Vidhyarthi Darpan, Author at Vidhyarthi Darpan

SSC GD 2011 Previous Year Paper

SSC GD 2011

Quant

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 1 A 270 meters long train running at the speed of 120 kmph crosses another train running in opposite direction at the speed of 80 kmph in 9 seconds. What is the length of the other train ?

(A) 240 meters

(B) 320 meters

(C) 260 meters

(D) 230 meters

Answer: (D)

Q. 2 Raviraj invested an amount of Rs.10,000 at compound interest rate of 10 p.e.p.a. For a period of three years. How much amount will Raviraj et after three years ?

(A) Rs.13,210

(B) Rs.13,310

(C) Rs.12,100

(D) Rs.11,000

Answer: (B)

Q. 3 Twice the square of a number is the cube of 18. The number is

(A) 54

(B) 108

(C) 162

(D) 324

Answer: (A)

Q. 4 The average salary of a group of 27 is Rs. 3,700. If the salary of one more person is added, the average is increased to Rs.3750. What is the salary of the new person ?

(A) Rs.5010

(B) Rs.5200

(C) Rs.5100

(D) Rs.5000

Answer: (C)

Q. 5 What should come in place of both the question marks (?) in the following equation.

16/? = ?/42.25

(A) 2.6

(B) 260

(C) .26

(D) 26

Answer: (D)

Q. 6 An amount of money is to be distributed among P, Q and R in the ratio of 5:9:17 respectively. If the total of the shares of P and Q is Rs.7,000. What is R’s share in it

(A) Rs.4,500

(B) Rs.2,500

(C) Rs.8,500

(D) Rs.6,000

Answer: (C)

Q. 7 One-fourth of three-fifth of a number is 42. What is 40% of that number ?

(A) 140

(B) 116

(C) 128

(D) 112

Answer: (D)

Q. 8 By how much is 10% of 24.2 more than 10% of 24.02 ?

(A) 1.8

(B) 0.018

(C) 0.18

(D) 18

Answer: (B)

Q. 9 Ramesh bought a calculator with 20% discount on the tag price. He obtained 10% profit by selling it for Rs.440. What was the tag price ?

(A) Rs.500

(B) Rs.400

(C) Rs.480

(D) Rs.360

Answer: (A)

Q. 10 The sum of two numbers is 22 and their difference is 14. Find the product of numbers.

(A) 72

(B) 82

(C) 62

(D) 27

Answer: (A)

Q. 11 If m = 9 and n = ⅓m, then √(m)² – (n)² = ?

(A) 2√2

(B) 6√2

(C) 4√2

(D) 5√2

Answer: (B)

Q. 12 The ratio between the ages of x and y at present is 3:4. Five years hence, the ratio of their ages will be 4:5; what is the present age of y in years ?

(A) 15

(B) 20

(C) 25

(D) 30

Answer: (B)

Q. 13 What would come in place of ($) mark in the following equation ?

* 2 $ 20 ÷ 156 = 145

(A) 6

(B) 2

(C) 4

(D) 0

Answer: (A)

Q. 14 2⅕x² = 2750, find the value of x ?

(A) 25

(B) 25√3

(C) 25√2

(D) 20

Answer: (C)

Q. 15 75×75−26×26/101 = ?

(A) 59

(B) 39

(C) 29

(D) 49

Answer: (D)

Q. 16 ∠ABC is an isosceles triangle and AB = AC = 2a unit BC = a unit, Draw AD ⊥ BC, and find the length of AD

(A) √15 a unit

(B) √15/2 a unit

(C) √17 a unit

(D) √17/2 a unit

Answer: (B)

Q. 17 All sides of a quadrilateral ABCD touch a circle. If AB = 6 cm. BC = 7.5 cm. CD = 3 cm, then DA is

(A) 3.5 cm

(B) 4.5 cm

(C) 2.5 cm

(D) 1.5 cm

Answer: (D)

Q. 18 In a right angled triangle, the product of two sides is equal to half of the square of the third side i.e., hypotenuse. One of the acute angles must be

(A) 60^∘

(B) 30^∘

(C) 45^∘

(D) 15^∘

Answer: (C)

Q. 19 If two concentric circles are of radii 5 cm and 3 cm, then the length of the chord of the larger circle which touches the smaller circle is

(A) 6 cm

(B) 7 cm

(C) 10 cm

(D) 8 cm

Answer: (D)

Q. 20 Inside a square ABCD, △BEC is an equilateral triangle. If CE and BD interesect at O, then ∠BOC is equal to

(A) 60^∘

(B) 75^∘

(C) 90^∘

(D) 120^∘

Answer: (B)

Q. 21 A point D is taken from the side BC of a right angled triangle ABC, where AB is hypotenuse. Then,

(A) AB²+ CD²= BC²+ AD²

(B) CD²+ BD²= 2AD²

(C) AB²+ AC²= 2AD²

(D) AB²+ AD²= BD²

Answer: (A)

Q. 22 Let C be a point on a straight line AB. Circles are drawn with diameters AC and AB. Let P be any point on the circumference of the circle with diameter AB. If AP meets the other circle at Q, then

(A) QC// PB

(B) QC is never parallel to PB

(C) QC = ½ PB

(D) QC // PB and QC = ½ PB

Answer: (A)

Q. 23 An isosceles triangle ABC is right angled at B.D is a point inside the triangle ABC. P and Q are the feet of the perpendiculars drawn from D on the sides AB and Ac respectively of △ABC. If AP = a cm, AQ = b cm and ∠BAD = 15^∘ , sin = 75^∘

(A) 2b / √3a

(B) a/2b

(C) √3a /2b

(D) 2a / √3b

Answer: (C)

Q. 24 Each interior angle of a regular octagon in radians is

(A) π/4

(B) 3π/4

(C) 2π/3

(D) 1/3π

Answer: (B)

Q. 25 Find the value of 30+30+…….

(A) 5

(B) 3

(C) 6

(D) 7

Answer: (C)

Reasoning

Instructions

Select the related word/number from the given alternatives.

Q. 26 Brain : Nerves : : Computer ?

(A) Calculator

(B) Keyboard

(C) Mouse

(D) CPU

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Nerves helps the brain to function in the same way CPU helps the computer to function. Hence, option (D) is the correct answer.

Q. 27 Silkworm : Silk Saree : : Cobra

(A) Antidote

(B) Poison

(C) Death

(D) Fear

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Silkworm produces silk whereas cobra produces poison.

Hence, option (B) is the correct answer.

Instructions

Find the odd word from the given alternatives.

Q. 28

(A) Cover

(B) Enclose

(C) Bag

(D) Annex

Answer: (C)

Q. 29

a: Illusion

b: Delusion

c: Identification

d: Hallucination

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

All the given words are synonyms except ‘Identification’

Hence, option (C) is the correct answer.

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 30 Arrange the following words according to dictionary:

1: Inadequate

2: Institution

3: Inhospitable

4: Improvement

(A) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1

(B) 4, 1, 3, 5, 2

(C) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2

(D) 4, 1, 5, 2, 3

Answer: (C)

Q. 31 Identify the correct answer containing letters which will most appropriately fill in the blanks.

a b a – a b – b – b a –

(A) a, a, a, b

(B) b, a, b, a

(C) b, a, a, b

(D) a, b, b, b

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

The pattern followed here is,

a b a b a b a b a b a b (repeating ‘ab’ for 6 times). Option (C) exactly fits in the blanks. Hence, option (C) is the correct answer.

Instructions

Select the missing letter/number from the given responses.

Q. 32

?, 187, 2057, 22627

(A) 25

(B) 27

(C) 15

(D) 17

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Every number is multiplied by 11.

17 x 11 = 187,

187 x 11 = 2057,

2057 x 11 = 22627.

Hence, option (D) is the correct answer.

Q. 33

C, F, I, L, ?, R, U, X

(A) (A)

(B) T

(C) M

(D) O

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

The pattern followed here is,

C + 2 = F,

F + 2 = I,

I + 2 = L,

L + 2 = O………

Hence, option (D) is the correct answer.

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 34 Nikhil was facing East. He walked 6 km forward and then after turning to his right walked 2 km. Again he turned to his right and walked 6 k. After this, he turned back. Which direction he was facing at that time ?

(A) East

(B) West

(C) North

(D) North-South

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Nikhil faces East finally after turning back.

Hence, option (A) is the correct answer.

Q. 35 Six boys are standing in such a manner that they form a circle facing the centre. Anand is to the left of Ravi. Shankar is in between Ajay and Vivek. Ishwar is between Anand and Ajay. Who is to the left of Vivek ?

(A) Ravi

(B) Ishwar

(C) Ajay

(D) Shankar

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Anand is to the left of Ravi. Ishwar is between Anand and Ajay. From this conditions arrangement will be,

Shankar is in between Ajay and Vivek. Final arrangement will be,

From the above arrangement,

Ravi is to the left of vivek.

Hence, option (A) is the correct answer.

Q. 36 From the given alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

CONSIDERATION

(A) CONSIDER

(B) CONCERN

(C) NATION

(D) RATION

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Except the word “CONCERN” other words can be formed using “CONSIDERATION” There is only one ‘C’ in CONSIDERATION.

Hence, option (B) is the correct answer.

Q. 37 If EARN is written as GCTP, how NEAR can be written in that code ?

(A) CTGP

(B) GPTC

(C) PGCT

(D) PCGT

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

The pattern followed here is,

E + 2 = G ; A + 2 = C ; R + 2 = T ; N + 2 = P i.e (n + 2)

NEAR is coded as,

N + 2 = P ; E + 2 = G ; A + 2 = C ; R + 2 = T

NEAR – PGCT

Hence, option (C) is the correct answer.

Q. 38 If AMPLIFY is written as YFILPMA In a certain code, how would NATIONAL be written in that code ?

(A) LANONATI

(B) LANOITAN

(C) LANTANIO

(D) LANTION

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

The positions of alphabets in the given word are reversed.

Hence, the code for NATIONAL will be LANOITAN

Hence, option (B) is the correct answer.

Q. 39 The population of a developing country is increasing year by year. Find out the current year population, from the following information:

Year 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009

Pop. in lakhs 30 60 120 210 230 ?

(A) 390

(B) 450

(C) 480

(D) 510

Answer: (C)

Q. 40 Gokul travelled 16 kms west ward, then he turned left and travelled 10 kms. Then he turned left and travelled 16 kms. How far was Gokul from the starting point ?

(A) 16 kms

(B) 26 kms

(C) 10 kms

(D) 6 kms

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

From the given information,

Gokul was 10 kms far from his starting point.

Hence, option (C) is the correct answer.

Q. 41 In a code language, the following code is used for the alphabets in a particular way:

A B C D E H I J O P R S T

Latex

(A) LATCH

(B) PATIO

(C) PATCH

(D) LATER

Answer: (C)

Q. 42 Refer to the information provided below

‘M + N’ mens ‘M’ is father of ‘N’

‘M – N’ means ‘M’ is daughter of ‘N’

‘M X N’ means ‘M is son of N’

‘M ÷ N’ means ‘M is wife of ‘N’

How is D related to G in the expression D – F + G ?

(A) Mother

(B) Sister

(C) Cannot be determined

(D) Daughter

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

(D) is the sister of G

Hence, option (B) is the correct answer.

Q. 43 A nuclear fuel disintegrates as shown with time

9.10 am – 32 g

9.35 am – 16 g

10.00 am – 8 g

10.25 am – 4 g

And left at 11.40 am_____

(A) 2 g

(B) 1 g

(C) 500 mg

(D) 0.5 mg

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

The nuclear fuel disintegrates half of its value every 25 min.

So, at 10:50 it becomes ‘2g’, at 11:15 it becomes ‘1g’ and at 11:40 it becomes 0.5g Hence, option (D) is the correct answer.

Q. 44 Which of the answer figure is the mirror image of the given figure if the mirror is held at AB ?

Answer: (D)

Q. 45 In the given figures, triangle represents girls studying in a girls school, square represents boys studying in boys school and circle represents students studying in matriculation school. The portion which represent girls and boys studying in matriculation school is

(A) B

(B) A

(C) C

(D) D

Answer: (D)

Q. 46 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure ?

Answer: (A)

Q. 47 A sheet of paper is folded in a particular manner, punched once and then unfolded. Punched, unfolded paper appears as, in the given figure. Find out the manner in which the paper was folded and punched by choosing the correct answer figure.

Answer: (C)

Q.48 A word is represented by only one set opf any one of the alternatives. The Sets of numbers, given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g. ‘F’ can be represented by 01, 13, etc., and \P\ can be represented by 66, 78, etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word ‘MEN’.

(A) 56, 32, 69

(B) 55, 31, 95

(C) 75, 00, 95

(D) 76, 00, 88

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

As per the given question,

‘M’ can be represented by 56, 68, 75, 87, 99.

Similarly,

E – 00, 12, 24, 30, 31, 43.

N – 57, 69, 76, 88, 95.

“75, 00, 95” is one of the combinations of the word MEN

Hence, option (C) is the correct answer.

Q. 49 Select the missing number ?

2 2 8

3 3 18

4 4 ?

(A) 30

(B) 16

(C) 8

(D) 32

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

The pattern followed here is,

Square of 1st digit is added to the square of 2nd digit.

2²+ 2²= 8

3²+ 3²= 18

4²+ 4²= 32

Hence, option (D) is the correct answer.

Q. 50 Select the missing number ?

6 7 21

8 6 24

12 9 ?

(A) 54

(B) 60

(C) 18

(D) 27

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

The pattern followed here is,

(6 x 7) / 2 = 21,

(8 x 6) / 2 = 24,

(12 x 9) / 2 = 54.

Hence, option (A) is the correct answer.

General Awareness

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 51 As a result of 1857 Revolt, which ruler of native states of India was made prisoner ?

(A) Begum of Avadh

(B) Rani of Jhansi

(C) Bahadur Shah

(D) Raja of Vizianagaram

Answer: (A)

Q. 52 What was the main aim of home Rule Movement ?

(A) To remove British rule

(B) To turn out Britishera

(C) To keep unity among Hindu-Muslims and fight for freedom

(D) To attain self-government within the British Empire

Answer: (D)

Q. 53 When was the Non-violent Non-cooperation Movement started and by whom ?

(A) In 1919 by Motilal Nehru

(B) In 1919 by Mahatma Gandhi

(C) In 1920 by Mahatma Gandhi

(D) In 1920 by Lala Lajpat Rai

Answer: (C)

Q. 54 Who was the Viceroy of India at the time of formation of the Indian National congress ?

(A) Lord Canning

(B) Lord Dufferin

(C) Lord Mayo

(D) Lord Elgin

Answer: (B)

Q. 55 A person of which of the following blood groups can receive blood of any group ?

(A) A

(B) AB

(C) B

(D) O

Answer: (B)

Q. 56 The percentage of carbon in case iron is:

(A) 3 to 5

(B) 0.1 to 0.25

(C) 0.5 to 15

(D) 6 to 8

Answer: (A)

Q. 57 Which gas is used as tear gas ?

(A) Latex1

(B) Latex2

(C) Calcium sulphide (CaS)

(D) Carbon sulphydry1 (CS)

Answer: (D)

Q. 58 The Indian Constitution is regarded as

(A) Federal

(B) Unitary

(C) Parliamentary

(D) Federal in form and unitary in spirit

Answer: (D)

Q. 59 Right to Property a

(A) Fundamental Right

(B) Directive Principle

(C) Legal Right

(D) Social Right

Answer: (C)

Q. 60 The President of India can declare Emergency if there is

(A) War of threat of war

(B) Failure of Constitutional machinery

(C) Financial instability

(D) Any of these three

Answer: (D)

Q. 61 In which year was the colour television introduced in India

(A) 1979

(B) 1980

(C) 1981

(D) 1982

Answer: (D)

Q. 62 Nepanagar in Madhya Pradesh is famous for

(A) Textile

(B) Newsprint paper

(C) Hosiery

(D) Vegetable oil

Answer: (B)

Q. 63 Which of the following is a direct tax ?

(A) Excise

(B) Sales Tax

(C) Income tax

(D) None

Answer: (C)

Q. 64 Paper currency first started in India in

(A) 1862

(B) 1542

(C) 1601

(D) 1680

Answer: (A)

Q. 65 How many banks were nationalized in 1969 ?

(A) 16

(B) 14

(C) 15

(D) 20

Answer: (B)

Q. 66 FICN stands for

(A) Fair Indian Currency Note

(B) Fake Indian Currency Note

(C) Fresh Indian Currency Note

(D) Forged Indian Currency Note

Answer: (B)

Q. 67 India’s first talkie film produced in 1931 was

(A) Shakuntala

(B) Alam Ara

(C) Indra Sabha

(D) Neel Kamal

Answer: (B)

Q. 68 Short-sightedness can be corrected by

(A) convex lens

(B) concave lens

(C) novex-concave lens

(D) concave-convex lens

Answer: (B)

Q. 69 The velocity of light was first measured by

(A) Einstein

(B) Newton

(C) Roemer

(D) Galileo

Answer: (C)

Q. 70 Which UN Agency has its H.Q. in Paris ?

(A) UNICEF

(B) ILO

(C) UNESCO

(D) FAO

Answer: (C)

Q. 71 The Indus and Brahmaputra rivers are examples of

(A) Subsequent drainage

(B) Super-imposed drainage

(C) Consequent drainage

(D) Antecedent drainage

Answer: (B)

Q. 72 ‘Terra rossa’ is a latin word which means

(A) hot area

(B) red terrain

(C) lateritic region

(D) region near to the poles

Answer: (B)

Q. 73 Which country has launched new virtual currency “petro” ?

(A) South Africa

(B) Venezuela

(C) Indonesia

(D) Japan

Answer: (B)

Q. 74 “Yakuts” are the nomadic herders of

(A) Gobi

(B) Sahara

(C) Tundra

(D) Kalahari

Answer: (C)

Q. 75 Beightan cup is associates with

(A) Hoceky

(B) Football

(C) Cricket

(D) Tennis

Answer: (A)

English

Instructions

Some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error, the appropriate letter (1, 2, 3). If a sentence is free from error, (4) is the Answer Sheet.

