AIIMS UG 2008
|
Section |
Questions |
Marks |
|
Physics |
60 Questions (1 – 60) |
60 |
|
Chemistry |
60 Questions (61 – 120) |
60 |
|
Biology |
60 Questions (121 – 180) |
60 |
|
General Knowledge |
20 Questions (181 – 200) |
20 |
Q : 1 In an electrical circuit containing L , C and R which of the following does not denote the dimensions of frequency ?
A. LC
B. 1/√(LC)
C. 1/RC
D. R/L
Q. 2 The displacement time graph of a particle moving along a straight line is drawn below.The accelerations of the particle during the regions OP, PQ and QR are :
A. OP- (-), PQ-(0),OR-(+)
B. OP,-(+)PQ-(0),QR-(+)
C. OP-(+),PQ-(0),QR-(-)
D. OP-(-),PQ-(0),QR-(-)
Q. 3 A particle of mass m moves with constant speed along a circular path of radius r under the action of force F. Its speed is:
A. √(Fr/m)
B. √(F/r)
C. √(Fmr)
D. √(F/mr)
Q. 4 A bullet is fired from a rifle and the rifle recoils.Kinetic energy of rifle is
A. less than K.E of bullet
B. greater than K.E of bullet
C. equal to K.E of buller
D. none of the above
Q. 5 Side of an equilateral triangle is l. Three point masses, each of magnitude m,are placed at the three vertices of the triangle . Moment of inertia of this system about one side of the triangle as axis is given by
A. 3ml²/4
B. 4ml²/3
C. 3ml²/2
D. 2ml²/3
Q. 6 P,Q and R are three coplanar forces acting at a point and are in equilibrium. Given P = 1.9318 kg . wt [sin θ₁ =0.9659], the value of R (in Kg wt) is
A. 0.9659
B. 2
C. 1
D. 1/2
Q. 7 Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the nth power of distance. Then the time period of a planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sun will be proportional to
A. R⁽ⁿ⁺¹⁾½
B. R⁽ⁿ⁻¹⁾½
C. Rⁿ
D. R⁽ⁿ⁻²⁾½
Q. 8 A Ge specimen is doped with Al. The concentration of acceptor atoms is 10²¹ atoms/m³. Given that the intrinsic concentration of electron hole pair is 10¹⁹/m³ the concentration of electrons in the specimen is:
A. 10¹⁷/m³
B. 10¹⁵/m³
C. 10⁴/m³
D. 10²/m³
Q. 9 A slab consists of two layers of different materials of the same thickness and having thermal conductivities K₁ and K₂ are connected in series.
A. (2K₁K₂)/(K₁+K₂)
B. √(K₁K₂)
C. (K₁K₂)/(K₁+K₂)
D. K₁+K₂
Q. 10 In Young’s double slit experiment, the distance between two slits is made three times then the fridge width will become:
A. 9 times
B. 1/9 times
C. 3 times
D. 1/3 times
Q. 11 A laser beam is used for carrying out surgery because, it
A. is highly monochromatic
B. is highly coherent
C. is highly directional
D. can be sharply focussed
Q. 12 A converging lens form a real image of an object on its principle axis. A rectangular slab refractive index and thickness x is introduced between and the lens, l will move:
A. towards the lens (μ-1)x
B. towards the lens by (1-1/μ)x
C. away from the lens by (μ-1)x
D. away from the lens by (1-1/μ)x
Q. 13 The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium permittivity and permeability is given by
A. 1/√(μ₀ε₀)
B. √(μ₀/ε₀)
C. √ε₀/√μ₀
D. √(μ₀ε₀)
Q. 14 Electric field at centre of a uniformly charged semicircle of radius a is:
A. λ/2πε₀a²
B. λ/4π²ε₀a²
C. λ²/2πε₀a
D. λ/2πε₀a
Q. 15 If frequency of R-L circuit is f then impedance will be
A. √(R²+(2πfL)²)
B. R²+(2πf²)²
C. √(R²+πf²L)
D. R²+(2πf)²
Q. 16 Two closed organ pipes of length 100 cm and 101 cm produces 16 beats in 20 sec. When each pipe is sounded in its fundamental mode calculate the velocity of sound?
A. 303 m/s
B. 332 m/s
C. 323.2 m/s
D. 300 m/s
Q. 17 A certain gas is taken to the five states represented by dots in the graph. The plotted lines are isotherms. Order of the most probable speed v of the molecules at these five states is:
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 18 N atoms of a radioactive element emit N beta particles per second. The decay constant of the element is (in /s)
A. N₁/N₂
B. N₂/N₁
C. N₁ (ln 2)
D. N₂ (ln 2)
Q. 19 Figure shows the variation of energy with the orbit radius r of a satellite in a circular motion. Mark the correct statement.
