SSC CGL Tier-I 08 July 2012 Shift-II Previous Year Paper

SSC CGL Tier 1 2012 8 Jul Shift 2

Q. 1 Length: meter :: power :: ? 

A. calories

B. degree

C. watt

D. kilometer

 

Q. 2 Square : Cube :: circle :: ?

A. Ellipse

B. parabola

C. cone

D. sphere

 

Q. 3 Paper :: Tree :: Glass : ?

A. window

B. sand

C. stone

D. mirror

Q. 4 ACFJ :: ZXUQ :: EGIN :: ??

A. VUSQ

B. VRPM

C. UTRP

D. VTRM

 

Q. 5 ACEG :: DFHJ :: QSUW :: ??

A. TVXZ

B. TQST

C. MNPR

D. EGIJ

 

Q. 6 EGIK :: FILO :: FHJL :: ??

A. JGMP

B. JGPM

C. GJPM

D. GJMP

 

Q. 7 10 :: 91 :: 9 ??

A. 69

B. 72

C. 89

D. 97

 

Q. 8 7 :: 56 :: 9 ??

A. 63

B. 81

C. 93

D. 99

 

Q. 9 20 : 50 :100 ?

A. 150

B. 250

C. 200

D. 156


Q. 10 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. Pathelogy

B. geology

C. cardiology

D. radiology

 

Q. 11 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. Rivulet

B. stream

C. river

D. pond

 

Q. 12 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. konark

B. madhurai

C. dilmora

D. ellora

 

Q. 13 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. RTW

B. QOM

C. IKG

D. IKM

 

Q. 14 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. EFH

B. OPQ

C. BCE

D. IJL

 

Q. 15 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. DH

B. FJ

C. HK

D. PR

 

Q. 16 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. 121

B. 324

C. 523

D. 729

 

Q. 17 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. 704, 11

B. 256 , 4

C. 823, 13

D. 310, 5

 

Q. 18 find odd numbers/letters pairs from the given alternatives

A. 24

B. 49

C. 80

D. 15

 

Q. 19 Arrange the following words in the ascending order in the dictionary :

1. Pick

2.Pith

3.Pile

4.PErk

5. Pour

A. 4,1,2,3 5

B. 4 1 3 2 5

C. 4 3 2 1 5

D. 5 4 3 2 1

 

Q. 20 Arrange the following words in the ascending order in the dictionary :

1. Millineum

2. diamond jubliee

3.Silver jubliee

4.Century

5.golden jubliee

A. 2 3 5 4 1

B. 2 5 3 1 4

C. 3 5 2 4 1

D. 2 3 5 1 4

 

Q. 21 Arrange the following words in the ascending order in the dictionary :

1. weekly

2. Bi-anual

3.fortnightly

4. monthly

5.annual

A. 1, 3,4 2, 5

B. 2,5, 4,1,3

C. 4, 1,2, 3, 5

D. 5,2, 4,3,1

 

Q. 22 Which one of the set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter series shall complete it ?

a__ cbc __ca __ ab__ bca __ ab

A. b a b c c

B. b c a b b

C. a b c b c

D. b c a b c

 

Q. 23 BCFG, JKNO , RSVW , … ?

A. ZADE

B. HIKL

C. STUX

D. MNPQ

 

Q. 24 CNR, HIN, MSW .. ?

A. SXA

B. YUB

C. RXB

D. ZEH

 

Q. 25 2, ,3 6 , 7, 14, 15 ?

A. 16

B. 30

C. 31

D. 32

 

Q. 26 3120 , ? , 122 , 23, 4

A. 488

B. 621

C. 610

D. 732

 

Q. 27 0 , 5 , 60 , 615 ?

A. 6030

B. 6170

C. 6130

D. 6000

 

Q. 28 Nithya is sam’s sister .Mogan is sam’s father .Selvan is rajan’s son . Rajan is mogan’s brother .How is nithya related to selvan ?

A. daughter

B. sister

C. cousin

D. wife

 

Q. 29 A boy’s age is one fourth of his father’s age .The sum of boy’s age and his father’s age is 35 what will be father’s age after 8 years ?

A. 15

B. 28

C. 35

D. 36

 

Q. 30 A man said to a lady ” your mother’s husband’s sister is my aunt “. How is the lady related to aunt ?

A. sister

B. mother

C. daughter

D. granddaughter

 

Q. 31 If south east becomes north , then what will south east become ?

A. north

B. west

C. east

D. north west

 

Q. 32 From the given options select the correct option which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word .

CONTENTION

A. tonic

B. note

C. nation

D. notion

 

Q. 33 In a certain code language ,GRAPE is written as 27354 and FOUR written as 1687 . How is group written in that code ?