Q. 76

(A) A senior doctor

(B) expressed concern

(C) about physicians recommended the vaccine

(D) No error

Answer: (C)

Q. 77

(A) We have discussing

(B) all the known mechanisms

(C) of physical growth

(D) No error

Answer: (A)

Instructions

Sentence are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it in the Answer Sheet.

Q. 78 If you had followed the rules, you………………disqualified.

(A) will not be

(B) would not be

(C) will not have been

(D) would not have been

Answer: (D)

Q. 79 The housewife ………… the cakes burning, and ran to switch off the oven.

(A) smell

(B) smells

(C) smelt

(D) smelling

Answer: (C)

Q. 80 …………. An old legend, King Rama lived in India.

(A) In the event of

(B) Due to

(C) According to

(D) In reference to

Answer: (C)

Instructions

Out of the alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

Q. 81 GENIAL

(A) Cordial

(B) Unselfish

(C) Careful

(D) Specific

Answer: (A)

Q. 82 ACCRUE

(A) Accumulate

(B) Accommodate

(C) Grow

(D) Suffice

Answer: (A)

Q. 83 LOQUACIOUS

(A) Talkative

(B) Slow

(C) Content

(D) Unclear

Answer: (A)

Instructions

In questions choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

Q. 84 SYNTHETIC

(A) Natural

(B) Plastic

(C) Cosmetic

(D) Apathetic

Answer: (A)

Q. 85 ACCORD

(A) Disagreement

(B) Welcome

(C) Disrespect

(D) Conformity

Answer: (A)

Q. 86 INFIRMITY

(A) Employment

(B) Indisposition

(C) Strength

(D) Weakness

Answer: (C)

Instructions

In question, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase. Choose the alternatives which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the Answer Sheet

Q. 87 To be all at sea

(A) a family voyage

(B) lost and confused

(C) in the middle of the ocean

(D) a string of islands

Answer: (B)

Q. 88 To take to one’s heels

(A) to walk slowly

(B) to run away

(C) to march forward

(D) to hop and jump

Answer: (B)

Q. 89 To bite the dust

(A) eat voraciously

(B) have nothing to eat

(C) eat roots

(D) None of the above

Answer: (D)

Instructions

A part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives to the underlined part at 1, 2, and 3 which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is 4.

Q. 90 My friend lives in a nearby street whose name I have forgotten.

(A) the name of which

(B) which name

(C) of which name

(D) No improvement

Answer: (D)

Q. 91 He both won a medal and a scholarship

(A) He won a medal and a scholarship both

(B) Both he won a medal and a scholarship

(C) He won both a medal and a scholarship

(D) No improvement

Answer: (C)

Q. 92 He has for good left India.

(A) He has left for good India

(B) He has left India for good

(C) Good he has left India

(D) No improvement

Answer: (B)

Instructions

Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

Q. 93 Pertaining to cattle

(A) Canine

(B) Feline

(C) Bovine

(D) Verminous

Answer: (C)

Q. 94 To look at someone in an angry or threatening way

(A) Glower

(B) Gnaw

(C) Gnash

(D) Grind

Answer: (A)

Q. 95 A post with little work but high salary

(A) Director

(B) Trustee

(C) Sinecure

(D) Ombudsman

Answer: (C)

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 96 An interview is important

(A) only for the recruiting agency

(B) only for the candidate

(C) only for the public outside

(D) both for the candidate and the recruiting agency

Answer: (D)

Q. 97 Surveys on interviews emerged with

(A) flattering results

(B) misgivings on them as a mode of selection

(C) reasonable results

(D) glowing tributes

Answer: (B)

Instructions

In following Questions, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive voice out of the four alternatives suggested, select the one that best expresses the some sentence in passive/active voice and select your answer accordingly.

Q. 98 She looks after the child

(A) The child are looked after by her

(B) The child were looked after by her

(C) The child is looked after by her

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

Q. 99 Who stole your pen ?

(A) Who was stole your pen ?

(B) By whom is your pen stolen ?

(C) By whom was your pen stolen ?

(D) By whom did your pen steal ?

Answer: (C)

Q. 100 In the given Question, find the correctly spelt word.

(A) Supersede

(B) Superseed

(C) supercede

(D) supperssed

Answer: (A)

SSC GD 22 Feb 2019 Shift-III Previous Year Paper

SSC GD 22nd Feb 2019 Shift-III

Reasoning

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 1 Identify the odd pair from the following.

(A) Tuberculosis : Heart

(B) Jaundice : Liver

(C) Rickets : Bones

(D) Night Blindness : Eyes

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

The disease in the first affect the body part in second, but tuberculosis affects the lungs, hence it is the odd one.

=> Ans – (A)

Q. 2 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully and decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements:

Some animals are birds.

Cow is an animal.

Conclusions:

I. Some birds are animals.

II. Cow is not a bird.

(A) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

(B) Both conclusions I and II follow.

(C) Only conclusion I follows.

(D) Only conclusion II follows.

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

The venn diagram for above statements is :

Conclusions:

I. Some birds are animals : follows

II. Cow is not a bird : may or may not be true.

Thus, only conclusion I follows.

=> Ans – (C)

Q. 3 Identify the option that belongs to the following group.

Lamb, Calf, Tadpole

(A) Amphibians

(B) Puppy

(C) Wild animals

(D) Reptiles

Answer: (B)

Q. 4 Four persons (two men and two women) were sitting in a restaurant. They were each seated at the north, east, south and west of a table. No woman was facing the east. Persons sitting opposite to each other were not of the same gender. One man was facing the south. Which directions were the women facing?

(A) North and west

(B) South and west

(C) East and west

(D) North and south

Answer: (A)

Q. 5 If MARKET is coded as NCUOJZ, then RESPECT will be coded as ………..

(A) SGVTIJA

(B) SGVTIJZ

(C) SGVTJIZ

(D) SGVTJIA

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

MARKET is coded as NCUOJZ

Similarly, RESPECT : SGVTJIA

=> Ans – (D)

Q. 6 A square transparent paper after folding looks like as shown in the figure by solid lines. How will it look when unfolded? (Rotation is not allowed)

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

When the figure will be unfolded, out of the two lines formed, clearly there will be a horizontal line in the middle, hence first and third options are eliminated.

Of the remaining two, the second small vertical line will be formed below the horizontal line, thus last option best describes above figure.

=> Ans – (D)

Q. 7 Identify the odd one from the following.

(A) Brother

(B) Sister

(C) Uncle

(D) Friend

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

All of brother, sister and uncle are blood relatives, hence friend is the odd one out.

=> Ans – (D)

Q. 8 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

1 : 121 :: 5 : …….

(A) 225

(B) 25

(C) 255

(D) 125

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Expression = 1 : 121 :: 5 : ?

x : (x + 10)²

The pattern followed is =

Eg :- (1 + 10)²= (11)²= 121

Similarly,

(5 + 10)²= (15)²= 225

=> Ans – (A)

Q. 9 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded.

Answer: (C)

Q. 10 Select the number that DOES NOT belong to the following group.

1, 1, 1.5, 3, 7.5, 22.5, 78.75, 310

(A) 22.5

(B) 310

(C) 78.75

(D) 1.5

Answer: (B)

Q. 11 In the given Venn diagram, the rectangle represents students, the triangle represents teachers and the circle represents players. Study the diagram carefully and answer the question that follows. How many students are players but not teachers?

(A) 4

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 7

Answer: (A)

Q. 12 There is only one dictionary in a library which will be used by 6 students P, Q, R, S, T and U,one by one. S will use it immediately after Q and before P. T will use it immediately after R and before U. Q will use the dictionary after U. Who will use the dictionary in the end?

(A) S

(B) U

(C) Q

(D) P

Answer: (D)

Q. 13 Identify the number pair that is different from the rest.

(A) 45 – 5

(B) 18 – 2

(C) 72 – 9

(D) 90 – 10

Answer: (C)

Q. 14 Select the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word.

TWIN

(A) IIIWT

(B) NIMT

(C) NIWT

(D) TWIN

Answer: (A)

Q. 15 If D = 3, G = 6, and OWL = 47, then FLOWER = ………..

(A) 89

(B) 71

(C) 73

(D) 82

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Given : (D) = 3, G = 6

Thus, the alphabets are represented by consecutive whole numbers : A=0, B=1, C=2, D=3, and so on. OWL = 14+22+11=47

=> FLOWER = 5+11+14+22+4+17=73

=> Ans – (C)

Q. 16 Identify the number that will come in the following series.

2500, 2400, 2200, 1900, 1500, ……..

(A) 1000

(B) 900

(C) 1110

(D) 1100

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

The pattern followed is :

2500 – 100 = 2400

2400 – 200 = 2200

2200 – 300 = 1900

1900 – 400 = 1500

1500 – 500 = 1000

=> Ans – (A)

Q. 17 Select the correct option to complete the following pattern.

Answer: (C)

Q. 18 Select the term that will come next in the following series.

Z2A, X4D, V6G, T8J, R10M, …………

(A) Q12Q

(B) Q12P

(C) P12Q

(D) P12P

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Series : Z2A, X4D, V6G, T8J, R10M,

The numbers in the middle are consecutive even numbers.

1st letter : Z (-2 letters) = X (-2 letters) = V (-2 letters) = T (-2 letters) = R (-2 letters) = P 3rd letter : (A) (+3 letters) = (D) (+3 letters) = G (+3 letters) = J (+3 letters) = M (+3 letters) = P Thus, missing term = P12P

=> Ans – (D)

Q. 19 Select the option that is analogous to the given pair.

Nation : President

(A) State : Minister

(B) State : Chief Minister

(C) State : Governor

(D) State : Chief Secretary

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

President and Governor are the nominal heads of the nation and the state respectively. Thus, State : Governor

=> Ans – (C)

Q. 20 Which two signs need to be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

5 × 5 + 5 − 5 ÷ 5 = 5

(A) × and −

(B) + and ×

(C) + and −

(D) ÷ and −

Answer: (A)

Q. 21 Six friends P, Q, R, S, T and U are watching a cricket match sitting in a stadium.P is sitting at one extreme end. T is sitting between P and U.R is sitting to the immediate left of U and immediate right of Q. Who is sitting at the extreme right end?

(A) S

(B) Q

(C) P

(D) R

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

P is sitting at one extreme end, the two possible cases are (assuming all are facing north).

i) : P __ __ __ __ __

ii) : __ __ __ __ __ P

T is sitting between P and U.R is sitting to the immediate left of U and immediate right of Q,

i) : P T U __ __ __

ii) : __ __ __ U T P

Thus, first case is not possible, arrangement : S Q R U T P

∴ P is sitting at extreme right end.

=> Ans – (C)

Q. 22 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully and decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements:

The national norm is 150 beds per thousand population,but in this state, 200 beds per thousand are available in the hospitals.

Conclusions:

I. The state’s norm is appropriate.

II. The state’s health system is taking adequate care in this regard.

(A) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

(B) Only conclusion I follows.

(C) Only conclusion II follows.

(D) Both conclusions I and II follow.

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

The given statements indicate that for every thousand population in a state, there must be 150 beds in the hospitals, and if there are more beds, we cannot conclude that it is appropriate, also, there are 200 beds in this state, thus we can definitely conclude that the state’s health system is taking adequate care in this regard.

Thus, only conclusion II follows.

=> Ans – (C)

Q. 23 In the following number series, two numbers have been put with in brackets. Study the series carefully and select the correct alternative with respect to the series.

0, 1, 4, 9, (15), 25, 36, 49, (64), 81

(A) Both the bracketed numbers are incorrect.

(B) Both the bracketed numbers are correct.

(C) The first bracketed number(from the left) is incorrect and the second is correct.

(D) The first bracketed number(from the left) is correct and the second is incorrect.

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Clearly, the above series is a combination of square of consecutive whole numbers, but the first bracket number, i.e. 15 is incorrect as it

is not a perfect square, while the second bracket number 64 is correct, as

(8)²= 64

Thus, the first bracketed number(from the left) is incorrect and the second is correct.

=> Ans – (C)

Q. 24 Identify the odd one from the following.

(A) HL

(B) KN

(C) CG

(D) UY

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

(A) : H (+4 letters) = L

(B) : K (+3 letters) = N

(D) : U (+4 letters) = Y

=> Ans – (B)

Q. 25 Select the combination that will come next in the following series.

Answer: (B)

General knowledge

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 26 What was the brand name of the first electric powered washing machine?

(A) Thor

(B) Images

(C) Icon

(D) Goliath

Answer: (A)

Q. 27 When was the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act passed?

(A) 2015

(B) 2017

(C) 2016

(D) 2014

Answer: (C)

Q. 28 What does Individual Vulnerability refer to in Economics?

(A) The threat to Intellectual property

(B) The threat of Exploitation

(C) The threat to health

(D) The threat of poverty

Answer: (D)

Q. 29 In the WTO’s Agreement on Agriculture (AoA), what do the terms Green Box, Blue Box and AMS(Amber Box) stand for?

(A) Interest

(B) Subsidies

(C) Bonus

(D) Taxes

Answer: (B)

Q. 30 Which of the following animals hibernates?

(A) Tiger

(B) Bat

(C) Jackal

(D) Deer

Answer: (B)

Q. 31 Rungrado May Stadium, the largest football stadium in the world, is located in which country?

(A) China

(B) Singapore

(C) North Korea

(D) Spain

Answer: (C)

Q. 32 What is the highest peak of Pir Panjal Range?

(A) Indrasan

(B) Kabru

(C) Nanda Devi

(D) Kamet

Answer: (A)

Q. 33 Who is the Padma Bhushan awardee who guided ISRO to blast its heaviest ever rocket GSLV Mark-III, paving the road to manned space missions?

(A) Fali Nariman

(B) Manohar Parrikar

(C) K. Radhakrishnan

(D) Nandan Nilekani

Answer: (C)

Q. 34 Which country is the largest producer of mangoes as of 2018?

(A) Brazil

(B) Sri Lanka

(C) India

(D) China

Answer: (C)

Q. 35 Who invaded India in 326 BC after crossing the river Indus, advancing towards Taxila?

(A) Eduardo Barbosa

(B) Nicolini

(C) Marco Polo

(D) Alexander

Answer: (D)

Q. 36 ‘Paika’ is a traditional dance form associated with which Indian state?

(A) Uttarakhand

(B) Jharkhand

(C) Sikkim

(D) Madhya Pradesh

Answer: (B)

Q. 37 Which of the following diseases is caused by bats?

(A) Dengue

(B) Zika

(C) Ebola

(D) Chikungunya

Answer: (C)

Q. 38 Which of the following options is an ancient literary source that sheds light on the ancient period of Indian history?

(A) Puranas

(B) Bhagwat Gita

(C) Upanishads

(D) Sama Veda

Answer: (A)

Q. 39 In which country is the highest mountain peak of Africa Kilimanzaro located?

(A) Kenya

(B) Zambia

(C) Ghana

(D) Tanzania

Answer: (D)

Q. 40 Chaukhandi Stupa is a Buddhist monument located in which Indian

state?

(A) Punjab

(B) Uttar Pradesh

(C) Sikkim

(D) West Bengal

Answer: (B)

Q. 41 ‘Jyotipunj’ is a book written by:

(A) Narendra Modi

(B) Dhirubhai Ambani

(C) VS. Naipaul

(D) Munshi Premchand

Answer: (A)

Q. 42 A deficiency of Vitamin A causes:

(A) Anaemia

(B) Goitre

(C) Night blindness

(D) Rickets

Answer: (C)

Q. 43 Which acids are present in most grapes?

(A) Hydrochloric and sulphuric acid

(B) Nitric and sulphuric

(C) Tartaric and malic acid

(D) Acetic acid and nitric acid

Answer: (C)

Q. 44 In which of the following Indian state was the game of polo born?

(A) Assam

(B) West Bengal

(C) Arunachal Pradesh

(D) Manipur

Answer: (D)

Q. 45 The Shanti Swaroop Bhatnagar Award is given in India for contribution to the field of:

(A) sports

(B) social work

(C) science and technology

(D) literature

Answer: (C)

Q. 46 In which city was the East India Association formed in the year 1866?

(A) Kolkata

(B) Singapore

(C) London

(D) Paris

Answer: (C)

Q. 47 In which amendment of the Constitution was the voting age reduced from 21 to 18 years?

(A) 56^th

(B) 70^th

(C) 65^th

(D) 61^st

Answer: (D)

Q. 48 Federalism is a system of government in which the powers is …….. between a central authority and various constituent units of the country.

(A) Divided

(B) Incited

(C) Derided

(D) Indicted

Answer: (A)

Q. 49 ‘Teeyan’is a festival celebrated in which state of India?

(A) Gujarat

(B) Jammu and Kashmir

(C) Rajasthan

(D) Punjab

Answer: (D)

Q. 50 What does Buffer stock mean?

(A) (A) barrier on stock creation when surplusis available

(B) (A) reserve of commodities used to offset deficit

(C) (A) focus on production of one specific variety when there is a deficit

(D) (A) preventive measure to stop excessive distribution

Answer: (B)

Quant

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 51 Two trains are coming from opposite side at 40 km/hrs and 50 km/hrs from the different places 360 km apart. After how many hours two trains will meet to each other?

(A) 4 hrs

(B) 6 hrs

(C) 5 hrs

(D) 3 hrs

Answer: (A)

Q. 52 The greatest number that will divide 146, 248 and 611 leaving remainders 2,8 and 11 respectively is:

(A) 47

(B) 144

(C) 24

(D) 612

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

The greatest number that will divide 146, 248 and 611 leaving remainders 2,8 and 11 respectively

= H.C.F. of (146-2), (248-8), (611-11)

= H.C.F. (144,240,600) = 24

=> Ans – (C)

Q. 53 Study the Table Properly and answer by interpreting the data.

The table given the percentage of result by four different classes in the five different year of examination:

In which class the average performance is least in all the five years?

