AIPMT 2010 Mains Previous Year Paper

AIPMT 2010 Mains

Q. 1 A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating about its axis with constant angular velocity ω. Two objects each of mass m are attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of the ring. The ring now rotates with angular velocity given by

A. 2Mω/M+2m

B. (M+2m)ω/M

C. Mω/M+2m

D. (M+2m)ω/2m

Q. 2 From a circular disc of radius R and mass 9M, a small disc of mass M and radius R / 3 is removed concentrically. The moment of inertia of the remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the disc and passing through its centre is

A. MR²

B. 4 MR²

C. 4/9 MR²

D. 40/9 MR²

Q. 3 A particle of mass M starting from rest undergoes uniform acceleration. If the speed acquired in time T is V, the power delivered to the particle is

A. MV²/2T²

B. MV²/T²

C. MV²/2T

D. MV²/T

Q. 4 A solid cylinder and a hollow cylinder both of the same mass and same external diameter are released from the same height at the same time on an inclined plane. Both roll down without slipping. Which one will reach the bottom first

A. Both together

B. Hollow cylinder

C. Solid cylinder

D. Both together only when angle of inclination of plane is 45º

Q. 5 The dependence of acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ on the distance ‘r’ from the centre of the earth, assumed to be a sphere of radius R of uniform density is as shown in figure below.The correct figure is+

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

Q. 6 The additional kinetic energy to be provided to a satellite of mass m revolving around a planet of mass M, to transfer it from a circular orbit of radius R1 to another of radius R2 (R2 > R1) is

A. GmM(1/R1-1/R2)

B. 2GmM(1/R1-1/R2)

C. 1/2GmM(1/R1-1/R2)

D. GmM(1/R1²-1/R2²)

Q. 7 A student measures the distance traversed in free fall of a body, initially at rest in a given time. He uses this data to estimate g, the acceleration due to gravity. If the maximum percentage errors in measurement of the distance and the time are e1 and e2 respectively, the percentage error in the estimation of g is

A. e1 + 2e2

B. e1 + e2

C. e1 – 2e2

D. e2 – e1

Q. 8 The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is half of its initial speed. The angle of projection is

A. 15º

B. 30º

C. 45º

D. 60º

Q. 9 (a) Centre of gravity (C, G) of a body is the point at which the weight of the body acts.

(b) Centre of mass coincides with the centre of gravity if the earth is assumed to have infinitely large radius.

(c) To evaluate the gravitational field intensity due to any body at an external point, the entire mass of the body can be considered to be concentrated at its C.G

(d) The radius of gyration of any body rotation about an axis is the length of the perpendicular dropped from the C.G. of the body to the axis.

Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct

A. (a) and (b)

B. (b) and (c)

C. (c) and (d)

D. (d) and (a)

Q. 10 The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in free space is given by – E̅ = 10 cos (10^7t + kx) ĵ V/m, where t and x are in seconds and metres respectively. It can be inferred that

(a) The wavelength λ is 188.4 m

(b) The wave number k is 0.33 rad / m

(d) The wave is propagating along + x direction

Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct ?

A. (a) and (b)

B. (b ) and (c)

C. (a) and (c)

D. (c) and (d)

Q. 11 A particle moves in x – y plane according to rule x = a sin ωt and y = a cos ωt. The particle

follows

A. a circular path

B. a parabolic path

C. a straight line path inclined equally to x and y-axes

D. an elliptical path

Q. 12 The speed of light in media M1 and M2 is 1.5 × 10^8 m/s and 2.0 × 10^8 m/s respectively. A ray of light enters from medium M1 to M2 at an incidence angle i. If the ray suffers total internal reflection the value of i is

Equal to or less than sin-135
Equal to or greater than sin-134
less than sin-123
Equal to sin-123

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 13 A ray of light is incident on a 60º prism at the minimum deviation position. The angle of refraction at the first face (i.e. incident face) of the prism is

