Category: Bank PO

IBPS PO Prelims Exam

Date: 11-10-2015

Q : 1 – 10 Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions. Certain words / phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

“I promise to open a bank account for a British citizen in just two minutes”. With a background in IT banking and asset management, this young entrepreneur is submitting plans to the regulators to start a new bank called Lintel, the twominute pledge is one of his selling points. He reckons that he can do better than the existing banks, and is putting plenty of his own money where his mouth is, as part of the 5m ($7.5m) start-up cost. lie hopes to start doing business early next year. Since April, 2013, three new British banks have appeared and three outfits have taken over old licenses. An official at the Prudential Regulation Authority (PRA) who doles out banking licences is part of the Bank of England, says people are now applying to open banks in”unprecedented numbers.” Four applicants are likely to start operating this year, he says with a further four or so probably coming to market next year. At least as far as the consumer is concerned, banking could be on the verge of quite a shake-up. Since March, 2013, the process to apply for a license has been streamlined. The PRA claims that a new bank can be up and running just six months after final authorization. The capital requirements for the start-ups are lower than they used to be. And many of the new entrants are acting like classic entrepreneurs. They work out how the existing banks are failing customers then look for niches, whether in products, customers or technology. All are encouraged by the growing willingness of consumers to switch from one bank to another, stimulated in part by regulations designed to make this easier. One such niche market will be immigrants, both students on short-stay visas and longer-term economic migrants and new start-up banks promise to offer a full range of products, in many languages, digitally and also at a few branches, to be located at the most convenient places for his target customers such as the railway stations in London that serve Heathrow and Gatwick airports. Another niche (e.g. Atom Bank), by contrast, is technological. It will be the first British bank to be digital-only, with all transactions done through smartphones and tablets, via an app. This ought to lower the bank’s overheads. The banking sector is currently the subject of a review by the Competition and Markets Authority, an official watchdog. Most of the new entrants would agree with the authority’s criticism that some features of the traditional banking system “prevent, restrict or distort competition”, in relation to both personal customers and small businesses. They attack what they call the opaque pricing of many current accounts and view to drive change. The entrepreneurs also claim that their innovative new products and technologies will help to address some of those criticisms.

 

Q. 1 Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word DOLES given in bold as used in the passage

A. Benefits

B. charity

C. sorrows

D. Handouts

E. issues

 

Q. 2 Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word APPEARED given in bold as used in the passage

A. Performed

B. shown

C. survived

D. Lived

E. emerged

 

Q. 3 Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?

A. Many large banks have collapsed and their place is being taken over by foreign banks

B. All present British banks largely offer digital services and are reducing physical branches

C. British banks are facing a financial crunch and need a stimulus from the government.

D. The Bank of England has improved the process of issuance of bank licenses.

E. None of the given options is true in the context of the passage

 

Q. 4 What is the author’s view regarding the start-up innovations in banking ?

A. These pose a threat to the banking system as they are not governed by stringent regulations.

B. Their operations are mainly online making it difficult for certain functions of their customers

C. These are providing an alternative to traditional banking and may transform the banking industry

D. These will not be very successful as customers are wary of leaving traditional banks.

E. Other than those given as options

 

Q. 5 Which of the following is the central idea of the passage ?

A. As new banks are being set-up, the nature of Banking will change in British

B. While many innovations are taking place in banking, banks lack capital to sustain these.

C. Bank credit in England is at an all time low present.

D. Technology is taking over banks puffing security at risk

E. Customers are unhappy with the central bank’s decision to encourage setting up of new risky banks.

 

Q. 6 What does the example of Lintel cited in the passage convey ?

A. New generation banks have grown bigger than conventional banks

B. Britain’s central bank is allowing banks to be setup indiscriminately

C. Quite a few new banks are being setup in Britain targeting certain customer needs.

D. Bypassing time-consuming but necessary regulations puts banks at risk

E. The Central Bank of England has to implement stricter regulatory measures.

 

Q. 7 Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word CLASSIC given in bold as used in the passage

A. Remarkable

B. Stylish

C. Typical

D. Inexpensive

E. Usual

 

Q. 8 According to the passage, which of the following has/have impacted bank startups?

(A) Failure of foreign banks

(B) Eagerness of individual and companies to set up banks

(C) Changing loyalties of customers

A. Only B

B. Only A

C. All A, B and C

D. Only A and C

E. Only B and C

 

Q. 9 Which of the following best describes die Competition and Market Authority’s opinion of the traditional banking system ?

A. Its services and products are cheap and favour small businesses at the cost of robustness

B. It lacks transparency in its processes and its practices are not always fair.

C. Traditional banks are less profitable than new banks, despite the government’s efforts.

D. The quality of their services is not the same abroad and domestically causing distress to customers

E. Innovations are being brought in despite existing rules prohibiting these.

 

Q. 10 Choose the word which is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word RESTRICT given in bold as used in the passage.

A. Exhibit

B. Encourage

C. chock

D. Exploit

E. contract

 

Questions: 11 – 15

Rearrange the given six sentences / group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.

A. Beneath its vaulting glass domes and mock renaissance murals are a Hello Kitty cafe, a half dozen noodle restaurants, jewellery shops dripping with gold and a theatre used for karaoke contests.

B. Unfortunately, owing to the demanding economy prospects for this mall are not good.

C. The Global Harbor mall in China once ranked among the World’s biggest shopping malls with its floor space equivalent to nearly 70 football fields.

D. With a mix of these utilities for consumers, it blends ersatz European architecture with a distinctly Asian election of stores.

E. As a result, bringing it back to its old position has become more urgent than ever.

F. It is only a slight exaggeration to say that China’s economic hopes rest on the faux- Corinthian columns of this mall.

 

Q. 11 Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement ?

A. E

B. B

C. A

D. F

E. C

 

Q. 12 Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?

A. A

B. B

C. F

D. U

E. E

 

Q. 13 Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. F

E. D

 

Q. 14 Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?

A. A

B. C

C. B

D. F

E. D

 

Q. 15 Which of the following should be the SIXTH (last) sentence after the rearrangement ?

A. C

B. D

C. A

D. B

E. F

 

Questions: 16 – 20

Each question below has two blanks each blank indicating that something has been omitted Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

 

Q. 16 Guests should look………to the new international artists who are………to perform this writer.

A. forward, scheduled

B. ahead,set

C. eagerly, lately

D. closer,likely

E. carefully ,about

 

Q. 17 ……….to a scientist, thousands of fossils be………inside a cave at the Word heritage site.

A. Exclusive, unclaimed

B. Relating, locally

C. Relying, behind

D. Pertaining, buried

E. According, untouched

 

Q. 18 Two months after ordering the authorities to ……… the scam, the court finally………to take the first step towards monitoring the investigation on Monday

A. look, seemed

B. investigate, assumed

C. search, decided

D. probe, appeared

E. delve, made

 

Q. 19 It has been ……… three months that the students of the institute began their strike ……. the appointment of the Chairman of the Council.

A. about ,of

B. more, opposing

C. close,for

D. over, against

E. around ,to

 

Q. 20 ….being unwell, the Minister………to continue his protests till the problem is resolved.

A. Although, wants

B. Despite, intends

C. Though, suggests

D. Since, prolongs

E. After, resolve

 

Questions: 21 – 25

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error, if any, will he in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with error as your answer. If there is no error, mark (5) as your answer.

 

Q. 21 With 80 percent of the working age population, already employed, there is limited room for employment growth to contribute strong about economic activities in the future.

A. With 80 percent of the working age population

B. already employed, there is limited room

C. for employment growth to contribute strong about

D. economic activities in the future.

E. no error

 

Q. 22 The global economy, slaved by stagnation in Europe and Japan, is being further hampered by England’s decelerating growth.

A. The global economy, slaved by

B. stagnation in Europe and Japan, is being

C. further hampered

D. by England’s decelerating growth.

E. no error

 

Q. 23 The country’s economic growth could be fade dramatically as the years to come owing to an aging population.

A. The country’s economic growth

B. could be fade dramatically

C. as the years to come

D. owing to an aging population

E. no error

 

Q. 24 The country’s economic growth will largely be stable in the third quarter as the impact of a stock market plunge is been lessened.

A. The country’s economic growth will

B. largely be stable in the third quarter

C. as the impact of a stock market plunge

D. is been lessened

E. No error

 

Q. 25 A major component supporting the nation’s rapid economic growth has been growth of exports.

A. A major component supporting

B. the nation’s rapid

C. economic growth has

D. been growth of exports.

E. No error

 

Questions: 26 – 30

In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested. One of which fits the blank appropriately.

Find out the appropriate word in each case.

India’s private-schooled, English-speaking urban elite may attract global attention, but they are in the …26…. The vast majority of Indian children attend government-run primary schools in rural areas. In 2008-2009, rural India …27… for more than 88% of India’s primary-school students, of whom over 87% were …28… in government run schools. This is where we see some of the nation’s toughest challenges. The number of students completing their primary education with …29… numeracy and literacy’ skills is startling. To see this manifest in an economic sense, one may attribute India’s slow productivity growth-lagging behind that of East Asian economics-to a lack of.. .30… in the foundational elements of countrywide, high-quality education.

 

Q. 26 Fill in the blanks

A. least

B. lurch

C. minority

D. future

E. past

 

Q. 27 Fill in the blanks

A. Amounted

B. totalized

C. accumulated

D. added

E. accounted

 

Q. 28 Fill in the blanks

A. bordered

B. existed

C. enrolled

D. hatred

E. proposed

 

Q. 29 Fill in the blanks

A. astute

B. inadequate

C. certain

D. pursued

E. together

 

Q. 30 Fill in the blanks

A. progress

B. contribution

C. particulars

D. boundaries

E. schools

 

Q. 31 A bag contains 6 red, 5 yellow and 3 pink balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that none of the balls drawn are red in colour ?

A. 4/13

B. 8/13

C. 5/13

D. 2/13

E. 6/13

 

Q. 32 A vessel contains a mixture of apple, orange and mango juices in the respective ratio of 3 : 5 : 4. 12 litre of this mixture is taken out and 8 litre of apple juice is added to the mixture. If the respective quantities of apple juice and orange juice in the vessel are equal, what was the initial quantity of mixture in the vessel ? (in litre)

A. 60

B. 84

C. 96

D. 48

E. 72

 

Questions: 33 – 37

In these questions, two equations, numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and Give answer:

(1) x > y

(2) x > y

(3) x < y

(4) Relationship between x and y cannot be determined

(5) x < y

 

Q. 33 I.x²=81

II. y²+13y + 36 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 34 I.x²- 13x +14 = 0

II. 3y² -17y + 22 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 35 I.x²+ 9x + 9 = 0

II. 4y²+ 9y + 5 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 36 I. 2×2 – 11x + 14 = 0

II. 2y2 -7y + 6 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 37 I. x² – 7x + 12 = 0

II. 2y²– 19y + 44 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 38 A and B together can complete a piece of work in 16 days. B alone can complete the same work in 24 days. In how many days can A alone complete the same work ?

A. 38 days

B. 50 days

C. 48 days

D. 42 days

E. none of these

 

Q. 39 The average salary of A, B and C is Rs. 7,200/-. The average salary of B, C and D is Rs. 7,550/-. If D’s salary is 25% more than A’s salary, what is the average of B and C’s salary ?

A. Rs. 8,950/-

B. Rs. 8,450/

C. Rs. 8,300/-

D. Rs. 8,900/-

E. Rs. 8,700/-

 

Questions: 40 – 44

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions ? (You are not expected to calculate the exact answer.)

 

Q. 40 9659 + 20.99 + 7.921 ÷ 11 .97 = ?

A. 960

B. 950

C. 1260

D. 1280

E. 1120

 

Q. 41   25.01% of 541 ÷ 29.97% of 30.01 + ? = 140

A. 90

B. 145

C. 125

D. 85

E. 110

 

Q. 42  1401 ÷ 34.97 + 21.98 x √626 = ?

A. 520

B. 650

C. 480

D. 590

E. 630

 

Q. 43  (12.5 x 14) ÷ 20 + 41.25 = ?³ ÷ 2.5

A. 6

B. 5

C. 3

D. 4

E. 7

 

Q. 44  √230 ÷ 2.017 + 58.794 = ?

A. 80

B. 102

C. 68

D. 96

E. 77

 

Q. 45 B is 8 years elder to A and B is also 8 years younger to C. 12 years hence, the respective ratio between the ages of A and C will be 5 : 9. What is the sum of present ages of A, B and C ?

A. 32 years

B. 48 years

C. 72 years

D. 42 years

E. 36 years

 

Q. 46 To reach Point B at 10 a.m. from Point A, Abni will have to travel at an average speed of 15 km/h. He will reach point B at 12 p.m., if he travels at an average speed of 10 km/h. At what average speed should Abhi travel to reach Point B at 9 a.m. ?

A. 20 km/h

B. 18 km/h

C. 16 km/h

D. 24 km/h

E. 22 km/h

 

Q. 47 The time taken by a boat to travel a distance upstream is twice the time taken by it to travel the same distance downstream. What is the speed of the boat upstream if it travels 20 km downstream in 1 hour 40 min ? (in km/h)

A. 5.5

B. 6.

C. 6.5

D. 8

E. 4

 

Questions: 48 – 52

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series ?

