CA CPT JUNE 2015
Session – I
Part A – Fundamentals of Accounting
Q. 1 All fixed assets are put together and all current assets are put together, under which of the following accounting stages?
A. Recording
B. Communication
C. Analysis
D. Interpretation
Q. 2 Mr. Z purchased good for Rs. 20,00,000 and sold 4/5th of goods for Rs. 22,00,000, of which he received Rs. 20,00,000 in cash . His expenses amounted to Rs. 2,50,000 during the year. Mr. Z counted of the net profit as Rs. 1,50,000 for that year. Which concept is violated ?:
A. Entity
B. Periodicity
C. Censervation
D. Accrual
Q. 3 When recording of a transaction , substance of that transaction should be considered and not its legal form. This statement is according to _________
A. Substance over form
B. Disclosure of Accounting Policy
C. Both (a) & ( b)
D. None of the above
Q. 4 All of the following are the advantages of accounting standards, except _________
A. Accounting standards cannot override the statute
B. accounting standards reduce to a reasonable extent confusing variable of the accounting treatments
C. Accounting standards cal for disclosure beyond that required by law
D. Accounting standards facilitate comparison of financial statements of companies
Q. 5 Wrong valuation of spares and tools was made but it was disclosed that wrong valuation is made. Which statement is correct:
A. It does not present true and fair view even if disclosure is made
B. It gives true and fair view because it is disclosed
C. It is irrelevant
D. None of these
Q. 6 Government raised funds through taxes and spent them for the public expenditure. The deficit or surplus at the end of the year is
A. Transaction
B. An event
C. Transaction as well as event
D. neither a transition, nor an event
Q. 7 Change in accounting estimate means the difference between: __________
A. certain parameters estimate earlier and re-estimated during the current period
B. certain parameters estimate earlier and actual results achieved during the current period
C. certain parameters re-estimated during the current period and achieved during the current period
D. both (a) and (b)
Q. 8 Salary payable to an employee Rs. 50,000 .Which account is to be credited?
A. Cash A/c
B. Salaries A/c
C. Outstanding Salaries A/c
D. None
Q. 9 Trial balance is prepared to locate ________________________.
A. Clerical errors
B. Ommission errors
C. Principle errors
D. All of the above.
Q. 10 The suspense A/c facilities the preparation of ____________even if the __________has not been balanced
A. Trial Balance and Financial Statements
B. Ledger and Trial Balance
C. Trial Balance and Ledger
D. Financial Statements and Trial Balance
Q. 11 Premium on Redemption of Debentures A/c is _____________________A/c
A. Personal
B. Real
C. Nominal(Income)
D. Nominal (Expense)
Q. 12 The total of Discount column on the debit side of cash book is transferred to _____.
An inexperienced accountant prepared the following trial balance
| Particulars | Debit | Credit |
|---|---|---|
| Provision for bad debts | 450 | – |
| Bank overdraft | 1600 | – |
| Capital | – | 5200 |
| Drawings | 200 | – |
| Discount allowed | – | 800 |
| Opening stock | 2950 | – |
A. Credit side of Discount allowed A/c
B. Credit side of Discount received A/c
C. Debit side of Discount allowed A/c
D. Debit side of Discount received A/c
Q. 13 Find out the balance of Suspense A/c
A. 3,300 Dr
B. 3,300 Cr
C. 3,500 Dr.
D. 3,500 Cr.
Q. 14 What will be the effect on Capital a/c after rectifying the following errors :
(i) Purchase of a cycle for Rs. 3,000 was debited to conveyance A/c (fixed assets are depreciated at 10 %)
(ii) Credit purchase of goods from X for Rs. 2,500 was wrongly entered in the sales book
(iii) Cash received from Mr. A Rs. 1,500 was posted to the A/c of Mr. B
A. Debited with Rs. 2,300
B. Credited with Rs. 2,300
C. Debited with Rs. 2,700
D. Credited with Rs. 3,800
Q. 15 Cash received from Ramesh Rs. 1,500 ,is recorded correctly in Cash book, but debited to his account Because of this error_________
A. Trial balance shows Rs. 3,000 more on the debit side
B. Trial balance shows Rs. 3,000 more on the credit side
C. Trial balance shows Rs. 1,500 more on the debit side
D. Trial balance shows Rs. 1,500 more on the credit side
Q. 16 BRS is part of
A. Bank Account
B. Cash Book
C. Financial Statements
D. None of these
Q. 17 The cash book showed a credit balance of Rs. 9,000 but the pass book made up the same date revealed that a cheque of Rs. 2,000 had not been presented for payment and a cheque of Rs. 3,000 paid into account had not been cleared. The balance as per pass book will be :
A. Rs. 8,000
B. Rs. 10,000
C. Rs.14,000
D. None
Q. 18 The bank balance as per Cash book on 31st December is Rs. 8,560 From the following particulars find out the bank balance as per pass book
(i) On 18th December, the debit balance of Rs. 1,700 was recorded ad Credit balance in cash book
(ii) A cheque of Rs. 500 issued, was recorded twice in the cash book
(iii) A cheque of Rs. 250 issued, was not recorded in cash book
(iv) Dividend collected Rs. 250 and subscription paid Rs. 100 by bank were not recorded in cash book
A. Rs. 12,360
B. Rs. 7,560
C. Rs.10,660
D. Rs. 12,660
Q. 19 The following are the features of perpetual inventory system except ________
A. Inventory control can be achieved under this system
B. Inventory cannot be determined without affecting the operations of the business
C. This provides information about the cost of goods sold
D. This is costlier method than periodic inventory system.
Q. 20 Indian oil is a bulk distributor of petrol. A perpetual inventory of petrol on hand is taken when the books are closed at the each of month. The following summary of information is available of month.
Sales Rs. 37,80,000
General Administration cost Rs.1,00,000
Opening inventory 1 lakh liters@12/-per liter. Rs. 12,00,000
Purchases (including freight inward)
June-1 2 lakh liters@11.40 Rs. per liter.
June-30 1 lakh liters@12.12 Rs. Per liter.
June-30 closing inventory.1,30,000 liters.
Using the information given above compute the amount of cost of goods sold for the month of June using LIFO method.