A. 30º

B. 45º

C. 60º

D. zero

Q. 14 A monatomic gas at pressure P1 and volume V1 is compressed adiabatically to 1/8th its

original volume. What is the final pressure of gas –

A. P1

B. 16P1

C. 32P1

D. 64P1

Q. 15 If Cp and Cv denote the specific heats (per unit mass) of an ideal gas of molecular weight M.Where R is the molar gas constant-

A. Cp – Cv = R

B. Cp – Cv = R / M

C. Cp – Cv = MR

D. Cp – Cv = R / M²

Q. 16 The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atom is

A. 1

B. between zero and one

C. equal to zero

D. much greater than one

Q. 17 A current loop consists of two identical semicircular parts each of radius R, one lying in the x-y plane and the other in x-z plane. If the current in the loop is i. The resultant magnetic field due to the two semicircular parts at their common centre is –

A. μ∘i/2R

B. μ∘i/4R

C. μ∘i/√2R

D. μ∘i/2√2R

Q. 18 Two identical bar magnets are fixed with their centres at a distance d apart. A stationary charge Q is placed at P in between the gap of the two magnets at distance D from the centre O as shown in the figure.The force on the charge Q is –

A. direction along OP

B. direction along PQ

C. directed perpendicular to the plane of paper

D. zero

Q. 19 A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section 1.5 × 10–4m2 carries a current of 2.0 A. It is suspended through its centre and perpendicular to its length allowing it to turn in a horizontal plane in a uniform magnetic field 5 × 10–2 Tesla making an angle of 30º With the axis of the solenoid. The torque on the solenoid will be

A. 1.5 × 10^–3 N.m

B. 1.5 × 10^–2 N.m

C. 3 × 10^–2 N.m

D. 3 × 10^–3 N.m

Q. 20 A condenser of capacity C is charged to a potential difference of V1. The plates of the condenser are then connected to an ideal inductor of inductance L. The current through the inductor when the potential difference across the condenser reduces to V2 is

A. C(V1²-V2²)/L

B. C(V1²+V2²)/L

C. (C(V1²-V2²)/L)^1/2

D. (C(V1-V2)²/L)^1/2

Q. 21 Two parallel metal plates having charges +Q and –Q face each each other at a certain distance between them. If the plates are now dipped in kerosene oil tank, the electric field between the plates will –

A. increase

B. decrease

C. remain same

D. become zero

Q. 22 The electric field at a distance 3R/2 from the centre of a charged conducting spherical shell of radius R is E. The electric field at a distance R/2 from the centre of the sphere is –

A. E

B. E/2

C. E/3

D. zero

Q. 23 The thermo e.m.f E in volts of a certain thermocouple is found to vary with temperature difference θ in ºC between the two junctions according to the relation E = 30 θ – θ²/15 The neutral temperature for the thermo-couple will be

A. 400ºC

B. 225ºC

C. 30ºC

D. 450ºC

Q. 24 A particle having a mass of 10^–2 kg carries a charge of 5 × 10^–8-C. The particle is given an initial horizontal velocity of 10^5 m/s in the presence of electric field E̅ and magnetic field B̅ . To keep the particle moving in a horizontal direction, it is necessary that –

(a) B̅ should be perpendicular to the direction of velocity and E̅ should be along the direction of velocity.

(b) Both B̅ and E̅ should be along the direction of velocity.

(d)B̅ should be along the direction of velocity and E̅ should be perpendicular to the direction of velocity.

Which one of the following pairs of statements is possible ?