Q. 48  10 10 16 40 100 ?

A. 220

B. 300

C. 200

D. 150

E. 340

 

Q. 49  4 5.8 9.4 16.6 ? 59.8

A. 40

B. 31

C. 20

D. 42

E. 34

 

Q. 50  7 6 10 27 104 ?

A. 297

B. 439

C. 515

D. 386

E. 624

 

Q. 51  9 4 3 3 4 ?

A. 11

B. 7.5

C. 9.5

D. 12.5

E. 8

 

Q. 52   139 135 128 116 97 ?

A. 69

B. 55

C. 71

D. 82

E. 63

 

Q. 53 The respective ratio of the sum invested for 2 years each in Scheme A offering 10% p.a. compound interest (compounded annually) and in Scheme B offering 8% simple interest is 1: 2. Difference between the interests earned from both the schemes is Rs. 990/-. How much was invested in Scheme A ?

A. Rs.9,500/-

B. Rs.9,000/-

C. Rs.12,000/-

D. Rs. 11,000/-

E. Rs. 10,000/-

 

Questions: 54 – 58

Refer to the table and answer the give questions.

Data related to candidates appeared and qualified from State ‘X’ in the competitive exam during 5 years

 

Q. 54 In 2003, if the number of female qualified candidates was 70, what was the respective ratio of number of female qualified candidates and number of male qualified candidates in the same year ?

A. 5:9

B. 7:11

C. 10:11

D. 10:13

E. 5:7

 

Q. 55 Number of appeared candidates increased by 20% from 2002 to 2006. If 25% of the appeared candidates qualified in 2006, what was the number of qualified candidates in 2006 ?

A. 205

B. 215

C. 245

D. 240

E. 230

 

Q. 56 If the average number of qualified candidates in 2002 and 2005 was 433, what percent of appeared candidates qualified in the competitive exam in 2002 ?

A. 60

B. 75

C. 45

D. 70

E. 50

 

Q. 57 In 2004, if the difference between number of male qualified candidates and number of female qualified candidates was 120, What was the number of appeared candidates in 2004 ?

A. 840

B. 800

C. 660

D. 600

E. 720

 

Q. 58 In 2001, the respective ratio of number of appeared candidates to qualified candidates was 5 : 2. Number of female candidates qualified in 2001 constitutes what percent of the number of appeared candidates in the same year?

A. 15%

B. 25%

C. 125%

D. 20%

E. Cannot be determined

 

Q. 59 If the volume and covered surface area of a cylinder are 462 m³ and 264 m² respectively, what is the total surface area of the cylinder ? (in m²)

A. 351

B. 357

C. 363

D. 339

E. 341

 

Questions: 60 – 64

Refer to the graph and answer the Number of visitors in Country “XYZ” from City A and City B

 

Q. 60 The number of visitors from City A in May is what percent less than the number of visitors from City B in July ?

A. 15%

B. 25%

C. 30%

D. 10%

E. 20%

 

Q. 61 What is the average number of visitors from City B in May, June, August and September ?

A. 260

B. 230

C. 265

D. 245

E. 255

 

Q. 62 What is the difference between the total number of visitors from City A and City B together in September and the total number of visitors from both the cities together in August ?

A. 170

B. 120

C. 130

D. 140

E. 150

 

Q. 63 The number of visitors from City A in April increased by 20% from the previous month. What is the respective ratio between the number of visitors from City A in July and the number of visitors from the same city in March?

A. 18 : 7

B. 19 : 7

C. 17 : 8

D. 19:5

E. 18:5

 

Q. 64 The number of visitors from City B increased by what percent from April to June?

A. 132%

B. 120%

C. 133 1/3%

D. 134%

E. 127 2/3%

 

Q. 65 ‘A’ gave 40% of an amount to ‘B’. From the money B got, he paid 20% to a tax. Out of the remaining amount, the amounts paid by B towards tuition fees and towards library membership are in the respective ratio of 3 : 5. If B paid Rs. 1,720/- as library membership fees, how much money did A have at the beginning ?

A. Rs. 9,000/-

B. Rs. 12,400/-

C. Rs. 12,000/-

D. Rs. 8,000/

E. Rs. 8,600/-

 

Questions: 66 – 70

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Seven people, namely O, P, Q, R, S, T and U will attend a farewell but not necessarily in the same order, in seven different months (of the same year) namely February, March, April, May, July, October and December. Each of them also likes different stationary items namely Pen, Stapler, Ruler, Folder, Envelope, Label and Worksheet but not necessarily in the same order. The one who likes Envelope will attend a farewell in a month which has less than 31 days. Only one person will attend a farewell between the one who likes Envelope and O. The one who likes Ruler will attend a farewell immediately before O. Q will attend a farewell immediately after O. P will attend a farewell in one of the months before Q. Only two people will attend a farewell between Q and P. U will attend a farewell in a month which has less than 31 days. T will attend a farewell immediately after U. Only one person will attend a farewell between O and the one who likes folder. U likes neither open nor stapler. The one who likes pen will attend a farewell immediately before the one who likes Worksheet. S does not like Ruler.

 

Q. 66 Which of the following represents the people who will attend a farewell in March and October respectively ?

A. T,Q

B. T,O

C. U,O

D. U,Q

E. T,S

 

Q. 67 Which of the following represents the month in which R will attend a farewell ?

A. may

B. cannot be determined

C. july

D. october

E. march

 

Q. 68 How many people will attend a farewell between the months in which U and O will attend a farewell ?

A. more than 3

B. 3

C. none

D. 2

E. 1

 

Q. 69 As per the given arrangement, February is related to Envelope and March is related to Ruler, which of the following is July related to following the same pattern ?

A. label

B. pen

C. folder

D. worksheet

E. stapler

 

Q. 70 Which of the following stationary does S like ?

A. worksheet

B. label

C. pen

D. folder

E. stapler

 

Questions: 71 – 75

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

J, K, L, M, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a circular table facing the centre with equal distances between each other (but not necessarily in the same order). Each One of them is also related to M in same way or the other. Only two people sit between Q and L. M sits second to the left of Q. Only three people sit between L and M’s wife. M’s son sits second to the right of M’s wife. Only three people sit between M’s son and M’s brother. M’s daughter sits second to the left of M’s brother. J sits to the immediate right of R. R is neither the son nor the wife of M. M’s sister sits second to the left of R. K. sits to the immediate right of M’s sister. Only two people sit between K and M’s father. T sits second to the right of M’s mother.

 

Q. 71 How many people sit between Q and J, when counted from the left of J?

A. 4

B. 1

C. none

D. 5

E. 2

 

Q. 72 How is K related to R?

A. brother

B. nephew

C. daughter-in law

D. uncle

E. mother

 

Q. 73 Who sits second to the right of R?

A. R

B. M’s brother

C. T

D. M’s daughter

E. K

 

Q. 74 Who amongst the following is the wife of M ?

A. Q

B. K

C. N

D. J

E. O

 

Q. 75 Which of the following statements is true with respect to the given information ?

A. All the given statements are true

B. M sits second to the left of L

C. K is an immediate neighbour of R

D. S is the daughter of L

E. R sits second to the right of M’s wife

 

Questions: 76 – 80

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1-T, U, V, W and X are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing north. In row 2-D, E, F, G and H are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing south. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. V sits exactly in the middle of the row. The person facing V sits to the immediate left of F. H is an immediate neighbour of F. W sits second to the left of U. U faces one of the immediate neighbours of E. G is not an immediate neighbour of D. G does not sit at an extreme end of the line. X does not face D.

 

Q. 76 Who amongst the following is facing E ?

A. X

B. T

C. U

D. V

E. W

 

Q. 77 What is the position of G with respect to H ?

A. Third to the right

B. Second to the right

C. Second to the left

D. Immediate right

E. Immediate lef

 

Q. 78 Which of the following statements is true regarding X ?

A. Only two persons sit between X and U

B. X faces one of the immediate neighbours of F

C. W is an immediate neighbour of X

D. None of the given statements is true

E. X sits at an extreme ends of the line

 

Q. 79 Who amongst the following is facing T ?

A. E

B. H

C. D

D. F

E. G

 

Q. 80 Four of the given five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of them does not belong to that group ?

A. XW

B. D F

C. F E

D. T U

E. G D

 

Questions: 81 – 85

Study the following information answer the given questions.

In a certain code language, ‘offer prayers to god’ is written as ‘bi gv oc st’ ‘prayers for school assembly’ is written as ‘tm oc da pu’ ‘school offer special education’ is written as ‘nh mk tm gv ‘assembly must to school’ is written as ‘da st rx tm’ (All codes are two letter codes only)

 

Q. 81 In the given code language, what does the code ‘mk’ stand for?

A. either offer or to

B. god

C. school

D. Either ‘education’ or ‘special’

E. must

 

Q. 82 What is the code for ‘assembly’ in the given code language ?

A. tm

B. rx

C. st

D. da

E. Other than those given as options

 

Q. 83 What is the code for ‘prayers’ in the given code language ?

A. nh

B. oc

C. gv

D. pu

E. rx

 

Q. 84 What may be the possible code for ‘assembly ground’ in the given code language ?

A. ve bi

B. da nh

C. nh ve

D. ve da

E. bi da

 

Q. 85 If ‘school to home’ is written as ‘aj tm st’ in the given code language, then what is the code for ‘home for god’ ?

A. aj gv nh

B. pu aj bi

C. nh bi pu

D. bi da aj

E. aj oc pu

 

Questions: 86 – 88

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Each of the six salespersons viz, U, V, W, X, Y and Z sells a different number of life insurance policies in a day. U sells more policies than Y and Z but less than X. Z sells more policies than only W. X does not sell the most number of policies. The one who sells the third highest number of policies sells 33 policies and the one who sells the lowest number of policies sells 11 policies in a day. Y sells 13 more policies than W.

 

Q. 86 If the number of policies which V sells in a day is less than 47, and is an odd number which is divisible by 3 but not 5, how many policies does he sell ?

A. 24

B. 45

C. 39

D. 27

E. 21

 

Q. 87 How many policies does Z possibly sell ?

A. 19

B. 26

C. 30

D. 24

E. 41

 

Q. 88 Who amongst the following sells the second highest number of policies in a day ?

A. v

B. Y

C. W

D. X

E. Z

 

Questions: 89 – 93

In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.

Give answer:

(1) If only conclusion II is true

(2) If only conclusion I is true

(3) If both conclusions I and II are true

(4) If either conclusion I or II is true

(5) If neither conclusion I nor II is true

 

Q. 89 Statements : F < R < E > A > K; Y > E

Conclusions : I. A > F II. R < K

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 90 Statements : B < R < E = A > D > S; D > C < J

Conclusions : I. D > B ; II. E > S

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 91 Statements: A > B > C < D < E < F

Conclusions : I. C < F ; II. A > E

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 92 Statements : B < R < E = A > D > S; D > C < J

Conclusions : I. J < B ; II. J = B

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 93 Statements : F < R < E > A > K; Y > E

Conclusions : I. Y > K ; II. F < Y

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Questions: 94 – 95

Study the following information to answer the given questions

❖ K is the brother of J. J is the mother of Y

❖ Y is the sister of T. T is married to Q. S is the father of J

❖ S has only one daughter. S is married to R

❖ K is the brother of D. U is the father-in-law of D

 

Q. 94 How is D related to Y ?

A. Cannot be determined

B. mother

C. uncle

D. father

E. aunt

 

Q. 95 If U is the father of C, then how is D related to C ?

A. cousin

B. husband

C. wife

D. cannot be determined

E. brother

 

Questions: 96 – 100

In these questions, two statements followed by two/three conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer:

(1) If only conclusion II is true

(2) if only conclusion I is true

(3) If both conclusions I and II are true

(4) If either conclusion I or II is true

(5) If neither conclusion I nor II is true

 

Q. 96 Statements: All points are views. No view is an idea. Some ideas are thoughts.

Conclusions: I. Some thoughts being points is a possibility. II. No view is a thought.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 97 Statements: All points are views. No view is an idea. Some ideas are thoughts.

Conclusions: At least some ideas are points. II. All thoughts being ideas is a possibility

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 98 Statements: Some slides are photos. All photos arc images. All images are creations.

Conclusions :

I. At least some images are slides.

II. All photos are creations.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 99 Statements : No loss is profit. Some profits are gains.

Conclusions:

I. No gain is a loss

II. Some gains are losses.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 100 Statements : No space is a gap. All tissues are gaps. No gap is a crack.

Conclusions:

I. No space is a crack.

II. No tissue is crack.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	E	E	D	C	A	C	C	E	E	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	D	D	B	E	E	E	B	D	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	C	E	B	D	E	C	E	C	B	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	A	E	E	C	B	E	C	E	D
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	D	B	C	B	A	B	A	B	C
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	A	B	E	B	A	B	A	E	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	D	E	C	B	A	A	B	C	E
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	E	C	C	B	C	A	E	E	C	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	D	D	B	D	B	C	A	D	E	A
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	E	C	B	A	B	A	C	D	A

IBPS PO Prelims Exam

Date: 10-10-2015

Q : 1 – 5

Directions (1 – 5) : Rearrange the following five sentences (A),(B),(C),(D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph, then answer the given questions.

(A) with the country’s decades- old investment boom fast dwindling, it needs consumption to kick in as a new driver of growth.

(B) It is only a slight exaggeration to say that china’s economic hopes rest on the faux-corinthian columns og global horror.

(C) Beneath its vaulting glass domes and mock renaissance murals are a hello kitty cafe, a half dozen noodle restaurants, jewellery shops dripping with gold and a theatre used for karaoke contests.

(D) It blends ersatz European architecture with a distinctly Asian selection of stores.

(E) Global harbor ranks among the world’s biggest shopping malls, its floor space equivalent to nearly 70 football fields.