A. C is total energy, B total energy and C potential energy
B. A is kinetic energy, B total energy and C potential energy
C. A and B are the kinetic and potential energies and C the total energy of the satellite
D. C and A are kinetic and potential energy respectively and B the total energy of the satellite
Q. 20 Two charges +q and -q are attached to the two ends of light rod of length L, as shown in figure. The system is given a velocity v perpendicular to magnetic field B̅. The magnetic force on the system of charges and magnitude of force on one charge by the rod , are respectively
A. zero,zero
B. zero,qvB
C. 2qvB,0
D. 2qvB,qvB
Q. 21 If a wire is extended to a new length l, the work done is
A. YA(l-l’)/l
B. YA(l-l’)²/l
C. YA(l-l’)²/2l
D. 2YA(l-l’)²/l
Q. 22 The equivalent resistance between the points X and Y in the following circuit diagram will be:
A. 10 ohm
B. 5 ohm
C. 7 ohm
D. 3 ohm
Q. 23 The intensity of magnetic field due to an isolated pole of strength mₐ at a point distant r from it will be
A. mₐ/r²
B. mₐ/r²
C. r²/mₐ
D. mₐ/r
Q. 24 A bulb and a condenser are connected in series with an A.C source. On increasing the frequency of the source its brightness will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. sometimes increase and sometimes decrease
D. neither increase nor decrease
Q. 25 Two heater wires, made of the same material and having the same length and the same radius, are first connected in series and then parallel to a constant potential difference. If the rates of heat produced in the two cases are Hᵤ and Hᵥ, respectively. then, Hᵤ/Hᵥ will be
A. 1/2
B. 2
C. 1/4
D. 4
Q. 26 The ratio of magnetic fields on the axis of a circular current carrying coil of radius a to the magnetic field at its centre will be
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 27 Lumen is the unit of
A. luminous flux
B. luminosity
C. illumination
D. quantity of light
Q. 28 A charge q is uniformly distributed on a ring radius r. A sphere of an equal radius is constructed with its centre lying on the periphery of the ring. The flux of electric field through the surface of the sphere will be
A. q/ε₀
B. q/2ε₀
C. q/3ε₀
D. q/4ε₀
Q. 29 When 100 V d.c is applied across a coil, a current of 1A flows through it. When 100V a.c of 50 Hz is applied to the same coil only 0.5 A flows. The inductance of the coil:
A. 0.55 H
B. 5.5 mH
C. 0.55 mH
D. 55 mH
Q. 30 A bulb of 25 W, 200 V and the another bulb of 100W, 200 V are connected in series with a supply line of 220 V. Then
A. both bulbs will glow with same brightness
B. both bulbs will get fused
C. 25 W bulb will glow more brightly
D. 100 W bulb will glow more brightly
Q. 31 Which of the following is matched wrongly?
A. oil drop experiment —-> Millikan
B. dual nature of light —-> de Broglie
C. uncertainty principle —> Heisenberg
D. none of these
Q. 32 The forbidden gap in the energy bands of silicon is:
A. 2.6eV
B. 1.1 eV
C. 0.1 eV
D. 6 eV
Q. 33 When white light passes through a prism, the deviation is maximum for
A. violet light
B. green light
C. red light
D. yellow light
Q. 34 Which of the following gates correspond to the truth table given below?
A. NAND
B. OR
C. XOR
D. NOR
Q. 35 Light is incident normally on a diffraction grating through which the first diffraction is seen at 32⁰. In the case the second order diffraction will be
A. at 80⁰
B. at 64⁰
C. at 48⁰
D. there is no second order diffraction
Q. 36 If there were no atmosphere, the average temperature on earth surface on earth surface would be:
A. lower
B. higher
C. same
D. 0⁰ C
Q. 37 The current curve between logₑ J/T² and /T
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 38 An object 5 cm tall is placed 1 m from a concave spherical mirror which has a radius of curvature of 20 cm. The size of the image is
A. 0.11 cm
B. 0.50 cm
C. 0.55 cm
D. 0.60 cm
Q. 39 The magnifying power of a compound microscope increase with
A. the focal length of objective lens is increased and that of eye lens is decreased
B. the focal length of eye lens is increased and that of objective lens is decreased
C. focal lengths of both objects and eye-piece are increased
D. focal lengths of both objects and eye-piece are decreased
Q. 40 A thread is tied slightly loose to a wire frame as in figure and the frame as in figure and the frame is dropped into a soap solution and taken out. The frame is completely covered with the film. When the portion A is punctured with a pin, the thread
A. becomes concave towards A
B. becomes convex towards A
C. either (a) or (b) depending on the size of A with respect to B
D. remains in the initial position
Questions: 41 – 60
Directions : In the following questions (41-60), a statement of assertion (A) is
followed by a statement of a reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) If the both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 41 Assertion : In the relation f = √(T/μ)/2l , where symbols have standard meaning, m represent linear mass density.
Reason : The frequency has the dimensions of inverse of time.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 42 Assertion : When the velocity of projection of a body is made n times, its time of flight becomes n times.
Reason : Range of projectile does not depend on the initial velocity of the body.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 43 Assertion : A needle placed carefully on the surface of water may float, whereas a ball of the same material will always sink.
Reason : The buoyancy of an object depends both on the material and shape of the shape.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 44 Assertion : The colour of the green flower seen through red glass appears to the dark.
Reason : Red glass transmits only red light.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 45 Assertion : The alternating current lags behind the e.m.f by a phase angle of π/2, when AC flows through an inductor.
Reason : The inductive resistance increases as the frequency of AC source decreases.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 46 Assertion : A spark occur between the poles of a switch when the switch is opened.
Reason : Current flowing in the conductor produces magnetic field.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 47 Assertion : X-rays can penetrate through the flesh but not through the bones.
Reason : The penetrating power of X-rays depends on voltage.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 48 Assertion : It is essential that all the lines available in the emission spectrum will also be available in the absorption spectrum.
Reason : The spectrum of hydrogen atom is only absorption spectrum
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 49 Assertion : A double convex lens(μ=1.5) has focal length 10 cm. When the lens is immersed in water (μ=4/3) its focal length becomes 77 cm.