(A) Class-XII

(B) Class-XI

(C) Class-IX

(D) Class-X

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Average performance is least in all the five years for class

(A) : Class-XII = 75 + 58 + 33 + 35 + 38 = 239 [MIN]

(B) : Class-XI = 85 + 62 + 32 + 38 + 32 = 249

(D) : Class-X = 80 + 65 + 35 + 48 + 45 = 273

=> Ans – (A)

Q. 54 The value of (6 × 15) ÷ (2 × 3) − 2²+ 3 is:

(A) 12

(B) 14

(C) 4

(D) 6

Answer: (B)

Q. 55 In a board examination, 75% of the total examinees passed. If the number of failures is 625, the total number of examinees is:

(A) 3800

(B) 2400

(C) 3600

(D) 2500

Answer: (D)

Q. 56 Study the Table Properly and answer by interpreting the data.

The table given the percentage of result by four different classes in the five different year of examination:

What is the average percentage of marks in Class-IX in the year 2012 to 2016?

(A) 65%

(B) 72%

(C) 66%

(D) 62%

Answer: (C)

Q. 57 A mixture contains milk and water in the ratio of 4 : 3. When 5 liters of water is added to this mixture, the ratio of milk and water becomes 6 : 7. The quantity of milk in the mixture is:

(A) 12 liters

(B) 5 liters

(C) 15 liters

(D) 10 liters

Answer: (A)

Q. 58 A dining set having a marked price of ₹4000 is sold at a discount of 8%, thereby earning a profit of 10%. The cost price of the dining set is:

(A) ₹3345.45

(B) ₹3786.78

(C) ₹3568.80

(D) ₹3496.50

Answer: (A)

Q. 59 An amount of ₹ 4600 has been distributed between x, y & z in the ratio of ½ : ⅔ : ¾. The share of y is:

(A) 1600

(B) 2000

(C) 1200

(D) 1800

Answer: (A)

Q. 60 The ratio between the speeds of two trains is 3 : 4. The second train runs 800 km in 5 hrs, and speed of first train is:

(A) 120 km/hrs

(B) 140 km/hrs

(C) 180 km/hrs

(D) 160 km/hrs

Answer: (A)

Q. 61 In a cricket team, the average age of 11 players is 22 years. When the age of team coach is included to it, the average age increases by 1. The age of coach of the team is:

(A) 33 years

(B) 34 years

(C) 43 years

(D) 53 years

Answer: (B)

Q. 62 Sheela buys 3 pens for ₹24 and sold at 2 for ₹18 and 1 for ₹9. The profit or loss percent is:

(A) Loss 12.5%

(B) Profit 12%

(C) Loss 12%

(D) Profit 12.5%

Answer: (D)

Q. 63 Sweta can paint a wall in 30 hours, while Ansul can paint it in 40 hours. If they paint it together and get payment of ₹ 14,000. What is Ansul’s share?

(A) ₹6000/-

(B) ₹12000/-

(C) ₹10000/-

(D) ₹8000/-

Answer: (A)

Q. 64 What will be the compound interest on ₹6000 at 3% per annum for 2 years compounded annually?

(A) ₹365.40

(B) ₹653.20

(C) ₹372.50

(D) ₹725.10

Answer: (A)

Q. 65 The scores done by a bats man in a cricket series are 12, 25, 38, 56, 64, 86. What will be the median?

(A) 45

(B) 56

(C) 47

(D) 38

Answer: (C)

Q. 66 A trader sold a machine for ₹18,800 and lost 6%. The cost price of the machine is:

(A) ₹22000

(B) ₹24000

(C) ₹20000

(D) ₹18000

Answer: (C)

Q. 67 The ratio of the area of two triangles is 2 : 3 and ratio of their height is 3 : 2. The ratio of their bases is:

(A) 3:2

(B) 4:9

(C) 9:4

(D) 2:3

Answer: (B)

Q. 68 Study the Table Properly and answer by interpreting the data.

The table given the percentage of result by four different classes in the five different year of examination:

In Which year the average performance is maximum in all the four classes?

(A) 2016

(B) 2015

(C) 2013

(D) 2012

Answer: (D)

Q. 69 The value of 62 − 5 of (18 − 14) + 5 × 7 is equal to:

(A) 18

(B) 28

(C) 15

(D) 77

Answer: (D)

Q. 70 If the radius of the circle is decreased by 10%. The percentage decreased in its areas is :

(A) 90%

(B) 110%

(C) 19%

(D) 91%

Answer: (C)

Q. 71 Simple interest on a certain sum is 16/25 of the total sum. If rate percent and time are same, what will be the rate of interest?

(A) 6.8%

(B) 5%

(C) 12%

(D) 8%

Answer: (D)

Q. 72 The average of five consecutive numbers is 15. The highest of these number is:

(A) 12

(B) 19

(C) 17

(D) 15

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Average of five consecutive numbers = 15

=> Middle number = 15

Thus, the consecutive numbers are = 13,14,15,16,17

Thus, highest number = 17

=> Ans – (C)

Q. 73 Sanjya and Saumya together can finish a work in 9 days. Sanjya can do the same job on his own in 15 days. The same work Saumya can do by himself in:

(A) 14 days

(B) 15½ days

(C) 22½ days

(D) 22 days

Answer: (C)

Q. 74 The base of the parallelogram is twice of its height and its area is 288cm². The base of the parallelogram is:

(A) 12 cm

(B) 24 cm

(C) 36 cm

(D) 28 cm

Answer: (B)

Q. 75 The mean proportional between 36 and 121 is equal to:

(A) 72

(B) 85

(C) 66

(D) 157

Answer: (C)

English

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 76 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Pragati Maidan is the famous international exhibition center at Delhi for trade fairs.

(A) for trade fairs

(B) Pragati Maidan is

(C) at Delhi

(D) the famous

Answer: (C)

Q. 77 Select the synonym of the given word.

PROBABLE

(A) Tangible

(B) Substitute

(C) Likely

(D) Similar

Answer: (C)

Q. 78 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Japan will be a country well known for its culture, technology and cuisines like sushi.

(A) will be a country

(B) well known for

(C) cuisines like

(D) its culture

Answer: (A)

Q. 79 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

He work in a shop which makes handicraft goods.

(A) works in a shop which make

(B) works in a shop which makes

(C) No improvement

(D) working in a shop which makes

Answer: (B)

Q. 80 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. The country also needs large doses of infrastructure additions — roads or highways, power plants, distribution networks, airports and ports.

(A) airports and ports

(B) also needs

(C) roads or highways

(D) The country

Answer: (C)

Q. 81 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

One that has life

(A) Mortal

(B) Animate

(C) Inanimate

(D) Conscious

Answer: (B)

Instructions

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.

Passage:

Bird-watching, as it is popularly called, is a peaceful …………(1) . Itis not entirely without occasional physical thrills and even …………(2) The elephant ridden jungles in South India, for instance. I found myself in uncomfortably disturbing …………(3) . Actually, there is little danger from a wild elephant unless it happens to be a female with a small ………….(4) along with her. What such situations demand is …………(5) and not valour.

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1.

(A) job

(B) service

(C) activity

(D) work

Answer: (C)

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2.

(A) conditions

(B) hazards

(C) pleasures

(D) circumstances

Answer: (B)

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3.

(A) zones

(B) atmospheres

(C) situations

(D) locations

Answer: (C)

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4.

(A) cub

(B) calf

(C) pup

(D) kitten

Answer: (B)

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5.

(A) loyalty

(B) honesty

(C) forgetfulness

(D) discretion

Answer: (D)

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 87 Select the correctly spelt word.

(A) Accessaries

(B) Accessories

(C) Acessories

(D) Accesories

Answer: (B)

Q. 88 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Pollution of rivers and seas destroys ………. life.

(A) Aerial

(B) Marine

(C) Desert

(D) Terrestrial

Answer: (B)

Q. 89 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Their wages were very low, so the workers went on a ………..

(A) strike

(B) leave

(C) strife

(D) conflict

Answer: (A)

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.

COARSE

(A) Fine

(B) Texture

(C) Rough

(D) Glossy

Answer: (A)

Q. 91 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom.

Run of the mill

(A) Ordinary

(B) Rare

(C) Exceptional

(D) Uncommon

Answer: (A)

Q. 92 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Ten million people watch this television ………. every week.

(A) incident

(B) event

(C) programme

(D) media

Answer: (C)

Q. 93 Select the synonym of the given word.

LETHARGY

(A) Delight

(B) Thrill

(C) Wisdom

(D) Fatigue

Answer: (D)

Q. 94 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

People have used indigenous plants for ……….. of ailments since ancient times.

(A) treatment

(B) exclusion

(C) adulteration

(D) pollution

Answer: (A)

Q. 95 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom.

Man of letters

(A) A student

(B) A scholar

(C) One who writes letters

(D) One who can read letters

Answer: (B)

Q. 96 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

Those that feed only on plants

(A) Omnivorous

(B) Predatory

(C) Amphibian

(D) Herbivorous

Answer: (D)

Q. 97 Select the correctly spelt word.

(A) Greivance

(B) Grievanse

(C) Grievence

(D) Grievance

Answer: (D)

Q. 98 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

it’s getting dark, can you switch the lights please?

(A) No improvement

(B) can you switch on the lights please?

(C) can you switch ofthe lights please?

(D) can you on the lights please?

Answer: (B)

Q. 99 Select the antonym of the given word.

WHOLESALE

(A) Discount

(B) Retail

(C) Concession

(D) Rebate

Answer: (B)

Q. 100 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

If he remains absent from the college, he will have to pay a fine.

(A) If he is remain absent from

(B) No improvement

(C) If he is remaining absent from

(D) If he will remains absent from

Answer: (B)

SSC GD 21 Feb 2019 Shift-III Previous Year Paper

SSC GD 21st Feb 2019 Shift-III

Reasoning

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 1 If A = 2 and D = 5, and SEA = 28, then COUNTRY = ………..

(A) 123

(B) 132

(C) 112

(D) 121

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

If A = 2 and D = 5, and SEA = 20+6+2=28

4 + 16 + 22 + 15 + 21 + 19 + 26 = 123

Then, COUNTRY =

=> Ans – (A)

Q. 2 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully and decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements:

1) All students in my class are active.

2) Rohini is not active.

Conclusions:

I. Rohini is not a student of my class.

II. Rohini must be active.

(A) Both conclusions I and II follow.

(B) Only conclusion I follows.

(C) Only conclusion II follows.

(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

The venn diagram for above statements is :

Conclusions:

I. Rohini is not a student of my class = true

II. Rohini must be active. = false

Thus, only conclusion I follows.

=> Ans – (B)

Q. 3 Choose the word from the given options that is similar to the given words and hence belongs to the same group.

Lira, Dinar, Rupee

(A) Lisbon

(B) Cairo

(C) Rial

(D) Oslo

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Lira, Dinar and Rupee are all currencies of different countries, while in the options, only Rial is a currency of Saudi Arabia, rest are cities.

=> Ans – (C)

Q. 4 Select the correct option to complete the following pattern.

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

If we complete the above figure, then the missing pattern is represented by the red colour.

=> Ans – (D)

Q. 5 In the following number series, two numbers have been put within brackets. Study the series carefully and select the correct alternative with respect to the series.

0, 7, 26, 63, (124), 215, 342, (512)

(A) The first bracketed number(from the left) is correct and the second is incorrect.

(B) The first bracketed number (from the left) is incorrect and the second is correct.

(C) Both the bracketed numbers are incorrect.

(D) Both the bracketed numbers are correct.

Answer: (A)

Q. 6 Select the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word when the mirror is placed vertically.

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

When the mirror is placed vertically, the object at right will appear at left position and vice-versa. Thus, the letter ‘U’ at left will appear at right and since it’s symmetrical, its shape will not be changed also, thus third is the correct option.

=> Ans – (C)

Q. 7 Select the figure that will come next in the following series.

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

In the three figures given, the arrow has pointed to the right, top and left respectively, hence going by the symmetry, the only position left to face is the bottom one as shown in image in the second option.

=> Ans – (B)

Q. 8 Select the number that DOES NOT belong to the following group.

0, 5, 12, 20, 32, 45

(A) 45

(B) 32

(C) 20

(D) 12

Answer: (C)

Q. 9 In a private school, there were five teachers. Abi and Geetha were teaching French and English. Harini and Geetha were teaching English and Science. Diva and Abi were teaching Maths and French. Hema and Geetha were teaching Social Science and French. Which subject is taught by maximum number of teachers?

(A) Science

(B) Maths

(C) French

(D) English

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Teachers who are teaching each subject are :

Science : Geetha, Harini

Maths : Divya, Abi

French : Abi, Geetha, Divya, Hema [max]

English : Abi, Geetha, Harini

=> Ans – (C)

Q. 10 L, M, N and O are to be seated in a row. However, N and O cannot be together. Moreover, M cannot be in the third place from the left. L and M are sitting beside each other. Considering the seating from left to right which of the following must be true?

(A) N is at the third place.

(B) L is at the third place.

(C) N is at the first place.

(D) O is at the third place.

Answer: (B)

Q. 11 Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes.

Animals, Reptiles, Snakes

Answer: (B)

Q. 12 Four numbers have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one.

(A) 250

(B) 95

(C) 159

(D) 150

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Apart from 159, all numbers are divisible by 5, hence it is the odd one.

=> Ans – (C)

Q. 13 Given is a statement, followed by four conclusions. Read the statement carefully and decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statement.

Statement:

This book can help because all good books help.

Conclusions:

I. This is not a good book.

II. This is a good book.

III. No good book helps.

IV. Some good books help.

(A) Only conclusion I follows.

(B) All the conclusions follow.

(C) Only conclusion II follows.

(D) Both conclusions III and IV follow.

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

The given statement indicates that the given book can help as all good books help, which can definitely conclude that this is a good book.

The last two conclusions are not true as they are contradictory to the given statement.

Thus, only conclusion II follows.

=> Ans – (C)

Q. 14 Five friends are sitting in a circle, all facing the centre. Mohan is to the left of Raju. Vinith is to the right of Arjun and between Arjun and Naveen. Who is between Raju and Naveen?

(A) Arjun and Vinith

(B) Vinith

(C) Arjun

(D) Mohan

Answer: (D)

Q. 15 Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one.

(A) Necklace

(B) Bracelet

(C) Jewellery

(D) Anklet

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Necklace, Bracelet and Anklet are all types of jewellery, hence jewellery is the odd one.

=> Ans – (C)

Q. 16 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. How will the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line?

Answer: (D)

Q. 17 Which two signs need to be interchanged to make the given equation correct?

3 ÷ 2 − 4 × 5 + 5 = 1

(A) + and ÷

(B) × and −

(C) ÷ and ×

(D) + and −

Answer: (A)

Q. 18 Select the option in which the given figure is embedded.

Answer: (C)

Q. 19 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Angle : Radian :: Mass : ……….

(A) Kilogram

(B) Litre

(C) Degree

(D) Height

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Second is the unit of first, angle is measured in radian, similarly unit of mass is kilogram.

=> Ans – (A)

Q. 20 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.

5, 22, 39, 56, ……?

(A) 89

(B) 76

(C) 73

(D) 87

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

17 is added in all the terms

5 + 17 = 22

22 + 17 = 39

39 + 17 = 56

56 + 17 = 73

=> Ans – (C)

Q. 21 Identify the odd one from the following.

(A) dFh

(B) gHj

(C) uWy

(D) rTv

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

(A) : d (+2 letters) = F (+2 letters) = h

(B) : g (+1 letter) = H (+2 letters) = j

(D) : r (+2 letters) = T (+2 letters) = v

=> Ans – (B)

Q. 22 If CENTRAL is coded as BFMUQBK, then FRIENDS will be coded as …………

(A) ESHEMER

(B) ESHFMER

(C) ESHENER

(D) ESHFNER

Answer: (B)

Q. 23 Four pairs of words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose out the odd one.

(A) Chef : Knife

(B) Saw : Carpenter

(C) Sculptor : Chisel

(D) Doctor : Stethoscope

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

In all the given pairs, except second, second item is used by the first person, while in second reverse is true, hence it is the odd one.

=> Ans – (B)

Q. 24 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

7 : 50 :: 13 : ?

(A) 160

(B) 144

(C) 170

(D) 169

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Expression = 7 : 50 :: 13 : ?

x : x²+ 1

The pattern followed is =

Eg :- 7²+ 1 = 50

Similarly,

(13)²+ 1 = 169 + 1 = 170

=> Ans – (C)

Q. 25 Select the term that will come next in the following series.

YCL, MQZ, ZDM, NRA, ……, OSB

(A) AEN

(B) BFQ

(C) ADM

(D) BEM

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Expression : YCL, MQZ, ZDM, NRA, ……, OSB

The pattern followed in alternate terms is that each letter of the terms is replaced by next succeeding alphabet.

Odd terms : YCL (+1) = ZDM (+1) = AEN

Even terms : MQZ (+1) = NR(A) (+1) = OSB

Thus, missing term : AEN

=> Ans – (A)

General knowledge

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 26 Which of the following statements about ‘Biological Magnification’ is FALSE?

(A) Its maximum concentration is at the top level of the food chain.

(B) Its maximum concentration is at the bottom level of the food chain.

(C) It differs depending on the level of ecosystem.

(D) The chemicals enter the food chain through absorption from water or soil.

