AIPMT 2007 Prelims
Q. 1 The primary and secondary coil of a transformer have 50 and 1500 turns respectively. If the magnetic flux φ linked with the primary coil is given by φ = φ0 + 4t, where φ is in webers, t is time in seconds and φ0 is a constant, the output voltage across the secondary coil is
A. 120 volts
B. 220 volts
C. 30 volts
D. 90 volts
Q. 2 A beam of electron passes undeflected through mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields. If the electric field is switched off, and the same magnetic field is maintained, the electrons move
A. in a circular orbit
B. along a parabolic path
C. along a straight line
D. in an elliptical orbit
Q. 3 The position x of a particle with respect to time t along x-axis is given by x = 9t^2 – t^3 where x is in metres and t in second. What will be the position of this particle when it achieves maximum speed along the +ve x direction?
A. 54 m
B. 81 m
C. 24 m
D. 32 m
Q. 4 A particle starting from the origin (0, 0) moves in a straight line in the (x, y) plane. Its coordinates at at a later time are (√3, 3). The path of the particle makes with the x-axis an angle of
A. 45°
B. 60°
C. 0°
D. 30°
Q. 5 A car moves from X to Y with a uniform speed vu and returns to Y with a uniform speed vd. The average speed for this round trip is
A. √(vu vd)
B. (vd vu)/(vd + vu)
C. (vu + vd)/2
D. (2vd vu)/(vd + vu)
Q. 6 Two radioactive substances A and B have decay constants 5λ and λ respectively. At t = 0 they have the same number of nuclei. The ratio of number of nuclei of A to those of B will be (1/e)^2 after a time interval
A. 4λ
B. 2λ
C. 1/2λ
D. 1/4λ
Q. 7 In the following circuit given in figure (1), the output Y for all possible inputs A and B is expressed by the truth table given as (a), (b), (c), (d):
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 8 In a radioactive decay process, the negatively charged emitted β – particles are
A. the electrons produced as a result of the decay of neutrons inside the nucleus
B. the electrons produced as a result of the decay of collisions between atoms
C. the electrons orbiting around the nucleus
D. the electrons present inside the nucleus
Q. 9 The phase difference between the instantaneous velocity and acceleration of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is
A. π
B. 0.707 π
C. zero
D. 0.5 π
Q. 10 In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the masses of ions, the ions are initially accelerated by an electric potential V and then made to describe semicircular path of radius R using a magnetic field B. If V and B are kept constant, the ratio (charge on the ion / mass of the ion) will be proportional to
A. I/R^2
B. R^2
C. R
D. 1/R
Q. 11 A wheel has angular acceleration of 3.0 rad/sec^2 and an initial angular speed of 2.00 rad/sec. In a time of 2 sec it has rotated through an angle (in radian) of
A. 10
B. 12
C. 4
D. 6
Q. 12 A hollow cylinder given in figure has a charge q coulomb within i. If φ is the electric flux in units of voltmeter associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in units of voltmeter will be
A. q/2εo
B. φ/3
C. q/εo – φ
D. 1/2 (q/εo – φ)
Q. 13 The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2 × 10^14 Hz and wavelength is 5000 Å. The refractive index of material will be
A. 1.50
B. 3.00
C. 1.33
D. 1.40
Q. 14 A nucleus ⁿᵢX has mass represented by M(n,i). If M₁ and M₂ denote the mass of proton and neutron respectively and B.E. the binding energy in Mev, then
A. B.E. = [ZM₁ +(n-i)M₁ – M(n,i)]c²
B. B.E. = [ZM₁ +(n-i)M₂ – M(n,i)]c²
C. B.E. = M(n,i) – ZM₁ – (n-i) M₂
D. B.E. = [M(n,i) – Z M₁ – (n-i) M₂] c²
Q. 15 The total power dissipated in watts in the circuit shown in figure (1) is
A. 40
B. 54
C. 4
D. 16
Q. 16 If the nucleus ²⁷₁₃ Al has nucleus radius of about 3.6 fm, then ¹²⁵₃₂Te would have its radius approximately as
A. 9.6 fm
B. 12.0 fm
C. 4.8 fm
D. 6.0 fm
Q. 17 A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity V (given in figure (1)). If μ is the coefficient of sliding friction between B and the surface, block B will come to rest after a time
A. gμ/V
B. g/V
C. V/g
D. V/(gμ )
Q. 18 A particle moving along x-axis has acceleration f, at time t, given by f = fo (1 – t/T), where fo and T are constants. The particle at t = 0 has zero velocity. In the time interval between t = 0 and the instant when f = 0, the particle’s velocity (Vx) is
A. 1/2 foT^2
B. foT^2
C. 1/2foT
D. foT
Q. 19 A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of 100Ω and an output impedance of 200Ω. The power gain of the amplifier is
A. 1000
B. 1250
C. 100
D. 500
Q. 20 Three resistances P, Q, R each of 2Ω and an unknown resistance S form the four arms of a Wheatstone bridge circuit. When a resistance of 6Ω is connected in parallel to S the bridge gets balanced. What is the value of S?
A. 3Ω
B. 6Ω
C. 1Ω
D. 2Ω
Q. 21 A steady current of 1.5 amp flows through a copper voltmeter for 10 minutes. If the electrochemical equivalent of copper is 30 × 10^-5 g coulomb^-1, the mass of copper deposited on the electrode will be
A. 0.50 g
B. 0.67 g
C. 0.27 g
D. 0.40 g
Q. 22 A small coin is resting on the bottom of a beaker filled with liquid. A ray of light from the coin travels upto the surface of the liquid and moves along its surface. How fast is the light travelling in the liquid?
