. Internet

C. Intranet

D. Extranet

E. Public network

 

Q. 197 An affordable technology that uses existing telephone lines to provide high-speed connections is called

A. ISDN

B. Microwave

C. Cable modem

D. DSL

E. ALU

 

Q. 198 The capacity of a communication channel is measured in

A. bandwidth

B. bit capacity

C. baud rate

D. data flow

E. store data

 

Q. 199 A relatively new technology that allows wireless connectivity

A. Bluetooth

B. Black tooth

C. Blue band

D. Broadband

E. Wi-FI

 

Q. 200 For large computer network which topology is used?

A. Star

B. Ring

C. Bus

D. Mesh

E. Tree

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	E	D	B	A	E	D	D	C	C	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	C	B	D	E	C	B	A	E	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	B	B	C	A	A	B	C	E	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	A	E	B	D	D	B	B	D	A
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	E	B	C	C	D	C	A	A	D	E
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	E	D	B	A	A	C	D	C	B	A
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	A	D	D	C	C	D	D	A	E	E
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	B	E	D	D	B	C	E	D	D	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	E	C	D	A	D	D	B	C	C	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	A	B	D	C	C	C	A	C	A
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	E	A	B	A	E	A	D	A	D	D
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	A	D	C	B	A	E	D	C	B	A
Question	121	122	123	124	125	126	127	128	129	130
Answer	B	A	B	A	A	C	C	A	A	A
Question	131	132	133	134	135	136	137	138	139	140
Answer	D	C	B	A	D	C	C	C	B	D
Question	141	142	143	144	145	146	147	148	149	150
Answer	B	E	E	D	B	A	C	E	E	D
Question	151	152	153	154	155	156	157	158	159	160
Answer	B	A	B	D	B	C	E	D	D	D
Question	161	162	163	164	165	166	167	168	169	170
Answer	A	B	A	B	D	A	C	C	D	B
Question	171	172	173	174	175	176	177	178	179	180
Answer	B	C	D	B	A	A	E	D	C	A
Question	181	182	183	184	185	186	187	188	189	190
Answer	E	E	D	C	B	B	C	A	A	D
Question	191	192	193	194	195	196	197	198	199	200
Answer	C	D	D	C	C	B	D	A	A	D