SSC CGL Tier-I 01 September 2016 Shift-I Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2016 1 Sep Shift 1

Q. 1 Select the related word from the given alternatives.

Psychology : Human Being :: Ornithology : ?

A. Birds

B. Volcanoes

C. Insects

D. Reptiles

 

Q. 2 Select the related word/letters/number from the given alternatives.

EGIK : FHJL :: MOQS : ?

A. LNOQ

B. NPRT

C. KMOQ

D. NRPT

 

Q. 3 Select the related number from the given alternatives. 

147 : 741 :: 869 : ?

A. 896

B. 968

C. 689

D. 986

 

Q. 4 For the following questions

Find the odd word from the given alternatives.

A. Herb

B. Flower

C. Tree

D. Shrub

 

Q. 5 For the following questions

Find the odd letters pair from the given alternatives.

A. JKLM

B. NOPQ

C. RSTU

D. VWXZ

 

Q. 6 For the following questions

Find the odd word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.

A. (85, 136)

B. (34, 85)

C. (102, 153)

D. (63, 162)

 

Q. 7 Arrange the following words as per order in the dictionary

1. Organ

2. Origin

3. Orient

4. Organic

5. Organise

A. 1, 5, 3, 4, 2

B. 1, 5, 4, 2, 3

C. 1, 4, 5, 3, 2

D. 1, 4, 5, 2, 3

 

Q. 8 Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

_sr_tr_srs_r_srst_

A. ttssrr

B. tsrtsr

C. strtrs

D. tstttr

 

Q. 9 Find the missing number in the following series:

43, 172, 86, 344, ?

A. 172

B. 258

C. 129

D. 430

 

Q. 10 ‘A’ is the sister of ‘B’. ‘B’ is married to ‘D’. ‘B’ and ‘D’ have a daughter ‘G’. How is ‘G’ related to ‘A’?

A. Sister

B. Daughter

C. Niece

D. Cousin

 

Q. 11 Anil is as much younger to Vivek as he is older to Tarun. If the total of the ages of Vivek and Tarun is 48 years, how old is Anil?

A. 26

B. 33

C. 24

D. 18

 

Q. 12 From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word:

CHRONOLOGICAL

A. CALL

B. LOGIC

C. CALICO

D. ANALOGY

 

Q. 13 If HOUSE is written as FQSUC , then how can CHAIR be written in that code?

A. DIBJS

B. SBJID

C. SHBGD

D. AJYKP

 

Q. 14 If P denotes ÷ , Q denotes x, R denotes + and S denotes – then what is the value of 18Q12P4R5S6

A. 64

B. 53

C. 81

D. 24

 

Q. 15 If 4 + 3 = 25, and 8 + 4 = 80, then, 3 + 2 = ?

A. 15

B. 10

C. 13

D. 12

 

Q. 16 Select the missing numbers from the given alternatives

A. 30

B. 35

C. 20

D. 25

 

Q. 17 Ramesh starts his journey by walking 2 kilometres towards North. Then he takes a right turn and walks 1 kilometre. Again takes a right turn and walks 2 kilometre. Now which direction is he facing?

A. East

B. West

C. South

D. North

 

Q. 18 Consider the given statement/s to be true and decide which of the given conclusions/assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement.

Statement: Irregularity is a cause for failure in exams. Some regular students fail in the examinations.

Conclusions:

I. All failed students are regular.

II. All successful students are not regular

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follow

D. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows

 

Q. 19 How many triangles are there in the given figure?

A. 18

B. 19

C. 20

D. 21

 

Q. 20 Which one of the following figures represents the following relationship:

Birds, Parrots, Bats

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 21 Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 22 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is

hidden/embedded

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 23 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 24 If a mirror is placed on the line AB, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

 

Q. 25 In the question, a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘B’ can be represented by 00, 13 etc., and ‘A’ can be represented by 55, 69 etc. Similarly you have to identify the set for the word ‘GIRL’

A. 02, 56, 97, 24

B. 31, 79, 68, 42

C. 23, 97, 77, 11

D. 11, 88, 95, 23

 

Q. 26 The minimum short-term natural hazard is __________ .

A. blizzard

B. earthquake

C. volcanic eruption

D. bolt of lightning

Q. 27 DOTS is a treatment given to patients suffering from _________ .

A. Polio

B. AIDS

C. Hepatitis

D. Tuberculosis

 

Q. 28 Which dynasty was ruling in Vijaynagar empire at the time of the Battle of Talikota?

A. Sangam

B. Aniridu

C. Tuluva

D. Saluva

 