A. 2.4 × 10^8 m/s
B. 3.0 × 10^8 m/s
C. 1.2 × 10^8 m/s
D. 1.8 × 10^8 m/s
Q. 23 A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110 V lamp from a 220 V mains. If the main current is 0.5 amp, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately
A. 50%
B. 90%
C. 10%
D. 30%.
Q. 24 Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuit, in terms of dimension of mass M, of length L, of time T and of current I, would be
A. ML^2T^-2
B. ML^2T^-1I^-1
C. ML^2T^-3I^-2
D. ML^2T^-3I^-1
Q. 25 A uniform rod AB of length l, and mass m is free to rotate about point A (shown in figure (1)). The rod is released from rest in the horizontal position. Given that the moment of inertia of the rod about A is ml^2/3, the initial angular acceleration of the rod will be
A. mgl/2
B. 3/2gl
C. 3g/2l
D. 2g/3l
Q. 26 A particle of mass m moves in the XY plane with a velocity v along the straight line AB. If the angular momentum of the particle with respect to origin O is LA when it is at A and LB when it is at B, then
A. LA = LB
B. the relationship between LA and LB depends upon the slope of the line AB
C. LA < LB
D. LA > LB
Q. 27 The particle executing simple harmonic motion has a kinetic energy K0 cos^2 ωt. The maximum values of the potential energy and the total energy are respectively
A. K0/2 and K0
B. K0 and 2K0
C. K0 and K0
D. 0 and 2K0
Q. 28 Charges +q and –q are placed at points A and B respectively (shown in figure (1)) which are a distance 2L apart, C is the midpoint between A and B. The work done in moving a charge +Q along the semicircle CRD is
A. qQ/2πεoL
B. qQ/6πεoL
C. -qQ/6πεoL
D. qQ/4πεoL
Q. 29 Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 10^14 Hz is produced by a laser. The power emitted is 2 × 10^-3 ω. The number of photons emitted, on the average, by the sources per second is
A. 5 × l 0^16
B. 5 × 10^17
C. 5 × 10^14
D. 5 × 10^15
Q. 30 Three point charges +q, –q and +q are placed at points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = 0, z = 0) respectively. The magnitude and direction of the electric dipole moment vector of this charge assembly are
A. √2qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)
B. qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)
C. √2qa along +ve x direction
D. √2qa along +ve y direction
Q. 31 Two satellites of earth, S1 and S2 are moving in the same orbit. The mass of S1 is four times the mass of S2. Which one of the following statements is true?
A. The potential energies of earth satellites in the two cases are equal.
B. S1 and S2 are moving with the same speed
C. The kinetic energies of the two satellites are equal
D. The time period of S is four times that of S2
Q. 32 A→ and B→ are two vectors and θ is the angle between them , if |A→ x B→ | = √3(A→ . B→ ), the value of θ is
A. 45°
B. 30°
C. 90°
D. 60°
Q. 33 A mass of 2.0 kg is put on a flat pan attached to a vertical spring fixed on t1he ground as shown in the figure(1). The mass of the spring and the pan is negligible. When pressed slightly and released the mass executes a simple harmonic motion. The spring constant is 200 N/m. What should be the minimum amplitude of the motion so that the mass gets detached from the pan (take g = 10 m/s^2)?
A. 10.0 cm
B. any value less than 12.0 cm
C. 4.0 cm
D. 8.0 cm
Q. 34 A charged particle (charge q) is moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed v. The associated magnetic moment μ is given by
A. qvR^2
B. qvR^2/2
C. qvR
D. qvR/2
Q. 35 The total energy of electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is – 13.6 eV. The kinetic energy of an electron in the first excited state is
A. 6.8 eV
B. 13.6 eV
C. 1.7 eV
D. 3.4 eV
Q. 36 A 5 watt source emits monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 Å. When placed 0.5 m away, it liberates photoelectrons from a photosensitive metallic surface. When the source is moved to a distance of 1.0 m, the number of photoelectrons liberated will be reduced by a factor of
A. 8
B. 16
C. 2
D. 4
Q. 37 A particle executes simple harmonic oscillation with an amplitude a. The period of oscillation is T. The minimum time taken by the particle to travel half of the amplitude from the equilibrium position is