A. Rs. 31,50,000
B. Rs. 27,00,00
C. Rs.32,60,000
D. Rs. 31,80,000
Q. 21 Cost of acquisition, which is yet to be allocated is_____________________
A. Accumulated cost
B. Written down value
C. Net realizable value
D. Value
Q. 22 Calculate deprecation for the 4th year under sum of years digits method
Cost of the asset Rs. 10,00,000
Life time 5 years
Salvage value 10 %
A. Rs. 60,000
B. Rs.1,80,000
C. Rs.2,40,000
D. Rs.1,20,000
Q. 23 List price of the machinery purchase Rs.6,30,000
Less : Trade discount Rs.30,000
Rs. 6,00,000
Delivery charges Rs.15,000
Erection charges Rs.15,000
Annual maintenance charges Rs. 25,000
Additional spares to increase earning capacity Rs 40,000
Annual Insurance premium Rs.10,000
Calculate depreciation for the 3rd year under WDV method if rate of deprecation is 10%
A. Rs. 51,840
B. Rs. 54,270
C. Rs. 56,295
D. Rs. 57,105
Q. 24 The capital of a sole trader is affected by_____________________________:
A. Purchase of raw material
B. Commission received
C. Cash received from trade receivables
D. Purchase of an asset for cash
Q. 25 A decrease in the provision for bad and doubtful debts results in ___________
A. Increase in Net Profit
B. Increase in Equity
C. Decrease in Net Profit
D. Both (a) & (b )
Q. 26 Make provision for doubtful debts-5%.provision 2% for discount on sundry debtors will be __________
| Provision for bad debts | Rs 1000 |
| Bad debts | Rs 2000 |
| Sundry debtors | Rs 30,600 |
| Additional information | – |
| Further bas debts | Rs 600 |
A. 612
B. 600
C. 570
D. 560
Q. 27 Mr. y gives the following information on 31.03.2015
Inventory on 1st jan.2014 1,60,500
Purchases 4,80,000
Manufacturing expenses 75,000
Administrative expenses 33,000
Financial expenses 18,000
Annual insurance 6,000
Sales 7,00,000
G.P. is 20% on sales. Find net profit
A. 8000
B. 89000
C. 83000
D. 101000
Q. 28 Mr. Daru and Paru have following transactions between them:
(i) on April ,1 ,2014 Mr. Daru owes Paru Rs. 15,000
(ii) on 15 april Mr. Daru purchased goods of Rs. 75,000 from him.
(iii) During April Mr. Paru get a cash memo to him for Rs. 10,000 in urgent need of money.
(iv) ½ % cash discount taken by Daru after clearing half of his dues to Paru
Calculate discount received by Daru during April 2014
A. Rs.225
B. Rs.250
C. Rs.162.50
D. Rs.187.50
Q. 29 A firm has 8 employees, each getting a salary of Rs 8,000 pm after 1st January 2014 salaries increased by 10 on 1st July 2014 they employed two trainees at salary of Rs 2,500 each per month the firm paid 11 months salaries only and has to pay the last one month’s salaries the amount of total salary paid and outstanding as on 31 12-2014 will be ___________
A. 7,04,000 : 69,000
B. 7,99,400: 75,400
C. 7,64,000 : 64,000
D. none of these
Q. 30 M/s X, Y and Z are in retail business. The following information is obtained from their records for the year ended 31-03-2014.
Goods received from suppliers Rs 17,25,000
(Subject to trade discount & taxes)
Trade discount 3% and Sales Tax 11%
Packaging & Transportation Charges Rs 95,000
Sales Rs 25,00,000
Selling price of closing inventory Rs 4,00,000
Find out the historical cost of inventory by using adjusted selling price method
A. Rs 2,50,680
B. Rs 2,69,280
C. Rs 2,14,575
D. None of these
Q. 31 X Ltd. Profit and Loss account for the year ended 31st December 2011 includes the following information.
Depreciation Rs 84,500
Bed Debts Rs 2,500
Increases in provision for doubtful debts Rs 22,000
Proposed dividend Rs 73,200
Retained profit for the year Rs 1,22,000
Liability of tax Rs 26,400
State what amounts should be transferred to:
i) Provision ii) Reserves
iii) Neither related to provisions nor reserves
A. Prov Rs 1,32,900 Res Rs 1,22,000 No Prov./Res Rs 75,700
B. Prov Rs 95,200 Res Rs 1,22,000 No Prov./Res Rs 1,13,400
C. Prov Rs 1,22,000 Res Rs 95,200 No Prov./Res Nill
D. Prov Rs 1,22,000 Res Rs 1,21,000 No Prov./Res Nill
Q. 32 A bill of Exchange matures on 16th July. Suddenly it was declared as bank strike and the next day is Sunday. Then the due date of the bill will be_____________:
A. 15th July
B. 17th July
C. 18th July
D. 16th July
Q. 33 For the year ended 31st March 2011, sales amounted to Rs. 20,00,000 (at 20% profit on cost), of which goods sold for Rs. 1,00,000 are lying in the godown of the seller at buyer’s risk. These goods are treated as a part of___________________
A. sales
B. Inventory
C. sales returns
D. none of these
Q. 34 Bill at sight means the instance at which_______________
A. No time for payment is mentioned in the bill
B. The payment is to be made on demand at any time
C. The payment is made after a particular time
D. both a & b
Q. 35 A sent to B goods of the invoice price of Rs. 2,00,000 4/5th of these goods were sold by B for 1,76,000. Commission is to be paid at 2% upto invoice price and 10% on any surplus price realized. What is the amount of commission?
A. Rs. 4,800
B. Rs. 3,640
C. Rs. 2000
D. Rs. 8000
Q. 36 When goods are sold on sale or return basis casually and if the buyer accepted goods the entry will be _____
A. Traders receivables A/c Dr. To Sales A/c
B. Sales A/c Dr. To Trades receivables a/c
C. Sales A/c Dr. To Trading A/c
D. No entry
Q. 37 X and Y entered in a joint venture
X supplied goods worth Rs. 60,000 and paid Expenses Rs. 6,000
Y supplied goods worth Rs. 14,000 and paid Expenses Rs. 1,000
Y sold the goods for RS. 1,00,000 and he is entitled to a commission of 5% on sales. Find the profit on Joint Venture.
A. 14400
B. 14000
C. 13000
D. 13200
Q. 38 5,000 meters of cloth was sent out on consignment basis at an invoice price of Rs 30 per meter which were purchased by consignor at a price of Rs. 20 per meter consignor’s expenses amounted to Rs. 5,500 consignee’s expenses amounted to Rs 2,000. Consignee’s sold 4,000 meters at Rs. 40 per meter. He is entitled to a commission of 5% on total sales plus a further 20% of any surplus realized above the invoice price. Due to fall in the market price, the inventory of cloth is to be reduced by 10%. Calculated the profit on consignment?