Q. 29 Which of the following Sultans died while playing Polo or Chaugan?

A. Qutb-ud-din Aibak

B. Balban

C. Iltutmish

D. Nasiruddin Muhammad

 

Q. 30 Molten rock below the surface of the earth is called __________ .

A. Basalt

B. Laccolith

C. Lava

D. Magma

 

Q. 31 Magnesium is a constituent metal of __________ .

A. Chlorophyll molecule

B. DNA

C. Mitochondria

D. Ribosomes

 

Q. 32 Which one among the following components is used as an amplifying device?

A. Transformer

B. Diode

C. Capacitor

D. Transistor

 

Q. 33 A __________ is an agreement between the communicating parties on how communication is to proceed.

A. Path

B. SLA

C. Bond

D. Protocol

 

Q. 34 Name the gas used in preparation of bleaching powder

A. Oxygen

B. Hydrogen

C. Nitrogen

D. Chlorine

 

Q. 35 The depletion in Ozone layer is caused by ___________ .

A. Nitrous oxide

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Chlorofluorocarbons

D. Methane

 

Q. 36 Sariska and Ranthambore are the reserves for which of the following

A. Lion

B. Deer

C. Tiger

D. Bear

 

Q. 37 The prestigious ‘Jawaharlal Nehru Award for International Understanding’ is instituted by

A. National Centre for Art and Culture

B. department of Youth and Sports

C. Nehru Memorial Museum

D. Indian Council for Cultural Relations

 

Q. 38 Phosphorus is kept in water because

A. its ignition temperature is very high

B. its ignition temperature is very low

C. its critical temperature is high

D. its critical temperature is low

 

Q. 39 The famous Dilwara temples of Mount Abu are a sacred pilgrimage place for the

A. Buddhists

B. Jains

C. Sikhs

D. Parsis

 

Q. 40 The unit of measurement of noise is

A. Decibel

B. Hertz

C. Amplifier

D. Acoustics

 

Q. 41 The commonly used coolant in refrigerators is

A. Ammonia

B. Nitrogen

C. Freon

D. Oxygen

 

Q. 42 The complete form of ‘IC’ in electronics is

A. Internal circuit

B. Independent circuit

C. Integrated circuit

D. Inbuilt circuit

 

Q.43 Who among the following did Gandhiji regard as his political Guru?

A. Mahadev Desai

B. Dayanand Saraswati

C. Acharya Narendra Dev

D. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

 

Q. 44 Which of the following constitutional Amendment Act, deals with the Elementary Education as a Fundamental Right?

A. 84th Amendment Act

B. 85th Amendment Act

C. 86th Amendment Act

D. 87th Amendment Act

 

Q. 45 The World’s largest island is

A. Greenland

B. Iceland

C. New Guinea

D. Madagascar

 

Q. 46 Sea water is saltier than rain water because

A. Sea animals are salt producing

B. The air around the sea is saltish

C. Rivers wash away salts from earth and pour them into the sea

D. Sea beds have salt producing mines

 

Q. 47 Pannalal Ghosh played which of the following musical instruments?

A. Flute

B. Sitar

C. Violin

D. Santoor

 

Q. 48 Rio Summit is associated with

A. Convention on Biological Diversity

B. Green house gases

C. Ozone depletion

D. Wetlands

 

Q. 49 Polyploidy arises due to change in the

A. number of chromatids

B. structure of genes

C. number of chromosomes

D. structure of chromosomes

 

Q. 50 Which South Korean author in May 2016 won the 2016 Man Booker International Prize for her novel ‘The Vegetarian’?

A. Han Kang

B. Yiyun Li

C. Tami Hoag

D. Taya Zinkin

 

Q. 51 A and B together can finish a work in 30 days. They worked for it for 20 days and then B left the work. The remaining work was done by A alone in 20 days more. In how many days can A alone finish the work?

A. 48 days

B. 50 days

C. 54 days

D. 60 days

 

Q. 52 The centroid of an equilateral triangle ABC is G. If AB is 6 cms, the length of AG is 

A. √3 cm

B. 2√3 cm

C. 3√2 cm

D. 2√2 cm

 

Q. 53 A merchant changed his trade discount from 25% to 15%. This would increase selling price by

A. 3⅓%

B. 6⅙%

C. 13⅓%

D. 16⅓%

 

Q. 54 If 177 is divided into 3 parts in the ratio 1/2 : 2/3: 4/5, then the second part is

A. 75

B. 45

C. 72

D. 60

 

Q. 55 If percentage of profit made,when an article is sold for Rs.78, is twice as when it is sold for Rs.69, the cost price of the article is