A. T/8
B. T/12
C. T/2
D. T/4
Q. 38 For a cubic crystal structure which one of the following relations indicating the cell characteristics is correct?
A. a ≠ b ≠ c and α = β = γ = 90°
B. a = b = c and α ≠ β ≠ γ = 90°
C. a = b = c and α = β = γ = 90°
D. a ≠ b ≠ c and α ≠ β and γ ≠ 90°
Q. 39 Two condensers, one of capacity C and other of capacity C/2 are connected to a V-volt battery, as shown in figure:
The work done in charging fully both the condensers is
A. 1/4CV^2
B. 3/4CV^2
C. 1/2CV^2
D. 2CV^2
Q. 40 A black body is at 727° C. It emits energy at a rate which is proportional to
A. (1000)^4
B. (1000)^2
C. (727)^4
D. (727)^2
Q. 41 The resistance of an ammeter is 13 Ω and its scale is graduated for a current upto 100 amps. After an additional shunt has been connected to this ammeter it becomes possible to measure currents upto 750 amperes by this meter. The value of shunt-resistance is
A. 2 Ω
B. 0.2 Ω
C. 2 k Ω
D. 20 Ω
Q. 42 An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the temperature os sink is reduced by 62°C, its efficiency is doubled. Temperature of the source is
A. 37°C
B. 62°C
C. 99°C
D. 124°C
Q. 43 The electric and magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave are
A. in opposite phase and perpendicular to each other
B. in opposite phase and parallel to each other
C. in phase and perpendicular to each other
D. in phase and parallel to each other
Q. 44 What is the value of inductance L for which the current is maximum in a series LCR circuit with
C = 10 μF and ω = 1000s^-1
A. 1 mH
B. cannot be calculated unless R is known
C. 10 mH
D. 100 mH
Q. 45 Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room temperature. If the temperature is increased beyond Curie temperature, then it will show
A. anti ferromagnetism
B. no magnetic property
C. diamagnetism
D. paramagnetism
Q. 46 A vertical spring with force constant k is fixed on a table. A ball of mass m at a height h above the free upper end of the spring falls vertically on the spring so that the spring is compressed by a distance d. The net work done in the process is
A. mg(h + d) – 1/2 kd^2
B. mg(h – d) – 1/2 kd^2
C. mg(h – d) + 1/2 kd^2
D. mg(h + d) + 1/2 kd^2
Q. 47 Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field a charged particle is moving in a circle of radius R with constant speed v. The time period of the motion
A. depends on both R and v
B. is independent of both R and v
C. depends on R and not on v
D. depends on v and not on R
Q. 48 If the cold junction of a thermo-couple is kept at 0°C and the hot junction is kept at T°C then the relation between neutral temperature (Tn) and temperature of inversion (Ti) is
A. Tn = 2Ti
B. Tn = Ti – T
C. Tn = Ti + T
D. Tn = Ti/2
Q. 49 Assuming the sun to have a spherical outer surface of radius r, radiating like a black body at temperature t°C, the power received by a unit surface, (normal to the incident rays) at a distance R from the centre of the sun is
A. r^2σ(t + 273)^4/4πR^2
B. 16π^2r^2σt^4/R^2
C. r^2σ(t + 273)^4/R^2
D. 4πr^2σt^4/R^2
Q. 50 In the energy band diagram of a material shown in figure (1), the open circles and filled circles denote holes and electrons respectively. The material is
A. an insulator
B. a metal
C. an n-type semiconductor
D. a p-type semiconductor
Q. 51 Which one of the following on reduction with lithium aluminium hydride yields a secondary amine?
A. Methyl isocyanide
B. Acetamide
C. Methyl cyanide
D. Nitroethane
Q. 52 RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their chirality is due to
A. chiral bases
B. chiral phosphate ester units
C. D-sugar component
D. L-sugar component
Q. 53 The Langmuir adsorption isotherm is deduced using the assumption
A. the adsorption sites are equivalent in their ability to adsorb the particles
B. the heat of adsorption varies with coverage
C. the adsorbed molecules interact with each other
D. the adsorption takes place in multilayers
Q. 54 A weak acid, HA, has a Ka of 1.00 × 10^-5. If 0.100 mole of this acid dissolved in one litre of water, the percentage of acid dissociated at equilibrium is closest to
A. 1.00%
B. 99.9%
C. 0.100%
D. 99.0%
Q. 55 The reaction of hydrogen and iodine monochloride is given as:
H2(g) + 2ICl(g) → 2HCl(g) + I2(g)
The reaction is of first order with respect to H2(g) and ICI(g), following mechanisms were proposed.
Mechanism A:
H2(g) + 2ICl(g) → 2HCl(g) + I2(g)
Mechanism B:
H2(g) + ICl(g) →HI(g) ;slow
HI(g) + ICl(g) → HCl(g) + I(g) ;fast
Which of the above mechanism(s) can be consistent with the given information about the reaction?
A. A and B both
B. neither A nor B
C. A only
D. B only
Q. 56 The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by
A. ΔG/ΔS
B. ΔG/ΔH
C. ΔS/ΔG
D. ΔH/ΔG
Q. 57 Consider the following reactions:
(i) H^+(aq) + OH^-(aq) = H2O(l), ΔH = -X1 kJ mol^-1
(ii) H2(g) + 1/2O2(g) = H2O(l), ΔH = -X2 kJ mol^-1
(iii) CO2(g) + H2(g) = CO(g) + H2O, ΔH = -X3 kJ mol^-1
(iv) C2H5(g) + 5/2O2(g) = 2CO2(g) + H2O(l), ΔH = -X3 kJ mol^-1
Enthalpy of formation of H2O(l) is
A. +X3 kJ mol^-1
B. -X4 kJ mol^-1
C. +X1 kJ mol^-1
D. -X2 kJ mol^-1
Q. 58 The correct order of increasing thermal stability of K2CO3, MgCO3, CaCO3 and BeCO3 is
A. BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3
B. MgCO3 < BeCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3
C. K2CO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < BeCO3
D. BeCO3 < MgCO3 < K2CO3 < CaCO3
Q. 59 In which of the following pairs, the two species are iso-structure?
A. SO3^2- and NO3^-
B. BF3 anD NF3
C. BrO^3- and XeO3
D. SF4 and XeF4
Q. 60 Which of the following oxidation states are the most characteristic for lead and tin respectively?
A. + 2, + 4
B. + 4, + 4
C. + 2, + 2
D. + 4, + 2
Q. 61 Which of the following statements, about the advantage of roasting of sulphide ore before reduction is not true?
A. The ΔGf°of the sulphide is greater than those for CS2 and H2 S.
B. The ΔGf° is negative for roasting of sulphide ore to oxide
C. Roasting of the sulphide to the oxide is thermodynamically feasible
D. Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing agents for metal sulphides
Q. 62 In a first-order reaction A → B, if k is rate constant and initial concentration of the reactant A is 0.5 M, then the half-life is
A. log2/k
B. log2/k√o.5
C. ln2/k
D. 0.693/0.5k
Q. 63 Consider the following compounds given as (i), (ii), (iii), (iv).
The correct decreasing order of their reactivity towards hydrolysis is
A. (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
B. (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)
C. (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)
D. (ii) > (iv) > (iii) > (i)
Q. 64 Predict the product C among (a), (b), (c), (d), obtained in the following reaction given in figure (1) of butyne-1.