Reason : 1/f = (μᵣ – μₐ)(1/R₁ – 1/R₂)/μₐ
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 50 Assertion : Diode lasers are used as optical sources in optical communication.
Reason : Diode lasers consume less energy.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 51 Assertion : We cannot think of magnetic field configuration with three poles.
Reason : A bar magnet does exert a torque on itself due to its own field.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 52 Assertion : In a SHM, Kinetic and potential energies become equal when the displacement is 1/√2 times the amplitude.
Reason : In SHM, Kinetic energy is zero when potential energy is maximum
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 53 Assertion : A bird perches on a high power line and nothing happens to the bird.
Reason : The level of bird is very high from the ground.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 54 Assertion : Stopping potential depends upon the frequency of incident light but is
independent of the intensity of the light.
Reason : The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is proportional to stopping
potential.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 55 Assertion : When radius of circular loop carrying current is doubles, its magnetic moment becomes four times.
Reason : Magnetic moment depends on area of the loop.
A. aa
B. bb
C. cc
D. dd
Q. 56 Assertion : When radius of circular loop carrying current is doubled , its magnetic moment becomes four times.
Reason : Magnetic moment depends on area of loop.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 57 In the following circuit in the figure , emf is 2V and internal resistance of the cell is 1 ohm and R = 1 ohm, then reading of the voltmeter is 1V.
Reason : V= E- IR where E = 2V, I= 2/2 = 1A
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 58 Assertion : It is essential that all the lines available in the emission spectrum will also be available in the absorption spectrum.
Reason : The spectrum of hydrogen
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 59 Assertion : The energy of charged particles moving in a uniform magnetic field does not change.
Reason : Work done by magnetic field on the charge is zero.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 60 Assertion : ⁹⁰Sr from the radioactive fall out from a nuclear bomb ends up in the bones of human beings through the milk consumed by them. It causes impairment of production of red blood cells.
Reason : The energies β-particles emitted in the decay of ⁹⁰Sr damage the bone marrow.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 61 Identify Z in the reaction
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 62 For the reaction, 2NO₂ + F₂ —> NO₂F + F (slow)
NO₂ + F —-> NO₂F(fast)
Thus the rate expression of the above reaction can be written as:
A. r = K [NO₂]₂ [F₂]
B. r = K[NO₂][F₂]
C. r = K[NO₂]
D. r = K[F₂]
Q. 63 What is the correct relationship between the pHs of isomolar solutions of sodium oxide (pH₁), sodium sulphide(pH₂), sodium selenide(pH₃) and sodium telluride(pH₄)?
A. pH₁ > pH₂ = pH₃ = pH₄
B. pH₁ < pH₂ < pH₃ < pH₄
C. pH₁ > pH₂ > pH₃ < pH₄
D. pH₁ > pH₂ > pH₃ > pH₄
Q. 64 Toluene is nitrated and the resulting product is reduced with tin and hydrochloric acid. The product so obtained is diazotized and then heated with corpus bromide. The reaction mixture so formed contains
A. mixture of o- and m-bromotoluene
B. mixture of o- and p-bromoaniline
C. mixture of o- and p-dibromobenzene
D. mixture of o- and p- bromoaniline
Q. 65 The dissociation equilibrium of a gas AB₂ can be represented as
The degree of dissociation is x and is small compared to 1. The expression relating the degree of dissociation (x) with equilibrium constant Kᵤ and the total pressure u is:
A. (2Kᵤ/u)½
B. Kᵤ/u
C. 2Kᵤ/u
D. (2Kᵤ/u)½
Q. 66 which of the following is considered as an anticancer species?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 67 Find the compound A?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 68 In which of the following preparations of ether, the configuration about chiral centre is not retained?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 69 Toluene on treatment with CrO₃ and (CH₃CO)₂O followed by hydrolysis with dil. HCl gives
A. benzaldehyde
B. benzoic acid
C. phenol
D. phenylacetaldehyde
Q. 70 The time period to coat a metal surface of 80 cm with 5 x 10⁻³ cm thick layer of silver (density 1.05 g cm⁻³)with the passage of 3A current through a silver nitrate solution is
A. 115 sec
B. 125 sec
C. 135 sec
D. 145 sec
Q. 71 Correct equation of Freundlich isotherm is:
A. log(m/x) = log k + log c
B. log(x/m) = log c + 1/n log k
C. log (x/m) = log c + 1/k log c
D. log(x/m) = log k + 1/k log c
Q. 72 Which of the following compounds is not chiral ?
A. 1-chloropentane
B. 2-chloropentane
C. 1-chloro-2-methylpentane
D. 3-chloro-2-methylpentane
Q. 73 Which of the following molecules will not show optical activity?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 74 Green chemistry means such relations which
A. are related to the depletion of ozone layer
B. study the reactions in plants
C. produce colour during reactions
D. reduce the use and production of hazardous chemicals
Q. 75 Identify the final product of the given reaction
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 76 The flame colours of metal ions are due to
A. frenkel defect
B. schottky defect
C. metal deficiency defect
D. metal excess defect
Q. 77 The reaction of an organic compound with ammonia followed by nitration of the product gives a powerful explosive called RDX. The organic compound is