A. 27384

B. 27684

C. 27685

D. 27658

 

Q. 34 WAYIN is written as TXVFK .How LBU be written in that code ?

A. IYRH

B. KATJ

C. JZSI

D. NDWM

 

Q. 35 In a certain language , if the word PARTNER as OZQSMDQ .What is the code word for SEGMENT ?

A. TFHNFOU

B. RDFLDMS

C. RDELDMS

D. RDFEDNS

 

Q. 36 IF DOCTOR is written as FQEVQT , how PATIENT can be written in that code ?

A. RVKGPV

B. RCKPGVV

C. RCVKGPV

D. RVCKGVP

 

Q. 37 Find the missing number ?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 3

D. 5

 

Q. 38 Find the missing number

A. 9

B. -4

C. 4

D. -8

 

Q. 39 IF + means ÷ , and – means X , X means + , ÷ means – then

90+18- 6 X 30 ÷ 4 = ?

A. 64

B. 65

C. 56

D. 48

 

Q. 40 IF 73 +46 = 42 and 95 +87 = 57 then , 62 +80 = ?

A. 32

B. 48

C. 64

D. 36

 

Q. 41 Based on the given data estimate the number of television buyers for the year 1990 .

A. 611

B. 591

C. 571

D. 601

 

Q. 42 A man coming from the backdoor of his house which is facing east walked for 1 kilometer turned to his right and walked for another kilometer .Then he turned to his right and walked another kilometer . Where was he from his home at the end ?

A. 1 km away in north

B. 1 km away in south

C. 1 km away in east

D. 1 km away in west

 

Q. 43 Two squads of soldiers A and B , facing east and west respectively received the following commands -Left turn , about turn , right turn , left turn .Which directions would be squad A and B face at the end ?

A. East ,west

B. West , East

C. North , South

D. South , North

 

Q. 44 Statements :

(1) Due to contamination of water, large number of people were admitted to hospital.

(2) The symptoms were of Typhoid.

Conclusions : I. Contamination of water may lead to Typhoid.

II. Typhoid is a contagious disease.

A. Only conclusion I is true

B. Only conclusion II is true

C. Both conclusions I and II are true

D. Both conclusions I and II are false

 

Q. 45 Statements :

(1) 60% of the government employees went on strike.

(2) Mr. Gopal is a government employee. Conclusions : I. Mr. Gopal went on strike.

II. Mr. Gopal did not participate in the strike.

A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Both conclusions I and II follow

D. Either conclusion I and II follows

 

Q. 46 In the following question which answer figure will complete the question figure?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 47 From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden / embedded

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 48 In the following question a piece of paper is folded and punched as shown below in the question figure. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 49 In the following question if a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 50 In the following question a word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its column, e.g., ‘R’ can be represented by 13, 22, etc. and ‘P’ can be represented by 67, 76 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word SHRI.

A. 58, 02, 13, 01

B. 85, 42, 31, 14

C. 68, 20, 13, 32

D. 85, 02, 44, 30

 

Q. 51 A movement along the demand curve of a commodity occurs due to change in

A. income of the consumers

B. its own price

C. taste of consumers

D. expectations of the consumers

 

Q. 52 GNP calculation through expenditure method does not include

A. gross domestic private investments

B. net foreign investments

C. depreciation expenditures

D. private consumer expenditure

 

Q. 53 Which one of the following is not a qualitative credit control measure of the RBI?

A. Fixing margin requirements

B. Variable interest rates

C. Open market operations

D. Credit rationing

 

Q. 54 Find the odd one out of the following

A. Delhi transport corporation

B. Indian Railways

C. kingfisher airlines

D. Reliance industries limited

 

Q. 55 Monetray policy in India is laid down and executed by

A. union government

B. ASSOCHAM

C. Reserve bank of India

D. FICCI

 

Q. 56 Which one of the following subjects is not available on the union list ?

A. census

B. banking

C. trade union

D. foreign loans

 

Q. 57 The term closure in parlimaentary language implies .

A. the end of session of parliament

B. stoppage of debate on a motion

C. end of days proceedings

D. none of the above

 

Q. 58 Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

A. Article 14 – equality before law

B. Article 16 – equal opportunities

C. Article 17 – abolition of titles

D. Article 18 – permission of military titles

 

Q. 59 Which of the following presidents held office for 2 consecutive terms?

A. Dr. S.Radha krishnan

B. Dr. Zakir Hussain

C. Dr.Rajendra prasad

D. both a and c

 

