CA CPT DECEMBER 2015
Session – I
Part A – Fundamentals of Accounting
Q. 1 Interest Receivable from Karan, borrower a/c in:
A. Artificial Personal
B. Natural Personal
C. Representative Personal
D. None of the above
Q. 2 As per Traditional approach, which is the odd one out:
A. Building
B. Purchases
C. Sales
D. Trade Receivables
Q. 3 A started business with cash 10,000 and furniture’s 2,000.Total sales were 50,000 including 5,000 cash sales.10,000 were outstanding at the end of the year. Total purchases 30,000 including 10,000 cash purchases 15,000 were paid to the suppliers. Expenses paid amounted to 19,000 Total of the trial balance is :
A. 67,000
B. 80,000
C. 57,000
D. 75,000
Q. 4 Trade discount availed on purchase of goods:
A. Recorded in Cash Book
B. No where
C. Recorded in Sales Book
D. Purchase Book
Q. 5 When overdraft as per Cash Book is given the wrong debit in Pass Book will :
A. Added in BRS
B. ND effect in BRS
C. Subtracted in BRS
D. None of these
Q. 6 The unexpired portion of capital expenditure is shown as:
A. Asset
B. Liability
C. Expense
D. Income
Q. 7 Which of the following is correct?
A. Liabilities = Capital + Assets
B. Capital = Assets – Liabilities
C. Capital = Assets + Liabilities
D. Assets = Liabilities – Capital
Q. 8 X of Kolkata sends out certain goods to Y of Mumbai at cost + 25%. 1/2 of the goods received by Y is sold at Rs. 1,76,000 at 10% above invoice price. Invoice value of goods sent out is:
A. Rs. 3,00,000
B. Rs. 3,20,000
C. Rs. 1,80,000
D. Rs. 3,40,000
Q. 9 If a purchase return of Rs. 3500 has been wrongly posted to the debit of the sales return account, but had been correctly entered in the supplier’s account, the total of the trial balance would show:
A. the credit side to be Rs.84 more than debit side.
B. the debit side to be Rs.84 more than credit side.
C. the credit side to be Rs.168 more than debit side.
D. the debit side to be Rs.7000 more than credit side.
Q. 10 Legal expenses incurred on a suit for breach of contract to supply goods is a:
A. Capital expenditure
B. Deferred expenditure
C. Revenue expenditure
D. Both Capital expenditure and Revenue expenditure
Q. 11 Gross margin percentage is 33.33% on cost. Use the table to calculate purchase in September:
| # | September | October |
| Opening Stock | 460,000 | 642,000 |
| Cash Sales | 84,000 | 98,000 |
| Credit Sales | 1,224,000 | 1,358,000 |
A. 11,63,000
B. 10,54,000
C. 12,15,000
D. None of these
Q. 12 As per section –companies Act 2013, financial statement inter-alia do not include:
A. B/S
B. P & L
C. Fund Flow
D. Statement of Equity if applicable
Q. 13 Using Adjusted selling price method. Find closing stock at historical cost:
Purchase = 7,00,000
Opening Stock & Direct Exp. = Nil
Sales = 8,00,000
Closing Stock at selling price = 200,000
A. 1,40,000
B. 1,80,000
C. 2,40,000
D. 1,00,000
Q. 14 Which of these is wrong about perpetual Inventory system:
A. Cost of goods sold is taken as residual figure, it includes loss of goods during the year
B. Inventory can be determined without effecting operation of business
C. Inventory control can be exercised
D. Continuous information about inventory
Q. 15 A machine purchased for 10lakh. The Company charged depreciation@15% under WDV. After 4 years,co-charged depreciation @10% under SLM with retrospective effect. The journal entry for the extra dep. Charged of Rs. 77993 will be:
A. Profit & Loss a/c Dr. 77993 To Machinery a/c 77993
B. Depreciation a/c Dr. 77993 To Machinery a/c 77993
C. Machinery a/c Dr. 77993 To Profit & Loss a/c 77993
D. Machinery a/c Dr.77993 To depreciation a/c 77993
Q. 16 A company charges depreciation@15%
Original value = 10,00,000
Scrap value = 50,000
Calculate deprecation for first year
A. 1,60,000
B. 1,40,000
C. 1,50,000
D. None of these
Q. 17 Money spent to reduce working expense:
A. Capital Expenditure
B. Revenue Expenditure
C. Deffered Revenue Expenditure
D. None of the above
Q. 18 A businessman purchased goods for Rs.25,00,000 and sold 80% of such goods during the accounting year ended 31st March 2010. The market value of the remaining goods was Rs.4,00,000. He valued the closing stock at cost. He violated the concept of:
A. Money measurement
B. Conservatism
C. Cost
D. Periodicity
Q. 19 Income tax paid by the sole-proprietor from a business bank account is debited to:
A. Income tax account
B. Bank account
C. Capital account
D. Not to be shown in the business books
Q. 20 Omega Stationers used Stationery for business purposes Rs. 300. The amount will be credited to:
A. Sales A/c
B. Purchases A/c
C. Cash A/c
D. None of the three
Q. 21 If repair cost is Rs. 25,000, whitewash expenses are Rs. 5,000, cost of extension of building is Rs. 2,50,000 and cost of improvement in electrical wiring system is Rs. 19,000; the amount to be expensed is:
A. Rs. 2,99,000.
B. Rs. 44,000
C. Rs. 30,000.
D. Rs. 49,000.
Q. 22 Interest on drawing is charged from owner as per:
A. Money measurement concept
B. Accrual concept
C. Conservatism concept
D. Business entity concept
Q. 23 Chetan Ltd. recorded the following information as on March 31, 2010:
Stock (1-4-2009) Rs. 40,000
Purchases Rs. 80,000
Sales Rs. 1,00,000
It is noticed that goods worth Rs. 30,000 were destroy due to fire against this, the insurance company accepted a claim of Rs. 14,000. The company sells goods at cost plus 33.33% . The value of closing Inventories, after taking into account the above transaction is :
A. Rs. 75,000
B. Rs. 15,000
C. Rs. 25,000
D. Rs. NIL
Q. 24 Original cost = Rs. 1,00,000, Life = 5 Years, Expected salvage value = Rs. 2,000. Rate of depreciation p.a. on SLM Method = ?