A. phenol
B. toluene
C. glycerine
D. formaldehyde
Q. 78 Cumene process is the most important commercial method for the manufacture of phenol. Cumene is:
A. iso-propyl benzene
B. ethyl benzene
C. vinyl benzene
D. propyl benzene
Q. 79 prolonged exposure of fat or oil in moist air and light causes bad smell. It is due to
A. formation of C₆ – C₁₂ fatty acids
B. formation of ketone and aldehyde
C. both of these causes
D. formation of glycerol
Q. 80 Acid hydrolysis of sucrose is a :
A. pseudo first order reaction
B. zero order reaction
C. second order reaction
D. unimolecular reaction
Q. 81 Which of these compounds is synthesised by chloral?
A. DDT
B. BHC
C. chloroform
D. michler’s ketone
Q. 82 When phenol reacts with phthalic anhydride in presence of H₂SO₄ and heated and hot reaction mixture is poured in NaOH solution, then product formed is
A. alizarin
B. methyl orange
C. fluorescein
D. phenolphthalein
Q. 83 The function of AlCl₃ in Friedel Crafts reaction is ?
A. absorb HCl
B. absorb water
C. produce nucleophile
D. produce electrophile
Q. 84 The correct order of increasing [H₃O⁺] in the following aqueous solutions is
A. 0.01 M H₂S < 0.01 M H₂SO₄ < 0.01 M NaCl < 0.01 M NaNO₂
B. 0.01 M NaCl < 0.01 M ₄NaNO₂ < 0.01 M H₂S < 0.01 M H₂SO
C. 0.01 M NaNO₂< 0.01 M NaCl < 0.01 M H₂S < 0.01 M H₂SO₄
D. 0.01 M H₂S < 0.01 M NaNO₂ < 0.01 M NaCl < 0.01 M H₂SO₄
Q. 85 Percentage of Se(at mass = 78.4) in peroxidase anhydrase enzyme is 0.5 % by weight, then minimum molecular mass of the peroxidase anhydrase enzyme is:
A. 1.576 x 10⁴
B. 1.576 x 10³
C. 15.76
D. 2.136 x 10⁴
Q. 86 The number S-S bonds in sulphur trioxide trimer (S₃O₉) is
A. three
B. two
C. one
D. zero
Q. 87 Oxidation product 1,2-cyclopentanediol with HIO₄ gives
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 88 The correct order of the dipole moment is
A. CH₄ < NF₃ < NH₃ < H₂O
B. NF₃ < CH₄ < NH₃ < H₂O
C. NH₃ < NF₃ < CH₄ < H₂O
D. H₂O < NH₃ < NF₃ < CH₄
Q. 89 The root mean square speed of the molecules of diatomic gas is u. When the temperature is doubled, the molecules dissociate into two atoms. The new rms speed of the atom is:
A. √2u
B. u
C. 2u
D. 4u
Q. 90 For the following concentration cell, to be spontaneous Pt(H₂)P₁ atm. I HCl I Pt(H₂)P atm. Which of the following is correct?
A. P₁ = P₂
B. P₁ < P₂
C. P₁ > P₂
D. cannot be predicted
Q. 91 which of the following is not a surfactant?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 92 The standard oxidation potential E for the half cell reaction are:
Zn —> Zn⁺² + 2e⁻; E⁰ = + 0.76 V
Fe —-> Fe⁺² + 2e⁻; E⁰ = + 0.41 V
EMF of the cell reaction is:
Zn + Fe⁺² —> Zn⁺² + Fe
A. -0.35 V
B. + 0.35 V
C. 0.17 V
D. 1.17 V
Q. 93 To observe the effect of concentration on the conductivity electrolytes of different nature were taken in two vessels A and B. A contains weak electrolyte NH₄OH and B contains strong electrolyte NaCl. In both containers, concentration of respective electrolyte was increased and conductivity observed.
A. in A conductivity increases, in B conductivity decreases
B. in A conductivity decreases, while in B conductivity increases
C. in both A and B conductivity increases
D. in both A and B conductivity decreases
Q. 94 A unit cell of sodium chloride has formula units. The edge length of the unit cell is 0.0564 nm. What is the density of sodium chloride?
A. 1.2g/cm³
B. 2.165 g/cm³
C. 3.64 g/cm³
D. 4.56 g/cm³
Q. 95 The reaction is called
A. claisen-schmidt reaction
B. kolbe-schmitt reaction
C. schmidt reaction
D. kolbe’s reaction
Q. 96 Which of the following amines, can give N-nitrosamine on treatment with HNO₂ ?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 97 The purification of alumina is called
A. baeyer’s process
B. bosch process
C. castner process
D. hoops process
Q. 98 Which acid has P-P linkage?
A. Hypophosphoric acid
B. pyrophosphoric acid
C. metaphosphoric acid
D. orthophosphoric acid
Q. 99 In the above sequence can be
A. 3-nitrochlorobenzene
B. 1-nitrochlorobenzene
C. 4-nitrochlorobenzene
D. none of these
Q. 100 Which of the following is aromatic?
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Questions: 101 – 120
Directions : In the following questions (101-120), a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of a reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) If the both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 101 Assertion : (CH₃)₃CCOC(CH₃)₃ and acetone can be distinguished by the reaction with NaHSO₃.
Reason : HSO₃⁻ is the nucleophile in bisulphite addition.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 102 Assertion : Tertiary carbonium ions are generally formed more easily than primary carbonium ions.
Reason : Hyperconjugation as well as inductive effect due to additional alkyl groups
stabilize tertiary carbonium ions.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 103 Assertion : If H and Cl enclosed separately in the same vessel exert pressure of 100 and 200 mm respectively,their mixture in the same vessel at the same temperature will exert a pressure of 300 mm.
