SSC CGL Tier 1 2012 26 Jun Shift 2
Q. 1 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :
8:9: :56:?
A. 90
B. 73
C. 72
D. 89
Q. 2 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :
ACEG : ZXVT : : BDFH: ?
A. YVSP
B. IKMO
C. YUQM
D. YWUS
Q. 3 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :
BCFG:HILM: :NORQ:?
A. TXUW
B. TUXW
C. TVWX
D. TXWU
Q. 4 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :
Affluent : Opulent : : Flourish : ?
A. Prosper
B. Flatter
C. Comprise
D. Outfolow
Q. 5 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :
25:37: :49: ?
A. 56
B. 60
C. 65
D. 41
Q. 6 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :
ABCD : ZYXW : : EFGH : ?
A. VUTS
B. EUTS
C. POTS
D. UOTS
Q. 7 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :
7:32 : :28: ?
A. 128
B. 126
C. 136
D. 116
Q. 8 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :
Gulp : Drink : : Rush: ?
A. Jump
B. Hop
C. Go
D. Run
Q. 9 Directions: Select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives :
Joy : Delight : : Gloomy : ?
A. Silent
B. Dull
C. Vague
D. Plain
Q. 10 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :
A. JQ
B. AT
C. HK
D. CF
Q. 11 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :
A. Mumbai
B. New Delhi
C. Kolkata
D. Chennai
Q. 12 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :
A. Tiger
B. Cheetah
C. Lion
D. Wolf
Q. 13 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :
A. OUT
B. FED
C. DIN
D. JOT
Q. 14 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :
A. 26
B. 82
C. 15
D. 65
Q. 15 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :
A. 27
B. 37
C. 47
D. 17
Q. 16 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :
A. CFI
B. DGJ
C. EHL
D. BEH
Q. 17 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :
A. 5 – 35
B. 4 – 44
C. 6 – 64
D. 3 – 30
Q. 18 Directions: Find the odd number / letter/ number pair from the given alternatives :
A. Disk
B. SIM
C. USB
D. Modem
Q. 19 Directions: Which of the following word will appear last in the dictionary?
A. rhapsody
B. revolve
C. rheumatism
D. reward
Q. 20 Directions: Which of the following word will appear last in the dictionary?
A. heart string
B. heavy
C. health
D. heathen
Q. 21 Directions: Which of the following word will appear last in the dictionary?
A. prize
B. prosecute
C. prompt
D. prostate
Q. 22 Directions: A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the
given ones that will complete the series:
2 6 12 20 30 ? 56
A. 38 B. 46
C. 56
D. 42
Q. 23 Directions: A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series:
JkL AbC MnO DeF PqE Gh ?
A. I
B. i
C. S
D. s
Q. 24 Directions: A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series:
1,4,10,19,31,?
A. 43
B. 46
C. 50
D. 55
Q. 25 Directions: A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series:
RQOLH?
A. B
B. C
C. D
D. A
Q. 26 Directions: A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series:
YXHGWVFEUTDCSRB?
A. D
B. C
C. I
D. A
Q. 27 Directions: A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series:
0,6,24,60,120,210,…..
A. 336
B. 504
C. 338
D. 420
Q. 28 A husband and a wife had five married sons and each of them had four children. How many members are there in the family?
A. 32
B. 36
C. 30
D. 40
Q. 29 In a certain code, if DEMOCRACY is written as YCARCOMED, how will the word PRESIDENT be coded as?
A. EIETPRSDN
B. NDSRPTEIE
C. TNEDISERP
D. RSDNPEIET
Q. 30 From the given alternatives, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.
‘Distribution’
A. tribute
B. riot
C. dust
D. disturb
Q. 31 If ‘MOTHER’ is coded as ‘NPUIFS’, select the appropriate code from the answer choices, for the word in capital letters:- ZENITH
A. AFOGHJ
B. BGPKVJ
C. AFOJUI
D. AFOGHI
Q. 32 If AEIOU is written as BCJMV, how XCKYB can be written in that code?
A. YALWC
B. ADNZE
C. YELAC
D. YBLXC
Q. 33 Five persons (R,S,T,U and V) are in a queue facing a reservation counter. Immediately behind S is U. T is standing between R and V. In between R and U, no one is there. Then, where is S standing in the queue?
A. Last but one
B. First
C. Second
D. Last
Q. 34 In the year 2003, some months have 31 days . How many months have 28 days.
A. 12 month
B. Alternative months
C. 6 month
D. 1 month
Q. 35 In a team of five players, Vani is older than Rani. Sita is younger than Vani but older than Rani. Nita is younger than Mary and Rani. Rani is older than Mary. Whose age is middle of all the five in this team?