A. 19.6%
B. 20%
C. 19.8%
D. 20.8%
Q. 25 Under this method, the annual charge for depreciation decreases from year to year, so that the burden and benefits of later years are shared by the earlier years. Also, under this method, the value of asset can never be completely extinguished. The other advantage of this method is that the total charge to revenue is uniform when the depreciation is high, repairs are negligible; and as the repairs increase, the burden of depreciation gets lesser and lesser. This method of depreciation is:
A. Straight Line Method.
B. Written Down Value Method.
C. Annuity Method
D. Sinking Fund Method.
Q. 26 Manufacturing account is prepared to:
A. ascertain the profit or loss on the goods produced
B. ascertain the cost of the manufactured goods
C. show the sale proceeds from the goods produced during the year
D. both (b) and (c)
Q. 27 1,000 kg of oranges are consigned to a wholesaler, the cost being Rs.8 per kg, plus Rs. 925 of freight. It is concluded that a loss of 15% is unavoidable. The cost per kg of orange will be:
A. Rs. 9.41.
B. Rs. 10.00
C. Rs. 10.50
D. Rs. 8.93.
Q. 28 Rabin consigned goods for the value of Rs.8,250 to Raj of Kanpur and paid freight etc. of Rs.650 and insurance Rs.400. He drew a bill on Raj for 3 months after date for Rs. 3,000 as an advance against consignment, and discounted the bill for Rs.2,960. Further, he received Account sales from Raj showing that, part of the goods had realized gross Rs. 8,350 and that his expenses and commission amounted to Rs. 870. The stock unsold was valued at Rs. 2750. Consignee wants to remit a draft for the amount due. The amount of draft will be:
A. Rs. 2,130
B. Rs. 4,480
C. Rs. 5,130
D. Rs. 5,090
Q.29 Memorandum joint venture account is prepared _________:
A. When separate set of joint venture books is prepared.
B. When each co-venturer keeps records of all the joint venture transactions himself
C. When each co-venturer keeps records of their own joint venturer transactions
D. None of the above
Q. 30 A draws bill of exchange on B for Rs. 15,000 for 3 months on 12th May 2008. What will be the maturity date?
A. 15th August, 2008
B. 14th August, 2008
C. 16th August, 2008
D. 12th August, 2008
Q. 31 Which of the following statement is true:
A. Noting charge is an expense to be borne by drawer
B. Noting charge is an expense to be borne by drawee
C. Noting charge is an expense to be borne by payee
D. Noting charge is an expense to be borne by bank
Q. 32 On 1th January 2006, Vimal sold goods worth Rs. 20,000 to Renu and drew a bill on Renu for 3 Months. Renu Accepted the bill and returned it to Vimal who discounted the bill with, bank on 4th February 2006 @15% p.a. The discounting charges will be:
A. Rs. 3,000
B. Rs.750
C. Rs. 500
D. None of the above
Q. 33 A B and C are partners, sharing profits in the ratio of 4:3:2. D is admitted for 2/9* share of profits and brings Rs. 30,000 as his capital and 10,000 for his share of goodwill. The new profit sharing ratio between partners will be 3:2:2:2 goodwill amount will be credited in the capital accounts of:
A. A only
B. A, B and C (Equally)
C. A and B (Equally)
D. A and C (Equally)
Q. 34 Following information pertains to X Ltd
Equity share capital called up Rs. 4,60,000
Calls in arrears Rs. 7,500
Calls in advance Rs. 5,000
Proposed dividend Rs. 5%
The amount of dividend payable will be
A. Rs. 22,625
B. Rs. 23,000
C. Rs. 20,000
D. None of the three
Q. 35 Present liability of uncertain amount, which can be measured reliably by using a substantial degree of estimation, is termed as ________:
A. Provision
B. Liability
C. Contingent liability
D. None of the above
Q. 36 Bank overdraft as per Cash Book Rs. 13500
Cheque deposited but not credited Rs. 3000
Cheque issued but not presented Rs. 6000
Overdraft as per bank statement will be
A. Rs. 10,500
B. Rs. 10,000
C. Rs. 11,000
D. None of the three
Q. 37 Cost of an asset Rs. 75,000 Useful life is 4 years. Find out the depreciation for the 1st year under sum of years digit method :
A. Rs. 30,000
B. Rs. 7,500
C. Rs. 22,500
D. Rs. 15,000
Q. 38 On 1st April, 2009 M/s Omega Bros, had a provision for bad debts of Rs. 6,500. During 2009 2010 Rs. 4,200 proved irrecoverable and it was desired to maintain the provision for bad debts @ 4% on debtors which stood at Rs. 1,95,000 before writing off bad debts. Amount of net provision debited to profit and loss A/c will be:
A. Rs. 7,800
B. Rs. 7,500
C. Rs. 5,332
D. Rs. 5,000
Q. 39 Overriding commission is generally calculated on
A. Cash sale only
B. Total sales exceeding invoice value/cost
C. Credit sales
D. None of the above
Q. 40 Sales return of worth Rs. 637 has been wrongly credited to purchase return account, but had been correctly posted to debtors account. Total of trial balance would show:
A. Debit side will be higher then Credit side by Rs. 637
B. Credit side will be higher then Debit side by Rs. 637
C. Credit side will be higher then Debit side by Rs. 1274
D. Debit side will be higher then Credit side by Rs. 1274
Q. 41 A purchased goods costing Rs. 1,00,000. B sold the goods for Rs. 1,50,000. Profit sharing ratio between A and B equal. If same sets of books is maintained, what will be the profit?