A. (c) and (d)

B. (b) and (c)

C. (b) and (d)

D. (a) and (c)

Q. 25 When monochromatic radiation of intensity I falls on a metal surface, the number of photoelectron and their maximum kinetic energy are N and T respectively. If the intensity of radiation is 2I, the number of emitted electrons and their maximum kinetic energy are respectively

A. 2N and T

B. 2N and 2T

C. N and T

D. N and 2T

Q. 26 The electrons in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited state (n = 3) to its ground state (n = 1) and the photons thus emitted irradiate a photosensitive material. If the work function of the material is 5.1 eV, the stopping potential is estimated to be (the energy of the electron in nth state En=-13.6/n² eV)

A. 12.1 V

B. 17.2 V

C. 7 V

D. 5.1 V

Q. 27 The binding energy per nucleon in deuterium and helium nuclei are 1.1 MeV and 7.0 MeV, respectively. When two deuterium nuclei fuse to form a helium nucleus the energy released in the fusion is

A. 2.2 MeV

B. 28.0 MeV

C. 30.2 MeV

D. 23.6 MeV

Q. 28 The decay constant of a radio isotope is λ. If A1 and A2 are its activities at times t1 and t2 respectively, the number of nuclei which have decayed during the time (t1 – t2) –

A. A1-A2

B. (A1 – A2) / λ

C. λ (A1 – A2)

D. A1t1 – A2t2

Q. 29 For transistor action –

(a) Base, emitter and collector regions should have similar size and doping concentrations.

(b) The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.

(c)The emitter-base junction is forward biased and base-collector junction is reverse biased.

(d)Both the emitter-base junctions as well as the base collector junction are forward biased.

Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct ?

A. (a), (b)

B. (b), (c)

C. (c), (d)

D. (d), (a)

Q. 30 The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B the output Y. The voltage waveforms of A, B and Y are as given .The logic gate is –

A. OR gate

B. AND gate

C. NAND gate

D. NOR gate

Q. 31 For vaporization of water at 1 atmospheric pressure, the values of ΔH and ΔS are 40.63 kJ/mol and 108.8 J/K mol, respectively. The temperature when Gibbs energy change (ΔG) for this transformation will be zero, is –

A. 393.4 K

B. 373.4 K

C. 293.4 K

D. 273.4 K

Q. 32 A 0.66 kg ball is moving with a speed of 100 m/s. The associated wavelength will be (h = 6.6 ×

10^–34 Js)-

A. 6.6 × 10⁻³⁴ m

B. 1.0 × 10 m

C. 1.0 × 10⁻³² m

D. 6.6 × 10⁻³² m

Q. 33 Three moles of an ideal gas expands spontaneously into vacuum. The work done will be

A. 3 Joules

B. 9 Joules

C. zero

D. Infinite

Q. 34 The following two reactions are known

Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g); ΔH = – 26.8 kJ

FeO(s) + CO (g) → Fe(s) + CO2(g); ΔH = – 16.5 kJ

The value of ΔH for the following reaction

Fe2O3(s) + CO(g) → 2FeO(s) + CO2(g) is

A. – 43.3 kJ

B. – 10.3 kJ

C. + 6.2 kJ

D. + 10.3 kJ

Q. 35 The reaction 2A(g) + B(g) ⇔ 3C(g) + D(g) is begun with the concentrations of A and B both at an initial value of 1.00 M. When equilibrium is reached, the concentration of D is measured and found to be 0.25 M. The value for the equilibrium constant for this reaction is given by the expression

A. [(0.75)³ (0.25)] ÷ [(0.50)² (0.75)]

B. [(0.75)³ (0.25)] ÷ [(0.50)² (0.25)]

C. [(0.75)³ (0.25)] ÷ [(0.75)² (0.25)]

D. [(0.75)³ (0.25)] ÷ [(1.00)² (1.00)]

Q. 36 The pressure exerted by 6.0 g of methane gas in a 0.03 m³ vessel at 129 ºC is (Atomic masses : C = 12.01, H = 1.01 and R = 8.314 J/Kmol)

A. 13409 Pa

B. 41648 Pa

C. 31684 Pa

D. 215216 Pa

Q. 37 Which of the following expressions correctly represents the equivalent conductance at infinite dilution of Al2(SO4)3 ? Given that ΛºAl3+ and ΛºSO4(2−) are the equivalent conductances at infinite dilution of the respective ions

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 38 How many bridging oxygen atoms are present in P4O10 ?