A. Mary
B. Vani
C. Rani
D. Sita
Q. 36 In a certain code, SURFER is written as RUSREF.
How is KNIGHT written in that code?
A. THGINK
B. GHTINK
C. INKTHG
D. THINKG
Q. 37 Directions: Some equations are solved on the basis of certain system. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on the basis:
4 6 8
5 8 3
266 398 ?
A. 544
B. 445
C. 515
D. 454
Q. 38 Directions: Some equations are solved on the basis of certain system. Find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation on the basis:
4x6x9=649, 9x8x4=894, 3x7x2=?
A. 272
B. 294
C. 732
D. 813
Q. 39 Based on the given details, find out the number of postgraduates enrolled in a college for the year 1970.
1968 1969 1970 1971 1972
113 88 ? 63 59
A. 63
B. 79
C. 72
D. 84
Q. 40 Two squads of soldiers A and B facing North and South respectively revived the following commands – Right Turn, Left Turn, Left Turn, Left Turn. Which squads A and B face at the end?
A. South, North
B. West, East
C. North, South
D. East, West
Q. 41 In a square-shaped hostel, there are 8 rooms on each side in every floor. Room No. 101 is the first room facing north in the first floor. The room numbers are continued clockwise.
Which direction does Room No. 125 face?
A. South
B. North
C. West
D. East
Q. 42 Select the missing number from the given responses.
9 6 7
8 ? 3
3 5 8
216 900 168
A. 30
B. 55
C. 60
D. 70
Q. 43 If x stands for +, ÷ stands for – and + stands for ÷, which one of the following is correct?
A. 11-6÷4+2=64
B. 10-5 x 6÷2=54
C. 15+3×4÷3=12
D. 12+4÷2-7=8
Q. 44 Direction: Two statements are given, followed by two conclusion I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions if any, follow from the given statements.
Statements: 1. All scholars are eccentric.
Statements: 2. No women is eccentric.
Conclusion:I No women is scholar.
Conclusion:II All eccentric are men.
A. Only conclusion II follows
B. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
C. Both conclusions I and II follows
D. Only conclusion I follows
Q. 45 Direction: Two statements are given, followed by two conclusion I and II. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions if any, follow from the given statements.
Statements: 1. All students are girls.
Statements: 2. No girl is dull.
Conclusion:I. There are no boys in the class
Conclusion:II. No student is dull.
A. Only conclusion II follows
B. Both conclusions I and II follow
C. Neither conclusion I nor II follow
D. Only conclusion I follows
Q. 46 Direction: From the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters given in the word.
POWERHOUSE
A. USER
B. HORSE
C. PERUSE
D. sweeper
Q. 47 Find the odd word from the given alternative.
A. Cowdung
B. Mustard oil
C. Petrol
D. Coal
Q. 48 Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and fill in the blank space.
1,6,11,18,27,?
A. 38
B. 48
C. 49
D. 35
Q. 49 Sunday is Friday as Wednesday is to
A. Tuesday
B. Sunday
C. Friday
D. Monday
Q. 50 Five boys are sitting in the first bench on the right hand side of their classroom. Kumar has two boys on his left and two on his right. Abdul is sitting next to kumar, but he(Abdul) is not adjacent to John or Dev. Sid is not sitting next to John. Sid is not sitting next to John. Then, who is/ are sitting next to him(Sid)?