Reason : Dalton’s law of partial pressure states that total pressure is the sum of partial
pressures.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 104 Assertion : The quantized energy of an electron is largely determined by its principal quantum number.
Reason : The principal quantum number n is a measure of the most probable distance of finding the electron around the nucleus.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 105 Assertion : According to Le-Chatelier’s principle addition of heart to an equilibrium solid <— > liquid results in decrease in the amount of solid.
Reason : Reaction is endothermic , so on heating forward reaction is favoured.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 106 Assertion : cyclohexane exhibits keto-enol tautomerism.
Reason : In cyclohexanone, one form contains the keto group (C==O) while other contains enolic group (–C==C–OH)
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 107 Assertion : Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution reaction.
Reason : In the case of phenol , the intermediate carbocation is more resonance stabilised.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 108 Assertion : Many endothermic reactions that are not spontaneous at room temperature become spontaneous at high temperature.
Reason : Entropy of the system increase in temperature.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 109 Assertion : Benzaldehyde is more reactive than ethanol towards nucleophilic attack.
Reason : The overall effect -l and + R effect of phenyl group decreases the electron density on the carbon atom of ketone group in benzaldehyde.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 110 Assertion : Bleaching powder results with dilute acids to evolve chlorine.
Reason : The chlorine liberated by the action of dilute acids on bleaching powder is called available chlorine.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 111 Assertion : Teflon has high thermal stability and chemical inertness.
Reason : Teflon is a thermoplastic.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 112 Assertion : In high spin situation, configuration of a¹⁵ ions will be tᵤ₂³ eᵤ²
Reason : In high spin situation, pairing energy is less than crystal field energy.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 113 Assertion : copper metal gets readily corroded in acidic aqueous solution.
Reason : Free energy change for this process is negative.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 114 Assertion : When a concentrated solution is diluted by adding more water, molarity of the solution remains unchanged.
Reason : product of moles of a solute and volume is equal to the molarity.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 115 Assertion : Anilinium chloride is more acidic than the ammonium chloride.
Reason : Anilinium chloride is resonance stabilised.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 116 Assertion : Pyrrole is an aromatic heterocyclic compound.
Reason : It has cyclic delocalised 6πelectrons.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 117 Assertion : 2-Butanol on heating with H₂SO₄ gives 1-butene and 2 – butene.
Reason : Dehydration of 2-butanol follows saytzeff’s rule.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 118 Assertion: SeCl₄ does not have a tetrahedral structure.
Reason : Se in SeCl₄ has two lone pairs.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 119 Assertion : Liquid NH₃ is used for refrigeration.
Reason: Liquid NH₃ quickly evaporates.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 120 Assertion:Ethers behave as bases in the presence of mineral acids.
Reason : It is due to the presence of lone pair of electrons on the oxygen.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 121 Two opposite forces operate in the growth and development of every population. One of them is related to the ability to reproduce at a given rate. The force opposite to it is called:
A. fecundity
B. environmental resistances
C. biotic control
D. mortality
Q. 122 Acrosome reaction in sperm is triggered by:
A. capacitation
B. release of lysine
C. influx of Na⁺
D. release of fertilizin
Q. 123 What is a keystone species?
A. a species which makes up only a small proportion of the total biomass of a community, yet has a huge impact on the communities organization and survival
B. a common species that has plenty of biomass, yet has fairly low impact on the communities organization
C. a rare species that has minimal impact on the biomass and on other species in the community
D. a dominant species that constitutes a large proportion of the biomass and which affects many other species
Q. 124 Which one of the following pair is not correctly matched?
A. streptomyces – antibiotic
B. serratia- drug addiction
C. spirulina – single cell protein
D. rhizobium – biofertilizer
Q. 125 You are required to draw blood from a patient and to keep it in a test tube for analysis of blood corpuscles and plasma. You are also provided with the following four types of test tubes. Which of these will you not use for the purpose?
A. test tube containing calcium bicarbonate
B. chilled test tubes
C. test tube containing heparin
D. test tube containing sodium oxalate
Q. 126 Smoking addiction is harmful because it produces polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, which cause