Answer: (B)

Q. 27 The first Mughal emperor, Babur came to India from:

(A) Syria

(B) Greece

(C)Ferghana

(D) Persia

Answer: (C)

Q. 28 Banks were nationalised in India through an ordinance passed in the year:

(A) 1976

(B) 1963

(C) 1969

(D) 1954

Answer: (C)

Q. 29 Who presented the first Union Budget of Independent India?

(A) NV Gadgil

(B) Maulana Azad

(C) CD Deshmukh

(D) RK Shanmukham Chetty

Answer: (D)

Q. 30 ……… is the oldest mountain range in the Indian subcontinent.

(A) Himalaya

(B) Vindhya

(C) Aravali

(D) Satpura

Answer: (C)

Q. 31 ‘Sevasadan’, ‘Karmabhoomi’ and ‘Gaban’ are some of the masterpieces of which Hindi writer?

(A) Bhisham Sahni

(B) Premchand

(C) Harishchandra

(D) Ramdhari Singh ‘Dinkar’

Answer: (B)

Q. 32 As of January 2019, the Chief Minister of Chhattisgarh is:

(A) Shiv Dahariya

(B) Bhupesh Baghel

(C) Kamal Nath

(D) Kawasi Lakhma

Answer: (B)

Q. 33 Which of the following diseases is caused by bacteria?

(A) Rabies

(B) Chicken Pox

(C) Small Pox

(D) Tuberculosis

Answer: (D)

Q. 34 Which of the following is NOT an amphibian?

(A) Frog

(B) Tortoise

(C) Salamander

(D) Toad

Answer: (B)

Q. 35 Life on earth began in the oceans almost ………. years ago.

(A) 1 billion

(B) 100 million

(C) 500 million

(D) 3.5 billion

Answer: (D)

Q. 36 Which chemical is widely used to unclog drains and sinks?

(A) Sodium Chloride

(B) Nitrogen Hydroxide

(C) Hydrogen Peroxide

(D) Sodium Hydroxide

Answer: (D)

Q. 37 The concept of five – year plans in the Constitution of India is borrowed from ………..

(A) Russia

(B) England

(C) The United States

(D) Germany

Answer: (A)

Q. 38 The Fiscal Year in India is considered between:

(A) 1 April – 31 March

(B) 1 January – 31 December

(C) 1 July – 30 June

(D) 31 March – April

Answer: (A)

Q. 39 Which state hosts the annual Surajkund Crafts fair?

(A) Rajasthan

(B) Uttar Pradesh

(C) Punjab

(D) Haryana

Answer: (D)

Q. 40 Which of the following statements with respect to Article 22 of the Constitution and Criminal Law on fundamental rights of an arrested person is NOT correct?

(A) The Right to be informed atthe time ofarrest of the offence for which the person is being arrested

(B) A boy under 15 years of age and women cannot be called to the police station only for questioning

(C) The Right to be presented before a magistrate within 24 hours ofarrest

(D) Confessions made in police custody can be used as evidence against the accused

Answer: (D)

Q. 41 Which team has won the Ranji Trophy maximum number of times?

(A) Saurashtra

(B) Tamil Nadu

(C) Mumbai

(D) Vidarbha

Answer: (C)

Q. 42 Which country ranks first in the ‘Per Capita’ Summer Olympic medals tally?

(A) Netherlands

(B) Finland

(C) Japan

(D) Hungary

Answer: (B)

Q. 43 The Brahmaputra river is called ‘Tsangpo’ in Tibet. What is it called in Bangladesh?

(A) Meghna

(B) Padma

(C) Karnaphuli

(D) Jamuna

Answer: (D)

Q. 44 Chandragupta Maurya established the Mauryan Empire by defeating the:

(A) Nandas

(B) Chalukyas

(C) Pallavas

(D) Shungas

Answer: (A)

Q. 45 Victoria Memorial is located in:

(A) Lahore

(B) Mumbai

(C) Kolkata

(D) New Delhi

Answer: (C)

Q. 46 ‘Gidda’ is a dance form of which state?

(A) Punjab

(B) Assam

(C) West Bengal

(D) Odisha

Answer: (A)

Q. 47 Who was the first Indian woman president of Indian National Congress?

(A) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

(B) Sarojini Naidu

(C) Sucheta Kriplani

(D) Aruna Asaf Ali

Answer: (B)

Q. 48 Which of the following statements is not a good argument in favour of a democracy?

(A) Democracies are more accountable to the people

(B) Democracies have better resolutions of conflicts

(C) People feel free and equal in a democracy

(D) Democracies are more prosperous than others

Answer: (D)

Q. 49 Which of the following statements about sound is FALSE?

(A) The audible range of an average human is 20 Hz — 20 kHz.

(B) The speed of sound remains uniform irrespective of the temperature or medium.

(C) Sound travels as a longitudinal wave.

(D) Sound cannot travel in a vacuum.

Answer: (B)

Q. 50 The Dadasaheb Phalke Award announced in 2018 was awarded to:

(A) Late Yash Chopra

(B) Late Rajesh Khanna

(C) Late Shashi Kapoor

(D) Late Vinod Khanna

Answer: (D)

Quant

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 51 If the interest on money be 1 paisa per rupee per month, what is the rate per cent per annum?

(A) 12%

(B) 15%

(C) 10%

(D) 10½ %

Answer: (A)

Q. 52 The median of the data 28, 31, 42, 37, 26, 34, 18, 23 is:

(A) 30

(B) 29.5

(C) 31.5

(D) 28

Answer: (B)

Q. 53 Study the following graph which shows the production (in thousands)of different items, and answer these questions.

The ratio between the number of pants produced by the company in the year 2014, 2015 and 2016 respectively is:

(A) 3 : 4 : 6

(B) 5 : 10 : 7

(C) 1 : 2 : 3

(D) 3 : 4 : 5

Answer: (B)

Q. 54 The area of an equilateral triangle is 173 cm²then of the perimeter the equilateral triangle (use √3 = 1.73) is:

(A) 40 cm

(B) 60 cm

(C) 100 cm

(D) 20 cm

Answer: (B)

Q. 55 A pen drive was sold at a price after giving two successive discounts of 30% and 20%. If the selling price of the item was ₹ 560, then what was the marked price of the pen drive?

(A) ₹1000

(B) ₹840

(C) ₹1140

(D) ₹1280

Answer: (A)

Q. 56 A discount of 30% on the marked price of a shirt enables a man to purchase a tie also, which costs him ₹ 210. How much did the man pay for the shirt?

(A) ₹540

(B) ₹490

(C) ₹630

(D) ₹700

Answer: (B)

Q. 57 The cost price of 120 bags is ₹ 15 each. 40 of them were sold for ₹18 each. At what price should the remaining be sold in order to get an overall profit of ₹ 4 per bag?

(A) ₹19.5

(B) ₹22.5

(C) ₹16

(D) ₹20

Answer: (A)

Q. 58 Study the following graph which shows the production (in thousands) of different items, and answer these questions.

The total number of all products produced by the company in the year 2014 and 2016 together is:

(A) 105700

(B) 108500

(C) 1075

(D) 10750

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Total number of all products produced by the company in the year 2014 and 2016 together :

[(10 + 7.5 + 15) + (25 + 30 + 21)] × 1000 =

108500

=> Ans – (B)

Q. 59 Seven persons have 20, 30, 40, 50, 60, 70 and 80 chocolates with them. If each of them is given 5 chocolates additionally, what will be the average number of chocolates with them?

(A) 50

(B) 55

(C) 45

(D) 60

Answer: (B)

Q. 60 A beats B by 125 m in a kilometer race. Find B’s speed if A’s speed is 16 m/sec.:

(A) 18 m/sec

(B) 14 m/sec

(C) 7 m/sec

(D) 21 m/sec

Answer: (B)

Q. 61 The ratio of the present ages of Meera and Sheela is 9 : 5. After 8 years Sheela would reach the present age of Meera. What is the present age (in years) of Sheela?

(A) 18

(B) 10

(C) 5

(D) 9

Answer: (B)

Q. 62 The difference between simple interest and compound interest on ₹ 2500 at 4% per annum for two years is (in ₹):

(A) ₹40

(B) ₹4

(C) ₹45

(D) ₹14

Answer: (B)

Q. 63 Study the following graph which shows the production (in thousands)of different items, and answer these questions.

The difference between the total number of Shoes and Shirts produced by the company in the year 2016 and the number of Pants produced by the company in the year 2014 is:

(A) 40000

(B) 35000

(C) 32000

(D) 38000

Answer: (A)

Q. 64 Suresh sells a pen at ₹ 120 for 33⅓% profit. At what price should he sell it to gain 40%?

(A) ₹160

(B) ₹120

(C) ₹140

(D) ₹126

Answer: (D)

Q. 65 If 12 men or 20 women can do a work in 54 days, then in how many days can 9 men and 12 women together do the work?

(A) 38

(B) 32

(C) 40

(D) 35

Answer: (C)

Q. 66 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

1 − [5 − {2 + (−5 + 6 − 2)2}] =?

(A) 0

(B) 2

(C) -2

(D) -4

Answer: (D)

Q. 67 A started running towards north direction at 6:00 a.m. B also started running towards north direction at 10:00 a.m. At what time will they meet if the speeds of A and are in the ratio 3 : 7 and they started from the same point?

(A) 1 p.m.

(B) 2 p.m.

(C) 1:30 p.m.

(D) 12:30 p.m.

Answer: (A)

Q. 68 The area of the base of a right circular cone is 1408/7 cm² and its height is 6 cm. Taking π = 22/7 , the curved surface area of the cone is:

(A) 1670/7 cm²

(B) 1067/7 cm²

(C) 1760/7 cm²

(D) 7160/7 cm²

Answer: (C)

Q. 69 The perimeter(in metres) of a semicircle is numerically equal to its area (in square meters). The length of its diameter is (Take )

Answer: (A)

Q. 70 There are two numbers a²and 9. Their mean proportion is b, then (a²+ b ) : (a² – b²) = ?

(A) 5 : 4

(B) 3 : 4

(C) 3 : 2

(D) 1 : 1

Answer: (A)

Q. 71 The average number of chocolates with six children is six. If another child joined them the average number of chocolates with the seven children will become 7. What is the number of chocolates with the seventh child?

(A) 14

(B) 11

(C) 12

(D) 13

Answer: (D)

Q. 72 A and B working together can complete a job in 30 days. The ratio of their efficiencies is 3 : 2. In how many days can the faster person complete the job?

(A) 50

(B) 30

(C) 40

(D) 60

Answer: (A)

Q. 73 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?

2 − [6 − {3 + (−4 + 5 + 1) × 8} + 12] =?

(A) 4

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 1

Answer: (C)

Q. 74 Find the least square number which is divisible by 4, 8, 2, 6 and 12?

(A) 36

(B) 24

(C) 48

(D) 144

Answer: (D)

Q. 75 In a class of 80 students, 60% passed in Economics and only 20% passed in History. The number of students who neither passed in Economics nor in History are:

(A) 20

(B) 12

(C) 24

(D) 16

Answer: (D)

English

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 76 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

Even if you did not know where I was, you can always have telephoned me to ask.

(A) you could always have telephoned me

(B) No improvement

(C) you will always have telephoned me

(D) you should always have telephoned me

Answer: (A)

Instructions

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.

Passage:

Women have ………….(1) been held in high esteem in our country. During the Vedic period they …………(2) important positions in social and religious ………..(3) Without women, religious ceremonies were ……………(4) incomplete. Our mythological and philosophical writings bear witness to the fact that the tradition of having high regard for women was long ……………..(5)

Q. 77 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1.

(A) never

(B) seldom

(C) always

(D) hardly

Answer: (C)

Q. 78 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2.

(A) occupied

(B) developed

(C) demanded

(D) offered

Answer: (A)

Q. 79 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3.

(A) books

(B) literature

(C) life

(D) thoughts

Answer: (C)

Q. 80 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4.

(A) accepted

(B) believed

(C) performed

(D) considered

Answer: (D)

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5.

(A) awaited

(B) maintained

(C) valued

(D) discontinued

Answer: (B)

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 82 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. When questioned about their laziness, almost all the boys gave the same excuse, ‘We all are tired.’

(A) When questioned

(B) almost all the boys

(C) ‘We all are tired.’

(D) about their laziness

Answer: (C)

Instructions

Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Q. 83 Macbeth is the tragedy of a man who was ………. with great qualities.

(A) endowed

(B) conferred

(C) empowered

(D) advantaged

Answer: (A)

Q. 84 All the respondents should express their ………. views in this questionnaire.

(A) candid

(B) confident

(C) convincing

(D) contrary

Answer: (A)

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 85 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom.

To split hairs

(A) To occupy one’s time in dressing

(B) To stop the argument in between

(C) To get angry about someone’s fashion

(D) To engage in discussing irrelevant details

Answer: (D)

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

The government should provide attractive tax ……….. for the salaried class.

(A) structures

(B) documents

(C) suggestions

(D) bids

Answer: (A)

Q. 87 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

In spite of his illness, the man run a few yards before withdrawing from the race.

(A) ran a few yards before withdrew from

(B) ran a few yards before withdrawing from

(C) No improvement

(D) running a few yards before withdrawing from

Answer: (B)

Q. 88 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

Organisms that live on another

(A) Bacteria

(B) Microbes

(C) Viruses

(D) Parasites

Answer: (D)

Q. 89 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. The person at the counter when filling up my details asked me how many languages did I know.

(A) did I know

(B) at the counter

(C) filling up my details

(D) how many languages

Answer: (A)

Q. 90 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom.

To read between the lines

(A) To ask someone to read every line

(B) To understand more than actual words

(C) To look for the meaning of every word

(D) To understand the dictionary meanings

Answer: (B)

Q. 91 Select the correctly spelt word.

(A) Scisors

(B) Scissors

(C) Scissars

(D) Sissors

Answer: (B)

Q. 92 Select the correctly spelt word.

(A) Allteration

(B) Altaration

(C) Alterashion

(D) Alteration

Answer: (D)

Q. 93 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Soon I was informed byreliable sources that their parents had no any responsibilities towards the family.

(A) towards the family

(B) by reliable sources

(C) Soon I was informed

(D) no any responsibilities

Answer: (D)

Q. 94 Select the synonym of the given word.

CONFLUENCE

(A) Junction

(B) Flow

(C) Diversion

(D) Stream

Answer: (A)

Q. 95 Select the antonym of the given word.

Genuine

(A) True

(B) False

(C) Frank

(D) Actual

Answer: (B)

Q. 96 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

The City Development Council resolved at a recent meeting to take steps to controlling pollution immediately.

(A) to take steps to control! pollution immediately

(B) No improvement

(C) to take steps of control pollution immediately

(D) to take steps for control pollution immediately

Answer: (A)

Q. 97 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

A short stay at a place

(A) Voyage

(B) Lodge

(C) Sojourn

(D) Trip

Answer: (C)

Q. 98 Select the synonym of the given word.

PSEUDONYM

(A) Family name

(B) Alias

(C) Namesake

(D) First name

Answer: (B)

Q. 99 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

The Director has still not given his ……….. to conduct the survey of natural resources.

(A) compliance

(B) projection

(C) consent

(D) request

Answer: (C)

Q. 100 Select the antonym of the given word.

Interruption

(A) Disruption

(B) Hinderance

(C) Continuity

(D) Temporary

Answer: (C)

SSC GD 21 Feb 2019 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC GD 21st Feb 2019 Shift-I

Reasoning

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 1 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements.

Statements:

1) Some stores are rooms.

2) Some rooms are posters.

Conclusion:

I. Some rooms are stores.

II. Some posters are rooms.

(A) Only conclusion I follows.

(B) Both conclusions follow.

(C) Only conclusion II follows.

(D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

The venn diagram for above statements is :

Conclusion:

I. Some rooms are stores = true

II. Some posters are rooms = true

Thus, both conclusion follows.

=> Ans – (B)

Q. 2 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Initial : Final :: Mourn : ?

(A) Recall

(B) Recap

(C) Murmur

(D) Rejoice

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

The given pairs are antonyms, final is opposite of initial, similarly opposite of mourn is rejoice.

=> Ans – (D)

Q. 3 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series.

0, 8, 24, 48, ?

(A) 81

(B) 87

(C) 89

(D) 80

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Multiples of 8 are added.

0 + 8 = 8

8 + 16 = 24

24 + 24 = 48

48 + 32 = 80

=> Ans – (D)

Q. 4 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

12 : 180 :: 14 : ?

(A) 144

(B) 221

(C) 169

(D) 238

Answer: (D)

Q. 5 Choose the option that most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word if the mirror is placed at the right side.

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

If the mirror is placed at right side, the object at the right will appear at left and vice-versa. Hence the first letter H will appear at right side, and since its symmetrical, its shape won’t be changed. Thus, second option is eliminated.

Also, in the last two options, the shape of G is changed as such the mirror is placed below it, hence the correct image is shown in first option.

=> Ans – (A)

Q. 6 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements.

Statements:

1) All customers are clients.

2) All clients are medicines.

Conclusion:

I. Some medicines are customers.

II. Some medicines are clients.

(A) Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.

(B) Both conclusions follow.

(C) Only conclusion II follows.

(D) Only conclusion I follows.

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

The venn diagram for above statements is :

Conclusion:

I. Some medicines are customers = true

II. Some medicines are clients = true

Thus, both conclusion follow.

=> Ans – (B)

Q. 7 In certain code, VIROLOGY is written as LOGYVIRO. How will SEMANTIC be written in that code?

(A) NTICSEMA

(B) CITNAMES

(C) NTJCSEMA

(D) NTICSFMA

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

VIROLOGY is written as LOGYVIRO

The pattern followed is that the word is divided into two halves, and in the final output, the two halves are interchanged. ≡

Eg :- VIROLOGY VIRO and LOGY

Output : LOGY + VIRO = LOGYVIRO

Similarly, SEMANTIC : NTICSEMA

=> Ans – (A)

Q. 8 There is only one runway which will be used by seven flights one by one. P and Q will use the runway neither first nor last. S will use it second after R. M will use it second before O. N will use it after O and before R. Q will use it just before S. Who will use the runway in the middle?