A. 4

B. 2

C. 5

D. 6

Q. 39 Among the following which one has the highest cation to anion size ratio?

A. CsF

B. LiF

C. NaF

D. CsI

Q. 40 Which of the following oxidation states is the most common among the lanthanoids ?

A. 2

B. 5

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 41 Some of the properties of the two species, NO3− and H3O+ are described below. Which one

of them is correct?

A. Isostructural with same hybridization for the central atom

B. Isostructural with different hybridization for the central atom

C. Similar in hybridization for the central atom with different structures

D. Dissimilar in hybridization for the central atom with different structures.

Q. 42 The compound A on heating gives a colourless gas and a residue that is dissolved in water to obtain B. Excess of CO2 is bubbled through aqueous solution of B, C is formed which is recovered in the solid form. Solid C on gentle heating gives back A. The compound A is

A. Na2CO3

B. K2CO3

C. CaSO4.2H2O

D. CaCO3

Q. 43 Among the elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl, the order of increasing atomic radii is

A. Cl < P < Mg < Ca

B. P < Cl < Ca < Mg

C. Ca < Mg < P < Cl

D. Mg < Ca < Cl < P

Q. 44 Which one of the following complexes is not expected to exhibit isomerism ?

A. [Pt (NH3)2 Cl2]

B. [Ni (NH3)2Cl2]

C. [Ni (en)3]2+

D. [Ni (NH3)4 (H2O)2]2+

Q. 45 Which one of the following compounds will be most readily dehydrated ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 46 Among the following four compounds

(a) Phenol (b) methyl phenol

the acidity order is –

A. c > d > a > b

B. a > d > c > b

C. b > a > c > d

D. d > c > a > b

Q. 47 Fructose reduces Tollen’s reagent due to –

A. primary alcoholic group

B. secondary alcoholic group

C. enolisation of fructose followed by conversion to aldehyde by base

D. asymmetric carbons

Q. 48 Which of the following conformers for ethylene glycol is most stable ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 49 The IUPAC name of the compound CH3CH = CHC ≡ CH is –

A. Pent – 3 – en – 1 – yne

B. Pent – 2 – en – 4 – yne

C. Pent – 1 – yn – 3 – ene

D. Pent – 4 – yn – 2 – ene

Q. 50 When glycerol is treated with excess of HI, it produces

A. allyl iodide

B. propene

C. glycerol triiodide

D. 2-iodopropane

Q. 51 Which of the following species is not electrophilic in nature ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 52 In the following reaction, The product ‘X’ is

A. C6H5CH2OH

B. C6H5CH3

C. C6H5CH2CH2C6H5

D. C6H5CH2OCH2C6H5

Q. 53 In which of the following molecules the central atom does not have sp³ hybridization ?

A. SF4

B. BF4¯

C. NH4+

D. CH4

Q. 54 The rate of the reaction 2NO + Cl2 → 2NOCl is given by the rate equation rate = k[NO]²[Cl2]

The value of the rate constant can be increased by –

A. increasing the concentration of NO

B. increasing the concentration of the Cl2

C. increasing the temperature

D. doing all of these

Q. 55 Match List – I (Equations) with List – II (Type of processes) and select the correct option

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 56 Match List-I (substances) with List-II (processes) employed in the manufacture of the

substances and select the correct option

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 57 Match the compounds given in List -I with their characteristic reactions given in List -II.

Select the correct option.

List – I

Compounds

(a) CH3CH2CH2CH2NH2

(b) CH3C≡CH

(d) CH3CH(OH)CH3

List – II

Reactions

(i) alkaline hydrolysis

(ii) with KOH (alcohol) and CHCl3 produces bad smell

(iii) gives white ppt. with ammoniacal AgNO3

(iv) with Lucas reagent cloudiness appears after 5 minutes

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 58 Some statements about water are given below:

(a) Heavy water is used as a moderator in nuclear reactors

(b) Heavy water is more associated than ordinary water

Which of the above statements are correct ?