A. Rs 54,500
B. Rs 63,500
C. Rs 56,400
D. Rs 55,490
Q. 39 E Ltd. sends out its accounting machines costing Rs. 200 each to their customers on sales or return basis. All such transactions are, however, treated like actual sales and are passed through the day book. Just before the end of the financial year, i.e., on December 24, 2011, 300 such accounting machines were sent out at an invoice price of Rs. 280 each, out of which only 90 accounting machines are accepted by the customers at Rs. 250 each and as to the rest on report is forthcoming. What is total effect on sales?
A. Sales will be reduced by Rs. 61,500
B. Sales will be increased by Rs. 61,500
C. Sales will be increased by Rs. 60,000
D. No effect
Q. 40 Goods will be sent on consignment at invoice price which is 20% above cost. 1/5th of the goods costing Rs. 60,000 were damaged in transit. Find out invoice price of the goods sent on consignment?
A. 3,75,000
B. 3,00,000
C. 3,60,000
D. None of these
Q. 41 On the death of partner his executors are paid the share of deceased partner in the profits of the firm till the date of his death. This amount is recorded in Profit and Loss ___________________A/c:
A. Adjustment
B. Appropriation
C. suspense
D. reserve
Q. 42 If there is no partnership deed, the profits will be shared by the partners__________
A. As per capitals ratio
B. Equally
C. As per seniority
D. None of the above
Q. 43 X and Y are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2.They admitted Z for ¼th share. The new profit sharing ratio will be _______________
A. 9:6:5
B. 9:8:5
C. 9:5:6
D. 5:6:9
Q. 44 In the absence of agreement, the partners are entitled to ________________
A. interest on loan
B. interest on capital
C. salary
D. commission
Q. 45 A & B are partners with their capital Rs. 105000 and Rs. 75,000.They admitted C for 1/5th share .He brings Rs. 20000 for goodwill . he agreed to contribute capital in profit sharing ratio. What amount of capital will be bought by C
A. Rs. 50,000
B. Rs. 45,000
C. Rs. 56,000
D. Above all
Q. 46 In the admission of a partner, the new partner is liable from______________
A. After the date of admission
B. before the date of admission
C. before and after the date of admission
D. none
Q. 47 Amit & Anil are partners in the ratio of 5:3 their capitals are Rs. 2,50,000 ,& Rs. 2,00,000 respectively. Atul was admitted and he brings Rs. 50,000 as capital and Rs. 16,000 as his share of goodwill for 1/5th share of profits. Balance of capital Account will be:
A. 2,60,000:2,06,000:50,000
B. 2,20,000:2,25,500:50,00
C. 2,92,000:2,25,500:50,000
D. 2,82,500:2,19,500:66,000
Q. 48 A, B &C are partners in a firm B retires from the firm. Old profit sharing ratio is 2:2:1 after retirement . They had taken a joint life policy of Rs. 2,00,000 with the surrender value of Rs. 40,000. What will be the amount to be credited to the partners capital accounts on receiving the JLP amount, if J.L.P. a/c is maintained at surrender value?
A. Rs. 2,00,000
B. Rs. 40,000
C. Rs.1,60,000
D. None of these
Q. 49 Profits & Losses of Mr. Rathore were
2011-12 4,00,000 Profit
2012-13 3,60,000 Profit
2013-14 60,000 Loss
2014-15 5,00,000 Profit
Capital employed is Rs. 15,00,000. Market rate of interest on investment is 10%. Rate of risk return on capital invested is 2%. Remuneration of alternative employment of the proprietor if not engaged in business is Rs. 60,000 p.a. Calculate the value of goodwill at 5 years purchases of super profits on the basis of average profit of the last 4 years.
A. 4,50,000
B. 7,50,000
C. 6,00,000
D. 3,00,000
Q. 50 A and B are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of their effective capital. They had Rs.1,00,000 and Rs. 60,0000 respectively in their capital accounts as on 1st January 2011. A introduced a further paid of Rs. 10,000 on 1st April, 2011 and another Rs. 5,000 on 1st July, 2011. On 30th September, 2011 A withdrew Rs. 40,000. On 1st July, 2011, B introduced further capital of Rs. 30,000. The partners drew the following amounts in anticipation of profit. A drew Rs. 1,0000 per month at the end of each month beginning from January, 2011. B drew Rs. 1,000 on 30th June, and Rs. 5,0000 on 30th September, 2011. Calculate the ratio of effective capitals?
A. 1:1
B. 5:3
C. 2:3
D. 4:3
Q. 51 X Ltd. makes an issue of 1,00,000 equity shares of Rs. 10 each payable as follows
On application –Rs.5
On Allotment- Rs.2.5
On call –Rs.2.5
One shareholder, holding 5,000 shares did not pay the call money. His shares were forfeited and out of them 3,000 shares were reissued at Rs. 8 per share as fully paid. The amount of Capital Reserve will be Rs.__________________.
A. 16,500
B. 31,500
C. 22,500
D. none
Q. 52 According to the Companies Act,2013, preference shares are to be redeemed with in a period of ___years
A. 20
B. 25
C. 30
D. 35
Q. 53 As per Section 133 of the Companies Act. 2013, companies cannot use the securities premium for ______
A. The premium payable on redemption of debentures
B. Bonus shares
C. Commission or expenses on issue of securities
D. Loss on issue of debentures
Q. 54 When the shares are issued to promoters for the service rendered by them ________ A/c will be debited
A. Cash or Bank A/c
B. Goodwill A/c
C. Preliminary expenses A/c
D. none
Q. 55 as per the companies Act,2013 which of the following statements is false in respect of a small company?
A. paid up capital is less than Rs. 50,00,000
B. public company can be a small company
C. turnover is less than Rs. 2,00,00,000
D. small company is not required to prepare cash flow statement as a part of financial statements.
Q. 56 HDC Ltd. issued 10,000-12% debentures of 100 each at Rs. 94,on 1 Jan, 2010. Under the term of issue 1/5th of the debentures are redeemed annually .First redemption on 31/12/10 calculate discount to be written off in 2013.