(A) O

(B) N

(C) P

(D) Q

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

P and Q will not use the runway either first or last.

S will use it second after R and Q will use it just before S, => Order is RQS

N will use it after O and before R and M will use it second before O, S will be at end. Final arrangement :

∴ N will use the runway in the middle.

=> Ans – (B)

Q. 9 Choose the odd one out of the given options.

(A) Silicon

(B) Magnesium

(C) Tungsten

(D) Aurum

Answer: (A)

Q. 10 Choose the odd one out of the given options.

(A) AGD

(B) IHL

(C) EKM

(D) QSC

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Except for QSC, all the other letters start with a vowel, hence it is the odd one.

=> Ans – (D)

Q. 11 Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, H and G are sitting around a circular table facing each other for a group discussion. A is opposite F and second to the right of E. G is between C and A.H is to the left of E. Who is sitting to the immediate left of A?

(A) Either G or D

(B) B

(C) C

(D) Either B or D

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

A is opposite F and second to the right of E, => E is sitting second to the left of A.

G is between C and A, => G is to the immediate right of A, and C is opposite of E.

Also, H is to the left of E. Thus, final arrangement :

∴ Either (B) or (D) is sitting to the immediate left of A.

=> Ans – (D)

Q. 12 Seven friends O, P, Q, R, S, T and U are watching a cricket match sitting in a stadium.P is sitting at one extreme end. T is sitting between Q and U,and is sitting to the immediate right of S and immediate left of Q. is sitting second to the left of P. Who is sitting between U and P?

(A) R

(B) O

(C) S

(D) Q

Answer: (B)

Q. 13 Choose the option that would follow next in the given figure series.

Answer: (D)

Q. 14 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same wayas the second term is related to the first term.

AC : CI :: GH : ?

(A) UY

(B) UX

(C) UU

(D) UV

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Expression = AC : CI :: GH : ?

According to the numerical representation of the alphabets, we get A=1, B=2, C=3 and so on. Now, thrice of each letter of first term is equal to the subsequent letters of the second term.

Eg :- A ≡ 1(×3) = 3 ≡ C

C ≡ 3(×3) = 9 ≡ I

and

G ≡ 7(×3) = 21 ≡ U H ≡ 8(×3) = 24 ≡ X

Similarly, and

Thus, GH : UX

=> Ans – (B)

Q. 15 In a certain code, OPTIMIST is written as 121. How will PESSIMIST be written in that code?

(A) 129

(B) 105

(C) 131

(D) 127

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

If we add the numbers represented by the English alphabets, i.e. A=1, B=2, C=3, ….., Y=25, Z=26 ≡ 15 + 16 + 20 + 9 + 13 + 9 + 19 + 20 = 121

OPTIMIST

≡ 16 + 5 + 19 + 19 + 9 + 13 + 9 + 19 + 20 = 129

=> PESSIMIST

=> Ans – (A)

Q. 16 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series.

PRL, QPM, RNN, SLO, ?

(A) TIO

(B) TKP

(C) TJP

(D) TIP

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Series : PRL, QPM, RNN, SLO, ?

The pattern followed in each letter of the terms is :

1st letter : P (+1 letter) = Q (+1 letter) = R (+1 letter) = S (+1 letter) = T

2nd letter : R (-2 letters) = P (-2 letters) = N (-2 letters) = L (-2 letters) = J

3rd letter : L (+1 letter) = M (+1 letter) = N (+1 letter) = O (+1 letter) = P

Thus, missing term : TJP

=> Ans – (C)

Q. 17 Select the Venn diagram that best represents the given set of classes.

Animals, Mammals, Deer

Answer: (D)

Q. 18 Choose the odd number out of the given options.

(A) 151

(B) 163

(C) 157

(D) 161

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Among the given numbers, except 161, all are prime numbers.

161 = 7 × 23

=> Ans – (D)

Q. 19 Select a figure from amongst the four alternatives, that when placed in the blank space (?) of figure X will complete the pattern. (Rotation is not allowed).

Answer: (C)

Q. 20 Find out the two signs to be interchanged to make the following equation correct.

18 + 3 × 27 − 9 ÷ 3 = 78

(A) + and ×

(B) + and ÷

(C) − and ÷

(D) + and −

Answer: (A)

Q. 21 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the series.

12, 22, 42, 82, ?

(A) 172

(B) 182

(C) 152

(D) 162

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

The pattern followed is :

12 + 10 = 22

22 + 20 = 42

42 + 40 = 82

82 + 80 = 162

=> Ans – (D)

Q. 22 Select the option that will correctly replace the question mark (?) in the given pattern.

(A) 6

(B) 24

(C) 36

(D) 8

Answer: (A)

Q. 23 A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given. How will the pattern appear when the transparent sheet is folded along the dotted line?

Answer: (A)

Q. 24 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Blend : Mix :: Request : ?

(A) Deny

(B) Noting

(C) Solicit

(D) Accept

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

The first two words are synonyms of each other, similarly request and solicit have similar meanings.

=> Ans – (C)

Q. 25 Select a figure from amongst the four alternatives, that when placed in the blank space (?) of figure X will complete the pattern. (Rotation is not allowed).

Answer: (D)

General knowledge

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 26 Which of the following statements about the Indus Valley Civilization is NOT true?

(A) It was an urban civilisation where people lived in well planned towns

(B) Animal meat was the staple food

(C) It flourished around 2500 BCin the present day Pakistan and Western India

(D) The houses were made of baked bricks

Answer: (B)

Q. 27 Dry Ice is the solid form of:

(A) methane

(B) carbon dioxide

(C) oxygen

(D) ozone

Answer: (B)

Q. 28 Timur invaded India during the reign of:

(A) Akbar

(B) Alauddin Khilji

(C) Feroz Shah Tughlaq

(D) Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah Tughluq

Answer: (D)

Q. 29 Who wrote the book ‘War and Peace’?

(A) Viadimir Lenin

(B) Leo Tolstoy

(C) Karl Marx

(D) Anton Chekhov

Answer: (B)

Q. 30 India has won 8 Olympic gold medals for field hockey. When was the last time India won a gold medal for hockey in Olympics?

(A) 1976

(B) 1984

(C) 1988

(D) 1980

Answer: (D)

Q. 31 Which of the following statements is NOT true about angiosperms?

(A) They have stems, leaves and roots

(B) Conifers, Cycads and Ginkgo are examples of angiosperms

(C) They have to undergo pollination before they can reproduce

(D) The flowers carry the reproductive organs

Answer: (B)

Q. 32 The economic survey is usually presented ……… before the Union Budget.

(A) 1 day

(B) 15 days

(C) 7 days

(D) 2 days

Answer: (A)

Q. 33 Gita Gopinath became the first woman to occupy the position of Chief Economist of:

(A) World Trade Organisation

(B) UNESCO

(C) World Bank

(D) International Monetary Fund

Answer: (D)

Q. 34 The holy place of the Jains, Shravanabelagola is situated in which district of Karnataka?

(A) ShimogaDistrict

(B) Bellary District

(C) Mysore District

(D) Hassan District

Answer: (D)

Q. 35 The Government of India releases MSP of agricultural produce from time to time. What is the full form of MSP?

(A) Minimum Selling Price

(B) Minimum Support Price

(C) Maximum Selling Price

(D) Maximum Support Price

Answer: (B)

Q. 36 Golconda Fort was built in the 13^th century by the …………. Dynasty.

(A) Kakatiya

(B) Chola

(C) Periyar

(D) Chalukya

Answer: (A)

Q. 37 In the context of climate. what is the full form of ITCZ?

(A) Indian Trough Conversation Zone

(B) Inter Tropical Convergence Zone

(C) Intra Temperate Control Zone

(D) Islandic Tropical Climate Zone

Answer: (B)

Q. 38 The Indian athlete Dutee Chand is associated to which of the following sporting events?

(A) Shotput

(B) Javelin

(C) Jumping

(D) Sprinting

Answer: (D)

Q. 39 A special property of acids and bases is their ability to ……… each other’s properties.

(A) Crystalize

(B) Neutralize

(C) Amortize

(D) Naturalize

Answer: (B)

Q. 40 According to the report published by the World Health Organization (WHO)in 2017, approximately how many people in the world do NOT have access to safe drinking water at home?

(A) 4.2 billion

(B) 900 million

(C) 500 million

(D) 2.1 billion

Answer: (D)

Q. 41 ‘Kuchipudi’ derives its roots from:

(A) Kerala

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(C) Puducherry

(D) Tamil Nadu

Answer: (B)

Q. 42 Swachh Bharat Abhiyan was launched by the government of India on the birth anniversary of:

(A) Mahatma Gandhi

(B) Vallabhbhai Patel

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru

(D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Answer: (A)

Q. 43 The Constitution of India came into force on 26 January 1950. Which act or governing document did it replace?

(A) Government of India Act, 1858

(B) Government of India Act, 1935

(C) Indian Councils Act, 1892

(D) Regulating Act, 1773

Answer: (B)

Q. 44 The parliament has powers to amend the provisions of the Constitution of India. Which article of the constitution confers this power on the parliament?

(A) Article 1

(B) Article 256

(C) Article 55

(D) Article 368

Answer: (D)

Q. 45 The first major nation wide Satyagraha launched by Mahatma Gandhi was against:

(A) Rowlatt Act

(B) Partition of Bengal

(C) Tax on Khadi products

(D) Salt tax

Answer: (A)

Q. 46 Which of the following is NOT true about the ‘Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005’?

(A) Injury can be physical, emotional or economic.

(B) It also applies to violence at workplace.

(C) It applies in case of injury or harm or threat of injury or harm by the adult male member of the house hold.

(D) The term ‘Domestic’ includes all women who liveor have lived in a shared household with the accused male member.

Answer: (B)

Q. 47 The host country for 2022 FIFA World Cup is:

(A) Japan

(B) Germany

(C) France

(D) Qatar

Answer: (D)

Q. 48 ‘Slash and burn’ type of farming is also known as:

(A) shifting farming

(B) intensive subsistence farming

(C) extensive farming

(D) commercial farming

Answer: (A)

Q. 49 What is the monthly salary of the President of India as per 2018 Budget?

(A) 4 lakhs

(B) 2 lakhs

(C) 5 lakhs

(D) 3 lakhs

Answer: (C)

Q. 50 Which of the following is NOT a method of soil conservation?

(A) Intercropping

(B) Mulching

(C) Contour Ploughing

(D) Weathering

Answer: (D)

Quant

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 51 A sector is cut from a circle of diameter 42 cm. If the angle of the sector is 150^∘then what is its area in cm². (Take π = 22/7)

(A) 584.8

(B) 577.5

(C) 564.6

(D) 580.4

Answer: (B)

Q. 52 The present ages of A and are in the ratio 15 : 8. After 8 years their ages will be in the ratio 17 : 10. What will be the ratio of ages of A and B after 10 years from now?

(A) 10 : 7

(B) 8 : 5

(C) 5 : 3

(D) 7 : 4

Answer: (C)

Q. 53 A circus tent is cylindrical to a height of 3 meters and conical above it. If the radius of the base is 52.5 m and the slant height of the cone is 52 m,then the total area of the canvas required to make it is:

(A) 3048π

(B) 3045π

(C) 2730π

(D) 2842π

Answer: (B)

Q. 54 The compound interest on a sum of ₹ 24500 at 10% p.a for 2⅖ years interest compounded yearly is:

(A) ₹ 6338.40

(B) ₹ 6342

(C) ₹ 6330.80

(D) ₹ 6340

Answer: (C)

Instructions

Study the following table, which shows the number of units of a product manufactured and sold by a company in five years, and answer questions.

Q. 55 What percent of total units of the product manufactured in 2013 and 2015 is the total units unsold during the five years? (correct to one decimal place)

(A) 30.8

(B) 30.3

(C) 29.6

(D) 29.4

Answer: (B)

Q. 56 The ratio of the total number of units sold in 2014 and 2015 to the number of units manufactured in 2017 is:

(A) 17:12

(B) 19:14

(C) 9:8

(D) 14:17

Answer: (A)

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 57 The value of

1.6 ÷ 1.6 of 1.6 + 0.6 of 1.4 ÷ 0.5 − 0.001 × 1.5 ÷ 0.075

lies between:

(A) 3.4 and 3.6

(B) 3.6 and 3.8

(C) 3.2 and 3.4

(D) 3 and 3.2

Answer: (C)

Q. 58 The average of 10 numbers is 41. The average of first 3 numbers is 39.4 and the average of last 4 numbers is 43.5. 4^th number is 2 more than the 5^thnumber and 0.2 more than the 6^thnumber. What is the average of the 4^thand 6^th numbers .

(A) 38.7

(B) 38.9

(C) 39.6

(D) 39.9

Answer: (D)

Q. 59 The average age of 24 students in a class is 15.5 years. The age of their teacher is 28 years more than the average of all twenty five. What is the age of the teacher in years?

(A) 40⅓

(B) 41⅔

(C) 44⅔

(D) 42⅓

Answer: (C)

Q. 60 If 12, x, 8 and 14 are in proportion, then what is the mean proportional between (x – 12) and (x + 4) ?

(A) 12

(B) 11

(C) 16

(D) 15

Answer: (D)

Q. 61 A 280 m long train is running at 108 km/hr. In how much time will it cross a bridge of length 170 m ?

(A) 10 sec

(B) 15 sec

(C) 16 sec

(D) 12 sec

Answer: (B)

Q. 62 A shopkeepers made a profit of 16% on his goods .If the price at which he buys decreases by 20% while he reduces his selling price by 23%, what is now his percentage of profit ? (correct to one decimal place)

(A) 11.6

(B) 15.4

(C) 12.9

(D) 14.6

Answer: (A)

Q. 63 The largest sphere is carved out of a cube of side 7 cm. What is the volume of the sphere in cm³(Take π = 22/7 )

(A) 179⅔

(B) 182⅓

(C) 179⅓

(D) 182⅔

Answer: (A)

Q. 64 Two vessels A and B contain solution of acid and water. In A and B the ratio of acid and water are 7 : 3 and 4 : 1, respectively. They are mixed in the ratio 1 : 2. What is the ratio of acid and water in the resulting solution?

(A) 15 : 8

(B) 16 : 7

(C) 23 : 7

(D) 25 : 9

Answer: (C)

Q. 65 Let x be the least multiple of 29 which when divided by 20, 21, 22, 24 and 28 then the remainders are 13, 14, 15, 17 and 21 respectively. What is the sum of digits of x?

(A) 18

(B) 22

(C) 19

(D) 23

Answer: (D)

Q. 66 At what percentage above the cost price must an article be marked so as to gain 38% after allowing a customer a discount of 8% on the marked price?

(A) 48

(B) 46

(C) 50

(D) 45

Answer: (C)

Q. 67 The numbers 6, 8, 11, 12, 2x – 8, 2x + 10, 35, 41, 42, 50 are written in ascending order. If their median is 25, then what is the mean of the numbers?

(A) 24.8

(B) 24.6

(C) 25.5

(D) 25.2

Answer: (C)

Q. 68 A takes 6 hours more than B to cover a distance of 60 km. But if A doubles his speed, he takes 3 hours less than B to cover the same distance. The speed (in km/hr) of A is:

(A) 3⅓

(B) 4⅔

(C) 4

(D) 5

Answer: (A)

Q. 69 A sum of ₹ 1518 is divided among A, B, and C, such that A receives 20% more than B and B receives 20% less than C. What is the share of C in the sum?

(A) ₹ 528

(B) ₹ 440

(C) ₹ 550

(D) ₹ 572

Answer: (C)

Q. 70 Study the following table, which shows the number of units of a product manufactured and sold by a company in five years, and answer questions.

In which year the number of units of the product sold is 19000 more than the average number of units manufactured per year?

(A) 2016

(B) 2015

(C) 2017

(D) 2014

Answer: (C)

Q. 71 The simple interest on a certain sum is 1119% of the sum and the number of years is equal to the rate percent per annum. What will be the simple interest on a sum of ₹ 12600 at the same rate for 2⅘ years?

(A) ₹1216

(B) ₹1224

(C) ₹1176

(D) ₹1164

Answer: (C)

Q. 72 A can complete ⅔ of a work in 8 days. B can complete ⅗ of the same work in 12 days and C can complete 4/9 of the same work in 8 days. A and B worked together for 5 days. How much time(in days) will C alone take to complete the remaining work?

(A) 6

(B) 7½

(C) 8½

(D) 9

Answer: (A)

Q. 73 The ratios of efficiencies of A and B of doing a certain work is 5 : 8. Working together they can complete the work in 20 days, A alone will complete 25% of that work in:

(A) 14 days

(B) 12 days

(C) 11 days

(D) 13 days

Answer: (D)

Q. 74 If 20% more would be gained by selling an article for ₹ 93 than selling it for ₹ 85, then the cost price of the article is:

(A) ₹64

(B) ₹40

(C) ₹56

(D) ₹60

Answer: (B)

Q. 75 The value of

35/6 ፥7/2 21/10 +3/5 of 15/2 ፥2/3 – 2/3 ፥8/15 6/5

(A) 8¾

(B) 2⅗

(C) 8⅗

(D) 1¾

Answer: (A)

English

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 76 Select the antonym of the given word.

GRANT

(A) Refuse

(B) Approve

(C) Reject

(D) Sanction

Answer: (A)

Q. 77 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

(A) team of doctors is focusing over treatment of cancer at an early age.

(A) is focusing on to treatment of cancer

(B) is focusing on treatment of cancer

(C) No improvement

(D) is focusing in treatment of cancer

Answer: (B)

Q. 78 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. As a painter he are good if not better than Suresh.

(A) he are good

(B) than Suresh

(C) if not better

(D) As a painter

Answer: (A)

Q. 79 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

He have been working on and off for two years to complete a book.