A. (a), (b) and (c)

B. (b) and (c)

C. (a)and (c)

D. (a) and (b)

Q. 59 Consider the following relations for emf of a electrochemical cell :

(a) emf of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) – (Reduction potential of cathode)

(b) emf of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) + (Reduction potential of cathode)

(d) emf of cell = (Oxidation potential of anode) – (Oxidation potential of cathode)

Which of the above relations are correct ?

A. (a) and (b)

B. (c) and (d)

C. (b) and (d)

D. (c) and (a)

Q. 60 Following compounds a,b,c,d are given.Which of the above compounds(s), on being

warmed with iodine solution and NaOH, will give iodoform ?

A. Only (b)

B. (a), (b) and (c)

C. (a) and (b)

D. (a), (c) and (d)

Q. 61 Given below is the diagram of a bacteriophage. In which one of the options all the four

parts A, B, C and D are correct

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 62 Examine the figures A, B, C and D. In which one of the four options all the items, A, B, C and

D are correct ?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 63 In eukaryotic cell transcription, RNA splicing and RNA capping take place inside the

A. Nucleus

B. Dictyosomes

C. ER

D. Ribosomes

Q. 64 The figure given below shows the conversions of a substrate into product by an enzyme. In which one of the four options (1-4) the components of reaction labelled as A, B, C and D are identified correctly

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 65 An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present in the cytoplasm

which helps in the maintenance of cell shape is called

A. Endoplasmic Reticulum

B. Plasmalemma

C. Cytoskeleton

D. Thylakoid

Q. 66 In antirrhinum two plants with pink flowers were hybridized. The F1 plants produced red, pink and white flowers in the proportion of 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white. What could be the genotype of the two plants used for hybridization ? Red flower colour is determined by RR, and White by rr genes

A. RR

B. Rr

C. rr

D. rrrr

Q. 67 The lac Operon consists of

A. One regulatory gene and three structural genes

B. Two regulatory genes and two structural genes

C. Three regulatory genes and three structure genes

D. Four regulatory genes only

Q. 68 A cross in which an organism showing a dominant phenotype in crossed with the recessive parent in order to know its genotype is called

A. Back cross

B. Test cross

C. Dihybrid cross

D. Monohybrid cross

Q. 69 Transport of food material in higher plants takes place through –

A. Transfusion tissue

B. Tracheids

C. Sieve elements

D. Companion cells

Q. 70 Kranz anatomy is one of the characteristics of the leaves of

A. Wheat

B. sugarcane

C. mustard

D. potato

Q. 71 Consider the following four statement A, B, C & D and select the right option for two correct statement.The correct statements are

A. A and B

B. B and C

C. C and D

D. A and C

Q. 72 Vegetative propagation in pistia occurs by

A. offset

B. Runner

C. Sucker

D. Stolon

Q. 73 Which one of the following is monoecious ?

A. Cycas

B. Pinus

C. Date palm

D. Marchantia

Q. 74 The correct floral formula of soybean is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 75 Aestivation of petals in the flower of cotton is correctly shown in

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 76 Study the pathway given below.In which of the following options correct words for all the three blanks A, B and C are indicated?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 77 Given below is the diagram of a stomatal apparatus. In which of the following all the four

parts labelled as A, B, C and D are correctly identified

	A	B	C	D
1	Guard cell	Stomatal aperture	Subsidiary Cell	Epidermal cell
2	Epidermal cell	Guard cell	Stomatal aperture	Subsidiary Cell
3	Epidermal cell	Subsidiary Cell	Stomatal aperture	Guard cell
4	Subsidiary Cell	Epidermal cell	Guard cell	Stomatal aperture