.
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 65 Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% H2SO4 by mass and has a density of 1.80 gmL^-1. Volume of acid required to make one litre of 0.1M H2SO4 solution is
A. 16.65 mL
B. 22.20 mL
C. 5.55 mL
D. 11.10 mL
Q. 66 Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and conc. HCl is called
A. Cope reduction
B. Dow reduction
C. Wolf-Kishner reduction
D. Clemmensen redcution
Q. 67 Given that bond energies of H – H and Cl – Cl are 430 kJ mol-^1 and 240 kJ mol^-1 respectively and ΔHf for HCl is -90 kJ mol^-1, bond enthalpy of HCl is
A. 380 kJ mol^-1
B. 425 kJ mol^-1
C. 245 kJ mol^-1
D. 290 kJ mol^-1
Q. 68 Which of the following represents the correct order of the acidity in the given compounds?
A. FCH2COOH > CH3COOH > BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH
B. BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH > CH3COOH
C. FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > BrCH2COOH > CH3COOH
D. CH3COOH > BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH
Q. 69 If there is no rotation of plane polarised light by a compound in a specific solvent, though to be chiral, it may mean that
A. the compound is certainly meso
B. there is no compound in the solvent
C. the compound may be a racemic mixture
D. the compound is certainly a chiral
Q. 70 CH3 – CHCl – CH2 – CH3 has a chiral centre. Which one of the following represents its Rconfiguration among (a), (b), (c), (d)?
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 71 Which of the following is water-soluble?
A. Vitamin E
B. Vitamin K
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin B
Q. 72 Identify the correct order of the size of the following:
A. Ca^2+ < K^+ < Ar < Cl^- < S^2-
B. Ar < Ca^2+ < K^+ < Cl^- < S^2-
C. Ca^2+ < Ar < K^+ < Cl^- < S^2-
D. Ca^2+ < K^+ < Ar < S^2- < Cl^-
Q. 73 0.5 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX) is 20% ionised. If Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol^-1,the lowering in freezing point of the solution is
A. 0.56 K
B. 1.12 K
C. -0.56 K
D. -1.12 K
Q. 74 Sulphide ores of metals are usually concentrated by froth flotation process. Which one of the following sulphide ores offer an exception and its concentrated by chemical leaching?
A. Galena
B. Copper pyrite
C. Sphalerite
D. Argentite
Q. 75 If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 minutes, 50% of the same reaction would be completed in approximately ?
(log 4 = 0.60, log 5 = 0.69)
A. 45 minutes
B. 60 minutes
C. 40 minutes
D. 50 minutes
Q. 76 Which of the following will give a pair of enantiomorphs?
(en =NH2CH2CH2NH2)
A. [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6]
B. [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
C. [Pt(NH3)4][PtCl6]
D. [Co(NH3)4Cl2]NO2
Q. 77 If NaCl is doped with 10^-4 mol % of SrCl2, the concentration of cation vacancies will be (NA = 6.02 × 10^23 mol^-1)
A. 6.02 × 10^16 mol^-1
B. 6.02 × 10^17 mol^-1
C. 6.02 × 10^14 mol^-1
D. 6.02 × 10^15 mol^-1
Q. 78 The d electron configurations of Cr^2+, Mn^2+, Fe^2+ and Ni^2+ are 3d^4, 3d^5, 3d^6 and 3d^8 respectively. Which one of the following aqua complexes will exhibit the minimum paramagnetic behaviour?
(At. No. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Ni = 28)
A. [Fe(H2O)6]^2+
B. [Ni(H2O)6^2+
C. [Cr(H2O)6]^2+
D. [Mn(H2O)6]^2+
Q. 79 In which of the following the hydration energy is higher than the lattice energy?
A. MgSO4
B. RaSO4
C. SrSO4
D. BaSO4
Q. 80 Which of the compounds with molecular formula C5H10 yields acetone on ozonolysis?
A. 3-methyl-1-butene
B. cyclopentane
C. 2-methyl-1-butene
D. 2-methyl-2-butene
Q. 81 With which of the following electronic configuration an atom has the lowest ionisation enthalpy?
A. 1s^2 2s^2 sp^3
B. 1s^2 2s^2 2p^5 3s^1
C. 1s^2 2s^2 2p^6
D. 1s^2 2s^2 2p^5
Q. 82 Which one of the following ionic species has the greatest proton affinity to form stable compound?
A. NH2^-
B. F^-
C. I^-
D. HS^-
Q. 83 The following equilibrium constants are given:
N2 + 3H2 ⇔ 2NH3; K1
N2 + O2 ⇔ 2NO; K2
H2 + 1/2 O2 ⇔ H2O; K3
The equilibrium constant for the oxidation of NH3 by oxygen to give NO is
A. K2K3^2/K1
B. K2^2K3/K1
C. K1K2/K3
D. K2K3^3/K1
Q. 84 Which one of the following ions is the most stable in aqueous solution?
(At.No. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25)
A. V^3+
B. Ti^3+
C. Mn^3+
D. Cr^3+
Q. 85 The correct order of C – O bond length among
CO, CO3^2-, CO2 is
A. CO < CO3^2- < CO2
B. CO3^2- < CO2 < CO
C. CO < CO2 < CO3^2-
D. CO2 < CO3^2- < CO
Q. 86 Which one of the following orders correctly represents the increasing acid strengths of the given acids?
A. HOClO < HOCl < HOClO3 < HOClO2
B. HOClO2 < HOClO3 < HOClO < HOCl
C. HOClO3 < HOClO2 < HOClO < HOCl
D. HOCl < HOClO < HOClO2 < HOClO3
Q. 87 Which one of the following among (1), (2), (3), (4) on treatment with 50% aqueous sodium hydroxide yields the corresponding alcohol and acid?