A. reduction in oxygen transport
B. increase in blood pressure
C. cancer
D. retardation of growth of foetus
Q. 127 The main reason why antibiotics could not solve all the problems of bacteria mediated diseases is:
A. insensitivity of the individual following prolonged exposure to antibiotics
B. inactivation of antibiotics by bacterial enzymes
C. decreased efficiency of the immune system
D. the development of mutant strains resistant to antibiotics
Q. 128 Which of the following sets includes the bacterial disease?
A. cholera,typhoid,mumps
B. tetanus,tuberculosis,measles
C. malaria,mumps,poliomyelitis
D. diphtheria,leprosy,plague
Q. 129 The binding of antibiotics to the antigens to produce a large insoluble complex is known as
A. antibody antigen complex
B. agglutination
C. immunization
D. suppressor cell reaction
Q. 130 one of the major difficulties in the biological control of insect pest is that
A. the predator develops a preference to other diets and may itself become a pest
B. the predator does not not always survive when transferred to a new environment
C. the method is less effective as compared with the use of insecticides
D. the practical difficulty of introducing the predator to specific areas
Q. 131 cattle fed with spoilt hay of sweet clover which contains dicumarol
A. are healthier due to good diet
B. catch infections easily
C. may suffer vitamin K deficiency and prolonged bleeding
D. may suffer from beriberi due to deficiency of vitamin B₁
Q. 132 Which one of the following methods is commonly used to maintain the propagating through seed germination.
A. by propagating through seed germination
B. by propagating through vegetative multiplication
C. by generating hybrids through intergeneric pollination
D. by treating the seeds with gamma radiations.
Q. 133 The bacteria which attack dead animals were are
A. first link of the food chain and are known as primary producers
B. second link of the food chain and are herbivorous
C. third link of the food chain and are tertiary consumers
D. the end of food chain and are decomposers
Q. 134 Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. lichen, an association of fungus and algae is an example of mutualism
B. those epiphytes which use other plants for support only and not for water or food supply and examples of commensalism
C. sea-anemone on hermit-crab is an example of protocooperation
D. mutualism, protocooperation, commensalism cannot be included under symbiosis
Q. 135 How many sperms are formed from a secondary spermatocyte?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 2
D. 1
Q. 136 Phytohormones are:
A. hormones regulating the growth from seeds to adulthood
B. growth regulators synthesised by plants and influencing physiological process
C. hormones regulating flowering
D. hormones regulating secondary growth
Q. 137 Grey crescent is the area
A. at the point of entry of sperm into ovum
B. just opposite to the site of entry of sperm into ovum
C. at the animal pole
D. at the vegetal pole
Q. 138 Even after killing the generative cell with a laser beam,the pollen grain of a flowering plant germinates and produces normal pollen tube because
A. laser beam stimulates pollen germination and pollen tube growth
B. the laser beam does not damage the region from which pollen tube emerges
C. the contents of killed generative cell permits germination and pollen tube growth
D. the vegetative cell has not been damaged
Q. 139 one common example of simple reflex is
A. typing your shoe laces while talking to another person and not looking at them
B. watering of mouth at the sight of a favourite food
C. climbing up a stairs in dark without stumbling
D. closing of eyes when strong light is flashed across them
Q. 140 select one of the following pairs of important features distinguishing gnetum from cycas and pinus and showing affinities with angiosperms.
A. perianth and two integuments
B. embryo development and apical meristem
C. absence of resin duct and leaf venation
D. presence of vessel elements and absence of archegonia
Q. 141 Injury to vagus nerve in humans is not likely to affect
A. tongue movements
B. gastrointestinal movements
C. pancreatic secretion
D. cardiac movements
Q. 142 Which one of the following is matching pair?
A. lubb-sharp closure of AV valves at the beginning of ventricular systole
B. dup-sudden opening of a semilunar valves at the beginning of the radial artery-valves in the ventricular diastole
C. pulsation of the radial artery-valves in the blood vessels
D. initiation of the heart beat purkinje fibres
Q. 143 A lake near village suffered heavy mortality of fishes within a few days. Consider the following reasons for this?
A. lots of urea and phosphate fertilizer were used in the vicinity
B. the area was sprayed with DDT by an aircraft
C. the lake water turned green and stinky
D. phytoplankton populations in the lake declined initially thereby greatly reducing photosynthesis
Q. 144 Which one of the following pairs of plant structures has haploid number of chromosomes?
A. nucellus and antipodal cells
B. egg and nucleus and secondary nucleus
C. megaspore mother cell and antipodal cells
D. egg cell and antipodal cell
Q. 145 When a man inhales air containing normal concentration of O₂ as well as CO he suffers from suffocation because
A. CO reacts with O₂ reducing its percentage in air
B. haemoglobin combines with CO instead of O₂ and forms carboxyhemoglobin
C. CO affects the nerves of the lungs
D. Co affects the nerves of the lungs
Q. 146 A patient of diabetes mellitus excretes glucose in urine even when he is kept in a carbohydrate free diet. It is because
A. fats are metabolized in adipose tissues to form glucose
B. amino acids are metabolised in kidney to form glucose
C. amino acids are discharged in blood stream from liver
D. glycogen from muscles is released in bloodstream
Q. 147 During the life-cycle , Fasciola hepatica(liver fluke) infects its intermediate host and primary host at the following larval stages respectively
A. redia and miracidium
B. cercaria and redia
C. metacercaria and cercaria
D. miracidium and metacercaria
Q. 148 Enzymes vitamins and hormones can be classified into a single category of biological chemicals because of all of these
A. enhance oxidative metabolism
B. are conjugated proteins
C. are exclusively synthesised in the body of a living organism as at present
D. help in regulating metabolism
Q. 149 Cut surfaces of fruit and vegetables often become dark because
A. dark knife makes it dark
B. oxidation of tannic acid in the presence of trace of iron the knife makes it dark
C. dust of the air makes it dark
D. none of the above
Q. 150 Nicotiana sylvestris flowers only during long days and N.tabacum flowers only during short days. If raised in the laboratory under different photoperiods, they can be induced to slower at the same time and can be cross-fertilized to produce self-fertile offspring. What is the best reason for considering N.sylvestris and N.tabacum to be separate species
A. they cannot interbreed in nature
B. they are reproductively distinct
C. they are physiologically distinct
D. they are morphologically distinct
Q. 151 Which one of the following is the correct statements regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?
A. morphine leads to delusions and disturbed emotions
B. barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary
C. hashish causes alteration of thoughts, perceptions and hallucinations
D. opium stimulates nervous system and causes hallucinations.
Q. 152 In succulent plants the stomata open in night and close in day. Which among the following would be best hypothesis to explain the mechanism of stomatal action in night only?