A. Rs. 8,000
B. Rs. 16,000
C. Rs.20,000
D. Rs. 12,000
Q. 57 Which of the following statements is false?
A. Loss on reissue should not exceed the amount forfeited
B. When shares are reissued at a loss such loss is debited to forfeited shares a/c
C. If loss on reissue is less than the amount forfeited the surplus should be transferred to Capital reserve/c
D. If the reissued amount and forfeited amount exceeds the face value of shares reissued the excess amount is always credited to Share forfeited a/c
Q. 58 The trial balance of a trader contains the following items trade receivables Rs 3,20,000 provision for bad & doubtful debts Rs 17,000 bad debts Rs 20,000 further information :-
Provide 5% for bad &debts find out the amount to be transferred to profit and loss a/c?
A. Rs. 18,000
B. Rs.19,000
C. Rs.17,000
D. Rs. 20,000
Q. 59 Use the following information for question for questions:
Consider the following data pertaining to w ltd. As on march 31,2015 Share capital:
Issued, subscribed called-up 20,000 shares of Rs 100 each) Rs 20,00,000
Call in arrear Rs 10,000
Profit and account (Cr) as on 01 April 2014 Rs 67,000
Profit for the year Rs 1,90,610
– The company wants to create a debenture redemption reserve and to transfer Rs.50,000 every year out of redeem the debentures
– The company debentured 10% dividends
– The balance of surplus after effecting the above transactions=
A. Rs 6,000
B. Rs 68,100
C. Rs 8,610
D. Rs 6,810
Q. 60 A machinery purchase for Rs. 1,00,000 on 1st January, Further on 1st July New machinery purchased at Rs. 50,000. Depreciation charged @20% p.a. on Straight Line Method. After 3 years value of machinery will be:
A. Rs. 65,000
B. Rs. 60,000
C. Rs. 85,000
D. Rs. 85,000
Part B – Mercantile Laws
Q. 61 A finder of a purse on the road in a market is duty to trace the real owner of purse. If finder does not do so, he shall be guilty of ___________________:
A. Extortion
B. theft
C. Criminal misappropriation of property
D. none
Q. 62 Damages which are in the nature of penalty:
A. Vindictive damages
B. Nominal damages
C. Ordinary damages
D. None of the above
Q. 63 The court in a case, may order specific performance of the promise made by a party in a contract?
A. When a contract is voidable
B. When damages are adequate remedy
C. When defaulting party is not ready to pay damages
D. When damages are not adequate remedy
Q. 64 In which of the following cases restraint of trade is valid?
A. Mutual agreement
B. Sale of goodwill
C. Business contingency
D. All of the above
Q. 65 One person wants to travel from Tirupathi to Chittgong. The bus travelling from Tirupathi to Chittgong comes to the bus station. it is an :
A. Implied offer
B. Express offer
C. Specific offer
D. none
Q. 66 X agreed to purchase a ring from S. X believed that ring was a diamond ring. S knows that X was under a mistake and did not disclose the fact. :
A. cannot cancel the contract
B. can cancel the contract
C. can cancel the contract under fraud
D. can claim for damages
Q. 67 X and Y entered into a contract, one part of which is legal and another is illegal, the illegal part is not separable from the legal part, the agreement is?
A. valid
B. void
C. voidable
D. none of the above
Q. 68 ————–denotes that the parties to a contract are not bound under the contract:
A. Breach of contract
B. waiver of contract
C. rescission of contract
D. Discharge of contract
Q. 69 A is a manufacturer of ball pens. He advertises in the trade press that in future the retail price of his pen will be Rupees 5 and strict action will be taken against who is not observing this price. B had read the advertisement, but he forget and retails the pen at Rupees 8. Advice A–
A. A can take a serious action against B because it was clearly written in the advertisement
B. A cannot take any action as there is no privity of contract between A and B
C. A cannot take any action as it is an unintentional mistake
D. A can take a serious action against B because he read the advertisement before retailing
Q. 70 X nephew ran away from house. Y the servant of X find the X’s nephew without knowing the X reward for finding nephew—— :
A. Y cannot recover because he cannot accept the offer
B. Y cannot recover any expenditure incurred by him
C. Y can recover from X
D. Y can recover by order of court
Q. 71 N singer contracted with a theatre manager to sing a song. due to her illness she failed to perform the contract, she received 20000 as advance—— :
A. N must refund 20000
B. N need not refund 20000
C. they must enter into new agreement
D. none of these
Q. 72 X is minor who had broken his left arm then doctor had treated him. how can the doctor regain his cost of treatment—— :
A. Minor parents are liable
B. Minor is liable
C. He cannot recover because the agreement with minor is void-ab-initio
D. Minor personal property is liable
Q. 73 Mohan invited Sohan for a dinner. Sohan by expending Rupees 200 went to Mohan’s house. By the time Sohan reached Mohan’s house it was locked and Sohan stayed in a Hotel. Can sohan___________________:
A. Sue Mohan for damages
B. Cannot sue against Mohan
C. Sue Mohan for the total charges
D. None of the above
Q. 74 Peter buys a mosquito killer machine assuming that it is worth Rupees 50000. But actually it costs Rupees 5000. The remedy available to Peter___________:
A. He can avoid contract on the ground of mistake
B. He cannot avoid contract on the ground of mistake
C. He can claim Rupees 5000
D. He can claim Rupees 50000
Q. 75 A made an agreement with B to pay price for negotiating his marriage, after his marriage he does not pay, what remedies available to B—–
A. B can claim such price
B. B cannot claim price, as it is against public policy
C. B can claim conditionally
D. None of the above
Q. 76 If any one of the joint promisors makes a default in making contribution. How will it be settle down by other promisors?
A. Representative of promisor will be liable to contribution
B. Contribution will be dismissed automatically
C. Representative of a promisor will be liable along with other joint promisors
D. The remaining joint promisors will be liable to contribute
Q. 77 Kedar promised to pay Rs.5000 to car repairer the car repairer incurred expenses but Kedar refused to pay the agreed amount. Is the car repairer can?