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 88 For (i) I^-, (ii) Cl^-, (iii) Br^-, the increasing order of nucleophilicity would be
A. Cl^- < Br^- < I^-
B. I^- < Cl^- < Br^-
C. Br^- < Cl^- < I^-
D. I^- < Br^- < Cl^-
Q. 89 Calculate the pOH of a solution at 25°C that contains 1× 10^10 M of hydronium ions, i.e.
H3O^+.
A. 4.000
B. 9.0000
C. 1.000
D. 7.000
Q. 90 Consider the following sets given in figure (1) of quantum numbers:
Which of the following sets of quantum number is not possible?
A. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
B. (ii), (iv) and (v)
C. (i) and (iii)
D. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Q. 91 The equilibrium constant of the reaction:
Cu(s) + 2Ag^+ → Cu^2+(aq) + 2Ag(s);
E° = 0.46 V at 298 K is
A. 2.0 × 10^10
B. 4.0 × 10^10
C. 4.0 × 10^15
D. 2.4 × 10^10
Q. 92 Which one of the following polymers is prepared by condensation polymerisation?
A. Teflon
B. Natural rubber
C. Styrene
D. Nylon-66
Q. 93 The order of decreasing reactivity towards an electrophilic reagent, for the following would be
(i) benzene
(ii) toluene
(iii) chlorobenzene
(iv) phenol
A. (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)
B. (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
C. (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)
D. (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
Q. 94 Which of the following anions is present in the chain structure of silicates?
A. (Si2O5^2–)n
B. (SiO3^2–)n
C. SiO4^4–
D. Si2O7^6–
Q. 95 An element, X has the following isotopic composition :
²⁰⁰X : 90% ¹⁹⁹X : 8.0% ²⁰²X : 2.0%
The weighted average atomic mass of the naturally occurring element X is Closest to
A. 201 amu
B. 202 amu
C. 199 amu
D. 200 amu
Q. 96 The fraction of total volume occupied by the atoms present in a simple cube is
A. π/3√2
B. π/4√2
C. π/4
D. π/6
Q. 97 In the reaction given in figure (1):
Which of the following compounds will be formed among (a), (b), (c), (d)?
A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
Q. 98 The product formed in Aldol condensation is
A. a beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a beta-hydroxyketone
B. an alpha-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone
C. an alpha, beta unsaturated ester
D. a beta-hydroxy acid
Q. 99 The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of sulphite ion in acidic solution is,
A. 4/5
B. 2/5
C. 1
D. 3/5
Q. 100 Identify the incorrect statement among the following:
A. Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation of successive shrinkages
B. As a result of lanthanoid contraction, the properties of 4d series of the transition elements have no similarities with the 5d series of elements
C. Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak
D. There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms or ions as one proceeds from La to Lu
Q. 101 ICBN stands for
A. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
B. International congress of Biological Names
C. Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
D. Indian Congress of Biological Names
Q. 102 Which pair of the following belongs to Basidiomycetes
A. Puffballs and Claviceps
B. Peziza and stink borns
C. Morchella and mushrooms
D. Bird’s nest fungi and puffballs
Q. 103 Biological organisation starts with
A. cellular level
B. organismic level
C. atomic level
D. submicroscopic molecular level
Q. 104 Identify the odd combination of the habitat and the particular animal concerned.
A. Sunderbans – Bengal Tiger
B. Periyar – Elephant
C. Rann of Kutch – Wild Ass
D. Dachigam National park – Snow Leopard
Q. 105 If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person to which of the following would you look for confirmatory evidence?
A. serum globulins
B. fibrinogen in the plasma
C. haemocytes
D. serum albumins
Q. 106 A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is by
A. crossing of one F2 progeny with female parent
B. studying the sexual behaviour of F1 progenies
C. crossing of one F1 progeny with male parent
D. crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent
Q. 107 The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth
A. polymerize in the 3’ – to – 5’ direction and forms replication fork
B. prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication
C. polymerize in the 5’ – to – 3’ direction and explain 3’ – to – 5’ DNA replication
D. result in transcription
Q. 108 Which one of the following statement is correct?
A. there is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogensis of mammals
B. all plant and animal cells are totipotent
C. ontogeny repeats phylogeny
D. stem cells are specialize cells
Q. 109 In which one of the following the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand ) of sewage (s), distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been arranged in ascending order ?