 

Q. 1 Which of the following should be first sentence after rearrangement?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

 

Q. 2 Which of the following should be third sentence of the rearrangement?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

 

Q. 3 Which of the following should be second sentence of the rearrangement?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

 

Q. 4 Which of the following should be fourth sentence of the rearrangement?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

 

Q. 5 Which of the following should be fifth(last) sentence of the rearrangement?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

 

Questions: 6 – 10

Directions(6-10): Each of the following questions has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. choose the set of words for each blank that fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

 

Q. 6 A clash between_________of two rival gangs in high security prison _________several inmates injured.

A. member, left

B. members, left

C. leaders, leave

D. groups, put

E. volunteers, have

 

Q. 7 Banks caused a bubble, failed to do due_________and _________more than what was warranted to developers.

A. diligence, lent

B. diligent, lend

C. diligently, borrowed

D. carelessly, lent

E. carelessness, lending

 

Q. 8 Acting__________on vehicles polluting city, government ordered all commercial vehicles entering city to_________environmental compensation charge.

A. toughness, pay

B. toughly, paying

C. leniently, pay

D. tough, play

E. roughly, paid

 

Q. 9 The project has__________under fire for___________a vital elephant corridor in kaziranga.

A. gone, destroy

B. come, destructed

C. went, destroying

D. reached, destruction

E. come, destroying

 

Q. 10 Health minister has given all city government hospitals a two day________to get prepared for H1N1 _________

A. deadline, outbreak

B. hardline, outbreaking

C. headline, outbreak

D. period, spread

E. hotline, spreading

 

Questions: 11 – 20

Directions(11-20): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

“I promise to open a bank account for a british citizen in just two minutes”, with a background in IT banking and asset management, this young entrepreneur is submitting plans to the regulators to start the new bank called Lintel; the two minute pledge is one of his selling points. Young entrepreneurs can do better than the existing banks, and is putting plenty of his own money where his mouth is, as part of the 5 million euros start up cost. Since April 2013 three new british banks have appeared and three outfits have taken over old licences. A person, who doles out banking licences at the prudential regulation authority(PRA), part of the bank of england, says people are now applying to open banks in ‘unprecedented numbers’. Four applicants are likely to start operating this year, he says, with a further four or so probably coming to market next year. At least as far as the consumer is concerned, banking could be on the verge of quite a shake-up. Since march 2013 the process to apply for a license has been streamlined. The PRA claims that a new bank can be up and running just six months after final authorisation. The capital requirements of the start-ups are lower than they used to be. And many of the new entrants are acting like classic entrepreneurs. They work out how the existing banks are failing customers or technology. All are encouraged by the growing willingness of consumers to switch for one bank to another, stimulated in part by regulations designed to make this easier. The niche will be about immigrants, both students on short -stay visas and longer -term economic migrants. They are treated “extremely bad”by existing banks he claims. He will offer a full range of products in ,many languages, digitally and also at a few branches, to be located at the most convenient places for his target customers –such as the railway stations in London that serve Heathrow and gatwick airports. Atom bank’s niche, by contrast , is technological. It will be the first british bank to the digital only, with all transactions done through smartphones and tablets, via an app. This ought to lower the banks overheads. set up by Mark Mullen, a former head of branchless bank first direct, and anthony thomson, co-founder of another of the new wave of “challenger” banks, Metro, atom bank should start operating in the second half of this year. Metro bank itself, which started in 2010, is following a quite different road: it is opening new branches almost as quickly as traditional banks like lloyds, RBS, Barclays and HSBC are closing them. The banking sector is currently the subject of a review by the competition and Markets authority, an official watchdog. Most with authority’s criticism that some features of the current banking market “prevent, restrict or distort competition”, in relation to both personal customers and small businesses. The entrepreneurs also claim that their innovative new products new products and technologies will help to address some of those criticisms. Mr. Mullen, for instance, attacks what he calls the opaque pricing of many current accounts: a selling point of atom bank, he claims, is that all its pricing will be utterly transparent.”we will drive change”, he says.

 

Q. 11 Which of the following is/are correct in the context of the given passage?

I. The young entrepreneur is to start a new bank called unitel.

II. The start-up cost of a new bank is set at 5 million euros.

III. The young entrepreneur promises to open a bank account for a british citizen in just two minutes.

A. only I and II

B. only II and III

C. Only I and III

D. only II

E. all three I, II and III

 

Q. 12 what should be the most appropriate title of the given passage?

A. state of existing banks in the united kingdom

B. prospective willingness to open new banks in the united kingdom

C. economic slowdown and existing banks

D. hurdles in opening a new bank in london

E. none of these

 

Q. 13 which of the following statements is not correct in the context of the given passage?

A. since april 2013, three new british banks have come to light.

B. the capital requirements for the start-ups are higher than they used to be.

C. all new entrepreneurs are encouraged by the growing willingness of consumers to change banks

D. A new bank can be up and running just six months after authorisation

E. none of these

 

Q. 14 new entrants are looking for niches whether in products, customers or technology. Which of the following is not correct in this regard?

A. they are thinking about immigrants as they are treated extremely badly by existing banks.

B. offering a full range of products in many languages and digitally.

C. some branches to be located at the most convenient places for the the target customers.

D. opening bank accounts without proper identification

E. none of these

 

Q. 15 select the correct statement(s) in the context of the given passage.

I. Atom bank’s niche is technological.

II. Metro bank was started in 2010.

III. Atom bank was set up by mark mullen.

A. only I

B. Only III

C. only I and III

D. only II and III

E. all three I, II and III

 

Q. 16 select the incorrect statement in the context of the given passage.

A. anthony thomson is co-founder of metro bank.

B. all the pricing of atom bank will be utterly transparent

C. the banking sector is currently the subject or review

D. barclays, HSBC and RBS are new entrants in banking sector

E. none of these

 

Q. 17 Similar meaning for “Dole out”

A. give out

B. leave

C. borrow

D. cancel

E. accept

 

Q. 18 Similar meaning to “Appear”

A. seam

B. arrive

C. begin to exist

D. append

E. appease

 

Q. 19 opposite to “classic”

A. accepted

B. traditional

C. modern

D. elegant

E. musical

 

Q. 20 opposite to “restrict”

A. impede

B. limit

C. control

D. allow

E. restrain

 

Questions: 21 – 25

Direction(21-25): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. select the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error,select no error as your answer.ignore the error of punctuations if any.

 

Q. 21 insurance ombudsman have(1)/sought more power to settle higher(2)/ claim causes as the number(3)/of complaints continue to rise.(4)/no error(5)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 22 The rising cases of dengue across(1)/many Indian states has fastly(2)/turned into new business opportunities (3)/for pharma, FMCG and insurance.(4)/ no error(5)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 23 Earlier studies have shown (1)/ that even drinking water, beverages and soft drinks(2)/were not totally(3)/free of hazardous chemicals.(4)/no error (5)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 24 Over the past two(1)/months, the prices of oil has(2)/surged due to (3)/estimates of less productions. (4)/no error(5)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 25 With the clew of benefits and business friendly policies(1)/acting as a magnet the

government has succeeded in making (2)/ the state the more preferred destinations(3)/ for investments and business.(4)/no error(5)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Questions: 26 – 30

Directions(26-30): In the given passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered against each five words are suggested,one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

India’s private schooled, English speaking urban elite may attract global attention, but they are in the______(26). The vast majority of Indian children______(27) government run preliminary schools in rural areas. In 2008-2009, rural India ______(28)for more than 88 % of India’s primary school students, of whom over 87% were enrolled in government run schools. This is where we see one of the nations____(29) challenges. India’s education system has not achieved strong learning out comes for reasons that are as diverse and_____(30) as the country itself. Key among these reasons is poor teaching quality which results from a multitude of factors.

 

Q. 26 which word suits the best?

A. minor

B. major

C. majority

D. minority

E. maturity

 

Q. 27 which word suits the best?

A. go

B. follow

C. attend

D. attended

E. leave

 

Q. 28 which word suits the best?

A. account

B. accounted

C. arranged

D. counted

E. accumulated

 

Q. 29 which word suits the best?

A. tougher

B. stricter

C. toughest

D. simplest

E. simpler

 

Q. 30 which word suits the best?

A. nuanced

B. difference

C. similar

D. simplified

E. divine

 

Q. 31 A trader has 400 kg of ride. He sells a part of it at a profit of 36% and remaining part at a loss of 24%. He overall loses 12% in the whole transaction.Find the quantity of rice sold at 24% loss.

A. 320 kg

B. 330 kg

C. 300 kg

D. 350 kg

E. none of these

 

Q. 32 The volume and curved surface area of a right circular cylinder are 462 cu. metre and 264 sq. metre respectively. What is the total surface area of the cylinder?(in sq metre)

A. 332

B. 341

C. 336

D. 431

E. none of these

 

Q. 33 In a vessel, there is a mixture of apple, orange and mango juices in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 4 respectively. A quantity of 12 litres from the mixture is replaced by 8 litres of apple juice. Thereafter the quantities of apple and orange juices in the resultant mixture become same. Find out the initial quantity of mixture in the vessel.

A. 76 litres

B. 65 litres

C. 60 litres

D. 80 litres

E. none of these

 

Questions: 34 – 38

what approximate value will come in place of question mark(?) in the following questions. you are not expected to calculate the exact value.

 

Q. 34 25.01% of 541 ÷ (29.97% of 20.01)+ ?=140

A. 110

B. 145

C. 85

D. 95

E. 125

 

Q. 35 1680.11-12.03 x 14.93 + ?² = 1644

A. 12

B. 13

C. 14

D. 15

E. none of these

 

Q. 36 1442 ÷ 36 + 2/9 x 4049 – 125.01 = ?

A. 820

B. 815

C. 840

D. 850

E. none of these

 

Q. 37 9659 ÷ 20.99 + 7921 ÷ 11.97 = ?

A. 1140

B. 1160

C. 1120

D. 1150

E. none of these

 

Q. 38 1401 ÷ 34.97 + 21.98 x √626 = ?

A. 590

B. 700

C. 540

D. 550

E. none of these

 

Questions: 39 – 43

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Number of candidates from a state X who appeared and qualified in a competitive exam during last 5 years.

 

Q. 39 In 2001, 6400 candidates appeared at the exam and 401 of them qualified males and females was 3: 5. What is the total number of female candidates who qualified in these two years?

A. 1120

B. 1220

C. 1330

D. 1150

E. none of these

 

Q. 40 In 2004, what percent of male candidates did qualify in the exam among all qualified candidates?

A. 51%

B. 61%

C. 55%

D. 56%

E. none of these

 

Q. 41 In 2002, 54% of appeared candidates did qualify. How many female candidates did qualify in the exam?

A. 280

B. 170

C. 180

D. 250

E. 240

 

Q. 42 In 2003, a total of 68 male candidates did qualify . what is the respective ratio will between males and females who had qualified in 2003?

A. 11 : 25

B. 19 : 25

C. 17 : 25

D. 25 : 13

E. 13 : 19

 

Q. 43 what is the average number of candidates who did not qualify in the exam in the years 2003 and 2005?

A. 1165

B. 1156

C. 1065

D. 1056

E. none of these

 

Q. 44 There are 6 red balls, 5 yellow and 3 pink balls in an urn. Two balls are drawn at  random. what is the probability that none of the drawn balls is of red colour?

A. 8/13

B. 7/13

C. 6/13

D. 5/13

E. 4/13

 

Questions: 45 – 49

what will come in place of the question mark(?) in the following number series?

 

Q. 45 4 5.8 9.4 16.6 ? 59.8

A. 31

B. 32

C. 29

D. 33

E. 34

 

Q. 46  7 6 10 27 104 ?

A. 516

B. 515

C. 525

D. 535

E. 540

 

Q. 47  139 135 128 116 97 ?

A. 65

B. 68

C. 69

D. 67

E. 80

 

Q. 48  10 10 16 31 70 ?

A. 156

B. 150

C. 180

D. 184

E. 148

 

Q. 49  9 4 3 3 4 ?

A. 9.5

B. 8.5

C. 4.5

D. 6.5

E. 7.5

 

Q. 50 Time taken by a boat in going upstream a certain distance is twice the time taken in going the same distance downstream. Find the speed of boat upstream if it covers 20 km downstream in 1 hour 40 minutes.

A. 6 kmph

B. 7 kmph

C. 6.5 kmph

D. 7.2 kmph

E. none of these

 

Q. 51 To reach a point B at 10 am from point A, Abhinav travels at an average speed of 15 kmph. He reaches the point B at 12 noon, if he travels at an average speed of 10 kmph. Find the average speed of Abhinav if he intends to reach the point B at 9 am(in kmph)

A. 87/7

B. 120/7

C. 101/7

D. 121/7

E. none of these

 

Q. 52 B is 8 years older than A and 8 years younger than C. 12 years hence, respective ratio of the ages of A and C will be 5 : 9. What is the sum of present ages A, B and C?

A. 58 years

B. 46 years

C. 48 years

D. 60 years

E. none of these

 

Questions: 53 – 57

Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Number of tourists visiting country ‘XYZ’ from city A and city B during 6 different months.

 

Q. 53 What is the difference between the average number of tourists from city A and city B during april , may and june taken together?

A. 63 : 31

B. 64 : 75

C. 31 : 63

D. 11 : 13

E. none of these

 

Q. 54 By what percent is the number of tourists from state A less than that form state B in the month of june?

A. 13.97

B. 13.27

C. 12.25

D. 14.5

E. 13.8

 

Q. 55 By what percent the number of tourists from city B increased in august in respect to april ?

A. 36.67

B. 60.57

C. 65.27

D. 66.67

E. none of these

 

Q. 56 by what percent approximately is the total number of tourists from city A less than that of all tourists from city A less than that of all tourists from city B taking all the months together?