A. Rs. 49

B. Rs. 51

C. Rs. 57

D. Rs. 60

 

Q. 56 The ratio between Ram’s age and Rahim’s age is 10:11. What is the age of Rahim in percentage of Ram’s age

A. 109(1/11)%

B. 110%

C. 111(1/9)%

D. 111%

 

Q. 57 Gautam travels 160 kms at 32 kmph and returns at 40 kmph. Then average speed 

A. 72 kmph

B. 71.11 kmph

C. 36 kmph

D. 35.55 kmph

 

Q. 58 If x=3/2, then the value of 27×3-54×2+36x-11 is

A. 11⅜

B. 11⅝

C. 12⅜

D. 12⅝

 

Q. 59 If a+b+c = 6 and ab+bc+ca = 1, then the value of bc(b+c) + ca(c+a) +ab(a+b) +3abc is

A. 33

B. 66

C. 55

D. 23

 

Q. 60 If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 2:3:4, then the difference of the measure of greatest angle and smallest angle is

A. 20°

B. 30°

C. 40°

D. 50°

 

Q. 61 In ΔABC, ∠A = 90°, AD ┴ BC and AD = BD = 2 cm. The length of CD

A. 3 cm

B. 3.5 cm

C. 3.2 cm

D. 2 cm

 

Q. 62 If tan 45° = cot θ , then the value of θ , in radians is

A. Π

B. Π/9

C. Π/2

D. Π/12

 

Q. 63 (2^51 + 2^52+2^53+2^4+2^55) is divisible by

A. 23

B. 58

C. 124

D. 127

 

Q. 64 The average of 12 numbers is 9. If each number is multiplied by 2 and added to 3, the average of the new set of numbers is

A. 9

B. 18

C. 21

D. 27

 

Q. 65 Choose the correct option

A. 1

B. 3

C. 0

D. 2

 

Q. 66 Choose the correct option

A. 4/5

B. 3/5

C. 8/5

D. 1/5

 

Q. 67 The perimeter of two similar triangles ABC and PQR are 36 cms and 24 cms respectively. If PQ = 10 cm then the length of AB is

A. 18 cm

B. 12 cm

C. 15 cm

D. 30 cm

 

Q. 68 n a triangle ABC, AB = 8 cm, AC = 10 cm and ∠B = 90°, then the area of ΔABC is

A. 49 sq.cm

B. 36 sq.cm

C. 25 sq.cm

D. 24 sq.cm

 

Q. 69 Choose the correct option

A. 1/√2

B. 0

C. 1/2

D. √3/2

 

Q. 70 The compound interest on Rs. 64,000 for 3 years, compounded annually at 7.5% p.a. is

A. Rs. 14,400

B. Rs. 15,705

C. Rs. 15,507

D. Rs. 15,075

 

Q. 71 The angles of elevation of the top of a temple, from the foot and the top of a building 30 m high, are 60° and 30° respectively. Then height of the temple is

A. 50 m

B. 43 m

C. 40 m

D. 45 m

 

Question:- 72-75

Study the pie-chart given and answer the following questions.

 

Q. 72 If the miscellaneous charges are Rs. 6000, then the advertisement charges are

A. Rs.12000

B. Rs.27000

C. Rs.90000

D. Rs.25000

 

Q. 73 The central angle of printing charge is x more than that of advertisement charge. Then the value of x is

A. 72°

B. 61.2°

C. 60°

D. 54.8°

 

Q. 74 What should be the central angle of the sector ‘cost of paper’?

A. 22.5°

B. 54.8°

C. 36°

D. 16°

 

Q. 75 The ratio between royalty and binder’s charges is

A. 5:6

B. 5:8

C. 6:5

D. 8:13

 

Q. 76 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

RECEPTACLE

A. COMPARTMENT

B. HOLE

C. CONTAINER

D. FUNNEL

 

Q. 77 In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it.

VANITY

A. PRIDE

B. LOVE

C. COURAGE

D. HUMILITY

 

Q. 78 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the correctly spelt word and click the button corresponding to it.

A. Acquisision

B. Acqiusition

C. Acquisition

D. Acquisetion

 

Q. 79 In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the “No error” option.

If you permit me to speak the truth (A) / I shall state without hesitation (B) / that you have done a mistake (C) / No Error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 80 In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the “No error” option.

I succeeded persuading him (A) / to come with me (B) / only after hours of argument (C) / No Error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 81 In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and click the button corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click the “No error” option.