A. 50,000
B. 45,000
C. 40,000
D. 35,000
Q. 42 A and B enter into a joint venture sharing profit and losses equally. A purchased 5,000 kg of rice@ Rs. 50/kg. B purchased 1,000 kg of wheat @ Rs.60/kg. A sold 1,000 kg of wheat @ Rs.70/kg and B sold 5,000 kg of rice @ Rs.60/kg. What will be the final remittance?
A. B will remit Rs. 2,10,000 to A
B. A will remit Rs. 2,10,000 to B
C. A will remit Rs. 2,00,000 to B
D. B will remit Rs. 1,80,000 to A
Q. 43 A purchased 1000 kg of rice costing Rs 200 each. Carriage 2000, insurance 3000. 4/5th of the boxes were sold by B at Rs 250 per boxes. Remaining stock were taken over by B at cost. The amount of stock taken over will be:
A. Rs. 40000
B. Rs.41000
C. Rs.50000
D. Rs.50200
Q. 44 The following particulars are available in respect of the business carried on by a partnership firm:
Trading Results:
2001 Loss Rs. 5,000
2002 Loss Rs. 10,000
2003 Profit Rs. 75,000
2004 Profit Rs. 60,000
You are required to compute the value of goodwill on the basis of 3 years purchase of average profit of the business.
A. Rs. 1,25,000
B. Rs. 90,000
C. Rs. 10,000
D. Rs. 1,20,000
Q. 45 J Ltd. reissued 2,000 shares which were forfeited by crediting share forfeiture account by Rs. 3,000. These shares were reissued at Rs. 9 Per share. The amount transferred to Capital Reserve will be:
A. Rs. 3,000
B. Rs. 2,000
C. Rs. 1,000
D. NIL
Q. 46 S Ltd. issued 2,000, 10% preference shares of Rs. 100 each at per, which are redeemable at a premium of 10%. For the purpose of redemption, the company issued 1,500 Equity share of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 20% per share. At the time of redemption of preference shares, the amount to be transferred by the company to the Capital Redemption Reserve Account =?
A. Rs. 50,000
B. Rs. 40,000
C. Rs. 2,00,000
D. Rs. 2,20,000
Q. 47 Jai Ltd. purchased machinery from Om Ltd. for Rs. 8,00,000. The consideration was paid by issue of 15% debentures by Rs. 100 each at a discount of 20%. Number of debentures issued by Jai Ltd. will be:
A. 8,000
B. 10,000
C. 12,000
D. 15,000
Q. 48 Purchases during the year were 200,000.Expenses amounted to 20,000.Sales were 250,000.The calculated profits for year Rs. 30,000.The followed the concept of :
A. Matching
B. Periodicity
C. Going concern
D. Realisation
Q. 49 In which method, Current a/c is prepared separately
A. Fixed capital
B. Fluctuating capital
C. Fixed fluctuating
D. None of above
Q. 50 The Board of directors of a company decided to issue minimum no. of equity shares of Rs. 10 each at 20% discount to redeem 4500 preference shares of Rs.100 each. If maximum amount of divisible profit available for redemption is Rs.250558. Calculate no. of equity shares to be issued. Also, if the company wishes to issue shares in multiples of 50
A. 24932 and 24950
B. 24931 and 24950
C. 24931 and 24500
D. 24932 and 24500
Q. 51 X,Y and Z are partnership. There is not partnership deed to this context. Y advanced a loan of Rs. 80,000 to firm and demanded interest @12%p.a. X who is active partner demanded half share in profits. Profit before above adjustments was Rs. 6000.The share of profits is
A. Rs. 2,000 to each partner
B. Loan of Rs. 4,400 for X and Z & Y will take home Rs. 14,800.
C. Rs 400 for x, Rs. 5200 for Y and Rs 400 for Z
D. Rs. 2,400 to each partners
Q. 52 Interest on Debenture is provided on:
A. Face value
B. purchase price
C. issue price
D. None of these
Q. 53 Securities premium can be utilized for:
A. Payment of dividend
B. Writing off revenue expenses
C. Writing off capital losses
D. Writing off premium on redemption of debentures
Q. 54 L & M sharing in ratio 3:2. M & N are sharing profits in ratio 3:2. Profit sharing ratio between, L, M, N
A. 9 : 6 : 4
B. 6 : 4 : 9
C. 9 : 4 : 6
D. None of the above
Q. 55 Purchase book records:
A. All credit purchase
B. All cash purchase
C. Credit purchase of goods
D. Credit purchase of fixed assets
Q. 56 Profit of deceased partner will be transferred to:
A. Profit & Loss A/c
B. P & L Suspense A/
C. Profit & Loss Appropriation A/c
D. Profit & Loss Adjustment A/c
Q. 57 A purchase goods worth Rs. 1,50,000 out of which his sold goods worth Rs. 80,000 for Rs. 1,00,000. Cost of remaining stock is Rs. 70,000 and the market value of the remaining stock is Rs. 85,000. He value the stock at market price. Which of following concept has been violated by him.
A. Conservatism
B. Accrual
C. Matching
D. periodicity
Q. 58 A send goods to B on goods sent on approval basis of Rs. 50,000. Time limit for acceptance has not been finished. At the end of year, market value of the goods held with B is 10% lesser then cost price. Stock will be valued in the book of A:
A. 45,000
B. 50,000
C. 40,000
D. None of the above
Q. 59 A, B are partners in the ratio of 3 : 2, they admitted C for 1/6 share in the firm, calculate the ratio and new ratio:
A. 3 : 2 : 1
B. 1:2:3
C. 2:3:1
D. 9:6:4
Q. 60 Roots of cubic equation x³ – 7x + 6 = 0 are
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,-2,3
C. 1,2,-3
D. 1,-2,-3
Part B – Mercantile Laws
Q. 61 As per sales of goods Act, 1930 implied condition as to merchantable quality……..where the buyer has examined the goods?