Q. 60 Which of the amendment act reduced the age from 21 to 18 ?

A. 42nd

B. 44th

C. 52nd

D. 61st

 

Q. 61 Who among the following was the First Viceroy of India?

A. Lord Ripon

B. Lord Curzon

C. Lord Mountbatten

D. Lord Canning

 

Q. 62 Mahavira was the

A. 21st tirthankara

B. 24th tirthankara

C. 23rd tirthankara

D. 22nd tirthankara

 

Q. 63 Which one among the following women scholars challenged the invincible yajnavalkya in debate ?

A. Ghosa

B. Apala

C. Maitreyi

D. Gargi

 

Q. 64 Which one of the following made the crown of england to take over Indian administration ?

A. Battle of plassey

B. Battle of buxar

C. the carnatic wars

D. the sepoy mutiny

 

Q. 65 Who built the famous dilwara temple at mount abu in rajasthan in the 13th century ?

A. Mahendrapala

B. Mahipala

C. Rajyapala

D. Tejapala

 

Q. 66 Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

A. Darjeeling – West Bengal

B. Mount Abu – Rajasthan

C. Kodaikanal – Tamil Nadu

D. Simla – Uttar Pradesh

 

Q. 67 The earth is at its maximum distance from the Sun on

A. January 30th

B. December 22nd

C. September 22nd

D. July 4th

 

Q. 68 Consider the following pairs:

Tributary Main River

1. Chambal : Yamuna

2. Sone : Narmada

3. Manas : Brahmputra

 

Which one of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2

C. 2 and 3

D. 3 only

 

Q. 69 A form of condensation that reduces visibility and causes breathing problems is

A. dew

B. frost

C. smog

D. mist

 

Q. 70 The total population divided by available arable land area is referred to as

A. Population density

B. Nutritional density

C. Agricultural density

D. Industrial density

 

Q. 71 Green glands are associated with

A. Reproduction

B. Excretion

C. Respiration

D. Digestion

 

Q. 72 During the respiration, the gases enter into the blood and leave the same by the process of

A. Active Transport

B. Diffusion

C. Diffusion and active transport

D. Osmosis

 

Q. 73 Broad spectrum antibiotics are produced by

A. streptomyces

B. aspergillus

C. pencillium

D. basicllus

 

Q. 74 The pigment that protects plants from harmful effects of ultraviolet rays is

A. chlorophyll

B. caretenoid

C. physcocinain

D. plastid

 

Q. 75 Glucogen , starch and cellulose are polymers of

A. fructose

B. glucose

C. lactose

D. maltose

 

Q. 76 Black death is

A. cancer

B. AIDS

C. plague

D. gonorreha

 

Q. 77 stars appear to move from east to west because of

A. the whole universe is moving from east to west

B. earth is revolving round the sun

C. earth is rotating from east to west

D. earth is rotating from west to east

 

Q. 78 On the moo the astronaut cannot drink lemonade with the help of stawr because

A. acceleration due to gravity on the moon is less

B. there is no atmosphere on the moon

C. lemonade evaporates instantly on the moon

D. none of the above

 

Q. 79 A particle moving with uniform speed

A. must have uniform velocity

B. cannot have uniform velocity

C. may have uniform velocity

D. will have no uniform velocity

 

Q. 80 Device which uses sound waves for detection and ranging is called

A. radar

B. sonar

C. pukar

D. none of these

 

Q. 81 What is the name of the network topology in which there are bi-directioal links between each possible note ?

A. Ring

B. star

C. tree

D. mesh

 

Q. 82 LAN stands for

A. Local area nodes

B. Large area network

C. large area nodes

D. local area network

 

Q. 83 Dry ice is nothing but

A. gaseous carbon diaoxide

B. washing soda

C. soild carbon diaoxide

D. carbon monoxide

 

Q. 84 Which one is obtained as slag in a blast furnance

A. calcium carbonate

B. calcium sulphate

C. calcium chloride

D. calcium silicate

 

Q. 85 When H2 gas is allowed to expand from a region of high pressure to aregion of low pressure the temperature of gas

A. decreases to a small extent

B. increases

C. dos not change

D. decreases slowly

 

Q. 86 In the industrail production of vegetable ghee, the process involved is :

A. dissociation

B. reduction

C. oxidation

D. ionisation

 

Q. 87 Which one of the followind weeds is found useful to check water pollution in the industrial afluents ?

A. parthenium

B. elephant grass

C. water hyaicnth

D. both a and b

 

Q. 88 In which year the chernobyl nuclear power plant of the former USSR had accident that caused escape of radio nuclieds into atmosphere ?