A. 1.5%

B. 2%

C. 4%

D. 3%

E. 2.5%

 

Q. 57 What is the respective ratio between the total number of tourists from states A and B during april, may and june taken together?

A. 63 : 31

B. 64 : 75

C. 31 : 63

D. 11 : 13

E. none of these

 

Questions: 58 – 62

In each of the following questions, two equations, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer.

 

Q. 58 I. x² = 81

II. y² + 13y + 36 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 59 I. 2x² – 11x + 14 = 0

II. 2y² – 7y + 6 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 60 I. 3x² – 13x + 14 = 0

II. 3y² – 17y + 22 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 61 I. 2x² + 9x + 9 = 0

II. 4yv + 9y + 5 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 62 I. x² – 7x + 12 = 0

II. 2y² – 19y + 44 = 0

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 63 24 men can complete a piece of work in 28 days. 27 men start working and are replaced by 14 women after 8 days. In how many days will 14 women finish the remaining work?

A. 12 days

B. 14 days

C. 13 days

D. 12 1/2 days

E. 15 days

 

Q. 64 A gave 40% of his monthly salary of Mr. B. Mr. B spent 20% of this amount on taxi fare. He spent the remaining amount in the respective ratio of 3 : 5 on tuition fees and library membership. If he spent Rs. 1720 for membership, what is A’s monthly salary?

A. Rs. 8500

B. Rs. 8600

C. Rs. 7600

D. Rs. 7500

E. none of these

 

Q. 65 A invests a certain sum in scheme A at compound interest(compounded annually) of 10% per annum for 2 years. In scheme B he invests at simple interest of 8% per annum for 2 years. He invests in schemes A and B in the ratio of 1 : 2. The difference between the interests earned from both the schemes in Rs. 990. Find the amount invested in scheme A.

A. Rs. 7500

B. Rs. 8000

C. Rs. 9000

D. Rs. 8500

E. Rs. 8600

 

Questions: 66 – 70

In a certain code language, “offer prayers to god” is written as ‘bi gv oc st’. “prayers for school assembly” is written as ‘tm oc da pu’. “school offer special education” is written as ‘nh mk tm gv’. “assembly must to school” is written as ‘da st rx tm’

All the codes are two letter codes.

 

Q. 66 what is the code for ‘must’ in the given code language ?

A. da

B. other than those given as options

C. rx

D. tm

E. st

 

Q. 67 what is the code for ‘education’ in the given code language?

A. either ‘mk’ or ‘nh’

B. either ‘tm’ or ‘gv’

C. mk

D. nh

E. tm

 

Q. 68 If ‘school to home’ is coded as ‘aj tm st’ in the given code language, then how ‘home for god’ will be coded ?

A. pu gv aj

B. bi aj oc

C. da bi st

D. aj bi pu

E. bi mk rx

 

Q. 69 What may be the possible code for ‘school must offer training’ in the language ?

A. rx gv mk tm

B. tm rk rx gv

C. oc gv oc bi

D. st gv oc bi

E. gv da nh pu

 

Q. 70 what does the code ‘da’ stand for in the given code language?

A. school

B. to

C. prayers

D. other than those given as options

E. assembly

 

Questions: 71 – 75

Directions(71-75) : In each of the following questions, a relationship between different elements is shown in the statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer.

give answer(1) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.

give answer (2) if either conclusion I is true.

give answer (3) If only conclusion I is true

give answer (4) if only conclusion II is true

give answer (5) i both the conclusion I and conclusion II are true

 

Q. 71 statements: F < R ≤ E ≥ A > K ; Y ≥ E

conclusion : I. A > F

II. R ≥ K

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 72 statements: F < R ≤ E ≥ A > K ; Y ≥ E

conclusions: I. Y > K

II. F < Y

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 73 statements : B < R ≤ E = A ≥ D ≥ S; D ≥ C ≤ J

conclusions : I. E > C II. E = C

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 74 statements : B < R ≤ E = A ≥ D ≥ S; D ≥ C ≤ J

conclusions : I. D ≥ S II. E ≥ S

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 75 statement : A > B ≥ C < D < E ≤ F

conclusions : I. C < F II. A ≥ E

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Questions: 76 – 80

Directions(76-80): In each of the following questions, two/ three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II are given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance form the commonly known as facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known as facts.

give answer (1): if only conclusion I follows.

give answer (2): if only conclusion II follows

give answer (3): if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows

give answer(4): if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

give answer(5): if both the conclusion I and conclusion II follows

 

Q. 76 statements:

some slides are photos.

all photos are images.

all images are creations.

conclusions:

I. at least some images are slides.

II. all photos are creations.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 77 statements:

no space is a gap.

all fissures are gaps.

no gap is a crack.

conclusions:

I. no space is crack.

II. no fissure is a crack.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 78 statements:

no loss is a profit.

some profits are gains.

conclusions:

I. no gain is a loss.

II. some gains are losses.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 79 statements:

all points are views.

no view is an idea.

some ideas are thoughts.

conclusions:

I. some thoughts being points is a possibility.

II. no view is a thought.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Q. 80 statements:

all points are views.

no view is an idea.

some ideas are thoughts.

conclusions:

I. at least some ideas are points.

II. all thoughts being ideas is a possibility.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

 

Questions: 81 – 82

U is the mother of D. S is the sister of D. L is the father of S. L has only one daughter. M is the daughter of S. P is the daughter of D.

 

Q. 81 If R is married to S, then how is R related to U ?

A. grandson

B. nephew

C. son-in-law

D. uncle

E. cannot be determined

 

Q. 82 How is S related to P?

A. aunt

B. sister

C. mother

D. niece

E. grandmother

 

Questions: 83 – 85

six sales persons- U,V,W,X,Y and Z- sell insurance policies. Each of them sold different number of policies. U sold more policies than both Y and Z but less than X.

Z sold more policies than only W. X did not sell the highest number of policies. Third highest number of policies sold is equal to

 

Q. 83 who among the following did sell exactly 33 policies?

A. X

B. Y

C. Z

D. U

E. cannot be determined

 

Q. 84 which of the following may represent the number of policies sold by Z?

A. 26

B. 19

C. 9

D. 36

E. 28

 

Q. 85 who among the following did sell less policies than only V ?

A. U

B. Y

C. X

D. Z

E. cannot be determined

 

Questions: 86 – 90

directions(86-90): study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing five persons each in such a way that there is equal distance between adjacent persons. In row–1,D,E,F,G and H are seated and all of them are facing south but not necessarily in the same order. In row–2,T,U,V,W and X are seated and all of them are facing north but not necessarily in the same order. Therefore in the given seating arrangement each member of the other row. V sits exactly in the middle of the row. The one who faces V sits to the immediate left of F. H is an immediate neighbour of F but does not face V. W sits second to left of U. U faces the one who is an immediate neighbour of D, G is not an immediate neighbour of D,G does not sit at the extreme end of the row. X does not face H.

 

Q. 86 who amongst the following its facing V ?

A. G

B. E

C. F

D. D

E. cannot be determined

 

Q. 87 which of the following statements is true regarding T ?

A. T faces F

B. only two persons sit to the left of T

C. T sits to the immediate left of T

D. U sits fourth to the right of T

E. None of the given statements is true.

 

Q. 88 what is the position of D with respect to F?

A. third to the right

B. second to the right

C. immediate left

D. third to the left

E. second to the left

 

Q. 89 fourth of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and hence they form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group ?

A. H

B. T

C. X

D. D

E. U

 

Q. 90 who amongst the following is facing F ?

A. T

B. W

C. V

D. X

E. U

 

Questions: 91 – 95

Eight persons- J, K , L M ,Q, R, S and T –are sitting around a circular table facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them is related to M in some way or the other. Two persons are sitting between Q and L. M is sitting second to the left of Q. Three persons are sitting between L and the wife of M. The son of M is sitting second to the right of the wife of M. Three persons are sitting between the son of M and the brother of M. The daughter of M is sitting second to the left of the brother of M. J is sitting to the intermediate right of the R. R is neither son nor wife of M. The sister of M is sitting to the immediate right of the sister of M. Two persons are sitting between K and the father of M. T is sitting second to the right of the mother of M.

 

Q. 91 who amongst the following is the brother of M?

A. L

B. S

C. T

D. R

E. J

 

Q. 92 What is the position of M’s daughter with respect to M’s son ?

A. third to right

B. second to the left

C. third to the left

D. second to the right

E. immediate right

 

Q. 93 who amongst the following is the wife of M?

A. K

B. S

C. R

D. L

E. T

 

Q. 94 Which of the following statements is true regarding the given seating arrangement ?

A. M’s father is sitting to the immediate left of M’s son

B. only four persons are sitting between S and J

C. M is sitting exactly between his daughter and brother

D. M’s wife is sitting just opposite to M’s father

E. none of the given statements is true.

 

Q. 95 who amongst the following is the sister of M?

A. R

B. S

C. L

D. J

E. Q

 

Questions: 96 – 100

Seven persons- O, P, Q, R, S, T and U–attended a farewell party in the months of february, march, april, may, july, october and december but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them likes different stationery items viz., pen, stapler, ruler, solder, envelope, label and worksheet but not necessarily in the same order. The one who likes envelope attended a farewell party in that month which has less than 31 days. T attended farewell party between O and the who likes folder. O does not like label. The one who likes pen attended farewell party immediately before the one who like worksheet. S does not like ruler. The person who likes label attended the farewell party in the month having less than 31 days.

 

Q. 96 which one of the following stationery items is liked by T?

A. Pen

B. folder

C. label

D. stapler

E. worksheet

 

Q. 97 which of the following combinations of month-person-stationery item is correct?

A. march-U-pen

B. july-O-pen

C. october-S-label

D. may-Q-ruler

E. april-T-envelope

 

Q. 98 which of the following statements is true with respect to the given arrangement?

A. Q attended farewell party in october

B. O likes worksheet

C. R attended farewell party immediately before S

D. S attended farewell party in july

E. none of the given statements is true

 

Q. 99 who among the following attended the farewell party in April?

A. T

B. O

C. Q

D. R

E. P

 

Q. 100 who among the following attended the farewell party immediately after R ?

A. S

B. Q

C. O

D. U

E. P

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	E	C	D	B	A	B	A	D	E	A
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	B	B	D	E	D	A	C	C	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	B	C	B	C	D	C	B	B	A
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	A	B	C	C	A	B	C	A	B	B
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	C	D	E	A	B	C	D	C	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	C	A	C	E	B	B	A	A	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	D	B	A	B	C	C	A	E	B	E
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	E	B	D	C	E	B	C	A	B
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	C	A	B	D	C	A	C	D	E	B
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	B	E	A	E	C	D	B	A	E	C

IBPS PO Prelims Exam 2015 

Date: 04-10-2015

Question: 1-5

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with error as your answer. If there is no error, mark (5) as your answer.

Q. 1 How serious is the country’s economic problems, and how big an impact will these have on the world economies?

A. How serious is the country’s

B. economic problems, and how

C. big an impact will these

D. have on the world economies?

E. No error

 

Q. 2 Shuber, the taxi service provider, is growing like a weed, spending millions of rupees to establish its roots in the country.

A. Shuber, the taxi service provider, is

B. growing like a weed,

C. spending millions of rupees

D. to establish its roots in the country

E. No error

 

Q. 3 The survey asked respondents from more than 50 countries to identify kinds of people they would want of neighbours

A. The survey asked respondents

B. from more than 50 countries to

C. identify kinds of people

D. they would want of neighbours

E. No error

 

Q. 4 The pace and scale of the country’s economic transformation have no historical precedent.

A. The pace and scale of

B. the country’s economic transformation

C. have no

D. historical precedent.

E. No error

 

Q. 5 The countries most affected by the economic slowdown are likely to be those whose export raw materials.

A. The countries most

B. affected by the economic slowdown

C. are likely to be

D. those whose export raw materials

E. No error

 

Questions: 6 – 10

Rearrange the given six sentences/group of sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.

A. “It’s undefined. No one knows if you reach it. It gives the flexibility to revive it later,” he added.

B. Of late, doubts are being raised concerning the health of the world’s second largest economy, China.

C. This change is relatively small but suggests that the country’s effort to meet its official growth target was tougher than it seemed.

D. It comes as worries grow that China will struggle to reach this year’s goal of ‘about’ 7%.

E. “That’s the beauty of using ‘about’ in your targets,” said IHS Global Insight economist Brain Jackson.

F. The reason for these doubts stem from the fact that the country revised its 2014 growth rate to 7.3% from 7.5% due to a weaker-than-reported contribution from the service sector.

 

Q. 6 Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

A. A

B. C

C. B

D. F

E. E

 

Q. 7 Which of the following should be the SIXTH (last) sentence after rearrangement?

A. C

B. F

C. D

D. B

E. A

Q. 8 Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

A. A

B. D

C. C

D. F

E. E

 

Q. 9 Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

A. A

B. B

C. F

D. D

E. C

 

Q. 10 Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

A. A

B. E

C. D

D. F

E. C

 

Questions: 11 – 15

Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set o words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

 

Q. 11 ____________________ he had mixed success in the past with his new technique; this time around the player had enough _______________ up his sleeve to win this match.

A. Since, talent

B. Despite, drama

C. Although, tricks

D. Because, energy

E. Hence, magic

 

Q. 12 Name of the roles offered to me _____________ the strong, funny and dynamic Indian woman that I had grown up _____________

A. stated, today

B. said, surrounded

C. reflected, around

D. depicted, to

E. assessed, within

 

Q. 13 The _____________ to the free sim-card scheme offered by the telecom company has been __________________ and most people expressed complete ignorance about the scheme.