A. SE < PE < S < DE
B. PE < S < SE < DE
C. S < DE < PE < SE
D. SE < S < PE < DE
Q. 110 The concept of chemical evolution is based on
A. interaction of water, air and clay under intense heat
B. effect of solar radiation on chemicals
C. possible origin of life by combination of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions
D. crystallization of chemicals
Q. 111 Which one of the following is surrounded by a callose wall?
A. male gamete
B. egg
C. pollen grain
D. microspore mother cell
Q. 112 Probiotics are
A. cancer inducing microbes
B. new kind of food allergens
C. live microbial food supplement
D. safe antibiotics
Q. 113 One of endangered species of Indian medicinal plants is that of plants is that of
A. ocimum
B. garlic
C. nepenthes
D. podophyllum
Q. 114 What is true about Nereis, scorpion, cockroach and silver fish ?
A. they all posses dorsal heart
B. none of them is aquatic
C. they all belong to the same phylum
D. they all have jointed paired appendages
Q. 115 The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on the basis of their ability for
A. interaction with the environment and progressive evolution
B. reproduction
C. growth and movement
D. responsiveness to touch
Q. 116 A person who is one along hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have
A. less amino acids in his urine
B. more glucose in his blood
C. less urea in his urine
D. more sodium in his urine
Q. 117 The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA accommodated?
A. super-coiling in nucleosomes
B. DNA digestion
C. through elimination of repetitive DNA
D. deletion of non-essential genes
Q. 118 A sequential expression of a set of human genes
A. messenger RNA
B. DNA sequence
C. ribosome
D. transfer RNA
Q. 119 In a coal fired power plant electrostatic precipitators are installed to control emission of
A. NO×
B. SPM
C. CO
D. SO2
Q. 120 Select the wrong statement fom the following.
A. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thyllakoid space bounded by the thylakoid membrane
B. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA
C. The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mitochondria
D. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an inner and an outer membrane
Q. 121 Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of
A. population
B. landscape
C. ecosystem
D. biotic community
Q. 122 During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and assumes a saddle-like structure, what is it’s DNA-binding sequence?
A. AATT
B. CACC
C. TATA
D. TTAA
Q. 123 A plant requires magnesium for
A. protein synthesis
B. chlorophyll synthesis
C. cell wall development
D. holding cells together
Q. 124 In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature at different times.
As a result
A. there is high degree of sterility
B. one can conclude that the plant is apomictic
C. self-fertilization is prevented
D. there is no change in success rate of fertilization
Q. 125 Ergot of rye is caused by a species of
A. uncimula
B. ustilago
C. claviceps
D. phytophthora
Q. 126 The finches of Galapagos islands provide an evidence in favour of
A. evolution due to mutation
B. retrogressive evolution
C. biogeographical evolution
D. special creation
Q. 127 Which one of the following is a slime mould?
A. physarum
B. Thiobacillus
C. Anabaena
D. Rhizopus
Q. 128 The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?
A. the food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season
B. its population growth curve is of J-type
C. the population of its predators increases enormously
D. S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect
Q. 129 Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules containing filamentous nitrogenfixing micro-organism
A. Crotalaria juncea
B. Cycas revoluta
C. Cicer arietinum
D. Casuarina equisetifolia
Q. 130 Which one of the following is being utilized as a source of biodiesel in the Indian countryside?
A. betroot
B. sugarcane
C. pongamia
D. euphorbia
Q. 131 For a critical study of secondary growth in plants. which one of the following pairs is suitable?
A. teak and pine
B. deodar and fern
C. wheat and maiden hair fern
D. sugarcane and sunflower
Q. 132 Which one of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?
A. Retinol – Xerophtahalmia
B. Cobalamine – Beri-beri
C. Calciferol – Pellagra
D. Ascorbic acid – Scurvy
Q. 133 Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure 7 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will
A. no movement of water
B. equilibrium between the two
C. movement of water from cell A to B
D. movement of water from cell B to A
Q. 134 In which one of the following preparations are your likely to come across cell junctions most frequently ?
A. thrombocytes
B. tendon
C. hyaline cartilage
D. ciliated epithelium
Q. 135 If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the following characters you should choose?
A. nature of stored food materials in the cell
B. structural organization of thallus
C. chemical composition of the cell wall
D. types of pigments present in the cell
Q. 136 About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six element including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and
A. sulphur and magnesium
B. magnesium and sodium
C. calcium and phosphorus
D. phosphorus and sulphur
Q. 137 Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of plants
B. Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of phosphates and for plant nutrition in soil
C. At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers
D. Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies
Q. 138 In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and basic (x) numbers of chromosomes are
A. n = 21 and x = 21
B. n = 21 and x = 14
C. n = 21 and x = 7
D. n = 7 and x = 21
Q. 139 Passage cells are thin walled cells found in
A. Phloem elements that serve as entry points for substance for transport to other plants parts
B. testa of seeds to enable emergence of growing embryonic axis during seed germination
C. central region of style through which the pollen tube grows towards the ovary
D. endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle
Q. 140 What is common between parrot, platypus and kangaroo?
A. toothless jaws
B. functional post-end tail
C. ovoparity
D. homoiothermy
Q. 141 Bowman’s glands are located in the
A. anterior pituitary
B. female reproductive system of cockroach
C. olfactory epithelium of our nose
D. proximal end of uriniferous tubules
Q. 142 Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
A. yeast – ethanol
B. streptomycetes – antibiotic
C. coliforms – vinegar
D. methanogens – gobar gas
Q. 143 Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine gland after ovulation ?
A. stroma
B. germinal epithelium
C. vitelline membrane
D. Graafian follicle
Q. 144 Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of
A. autonomic movement of variation
B. paratonic movement of growth
C. autonomic movement of growth
D. autonomic movement of locomotion
Q. 145 Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possessing it ?
A. ventral central nervous system – Leech
B. Pharyngeal gill slits absent in embryo – Chamaeleon
C. Ventral heart – Scorpion
D. Post – end tail – Octopus
Q. 146 All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is located in inner mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is
A. isocitrate dehydrogenase
B. malate dehydrogenase
C. succinate dehydrogenase
D. lactate dehydrogenase
Q. 147 The first acceptor of electrons from an excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II is
A. iron-sulphur protein
B. ferredoxin
C. quinone
D. cytochrome
Q. 148 Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism, is associated with
A. differential expession of genes
B. lethal mutations
C. deletion of genes
D. developmental mutations
Q. 149 Which one of the following statements about mycoplasma is wrong ?
A. They are pleomorphic
B. They are sensitive to penicillin
C. They cause diseases in plants
D. They are also called PPLO
Q. 150 Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
A. Apis indica – honey
B. Kenia lacca – lac
C. Bombyx mori – silk
D. Pila globosa – pearl
Q. 151 A person is having problems with calcium and phosphorus metabolism in his body. Which one of following glands may not be functioning properly ?