A. 1979

B. 1980

C. 1984

D. 1986

 

Q. 89 certain desert lizards excrete their wastes in dry forms This serves as a means of

A. prootective mechanism against predators

B. limiting factor of the organism

C. adaption of the organsim to the environment

D. counting the problem of food scarcity

 

Q. 90 Which one is regarded as world Heritage forest ?

A. nandan kanan in odisha

B. kaziranga in assam

C. sunderbans in west bengal

D. Indian botanical garden , west bengal

 

Q. 91 Kidney can be taken from a dying person who has the

A. cessation of neurological function only

B. cessation of cardiac function only

C. cessation of respirratory function only

D. cessation of kidney function only

 

Q. 92 One of the following Chief Minister received the highest Civilian Award “BHARAT RATNA”

A. Lalu Prasad yadav of bihar

B. Late M.G. Ramachandran of Tamilnadu

C. Jyothi Basu of West Bengal

D. Late N.T Ramam Rao of Andhra Pradesh

 

Q. 93 Loosong is a festival celebrated in

A. Tibet

B. Arunachal pradesh

C. Sikkim

D. Kerela

 

Q. 94 The commodity for which India spends the largest amount of import is

A. food grains

B. crude petroleum

C. fertilisers

D. iron and steel

 

Q. 95 In which categories did marie curie win her 2 different nobel prizes

A. physics and chemistry

B. chemistry and medicine

C. physics and medicine

D. chemistry and peace

 

Q. 96 Michail Phelps won _____ gold medals in swimming events in beijing olympics

A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 9

 

Q. 97 Spot the odd one from the following .

A. Tarapur

B. Trombay

C. kalpakan

D. Narora

 

Q. 98 Which of the following players has the unique distinction of 50 doubles titles in ATP tour history ?

A. LEander PEas

B. Andy roddick

C. Novak Djockovic

D. roger Fedrer

 

Q. 99 As per 2011 census , the state with the largest gap in male and female literacy is

A. uttar pradesh

B. madhya pradesh

C. Rajasthan

D. kerela

 

Q. 100 Whihc among the following is termed as hot money ?

A. FII

B. FDI

C. ADR

D. GDR

 

Q. 101 What would be the sum of 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 15 + ……. up to 15th term?

A. 250

B. 240

C. 225

D. 265

 

Q. 102 The least number which when divided by 48, 64, 90, 120 will leave the remainders 38, 54, 80, 110 respectively, is

A. 2870

B. 2860

C. 2890

D. 2880

 

Q. 103 A, B, C subscribe together ` 50,000 for a business. A subscribes ` 4,000 more than B and B ` 5,000 more than C. Out of a total profit of ` 35,000, A receives

A. rs.` 8,500

B. rs.`11,998

C. rs.12,600

D. rs.14,700

 

Q. 104 If 1³+ 2³+ ……. + 9³ = 2025 then the approx. value of (0.11)³+ (0.22)³+ ……. + (0.99)³ is

A. 0.2695

B. 0.3695

C. 2.695

D. 3.695

 

Q. 105 With a two digit prime number, if 18 is added, we get another prime number with digits reversed. How many such numbers are possible?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 0

D. 1

 

Q. 106 X and Y can do a piece of work in 30 days. They work together for 6 days and then X quits and Y finishes the work in 32 more days. In how many days can Y do the piece of work alone?

A. 30 days

B. 32 days

C. 34 days

D. 40 days

 

Q. 107 A metal pipe of negligible thickness has radius 21 cm and length 90 cm. The outer curved surface area of the pipe in square cm is

A. 11880

B. 11680

C. 11480

D. 10080

 

Q. 108 A businessman allows a discount of 10% on the written price. How much above the cost price must he mark his goods to make a profit of 17%?

A. 30%

B. 20%

C. 27%

D. 18%

 

Q. 109 . 465 coins consists of 1 rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise coins. Their values are in the ratio 5: 3 : 1. The number of each type of coins respectively is

A. 155, 186, 124

B. 154, 187, 124

C. 154, 185, 126

D. 150, 140, 175

 

Q. 110 A batsman makes a score of 58 runs in the 15th innings and thus increases his average by 3 runs. What is the average after 15th inning?