A. Car repairer can claim incurred expenses
B. The car repairer can claim Rs.5000
C. Car repairer cannot claim Rs.5000
D. Car repairer cannot file a suit
Q. 78 An agreement with minor is
A. valid
B. Void ab initio
C. Voidable agreement
D. None of these
Q. 79 In case of anticipatory breach remedies available to aggrieved party are_:
A. He cannot claim damages
B. He can wait till due date
C. He has no right at all
D. None of the above
Q. 80 When both parties exchanged identical offers, such offers are known as
A. General offer
B. Cross offer
C. Specific offer
D. Counter offer
Q. 81 In case of ___________ in addition to the implied condition as to the merchantability there is another implied condition that the goods shall be wholesome:
A. silver
B. Equity share
C. Machineries
D. Eatables
Q. 82 What are the rights available for an unpaid seller?
A. Right to resale
B. Right to stoppage goods in transit
C. Right to lien
D. All of the above
Q. 83 ___________ is a stipulation collateral to the main purpose of the contract which creates right to claim damages and not to rescind the contract:
A. Condition
B. Warranty
C. Both condition and warrant
D. Neither condition nor warranty
Q. 84 Under the sale of goods act, 1930. The risk prima facie passes with _________:
A. Ownership
B. Transit
C. Discharge of contract
D. Delivery of goods
Q. 85 Caveat emptor means_____________:
A. Buyer should not be careful while buying
B. Buyer should be careful while buying
C. Seller is responsible to tell the buyer
D. None of these
Q. 86 Which of the following is not an implied warranty?
A. Warranty as to undisturbed possession
B. Warranty as to dangerous nature of good
C. Warranty as to existences of encumbrances
D. Warranty as to custom or usage of trade
Q. 87 Viru agrees to buy the crop of rice that would yield in Y’s farm located in Punjab at the rate of Rupees 2000 per 100 kg. this deals under the sale of Goods Act,1930 :
A. Agreement for sale of present goods
B. contract of sale
C. Agreement for sale of future goods
D. None of the above
Q. 88 Under the sale of goods act 1930, In case the seller delivers to the buyer a quantity less than the goods brought under the contract, the buyer
A. May reject the whole goods delivered
B. Should not reject the goods delivered as more quality might he demanded
C. May resell the goods delivered
D. Gives price less than contracted price for the goods delivered
Q. 89 A agreed to sell 100 quintals of rice to B, B does not like that quality and refuse them- ___________________:
A. B can do so and he is not liable for any loss
B. B can do so, but he is liable to pay for care and custody of goods
C. B has no right to do so but he is liable to pay damages
D. None of the above
Q. 90 A partner without having real interest, can give the name to the partnership?
A. Active partner
B. Dormant partner
C. Nominal partner
D. None of the above
Q. 91 When firm is compulsory dissolved?
A. All the partners are insolvent
B. Firms business become unlawful
C. All but not one become insolvent
D. All of the above
Q. 92 An unregistered firm is not a?
A. Legal association
B. Illegal association
C. Association of person
D. None of the above
Q. 93 Under Indian partnership Act, 1932. In the absence of any agreement to the contrary all the partners of the firm are
A. Entitled to profits in capital ratio
B. Entitled to profits according to seniority
C. Entitled to profits equally
D. Entitled to profits according to their balance in current account
Q. 94 The liability of a newly admitted partner in a partnership firm__________?
A. Liable to the debts before admission
B. Liable to debts after admission
C. Any time after his retirement upto death
D. Liable before or after admission
Q. 95 In the absence of partnership deed partners are entitled to
A. salary
B. interest on loan
C. Interest on capital
D. share of profits in capital ratio
Q. 96 A partner cannot demand his proportionate share of premium from other partners at the time of dissolution of firm———-
A. when there is no provision regarding return of premium in partnership deed
B. by death of any partner
C. mainly due to the misconduct of partner paying premium
D. any of the above
Q. 97 on a dissolution of a firm the partners selling the goodwill of a firm cannot
A. carry on a similar business
B. compete with the business sold by the purchaser
C. represent themselves as carrying on old business
D. all of the above
Q. 98 A entered into partnership agreement with B, in which A makes an advance to the firm in addition of his capital to be contributed by him, after dissolution of firm :
A. A is not entitled to claim interest on his advances
B. After dissolution of firm A’s right is retained to his capital only not to advances
C. A will be entitled to interest till firm earn profits
D. A is entitled to claim interest till the date of dissolution
Q. 99 If X,Y,Z are partners and Z is murdered by ‘W’. W comes with a proposal to enter into partnership and Y objects. What is the situation?
A. Estate of ‘W’ is liable after ‘Z’s death
B. W is liable after ‘Z’s death
C. Z’s estate is liable for the debts before his death
D. Z’s estate is not liable for the debts after his death
Q. 100 A,B,C and D are carrying on business of mobile exports. A was aware of the price of mobile and good knowledge in the purchasing of mobiles. A made personal transaction in the name of the firm
A. A will not be liable for firm
B. It is enough to inform about his private business
C. A has to account personal profits to firm
D. A has done fraud
Session – II
Part A – General Economics
Q. 101 ___________ is the another name of PPC
A. Indifference curve
B. ISO = Product curve
C. Transformation curve
D. Dimension utility curve
Q. 102 When the Economy makes technological progress, then PPC will shift?
A. Inward to the left
B. Rightward to the right
C. A movement along the same curve
D. A point outside the curve
Q. 103 Indian’s economy can best described as _____________
A. Capitalist economy
B. Socialist economy
C. Traditional economy
D. Mixed economy
Q. 104 When the price of a commodity increases from Rs. 8 to Rs. 9 then the demand decreases by 10%. The price Elasticity of demand is ___________________:
A. 0.8
B. 0.9
C. 1
D. 1.1
Q. 105 When TU is maximum, MU is:
A. zero
B. negative
C. fall
D. positive
Q. 106 All wants of an individuals are not of:
A. Equal importance
B. Immediate importance
C. Fixed importance
D. All of the above
Q. 107 Change in demand due to change in price is known as ___________________
A. Change in demand
B. Change in quantity demanded
C. Income demand
D. Cross demand
Q. 108 Other things being equal, a fall in the price of complementary good will cause the _______ of the other to rise
A. price
B. supply
C. demand
D. utility
Q. 109 Which is correct about price elasticity of demand?
A. It is several degrees and natures
B. It is unaffected due to change in price of other goods
C. It is immeasurable concept
D. It is due to direction of change in price
Q. 110 Supply refers to _______________
A. Stock of goods available for sale
B. Stock of goods
C. Quantity supplied at a particular price at a given time
D. Actual production of the goods
Q. 111 Which of the following is not a consumption:
A. Burning of gas when cooking of food
B. Burning of furniture in an accident of fire
C. Eating of an Ice-Cream
D. Burning of crackers on Diwali
Q. 112 Planning curve is related to which of the following:
A. Short-run average cost curve
B. Long-run average cost curve
C. Fixed cost curve
D. Average variable cost curve
Q. 113 Long-period production function is related to_____________:
A. Law of variable proportions
B. Law of returns to scale
C. Law of diminishing marginal utility
D. None of these
Q. 114 What is the MC of 6th unit of output?
| Q | 0 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 |
| TC | 48 | 73 | 94 | 114 | 130 | 148 | 168 | 189 |
A. 24
B. 16
C. 20
D. 21
Q. 115 An IC curve is a curve which represents all those combinations of two goods which give _____________ satisfaction to the consumer.