(A) has work

(B) have worked

(C) No improvement

(D) has been working

Answer: (D)

Q. 80 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

One who makes an eloquent public speech

(A) Leader

(B) Debater

(C) Speaker

(D) Orator

Answer: (D)

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

Would you mind help me with these questions?

(A) Would you mind helping

(B) Would you mind for helping

(C) No improvement

(D) Would you mind to help

Answer: (A)

Q. 82 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

The absence of government in a country

(A) Bureaucracy

(B) Anarchy

(C) Autocracy

(D) Democracy

Answer: (B)

Q. 83 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom.

In black and white

(A) In writing

(B) In colour

(C) Scanned

(D) Photocopied

Answer: (A)

Instructions

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help ofthe alternatives given.

Passage:

In 1893, Lokmanya Tilak converted the Ganapati festival …………(1) a national celebration. He campaigned for ………….(2) wide celebration of this public festival throughout Maharashtra. It was …………(3) this festival that he …………..(4) mobilise public support for the nationalist …………(5)

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1.

(A) with

(B) into

(C) for

(D) to

Answer: (B)

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2.

(A) a

(B) some

(C) the

(D) one

Answer: (C)

Q. 86 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3.

(A) with

(B) through

(C) without

(D) throughout

Answer: (B)

Q. 87 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4.

(A) may

(B) can

(C) will

(D) could

Answer: (D)

Q. 88 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5.

(A) movement

(B) term

(C) season

(D) festival

Answer: (A)

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 89 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

‘Discovery of India’ ……… by Jawaharlal Nehru.

(A) have been written

(B) has written

(C) has been written

(D) have written

Answer: (C)

Q. 90 Select the correctly spelt word.

(A) Aquaintance

(B) Acquantance

(C) Acquaintance

(D) Acquaintence

Answer: (C)

Q. 91 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. When I asked for directions, he gave me many wrong informations.

(A) When I asked

(B) for directions

(C) wrong informations

(D) gave me many

Answer: (C)

Q. 92 Select the synonym of the given word.

ZENITH

(A) Peak

(B) Border

(C) Brink

(D) Edge

Answer: (A)

Q. 93 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom.

Hit the nail on the head

(A) Accurately right

(B) Hit the nail exactly

(C) Use hammer and nail

(D) Use some tools

Answer: (A)

Q. 94 Select the synonym of the given word.

RESISTANCE

(A) Approval

(B) Recognition

(C) Refusal

(D) Enthusiasm

Answer: (C)

Q. 95 Select the antonym of the given word.

HUMILITY

(A) Cruelty

(B) Shyness

(C) Obedience

(D) Modesty

Answer: (D)

Q. 96 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

One should be careful to check the grease and oil in ……….. car occasionally for it’s smooth functioning

(A) ones

(B) their

(C) our

(D) one’s

Answer: (D)

Q. 97 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Is the older person always more wiser than the younger one?

(A) Is the

(B) more wiser

(C) older person always

(D) than the younger one?

Answer: (B)

Q. 98 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Many tourists to India visit the beautiful valley of Kashmir ………. in spring and summer.

(A) generally

(B) rarely

(C) especially

(D) frequently

Answer: (C)

Q. 99 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

Our society is ………. by the evil of corruption; the integrity of even senior officials is disputed.

(A) indicated

(B) endangered

(C) specified

(D) identified

Answer: (B)

Q. 100 Select the correctly spelt word.

(A) Millennium

(B) Milennium

(C) Millenniam

(D) Millenium

Answer: (A)

SSC GD 19 Feb 2019 Shift-III Previous Year Paper

SSC GD 19th Feb 2019 Shift-III

Reasoning

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 1 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.

5, …….., 10, 19, 35, 60

(A) 6

(B) 8

(C) 9

(D) 7

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

5 + 1²= 6

6 + 2²= 10

10 + 3²= 19

19 + 4²= 35

35 + 5²= 60

Hence missing number series will be 6.

5, 6, 10, 19, 35, 60….

Q. 2 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements.

Statements:

1. Some animals are tigers.

2. All tigers are vertebrates.

Conclusions:

I. All vertebrates are tigers.

II. Some vertebrates are animals.

(A) Both conclusion I & II follow

(B) Only conclusion II follows

(C) Only conclusion I follows

(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Conclusions:

I. All vertebrates are tigers- False

II. Some vertebrates are animals- True.

Only Conclusion II follows.

Q. 3 The numbers in the following set are related in a certain way. Choose the set that is similar to the following set:

{128, 8, 32}

(A) {196, 7, 14}

(B) {122, 10, 30}

(C) {144, 36, 72}

(D) {64, 4, 16}

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

128+32 = 180

180 ÷ 20 = 4

Similarly in option D, 64+16 = 80

80 ÷ 20 = 4

Hence Option (D) is correct option.

Q. 4 Choose the alternative which most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word when mirror is placed at right side.

Answer: (A)

Q. 5 Which number will follow next in the given number series?

15, 12, 19, 14, 25, 16, ?

(A) 29

(B) 31

(C) 35

(D) 33

Answer: (D)

Q. 6 Select the figure which when placed in the blank space of the figure marked ‘X’ would complete the pattern.

Answer: (B)

Q. 7 R is taller than T. Both P and Q are taller than S, whose height is between P and T. If is taller than T, who is the shortest?

(A) P

(B) S

(C) Q

(D) T

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

missing value in question

IF ____ is taller than T, who is the

Q. 8 Choose the option that would follow next in the given figure series.

Answer: (D)

Q. 9 Pick the odd pair out.

(A) 17- 49

(B) 5-13

(C) 9-25

(D) 15- 41

Answer: (D)

Q. 10 Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a round table facing the center. B is seated to the left of D. E is seated to the right of C. A is facing F, who is seated to the left of C. Who is seated to the left of A?

(A) E

(B) D

(C) B

(D) C

Answer: (A)

Q. 11 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.

dmt, fkv, ihy, mdc, ……..

(A) ryh

(B) rzh

(C) qzl

(D) rxi

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Take all the first digit of all the words

d+2=f , f+3=i , i+4=m, Hence m+5=R

Take all the second digit of all the words

m-2=k , k-3=h , h-4=d , Hence d-5=Y

Take all the third and last digit of all the words

t+2=v, v+3=y, y+4=c, Hence c+5=H

Let’s consolidate the whole word = RYH.

Hence Sequence will be dmt, fkv, ihy, mdc, ryh..

Q.12 AGENDA is related to MEETING in the same way as PROGRAMME is related to:

(A) FUNCTION

(B) INAUGURATION

(C) SPEECH

(D) ORGANISATION

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Agenda is same meaning word for Meeting.

Similarly, Programme is same meaning word for Function

Q. 13 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Temple : Worship :: Court : ?

(A) Argument

(B) Judge

(C) Jurisdiction

(D) Lawyer

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

In Temple we do worship. Similarly, in Court we do argument.

Q. 14 Four numbers have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one.

(A) 125

(B) 729

(C) 1321

(D) 343

Answer: (C)

Q. 15 Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly represents the relationships among the classes:

Products, Factory, Machines

Answer: (A)

Q. 16 If in a code language ADVENTURES is coded as VDANEUTSER, then SYSTEMATIC would be coded as:

(A) CITETAMSYS

(B) SYSETAMCIT

(C) SYSMETITAC

(D) YSTSMETACI

Answer: (B)

Q. 17 If in a code language BADE = 1254 and HATE = 18520, then HEALER = ?

(A) 58121185

(B) 18512158

(C) 15818512

(D) 58112158

Answer: (A)

Q. 18 Six girls are sitting in a row facing West. Kim is to the left of Sima and Sony is between Piku and Ria. There are two people seated between Piku and Sima, who is separated from Neela by one person.If Piku is seated at one end of the row, who is at the other end?

(A) Sima

(B) Kim

(C) Ria

(D) Neela

Answer: (D)

Q. 19 Which one of the following four-letter clusters does NOT belong to the group?

(A) PVTR

(B) CIGE

(C) WZXY

(D) KQOM

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

PVTR = P+6=V

CIGE = C+6=I

WZXY = W+2=Y

KQOM = K+6=Q

Hence WZXY is odd as from first letter to second letter W-to-Z is only gapping of 2 Alphabets.

Q. 20 Choose the option in which the figure marked ‘x’ is embedded.

Answer: (C)

Q. 21 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements.

Statements:

1. All roads are streets.

2. Some streets are avenues.

Conclusions:

I. Some roads are avenues.

II. All avenues are roads.

(A) Both conclusions I and II follow

(B) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

(C) Only conclusion I follows

(D) Only conclusion II follows

Answer: (B)

Q. 22 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

BYWD : DWUF :: FUSH : ?

(A) JQOL

(B) HSJQ

(C) HTRJ

(D) HSQJ

Answer: (D)

Q. 23 Pick the odd one out.

(A) Plate

(B) Ring

(C) Bangle

(D) Tyre

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

All the shapes are round. But Plates has no hole inside circle.. But Ring,Tyre,Bangle has hole inside circle. Hence Plate is odd option.

Q. 24 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?

6 × 2 + 8 − 16 ÷ 4 = 18

(A) + and ÷

(B) + and ×

(C) × and ÷

(D) − and ÷

Answer: (B)

Q. 25 How would the pattern given on the square transparent sheet marked ‘X’ look when the sheet is folded along the dotted line?

Answer: (C)

General knowledge

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 26 Which among the following is the smallest mountain range in the world?

(A) Ural

(B) Sutter Buttes

(C) Alps

(D) Sierra Nevada

Answer: (B)

Q. 27 Who is the founder of ‘Sulabh Sanitation and Social Reform Movement’?

(A) Aruna Roy

(B) Medha Patkar

(C) Dr Bindeshwar Pathak

(D) Baba Amte

Answer: (C)

Q. 28 Which of the following is regarded as the shortest river of India?

(A) Narmada

(B) Arvari

(C) Kaveri

(D) Godavari

Answer: (B)

Q. 29 ‘Jhumur’ a traditional dance form, is performed in which of the following states?

(A) Odisha

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(C) Bengal

(D) Assam

Answer: (D)

Q. 30 Aravind Adiga got the prestigious Man Booker Prize for which book?

(A) Selection Day

(B) The Kite Runner

(C) The White Tiger

(D) God of Small Things

Answer: (C)

Q. 31 ‘The Mousetrap’ was a famous play written by:

(A) Agatha Christie

(B) Caryl Churchill

(C) William Shakespeare

(D) George Bernard Shaw

Answer: (A)

Q. 32 India recognizes the Right to ………… as being part of Right to Life (Article 21).

(A) Medication

(B) Acceptance

(C) Fitness

(D) Water

Answer: (D)

Q. 33 Eminent economist and columnist ……….. has resigned as part time member of Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister Narendra Modi.

(A) Surjit Bhalla

(B) Arvind Subramanian

(C) Raghuram Rajan

(D) Jagdish Bhagwati

Answer: (A)

Q. 34 Which Indian state has the largest area under forest cover?

(A) Kerala

(B) Chhattisgarh

(C) Arunachal Pradesh

(D) Madhya Pradesh

Answer: (D)

Q. 35 In which year was the Right to Education Act enacted in India?

(A) 2011

(B) 2004

(C) 2009

(D) 2006

Answer: (C)

Q.36 Which country among the following options has the shortest constitution in the world?

(A) Norway

(B) United Kingdom

(C) United States of America

(D) India

Answer: (C)

Q. 37 Which city among the following is the most densely populated city, as of 2018?

(A) Shanghai

(B) Tokyo

(C) Paris

(D) Istanbul

Answer: (B)

Q. 38 What was the event that fundamentally changed Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel’s life and drove him towards politics?

(A) Bardoli Satyagraha (year 1928)

(B) The Gandhi Irwin Pact (year 1931)

(C) Meeting with Mahatma Gandhi in Godhra (year 1917)

(D) Non-Cooperation Movement (year 1922)

Answer: (C)

Q. 39 During whose rule was the historical Nalanda University established?

(A) Bindusara

(B) Dasratha

(C) Chandragupta

(D) Kumaragupta

Answer: (D)

Q. 40 In which year did Ms. Sushmita Sen became the first Indian woman to win the ‘Miss Universe’ title?

(A) 1996

(B) 1994

(C) 1998

(D) 1991

Answer: (B)

Q. 41 Neutral, expansionary, and contractionary strategies are related to which policy of the government?

(A) Monetary policy

(B) Banking policy

(C) Budgetary policy

(D) Fiscal policy

Answer: (D)

Q. 42 The famous ‘Ratnagiri Monastery’ is located in which Indian state?

(A) Karnataka

(B) Gujarat

(C) Orissa

(D) Jharkhand

Answer: (C)

Q. 43 Which of the following is a nocturnal animal?

(A) Hamster

(B) Bat

(C) Porcupine

(D) Murids

Answer: (B)

Q. 44 ‘Hemis Festival’ is celebrated in which Indian state?

(A) Jammu and Kashmir

(B) Karnataka

(C) Tamil Nadu

(D) Punjab

Answer: (A)

Q. 45 The ancient cities of Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro emerged along the banks of which river?

(A) Baghmati River

(B) Indus River

(C) Brahmaputra River

(D) Ganga River

Answer: (B)

Q. 46 Who has won Sayed Modi India Grand Prix Gold Badminton Title 2018 in Men’s Singles Titles?

(A) Srikanth Kidambi

(B) Ajay Jayaram

(C) Sameer Verma

(D) Prannoy Kumar

Answer: (C)

Q. 47 Baking soda, the common cooking ingredient, has which of the following chemical name?

(A) Sodium bicarbonate

(B) Sodium chloride

(C) Monosodium glutamate

(D) Sodium benzoate

Answer: (A)

Q. 48 Union Cabinet has decide to raise contribution of Central Government to National Pension System (NPS)corpusofits employee from 10% to ………..

(A) 11%

(B) 20%

(C) 14%

(D) 12%

Answer: (C)

Q. 49 ‘Bishan Singh Bedi’ is a legendary Indian player of:

(A) cricket

(B) hockey

(C) football

(D) lawn tennis

Answer: (A)

Q. 50 What is the SI unit for the measurement of pressure?

(A) Newton

(B) Joule

(C) Ampere

(D) Pascal

Answer: (D)

Quant

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 51 A shopkeeper marks the price of an article 25 % above its cost price. After allowing 10% discount on the market price, the article is sold for ₹720. What is the difference (in ₹) between the cost price and market price of the article?

(A) 160

(B) 120

(C) 180

(D) 150

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Let the cost price be x

marked price=1.25x

Discount allowed=10%

MP-discount=SP

Therefore SP=0.9*1.25x

Given SP=720

(9/10)*(5/4)x=720

x=80*8

x=Rs 640

MP-CP=1.25x-x=0.25x

=640/4

=Rs 160

Q. 52 How many spherical balls each of 2cm radius can be made out of a solid metallic cube of edge 44 cm?(Take π = 22/7)

(A) 2420

(B) 2532

(C) 2448

(D) 2541

Answer: (D)

Q. 53 A sum of ₹6900 was lent partly at 5% and the rest at 8% simple interest. Total interest received after 3 years from both was ₹1359. What was the ratio of money lent at 5% and 8%?

(A) 10 : 13

(B) 11 : 12

(C) 14 : 9

(D) 31 : 38

Answer: (B)

Q. 54 The average ages of boys and girls in a class is 14.5 years and 15 years respectively. If the ratio of the number of boys and girls is 2 : 3, then what is the average age(in years) of all students in the class?

(A) 15.2

(B) 15.4

(C) 14.8

(D) 14.6

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

let the number of boys be 2x and girls be 3x

Sum of ages of all the boys=14.5*2x

=29x

Sum of ages of all the girls=15*3x

=45x

Sum of ages all the boys and girls=29x+45x

=74x

Total strength of the class=2x+3x=5x

Average=74x/5x

=14.8

Q. 55 Note-books are bought at 16 for ₹700 and sold at 11 for ₹500. How many notebooks should be sold to gain ₹450?

(A) 272

(B) 260

(C) 254

(D) 264

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Cost price of each book =Rs 700/16

Selling price of each book=Rs 500/11

Profit on each book=(500/11)-(700/16)

=100(3/176)

Total profit=450

let the number of books required be ‘n’

Therefore n*300/176 =450

n=88*3

n=264 books

Q. 56 The compound interest on a sum of ₹15800 for 2 years at 9% per annum, when the interest is compound 8 monthly,is (nearest to a rupee):

(A) ₹2992

(B) ₹3016

(C) ₹3018

(D) ₹2956

Answer: (C)

Q. 57 Amina saves 16% of her income. Now her income is increased by 20 % but she still saves the same amount as before. What is the percentage increase in her expenditure?

(A) 20.4

(B) 24.2

(C) 23.8

(D) 21.6

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

let the income be Rs 100

Savings=Rs 16

Expenditure=100-16

=Rs 84

New income=100*1.2

=Rs 120

Savings =Rs 16

Expenditure=Rs 104

Percentage increase in the expenditure=((104-84)/84)*100

=2000/84

=23.8%

Q. 58 Walking at 75% of his usual speed, Raghu is 80 minutes late to his office. What is his usual time in hours to cover the same distance?

(A) 3½

(B) 5

(C) 4

(D) 4½

Answer: (C)

Q. 59 A can do ⅗^th of a work in 12 days, B can do ⅓^rd of that work in 15 days. They worked together for 12 days and then A left the work , B alone will complete the remaining work in?

(A) 9 days

(B) 6 days

(C) 4 days

(D) 5 days

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Given A does (3/5)th of work in 12 days

so A takes 12*5/3 =20 days for complete work

similarly B takes 15 days for (1/3)rd work and so for complete work it takes 45 days

LCM of 20 and 45 is 180 units

Each day ‘A’ does 180/20 =9 units of work

Each day ‘B’ does 180/45 = 4 units of work

So each day both can complete 13 units of work

In 12 days they complete 12*13=156 units of work

So 180-156-24 units

B can complete 24 units in 24/4 =6 days

Q. 60 Study the following table, (which shows the number of units of an item manufactured and sold by 5 companies) and answer the question.