A. 12

B. 14

C. 16

D. 18

 

Q. 111 The average of 5 consecutive numbers is n. If the next two numbers are also included, the average of the 7 numbers will

A. increase by 2

B. increase by 1

C. remain the same

D. increase by 1.4

 

Q. 112 A man sold an article at a loss of 20%. If he sells the article for rs.12 more, he would have gained 10%. The cost price of the article is

A. Rs.60

B. Rs.40

C. Rs.30

D. Rs.22

 

Q. 113 A trader has a weighing balance that shows 1,200 gm for a kilogram. He further marks up his cost price by 10%. Then the net profit percentage is

A. 32%

B. 23%

C. 31.75%

D. 23.5%

 

Q. 114 A car covers four successive 6 km stretches at speeds of 25 kmph, 50 kmph, 75 kmph and 150 kmph respectively. Its average speed over this distance is

A. 25 kmph

B. 50 kmph

C. 75 kmph

D. 150 kmph

 

Q. 115 The difference between C. I. (Compound Interest) and S.I. (Simple Interest) on a sum of Rs. 4,000 for 2 years at 5% p.a. payable yearly is

A. Rs.20

B. Rs.10

C. Rs. 50

D. Rs. 60

 

Q. 116 If x= 4ab/(a+b) i then the value of

A. a

B. b

C. 0

D. 2

 

Q. 117 If x = 997, y = 998, z = 999, then the value of x²+ y²+ z² – xy – yz – zx will be

A. 3

B. 9

C. 16

D. 4

 

Q. 118 The area (in sq. unit) of the triangle formed by the three graphs of the equations x = 4, y = 3, and 3x + 4y = 12, is

A. 12

B. 10

C. 6

D. 8

 

Q. 119 . If a + b + c = 8, then the value of (a – 4)³+ (b – 3)³+ (c – 1)³ – 3 (a – 4) (b – 3) (c – 1) is 

A. 2

B. 4

C. 1

D. 0

 

Q. 120 If x= √a+1/√a and y= √a-1/√a then the value of x⁴+ y⁴– 2x²2y²

A. 16

B. 20

C. 10

D. 5

 

Q. 121 Id 5a+(1/3a)= 5 then the value of 9a ² + 1/25a ² is

A. 51/5

B. 29/5

C. 52/5

D. 39/5

 

Q. 122 If x = +3+ 2√2 then the value of √x-1/√x is

A. ±2√2

B. ±2

C. ±√2

D. ±1/2

 

Q. 123 . If abc ++= 0 , the value of

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

 

Q. 124  If a, b, c are real and a³+ b³+ c³= 3ab and abc ++¹ 0, then the relation between a, b, c will be

A. a + b = c

B. a + c = b

C. a = c = b

D. b + c = a

 

Q. 125 The radius of the circumcircle of the triangle made by x-axis, y-axis and 4x + 3y = 12 is

A. 2 unit

B. 2.5 unit

C. 3 unit

D. 4 unit

 

Q. 126 The length of the circum-radius of a triangle having sides of lengths 12 cm, 16 cm and 20 cm is

A. 15 cm

B. 18 cm

C. 10 cm

D. 16 cm

 

Q. 127 If D is the mid-point of the side BC of triangle ABC and the area of trainagle ABD is 16 cm , then the area of trianagle ABC is

A. 16 cm^2

B. 24 cm ^2

C. 32 cm ^2

D. 48 cm ^2

 

Q. 128 ABC is a triangle. The medians CD and BE intersect each other at O. Then triangle ODE : D ABC is

A. 1 :3

B. 1: 4

C. 1: 6

D. 1 :12

 

Q. 129 If P, R, T are the area of a parallelogram, a rhombus and a triangle standing on the same base and between the same parallels, which of the following is true?

A. R < P < T

B. P > R > T

C. R = P = T

D. R = P = 2T

 

Q. 130 AB is a diameter of the circumcircle of D APB; N is the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point P on AB. If AP = 8 cm and BP = 6 cm, then the length of BN is

A. 3.6 cm

B. 3 cm

C. 3.4 cm

D. 3.5 cm

 

Q. 131 Two circles with same radius r intersect each other and one passes through the centre of the other. Then the length of the common chord is

A. r

B. √3r

C. √3/2 r

D. √5 r

 

Q. 132 The bisector of ÐA of DABC cuts BC at D and the circumcircle of the triangle at E. Then

A. AB : AC = BD : DC

B. AD : AC = AE : AB

C. AB : AD = AC : AE

D. AB : AD = AE : AC

 

Q. 133 Two circles intersect each other at P and Q. PA and PB are two diameters. Then ∠AQB is

A. 120°

B. 135°

C. 160°

D. 180°

 

Q. 134 O is the centre of the circle passing through the points A, B and C such that ∠BAO = 30°, ∠BCO = 40° and ∠AOC = x°. What is the value of x ?