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 78 Read the following four statements A, B, C and D and select the right option having both

correct statements – STATEMENTS

(A) Z-scheme of light reaction takes place in presence of PSI only

(B) Only PSI functional in cyclic photophosphorylation

(D) Stroma lamellae lack PSII as well as NADP

A. A and B

B. B and C

C. C and D

D. B and D

Q. 79 One of the commonly used plant growth hormone in tea plantations is

A. Abscisic acid

B. Zeatin

C. Indole-3- acetic acid

D. Ethylene

Q. 80 Root development is promoted by

A. Auxin

B. Gibberellin

C. Ethylene

D. Abscisic acid

Q. 81 Examine the figure (A-D) given below and select the right option out of 1-4, in which all the

four structures A, B, C and D

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 82 Which of the following representations shows the pyramid of numbers in a forest

Ecosystem

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q. 83 Study the cycle shown below and select the option which gives correct words for all the

four blanks A, B, C and D

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 84 Which one of the following is a xerophytic plant in which the stem is modified into a flat

green and succulent structure

A. Casuarina

B. Hydrilla

C. Acacia

D. Opuntia

Q. 85 An example of endomycorrhiza is

A. Glomus

B. Agaricus

C. Rhizobium

D. Nostoc

Q. 86 Leguminous plants are able to fix atmospheric nitrogen through the process of symbiotic nitrogen fixation. Which one of the following statements is not correct during this process of nitrogen fixation

A. Nodules act as sites for nitrogen fixation

B. The enzyme nitrogenase catalyses the conversion of atmospheric N2 to NH3

C. Nitrogen is insensitive to oxygen

D. Leghaemoglobin scavenges oxygen and is pinkish in colour

Q. 87 Black (stem) rust of wheat is caused by

A. Ustilago nuda

B. Puccinia graminis

C. Xanthomonas oryzae

D. Alternaria solani

Q. 88 Which of the following are used in gene cloning

A. Lomasomes

B. Mesosomes

C. Plasmids

D. Nucleoids

Q. 89 Which one of the following can not be used for preparation of vaccines against plague

A. A virulent live bacteria

B. Synthetic capsular polysaccharide material

C. Heat-killed suspensions of virulent bacteria

D. Formalin-inactivated suspensions of virulent bacteria

Q. 90 Which one of the following is now being commercially produced by biotechnological

procedures

A. Morphine

B. Quinine

C. Insulin

D. Nicotine

Q. 91 Crocodile and Penguin are similar to Whale and Dogfish in which one of the following

features ?

A. Lay eggs and guard them till they hatch

B. Possess bony skeleton

C. Have gill slits at some stage

D. Possess a solid single stranded central nervous system

Q. 92 Select the correct combination of the statements (a-d) regarding the characteristics of

certain organisms –

(a) Methanogens are Archaebacteria which produce methane in marshy areas

(b) Nostoc is a filamentous blue-green alga which fixes atmospheric nitrogen

(d) Mycoplasma lack a cell wall and can survive without oxygen

The correct statements are

A. (a), (b) (c)

B. (b), (c), (d)

C. (a), (b) (d)

D. (b), (c)

Q. 93 Identify the components labelled A, B, C and D in the diagram below from the list (i) to (viii)

given along with

Components :

(i) Cristae of mitochondria

(ii) Inner membrane of mitochondria

(iii) Cytoplasm

(iv) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

(v) Rough endoplasmic reticulum

(vi) Mitochondrial matrix

(vii) Cell vacuole

(viii) Nucleus

The correct components are :

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 94 Three of the following statements about enzymes are correct and one is wrong. Which one is wrong

A. Enzymes are denatured at high temperature but in certain exceptional organisms they are effective even at temperatures 80º – 90ºC