Which Company sold the highest percentage of units as compared to manufactured by it?

(A) B

(B) A

(C) E

(D) C

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Percentage of units sold compared to manufactured by A=(30/42)*100=71.42

Percentage of units sold compared to manufactured by B=(32/45)*100=71.11

Percentage of units sold compared to manufactured by C=(26/36)*100=72.22

Percentage of units sold compared to manufactured by E=(40/54)*100=74.07

Answer is E

Q. 61 The volume of a right circular cone is 2464 cm³If the radius of its base is 14 cm, then its curved surface area (in cm²) is:

(Take π = 22/7)

(A) 88√58

(B) 44√58

(D) 88√85

Answer: (D)

Q. 62 The diagonal of a rectangle field is 15 m and its area is 108 m². What is the cost of fencing the field at ₹50.50 per m?

(A) ₹2121

(B) ₹2020

(C) ₹1919

(D) ₹2222

Answer: (A)

Q. 63 If x is subtracted from each other of 17, 14, 22 and 18 then these numbers are in proportion, in this order. What is the mean proportion between 9x and 5x?

(A) 3√5

(B) 6

(C) 7

(D) 6√5

Answer: (D)

Q. 64 The average of 15 numbers is 56. The average of first 8 numbers is 54.4 and that of last 8 numbers is 56.6. If 8^th number is excluded then what is the average of the remaining numbers? (correct to one decimal place)

(A) 56.6

(B) 53.8

(C) 53.6

(D) 56.2

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Sum of 15 numbers=15*56=840

Sum of first 8 numbers=54.4*8=435.2

Sum of last 8 numbers=56.6*8=452.8

Sum of both=435.2+452.8=888

The eight number in the series=888-840

=48

Sum of the other 7 numbers=840-48

=792

Average of 14 numbers=792/14

=56.6

Q. 65 The value of:

3/8 of 4/5 ÷ 6/5 + 3/7 of 7/12 ÷ 1/40 of 2/5 – 11/3 ÷11/30 of 2/3

(A) 10¼

(B) 2¼

(C) 2½

(D) 3⅓

Answer: (A)

Q. 66 Two trains start at the same time, P from A to B and Q from B to A. If they arrive at B and A, respectively, 2½ hours and 10 hours after they passed each other, and the speed of P is 90 km/hr, then the speed of Q in kin/hr is?

(A) 80

(B) 75

(C) 45

(D) 60

Answer: (C)

Q. 67 What is the average of the mean, median and range of the data:

34, 41, 6, 13, 27, 20, 48, and 55 ?

(A) 30 ½

(B) 30 ⅓

(C) 36 ⅔

(D) 36 ⅓

Answer: (C)

Q. 68 Working together A, B and C can complete a piece of work in 24 days. After working together for 4 days. C left the work. A and B completed the remaining work in 30 days. The number of days taken by C alone to complete the same work is:

(A) 60

(B) 54

(C) 72

(D) 90

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

Let the total work be 48 units

Number of units of work they together do on each day=48/24 =2 units

In 4 days they together do 4*2=8 units of work

So 48-8=40 units is left

This is done by (A) and (B) in 30 days and so their combined efficiency=40/30

=4/3

In each day (C) can do 2-(4/3)=2/3 units

So 48 units is done in 48*3/2=72 days

Q. 69 A sum of ₹ x is divided among A, B and C such that the ratio of shares of A and B is 3 : 4 and that of B and C is 5: 6. If C receives ₹1440 more than what A receives, then the value of x is?

(A) 9280

(B) 9000

(C) 9440

(D) 9600

Answer: (C)

Explanation:

A:B=3:4

A:B=15:20

B:C=5:6

B:C=20:24

A:B:C=15:20:24

sum =15a+20a+24a=59a

24a-15a=1440

9a=1440

a=160

Total=59*160

=9440

Q. 70 Let x be the least number which when divided by 10, 12, 14 and 16 leaves the remainders 2, 4, 6 and 8, respectively, but x is divisible by 17. When x is divided by 52, the quotient is:

(A) 96

(B) 92

(C) 95

(D) 99

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

The given number leaves the same negative remainder when divided by 2,4,6 and 8 i.e 2-10,4-12,6-14,8-16=-8 So the given number will be in the form of LCM(10,12,14,16)k-8

=1680k-8

for k=1,2 the number obtained is not divisible by 17

for k=3 we have 1680*3-8

=5040-8

=5032

Required number is 5032/52=96.76

Q. 71 Two alloys A and B contain copper and zinc in the ratio 7 : 2 and 5 : 3 respectively. How many kg of A and B must be melted in order to get an alloy of 44 kg containing copper and Zinc in the ratio 3 : 1?

(A) 24 kg, 20 kg

(B) 30 kg, 14 kg

(C) 28 kg, 16 kg

(D) 36 kg, 8 kg

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Copper in the (A) alloy=7/9

Copper in the (B) alloy=5/8

Copper in the resultant mixture=3/4

let the ratio in which they are mixed is x

By using the principle of allegation we have

x=((3/4)-(5/8))/((7/9)-(3/4))

x=(1/8)/(1/36)

x=9:2

Given 44 kg of mixture and so zinc copper present is (3/4)*44=33 kg

Therefore (7/9)*9y +(5/8)*2y =33

7y+(5y/4)=33

33y/4 =33

y=4

9y=36 kgs and 2y=8 kgs

Q. 72 Study the following table, (which shows the number of units of an item manufactured and sold by 5 companies) and answer the question.

The ratio of the number of units manufactured by companies C and E together and the number of units sold by A and D together is?

(A) 15 : 11

(B) 17 : 15

(C) 24 : 13

(D) 15 : 13

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

total number of units manufactured by C and E together is 36+54=90 units

total number of units sold by A and D together is 30+36=66 units

ratio=90/66

=15:11

Q. 73 A person bought 80 m cloth at ₹110 per m and sold 75 % of it at a gain of 6 %. At what gain percent did he sell the remaining cloth, if he gained 10% on his outlay?

(A) 26%

(B) 22%

(C) 28%

(D) 24%

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Given that 1m cost= Rs 110

Total cost price=110*80

=8800

Total profit =10%

Therefore total SP=1.1 CP

=1.1 *8800

=Rs 9680

75% of cloth=80*(3/4)

=60m

It is sold at 6% profit so CP of 60m cloth=60*110=6600

SP of 60m cloth=1.06*6600

=Rs 6996

SP of remaining cloth= 9680-6996

=Rs 2684

CP of 20m cloth=20*110=2200

Profit percent=((2684-2200)/2200)*100

=484/22

=22%

Q. 74 Study the following table, (which shows the number of units of an item manufactured and sold by 5 companies) and answer the question.

What percent of total number of units sold by companies A, B and D is equal to the number of units manufactured by company C? (correct to one decimal place)

(A) 33.3

(B) 35.6

(C) 40.9

(D) 36.7

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Total units sold by A,(B) and D=30+32+26

=98 units

Total units manufactured by C=36

Therefore 98=100%

36=(36*100)/98

=3600/98

=36.7

Q. 75 [9.5 ÷ (0.6 × 0.75 + 0.8 ÷ 16) + 0.75] ÷ (0.03 ÷ 0.6 of 0.01)

The value of lies between:

(A) 2 and 3

(B) 1 and 2

(C) 0 and 1

(D) 3 and 4

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

[9.5 ÷ (0.6 × 0.75 + 0.8 ÷ 16) + 0.75] ÷ (0.03 ÷ 0.6 of 0.01)

= [9.5 ÷ (0.6 × 0.75 + 0.05) + 0.75] ÷ (5)

= [9.5 ÷ (0.45 + 0.05) + 0.75] ÷ (5)

= [19 + 0.75] ÷ (5)

=(19.75/5)

=3.95

English

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 76 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

A successful entertainer ………….. the right mood before beginning a joke or story.

(A) spreads

(B) engages

(C) creates

(D) enjoys

Answer: (C)

Instructions

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.

Passage:

After my job was over, I went to Mumbai and returned after (1)………… six months. I had barely taken (2)…………. my clothes when I saw Ratan standing (3)…………. a new baby. He was(4)…………. with joy. Even my daughter could not have (5)…………. such joy on finding her younger brother after several years.

Q. 77 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1.

(A) nearly

(B) rarely

(C) hardly

(D) merely

Answer: (A)

Q. 78 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2.

(A) away

(B) over

(C) of

(D) off

Answer: (D)

Q. 79 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3.

(A) with

(B) by

(C) near

(D) along

Answer: (A)

Q. 80 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4.

(A) bursting

(B) singing

(C) dancing

(D) skipping

Answer: (A)

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5.

(A) felt

(B) advised

(C) thought

(D) understood

Answer: (A)

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.

The soldiers were instructed to ……….. restraint and handle the situation peacefully.

(A) exercise

(B) prevent

(C) resist

(D) control

Answer: (A)

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

The GATT Treaty,it is explained, would allow subsidised to the extent of 10% of the market price.

(A) would allow supply

(B) would allow support

(C) would allow subsidy

(D) No improvement

Answer: (C)

Q. 84 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.

The speech he made on his visit to our college concerning our society’s needs have bothered me greatly.

(A) The speech

(B) have bothered

(C) on his visit

(D) concerning our

Answer: (B)

Q. 85 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.

He want to finish the assignment in the last week but in fact he could not.

(A) he could not

(B) in the last week

(C) want to finish

(D) the assignment

Answer: (C)

Q. 86 Select the correctly spelt word.

(A) Equivalent

(B) Equivelent

(C) Equivalant

(D) Eqivalent

Answer: (A)

Q. 87 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Every one of the survivor of the capsized ship has told the samestory.

(A) the same story

(B) Every one

(C) capsized ship

(D) of the survivor

Answer: (D)

Q. 88 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

One who knows everything

(A) Omniscient

(B) Omnipotent

(C) Onmnipatient

(D) Onmnipresent

Answer: (A)

Q. 89 Select the correctly spelt word.

(A) Throughfare

(B) Thoroghfare

(C) Thoroughfare

(D) Thoroufare

Answer: (C)

Q. 90 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom.

To sound a red alert.

(A) To wave a red flag

(B) To press a red button

(C) To raise an alarm

(D) To hear an alarm

Answer: (C)

Q. 91 Select the synonym of the given word.

GALLANT

(A) Wealthy

(B) Violent

(C) Courageous

(D) Wild

Answer: (C)

Q. 92 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

Dancing around a totem pole was one of the favourite pastimes of the American Indians.

(A) was one of the favourite pastime

(B) are the favourite pastimes

(C) No improvement

(D) were one of the favourite pastimes

Answer: (C)

Q.93 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

Operation Flood was started with the primary objective for linking rural producers with urban consumers.

(A) was started with the primary objectives of

(B) No improvement

(C) was started with primary objective

(D) was started with the primary objective of

Answer: (D)

Q. 94 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom.

In the good books

(A) To be in favour of

(B) To accompany good people

(C) To collect good books

(D) To do favourable things

Answer: (A)

Q. 95 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

A city which is multicultural

(A) Metro

(B) Cosmopolitan

(C) Urban

(D) Global

Answer: (B)

Q. 96 Select the antonym of the given word.

HOSTILE

(A) Friendly

(B) Optimistic

(C) Negative

(D) Serene

Answer: (A)

Q. 97 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Invite everyone in the group to ……….. us for a weekend party.

(A) join

(B) join together

(C) join them

(D) join each other

Answer: (A)

Q. 98 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

If you listened carefully, you ………..

(A) would understand

(B) will understand

(C) would have understood

(D) understand

Answer: (A)

Q. 99 Select the antonym of the given word.

DUBIOUS

(A) Docile

(B) Certain

(C) Doubtful

(D) Faithful

Answer: (B)

Q. 100 Select the synonym of the given word.

IMPAIR

(A) Improve

(B) Combine

(C) Introduce

(D) Weaken

Answer: (D)

SSC GD 19 Feb 2019 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC GD 19th Feb 2019 Shift-I

Reasoning

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 1 How would the pattern given on the square transparent sheet marked ‘X’ look when the sheet is folded along the dotted line?

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

When we fold the sheet along the dotted line, the resulting figure will be the mirror image of the original figure, thus the triangle originally pointing to the left will now point to the right, hence last option is eliminated.

As there is only a circle inside the triangle, thus in the answer figure there will only be a circle along the horizontal line (which is already present on the left side of X), thus only possible answer is the first one.

=> Ans – (A)

Q. 2 Four words have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one

(A) Joy

(B) Fear

(C) Anger

(D) Calm

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

All the words except calm are emotions, hence calm is the odd one out.

=> Ans – (D)

Q. 3 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements.

Statements:

1. Some flowers are white.

2. Some white objects are round.

Conclusions:

I. Some flowers are round.

II. Every round object is either white or a flower.

(A) Only conclusion II follows

(B) Both conclusions I and II follow

(C) Only conclusion I follows

(D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

The venn diagram for above statements is :

Conclusions:

I. Some flowers are round = false

II. Every round object is either white or a flower = false

Thus, neither conclusion I nor II follows.

=> Ans – (D)

Q. 4 If in a code language, HEAD = 4158 and PASTE = 52019116, then TRICK = ?

(A) 11391820

(B) 31191820

(C) 11391718

(D) 11932018

Answer: (A)

Q. 5 DAWN is related to DUSK in the same way as INAUGURATION is related to:

(A) MEETING

(B) VALEDICTION

(C) CONCLUSION

(D) INVITATION

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Dawn is opposite of Dusk, similarly antonym of Inauguration is Valediction.

=> Ans – (B)

Q. 6 Six houses A, B, C, D, E and F are located in two rows facing each other with three houses in each row. F is opposite C, which is to the left of E. D is to the right of A. Which house is facing B?

(A) (D)

(B) (A)

(C) (C)

(D) E

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

House C is to the left of E and F is opposite of C.

This means that FDA are in same row and BCE are in another row.

D is to the right of A, i.e. F is at one of the ends. Thus pattern is :

=> House (A) is facing B.

=> Ans – (B)

Q. 7 Select the correct mirror image of the following figure when the mirror is placed to its right.

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

When a vertical mirror is placed, object on the left will appear on the right inversed, and vice-versa. So, the trapezium on the right will appear on the left, but the longer un parallel side will remain on the top, thus first option is eliminated.

Similarly, the square at top left will still have vertical lines inside it, but will now appear at top right, as shown in the last image. =>

Ans – (D)

Q. 8 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.

2, 3, 4, 8, 16, 25, 52, …….

(A) 114

(B) 85

(C) 68

(D) 79

Answer: (C)

Q. 9 Choose the figure from the options that would follow next in the given series.

Answer: (C)

Q. 10 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

BDFH : AFCL :: FHJL : ?

(A) EIGP

(B) EJFO

(C) HFGN

(D) EJGP

Answer: (D)

Q. 11 Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly represents the relationships among the classes:

Educated, Mothers, Employed

Answer: (D)

Q. 12 Four numbers have been given out of which three are alike in some manner, while one is different. Choose the odd one.

(A) 84

(B) 91

(C) 42

(D) 55

Answer: (D)

Explanation:

Apart from 55, all other numbers are multiples of 7, hence it is the odd one.

=> Ans – (D)

Q. 13 If in a code language SYMPHONY is coded as ZOPIQNZT, then THURSDAY would be coded as:

(A) UIVSTEBZ

(B) ZBETSIVU

(C) XZCRQTGS

(D) ZBETSVIU

Answer: (D)

Q. 14 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.

2, 5, 7, 12, ?, 31, 50

(A) 18

(B) 19

(C) 25

(D) 21

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

The above series is an example of fibonacci series, where the next term is the sum of previous 2 terms.

2 + 5 = 7

5 + 7 = 12

7 + 12 = 19

12 + 19 = 31

19 + 31 = 50

=> Ans – (B)

Q. 15 The statements below are followed by two conclusions labeled I and II. Assuming that the information in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with generally established facts, decide which conclusion(s) logically and definitely follow(s) from the information given in the statements.

Statements:

1. Some mangoes are fruits.

2. All fruits are sweet.

Conclusions:

I. Some sweet objects are mangoes.

II. All sweet objects are fruits.

III. Some mangoes are neither fruits nor sweet.

(A) Only conclusions I and III follow

(B) Only conclusions II and III follow

(C) Only conclusions I and II follow

(D) Only conclusion I follows

Answer: (A)

Q. 16 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Torture : Cruelty :: Forgiveness : ?

(A) Politeness

(B) Generosity

(C) Gratitude

(D) Excuse

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

Expression = Torture : Cruelty :: Forgiveness : ?

Torture and cruelty have similar meanings, hence synonym of forgiveness is gratitude.

=> Ans – (B)

Q. 17 Choose the figure from the options in which the figure marked ‘X’ is embedded.

Answer: (C)

Q. 18 Pick the odd pair out.

(A) 14-41

(B) 17-52

(C) 23-32

(D) 12-21

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

In all the pairs except 17-52, the digits of the first number are reversed to form the second number, hence it is the odd one.

=> Ans – (B)

Q. 19 V, X, Y and Z are playing cards. X is to the left of Y and V is to the right of Z. If X is facing West, which direction is V facing?

(A) North

(B) South

(C) West

(D) East

Answer: (A)

Q. 20 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the following equation correct?

12 + 16 ÷ 8 × 4 − 8 = 24

(A) − and ÷

(B) × and −

(C) ÷ and ×

(D) + and ×

Answer: (A)

Q. 21 Which one of the following four-letter clusters does NOT belong to the group?

(A) CXWD

(B) FUSG

(C) DWTG

(D) BYWD

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

The pattern followed is that there are 2 pairs of symmetrically opposite alphabets in each term. Eg :- A and Z, B and Y, C and X, D and W and so on.