A. 70°

B. 140°

C. 210°

D. 280°

 

Q. 135 A and B are centres of the two circles whose radii are 5 cm and 2 cm respectively. The direct common tangents to the circles meet AB extended at P. Then P divides AB

A. externally in the ratio 5 : 2

B. internally in the ratio 2 : 5

C. internally in the ratio 5 : 2

D. externally in the ratio 7 : 2

 

Q. 136 A wheel rotates 3.5 times in one second. What time (in seconds) does the wheel take to rotate 55 radian of angle?

A. 1.5

B. 2.5

C. 3.5

D. 4.5

 

Q. 137 If 2y cosθ = x sinθ and 2x secθ – y cosec θ= 3, then the relation between x and y is

A. 2x²+ y²= 2

B. x²+ 4y²= 4

C. x²+ 4y²= 1

D. 4x²+ y²= 4

 

Q. 138 if sec θ+ tan θ =√3 then the positive value of sinθ is

A. 0

B. 1/2

C. √3/2

D. 1

 

Q. 139 The radian measure of 63 °14′ 51″ is

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 140 In a triangle ABC, AB = AC, BA is produced to D in such a manner that AC = AD. The circular measure of triangle BCD is

A. π/6

B. π/3

C. 2π/3

D. π/2

 

Q. 141 Find the value of the given equation

A. 4

B. 0

C. 1/8

D. 1

 

Q. 142 what is the value of the equation

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 143 The angles of elevation of the top of a tower standing on a horizontal plane from two points on a line passing through the foot of the tower at a distance 9 ft and 16 ft respectively are complementary angles. Then the height of the tower is

A. 9 ft

B. 12 ft

C. 16 ft

D. 144 ft

 

Q. 144 If sin²a = cos³a, then the value of (cot⁶a – cot²a) is

A. 1

B. 0

C. -1

D. 2

 

Q. 145 The simplified value of (1 + tanq + secq) (1 + cotq – cosecq) is

A. -2

B. 2

C. 1

D. -1

 

The Following Pie-Chart represents the profits earned by a certain company in seven sonsecutive years. Study the pie-chart carefully and answer the question.

 

Q. 146 If the expenditure in the year 1993 was 30% more than the expenditure in the year 1991, then the income in the year 1993 exceeds the income in the year 1991 by 30% of

A. the income in the year 1991

B. the expenditure in the year 1993

C. the income in the year 1993

D. the expenditure in the year 1991

 

Q. 147 If x% of the total of profits earned in all the given years is same as the profit earned in the year 1994, then x is

A. 16(2/3)

B. 33(1/3)

C. 12(1/2)

D. 11(2/3)

 

Q. 148 The ratios of expenditures and incomes in the years 1992, 1994 and 1996 are given to be 6 : 5 : 8 and 2 : 3 : 4 respectively. The ratio of the income in the year 1996 to the total expenditure in the years 1992 and 1994 is

A. 40 :11

B. 10 : 7

C. 20:11

D. 20 : 13

 

Q. 149 The year in which the profit is nearest to the average of the profits earned in all the given years is

A. 1991

B. 1995

C. 1993

D. 1994

 

Q. 150 If the income in the year 1997 was 5 times the expenditure made in the same year, then the ratio of the profit earned in the year 1991 to the expenditure in the year 1997 was 

A. 11:28

B. 44 : 7

C. 28:11

D. 7 : 44

 

Q. 151 Air pollution, together with littering(A) are causing many problems(B) in our cities.(C ) No error.(D)

A. a

B. b

C. c

D. d

 

Q. 152 The accused refused (A) to answer to the policeman (B) on duty (C) No error.(D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 153 What is(A) the use of me(B) attending the session?(c) No error(D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 154 We met our prospective employer, (A) for a briefing session(B) n the Taj Hotel(C) nO ERROR (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 155 Because of the severe snow storm and the road blocks,(A) the air force dropped food and(B) medical supplies close to the city(C) nO ERROR (D)

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

 

Q. 156 . ______________ pollution control measures are expensive,many industries hesitate to adopt them

A. although

B. however

C. because

D. despite

 

Q. 157 It is not ______________ for a man to be confined to the pursuit of wealth.

A. healthy

B. easy

C. possible

D. common

 

Q. 158 ______________ his being innocent of the crime, the judge sentenced him to one year imprisonment.

A. inspite of

B. incase of

C. on account o f

D. in event of

 

Q. 159 It is a story of two men and a batch of ______________ armoured cars.

A. deceased

B. diseased

C. decrepit

D. defeated

 

Q. 160 Although there is ______________ gunfire, there is no stiff resistance to the revolutionary army

A. bitter

B. meagre

C. continuous

D. sporadic

 