A. Kumar
B. Kumar and Dev
C. Dev
D. Abdul
Q. 51 Which of the following has recently produced the first cloned camel?
A. DUBAI
B. IRAN
C. SYRIA
D. U.S.A
Q. 52 If all the plants of the world dies, all the animals would also die due to shortage of
A. Cold air
B. Food
C. Oxygen
D. Shelter
Q. 53 Chlorination is
A. adding small amount of chlorine to contaminated water
B. a chemical reaction in which chlorine is formed
C. the formation of a salt containing chlorine
D. a process of converting chlorides into chlorine
Q. 54 Who decides the disputes regarding election of President?
A. The Supreme Court
B. The Election Commission
C. The Parliament
D. Both Supreme Court and High Court
Q. 55 The growth of bacteria is measured by
A. hemacytometer
B. spectrophotometer
C. calorimeter
D. auxanometer
Q. 56 For which one of the following, are honey bees used?
A. Apiculture
B. Horticulture
C. Pisciculture
D. Sericulture
Q. 57 Which one of the following is not an internal factor for industrial sickness?
A. Diversion of funds
B. Technological obsolescence
C. Wrong dividend policy
D. Mismanagement
Q. 58 Who is the first law officer of the government of India?
A. Law secretary
B. Union law minister
C. Attorney General of India
D. The chief justice of India
Q. 59 The substance that causes the worst air pollution is
A. Sulphur dioxide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Carbon monoxide
D. Smoke
Q. 60 Mammals form urea in the
A. Kidney
B. Spleen
C. Bladder
D. Liver
Q. 61 Main cause for agitations for separate states in India is
A. Growing regional imbalances
B. People’s political consciousness
C. Social inequalities
D. Regionalism
Q. 62 Vikramshila University was founded by
A. Kanishka
B. Dharampala
C. Pulakesin II
D. Chandra Gupta Maurya
Q. 63 A government is classified as federal or unitary on the basis of
A. Relations between the centre and states
B. Relations between the executive and the legislature
C. Relations between three organs of government
D. None of the above
Q. 64 Choose the correct one from among the following –
A. Nirukta – metre
B. Jyotisha – phonetics
C. Vyakarana – grammar
D. Siksha – astrology
Q. 65 The Newzealander’s are also known as
A. Kiwis
B. Arabs
C. Orientals
D. Sams
Q. 66 Near which one of the following cities, the Palitana Temples are situated?
A. Mount Abu
B. Mearke
C. Ujjain
D. Bhavnagar
Q. 67 Which one of the following is an essential ingredient of parliamentary government?
A. A rigid constitution
B. Political parties
C. An independent judiciary
D. A written constitution
Q. 68 ‘El Nino effect’ is closely associated with
A. Humboldt current
B. Equatorial counter current
C. Canaries current
D. Gulf current
Q. 69 ‘EVM’ stands
A. Electric Vending Machine
B. Electronic Vending Machine
C. Electronic Voting Machine
D. None of the above
Q. 70 JDBC stands for
A. Java Developer Connectivity
B. Java Database Connectivity
C. Java Developing Connectivity
D. Java Database Conductivity
Q. 71 ‘Milk of Magnesia’ is a suspension of
A. Magnesium carbonate
B. Magnesium hydroxide
C. Magnesium chloride
D. Magnesium sulphate
Q. 72 Pila globosa is used as biofilter in cleaning pollution of water by
A. Mercury
B. Arsenic
C. Cadmium
D. Algal blooms
Q. 73 Find the odd one out
A. IDBI – Financial assistance to large industries
B. SIDBI – Financial assistance to small industries
C. FCI – Financial assistance to food – grains merchants
D. EXIM Bank – Financial assistance to exporters and importers
Q. 74 The word ‘Secular’ is a part of the Preamble of the Constitution of India –
A. After the 44th amendment
B. After the 73rd amendment
C. From the date of implementation
D. After the 42nd amendment
Q. 75 Chemical name of a Plaster of Paris is
A. Hydrated calcium carbonate
B. Calcium hydrate
C. Calcium sulphate hemihydrate
D. Calcium sulphate
Q. 76 The tributary of River Indus which flows through Himachal Pradesh is
A. Sutlej
B. Beas
C. Ravi
D. Hunza
Q. 77 Acidity of rain is measured by
A. Hygrometer
B. Ammeter
C. pH – meter
D. Barometer
Q. 78 Which revenue earned by Union Government is not distributed among State
Governments?