Vermin (A) / does much harm (B) / to crops (C) / No Error (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 82 The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

Light is _____ than sound.

A. faster

B. more faster

C. sounder

D. lighter

 

Q. 83 The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

The man _____ for the purpose never did what was expected of him.

A. supplied

B. favoured

C. employed

D. cited

 

Q. 84 The sentences given with blanks are to be filled with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question. For each question, choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it.

There was a serious _____ between the two brothers.

A. altercation

B. alteration

C. aberration

D. altieration

 

Q. 85 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it.

To give oneself airs

A. Space to breathe

B. Time

C. Acting strange

D. Behaving arrogantly

 

Q. 86 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it.

At a stone’s throw

A. At a short distance

B. At a place where quarrels take place

C. At a great distance

D. A quarry

 

Q. 87 In each of the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase and click the button corresponding to it.

Bone of contention

A. A delicious non-vegetarian item

B. An item which made them content

C. Cause for quarrel

D. A link between them

 

Q. 88 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it.

A person who has lost the protection of the law

A. Outlaw

B. Immigrant

C. Outcast

D. Orphan

 

Q. 89 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it.

Falsification of documents etc

A. Xeroxing

B. Forgery

C. Laminating

D. Copying

 

Q. 90 Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences and click the button corresponding to it.

To make atonement for one’s sins

A. Expiate

B. Renounce

C. Remonstrate

D. Recant

 

Q. 91 A sentence/a part of the sentence is under double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to “No improvement”.

The boys “absented themselves” for two days.

A. were absented

B. absented

C. had absented

D. No improvement

 

Q. 92 A sentence/a part of the sentence is under double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to “No improvement”.

My mother insists on setting “up” something everyday for charity.

A. on

B. in

C. aside

D. No improvement

 

Q. 93 A sentence/a part of the sentence is under double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to “No improvement”.

He “began” on a new business venture.

A. embarked

B. begun

C. opened

D. No improvement

 

Q. 94 A sentence/a part of the sentence is under double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to “No improvement”.

I have to “say” them the truth

A. tell

B. state

C. speak

D. No improvement

 

Q. 95 A sentence/a part of the sentence is under double quotes. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative and click the button corresponding to it. In case no improvement is needed, click the button corresponding to “No improvement”.

The SSB will interview the candidate between “11 a.m. and 3.00 p.m.”

A. 11.00 am to 3 pm

B. 11.00 from 3 pm

C. 11.am by 3.00 pm

D. No improvement

 

Questions: 96 – 100 

A passage is given with 5 questions following it. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives and click the button corresponding to it. 

Settled life and cultivation gave man leisure; he had no longer to always think of getting food. During spare time he could make stone tools, hoes or pots and weave cloth. Some people spared from producing their own food could even devote themselves to other activities all the time. This resulted in a division of labour. The division of labour made it possible for various groups to specialize, that is, to acquire greater skill and learn better techniques in doing one kind of work. The settled community life needed rules to regulate the behaviour of the members of the community. It is not possible to know exactly how regulations were established. It appears that the decisions regarding the community were taken by the people as a whole, or by a council of elders, as is in the practice in tribal societies. There were perhaps no kings or any organized government. Most likely, there were chiefs elected by the community for their qualities of leadership. But, these chiefs could not pass their positions on to their sons and they enjoyed few special privileges. Archaeological excavations have not revealed anything which would indicate the prevalence of a higher status for some members of the community. This is also supported by the study of life in many tribes in modern times. Thus, social inequalities do not seem to have emerged even in Neolithic times.

 

Q. 96 What did man do in his spare time?

A. Made stone tools

B. Made hoes or pots

C. Weave cloth

D. All of the above

 

Q. 97 In the passage, “division of labour” means?

A. Specialization to acquire greater skills

B. Learning arithmetic

C. Working in groups

D. Working from home

 

Q. 98 To which period do the Neolithic times refer:

A. Later part of the Stone Age

B. Early part of the Stone Age

C. Later part of the Ice Age

D. Medieval times

 

Q. 99 Chiefs were elected by the community for their

A. age

B. qualities of leadership

C. responsibility and courage 

D. trust and loyalty

 

Q. 100 The meaning of ‘privilege’ is

A. allowance

B. favour

C. benefit

D. interest

 

 

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer A D B B D D C D A C
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer C D D B C B C D A C
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer B C D A C D D C A D
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer A D D D C C D B B A
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer C C D C A C A A C A
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer D B C D D B D D B C
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer D C C C C C C D C C
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer D B B C A C D C C A
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer B A C A D A C A B A
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer D C A A D D A A B C

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