A. CO₂ accumulates reduces the pH, stimulate enzymes resulting in accumulation of sugars
B. increase in CO₂ concentration , conversion of organic acids into starch resulting in the increased conversion into starch resulting in the increased conversion into sugars resulting in K⁺ transport
C. low CO₂ concentration accumulates organic acids resulting in the increased concentration of cell sap
D. CO₂ used up, increase pH results in accumulation of sugars.
Q. 153 The cells of the quiescent centre are characterised by:
A. having dense cytoplasm and prominent nuclei
B. having light cytoplasm and small nuclei
C. dividing regularly to add to the corpus
D. dividing regularly to add to tunica
Q. 154 Thermococcus , methanococcus and methanobacterium exemplify
A. bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but which which have a cytoskeleton as well as mitochondria
B. bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes
C. archaebacteria that contains protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones
D. archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is negatively supercoiled
Q. 155 Ectophloic siphonostele is found in
A. Osmunda and Equisetum
B. Marsilea and Botrychium
C. Adiantum and cucurbitaceae
D. Dicksonia and Maidenhair fern
Q. 156 Chlorenchyma is known to develop in the
A. cytoplasm of chlorella
B. mycelium of a green mould such as aspergillus
C. spore capsule of a moss
D. pollen tube of pinus
Q. 157 The distance between two genes in a chromosome is measured in cross-over units which represent
A. ratio of crossing over between them
B. percentage of crossing over between them
C. no.of crossing over between them
D. none of these
Q. 158 In transgenics, expression of transgene in target tissue is determined by
A. enhancer
B. transgene
C. promoter
D. reporter
Q. 159 How many genome types are present in a typical green plants cell?
A. more than five
B. more than ten
C. two
D. three
Q. 160 The growth curve of bacterial population in lab is plotted against time.What will be the shape of the graph?
A. sigmoid
B. hyperbolic
C. ascending straight line
D. descending straight line
Questions: 161 – 180
Directions : In the following questions (161-180), a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of a reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(b) If the both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
Q. 161 Assertion:protoplasmic continuity is maintained in perforated septum.
Reason:Usually a small pore remains in the centre of the septum.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 162 Assertion:The primary protonema of moss by death and decay of cells may break into fragments.
Reason:Each fragment gives rise to leafy gametophyte.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 163 Assertion:Cephalization is advantageous to an animal.
Reason:It improves the appearance of the animal.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 164 Assertion:Koel does not build nest for egg laying.
Reason:Koel lays its eggs in the nest of tailor bird.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 165 Assertion:Competitive inhibitor is also called as substrate analogue.
Reason:It resembles the enzymes in structure.
A. A
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 166 Assertion:Person suffering from haemophilia fail to produce blood clotting factor VIII.
Reason:Prothrombin producing platelets in such persons are found in very low concentration.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 167 Assertion:Hybridoma cells are shifted to a medium deficient in nutrients which cannot be synthesized by myeloma cells.
Reason:This medium allows selection of hybridoma cells.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 168 Assertion:Maize is an albuminous seed.
Reason: Endosperm is completely absorbed by it’s growing embryo.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 169 Assertion:Ciliated epithelium is present in the inner lining of trachea and large bronchi.
Reason:ciliary movement propel the mucus and foreign particle towards the larynx.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 170 Assertion:Light is one of the important factor in transpiration.
Reason:It includes stomatal opening and closing.Therefore,transpiration increases in light and decreases in dark.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 171 Assertion:The higher concentration of O₂ in the atmosphere is inhibitory to photosynthesis.
Reason:CO₂ is the main substrate of photosynthesis.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 172 Assertion:F₁ particles are present in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
Reason:An electron gradient formed on the inner mitochondrial membrane,forms ATP.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 173 Assertion:Rhabdome is present in palaemon.
Reason:Rhabdome has an important role in digestion.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Q. 174 Assertion : Pituitary is attached to hypothalamus by a vein.
Reason: this attachment is done through a hypophyseal portal vein.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 175 Assertion : Rabies is acute infectious disease of warm blooded mammals characterised by involvement of central nervous system resulting in paralysis and finally death
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 176 Assertion: Many plants are propagated vegetatively even though they bear seeds.
Reason : potatoes multiply by tubers and apple by cutting.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 177 Assertion : nuclear endosperm is formed by subsequent nuclear division without wall formation.
Reason : coconut is an example of such endosperm , where the endosperm remains nuclear throughout the development of the fruit.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 178 Assertion : In mammals the female secondary sexual characters are developed by gonadotropins.
Reason : Gonadotropins are secreted by graafian follicle.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 179 Assertion : The plants biomass which serves as the food of herbivores and decomposers is said to result from the gross primary productivity.
Reason : Gross primary productivity is the rate of net production of organic material(biomass)
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 180 Assertion : methyl mercury is a highly persistent pollutant that accumulates in food chains.
Reason : Mercury pollution is responsible for minamata.