A. Excise duty
B. Income tax
C. Customs duty
D. None of these
Q. 79 The world’s fastest growing water plant is
A. Amazon water lily
B. Water hyacinth
C. Utricularia
D. Water Chestnut
Q. 80 The contents of memory will not be lost, when the power goes off in
A. ROM
B. EPROM
C. EEPROM
D. All the above
Q. 81 The Programme which is being implemented in all the districts of the country is
A. Rajiv Gandhi Gramin Vidyutikaran Yojna
B. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
C. M.G.N.R.E.G. Programme
D. Navodaya Vidyalaya
Q. 82 Who was the first envoy of the East India Company to meet Jahangir in 1608 A.D?
A. William Edwards
B. Sir Thomas Roe
C. Edward Terry
D. William Hawkins
Q. 83 As per 2011 census, in India the number of females per thousand males is
A. 940
B. 934
C. 933
D. 972
Q. 84 Law of ‘Use and disuse’ was proposed by
A. Lederberg
B. Lamarck
C. Darwin
D. Hugo De Vries
Q. 85 Which one of the following Cricketers has been declared by the ICC as ‘Cricketer of the Twentieth Century’?
A. Sachin Tendulkar
B. Kapil Dev
C. Rahul Dravid
D. Anil Kumble
Q. 86 The rocket which gives us information about Mars is
A. Discovery
B. Insat 4
C. Atlas 5
D. Cassini
Q. 87 Wanchoo Committee dealt with
A. Agricultural taxation
B. Direct taxes
C. Monopolies and trade practices
D. Agricultural prices
Q. 88 Carbohydrates are compounds of
A. Carbon, oxygen and hydrogen
B. Carbon, nitrogen and hydrogen
C. Carbon and nitrogen
D. Carbon and hydrogen
Q. 89 If a bacterium cell divides in every 20 minutes, how many bacteria will be formed in 2 hours?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 64
D. 4
Q. 90 The International agreement to reduce greenhouse gases between 2008-2012 is known as
A. Rule of 70
B. Rio protocol
C. Kyoto protocol
D. Agenda 21
Q. 91 A person opens his mouth on hearing a thunder in order to
A. Equalise pressure of air on both sides of the eardrum
B. Receive more sound
C. Allow air to come out of the mouth
D. Overcome fear
Q. 92 When ice is heated from 0°C to 10°C, the volume of water
A. Decreases steadily
B. First increases then decreases
C. First decreases then increases
D. Increases steadily
Q. 93 Through which states does the river Chambal flows?
A. M.P., Gujarat, U.P
B. Rajasthan, M.P., Bihar
C. Gujarat, M.P., Chattisgarh
D. U.P., M.P., Rajasthan
Q. 94 As per the 2011 population census, the most populous state in the country is
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. West Bengal
D. Rajasthan
Q. 95 The state of Jhansi was made a part of the British empire in India through the
A. Doctrine of Lapse
B. Policy of Subsidiary alliance
C. War against Rani Lakshmi Bai
D. None of these
Q. 96 The famous book “A Better India, A better world” has been written by
A. Azim Premji
B. N.R. Narayana Murthy
C. Praveen Mahapatra
D. Rajiv Sikri
Q. 97 Simple Goitre is disease affecting
A. Tear glands
B. Liver
C. Thyroid glands
D. Gums
Q. 98 Two bodies of the same mass are thrown with equal speed from the top of a tower simultaneously. One body (x) is thrown vertically downwards. The other (y) is thrown horizontally
A. Both reaches ground with same Kinetic energy
B. x reaches ground with greater Kinetic energy
C. y reaches ground with greater Kinetic energy
D. Both x and y reaches ground simultaneously
Q. 99 An apparatus used for locating submerged object is known as
A. Sonar
B. Quasar
C. Pulsar
D. Radar
Q. 100 Which of the following are wrongly matched?
(i) Tropic of Cancer – 23+1/2°N latitude
(ii) Tropic of Capricorn – 66+1/2°N latitude
(iii) International Date line – 0° longitude
(iv) Antarctic circle – 66+1/2°S latitude
A. (i)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (i), (ii) and (iv)
D. None of these
Q. 101 The average of 1², 2², 3², 4², 5², 6², 7², 8², 9², 10² is
A. 42.5
B. 46.5
C. 50.5
D. 38.5
Q. 102 The distance between the points (0, 0) and the intersecting point of the graphs of x=3 and y=4 is
A. 4 unit
B. 3 unit
C. 2 unit
D. 5 unit
Q. 103 A certain number when divided by 899 leaves the remainder 65. When the same number is divided by 31, the remainder is
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
Q. 104 If G is the centroid and AD, BE, CF are three medians of ABC with area 72 cm², then the area of ΔBDG is
A. 12 cm²
B. 16 cm²
C. 24 cm²
D. 8 cm²
Q. 105 If a+b=6, a-b=2, then the value of 2(a²+b²) is
A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
D. 10
Q. 106 The odd element in the sequence
3, 7, 13, 21, 33, 43, 57, __________ is
A. 21
B. 33
C. 43
D. 7
Q. 107 The tangents drawn at the points A and B of a circle centred at O meet at P. If ∠AOB=120° then ∠APB : ∠APO is
A. 2 : 5
B. 3 : 2
C. 4 : 1
D. 2 : 1