A. reaction, stupendous

B. access, cordial

C. contract, simple

D. takers, high

E. response, abysmal

 

Q. 14 In our close relations it is easy to come ________________ clever men and women, but _______________ to find virtuous ones.

A. find, simpler

B. up, arduous

C. see, terrible

D. across, difficult

E. close, impossible

 

Q. 15 Due to the ______________________ number of swine – flu cases in the district, the health department has decided to spread _________________ about the disease.

A. raising, alertness

B. populates, knowledge

C. prolonged, understanding

D. increasing, awareness

E. high, ability

 

Questions: 16 – 25

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases are quoted to help you locate them while answering some of the question.

There is good news in the form of Europe’s unemployment falling from 11.1% in June to 10.0% in July. But unemployment generally lags behind the economic cycle. Business survey, which provide more up-to-date readings of activity, point to a continuing “subdued” recovery in Europe. The European commission’s longrunning economic-sentiment indicator, which combines business as well as consumer confidence and tends to track GDP has been “broadly” stable since picking up in early 2015. This suggests that the Euro area is not about to break out of its unspectacular growth. This is worrying because the euro-zone economy is benefitting from a powerful triple stimulus. Lower energy costs caused by the slump in global oil prices have been providing the same effect as a tax cut. A big programme of quantitative easing (QE), has been under way since, early in the year under which the European Central Bank (ECB) is creating money to buy 60 billion ($67 billion) of pounds each month. As well as pushing down long-term interest rates QE has helped to keep the euro down on the currency markets to the benefit of exporters. Given the extent of help that the euro area has been getting, growth should be faster. The sluggish performance leaves it vulnerable to China’s slowdown. A particular worry is the impact of weakening Chinese growth on Germany, the hub economy of the region, whose resilience has been crucial in sustaining Europe since the euro crisis started five years ago. One reason has been strong Chinese demand for traditional German manufacturing strengths. Even though German exports appear to be holding up for the time being, that boost from China is waning. Lacklustre growth in the euro area will in turn make it harder for the ECB to meet its goal of pushing inflation back towards its goal of almost 2%. Although core inflation (excluding in particular energy and food) has moved up from its low of 0.6% earlier this year, to 1.0% headline inflation has been stuck at 0.2% over the summer. There is increasing concern that the ECB’s effort to break the “grip” of “lowflation” will be swamped by `global deflationary effects. The ECB’S council is not expected to make a change in policy and is likely to indicate that the ECB recognises the downside risk to growth and stands ready to respond if they “materialise”. That may in turn produce a policy erasing later this year. One option would be to raise the amount of assets that it is buying each month from the current amount of 60 billion. A more likely decision would be for the ECB to extend the planned length of its purchase some for another year. Whether that is enough is question for another day.

 

Q. 16 What is the author’s view regarding the reforms implemented by ECB?

A. He is outraged that these measures are being continued.

B. He is doubtful about the reforms as inflation is rising.

C. These reforms are tough and unpopular in Euro countries.

D. These are not focused and have not been effective at all.

E. Other than those given as options.

 

Q. 17 What do the statistics cited in the passage about ECB convey?

A. Its stimulus package or Europe’s economy is too low in value.

B. ECB is likely to fast run out of ‘bailout’ funds.

C. Despite the ECB’s best efforts, its reforms have been unsuccessful.

D. It is time ECB withdraws its stimulus package to rich countries.

E. ECB has not been proactive in the economic recovery.

 

Q. 18 Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word SUBDUED given in the passage.

A. Passive

B. Necessary

C. Sleep

D. Diluted

E. Expensive

 

Q. 19 Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word BROADLY given in the passage.

A. Widely

B. Barely

C. Softly

D. Responsibly

E. Dimly

 

Q. 20 Which of the following best describes the conclusion which can be drawn from economic indicators from Europe?

A. Investors do not have confidence in European markets.

B. Germany is the only economy unaffected by the crisis of 2008 and China’s slowdown.

C. Tax rates in Europe are being raised which has hampered growth.

D. By and large Europe’s economic performance is steady but not accelerating.

E. Europe has not taken measures to protect itself from the crisis in emerging markets.

 

Q. 21 Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?

A. Germany’s economic performance is linked to the Chinese market.

B. Europe’s large economies have recovered from the global crisis

C. Exorbitant oil prices are negating the effects of ECB’s stimulus

D. Europe’s unemployment rate is rising but it may not continue to do so.

E. None of the given options is true in the context of the passage.

 

Q. 22 According to the passage, which of the following has affected inflation in Europe?

A. Global deflation is prevailing.

B. Frequent rising of ECB’s interest rates.

C. The ECB has withdrawn its Quantitative Erasing programme.

A. Only B

B. Only A

C. All A, B & C

D. Only A & C

E. Only B & C

 

Q. 23 Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word MATERIALISE used in the passage.

A. Disappear

B. Perform

C. Terrorise

D. Occur

E. Substance

 

Q. 24 Which of the following is the central idea of the passage?

A. The European economy is buoyant as its energy and manufacturing sectors are doing well.

B. Emerging markets have been responsible for Europe’s slow economic performance.

C. The European Central Bank is in denial about the imminent crisis Europe is facing.

D. Europe has reduced its exposure to America and Asia

E. The European economy is stagnating leaving it vulnerable to future crisis

 

Q. 25 Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word GRIP used in the passage.

A. Understanding

B. Authority

C. Awareness

D. Clutches

E. Fascination

 

Questions: 26 – 30

In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. Creating a few more schools or allowing hundreds of colleges and private universities to …. (26) …. is not going to solve the crisis of education in India. And a crisis it is- we are in a country where people are spending their parents’ savings and borrowed money on education – and even then not getting standard education, and struggling to find employment of their … (27) …. In this country, millions of students are … (28) … of an unrealistic, pointless, mindless rat race.

The mind numbing competition and rote learning not only … (29) … the creativity and originality of millions of Indian students every year, but also … (30) … brilliant students to adopt drastic measures.

 

Q. 26 Select the suitable word for the Blank (26)

A. base

B. mushroom

C. point

D. set

E. crop

 

Q. 27 Select the suitable word for the Blank (27)

A. parents

B. money

C. fashion

D. equal

E. choice

 

Q. 28 Select the suitable word for the Blank (28)

A. victims

B. member

C. party

D. associates

E. together

 

Q. 29 Select the suitable word for the Blank (29)

A. crush

B. flourish

C. stir

D. halting

E. push

 

Q. 30 Select the suitable word for the Blank (30)

A. aim

B. drive

C. stop

D. responsible

E. make

 

Questions: 31 – 35

Refer to the table (Given in figure) and answer the given questions:

Note:

I. Employees of the given companies can be categorized only in three types:

Science graduates, Commerce graduates and Arts graduates.

II. Few values are missing in the table (indicated by …). A candidate is expected to

calculate the missing value, if it is required to answer the given questions, on the basis of the given data and information.

 

Q. 31 What is the difference between the number of Arts graduate employees and Science graduate employees in Company N?

A. 87

B. 89

C. 77

D. 81

E. 73

 

Q. 32 The average number of Arts graduate employees and Commerce graduate employees in Company Q was 312. What was the total number of employees in Company Q?

A. 920

B. 960

C. 1120

D. 1040

E. 1080

 

Q. 33 If the respective ratio between the number of Commerce graduate employees and Arts graduate employees in Company M was 10 : 7, what was the number of Arts graduate employees in M?

A. 294

B. 266

C. 280

D. 308

E. 322

 

Q. 34 Total number of employees in Company N increased by 20% from December, 2012 to December, 2013, If 20% of the total number of employees in Company N in December, 2013 was Science graduates, what was the number of Science graduate employees in Company N in December, 2013?

A. 224

B. 266

C. 168

D. 252

E. 238

 

Q. 35 Total number of employees in Company P was 3 times the total number of employees in Company O. If the difference between number of Arts graduate employees in Company P and that in Company O was 180, what was the total number of employees in Company O?

A. 1200

B. 1440

C. 720

D. 900

E. 1080

 

Q. 36 A bag contains 6 red balls, 11 yellow balls and 5 pink balls. If two balls are drawn at random from the bag, one after another, what is the probability that first ball is red and the second ball is yellow?

A. 1/14

B. 2/7

C. 5/7

D. 3/14

E. None of these

 

Q. 37 The sum of the radius and height of a cylinder is 19 m. The total surface area of the cylinder is 1672 m², what is the volume of the cylinder? (in m³)

A. 3080

B. 2940

C. 3220

D. 2660

E. 2800

 

Questions: 38 – 42

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series?

 

Q. 38   264 262 271 243 308 ?

A. 216

B. 163

C. 194

D. 205

E. 182

 

Q. 39   1.5 2.5 7 24 100 ?

A. 345

B. 460

C. 525

D. 380

E. 505

 

Q. 40    71 78 92 120 ? 288

A. 160

B. 164

C. 199

D. 208

E. 176

 

Q. 41    17 9 10 16.5 35 ?

A. 192

B. 90

C. 114

D. 76

E. 80

 

Q. 42    79 39 19 9 4 ?

A. 0.2

B. 1.5

C. 0.5

D. 2

E. 1

 

Q. 43 The respective ratio between the speed of the boat upstream and speed of the boat

downstream is 2 : 3. What is the speed of the boat in still water if it covers 42 km

downstream in 2 hours 20 minutes ? (in km/h)

A. 13.5

B. 15

C. 12

D. 11

E. 10

 

Q. 44 24 men can finish a piece of work in 18 days. 30 women can finish the same piece of work in 12 days. In how many days 16 men and 224 women together can finish the same piece of work?

A. 8 5/14

B. 10 11/14

C. 9 9/14

D. 9 1/7

E. 8 8/7

 

Q. 45 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions.

421 ÷ 35 x 299.97 ÷ 25.05 = ?²

A. 22

B. 24

C. 28

D. 12

E. 18

 

Q. 46 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions.

√197 x 6.99 + 626.96 = ?

A. 885

B. 725

C. 825

D. 650

E. 675

 

Q. 47 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions.

19.99 x 15.98 + 224.98 + 125.02 = ?

A. 620

B. 580

C. 670

D. 560

E. 520

 

Q. 48 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions.

3214.99 + 285.02 + 600.02 – 4.01 = ?

A. 3650

B. 4120

C. 4200

D. 3225

E. 4096

 

Q. 49 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given questions.

?% of 1239.96 + 59.87% of 449.95 = 579.05

A. 35

B. 15

C. 25

D. 20

E. 30

 

Q. 50 A man sold an article for Rs. 6800/- and incurred a loss. Has he sold the article for Rs. 7,850, his gain would have been equal to half of the amount of loss that he incurred. At what price should he sell the article to have 20% profit?

A. Rs. 7,500/-

B. Rs. 9,000/-

C. Rs. 8,000/-

D. Rs. 8,500/-

E. Rs. 10,000/-

 

Q. 51 A, B and C started a business by investing Rs. 20,000/-, Rs. 28,000/- and Rs. 36,000/- respectively. After 6b months, A and B withdrew an amount of Rs. 8,000/- each and C invested an additional amount of Rs. 8,000/-. All of them invested for equal period of time. If at the end of the year, C got Rs. 12,550/- as his share of profit, what was the total profit earned?

A. Rs. 25,100/-

B. Rs. 26,600/-

C. Rs. 24,300/-

D. Rs. 22.960/-

E. Rs. 21,440/-

 

Questions: 52 – 56

In these questions, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equation and give answers.

 

Q. 52 I. 3x² + 11x + 6 = 0

II. 3y² 10 y + 8 = 0

A. If x ≥ y

B. If x ≤ y

C. If x > y

D. If x < y

E. If relation between x and y cannot be established.

 

Q. 53 I. 3x² – 7x + 2 = 0

II. 2y² – 9y + 10 = 0

A. If x ≥ y

B. If x ≤ y

C. If x > y

D. If x < y

E. If relation between x and y cannot be established.

 

Q. 54 I. x² = 9

II. 2y² – 19y + 44 = 0

A. If x ≥ y

B. If x ≤ y

C. If x > y

D. If x < y

E. If relation between x and y cannot be established.

 

Q. 55 I. 2x² – 15x + 28 = 0

II. 4y² – 23 y + 30 = 0

A. If x ≥ y

B. If x ≤ y

C. If x > y

D. If x < y

E. If relation between x and y cannot be established

 

Q. 56 I. 2x² – 15x + 27 = 0

II. 5y² – 26y + 33 = 0

A. If x ≥ y

B. If x ≤ y

C. If x > y

D. If x < y

E. If relation between x and y cannot be established.

 

Questions: 57 – 61

Refer to the graph (given in figure) and answer the questions.

 

Q. 57 What is the average number of watches sold in Town X in January, February, March and June?

A. 180

B. 190

C. 175

D. 170

E. 185

 

Q. 58 The number of watches sold in Town Y in April is what percent more than the number of watches sold in Town X in the same month?

A. 42%

B. 40%

C. 30%

D. 50%

E. 38%

 

Q. 59 The number of watches sold in Town Y increased by what percent from February to May?

A. 96%

B. 92 1/3%

C. 97%

D. 91 2/3%

E. 95 2/3%

 

Q. 60 The number of watches sold in Town X in July was 10% more than the number of watches sold in the same town in May. What is the respective ratio between the number of watches sold in July and those sold in January in the same town?

A. 34 : 23

B. 32 : 25

C. 31 : 20

D. 33 : 23

E. 33 : 20

 

Q. 61 What is the difference between the total number of watches sold in both the towns together in June and the total number of watches sold in both the towns together in March?