A. greater
B. increasing
C. decreasing
D. equal
Q. 116 Production is defined as
A. Creation of matter
B. Creation of utility in matter
C. Creation of infrastructural facilities
D. None of these
Q. 117 ISO – quant represent_________________
A. The combinations of two inputs which are capable of producing the same level of output
B. The combinations of all the inputs which are capable of producing the same level of output
C. The combinations of more than two inputs
D. None of the above
Q. 118 Kinked DD curve under oligopoly is designed to show___________:
A. Price & output
B. Price rigidity
C. Price & Leadership
D. Collusion among rivals
Q. 119 The firm will attain equilibrium at a point where MC curve cuts___________ curve from below:
A. AR
B. MR
C. AC
D. AVC
Q. 120 Horizontal Demand curve, Parallel to X-axis indicates, that the elasticity of Demand is___________
A. zero
B. infinite
C. >1
D. <1
Q. 121 The meaning of time element in economics is______________
A. Calendar time
B. Clock time
C. Operational time which supply adjusts with the market demand
D. None of these
Q. 122 Which of the following is not true about perfect competition?
A. Purchase and sale of homogeneous goods
B. Mobility of factors of production
C. Free entry and exit
D. Presence of advertisement
Q. 123 Monopolist can control only___________
A. price
B. demand
C. utility
D. Both (a) & (b)
Q. 124 Match in following
1. Green Revolution (A) oil seeds
2. Yellow Revolution (B) Fish
3. Blue Revolution (C) Milk
4. White Revolution (D) Agriculture
A. 1-B, 2 –C, 3- A, 4-D
B. 1-C, 2 –B, 3- D, 4-A
C. 1-D, 2 –A, 3-B, 4-C
D. 1-A, 2 –B, 3- C, 4-D
Q. 125 Which is of taxes are included in prices?
A. direct
B. indirect
C. progressive
D. regressive
Q. 126 Which of the following taxes are imposed by the state Govt.?
A. Entertainment tax
B. Corporate tax
C. Income tax
D. Custom duties
Q. 127 GDP at factor cost = ____________
A. GDP at market price + subsidies
B. GDP at market price + subsidies – Indirect tax
C. GDP at market price – subsidies + Indirect tax
D. GDP at market price + subsidies +Indirect tax
Q. 128 Which of the following is true?
A. In Primary sector, GDP is increasing
B. Secondary sector contributes maximum to GDP
C. Both (a) & (b)
D. Service sector contributed maximum to GDP
Q. 129 GDP at market prices = __________
A. GNP at MP – Depreciation
B. GNP at MP – NFIA
C. GNP at FC – Depreciation
D. GNP at FC – NFIA
Q. 130 National manufacturing policy aims at _______________% by 2022
A. 25
B. 28
C. 30
D. 35
Q. 131 Principle problems of Micro, Small, Medium enterprises in India__________
A. Non-availability of cheap and adequate capital
B. Difficulty in marketing their products
C. Inadequate supply of raw materials
D. All of the above
Q. 132 Which of the following is correct?
A. Increase in the % of per capital income is less than the increase in % of national income
B. Increase in the % of national income is less than the increase in % of per capital income
C. Per capital income rises when population increases
D. Per capital income rises when population increases
Q. 133 The ratio of female to male in 2011 was lowest in __________
A. bihar
B. kerala
C. punjab
D. haryana
Q. 134 Tendulkar committee estimates poverty in India as _______________%
A. 11.9
B. 21.9
C. 31.9
D. 41.9
Q. 135 Union budget 2014-15 estimates gross fiscal deficit as percentage of GDP at ________
A. 5%
B. 4.5%
C. 4.1%
D. 3.0%
Q. 136 Current A/c of BOP doesn’t include:
A. Balance of Trade
B. Balance of service
C. Balance of unilateral transfers
D. Foreign investment
Q. 137 Which of the following can’t remove poverty in India?
A. Population control
B. Increase in production
C. Govt. Subsidies
D. Equitable distribution
Q. 138 In which _____________ unemployment marginal productivity of labour is zero
A. Frictional
B. Structural
C. Disguised
D. chronic
Q. 139 National dividend measures money value of _________goods and services produced by residents of the country during current year
A. prodecer
B. consumer
C. intermediary
D. final
Q. 140 Which of the following measure will helping checking inflation?
A. Monetary controls
B. Increase public expenditure
C. Increase in investments
D. Devaluation
Q. 141 Which of the following organization gives interest free loans to the poor countries?
A. International Monetary Fund
B. World Bank
C. International Financial Corporation
D. International Development Association
Q. 142 Globalization refers to :
A. Creation of global trading block
B. Dismantling barriers in matters of national trade
C. Integrating domestic economy with the world economy
D. Opening industries to Private sector
Q. 143 The Pre-conditions for privatization is ___________
A. Liberalization and de-regulated economy
B. Capital markets should be sufficiently developed
C. Capital outflow to other countries
D. Both (a) & (b)
Q. 144 Jan Dhan Yojana as the main objective of ______________
A. Bank development
B. Deposit mobilization
C. Financial inclusion
D. Mixed economy
Q. 145 The RBI Classifies currency with public plus demand deposits with the public
A. M1
B. M2
C. M3
D. M4
Q. 146 Monetary policy in India is formulated by:
A. FICCI
B. Planning commission
C. RBI
D. Govt. of India
Q. 147 Functions of money doesn’t include
A. Medium of exchange
B. Store of value
C. Measure of value
D. Employment generation
Q. 148 Lowering of margin requirements by Central Bank __________borrowings?
A. Encourages
B. discourages
C. No impact
D. None of these
Q. 149 Which of the following will not control credit expansion:
A. Decrease CRR
B. Decrease Repo rate
C. Sale of securities
D. Giving more liquidity with Banks
Q. 150 In order to Control Credit _____________
A. CRR should be increased and bank rate should be decreased
B. CRR should be reduced and bank rate should be reduced
C. CRR should be increased and bank rate should be increased
D. CRR should be reduced and bank rate should be increased.
Part B – Quantitative Aptitude
Q. 151 If log x = m + n, log y = m – n the log(10x/y²):
A. 1-m + 3n
B. m-1+3n
C. m+3n+1
D. None of these
Q. 152 If p^x = q, q^y = r, r^z = p^6 then the value of xyz is:
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 6
Q. 153 15 (2p² – q²) = 7pq where p, q are positive then p:q
A. 5:6
B. 5:7
C. 3:5
D. 3:7
Q. 154 If one type of rice of cost Rs. 13.84 is mixed with another type of rice of cost Rs. 15.54. The mixture is sold at Rs. 17.6 with a profit of 14.6% on selling price then in which proportion the two types of rice mixed?