Q. 108 From the top of a cliff 90 m high, the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a tower are observed to be 30° and 60° respectively. The height of the tower is
A. 45 m
B. 60 m
C. 75 m
D. 30 m
Q. 109 The least positive integer which is a perfect square and also divisible by each of 21, 36 and 66 is
A. 186624
B. 213444
C. 254016
D. 156816
Q. 110 The value of x when 5% of √2x is 0.01 will be
A. 0.03
B. 0.02
C. 0.01
D. 0.05
Q. 111 If √x-a/√x-b + a/x = √x-b/√x-a + b/x, b≠a, then the value of x is
A. b/a+b
B. ab/a+b
C. 1
D. a/a+b
Q. 112 If x=2√24/√3+√2, then the value of x+√8/x-√8 + x+√12/x-√12 is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 0
D. -2
Q. 113 If a=2+√3/2-√3 and b=2-√3/2+√3 then the value of (a²+b²+ab) is
A. 185
B. 195
C. 200
D. 175
Q. 114 If secθ- cosecθ= 0, then the value of (secθ+cosecθ) is
A. √3/2
B. 2/√3
C. 0
D. 2√2
Q. 115 A and B can separately do a piece of work in 20 and 15 days respectively. They worked together for 6 days after which B was replaced by C. The work was finished in next 4 days. The number of days in which C alone could do the work is
A. 35 days
B. 30 days
C. 45 days
D. 40 days
Q. 116 If x=2√6/√3+√2 then the value of x+√2/x-√2 + x+√3/x-√3 is
A. √2
B. √3
C. √6
D. 2
Q. 117 Side AB of rectangle ABCD is divided into four equal parts by points x, y, z. The ratio of
A. 1/7
B. 1/6
C. 1/9
D. 1/8
Q. 118 If the length of a chord of a circle, which makes 45° with the tangent drawn at one end point of the chord, is 6 cm, then the radius of the circle is
A. 6√2 cm
B. 5 cm
C. 3√2 cm
D. 6 cm
Q. 119 A man buys one table and one chair for ₹500. He sells the table at a loss of 10% and the chair at a gain of 10%. He still gains ₹10 on the whole. The cost price of the chair is
A. ₹250
B. ₹300
C. ₹350
D. ₹200
Q. 120 The three medians AD, BE and CF of ΔABC intersect at point G. If the area of ΔABC is 60 sq. cm, then the area of the quadrilateral BDGF is
A. 10 sq. cm
B. 15 sq. cm
C. 20 sq. cm
D. 30 sq. cm
Q. 121 The rate of simple interest at which a sum of money becomes three times in 25 years is
A. 6%
B. 8%
C. 5%
D. 4%
Q. 122 If Psinθ=3 and Pcosθ=1, then the value of P is
A. 1/2
B. 2/√3
C. -1/√3
D. 2
Q. 123 ABCD is a trapezium, such that AB = CD and AD||BC AD=5 cm, BC=9 cm. If area of ABCD is 35 sq. cm, then CD is
A. √29 cm
B. 5 cm
C. 6 cm
D. √21 cm
Q. 124 If xsin³θ+ycos³θ=sinθ cosθ and xsinθ-ycosθ=0, then value of x²+y² is
A. 1
B. sinθ-cosθ
C. sinθ+cosθ
D. 0
Q. 125 If √4x-9 + √4x+9= 5+√7 then the value of x is
A. 4
B. 5
C. 7
D. 3
Q. 126 If uᵥ=cosⁿα+sinⁿα then the value of 2u₆-3u₄+1 is
A. 1
B. 4
C. 6
D. 0
Q. 127 The value of the following is:
sqrt(-sqrt(3) + sqrt(3 + 8 * sqrt(7 + 4 sqrt(3))))
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
Q. 128 P and Q are the middle points of two chords (not diameters) AB and AC respectively of a circle with centre at a point O. The lines OP and OQ are produced to meet the circle respectively at the points R and S. T is any point on the major arc between the points R and S of the circle. If ∠BAC =32°, ∠RTS=
A. 32°
B. 74°
C. 106°
D. 64°
Q. 129 A container has 80 L of milk. From this container 8L of milk was taken out and replaced by water. The process was further repeated twice. The volume of milk in the container after that is
A. 85.32 L
B. 58.23 L
C. 85.23 L
D. 58.32 L
Q. 130 The radius of a circle is 13 cm and xy is a chord which is at a distance of 12 cm from the centre. The length of the chord is
A. 15 cm
B. 12 cm
C. 10 cm
D. 20 cm
Q. 131 Two angles of a triangle are 1/2 radian and 1/3 radian. The measure of the third angle is degree (taking π=22/7) is
A. 132+1°/11
B. 132+2°/11
C. 132+3°/11
D. 132°
Q. 132 Two equal circles pass through each other’s centre. If the radius of each circle is 5 cm, what is the length of the chord?
A. 5
B. 5√3
C. 10√3
D. 5√3/2
Q. 133 A grain dealer cheats to the extent of 10% while buying as well as selling by using false weights. His total profit percentage is
A. 20%
B. 21%
C. 23%
D. 25%
Q. 134 Consider ΔABD such that ∠ABD=20° and C is a point on BD such that AB=AC and CD=CA. Then the measure of ∠ABC is
A. 40°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 30°
Q. 135 If sin(x+y) =cos[3(x+y)], then the value of tan[2(x+y)] is
A. 3
B. 1
C. 0
D. 1/√3
Q. 136 The diameter of a garden roller is 1.4 m and it is 2m long. The area covered by the roller in 5 revolution is
A. 8.8 m²
B. 4.4 m²
C. 44 m²
D. 16.8 m²
Q. 137 A person travels 285 km in 6 hr. In the first part of the journey, he travels at 40 km/hr by bus. In the second part, he travels at 55 km/hr by train. The distance travelled by train is
A. 156 km
B. 165 km
C. 615 km
D. 561 km
Q. 138 The average of the runs made by Raju, Shyam and Hari is 7 less than that made by Shyam, Hari and Kishore. If the number of Kishore’s run is 35, what is Raju’s run?