A. 50

B. 90

C. 60

D. 70

E. 80

 

Q. 62 A tank has two inlets: P and Q. P alone takes 6 hours and Q alone takes 8 hours to fill the empty tank completely when there is no leakage. A leakage was caused which would empty the full tank completely in ‘X’ hours when no inlet is opened. Now, when only inlet P was opened, it took 15 hours to fill the empty tank completely. How much time will Q alone take to fill the empty tank completely? (in hours)

A. 40 hours

B. 36 hours

C. 30 hours

D. 42 hours

E. 38 hours

 

Q. 63 At present, the respective ratio between the ages of A and B is 3 : 8 and that between A and C is 1 : 4. 3 years ago, the sum of ages of A, B and C will be 83 years. What is the present age of C?

A. 32 years

B. 12 years

C. 48 years

D. 54 years

 

Q. 64 The sum invested in Scheme B is thrice the sum invested in Scheme A. Investment in Scheme A is made for 4 years at 8% p.a. simple interest and in Scheme B for years at 13% p.a. simple interest. The total interest earned from both the schemes is Rs. 1320/-. How much was invested in Scheme A?

A. Rs. 1200/-

B. Rs. 1140/-

C. Rs. 960/-

D. Rs. 1500/-

E. Rs. 840/-

 

Q. 65 Kim and Om are travelling from point A to B, which are 400 km apart. Travelling at a certain speed Kim takes one hour more than Om to reach B. If Kim doubles her speed she will take 1 hour 30 mins less than Om to reach point B. At what speed was Om driving from point A to B? (in km/h)

A. 90 km/h

B. 70 km/h

C. 160 km/h

D. 80 km/h

E. 100 km/h

 

Questions: 66 – 70

In these questions, two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statemnets disregarding commonly known facts.

 

Q. 66 Statements:

Some tasks are hurdles.

All hurdles are jobs.

Some jobs are works.

Conclusions:

I. All works being hurdles is a possibility.

II. At least some works are tasks.

A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

B. If either conclusion I or II is true.

C. If only conclusion I is true.

D. If both conclusions I and II are true.

E. If only conclusion II is true.

 

Q. 67 Statements:

Some tasks are hurdles.

All hurdles are jobs.

Some jobs are works.

Conclusions:

I. Some jobs are tasks.

II. All jobs are tasks.

A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

B. If either conclusion I or II is true.

C. If only conclusion I is true.

D. If both conclusions I and II are true.

E. If only conclusion II is true.

 

Q. 68 Statements:

Some problems are solutions.

No solution is a trick.

All rules are tricks.

Conclusions:

I. No rule is a solution.

II. Some problems are definitely not tricks.

A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

B. If either conclusion I or II is true.

C. If only conclusion I is true.

D. If both conclusions I and II are true.

E. If only conclusion II is true.

 

Q. 69 Statements:

All ministers are deans.

Some deans are heads.

Some heads are principals.

Conclusions:

I. No principal is a minister.

II. All heads being ministers is a possibility.

A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

B. If either conclusion I or II is true.

C. If only conclusion I is true.

D. If both conclusions I and II are true.

E. If only conclusion II is true.

 

Q. 70 Statements:

No queue is a line.

Some queues are rows.

Conclusions:

I. No row is a line.

II. All rows are lines.

A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

B. If either conclusion I or II is true.

C. If only conclusion I is true.

D. If both conclusions I and II are true.

E. If only conclusion II is true.

 

Questions: 71 – 72

Study the following information to answer the given questions:

D is the father of A. D is married to P. P is the mother of J. P has only one daughter. J is married to U. U is the son of L.

 

Q. 71 How is J related to L?

A. Daughter

B. Granddaughter

C. Cannot be determined

D. Niece

E. Daughter-in-law

 

Q. 72 How is A related to U?

A. Cannot be determined

B. Brother-in-law

C. Brother

D. Sister

E. Sister-in-law

 

Questions: 73 – 77

Study the following information to answer the given questions:

Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there us equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1 – J, K, L, M, and N are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing north. In row 2 – R, S, T, U, and V are seated (not necessarily in the same order) and all of them are facing south. Therefore in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. V sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. Only two people sit between V and R. The one who faces R sits to the immediate left of L. Only one person sits between L and K. The one who faces K sits to the immediate left of S. N sits second to the right of J. Neither K nor L face U.

 

Q. 73 Who amongst the following is facing M?

A. U

B. R

C. T

D. V

E. S

 

Q. 74 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which of them does not belong to that group?

A. NK

B. JL

C. ML

D. RU

E. ST

 

Q. 75 What is the position of U with respect to S?

A. Third to the right

B. Immediate left

C. Second to the left

D. Second to the right

E. Immediate right

 

Q. 76 Which of the following statements is true regarding N?

A. Only two persons sit between N and M

B. N sit at an extreme end of the row.

C. N faces one of the immediate neighbours of R

D. None of the given statement is true

E. L sits to the immediate right of N

 

Q. 77 Who amongst the following is facing T?

A. N

B. M

C. K

D. J

E. L

 

Questions: 78 – 82

In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.

 

Q. 78 Statements :

P < L ≤ A = N ≥ E ≥ D; Q ≥ N < O

Conclusions:

I. L ≤ E

II. P < Q

A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

B. If either conclusion I or II is true

C. If only conclusion I is true

D. If both conclusion I and II are true

E. If only conclusion II is true

 

Q. 79 Statements:

P < L ≤ A = N ≥ E ≥ D; Q ≥ N < O

Conclusions:

I. Q ≥ D

II. A < D

A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

B. If either conclusion I or II is true

C. If only conclusion I is true

D. If both conclusion I and II are true

E. If only conclusion II is true

 

Q. 80 Statement:

P ≤ U = N ≤ C ≥ H > S; K ≥ C

Conclusion:

I. P ≤ C

II. U > H

A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

B. If either conclusion I or II is true

C. If only conclusion I is true

D. If both conclusion I and II are true

E. If only conclusion II is true

 

Q. 81 Statement:

P ≤ U = N ≤ C ≥ H > S; K ≥ C

Conclusions;

I. K > U

II. U = K

A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

B. If either conclusion I or II is true

C. If only conclusion I is true

D. If both conclusion I and II are true

E. If only conclusion II is true

 

Q. 82 Statements:

D ≥ I > S ≥ M ≤ A < L

Conclusions:

I. D ≥ A

II. L > I

A. If neither conclusion I nor II is true

B. If either conclusion I or II is true

C. If only conclusion I is true

D. If both conclusion I and II are true

E. If only conclusion II is true

 

Questions: 83 – 87

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

In certain code language,

‘committee to review papers’ is written as ‘es fr re pt’

‘review meeting in morning’ is written as ‘ch ba mo fr’

‘meeting to appoint members’ is written as ‘re dv ch gi’

‘appoint chairman in review’ is written as ‘mo gi fr yu’

(All the codes are two letter codes only)

 

Q. 83 What is the code for ‘morning’ in the given code language?

A. mo

B. yu

C. ch

D. Other than those given as options

E. ba

 

Q. 84 In the given code language, what does the code ‘pt’ stands for?

A. appoint

B. Either ‘papers’ or ‘committee’

C. morning

D. review

E. Either ‘for’ or ‘members’

 

Q. 85 What is the code for ‘review call’ in the given code language?

A. dv lq

B. lq gi

C. lq fr

D. gi es

E. fr dv

 

Q. 86 What is the code for ‘to’ in the given code language?

A. mo

B. fr

C. gi

D. dv

E. re

 

Q. 87 If ‘appoint new members’ is coded as ‘dv wz gi’ in the given code language, then what is the code for ‘new chairman meeting’?

A. wz ch es

B. ch wz yu

C. yu mo wz

D. fr es wz

E. ch yu fr

 

Questions: 88 – 92

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

C, D, E, F, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a circular table facing the centre with equal distance between each other (but not necessarily in the same order). Each one of them is also related to D in some way or the other. P sits third to the right of E. D sits to the immediate left of E. Only one person sits between P and D’s son. R sits to the immediate right of D’s son. Only three people sit between D’s husband and R. Only one person sits between D’s husband and C. F sits to the immediate right of Q. D’s father sits second to the right of F. Only three people sit between D’s father and D’s brother. D’s daughter sits second to the right of S. D’s sister sits third to the right of D’s mother.

 

Q. 88 Which of the following statements is TRUE with respect to the given information?

A. S is the brother of R.

B. Only three people sit between Q and S.

C. E sits third to the right of D’s daughter.

D. All the given options are true.

E. R is an immediate neighbour of D.

 

Q. 89 Who amongst the following is the brother of D?

A. Q

B. E

C. F

D. C

E. R

 

Q. 90 As per the given seating arrangement, Q : P in the same way as R : E. Then following the same pattern D : ?

A. R

B. S

C. Q

D. C

E. F

 

Q. 91 Who sits to the immediately left of D’s son?

A. D’s father

B. R

C. Q

D. S

E. D’s mother

 

Q. 92 How is Q related to P?

A. Sister

B. Sister-in-law

C. Niece

D. Brother-in-law

E. Aunt

 

Questions: 93 – 95

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Each of the six buses R, S, T, U, V and W has different number of occupants. T has more number of participants than R and S but less than V. U has less number of occupants than only W. S does not have the lowest number of occupants. The bus having second lowest number of occupants has 20 occupants and the bus having second highest number of occupants has 64 occupants. T has 21 less number of occupants than U.

 

Q. 93 Which of the following buses has third lowest number of occupants?

A. S

B. T

C. R

D. U

E. V

 

Q. 94 If the number of occupants of bus R is more than 7 and is an odd number which is divisible by 3 but not 5, how many occupants are there in bus R?

A. 9

B. 21

C. 15

D. 27

E. 19

 

Q. 95 How many occupants does bus V possibly have?

A. 43

B. 72

C. 52

D. 36

E. 68

 

Questions: 96 – 100

Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Seven people namely M, N, O, P, Q, R and S have an anniversary but not necessarily in the same order, in seven different months (of the same year) namely February, March, April, June, September, October and November. Each of them also likes a different flower namely Rose, Jasmine, Lily, Marigold, Daffodil, Sunflower and Orcngbnmko0hid but not necessarily in the same order. R has an anniversary in the month which has more than 30 days. Only one person has an anniversary between R and the one who likes rose. Both S and O have an anniversary in one of the months after the one who likes Rose. S has an anniversary immediately before O. The one who likes Lily has an anniversary in the month which has less than 30 days. Only three people have an anniversary between the one who likes Lily and the one who likes Orchid. Only two people have an anniversary between S and the one who likes Marigold. P has an anniversary immediately after the one who likes Marigold. Only two people have an anniversary between P and Q. M has an anniversary immediately before the one who likes Jasmine. O does not like Sunflower.

 

Q. 96 Which of the following represents the month in which S has an anniversary?

A. Cannot be determined

B. October

C. March

D. April

E. September

 

Q. 97 Which of the following does O like?

A. Rose

B. Jasmine

C. Marigold

D. Daffodil

E. Orchid

 

Q. 98 As per the given arrangement, Lily is related to April and Marigold is related to September following a certain pattern, which of the following is Orchid related to following the same pattern?

A. February

B. June

C. October

D. November

E. March

 

Q. 99 Which of the following represents the people who have an anniversary in April and November respectively?

A. N, M

B. Q, M

C. Q, O

D. N, O

E. N, S

 

Q. 100 How many people have an anniversary between the months in which Q and M have an anniversary?

A. None

B. One

C. Three

D. Two

E. More than three

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	A	D	D	C	D	C	E	C	C	B
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	C	C	E	B	D	B	C	A	B	D
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	A	D	A	E	D	B	E	A	A	D
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	C	B	A	C	D	E	A	E	E	E
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	B	B	B	C	D	B	C	E	C	B
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	A	E	B	D	E	A	D	B	D	E
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	A	C	A	E	A	C	D	A	A
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	E	B	A	C	A	A	E	E	C	D
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	A	E	B	C	E	B	B	D	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	A	E	B	A	C	B	D	D	D	C

IBPS PO 2016 Prelims

Section Quantitative Aptitude	Questions 25 Questions	Marks 25
Data Interpretation	10 Questions (16 – 25)	10
English	30 Questions (36 – 65)	30
Logical Reasoning	35 Questions (66 – 100)	35

 

Q. 1 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

1, 7, 49, 343, ?

A. 16807

B. 1227

C. 2058

D. 2401

E. None of these

 

Q. 2 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

13, 20, 39, 78, 145, (?)

A. 234

B. 244

C. 236

D. 248

E. None of these

 

Q. 3 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

12 , 35, 81, 173, 357, (?)

A. 725

B. 715

C. 726

D. 736

E. None of these

 

Q. 4 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

3, 100, 297, 594, 991, (?)

A. 1489

B. 1479

C. 1478

D. 1498

E. None of these

 

Q. 5 What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

112, 119, 140, 175, 224, (?)

A. 277

B. 276

C. 287

D. 266

E. None of these

 

Q. 6 What approximate value should come in place of question mark in the following equations.

(6.23/34.98) x 24.999 = ?

A. 560

B. 540

C. 520

D. 580

E. 600

 

Q. 7 What approximate value should come in place of question mark in the following equations.

(4722+3272+5324)/(491+769+132)=?

A. 40

B. 10

C. 15

D. 25

E. 20

 

Q. 8 What approximate value should come in place of question mark in the following equations.

22 (1/3) % of 435.1 – 11/7 of 1734.68 = ?

A. 59

B. 62

C. 50

D. 69

E. 78

 

Q. 9 What approximate value should come in place of question mark in the following equations.

(1681)^1/2 + (4094)^1/3 = ?

A. 57

B. 75

C. 78

D. 67

E. 76

 

Q. 10 What approximate value should come in place of question mark in the following equations.

(803.63)² = ?