A. is applicable
B. is presumed
C. is not applicable
D. none of the above
Q. 62 Which of the following are document of title of goods?
A. Performa invoice
B. Mate’s receipt
C. railway receipt
D. all of above
Q. 63 Which of the following is not sale under sale of goods Act, 1930
A. purchase of goods by a partner for firm
B. x agree with y to sell future goods
C. x sold goods worth Rs 2000 to y
D. x sold building Rs 100000 to y
Q. 64 True test of partnership is?
A. Sharing of profits and losses equally
B. Sharing of profits only
C. Mutual agency
D. Mutual trust between partners
Q. 65 Which is true statement in voidable contract, the injured party:
A. Is entitled to recover compensation
B. Has a right to sue for damages
C. Has a right to rescinded the contract
D. All of these
Q. 66 A invites B for his son’s wedding. B accepts the invitation. In this case there is an agreement but no contract, since:
A. There is no consideration
B. There is no intention to create legal relationship
C. There is no written document
D. There is no formal acceptance of the offer
Q. 67 A travel agency operates buses from Jaipur to Agra. The bus standing at its bus terminals is with a view to taking the passengers. There is_____________ to take passengers
A. Internal offer
B. External offer
C. Implied offer
D. Express offer
Q. 68 The consideration may move from:
A. The promisor or any other person
B. The promisee or any other person
C. The promisee only
D. The promisor only
Q. 69 In relation to a contract the term “Consensus-ad-idem” under the Indian Contact act 1872 means:
A. Reaching an agreement
B. Reaching of Contract
C. General Consensus
D. Meeting of minds upon the same thing in the same sense.
Q. 70 G paid Rs.1,00,000 to H to influence the head of the Government Organisation in order to provide him some employment. On his failure to provide the job, G sued H for recovery of the amount. Which of the following is correct?
A. The contract is valid and G can recover the amount from H.
B. The contract is void as it is opposed to public policy and G cannot recover.
C. G can recover the amount with interest
D. G can recover the amount of Rs.1,00,000 and damages.
Q. 71 Rights of an unpaid seller include_________:
A. Right of Lien
B. Right of stoppage in transit
C. Right of re-sale
D. All of the above
Q. 72 Where damages are not an adequate remedy, then court may order for:
A. Suit for injunction
B. Suit for quantum meruit
C. Suit for rescission
D. Suit for specific performance
Q. 73 Which is true statement regarding the including of the minor in partnership firm?
A. A minor may be admitted to the benefits of partnership with the consent of all other partners
B. A minor may be admitted to the benefits of partnership with no consent of other partners
C. A minor may be admitted to the benefits of the consent of his partners
D. A minor may be admitted to the benefits of partnership with the guarantee of his parents
Q. 74 In absence of specific agreement partner is entitled to interest at the rate of an advances made for the purpose of business of the firm:
A. 6%
B. 10%
C. 8%
D. 12%
Q. 75 If a firm wants to register itself, if will go to_________ :
A. Registrar of Firms
B. Registrar of Companies
C. Court
D. Any of these
Q. 76 Only one party has performed his promise in the contract, Such Contract is known as:
A. Unilateral Contract
B. Bilateral Contract
C. Void Contract
D. Voidable Contract
Q. 77 B received an offer by letter. He gives his acceptance by letter which are duly stamped, addressed & put in the letter box, This amount to:
A. valid acceptance
B. Not a valid acceptance
C. Not the prescribed manner of acceptance
D. None of these
Q. 78 X is a person of 16 yrs. He enters into a contract with Y by making false representation that he is a major, This contract is:
A. Void
B. Voidable
C. illegal
D. None of these
Q. 79 Mr. Sharma and Mrs. Sharma, a dormant and their son Z enter into a partnership. Mrs. Sharma due to some family problems decided to retire from the firm without giving public notice. Mr. Sharma and Z incurs a liability in the name of the firm. Decide the liability of Mrs. Sharma:
A. She is not liable as she was a dormant partner.
B. Her liability will be adjusted from Mr. Sharma’s Share
C. Her liability will be adjusted from Z’s Share.
D. Both (a) and (b)
Q. 80 X agrees to sell Y, all crops of wheat to be grown in X farm, In this case.
A. It is a contract of sale of present goods.
B. There is no contract of sale
C. It is an agreement to sell of future goods
D. None of the above.
Q. 81 A is a dancer. She contracts with B to dance in a programme. But before due date of programme, A dies. This contract is performed by :
A. By A’s legal heir
B. By A’s close joined
C. By B himself
D. None of the above
Q. 82 Condition is a stipulation essential to the________ of contract:
A. Collateral purpose
B. Main purpose
C. Other purpose
D. None of the above
Q. 83 A contingent contract is _____________________:
A. A contract to do something if some event collateral to such contract does or does not happen
B. A contract not to do something if some event collateral to such contract does or does not happen
C. A contract to do or not to do something if some event collateral to such contract does or does not happen
D. A contract to do or not to do something if some event collateral to such contract does not happen
Q. 84 In case of sale on approval, the ownership is transfer to the buyer when he:
A. Accepts the goods
B. Adopts the transaction
C. Fails to return goods
D. In all the above cases
Q. 85 The number of partners in firm carrying an banking business should not exceed:
A. 200 persons
B. 150 persons
C. 100 persons
D. 300 persons
Q. 86 A person who represents himself to be a partner but in reality he is not so, is known as a:
A. Inactive partner
B. Partner by estoppel
C. Partner by default
D. Legal partner
Q. 87 When no ratio of sharing of profits and losses are given, then profit and losses is shared
A. Equally
B. in capital ratio
C. 4:1
D. none
Q. 88 A Nominal partner gets:
A. A Nominal partner gets:
B. Equal share in profits
C. Share in profits proportionate to contribution
D. None of the above
Q. 89 Finder of goods can sale goods if the owner is not found with
A. Ordinary diligence
B. Reasonable diligence
C. Due diligence
D. No diligence required
Q. 90 A promise to pay Rs. 1000 to B if B writes 100 pages in one minute. This is known as:
A. Void contract
B. Voidable contract
C. Valid contract
D. Unenforceable contract
Q. 91 ———– precedes offer purpose of which to get a better offer from parties
A. offer
B. Invitation to offer
C. Acceptance
D. Bilateral promise
Q. 92 P,Q AND R are partners sharing profits in 5:3:1. Their capitals were 30,000 ; 20,000 and 10,000 respectively. R becomes insolvent. The deficiency of capital on insolvency of R would be borne by P and Q in
A. 5:3
B. 3:1
C. Equally
D. None of these
Q. 93 Where performance of contract is remaining in part of both parties of contract, then such contract is known as:
A. Executed
B. Executory
C. Void
D. Voidable
Q. 94 A partner can transfer his interest
A. With consent of other partners
B. Without consent of other partners
C. No consent is required
D. None of the above
Q. 95 M, by a Gift deed transferred certain property to her daughter, with a direction that daughter should pay an annuity to M’s sister. On the same day, the daughter executed a written deed in favour of M’s sister, agreeing to pay annuity. Afterwards, she declined to fulfill her promise saying that no consideration had moved from her uncle. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. She is bound to pay 1/4th amount