A. 14
B. 21
C. 35
D. 7
Q. 139 The value of (1+sec20°+cot70°)(1-cosec20°+tan70°) is
A. 0
B. -1
C. 2
D. 1
Q. 140 If 0≤α≤ π/2 and 2 sinα+15cos²α=7, then the value of cotα is
A. 1/2
B. 5/4
C. 3/4
D. 1/4
Q. 141 The marked price of a shopkeeper for an article is 30% higher than the cost price. If he sells the article allowing 10% discount to customers, then the gain percent will be
A. 17%
B. 16+2/3%
C. 12+1/2%
D. 15%
Q. 142 If sin2θ=1/2, then the value of cos(75°-θ) is
A. 1
B. 1/2
C. √3/2
D. 1/√2
Q. 143 A triangle is formed by the x-axis and the lines 2x+y=4 and x-y+1=0 as three sides. Taking the side along x-axis as its base, the corresponding altitude of the triangle is
A. 2 unit
B. 3 unit
C. √5 unit
D. 1 unit
Q. 144 If x=1/2+√3, y=1/2-√3 then the value of 1/x+1 + 1/y+1 is
A. 1/2
B. √3
C. 1
D. 1/√3
Q. 145 A starts a business with ₹7000 and after 5 months, B joined as a partner. After a year the profit is divided in the ratios 2:3. The capital of B is
A. ₹9000
B. ₹10000
C. ₹6500
D. ₹18000
The following bar diagram shows the percentage of 7 coloured balls sold in 5 shops A, B, C, D and E. Study the graph and answer the following
Q. 146 In shop A, the ratio of percentage of violet balls and yellow balls is
A. 2:7
B. 7:4
C. 6:1
D. 2:4
Q. 147 The shops having equal percentage of white balls are
A. A and C
B. C and E
C. B and C
D. A and B
Q. 148 What fraction of the total percentage of colour balls is to the percentage of total yellow balls
A. 7/50
B. 3/20
C. 4/25
D. 13/100
Q. 149 The difference between total number of % of violet balls and total number of % of blue balls is
A. 10
B. 15
C. 25
D. 40
Q. 150 The ratio of total percentage of Red balls and total percentage of orange balls is
A. 1:1
B. 4:5
C. 9:11
D. 7:9
Directions for Questions 151-155 –
Some parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and choose the option corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If a sentence is free from error, then select the option D for ‘No error’.
Q. 151 The sentence is –
A. “Our history can be seen as a long evolutionary dialectical development”
B. “in which there have been”
C. “a painstaking forging of rational and moral self”
D. No error
Q. 152 The sentence is –
A. Our knowledge of history does not “come to”
B. our help and sometimes we “even fail to”
C. remember who “invented” America
D. No error
Q. 153 The sentence is –
A. “My grandfather owns”
B. “fifty acre”
C. “of wetland”
D. No error
Q. 154 The sentence is –
A. “Belgium chocolate is considered”
B. “by many to be finer”
C. “than any others in the world”
D. No error
Q. 155 The sentence is –
A. “Indian scientist are in no way“
B. “inferior than”
C. “any other scientist in the world”
D. No error
Directions for Questions 156 to 160 –
Sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word. Choose the correct alternative out of the four given options –
Q. 156 We didn’t __________ the programme to be such a huge success.
A. except
B. expect
C. access
D. accept
Q. 157 We should __________ opportunities as they arise.
A. cease
B. size
C. sneeze
D. seize
Q. 158 The students aren’t prepared __________ the examination.
A. to listen
B. to work
C. to take
D. to give
Q. 159 The government, in bid to make Bihar, a preferred investment destination, has __________ major schemes to create infrastructure at different stages.
A. opposed
B. opened
C. pushed
D. launched
Q. 160 I suffer from no __________ about my capabilities.
A. doubts
B. hallucinations
C. imaginations
D. illusions
Directions for Questions 161 to 165 –
Out of the four options, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
Q. 161 Inadvertent –
A. Unexpected
B. Unintentional
C. Undisturbed
D. Ignorant
Q. 162 Fortitude –
A. Courage
B. Protection
C. Safety
D. Similarity
Q. 163 Duplicity –
A. Artlessness
B. Deceit
C. Cleverness
D. Repetition
Q. 164 Fidelity –
A. Resourcefulness
B. Strength
C. Weakness
D. Faithfulness
Q. 165 Vanguard –
A. Officer
B. Flag bearer
C. Pioneer
D. Race driver
Directions for Questions 166 to 170 –
Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
Q. 166 Taciturn –
A. silent
B. talkative
C. immense
D. judge
Q. 167 Artisan –
A. skilled sculptor
B. learned person
C. ignorant villager
D. unskilled labour
Q. 168 Amicable –
A. friendly
B. haughty
C. unpleasant
D. hostile
Q. 169 Mitigate –
A. aggravate
B. allay
C. alleviate
D. abate
Q. 170 Aversion –
A. awareness
B. hatred
C. liking
D. avoidance
Directions for Questions 171 to 175 –
Four options are given for the idiom/phrase quoted in the sentence. Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Q. 171 He was “out of spirits” for a few days after his defeat.