A. 506000

B. 787800

C. 646400

D. 767600

E. 566000

 

Questions: 11 – 15

Direction ( 11-15) In each of these questions’ two equations are given. You have to solve these equations and give answer

 

Q. 11 I. x² − 6x = 7

II. 2y² + 13y + 15 = 0

A. if x < y

B. if x > y

C. if x = y and relation cannot be established

D. if x ≥ y

E. if x ≤ y

 

Q. 12 I. 3x² − 7x + 2 = 0

II. 2y² − 11x + 15 = 0

A. if x < y

B. if x > y

C. if x = y and relation cannot be established

D. if x ≥ y

E. if x ≤ y

 

Q. 13 I. 10X² − 7x + 1 = 0

II. 35y² − 12y + 1 = 0

A. if x < y

B. if x > y

C. if x = y or relation cannot be established

D. if x ≥ y

E. if x ≤ y

 

Q. 14 I. 4x² = 25

II. 2y² − 13y + 21 = 0

A. if x < y

B. if x > y

C. if x = y or relation cannot be established

D. if x ≥ y

E. if x ≤ y

 

Q. 15 I. 3x² + 7x = 6

II. 6(2y² + 1) = 17y

A. if x < y

B. if x > y

C. if x = y or relation cannot be established

D. if x ≥ y

E. if x ≤ y

 

Questions: 16 – 20

Refer to the following pie charts and solve the questions based on it.

 

Q. 16 Both the families decide to double the total expenditure keeping the pattern of spending the same as given above. What will be the new ratio of expenditure on food between family

A and family B?

A. 18 : 31

B. 31 : 27

C. 2 : 3

D. 3 : 2

E. None of the above

 

Q. 17 If the total expenses of family B increases three – fold, keeping the expenses on education the same as given above, what will be the expense on education?

A. 6.33%

B. 57%

C. 19%

D. 18%

E. None of the above

 

Q. 18 What will be the expenses on light by family A, as a percentage of expense on light by family B?

A. 120%

B. 83.33%

C. 62.5%

D. 66.66%

E. None of the above

 

Q. 19 If family A and family B decide to combine their expenses, then which one of the following heads will be responsible for the highest expenses?

A. Rent

B. Miscellanous

C. Food

D. Education

E. None of the above

 

Q. 20 In the above question, how many heads will have a lower percentage share in the

combined total expenses of both the families than the percentage share of family B under the same head?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. None of the above

 

Questions: 21 – 25

Study the following bar graph and table carefully to answer the questions given below

The bar graph shows data related to population of different states(in lakhs) in the year 1992 The table shows the ratio b\w male, female and literacy, illiterate and also

graduates and undergraduates.

 

Q. 21 If in the year 1993 there was an increase of 10% population of AP. and 12% of Bihar compared to the previous year, than what was the ratio of the population of AP. to Bihar?

A. 521:540

B. 405:530

C. 408:505

D. 407:560

E. None

 

Q. 22 What was the approximate percentage of women of Andhra Pradesh to the women of HP?

A. 90%

B. 110%

C. 120%

D. 126%

E. 95%

 

Q. 23 If 70% of total no of literate population in Assam are graduate what is the total no of under graduates in the

Assam in the year 1992?

A. 65300

B. 70000

C. 62021

D. 82120

E. None

 

Q. 24 In Haryana, if 70% of the females are literate and 75% of the males are literate, what is the total number of illiterates in the state?

A. 12,2500

B. 85,000

C. 84,000

D. 81,000

E. None

 

Q. 25 What is the ratio of literates in Assam to the literates in Bihar?

A. 2 : 5

B. 3 : 5

C. 7 : 15

D. 2 : 3

E. None

 

Q. 26 Two trains A and B are running in the same direction with speed 60 kmph and 90 kmph respectively. Train B completely crosses a man in Train A in 24sec. The length of the train B is

A. 100

B. 200

C. 250

D. 150

E. None of these

 

Q. 27 Two equal bottles are filled with water and milk. The amount of water in each container is 20% and 30%. What is the ratio of milk in both the bottles respectively ?

A. 3 : 4

B. 5 : 6

C. 8 : 7

D. 9 : 8

E. None of these

 

Q. 28 Ravi bought a car at 30% discount on its original price.He sold it with 50% increase on the price he bought it.The new sale price is by what percent more than the original price ?

A. 2%

B. 4%

C. 8%

D. 5%

E. 1%

 

Q. 29 Among a group of 5 men and 6 women , 4 members is to be selected for an event. Find the probability that at least one man is selected ?

A. 21/22

B. 10/12

C. 8/9

D. 5/4

E. 2/3

 

Q. 30 Two pipes can fill the tank in 4hrs 5hrs respectively while the third pipe can empty the tank in 20hrs, if all the pipes are opened together, then the tank will be filled in

A. 4 (1/2) hrs

B. 2 (1/2) hrs

C. 5 (1/2) hrs

D. 2 (1/4) hrs

E. None of these

 

Q. 31 From the salary, Pavan spent 15% for house rent, 5% for children’s education and 15% for Entertainment. Now he left with Rs.26,000. His salary is

A. 20000

B. 25000

C. 28000

D. 35000

E. 40000

 

Q. 32 A and B invested in a business. They earned some profit which they divided in the ratio of 2:3. If A invested Rs.15,000, the amount invested by B is

A. 21500

B. 20500

C. 22500

D. 23000

E. 25000

 

Q. 33 Milk and water are in the ratio of 3:2 in a mixture of 70 liters. How much water should be added so that the rate of milk and water become 2:3?

A. 20

B. 28

C. 35

D. 40

E. 50

 

Q. 34 Length of a rectangle is reduced by 40%. By what percent would the width have to be increased to maintain the original area?

A. 66.66%

B. 50.55%

C. 44.44%

D. 40.45%

E. 20.22%

 

Q. 35 What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions. 25.675% of 1321 + 64.328% of 4001= ?

A. 2520

B. 2020

C. 2550

D. 2890

E. 2000

 

Questions: 36 – 40

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below in the context of the passage.

The phenomenon of terrorism signifies violence by disgruntled groups of people determined to achieve certain political goals which they find, are not attainable by lawful means. This menace has lately assumed a global character and many countries including the U.S.A are affected by it. Terrorism is actually an infantile attitude, a sign of immaturity, just as certain other movements indicate political senility. It is wrong, however, to believe that terrorists are born. Like naxalites, Radicals and Reformers, they are the victims of certain unfavourable conditions and circumstances. These circumstances, in turn , are often the redressing political, economic and other grievances. Bitterly disappointed individuals or groups resort to violence in order to focus attention on their problems. Terrorism sprouts and flourishes where there is intense anger and resentment against the administration, the Government’s lapses and postures of neglect towards certain discordant elements feed the unrest, and when this reaches a high level, it bursts into terrorism. Terrorists generally belong to the lower middle class, sometimes to well-placed families and poor class.

 

Q. 36 Terrorism has lately assumed a

A. serious threat

B. global character

C. national character

D. Indian character

E. None of these

 

Q. 37 Like Naxalites, terrorists are the victims of

A. political interference

B. unemployment

C. ignorance

D. unfavourable circumstances and conditions

E. None of these

 

Q. 38 According to the passage, terrorism has affected

A. Asia

B. Britain

C. India

D. the entire world

E. None of these

 

Q. 39 Terrorists belong to

A. the lower middle class

B. well placed families

C. poor class of people

D. all of the above

E. None of these

 

Q. 40 Terrorists are bitterly disappointed individuals who resort to violence in order to

A. dislodge the ruling party

B. get employment

C. focus attention on their problems

D. terrorise the innocent people

E. None of these

 

Questions: 41 – 43

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Once a thief named Kalu had planned to loot the king’s treasury. At midnight, he went to the palace and began to drill a hole in the side wall of the treasury. The king, who was awake in his bedroom just above the treasury, came out to investigate the whirring sound. He was dressed in a simple nightgown and the thief could not recognise him. He asked Kalu who he was and what he was doing. The latter said, “Sir, I am a thief and intend to loot this treasury. I presume that you are also a thief and have come with the same intention. No matter, let us both go inside and we shall share the loot equally. “Both entered the treasury and divided all the money and the jewels equally between them. Inside a locker they found three big diamond pieces. As the thief was puzzled as to how to divide the three pieces into two portions, the king suggested. “We have taken away everything else. Let us leave one diamond piece for the poor king and share the rest equally”. Kalu agreed and when he took his leave, the king asked for his name and address. As Kalu had taken a vow of telling only the truth, he have the correct information. The king took away his share of the loot and hid it in his room. Next morning he asked his Prime Minister to inspect the treasury as he had heard some strange sounds during the previous night. The Prime Minister saw to his horror that all the valuables were missing and only a single diamond was left, perhaps inadvertently, by the thief. He put the diamond in his own shift pocket as its loss could be ascribed to the thief and nobody would suspect the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister went back to the king. The king particularly enquired. “Do you mean that the thief has completely denuded the treasury of its valuables and not a single item has been left?” The Prime Minister confirmed it. The king asked the chief of police to bring in Kalu. When Kalu came he was unable to recognise the king as his accomplice of the previous night. The king asked him, “Are you the thief who has stolen everything from my treasury leaving nothing back?” Kalu confirmed it but said, “Sir, I did leave one diamond back in the locker as advised by an accomplice of mine and it should still be there.” The Prime Minister interrupted saying, “Your Majesty, this thief is lying. There is nothing left in the locker.” The king asked the police chief to search the pockets of the Prime Minister, from where the missing diamond was recovered. The kind told his courtiers, “Here is a Prime Minister, who is a liar and a thief and here is a thief who is at truthful gentleman.”

 

Q. 41 The king came out in the middle of the night in order to

A. Help Kalu to break into the palace treasury

B. Share the loot equally between Kalu and himself

C. Find out the source of and reason for the sound he had heard

D. Catch the thief who had come to steal his valuables

E. None of these

 

Q. 42 Kalu could not recognise the king because

A. The king was wearing clothes like those of an ordinary person

B. The king’s clothes were covered by a simple night down

C. Kalu had never seen the king before

D. Kalu had not seen the king descending from his bedroom

E. None of these

 

Q. 43 Which of the following made the king suspect the Prime Minister? The Prime Minister’s statement that

A. Except for one piece of diamond all other valuables were stolen

B. All the valuables without any exception were stolen from the treasury

C. The thief was lying when he said he had left one diamond back in the locker

D. The search for the diamond did not yield any favourable result

E. None of these

 

Questions: 44 – 50

In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully complete.

Let’s think of Jinnah in terms of the history of the subcontinent. Also, once you start to look at him, you see what an ambivalent and complicated figure (44) . Even just to discover his liking for theatre and drama. He (45) with Shakespeare; he wanted to become an actor ; he imitated his hero Chamberlain by wearing a monocle. Sometimes, with his speeches, you don’t know if he believes what he’s saying or if he’s acting. There is a way in which he just took (46) a role. So did he really want what he created ? Did he know what he was doing, or was it almost like a lawyer arguing a brief ? I wanted again to bring him into a human dimension and to show him in relationship to Gandhi, (47) other figures like Tilak. He was a great friend of Tilak’s. Now, that’s a curious friendship. We think of Tilak as a kind of rightist Hindu ; Jinnah defended Tilak in court against the British. His anger at Gandhi was because Gandhi (48) religious! So there are all sorts of twists in Jinnah’s story. There are quite a few people in the world who are fat and are (49).These people are (50) to several kinds of illness. Medical advice to these people is to

 

Q. 44 Find the suitable words given in the options against (44).

A. he was

B. he has been

C. he had been

D. have been

E. as he was

 

Q. 45 Find the suitable words given in the options against (45).

A. had liked

B. was in awe

C. was obsessed

D. related

E. was incorrigible

 

Q. 46 Find the suitable words given in the options against (46).

A. at

B. on

C. in

D. for

E. kind of

 

Q. 47 Find the suitable words given in the options against (47).

A. at par

B. in relation to

C. with

D. as in

E. as of

 

Q. 48 Find the suitable words given in the options against (48).

A. was being

B. had been

C. has been

D. could have been

E. would be

 

Q. 49 Find the suitable words given in the options against (49).

A. underweight

B. overweight

C. physically fit

D. thin

E. emaciated

 

Q. 50 Find the suitable words given in the options against (50).

A. susceptible

B. unsusceptible

C. safe

D. unsafe

E. cured

 

Questions: 51 – 55

Given below is a sentence marked (A), after which there are five more sentences marked, (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F). These five sentences are not in their proper sequence.

Rearrange them so as to form a meaningful paragraph with (A) as the first sentence; then answer the questions given below them.

(A) when I reached the station, the train had already arrived

(B) One came running up to me and with his help.I began pilling up my luggage on the entrance of the compartment.

(C) There were five minutes left for its departure.

(D) However, I made an effort to remain cool and called out to a coolie.

(E) As I carried up the last item, the train began to crawl out of the station.

(F) This made me a bit nervous as I had a lot of luggage with me.

 

Q. 51 Which sentence should come third in the passage?

A. A

B. C

C. F

D. E

 

Q. 52 Which sentence should come second?

A. C

B. A

C. D

D. F

 

Q. 53 Which sentence should come fifth?

A. C

B. B

C. E

D. F

 

Q. 54 Which sentence should come fourth?

A. B

B. D

C. A

D. E

 

Q. 55 Which sentence should come last?

A. C

B. E

C. A

D. B

 

Questions: 56 – 65

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, i.e.in (A), (B), (C) or (D). Do not look for errors in spelling and punctuation. When you find an error in a sentence, mark the incorrect part. If there is no error, mark (E).