B. Enzymes are highly specific

C. Most enzymes are proteins but some are lipids

D. Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal activity

Q. 95 Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given below and select the correct conclusion

which can be drawn for the character

A. The parents could not have had a normal daughter for this character

B. The trait under study could not be colourblindness

C. The male parent is homozygous dominant

D. The female parent is heterozygous

Q. 96 The most apparent changes during the evolutionary history of Homo sapiens is traced in

A. Walking upright

B. Shortening of the jaws

C. Remarkable increase in the brain size

D. Loss of body hair

Q. 97 Given below are four statements (A-D) each with one or two blanks. Select the option which

correctly fills up the blanks in two statements

A. (A) – (i) convergent, (B) – (ii) oxygen, (ii) nucleosides

B. (B) – (i) water vapour, (ii) amino acids, (C) – (i) rudimentary (ii) anatomical

C. (C) – (i) vestigial, (ii) anatomical, (D) – (i) mutations, (ii) multiplication

D. (D) – (i) small variations, (ii) survival, (A) – (i) convergent

Q. 98 Fastest distribution of some injectable material / medicine and with no risk of any kind can

be achieved by injecting it into the

A. arteries

B. veins

C. lymph vessels

D. muscles

Q. 99 Select the answer with correct matching of the structure, its location and function

A	B	C
1	Cerebellum	Mid brain	Controls respirationand gastric secretions
2	Hypothalamus	Fore brain	Controls bodytemperature, urge foreating and drinking
3	Blind spot	Near the placewhere opticnerve leaves theeye	Rods and cones arepresent but inactivehere
4	Eustachian tube	Anterior part ofinternal ear	Equalizes airpressure on eithersides of tympanicmembrane

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 100 ABO blood grouping is controlled by gene I which has three alleles and show codominance. There are six genotypes. How many phenotypes in all are possible

A. three

B. four

C. five

D. six

Q. 101 Which one of the following is the correct description of a certain part of a normal human

Skeleton

A. First vertebra is axis which articulates with the occipital condyles

B. The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the floating ribs

C. Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the thigh bone articulates

D. Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull are joined by fibrous joint

Q. 102 In which one of the following organisms its excretory organs are correctly stated ?

A. Earthworm – Pharyngeal, integumentary and septal nephridia

B. Cockroach – Malpighian tubules and entire caeca

C. Frog – Kidneys, skin and buccal epithelium

D. Humans – Kidney, sebaceous glands and fear glands

Q. 103 Select the correct matching of a hormone its source and functional

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 104 Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding human blood circulatory system

(a) Arteries are thick-walled and have narrow lumen as compared to veins

(b) Angina is acute chest pain when the blood circulation to the brain is reduced

(d) Calcium ions play a very important role in blood clotting

Which two of the above statements are correct ?

A. a and b

B. b and c

C. c and d

D. a and d

Q. 105 Which one of the following statements about the particular entity is true

A. The gene for producing insulin is present in every body cell

B. Nucleosome is formed of nucleotides

C. DNA consists of a core of eight histones

D. Centromere is found in animals cells, which produces aster during cell division

Q. 106 Which one of the following pairs of structures is correctly matched with their correct description

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Q. 107 If for some reason the parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially non-functional,