A. gloomy
B. sober
C. lifeless
D. uninvolved
Q. 172 When the family in the next house packed off at midnight, I began to “smell a rat”.
A. to suspect a trick
B. to misunderstand
C. to see hidden meaning
D. to smell a bad smell
Q. 173 At first, there was a show of resistance to be rule issued by the Government, but the movement had “no backbone” and speedily collapsed.
A. justification
B. impact
C. strength
D. support
Q. 174 The cops were “on their toes” throughout the day
A. eager
B. alert
C. harried
D. quick
Q. 175 The minister assured the agitating employees that he would “look into” their demands sympathetically.
A. discuss
B. watch
C. grant
D. examine
Directions for Questions 176 to 180 –
Below are given 4 choices to the quoted part at A, B and C which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct option. In case no improvement is needed, your answer is D.
Q. 176 The “prolific” writer’s work is published every year.
A. exquisite
B. didactic
C. great
D. no improvement
Q. 177 Those plucking flowers are “liable for punishable.”
A. are liable for punishable
B. are liable for punishing
C. are liable to be punished
D. are viable for punishment
Q. 178 His “lust for power” brought down his downfall.
A. intense desire
B. desire for power
C. desire for sex
D. no improvement
Q. 179 I’ll meet the “raging” of the skies, but not an angry father.
A. sunshine
B. rain
C. anger
D. no improvement
Q. 180 “When we see black smoke” near the wing of the plane, we were certain that disaster was imminent.
A. When we were seeing
B. When we saw
C. When we had seen
D. No improvement
Directions for Questions 181 to 185 –
Out of the four alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.
Q. 181 Government by a small group of all powerful persons
A. Monarchy
B. Democracy
C. Anarchy
D. Oligarchy
Q. 182 One indifferent to art and literature is
A. Critic
B. Philistine
C. Scholar
D. Aromatic
Q. 183 “Open to injury for Criticism”
A. Vulnerable
B. Naive
C. Sensitive
D. Invincible
Q. 184 One who collects coins as a hobby
A. Ornithologist
B. Statistician
C. Numismatist
D. Philatelist
Q. 185 A narrow piece of land connecting two large masses of land
A. Isthmus
B. Continent
C. Gulf
D. Peninsula
Directions for Questions 186 to 190 –
There are four different words out of which one is spelt correctly. Find the correctly spelt word.
Q. 186 The word is –
A. Beneficil
B. Beneficial
C. Benifical
D. Benificial
Q. 187 The word is –
A. Avericious
B. Avaricious
C. Avarisious
D. Averisious
Q. 188 The word is –
A. Internaly
B. Coldly
C. Fortunetely
D. Uniquely
Q. 189 The word is –
A. Affectionately
B. Afectionately
C. Affectionnality
D. Affactionately
Q. 190 The word is –
A. Apprehension
B. Apprihension
C. Aprihension
D. Apprehenson
Directions for Questions 191 to 195 –
Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question.
If this is so, if to read a book as it should be read calls for the rarest Qualities of imagination, insight and judgement. You may perhaps conclude that literature is a very complex art and that it is unlikely that we shall be able, even after a lifetime of reading, to make any valuable contribution to its criticism. We must remain readers, we shall not put on the further glory that belongs to those rare beings who are also critics.
Q. 191 What is the opinion of most of the people about literature?
A. That it is not an easy one to contribute anything
B. That it is to some extent difficult to understand
C. That no contribution is necessary for literature
D. That it is very easy to understand
Q. 192 The antonym of conclude is
A. Commence
B. Exclude
C. End
D. Include
Q. 193 According to the author
A. It is not possible for most of us to contribute anything for criticism
B. It is possible to do something
C. It is not even easy to understand literature
D. Most of the people can contribute to criticism of literature
Q. 194 The author feels that we cannot have the greatness of
A. Writers
B. Critics
C. Publishers
D. Readers
Q. 195 What are the qualities required for reading a book?
A. Proper judgement
B. Imagination
C. Imagination, insight and judgement
D. None of the above
Directions for Questions 196 to 200 –
Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question.