A. 3:7
B. 5:7
C. 7:9
D. 9:1
Q. 155 If α,β are the roots of the quadratic equation 2x² – 4x = 1, then the value of α²/β+β²/α:
A. -11
B. 22
C. -22
D. 11
Q. 156 The age of a person is 8 years more than thrice the age of the sum of his two grandsons who were twins. After 8 years his age will be 10 years more then twice the sum of the ages of his grandsons. Then the age of the person when twins born is_____________ :
A. 86 years
B. 73 years
C. 68 years
D. 62 years
Q. 157 Roots of the cubic equation x^3 – 7x + 6 = 0 are ____________:
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,-2,3
C. 1,2,-3
D. 1,-2,-3
Q. 158 In a school the number of students in each section is 36. If 12 new students are added, then the number of sections are increased by 4, and the number of students in each section becomes 30. The original number of sections at first is:
A. 6
B. 10
C. 14
D. 18
Q. 159 A person on a tour has Rs. 9600 for his expense. But the tour was extended for another 16 days, so he had to cut down his daily expenses by Rs. 20. The original duration of the tour had been?
A. 48 days
B. 64 days
C. 80 days
D. 96 days
Q. 160 The common region represented by the inequalities 2x + y ≥ 8, x + y ≥ 12, 3 x + 2y≤34 is:
A. Unbounded
B. In feasible
C. Feasible and bounded
D. Feasible and unbounded
Q. 161 A sum of money will double itself in 8 years at S.I. In how many years the sum will be tripled itself?
A. 20 years
B. 12 years
C. 16 years
D. none of these
Q. 162 A sum of 44,000 is divided into 3 parts such that the corresponding interest earned after 2 years, 3 years and 6 years may be equal at the rate of simple interest are 6% p.a., 8% p.a., & 6% p.a. respectively. Then the smallest part of the sum will be:
A. Rs. 4,000
B. Rs. 8,000
C. Rs. 10,000
D. Rs. 12,000
Q. 163 A person has 10 friends of which 6 of them are relatives. He wishes to invite 5 persons so that 3 of them are relatives. In how many ways he can invite?
A. 450
B. 600
C. 120
D. 810
Q. 164 A student has 3 books on the computer, 3 books on Economics, 5 on Commerce. If these books are to be arranged subject wise then these can be placed on a shelf in the ____________ number of ways:
A. 25,290
B. 25,920
C. 4,230
D. 4,320
Q. 165 The number of 4 digit numbers that can be formed from seven digits 1,2,3,5,7,8,9 such that no digit being repeated in any number, which are greater than 3000 are:
A. 120
B. 480
C. 600
D. 840
Q. 166 In an A.P. if the 3rd term is 18, 7 term is 30 then the sum of first 20 terms is:
A. 810
B. 520
C. 180
D. 250
Q. 167 Let S be the sum, P be the product and R be the sum of reciprocals of n terms of a G.P. then P²R^n:
A. S^2n
B. S^-n
C. S^n
D. S^-2n
Q. 168 1+11+111+………………….n terms:
A. 1/27[10^(n+1)-9n-10]
B. [10^(n+1)-9n-10]
C. 1/81[10^(n+1)-9n-10]
D. none of these
Q. 169 N is the set of all natural numbers and E is the set of all even numbers. If f : N →E defined by f(x) = 2x, for all x ε N is:
A. One – one and onto
B. One – one into
C. Many one onto
D. Can’t say
Q. 170 value of the limit is:
A. log(3/2)
B. log3/log2
C. log6
D. none of these
Q. 171 f(x)=(x-|x|)/x, x≠0 and f(0) = 2 then f(x) is:
A. Undefined
B. Continuous at x = 0
C. Continuous at x = 2
D. Not continuous
Q. 172 If e^(xy)-4xy=4 then dy/dx:
A. y/x
B. -y/x
C. x/y
D. -x/y
Q. 173 If x^p . y^q = (x+y)^p+q then dy/dx:
A. y/x
B. -y/x
C. p/q
D. -p/q
Q. 174 value of the integration is:
A. 1
B. 1-√3/2
C. √3-√2
D. 2-√3
Q. 175 value of integration is:
A. 1
B. e-1
C. e/2-1
D. 1/2(e-1)
Q. 176 The number of observation between 150 and 200 based on the following data is:
| Value | More than 100 | More than 150 | More than 200 | More than 250 |
| Number of Observations | 70 | 63 | 28 | 05 |
A. 46
B. 35
C. 28
D. 23
Q. 177 In how many cases 4 or more accidents occur?
| No. of Accidents | 0 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 |
| Frequency | 12 | 9 | 11 | 13 | 8 | 9 | 6 |
A. 32
B. 41
C. 26
D. 18
Q. 178 The curve obtained by joining the points, whose x-coordinates are the upper limits of the class intervals and y coordinates are the corresponding cumulative frequencies is called
A. Ogive
B. histogram
C. Frequency Polygon
D. Frequency Curve
Q. 179 Histogram is used for the presentation of the following type of series:
A. Time series
B. Continuous frequency series
C. Discrete series
D. Individual series
Q. 180 If the Harmonic means of two numbers is 4 and Arithmetic mean (A) and Geometric mean (G) satisfy the equation 2A + G² = 27 then the two numbers are:
A. (1, 3)
B. (9,5)
C. (6,3)
D. (12,7)
Q. 181 The perpendicular line drawn from the intersection of two ogives which touches at _________ point in Xaxis:
A. median
B. mode
C. third quartile
D. First quartile
Q. 182 Co-efficient of QD is equal to________________:
(a) QD/M ✕ 100
(b) QD/x ✕ 100
(c) QD/z ✕ 100
(d) None of these
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 183 If every observation is increased by 5 then:
A. SD increases by 5
B. SD increases by 5
C. SD increases by 5
D. None affected
Q. 184 The SD of X is known to be 10 then the SD of 50+5X is:
A. 50
B. 100
C. 10
D. 500
Q. 185 When r = 1, all the points in a scatter diagram would lie:
A. On a straight line directed from lower left to upper right
B. On a straight line
C. On a straight line directed from upper left to lower right
D. Both (a) & (b)
Q. 186 The two regression lines are: 16x – 20y + 132 =0 and 80x -30y – 428 = 0, the value of correlation coefficient is
A. 0.6
B. -0.6
C. 0.54
D. 0.45
Q. 187 There are 6 positive and 8 negative numbers. Four numbers are selected at random without replacement and multiplied. Find the probability that the product is positive:
A. 420/1001
B. 409/1001
C. 70/1001
D. 505/1001
Q. 188 P(A1) = 3/8; P(A2) = 2/3; P(A1∩A2) = ¼ then A1 and A2 will be:
A. Mutually exclusive & independent
B. Exclusive but not independent
C. Independent but not exclusive
D. None of these
Q. 189 The sum of two numbers obtained in a single throw of two dice is ‘S’. Then the probability of ‘S’ will be maximum when ‘S’=
A. 5
B. 7
C. 6
D. 8
Q. 190 An unbiased coin is tossed 3 times, the expected value of the number of heads is:
A. 2.5
B. 1.0
C. 1.5
D. 2
Q. 191 In the Binomial distribution the parameters are n and p, then X assumes value:
A. Between 0 and n
B. Between o and n both inclusive
C. Between 0 and 1
D. Between o and ∞
Q. 192 In ______________ distribution, Mean = Variance:
A. Binomial
B. Poisson
C. Normal
D. None of these
Q. 193 Under normal curve: μ ±3σ covers ________ of the area of items
A. 100%
B. 99%
C. 99.73%
D. 99.37%
Q. 194 If a random sample of size 2 with replacement is taken from a population containing the units 1, 3 and 5 then the sample space would be:
A. (1,3) (1,5) (3,5)
B. (1,1) (3,3) (5,5)
C. (1,3) (1,5) (3,5), (3,1) (5,1) (5,3), (1,1) (3,3) (5,5)
D. (1,3) (3,1) (1,5) (5,1) (3,5) (1,1) (3,3) (5,5)
Q. 195 Which sampling provides separate estimates for population means for different segments and also an overall estimate?
A. Multistage sampling
B. Stratified sampling
C. Simple random sampling
D. Systematic sampling
Q. 196 According to Neyman’s allocation in stratified sampling:
A. Sample size is proportional to the product of population size and its SD
B. Sample size is proportional to the sample SD
C. Sample size is proportional to the sample variance
D. Population size is proportional to the sample variance
Q. 197 The criteria for an ideal estimator are:
A. Unbiasedness, consistency, efficiency and sufficiency
B. Unbiasedness, expectation, sampling and estimation
C. Estimation, consistency, sufficiency and efficiency
D. Estimation, expectation, unbiasedness and sufficiency
Q. 198 _________ play a very important role in the construction of index numbers:
A. weights
B. classes
C. estimate
D. none of these
Q. 199 Factor reversal test is:
(a) Σp1q1/Σp0q0
(b) Σp1q1/Σp0q0 ✕ Σp1q1/Σp0q1
(c) Σp1q1/Σp0q1
(d) Σp1q0/Σp0q0 ✕ Σp1q1/Σp0q1
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 200 If with a rise of 10% in prices the wages are increased by 20% the real wage increases by:
A. 10%
B. More than 10%
C. 20%
D. Less than 10%
| Answer Sheet | ||||||||||
| Question | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| Answer | C | D | C | A | A | B | D | C | A | D |
| Question | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| Answer | A | C | A | A | A | D | B | A | B | A |
| Question | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| Answer | B | D | B | B | D | C | C | A | B | B |
| Question | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| Answer | A | C | A | D | A | D | B | D | A | C |
| Question | 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| Answer | C | B | A | A | B | A | A | D | D | D |
| Question | 51 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 55 | 56 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 |
| Answer | A | A | A | B | B | A | D | B | C | A |
| Question | 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 |
| Answer | C | A | D | B | A | A | B | D | B | A |
| Question | 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 |
| Answer | A | D | B | B | B | D | B | B | B | B |
| Question | 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 |
| Answer | D | D | B | A | B | C | C | A | B | C |
| Question | 91 | 92 | 93 | 94 | 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 | 99 | 100 |
| Answer | D | B | C | B | B | D | C | D | D | C |
| Question | 101 | 102 | 103 | 104 | 105 | 106 | 107 | 108 | 109 | 110 |
| Answer | C | B | D | A | A | D | B | C | A | C |
| Question | 111 | 112 | 113 | 114 | 115 | 116 | 117 | 118 | 119 | 120 |
| Answer | B | B | B | C | D | B | A | B | B | B |
| Question | 121 | 122 | 123 | 124 | 125 | 126 | 127 | 128 | 129 | 130 |
| Answer | C | D | A | C | B | A | B | D | B | A |
| Question | 131 | 132 | 133 | 134 | 135 | 136 | 137 | 138 | 139 | 140 |
| Answer | D | A | D | B | C | D | C | C | D | A |
| Question | 141 | 142 | 143 | 144 | 145 | 146 | 147 | 148 | 149 | 150 |
| Answer | D | C | D | C | A | C | D | A | C | D |
| Question | 151 | 152 | 153 | 154 | 155 | 156 | 157 | 158 | 159 | 160 |
| Answer | A | D | A | A | C | B | C | D | C | C |
| Question | 161 | 162 | 163 | 164 | 165 | 166 | 167 | 168 | 169 | 170 |
| Answer | C | B | C | B | C | A | C | C | A | B |
| Question | 171 | 172 | 173 | 174 | 175 | 176 | 177 | 178 | 179 | 180 |
| Answer | C | B | A | C | D | B | C | A | B | C |
| Question | 181 | 182 | 183 | 184 | 185 | 186 | 187 | 188 | 189 | 190 |
| Answer | A | A | D | A | A | C | D | C | B | C |
| Question | 191 | 192 | 193 | 194 | 195 | 196 | 197 | 198 | 199 | 200 |
| Answer | B | B | C | C | B | A | A | A | A | D |