what is likely to happen

A. The pH of stomach will fall abruptly

B. Steapsin will be more effective

C. Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones

D. The pancreatic enzymes and specially the trypsin and lipase will not work efficiently

Q. 108 In human female the blastocyst

A. gets implanted into uterus 3 days after ovulation

B. gets nutrition from uterine endometrial secretion only after implantation

C. gets implanted in endometrium by the trophoblast cells

D. forms placenta even before implantation

Q. 109 Secretions from which one of the following are rich in fructose, calcium and some enzymes

A. Liver

B. Pancreas

C. Salivary glands

D. Male accessory glands

Q. 110 When domestic sewage mixes with river water

A. The increased microbial activity releases micro-nutrients such as iron

B. The increased microbial activity uses up dissolved oxygen

C. The river water is still suitable for drinking as impurities are only about 0.1%

D. Small animals like rats will die after drinking river water

Q. 111 Which one of the following is most appropriately defined

A. Amensalism is a relationship in which one species is benefited where as the other is unaffected

B. Predator is an organism that catches and kills other organism for food

C. Parasite is an organism which always lives inside the body of other organism and may kill it

D. Host is an organism which provides food to another organism

Q. 112 Jaundice is a disorder of

A. Skin and eyes

B. Digestive system

C. Circulatory system

D. Excretory system

Q. 113 A person suffering from a disease caused by Plasmodium, experiences recurring chill and fever at the time when

A. the trophozoites reach maximum growth and give out certain toxins

B. the parasite after its rapid multiplication inside RBCs ruptures them, releasing the

stage to enter fresh RBCs

C. the microgametophytes and megagametophytes are being destroyed by the WBCs

D. the sporozoites released from RBCs are being rapidly killed and broken down inside spleen

Q. 114 Which one of the following techniques is safest for the detection of cancers

A. Radiography (X-ray)

B. Computed tomography (CT)

C. Histopathological studies

D. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

Q. 115 The 3′-5′ phosphodiester linkages inside a polynucleotide chain serve to join

A. One nucleoside with another nucleoside

B. One nucleotide with another nucleotide

C. One nitrogenous base with pentose sugar

D. One DNA strand with the other DNA strand

Q. 116 In genetic engineering, a DNA segment (gene) of interest,is transferred to the host cell through a vector. Consider the following four agents (A-D) in this regard and select the correct option about which one or more of these can be used as a vector / vectors

(A) a bacterium (B) plasmid

A. (A) only

B. (A) and (C) only

C. (B) and (D) only

D. (A), (B) and (D) only

Q. 117 The fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster was found to be very suitable for experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance by Morgan and his colleagues because

A. a single mating produces two young flies

B. smaller female is easily recognizable from large male

C. it completes life cycle in about two weeks

D. it reproduces parthenogenetically

Q. 118 Signals from fully developed foetus and placenta ultimately lead to parturition which

requires the release of

A. Oxytocin from maternal pituitary

B. Oxytocin from foetal pituitary

C. Relaxin from placenta

D. Estrogen from placenta

Q. 119 The Indian Rhinoceros is a natural inhabitant of which one of the Indian states

A. Uttar Pradesh

B. Himachal Pradesh

C. Assam

D. Uttarakhand

Q. 120 The haemoglobin content per 100 ml of blood of a normal healthy human adult is

A. 25-30 g

B. 17-20g

C. 12-16 g

D. 5-11 kg

Answer Sheet
Question	1	2	3	4	5	6	7	8	9	10
Answer	C	D	C	C	D	C	A	D	A	C
Question	11	12	13	14	15	16	17	18	19	20
Answer	A	B	A	C	B	C	D	D	B	C
Question	21	22	23	24	25	26	27	28	29	30
Answer	B	D	B	B	A	C	D	B	B	C
Question	31	32	33	34	35	36	37	38	39	40
Answer	B	B	C	C	A	B	A	D	A	C
Question	41	42	43	44	45	46	47	48	49	50
Answer	D	D	A	B	B	D	C	C	A	D
Question	51	52	53	54	55	56	57	58	59	60
Answer	B	B	A	C	B	C	B	D	C	B
Question	61	62	63	64	65	66	67	68	69	70
Answer	B	B	A	A	C	B	A	B	C	B
Question	71	72	73	74	75	76	77	78	79	80
Answer	A	A	B	B	C	B	C	D	C	A
Question	81	82	83	84	85	86	87	88	89	90
Answer	B	B	A	D	A	C	B	C	C	C
Question	91	92	93	94	95	96	97	98	99	100
Answer	C	C	D	C	D	C	D	B	B	B
Question	101	102	103	104	105	106	107	108	109	110
Answer	D	A	A	D	A	A	C	C	D	B
Question	111	112	113	114	115	116	117	118	119	120
Answer	B	B	B	D	B	C	C	A	C	C