These days not even many politicians deny that the oceans are ill. Protecting the health of coastal waters is now a matter of national policy in dozens of countries including the U.S., and world leaders are beginning to prescribe a revolutionary remedy that conservationists have been promoting for years : marine planning and zoning. The idea is a natural extension of management policies that have guided the development of cities and landscapes for nearly a century. Zoning advocates envision a mosaic of regional maps in which every watery space on the planet is designated for a particular purpose. Drilling and mining would be allowed only in certain parts of the ocean; fishing in others. The most critically threatened areas would be virtually off-limits. Whereas people can easily find maps telling them what they can do where on land, the marine realm is a hodge-podge of rules emanating from an army of agencies, each one managing a single use or symptom.
Q. 196 Marine planning and zoning is a __________ to protect the coastal waters.
A. Conservationists’ discovery
B. Marine project
C. Revolutionary remedy
D. National policy of the US
Q. 197 These days __________ that the oceans are not in good health.
A. Most of the politicians agree
B. All politicians agree
C. Nobody agrees
D. Everybody agrees
Q. 198 ‘Marine realm’ is a hodge-podge of rules means __________.
A. Seas need to be cleaned
B. There are no uniform laws governing the seas
C. There is total anarchy
D. Coastal areas are not being looked after properly
Q. 199 Sea zoning is all about __________.
A. Drilling and sea mining
B. Conserving the environment
C. Banning fishing in the sea
D. Dividing watery space for specific purposes
Q. 200 ‘Conservationist’ means __________.
A. A marine engineer
B. One who looks after others
C. One who prevents something from destruction
D. A proficient speaker
| Answer Sheet |
||||||||||
| Question | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| Answer | C | D | B | A | C | A | A | C | B | C |
| Question | 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 | 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| Answer | B | D | A | C | A | C | C | B | C | B |
| Question | 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 | 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| Answer | D | D | A | B | B | D | A | A | C | A |
| Question | 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 | 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| Answer | C | A | B | A | C | C | B | C | C | A |
| Question | 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 | 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| Answer | C | A | B | D | C | D | D | B | B | B |
| Question | 51 | 52 | 53 | 54 | 55 | 56 | 57 | 58 | 59 | 60 |
| Answer | A | C | A | A | A | A | B | C | C | D |
| Question | 61 | 62 | 63 | 64 | 65 | 66 | 67 | 68 | 69 | 70 |
| Answer | A | B | A | C | A | D | B | B | C | B |
| Question | 71 | 72 | 73 | 74 | 75 | 76 | 77 | 78 | 79 | 80 |
| Answer | B | C | C | D | C | A | C | C | B | D |
| Question | 81 | 82 | 83 | 84 | 85 | 86 | 87 | 88 | 89 | 90 |
| Answer | B | D | A | B | B | C | B | A | C | C |
| Question | 91 | 92 | 93 | 94 | 95 | 96 | 97 | 98 | 99 | 100 |
| Answer | A | C | D | B | A | B | C | A | D | B |
| Question | 101 | 102 | 103 | 104 | 105 | 106 | 107 | 108 | 109 | 110 |
| Answer | D | D | B | A | C | B | D | B | B | B |
| Question | 111 | 112 | 113 | 114 | 115 | 116 | 117 | 118 | 119 | 120 |
| Answer | B | B | B | D | D | D | D | C | B | C |
| Question | 121 | 122 | 123 | 124 | 125 | 126 | 127 | 128 | 129 | 130 |
| Answer | B | D | A | A | A | D | A | B | D | C |
| Question | 131 | 132 | 133 | 134 | 135 | 136 | 137 | 138 | 139 | 140 |
| Answer | C | B | B | A | B | C | B | A | C | C |
| Question | 141 | 142 | 143 | 144 | 145 | 146 | 147 | 148 | 149 | 150 |
| Answer | A | B | A | C | D | B | C | A | B | D |
| Question | 151 | 152 | 153 | 154 | 155 | 156 | 157 | 158 | 159 | 160 |
| Answer | B | C | B | C | B | A | D | D | D | D |
| Question | 161 | 162 | 163 | 164 | 165 | 166 | 167 | 168 | 169 | 170 |
| Answer | B | D | B | D | C | B | D | D | A | C |
| Question | 171 | 172 | 173 | 174 | 175 | 176 | 177 | 178 | 179 | 180 |
| Answer | A | A | C | B | D | D | D | B | D | B |
| Question | 181 | 182 | 183 | 184 | 185 | 186 | 187 | 188 | 189 | 190 |
| Answer | D | B | A | C | A | B | B | D | A | A |
| Question | 191 | 192 | 193 | 194 | 195 | 196 | 197 | 198 | 199 | 200 |
| Answer | A | A | A | B | C | C | A | B | D | C |