B. She is not bound to pay as M’s sister is not a party to contract.
C. She is bound to pay reasonable amount.
D. She is bound to pay promised amount as consideration may move from person other than promisee also.
Q. 96 Unregistered firm cannot file a suit against a _____________ to enforce any right arising from a contract.
A. Incoming partner
B. Outgoing partner
C. Third party
D. Minor admitted to benefits of partnership.
Q. 97 The amount received by a partnership firm from the insurance company on the maturity of a Joint Life Policy taken by the firm will be distributed amongst the partner:
A. Equally
B. In the profit sharing ratio
C. In the ratio of capital balances at the beginning of the year
D. In the ration of capital balances at the end of the accounting year.
Q. 98 An unpaid seller pledged his goods, than resale to a bonafide buyer, such buyer acquires:
A. No title
B. Better Title
C. No title after pledge of Goods
D. None of the above
Q. 99 Caveat emptor means:
A. Let the buyer beware before buying the goods
B. Let the Seller beware before Selling the goods
C. Let the buyer beware after buying the goods
D. Let the seller beware after selling the goods
Q. 100 A sold some goods to B. B direct A to hold goods for 2 days, this delivery is known as :
A. Actual Delivery
B. Constructive Delivery
C. Symbolic Delivery
D. Structured Delivery
Session – II
Part A – General Economics
Q. 101 Who published “The Nature and causes of wealth of Nations”?
A. Adam Smith
B. A. C. Pigou
C. J. B. Say
D. Alfered Marshal
Q. 102 What is not comes under micro economics-
A. Product pricing
B. Factor pricing
C. General Price level
D. Study of firms
Q. 103 What is the relation between price and Quantity demanded –
A. Direct
B. Proportional
C. Inverse
D. Indirect
Q. 104 What is the mean by price elasticity of demand greater than 1-
A. % change in quantity demanded is less than % change in price.
B. % change in quantity demanded is more than % change in price.
C. No change in quantity and price
D. None of these
Q. 105 What of the following is false about WTO?
A. It is the main organ for implementing the Multilateral Trade Agreements.
B. It is global in its membership.
C. It has far wider scope than GATT.
D. Only countries having more than prescribed level of total GDP can become its members
Q. 106 NM1 refers (as per latest RBI Working Group):
A. Currency + Demand Deposits + Other Deposits with RBI
B. Currency + Demand Deposits + Post office saving deposits
C. Currency + Demand Deposits + Money at call
D. None of the above
Q. 107 In order to increase money supply in the country, the RBI may:
A. Reduce CRR
B. Increase CRR
C. Sell securities in the open market
D. Increase Bank Rate
Q. 108 Diminishing Marginal Returns implies:
A. Constant MC
B. Increasing Marginal Cost
C. Decreasing MC
D. All of the above
Q. 109 Which is not related to reduction in poverty:
A. MNREGA
B. SJSRY
C. SJGRY
D. Indira Gandhi Vidyutikaran
Q. 110 Find the correct statement:
A. Share of indirect tax is more than direct tax in total tax revenue.
B. Service tax is a direct tax
C. Income tax is indirect
D. None of the above
Q. 111 Personal income tax is levied on-
A. Income of individuals
B. Income of HUF
C. unregistered firm
D. All of the above
Q. 112 What is fiscal deficit?
A. Sum of budget deficit plus borrowings
B. Difference of total receipts and borrowings.
C. Any of the above
D. None of above
Q. 113 Soft lending arm of world bank.
A. IFC
B. IDA
C. MIGA
D. IFCSIC
Q. 114 To convert GDPmp → GNPmp
A. Add Dep
B. Add NIT
C. Add NFIA
D. ALL of the above
Q. 115 Suppose NDPmp is constant and deprecation is increasing then GDPmp
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Decreases with same amount as deprecation
D. Increases with same amount as deprecation
Q. 116 What is globalization?
A. It refers to the transfer of assets from public to private ownership.
B. It refers to the disposal of public sector’s equity in the market.
C. It means integrating the domestic economy with the world economy
D. None of the above.
Q. 117 Which of the following about the money is incorrect?
A. There are many assets which carry the attribute on money.
B. Money is what money does
C. In modern sense money has stability, high degree of substitutability and feasibility of measuring statistical variation.