 

Q. 56 Find the Spot Grammatical Error:

A. My father told me (A)

B. that if I do not (B)

C. study seriously (C)

D. I would fail. (D)

E. No error. (E)

 

Q. 57 Find the Spot Grammatical Error:

A. The girl who (A)

B. met you (B)

C. yesterday (C)

D. is my cousin sister. (D)

E. No error (E)

 

Q. 58 Find the Spot Grammatical Error:

A. The teacher asked (A)

B. the student (B)

C. why had he (C)

D. not done his homework . (D)

E. No error (E)

 

Q. 59 Find the Spot Grammatical Error:

A. I want (A)

B. to get rid from (B)

C. this bad habit (C)

D. immediately. (D)

E. No error (E)

 

Q. 60 Find the Spot Grammatical Error:

A. The news that (A)

B. the Lebanon Prime Minister (B)

C. was killed (C)

D. in aircrash is correct. (D)

E. No error (E)

 

Q. 61 Find the Spot Grammatical Error:

A. Be careful (A)

B. lest you will (B)

C. fall (C)

D. and hurt yourself. (D)

E. No error (E)

 

Q. 62 Find the Spot Grammatical Error:

A. I, along with my parents (A)

B. were (B)

C. present (C)

D. at the reception. (D)

E. No error (E)

 

Q. 63 Find the Spot Grammatical Error:

A. Although I tried (A)

B. my best (B)

C. I could not prevent him to do (C)

D. that mischief. (D)

E. No error (E)

 

Q. 64 Find the Spot Grammatical Error:

A. Many persons (A)

B. who came to attend the meeting (B)

C. did not know (C)

D. each other. (D)

E. No error (E)

 

Q. 65 Find the Spot Grammatical Error:

A. The telephone bell (A)

B. rang (B)

C. when I (C)

D. took bath. (D)

E. No error (E)

 

Q. 66 Statements :

S ≤R ≥ Y ≤ M; Y ≥ L < E

Conclusion I : M > S

Conclusion ll: Y>S

Conclusion III: E < R

Conclusion IV: L=S

A. None is true

B. Only I is true

C. Only III is true

D. Only II is true

E. Only I and IV are true

 

Q. 67 Statements :

K > S ≥T = N ≤ B < U ≥ M

Conclusion I: K > B

Conclusion II: N < M

Conclusion III : S ≥ U

Conclusion IV : N < K

A. Only II and IV are true

B. Only I and II are true

C. None is true

D. Only IV is true

E. Only II and III are true

 

Q. 68 Statements :

K < Y > B ≤ U; B ≥ F ≥ M

Conclusion I: U > M

Conclusion II : U > K

Conclusion III: M = U

Conclusion IV : Y > M

A. Only either II or III is true

B. Only IV is true

C. Only IV and either I or III are true

D. Only III is true

E. Only II is true

 

Q. 69 Statements :

T > S ≥ U = J≤ D ≤ Y < H

Conclusion I: T > J

Conclusion II: H > U

Conclusion III : U ≤ Y

Conclusion IV : S > D

A. Only I, II and III are true

B. Only I and either III or IV are true

C. All I, II, III and IV are true

D. Only II is true

E. Only I and II are true

 

Q. 70 Statements :

P > B ≤ Z < A; D ≥ B > T

Conclusion I: P > T

Conclusion II : T < A

Conclusion III: D > T

Conclusion IV: A > B

A. Only I and III are true

B. Only III is true

C. All are true

D. Only IV is true

E. Only I is true

 

Questions: 71 – 75

In each question below are given two or three statements followed by two or three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give Answer.

 

Q. 71 Statements:

Some Boys are Girls.

All Boys are Madam.

Conclusions:

I. Those Boys which are not Girls are also Madam.

II. Those Boys which are not Girls are not necessarily Madam.

A. Only Conclusion I follows.

B. Only Conclusion II follows.

C. Both I & II follow.

D. Either I or II follow.

E. None follows.

 

Q. 72 Statements:

All Cows are Milk.

No Milk is White.

Conclusions:

I. Some Cows are White.

II. No Cow is White.

A. Either I or II follow.

B. Only Conclusion I follows.

C. Both I & II follow.

D. Only Conclusion II follows.

E. None follows.

 

Q. 73 Statements:

Some Pens are Pen-drive.

All Printers are Pen-drive.

Conclusions:

I. All Pens being Printers is a possibility.

II. No Printer is a Pen.

A. Only Conclusion II follows.

B. Both I & II follow.

C. Only Conclusion I follows.

D. Either I or II follow.

E. None follows.

 

Q. 74 Statements:

No Stone is a Metal.

Some Metals are Paper.

All Papers are Glass.

Conclusions:

I. All Stones being Glass being is a possibility.

II. No Stone is a Paper.

A. Only Conclusion I follows.

B. Only Conclusion II follows.

C. Both I & II follow.

D. Either I or II follow.

E. None follows.

 

Q. 75 Statements:

Some Apples are Cake.

Some Cakes are Candle.

Conclusions:

I. All Cakes are Apple.

II. Some Apples are Candle.

III. No Apple is a Candle.

A. Either I or II follow.

B. Only Conclusion I follows.

C. Both I & II follow.

D. Only Conclusion II follows.

E. None follows.

 

Questions: 76 – 80

Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. Eight family members Samavesh, Trisuram, Ubaida, Vikram, Walida, Xander, Yashika and Zareen are sitting around a circular table but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are females and some are males. All of them are related to each other in the same way or the other. Some of them are facing the centre while some are facing outside (i.e. opposite to the centre).

1. Only two people sit between Trisuram and Walida. Trisuram faces the centre.

2. Xander sits second to the right of Trisuram. Walida is the wife of Samavesh. No

females is an immediate neighbour of Walida

3. Ubaida is not an immediate neighbor of Trisuram. Ubaida is the daughter of Walida. Both the immediate neighbours of Ubaida face the centre.

4. Only three people sit between Samavesh and Ubaida’s brother. Xander is not the brother of Ubaida. Neither Samavesh nor Ubaida’s brother is an immediate neighbour of Xander.

5. Zareen, the wife of Trisuram, sits to the immediate left of Vikram. Both Yashika and Samavesh face a direction opposite to that of Ubaida (i.e. Ubaida faces the center then both Yashika and Samavesh face outside and vice – versa).

6. Ubaida’s husband sits second to the left of Yashika. Trisuram’s father sits to the immediate right of Walida.

7. Trisuram sits second to the right of Samavesh’s father. Both the immediate neighbours of Xander are females.

 

Q. 76 How many people sit between Trisuram and Samavesh’s father when counted from the right of Trisuram?

A. Four

B. Three

C. None of the above

D. One

E. Two

 

Q. 77 Who amongst the following sits exactly between Yashika and Walida when counted from the left of Yashika?

A. Trisuram

B. Xander

C. Samavesh

D. Zareen

E. Ubaida

 

Q. 78 Which of the following statements regarding Trisuram is definitely true?

A. Xander and Zareen are immediate neighbors of Trisuram

B. Trisuram sits second to the left of Xander

C. Trisuram is the son of Samavesh

D. None of the given options is correct

E. Vikram is the father of Trisuram

 

Q. 79 Who amongst the following faces outside (i.e. opposite to the centre)?

A. Walida

B. Vikram

C. Ubaida

D. Zareen

E. Trisuram

 

Q. 80 If it is given that Yashika is married to Xander, then what is the position of Trisuram with respect to Yashika’s daughter – in – Law?

A. Third to the Right

B. Second to the Right

C. Immediate Right

D. Second to the Left

E. Third to the Left

 

Questions: 81 – 85

Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

There are eight friends, namely Suresh, Rohit, Hrithik, Swades, Farhan, Jiten, Gopal, and Emran. All of them own a different 4-wheeler, namely Maruti Suzuki, Tata Nano, Nissan Datsun, Honda City, Mercedes Benz, Indigo, Santro and BMW, though not necessarily in the same order. All of them are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Emran is not a neighbour of Rohit while Jiten owns neither Santro nor BMW. There is only one person between Suresh and Swades. Hrithik, who owns Indigo, is third to the left of the one who owns Nissan Datsun. The one who is sitting opposite the one who has Tata Nano owns BMW. Neither Suresh nor Swades has Nissan Datsun. There are two persons between Farhan and Gopal, who own Tata Nano and Mercedes Benz respectively, but neither of those two persons is Hrithik. Suresh is second to the left of Farhan and owns Honda City. Rohit is an immediate neighbour of Gopal.

 

Q. 81 Who among the following owns Santro?

A. Emran

B. Swades

C. Gopal

D. Jiten

E. Can’t be determined

 

Q. 82 How many persons are there between Hrithik and Gopal?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

E. None of these

 

Q. 83 Which of the following 4-wheelers is owned by Swades?

A. Mercedes Benz

B. Santro

C. BMW

D. Maruti Suzuki

E. None of these

 

Q. 84 Who is sitting third to the right of the person possessing Maruti Suzuki?

A. Suresh

B. Rohit

C. Emran

D. Swades

E. Gopal

 

Q. 85 Which of the following is not true about Jiten?

A. He is sitting exactly between Farhan and Rohit.

B. He is sitting opposite the person who owns Santro.

C. He owns Maruti Suzuki.

D. None is true.

E. All are true.

 

Questions: 86 – 90

Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it —

Six exams Maths, Science, History, Economics, English and Hindi are to be scheduled starting from 2nd March and ending on 8th march wit Sunday being an off day, not necessarily in the same order. Each of the exam has different time duration: 40 mins, 50 mins, 60 mins, 75 mins, 90 mins and 100 mins, again not necessarily in the same order. 8th March is not Sunday and an exam of 40 mins is scheduled on that day. Maths exam is for less than 60 mins and is scheduled immediately before English exam. There are two exams scheduled between Hindi exam which is for 100 mins and History exam which is for 60 mins. English exam is before Sunday and there are two days between Sunday and maths exam. Economics exam which is for 75 mins is not scheduled on 2nd March. The exam scheduled on Saturday is of 100 mins

 

Q. 86 How many exams are scheduled before Sunday?

A. Two

B. One

C. Five

D. Three

E. None of these

 

Q. 87 Which of the following combinations of exam – Day – Time Duration is correct ?

A. English – Wednesday – 75 mins

B. Maths – Thursday – 50 mins

C. History – Thursday – 60 mins

D. Hindi – Tuesday – 100 mins

E. None is correct

 

Q. 88 What is the time duration of Science exam?

A. 90 mins

B. 75 mins

C. 50 mins

D. 40 mins

E. None of these

 

Q. 89 On which day is Economics exam scheduled?

A. Monday

B. Saturday

C. Tuesday

D. Friday

E. Cannot be determined

 

Q. 90 Which day is Sunday?

A. 3rd March

B. 2nd March

C. 5th March

D. 6th March

E. Cannot be determined

 

Questions: 91 – 95

Read the following information and answer the questions that follow:

(1) There are seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G based in Delhi. Each of them is from a different state, has a different profession, and plays a different instrument.

(2) C, a doctor, is from Bihar.

(3) E and F play mandolin and violin, though not necessarily in that order.

(4) A is not from Kerala.

(5) The person from Kerala is an engineer and plays guitar.

(6) The lawyer plays sitar.

(7) The businessman from UP plays violin.

(8) The teacher and the cricketer play flute and piano, though not necessarily in that order.

(9) F is a pilot.

(10) The Maharashtrian is a teacher.

(11) The Gujarati plays piano.

(12) G, a Punjabi, does not play sarod.

(13) B is a cricketer.

 

Q. 91 Which state does A belong to?

A. Gujarat

B. Kerala

C. Maharashtra

D. Can’t say

E. None of these

 

Q. 92 Which instrument does B play?

A. Flute

B. Piano

C. Sarod

D. Can’t say

E. Sitar

 

Q. 93 Which instrument does C play?

A. Mandolin

B. Sitar

C. Violin

D. None of these

E. Sarod

 

Q. 94 What is D’s profession?

A. Engineer

B. Lawyer

C. Teacher

D. Can’t say

E. Cricketer

 

Q. 95 Which state does E belong to?

A. Gujarat

B. Kerala

C. UP

D. Can’t say

E. None of these

 

Q. 96 A is D’s brother is B’s father. B and C are sisters. How is C related to A?

A. Cousin

B. Niece

C. Aunt

D. Nephew

E. None of these

 

Q. 97 If X is the brother of the son Y’s son., then how is X related to Y?

A. Son

B. Brother

C. Nephew

D. Grandson

E. None of these

 

Q. 98 Pointing towards a girl in the picture, Sunita said, “She is the mother of Renu whose father is my son.” How Sunita is related to that girl in the picture?

A. Mother

B. Aunt

C. Cousin

D. Data inadequate

E. None of the above

 

Q. 99 A man said to a woman, “Your only brother’s son is my wife’s brother.” How is the woman related to the man’s wife?

A. Aunt

B. Sister

C. Mother

D. Brother

E. None of these

 

Q. 100 A and B form a married couple. X and Y are the brothers. X is the brother of A. How is Y related to B?

A. Brother

B. Cousin

C. Son-in-law

D. Brother-in-law

E. None of these

 

 

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	D	D	A	E	C	D	B	D	A	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	B	A	D	A	C	A	A	B	C	B
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	D	D	B	A	C	B	C	D	A	B
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	E	C	C	A	D	B	D	D	D	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	C	B	B	A	C	B	B	A	B	A
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	C	A	B	B	B	B	D	C	B	E
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	B	C	D	D	A	D	C	A	C
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	D	C	A	E	D	D	C	C	E
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	A	C	B	D	E	E	B	D	A	D
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	B	E	A	C	B	D	E	A	D