A. parotid
B. pancreas
C. thyroid
D. parathyroid
Q. 152 A genetically engineered micro-organism use successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a species of
A. Trichoderma
B. Xanthomonas
C. Bacillus
D. Pseudomonas
Q. 153 In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation during CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of
A. bundle sheath
B. phloem
C. epidermis
D. mesophyll
Q. 154 Flagellated male gametes are present in all the three of which one of the following sets ?
A. Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla
B. Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis
C. Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas
D. Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
Q. 155 In the mean and the median pertaining to a certain character of a population are of the same value, which of the following is most likely to occur
A. a bi-modal distribution
B. a T-shaped curve
C. a skewed curve
D. a normal distribution
Q. 156 One gene-one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in
A. Salmonella typhimurium
B. Escherichia coli
C. Diplocococcus pneumoniae
D. Neurospora crassa
Q. 157 Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2 segregation will show
A. segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio
B. segregation in 3 : 1 ratio
C. higher number of the parental types
D. higher number of the recombinant types
Q. 158 In cloning of cattle, a fertillized egg is taken out of the mother’s womb and
A. in the eight cell stage, cells are separated and cultured until small embryos are formed which are implanted into the womb of other cow
B. in the eight cell stage the individual cells are separated under electrical field for further development in culture media
C. from this upto eight identical twins can be produced
D. the egg is divided into 4 pairs of cells which are implanted into the womb of other cows
Q. 159 Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed into human body for sonography ?
A. 15 – 30 MHZ
B. 1 – 15 MHZ
C. 45 – 70 MHZ
D. 30 – 45 MHZ.
Q. 160 Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they.
A. have more than 90 per cent similar genes
B. look similar and possess identical secondary metabolites
C. have same number of chromosomes
D. can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds.
Q. 161 Inheritances of skin colour in humans is an example of
A. point mutation
B. polygenic inheritance
C. codominance
D. chromosomal aberration
Q. 162 When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed
A. microevolution
B. co-evolution
C. convergent evolution
D. divergent evolution
Q. 163 Increased asthmatics attacks in certain seasons are related to
A. eating fruits preserved in tin containers
B. inhalation of seasonal pollen
C. low temperature
D. hot and humid environment
Q. 164 Among the human ancestors the brain size was more than 1000 CC in
A. Homo erectus
B. Ramapithecus
C. Homo habilis
D. Homo neanderthalensis
Q. 165 Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that
A. the melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in industrial area
B. the lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial area or non-polluted area
C. melanism is a pollution-generated feature
D. the true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation
Q. 166 A high density of elephant population in an area can result in
A. intra specific competition
B. inter specific competition
C. predation on one another
D. mutualism
Q. 167 A drop of each of the following, is placed separately on four slides. Which of them will not coagulate?
A. blood serum
B. sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system
C. Whole blood from pulmonary vein
D. blood plasma
Q. 168 Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity?
A. tropical deciduous forest
B. temperate evergreen forest
C. temperate deciduous forest
D. tropical rain forest
Q. 169 In human body, which one of the following is anatomically correct?
A. Collar bones – 3 pairs
B. Salivary glands – 1 pairs
C. Cranial nerves – 10 pairs
D. Floating ribs – 2 pairs
Q. 170 Telomere repetitive DNA sequences control the function of eukaryotic chromosomes because they
A. are RNA transcription initiator
B. help chromosome pairing
C. prevent chromosome loss
D. act as replicons
Q. 171 Spore diseminiation in some liverworts is aided by
A. indusium
B. calyptra
C. peristome teeth
D. elaters
Q. 172 Which one of the following elements is not an essential micronutrient for plant growth?
A. Zn
B. Cu
C. Ca
D. Mn
Q. 173 The overall goal of glycolysis, krebs cycle and the electron transport system is the formation of
A. ATP in one large oxidation reaction
B. Sugar
C. nucleic acids
D. ATP in small stepwise units
Q. 174 Adaptive radiation refers to
A. evolution of different species from a common ancestor
B. migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
C. power of adaptation in an individual to a different geographical areas
D. adaptations due to geographical isolation
Q. 175 Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched?
A. Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall
B. Cytokinin – Cell wall elongation
C. IAA – Cell wall elongation
D. Abscissic acid – Stomatal closure
Q. 176 Select the correct statement from the following?
A. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature
B. All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrae
C. Mutations are random and directional
D. Darwinian variations are small and directionless
Q. 177 Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of
A. generative cell
B. vegetative cell
C. microspore mother cell
D. microspore
Q. 178 In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants would you expect in F1 generation?
A. 9 : 1
B. 1 : 3
C. 3 : 1
D. 50 : 50
Q. 179 Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising glucose to carbon dioxide aerobically?
A. unstraited muscle cells
B. liver cells
C. red blood cells
D. white blood
Q. 180 A human male produces sperms with the genotypes AB, Ab, aB, and ab pertaining to two diallelic characters in equal proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this person?