Q. 161 choose the one which best expresses the meaning of Vociferous

A. violent

B. loud

C. secret

D. true

 

Q. 162 choose the one which best expresses the meaning of Fictional

A. genuine

B. authentic

C. fanciful

D. real

 

Q. 163 choose the one which best expresses the meaning of Trivial

A. crucial

B. significant

C. vital

D. ordinary

 

Q. 164 choose the one which best expresses the meaning of Impudent

A. vigilant

B. astute

C. Insolent

D. arrogant

 

Q. 165 choose the one which best expresses the meaning of Pompous

A. Pretentious

B. Supportive

C. Demanding

D. flashy

 

Q. 166 choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word Cultivated

A. crude

B. Genteel

C. Suave

D. Refined

 

Q. 167 choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word Impertinent

A. Insolent

B. Impudent

C. Cheeky

D. Courteous

 

Q. 168 choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word Divulge

A. Disseminate

B. Dissemble

C. Publicize

D. Transmit

 

Q. 169 choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word Appreciation

A. Aspersion

B. Admiration

C. Commendation

D. Compliment

 

Q. 170 choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word Supple

A. Pliant

B. Pliable

C. Rigid

D. Flexible

 

Q. 171 Once the case reached the court, the police washed their hands off it

A. waited for a response to

B. claimed credit for

C. disassociated themselves from

D. seemed eager to continue

 

Q. 172 She wanted to go hitch-hiking but her mother put her foot down and now she’s going by bus

A. took a firm stand

B. expressed her displeasure

C. scolded her badly

D. got irritated

 

Q. 173 Adolescence is a period of halcyon days

A. hard days

B. of mental pressure

C. happy days

D. days of preparation

 

Q. 174 My sincere advice to my maidservant fell on stony ground

A. was counter productive

B. had a strong impact

C. made on stubborn

D. had little success

 

Q. 175 He has all his ducks in a row; he is complacent.

A. has everything ready

B. is well organised

C. always scores a zero

D. never gets confused

 

Q. 176 You “shall have attended” if the court had instructed you to do so.

A. would have had to attend

B. would attend

C. would have to

D. No improvement

 

Q. 177 The relics of Greece “over which” such a great deal of evidence has been collected should be preserved.

A. from which

B. on which

C. ascent which

D. no improvement

 

Q. 178 When the beverage was ready, they drank “possibly as much as they could.”

A. as much as they possibly could

B. as much as possibly they could

C. as much as they could possibly

D. No improvement

 

Q. 179 A citizen is expected to give “allegiance” to his country of origin.

A. homage

B. loyalty

C. obedience

D. no improvement

 

Q. 180 We were “with” daggers drawn despite attempts to understandeach other.

A. in

B. on

C. at

D. no improvement

 

Q. 181 A round or cylindrical container used for storing things such as food, chemicals or rolls of film

A. tankard

B. canister

C. vessel

D. casket

 

Q. 182 A place of permanent residence

A. abode

B. dormitory

C. domicile

D. apartment

 

Q. 183 That cannot be altered or withdrawn 

A. irrevocable

B. irretrievable

C. irrefutable

D. irresistible

 

Q. 184 Money paid to employees on retirement

A. gratuity

B. gift

C. pension

D. arrears

 

Q. 185 A place where clothes are kept

A. closet

B. drawer

C. wardrobe

D. cupboard

 

Q. 186 Find the correctly spelt word

A. garulous

B. garrulous

C. garullous

D. garrullous

 

Q. 187 Find the correctly spelt word

A. marquee

B. markue

C. marquei

D. marquie

 

Q. 188 Find the correctly spelt word

A. puissant

B. puiscant

C. puiscent

D. puissent

 

Q. 189 Find the correctly spelt word

A. disconncerting

B. disconserting

C. discuncerting

D. disconcerting

 

Q. 190 Find the correctly spelt word

A. exilarate

B. exhilerate

C. exsilarate

D. exhilarate

 