But in the second option, (FU) and (SG) does not belong to that series, hence it is the odd one.

=> Ans – (B)

Q. 22 Select the correct option that will fill in the blank and complete the series.

cab, gef, ljk, rpq, ……….

(A) ywx

(B) yxw

(C) zxy

(D) wvu

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Expression : cab, gef, ljk, rpq, ……….

The pattern followed in each letter of the terms is :

1st letter : c (+4 letters) = g (+5 letters) = l (+6 letters) = r (+7 letters) = y

2nd letter : a (+4 letters) = e (+5 letters) = j (+6 letters) = p (+7 letters) = w

3rd letter : b (+4 letters) = f (+5 letters) = k (+6 letters) = q (+7 letters) = x

Thus, missing term = ywx

=> Ans – (A)

Q. 23 Select the figure which when placed in the blank space of the figure marked ‘X’ would complete the pattern.

Answer: (A)

Q. 24 Among six objects P, Q, R, S, T and U, Q is heavier than R but lighter than T. S is lighter than T but heavier than U.P is lighter than Q but heavier than S. Which is the second heaviest object?

(A) Q

(B) T

(C) P

(D) S

Answer: (A)

Explanation:

Q is heavier than R but lighter than T, = T > Q > R

S is lighter than T but heavier than U, = T > S > U

P is lighter than Q but heavier than S, = Q > P > S

Thus, final arrangement : T > Q > R, P > S > U

∴ Q is the second heaviest.

=> Ans – (A)

Q. 25 The numbers in the following set are related in a certain way. Choose the set that is similar to the following set:

{6, 10, 8}

(A) {8, 12, 9}

(B) {5, 13, 12}

(C) {13, 17, 16}

(D) {3, 6, 4}

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

The numbers in the set {6, 10, 8} are sides of right angled triangle, the middle number being the hypotenuse.

(6)²+ (8)²= (10)²

(5)²+ (12)²= (13)²

Similarly, only in the set {5, 13, 12}, => , the numbers represent sides of right angled triangle.

=> Ans – (B)

General knowledge

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 26 The famous playback singer ……….. is a recipient of the Bharat Ratna Award.

(A) Shubha Mudgal

(B) Asha Bhonsale

(C) Shreya Ghoshal

(D) Lata Mangeshkar

Answer: (D)

Q. 27 Which day is celebrated as the World Environment Day?

(A) 5^th June

(B) 1^st December

(C) 5^th August

(D) 1^st May

Answer: (A)

Q. 28 Who is an ‘indentured labourer’?

(A) A slave from Africa

(B) A labour bought in a market

(C) An unpaid labourer

(D) A bonded labourer, working to pay off his passage to a new country

Answer: (D)

Q. 29 ………….. is known as the Eastern Mountain Range.

(A) Patkai Range

(B) Aravalli

(C) Karakoram

(D) Shivalik

Answer: (A)

Q. 30 What do banks utilize a major portion of the deposits for?

(A) Loans

(B) Guarantee

(C) Interest

(D) Collaterals

Answer: (A)

Q. 31 In the context of Indian National Movement, who was known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’?

(A) Maghfoor Ahmad Ajazi

(B) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

(C) Udham Singh

(D) Ashfaquila Khan

Answer: (B)

Q. 32 What is diluted acetic acid commonly known as?

(A) Oleum

(B) Blue vitriol

(C) Vinegar

(D) Alum

Answer: (C)

Q. 33 The slogan “Workers of the world unite” was associated to:

(A) French revolution

(B) American revolution

(C) Russian revolution

(D) Japanese revolution

Answer: (C)

Q. 34 The ICC Emerging Player of the Year 2018 was awarded to …………

(A) Hardik Pandya

(B) K.L. Rahul

(C) Rishabh Pant

(D) Shikhar Dhawan

Answer: (C)

Q. 35 The first amendment to the Indian Constitution was made in …………

(A) 1947

(B) 1948

(C) 1951

(D) 1950

Answer: (C)

Q. 36 Which type of micro-organism causes typhoid?

(A) Virus

(B) Bacteria

(C) Fungi

(D) Protozoa

Answer: (B)

Q. 37 The Constitution of India contains ……….. schedules.

(A) 11

(B) 12

(C) 14

(D) 13

Answer: (B)

Q. 38 When a force resists the relative motion between two surfaces, it is called ………..

(A) Resistance

(B) Convection

(C) Friction

(D) Induction

Answer: (C)

Q. 39 What is the movement of a plant due to the stimulus of light known as?

(A) Respiration

(B) Geotaxis

(C) Geotropism

(D) Phototropism

Answer: (D)

Q. 40 Malgudi Days was written by ………..

(A) Shashi Tharoor

(B) Vikram Seth

(C) Amish Tripathi

(D) R.K. Narayan

Answer: (D)

Q. 41 Who won the National Squash 2018 Women’s Singles title?

(A) Dipika Pallikal

(B) Bhuvaneshkumari

(C) Urwashi Joshi

(D) Joshna Chinappa

Answer: (D)

Q. 42 River Yamuna does NOT pass through which of the following states?

(A) Uttarakhand

(B) Haryana

(C) Gujarat

(D) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (C)

Q. 43 What is an annual statement of receipts and expenditure of the government over a fiscal year is known as?

(A) Capital

(B) Revenue

(C) Tax

(D) Budget

Answer: (D)

Q. 44 Which of the following pair correctly represents a state and the corresponding art form associated with it?

(A) Assam — Kathakali

(B) Tamil Nadu — Odissi

(C) Uttar Pradesh — Kathak

(D) Punjab — Mohiniyattam

Answer: (C)

Q. 45 Which one of the following is a labour intensive industry?

(A) Pulses

(B) Tea

(C) Maize

(D) Wheat

Answer: (B)

Q. 46 Under which of the following situations, the Fundamental Right to Freedom is curtailed in India?

(A) Financial Emergency

(B) Epidemic Emergency

(C) State Emergency

(D) National Emergency

Answer: (D)

Q. 47 Nalanda was an ancient center of learning for which religion?

(A) Islam

(B) Christianity

(C) Jainism

(D) Buddhism

Answer: (D)

Q. 48 Which of the following statement is NOT correct in the context of rising importance of tertiary sector in India?

(A) Growth of information and technology

(B) Growth in per capita income

(C) Growth of service providing industries

(D) Growth of political awareness in rural areas

Answer: (D)

Q. 49 Ustad Amjad Ali Khan is famous for playing the …………

(A) tabla

(B) violin

(C) veena

(D) sarod

Answer: (D)

Q. 50 RK Laxman is famous for ………..

(A) wall painting

(B) classical music

(C) films

(D) cartoons

Answer: (D)

Quant

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 51 When a person goes to his office from his house with a speed of 10 km/hr, he is late by 20 minutes. When he goes with speed of 15 km/hr, he is late by 5 minutes. What is the distance (in km) between his office and house?

(A) 8

(B) 7.5

(C) 7

(D) 8.5

Answer: (B)

Q. 52 The value of:

(A) 1/4

(B) 8

(C) 4

(D) 1/16

Answer: (D)

Q. 53 What is the sum of digits of the least number which when divided by 21, 28, 30 and 35 leaves the same remainder 10 in each case but is divisible by 17?

(A) 11

(B) 13

(C) 14

(D) 10

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

L.C.M. (21,28,30,35) = 420

Least number that will leave remainder 10 will be of the form = n = 1

Now, if , number = 430, which is not divisible by 17 n = 2

But, when , number = 850, which is divisible by 17

420n + 10

Thus, sum of digits of number 850 = => Ans – (B)

8 + 5 + 0 = 13

Q. 54 A park is in the shape of a rectangle. Its length and breadth 240 m and 100 m, respectively. At the center of the park, there is a circular lawn. The area of the park, excluding the lawn is 3904 m². What is the perimeter (in m) of the lawn? (use π = 3.14)

(A) 502.4

(B) 516.2

(C) 508.6

(D) 512.8

Answer: (A)

Q. 55 The value of: 1.25 − [1 ÷ {3 + (2 − 0.4 × 2.5)}]

(A) 2

(B) 1

(C) 0

(D) ½

Answer: (B)

Explanation:

1.25 − [1 ÷ {3 + (2 − 0.4 × 2.5)}]

Expression =

1.25 − [1 ÷ {3 + (2 − 1)}]

= 1.25 − [1 ÷ (4)]

= 1.25 − 0.25 = 1

=> Ans – (B)

Q. 56 The profit on selling 35 mangoes is equal to the cost price of 7 mangoes. What is the profit percentage?

(A) 33⅓

(B) 20

(C) 25

(D) 16⅔

Answer: (B)

Q. 57 A train takes 3 hours less time for a journey of 360 km, if its speed is increased by 10 km/hr from its usual speed. What is its increased speed (in km/ hr)?

(A) 40

(B) 42

(C) 36

(D) 30

Answer: (A)

Q. 58 After allowing a discount of 12½% on the marked price of an article. it was sold for ₹700. Had the discount NOT been given, the profit would have been 60%.The cost price of the article is:

(A) ₹500

(B) ₹540

(C) ₹600

(D) ₹480

Answer: (A)

Q. 59 If (x + 4), (x + 12), (x – 1), and (x + 5) are in proportion then the mean proportional between x and (x – 7)is:

(A) 9

(B) 16

(C) 15

(D) 12

Answer: (D)

Q. 60 Three positive number are given. If the average of any two of them is added to the third number, the sums obtained are 172, 216 and 180. What is the average of the given three numbers?

(A) 93

(B) 95 ⅓

(C) 94 ⅔

(D) 96

Answer: (C)

Q. 61 The selling price of an article is 84% of its cost price. If the cost price is increased by 20% and the selling price is increased by 25%, what is the percentage increase/decrease in the loss with respect to the earlier loss?

(A) 6¼ %, decrease

(B) 6⅔ %, decrease

(C) 6¼%, increase

(D) 6⅔ %, increase

Answer: (A)

Q. 62 2 men and 7 women can do a piece of work in 14 days whereas 3 men and 8 women can do it in 11 days. In how many days 5 men and 4 women can do the same work?

(A) 11

(B) 12

(C) 14

(D) 10

Answer: (A)

Q. 63 A metallic sphere of radius 4 cm is melted and the cast into small spherical balls, each of diameter 0.4 cm. The number of small balls will be:

(A) 1000

(B) 8000

(C) 4000

(D) 2000

Answer: (B)

Q. 64 A sum of ₹14460 is divided among A, B, C and D such that the ratio of share of A and B is 3 : 5, that of B and C is 6 : 7 and that of C and D is 14 : 15. What is the difference between the shares of A and C?

(A) ₹1440

(B) ₹1500

(C) ₹2100

(D) ₹2040

Answer: (D)

Q. 65 A pipe can fill a tank in 10 minutes while another pipe can empty it in 12 minutes. If the pipes are opened alternately each for 1 minute, beginning with the first pipe, the tank will be full after (in minutes):

(A) 90

(B) 109

(C) 108

(D) 120

Answer: (B)

Q. 66 Renu saves 30% of her income. If her savings increases by 30% and the expenditure increases by 25%, then the percentage increase in her income is:

(A) 30

(B) 25.8

(C) 26.5

(D) 15

Answer: (C)

Q. 67 Study the following table and answer questions:

Number of employees working in five different companies.

The ratio of the number of male employees in company C to the number of female employees in the company D is:

(A) 3 : 2

(B) 5 : 2

(C) 4 : 3

(D) 8 : 9

Answer: (C)

Q. 68 The compound interest on a sum of ₹15625 for years at 16% per annum, the interest compound annually is :

(A) ₹6661

(B) ₹5400

(C) ₹7932

(D) ₹7923

Answer: (D)

Q. 69 A and B are two cones. The curved surface area of A is twice that of B. The slant height of B is twice that of A. What is the ratio of radii of A to B?

(A) 3:2

(B) 1:4

(C) 4:1

(D) 2:1

Answer: (C)

Q. 70 Study the following table and answer questions:

Number of employees working in five different companies.

The number of female employees in company C is what percent more than the number of male employees in company E?

(A) 55

(B) 60

(C) 48

(D) 54

Answer: (B)

Q. 71 Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5. If 9 is subtracted from each, the numbers so obtained are in the ratio 12 : 23. If 3 is added to the smaller number and 7 is subtracted from the other number, then they will be in the ratio:

(A) 5 : 6

(B) 4 : 5

(C) 3 : 4

(D) 5 : 8

Answer: (C)

Q. 72 Study the following table and answer questions:

Number of employees working in five different companies.

What percent of total male employees in companies A and B is the number of female employees in E?

(A) 35

(B) 36

(C) 30

(D) 32

Answer: (A)

Q. 73 What is the mean of the range, median and mode of the data given below ?

1, 2, 5, 9, 6, 3, 9, 7, 4, 3, 9, 1, 9, 6, 8, 1

(A) 7½

(B) 8

(C) 8½

(D) 7

Answer: (A)

Q. 74 The simple interest on a certain sum at 14% per annum for 3¼ years is ₹3731. What will the amount of the same sum for 5½ years at half the earlier rate?

(A) ₹11931

(B) ₹11913

(C) ₹11537

(D) ₹11357

Answer: (D)

Q. 75 The average height of a certain number of persons in a group is 155.5 cm. Later on 4 persons of height 154.6 cm, 158.4 cm, 152.2 cm and 153.8 cm leave the group. As a result the average height of the remaining persons increases by 0.15 cm. What was the number of persons initially in the group?

(A) 18

(B) 20

(C) 22

(D) 24

Answer: (D)

English

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 76 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. Had you told me that you were in Mumbai I could have certainly contacted you instead of waiting here.

(A) you were

(B) Had you

(C) could have

(D) instead of

Answer: (C)

Q. 77 Select the correctly spelt word.

(A) Contemparary

(B) Contemporary

(C) Comtemporary

(D) Contempory

Answer: (B)

Q. 78 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

One who loves mankind

(A) Humanist

(B) Philologist

(C) Philanthropist

(D) Philosopher

Answer: (C)

Q. 79 Select the synonym of the given word.

ABILITY

(A) Disposition

(B) Outlook

(C) Instinct

(D) Capacity

Answer: (D)

Q. 80 Select the antonym of the given word.

VIRTUOUS

(A) Worthy

(B) Honest

(C) Kind

(D) Vicious

Answer: (D)

Instructions

In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.

Passage:

Fundamentally, all human beings possess a combination of fixed inherited traits. All individuals possess the ………….(1) highly developed nervous system, backbones, erect posture, hair,etc. Therefore, ………..(2) among human beings arise only in …………..(3) changes of this basic pattern. Racial differences …………..(4) one of the finest distinctions and are based only on ……….(5) slight differences.

Q. 81 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 1.

(A) natural

(B) large

(C) same

(D) different

Answer: (C)

Q. 82 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 2.

(A) similarities

(B) naturalness

(C) sameness

(D) variations

Answer: (D)

Q. 83 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 3.

(A) minor

(B) complete

(C) large

(D) fundamental

Answer: (A)

Q. 84 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 4.

(A) show

(B) represent

(C) give

(D) present

Answer: (B)

Q. 85 Select the most appropriate option that will fill in the blank number 5.

(A) hidden

(B) possible

(C) clear

(D) certain

Answer: (D)

Instructions

For the following questions answer them individually

Q. 86 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.

Devika is the most ……….. of them all and has managed to do well in her profession.

(A) intelligent

(B) simple

(C) insolent

(D) audacious

Answer: (A)

Q. 87 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom.

Have several irons in the fire

(A) Doing iron related work

(B) Having too many engagements at a time

(C) Burning unwanted pieces of iron

(D) Talking to many persons simultaneously

Answer: (B)

Q. 88 Select the synonym of the given word.

CHARACTER

(A) Performance

(B) Spirit

(C) Mannerism

(D) Trait

Answer: (D)

Q. 89 Select the antonym of the given word.

TRANSPARENT

(A) White-coloured

(B) Translucent

(C) Milky

(D) Opaque

Answer: (D)

Q. 90 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

The rules of chess require that one has to makes only one move at time.

(A) made

(B) has to make

(C) will make

(D) No improvement

Answer: (B)

Q. 91 Select the word which means the same as the group of words given.

A person who is more than hundred years old

(A) Centurial

(B) Centuriator

(C) Centurion

(D) Centenarian

Answer: (D)

Q. 92 Select the correctly spelt word.

(A) Incorigible

(B) Incorrigible

(C) Incourrigible

(D) Incorrigibel

Answer: (B)

Q. 93 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

He has been ………. my birthday all week!

(A) celebrate

(B) celebrating

(C) celebrated

(D) celebrates

Answer: (B)

Q. 94 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.

Suresh is ………… in collecting stamps.

(A) habitual

(B) interested

(C) customary

(D) habituated

Answer: (B)

Q. 95 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

He decided to leave very quickly the hotel.

(A) leave the hotel quickly.

(B) leave quickly the hotel.

(C) quickly leave hotel.

(D) No improvement

Answer: (A)

Q. 96 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. If the report did not have the information need edit could not be used by them.

(A) be used by them

(B) it could not

(C) If the

(D) information needed

Answer: (C)

Q. 97 From the given options, identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error. The errors for the typed reports were so numerous that they could hardly be overlooked.

(A) typed reports

(B) could hardly be

(C) so numerous

(D) errors for

Answer: (D)

Q. 98 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

………….. in Nagpur, we are unwilling to move to another city.

(A) Since we have lived

(B) Since we were living

(C) Being that we are living

(D) Since we have been living

Answer: (D)

Q. 99 Select the option that means the same as the given idiom.

In high spirits

(A) Become successful

(B) Feel joyful

(C) Create confusion

(D) Remain calm

Answer: (B)

Q. 100 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.

Though a hero, he acted a coward.

(A) like a coward

(B) cowardly

(C) No improvement

(D) as coward

Answer: (A)

Author: Vidhyarthi Darpan

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