A. AaBB
B. AABb
C. AABB
D. AaBb
Q. 181 What is common to whale, seal and shark?
A. thick subcutaneous fat
B. convergent evolution
C. homoiothermy
D. seasonal migration
Q. 182 One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is
A. preventing speciation
B. speciation through reproductive isolation
C. random creation of new species
D. no change in the isolated fauna
Q. 183 Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys
A. certain types of bacteria
B. all viruses
C. most virus-infected cells
D. certain fungi
Q. 184 In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of
A. combination of FSH and LH
B. combination of estrogen and progesterone
C. FSH only
D. LH only
Q. 185 Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?
A. glycolipids
B. proline
C. phospholipids
D. cholesterol
Q. 186 Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of
A. higher levels of cortisone
B. lower levels of blood testosterone
C. lower levels of adrenaline/ noradrenaline in its blood
D. higher levels of thyroxine
Q. 187 During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric change?
A. first positive, then negative and continue to be positive
B. first negative, then positive and continue to be positive
C. first positive, then negative and again back to positive
D. first negative, then positive and again back to negative
Q. 188 Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic introduced in India?
A. lantana camara, water hyacinth
B. water hyacinth, prosopis cinereria
C. nile perch, licus religiosa
D. ficus religiosa, lantana camara
Q. 189 In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents
A. a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination
B. an opening in the megagametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the egg
C. the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
D. a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are formed
Q. 190 Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on the modulation in transcription by
A. ribosome
B. transcription factor
C. anticodon
D. RNA polymerase
Q. 191 Which of the following is an example of negative feedback loop in humans?
A. secretion of tears after falling of sand particles into the eye
B. salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food
C. secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot
D. constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal mucles when it is too cold
Q. 192 The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are
A. discontinuous
B. antiparallel
C. semiconservative
D. parallel
Q. 193 Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Animals – Morphological features
(i) Crocodile – 4-chambered heart
(ii) Sea urchin – Parapodia
(iii) Obelia – Thecodont
(iv) Lemur _ Thecodont
A. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
B. only (i) and (iv)
C. only (i) and (ii)
D. (i), (iii) and (iv)
Q. 194 Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of cells?
A. vacuoles and fibres
B. flagellum and modulloary sheath
C. nucleus and mitochondria
D. perikaryon and dendrites
Q. 195 In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by
A. crossing of two inbred parental lines
B. harvesting seeds from the most productive plants
C. inducing mutations
D. bombarding the seeds with DNA
Q. 196 Which one of the following is a viral disease of poultry ?
A. coryza
B. new castle disease
C. pasteurellosis
D. salmonellosis
Q. 197 The wavelength of light absorbed by Pr form of phytochrome is
A. 680 nm
B. 720 nm
C. 620 nm
D. 640 nm
Q. 198 Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of water pollution?
A. blood-worms
B. stone flies
C. sewage fungus
D. sludge-worms
Q. 199 Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared resident of seventh floor of a multistoryed building starts climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated this action ?
A. adrenaline
B. glucagon
C. gastrin
D. thyroxine
Q. 200 “Foolish seedling’’ disease of rice led to the discovery of
A. ABA
B. 2, 4-D
C. IAA
D. GA
| Answer Sheet |
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| Question | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| Answer | A | A | A | B | D | C | C | A | D | A |
| Question | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| Answer | A | D | B | A | B | D | D | C | B | A |
| Question | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| Answer | C | D | B | C | C | A | C | C | D | A |
| Question | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| Answer | B | D | A | D | D | D | B | C | B | A |
| Question | 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| Answer | A | C | C | D | D | A | B | D | C | D |
| Question | 51 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 55 | 56 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 |
| Answer | A | C | A | A | D | B | D | A | C | A |
| Question | 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 |
| Answer | D | C | C | C | C | D | B | C | A | B |
| Question | 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 |
| Answer | D | A | B | D | A | B | B | B | A | D |
| Question | 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 |
| Answer | B | A | D | D | C | D | A | A | A | B |
| Question | 91 | 92 | 93 | 94 | 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 | 99 | 100 |
| Answer | C | D | C | B | D | D | C | A | B | B |
| Question | 101 | 102 | 103 | 104 | 105 | 106 | 107 | 108 | 109 | 110 |
| Answer | A | D | D | D | A | C | C | C | B | C |
| Question | 111 | 112 | 113 | 114 | 115 | 116 | 117 | 118 | 119 | 120 |
| Answer | D | C | D | A | B | C | A | B | B | A |
| Question | 121 | 122 | 123 | 124 | 125 | 126 | 127 | 128 | 129 | 130 |
| Answer | A | A | B | C | C | C | A | B | D | C |
| Question | 131 | 132 | 133 | 134 | 135 | 136 | 137 | 138 | 139 | 140 |
| Answer | A | A | C | D | D | C | D | C | D | D |
| Question | 141 | 142 | 143 | 144 | 145 | 146 | 147 | 148 | 149 | 150 |
| Answer | C | C | D | C | A | C | C | A | B | D |
| Question | 151 | 152 | 153 | 154 | 155 | 156 | 157 | 158 | 159 | 160 |
| Answer | D | D | D | C | D | D | C | A | B | D |
| Question | 161 | 162 | 163 | 164 | 165 | 166 | 167 | 168 | 169 | 170 |
| Answer | B | C | B | D | D | A | A | D | D | C |
| Question | 171 | 172 | 173 | 174 | 175 | 176 | 177 | 178 | 179 | 180 |
| Answer | D | C | D | A | A | A | A | D | C | D |
| Question | 181 | 182 | 183 | 184 | 185 | 186 | 187 | 188 | 189 | 190 |
| Answer | B | B | A | B | B | B | D | A | C | D |
| Question | 191 | 192 | 193 | 194 | 195 | 196 | 197 | 198 | 199 | 200 |
| Answer | D | B | D | D | A | B | A | B | A | D |