Questions: 191 – 195

Stuck with the development dilemma? Stay away from management courses. Seriously, one of the biggest complaints that organisations have about management courses is that they fail to impact the participants’ on-the-job behaviour. Some management trainers stress the need for follow-up and reinforcement on the job. Some go so far as briefing the participants’ managers on what behaviour they should be reinforcing back on the job. Other include a follow-up training day to review the progress of the participants. None of this is really going far enough The real problem is that course promoters view development as something which primarily, takes place in a classroom. A course is an event and events are, by definition limited in time. When you talk about follow-up after a course, it is seen as a nice idea, but not as an essential part of the participants’ development programme. Any rational, empowered individual should be able to take what has been learnt in a course and transfer it to the work place – or so the argument goes. Another negative aspect of the course mindset is that, primarily, development is thought to be about skill-acquisition. So, it is felt that the distinction between taking the course and behaving differently in the work place parallels the distinction between skill-acquisition and skill-application. But can such a sharp distinction be maintained? Skills are really acquired only in the context of applying them on the job, finding them effective and, therefore, reinforcing them The problem with courses is that they are events, while development is an ongoing process which, involves, within a complex environment, continual interaction, regular feedback and adjustment. As we tend to equate development with a one-off event, it is difficult to get seriously motivated about the followup. Anyone paying for a course tends to look at follow-up as an unnecessary and rather costly frill.

 

Q. 191 What is the passage about?

A. personal management

B. development dilemma

C. management courses

D. course promotors’ attitude

 

Q. 192 Which of the following statements is false?

A. Some management trainers stress the need for followup and reinforcement on the job

B. Some suggest a follow-up training day to review the progress of the participants

C. Some go to the extent of briefing the participants’ managers on what behaviour they should be reinforcing back on the job

D. The real problem is that course promoters view development as something which does not take place during a course

 

Q. 193 The writer’s attitude, as reflected in the passage, is

A. critical

B. ironic

C. sympathetic

D. philosophical

 

Q. 194 The course promoters’ attitude is

A. self-righteous

B. ndifferent

C. easy-going

D. unprogressive

 

Q. 195 The word ‘mindset’ here means

A. a determined mind

B. a (fixed) attitude of mind

C. an open mind

D. mindful

 

Questions: 196 – 200

One may look at life, events, society, history, in another way. A way which might, at a stretch, be described as the Gandhian way, though it may be from times before Mahatma Gandhi came on the scene. The Gandhian reaction to all grim poverty, squalor and degradation of the human being would approximate to effort at selfchange and self-improvement, to a regime of living regulated by discipline from within. To change society, the individual must first change himself. In this way of looking at life and society, words too begin to mean differently. Revolution, for instance, is a term frequently used, but not always in the sense it has been in thelexicon of the militant. So also with words like peace and struggle. Even society may mean differently, being some kind of organic entity for the militant, and more or less a sum of individuals for the Gandhian. There is yet another way, which might, for want of a better description, be called the mystic. The mystic’s perspective measures these concerns that transcend political ambition and the dynamism of the reformer, whether he be militant or Gandhian. The mystic measures the terror of not knowing the remorseless march of time; he seeks to know what was before birth, what comes after death? The continuous presence of death, of the consciousness of death, sets his priorities and values: militants and Gandhians, kings and prophets, must leave all that they have built; all that they have unbuilt and depart when messengers of the buffaloriding Yama come out of the shadows. Water will to water, dust to dust. Think of impermanence. Everything passes.

 

Q. 196 The Gandhian reaction of poverty is

A. a total war on poverty

B. self-discipline

C. self-abnegation

D. a regulated distribution of wealth

 

Q. 197 According to Gandianism, the individual who wants to change society

A. should destroy the existing society

B. must re-form society

C. must change himself

D. may change society without changing himself

 

Q. 198 Who, according to the passage, finds new meaning for words like revolutions, peace and struggle?

A. A Gandhian who believes in non-violent revolution

B. A militant

C. A mystic

D. A Gandhian who disciplines himself from within

 

Q. 199 The expression ‘water will to water, dust to dust’ means

A. water and dust can mix well

B. man will become water after death

C. man will one day die and become dust

D. man will become dust and water after death

 

Q. 200 What does society mean to a Gandhian?

A. a sum of individuals

B. an organic entity

C. a regime of living regulated by discipline from within

D. a disciplined social community

 

 

Answer Sheet 
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer C D B D A D B C B B
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer D D A B C B C D B C
Question 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Answer D A A C B B B C D A
Question 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Answer C C C B A C C B C D
Question 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Answer A A D D D D B D C C
Question 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Answer C B C C B C B A D C
Question 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Answer D B D C B D D C C A
Question 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Answer B C A C B C D C D
Question 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Answer C A C C A B D D D A
Question 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Answer C A A B C B D A C
Question  101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Answer C A D C A D A A A C
Question  111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Answer B B A B B D A C D A
Question 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Answer D B B C B B C D D A
Question 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Answer B D D B A A B B A D
Question 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Answer D A B A B D A C A C
Question 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Answer B B B C D C A A C D
Question 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Answer B C A D B A D B A C
Question 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Answer C A C D B A C A B C
Question 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Answer B C A A C B A A D D
Question 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Answer C D A D B B C D C A

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