D. None of these
Q. 118 Kinked demand curve is found in:
A. Monopolistic
B. Perfectly Competitive firm
C. Perfectly competitive industry
D. None of the above
Q. 119 When indifference curve is L shaped goods are:
A. Perfect substitutes
B. Perfect Complementary
C. Substitutes
D. Complementary
Q. 120 What is MC of 5 units:
| UNIT | TFC | TVC | MC |
| 0 | 500 | – | – |
| 1 | 500 | 400 | 400 |
| 5 | 500 | 1600 | – |
A. 300
B. 400
C. 500
D. 700
Q. 121 In which competition, firms have no control over price?
A. Monopoly
B. Perfect competition
C. Monopolistic Competition
D. Oligopoly
Q. 122 Price discrimination is beneficial when elasticity of different markets is:
A. Same
B. Different
C. One
D. Zero
Q. 123 Which of the following is not U-shaped curve:
A. AFC
B. AVC
C. AC
D. MCC
Q. 124 Which of the following is not reserved for public sector:
A. Railway
B. Atomic
C. Defence
D. None of these
Q. 125 The share of agriculture in India’s national income has_____ over the years:
A. Remained constant
B. Decreased
C. Increased
D. First decreased and then increased
Q. 126 Balance of Trade is:
A. Difference between current and capital Account
B. Difference between merchandise export and import of merchandise goods
C. Difference between export and import of goods and services
D. Balance of current account
Q. 127 Which of these is a major component of external debt?
A. Short term debt
B. Long term debt
C. Commercial borrowings
D. NRI deposits
Q. 128 Which of the following steps relates only to deductive method in Economics?
A. Testing of Hypothesis
B. Collection of data
C. Classification of data
D. Perception of the problem
Q. 129 “I am making a loss, but with the rent I have to pay, I can’t afford to shut down at this point of time.” If this entrepreneur is attempting to maximize profits or minimize losses, his behaviour in the short run is:
A. rational, if the firm is covering its variable cost
B. rational, if the firm is covering its fixed costs
C. irrational, since plant closing is necessary to eliminate losses
D. irrational, since fixed costs are eliminated if a firm shuts down
Q. 130 As Unemployment reduces
A. A point from inside the PPC shifts on the PPC.
B. PPC shifts rightwards
C. PPC shifts leftwards
D. A point outside PPC shifts on PPC
Questions: 131 – 132
X, Y and Z are three commodities where X and Y are complementary goods whereas X and Z are substitutes.
A shopkeeper sells commodity X at Rs. 20 per piece. At this price he is able to sell 100 pieces of X per month.
After some time, he decreases the price of X to Rs. 10 per piece. Following the price decrease.
He is able to sell 150 pieces of X per month.
The demand for Y increases from 25 units to 50 units.
The demand for commodity Z decreases from 75 units to 50 units.
Q. 131 The price elasticity of demand when price of X decreases from Rs. 20 per piece to Rs. 10 per piece will be equal to:
A. 0.6
B. 1.6
C. 0.5
D. 1.5
Q. 132 The cross elasticity of demand for commodity Y when the price of X decreases from Rs. 20 per piece to Rs. 10 per piece will be equal to:
A. -1.5
B. +1.5
C. +1
D. -1
Q. 133 Suppose income of the consumers increases by 50% and the demand for commodity X increases by 20%. What will be the income elasticity of demand for commodity X?
A. .04
B. 0.4
C. 4.00
D. -4.00
Q. 134 FRBM Act stands for-
A. Fiscal Revenue and Budget Management
B. Foreign revenue and Business Management
C. Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management
D. Foreign Responsibility and Budget Management
Q. 135 Disguised employment refers to-
A. A situation where there are more employees and some having zero marginal productivity
B. Less employees plus zero marginal productivity
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Q. 136 The combined phenomenon of stagnation and inflation is called CA