A. a
B. b
C. c
D. d
Q. 181 The first of the GAEL(global alliance for the elimination of leprosy) was held in
A. new delhi
B. bombay
C. calcutta
D. paris
Q. 182 Megger is an instrument to measure
A. very low resistance
B. insulation resistance
C. inductance of coil
D. all of the above
Q. 183 Terminator technology promotes sale of which of the following that is/are generated by it?
A. gransgenic fertile seed
B. gene modified plants
C. genetically engineered seeds fertilized in next generation
D. all of these
Q. 184 Which among the following has become the third tiger reserve of Assam?
A. manas wildlife sanctuary
B. kaziranga national park
C. nameri national park
D. none of these
Q. 185 To make the acidic soil suitable for agricultural, one of the following material is used.
A. lime
B. gypsum
C. calcium superphosphate
D. vegetable compost
Q. 186 The landform which is not associated with wind erosion is
A. sand dune
B. inselberg
C. drumlin
D. mushroom rock
Q. 187 BCG vaccination is to be a new born child
A. immediately after child birth
B. within 48 days
C. within seven days
D. within six months
Q. 188 For reproducing sound, CD(compact disc) audio player uses a
A. quartz crystal
B. titanium needle
C. laser beam
D. barium titanate ceramic
Q. 189 In a three pin electrical plug, longest pin should be connected to
A. ground terminal
B. live terminal
C. neutral terminal
D. any terminal
Q. 190 The new addition to the commonwealth games 2010
A. shooting
B. hockey
C. wrestling
D. football
Q. 191 The name of the player who established record in world cup cricket 2007 of making six sixes is
A. sanath jaisurya
B. verendra sehwag
C. adam gilchrist
D. hershelle gibbs
Q. 192 The lateral meaning of the word arya is
A. superior
B. learned
C. priest
D. warrior
Q. 193 When T.V is switched on
A. audio and video both start simultaneously
B. audio is heard immediately but video starts later because video needs some warm up time
C. video starts immediately but audio is heard later because sound travels at a lesser speed than light
D. it depends on T.V stand
Q. 194 The instrument of music in which ustad amjad ali khan has distinguished himself is
A. sarod
B. violin
C. sitar
D. shehnai
Q. 195 A deep and narrow river valley with steep bank is called
A. geyser
B. bluff
C. delta
D. canyon
Q. 196 A “breath test” used by traffic police to check the drunk and drivers uses-
A. potassium dichromate-sulphuric acid
B. potassium permanganate sulphuric acid
C. turmeric on filter paper
D. silica gel coated with silver nitrate
Q. 197 In which of the following books ‘knowledge is power’ written?
A. essay on man
B. paradise lost
C. leviathan
D. das kapital
Q. 198 Who said “where weather accumulates, men decay”?
A. abraham lincoln
B. mao tse tung
C. karl marx
D. goldsmith
Q. 199 which of the following computer viruses is named after cherry and caffeine soft drinks popular with programmers?
A. sircam
B. code pink
C. code red
D. malisa
Q. 200 The fourth buddhist council was held during the reign of
A. ashoka
B. chandragupta
C. kanishka
D. chandragupta vikramaditya
| Answer Sheet |
||||||||||
| Question | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| Answer | D | C | A | B | A | C | A | A | A | D |
| Question | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| Answer | A | D | A | D | A | C | A | B | C | B |
| Question | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| Answer | C | B | A | A | C | A | A | C | A | C |
| Question | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| Answer | D | B | A | D | D | A | A | C | B | C |
| Question | 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| Answer | B | C | C | A | C | B | B | D | A | B |
| Question | 51 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 55 | 56 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 |
| Answer | D | B | C | B | A | A | A | A | D | A |
| Question | 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 |
| Answer | B | B | D | B | D | A | B | B | A | B |
| Question | 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 |
| Answer | A | A | C | D | B | D | B | A | C | A |
| Question | 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 |
| Answer | A | D | D | C | A | D | A | A | C | C |
| Question | 91 | 92 | 93 | 94 | 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 | 99 | 100 |
| Answer | B | B | D | B | C | C | A | A | A | C |
| Question | 101 | 102 | 103 | 104 | 105 | 106 | 107 | 108 | 109 | 110 |
| Answer | B | A | D | A | A | A | C | B | A | B |
| Question | 111 | 112 | 113 | 114 | 115 | 116 | 117 | 118 | 119 | 120 |
| Answer | B | C | D | D | C | A | A | C | A | A |
| Question | 121 | 122 | 123 | 124 | 125 | 126 | 127 | 128 | 129 | 130 |
| Answer | B | C | A | B | C | C | D | D | B | A |
| Question | 131 | 132 | 133 | 134 | 135 | 136 | 137 | 138 | 139 | 140 |
| Answer | C | B | D | D | C | B | B | D | D | D |
| Question | 141 | 142 | 143 | 144 | 145 | 146 | 147 | 148 | 149 | 150 |
| Answer | A | A | A | D | B | A | D | D | B | A |
| Question | 151 | 152 | 153 | 154 | 155 | 156 | 157 | 158 | 159 | 160 |
| Answer | C | B | B | D | A | C | B | D | C | B |
| Question | 161 | 162 | 163 | 164 | 165 | 166 | 167 | 168 | 169 | 170 |
| Answer | A | A | C | C | C | C | A | C | B | A |
| Question | 171 | 172 | 173 | 174 | 175 | 176 | 177 | 178 | 179 | 180 |
| Answer | B | C | C | D | C | A | C | D | D | B |
| Question | 181 | 182 | 183 | 184 | 185 | 186 | 187 | 188 | 189 | 190 |
| Answer | A | B | C | B | C | C | D | C | A | C |
| Question | 191 | 192 | 193 | 194 | 195 | 196 | 197 | 198 | 199 | 200 |
| Answer | D | A | B | A | D | A | A | D | C | C |