A. demand-pull inflation
B. cost-push inflation
C. money inflation
D. stagflation
Q. 137 Fiscal deficit refers to-
A. Total receipts – Total expenditure
B. Total Revenue – Total Expenditure + Borrowing and other liability
C. Budget deficit – Interest payment
D. None of the above
Q. 138 100% FDI allowed in-
A. Drugs & Pharmaceuticals
B. Courier service
C. Hotels and Tourism
D. All of the above
Q. 139 What is privatization?
A. It refers to the disposal of private sector’s equity in the market.
B. It refers to the transfer of assets from public to private sector ownership.
C. It means integrating the domestic economy with the world economy
D. None of the above
Q. 140 If case of a Giffen good, the demand curve will be:
A. Horizontal
B. Downward sloping to the right
C. Vertical
D. Upward sloping to the right
Q. 141 Under Cobb- Douglas production function contribution of capital and labour respectively
A. 3/4th , 1/4th
B. 1/4th ,3/4th
C. 1/2th, 1/2th
D. none of the above
Q. 142 When output increases average fixed cost.
A. Increase
B. decrease
C. constant
D. none of the above
Q. 143 ……….is a situation is which a firm bases its market policy on part of the expected behavior of a few close rivals
A. monopoly
B. oligopoly
C. perfect competition
D. monopolist
Q. 144 Which of the following illustrates a decrease in unemployment using the PPF?
A. A movement down along the PPF.
B. A rightward shift of the PPF.
C. A movement from a point on the PPF to a point inside the PPF
D. A movement from a point inside the PPF to a point on the PPF.
Q. 145 After reaching the saturation point, consumption of additional units of the commodity cause:
A. Total utility to fall and marginal utility to increase.
B. Total utility and marginal utility both increase.
C. Total utility to fall and marginal utility to become negative.
D. Total utility to become negative and marginal utility to fall.
Q. 146 The causes of inflation in India includes:
A. Increase in public expenditure
B. Deficit financing
C. Erratic agriculture growth
D. All of the above
Questions: 147 – 149
Q. 147 Figure represents a:
A. Perfectly competitive firm.
B. Perfectly competitive industry
C. Monopolist
D. none of the above
Q. 148 In figure , the firm’s marginal revenue curve is curve:
A. E
B. A
C. F
D. B
Q. 149 In figure , curve E is the firm’s:
A. Marginal cost curve
B. Average cost curve
C. Demand curve
D. Marginal revenue curve
Q. 150 What is equilibrium price
| P | Q.D. | Q.S. |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | 500 | 200 |
| 2 | 450 | 250 |
| 3 | 400 | 300 |
| 4 | 350 | 350 |
| 5 | 300 | 400 |
| 6 | 250 | 450 |
| 7 | 200 | 550 |
| 8 | 150 | 600 |
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Part B – Quantitative Aptitude
Q. 151 Find the ratio of third proportional of 12, 30 and mean proportional of 9,25:
A. 7:2
B. 5:1
C. 9:4
D. none of these
Q. 152 Which of these is a function from A→B
A= {x,y,z} B={a,b,c,d}
A. {(x,a) (x,b) (y,c)}
B. {(x,a) (x,b) (y,c) (z,d)}
C. {(x,a) (y,b) (z,d)}
D. {(a,x) (b,z) (c,y)}
Q. 153 Find slope of tangent of curve Y=x-1/x +2 at x=2
A. 3/16
B. 5/17
C. 9/11
D. none of the above
Q. 154 lim x→3 ((x^n-3^n)/x-3)=405 find n:
A. 4
B. 5
C. 3
D. 1
Q. 155 f(x) = 2x+2, g(x) = x², fog(4) = ?
A. 100
B. 10
C. 34
D. none of these
Q. 156 In a class of 80 students, 35% play only cricket, 45% only Tennis, How many play Cricket?
A. 86
B. 54
C. 36
D. 44
Q. 157 The sum of n terms of an AP is 3n2 + 5n, which term of AP is 164
A. 25
B. 27
C. 29
D. 31
Q. 158 A question paper consist 10 questions, 6 in math and 4 in stats. Find out number of ways to solve question paper if at least one question is to be attempted from each section
A. 1024
B. 950
C. 945
D. 1022
Q. 159 There are 6 gents and 4 ladies. A committee of 5 is to be formed if it include at least two ladies
A. 64
B. 162
C. 102
D. 186
Q. 160 Suppose your mom decides to gift you Rs. 10,000 every year starting from today for the next sixteen years. You deposit this amount in a bank as and when you receive and get 8.5% per annum interest rate compounded annually. What is the present value of this money: Given that P (15, 0.085) =8.304236
A. 83042
B. 90100
C. 93042
D. 10100
Q. 161 No. of years a sum 4 times itself at 12% pa at simple interest:
A. 20
B. 21
C. 25
D. 30
Q. 162 If α , β be the roots of a quadratic equation if α+β = -2, α.β = -3 Find quadratic equation:
A. x²+2x-7=0
B. x²+2x-3=0
C. x²-2x-3=0
D. x²-2x+7=0
Q. 163 choose the correct option:
A. 2 log 3/2 – 1
B. 2 log 3 + 1
C. ½ log 3/2 – 1
D. 2 log 2 – 1 + k
Q. 164 Three No’s a, b, c are in A.P find a – b + c
A. a
B. -b
C. b
D. c
Q. 165 On a certain sum rate of interest @ 10% p.a., S.I=Rs. 90 Term = 2 year, Find Compound interest for the same:
A. 544.5
B. 94.5
C. 450
D. 18
Q. 166 U= 5t^4 + 4t³ + 2t² + t +4 at t=-1 find du/d
A. -11
B. 11
C. -16
D. 16
Q. 167 nPr = 720 and nCr = 120 Find r ?
A. 6
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
Q. 168 Find the numbers whose GM is 5 and AM is 7.5:
A. 12 and 13
B. 13.09 and 1.91
C. 14 and 11
D. 17 and 19
Q. 169 choose the correct one:
A. 2
B. 5
C. -2
D. none of these
Q. 170 Value of k for which roots are equal of given equation 4×2 – 12x + k = 0:144
A. 144
B. 9
C. 5
D. none of these
Q. 171 The lines x – y = 0, 4x + y = 5, 5x – ay = 2 are concurrent then find the value of a?
A. 3
B. 1
C. 5
D. 0
Q. 172 Find the equation of the line which passes through the point of intersection of lines y = 3 and x + y = 0 and parallel to the line 2x – y + 5 = 0?
A. 2x – y – 9 = 0
B. 2x – y + 9 = 0
C. x – 2y – 9 = 0
D. x + 2y – 9 = 0
Q. 173 What must be added to each of the numbers 10, 18, 22, 38 to make them proportional:
A. 5
B. 2
C. 3
D. 9
Q. 174 A function f(x) defined as follows f(x) = x + 1 when x ≤ 1 = 3 – px when x > 1 The value of p for which f(x) is continuous at x = 1 is:
A. -1
B. 1
C. 0
D. None of these
Q. 175 choose the correct one: By lines x+y=6, 2x-y=2, the common region shown is the diagram refers to
A. x + y ≥ 6, 2x – y ≤ 2, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
B. x + y ≤ 6, 2x – y ≤ 2, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
C. x + y ≤ 6, 2x – y ≥ 2, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
D. none of these
Q. 176 For an unknown parameter, how many interval estimate exists.
A. One
B. Two
C. Many
D. Some
Q. 177 Which is most common diagrammatic representation for grouped frequency distribution.
A. Histogram
B. Ogive
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of these
Q. 178 It is a measure of precision achieved by sampling.
A. Standard error
B. Sampling distribution
C. Sampling Fluctuation
D. Expectation
Q. 179 Find the range of 6, 5, 4, 3, 1, 3 ,6, 10, 8.
A. 6
B. 3
C. 9
D. 10
Q. 180 Wages paid to workers follows –
A. Binomial distribution
B. Poisson distribution
C. Normal
D. Chi-Square.
Q. 181 When an unbiased dice is rolled, find the odds in favour of getting of multiple of 3.
A. 1 / 6
B. 1 / 4
C. 1 / 2
D. 1 / 3
Q. 182 Three coins are rolled, what is the probability of getting exactly two heads:
A. 1 / 8
B. 3 / 8
C. 7 / 8
D. 5 / 8
Q. 183 For a binominal distribution, the parameters are 15 and 1/3 Find mode:
A. 5 and 6
B. 5.5
C. 5
D. 6
Q. 184 Standard Deviation of binominal distribution is:
A. npq
B. (npq)^2
C. √npq
D. n^2p^2q^2
Q. 185 If a random sample of 500 Oranges Produces 25 rotten oranges. Than the estimate of the proportion of rotten oranges in the sample is :
A. 0.01
B. 0.05
C. 0.028
D. 0.0593
Q. 186 When sample Size increases, Standard error:
A. Decrease
B. Decrease Proportionately
C. Increase
D. Does not change
Q. 187 Which of the following is true:
A. bxy = r. Sy / Sx
B. byx = r. Sy / Sx
C. Σxy / Sx
D. Σxy / Sy
Q. 188 In case ‘ Insurance Companies’ Profits and the no .of claims they have to pay” :
A. Positive correlation
B. Negative correlation
C. No correlation
D. None of these
Q. 189 Find the mean deviation about mean of 4, 5, 6, 8, 3:
A. 7.2
B. 5.2
C. 1.44
D. 1.70
Q. 190 If V(x) = 23 Find variance of 2x + 10:
A. 104
B. 110
C. 92
D. 85
Q. 191 Classification is of __________ kinds:
A. One
B. two
C. three
D. Four
Q. 192 There were 50 students in a class. 10 failed whose average marks were 2.5. The total marks of class were 281. Find the average marks of students who passed?
A. 6.4
B. 25
C. 256
D. 86
Q. 193 Quartiles can be found through which graph?
A. Ogive
B. Histogram
C. Frequency polygon
D. Frequency curve
Q. 194 Two letter are drawn at random from word “HOME” find the probability that there is no vowel.
A. 5 / 6
B. 1 / 6
C. 1 / 3
D. None of these
Q. 195 The average of 2 number is 20 and their standard deviation 5. Find the two numbers?
A. 15, 25
B. 30, 40
C. 10, 15
D. None of these
Q. 196 The chart that use Logarithm of the variable is known as:
A. Line chart
B. ratio chart
C. Multiple line chart
D. Component line chart
Q. 197 Find the number of observation between 250 and 300 from the data given in figure (1).
A. 56
B. 23
C. 15
D. 8
Q. 198 Consumer Price index number for the year 1957 was 313 with 1940 as the base year. The average monthly wages in 1957 of the workers in to factory be Rs. 160 /- their real wages is:
A. Rs. 48.40
B. Rs. 51.12
C. Rs. 40.30
D. None of these
Q. 199 A bag contains 15 one rupee coins, 25 two rupee coins and 10 five rupee coins. If a coin is selected at random from the bag, then the probability of not selecting a one rupee coin is:
A. 0.30
B. 0.70
C. 0.25
D. 0.20
Q. 200 If Variance = 125.6, X̅ = 40, coefficient of variation =
A. 28.02
B. 314
C. 40.02
D. None of these
| Answer Sheet | ||||||||||
| Question | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| Answer | C | D | D | B | A | A | B | B | D | C |
| Question | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| Answer | A | C | A | A | C | C | A | B | C | B |
| Question | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| Answer | C | D | B | A | B | B | C | B | C | B |
| Question | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| Answer | B | C | C | A | A | A | A | C | B | C |
| Question | 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| Answer | A | A | B | B | C | A | B | A | A | B |
| Question | 51 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 55 | 56 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 |
| Answer | C | A | D | A | C | B | A | A | A | C |
| Question | 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 |
| Answer | A | C | D | C | D | B | C | B | D | B |
| Question | 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 |
| Answer | D | D | A | A | A | A | A | A | A | C |
| Question | 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 |
| Answer | D | B | C | D | C | B | A | A | B | C |
| Question | 91 | 92 | 93 | 94 | 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 | 99 | 100 |
| Answer | B | D | B | A | D | C | B | B | A | B |
| Question | 101 | 102 | 103 | 104 | 105 | 106 | 107 | 108 | 109 | 110 |
| Answer | A | C | C | B | D | A | A | B | D | A |
| Question | 111 | 112 | 113 | 114 | 115 | 116 | 117 | 118 | 119 | 120 |
| Answer | D | A | B | C | D | C | D | D | B | A |
| Question | 121 | 122 | 123 | 124 | 125 | 126 | 127 | 128 | 129 | 130 |
| Answer | B | B | A | C | B | B | B | A | A | A |
| Question | 131 | 132 | 133 | 134 | 135 | 136 | 137 | 138 | 139 | 140 |
| Answer | A | D | B | C | A | D | B | D | B | D |
| Question | 141 | 142 | 143 | 144 | 145 | 146 | 147 | 148 | 149 | 150 |
| Answer | B | B | B | D | C | D | C | C | C | D |
| Question | 151 | 152 | 153 | 154 | 155 | 156 | 157 | 158 | 159 | 160 |
| Answer | B | C | A | B | C | D | B | C | D | C |
| Question | 161 | 162 | 163 | 164 | 165 | 166 | 167 | 168 | 169 | 170 |
| Answer | C | B | A | B | B | A | C | B | A | B |
| Question | 171 | 172 | 173 | 174 | 175 | 176 | 177 | 178 | 179 | 180 |
| Answer | A | B | B | B | B | C | A | A | C | C |
| Question | 181 | 182 | 183 | 184 | 185 | 186 | 187 | 188 | 189 | 190 |
| Answer | C | B | C | B | B | A | B | B | C | C |
| Question | 191 | 192 | 193 | 194 | 195 | 196 | 197 | 198 | 199 | 200 |
| Answer | D | A | A | B | A | B | B | B | B | A |
